Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 10

PART 1030 TRUTH IN SAVINGS (REGULATION DD)

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4302-4304, 4308, 5512, 5581.

Source: 76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1030.1 Authority, purpose, coverage, and effect on state laws.

(a) Authority. This part, known as Regulation DD, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the Truth in Savings Act of 1991 (the act), contained in the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 3201 et seq., Public Law 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236), as amended by title X, section 1100B of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376). Information-collection requirements contained in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. and have been assigned OMB No. 3170-0004.

(b) Purpose. The purpose of this part is to enable consumers to make informed decisions about accounts at depository institutions. This part requires depository institutions to provide disclosures so that consumers can make meaningful comparisons among depository institutions.

(c) Coverage. This part applies to depository institutions except for credit unions. In addition, the advertising rules in § 1030.8 of this part apply to any person who advertises an account offered by a depository institution, including deposit brokers.

(d) Effect on state laws. State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements of the act and this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. Additional information on inconsistent state laws and the procedures for requesting a preemption determination from the Bureau are set forth in appendix C of this part.

(e) Relationship to Regulation CC. The Director of the Bureau and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System jointly issue regulations under sections 603(d)(1), 604, 605, and 609(a) of the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4002(d)(1), 4003, 4004, 4008(a)) that are codified within Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229).

[76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 31698, July 3, 2019]

§ 1030.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

(a) Account means a deposit account at a depository institution that is held by or offered to a consumer. It includes time, demand, savings, and negotiable order of withdrawal accounts. For purposes of the advertising requirements in § 1030.8 of this part, the term also includes an account at a depository institution that is held by or on behalf of a deposit broker, if any interest in the account is held by or offered to a consumer.

(b) Advertisement means a commercial message, appearing in any medium, that promotes directly or indirectly:

(1) The availability or terms of, or a deposit in, a new account; and

(2) For purposes of §§ 1030.8(a) and 1030.11 of this part, the terms of, or a deposit in, a new or existing account.

(c) Annual percentage yield means a percentage rate reflecting the total amount of interest paid on an account, based on the interest rate and the frequency of compounding for a 365-day period and calculated according to the rules in appendix A of this part.

(d) Average daily balance method means the application of a periodic rate to the average daily balance in the account for the period. The average daily balance is determined by adding the full amount of principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.

(e) Bureau means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.

(f) Bonus means a premium, gift, award, or other consideration worth more than $10 (whether in the form of cash, credit, merchandise, or any equivalent) given or offered to a consumer during a year in exchange for opening, maintaining, renewing, or increasing an account balance. The term does not include interest, other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, or the absorption of expenses.

(g) Business day means a calendar day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, or any of the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).

(h) Consumer means a natural person who holds an account primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, or to whom such an account is offered. The term does not include a natural person who holds an account for another in a professional capacity.

(i) Daily balance method means the application of a daily periodic rate to the full amount of principal in the account each day.

(j) Depository institution and institution mean an institution defined in section 19(b)(1)(A)(i) through (vi) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461), except credit unions defined in section 19(b)(1)(A)(iv).

(k) Deposit broker means any person who is a deposit broker as defined in section 29(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831f(g)).

(l) Fixed-rate account means an account for which the institution contracts to give at least 30 calendar days advance written notice of decreases in the interest rate.

(m) Grace period means a period following the maturity of an automatically renewing time account during which the consumer may withdraw funds without being assessed a penalty.

(n) Interest means any payment to a consumer or to an account for the use of funds in an account, calculated by application of a periodic rate to the balance. The term does not include the payment of a bonus or other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, or the absorption of expenses.

(o) Interest rate means the annual rate of interest paid on an account which does not reflect compounding. For the purposes of the account disclosures in § 1030.4(b)(1)(i) of this part, the interest rate may, but need not, be referred to as the “annual percentage rate” in addition to being referred to as the “interest rate.”

(p) Passbook savings account means a savings account in which the consumer retains a book or other document in which the institution records transactions on the account.

(q) Periodic statement means a statement setting forth information about an account (other than a time account or passbook savings account) that is provided to a consumer on a regular basis four or more times a year.

(r) State means a state, the District of Columbia, the commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States.

(s) Stepped-rate account means an account that has two or more interest rates that take effect in succeeding periods and are known when the account is opened.

(t) Tiered-rate account means an account that has two or more interest rates that are applicable to specified balance levels.

(u) Time account means an account with a maturity of at least seven days in which the consumer generally does not have a right to make withdrawals for six days after the account is opened, unless the deposit is subject to an early withdrawal penalty of at least seven days' interest on amounts withdrawn.

(v) Variable-rate account means an account in which the interest rate may change after the account is opened, unless the institution contracts to give at least 30 calendar days advance written notice of rate decreases.

§ 1030.3 General disclosure requirements.

(a) Form. Depository institutions shall make the disclosures required by §§ 1030.4 through 1030.6 of this part, as applicable, clearly and conspicuously, in writing, and in a form the consumer may keep. The disclosures required by this part may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 et seq.). The disclosures required by §§ 1030.4(a)(2) and 1030.8 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act in the circumstances set forth in those sections. Disclosures for each account offered by an institution may be presented separately or combined with disclosures for the institution's other accounts, as long as it is clear which disclosures are applicable to the consumer's account.

(b) General. The disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation of the account agreement between the consumer and the depository institution. Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided the disclosures are available in English upon request.

(c) Relation to Regulation E (12 CFR Part 1005). Disclosures required by and provided in accordance with the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693 et seq.) and its implementing Regulation E (12 CFR Part 1005) that are also required by this part may be substituted for the disclosures required by this part.

(d) Multiple consumers. If an account is held by more than one consumer, disclosures may be made to any one of the consumers.

(e) Oral response to inquiries. In an oral response to a consumer's inquiry about interest rates payable on its accounts, the depository institution shall state the annual percentage yield. The interest rate may be stated in addition to the annual percentage yield. No other rate may be stated.

(f) Rounding and accuracy rules for rates and yields—(1) Rounding. The annual percentage yield, the annual percentage yield earned, and the interest rate shall be rounded to the nearest one-hundredth of one percentage point (.01%) and expressed to two decimal places. For account disclosures, the interest rate may be expressed to more than two decimal places.

(2) Accuracy. The annual percentage yield (and the annual percentage yield earned) will be considered accurate if not more than one-twentieth of one percentage point (.05%) above or below the annual percentage yield (and the annual percentage yield earned) determined in accordance with the rules in appendix A of this part.

§ 1030.4 Account disclosures.

(a) Delivery of account disclosures—(1) Account opening—(i) General. A depository institution shall provide account disclosures to a consumer before an account is opened or a service is provided, whichever is earlier. An institution is deemed to have provided a service when a fee required to be disclosed is assessed. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, if the consumer is not present at the institution when the account is opened or the service is provided and has not already received the disclosures, the institution shall mail or deliver the disclosures no later than 10 business days after the account is opened or the service is provided, whichever is earlier.

(ii) Timing of electronic disclosures. If a consumer who is not present at the institution uses electronic means (for example, an Internet Web site) to open an account or request a service, the disclosures required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be provided before the account is opened or the service is provided.

(2) Requests. (i) A depository institution shall provide account disclosures to a consumer upon request. If a consumer who is not present at the institution makes a request, the institution shall mail or deliver the disclosures within a reasonable time after it receives the request and may provide the disclosures in paper form, or electronically if the consumer agrees.

(ii) In providing disclosures upon request, the institution may:

(A) Specify an interest rate and annual percentage yield that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days; state that the rate and yield are accurate as of an identified date; and provide a telephone number consumers may call to obtain current rate information.

(B) State the maturity of a time account as a term rather than a date.

(b) Content of account disclosures. Account disclosures shall include the following, as applicable:

(1) Rate information—(i) Annual percentage yield and interest rate. The “annual percentage yield” and the “interest rate,” using those terms, and for fixed-rate accounts the period of time the interest rate will be in effect.

(ii) Variable rates. For variable-rate accounts:

(A) The fact that the interest rate and annual percentage yield may change;

(B) How the interest rate is determined;

(C) The frequency with which the interest rate may change; and

(D) Any limitation on the amount the interest rate may change.

(2) Compounding and crediting—(i) Frequency. The frequency with which interest is compounded and credited.

(ii) Effect of closing an account. If consumers will forfeit interest if they close the account before accrued interest is credited, a statement that interest will not be paid in such cases.

(3) Balance information—(i) Minimum balance requirements. (A) Any minimum balance required to:

(1) Open the account;

(2) Avoid the imposition of a fee; or

(3) Obtain the annual percentage yield disclosed.

(B) Except for the balance to open the account, the disclosure shall state how the balance is determined for these purposes.

(ii) Balance computation method. An explanation of the balance computation method specified in § 1030.7 of this part used to calculate interest on the account.

(iii) When interest begins to accrue. A statement of when interest begins to accrue on noncash deposits.

(4) Fees. The amount of any fee that may be imposed in connection with the account (or an explanation of how the fee will be determined) and the conditions under which the fee may be imposed.

(5) Transaction limitations. Any limitations on the number or dollar amount of withdrawals or deposits.

(6) Features of time accounts. For time accounts:

(i) Time requirements. The maturity date.

(ii) Early withdrawal penalties. A statement that a penalty will or may be imposed for early withdrawal, how it is calculated, and the conditions for its assessment.

(iii) Withdrawal of interest prior to maturity. If compounding occurs during the term and interest may be withdrawn prior to maturity, a statement that the annual percentage yield assumes interest remains on deposit until maturity and that a withdrawal will reduce earnings. For accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year that do not compound interest on an annual or more frequent basis, that require interest payouts at least annually, and that disclose an APY determined in accordance with section E of appendix A of this part, a statement that interest cannot remain on deposit and that payout of interest is mandatory.

(iv) Renewal policies. A statement of whether or not the account will renew automatically at maturity. If it will, a statement of whether or not a grace period will be provided and, if so, the length of that period must be stated. If the account will not renew automatically, a statement of whether interest will be paid after maturity if the consumer does not renew the account must be stated.

(7) Bonuses. The amount or type of any bonus, when the bonus will be provided, and any minimum balance and time requirements to obtain the bonus.

(c) Notice to existing account holders—(1) Notice of availability of disclosures. Depository institutions shall provide a notice to consumers who receive periodic statements and who hold existing accounts of the type offered by the institution on June 21, 1993. The notice shall be included on or with the first periodic statement sent on or after June 21, 1993 (or on or with the first periodic statement for a statement cycle beginning on or after that date). The notice shall state that consumers may request account disclosures containing terms, fees, and rate information for their account. In responding to such a request, institutions shall provide disclosures in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(2) Alternative to notice. As an alternative to the notice described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, institutions may provide account disclosures to consumers. The disclosures may be provided either with a periodic statement or separately, but must be sent no later than when the periodic statement described in paragraph (c)(1) is sent.

§ 1030.5 Subsequent disclosures.

(a) Change in terms—(1) Advance notice required. A depository institution shall give advance notice to affected consumers of any change in a term required to be disclosed under § 1030.4(b) of this part if the change may reduce the annual percentage yield or adversely affect the consumer. The notice shall include the effective date of the change. The notice shall be mailed or delivered at least 30 calendar days before the effective date of the change.

(2) No notice required. No notice under this section is required for:

(i) Variable-rate changes. Changes in the interest rate and corresponding changes in the annual percentage yield in variable-rate accounts.

(ii) Check printing fees. Changes in fees assessed for check printing.

(iii) Short-term time accounts. Changes in any term for time accounts with maturities of one month or less.

(b) Notice before maturity for time accounts longer than one month that renew automatically. For time accounts with a maturity longer than one month that renew automatically at maturity, institutions shall provide the disclosures described below before maturity. The disclosures shall be mailed or delivered at least 30 calendar days before maturity of the existing account. Alternatively, the disclosures may be mailed or delivered at least 20 calendar days before the end of the grace period on the existing account, provided a grace period of at least five calendar days is allowed.

(1) Maturities of longer than one year. If the maturity is longer than one year, the institution shall provide account disclosures set forth in § 1030.4(b) of this part for the new account, along with the date the existing account matures. If the interest rate and annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account are unknown when disclosures are provided, the institution shall state that those rates have not yet been determined, the date when they will be determined, and a telephone number consumers may call to obtain the interest rate and the annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account.

(2) Maturities of one year or less but longer than one month. If the maturity is one year or less but longer than one month, the institution shall either:

(i) Provide disclosures as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; or

(ii) Disclose to the consumer:

(A) The date the existing account matures and the new maturity date if the account is renewed;

(B) The interest rate and the annual percentage yield for the new account if they are known (or that those rates have not yet been determined, the date when they will be determined, and a telephone number the consumer may call to obtain the interest rate and the annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account); and

(C) Any difference in the terms of the new account as compared to the terms required to be disclosed under § 1030.4(b) of this part for the existing account.

(c) Notice before maturity for time accounts longer than one year that do not renew automatically. For time accounts with a maturity longer than one year that do not renew automatically at maturity, institutions shall disclose to consumers the maturity date and whether interest will be paid after maturity. The disclosures shall be mailed or delivered at least 10 calendar days before maturity of the existing account.

§ 1030.6 Periodic statement disclosures.

(a) General rule. If a depository institution mails or delivers a periodic statement, the statement shall include the following disclosures:

(1) Annual percentage yield earned. The “annual percentage yield earned” during the statement period, using that term, calculated according to the rules in appendix A of this part.

(2) Amount of interest. The dollar amount of interest earned during the statement period.

(3) Fees imposed. Fees required to be disclosed under § 1030.4(b)(4) of this part that were debited to the account during the statement period. The fees shall be itemized by type and dollar amounts. Except as provided in § 1030.11(a)(1) of this part, when fees of the same type are imposed more than once in a statement period, a depository institution may itemize each fee separately or group the fees together and disclose a total dollar amount for all fees of that type.

(4) Length of period. The total number of days in the statement period, or the beginning and ending dates of the period.

(5) Aggregate fee disclosure. If applicable, the total overdraft and returned item fees required to be disclosed by § 1030.11(a).

(b) Special rule for average daily balance method. In making the disclosures described in paragraph (a) of this section, institutions that use the average daily balance method and that calculate interest for a period other than the statement period shall calculate and disclose the annual percentage yield earned and amount of interest earned based on that period rather than the statement period. The information in paragraph (a)(4) of this section shall be stated for that period as well as for the statement period.

§ 1030.7 Payment of interest.

(a) Permissible methods—(1) Balance on which interest is calculated. Institutions shall calculate interest on the full amount of principal in an account for each day by use of either the daily balance method or the average daily balance method. Institutions shall calculate interest by use of a daily rate of at least 1/365 of the interest rate. In a leap year a daily rate of 1/366 of the interest rate may be used.

(2) Determination of minimum balance to earn interest. An institution shall use the same method to determine any minimum balance required to earn interest as it uses to determine the balance on which interest is calculated. An institution may use an additional method that is unequivocally beneficial to the consumer.

(b) Compounding and crediting policies. This section does not require institutions to compound or credit interest at any particular frequency.

(c) Date interest begins to accrue. Interest shall begin to accrue not later than the business day specified for interest-bearing accounts in section 606 of the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4005) and in § 229.14 of that act's implementing Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229). Interest shall accrue until the day funds are withdrawn.

[76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 31698, July 3, 2019]

§ 1030.8 Advertising.

(a) Misleading or inaccurate advertisements. An advertisement shall not:

(1) Be misleading or inaccurate or misrepresent a depository institution's deposit contract; or

(2) Refer to or describe an account as “free” or “no cost” (or contain a similar term) if any maintenance or activity fee may be imposed on the account. The word “profit” shall not be used in referring to interest paid on an account.

(b) Permissible rates. If an advertisement states a rate of return, it shall state the rate as an “annual percentage yield” using that term. (The abbreviation “APY” may be used provided the term “annual percentage yield” is stated at least once in the advertisement.) The advertisement shall not state any other rate, except that the “interest rate,” using that term, may be stated in conjunction with, but not more conspicuously than, the annual percentage yield to which it relates.

(c) When additional disclosures are required. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if the annual percentage yield is stated in an advertisement, the advertisement shall state the following information, to the extent applicable, clearly and conspicuously:

(1) Variable rates. For variable-rate accounts, a statement that the rate may change after the account is opened.

(2) Time annual percentage yield is offered. The period of time the annual percentage yield will be offered, or a statement that the annual percentage yield is accurate as of a specified date.

(3) Minimum balance. The minimum balance required to obtain the advertised annual percentage yield. For tiered-rate accounts, the minimum balance required for each tier shall be stated in close proximity and with equal prominence to the applicable annual percentage yield.

(4) Minimum opening deposit. The minimum deposit required to open the account, if it is greater than the minimum balance necessary to obtain the advertised annual percentage yield.

(5) Effect of fees. A statement that fees could reduce the earnings on the account.

(6) Features of time accounts. For time accounts:

(i) Time requirements. The term of the account.

(ii) Early withdrawal penalties: A statement that a penalty will or may be imposed for early withdrawal.

(iii) Required interest payouts. For noncompounding time accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year that do not compound interest on an annual or more frequent basis, that require interest payouts at least annually, and that disclose an APY determined in accordance with section E of appendix A of this part, a statement that interest cannot remain on deposit and that payout of interest is mandatory.

(d) Bonuses. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if a bonus is stated in an advertisement, the advertisement shall state the following information, to the extent applicable, clearly and conspicuously:

(1) The “annual percentage yield,” using that term;

(2) The time requirement to obtain the bonus;

(3) The minimum balance required to obtain the bonus;

(4) The minimum balance required to open the account, if it is greater than the minimum balance necessary to obtain the bonus; and

(5) When the bonus will be provided.

(e) Exemption for certain advertisements—(1) Certain media. If an advertisement is made through one of the following media, it need not contain the information in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(4), (c)(5), (c)(6)(ii), (d)(4), and (d)(5) of this section:

(i) Broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio;

(ii) Outdoor media, such as billboards; or

(iii) Telephone response machines.

(2) Indoor signs. (i) Signs inside the premises of a depository institution (or the premises of a deposit broker) are not subject to paragraphs (b), (c), (d) or (e)(1) of this section.

(ii) If a sign exempt by paragraph (e)(2) of this section states a rate of return, it shall:

(A) State the rate as an “annual percentage yield,” using that term or the term “APY.” The sign shall not state any other rate, except that the interest rate may be stated in conjunction with the annual percentage yield to which it relates.

(B) Contain a statement advising consumers to contact an employee for further information about applicable fees and terms.

(f) Additional disclosures in connection with the payment of overdrafts. Institutions that promote the payment of overdrafts in an advertisement shall include in the advertisement the disclosures required by § 1030.11(b) of this part.

§ 1030.9 Enforcement and record retention.

(a) Administrative enforcement. Section 270 of the act (12 U.S.C. 4309) contains the provisions relating to administrative sanctions for failure to comply with the requirements of the act and this part. Compliance is enforced by the agencies listed in that section.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) Record retention. A depository institution shall retain evidence of compliance with this part for a minimum of two years after the date disclosures are required to be made or action is required to be taken. The administrative agencies responsible for enforcing this part may require depository institutions under their jurisdiction to retain records for a longer period if necessary to carry out their enforcement responsibilities under section 270 of the act.

§ 1030.10 [Reserved]

§ 1030.11 Additional disclosure requirements for overdraft services.

(a) Disclosure of total fees on periodic statements—(1) General. A depository institution must separately disclose on each periodic statement, as applicable:

(i) The total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for paying checks or other items when there are insufficient or unavailable funds and the account becomes overdrawn, using the term “Total Overdraft Fees;” and

(ii) The total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for returning items unpaid.

(2) Totals required. The disclosures required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be provided for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date;

(3) Format requirements. The aggregate fee disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be disclosed in close proximity to fees identified under § 1030.6(a)(3), using a format substantially similar to Sample Form B-10 in appendix B to this part.

(b) Advertising disclosures for overdraft services—(1) Disclosures. Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) through (4) of this section, any advertisement promoting the payment of overdrafts shall disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner:

(i) The fee or fees for the payment of each overdraft;

(ii) The categories of transactions for which a fee for paying an overdraft may be imposed;

(iii) The time period by which the consumer must repay or cover any overdraft; and

(iv) The circumstances under which the institution will not pay an overdraft.

(2) Communications about the payment of overdrafts not subject to additional advertising disclosures. Paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to:

(i) An advertisement promoting a service where the institution's payment of overdrafts will be agreed upon in writing and subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026);

(ii) A communication by an institution about the payment of overdrafts in response to a consumer-initiated inquiry about deposit accounts or overdrafts. Providing information about the payment of overdrafts in response to a balance inquiry made through an automated system, such as a telephone response machine, ATM, or an institution's Internet site, is not a response to a consumer-initiated inquiry for purposes of this paragraph;

(iii) An advertisement made through broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio;

(iv) An advertisement made on outdoor media, such as billboards;

(v) An ATM receipt;

(vi) An in-person discussion with a consumer;

(vii) Disclosures required by federal or other applicable law;

(viii) Information included on a periodic statement or a notice informing a consumer about a specific overdrawn item or the amount the account is overdrawn;

(ix) A term in a deposit account agreement discussing the institution's right to pay overdrafts;

(x) A notice provided to a consumer, such as at an ATM, that completing a requested transaction may trigger a fee for overdrawing an account, or a general notice that items overdrawing an account may trigger a fee;

(xi) Informational or educational materials concerning the payment of overdrafts if the materials do not specifically describe the institution's overdraft service; or

(xii) An opt-out or opt-in notice regarding the institution's payment of overdrafts or provision of discretionary overdraft services.

(3) Exception for ATM screens and telephone response machines. The disclosures described in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iv) of this section are not required in connection with any advertisement made on an ATM screen or using a telephone response machine.

(4) Exception for indoor signs. Paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to advertisements for the payment of overdrafts on indoor signs as described by § 1030.8(e)(2) of this part, provided that the sign contains a clear and conspicuous statement that fees may apply and that consumers should contact an employee for further information about applicable fees and terms. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4), an indoor sign does not include an ATM screen.

(c) Disclosure of account balances. If an institution discloses balance information to a consumer through an automated system, the balance may not include additional amounts that the institution may provide to cover an item when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the consumer's account, whether under a service provided in its discretion, a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), or a service to transfer funds from another account of the consumer. The institution may, at its option, disclose additional account balances that include such additional amounts, if the institution prominently state s that any such balance includes such additional amounts and, if applicable, that additional amounts are not available for all transactions.

Appendix A to Part 1030 Annual Percentage Yield Calculation

The annual percentage yield measures the total amount of interest paid on an account based on the interest rate and the frequency of compounding. The annual percentage yield reflects only interest and does not include the value of any bonus (or other consideration worth $10 or less) that may be provided to the consumer to open, maintain, increase or renew an account. Interest or other earnings are not to be included in the annual percentage yield if such amounts are determined by circumstances that may or may not occur in the future. The annual percentage yield is expressed as an annualized rate, based on a 365-day year. Institutions may calculate the annual percentage yield based on a 365-day or a 366-day year in a leap year. Part I of this appendix discusses the annual percentage yield calculations for account disclosures and advertisements, while part II discusses annual percentage yield earned calculations for periodic statements.

Part I. Annual Percentage Yield for Account Disclosures and Advertising Purposes

In general, the annual percentage yield for account disclosures under §§ 1030.4 and 1030.5 and for advertising under § 1030.8 is an annualized rate that reflects the relationship between the amount of interest that would be earned by the consumer for the term of the account and the amount of principal used to calculate that interest. Special rules apply to accounts with tiered and stepped interest rates, and to certain time accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year.

A. General Rules

Except as provided in part I.E. of this appendix, the annual percentage yield shall be calculated by the formula shown below. Institutions shall calculate the annual percentage yield based on the actual number of days in the term of the account. For accounts without a stated maturity date (such as a typical savings or transaction account), the calculation shall be based on an assumed term of 365 days. In determining the total interest figure to be used in the formula, institutions shall assume that all principal and interest remain on deposit for the entire term and that no other transactions (deposits or withdrawals) occur during the term. This assumption shall not be used if an institution requires, as a condition of the account, that consumers withdraw interest during the term. In such a case, the interest (and annual percentage yield calculation) shall reflect that requirement. For time accounts that are offered in multiples of months, institutions may base the number of days on either the actual number of days during the applicable period, or the number of days that would occur for any actual sequence of that many calendar months. If institutions choose to use the latter rule, they must use the same number of days to calculate the dollar amount of interest earned on the account that is used in the annual percentage yield formula (where “Interest” is divided by “Principal”).

The annual percentage yield is calculated by use of the following general formula (“APY” is used for convenience in the formulas):

APY=100 [(1+Interest/Principal)(365/Days in term)−1]

“Principal” is the amount of funds assumed to have been deposited at the beginning of the account.

“Interest” is the total dollar amount of interest earned on the Principal for the term of the account.

“Days in term” is the actual number of days in the term of the account. When the “days in term” is 365 (that is, where the stated maturity is 365 days or where the account does not have a stated maturity), the annual percentage yield can be calculated by use of the following simple formula:

APY=100 (Interest/Principal)

Examples:

(1) If an institution pays $61.68 in interest for a 365-day year on $1,000 deposited into a NOW account, using the general formula above, the annual percentage yield is 6.17%:

APY=100[(1+61.68/1,000)(365/365)−1]

APY=6.17%

Or, using the simple formula above (since, as an account without a stated term, the term is deemed to be 365 days):

APY=100(61.68/1,000)

APY=6.17%

(2) If an institution pays $30.37 in interest on a $1,000 six-month certificate of deposit (where the six-month period used by the institution contains 182 days), using the general formula above, the annual percentage yield is 6.18%:

APY=100[(1+30.37/1,000)(365/182)−1]

APY=6.18%

B. Stepped-Rate Accounts (Different Rates Apply in Succeeding Periods)

For accounts with two or more interest rates applied in succeeding periods (where the rates are known at the time the account is opened), an institution shall assume each interest rate is in effect for the length of time provided for in the deposit contract.

Examples:

(1) If an institution offers a $1,000 6-month certificate of deposit on which it pays a 5% interest rate, compounded daily, for the first three months (which contain 91 days), and a 5.5% interest rate, compounded daily, for the next three months (which contain 92 days), the total interest for six months is $26.68 and, using the general formula above, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%:

APY=100[(1+26.68/1,000)(365/183)−1]

APY=5.39%

(2) If an institution offers a $1,000 two-year certificate of deposit on which it pays a 6% interest rate, compounded daily, for the first year, and a 6.5% interest rate, compounded daily, for the next year, the total interest for two years is $133.13, and, using the general formula above, the annual percentage yield is 6.45%:

APY=100[(1+133.13/1,000)(365/730)−1]

APY=6.45%

C. Variable-Rate Accounts

For variable-rate accounts without an introductory premium or discounted rate, an institution must base the calculation only on the initial interest rate in effect when the account is opened (or advertised), and assume that this rate will not change during the year.

Variable-rate accounts with an introductory premium (or discount) rate must be calculated like a stepped-rate account. Thus, an institution shall assume that:

(1) The introductory interest rate is in effect for the length of time provided for in the deposit contract; and

(2) The variable interest rate that would have been in effect when the account is opened or advertised (but for the introductory rate) is in effect for the remainder of the year. If the variable rate is tied to an index, the index-based rate in effect at the time of disclosure must be used for the remainder of the year. If the rate is not tied to an index, the rate in effect for existing consumers holding the same account (who are not receiving the introductory interest rate) must be used for the remainder of the year.

For example, if an institution offers an account on which it pays a 7% interest rate, compounded daily, for the first three months (which, for example, contain 91 days), while the variable interest rate that would have been in effect when the account was opened was 5%, the total interest for a 365-day year for a $1,000 deposit is $56.52 (based on 91 days at 7% followed by 274 days at 5%). Using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield is 5.65%:

APY=100(56.52/1,000)

APY=5.65%

D. Tiered-Rate Accounts (Different Rates Apply to Specified Balance Levels)

For accounts in which two or more interest rates paid on the account are applicable to specified balance levels, the institution must calculate the annual percentage yield in accordance with the method described below that it uses to calculate interest. In all cases, an annual percentage yield (or a range of annual percentage yields, if appropriate) must be disclosed for each balance tier.

For purposes of the examples discussed below, assume the following:

Interest rate (percent) | Deposit balance required to earn rate

5.25 | Up to but not exceeding $2,500.

5.50 | Above $2,500 but not exceeding $15,000.

5.75 | Above $15,000.

Tiering Method A. (1) Under this method, an institution pays on the full balance in the account the stated interest rate that corresponds to the applicable deposit tier. For example, if a consumer deposits $8,000, the institution pays the 5.50% interest rate on the entire $8,000.

When this method is used to determine interest, only one annual percentage yield will apply to each tier. Within each tier, the annual percentage yield will not vary with the amount of principal assumed to have been deposited.

For the interest rates and deposit balances assumed above, the institution will state three annual percentage yields—one corresponding to each balance tier. Calculation of each annual percentage yield is similar for this type of account as for accounts with a single interest rate. Thus, the calculation is based on the total amount of interest that would be received by the consumer for each tier of the account for a year and the principal assumed to have been deposited to earn that amount of interest.

First tier. Assuming daily compounding, the institution will pay $53.90 in interest on a $1,000 deposit. Using the general formula, for the first tier, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%:

APY=100[(1+53.90/1,000)(365/365)−1]

APY=5.39%

Using the simple formula:

APY=100(53.90/1,000)

APY=5.39%

Second tier. The institution will pay $452.29 in interest on an $8,000 deposit. Thus, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield for the second tier is 5.65%:

APY=100(452.29/8,000)

APY=5.65%

Third tier. The institution will pay $1,183.61 in interest on a $20,000 deposit. Thus, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield for the third tier is 5.92%:

APY=100(1,183.61/20,000)

APY=5.92%

Tiering Method B. Under this method, an institution pays the stated interest rate only on that portion of the balance within the specified tier. For example, if a consumer deposits $8,000, the institution pays 5.25% on $2,500 and 5.50% on $5,500 (the difference between $8,000 and the first tier cut-off of $2,500).

The institution that computes interest in this manner must provide a range that shows the lowest and the highest annual percentage yields for each tier (other than for the first tier, which, like the tiers in Method A, has the same annual percentage yield throughout). The low figure for an annual percentage yield range is calculated based on the total amount of interest earned for a year assuming the minimum principal required to earn the interest rate for that tier. The high figure for an annual percentage yield range is based on the amount of interest the institution would pay on the highest principal that could be deposited to earn that same interest rate. If the account does not have a limit on the maximum amount that can be deposited, the institution may assume any amount.

For the tiering structure assumed above, the institution would state a total of five annual percentage yields—one figure for the first tier and two figures stated as a range for the other two tiers.

First tier. Assuming daily compounding, the institution would pay $53.90 in interest on a $1,000 deposit. For this first tier, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%:

APY=100(53.90/1,000)

APY=5.39%

Second tier. For the second tier, the institution would pay between $134.75 and $841.45 in interest, based on assumed balances of $2,500.01 and $15,000, respectively. For $2,500.01, interest would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% interest rate plus interest on $.01 at 5.50%. For the low end of the second tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%, using the simple formula:

APY=100(134.75/2,500)

APY=5.39%

For $15,000, interest is figured on $2,500 at 5.25% interest rate plus interest on $12,500 at 5.50% interest rate. For the high end of the second tier, the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.61%:

APY=100(841.45/15,000)

APY=5.61%

Thus, the annual percentage yield range for the second tier is 5.39% to 5.61%.

Third tier. For the third tier, the institution would pay $841.45 in interest on the low end of the third tier (a balance of $15,000.01). For $15,000.01, interest would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% interest rate, plus interest on $12,500 at 5.50% interest rate, plus interest on $.01 at 5.75% interest rate. For the low end of the third tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield (using the simple formula) is 5.61%:

APY=100 (841.45/15,000)

APY=5.61%

Since the institution does not limit the account balance, it may assume any maximum amount for the purposes of computing the annual percentage yield for the high end of the third tier. For an assumed maximum balance amount of $100,000, interest would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% interest rate, plus interest on $12,500 at 5.50% interest rate, plus interest on $85,000 at 5.75% interest rate. For the high end of the third tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.87%.

APY=100 (5,871.79/100,000)

APY=5.87%

Thus, the annual percentage yield range that would be stated for the third tier is 5.61% to 5.87%.

If the assumed maximum balance amount is $1,000,000 instead of $100,000, the institution would use $985,000 rather than $85,000 in the last calculation. In that case, for the high end of the third tier the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.91%:

APY=100 (59134.22/1,000,000)

APY=5.91%

Thus, the annual percentage yield range that would be stated for the third tier is 5.61% to 5.91%.

E. Time Accounts With a Stated Maturity Greater Than One Year That Pay Interest at Least Annually

1. For time accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year that do not compound interest on an annual or more frequent basis, and that require the consumer to withdraw interest at least annually, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as equal to the interest rate.

Example

(1) If an institution offers a $1,000 two-year certificate of deposit that does not compound and that pays out interest semi-annually by check or transfer at a 6.00% interest rate, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as 6.00%.

(2) For time accounts covered by this paragraph that are also stepped-rate accounts, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as equal to the composite interest rate.

Example

(1) If an institution offers a $1,000 three-year certificate of deposit that does not compound and that pays out interest annually by check or transfer at a 5.00% interest rate for the first year, 6.00% interest rate for the second year, and 7.00% interest rate for the third year, the institution may compute the composite interest rate and APY as follows:

(a) Multiply each interest rate by the number of days it will be in effect;

(b) Add these figures together; and

(c) Divide by the total number of days in the term.

(2) Applied to the example, the products of the interest rates and days the rates are in effect are (5.00%×365 days) 1825, (6.00%×365 days) 2190, and (7.00%×365 days) 2555, respectively. The sum of these products, 6570, is divided by 1095, the total number of days in the term. The composite interest rate and APY are both 6.00%.

Part II. Annual Percentage Yield Earned for Periodic Statements

The annual percentage yield earned for periodic statements under § 1030.6(a) is an annualized rate that reflects the relationship between the amount of interest actually earned on the consumer's account during the statement period and the average daily balance in the account for the statement period. Pursuant to § 1030.6(b), however, if an institution uses the average daily balance method and calculates interest for a period other than the statement period, the annual percentage yield earned shall reflect the relationship between the amount of interest earned and the average daily balance in the account for that other period.

The annual percentage yield earned shall be calculated by using the following formulas (“APY Earned” is used for convenience in the formulas):

A. General Formula

APY Earned=100 [(1+Interest earned/Balance)(365/Days in period)−1]

“Balance” is the average daily balance in the account for the period.

“Interest earned” is the actual amount of interest earned on the account for the period.

“Days in period” is the actual number of days for the period.

Examples

(1) Assume an institution calculates interest for the statement period (and uses either the daily balance or the average daily balance method), and the account has a balance of $1,500 for 15 days and a balance of $500 for the remaining 15 days of a 30-day statement period. The average daily balance for the period is $1,000. The interest earned (under either balance computation method) is $5.25 during the period. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 6.58%:

APY Earned=100 [(1+5.25/1,000)(365/30)−1]

APY Earned=6.58%

(2) Assume an institution calculates interest on the average daily balance for the calendar month and provides periodic statements that cover the period from the 16th of one month to the 15th of the next month. The account has a balance of $2,000 September 1 through September 15 and a balance of $1,000 for the remaining 15 days of September. The average daily balance for the month of September is $1,500, which results in $6.50 in interest earned for the month. The annual percentage yield earned for the month of September would be shown on the periodic statement covering September 16 through October 15. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 5.40%:

APY Earned=100 [(6.50/1,500)(365/30)−1]

APY Earned=5.40%

(3) Assume an institution calculates interest on the average daily balance for a quarter (for example, the calendar months of September through November), and provides monthly periodic statements covering calendar months. The account has a balance of $1,000 throughout the 30 days of September, a balance of $2,000 throughout the 31 days of October, and a balance of $3,000 throughout the 30 days of November. The average daily balance for the quarter is $2,000, which results in $21 in interest earned for the quarter. The annual percentage yield earned would be shown on the periodic statement for November. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 4.28%:

APY Earned=100 [(1+21/2,000) (365/91)−1]

APY Earned=4.28%

B. Special Formula for Use Where Periodic Statement Is Sent More Often Than the Period for Which Interest Is Compounded

Institutions that use the daily balance method to accrue interest and that issue periodic statements more often than the period for which interest is compounded shall use the following special formula:

The following definition applies for use in this formula (all other terms are defined under part II):

“Compounding” is the number of days in each compounding period.

Assume an institution calculates interest for the statement period using the daily balance method, pays a 5.00% interest rate, compounded annually, and provides periodic statements for each monthly cycle. The account has a daily balance of $1,000 for a 30-day statement period. The interest earned is $4.11 for the period, and the annual percentage yield earned (using the special formula above) is 5.00%:

APY Earned=5.00%

[84 FR 31698, July 3, 2019]

Appendix B to Part 1030 Model Clauses and Sample Forms

Table of Contents

B-1—Model Clauses for Account Disclosures (Section 1030.4(b))

B-2—Model Clauses for Change in Terms (Section 1030.5(a))

B-3—Model Clauses for Pre-Maturity Notices for Time Accounts (Section 1030.5(b)(2) and 1030.5(d))

B-4—Sample Form (Multiple Accounts)

B-5—Sample Form (Now Account)

B-6—Sample Form (Tiered Rate Money Market Account)

B-7—Sample Form (Certificate of Deposit)

B-8—Sample Form (Certificate of Deposit Advertisement)

B-9—Sample Form (Money Market Account Advertisement)

B-10—Sample Form (Aggregate Overdraft and Returned Item Fees)

B-1—Model Clauses for Account Disclosures

(a) Rate Information

(i) Fixed-Rate Accounts

The interest rate on your account is ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%. You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days].

(ii) Variable-Rate Accounts

The interest rate on your account is ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.

Your interest rate and annual percentage yield may change.

Determination of Rate

The interest rate on your account is based on (name of index) [plus/minus a margin of ____]; or

At our discretion, we may change the interest rate on your account.

Frequency of Rate Changes

We may change the interest rate on your account [every (time period)/at any time].

Limitations on Rate Changes

The interest rate for your account will never change by more than ____% each (time period).

The interest rate will never be [less/more] than ____%; or

The interest rate will never [exceed____% above/drop more than ____% below] the interest rate initially disclosed to you.

(iii) Stepped-Rate Accounts

The initial interest rate for your account is ____%. You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)]. After that time, the interest rate for your account will be ____%, and you will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)]. The annual percentage yield for your account is ____%.

(iv) Tiered-Rate Accounts

Tiering Method A

• If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $____ or more, the interest rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of __%.

• If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is more than $____, but less than $____, the interest rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.

• If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $____ or less, the interest rate paid on the entire balance will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.

Tiering Method B

• An interest rate of ____% will be paid only for that portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $____. The annual percentage yield for this tier will range from ____% to ____%, depending on the balance in the account.

• An interest rate of ____% will be paid only for that portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $____. The annual percentage yield for this tier will range from ____% to ____%, depending on the balance in the account.

• If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $____ or less, the interest rate paid on the entire balance will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.

(b) Compounding and Crediting

(i) Frequency

Interest will be compounded [on a ____ basis/every (time period)]. Interest will be credited to your account [on a ____ basis/every (time period)].

(ii) Effect of Closing an Account

If you close your account before interest is credited, you will not receive the accrued interest.

(c) Minimum Balance Requirements

(i) To Open the Account

You must deposit $____ to open this account.

(ii) To Avoid Imposition of Fees

A minimum balance fee of $____ will be imposed every (time period) if the balance in the account falls below $____ any day of the (time period).

A minimum balance fee of $____ will be imposed every (time period) if the average daily balance for the (time period) falls below $____. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.

(iii) To Obtain the Annual Percentage Yield Disclosed

You must maintain a minimum balance of $____ in the account each day to obtain the disclosed annual percentage yield.

You must maintain a minimum average daily balance of $____ to obtain the disclosed annual percentage yield. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.

(d) Balance Computation Method

(i) Daily Balance Method

We use the daily balance method to calculate the interest on your account. This method applies a daily periodic rate to the principal in the account each day.

(ii) Average Daily Balance Method

We use the average daily balance method to calculate interest on your account. This method applies a periodic rate to the average daily balance in the account for the period. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.

(e) Accrual of Interest on Noncash Deposits

Interest begins to accrue no later than the business day we receive credit for the deposit of noncash items (for example, checks); or

Interest begins to accrue on the business day you deposit noncash items (for example, checks).

(f) Fees

The following fees may be assessed against your account:

____$____

____$____

____$____

____(conditions for imposing fee) $____

____% of ____.

(g) Transaction Limitations

The minimum amount you may [withdraw/write a check for] is $____.

You may make ____ [deposits into/withdrawals from] your account each (time period).

You may not make [deposits into/withdrawals from] your account until the maturity date.

(h) Disclosures Relating to Time Accounts

(i) Time Requirements

Your account will mature on (date).

Your account will mature in (time period).

(ii) Early Withdrawal Penalties

We [will/may] impose a penalty if you withdraw [any/all] of the [deposited funds/principal] before the maturity date. The fee imposed will equal ____ days/week[s]/month[s] of interest; or

We [will/may] impose a penalty of $____ if you withdraw [any/all] of the [deposited funds/principal] before the maturity date.

If you withdraw some of your funds before maturity, the interest rate for the remaining funds in your account will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.

(iii) Withdrawal of Interest Prior to Maturity

The annual percentage yield assumes interest will remain on deposit until maturity. A withdrawal will reduce earnings.

(iv) Renewal Policies

(1) Automatically Renewable Time Accounts

This account will automatically renew at maturity.

You will have [____ calendar/business] days after the maturity date to withdraw funds without penalty; or

There is no grace period following the maturity of this account to withdraw funds without penalty.

(2) Non-Automatically Renewable Time Accounts

This account will not renew automatically at maturity. If you do not renew the account, your deposit will be placed in [an interest-bearing/a noninterest-bearing] account.

(v) Required Interest Distribution

This account requires the distribution of interest and does not allow interest to remain in the account.

(i) Bonuses

You will [be paid/receive] [$____/(description of item)] as a bonus [when you open the account/on (date) ____].

You must maintain a minimum [daily balance/average daily balance] of $____ to obtain the bonus.

To earn the bonus, [$____/your entire principal] must remain on deposit [for (time period)/until (date)____].

B-2—Model Clauses for Change in Terms

On (date), the cost of (type of fee) will increase to $____.

On (date), the interest rate on your account will decrease to ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.

On (date), the minimum [daily balance/average daily balance] required to avoid imposition of a fee will increase to $____.

B-3—Model Clauses for Pre-Maturity Notices for Time Accounts

(a) Automatically Renewable Time Accounts With Maturities of One Year or Less But Longer Than One Month

Your account will mature on (date).

If the account renews, the new maturity date will be (date).

The interest rate for the renewed account will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%; or

The interest rate and annual percentage yield have not yet been determined. They will be available on (date). Please call (phone number) to learn the interest rate and annual percentage yield for your new account.

(b) Non-Automatically Renewable Time Accounts With Maturities Longer Than One Year

Your account will mature on (date).

If you do not renew the account, interest [will/will not] be paid after maturity.

Appendix C to Part 1030 Effect on State Laws

(a) Inconsistent Requirements

State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements of the act and this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. A state law is inconsistent if it requires a depository institution to make disclosures or take actions that contradict the requirements of the federal law. A state law is also contradictory if it requires the use of the same term to represent a different amount or a different meaning than the federal law, requires the use of a term different from that required in the federal law to describe the same item, or permits a method of calculating interest on an account different from that required in the federal law.

(b) Preemption Determinations

A depository institution, state, or other interested party may request the Bureau to determine whether a state law requirement is inconsistent with the federal requirements. A request for a determination shall be in writing and addressed to the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552. Notice that the Bureau intends to make a determination (either on request or on its own motion) will be published in the Federal Register, with an opportunity for public comment unless the Bureau finds that notice and opportunity for comment would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest and publishes its reasons for such decision. Notice of a final determination will be published in the Federal Register and furnished to the party who made the request and to the appropriate state official.

(c) Effect of Preemption Determinations

After the Bureau determines that a state law is inconsistent, a depository institution may not make disclosures using the inconsistent term or take actions relying on the inconsistent law.

(d) Reversal of Determination

The Bureau reserves the right to reverse a determination for any reason bearing on the coverage or effect of state or federal law. Notice of reversal of a determination will be published in the Federal Register and a copy furnished to the appropriate state official.

[76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 16543, Mar. 20, 2023]

Appendix D to Part 1030 Issuance of Official Interpretations

Except in unusual circumstances, interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to this part, which will be amended periodically. No interpretations will be issued approving depository institutions' forms, statements, or calculation tools or methods.

Supplement I to Part 1030 Official Interpretations

Introduction

1. Official status. This commentary is the means by which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection issues official interpretations of Regulation DD.

Section 1030.1 Authority, purpose, coverage, and effect on state laws

(c) Coverage

1. Foreign applicability. Regulation DD applies to all depository institutions, except credit unions, that offer deposit accounts to residents (including resident aliens) of any state as defined in § 1030.2(r). Accounts held in an institution located in a state are covered, even if funds are transferred periodically to a location outside the United States. Accounts held in an institution located outside the United States are not covered, even if held by a U.S. resident.

2. Persons who advertise accounts. Persons who advertise accounts are subject to the advertising rules. For example, if a deposit broker places an advertisement offering consumers an interest in an account at a depository institution, the advertising rules apply to the advertisement, whether the account is to be held by the broker or directly by the consumer.

Section 1030.2—Definitions

(a) Account.

1. Covered accounts. Examples of accounts subject to the regulation are:

i. Interest-bearing and noninterest-bearing accounts.

ii. Deposit accounts opened as a condition of obtaining a credit card.

iii. Accounts denominated in a foreign currency.

iv. Individual retirement accounts (IRAs) and simplified employee pension (SEP) accounts.

v. Payable on death (POD) or “Totten trust” accounts.

2. Other accounts. Examples of accounts not subject to the regulation are:

i. Mortgage escrow accounts for collecting taxes and property insurance premiums.

ii. Accounts established to make periodic disbursements on construction loans.

iii. Trust accounts opened by a trustee pursuant to a formal written trust agreement (not merely declarations of trust on a signature card such as a “Totten trust,” or an IRA and SEP account).

iv. Accounts opened by an executor in the name of a decedent's estate.

3. Other investments. The term “account” does not apply to all products of a depository institution. Examples of products not covered are:

i. Government securities.

ii. Mutual funds.

iii. Annuities.

iv. Securities or obligations of a depository institution.

v. Contractual arrangements such as repurchase agreements, interest rate swaps, and bankers acceptances.

(b) Advertisement.

1. Covered messages. Advertisements include commercial messages in visual, oral, or print media that invite, offer, or otherwise announce generally to prospective customers the availability of consumer accounts—such as:

i. Telephone solicitations.

ii. Messages on automated teller machine (ATM) screens.

iii. Messages on a computer screen in an institution's lobby (including any printout) other than a screen viewed solely by the institution's employee.

iv. Messages in a newspaper, magazine, or promotional flyer or on radio.

v. Messages that are provided along with information about the consumer's existing account and that promote another account at the institution.

2. Other messages. Examples of messages that are not advertisements are:

i. Rate sheets in a newspaper, periodical, or trade journal (unless the depository institution, or a deposit broker offering accounts at the institution, pays a fee for or otherwise controls publication).

ii. In-person discussions with consumers about the terms for a specific account.

iii. For purposes of § 1030.8(b) of this part through § 1030.8(e) of this part, information given to consumers about existing accounts, such as current rates recorded on a voice-response machine or notices for automatically renewable time account sent before renewal.

iv. Information about a particular transaction in an existing account.

v. Disclosures required by federal or other applicable law.

vi. A deposit account agreement.

(f) Bonus.

1. Examples. Bonuses include items of value, other than interest, offered as incentives to consumers, such as an offer to pay the final installment deposit for a holiday club account. Items that are not a bonus include discount coupons for goods or services at restaurants or stores.

2. De minimis rule. Items with a de minimis value of $10 or less are not bonuses. Institutions may rely on the valuation standard used by the Internal Revenue Service to determine if the value of the item is de minimis. Examples of items of de minimis value are:

i. Disability insurance premiums valued at an amount of $10 or less per year.

ii. Coffee mugs, T-shirts or other merchandise with a market value of $10 or less.

3. Aggregation. In determining if an item valued at $10 or less is a bonus, institutions must aggregate per account per calendar year items that may be given to consumers. In making this determination, institutions aggregate per account only the market value of items that may be given for a specific promotion. To illustrate, assume an institution offers in January to give consumers an item valued at $7 for each calendar quarter during the year that the average account balance in a negotiable order of withdrawal (NOW) account exceeds $10,000. The bonus rules are triggered, since consumers are eligible under the promotion to receive up to $28 during the year. However, the bonus rules are not triggered if an item valued at $7 is offered to consumers opening a NOW account during the month of January, even though in November the institution introduces a new promotion that includes, for example, an offer to existing NOW account holders for an item valued at $8 for maintaining an average balance of $5,000 for the month.

4. Waiver or reduction of a fee or absorption of expenses. Bonuses do not include value that consumers receive through the waiver or reduction of fees (even if the fees waived exceed $10) for banking-related services such as the following:

i. A safe deposit box rental fee for consumers who open a new account.

ii. Fees for travelers checks for account holders.

iii. Discounts on interest rates charged for loans at the institution.

(h) Consumer.

1. Professional capacity. Examples of accounts held by a natural person in a professional capacity for another are attorney-client trust accounts and landlord-tenant security accounts.

2. Other accounts. Accounts not held in a professional capacity include accounts held by an individual for a child under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act.

3. Sole proprietors. Accounts held by individuals as sole proprietors are not covered.

4. Retirement plans. IRAs and SEP accounts are consumer accounts to the extent that funds are invested in covered accounts. Keogh accounts are not subject to the regulation.

(j) Depository institution and institution.

1. Foreign institutions. Branches of foreign institutions located in the United States are subject to the regulation if they offer deposit accounts to consumers. Edge Act and Agreement corporations, and agencies of foreign institutions, are not depository institutions for purposes of this part.

(k) Deposit broker.

1. General. A deposit broker is a person who is in the business of placing or facilitating the placement of deposits in an institution, as defined by the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 29(g)).

(n) Interest.

1. Relation to bonuses. Bonuses are not interest for purposes of this part.

(p) Passbook savings account.

1. Relation to Regulation E. Passbook savings accounts include accounts accessed by preauthorized electronic fund transfers to the account (as defined in 12 CFR 1005.2(j)), such as an account that receives direct deposit of social security payments. Accounts permitting access by other electronic means are not “passbook saving accounts” and must comply with the requirements of § 1030.6 if statements are sent four or more times a year.

(q) Periodic statement.

1. Examples. Periodic statements do not include:

i. Additional statements provided solely upon request.

ii. General service information such as a quarterly newsletter or other correspondence describing available services and products.

(t) Tiered-rate account.

1. Time accounts. Time accounts paying different rates based solely on the amount of the initial deposit are not tiered-rate accounts.

2. Minimum balance requirements. A requirement to maintain a minimum balance to earn interest does not make an account a tiered-rate account.

(u) Time account.

1. Club accounts. Although club accounts typically have a maturity date, they are not time accounts unless they also require a penalty of at least seven days' interest for withdrawals during the first six days after the account is opened.2. Relation to Regulation D. Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 204) permits in limited circumstances the withdrawal of funds without penalty during the first six days after a “time deposit” is opened. (See 12 CFR 204.2(c)(1)(i).) But the fact that a consumer makes a withdrawal as permitted by Regulation D does not disqualify the account from being a time account for purposes of this part.

(v) Variable-rate account.

1. General. A certificate of deposit permitting one or more rate adjustments prior to maturity at the consumer's option is a variable-rate account.

Section 1030.3—General Disclosure Requirements

(a) Form.

1. Design requirements. Disclosures must be presented in a format that allows consumers to readily understand the terms of their account. Institutions are not required to use a particular type size or typeface, nor are institutions required to state any term more conspicuously than any other term. Disclosures may be made:

i. In any order.

ii. In combination with other disclosures or account terms.

iii. In combination with disclosures for other types of accounts, as long as it is clear to consumers which disclosures apply to their account.

iv. On more than one page and on the front and reverse sides.

v. By using inserts to a document or filling in blanks.

vi. On more than one document, as long as the documents are provided at the same time.

2. Consistent terminology. Institutions must use consistent terminology to describe terms or features required to be disclosed. For example, if an institution describes a monthly fee (regardless of account activity) as a “monthly service fee” in account-opening disclosures, the periodic statement and change-in-term notices must use the same terminology so that consumers can readily identify the fee.

(b) General.

1. Specificity of legal obligation. Institutions may refer to the calendar month or to roughly equivalent intervals during a calendar year as a “month.”

(c) Relation to Regulation E.

1. General rule. Compliance with Regulation E (12 CFR Part 1005) is deemed to satisfy the disclosure requirements of this part, such as when:

i. An institution changes a term that triggers a notice under Regulation E, and uses the timing and disclosure rules of Regulation E for sending change-in-term notices.

ii. Consumers add an ATM access feature to an account, and the institution provides disclosures pursuant to Regulation E, including disclosure of fees (see 12 CFR 1005.7.)

iii. An institution complying with the timing rules of Regulation E discloses at the same time fees for electronic services (such as for balance inquiry fees at ATMs) required to be disclosed by this part but not by Regulation E.

iv. An institution relies on Regulation E's rules regarding disclosure of limitations on the frequency and amount of electronic fund transfers, including security-related exceptions. But any limitations on “intra-institutional transfers” to or from the consumer's other accounts during a given time period must be disclosed, even though intra-institutional transfers are exempt from Regulation E.

(e) Oral response to inquiries.

1. Application of rule. Institutions are not required to provide rate information orally.

2. Relation to advertising. The advertising rules do not cover an oral response to a question about rates.

3. Existing accounts. This paragraph does not apply to oral responses about rate information for existing accounts. For example, if a consumer holding a one-year certificate of deposit (CD) requests interest rate information about the CD during the term, the institution need not disclose the annual percentage yield.

(f) Rounding and accuracy rules for rates and yields

(f)(1) Rounding.

1. Permissible rounding. Examples of permissible rounding are an annual percentage yield calculated to be 5.644%, rounded down and disclosed as 5.64%; 5.645% rounded up and disclosed as 5.65%.

(f)(2) Accuracy.

1. Annual percentage yield and annual percentage yield earned. The tolerance for annual percentage yield and annual percentage yield earned calculations is designed to accommodate inadvertent errors. Institutions may not purposely incorporate the tolerance into their calculation of yields.

Section 1030.4—Account Disclosures

(a) Delivery of account disclosures.

(a)(1) Account opening.

1. New accounts. New account disclosures must be provided when:

i. A time account that does not automatically rollover is renewed by a consumer.

ii. A consumer changes a term for a renewable time account (see comment 5(b)-5 regarding disclosure alternatives.)

iii. An institution transfers funds from an account to open a new account not at the consumer's request, unless the institution previously gave account disclosures and any change-in-term notices for the new account.

iv. An institution accepts a deposit from a consumer to an account that the institution had deemed closed for the purpose of treating accrued but uncredited interest as forfeited interest (see comment 7(b)-3.)

2. Acquired accounts. New account disclosures need not be given when an institution acquires an account through an acquisition of or merger with another institution (but see § 1030.5(a) of this part regarding advance notice requirements if terms are changed).

(a)(2) Requests.

Paragraph (a)(2)(i).

1. Inquiries versus requests. A response to an oral inquiry (by telephone or in person) about rates and yields or fees does not trigger the duty to provide account disclosures. But when consumers ask for written information about an account (whether by telephone, in person, or by other means), the institution must provide disclosures unless the account is no longer offered to the public.

2. General requests. When responding to a consumer's general request for disclosures about a type of account (a NOW account, for example), an institution that offers several variations may provide disclosures for any one of them.

3. Timing for response. Ten business days is a reasonable time for responding to requests for account information that consumers do not make in person, including requests made by electronic means (such as by electronic mail).

4. Use of electronic means. If a consumer who is not present at the institution makes a request for account disclosures, including a request made by telephone, email, or via the institution's Web site, the institution may send the disclosures in paper form or, if the consumer agrees, may provide the disclosures electronically, such as to an email address that the consumer provides for that purpose, or on the institution's Web site, without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act. The regulation does not require an institution to provide, nor a consumer to agree to receive, the disclosures required by § 1030.4(a)(2) in electronic form.

Paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A).

1. Recent rates. Institutions comply with this paragraph if they disclose an interest rate and annual percentage yield accurate within the seven calendar days preceding the date they send the disclosures.

Paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B).

1. Term. Describing the maturity of a time account as “1 year” or “6 months,” for example, illustrates a statement of the maturity of a time account as a term rather than a date (“January 10, 1995”).

(b) Content of account disclosures.

(b)(1) Rate information.

(b)(1)(i) Annual percentage yield and interest rate.

1. Rate disclosures. In addition to the interest rate and annual percentage yield, institutions may disclose a periodic rate corresponding to the interest rate. No other rate or yield (such as “tax effective yield”) is permitted. If the annual percentage yield is the same as the interest rate, institutions may disclose a single figure but must use both terms.

2. Fixed-rate accounts. For fixed-rate time accounts paying the opening rate until maturity, institutions may disclose the period of time the interest rate will be in effect by stating the maturity date. (See appendix B, B-7—Sample Form.) For other fixed-rate accounts, institutions may use a date (“This rate will be in effect through May 4, 1995”) or a period (“This rate will be in effect for at least 30 days”).

3. Tiered-rate accounts. Each interest rate, along with the corresponding annual percentage yield for each specified balance level (or range of annual percentage yields, if appropriate), must be disclosed for tiered-rate accounts. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph D.)

4. Stepped-rate accounts. A single composite annual percentage yield must be disclosed for stepped-rate accounts. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph B.) The interest rates and the period of time each will be in effect also must be provided. When the initial rate offered for a specified time on a variable-rate account is higher or lower than the rate that would otherwise be paid on the account, the calculation of the annual percentage yield must be made as if for a stepped-rate account. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph C.)

(b)(1)(ii) Variable rates.

Paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B).

1. Determining interest rates. To disclose how the interest rate is determined, institutions must:

i. Identify the index and specific margin, if the interest rate is tied to an index.

ii. State that rate changes are within the institution's discretion, if the institution does not tie changes to an index.

Paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C).

1. Frequency of rate changes. An institution reserving the right to change rates at its discretion must state the fact that rates may change at any time.

Paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(D).

1. Limitations. A floor or ceiling on rates or on the amount the rate may decrease or increase during any time period must be disclosed. Institutions need not disclose the absence of limitations on rate changes.

(b)(2) Compounding and crediting.

(b)(2)(ii) Effect of closing an account.

1. Deeming an account closed. An institution may, subject to state or other law, provide in its deposit contracts the actions by consumers that will be treated as closing the account and that will result in the forfeiture of accrued but uncredited interest. An example is the withdrawal of all funds from the account prior to the date that interest is credited.

(b)(3) Balance information.

(b)(3)(ii) Balance computation method.

1. Methods and periods. Institutions may use different methods or periods to calculate minimum balances for purposes of imposing a fee (the daily balance for a calendar month, for example) and accruing interest (the average daily balance for a statement period, for example). Each method and corresponding period must be disclosed.

(b)(3)(iii) When interest begins to accrue.

1. Additional information. Institutions may disclose additional information such as the time of day after which deposits are treated as having been received the following business day, and may use additional descriptive terms such as “ledger” or “collected” balances to disclose when interest begins to accrue.

(b)(4) Fees.

1. Covered fees. The following are types of fees that must be disclosed:

i. Maintenance fees, such as monthly service fees.

ii. Fees to open or to close an account.

iii. Fees related to deposits or withdrawals, such as fees for use of the institution's ATMs.

iv. Fees for special services, such as stop-payment fees, fees for balance inquiries or verification of deposits, fees associated with checks returned unpaid, and fees for regularly sending to consumers checks that otherwise would be held by the institution.

2. Other fees. Institutions need not disclose fees such as the following:

i. Fees for services offered to account and nonaccount holders alike, such as travelers checks and wire transfers (even if different amounts are charged to account and nonaccount holders).

ii. Incidental fees, such as fees associated with state escheat laws, garnishment or attorneys fees, and fees for photocopying.

3. Amount of fees. Institutions must state the amount and conditions under which a fee may be imposed. Naming and describing the fee (such as “$4.00 monthly service fee”) will typically satisfy these requirements.

4. Tied-accounts. Institutions must state if fees that may be assessed against an account are tied to other accounts at the institution. For example, if an institution ties the fees payable on a NOW account to balances held in the NOW account and a savings account, the NOW account disclosures must state that fact and explain how the fee is determined.

5. Fees for overdrawing an account. Under § 1030.4(b)(4) of this part, institutions must disclose the conditions under which a fee may be imposed. In satisfying this requirement institutions must specify the categories of transactions for which an overdraft fee may be imposed. An exhaustive list of transactions is not required. It is sufficient for an institution to state that the fee applies to overdrafts “created by check, in-person withdrawal, ATM withdrawal, or other electronic means,” as applicable. Disclosing a fee “for overdraft items” would not be sufficient.

(b)(5) Transaction limitations.

1. General rule. Examples of limitations on the number or dollar amount of deposits or withdrawals that institutions must disclose are:

i. Limits on the number of checks that may be written on an account within a given time period.

ii. Limits on withdrawals or deposits during the term of a time account.

iii. Limitations required by Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 204) on the number of withdrawals permitted from money market deposit accounts by check to third parties each month. Institutions need not disclose reservations of right to require notices for withdrawals from accounts required by federal or state law.

(b)(6) Features of time accounts.

(b)(6)(i) Time requirements.

1. “Callable” time accounts. In addition to the maturity date, an institution must state the date or the circumstances under which it may redeem a time account at the institution's option (a “callable” time account).

(b)(6)(ii) Early withdrawal penalties.

1. General. The term “penalty” may but need not be used to describe the loss of interest that consumers may incur for early withdrawal of funds from time accounts.

2. Examples. Examples of early withdrawal penalties are:

i. Monetary penalties, such as “$10.00” or “seven days' interest plus accrued but uncredited interest.”

ii. Adverse changes to terms such as a lowering of the interest rate, annual percentage yield, or compounding frequency for funds remaining on deposit.

iii. Reclamation of bonuses.

3. Relation to rules for IRAs or similar plans. Penalties imposed by the Internal Revenue Code for certain withdrawals from IRAs or similar pension or savings plans are not early withdrawal penalties for purposes of this part.

4. Disclosing penalties. Penalties may be stated in months, whether institutions assess the penalty using the actual number of days during the period or using another method such as a number of days that occurs in any actual sequence of the total calendar months involved. For example, stating “one month's interest” is permissible, whether the institution assesses 30 days' interest during the month of April, or selects a time period between 28 and 31 days for calculating the interest for all early withdrawals regardless of when the penalty is assessed.

(b)(6)(iv) Renewal policies.

1. Rollover time accounts. Institutions offering a grace period on time accounts that automatically renew need not state whether interest will be paid if the funds are withdrawn during the grace period.

2. Nonrollover time accounts. Institutions paying interest on funds following the maturity of time accounts that do not renew automatically need not state the rate (or annual percentage yield) that may be paid. (See appendix B, Model Clause B-1(h)(iv)(2).)

Section 1030.5—Subsequent Disclosures

(a) Change in terms.

(a)(1) Advance notice required.

1. Form of notice. Institutions may provide a change-in-term notice on or with a periodic statement or in another mailing. If an institution provides notice through revised account disclosures, the changed term must be highlighted in some manner. For example, institutions may note that a particular fee has been changed (also specifying the new amount) or use an accompanying letter that refers to the changed term.

2. Effective date. An example of language for disclosing the effective date of a change is “As of November 21, 1994.”

3. Terms that change upon the occurrence of an event. An institution offering terms that will automatically change upon the occurrence of a stated event need not send an advance notice of the change provided the institution fully describes the conditions of the change in the account opening disclosures (and sends any change-in-term notices regardless of whether the changed term affects that consumer's account at that time).

4. Examples. Examples of changes not requiring an advance change-in-terms notice are:

i. The termination of employment for consumers for whom account maintenance or activity fees were waived during their employment by the depository institution.

ii. The expiration of one year in a promotion described in the account opening disclosures to “waive $4.00 monthly service charges for one year.”

(a)(2) No notice required.

(a)(2)(ii) Check printing fees.

1. Increase in fees. A notice is not required for an increase in fees for printing checks (or deposit and withdrawal slips) even if the institution adds some amount to the price charged by the vendor.

(b) Notice before maturity for time accounts longer than one month that renew automatically.

1. Maturity dates on nonbusiness days. In determining the term of a time account, institutions may disregard the fact that the term will be extended beyond the disclosed number of days because the disclosed maturity falls on a nonbusiness day. For example, a holiday or weekend may cause a “one-year” time account to extend beyond 365 days (or 366, in a leap year) or a “one-month” time account to extend beyond 31 days.

2. Disclosing when rates will be determined. Ways to disclose when the annual percentage yield will be available include the use of:

i. A specific date, such as “October 28.”

ii. A date that is easily determinable, such as “the Tuesday before the maturity date stated on this notice” or “as of the maturity date stated on this notice.”

3. Alternative timing rule. Under the alternative timing rule, an institution offering a 10-day grace period would have to provide the disclosures at least 10 days prior to the scheduled maturity date.

4. Club accounts. If consumers have agreed to the transfer of payments from another account to a club time account for the next club period, the institution must comply with the requirements for automatically renewable time accounts—even though consumers may withdraw funds from the club account at the end of the current club period.

5. Renewal of a time account. In the case of a change in terms that becomes effective if a rollover time account is subsequently renewed:

i. If the change is initiated by the institution, the disclosure requirements of this paragraph apply. (Paragraph 1030.5(a) applies if the change becomes effective prior to the maturity of the existing time account.)

ii. If the change is initiated by the consumer, the account opening disclosure requirements of § 1030.4(b) apply. (If the notice required by this paragraph has been provided, institutions may give new account disclosures or disclosures highlighting only the new term.)

6. Example. If a consumer receives a prematurity notice on a one-year time account and requests a rollover to a six-month account, the institution must provide either account opening disclosures including the new maturity date or, if all other terms previously disclosed in the prematurity notice remain the same, only the new maturity date.

(b)(1) Maturities of longer than one year.

1. Highlighting changed terms. Institutions need not highlight terms that changed since the last account disclosures were provided.

(c) Notice before maturity for time accounts longer than one year that do not renew automatically.

1. Subsequent account. When funds are transferred following maturity of a nonrollover time account, institutions need not provide account disclosures unless a new account is established.

Section 1030.6—Periodic Statement Disclosures

(a) General rule.

1. General. Institutions are not required to provide periodic statements. If they do provide statements, disclosures need only be furnished to the extent applicable. For example, if no interest is earned for a statement period, institutions need not state that fact. Or, institutions may disclose “$0” interest earned and “0%” annual percentage yield earned.

2. Regulation E interim statements. When an institution provides regular quarterly statements, and in addition provides a monthly interim statement to comply with Regulation E, the interim statement need not comply with this section unless it states interest or rate information. (See 12 CFR 1005.9(b).)

3. Combined statements. Institutions may provide information about an account (such as a MMDA) on the periodic statement for another account (such as a NOW account) without triggering the disclosures required by this section, as long as:

i. The information is limited to the account number, the type of account, or balance information, and

ii. The institution also provides a periodic statement complying with this section for each account.

4. Other information. Additional information that may be given on or with a periodic statement includes:

i. Interest rates and corresponding periodic rates applied to balances during the statement period.

ii. The dollar amount of interest earned year-to-date.

iii. Bonuses paid (or any de minimis consideration of $10 or less).

iv. Fees for products such as safe deposit boxes.

(a)(1) Annual percentage yield earned.

1. Ledger and collected balances. Institutions that accrue interest using the collected balance method may use either the ledger or the collected balance in determining the annual percentage yield earned.

(a)(2) Amount of interest.

1. Accrued interest. Institutions must state the amount of interest that accrued during the statement period, even if it was not credited.

2. Terminology. In disclosing interest earned for the period, institutions must use the term “interest” or terminology such as:

i. “Interest paid,” to describe interest that has been credited.

ii. “Interest accrued” or “interest earned,” to indicate that interest is not yet credited.

3. Closed accounts. If consumers close an account between crediting periods and forfeits accrued interest, the institution may not show any figures for interest earned or annual percentage yield earned for the period (other than zero, at the institution's option).

(a)(3) Fees imposed.

1. General. Periodic statements must state fees disclosed under § 1030.4(b) that were debited to the account during the statement period, even if assessed for an earlier period.

2. Itemizing fees by type. In itemizing fees imposed more than once in the period, institutions may group fees if they are the same type. (See § 1030.11(a)(1) of this part regarding certain fees that are required to be grouped.) When fees of the same type are grouped together, the description must make clear that the dollar figure represents more than a single fee, for example, “total fees for checks written this period.” Examples of fees that may not be grouped together are—

i. Monthly maintenance and excess-activity fees.

ii. “Transfer” fees, if different dollar amounts are imposed, such as $.50 for deposits and $1.00 for withdrawals.

iii. Fees for electronic fund transfers and fees for other services, such as balance-inquiry or maintenance fees.

iv. Fees for paying overdrafts and fees for returning checks or other items unpaid.

3. Identifying fees. Statement details must enable consumers to identify the specific fee. For example:

i. Institutions may use a code to identify a particular fee if the code is explained on the periodic statement or in documents accompanying the statement.

ii. Institutions using debit slips may disclose the date the fee was debited on the periodic statement and show the amount and type of fee on the dated debit slip.

4. Relation to Regulation E. Disclosure of fees in compliance with Regulation E complies with this section for fees related to electronic fund transfers (for example, totaling all electronic funds transfer fees in a single figure).

(a)(4) Length of period.

1. General. Institutions providing the beginning and ending dates of the period must make clear whether both dates are included in the period.

2. Opening or closing an account mid-cycle. If an account is opened or closed during the period for which a statement is sent, institutions must calculate the annual percentage yield earned based on account balances for each day the account was open.

(b) Special rule for average daily balance method.

1. Monthly statements and quarterly compounding. This rule applies, for example, when an institution calculates interest on a quarterly average daily balance and sends monthly statements. In this case, the first two monthly statements would omit annual percentage yield earned and interest earned figures; the third monthly statement would reflect the interest earned and the annual percentage yield earned for the entire quarter.

2. Length of the period. Institutions must disclose the length of both the interest calculation period and the statement period. For example, a statement could disclose a statement period of April 16 through May 15 and further state that “the interest earned and the annual percentage yield earned are based on your average daily balance for the period April 1 through April 30.”

3. Quarterly statements and monthly compounding. Institutions that use the average daily balance method to calculate interest on a monthly basis and that send statements on a quarterly basis may disclose a single interest (and annual percentage yield earned) figure. Alternatively, an institution may disclose three interest and three annual percentage yield earned figures, one for each month in the quarter, as long as the institution states the number of days (or beginning and ending dates) in the interest period if different from the statement period.

Section 1030.7—Payment of Interest

(a)(1) Permissible methods.

1. Prohibited calculation methods. Calculation methods that do not comply with the requirement to pay interest on the full amount of principal in the account each day include:

i. Paying interest on the balance in the account at the end of the period (the “ending balance” method).

ii. Paying interest for the period based on the lowest balance in the account for any day in that period (the “low balance” method).

iii. Paying interest on a percentage of the balance, excluding the amount set aside for reserve requirements (the “investable balance” method).

2. Use of 365-day basis. Institutions may apply a daily periodic rate greater than 1/365 of the interest rate—such as 1/360 of the interest rate—as long as it is applied 365 days a year.

3. Periodic interest payments. An institution can pay interest each day on the account and still make uniform interest payments. For example, for a one-year certificate of deposit an institution could make monthly interest payments equal to 1/12 of the amount of interest that will be earned for a 365-day period (or 11 uniform monthly payments—each equal to roughly 1/12 of the total amount of interest—and one payment that accounts for the remainder of the total amount of interest earned for the period).

4. Leap year. Institutions may apply a daily rate of 1/366 or 1/365 of the interest rate for 366 days in a leap year, if the account will earn interest for February 29.

5. Maturity of time accounts. Institutions are not required to pay interest after time accounts mature. (See 12 CFR Part 217, Regulation Q of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, for limitations on duration of interest payments.) Examples include:

i. During a grace period offered for an automatically renewable time account, if consumers decide during that period not to renew the account.

ii. Following the maturity of nonrollover time accounts.

iii. When the maturity date falls on a holiday, and consumers must wait until the next business day to obtain the funds.

6. Dormant accounts. Institutions must pay interest on funds in an account, even if inactivity or the infrequency of transactions would permit the institution to consider the account to be “inactive” or “dormant” (or similar status) as defined by state or other law or the account contract.

(a)(2) Determination of minimum balance to earn interest.

1. Daily balance accounts. Institutions that require a minimum balance may choose not to pay interest for days when the balance drops below the required minimum, if they use the daily balance method to calculate interest.

2. Average daily balance accounts. Institutions that require a minimum balance may choose not to pay interest for the period in which the balance drops below the required minimum, if they use the average daily balance method to calculate interest.

3. Beneficial method. Institutions may not require that consumers maintain both a minimum daily balance and a minimum average daily balance to earn interest, such as by requiring consumers to maintain a $500 daily balance and a prescribed average daily balance (whether higher or lower). But an institution could offer a minimum balance to earn interest that includes an additional method that is “unequivocally beneficial” to consumers such as the following: An institution using the daily balance method to calculate interest and requiring a $500 minimum daily balance could offer to pay interest on the account for those days the minimum balance is not met as long as consumers maintain an average daily balance throughout the month of $400.

4. Paying on full balance. Institutions must pay interest on the full balance in the account that meets the required minimum balance. For example, if $300 is the minimum daily balance required to earn interest, and a consumer deposits $500, the institution must pay the stated interest rate on the full $500 and not just on $200.

5. Negative balances prohibited. Institutions must treat a negative account balance as zero to determine:

i. The daily or average daily balance on which interest will be paid.

ii. Whether any minimum balance to earn interest is met.

6. Club accounts. Institutions offering club accounts (such as a “holiday” or “vacation” club) cannot impose a minimum balance requirement for interest based on the total number or dollar amount of payments required under the club plan. For example, if a plan calls for $10 weekly payments for 50 weeks, the institution cannot set a $500 “minimum balance” and then pay interest only if the consumer has made all 50 payments.

7. Minimum balances not affecting interest. Institutions may use the daily balance, average daily balance, or any other computation method to calculate minimum balance requirements not involving the payment of interest—such as to compute minimum balances for assessing fees.

(b) Compounding and crediting policies.

1. General. Institutions choosing to compound interest may compound or credit interest annually, semi-annually, quarterly, monthly, daily, continuously, or on any other basis.

2. Withdrawals prior to crediting date. If consumers withdraw funds (without closing the account) prior to a scheduled crediting date, institutions may delay paying the accrued interest on the withdrawn amount until the scheduled crediting date, but may not avoid paying interest.

3. Closed accounts. Subject to state or other law, an institution may choose not to pay accrued interest if consumers close an account prior to the date accrued interest is credited, as long as the institution has disclosed that fact.

(c) Date interest begins to accrue.

1. Relation to Regulation CC. Institutions may rely on the Expedited Funds Availability Act (EFAA) and Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229) to determine, for example, when a deposit is considered made for purposes of interest accrual, or when interest need not be paid on funds because a deposited check is later returned unpaid.

2. Ledger and collected balances. Institutions may calculate interest by using a “ledger” or “collected” balance method, as long as the crediting requirements of the EFAA are met (12 CFR 229.14).

3. Withdrawal of principal. Institutions must accrue interest on funds until the funds are withdrawn from the account. For example, if a check is debited to an account on a Tuesday, the institution must accrue interest on those funds through Monday.

Section 1030.8—Advertising

(a) Misleading or inaccurate advertisements.

1. General. All advertisements are subject to the rule against misleading or inaccurate advertisements, even though the disclosures applicable to various media differ.

2. Indoor signs. An indoor sign advertising an annual percentage yield is not misleading or inaccurate when:

i. For a tiered-rate account, it also provides the lower dollar amount of the tier corresponding to the advertised annual percentage yield.

ii. For a time account, it also provides the term required to obtain the advertised annual percentage yield.

3. Fees affecting “free” accounts. For purposes of determining whether an account can be advertised as “free” or “no cost,” maintenance and activity fees include:

i. Any fee imposed when a minimum balance requirement is not met, or when consumers exceed a specified number of transactions.

ii. Transaction and service fees that consumers reasonably expect to be imposed on a regular basis.

iii. A flat fee, such as a monthly service fee.

iv. Fees imposed to deposit, withdraw, or transfer funds, including per-check or per-transaction charges (for example, $.25 for each withdrawal, whether by check or in person).

4. Other fees. Examples of fees that are not maintenance or activity fees include:

i. Fees not required to be disclosed under § 1030.4(b)(4).

ii. Check printing fees.

iii. Balance inquiry fees.

iv. Stop-payment fees and fees associated with checks returned unpaid.

v. Fees assessed against a dormant account.

vi. Fees for ATM or electronic transfer services (such as preauthorized transfers or home banking services) not required to obtain an account.

5. Similar terms. An advertisement may not use the term “fees waived” if a maintenance or activity fee may be imposed because it is similar to the terms “free” or “no cost.”

6. Specific account services. Institutions may advertise a specific account service or feature as free if no fee is imposed for that service or feature. For example, institutions offering an account that is free of deposit or withdrawal fees could advertise that fact, as long as the advertisement does not mislead consumers by implying that the account is free and that no other fee (a monthly service fee, for example) may be charged.

7. Free for limited time. If an account (or a specific account service) is free only for a limited period of time—for example, for one year following the account opening—the account (or service) may be advertised as free if the time period is also stated.

8. Conditions not related to deposit accounts. Institutions may advertise accounts as “free” for consumers meeting conditions not related to deposit accounts, such as the consumer's age. For example, institutions may advertise a NOW account as “free for persons over 65 years old,” even though a maintenance or activity fee is assessed on accounts held by consumers 65 or younger.

9. Electronic advertising. If an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) displays a triggering term (such as a bonus or annual percentage yield) the advertisement must clearly refer the consumer to the location where the additional required information begins. For example, an advertisement that includes a bonus or annual percentage yield may be accompanied by a link that directly takes the consumer to the additional information.

10. Examples. Examples of advertisements that would ordinarily be misleading, inaccurate, or misrepresent the deposit contract are:

i. Representing an overdraft service as a “line of credit,” unless the service is subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026.

ii. Representing that the institution will honor all checks or authorize payment of all transactions that overdraw an account, with or without a specified dollar limit, when the institution retains discretion at any time not to honor checks or authorize transactions.

iii. Representing that consumers with an overdrawn account are allowed to maintain a negative balance when the terms of the account's overdraft service require consumers promptly to return the deposit account to a positive balance.

iv. Describing an institution's overdraft service solely as protection against bounced checks when the institution also permits overdrafts for a fee for overdrawing their accounts by other means, such as ATM withdrawals, debit card transactions, or other electronic fund transfers.

v. Advertising an account-related service for which the institution charges a fee in an advertisement that also uses the word “free” or “no cost” (or a similar term) to describe the account, unless the advertisement clearly and conspicuously indicates that there is a cost associated with the service. If the fee is a maintenance or activity fee under § 1030.8(a)(2) of this part, however, an advertisement may not describe the account as “free” or “no cost” (or contain a similar term) even if the fee is disclosed in the advertisement.

11. Additional disclosures in connection with the payment of overdrafts. The rule in § 1030.3(a), providing that disclosures required by § 1030.8 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to E-Sign Act requirements, applies to the disclosures described in § 1030.11(b), which are incorporated by reference in § 1030.8(f).

(b) Permissible rates.

1. Tiered-rate accounts. An advertisement for a tiered-rate account that states an annual percentage yield must also state the annual percentage yield for each tier, along with corresponding minimum balance requirements. Any interest rates stated must appear in conjunction with the applicable annual percentage yields for each tier.

2. Stepped-rate accounts. An advertisement that states an interest rate for a stepped-rate account must state all the interest rates and the time period that each rate is in effect.

3. Representative examples. An advertisement that states an annual percentage yield for a given type of account (such as a time account for a specified term) need not state the annual percentage yield applicable to other time accounts offered by the institution or indicate that other maturity terms are available. In an advertisement stating that rates for an account may vary depending on the amount of the initial deposit or the term of a time account, institutions need not list each balance level and term offered. Instead, the advertisement may:

i. Provide a representative example of the annual percentage yields offered, clearly described as such. For example, if an institution offers a $25 bonus on all time accounts and the annual percentage yield will vary depending on the term selected, the institution may provide a disclosure of the annual percentage yield as follows: “For example, our 6-month certificate of deposit currently pays a 3.15% annual percentage yield.”

ii. Indicate that various rates are available, such as by stating short-term and longer-term maturities along with the applicable annual percentage yields: “We offer certificates of deposit with annual percentage yields that depend on the maturity you choose. For example, our one-month CD earns a 2.75% APY. Or, earn a 5.25% APY for a three-year CD.”

(c) When additional disclosures are required.

1. Trigger terms. The following are examples of information stated in advertisements that are not “trigger” terms:

i. “One, three, and five year CDs available.”

ii. “Bonus rates available.”

iii. “1% over our current rates,” so long as the rates are not determinable from the advertisement.

(c)(2) Time annual percentage yield is offered.

1. Specified date. If an advertisement discloses an annual percentage yield as of a specified date, that date must be recent in relation to the publication or broadcast frequency of the media used, taking into account the particular circumstances or production deadlines involved. For example, the printing date of a brochure printed once for a deposit account promotion that will be in effect for six months would be considered “recent,” even though rates change during the six-month period. Rates published in a daily newspaper or on television must reflect rates offered shortly before (or on) the date the rates are published or broadcast.

2. Reference to date of publication. An advertisement may refer to the annual percentage yield as being accurate as of the date of publication, if the date is on the publication itself. For instance, an advertisement in a periodical may state that a rate is “current through the date of this issue,” if the periodical shows the date.

(c)(5) Effect of fees.

1. Scope. This requirement applies only to maintenance or activity fees described in comment 8(a).

(c)(6) Features of time accounts.

(c)(6)(i) Time requirements.

1. Club accounts. If a club account has a maturity date but the term may vary depending on when the account is opened, institutions may use a phrase such as: “The maturity date of this club account is November 15; its term varies depending on when the account is opened.”

(c)(6)(ii) Early withdrawal penalties.

1. Discretionary penalties. Institutions imposing early withdrawal penalties on a case-by-case basis may disclose that they “may” (rather than “will”) impose a penalty if such a disclosure accurately describes the account terms.

(d) Bonuses.

1. General reference to “bonus.” General statements such as “bonus checking” or “get a bonus when you open a checking account” do not trigger the bonus disclosures.

(e) Exemption for certain advertisements.

(e)(1) Certain media.

Paragraph (e)(1)(i).

1. Internet advertisements. The exemption for advertisements made through broadcast or electronic media does not extend to advertisements posted on the Internet or sent by email.

Paragraph (e)(1)(iii).

1. Tiered-rate accounts. Solicitations for a tiered-rate account made through telephone response machines must provide the annual percentage yields and the balance requirements applicable to each tier.

(e)(2) Indoor signs.

Paragraph (e)(2)(i).

1. General. Indoor signs include advertisements displayed on computer screens, banners, preprinted posters, and chalk or peg boards. Any advertisement inside the premises that can be retained by a consumer (such as a brochure or a printout from a computer) is not an indoor sign.

Section 1030.9—Enforcement and Record Retention

(c) Record retention.

1. Evidence of required actions. Institutions comply with the regulation by demonstrating that they have done the following:

i. Established and maintained procedures for paying interest and providing timely disclosures as required by the regulation, and

ii. Retained sample disclosures for each type of account offered to consumers, such as account-opening disclosures, copies of advertisements, and change-in-term notices; and information regarding the interest rates and annual percentage yields offered.2. Methods of retaining evidence. Institutions must be able to reconstruct the required disclosures or other actions. They need not keep disclosures or other business records in hard copy. Records evidencing compliance may be retained on microfilm, microfiche, or by other methods that reproduce records accurately (including computer files).

3. Payment of interest. Institutions must retain sufficient rate and balance information to permit the verification of interest paid on an account, including the payment of interest on the full principal balance.

Section 1030.10 [Reserved]

Section 1030.11—Additional Disclosures Regarding the Payment of Overdrafts

(a) Disclosure of total fees on periodic statements.

(a)(1) General.

1. Transfer services. The overdraft services covered by § 1030.11(a)(1) of this part do not include a service providing for the transfer of funds from another deposit account of the consumer to permit the payment of items without creating an overdraft, even if a fee is charged for the transfer.

2. Fees for paying overdrafts. Institutions must disclose on periodic statements a total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for paying overdrafts. The institution must disclose separate totals for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date. The total dollar amount for each of these periods includes per-item fees as well as interest charges, daily or other periodic fees, or fees charged for maintaining an account in overdraft status, whether the overdraft is by check, debit card transaction, or by any other transaction type. It also includes fees charged when there are insufficient funds because previously deposited funds are subject to a hold or are uncollected. It does not include fees for transferring funds from another account of the consumer to avoid an overdraft, or fees charged under a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026). See also comment 11(c)-2. Under § 1030.11(a)(1)(i), the disclosure must describe the total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for the statement period and calendar year-to-date for paying overdrafts using the term “Total Overdraft Fees.” This requirement applies notwithstanding comment 3(a)-2.3. Fees for returning items unpaid. The total dollar amount for all fees for returning items unpaid must include all fees charged to the account for dishonoring or returning checks or other items drawn on the account. The institution must disclose separate totals for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date. Fees imposed when deposited items are returned are not included. Institutions may use terminology such as “returned item fee” or “NSF fee” to describe fees for returning items unpaid.

4. Waived fees. In some cases, an institution may provide a statement for the current period reflecting that fees imposed during a previous period were waived and credited to the account. Institutions may, but are not required to, reflect the adjustment in the total for the calendar year-to-date and in the applicable statement period. For example, if an institution assesses a fee in January and refunds the fee in February, the institution could disclose a year-to-date total reflecting the amount credited, but it should not affect the total disclosed for the February statement period, because the fee was not assessed in the February statement period. If an institution assesses and then waives and credits a fee within the same cycle, the institution may, at its option, reflect the adjustment in the total disclosed for fees imposed during the current statement period and for the total for the calendar year-to-date. Thus, if the institution assesses and waives the fee in the February statement period, the February fee total could reflect a total net of the waived fee.

5. Totals for the calendar year to date. Some institutions' statement periods do not coincide with the calendar month. In such cases, the institution may disclose a calendar year-to-date total by aggregating fees for 12 monthly cycles, starting with the period that begins during January and finishing with the period that begins during December. For example, if statement periods begin on the 10th day of each month, the statement covering December 10, 2006 through January 9, 2007 may disclose the year-to-date total for fees imposed from January 10, 2006 through January 9, 2007. Alternatively, the institution could provide a statement for the cycle ending January 9, 2007 showing the year-to-date total for fees imposed January 1, 2006 through December 31, 2006.

6. Itemization of fees. An institution may itemize each fee in addition to providing the disclosures required by § 1030.11(a)(1) of this part.

(a)(3) Format requirements.

1. Time period covered by periodic statement disclosures. The disclosures under § 1030.11(a) must be included on periodic statements provided by an institution starting the first statement period that begins after January 1, 2010. For example, if a consumer's statement period typically closes on the 15th of each month, an institution must provide the disclosures required by § 1030.11(a)(1) on subsequent periodic statements for that consumer beginning with the statement reflecting the period from January 16, 2010 to February 15, 2010.

(b) Advertising disclosures for overdraft services.

1. Examples of institutions promoting the payment of overdrafts. A depository institution would be required to include the advertising disclosures in § 1030.11(b)(1) of this part if the institution:

i. Promotes the institution's policy or practice of paying overdrafts (unless the service would be subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026)). This includes advertisements using print media such as newspapers or brochures, telephone solicitations, electronic mail, or messages posted on an Internet site. (But see § 1030.11(b)(2) of this part for communications that are not subject to the additional advertising disclosures.)

ii. Includes a message on a periodic statement informing the consumer of an overdraft limit or the amount of funds available for overdrafts. For example, an institution that includes a message on a periodic statement informing the consumer of a $500 overdraft limit or that the consumer has $300 remaining on the overdraft limit, is promoting an overdraft service.

iii. Discloses an overdraft limit or includes the dollar amount of an overdraft limit in a balance disclosed on an automated system, such as a telephone response machine, ATM screen or the institution's Internet site. (See, however, § 1030.11(b)(3) of this part.)

2. Transfer services. The overdraft services covered by § 1030.11(b)(1) of this part do not include a service providing for the transfer of funds from another deposit account of the consumer to permit the payment of items without creating an overdraft, even if a fee is charged for the transfer.

3. Electronic media. The exception for advertisements made through broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio, does not apply to advertisements posted on an institution's Internet site, on an ATM screen, provided on telephone response machines, or sent by electronic mail.

4. Fees. The fees that must be disclosed under § 1030.11(b)(1) of this part include per-item fees as well as interest charges, daily or other periodic fees, and fees charged for maintaining an account in overdraft status, whether the overdraft is by check or by other means. The fees also include fees charged when there are insufficient funds because previously deposited funds are subject to a hold or are uncollected. The fees do not include fees for transferring funds from another account to avoid an overdraft, or fees charged when the institution has previously agreed in writing to pay items that overdraw the account and the service is subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR Part 1026.

5. Categories of transactions. An exhaustive list of transactions is not required. Disclosing that a fee may be imposed for covering overdrafts “created by check, in-person withdrawal, ATM withdrawal, or other electronic means” would satisfy the requirements of § 1030.11(b)(1)(ii) of this part where the fee may be imposed in these circumstances. See comment 4(b)(4)-5 of this part.

6. Time period to repay. If a depository institution reserves the right to require a consumer to pay an overdraft immediately or on demand instead of affording consumers a specific time period to establish a positive balance in the account, an institution may comply with § 1030.11(b)(1)(iii) of this part by disclosing this fact.

7. Circumstances for nonpayment. An institution must describe the circumstances under which it will not pay an overdraft. It is sufficient to state, as applicable: “Whether your overdrafts will be paid is discretionary and we reserve the right not to pay. For example, we typically do not pay overdrafts if your account is not in good standing, or you are not making regular deposits, or you have too many overdrafts.”

8. Advertising an account as “free.” If the advertised account-related service is an overdraft service subject to the requirements of § 1030.11(b)(1) of this part, institutions must disclose the fee or fees for the payment of each overdraft, not merely that a cost is associated with the overdraft service, as well as other required information. Compliance with comment 8(a)-10.v. is not sufficient.

(c) Disclosure of account balances.

1. Balance that does not include additional amounts. For purposes of the balance disclosure requirement in § 1030.11(c), if an institution discloses balance information to a consumer through an automated system, it must disclose a balance that excludes any funds that the institution may provide to cover an overdraft pursuant to a discretionary overdraft service, that will be paid by the institution under a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR Part 1026), or that will be transferred from another account held individually or jointly by a consumer. The balance may, but need not, include funds that are deposited in the consumer's account, such as from a check, that are not yet made available for withdrawal in accordance with the funds availability rules under Regulation CC of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 229). In addition, the balance may, but need not, include funds that are held by the institution to satisfy a prior obligation of the consumer (for example, to cover a hold for an ATM or debit card transaction that has been authorized but for which the bank has not settled).

2. Retail sweep programs. In a retail sweep program, an institution establishes two legally distinct subaccounts, a transaction subaccount and a savings subaccount, which together make up the consumer's account. The institution allocates and transfers funds between the two subaccounts in order to maximize the balance in the savings account while complying with the monthly limitations on transfers out of savings accounts under Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR 204.2(d)(2)). Retail sweep programs are generally not established for the purpose of covering overdrafts. Rather, institutions typically establish retail sweep programs by agreement with the consumer, in order for the institution to minimize its transaction account reserve requirements and, in some cases, to provide a higher interest rate than the consumer would earn on a transaction account alone. Section 1030.11(c) does not require an institution to exclude from the consumer's balance funds that may be transferred from another account pursuant to a retail sweep program that is established for such purposes and that has the following characteristics:

i. The account involved complies with Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR 204.2(d)(2));

ii. The consumer does not have direct access to the non-transaction subaccount that is part of the retail sweep program; and

iii. The consumer's periodic statements show the account balance as the combined balance in the subaccounts.

3. Additional balance. The institution may disclose additional balances supplemented by funds that may be provided by the institution to cover an overdraft, whether pursuant to a discretionary overdraft service, a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR Part 1026), or a service that transfers funds from another account held individually or jointly by the consumer, so long as the institution prominently states that any additional balance includes these additional overdraft amounts. The institution may not simply state, for instance, that the second balance is the consumer's “available balance,” or contains “available funds.” Rather, the institution should provide enough information to convey that the second balance includes these amounts. For example, the institution may state that the balance includes “overdraft funds.” Where a consumer has not opted into, or as applicable, has opted out of the institution's discretionary overdraft service, any additional balance disclosed should not include funds that otherwise might be available under that service. Where a consumer has not opted into, or as applicable, has opted out of, the institution's discretionary overdraft service for some, but not all transactions (e.g. , the consumer has not opted into overdraft services for ATM and one-time debit card transactions), an institution that includes these additional overdraft funds in the second balance should convey that the overdraft funds are not available for all transactions. For example, the institution could state that overdraft funds are not available for ATM and one-time (or everyday) debit card transactions. Similarly, if funds are not available for all transactions pursuant to a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) or a service that transfers funds from another account, a second balance that includes such funds should also indicate this fact.

4. Automated systems. The balance disclosure requirement in § 1030.11(c) applies to any automated system through which the consumer requests a balance, including, but not limited to, a telephone response system, the institution's Internet site, or an ATM. The requirement applies whether the institution discloses a balance through an ATM owned or operated by the institution or through an ATM not owned or operated by the institution (including an ATM operated by a non-depository institution). If the balance is obtained at an ATM, the requirement also applies whether the balance is disclosed on the ATM screen or on a paper receipt.

Appendix A to Part 1030—Annual Percentage Yield Calculation

Part I. Annual Percentage Yield for Account Disclosures and Advertising Purposes

1. Rounding for calculations. The following are examples of permissible rounding for calculating interest and the annual percentage yield:

i. The daily rate applied to a balance carried to five or more decimal places

ii. The daily interest earned carried to five or more decimal places

Part II. Annual Percentage Yield Earned for Periodic Statements

1. Balance method. The interest figure used in the calculation of the annual percentage yield earned may be derived from the daily balance method or the average daily balance method. The balance used in the formula for the annual percentage yield earned is the sum of the balances for each day in the period divided by the number of days in the period.

2. Negative balances prohibited. Institutions must treat a negative account balance as zero to determine the balance on which the annual percentage yield earned is calculated. (See commentary to § 1030.7(a)(2).)

A. General Formula

1. Accrued but uncredited interest. To calculate the annual percentage yield earned, accrued but uncredited interest:

i. May not be included in the balance for statements issued at the same time or less frequently than the account's compounding and crediting frequency. For example, if monthly statements are sent for an account that compounds interest daily and credits interest monthly, the balance may not be increased each day to reflect the effect of daily compounding.

ii. Must be included in the balance for succeeding statements if a statement is issued more frequently than compounded interest is credited on an account. For example, if monthly statements are sent for an account that compounds interest daily and credits interest quarterly, the balance for the second monthly statement would include interest that had accrued for the prior month.

2. Rounding. The interest earned figure used to calculate the annual percentage yield earned must be rounded to two decimals and reflect the amount actually paid. For example, if the interest earned for a statement period is $20.074 and the institution pays the consumer $20.07, the institution must use $20.07 (not $20.074) to calculate the annual percentage yield earned. For accounts paying interest based on the daily balance method that compound and credit interest quarterly, and send monthly statements, the institution may, but need not, round accrued interest to two decimals for calculating the annual percentage yield earned on the first two monthly statements issued during the quarter. However, on the quarterly statement the interest earned figure must reflect the amount actually paid.

B. Special Formula for Use Where Periodic Statement Is Sent More Often Than the Period for Which Interest Is Compounded

1. Statements triggered by Regulation E. Institutions may, but need not, use this formula to calculate the annual percentage yield earned for accounts that receive quarterly statements and are subject to Regulation E's rule calling for monthly statements when an electronic fund transfer has occurred. They may do so even though no monthly statement was issued during a specific quarter. But institutions must use this formula for accounts that compound and credit interest quarterly and receive monthly statements that, while triggered by Regulation E, comply with the provisions of § 1030.6.

2. Days in compounding period. Institutions using the special annual percentage yield earned formula must use the actual number of days in the compounding period.

Appendix B to Part 1030—Model Clauses and Sample Forms

1. Modifications. Institutions that modify the model clauses will be deemed in compliance as long as they do not delete required information or rearrange the format in a way that affects the substance or clarity of the disclosures.

2. Format. Institutions may use inserts to a document (see Sample Form B-4) or fill-in blanks (see Sample Forms B-5, B-6 and B-7, which use underlining to indicate terms that have been filled in) to show current rates, fees, or other terms.

3. Disclosures for opening accounts. The sample forms illustrate the information that must be provided to consumers when an account is opened, as required by § 1030.4(a)(1). (See § 1030.4(a)(2), which states the requirements for disclosing the annual percentage yield, the interest rate, and the maturity of a time account in responding to a consumer's request.)

4. Compliance with Regulation E. Institutions may satisfy certain requirements under Regulation DD with disclosures that meet the requirements of Regulation E. (See § 1030.3(c).) For disclosures covered by both this part and Regulation E (such as the amount of fees for ATM usage, institutions should consult appendix A to Regulation E for appropriate model clauses.

5. Duplicate disclosures. If a requirement such as a minimum balance applies to more than one account term (to obtain a bonus and determine the annual percentage yield, for example), institutions need not repeat the requirement for each term, as long as it is clear which terms the requirement applies to.

6. Sample forms. The sample forms (B-4 through B-8) serve a purpose different from the model clauses. They illustrate ways of adapting the model clauses to specific accounts. The clauses shown relate only to the specific transactions described.

B-1 Model Clauses for Account Disclosures

B-1(h) Disclosures Relating to Time Accounts

1. Maturity. The disclosure in Clause (h)(i) stating a specific date may be used in all cases. The statement describing a time period is appropriate only when providing disclosures in response to a consumer's request.

B-2 Model Clauses for Change in Terms

1. General. The second clause, describing a future decrease in the interest rate and annual percentage yield, applies to fixed-rate accounts only.

B-4 Sample Form (Multiple Accounts)

1. Rate sheet insert. In the rate sheet insert, the calculations of the annual percentage yield for the three-month and six-month certificates are based on 92 days and 181 days respectively. All calculations in the insert assume daily compounding.

B-6 Sample Form (Tiered-Rate Money Market Account)

1. General. Sample Form B-6 uses Tiering Method A (discussed in appendix A and Clause (a)(iv)) to calculate interest. It gives a narrative description of a tiered-rate account; institutions may use different formats (for example, a chart similar to the one in Sample Form B-4), as long as all required information for each tier is clearly presented. The form does not contain a separate disclosure of the minimum balance required to obtain the annual percentage yield; the tiered-rate disclosure provides that information.

[76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 31701, July 3, 2019; 89 FR 82934, 82942, Oct. 15, 2024; 89 FR 95083, Dec. 2, 2024; 89 FR 104400, Dec. 23, 2024]

PART 1033 PERSONAL FINANCIAL DATA RIGHTS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5512; 12 U.S.C. 5514; 12 U.S.C. 5533.

Source: 89 FR 90989, Nov. 18, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1033.101 Authority, purpose, and organization.

(a) Authority. The regulation in this part is issued by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) pursuant to the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010 (CFPA), Pub. L. 111-203, tit. X, 124 Stat. 1955.

(b) Purpose. This part implements the provisions of section 1033 of the CFPA by requiring data providers to make available to consumers and authorized third parties, upon request, covered data in the data provider's control or possession concerning a covered consumer financial product or service, in an electronic form usable by consumers and authorized third parties; and by prescribing standards to promote the development and use of standardized formats for covered data, including through industry standards developed by standard-setting bodies recognized by the CFPB. This part also sets forth obligations of third parties that would access covered data on a consumer's behalf, including limitations on their collection, use, and retention of covered data.

(c) Organization. This part is divided into subparts as follows:

(1) Subpart A establishes the authority, purpose, organization, coverage of data providers, compliance dates, and definitions applicable to this part.

(2) Subpart B provides the general obligation of data providers to make covered data available upon the request of a consumer or authorized third party, including what types of information must be made available.

(3) Subpart C provides the requirements for data providers to establish and maintain interfaces to receive and respond to requests for covered data.

(4) Subpart D provides the obligations of third parties that would access covered data on behalf of a consumer.

(5) Appendix A to this part provides instructions for how a standard-setting body would apply for CFPB recognition.

§ 1033.111 Coverage of data providers.

(a) Coverage of data providers. A data provider has obligations under this part if it controls or possesses covered data concerning a covered consumer financial product or service that the consumer obtained from the data provider, subject to the exclusion in paragraph (d) of this section.

(b) Definition of covered consumer financial product or service. Covered consumer financial product or service means a consumer financial product or service, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(5), that is:

(1) A Regulation E account, which means an account, as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b);

(2) A Regulation Z credit card, which means a credit card, as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(15)(i); or

(3) Facilitation of payments from a Regulation E account or Regulation Z credit card, excluding products or services that merely facilitate first party payments. For purposes of this part, a first party payment is a transfer initiated by the payee or an agent acting on behalf of the underlying payee. First party payments include payments initiated by loan servicers.

(c) Definition of data provider. Data provider means a covered person, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(6), that is:

(1) A financial institution, as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(i);

(2) A card issuer, as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(7); or

(3) Any other person that controls or possesses information concerning a covered consumer financial product or service that the consumer obtained from that person.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): A digital wallet provider is a data provider.

(d) Coverage threshold—Certain depository institutions. The requirements of subparts B and C of this part do not apply to data providers defined under paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section that are depository institutions that hold total assets equal to or less than the Small Business Administration (SBA) size standard, as determined in accordance with this paragraph (d). If at any point a depository institution that held total assets greater than that SBA size standard as of or at any point after January 17, 2025 subsequently holds total assets below that amount, the requirements of subparts B and C of this part continue to apply.

(1) Determining SBA size standard. For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, the SBA size standard is the SBA size standard for the data provider's appropriate North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code for commercial banking, credit unions, savings institutions and other depository credit intermediation, or credit card issuing, as codified in 13 CFR 121.201.

(2) Calculating total assets. For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, total assets held by a depository institution are determined by averaging the assets reported on its own four preceding quarterly call report submissions to the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council or National Credit Union Association, as applicable, or its submissions to the appropriate oversight body to the extent it does not submit such reports to the Federal Financial Examination Council or National Credit Union Administration.

(3) Merger or acquisition—coverage of surviving depository institution when there are not four quarterly call report submissions. After a merger or acquisition the surviving depository institution shall determine quarterly assets prior to the merger or acquisition by using the combined assets reported on the quarterly call report submissions by all predecessor depository institutions. The surviving depository institution shall determine quarterly assets after the merger or acquisition by using the assets reported on the quarterly call report submissions by the surviving depository institution. The surviving depository institution shall determine total assets by using the average of the quarterly assets for the four preceding quarters, whether the quarterly assets are the combined assets of the predecessor depository institutions or from the surviving depository institution.

§ 1033.121 Compliance dates.

(a) Determining assets and revenue for purposes of initial compliance dates. A data provider's compliance date in paragraph (b) of this section is based on the calculation of total assets or total receipts, as appropriate, described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.

(1) With respect to a depository institution data provider, total assets are determined by averaging the assets reported on its 2023 third quarter, 2023 fourth quarter, 2024 first quarter, and 2024 second quarter call report submissions to the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council or National Credit Union Administration, as applicable, or its submissions to the appropriate oversight body to the extent it does not submit such reports to the Federal Financial Examination Council or National Credit Union Administration. If, as a result of a merger or acquisition, a depository institution data provider does not have the named four quarterly call report submissions, the depository institution data provider shall use the process set out in § 1033.111(d)(3) to determine total assets for the time period named in this paragraph (a)(1).

(2) With respect to a nondepository institution data provider, total receipts are calculated based on the SBA definition of receipts, as codified in 13 CFR 121.104(a).

(b) Initial compliance dates. A data provider defined under § 1033.111(c)(1) through (3) must comply with the requirements in subparts B and C of this part beginning on:

(1) April 1, 2026, for depository institution data providers that hold at least $250 billion in total assets and nondepository institution data providers that generated at least $10 billion in total receipts in either calendar year 2023 or calendar year 2024.

(2) April 1, 2027, for data providers that are:

(i) Depository institutions that hold at least $10 billion in total assets but less than $250 billion in total assets; or

(ii) Nondepository institutions that did not generate $10 billion or more in total receipts in both calendar year 2023 and calendar year 2024.

(3) April 1, 2028, for depository institution data providers that hold at least $3 billion in total assets but less than $10 billion in total assets.

(4) April 1, 2029, for depository institution data providers that hold at least $1.5 billion in total assets but less than $3 billion in total assets.

(5) April 1, 2030, for depository institution data providers that hold less than $1.5 billion in total assets but more than $850 million in total assets.

(c) Compliance dates for depository institution data providers that subsequently cross coverage threshold. A depository institution data provider under § 1033.111(c)(1) through (3) that has total assets as calculated in § 1033.111(d)(2) equal to or less than the SBA size standard as determined in accordance with § 1033.111(d)(1), but that subsequently holds total assets that exceed that SBA size standard, as measured in § 1033.111(d)(2), must comply with the requirements in subparts B and C of this part within a reasonable amount of time after exceeding the size standard, not to exceed five years.

§ 1033.131 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

Authorized third party means a third party that has complied with the authorization procedures described in § 1033.401.

Card issuer is defined at § 1033.111(c)(2).

Consensus standard means a standard that is adopted by a recognized standard setter and that continues to be maintained by that recognized standard setter.

Consumer means a natural person. Trusts established for tax or estate planning purposes are considered natural persons for purposes of this definition. Consumer also includes guardians, trustees, custodians, or other similar natural persons acting on behalf of a consumer pursuant to State law.

Consumer interface means an interface through which a data provider receives requests for covered data and makes available covered data in an electronic form usable by consumers in response to the requests.

Covered consumer financial product or service is defined at § 1033.111(b).

Covered data is defined at § 1033.211.

Data aggregator means a person that is retained by and provides services to the authorized third party to enable access to covered data.

Data provider is defined at § 1033.111(c).

Depository institution means any depository institution as defined by the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(1), or any credit union as defined by 12 CFR 700.2.

Developer interface means an interface through which a data provider receives requests for covered data and makes available covered data in an electronic form usable by authorized third parties in response to the requests.

Financial institution is defined at § 1033.111(c)(1).

Recognized standard setter means a standard-setting body that has been recognized by the CFPB under § 1033.141.

Regulation E account is defined at § 1033.111(b)(1).

Regulation Z credit card is defined at § 1033.111(b)(2).

Third party means any person that is not the consumer about whom the covered data pertains or the data provider that controls or possesses the consumer's covered data.

§ 1033.141 Standard-setting bodies.

(a) Recognition of a standard-setting body. A standard-setting body may request CFPB recognition. Recognition will last up to five years, absent revocation. The CFPB will not recognize a standard-setting body unless it demonstrates that it satisfies the following attributes:

(1) Openness. The sources, procedures, and processes used are open to all interested parties, including: consumer and other public interest groups with expertise in consumer protection, financial services, community development, fair lending, and civil rights; authorized third parties; data providers; data recipients; data aggregators and other providers of services to authorized third parties; and relevant trade associations. Parties can meaningfully participate in standards development on a non-discriminatory basis.

(2) Balance. The decision-making power is balanced across all interested parties, including consumer and other public interest groups, and is reflected at all levels of the standard-setting body. There is meaningful representation for large and small commercial entities within these categories. No single interest or set of interests dominates decision-making. Achieving balance requires recognition that, even when a participant may play multiple roles, such as data provider and authorized third party, the weight of that participant's commercial concerns may align primarily with one set of interests. The ownership of participants is considered in achieving balance.

(3) Due process and appeals. The standard-setting body uses documented and publicly available policies and procedures, and it provides adequate notice of meetings and standards development, sufficient time to review drafts and prepare views and objections, access to views and objections of other participants, and a fair and impartial process for resolving conflicting views. An appeals process is available for the impartial handling of procedural appeals.

(4) Consensus. Standards development proceeds by consensus, which is defined as general agreement, though not necessarily unanimity. During the development of consensus, comments and objections are considered using fair, impartial, open, and transparent processes.

(5) Transparency. Procedures or processes for participating in standards development and for developing standards are transparent to participants and publicly available.

Subpart B Making Covered Data Available

§ 1033.201 Availability and prohibition against evasion.

(a) Obligation to make covered data available—(1) General. A data provider must make available to a consumer and an authorized third party, upon request, covered data in the data provider's control or possession concerning a covered consumer financial product or service that the consumer obtained from the data provider, in an electronic form usable by consumers and authorized third parties.

(2) Prohibition against evasion. A data provider must not take any action:

(i) With the intent of evading the requirements of subparts B and C of this part;

(ii) That the data provider knows or should know is likely to render unusable the covered data that the data provider makes available; or

(iii) That the data provider knows or should know is likely to prevent, interfere with, or materially discourage a consumer or authorized third party from accessing covered data consistent with this part.

(b) Current data. In complying with paragraph (a) of this section, a data provider must make available the most recently updated covered data that it has in its control or possession at the time of a request. A data provider must make available information concerning authorized but not yet settled transactions.

§ 1033.211 Covered data.

Covered data in this part means, as applicable:

(a) Transaction information, including historical transaction information in the control or possession of the data provider. A data provider is deemed to make available sufficient historical transaction information for purposes of § 1033.201(a)(1) if it makes available at least 24 months of such information.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): This category includes amount, transaction date, payment type, pending or authorized status, payee or merchant name, rewards credits, and fees or finance charges.

(b) Account balance information.

(c) Information to initiate payment to or from a Regulation E account directly or indirectly held by the data provider. This category includes an account and routing number that can be used to initiate an Automated Clearing House transaction.

(1) In complying with its obligation under § 1033.201(a)(1), a data provider is permitted to make available a tokenized account number instead of, or in addition to, a non-tokenized account number, as long as the tokenization is not used as a pretext to restrict competitive use of payment initiation information.

(2) This paragraph (c) does not apply to data providers who do not directly or indirectly hold the underlying Regulation E account. For example, a data provider that merely facilitates pass-through payments would not be required to make available account and routing number for the underlying Regulation E account.

(d) Terms and conditions. For purposes of this section, terms and conditions are limited to data in agreements evidencing the terms of the legal obligation between a data provider and a consumer for a covered consumer financial product or service, such data in the account opening agreement and any amendments or additions to that agreement, including pricing information.

Example 2 to paragraph (d): This category includes the applicable fee schedule, any annual percentage rate or annual percentage yield, credit limit, rewards program terms, whether a consumer has opted into overdraft coverage, and whether a consumer has entered into an arbitration agreement.

(e) Upcoming bill information.

Example 3 to paragraph (e): This category includes information about third party bill payments scheduled through the data provider and any upcoming payments due from the consumer to the data provider.

(f) Basic account verification information, which is limited to the name, address, email address, and phone number associated with the covered consumer financial product or service. If a data provider directly or indirectly holds a Regulation E or Regulation Z account belonging to the consumer, the data provider must also make available a truncated account number or other identifier for that account.

§ 1033.221 Exceptions.

A data provider is not required to make available the following covered data to a consumer or authorized third party:

(a) Any confidential commercial information, including an algorithm used to derive credit scores or other risk scores or predictors. Information does not qualify for this exception merely because it is an input to, or an output of, an algorithm, risk score, or predictor. For example, annual percentage rate and other pricing terms are sometimes determined by an internal algorithm or predictor but do not fall within this exception.

(b) Any information collected by the data provider for the sole purpose of preventing fraud or money laundering, or detecting, or making any report regarding other unlawful or potentially unlawful conduct. Information collected for other purposes does not fall within this exception. For example, name and other basic account verification information do not fall within this exception.

(c) Any information required to be kept confidential by any other provision of law. Information does not qualify for this exception merely because the data provider must protect it for the consumer. For example, the data provider cannot restrict access to the consumer's own information merely because that information is subject to privacy protections.

(d) Any information that the data provider cannot retrieve in the ordinary course of its business with respect to that information.

Subpart C Data Provider Interfaces; Responding to Requests

§ 1033.301 General requirements.

(a) Requirement to maintain interfaces. A data provider subject to the requirements of this part must maintain a consumer interface and a developer interface. The consumer interface and the developer interface must satisfy the requirements set forth in this section. The developer interface must satisfy the additional requirements set forth in § 1033.311.

(b) Machine-readable files upon request. Upon request for covered data in a machine-readable file, and subject to paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a data provider must make available to a consumer or an authorized third party covered data in a file that is machine-readable and that the consumer or authorized third party can retain and transfer for processing into a separate information system that is reasonably available to and in the control of the consumer or authorized third party.

(1) Consumer interface. With respect to covered data provided through its consumer interface, a data provider is not required to comply with:

(i) The requirements of this paragraph (b) for the covered data described in § 1033.211(c) (payment initiation information) and (f) (account verification information); and

(ii) The requirement of this paragraph (b) to provide in a file that is machine-readable the covered data described in § 1033.211(d) (terms and conditions).

(2) Developer interface. With respect to covered data provided through its developer interface, a data provider satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b) if it makes available covered data in a form that satisfies the requirements of § 1033.311(b).

(c) Fees prohibited. A data provider must not impose any fees or charges on a consumer or an authorized third party in connection with:

(1) Interfaces. Establishing or maintaining the interfaces required by paragraph (a) of this section; or

(2) Requests. Receiving requests or making available covered data in response to requests as required by this part.

§ 1033.311 Requirements applicable to developer interface.

(a) General. A developer interface required by § 1033.301(a) must satisfy the requirements set forth in this section.

(b) Standardized format. The developer interface must make available covered data in a standardized and machine-readable format. Indicia that the format satisfies this requirement include that it conforms to a consensus standard.

(1) Meaning of format. For purposes of this section, format includes structures and definitions of covered data and requirements and protocols for communicating requests and responses for covered data.

(2) Meaning of standardized. For purposes of this section, standardized means conforms to a format widely used by other data providers and designed to be readily usable by authorized third parties.

(c) Commercially reasonable performance. A developer interface's performance must be commercially reasonable.

(1) Response rate; quantitative minimum performance specification. The performance of the interface cannot be commercially reasonable if it does not meet the following quantitative minimum performance specification regarding its response rate: The number of proper responses by the interface divided by the total number of requests for covered data to the interface must be equal to or greater than 99.5 percent in each calendar month. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), all of the following requirements apply:

(i) Any responses by and requests to the interface during scheduled downtime for the interface must be excluded respectively from the numerator and the denominator of the calculation.

(ii) In order for any downtime of the interface to qualify as scheduled downtime, the data provider must have provided reasonable notice of the downtime to all third parties to which the data provider has granted access to the interface. Indicia that the data provider's notice of the downtime may be reasonable include that the notice conforms to a consensus standard.

(iii) The total amount of scheduled downtime for the interface in a calendar month must be reasonable. Indicia that the total amount of scheduled downtime may be reasonable include that the amount conforms to a consensus standard.

(iv) A proper response is a response, other than any message provided during unscheduled downtime of the interface, that meets all of the following criteria:

(A) The response either fulfills the request or explains why the request was not fulfilled;

(B) The response is consistent with the reasonable written policies and procedures that the data provider establishes and maintains pursuant to § 1033.351(a); and

(C) The response is provided by the interface within a commercially reasonable amount of time. Indicia that a response is provided in a commercially reasonable amount of time include conformance to an applicable consensus standard.

(2) Indicia of compliance—(i) Indicia. Indicia that a developer interface's performance is commercially reasonable as required by paragraph (c) of this section include:

(A) Whether the interface's performance conforms to a consensus standard that is applicable to the data provider;

(B) How the interface's performance compares to the performance levels achieved by the developer interfaces of similarly situated data providers; and

(C) How the interface's performance compares to the performance levels achieved by the data provider's consumer interface.

(ii) Performance specifications. For each of the three indicia set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, relevant performance specifications include:

(A) The interface's response rate as defined in paragraphs (c)(1) through (iv) of this section;

(B) The interface's total amount of scheduled downtime;

(C) The amount of time in advance of any scheduled downtime by which notice of the downtime is provided;

(D) The interface's total amount of unscheduled downtime; and

(E) The interface's response time.

(d) Access caps. Except as otherwise permitted by §§ 1033.221, 1033.321, and 1033.331(b) and (c), a data provider must not unreasonably restrict the frequency with which it receives or responds to requests for covered data from an authorized third party through its developer interface. Any frequency restrictions must be applied in a manner that is non-discriminatory and consistent with the reasonable written policies and procedures that the data provider establishes and maintains pursuant to § 1033.351(a). Indicia that any frequency restrictions applied are reasonable include that they conform to a consensus standard.

(e) Security specifications—(1) Access credentials. A data provider must not allow a third party to access the data provider's developer interface by using any credentials that a consumer uses to access the consumer interface. A contract between a data provider and the data provider's service provider, pursuant to which the service provider establishes or maintains the data provider's developer interface, does not violate this paragraph (e)(1) if the contract provides that the service provider will make covered data available, in a form and manner that satisfies the requirements of this part, to authorized third parties through the developer interface by means of the service provider using a consumer's credentials to access the data from the data provider's consumer interface.

(2) Security program. (i) A data provider must apply to the developer interface an information security program that satisfies the applicable rules issued pursuant to section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 U.S.C. 6801; or

(ii) If the data provider is not subject to section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, the data provider must apply to its developer interface the information security program required by the Federal Trade Commission's Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information, 16 CFR part 314.

§ 1033.321 Interface access.

(a) Denials related to risk management. A data provider does not violate the general obligation in § 1033.201(a)(1) by denying a consumer or third party access to all elements of the interface described in § 1033.301(a) if:

(1) Granting access would be inconsistent with policies and procedures reasonably designed to comply with:

(i) Safety and soundness standards of a prudential regulator, as defined at 12 U.S.C. 5481(24), of the data provider;

(ii) Information security standards required by section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 U.S.C. 6801; or

(iii) Other applicable laws and regulations regarding risk management; and

(2) The denial is reasonable pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) Requirements for reasonable denials. A denial is reasonable pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section if it is:

(1) Directly related to a specific risk of which the data provider is aware, such as a failure of a third party to maintain adequate data security; and

(2) Applied in a consistent and non-discriminatory manner.

(c) Indicia bearing on reasonable denials. Indicia bearing on the reasonableness of a denial pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section include:

(1) Whether the denial adheres to a consensus standard related to risk management;

(2) Whether the denial proceeds from standardized risk management criteria that are available to the third party upon request; and

(3) Whether the third party has a certification or other identification of fitness to access covered data that is issued or recognized by a recognized standard setter or the CFPB.

(d) Conditions sufficient to justify a denial. Each of the following is a sufficient basis for denying access to a third party:

(1) The third party does not present any evidence that its information security practices are adequate to safeguard the covered data; or

(2) The third party does not make the following information available in both human-readable and machine-readable formats, and readily identifiable to members of the public, meaning the information must be at least as available as it would be on a public website:

(i) Its legal name and, if applicable, any assumed name it is using while doing business with the consumer;

(ii) A link to its website;

(iii) Its Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) that is issued by:

(A) A utility endorsed by the LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee, or

(B) A utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Foundation (or any successor thereof) after the Global LEI Foundation assumes operational governance of the global LEI system; and

(iv) Contact information a data provider can use to inquire about the third party's information security and compliance practices.

§ 1033.331 Responding to requests for information.

(a) Responding to requests—access by consumers. To comply with the requirements in § 1033.201(a)(1), upon request from a consumer, a data provider must make available covered data when it receives information sufficient to:

(1) Authenticate the consumer's identity; and

(2) Identify the scope of the data requested.

(b) Responding to requests—access by third parties. (1) To comply with the requirements in § 1033.201(a)(1), upon request from an authorized third party, a data provider must make available covered data when it receives information sufficient to:

(i) Authenticate the consumer's identity;

(ii) Authenticate the third party's identity;

(iii) Document the third party has followed the authorization procedures in § 1033.401; and

(iv) Identify the scope of the data requested.

(2) The data provider is permitted to confirm the scope of a third party's authorization to access the consumer's data by asking the consumer to confirm:

(i) The account(s) to which the third party is seeking access; and

(ii) The categories of covered data the third party is requesting to access, as disclosed by the third party pursuant to § 1033.411(b)(4).

Example 1 to paragraph (b): An authorized third party that a data provider has authenticated requests covered data on behalf of an authenticated consumer through the data provider's developer interface. The data provider asks the consumer to confirm the scope of the third party's authorization using a means of communication that the consumer is not accustomed to using with the data provider and that the data provider knows or should know will take a long period of time to reach the consumer and allow the consumer to respond with the confirmation. As a result of the long wait time, the consumer cannot provide a timely confirmation, delaying the third party's access to the covered data. This data provider has violated the § 1033.201(a)(2) prohibition against evasion by taking an action that the data provider knows or should know is likely to interfere with an authorized third party's access to covered data.

(c) Covered data not required to be made available. A data provider is not required to make covered data available in response to a request when:

(1) The data are withheld because an exception described in § 1033.221 applies;

(2) The data are not in the data provider's control or possession, consistent with the requirement in § 1033.201(a)(1).

(3) The data provider's interface is not available when the data provider receives a request requiring a response under this section. However, the data provider is subject to the performance specifications in § 1033.311(c);

(4) The request is for access by a third party; and

(i) The consumer has revoked the third party's authorization pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section;

(ii) The data provider has received notice that the consumer has revoked the third party's authorization pursuant to § 1033.421(h)(2); or

(iii) The consumer has not provided a new authorization to the third party after the maximum duration period, as described in § 1033.421(b)(2).

(5) The data provider has not received information sufficient to satisfy the conditions in paragraph(a) or (b) of this section.

(d) Jointly held accounts. A data provider that receives a request for covered data from a consumer that jointly holds an account or from an authorized third party acting on behalf of such a consumer must make available covered data to that consumer or authorized third party, subject to the other provisions of this section.

(e) Method to revoke third party authorization to access covered data. A data provider does not violate the general obligation in § 1033.201(a)(1) by making available to the consumer a reasonable method to revoke any third party's authorization to access all of the consumer's covered data, provided that such method does not violate § 1033.201(a)(2). Indicia that the data provider's revocation method is reasonable include its conformance to a consensus standard. A data provider that receives a revocation request from a consumer through a revocation method it makes available must revoke the authorized third party's access and notify the authorized third party of the request in a timely manner.

§ 1033.341 Information about the data provider.

(a) Requirement to make information about the data provider readily identifiable. A data provider must make the information described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section:

(1) Readily identifiable to members of the public, meaning the information must be at least as available as it would be on a public website; and

(2) Available in both human-readable and machine-readable formats.

(b) Identifying information. A data provider must disclose in the manner required by paragraph (a) of this section:

(1) Its legal name and, if applicable, any assumed name it is using while doing business with the consumer;

(2) A link to its website;

(3) Its LEI that is issued by:

(i) A utility endorsed by the LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee, or

(ii) A utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Foundation (or any successor thereof) after the Global LEI Foundation assumes operational governance of the global LEI system; and

(4) Contact information that enables a consumer or third party to receive answers to questions about accessing covered data under this part.

(c) Developer interface documentation. For its developer interface, a data provider must disclose in the manner required by paragraph (a) of this section documentation, including metadata describing all covered data and their corresponding data fields, and other documentation sufficient for a third party to access and use the interface. A data provider is not required to make publicly available information that would impede its ability to deny a third party access to its developer interface, consistent with § 1033.321. Indicia that documentation is sufficient for a third party to access and use a developer interface include conformance to a consensus standard. The documentation must:

(1) Be maintained and updated as reasonably necessary for third parties to access and use the interface in accordance with the terms to which data providers are subject under this part;

(2) Include how third parties can get technical support and report issues with the interface; and

(3) Be easy to understand and use, similar to data providers' documentation for other commercially available products.

(d) Performance disclosure. On or before the final day of each calendar month, a data provider must disclose in the manner required by paragraph (a) of this section the quantitative minimum performance specification for the response rate described in § 1033.311(c)(1)(i) through (iv) that the data provider's developer interface achieved in the previous calendar month. The data provider's disclosure must include at least a rolling 13 months of the required monthly figure, except that the disclosure need not include the monthly figure for months prior to the compliance date applicable to the data provider. The data provider must disclose the metric as a percentage rounded to four decimal places, such as “99.9999 percent.”

§ 1033.351 Policies and procedures.

(a) Reasonable written policies and procedures. A data provider must establish and maintain written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to achieve the objectives set forth in subparts B and C of this part, including paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. Policies and procedures must be appropriate to the size, nature, and complexity of the data provider's activities. A data provider has flexibility to design policies and procedures to avoid acting inconsistently with its other legal obligations, or in a way that could reasonably hinder enforcement against unlawful or potentially unlawful conduct. A data provider must periodically review the policies and procedures required by this section and update them as appropriate to ensure their continued effectiveness.

(b) Policies and procedures for making covered data available. The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be reasonably designed to ensure that:

(1) Making available covered data. A data provider creates a record of the data fields of covered data in the data provider's control or possession, what covered data are not made available through a consumer or developer interface pursuant to an exception in § 1033.221, and the reasons the exception applies. Indicia that a data provider's record of such data fields complies with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(1) include listing data fields that conform to those published by a consensus standard.

(2) Denials of developer interface access. When a data provider denies a third party access to a developer interface pursuant to § 1033.321, the data provider:

(i) Creates a record substantiating the basis for denial; and

(ii) Communicates in a timely manner to the third party, electronically or in writing, the reason(s) for the denial.

(3) Denials of information requests. When a data provider denies a request for information for a reason described in § 1033.331(c), to the extent the communication of the denial is not required to be standardized by § 1033.311(b), the data provider:

(i) Creates a record substantiating the basis for the denial; and

(ii) Communicates in a timely manner to the consumer or third party, electronically or in writing, the type(s) of information denied, if applicable, and the reason(s) for the denial.

(c) Policies and procedures for ensuring accuracy—(1) In general. The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be reasonably designed to ensure that covered data are accurately made available through the data provider's developer interface.

(2) Elements. In developing its policies and procedures regarding accuracy, a data provider must consider, for example:

(i) Implementing the format requirements of § 1033.311(b); and

(ii) Addressing information provided by a consumer or a third party regarding inaccuracies in the covered data made available through its developer interface.

(3) Indicia of compliance. Indicia that a data provider's policies and procedures regarding accuracy are reasonable include whether the policies and procedures conform to a consensus standard regarding accuracy.

(d) Policies and procedures for record retention. The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be reasonably designed to ensure retention of records that are evidence of compliance with subparts B and C of this part.

(1) Retention period. Records that are evidence of a data provider's actions in response to a consumer's or third party's request for information or a third party's request to access a developer interface must be retained for at least three years after a data provider has responded to the request. All other records that are evidence of compliance with subparts B and C of this part must be retained for a reasonable period of time of at least three years from the date of the action required under subparts B and C of this part.

(2) Certain records retained pursuant to policies and procedures. Records retained pursuant to policies and procedures required under paragraph (a) of this section must include, without limitation:

(i) Records documenting requests for a third party's access to an interface, actions taken in response to such requests, and reasons for denying access, if applicable, for at least three years after the data provider has responded to the request;

(ii) Records providing evidence of fulfillment of requests for information, actions taken in response to such requests, and reasons for not making the information available, if applicable, for at least three years after the data provider has responded to the request;

(iii) Records documenting that the third party has followed the authorization procedures in § 1033.401 to access data on behalf of a consumer, for at least three years after such records are generated;

(iv) Records providing evidence of actions taken by a consumer and a data provider to revoke a third party's access pursuant to any revocation method made available by a data provider, for at least three years after the revocation;

(v) Records providing evidence of commercially reasonable performance described in § 1033.311(c)(2)(ii), for at least three years after the period recorded;

(vi) Written policies and procedures required under this section for three years from the time such material was last applicable; and

(vii) Disclosures required under § 1033.341, for three years from the time such material was disclosed to the public.

Subpart D Authorized Third Parties

§ 1033.401 Third party authorization; general.

To become an authorized third party, the third party must seek access to covered data from a data provider on behalf of a consumer to provide a product or service the consumer requested and:

(a) Provide the consumer with an authorization disclosure as described in § 1033.411;

(b) Provide a statement to the consumer in the authorization disclosure, as provided in § 1033.411(b)(5), certifying that the third party agrees to the obligations described in § 1033.421; and

(c) Obtain the consumer's express informed consent to access covered data on behalf of the consumer by obtaining an authorization disclosure that is signed by the consumer electronically or in writing.

§ 1033.411 Authorization disclosure.

(a) In general. To comply with § 1033.401(a), a third party must provide the consumer with an authorization disclosure electronically or in writing. The authorization disclosure must be clear, conspicuous, and segregated from other material. The names included in the authorization disclosure as required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section and by § 1033.431(b) must be readily understandable to the consumer.

(b) Content. The authorization disclosure must include:

(1) The name of the third party that will be authorized to access covered data pursuant to the third party authorization procedures in § 1033.401.

(2) The name of the data provider that controls or possesses the covered data that the third party identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section seeks to access on the consumer's behalf.

(3) A brief description of the product or service the consumer has requested from the third party identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and a statement that the third party will collect, use, and retain the consumer's data only as reasonably necessary to provide that product or service to the consumer.

(4) The categories of data that will be accessed. Categories must have a substantially similar level of specificity as the categories in § 1033.211.

(5) The certification statement described in § 1033.401(b).

(6) A brief description of the expected duration of data collection and a statement that collection will not last longer than one year after the consumer's most recent reauthorization.

(7) A description of the revocation method described in § 1033.421(h)(1).

(c) Language access—(1) In general. The authorization disclosure must be in the same language as the communication in which the authorization disclosure is conveyed to the consumer. Any translation of the authorization disclosure provided to the consumer must be complete and accurate.

(2) Additional languages. If the authorization disclosure is in a language other than English, it must include a link to an English-language translation, and it is permitted to include links to translations in other languages. If the authorization disclosure is in English, it is permitted to include links to translations in other languages.

§ 1033.421 Third party obligations.

(a) General limitation on collection, use, and retention of consumer data—(1) In general. The third party will limit its collection, use, and retention of covered data to what is reasonably necessary to provide the consumer's requested product or service.

(2) Specific purposes. For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the following are not part of, or reasonably necessary to provide, any other product or service:

(i) Targeted advertising;

(ii) Cross-selling of other products or services; or

(iii) The sale of covered data.

(b) Collection of covered data—(1) In general. Collection of covered data for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section includes the scope of covered data requested and the duration and frequency of collection of covered data.

(2) Maximum duration. In addition to the limitation described in paragraph (a) of this section, the third party will limit the duration of collection of covered data to a maximum period of one year after the consumer's most recent authorization.

(3) Reauthorization after maximum duration. To collect covered data beyond the one-year maximum period described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the third party will obtain a new authorization from the consumer pursuant to § 1033.401 no later than the anniversary of the most recent authorization from the consumer. The third party is permitted to ask the consumer for a new authorization pursuant to § 1033.401 in a reasonable manner. Indicia that a new authorization request is reasonable include its conformance to a consensus standard.

(c) Use of covered data. Use of covered data for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section includes both the third party's own use of covered data and provision of covered data by that third party to other third parties. Examples of uses of covered data that are permitted under paragraph (a) of this section include:

(1) Uses that are specifically required under other provisions of law, including to comply with a properly authorized subpoena or summons or to respond to a judicial process or government regulatory authority;

(2) Uses that are reasonably necessary to protect against or prevent actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability;

(3) Servicing or processing the product or service the consumer requested; and

(4) Uses that are reasonably necessary to improve the product or service the consumer requested.

(d) Accuracy. A third party will establish and maintain written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure that covered data are accurately received from a data provider and accurately provided to another third party, if applicable.

(1) Flexibility. A third party has flexibility to determine its policies and procedures in light of the size, nature, and complexity of its activities.

(2) Periodic review. A third party will periodically review its policies and procedures and update them as appropriate to ensure their continued effectiveness.

(3) Elements. In developing its policies and procedures regarding accuracy, a third party must consider, for example:

(i) Accepting covered data in a format required by § 1033.311(b); and

(ii) Addressing information provided by a consumer, data provider, or another third party regarding inaccuracies in the covered data.

(4) Indicia of compliance. Indicia that a third party's policies and procedures are reasonable include whether the policies and procedures conform to a consensus standard regarding accuracy.

(e) Data security. (1) A third party will apply to its systems for the collection, use, and retention of covered data an information security program that satisfies the applicable rules issued pursuant to section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801); or

(2) If the third party is not subject to section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, the third party will apply to its systems for the collection, use, and retention of covered data the information security program required by the Federal Trade Commission's Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information, 16 CFR part 314.

(f) Provision of covered data to other third parties. Before providing covered data to another third party, subject to the limitation described in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, the third party will require the other third party by contract to comply with the third party obligations in paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section and the condition in paragraph (i) of this section upon receipt of the notice described in paragraph (h)(2) of this section.

(g) Ensuring consumers are informed. (1) Upon obtaining authorization to access covered data on the consumer's behalf, the third party will provide the consumer with a copy of the authorization disclosure that the consumer has signed electronically or in writing and that reflects the date of the consumer's electronic or written signature. The third party will deliver that copy of the authorization disclosure to the consumer or make it available in a location that is readily accessible to the consumer, such as the third party's interface. If the third party makes the authorization disclosure available in such a location, the third party will ensure it is accessible to the consumer until the third party's access to the consumer's covered data terminates.

(2) The third party will provide contact information that enables a consumer to receive answers to questions about the third party's access to the consumer's covered data. The contact information must be readily identifiable to the consumer.

(3) The third party will establish and maintain reasonable written policies and procedures designed to ensure that the third party provides to the consumer, upon request, the information listed in this paragraph (g)(3) about the third party's access to the consumer's covered data. The third party has flexibility to determine its policies and procedures in light of the size, nature, and complexity of its activities, and the third party will periodically review its policies and procedures and update them as appropriate to ensure their continued effectiveness. The policies and procedures must be designed to ensure that the third party provides the following to the consumer, upon request:

(i) Categories of covered data collected;

(ii) Reasons for collecting the covered data;

(iii) Names of parties with which the covered data was shared. The names must be readily understandable to the consumer;

(iv) Reasons for sharing the covered data;

(v) Status of the third party's authorization;

(vi) How the consumer can revoke the third party's authorization to access the consumer's covered data and verification the third party has adhered to requests for revocation; and

(vii) A copy of any data aggregator certification statement that was provided to the consumer pursuant to § 1033.431(c)(2).

(h) Revocation of third party authorization—(1) Provision of revocation method. The third party will provide the consumer with a method to revoke the third party's authorization to access the consumer's covered data that is as easy to access and operate as the initial authorization. The third party will also ensure the consumer is not subject to costs or penalties for revoking the third party's authorization.

(2) Notice of revocation. The third party will notify the data provider, any data aggregator, and other third parties to whom it has provided the consumer's covered data when the third party receives a revocation request from the consumer.

(i) Effect of maximum duration and revocation on collection, use, and retention. If a consumer does not provide a new authorization as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, or if a third party receives a revocation request as described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section or notice of a consumer's revocation request as described in § 1033.331(e), a third party will:

(1) No longer collect covered data pursuant to the most recent authorization; and

(2) No longer use or retain covered data that was previously collected pursuant to the most recent authorization unless use or retention of that covered data remains reasonably necessary to provide the consumer's requested product or service under paragraph (a) of this section.

§ 1033.431 Use of data aggregator.

(a) Responsibility for authorization procedures when the third party will use a data aggregator. A data aggregator is permitted to perform the authorization procedures described in § 1033.401 on behalf of the third party seeking authorization under § 1033.401 to access covered data. However, the third party seeking authorization remains responsible for compliance with the authorization procedures described in § 1033.401, and the data aggregator must comply with paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Disclosure of the name of the data aggregator. The authorization disclosure must include the name of any data aggregator that will assist the third party seeking authorization under § 1033.401 with accessing covered data and a brief description of the services the data aggregator will provide.

(c) Data aggregator certification. When the third party seeking authorization under § 1033.401 will use a data aggregator to assist with accessing covered data on behalf of a consumer, the data aggregator must certify to the consumer that it agrees to the conditions on accessing the consumer's data in § 1033.421(a) through (f) and the condition in § 1033.421(i) upon receipt of the notice described in § 1033.421(h)(2) before accessing the consumer's data. For this requirement to be satisfied:

(1) The third party seeking authorization under § 1033.401 must include the data aggregator's certification in the authorization disclosure described in § 1033.411; or

(2) The data aggregator must provide its certification to the consumer, electronically or in writing, separate from the authorization disclosure. The certification must be in the same language as the authorization disclosure and must be clear, conspicuous, and segregated from other material. The name of any data aggregator in the certification must be readily understandable to the consumer. If, after the consumer has completed the authorization procedures, the authorized third party retains a data aggregator to assist with accessing covered data on behalf of the consumer, this data aggregator must provide its certification in accordance with this paragraph (c)(2).

§ 1033.441 Policies and procedures for third party record retention.

(a) General requirement. A third party that is a covered person or service provider, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(6) and (26), must establish and maintain written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure retention of records that are evidence of compliance with the requirements of subpart D of this part.

(b) Retention period. Records required under paragraph (a) of this section must be retained for a reasonable period of time, not less than three years after a third party obtains the consumer's most recent authorization under § 1033.401(a).

(c) Flexibility. A third party covered under paragraph (a) of this section has flexibility to determine its policies and procedures in light of the size, nature, and complexity of its activities.

(d) Periodic review. A third party covered under paragraph (a) of this section must periodically review its policies and procedures and update them as appropriate to ensure their continued effectiveness to evidence compliance with the requirements of subpart D of this part.

(e) Certain records retained pursuant to policies and procedures. Records retained pursuant to policies and procedures required under this section must include, without limitation:

(1) A copy of the authorization disclosure that is signed by the consumer electronically or in writing and reflects the date of the consumer's signature and a record of actions taken by the consumer, including actions taken through a data provider or another third party, to revoke the third party's authorization; and

(2) With respect to a data aggregator covered under paragraph (a) of this section, a copy of any data aggregator certification statement that was provided to the consumer pursuant to § 1033.431(c)(2).

Appendix A to Part 1033 Personal Financial Data Rights Rule: How to Apply for Recognition as a Standard Setter

If you want the CFPB to designate your organization as a recognized standard setter, you should follow the steps described below.

We may amend this process from time to time.

Step One: Requesting Recognition

Submit a written request for recognition. 1

1 Sensitive personal information should not be provided.

This should include key contact information, evidence of your organization's policies and practices, 2 and an explanation of how your organization satisfies each of the requirements in the Personal Financial Data Rights rule to be a recognized standard setter. 3 Your request should also describe how current and/or anticipated standards issued by your organization relate to open banking.

2 Evidence may include (but is not limited to) charters, bylaws, policies, procedures, fee schedules, meeting minutes, membership lists, financial statements/disclosures, publicly available materials, and issued standards.

3 Relevant legal requirements are described at 12 CFR 1033.141. When explaining how your organization meets these requirements, you should reference relevant elements of the evidence you submit in support of your application.

In advance of filing your request, you can seek a pre-filing meeting with us. We can walk you through the application process and help you make a complete submission.

Send formal submissions, as well as requests for pre-filing meetings, to: openbankingstandards@cfpb.gov.

Step Two: Additional Information and Public Comment

After reviewing your submission, we may request additional information to ensure that your application is complete.

We may publish your application.

We may also seek public input on your application and invite your responses to any information we receive on that basis.

Step Three: Our Review

When reviewing your application, we consider whether your policies and practices meet all the requirements for recognition. We also evaluate whether your application is accurate and complete.

We prioritize and review applications based on the extent to which recognizing your organization helps us to implement open banking. 4

4 Section 1033 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 5533, describes the CFPB's role in implementing open banking.

Step Four: Application Decision

CFPB recognition will be publicly disclosed on our website, along with the applicable terms and conditions of such recognition, such as its duration.

If the CFPB declines to recognize your organization, we will notify you.

You may withdraw your application at any time or for any reason.

If we determine that your organization is close to meeting, but does not yet meet, the requirements for CFPB recognition, we may ask you to provide a written plan specifying how and when you will take the steps required for full recognition. If that plan is satisfactory, we may state on our website that your organization has received contingent recognition. Once you provide us with evidence that you have successfully executed on that plan (or otherwise addressed the relevant contingences), the CFPB may extend full recognition.

Step Five: Recognition

There are several points to keep in mind about recognition.

As a recognized standard setter, you agree that the CFPB may monitor your organization and that you will provide information that we request.

You must also provide us, within 10 days, written explanation of any material change to information that was submitted with your application or during recognition, as well as any reason your organization may no longer meet underlying requirements for recognition.

In addition, you must meet any other specified terms and conditions of your recognition, which may include our reserving the right to observe or participate in standard setting.

If your recognition is set to expire, you can apply for re-recognition by re-starting at Step One at least 180 days before expiration. We may temporarily extend your recognition while we consider your request for re-recognition.

We may modify or revoke your recognition. The CFPB expects to notify you of the reasons it intends to revoke or modify recognition, and to provide your organization with an opportunity to address the CFPB's concerns.

PART 1041 PAYDAY, VEHICLE TITLE, AND CERTAIN HIGH-COST INSTALLMENT LOANS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5511, 5512, 5514(b), 5531(b), (c), and (d), 5532.

Source: 82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1041.1 Authority and purpose.

(a) Authority. The regulation in this part is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) pursuant to Title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5481, et seq.).

(b) Purpose. The purpose of this part is to identify certain unfair and abusive acts or practices in connection with certain consumer credit transactions and to set forth requirements for preventing such acts or practices. This part also prescribes requirements to ensure that the features of those consumer credit transactions are fully, accurately, and effectively disclosed to consumers.

[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 44444, July 22, 2020]

§ 1041.2 Definitions.

(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

(1) Account has the same meaning as in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b).

(2) Affiliate has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 5481(1).

(3) Closed-end credit means an extension of credit to a consumer that is not open-end credit under paragraph (a)(16) of this section.

(4) Consumer has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 5481(4).

(5) Consummation means the time that a consumer becomes contractually obligated on a new loan or a modification that increases the amount of an existing loan.

(6) Cost of credit means the cost of consumer credit as expressed as a per annum rate and is determined as follows:

(i) Charges included in the cost of credit. The cost of credit includes all finance charges as set forth by Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4, but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12), or is extended to a consumer, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11).

(ii) Calculation of the cost of credit—(A) Closed-end credit. For closed-end credit, the cost of credit must be calculated according to the requirements of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.22.

(B) Open-end credit. For open-end credit, the cost of credit must be calculated according to the rules for calculating the effective annual percentage rate for a billing cycle as set forth in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.14(c) and (d).

(7) Covered longer-term balloon-payment loan means a loan described in § 1041.3(b)(2).

(8) Covered longer-term loan means a loan described in § 1041.3(b)(3).

(9) [Reserved]

(10) Covered short-term loan means a loan described in § 1041.3(b)(1).

(11) Credit has the same meaning as in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(14).

(12) Electronic fund transfer has the same meaning as in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.3(b).

(13) Lender means a person who regularly extends credit to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.

(14) [Reserved]

(15) Motor vehicle means any self-propelled vehicle primarily used for on-road transportation. The term does not include motor homes, recreational vehicles, golf carts, and motor scooters.

(16) Open-end credit means an extension of credit to a consumer that is an open-end credit plan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20), but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12), is extended by a creditor, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17), is extended to a consumer, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11), or permits a finance charge to be imposed from time to time on an outstanding balance as defined in 12 CFR 1026.4.

(17) Outstanding loan means a loan that the consumer is legally obligated to repay, regardless of whether the loan is delinquent or is subject to a repayment plan or other workout arrangement, except that a loan ceases to be an outstanding loan if the consumer has not made at least one payment on the loan within the previous 180 days.

(18) Service provider has the same meaning as in the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 5481(26).

(19) [Reserved]

(b) Rule of construction. For purposes of this part, where definitions are incorporated from other statutes or regulations, the terms have the meaning and incorporate the embedded definitions, appendices, and commentary from those other laws except to the extent that this part provides a different definition for a parallel term.

[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019; 85 FR 44444, July 22, 2020]

§ 1041.3 Scope of coverage; exclusions; exemptions.

(a) General. This part applies to a lender that extends credit by making covered loans.

(b) Covered loan. Covered loan means closed-end or open-end credit that is extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes that is not excluded under paragraph (d) of this section or conditionally exempted under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section; and:

(1) For closed-end credit that does not provide for multiple advances to consumers, the consumer is required to repay substantially the entire amount of the loan within 45 days of consummation, or for all other loans, the consumer is required to repay substantially the entire amount of any advance within 45 days of the advance;

(2) For loans not otherwise covered by paragraph (b)(1) of this section:

(i) For closed-end credit that does not provide for multiple advances to consumers, the consumer is required to repay substantially the entire balance of the loan in a single payment more than 45 days after consummation or to repay such loan through at least one payment that is more than twice as large as any other payment(s).

(ii) For all other loans, either:

(A) The consumer is required to repay substantially the entire amount of an advance in a single payment more than 45 days after the advance is made or is required to make at least one payment on the advance that is more than twice as large as any other payment(s); or

(B) A loan with multiple advances is structured such that paying the required minimum payments may not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, and the amount of the final payment to repay the outstanding balance at such time could be more than twice the amount of other minimum payments under the plan; or

(3) For loans not otherwise covered by paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section, if both of the following conditions are satisfied:

(i) The cost of credit for the loan exceeds 36 percent per annum, as measured:

(A) At the time of consummation for closed-end credit; or

(B) At the time of consummation and, if the cost of credit at consummation is not more than 36 percent per annum, again at the end of each billing cycle for open-end credit, except that:

(1) Open-end credit meets the condition set forth in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) in any billing cycle in which a lender imposes a finance charge, and the principal balance is $0; and

(2) Once open-end credit meets the condition set forth in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B), it meets the condition set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) for the duration of the plan.

(ii) The lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism as defined in paragraph (c) of this section.

(c) Leveraged payment mechanism. For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, a lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism if it has the right to initiate a transfer of money, through any means, from a consumer's account to satisfy an obligation on a loan, except that the lender or service provider does not obtain a leveraged payment mechanism by initiating a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request.

(d) Exclusions for certain types of credit. This part does not apply to the following:

(1) Certain purchase money security interest loans. Credit extended for the sole and express purpose of financing a consumer's initial purchase of a good when the credit is secured by the property being purchased, whether or not the security interest is perfected or recorded.

(2) Real estate secured credit. Credit that is secured by any real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as a dwelling, and the lender records or otherwise perfects the security interest within the term of the loan.

(3) Credit cards. Any credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(15)(ii).

(4) Student loans. Credit made, insured, or guaranteed pursuant to a program authorized by subchapter IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, 20 U.S.C. 1070 through 1099d, or a private education loan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.46(b)(5).

(5) Non-recourse pawn loans. Credit in which the lender has sole physical possession and use of the property securing the credit for the entire term of the loan and for which the lender's sole recourse if the consumer does not elect to redeem the pawned item and repay the loan is the retention of the property securing the credit.

(6) Overdraft services and lines of credit. Overdraft services as defined in 12 CFR 1005.17(a), and overdraft lines of credit otherwise excluded from the definition of overdraft services under 12 CFR 1005.17(a)(1).

(7) Wage advance programs. Advances of wages that constitute credit if made by an employer, as defined in the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 203(d), or by the employer's business partner, to the employer's employees, provided that:

(i) The advance is made only against the accrued cash value of any wages the employee has earned up to the date of the advance; and

(ii) Before any amount is advanced, the entity advancing the funds warrants to the consumer as part of the contract between the parties on behalf of itself and any business partners, that it or they, as applicable:

(A) Will not require the consumer to pay any charges or fees in connection with the advance, other than a charge for participating in the wage advance program;

(B) Has no legal or contractual claim or remedy against the consumer based on the consumer's failure to repay in the event the amount advanced is not repaid in full; and

(C) With respect to the amount advanced to the consumer, will not engage in any debt collection activities if the advance is not deducted directly from wages or otherwise repaid on the scheduled date, place the amount advanced as a debt with or sell it to a third party, or report to a consumer reporting agency concerning the amount advanced.

(8) No-cost advances. Advances of funds that constitute credit if the consumer is not required to pay any charge or fee to be eligible to receive or in return for receiving the advance, provided that before any amount is advanced, the entity advancing the funds warrants to the consumer as part of the contract between the parties:

(i) That it has no legal or contractual claim or remedy against the consumer based on the consumer's failure to repay in the event the amount advanced is not repaid in full; and

(ii) That, with respect to the amount advanced to the consumer, such entity will not engage in any debt collection activities if the advance is not repaid on the scheduled date, place the amount advanced as a debt with or sell it to a third party, or report to a consumer reporting agency concerning the amount advanced.

(e) Alternative loan. Alternative loans are conditionally exempt from the requirements of this part. Alternative loan means a covered loan that satisfies the following conditions and requirements:

(1) Loan term conditions. An alternative loan must satisfy the following conditions:

(i) The loan is not structured as open-end credit, as defined in § 1041.2(a)(16);

(ii) The loan has a term of not less than one month and not more than six months;

(iii) The principal of the loan is not less than $200 and not more than $1,000;

(iv) The loan is repayable in two or more payments, all of which payments are substantially equal in amount and fall due in substantially equal intervals, and the loan amortizes completely during the term of the loan; and

(v) The lender does not impose any charges other than the rate and application fees permissible for Federal credit unions under regulations issued by the National Credit Union Administration at 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii).

(2) Borrowing history condition. Prior to making an alternative loan under this paragraph (e), the lender must determine from its records that the loan would not result in the consumer being indebted on more than three outstanding loans made under this paragraph (e) from the lender within a period of 180 days. The lender must also make no more than one alternative loan under this paragraph (e) at a time to a consumer.

(3) Income documentation condition. In making an alternative loan under this paragraph (e), the lender must maintain and comply with policies and procedures for documenting proof of recurring income.

(4) Safe harbor. Loans made by Federal credit unions in compliance with the conditions set forth by the National Credit Union Administration at 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii) for a Payday Alternative Loan are deemed to be in compliance with the requirements and conditions of paragraphs (e)(1), (2), and (3) of this section.

(f) Accommodation loans. Accommodation loans are conditionally exempt from the requirements of this part. Accommodation loan means a covered loan if at the time that the loan is consummated:

(1) The lender and its affiliates collectively have made 2,500 or fewer covered loans in the current calendar year, and made 2,500 or fewer such covered loans in the preceding calendar year; and

(2)(i) During the most recent completed tax year in which the lender was in operation, if applicable, the lender and any affiliates that were in operation and used the same tax year derived no more than 10 percent of their receipts from covered loans; or

(ii) If the lender was not in operation in a prior tax year, the lender reasonably anticipates that the lender and any of its affiliates that use the same tax year will derive no more than 10 percent of their receipts from covered loans during the current tax year.

(3) Provided, however, that covered longer-term loans for which all transfers meet the conditions in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii), and receipts from such loans, are not included for the purpose of determining whether the conditions of paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section have been satisfied.

(g) Receipts. For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, receipts means “total income” (or in the case of a sole proprietorship “gross income”) plus “cost of goods sold” as these terms are defined and reported on Internal Revenue Service (IRS) tax return forms (such as Form 1120 for corporations; Form 1120S and Schedule K for S corporations; Form 1120, Form 1065 or Form 1040 for LLCs; Form 1065 and Schedule K for partnerships; and Form 1040, Schedule C for sole proprietorships). Receipts do not include net capital gains or losses; taxes collected for and remitted to a taxing authority if included in gross or total income, such as sales or other taxes collected from customers but excluding taxes levied on the entity or its employees; or amounts collected for another (but fees earned in connection with such collections are receipts). Items such as subcontractor costs, reimbursements for purchases a contractor makes at a customer's request, and employee-based costs such as payroll taxes are included in receipts.

(h) Tax year. For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, “tax year” has the meaning attributed to it by the IRS as set forth in IRS Publication 538, which provides that a “tax year” is an annual accounting period for keeping records and reporting income and expenses.

[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019]

B Subpart B [Reserved]

Subpart C Payments

§ 1041.7 Identification of unfair and abusive practice.

It is an unfair and abusive practice for a lender to make attempts to withdraw payment from consumers' accounts in connection with a covered loan after the lender's second consecutive attempts to withdraw payments from the accounts from which the prior attempts were made have failed due to a lack of sufficient funds, unless the lender obtains the consumers' new and specific authorization to make further withdrawals from the accounts.

§ 1041.8 Prohibited payment transfer attempts.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section and § 1041.9:

(1) Payment transfer means any lender-initiated debit or withdrawal of funds from a consumer's account for the purpose of collecting any amount due or purported to be due in connection with a covered loan.

(i) Means of transfer. A debit or withdrawal meeting the description in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is a payment transfer regardless of the means through which the lender initiates it, including but not limited to a debit or withdrawal initiated through any of the following means:

(A) Electronic fund transfer, including a preauthorized electronic fund transfer as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(k).

(B) Signature check, regardless of whether the transaction is processed through the check network or another network, such as the automated clearing house (ACH) network.

(C) Remotely created check as defined in Regulation CC, 12 CFR 229.2(fff).

(D) Remotely created payment order as defined in 16 CFR 310.2(cc).

(E) When the lender is also the account-holder, an account-holding institution's transfer of funds from a consumer's account held at the same institution, other than such a transfer meeting the description in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.

(ii) Conditional exclusion for certain transfers by account-holding institutions. When the lender is also the account-holder, an account-holding institution's transfer of funds from a consumer's account held at the same institution is not a payment transfer if all of the conditions in this paragraph (a)(1)(ii) are met, notwithstanding that the transfer otherwise meets the description in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(A) The lender, pursuant to the terms of the loan agreement or account agreement, does not charge the consumer any fee, other than a late fee under the loan agreement, in the event that the lender initiates a transfer of funds from the consumer's account in connection with the covered loan for an amount that the account lacks sufficient funds to cover.

(B) The lender, pursuant to the terms of the loan agreement or account agreement, does not close the consumer's account in response to a negative balance that results from a transfer of funds initiated in connection with the covered loan.

(2) Single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request means:

(i) A payment transfer initiated by a one-time electronic fund transfer within one business day after the lender obtains the consumer's authorization for the one-time electronic fund transfer.

(ii) A payment transfer initiated by means of processing the consumer's signature check through the check system or through the ACH system within one business day after the consumer provides the check to the lender.

(b) Prohibition on initiating payment transfers from a consumer's account after two consecutive failed payment transfers—(1) General. A lender must not initiate a payment transfer from a consumer's account in connection with any covered loan that the consumer has with the lender after the lender has attempted to initiate two consecutive failed payment transfers from that account in connection with any covered loan that the consumer has with the lender. For purposes of this paragraph (b), a payment transfer is deemed to have failed when it results in a return indicating that the consumer's account lacks sufficient funds or, if the lender is the consumer's account-holding institution, it is for an amount that the account lacks sufficient funds to cover.

(2) Consecutive failed payment transfers. For purposes of the prohibition in this paragraph (b):

(i) First failed payment transfer. A failed payment transfer is the first failed payment transfer from the consumer's account if it meets any of the following conditions:

(A) The lender has initiated no other payment transfer from the account in connection with the covered loan or any other covered loan that the consumer has with the lender.

(B) The immediately preceding payment transfer was successful, regardless of whether the lender has previously initiated a first failed payment transfer.

(C) The payment transfer is the first payment transfer to fail after the lender obtains the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.

(ii) Second consecutive failed payment transfer. A failed payment transfer is the second consecutive failed payment transfer from the consumer's account if the immediately preceding payment transfer was a first failed payment transfer. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii), a previous payment transfer includes a payment transfer initiated at the same time or on the same day as the failed payment transfer.

(iii) Different payment channel. A failed payment transfer meeting the conditions in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section is the second consecutive failed payment transfer regardless of whether the first failed payment transfer was initiated through a different payment channel.

(c) Exception for additional payment transfers authorized by the consumer—(1) General. Notwithstanding the prohibition in paragraph (b) of this section, a lender may initiate additional payment transfers from a consumer's account after two consecutive failed payment transfers if the additional payment transfers are authorized by the consumer in accordance with the requirements and conditions in this paragraph (c) or if the lender executes a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.

(2) General authorization requirements and conditions—(i) Required payment transfer terms. For purposes of this paragraph (c), the specific date, amount, and payment channel of each additional payment transfer must be authorized by the consumer, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section.

(ii) Application of specific date requirement to re-initiating a returned payment transfer. If a payment transfer authorized by the consumer pursuant to this paragraph (c) is returned for nonsufficient funds, the lender may re-initiate the payment transfer, such as by re-presenting it once through the ACH system, on or after the date authorized by the consumer, provided that the returned payment transfer has not triggered the prohibition in paragraph (b) of this section.

(iii) Special authorization requirements and conditions for payment transfers to collect a late fee or returned item fee. A lender may initiate a payment transfer pursuant to this paragraph (c) solely to collect a late fee or returned item fee without obtaining the consumer's authorization for the specific date and amount of the payment transfer only if the consumer has authorized the lender to initiate such payment transfers in advance of the withdrawal attempt. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iii), the consumer authorizes such payment transfers only if the consumer's authorization obtained under paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section includes a statement, in terms that are clear and readily understandable to the consumer, that payment transfers may be initiated solely to collect a late fee or returned item fee and that specifies the highest amount for such fees that may be charged and the payment channel to be used.

(3) Requirements and conditions for obtaining the consumer's authorization—(i) General. For purposes of this paragraph (c), the lender must request and obtain the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers in accordance with the requirements and conditions in this paragraph (c)(3).

(ii) Provision of payment transfer terms to the consumer. The lender may request the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers no earlier than the date on which the lender provides to the consumer the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c). The request must include the payment transfer terms required under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section and, if applicable, the statement required by paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section. The lender may provide the terms and statement to the consumer by any one of the following means:

(A) In writing, by mail or in person, or in a retainable form by email if the consumer has consented to receive electronic disclosures in this manner under § 1041.9(a)(4) or agrees to receive the terms and statement by email in the course of a communication initiated by the consumer in response to the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c).

(B) By oral telephone communication, if the consumer affirmatively contacts the lender in that manner in response to the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c) and agrees to receive the terms and statement in that manner in the course of, and as part of, the same communication.

(iii) Signed authorization required—(A) General. For an authorization to be valid under this paragraph (c), it must be signed or otherwise agreed to by the consumer in writing or electronically and in a retainable format that memorializes the payment transfer terms required under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section and, if applicable, the statement required by paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section. The signed authorization must be obtained from the consumer no earlier than when the consumer receives the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c) in person or electronically, or the date on which the consumer receives the notice by mail. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A), the consumer is considered to have received the notice at the time it is provided to the consumer in person or electronically, or, if the notice is provided by mail, the earlier of the third business day after mailing or the date on which the consumer affirmatively responds to the mailed notice.

(B) Special requirements for authorization obtained by oral telephone communication. If the authorization is granted in the course of an oral telephone communication, the lender must record the call and retain the recording.

(C) Memorialization required. If the authorization is granted in the course of a recorded telephonic conversation or is otherwise not immediately retainable by the consumer at the time of signature, the lender must provide a memorialization in a retainable form to the consumer by no later than the date on which the first payment transfer authorized by the consumer is initiated. A memorialization may be provided to the consumer by email in accordance with the requirements and conditions in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section.

(4) Expiration of authorization. An authorization obtained from a consumer pursuant to this paragraph (c) becomes null and void for purposes of the exception in this paragraph (c) if:

(i) The lender subsequently obtains a new authorization from the consumer pursuant to this paragraph (c); or

(ii) Two consecutive payment transfers initiated pursuant to the consumer's authorization fail, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.

(d) Exception for initiating a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request. After a lender's second consecutive payment transfer has failed as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the lender may initiate a payment transfer from the consumer's account without obtaining the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section if:

(1) The payment transfer is a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and

(2) The consumer authorizes the underlying one-time electronic fund transfer or provides the underlying signature check to the lender, as applicable, no earlier than the date on which the lender provides to the consumer the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c) or on the date that the consumer affirmatively contacts the lender to discuss repayment options, whichever date is earlier.

(e) Prohibition against evasion. A lender must not take any action with the intent of evading the requirements of this section.

§ 1041.9 Disclosure of payment transfer attempts.

(a) General form of disclosures—(1) Clear and conspicuous. Disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous. Disclosures required by this section may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations.

(2) In writing or electronic delivery. Disclosures required by this section must be provided in writing or, so long as the requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section are satisfied, through electronic delivery. The disclosures must be provided in a form that can be viewed on paper or a screen, as applicable. This paragraph (a)(2) is not satisfied by a disclosure provided orally or through a recorded message.

(3) Retainable. Disclosures required by this section must be provided in a retainable form, except for electronic short notices delivered by mobile application or text message under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.

(4) Electronic delivery. Disclosures required by this section may be provided through electronic delivery if the following consent requirements are satisfied:

(i) Consumer consent—(A) General. Disclosures required by this section may be provided through electronic delivery if the consumer affirmatively consents in writing or electronically to the particular electronic delivery method.

(B) Email option required. To obtain valid consumer consent to electronic delivery under this paragraph, a lender must provide the consumer with the option to select email as the method of electronic delivery, separate and apart from any other electronic delivery methods such as mobile application or text message.

(ii) Subsequent loss of consent. Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, a lender must not provide disclosures required by this section through a method of electronic delivery if:

(A) The consumer revokes consent to receive disclosures through that delivery method; or

(B) The lender receives notification that the consumer is unable to receive disclosures through that delivery method at the address or number used.

(5) Segregation requirements for notices. All notices required by this section must be segregated from all other written or provided materials and contain only the information required by this section, other than information necessary for product identification, branding, and navigation. Segregated additional content that is not required by this section must not be displayed above, below, or around the required content.

(6) Machine readable text in notices provided through electronic delivery. If provided through electronic delivery, the payment notice required by paragraph (b) of this section and the consumer rights notice required by paragraph (c) of this section must use machine readable text that is accessible via both web browsers and screen readers.

(7) Model forms—(i) Payment notice. The content, order, and format of the payment notice required by paragraph (b) of this section must be substantially similar to Model Forms A-3 through A-4 in appendix A to this part.

(ii) Consumer rights notice. The content, order, and format of the consumer rights notice required by paragraph (c) of this section must be substantially similar to Model Form A-5 in appendix A to this part.

(iii) Electronic short notice. The content, order, and format of the electronic short notice required by paragraph (b) of this section must be substantially similar to Model Clauses A-6 and A-7 in appendix A to this part. The content, order, and format of the electronic short notice required by paragraph (c) of this section must be substantially similar to Model Clause A-8 in appendix A to this part.

(8) Foreign language disclosures. Disclosures required under this section may be made in a language other than English, provided that the disclosures are made available in English upon the consumer's request.

(b) Payment notice—(1) General. Prior to initiating the first payment withdrawal or an unusual withdrawal from a consumer's account, a lender must provide to the consumer a payment notice in accordance with the requirements in this paragraph (b) as applicable.

(i) First payment withdrawal means the first payment transfer scheduled to be initiated by a lender for a particular covered loan, not including a single immediate payment transfer initiated at the consumer's request as defined in § 1041.8(a)(2).

(ii) Unusual withdrawal means a payment transfer that meets one or more of the conditions described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section.

(iii) Exceptions. The payment notice need not be provided when the lender initiates:

(A) The initial payment transfer from a consumer's account after obtaining consumer authorization pursuant to § 1041.8(c), regardless of whether any of the conditions in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section apply; or

(B) A single immediate payment transfer initiated at the consumer's request in accordance with § 1041.8(a)(2).

(2) First payment withdrawal notice—(i) Timing—(A) Mail. If the lender provides the first payment withdrawal notice by mail, the lender must mail the notice no earlier than when the lender obtains payment authorization and no later than six business days prior to initiating the transfer.

(B) Electronic delivery. (1) If the lender provides the first payment withdrawal notice through electronic delivery, the lender must send the notice no earlier than when the lender obtains payment authorization and no later than three business days prior to initiating the transfer.

(2) If, after providing the first payment withdrawal notice through electronic delivery pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the lender loses the consumer's consent to receive the notice through a particular electronic delivery method according to paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, the lender must provide notice of any future unusual withdrawal, if applicable, through alternate means.

(C) In person. If the lender provides the first payment withdrawal notice in person, the lender must provide the notice no earlier than when the lender obtains payment authorization and no later than three business days prior to initiating the transfer.

(ii) Content requirements. The notice must contain the following information and statements, as applicable, using language substantially similar to the language set forth in Model Form A-3 in appendix A to this part:

(A) Identifying statement. The statement, “Upcoming Withdrawal Notice,” using that phrase, and, in the same statement, the name of the lender providing the notice.

(B) Transfer terms—(1) Date. Date that the lender will initiate the transfer.

(2) Amount. Dollar amount of the transfer.

(3) Consumer account. Sufficient information to permit the consumer to identify the account from which the funds will be transferred. The lender must not provide the complete account number of the consumer, but may use a truncated version similar to Model Form A-3 in appendix A to this part.

(4) Loan identification information. Sufficient information to permit the consumer to identify the covered loan associated with the transfer.

(5) Payment channel. Payment channel of the transfer.

(6) Check number. If the transfer will be initiated by a signature or paper check, remotely created check (as defined in Regulation CC, 12 CFR 229.2(fff)), or remotely created payment order (as defined in 16 CFR 310.2(cc)), the check number associated with the transfer.

(C) Payment breakdown. In a tabular form:

(1) Payment breakdown heading. A heading with the statement “Payment Breakdown,” using that phrase.

(2) Principal. The amount of the payment that will be applied to principal.

(3) Interest. The amount of the payment that will be applied to accrued interest on the loan.

(4) Fees. If applicable, the amount of the payment that will be applied to fees.

(5) Other charges. If applicable, the amount of the payment that will be applied to other charges.

(6) Amount. The statement “Total Payment Amount,” using that phrase, and the total dollar amount of the payment as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B)(2) of this section.

(7) Explanation of interest-only or negatively amortizing payment. If applicable, a statement explaining that the payment will not reduce principal, using the applicable phrase “When you make this payment, your principal balance will stay the same and you will not be closer to paying off your loan” or “When you make this payment, your principal balance will increase and you will not be closer to paying off your loan.”

(D) Lender name and contact information. Name of the lender, the name under which the transfer will be initiated (if different from the consumer-facing name of the lender), and two different forms of lender contact information that may be used by the consumer to obtain information about the consumer's loan.

(3) Unusual withdrawal notice—(i) Timing—(A) Mail. If the lender provides the unusual withdrawal notice by mail, the lender must mail the notice no earlier than 10 business days and no later than six business days prior to initiating the transfer.

(B) Electronic delivery. (1) If the lender provides the unusual withdrawal notice through electronic delivery, the lender must send the notice no earlier than seven business days and no later than three business days prior to initiating the transfer.

(2) If, after providing the unusual withdrawal notice through electronic delivery pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) of this section, the lender loses the consumer's consent to receive the notice through a particular electronic delivery method according to paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, the lender must provide notice of any future unusual withdrawal attempt, if applicable, through alternate means.

(C) In person. If the lender provides the unusual withdrawal notice in person, the lender must provide the notice no earlier than seven business days and no later than three business days prior to initiating the transfer.

(D) Exception for open-end credit. If the unusual withdrawal notice is for open-end credit as defined in § 1041.2(a)(16), the lender may provide the unusual withdrawal notice in conjunction with the periodic statement required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.7(b), in accordance with the timing requirements of that section.

(ii) Content requirements. The unusual withdrawal notice must contain the following information and statements, as applicable, using language substantially similar to the language set forth in Model Form A-4 in appendix A to this part:

(A) Identifying statement. The statement, “Alert: Unusual Withdrawal,” using that phrase, and, in the same statement, the name of the lender that is providing the notice.

(B) Basic payment information. The content required for the first withdrawal notice under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B) through (D) of this section.

(C) Description of unusual withdrawal. The following content, as applicable, in a form substantially similar to the form in Model Form A-4 in appendix A to this part:

(1) Varying amount—(i) General. If the amount of a transfer will vary in amount from the regularly scheduled payment amount, a statement that the transfer will be for a larger or smaller amount than the regularly scheduled payment amount, as applicable.

(ii) Open-end credit. If the payment transfer is for open-end credit as defined in § 1041.2(a)(16), the varying amount content is required only if the amount deviates from the scheduled minimum payment due as disclosed in the periodic statement required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.7(b).

(2) Date other than date of regularly scheduled payment. If the payment transfer date is not a date on which a regularly scheduled payment is due under the terms of the loan agreement, a statement that the transfer will be initiated on a date other than the date of a regularly scheduled payment.

(3) Different payment channel. If the payment channel will differ from the payment channel of the transfer directly preceding it, a statement that the transfer will be initiated through a different payment channel and a statement of the payment channel used for the prior transfer.

(4) For purpose of re-initiating returned transfer. If the transfer is for the purpose of re-initiating a returned transfer, a statement that the lender is re-initiating a returned transfer, a statement of the date and amount of the previous unsuccessful attempt, and a statement of the reason for the return.

(4) Electronic delivery—(i) General. When the consumer has consented to receive disclosures through electronic delivery, the lender may provide the applicable payment notice required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section through electronic delivery only if it also provides an electronic short notice, except for email delivery as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section.

(ii) Electronic short notice—(A) General content. The electronic short notice required by this paragraph (b) must contain the following information and statements, as applicable, in a form substantially similar to Model Clause A-6 in appendix A to this part:

(1) Identifying statement, as required under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(3)(ii)(A) of this section;

(2) Transfer terms—(i) Date, as required under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B)(1) and (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section;

(ii) Amount, as required under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B)(2) and (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section;

(iii) Consumer account, as required and limited under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B)(3) and (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section; and

(3) Web site URL. When the full notice is being provided through a linked URL rather than as a PDF attachment, the unique URL of a Web site that the consumer may use to access the full payment notice required by paragraph (b) of this section.

(B) Additional content requirements. If the transfer meets any of the conditions for unusual attempts described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, the electronic short notice must also contain the following information and statements, as applicable, using language substantially similar to the language in Model Clause A-7 in appendix A to this part:

(1) Varying amount, as defined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(1) of this section;

(2) Date other than due date of regularly scheduled payment, as defined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(2) of this section; and

(3) Different payment channel, as defined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(3) of this section.

(iii) Email delivery. When the consumer has consented to receive disclosures through electronic delivery, and the method of electronic delivery is email, the lender may either deliver the full notice required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section in the body of the email or deliver the full notice as a linked URL Web page or PDF attachment along with the electronic short notice as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section.

(c) Consumer rights notice—(1) General. After a lender initiates two consecutive failed payment transfers from a consumer's account as described in § 1041.8(b), the lender must provide to the consumer a consumer rights notice in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section.

(2) Timing. The lender must send the notice no later than three business days after it receives information that the second consecutive attempt has failed.

(3) Content requirements. The notice must contain the following information and statements, using language substantially similar to the language set forth in Model Form A-5 in appendix A to this part:

(i) Identifying statement. A statement that the lender, identified by name, is no longer permitted to withdraw loan payments from the consumer's account.

(ii) Last two attempts were returned. A statement that the lender's last two attempts to withdraw payment from the consumer's account were returned due to non-sufficient funds, or, if applicable to payments initiated by the consumer's account-holding institution, caused the account to go into overdraft status.

(iii) Consumer account. Sufficient information to permit the consumer to identify the account from which the unsuccessful payment attempts were made. The lender must not provide the complete account number of the consumer, but may use a truncated version similar to Model Form A-5 in appendix A to this part.

(iv) Loan identification information. Sufficient information to permit the consumer to identify any covered loans associated with the unsuccessful payment attempts.

(v) Statement of Federal law prohibition. A statement, using that phrase, that in order to protect the consumer's account, Federal law prohibits the lender from initiating further payment transfers without the consumer's permission.

(vi) Contact about choices. A statement that the lender may be in contact with the consumer about payment choices going forward.

(vii) Previous unsuccessful payment attempts. In a tabular form:

(A) Previous payment attempts heading. A heading with the statement “previous payment attempts.”

(B) Payment due date. The scheduled due date of each previous unsuccessful payment transfer attempted by the lender.

(C) Date of attempt. The date of each previous unsuccessful payment transfer initiated by the lender.

(D) Amount. The amount of each previous unsuccessful payment transfer initiated by the lender.

(E) Fees. The fees charged by the lender for each unsuccessful payment attempt, if applicable, with an indication that these fees were charged by the lender.

(viii) CFPB information. A statement, using that phrase, that the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau created this notice, a statement that the CFPB is a Federal government agency, and the URL to www.cfpb.gov/payday. This statement must be the last piece of information provided in the notice.

(4) Electronic delivery—(i) General. When the consumer has consented to receive disclosures through electronic delivery, the lender may provide the consumer rights notice required by paragraph (c) of this section through electronic delivery only if it also provides an electronic short notice, except for email delivery as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section.

(ii) Electronic short notice—(A) Content. The notice must contain the following information and statements, as applicable, using language substantially similar to the language set forth in Model Clause A-8 in appendix A to this part:

(1) Identifying statement. As required under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section;

(2) Last two attempts were returned. As required under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section;

(3) Consumer account. As required and limited under paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section;

(4) Statement of Federal law prohibition. As required under paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section; and

(5) Web site URL. When the full notice is being provided through a linked URL rather than as a PDF attachment, the unique URL of a Web site that the consumer may use to access the full consumer rights notice required by paragraph (c) of this section.

(B) [Reserved]

(iii) Email delivery. When the consumer has consented to receive disclosures through electronic delivery, and the method of electronic delivery is email, the lender may either deliver the full notice required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section in the body of the email or deliver the full notice as a linked URL Web page or PDF attachment along with the electronic short notice as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section.

[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019]

Subpart D Recordkeeping, Anti-Evasion, Severability, and Dates

§§ 1041.10-1041.11 [Reserved]
§ 1041.12 Compliance program and record retention.

(a) Compliance program. A lender making a covered loan must develop and follow written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure compliance with the requirements in this part. These written policies and procedures must be appropriate to the size and complexity of the lender and its affiliates, and the nature and scope of the covered loan lending activities of the lender and its affiliates.

(b) Record retention. A lender must retain evidence of compliance with this part for 36 months after the date on which a covered loan ceases to be an outstanding loan.

(1) Retention of loan agreement for covered loans. To comply with the requirements in this paragraph (b), a lender must retain or be able to reproduce an image of the loan agreement for each covered loan that the lender originates.

(2)-(3) [Reserved]

(4) Retention of records relating to payment practices for covered loans. To comply with the requirements in this paragraph (b), a lender must retain or be able to reproduce an image of the following documentation, as applicable, in connection with a covered loan:

(i) Leveraged payment mechanism(s) obtained by the lender from the consumer;

(ii) Authorization of additional payment transfer, as described in § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii); and

(iii) Underlying one-time electronic transfer authorization or underlying signature check, as described in § 1041.8(d)(2).

(5) Electronic records in tabular format regarding payment practices for covered loans. To comply with the requirements in this paragraph (b), a lender must retain electronic records in tabular format that include the following information for covered loans:

(i) History of payments received and attempted payment transfers, as defined in § 1041.8(a)(1), including:

(A) Date of receipt of payment or attempted payment transfer;

(B) Amount of payment due;

(C) Amount of attempted payment transfer;

(D) Amount of payment received or transferred; and

(E) Payment channel used for attempted payment transfer.

(ii) If an attempt to transfer funds from a consumer's account is subject to the prohibition in § 1041.8(b)(1), whether the lender or service provider obtained authorization to initiate a payment transfer from the consumer in accordance with the requirements in § 1041.8(c) or (d).

[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 44444, July 22, 2020]

§ 1041.13 Prohibition against evasion.

A lender must not take any action with the intent of evading the requirements of this part.

§ 1041.14 Severability.

The provisions of this part are separate and severable from one another. If any provision is stayed or determined to be invalid, the remaining provisions shall continue in effect.

§ 1041.15 Effective and compliance dates.

(a) Effective date. The effective date of this part is January 16, 2018.

(b) April 16, 2018 application deadline. The deadline to submit an application for preliminary approval for registration pursuant to § 1041.11(c)(1) is April 16, 2018.

(c) August 19, 2019 compliance date. The compliance date for §§ 1041.2, 1041.3, 1041.7 through 1041.9, 1041.12(a), (b) introductory text and (b)(4) and (5), and 1041.13 is August 19, 2019.

[84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 44445, July 22, 2020]

Appendix A to Part 1041 Model Forms

A-1 and A-2 Model Forms [Reserved]

A-3 Model Form for First Payment Withdrawal Notice Under § 1041.9(b)(2)

A-4 Model Form for Unusual Withdrawal Notice Under § 1041.9(b)(3)

A-5 Model Form for Consumer Rights Notice Under § 1041.9(c)

A-6 Model Clause for First Payment Withdrawal Electronic Short Notice Under § 1041.9(b)(4)

A-7 Model Clause for Unusual Withdrawal Electronic Short Notice Under § 1041.9(c)(4)( ii)(B)

A-8 Model Clause for Consumer Rights Electronic Short Notice Under § 1041.9(c)(4)

[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019; 85 FR 44445, July 22, 2020]

Supplement I to Part 1041 Official Interpretations

Section 1041.2—Definitions

2(a)(3) Closed-End Credit

1. In general. Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(10) and its related commentary in determining the meaning of closed-end credit, but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12), or is extended to a consumer, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11).

2(a)(5) Consummation

1. New loan. When a contractual obligation on the consumer's part is created is a matter to be determined under applicable law. A contractual commitment agreement, for example, that under applicable law binds the consumer to the loan terms would be consummation. Consummation, however, does not occur merely because the consumer has made some financial investment in the transaction (for example, by paying a non-refundable fee) unless applicable law holds otherwise.

2(a)(11) Credit

1. In general. Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(14) and its related commentary in determining the meaning of credit.

2(a)(12) Electronic Fund Transfer

1. In general. Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1005.3(b) and its related commentary in determining the meaning of electronic fund transfer.

2(a)(13) Lender

1. Regularly extends credit. The test for determining whether a person regularly extends credit for personal, family, or household purposes is explained in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17)(v). Any loan to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, whether or not the loan is a covered loan under this part, counts toward the numeric threshold for determining whether a person regularly extends credit.

2(a)(16) Open-End Credit

1. In general. Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20) and its related commentary in determining the meaning of open-end credit, but without regard to whether the credit permits a finance charge to be imposed from time to time on an outstanding balance as defined in 12 CFR 1026.4. Also, for the purposes of defining open-end credit under this part, the term credit, as defined in § 1041.2(a)(11), is substituted for the term consumer credit, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12); the term lender, as defined in § 1041.2(a)(13), is substituted for the term creditor, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17); and the term consumer, as defined in § 1041.2(a)(4), is substituted for the term consumer, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11). See generally § 1041.2(b).

2(a)(17) Outstanding Loan

1. Payments owed to third parties. A loan is an outstanding loan if it meets all the criteria set forth in § 1041.2(a)(17), regardless of whether the consumer is required to pay the lender, an affiliate of the lender, or a service provider. A lender selling the loan or the loan servicing rights to a third party does not affect whether a loan is an outstanding loan under § 1041.2(a)(17).

2. Stale loans. A loan is generally an outstanding loan if the consumer has a legal obligation to repay the loan, even if the consumer is delinquent or if the consumer is in a repayment plan or workout arrangement. However, a loan that the consumer otherwise has a legal obligation to repay is not an outstanding loan for purposes of this part if the consumer has not made any payment on the loan within the previous 180-day period. A loan ceases to be an outstanding loan as of: The earliest of the date the consumer repays the loan in full, the date the consumer is released from the legal obligation to repay, the date the loan is otherwise legally discharged, or the date that is 180 days following the last payment that the consumer has made on the loan, even if the payment is not a regularly scheduled payment in a scheduled amount. If the consumer does not make any payments on a loan and none of these other events occur, the loan ceases to be outstanding 180 days after consummation. A loan cannot become an outstanding loan due to any events that occur after the consumer repays the loan in full, the consumer is released from the legal obligation to repay, the loan is otherwise legally discharged, 180 days following the last payment that the consumer has made on the loan, or 180 days after consummation of a loan on which the consumer makes no payments.

2(a)(18) Service Provider

1. Credit access businesses and credit services organizations. Persons who provide a material service to lenders in connection with the lenders' offering or provision of covered loans are service providers, subject to the specific limitations in section 1002(26) of the Dodd-Frank Act. Accordingly, credit access businesses and credit service organizations that provide a material service to lenders during the course of obtaining for consumers, or assisting consumers in obtaining, loans from lenders, are service providers, subject to the specific limitations in section 1002(26) of the Dodd-Frank Act.

2(b) Rule of Construction

1. Incorporation of terms from underlying statutes and regulations. For purposes of this part, where definitions are incorporated from other statutes or regulations, users may as applicable rely on embedded definitions, appendices, and commentary for those other laws. For example, 12 CFR 1005.2(b) and its related commentary determine the meaning of account under § 1041.2(a)(1). However, where this part defines the same term or a parallel term in a way that creates a substantive distinction, the definition in this part shall control. See, for example, the definition of open-end credit in § 1041.2(a)(16), which is generally determined according to 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20) and its related commentary but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12), or is extended to a consumer, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11), because this part provides a different and arguably broader definition of consumer in § 1041.2(a)(4).

Section 1041.3—Scope of Coverage; Exclusions; Exemptions

3(b) Covered Loans

1. Credit structure. The term covered loan includes open-end credit and closed-end credit, regardless of the form or structure of the credit.

2. Primary purpose. Under § 1041.3(b), a loan is not a covered loan unless it is extended primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.3(a) and its related commentary in determining the primary purpose of a loan.

Paragraph 3(b)(1)

1. Closed-end credit that does not provide for multiple advances to consumers. A loan does not provide for multiple advances to a consumer if the loan provides for full disbursement of the loan proceeds only through disbursement on a single specific date.

2. Loans that provide for multiple advances to consumers. Both open-end credit and closed-end credit may provide for multiple advances to consumers. Open-end credit can have a fixed expiration date, as long as during the plan's existence the consumer may use credit, repay, and reuse the credit. Likewise, closed-end credit may consist of a series of advances. For example:

i. Under a closed-end commitment, the lender might agree to lend a total of $1,000 in a series of advances as needed by the consumer. When a consumer has borrowed the full $1,000, no more is advanced under that particular agreement, even if there has been repayment of a portion of the debt.

3. Facts and circumstances test for determining whether loan is substantially repayable within 45 days. Substantially repayable means that the substantial majority of the loan or advance is required to be repaid within 45 days of consummation or advance, as the case may be. Application of the standard depends on the specific facts and circumstances of each loan, including the timing and size of the scheduled payments. A loan or advance is not substantially repayable within 45 days of consummation or advance merely because a consumer chooses to repay within 45 days when the loan terms do not require the consumer to do so.

4. Deposit advance products. A loan or advance is substantially repayable within 45 days of consummation or advance if the lender has the right to be repaid through a sweep or withdrawal of any qualifying electronic deposit made into the consumer's account within 45 days of consummation or advance. A loan or advance described in this paragraph is substantially repayable within 45 days of consummation or advance even if no qualifying electronic deposit is actually made into or withdrawn by the lender from the consumer's account.

5. Loans with alternative, ambiguous, or unusual payment schedules. If a consumer, under any applicable law, would breach the terms of the agreement between the consumer and the lender or service provider by not substantially repaying the entire amount of the loan or advance within 45 days of consummation or advance, as the case may be, the loan is a covered short-term loan under § 1041.3(b)(1). For loans or advances that are not required to be repaid within 45 days of consummation or advance, if the consumer, under applicable law, would not breach the terms of the agreement between the consumer and the lender by not substantially repaying the loan or advance in full within 45 days, the loan is a covered longer-term balloon-payment loan under § 1041.3(b)(2) or a covered longer-term loan under § 1041.3(b)(3) if the loan otherwise satisfies the criteria specified in § 1041.3(b)(2) or (3), respectively.

Paragraph 3(b)(2)

1. Closed-end credit that does not provide for multiple advances to consumers. See comments 3(b)(1)-1 and 3(b)(1)-2.

2. Payments more than twice as large as other payments. For purposes of § 1041.3(b)(2)(i) and (ii), all required payments of principal and any charges (or charges only, depending on the loan features) due under the loan are used to determine whether a particular payment is more than twice as large as another payment, regardless of whether the payments have changed during the loan term due to rate adjustments or other payment changes permitted or required under the loan.

3. Charges excluded. Charges for actual unanticipated late payments, for exceeding a credit limit, or for delinquency, default, or a similar occurrence that may be added to a payment are excluded from the determination of whether the loan is repayable in a single payment or a particular payment is more than twice as large as another payment. Likewise, sums that are accelerated and due upon default are excluded from the determination of whether the loan is repayable in a single payment or a particular payment is more than twice as large as another payment.

4. Multiple-advance structures. Loans that provide for more than one advance are considered to be a covered longer-term balloon-payment loan under § 1041.3(b)(2)(ii) if either:

i. The consumer is required to repay substantially the entire amount of an advance more than 45 days after the advance is made or is required to make at least one payment on the advance that is more than twice as large as any other payment; or

ii. A loan with multiple advances is structured such that paying the required minimum payment may not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, and the amount of the final payment to repay the outstanding balance at such time could be more than twice the amount of other minimum payments under the plan. For example, the lender extends an open-end credit plan with a $500 credit limit, monthly billing cycles, and a minimum payment due each billing cycle that is equal to 10% of the outstanding principal. Fees or interest on the plan are equal to 10% of the outstanding principal per month, so that if a consumer pays nothing other than the minimum payment amount, the outstanding principal remains the same. All outstanding amounts must be repaid within six months of the advance. The credit plan is a covered loan under § 1041.3(b)(2)(ii) because if the consumer drew the entire amount at one time and then made only minimum payments, the sixth payment would be more than twice the amount of the minimum payment required ($50).

Paragraph 3(b)(3)

1. Conditions for coverage of a longer-term loan. A loan that is not a covered short-term loan or a covered longer-term balloon-payment loan is a covered longer-term loan only if it satisfies both the cost of credit requirement of § 1041.3(b)(3)(i) and leveraged payment mechanism requirement of § 1041.3(b)(3)(ii). If the requirements of § 1041.3(b)(3) are met, and the loan is not otherwise excluded or conditionally exempted from coverage by § 1041.3(d), (e), or (f), the loan is a covered longer-term loan. For example, a 60-day loan that is not a covered longer-term balloon-payment loan is not a covered longer-term loan if the cost of credit as measured pursuant to § 1041.2(a)(6) is less than or equal to a rate of 36 percent per annum even if the lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism.

2. No balance during a billing cycle. Under § 1041.2(a)(6)(ii)(B), the cost of credit for open-end credit must be calculated according to the rules for calculating the effective annual percentage rate for a billing cycle as set forth in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.14(c) and (d), which provide that the annual percentage rate cannot be calculated for billing cycles in which there is a finance charge but no other balance. Accordingly, pursuant to § 1041.2(a)(6)(ii)(B), the cost of credit could not be calculated for such billing cycles. Section 1041.3(b)(3)(i)(B)(1) provides that, for such billing cycles, an open-end credit plan is determined to have exceeded the threshold set forth in that paragraph if there is no balance other than a finance charge imposed by the lender.

3. Timing for coverage determination. A loan may become a covered longer-term loan at any such time as both of the requirements of § 1041.3(b)(3)(i) and (ii) are met. For example:

i. A lender originates a closed-end loan that is not a longer-term balloon-payment loan to be repaid within six months of consummation with a cost of credit equal to 60 percent. At the time of consummation, the loan is not a covered longer-term loan because it does not have a leveraged payment mechanism. After two weeks, the lender obtains a leveraged payment mechanism. The loan is now a covered longer-term loan because it meets both of the requirements of § 1041.3(b)(3)(i) and (ii).

ii. A lender extends an open-end credit plan with monthly billing cycles and a leveraged payment mechanism. At consummation and again at the end of the first billing cycle, the plan is not a covered longer-term loan because its cost of credit is below 36 percent. In the second billing cycle, the plan's cost of credit is 45 percent because several fees are triggered in addition to interest on the principal balance. The plan is now a covered longer-term loan because it meets both of the requirements of § 1041.3(b)(3)(i) and (ii). Beginning on the first day of the third billing cycle, and thereafter for the duration of the plan, the lender must therefore comply with the requirements of this part including by, for example, providing a first withdrawal notice before initiating the first payment transfer on or after the first day of the third billing cycle. The requirements to provide certain payment withdrawal notices under § 1041.9 have been structured so that the notices can be provided in the same mailing as the periodic statements that are required by Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.7(b). See, e.g., § 1041.9(b)(3)(i)(D).

Paragraph 3(b)(3)(ii)

1. Timing. The condition in § 1041.3(b)(3)(ii) is satisfied if a lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism before, at the same time as, or after the consumer receives the entire amount of funds that the consumer is entitled to receive under the loan, regardless of the means by which the lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism.

2. Leveraged payment mechanism in contract. The condition in § 1041.3(b)(3)(ii) is satisfied if a loan agreement authorizes the lender to elect to obtain a leveraged payment mechanism, regardless of the time at which the lender actually obtains a leveraged payment mechanism. The following are examples of situations in which a lender obtains a leveraged payment mechanism under § 1041.3(b)(3)(ii):

i. Future authorization. A loan agreement provides that the consumer, at some future date, must authorize the lender or service provider to debit the consumer's account on a recurring basis.

ii. Delinquency or default provisions. A loan agreement provides that the consumer must authorize the lender or service provider to debit the consumer's account on a one-time or a recurring basis if the consumer becomes delinquent or defaults on the loan.

Paragraph 3(c)

1. Initiating a transfer of money from a consumer's account. A lender or service provider obtains the ability to initiate a transfer of money when that person can collect payment, or otherwise withdraw funds, from a consumer's account, either on a single occasion or on a recurring basis, without the consumer taking further action. Generally, when a lender or service provider has the ability to “pull” funds or initiate a transfer from the consumer's account, that person has a leveraged payment mechanism. However, a “push” transaction from the consumer to the lender or service provider does not in itself give the lender or service provider a leveraged payment mechanism.

2. Lender-initiated transfers. The following are examples of situations in which a lender or service provider has the ability to initiate a transfer of money from a consumer's account:

i. Check. A lender or service provider obtains a check, draft, or similar paper instrument written by the consumer, other than a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request as described in § 1041.3(c) and comment 3(c)-3.

ii. Electronic fund transfer authorization. The consumer authorizes a lender or service provider to initiate an electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account in advance of the transfer, other than a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request as described in § 1041.3(c) and comment 3(c)-3.

iii. Remotely created checks and remotely created payment orders. A lender or service provider has authorization to create or present a remotely created check (as defined by Regulation CC, 12 CFR 229.2(fff)), remotely created payment order (as defined in 16 CFR 310.2(cc)), or similar instrument drafted on the consumer's account.

iv. Transfer by account-holding institution. A lender or service provider that is an account-holding institution has a right to initiate a transfer of funds between the consumer's account and an account of the lender or affiliate, including, but not limited to, an account-holding institution's right of set-off.

3. Single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request excluded. A single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request, as defined in § 1041.8(a)(2), is excluded from the definition of leveraged payment mechanism. Accordingly, if the loan or other agreement between the consumer and the lender or service provider does not otherwise provide for the lender or service provider to initiate a transfer without further consumer action, the lender or service provider can initiate a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request without causing the loan to become a covered loan under § 1041.3(b)(3). See § 1041.8(a)(2) and related commentary for guidance on what constitutes a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request.

4. Transfers not initiated by the lender. A lender or service provider does not initiate a transfer of money from a consumer's account if the consumer authorizes a third party, such as a bank's automatic bill pay service, to initiate a transfer of money from the consumer's account to a lender or service provider.

3(d) Exclusions

3(d)(1) Certain Purchase Money Security Interest Loans

1. “Sole purpose” test. The requirements of this part do not apply to loans made solely and expressly to finance the consumer's initial purchase of a good in which the lender takes a security interest as a condition of the credit. For example, the requirements of this part would not apply to a transaction in which a lender makes a loan to a consumer for the express purpose of initially purchasing a motor vehicle, television, household appliance, or furniture in which the lender takes a security interest and the amount financed is approximately equal to, or less than, the cost of acquiring the good, even if the cost of credit exceeds 36 percent per annum and the lender also obtains a leveraged payment mechanism. A loan is made solely and expressly to finance the consumer's initial purchase of a good even if the amount financed under the loan includes Federal, State, or local taxes or amounts required to be paid under applicable State and Federal licensing and registration requirements. This exclusion does not apply to refinances of credit extended for the purchase of a good.

3(d)(2) Real Estate Secured Credit

1. Real estate and dwellings. The requirements of this part do not apply to credit secured by any real property, or by any personal property, such as a mobile home, used or expected to be used as a dwelling if the lender records or otherwise perfects the security interest within the term of the loan, even if the cost of credit exceeds 36 percent per annum and the lender or servicer provider also obtains a leveraged payment mechanism. If the lender does not record or perfect the security interest during the term of the loan, however, the credit is not excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(2).

3(d)(5) Non-Recourse Pawn Loans

1. Lender possession required and no recourse permitted. A pawn loan must satisfy two conditions to be excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(5). First, the lender must have sole physical possession and use of the property securing the pawned property at all times during the entire term of the loan. If the consumer retains either possession or use of the property, however limited the consumer's possession or use of the property might be, the loan is not excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(5). Second, the lender must have no recourse if the consumer does not elect to redeem the pawned item and repay the loan other than retaining the pawned property to dispose of according to State or local law. If any consumer, or if any co-signor, guarantor, or similar person, is personally liable for the difference between the outstanding balance on the loan and the value of the pawned property, the loan is not excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(5).

3(d)(6) Overdraft Services

1. Definitions. Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1005.17(a) and its related commentary in determining whether credit is an overdraft service or an overdraft line of credit that is excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(6).

3(d)(7) Wage Advance Programs

1. Advances of wages under § 1041.3(d)(7) must be offered by an employer, as defined in the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 203(d), or by the employer's business partner to the employer's employees pursuant to a wage advance program. For example, an advance program might be offered by a company that provides payroll card services or accounting services to the employer, or by the employer with the assistance of such a company. Similarly, an advance program might be offered by a company that provides consumer financial products and services as part of the employer's benefits program, such that the company would have information regarding the wages accrued by the employee.

Paragraph 3(d)(7)(i)

1. Under the exclusion in § 1041.3(d)(7)(i), the advance must be made only against accrued wages. To qualify for that exclusion, the amount advanced must not exceed the amount of the employee's accrued wages. Accrued wages are wages that the employee is entitled to receive under State law in the event of separation from the employer for work performed for the employer, but for which the employee has yet to be paid.

Paragraph 3(d)(7)(ii)(B)

1. Under § 1041.3(d)(7)(ii)(B), the entity advancing the funds is required to warrant that it has no legal or contractual claim or remedy against the consumer based on the consumer's failure to repay in the event the amount advanced is not repaid in full. This provision does not prevent the entity from obtaining a one-time authorization to seek repayment from the consumer's transaction account.

3(d)(8) No-Cost Advances

1. Under § 1041.3(d)(8)(i), the entity advancing the funds is required to warrant that it has no legal or contractual claim or remedy against the consumer based on the consumer's failure to repay in the event the amount advanced is not repaid in full. This provision does not prevent the entity from obtaining a one-time authorization to seek repayment from the consumer's transaction account.

3(e) Alternative Loans

1. General. Section 1041.3(e) conditionally exempts from this part alternative covered loans that satisfy the conditions and requirements set forth in § 1041.3(e). Nothing in § 1041.3(e) provides lenders with an exemption from the requirements of other applicable laws, including State laws. The conditions for an alternative loan made under § 1041.3(e) largely track the conditions set forth by the National Credit Union Administration at 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii) for a Payday Alternative Loan made by a Federal credit union. All lenders, including Federal credit unions and persons that are not Federal credit unions, are permitted to make loans under § 1041.3(e), provided that such loans are permissible under other applicable laws, including State laws.

3(e)(1) Loan Term Conditions

Paragraph 3(e)(1)(iv)

1. Substantially equal payments. Under § 1041.3(e)(1)(iv), payments are substantially equal in amount if the amount of each scheduled payment on the loan is equal to or within a small variation of the others. For example, if a loan is repayable in six biweekly payments and the amount of each scheduled payment is within 1 percent of the amount of the other payments, the loan is repayable in substantially equal payments. In determining whether a loan is repayable in substantially equal payments, a lender may disregard the effects of collecting the payments in whole cents.

2. Substantially equal intervals. The intervals for scheduled payments are substantially equal if the payment schedule requires repayment on the same date each month or in the same number of days of the prior scheduled payment. For example, a loan for which payment is due every 15 days has payments due in substantially equal intervals. A loan for which payment is due on the 15th day of each month also has payments due in substantially equal intervals. In determining whether payments fall due in substantially equal intervals, a lender may disregard that dates of scheduled payments may be slightly changed because the scheduled date is not a business day, that months have different numbers of days, and the occurrence of leap years. Section 1041.3(e)(1)(iv) does not prevent a lender from accepting prepayment on a loan made under § 1041.3(e).

3. Amortization. Section 1041.3(e)(1)(iv) requires that the scheduled payments fully amortize the loan over the contractual period and prohibits lenders from making loans under § 1041.3(e) with interest-only payments or with a payment schedule that front-loads payments of interest and fees. While under § 1041.3(e)(1)(iv) the payment amount must be substantially equal for each scheduled payment, the amount of the payment that goes to principal and to interest will vary. The amount of payment applied to interest will be greater for earlier payments when there is a larger principal outstanding.

Paragraph 3(e)(1)(v)

1. Cost of credit. Under § 1041.3(e)(1)(v), the lender must not impose any charges other than the rate and application fees permissible for Federal credit unions to charge under 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii). Under 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii), application fees must reflect the actual costs associated with processing the application and must not exceed $20.

3(e)(2) Borrowing History Condition

1. Relevant records. A lender may make an alternative covered loan under § 1041.3(e) only if the lender determines from its records that the consumer's borrowing history on alternative covered loans made under § 1041.3(e) meets the criteria set forth in § 1041.3(e)(2). The lender is not required to obtain information about a consumer's borrowing history from other persons, such as by obtaining a consumer report.

2. Determining 180-day period. For purposes of counting the number of loans made under § 1041.3(e)(2), the 180-day period begins on the date that is 180 days prior to the consummation date of the loan to be made under § 1041.3(e) and ends on the consummation date of such loan.

3. Total number of loans made under § 1041.3(e)(2). Section 1041.3(e)(2) excludes loans from the conditional exemption in § 1041.3(e) if the loan would result in the consumer being indebted on more than three outstanding loans made under § 1041.3(e) from the lender in any consecutive 180-day period. See § 1041.2(a)(17) for the definition of outstanding loan. Under § 1041.3(e)(2), the lender is required to determine from its records the consumer's borrowing history on alternative covered loans made under § 1041.3(e) by the lender. The lender must use this information about borrowing history to determine whether the loan would result in the consumer being indebted on more than three outstanding loans made under § 1041.3(e) from the lender in a consecutive 180-day period, determined in the manner described in comment 3(e)(2)-2. Section 1041.3(e) does not prevent lenders from making a covered loan subject to the requirements of this part.

4. Example. For example, assume that a lender seeks to make an alternative loan under § 1041.3(e) to a consumer and the loan does not qualify for the safe harbor under § 1041.3(e)(4). The lender checks its own records and determines that during the 180 days preceding the consummation date of the prospective loan, the consumer was indebted on two outstanding loans made under § 1041.3(e) from the lender. The loan, if made, would be the third loan made under § 1041.3(e) on which the consumer would be indebted during the 180-day period and, therefore, would be exempt from this part under § 1041.3(e). If, however, the lender determined that the consumer was indebted on three outstanding loans under § 1041.3(e) from the lender during the 180 days preceding the consummation date of the prospective loan, the condition in § 1041.3(e)(2) would not be satisfied and the loan would not be an alternative loan subject to the exemption under § 1041.3(e) but would instead be a covered loan subject to the requirements of this part.

3(e)(3) Income Documentation Condition

1. General. Section 1041.3(e)(3) requires lenders to maintain policies and procedures for documenting proof of recurring income and to comply with those policies and procedures when making alternative loans under § 1041.3(e). For the purposes of § 1041.3(e)(3), lenders may establish any procedure for documenting recurring income that satisfies the lender's own underwriting obligations. For example, lenders may choose to use the procedure contained in the National Credit Union Administration's guidance at 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii) on Payday Alternative Loan programs recommending that Federal credit unions document consumer income by obtaining two recent paycheck stubs.

3(f) Accommodation Lending

1. General. Section 1041.3(f) provides a conditional exemption for covered loans if, at the time of origination: (1) The lender and its affiliates collectively have made 2,500 or fewer covered loans in the current calendar year and made 2,500 or fewer covered loans in the preceding calendar year; and (2) during the most recent completed tax year in which the lender was in operation, if applicable, the lender and any affiliates that were in operation and used the same tax year derived no more than 10 percent of their receipts from covered loans, or if the lender was not in operation in a prior tax year, the lender reasonably anticipates that the lender and any of its affiliates that use the same tax year will, during the current tax year, derive no more than 10 percent of their combined receipts from covered loans. For example, assume a lender begins operation in January 2019, uses the calendar year as its tax year, and has no affiliates. In 2019, the lender could originate up to 2,500 covered loans that are not subject to the requirements of this part if at the time of each origination it reasonably anticipates that no more than 10 percent of its receipts during the current tax year will derive from covered loans. In 2020, the lender could originate up to 2,500 covered loans that are not subject to the requirements of this part if the lender made 2,500 or fewer covered loans in 2019 and the lender derived no more than 10 percent of its receipts in the 2019 tax year from covered loans. Section 1041.3(f) provides that covered longer-term loans for which all transfers meet the conditions in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii), and receipts from such loans, are not included for the purpose of determining whether the conditions of § 1041.3(f)(1) and (2) have been satisfied. For example, a bank that makes a covered longer-term loan using a loan agreement that includes the conditions in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) does not need to include that loan, or the receipts from that loan, in determining whether it is below the 2,500 loan threshold or the 10 percent of receipts threshold in § 1041.3(f)(1) and (2).

2. Reasonable anticipation of receipts for current tax year. A lender and its affiliates can look to receipts to date in forecasting their total receipts for the current tax year, but are expected to make reasonable adjustments to account for an upcoming substantial change in business plans or other relevant and known factors.

Section 1041.7—Identification of Unfair and Abusive Practice

1. General. A lender who complies with § 1041.8 with regard to a covered loan has not committed the unfair and abusive practice under § 1041.7.

Section 1041.8—Prohibited Payment Transfer Attempts

8(a) Definitions

8(a)(1) Payment Transfer

1. Lender-initiated. A lender-initiated debit or withdrawal includes a debit or withdrawal initiated by the lender's agent, such as a payment processor.

2. Any amount due. The following are examples of funds transfers that are for the purpose of collecting any amount due in connection with a covered loan:

i. A transfer for the amount of a scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan.

ii. A transfer for an amount smaller than the amount of a scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan.

iii. A transfer for the amount of the entire unpaid loan balance collected pursuant to an acceleration clause in a loan agreement for a covered loan.

iv. A transfer for the amount of a late fee or other penalty assessed pursuant to a loan agreement for a covered loan.

3. Amount purported to be due. A transfer for an amount that the consumer disputes or does not legally owe is a payment transfer if it otherwise meets the definition set forth in § 1041.8(a)(1).

4. Transfers of funds not initiated by the lender. A lender does not initiate a payment transfer when:

i. A consumer, on her own initiative or in response to a request or demand from the lender, makes a payment to the lender in cash withdrawn by the consumer from the consumer's account.

ii. A consumer makes a payment via an online or mobile bill payment service offered by the consumer's account-holding institution.

iii. The lender seeks repayment of a covered loan pursuant to a valid court order authorizing the lender to garnish a consumer's account.

Paragraph 8(a)(1)(i)(A)

1. Electronic fund transfer. Any electronic fund transfer meeting the general definition in § 1041.8(a)(1) is a payment transfer, including but not limited to an electronic fund transfer initiated by a debit card or a prepaid card.

Paragraph 8(a)(1)(i)(B)

1. Signature check. A transfer of funds by signature check meeting the general definition in § 1041.8(a)(1) is a payment transfer regardless of whether the transaction is processed through the check network or through another network, such as the ACH network. The following example illustrates this concept: A lender processes a consumer's signature check through the check system to collect a scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan. The check is returned for nonsufficient funds. The lender then converts and processes the check through the ACH system, resulting in a successful payment. Both transfers are payment transfers, because both were initiated by the lender for purposes of collecting an amount due in connection with a covered loan.

Paragraph 8(a)(1)(i)(E)

1. Transfer by account-holding institution. Under § 1041.8(a)(1)(i)(E), when the lender is the account holder, a transfer of funds by the account-holding institution from a consumer's account held at the same institution is a payment transfer if it meets the general definition in § 1041.8(a)(1)(i), unless the transfer of funds meets the conditions in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) and is therefore excluded from the definition. See § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) and related commentary.

2. Examples. Payment transfers initiated by an account-holding institution from a consumer's account include, but are not limited to, the following:

i. Initiating an internal transfer from a consumer's account to collect a scheduled payment on a covered loan.

ii. Sweeping the consumer's account in response to a delinquency on a covered loan.

iii. Exercising a right of offset to collect against an outstanding balance on a covered loan.

Paragraph 8(a)(1)(ii) Conditional Exclusion for Certain Transfers by Account-Holding Institutions

1. General. The exclusion in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) applies only to a lender that is also the consumer's account-holding institution. The exclusion applies only if the conditions in both § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) are met with respect to a particular transfer of funds. A lender whose transfer meets the exclusion has not committed the unfair and abusive practice under § 1041.7 and is not subject to § 1041.8 or § 1041.9 in connection with that transaction, but is subject to subpart C for any transfers that do not meet the exclusion in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) and are therefore payment transfers under § 1041.8(a)(1).

Paragraph 8(a)(1)(ii)(A)

1. Terms of loan agreement or account agreement. The condition in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(A) is met only if the terms of the loan agreement or account agreement setting forth the restrictions on charging fees are in effect at the time the covered loan is made and remain in effect for the duration of the loan.

2. Fees prohibited. Examples of the types of fees restricted under § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(A) include, but are not limited to, nonsufficient fund fees, overdraft fees, and returned-item fees. A lender seeking to initiate transfers of funds pursuant to the exclusion in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) may still charge the consumer a late fee for failure to make a timely payment, as permitted under the terms of the loan agreement and other applicable law, notwithstanding that the lender has initiated a transfer of funds meeting the description in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(A) in an attempt to collect the payment.

Paragraph 8(a)(1)(ii)(B)

1. General. Under § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(B), to be eligible for the exclusion in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii), a lender may not close the consumer's account in response to a negative balance that results from a lender-initiated transfer of funds in connection with the covered loan. A lender is not restricted from closing the consumer's account in response to another event, even if the event occurs after a lender-initiated transfer of funds has brought the account to a negative balance. For example, a lender may close the account at the consumer's request, for purposes of complying with other regulatory requirements, or to protect the account from suspected fraudulent use or unauthorized access, and still meet the condition in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(B).

2. Terms of loan agreement or account agreement. The condition in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(B) is met only if the terms of the loan agreement or account agreement providing that the lender will not close the account in the specified circumstances are in effect at the time the covered loan is made and remain in effect for the duration of the loan.

8(a)(2) Single Immediate Payment Transfer at the Consumer's Request

Paragraph 8(a)(2)(i)

1. Time of initiation. A one-time electronic fund transfer is initiated at the time that the transfer is sent out of the lender's control. Thus, the electronic fund transfer is initiated at the time that the lender or its agent sends the transfer to be processed by a third party, such as the lender's bank. The following example illustrates this concept: A lender obtains a consumer's authorization for a one-time electronic fund transfer at 2 p.m. and sends the payment entry to its agent, a payment processor, at 5 p.m. on the same day. The agent then sends the payment entry to the lender's bank for further processing the next business day at 8 a.m. The timing condition in § 1041.8(a)(2)(ii) is satisfied, because the lender's agent sent the transfer out of its control within one business day after the lender obtained the consumer's authorization.

Paragraph 8(a)(2)(ii)

1. Time of processing. A signature check is processed at the time that the check is sent out of the lender's control. Thus, the check is processed at the time that the lender or its agent sends the check to be processed by a third party, such as the lender's bank. For an example illustrating this concept within the context of initiating a one-time electronic fund transfer, see comment 8(a)(2)(i)-1.

2. Check provided by mail. For purposes of § 1041.8(a)(2)(ii), if the consumer provides the check by mail, the check is deemed to be provided on the date that the lender receives it.

8(b) Prohibition on Initiating Payment Transfers From a Consumer's Account After Two Consecutive Failed Payment Transfers

1. General. When the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) applies, a lender is generally restricted from initiating any further payment transfers from the consumer's account in connection with any covered loan that the consumer has with the lender at the time the prohibition is triggered, unless the requirements and conditions in either § 1041.8(c) or (d) are satisfied for each such covered loan for which the lender seeks to initiate further payment transfers. The prohibition applies, for example, to payment transfers that might otherwise be initiated to collect payments that later fall due under a loan agreement for a covered loan and to transfers to collect late fees or returned item fees as permitted under the terms of such a loan agreement. In addition, the prohibition applies regardless of whether the lender holds an otherwise valid authorization or instrument from the consumer, including but not limited to an authorization to collect payments by preauthorized electronic fund transfers or a post-dated check. See § 1041.8(c) and (d) and accompanying commentary for guidance on the requirements and conditions that a lender must satisfy to initiate a payment transfer from a consumer's account after the prohibition applies.

2. Account. The prohibition in § 1041.8(b) applies only to the account from which the lender attempted to initiate the two consecutive failed payment transfers.

3. More than one covered loan. The prohibition in § 1041.8(b) is triggered after the lender has attempted to initiate two consecutive failed payment transfers in connection with any covered loan or covered loans that the consumer has with the lender. Thus, when a consumer has more than one covered loan with the lender, the two consecutive failed payment transfers need not be initiated in connection with the same loan in order for the prohibition to be triggered, but rather can be initiated in connection with two different loans. For example, the prohibition is triggered if the lender initiates the first failed payment transfer to collect payment on one covered loan and the second consecutive failed payment transfer to collect payment on a different covered loan, assuming that the conditions for a first failed payment transfer, in § 1041.8(b)(2)(i), and second consecutive failed transfer, in § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii), are met.

4. Application to bona fide subsequent loan. If a lender triggers the prohibition in § 1041.8(b), the lender is not prohibited under § 1041.8(b) from initiating a payment transfer in connection with a bona fide subsequent covered loan that was originated after the prohibition was triggered, provided that the lender has not attempted to initiate two consecutive failed payment transfers from the consumer's account in connection with the bona fide subsequent covered loan. For purposes of § 1041.8(b) only, a bona fide subsequent covered loan does not include a covered loan that refinances or rolls over any covered loan that the consumer has with the lender at the time the prohibition is triggered.

8(b)(1) General

1. Failed payment transfer. A payment transfer results in a return indicating that the consumer's account lacks sufficient funds when it is returned unpaid, or is declined, due to nonsufficient funds in the consumer's account.

2. Date received. The prohibition in § 1041.8(b) applies as of the date on which the lender or its agent, such as a payment processor, receives the return of the second consecutive failed transfer or, if the lender is the consumer's account-holding institution, the date on which the second consecutive failed payment transfer is initiated.

3. Return for other reason. A transfer that results in a return for a reason other than a lack of sufficient funds, such as a return made due to an incorrectly entered account number, is not a failed transfer for purposes of § 1041.8(b).

4. Failed payment transfer initiated by a lender that is the consumer's account-holding institution. When a lender that is the consumer's account-holding institution initiates a payment transfer for an amount that the account lacks sufficient funds to cover, the payment transfer is a failed payment transfer for purposes of the prohibition in § 1041.8(b), regardless of whether the result is classified or coded in the lender's internal procedures, processes, or systems as a return for nonsufficient funds or, if applicable, regardless of whether the full amount of the payment transfer is paid out of overdraft. Such a lender does not initiate a failed payment transfer for purposes of the prohibition if the lender merely defers or foregoes debiting or withdrawing payment from an account based on the lender's observation that the account lacks sufficient funds.

8(b)(2) Consecutive Failed Payment Transfers

8(b)(2)(i) First Failed Payment Transfer

1. Examples. The following examples illustrate concepts of first failed payment transfers under § 1041.8(b)(2)(i). All of the examples assume that the consumer has only one covered loan with the lender:

i. A lender, having made no other attempts, initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect the first scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan, which results in a return for nonsufficient funds. The failed transfer is the first failed payment transfer. The lender, having made no attempts in the interim, re-presents the electronic fund transfer and the re-presentment results in the collection of the full payment. Because the subsequent attempt did not result in a return for nonsufficient funds, the number of consecutive failed payment transfers resets to zero. The following month, the lender initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect the second scheduled payment due under the covered loan agreement, which results in a return for nonsufficient funds. That failed transfer is a first failed payment transfer.

ii. A storefront lender, having made no prior attempts, processes a consumer's signature check through the check system to collect the first scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan. The check is returned for nonsufficient funds. This constitutes the first failed payment transfer. The lender does not thereafter convert and process the check through the ACH system, or initiate any other type of payment transfer, but instead contacts the consumer. At the lender's request, the consumer comes into the store and makes the full payment in cash withdrawn from the consumer's account. The number of consecutive failed payment transfers remains at one, because the consumer's cash payment was not a payment transfer as defined in § 1041.8(a)(2).

8(b)(2)(ii) Second Consecutive Failed Payment Transfer

1. General. Under § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii), a failed payment transfer is the second consecutive failed transfer if the previous payment transfer was a first failed payment transfer. The following examples illustrate this concept:

i. Assume that a consumer has only one covered loan with a lender. The lender, having initiated no other payment transfer in connection with the covered loan, initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect the first scheduled payment due under the loan agreement. The transfer is returned for nonsufficient funds. The returned transfer is the first failed payment transfer. The lender next initiates an electronic fund transfer for the following scheduled payment due under the loan agreement for the covered loan, which is also returned for nonsufficient funds. The second returned transfer is the second consecutive failed payment transfer.

ii. Assume that a consumer has two covered loans, Loan A and Loan B, with a lender. Further assume that the lender has initiated no failed payment transfers in connection with either covered loan. On the first of the month, the lender initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect a regularly scheduled payment on Loan A, resulting in a return for nonsufficient funds. The returned transfer is the first failed payment transfer. Two weeks later, the lender, having initiated no further payment transfers in connection with either covered loan, initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect a regularly scheduled payment on Loan B, also resulting in a return for nonsufficient funds. The second returned transfer is the second consecutive failed payment transfer, and the lender is thus prohibited under § 1041.8(b) from initiating further payment transfers in connection with either covered loan.

2. Previous payment transfer. Section 1041.8(b)(2)(ii) provides that a previous payment transfer includes a payment transfer initiated at the same time or on the same day as the first failed payment transfer. The following example illustrates how this concept applies in determining whether the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) is triggered: Assume that a consumer has only one covered loan with a lender. The lender has made no other payment transfers in connection with the covered loan. On Monday at 9 a.m., the lender initiates two electronic fund transfers to collect the first scheduled payment under the loan agreement, each for half of the total amount due. Both transfers are returned for nonsufficient funds. Because each transfer is one of two failed transfers initiated at the same time, the lender has initiated a second consecutive failed payment transfer under § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii), and the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) is therefore triggered.

3. Application to exception in § 1041.8(d). When, after a second consecutive failed payment transfer, a lender initiates a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request pursuant to the exception in § 1041.8(d), the failed transfer count remains at two, regardless of whether the transfer succeeds or fails. Further, the exception is limited to a single payment transfer. Accordingly, if a payment transfer initiated pursuant to the exception fails, the lender is not permitted to re-initiate the transfer, such as by re-presenting it through the ACH system, unless the lender obtains a new authorization under § 1041.8(c) or (d).

8(b)(2)(iii) Different Payment Channel

1. General. Section 8(b)(2)(iii) provides that if a failed payment transfer meets the descriptions set forth in § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii), it is the second consecutive failed transfer regardless of whether the first failed transfer was made through a different payment channel. The following example illustrates this concept: A lender initiates an electronic funds transfer through the ACH system for the purpose of collecting the first payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan. The transfer results in a return for nonsufficient funds. This constitutes the first failed payment transfer. The lender next processes a remotely created check through the check system for the purpose of collecting the same first payment due. The remotely created check is returned for nonsufficient funds. The second failed attempt is the second consecutive failed attempt because it meets the description set forth in § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii).

8(c) Exception for Additional Payment Transfers Authorized by the Consumer

1. General. Section 1041.8(c) sets forth one of two exceptions to the prohibition in § 1041.8(b). Under the exception in § 1041.8(c), a lender is permitted to initiate additional payment transfers from a consumer's account after the lender's second consecutive transfer has failed if the additional transfers are authorized by the consumer in accordance with certain requirements and conditions as specified in the rule. In addition to the exception under § 1041.8(c), a lender is permitted to execute a single immediate payment transfers at the consumer's request under § 1041.8(d), if certain requirements and conditions are satisfied.

8(c)(1) General

1. Consumer's underlying payment authorization or instrument still required. The consumer's authorization required by § 1041.8(c) is in addition to, and not in lieu of, any separate payment authorization or instrument required to be obtained from the consumer under applicable laws.

8(c)(2) General Authorization Requirements and Conditions

8(c)(2)(i) Required Payment Transfer Terms

1. General. Section 1041.8(c)(2)(i) sets forth the general requirement that, for purposes of the exception in § 1041.8(c), the specific date, amount, and payment channel of each additional payment transfer must be authorized by the consumer, subject to a limited exception in § 1041.8(c)(2)(iii) for payment transfers solely to collect a late fee or returned item fee. Accordingly, for the exception to apply to an additional payment transfer, the transfer's specific date, amount, and payment channel must be included in the signed authorization obtained from the consumer under § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii). For guidance on the requirements and conditions that apply when obtaining the consumer's signed authorization, see § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii) and accompanying commentary.

2. Specific date. The requirement that the specific date of each additional payment transfer be authorized by the consumer is satisfied if the consumer authorizes the month, day, and year of each transfer.

3. Amount larger than specific amount. The exception in § 1041.8(c)(2) does not apply if the lender initiates a payment transfer for an amount larger than the specific amount authorized by the consumer. Accordingly, such a transfer would violate the prohibition on additional payment transfers under § 1041.8(b).

4. Smaller amount. A payment transfer initiated pursuant to § 1041.8(c) is initiated for the specific amount authorized by the consumer if its amount is equal to or smaller than the authorized amount.

8(c)(2)(iii) Special Authorization Requirements and Conditions for Payment Transfers To Collect a Late Fee or Returned Item Fee

1. General. If a lender obtains the consumer's authorization to initiate a payment transfer solely to collect a late fee or returned item fee in accordance with the requirements and conditions under § 1041.8(c)(2)(iii), the general requirement in § 1041.8(c)(2) that the consumer authorize the specific date and amount of each additional payment transfer need not be satisfied.

2. Highest amount. The requirement that the consumer's signed authorization include a statement that specifies the highest amount that may be charged for a late fee or returned item fee is satisfied, for example, if the statement specifies the maximum amount permitted under the loan agreement for a covered loan.

3. Varying fee amounts. If a fee amount may vary due to the remaining loan balance or other factors, the rule requires the lender to assume the factors that result in the highest amount possible in calculating the specified amount.

8(c)(3) Requirements and Conditions for Obtaining the Consumer's Authorization

8(c)(3)(ii) Provision of Payment Transfer Terms to the Consumer

1. General. A lender is permitted under § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) to request a consumer's authorization on or after the day that the lender provides the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c). For the exception in § 1041.8(c) to apply, however, the consumer's signed authorization must be obtained no earlier than the date on which the consumer is considered to have received the consumer rights notice, as specified in § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii).

2. Different options. Nothing in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) prohibits a lender from providing different options for the consumer to consider with respect to the date, amount, or payment channel of each additional payment transfer for which the lender is requesting authorization. In addition, if a consumer declines a request, nothing in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) prohibits a lender from making a follow-up request by providing a different set of terms for the consumer to consider. For example, if the consumer declines an initial request to authorize two recurring payment transfers for a particular amount, the lender may make a follow-up request for the consumer to authorize three recurring payment transfers for a smaller amount.

Paragraph 8(c)(3)(ii)(A)

1. Request by email. Under § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(A), a lender is permitted to provide the required terms and statement to the consumer in writing or in a retainable form by email if the consumer has consented to receive electronic disclosures in that manner under § 1041.9(a)(4) or agrees to receive the terms and statement by email in the course of a communication initiated by the consumer in response to the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c). The following example illustrates a situation in which the consumer agrees to receive the required terms and statement by email after affirmatively responding to the notice:

i. After a lender provides the consumer rights notice in § 1041.9(c) by mail to a consumer who has not consented to receive electronic disclosures under § 1041.9(a)(4), the consumer calls the lender to discuss her options for repaying the loan, including the option of authorizing additional payment transfers pursuant to § 1041.8(c). In the course of the call, the consumer asks the lender to provide the request for the consumer's authorization via email. Because the consumer has agreed to receive the request via email in the course of a communication initiated by the consumer in response to the consumer rights notice, the lender is permitted under § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(A) to provide the request to the consumer by that method.

2. E-Sign Act does not apply to provision of terms and statement. The required terms and statement may be provided to the consumer electronically in accordance with the requirements for requesting the consumer's authorization in § 1041.8(c)(3) without regard to the E-Sign Act. However, under § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii)(A), an authorization obtained electronically is valid only if it is signed or otherwise agreed to by the consumer in accordance with the signature requirements in the E-Sign Act. See § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii)(A) and comment 8(c)(3)(iii)(A)-1.

3. Same communication. Nothing in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) prohibits a lender from requesting the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers and providing the consumer rights notice in the same communication, such as a single written mailing or a single email to the consumer. Nonetheless, the consumer rights notice may be provided to the consumer only in accordance with the requirements and conditions in § 1041.9, including but not limited to the segregation requirements that apply to the notice. Thus, for example, if a lender mails the request for authorization and the notice to the consumer in the same envelope, the lender must provide the notice on a separate piece of paper, as required under § 1041.9. Similarly, a lender could provide the notice to a consumer in the body of an email and attach a document containing the request for authorization. In such cases, it would be permissible for the lender to add language after the text of the notice explaining that the other document is a request for a new authorization.

Paragraph 8(c)(3)(ii)(B)

1. Request by oral telephone communication. Nothing in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) prohibits a lender from contacting the consumer by telephone to discuss repayment options, including the option of authorizing additional payment transfers. However, under § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(B), a lender is permitted to provide the required terms and statement to the consumer by oral telephone communication for purposes of requesting authorization only if the consumer affirmatively contacts the lender in that manner in response to the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c) and agrees to receive the terms and statement by that method of delivery in the course of, and as part of, the same communication.

8(c)(3)(iii) Signed Authorization Required

8(c)(3)(iii)(A) General

1. E-Sign Act signature requirements. For authorizations obtained electronically, the requirement that the authorization be signed or otherwise agreed to by the consumer is satisfied if the E-Sign Act requirements for electronic records and signatures are met. Thus, for example, the requirement is satisfied by an email from the consumer or by a code entered by the consumer into the consumer's telephone keypad, assuming that in each case the signature requirements in the E-Sign Act are complied with.

2. Consumer's affirmative response to the notice. A consumer affirmatively responds to the consumer rights notice that was provided by mail when, for example, the consumer calls the lender on the telephone to discuss repayment options after receiving the notice.

8(c)(3)(iii)(C) Memorialization Required

1. Timing. The memorialization is deemed to be provided to the consumer on the date it is mailed or transmitted.

2. Form of memorialization. The requirement that the memorialization be provided in a retainable form is not satisfied by a copy of a recorded telephone call, notwithstanding that the authorization was obtained in that manner.

3. Electronic delivery. A lender is permitted under § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii)(C) to provide the memorialization to the consumer by email in accordance with the requirements and conditions for requesting authorization in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(A), regardless of whether the lender requested the consumer's authorization in that manner. For example, if the lender requested the consumer's authorization by telephone but also has obtained the consumer's consent to receive electronic disclosures by email under § 1041.9(a)(4), the lender may provide the memorialization to the consumer by email, as specified in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(A).

8(d) Exception for Initiating a Single Immediate Payment Transfer at the Consumer's Request

1. General. For guidance on the requirements and conditions that must be satisfied for a payment transfer to meet the definition of a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request, see § 1041.8(a)(2) and accompanying commentary.

2. Application of prohibition. A lender is permitted under the exception in § 1041.8(d) to initiate a single payment transfer requested by the consumer only once and thus is prohibited under § 1041.8(b) from re-initiating the payment transfer if it fails, unless the lender subsequently obtains the consumer's authorization to re-initiate the payment transfer under § 1041.8(c) or (d). However, a lender is permitted to initiate any number of payment transfers from a consumer's account pursuant to the exception in § 1041.8(d), provided that the requirements and conditions are satisfied for each such transfer. See comment 8(b)(2)(ii)-3 for further guidance on how the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) applies to the exception in § 1041.8(d).

3. Timing. A consumer affirmatively contacts the lender when, for example, the consumer calls the lender after noticing on her bank statement that the lender's last two payment withdrawal attempts have been returned for nonsufficient funds.

8(e) Prohibition Against Evasion

1. General. Section 1041.8(e) provides that a lender must not take any action with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. In determining whether a lender has taken action with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8, the form, characterization, label, structure, or written documentation of the lender's action shall not be dispositive. Rather, the actual substance of the lender's action as well as other relevant facts and circumstances will determine whether the lender's action was taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. If the lender's action is taken solely for legitimate business purposes, it is not taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. By contrast, if a consideration of all relevant facts and circumstances reveals a purpose that is not a legitimate business purpose, the lender's action may have been taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. A lender action that is taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part may be knowing or reckless. Fraud, deceit, or other unlawful or illegitimate activity may be one fact or circumstance that is relevant to the determination of whether a lender's action was taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8, but fraud, deceit, or other unlawful or illegitimate activity is not a prerequisite to such a finding.

2. Illustrative example. A lender collects payment on its covered loans primarily through recurring electronic fund transfers authorized by consumers at consummation. As a matter of lender policy and practice, after a first attempt to initiate an ACH payment transfer from a consumer's account for the full payment amount is returned for nonsufficient funds, the lender initiates a second payment transfer from the account on the following day for $1.00. If the second payment transfer succeeds, the lender immediately splits the amount of the full payment into two separate payment transfers and initiates both payment transfers from the account at the same time, resulting in two returns for nonsufficient funds in the vast majority of cases. The lender developed the policy and began the practice shortly prior to August 19, 2019. The lender's prior policy and practice when re-presenting the first failed payment transfer was to re-present for the payment's full amount. Depending on the relevant facts and circumstances, the lender's actions may have been taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. Specifically, by initiating a second payment transfer for $1.00 from the consumer's account the day after a first transfer for the full payment amount fails and, if that payment transfer succeeds, initiating two simultaneous payment transfers from the account for the split amount of the full payment, resulting in two returns for nonsufficient funds in the vast majority of cases, the lender avoided the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) on initiating payment transfers from a consumer's account after two consecutive payment transfers have failed.

Section 1041.9—Disclosure of Payment Transfer Attempts

1. General. Section 1041.9 sets forth two main disclosure requirements related to collecting payments from a consumer's account in connection with a covered loan. The first, set forth in § 1041.9(b), is a payment notice required to be provided to a consumer in advance of a initiating the first payment withdrawal or an unusual withdrawal from the consumer's account, subject to certain exceptions. The second, set forth in § 1041.9(c), is a consumer rights notice required to be provided to a consumer after a lender receives notice of a second consecutive failed payment transfer from the consumer's account, as described in § 1041.8(b). In addition, § 1041.9 requires lenders to provide an electronic short notice in two situations when they are providing the disclosures required by this section through certain forms of electronic delivery. The first, set forth in § 1041.9(b)(4), is an electronic short notice that must be provided along with the payment notice. This provision allows an exception for when the method of electronic delivery is email; for that method, the lender may use the electronic short notice under § 1041.9(b)(4)(ii) or may provide the full notice within the body of the email. The second, set forth in § 1041.9(c)(4), is an electronic short notice that must be provided along with the consumer rights notice. As with the payment notices, this consumer rights notice provision also allows an exception for when the method of electronic delivery is email; for that method, the lender may use the electronic short notice under § 1041.9(c)(4)(ii) or may provide the full notice within the body of the email.

9(a) General Form of Disclosures

9(a)(1) Clear and Conspicuous

1. Clear and conspicuous standard. Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for purposes of § 1041.9 if they are readily understandable and their location and type size are readily noticeable to consumers.

9(a)(2) In Writing or Electronic Delivery

1. Electronic delivery. Section 1041.9(a)(2) allows the disclosures required by § 1041.9 to be provided through electronic delivery as long as the requirements of § 1041.9(a)(4) are satisfied, without regard to the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 et seq.).

9(a)(3) Retainable

1. General. Electronic disclosures, to the extent permitted by § 1041.9(a)(4), are retainable for purposes of § 1041.9 if they are in a format that is capable of being printed, saved, or emailed by the consumer. The general requirement to provide disclosures in a retainable form does not apply when the electronic short notices are provided in via mobile application or text message. For example, the requirement does not apply to an electronic short notice that is provided to the consumer's mobile telephone as a text message. In contrast, if the access is provided to the consumer via email, the notice must be in a retainable form, regardless of whether the consumer uses a mobile telephone to access the notice.

9(a)(4) Electronic Delivery

1. General. Section 1041.9(a)(4) permits disclosures required by § 1041.9 to be provided through electronic delivery if the consumer consent requirements under § 1041.9(a)(4) are satisfied.

9(a)(4)(i) Consumer Consent

9(a)(4)(i)(A) General

1. General. Section 1041.9(a)(4)(i) permits disclosures required by § 1041.9 to be provided through electronic delivery if the lender obtains the consumer's affirmative consent to receive the disclosures through a particular electronic delivery method. This affirmative consent requires lenders to provide consumers with an option to select a particular electronic delivery method. The consent must clearly show the method of electronic delivery that will be used, such as email, text message, or mobile application. Consent provided by checking a box during the origination process may qualify as being in writing. Consent can be obtained for multiple methods of electronic delivery, but the consumer must have affirmatively selected and provided consent for each method.

9(a)(4)(i)(B) Email Option Required

1. General. Section § 1041.9(a)(4)(i)(B) provides that when obtaining consumer consent to electronic delivery under § 1041.9(a)(4), a lender must provide the consumer with an option to receive the disclosures through email. The lender may choose to offer email as the only method of electronic delivery under § 1041.9(a)(4).

9(a)(4)(ii) Subsequent Loss of Consent

1. General. The prohibition on electronic delivery of disclosures in § 1041.9(a)(4)(ii) applies to the particular electronic method for which consent is lost. When a lender loses a consumer's consent to receive disclosures via text message, for example, but has not lost the consumer's consent to receive disclosures via email, the lender may continue to provide disclosures via email, assuming that all of the requirements in § 1041.9(a)(4) are satisfied.

2. Loss of consent applies to all notices. The loss of consent applies to all notices required by § 1041.9. For example, if a consumer revokes consent in response to the electronic short notice text message delivered along with the payment notice under § 1041.9(b)(4)(ii), that revocation also applies to text delivery of the electronic short notice that would be delivered with the consumer rights notice under § 1041.9(c)(4)(ii).

Paragraph 9(a)(4)(ii)(A)

1. Revocation. For purposes of § 1041.9(a)(4)(ii)(A), a consumer may revoke consent for any reason and by any reasonable means of communication. Reasonable means of communication may include calling the lender and revoking consent orally, mailing a revocation to an address provided by the lender on its consumer correspondence, sending an email response or clicking on a revocation link provided in an email from the lender, and responding by text message to a text message sent by the lender.

Paragraph 9(a)(4)(ii)(B)

1. Notice. A lender receives notification for purposes of § 1041.9(a)(4)(ii)(B) when the lender receives any information indicating that the consumer did not receive or is unable to receive disclosures in a particular electronic manner. Examples of notice include but are not limited to the following:

i. An email returned with a notification that the consumer's account is no longer active or does not exist.

ii. A text message returned with a notification that the consumer's mobile telephone number is no longer in service.

iii. A statement from the consumer that the consumer is unable to access or review disclosures through a particular electronic delivery method.

9(a)(5) Segregation Requirements for Notices

1. Segregated additional content. Although segregated additional content that is not required by § 1041.9 may not appear above, below, or around the required content, additional content may be delivered through a separate form, such as a separate piece of paper or Web page.

9(a)(7) Model Forms

1. Safe harbor provided by use of model forms. Although the use of the model forms and clauses is not required, lenders using them will be deemed to be in compliance with the disclosure requirement with respect to such model forms.

9(b) Payment Notice

9(b)(1)(i) First Payment Withdrawal

1. First payment withdrawal. Depending on when the payment authorization granted by the consumer is obtained on a covered loan and whether the exception for a single immediate payment transfer made at the consumer's request applies, the first payment withdrawal may or may not be the first payment made on a covered loan. When a lender obtains payment authorization during the origination process, the lender may provide the first payment withdrawal notice at that time. A lender that obtains payment authorization after a payment has been made by the consumer in cash, or after initiating a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request, would deliver the notice later in the loan term. If a consumer provides one payment authorization that the lender uses to initiate a first payment withdrawal after a notice as required by § 1041.9(b)(1)(i), but the consumer later changes the authorization or provides an additional authorization, the lender's exercise of that new authorization would not be the first payment withdrawal; however, it may be an unusual withdrawal under § 1041.9(b)(1)(ii).

2. First payment withdrawal is determined when the loan is in covered status. As discussed in comment 3(b)(3)-3, there may be situations where a longer-term loan is not covered at the time of origination but becomes covered at a later date. The lender's first attempt to execute a payment transfer after a loan becomes a covered loan under this part is the first payment withdrawal. For example, consider a loan that is not considered covered at the time of origination. If the lender initiates a payment withdrawal during the first and second billing cycles and the loan becomes covered at the end of the second cycle, any lender initiated payment during the third billing cycle is considered a first payment withdrawal under this section.

3. Intervening payments. Unscheduled intervening payments do not change the determination of first payment withdrawal for purposes of the notice requirement. For example, a lender originates a loan on April 1, with a payment scheduled to be withdrawn on May 1. At origination, the lender provides the consumer with a first payment withdrawal notice for May 1. On April 28, the consumer makes the payment due on May 1 in cash. The lender does not initiate a withdrawal on May 1. The lender initiates a withdrawal for the next scheduled payment June 1. The lender satisfied its notice obligation with the notice provided at origination, so it is not required to send a first payment notice in connection with the June 1 payment although it may have to send an unusual payment notice if the transfer meets one of the conditions in § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C).

9(b)(1)(iii) Exceptions

1. Exception for initial payment transfer applies even if the transfer is unusual. The exception in § 1041.9(b)(1)(iii)(A) applies even if the situation would otherwise trigger the additional disclosure requirements for unusual attempts under § 1041.9(b)(3). For example, if the payment channel of the initial payment transfer after obtaining the consumer's consent is different than the payment channel used before the prohibition under § 1041.8 was triggered, the exception in § 1041.9(b)(1)(iii)(A) applies.

2. Multiple transfers in advance. If a consumer has affirmatively consented to multiple transfers in advance, the exception in § 1041.9(b)(1)(iii)(A) applies only to the first initial payment transfer of that series.

9(b)(2) First Payment Withdrawal Notice

9(b)(2)(i) Timing

1. When the lender obtains payment authorization. For all methods of delivery, the earliest point that the lender may provide the first payment withdrawal notice is when the lender obtains the payment authorization. For example, the notice can be provided simultaneously when the lender provides a consumer with a copy of a completed payment authorization, or after providing the authorization copy. The provision allows the lender to provide consumers with the notice at a convenient time because the lender and consumer are already communicating about the loan, but also allows flexibility for lenders that prefer to provide the notice closer to the payment transfer date. For example, the lender could obtain consumer consent to electronic delivery and deliver the notice through email 4 days before initiating the transfer, or the lender could hand deliver it to the consumer at the end of the loan origination process.

9(b)(2)(i)(A) Mail

1. General. The six business-day period begins when the lender places the notice in the mail, not when the consumer receives the notice. For example, if a lender places the notice in the mail on Monday, June 1, the lender may initiate the transfer of funds on Tuesday, June 9, if it is the 6th business day following mailing of the notice.

9(b)(2)(i)(B) Electronic Delivery

Paragraph 9(b)(2)(i)(B)(1)

1. General. The three-business-day period begins when the lender sends the notice, not when the consumer receives or is deemed to have received the notice. For example, if a lender sends the notice by email on Monday, June 1, the lender may initiate the transfer of funds on Thursday, June 4, the third business day following transmitting the notice.

Paragraph 9(b)(2)(i)(B)(2)

1. General. In some circumstances, a lender may lose a consumer's consent to receive disclosures through a particular electronic delivery method after the lender has provided the notice. In such circumstances, the lender may initiate the transfer for the payment currently due as scheduled. If the lender is scheduled to make a future unusual withdrawal attempt following the one that was disclosed in the previously provided first withdrawal notice, the lender must provide notice for that unusual withdrawal through alternate means, in accordance with the applicable timing requirements in § 1041.9(b)(3)(i).

2. Alternate Means. The alternate means may include a different electronic delivery method that the consumer has consented to, in person, or by mail, in accordance with the applicable timing requirements in § 1041.9(b)(3)(i).

9(b)(2)(ii) Content Requirements

9(b)(2)(ii)(B) Transfer Terms

Paragraph 9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(1) Date

1. Date. The initiation date is the date that the payment transfer is sent outside of the lender's control. Accordingly, the initiation date of the transfer is the date that the lender or its agent sends the payment to be processed by a third party. For example, if a lender sends its ACH payments to a payment processor working on the lender's behalf on Monday, June 1, but the processor does not submit them to its bank and the ACH network until Tuesday, June 2, the date of the payment transfer is Tuesday the 2nd.

Paragraph 9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(2) Amount

1. Amount. The amount of the transfer is the total amount of money that will be transferred from the consumer's account, regardless of whether the total corresponds to the amount of a regularly scheduled payment. For example, if a single transfer will be initiated for the purpose of collecting a regularly scheduled payment of $50.00 and a late fee of $30.00, the amount that must be disclosed under § 1041.9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(2) is $80.00.

Paragraph 9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(5) Payment Channel

1. General. Payment channel refers to the specific payment method, including the network that the transfer will travel through and the form of the transfer. For example, a lender that uses the consumer's paper check information to initiate a payment transfer through the ACH network would use the ACH payment channel under § 1041.9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(5). A lender that uses consumer account and routing information to initiate a remotely created check over the check network would use the remotely created check payment channel. A lender that uses a post-dated signature check to initiate a transfer over the check network would use the signature check payment channel. A lender that initiates a payment from a consumer's prepaid card would specify whether that payment is processed as an ACH transfer, a PIN debit card network payment, or a signature debit card network payment.

2. Illustrative examples. In describing the payment channel in the disclosure, the most common payment channel descriptions include, but are not limited to, ACH transfers, checks, remotely created checks, remotely created payment orders, internal transfers, PIN debit card payments, and signature debit card network payments.

9(b)(2)(ii)(C) Payment Breakdown

9(b)(2)(ii)(C)(2) Principal

1. General. The amount of the payment that is applied to principal must always be included in the payment breakdown table, even if the amount applied is $0.

9(b)(2)(ii)(C)(4) Fees

1. General. This field must only be provided if some of the payment amount will be applied to fees. In situations where more than one fee applies, fees may be disclosed separately or aggregated. A lender may use its own term to describe the fee, such as “late payment fee.”

9(b)(2)(ii)(C)(5) Other Charges

1. General. This field must only be provided if some of the payment amount will be applied to other charges. In situations when more than one other charge applies, other charges may be disclosed separately or aggregated. A lender may use its own term to describe the charge, such as “insurance charge.”

9(b)(3) Unusual Withdrawal Notice

9(b)(3)(i) Timing

1. General. See comments on 9(b)(2) regarding the first payment withdrawal notice.

9(b)(3)(ii) Content Requirements

1. General. If the payment transfer is unusual according to the circumstances described in § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C), the payment notice must contain both the basic payment information required by § 1041.9(b)(2)(ii)(B) through (D) and the description of unusual withdrawal required by § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C).

9(b)(3)(ii)(C) Description of Unusual Withdrawal

1. General. An unusual withdrawal notice is required under § 1041.9(b)(3) if one or more conditions are present. The description of an unusual withdrawal informs the consumer of the condition that makes the pending payment transfer unusual.

2. Illustrative example. The lender provides a first payment withdrawal notice at origination. The first payment withdrawal initiated by the lender occurs on March 1, for $75, as a paper check. The second payment is scheduled for April 1, for $75, as an ACH transfer. Before the second payment, the lender provides an unusual withdrawal notice. The notice contains the basic payment information along with an explanation that the withdrawal is unusual because the payment channel has changed from paper check to ACH. Because the amount did not vary, the payment is taking place on the regularly scheduled date, and this is not a re-initiated payment, the only applicable content under § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C) is the different payment channel information.

3. Varying amount. The information about varying amount for closed-end loans in § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C)(1)(i) applies in two circumstances. First, the requirement applies when a transfer is for the purpose of collecting a payment that is not specified by amount on the payment schedule, including, for example, a one-time electronic payment transfer to collect a late fee. Second, the requirement applies when the transfer is for the purpose of collecting a regularly scheduled payment for an amount different from the regularly scheduled payment amount according to the payment schedule. Given existing requirements for open-end credit, circumstances that trigger an unusual withdrawal for open-end credit are more limited according to § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C)(1)(ii). Because the outstanding balance on open-end credit may change over time, the minimum payment due on the scheduled payment date may also fluctuate. However, the minimum payment amount due for open-end credit would be disclosed to the consumer according to the periodic statement requirement in Regulation Z. The payment transfer amount would not be considered unusual with regards to open-end credit unless the amount deviates from the minimum payment due as disclosed in the periodic statement. The requirement for a first payment withdrawal notice under § 1041.9(b)(2) and the other circumstances that could trigger an unusual withdrawal notice under § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C)(2) through (4), continue to apply.

4. Date other than due date of regularly scheduled payment. The changed date information in § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C)(2) applies in two circumstances. First, the requirement applies when a transfer is for the purpose of collecting a payment that is not specified by date on the payment schedule, including, for example, a one-time electronic payment transfer to collect a late fee. Second, the requirement applies when the transfer is for the purpose of collecting a regularly scheduled payment on a date that differs from the regularly scheduled payment date according to the payment schedule.

9(b)(4) Electronic Delivery

1. General. If the lender is using a method of electronic delivery other than email, such as text or mobile application, the lender must provide the notice with the electronic short notice as provided in § 1041.9(b)(4)(ii). If the lender is using email as the method of electronic delivery, § 1041.9(b)(4)(iii) allows the lender to determine whether to use the electronic short notice approach or to include the full text of the notice in the body of the email.

9(b)(4)(ii) Electronic Short Notice

9(b)(4)(ii)(A) General Content

1. Identifying statement. If the lender is using email as the method of electronic delivery, the identifying statement required in § 1041.9(b)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(3)(ii)(A) must be provided in both the email subject line and the body of the email.

9(c) Consumer Rights Notice

9(c)(2) Timing

1. General. Any information provided to the lender or its agent that the payment transfer has failed would trigger the timing requirement provided in § 1041.9(c)(2). For example, if the lender's agent, a payment processor, learns on Monday, June 1 that an ACH payment transfer initiated by the processor on the lender's behalf has been returned for non-sufficient funds, the lender would be required to send the consumer rights notice by Thursday, June 4.

9(c)(3) Content Requirements

1. Identifying statement. If the lender is using email as the method of electronic delivery, the identifying statement required in § 1041.9(c)(3)(i) must be provided in both the email subject line and the body of the email.

2. Fees. If the lender is also the consumer's account-holding institution, this includes all fees charged in relation to the transfer, including any returned payment fees charged to outstanding loan balance and any fees, such as overdraft or insufficient fund fees, charged to the consumer's account.

9(c)(4) Electronic Delivery

1. General. See comments 9(b)(4)-1 and 9(b)(4)(ii)(A)-1.

Section 1041.12—Compliance Program and Record Retention

12(a) Compliance Program

1. General. Section 1041.12(a) requires a lender making a covered loan to develop and follow written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure compliance with the applicable requirements in this part. These written policies and procedures must provide guidance to a lender's employees on how to comply with the requirements in this part. In particular, under § 1041.12(a), a lender must develop and follow detailed written policies and procedures reasonably designed to achieve compliance, as applicable, with the payments requirements in §§ 1041.8 and 1041.9. The provisions and commentary in each section listed above provide guidance on what specific directions and other information a lender must include in its written policies and procedures.

12(b) Record Retention

1. General. Section 1041.12(b) requires a lender to retain various categories of documentation and information concerning payment practices in connection with covered loans. The items listed are non-exhaustive as to the records that may need to be retained as evidence of compliance with this part.

12(b)(4) Retention of Records Relating to Payment Practices for Covered Loans

1. Methods of retaining documentation. Section 1041.12(b)(4) requires a lender either to retain certain payment-related information in connection with covered loans in original form or to be able to reproduce an image of such documents accurately. For example, § 1041.12(b)(4) requires the lender to either retain a paper copy of the leveraged payment mechanism obtained in connection with a covered longer-term loan or to be able to reproduce an image of the mechanism. For documentation that the lender receives electronically, the lender may retain either the electronic version or a printout.

12(b)(5) Electronic Records in Tabular Format Regarding Payment Practices for Covered Loans

1. Electronic records in tabular format. Section 1041.12(b)(5) requires a lender to retain records regarding payment practices in electronic, tabular format. Tabular format means a format in which the individual data elements comprising the record can be transmitted, analyzed, and processed by a computer program, such as a widely used spreadsheet or database program. Data formats for image reproductions, such as PDF, and document formats used by word processing programs are not tabular formats.

Section 1041.13—Prohibition Against Evasion

1. Lender action taken with the intent of evading the requirements of the rule. Section 1041.13 provides that a lender must not take any action with the intent of evading the requirements of this part. In determining whether a lender has taken action with the intent of evading the requirements of this part, the form, characterization, label, structure, or written documentation of the lender's action shall not be dispositive. Rather, the actual substance of the lender's action as well as other relevant facts and circumstances will determine whether the lender's action was taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part. If the lender's action is taken solely for legitimate business purposes, it is not taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part. By contrast, if a consideration of all relevant facts and circumstances reveals the presence of a purpose that is not a legitimate business purpose, the lender's action may have been taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part. A lender action that is taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part may be knowing or reckless. Fraud, deceit, or other unlawful or illegitimate activity may be one fact or circumstance that is relevant to the determination of whether a lender's action was taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part, but fraud, deceit, or other unlawful or illegitimate activity is not a prerequisite to such a finding.

[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019; 85 FR 44445, July 22, 2020]

PART 1070 DISCLOSURE OF RECORDS AND INFORMATION

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5481 et seq.; 5 U.S.C. 552; 5 U.S.C. 552a; 18 U.S.C. 1905; 18 U.S.C. 641; 44 U.S.C. ch. 31; 44 U.S.C. ch. 35; 12 U.S.C. 3401 et seq.

Source: 78 FR 11503, Feb. 15, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions and Definitions

§ 1070.1 Authority, purpose, and scope.

(a) Authority. (1) This part is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, an independent Bureau within the Federal Reserve System, pursuant to the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, 12 U.S.C. 5481 et seq.; the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552; the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a; the Federal Records Act, 44 U.S.C. 3101; the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.; the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978, 12 U.S.C. 3401; the Trade Secrets Act, 18 U.S.C. 1905; 18 U.S.C. 641; and any other applicable law that establishes a basis for the exercise of governmental authority by the CFPB.

(2) This part establishes mechanisms for carrying out the CFPB's statutory responsibilities under the statutes in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the extent those responsibilities require the disclosure, production, or withholding of information. In this regard, the CFPB has determined that the CFPB, and its delegates, may disclose information of the CFPB, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part, whenever it is necessary or appropriate to do so in the exercise of any of the CFPB's authority. The CFPB has determined that all such disclosures, made in accordance with the rules and procedures specified in this part, are authorized by law.

(b) Purpose and scope. This part contains the CFPB's rules relating to the disclosure of records and information generated by and obtained by the CFPB.

(1) Subpart A contains general provisions and definitions used in this part.

(2) Subpart B implements the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.

(3) Subpart C sets forth the procedures with respect to subpoenas, orders, or other requests for CFPB information in connection with legal proceedings.

(4) Subpart D provides for the protection of confidential information and procedures for sharing confidential information with supervised institutions, government Agencies, and others in certain circumstances.

(5) Subpart E implements the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a.

[83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018]

§ 1070.2 General definitions.

For purposes of this part:

(a) Supervision Director means the Supervision Director or any CFPB employee designated by the Director of the CFPB or the Supervision Director to act under this part.

(b) Business day means any day except Saturday, Sunday or a legal Federal holiday.

(c) CFPB means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.

(d) Chief FOIA Officer means the Chief Operating Officer of the CFPB.

(e) Chief Operating Officer means the Chief Operating Officer of the CFPB, or any CFPB employee to whom the Chief Operating Officer has delegated authority to act under this part.

(f) Confidential information means confidential consumer complaint information, confidential investigative information, and confidential supervisory information, as well as any other CFPB information that may be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b). Confidential information does not include information contained in records that have been made publicly available by the CFPB or information that has otherwise been publicly disclosed by an employee, or agent of the CFPB, with the authority to do so. Confidential information obtained by a third party or otherwise incorporated in the records of a third party, including another agency, shall remain confidential information subject to this part.

(g) Confidential consumer complaint information means information received or generated by the CFPB through processes or procedures established under 12 U.S.C. 5493(b)(3), to the extent that such information is exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b).

(h) Confidential investigative information means:

(1) Any documentary material, written report, or written answers to questions, tangible thing, or transcript of oral testimony received by the CFPB in any form or format pursuant to a civil investigative demand, as those terms are set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5562, or received by the CFPB voluntarily in lieu of a civil investigative demand; and

(2) Any other documents, materials, or records prepared by, on behalf of, received by, or for the use by the CFPB or any other Federal or State agency in the conduct of enforcement activities, and any information derived from such materials.

(i) Confidential supervisory information means:

(1) Reports of examination, inspection and visitation, non-public operating, condition, and compliance reports, supervisory letter, or similar document, and any information contained in, derived from, or related to such documents;

(2) Any documents, materials, or records, including reports of examination, prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of the CFPB or any other Federal, State, or foreign government agency in the exercise of supervisory authority over a financial institution, and any information derived from such documents, materials, or records;

(3) Any communications between the CFPB and a supervised financial institution or a Federal, State, or foreign government agency related to the CFPB's supervision of the institution;

(4) Any information provided to the CFPB by a financial institution for purposes of detecting and assessing risks to consumers and to markets for consumer financial products or services pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5414(b)(1)(C), 5515(b)(1)(C), or 5516(b), or to assess whether an institution should be considered a covered person, as that term is defined by 12 U.S.C. 5481, or is subject to the CFPB's supervisory authority; and/or

(5) Information that is exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(8).

(j) Director means the Director of the CFPB or his or her designee, or a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director in accordance with law.

(k) Employee means all current employees or officials of the CFPB, including contract personnel, the employees of the Office of the Inspector General of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, and any other individuals who have been appointed by, or are subject to the supervision, jurisdiction, or control of the Director, as well as the Director. The procedures established within this part also apply to former employees where specifically noted.

(l) Financial institution means any person involved in the offering or provision of a “financial product or service,” including a “covered person” or “service provider,” as those terms are defined by 12 U.S.C. 5481.

(m) General Counsel means the General Counsel of the CFPB or any CFPB employee to whom the General Counsel has delegated authority to act under this part.

(n) Person means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.

(o) Report of examination means the report prepared by the CFPB concerning the examination or inspection of a supervised financial institution.

(p) State means any State, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, American Samoa, or the United States Virgin Islands or any federally recognized Indian tribe, as defined by the Secretary of the Interior under section 104(a) of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 479a-1(a)), and includes any political subdivision thereof.

(q) Supervised financial institution means a financial institution that is or that may become subject to the CFPB's supervisory authority.

[85 FR 75216, Nov. 24, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

§ 1070.3 Custodian of records; certification; alternative authority.

(a) Custodian of records. The Chief Operating Officer is the official custodian of all records of the CFPB, including records that are in the possession or control of the CFPB or any CFPB employee.

(b) Certification of record. The Chief Operating Officer may certify the authenticity of any CFPB record or any copy of such record, or the absence thereof, for any purpose, and for or before any duly constituted Federal or State court, tribunal, or agency.

(c) Alternative authority. Any action or determination required or permitted to be done by the Chief Operating Officer may be done by any employee who has been duly designated for this purpose by the Chief Operating Officer.

[83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018]

§ 1070.4 Records of the CFPB not to be otherwise disclosed.

Except as provided by this part, employees or former employees of the CFPB, or others in possession of a record of the CFPB that the CFPB has not already made public, are prohibited from disclosing such records, without authorization, to any person who is not an employee of the CFPB.

[83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018]

§ 1070.5 Service of summonses and complaints.

(a) Only the General Counsel is authorized to receive and accept summonses or complaints sought to be served upon the CFPB or CFPB employees sued in their official capacity. Such documents should be served upon the General Counsel, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. This authorization for receipt shall in no way affect the requirements of service elsewhere provided in applicable rules and regulations.

(b) If, notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, any summons or complaint described in that paragraph is delivered to an employee of the CFPB, the employee shall decline to accept the proffered service and may notify the person attempting to make service of the regulations set forth herein. If, notwithstanding this instruction, an employee accepts service of a document described in paragraph (a) of this section, the employee shall immediately notify and deliver a copy of the summons and complaint to the General Counsel.

(c) When a CFPB employee is sued in an individual capacity for an act or omission occurring in connection with duties performed on behalf of the CFPB (whether or not the officer or employee is also sued in an official capacity), the employee by law is to be served personally with process. See Fed. R. Civ. P. 4(i)(3). An employee sued in an individual capacity for an act or omission occurring in connection with duties performed on behalf of the CFPB shall immediately notify, and deliver a copy of the summons and complaint to, the General Counsel.

(d) The CFPB will only accept service of process for an employee sued in his or her official capacity. Documents for which the General Counsel accepts service in official capacity shall be marked “Service Accepted in Official Capacity Only.” Acceptance of service shall not constitute an admission or waiver with respect to jurisdiction, propriety of service, improper venue, or any other defense in law or equity available under applicable laws or rules.

[83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018]

Subpart B Freedom of Information Act

Source: 83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1070.10 General.

This subpart contains the regulations of the CFPB implementing the Freedom of Information Act (the FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended. These regulations set forth procedures for requesting access to records maintained by the CFPB. These regulations should be read together with the FOIA, the 1987 Office of Management and Budget Guidelines for FOIA Fees, the CFPB's Privacy Act regulations set forth in subpart E of this part, and the FOIA web page on the CFPB's website, http://www.consumerfinance.gov, which provide additional information about this topic.

§ 1070.11 Information made available; discretionary disclosures.

(a) In general. The FOIA provides for public access to information and records developed or maintained by Federal agencies. Generally, the FOIA divides agency information into three major categories and provides methods by which each category of information is to be made available to the public. The three major categories of information are as follows:

(1) Information required to be published in the Federal Register (see § 1070.12);

(2) Information required to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format or, in the alternative, to be published and offered for sale (see § 1070.13); and

(3) Information required to be made available to any member of the public upon specific request (see §§ 1070.14 through 1070.22).

(b) Discretionary disclosures. Even though a FOIA exemption may apply to the information or records requested, the CFPB may, if not precluded by law, elect under the circumstances not to apply the exemption. The fact that the exemption is not applied by the CFPB in response to a particular request shall have no precedential significance in processing other requests.

(c) Disclosures of records frequently requested. Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the CFPB shall make publicly available, as provided by § 1070.13, all records regardless of form or format, which have been released previously to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3) and §§ 1070.14 through 1070.22, and which the CFPB determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records. When the CFPB receives three (3) or more requests for substantially the same records, then the CFPB shall also make the released records publicly available.

§ 1070.12 Publication in the Federal Register.

(a) Requirement. The CFPB shall separately state, publish and maintain current in the Federal Register for the guidance of the public the following information:

(1) Descriptions of its central and field organization and the established place at which, the persons from whom, and the methods whereby, the public may obtain information, make submissions or requests, or obtain decisions;

(2) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of all formal and informal procedures available;

(3) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and contents of all papers, reports, or examinations;

(4) Substantive rules of general applicability adopted as authorized by law, and statements of general policy or interpretations of general applicability formulated and adopted by the CFPB; and

(5) Each amendment, revision, or repeal of matters referred to in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section.

(b) Exceptions. Publication of the information under paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)) and the limitations provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1).

§ 1070.13 Public inspection in an electronic format.

(a) In general. Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the CFPB shall, in conformance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), make available for public inspection in an electronic format, including by posting on the CFPB's website, http://www.consumerfinance.gov, or, in the alternative, promptly publish and offer for sale the following information:

(1) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, and orders made in the adjudication of cases;

(2) Those statements of policy and interpretations which have been adopted by the CFPB but are not published in the Federal Register;

(3) Its administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;

(4) Copies of all records made publicly available pursuant to § 1070.11; and

(5) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.

(b) Information made available online. For records required to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) (paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section), as soon as practicable, the CFPB shall make such records available on its e-FOIA Library, located at http://www.consumerfinance.gov.

(c) Record availability at the on-site e-FOIA Library. Any member of the public may, upon request, access the CFPB's e-FOIA Library via a computer terminal at 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. Such a request may be made by electronic means as set forth on the CFPB's website, http://www.consumerfinance.gov, or in writing, to the Chief FOIA Officer, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. The request must indicate a preferred date and time for the requested access. The CFPB reserves the right to arrange a different date and time with the requester, if necessary.

(d) Redaction of identifying details. To prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, the CFPB may redact identifying details contained in any matter described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section before making such matters available for inspection or publication. The justification for the redaction shall be explained fully in writing, and the extent of such redaction shall be indicated on the portion of the record which is made available or published, unless including that indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) under which the redaction is made. If technically feasible, the extent of the redaction shall be indicated at the place in the record where the redaction is made.

§ 1070.14 Requests for CFPB records.

(a) In general. Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the CFPB shall promptly make its records available to any person pursuant to a request that conforms to the rules and procedures of this section.

(b) Form of request. A request for records of the CFPB shall be made in writing as follows:

(1) If a request is submitted by mail or delivery service, it shall be addressed to the Chief FOIA Officer, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. The request shall be labeled “Freedom of Information Act Request.”

(2) If a request is submitted by electronic means, it shall be submitted as set forth on the CFPB's website, http://www.consumerfinance.gov. The request shall be labeled “Freedom of Information Act Request.”

(c) Content of request. (1) In order to ensure the CFPB's ability to respond in a timely manner, a FOIA request must describe the records that the requester seeks in sufficient detail to enable CFPB personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. Whenever possible, the request should include specific information about each record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record. If known, the requester should include any file designations or descriptions for the records requested. The more specific the requester is about the records or type of records requested, the more likely the CFPB will be able to locate those records in response to the request;

(2) In order to ensure the CFPB's ability to communicate effectively with the requester, a request should include contact information for the requester, including the name of the requester and, to the extent available, a mailing address, telephone number, and email address at which the CFPB may contact the requester regarding the request;

(3) The request should state whether the requester wishes to receive the records in a specific format;

(4) A requester should indicate in the request whether the requester is a commercial user, an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, representative of the news media, or “other” requester, as those terms are defined in § 1070.22(b), and the basis for claiming that fee category;

(5) If a requester seeks a waiver or reduction of fees associated with processing a request, then the request shall include a statement to that effect as is required by § 1070.22(e); and

(6) If a requester seeks expedited processing of a request, then the request must include a statement to that effect as is required by § 1070.17.

(d) Perfected requests; effect of request deficiencies. For purposes of computing its deadline to respond to a request, the CFPB will deem itself to have received a request only if, and on the date that, it receives a request that contains substantially all of the information required by and that otherwise conforms with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. The CFPB need not accept a request, process a request, or be bound by any deadlines in this subpart for processing a request that fails to conform, in any material respect, to the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. If a request is deficient in any material respect, then the CFPB may return it to the requester and if it does so, it shall advise the requester in what respect the request is deficient, and what additional information is needed to respond to the request. The requester may then amend or resubmit the request. A determination by the CFPB that a request is deficient in any respect is not a denial of a request for records and such determinations are not subject to appeal. If a requester fails to respond to a CFPB notification that a request is deficient within thirty (30) days of the CFPB's notification, the CFPB will deem the request withdrawn.

(e) Requests by an individual for CFPB records pertaining to that individual. An individual who wishes to inspect or obtain copies of records of the Bureau that pertain to that individual shall provide identity verification in accordance with § 1070.53(c).

(f) Requests for CFPB records pertaining to another individual. Where a request for records pertains to a third party, a requester may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or a declaration by that individual made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 authorizing disclosure of the records to the requester, or submits proof that the individual is deceased (e.g., a copy of a death certificate or an obituary). The CFPB may require a requester to supply additional information if necessary in order to verify that a particular individual has consented to disclosure.

(g) Assistance from FOIA Public Liaison. Requesters may contact the CFPB's FOIA Public Liaison to seek assistance in determining the appropriate fee category, formatting of requests, or resolving any problems that arise prior to submitting a request or during the processing of a request. The FOIA Public Liaison can be contacted at the telephone number listed on the CFPB's website, http://www.consumerfinance.gov.

§ 1070.15 Responsibility for responding to requests for CFPB records.

(a) In general. In determining which records are responsive to a request, the CFPB ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date the CFPB begins its search for them. If any other date is used, the CFPB shall inform the requester of that date.

(b) Authority to grant or deny requests. The Chief FOIA Officer shall be authorized to grant or deny any request for a record of the CFPB.

(c) Consultations, referrals and coordination. When reviewing a record in response to a request, the CFPB will determine whether another agency is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the agency must proceed in one of the following ways:

(1) Referral. (i) When a requested record has been created by an agency other than the CFPB, the CFPB shall refer the record to that agency for a direct response to the requester.

(ii) Whenever the CFPB refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, it must document the referral, maintaining a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA contact information.

(2) Consultation. When a FOIA request is received for a record created by the CFPB that includes information originated by another agency, the CFPB shall consult the originating agency for review and recommendation on disclosure. The CFPB shall not release any such records without prior consultation with the originating agency.

(3) Coordination. The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the agency that received the request should coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on the disclosability of the record. The release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination should then be conveyed to the requester by the agency that originally received the request.

§ 1070.16 Timing of responses to requests for CFPB records.

(a) In general. Except as set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, and § 1070.17, the CFPB shall respond to requests according to their order of receipt.

(b) Multitrack processing. (1) The CFPB may establish separate tracks to process simple and complex requests. The CFPB may assign a request to the simple or complex track(s) based on the amount of work and/or time needed to process the request. The CFPB shall process requests in each track based on the date the request was perfected in accordance with § 1070.14(d).

(2) The CFPB may provide a requester in its complex track with an opportunity to limit the scope of the request to qualify for faster processing within the specified limits of the simple track(s).

(c) Time period for responding to requests for records. Ordinarily, the CFPB shall have twenty (20) business days from when a request is received by the CFPB to determine whether to grant or deny a request for records. The twenty (20) business day time period set forth in this paragraph (c) shall not be tolled by the CFPB except that the CFPB may:

(1) Make one reasonable demand to the requester for clarifying information about the request and toll the twenty (20) business day time period while it awaits the clarifying information; or

(2) Toll the twenty (20) business day time period while it awaits clarification from or addresses any dispute with the requester regarding the assessment of fees.

(d) Unusual circumstances. (1) Where the CFPB determines that due to unusual circumstances it cannot respond either to a request within the time period set forth in paragraph (c) of this section or to an appeal within the time period set forth in § 1070.21, the CFPB may extend the applicable time periods by informing the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances and of the date by which the CFPB expects to complete its processing of the request or appeal. Any extension or extensions of time with respect to a request or an appeal shall not cumulatively total more than ten (10) business days. However, if the CFPB determines that it needs additional time beyond a ten (10) business day extension to process a request, then the CFPB shall notify the requester, provide the requester with an opportunity to limit the scope of the request, arrange for an alternative time frame for processing the request, or modify the request, and notify the requester of the availability of services provided by its FOIA Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS).

(2) As used in this paragraph (d), “unusual circumstances” means:

(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the office processing the request;

(ii) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or

(iii) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or among two or more CFPB offices having substantial subject matter interest therein.

§ 1070.17 Requests for expedited processing.

(a) In general. The CFPB shall process a request on an expedited basis whenever a requester demonstrates a compelling need for expedited processing in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (a) or in other cases that the CFPB deems appropriate.

(b) Form and content of a request for expedited processing. A request for expedited processing shall be made as follows:

(1) A request for expedited processing shall be made in writing and submitted as part of a request for records in accordance with § 1070.14(b), or at any time during the processing of the request. When a request for records includes a request for expedited processing, the request shall be labeled “Expedited Processing Requested.”

(2) A request for expedited processing shall contain a statement that demonstrates a compelling need for the requester to obtain expedited processing of the requested records. A “compelling need” is defined as follows:

(i) Failure to obtain the requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual. The requester shall fully explain the circumstances warranting such an expected threat so that the CFPB may make a reasoned determination that a delay in obtaining the requested records could pose such a threat; or

(ii) With respect to a request made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal government activity. A requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic.

(3) The requester shall certify the written statement that purports to demonstrate a compelling need for expedited processing to be true and correct to the best of the requester's knowledge and belief. The certification must be in the form prescribed by 28 U.S.C. 1746: “I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief. Executed on [date].” The requester shall mail or submit electronically a copy of such written certification to the Chief FOIA Officer as set forth in § 1070.14(b). The CFPB may waive this certification requirement in appropriate circumstances.

(c) Determinations of requests for expedited processing. Within ten (10) calendar days of its receipt of a request for expedited processing, the CFPB shall decide whether to grant it and shall notify the requester of the determination in writing.

(d) Effect of granting requests for expedited processing. If the CFPB grants a request for expedited processing, then the CFPB shall give the expedited request priority over non-expedited requests and shall process the expedited request as soon as practicable. The CFPB may assign expedited requests to their own simple and complex processing tracks based upon the amount of work and/or time needed to process them. Within each such track, an expedited request shall be processed in the order of its receipt.

(e) Appeals of denials of requests for expedited processing. If the CFPB denies a request for expedited processing, then the requester shall have the right to submit an appeal of the denial determination in accordance with § 1070.21. The CFPB shall communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester denying expedited processing. The requester shall label its appeal request “Appeal for Expedited Processing.” The CFPB shall act expeditiously upon an appeal of a denial of a request for expedited processing.

§ 1070.18 Responses to requests for CFPB records.

(a) Acknowledgements of requests. Upon receipt of a request, the CFPB will assign to the request a unique tracking number. The CFPB will send an acknowledgement letter to the requester by mail or email within ten (10) calendar days of receipt of the request. The acknowledgment letter will contain the following information:

(1) The applicable request tracking number;

(2) The date of receipt of the request, as determined in accordance with § 1070.14(d), as well as the date when the requester may expect a response;

(3) A brief statement identifying the subject matter of the request; and

(4) A confirmation, with respect to any fees that may apply to the request pursuant to § 1070.22, that the requester has sought a waiver or reduction in such fees, has agreed to pay any and all applicable fees, or has specified an upper limit that the requester is willing to pay in fees to process the request.

(b) Initial determination to grant or deny a request. (1) The officer designated in § 1070.15(b), or his or her delegate, shall make initial determinations either to grant or to deny in whole or in part requests for records.

(2) If the request is granted in full or in part, and if the requester requests a copy of the records requested, then a copy of the records shall be mailed or emailed to the requester in the requested format, to the extent the records are readily producible in the requested format. The CFPB shall also send the requester a statement of the applicable fees, either at the time of the determination or shortly thereafter, and inform the requester of the availability of its FOIA Public Liaison to offer assistance.

(3) In the case of a request for inspection, the requester shall be notified in writing of the determination, when and where the requested records may be inspected, and of the fees incurred in complying with the request. The CFPB shall then promptly make the records available for inspection at the time and place stated, in a manner that will not interfere with CFPB's operations and will not exclude other persons from making inspections. The requester shall not be permitted to remove the records from the room where inspection is made. If, after making inspection, the requester desires copies of all or a portion of the requested records, copies shall be furnished upon payment of the established fees prescribed by § 1070.22. Fees may be charged for search and review time as stated in § 1070.22.

(4) If it is determined that the request for records should be denied in whole or in part, the requester shall be notified by mail or by email. The letter of notification shall:

(i) State the exemptions relied upon in denying the request;

(ii) If technically feasible, indicate the amount of information deleted and the exemptions under which the deletion is made at the place in the record where such deletion is made (unless providing such indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption relied upon to deny such material);

(iii) Set forth the name and title or position of the responsible official;

(iv) Advise the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Bureau's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Governmental Information Services;

(v) Advise the requester of the right to administrative appeal in accordance with § 1070.21; and

(vi) Specify the official or office to which such appeal shall be submitted.

(5) If it is determined, after a reasonable search for records, that no responsive records have been found to exist, the requester shall be notified in writing or by email. The notification shall also advise the requester of the right to administratively appeal the CFPB's determination that no responsive records exist (i.e., to challenge the adequacy of the CFPB's search for responsive records) in accordance with § 1070.21. The response shall specify the official or office to which the appeal shall be submitted for review.

(c) Resolution of disputes. The CFPB is committed to efficiently resolving disputes during the request process. The following resources are available to requesters to resolve any disputes that may arise during the request process:

(1) FOIA Public Liaison. Any request related questions or concerns should be directed to the FOIA Public Liaison, who is responsible for reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.

(2) Dispute resolution. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) offers non-compulsory, non-binding dispute resolution services to help resolve FOIA disputes. A requester may contact OGIS directly at Office of Government Information Services, National Archives and Records Administration, Room 2510, 8601 Adelphi Road, College Park, MD 20740-6001, Email: ogis@nara.gov, Phone: (301) 837-1996, Fax: (301) 837-0348. This information is provided as a public service only. By providing this information, the CFPB does not commit to refer disputes to OGIS.

(d) Format of records disclosed. (1) The CFPB will provide records in the requested format if the records can readily be reproduced from the original file to that specific format.

(2) The CFPB may charge fees associated with converting records or files into the requested format in accordance with § 1070.22.

§ 1070.19 Classified information.

Whenever a request is made for a record containing information that another agency has classified, or which may be appropriate for classification by another agency under Executive Order 13526 or any other executive order concerning the classification of information, the CFPB shall refer the responsibility for responding to the request to the classifying or originating agency, as appropriate.

§ 1070.20 Requests for business information provided to the CFPB.

(a) In general. Business information provided to the CFPB by a business submitter shall not be disclosed pursuant to a FOIA request except in accordance with this section.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

(1) Business information means commercial or financial information obtained by the CFPB from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).

(2) Submitter means any person from whom the CFPB obtains business information, directly or indirectly. The term includes, without limitation, corporations, State, local, and tribal governments, and foreign governments.

(c) Designation of business information. A submitter of business information will use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA. These designations will expire ten (10) years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests otherwise and provides justification for, a longer designation period.

(d) Notice to submitters. The CFPB shall provide a submitter with prompt written notice of receipt of a request or appeal encompassing its business information whenever required in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. Such written notice shall either describe the exact nature of the business information requested or provide copies of the records or portions of records containing the business information. When notification of a voluminous number of submitters is required, notification may be made by posting or publishing the notice in a place reasonably likely to accomplish it.

(e) When notice is required. (1) The CFPB shall provide a submitter with notice of receipt of a request or appeal whenever:

(i) The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or

(ii) The CFPB has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4.

(2) The notice requirements of this paragraph (e) shall not apply if:

(i) The CFPB determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA;

(ii) The information lawfully has been published or otherwise made available to the public;

(iii) Disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR, 1988 Comp., p. 235); or

(iv) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section appears obviously frivolous, except that, in such a case, the CFPB shall, within a reasonable time prior to a specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.

(f) Opportunity to object to disclosure before release. (1) Through the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section, the CFPB shall delay any release in order to afford a submitter ten (10) business days from the date of the notice to provide the CFPB with a detailed statement of any objection to disclosure. Such statement shall specify all grounds for withholding any of the information under any exemption of the FOIA and, in the case of Exemption 4, shall demonstrate why the information is considered to be a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. In the event that a submitter fails to respond to the notice within the time specified in it, the submitter shall be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. Information provided by a submitter pursuant to this paragraph (f) may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.

(2) When notice is given to a submitter under this section, the requester shall be advised that such notice has been given to the submitter. The requester shall be further advised that a delay in responding to the request may be considered a denial of access to records and that the requester may proceed with an administrative appeal or seek judicial review, if appropriate. However, the requester will be invited to agree to a voluntary extension of time so that the CFPB may review the submitter's objection to disclose, if any.

(g) Notice of intent to disclose. The CFPB shall consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to determining whether to disclose business information. Whenever the CFPB decides to disclose business information over the objection of a submitter, the CFPB shall forward to the submitter a written notice which shall include:

(1) A statement of the reasons for which the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;

(2) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and

(3) A specified disclosure date which is not less than ten (10) business days after the notice of the final decision to release the requested information has been mailed to the submitter. Except as otherwise prohibited by law, a copy of the disclosure notice shall be forwarded to the requester at the same time.

(h) Notice to submitter of FOIA lawsuit. Whenever a requester brings suit seeking to compel disclosure of business information, the CFPB shall promptly notify the submitter of that business information of the existence of the suit.

(i) Notice to requester of business information. The CFPB shall notify a requester whenever it provides the submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure; whenever it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.

§ 1070.21 Administrative appeals.

(a) Grounds for administrative appeals. A requester may appeal an initial determination of the CFPB, including for the following reasons:

(1) To deny access to records in whole or in part (as provided in § 1070.18(b));

(2) To assign a particular fee category to the requester (as provided in § 1070.22(b));

(3) To deny a request for a reduction or waiver of fees (as provided in § 1070.22(e));

(4) That no records exist that are responsive to the request (as provided in § 1070.18(b)); or

(5) To deny a request for expedited processing (as provided in § 1070.17(e)).

(b) Time limits for filing administrative appeals. An appeal, other than an appeal of a denial of expedited processing, must be postmarked or submitted electronically on a date that is within ninety (90) calendar days after the date the initial determination is sent to the requester or the date of the letter transmitting the last records released, whichever is later. An appeal of a denial of expedited processing must be made within ten (10) days of the date of the initial determination letter to deny expedited processing (see § 1070.17).

(c) Form and content of administrative appeals. In order to ensure a timely response to an appeal, the appeal shall be made in writing as follows:

(1) If appeal is submitted by mail or delivery service, it shall be addressed to and submitted to the officer specified in paragraph (e) of this section at the address set forth in § 1070.14(b). The appeal shall be labeled “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”

(2) If an appeal is submitted by electronic means, it shall be addressed to the officer specified in paragraph (e) of this section and submitted as set forth on the CFPB's website, http://www.consumerfinance.gov. The appeal shall be labeled “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”

(3) The appeal shall set forth contact information for the requester, including, to the extent available, a mailing address, telephone number, or email address at which the CFPB may contact the requester regarding the appeal; and

(4) The appeal shall specify the applicable request tracking number, the date of the initial request, and the date of the letter of initial determination, and, where possible, enclose a copy of the initial request and the initial determination being appealed.

(d) Processing of administrative appeals. The FOIA office will record the date that appeals are received. The receipt of the appeal will be acknowledged by the CFPB and the requester will be advised of the date the appeal was received, the appeal tracking number, and the expected date of response.

(e) Determinations to grant or deny administrative appeals. The General Counsel is authorized to and shall decide whether to affirm the initial determination (in whole or in part), to reverse the initial determination (in whole or in part) or to remand the initial determination to the Chief FOIA Officer for further action and shall notify the requester of this decision in writing within twenty (20) business days after the date of receipt of the appeal, unless extended pursuant to § 1070.16(d).

(1) If it is decided that the appeal is to be denied (in whole or in part) the requester shall be:

(i) Notified in writing of the denial;

(ii) Notified of the reasons for the denial, including which of the FOIA exemptions were relied upon;

(iii) Notified of the name and title or position of the official responsible for the determination on appeal;

(iv) Provided with a statement that judicial review of the denial is available in the United States District Court for the judicial district in which the requester resides or has a principal place of business, the judicial district in which the requested records are located, or the District of Columbia in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B); and

(v) Provided with notification that dispute resolution services are available to the requester as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation through the Office of Government Information Services in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(h)(3). Dispute resolution is a voluntary process. If the CFPB agrees to participate in the dispute resolution services provided by the Office of Governmental Information Services, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.

(2) If the initial determination is reversed on appeal, the requester shall be so notified and the request shall be processed promptly in accordance with the decision on appeal.

(3) If the initial determination is remanded on appeal to the Chief FOIA Officer for further action, the requester shall be so notified and the request shall be processed in accordance with the decision on appeal. The remanded request shall be treated as a new request received by the CFPB as of the date when the General Counsel transmits the remand notification to the requester. The procedures and deadlines set forth in this subpart for processing, deciding, responding to, and filing administrative appeals of new FOIA requests shall apply to the remanded request.

(f) Adjudication of administrative appeals of requests in litigation. An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation.

§ 1070.22 Fees for processing requests for CFPB records.

(a) In general. The CFPB shall determine whether and to what extent to charge a requester fees for processing a FOIA request, for the services and in the amounts set forth in this paragraph (a), by determining an appropriate fee category for the requester (as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section) and then by charging the requester those fees applicable to the assigned category (as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section), unless circumstances exist (as described in paragraph (d) of this section) that render fees inapplicable or unless the requester has requested and the CFPB has granted a reduction in or waiver of fees (as set forth in paragraph (e) of this section).

(1) The CFPB shall charge a requester fees for the cost of copying or printing records at the rate of $0.10 per page.

(2) The CFPB shall charge a requester for all time spent by its employees searching for records that are responsive to a request. The CFPB shall charge the requester fees for search time as follows:

(i) The CFPB shall charge for search time at the salary rate(s) (basic pay plus sixteen (16) percent) of the employee(s) who conduct the search. However, the CFPB shall charge search fees at the rate of $9.00 per fifteen (15) minutes of search time whenever only administrative/clerical employees conduct a search and at the rate of $23.00 per fifteen (15) minutes of search time whenever only professional/executive employees conduct a search. Search charges shall also include transportation of employees and records necessary to the search at actual cost. Fees may be charged for search time even if the search does not yield any responsive records, or if records are exempt from disclosure.

(ii) The CFPB shall charge the requester for the actual direct costs of conducting an electronic records search, including computer search time, runs, and output. The CFPB shall also charge for time spent by computer operators or programmers (at the rates set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section) who conduct or assist in the conduct of an electronic records search.

(3) The CFPB shall charge a requester for time spent by its employees examining responsive records to determine whether any portions of such record are exempt from disclosure, pursuant to the FOIA exemptions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b). The CFPB shall also charge a requester for time spent by its employees redacting any such exempt information from a record and preparing a record for release to the requester. The CFPB shall charge a requester for time spent reviewing records at the salary rate(s) (i.e., basic pay plus sixteen (16) percent) of the employees who conduct the review. However, the CFPB shall charge review fees at the rate of $9.00 per fifteen (15) minutes of search time whenever only administrative/clerical employees review records and at the rate of $23.00 per fifteen (15) minutes of search time whenever only professional/executive employees review records. Fees shall be charged for review time even if records ultimately are not disclosed.

(4) Fees for all services provided shall be charged whether or not copies are made available to the requester for inspection. However, no fee shall be charged for monitoring a requester's inspection of records.

(5) Other services and materials requested which are not covered by this part nor required by the FOIA are chargeable at the actual cost to the CFPB. This includes, but is not limited to:

(i) Certifying that records are true copies; or

(ii) Sending records by special methods such as express mail, etc.

(b) Categories of requesters. (1) For purposes of assessing fees as set forth in this section, each requester shall be assigned to one of the following categories:

(i) Commercial user refers to one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. The CFPB's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on how the requester will use the information.

(ii) Educational institution refers to any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. Agencies may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research and agencies will advise requesters of their placement in this category.

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(1)(ii).A request from a professor of geology at a university for records relating to soil erosion, written on letterhead of the Department of Geology, would be presumed to be from an educational institution.

Example 2 to paragraph (b)(1)(ii).A request from the same professor of geology seeking drug information from the Food and Drug Administration in furtherance of a murder mystery he is writing would not be presumed to be an institutional request, regardless of whether it was written on institutional stationery.

Example 3 to paragraph (b)(1)(ii).A student who makes a request in furtherance of their coursework or other school-sponsored activities and provides a copy of a course syllabus or other reasonable documentation to indicate the research purpose for the request, would qualify as part of this fee category.

(iii) Non-commercial scientific institution refers to an institution that is not operated on a “commercial user” basis as that term is defined in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.

(iv) Representative of the news media refers to any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. In this paragraph (b)(1)(iv), the term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news-media entities are television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase by or subscription by or free distribution to the general public. Other examples of news media entities include online publications and websites that regularly deliver news content to the public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example, the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media shall be considered to be news-media entities. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news-media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the CFPB may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making such a determination.

(v) Other requester refers to a requester who does not fall within any of the categories described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.

(2) Within twenty (20) calendar days of its receipt of a request, the CFPB shall make a determination as to the proper fee category to apply to a requester. The CFPB shall inform the requester of the determination in the request acknowledgment letter, or if no such letter is required, in another writing. Where the CFPB has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which a requester will put the records sought, or where that use is not clear from the request itself, the CFPB should seek additional clarification before assigning the request to a specific category.

(3) If the CFPB assigns to a requester a fee category, then the requester shall have the right to submit an appeal of the CFPB's determination in accordance with § 1070.21. The CFPB shall communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester of an adverse fee category determination. The requester shall label its appeal request “Appeal of Fee Category Determination.”

(c) Fees applicable to each category of requester. The following fee schedule applies uniformly throughout the CFPB to requests processed under the FOIA. Specific levels of fees are prescribed for each category of requester defined in paragraph (b) of this section.

(1) Commercial users shall be charged the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing, and duplicating the records they request. Moreover, when a request is received for disclosure that is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, the CFPB is not required to consider a request for a waiver or reduction of fees based upon the assertion that disclosure would be in the public interest. The CFPB may recover the cost of searching for and reviewing records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records or no records are located.

(2) Educational and non-commercial scientific institution requesters shall be charged only for the cost of duplicating the records they request, except that the CFPB shall provide the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication free of charge.

(3) Representatives of the news media shall be charged only for the cost of duplicating the records they request, except that the CFPB shall provide them with the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication free of charge.

(4) Other requesters who do not fit any of the categories described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section shall be charged the full direct cost of searching for and duplicating records that are responsive to the request, except that the CFPB shall provide the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time free of charge. The CFPB may recover the cost of searching for records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records, or no records are located. Requests from persons for records about themselves filed in the CFPB's systems of records shall continue to be treated under the fee provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, which permit fees only for duplication, after the first one hundred (100) pages are furnished free of charge.

(d) Other circumstances when fees are not charged. In the following situations the CFPB may not charge a requester certain FOIA processing fees.

(1) If the cost of collecting a fee would be equal to or greater than the total FOIA processing fee, then the CFPB shall not charge a requester any FOIA processing fees.

(2) If the total search and review fees are less than $250, then the CFPB shall not charge a requester any search and review fees.

(3) If the CFPB has waived or reduced FOIA processing fees in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, then the CFPB shall not charge the portion of the FOIA processing fees that has been waived or reduced.

(4) If the CFPB fails to comply with any time limit under § 1070.15 or § 1070.21, then the CFPB shall not assess search fees or if the requester is a representative of the news media or an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, then the CFPB shall not assess duplication fees, unless:

(i) A court has determined that exceptional circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, exist; or

(ii) The CFPB has determined that unusual circumstances apply to the processing of the request; and

(A) Provided timely written notice to the requester of the unusual circumstances in accordance with § 1070.16(d);

(B) Determined that more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request; and

(C) Discussed with the requester via mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.

(5) If the CFPB determines, as a matter of administrative discretion, that waiving or reducing the fees would serve the interest of the United States Government.

(e) Waiver or reduction of fees. (1) A requester shall be entitled to receive from the CFPB a waiver or reduction in the fees otherwise applicable to a FOIA request whenever the requester:

(i) Requests such waiver or reduction of fees in writing as part of the FOIA request;

(ii) Labels the request for waiver or reduction of fees “Fee Waiver or Reduction Requested” on the FOIA request; and

(iii) Demonstrates that the fee reduction or waiver request that a waiver or reduction of the fees is in the public interest because:

(A) Furnishing the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government; and

(B) Furnishing the information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.

(2) To determine whether the requester has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(A) of this section, the CFPB shall consider the following factors:

(i) The subject of the requested records must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal government, with a connection that is direct and clear, and not remote or attenuated.

(ii) The disclosable portions of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities in order to be “likely to contribute” to an increased public understanding of those operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either a duplicative or a substantially similar form, is not as likely to contribute to the public's understanding.

(iii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area and ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public shall be considered. It shall be presumed that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.

(iv) The public's understanding of the subject in question, as compared to the level of public understanding existing prior to the disclosure, must be enhanced by the disclosure to a significant extent.

(3) To determine whether the requester has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, the CFPB shall consider the following factors:

(i) The CFPB shall consider any commercial interest of the requester (with reference to the definition of “commercial user” in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section), or of any person on whose behalf the requester may be acting, that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. Requesters shall be given an opportunity in the administrative process to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.

(ii) A fee waiver or reduction is justified where the public interest standard is satisfied and that public interest is greater in magnitude than that of any identified commercial interest in disclosure. The CFPB ordinarily shall presume that where a news media requester has satisfied the public interest standard, the public interest will be the interest primarily served by disclosure to that requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return shall not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.

(4) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver shall be granted for those records.

(5) If the CFPB denies a request to reduce or waive fees, then the CFPB shall advise the requester, in the denial notification letter, that the requester may incur fees if the CFPB proceeds to process the request. The notification letter shall also advise the requester that the CFPB will not proceed to process the request further unless the requester, in writing, directs the CFPB to do so and either agrees to pay any fees that may apply to processing the request or specifies an upper limit that the requester is willing to pay to process the request. If the CFPB does not receive this written direction and agreement/specification within thirty (30) calendar days of the date of the denial notification letter, then the CFPB shall deem the request to be withdrawn.

(6) If the CFPB denies a request to reduce or waive fees, then the requester shall have the right to submit an appeal of the denial determination in accordance with § 1070.21. The CFPB shall communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester denying the fee reduction or waiver request. The requester should label its appeal request “Appeal for Fee Reduction/Waiver.”

(f) Advance notice and prepayment of fees. (1) The CFPB shall notify a requester of the estimated fees for processing a request and provide a breakdown of the fees attributable to search, review, and duplication, when the estimated fees are $250 or more and:

(i) The fees exceed the limit set by the requester;

(ii) The requester did not specify a limit; or

(iii) The CFPB has denied a request for a reduction or waiver of fees.

(2) The requester must provide an agreement to pay the estimated fees; however, the requester shall also be given an opportunity to reformulate the request in an attempt to reduce fees.

(3) If the fees are estimated to exceed $1000, the requester must pre-pay such amount prior to the processing of the request, or provide satisfactory assurance of full payment if the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees. The requester shall also be given an opportunity to reformulate the request in such a way as to lower the applicable fees.

(4) The CFPB reserves the right to request prepayment after a request is processed and before documents are released.

(5) If a requester has previously failed to pay a fee within thirty (30) calendar days of the date of the billing, the requester shall be required to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the CFPB begins to process a new request or the pending request.

(6) When the CFPB acts under paragraphs (f)(1) through (5) of this section, the statutory time limits of twenty (20) days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) from receipt of initial requests or appeals, plus extensions of these time limits, shall begin only after fees have been paid, a written agreement to pay fees has been provided, or a request has been reformulated.

(g) Form of payment. Payment may be tendered as set forth on the CFPB's website, http://www.consumerfinance.gov.

(h) Charging interest. The CFPB may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing until payment is received by the CFPB. The CFPB will follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.

(i) Aggregating requests. Where the CFPB reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting together is attempting to divide a request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the CFPB may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The CFPB may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a thirty (30) day period have been made in order to avoid fees. Where requests are separated by a longer period, the CFPB will aggregate them only where there exists a solid basis for determining that aggregation is warranted under all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.

§ 1070.23 Authority and responsibilities of the Chief FOIA Officer.

(a) Chief FOIA Officer. The Director authorizes the Chief FOIA Officer to act upon all requests for agency records, with the exception of determining appeals from the initial determinations of the Chief FOIA Officer, which will be decided by the General Counsel. The Chief FOIA officer shall, subject to the authority of the Director:

(1) Have CFPB-wide responsibility for efficient and appropriate compliance with the FOIA;

(2) Monitor implementation of the FOIA throughout the CFPB and keep the Director, the General Counsel, and the Attorney General appropriately informed of the CFPB's performance in implementing the FOIA;

(3) Recommend to the Director such adjustments to agency practices, policies, personnel and funding as may be necessary to improve the Chief FOIA Officer's implementation of the FOIA;

(4) Review and report to the Attorney General, through the Director, at such times and in such formats as the Attorney General may direct, on the CFPB's performance in implementing the FOIA;

(5) Facilitate public understanding of the purposes of the statutory exemptions of the FOIA by including concise descriptions of the exemptions in both the CFPB's handbook and the CFPB's annual report on the FOIA, and by providing an overview, where appropriate, of certain general categories of CFPB records to which those exemptions apply;

(6) Designate one or more FOIA Public Liaisons;

(7) Offer Training to Bureau staff regarding their responsibilities under the FOIA;

(8) Serve as the primary Bureau liaison with the Office of Government Information Services and the Office of Information Policy; and

(9) Maintain and update, as necessary and in accordance with the requirements of this subpart, the CFPB's FOIA website, including its e-FOIA Library.

(b) FOIA Public Liaisons. FOIA Public Liaisons shall report to the Chief FOIA Officer and shall serve as supervisory officials to whom a requester can raise concerns about the service the requester has received from the CFPB's FOIA office, following an initial response from the FOIA office staff. FOIA Public Liaisons shall be responsible for assisting in reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.

Subpart C Disclosure of CFPB Information in Connection with Legal Proceedings

Source: 83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1070.30 Purpose and scope; definitions.

(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures to be followed with respect to subpoenas, court orders, or other requests or demands for any CFPB information, whether contained in the files of the CFPB or acquired by a CFPB employee as part of the performance of that employee's duties or by virtue of employee's official status.

(b) This subpart does not apply to requests for official information made pursuant to subparts B, D, and E of this part.

(c) This subpart does not apply to requests for information made in the course of adjudicating claims against the CFPB by CFPB employees (present or former) or applicants for CFPB employment for which jurisdiction resides with the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, the Office of Special Counsel, the Federal Labor Relations Authority, or their successor agencies, or a labor arbitrator operating under a collective bargaining agreement between the CFPB and a labor organization representing CFPB employees.

(d) This subpart is intended only to inform the public about CFPB procedures concerning the service of process and responses to subpoenas, summons, or other demands or requests for official information or action and is not intended to and does not create, and may not be relied upon to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the CFPB or the United States.

(e) For purposes of this subpart:

(1) Demand means a subpoena or order for official information, whether contained in CFPB records or through testimony, related to or for possible use in a legal proceeding.

(2) Legal proceeding encompasses all pre-trial, trial, and post-trial stages of all judicial or administrative actions, hearings, investigations, or similar proceedings before courts, commissions, boards, grand juries, arbitrators, or other judicial or quasi-judicial bodies or tribunals, whether criminal, civil, or administrative in nature, and whether foreign or domestic. This phrase includes all stages of discovery as well as formal or informal requests by attorneys, their agents, or others involved in legal proceedings.

(3) Official Information means all information of any kind, however stored, that is in the custody and control of the CFPB or was acquired by CFPB employees, or former employees as part of their official duties or because of their official status while such individuals were employed by or served on behalf of the CFPB. Official information also includes any information acquired by CFPB employees or former employees while such individuals were engaged in matters related to consumer financial protection functions prior to the employees' transfer to the CFPB pursuant to Subtitle F of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010.

(4) Request means any request for official information in the form of testimony, affidavits, declarations, admissions, responses to interrogatories, document production, inspections, or formal or informal interviews, during the course of a legal proceeding, including pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure, or other applicable rules of procedure.

(5) Testimony means a statement in any form, including personal appearances before a court or other legal tribunal, interviews, depositions, telephonic, televised, or videographed statements or any responses given during discovery or similar proceeding in the course of litigation.

§ 1070.31 Service of subpoenas, court orders, and other demands for CFPB information or action.

(a) Except in cases in which the CFPB is represented by legal counsel who have entered an appearance or otherwise given notice of their representation, only the General Counsel is authorized to receive and accept subpoenas or other demands or requests directed to the CFPB or its employees, whether civil or criminal in nature, for:

(1) Records of the CFPB;

(2) Official information including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, declarations, admissions, responses to interrogatories, or informal statements, relating to material contained in the files of the CFPB or which any CFPB employee acquired in the course and scope of the performance of his or her official duties;

(3) Garnishment or attachment of compensation of current or former employees; or

(4) The performance or non-performance of any official CFPB duty.

(b) Documents described in paragraph (a) of this section should be served upon the General Counsel, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. Service must be effected as provided in applicable rules and regulations governing service in Federal judicial and administrative proceedings. Acceptance of such documents by the General Counsel does not constitute a waiver of any defense that might otherwise exist with respect to service under the Federal Rules of Civil or Criminal Procedure or other applicable laws or regulations.

(c) In the event that any demand or request described in paragraph (a) of this section is sought to be delivered to a CFPB employee other than in the manner prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, such employee shall decline service and direct the server of process to these regulations. If the demand or request is nonetheless delivered to the employee, the employee shall immediately notify, and deliver a copy of that document to, the General Counsel.

(d) The CFPB is not an agent for service for, or otherwise authorized to accept on behalf of its employees, any subpoenas, orders, or other demands or requests, which are not related to the employees' official duties.

(e) Copies of any subpoenas, orders, or other demands or requests that are directed to former employees of the CFPB in connection with the performance of official CFPB duties shall also be served upon the General Counsel. The CFPB shall not, however, serve as an agent for service for the former employee, nor is the CFPB otherwise authorized to accept service on behalf of its former employees. If the demand involves their official duties as CFPB employees, former employees who receive subpoenas, orders, or similar compulsory process should also notify, and deliver a copy of the document to, the General Counsel.

§ 1070.32 Testimony and production of documents prohibited unless approved by the General Counsel.

(a) Unless authorized by the General Counsel, no employee or former employee of the CFPB shall, in response to a demand or a request provide oral or written testimony by deposition, declaration, affidavit, or otherwise concerning any official information.

(b) Unless authorized by the General Counsel, no employee or former employee shall, in response to a demand or request, produce any document or any material acquired as part of the performance of that employee's duties or by virtue of that employee's official status.

§ 1070.33 Procedure when testimony or production of documents is sought; general.

(a) If, as part of a proceeding in which the United States or the CFPB is not a party, official information is sought through a demand for testimony, CFPB records, or other material, the party seeking such information must (except as otherwise required by Federal law or authorized by the General Counsel) set forth in writing:

(1) The title and forum of the proceeding, if applicable;

(2) A detailed description of the nature and relevance of the official information sought;

(3) A showing that other evidence reasonably suited to the requester's needs is not available from any other source; and

(4) If testimony is requested, the intended use of the testimony, a general summary of the desired testimony, and a showing that no document could be provided and used in lieu of testimony.

(b) To the extent he or she deems necessary or appropriate, the General Counsel may also require from the party seeking such information a plan of all reasonably foreseeable demands, including but not limited to the names of all employees and former employees from whom testimony or discovery will be sought, areas of inquiry, expected duration of proceedings requiring oral testimony, identification of potentially relevant documents, or any other information deemed necessary to make a determination. The purpose of this requirement is to assist the General Counsel in making an informed decision regarding whether testimony, the production of documents, or the provision of other information should be authorized.

(c) The General Counsel may consult or negotiate with an attorney for a party, or the party if not represented by an attorney, to refine or limit a request or demand so that compliance is less burdensome.

(d) The General Counsel will notify the CFPB employee and such other persons as circumstances may warrant of his or her decision regarding compliance with the request or demand.

§ 1070.34 Procedure when response to demand is required prior to receiving instructions.

(a) If a response to a demand described in § 1070.33 is required before the General Counsel renders a decision, the CFPB will request that the appropriate CFPB attorney or an attorney of the Department of Justice, as appropriate, take steps to stay, postpone, or obtain relief from the demand pending decision. If necessary, the attorney will:

(1) Appear with the employee upon whom the demand has been made;

(2) Furnish the court or other authority with a copy of the regulations contained in this subpart;

(3) Inform the court or other authority that the demand has been, or is being, as the case may be, referred for the prompt consideration of the appropriate CFPB official; and

(4) Request the court or authority to stay the demand pending receipt of the requested instructions.

(b) In the event that an immediate demand for production or disclosure is made in circumstances which would preclude the proper designation or appearance of an attorney of the CFPB or the Department of Justice on the employee's behalf, the employee, if necessary, shall request from the demanding court or authority a reasonable stay of proceedings for the purpose of obtaining instructions from the General Counsel.

§ 1070.35 Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.

If a stay of, or other relief from, the effect of a demand made pursuant to §§ 1070.33 and 1070.34 is declined or not obtained, or if the court or other judicial or quasi-judicial authority declines to stay the effect of the demand made pursuant to §§ 1070.33 and 1070.34, or if the court or other authority rules that the demand must be complied with irrespective of the General Counsel's instructions not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the employee upon whom the demand has been made shall decline to comply with the demand citing this subpart and United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951).

§ 1070.36 Considerations in determining whether the CFPB will comply with a demand or request.

(a) In deciding whether to comply with a demand or request, CFPB officials and attorneys shall consider, among other pertinent considerations:

(1) Whether such compliance would be unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand arose;

(2) Whether the number of similar requests would have a cumulative effect on the expenditure of CFPB resources;

(3) Whether compliance is appropriate under the relevant substantive law concerning privilege or disclosure of information;

(4) The public interest;

(5) The need to conserve the time of CFPB employees for the conduct of official business;

(6) The need to avoid spending time and money of the United States for private purposes;

(7) The need to maintain impartiality between private litigants in cases where a substantial government interest is not implicated;

(8) Whether compliance would have an adverse effect on performance by the CFPB of its mission and duties;

(9) The need to avoid involving the CFPB in controversial issues not related to its mission;

(10) Whether compliance would interfere with supervisory examinations, compromise the CFPB's supervisory functions or programs, or undermine public confidence in supervised financial institutions; and

(11) Whether compliance would interfere with the CFPB's ability to monitor for risks to consumers in the offering or provision of consumer financial products and services.

(b) Among those demands and requests in response to which compliance will not ordinarily be authorized are those with respect to which any of the following factors, inter alia, exist:

(1) Compliance would violate a statute or applicable rule of procedure;

(2) Compliance would violate a specific regulation or Executive order;

(3) Compliance would reveal information properly classified in the interest of national security;

(4) Compliance would reveal confidential or privileged commercial or financial information or trade secrets without the owner's consent;

(5) Compliance would compromise the integrity of the deliberative processes of the CFPB;

(6) Compliance would not be appropriate or necessary under the relevant substantive law governing privilege;

(7) Compliance would reveal confidential information; or

(8) Compliance would interfere with ongoing investigations or enforcement proceedings, compromise constitutional rights, or reveal the identity of a confidential informant.

(c) The CFPB may condition disclosure of official information pursuant to a request or demand on the entry of an appropriate protective order.

§ 1070.37 Prohibition on providing expert or opinion testimony.

(a) Except as provided in this section, and subject to 5 CFR 2635.805, CFPB employees or former employees shall not provide opinion or expert testimony based upon information which they acquired in the scope and performance of their official CFPB duties, except on behalf of the CFPB or the United States or a party represented by the CFPB, or the Department of Justice, as appropriate.

(b) Any expert or opinion testimony by a former employee of the CFPB shall be excepted from paragraph (a) of this section where the testimony involves only general expertise gained while employed at the CFPB.

(c) Upon a showing by the requester of exceptional need or unique circumstances and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the United States, the General Counsel may, consistent with 5 CFR 2635.805, exercise his or her discretion to grant special, written authorization for CFPB employees, or former employees, to appear and testify as expert witnesses at no expense to the United States.

(d) If, despite the final determination of the General Counsel, a court of competent jurisdiction or other appropriate authority orders the appearance and expert or opinion testimony of a current or former CFPB employee, that person shall immediately inform the General Counsel of such order. If the General Counsel determines that no further legal review of or challenge to the court's order will be made, the CFPB employee, or former employee, shall comply with the order. If so directed by the General Counsel, however, the employee, or former employee, shall decline to testify.

Subpart D Confidential Information

Source: 85 FR 75217, Nov. 24, 2020, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1070.40 Purpose and scope.

This subpart does not apply to requests for official information made pursuant to subpart B, C, or E of this part.

§ 1070.41 Non-disclosure of confidential information.

(a) Non-disclosure. Except as required by law or as provided in this part, no current or former employee or contractor or consultant of the CFPB, or any other person in possession of confidential information, shall disclose such confidential information by any means (including written or oral communications) or in any format (including paper and electronic formats), to:

(1) Any person who is not an employee, contractor, or consultant of the CFPB; or

(2) Any CFPB employee, contractor, or consultant when the disclosure of such confidential information to that employee, contractor, or consultant is not relevant to the performance of the employee's, contractor's, or consultant's assigned duties.

(b) Disclosures to contractors and consultants. CFPB contractors or consultants must treat confidential information in accordance with this part, other Federal laws and regulations that apply to Federal agencies for the protection of the confidentiality of personally identifiable information and for data security and integrity, as well as any additional conditions or limitations that the CFPB may impose. CFPB contractors or consultants may receive confidential information only if such contractors or consultants certify in writing to treat such confidential information in accordance with the requirements identified in this paragraph (b).

(c) Disclosure of materials derived from confidential information. The CFPB may, in its discretion, disclose materials that it derives from or creates using confidential information to the extent that such materials do not identify, either directly or indirectly, any particular person to whom the confidential information pertains.

(d) Disclosure of confidential information with consent. Where practicable, the CFPB may, in its discretion and in accordance with applicable law, disclose confidential information that directly or indirectly identifies particular persons if the CFPB obtains prior consent from such persons to make the disclosure.

(e) Nondisclosure of confidential information belonging to other agencies. Nothing in this subpart requires or authorizes the CFPB to disclose confidential information belonging to another agency that has been provided to the CFPB (either directly or through a holder of the information such as a financial institution) to the extent that such disclosure contravenes applicable law or the terms of any agreement that exists between the CFPB and the agency to govern the CFPB's treatment of information that the agency provides to the CFPB.

§ 1070.42 Disclosure of confidential supervisory information and confidential investigative information.

(a) Discretionary disclosure of confidential supervisory information or confidential investigative information by the CFPB. The CFPB may, in its discretion, and to the extent consistent with applicable law, disclose confidential supervisory information or confidential investigative information concerning a person or its service providers to that person or to its affiliates.

(b) Further disclosure of confidential supervisory information. Unless directed otherwise by the Supervision Director:

(1) Any supervised financial institution lawfully in possession of confidential supervisory information of the CFPB provided directly to it by the CFPB pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section may disclose such information, or portions thereof, to its affiliates and to the following individuals to the extent that the disclosure of such confidential supervisory information is relevant to the performance of such individuals' assigned duties:

(i) Its directors, officers, trustees, members, general partners, or employees; and

(ii) The directors, officers, trustees, members, general partners, or employees of its affiliates.

(2) Any supervised financial institution or affiliate thereof that is lawfully in possession of confidential supervisory information of the CFPB provided directly to it by the CFPB pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section may disclose such information, or portions thereof, to:

(i) Its certified public accountant, legal counsel, contractor, consultant, or service provider;

(ii) Its insurance provider pursuant to a claim made under an existing policy, provided that the Bureau has not precluded indemnification or reimbursement for the claim; information disclosed pursuant to this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) may be used by the insurance provider solely for purposes of administering such a claim; or

(iii) Another person, with the prior written approval of the Supervision Director.

(3) Where a supervised financial institution or its affiliate discloses confidential supervisory information of the CFPB pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section:

(i) The recipient of such confidential supervisory information shall not, without the prior written approval of the Supervision Director utilize, make, or retain copies of, or disclose confidential supervisory information for any purpose, except as is necessary to provide advice or services to the supervised financial institution or its affiliate; and

(ii) The supervised financial institution or its affiliate disclosing the confidential supervisory information shall take reasonable steps to ensure that the recipient complies with paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.

(4) Nothing in this paragraph (b) authorizes a supervised financial institution or affiliate thereof to further disclose confidential information belonging to another agency.

(c) Further disclosure of confidential investigative information. Nothing in this subpart shall prohibit any person lawfully in possession of confidential investigative information of the CFPB pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section from further disclosing that confidential investigative information.

[85 FR 75217, Nov. 24, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

§ 1070.43 Disclosure of confidential information to agencies.

(a) Required disclosure of confidential information to agencies. The CFPB shall:

(1) Disclose a draft of a report of examination of a supervised financial institution prior to its finalization, as provided in 12 U.S.C. 5515(e)(1)(C), and disclose a final report of examination, including any and all revisions made to such a report, as provided in 12 U.S.C. 5512(c)(6)(C)(i), to a Federal or State agency with jurisdiction over that supervised financial institution, provided that the CFPB receives from the agency reasonable assurances as to the confidentiality of the information disclosed; and

(2) Disclose confidential consumer complaint information to a Federal or State agency to facilitate preparation of reports to Congress required by 12 U.S.C. 5493(b)(3)(C) and to facilitate the CFPB's supervision and enforcement activities and its monitoring of the market for consumer financial products and services, provided that the agency shall first give written assurance to the CFPB that it will maintain such information in confidence, including in a manner that conforms to the standards that apply to Federal agencies for the protection of the confidentiality of personally identifiable information and for data security and integrity.

(b) Discretionary disclosure of confidential information to agencies. (1) Upon receipt of a written request that contains the information required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the CFPB may, in its discretion, disclose confidential information to a Federal or State agency to the extent that the disclosure of the information is relevant to the exercise of the agency's statutory or regulatory authority or, with respect to the disclosure of confidential supervisory information, to a Federal or State agency having jurisdiction over a supervised financial institution.

(2) To obtain access to confidential information pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an authorized officer or employee of the agency shall submit a written request to the Director. The request shall include the following:

(i) A description of the particular information, kinds of information, and where possible, the particular documents to which access is sought;

(ii) A statement of the purpose for which the information will be used;

(iii) A statement certifying and identifying, as required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the agency's statutory or regulatory authority that is relevant to the requested information or, with respect to a request for confidential supervisory information, the agency's jurisdiction over a supervised financial institution;

(iv) A statement certifying and identifying the agency's legal authority for protecting the requested information from public disclosure; and

(v) A certification that the agency will maintain the requested confidential information in confidence, including in a manner that conforms to the standards that apply to Federal agencies for the protection of the confidentiality of personally identifiable information and for data security and integrity, as well as any additional conditions or limitations that the CFPB may impose.

(c) Negotiation of standing requests. The CFPB may negotiate terms governing the exchange of confidential information with Federal or State agencies on a standing basis, as appropriate.

§ 1070.44 Disclosure of confidential consumer complaint information.

The CFPB may, to the extent permitted by law, disclose confidential consumer complaint information as it deems necessary to investigate, resolve, or otherwise respond to consumer complaints or inquiries concerning consumer financial products and services or a violation of Federal consumer financial law.

§ 1070.45 Affirmative disclosure of confidential information.

(a) The CFPB may disclose confidential information, in accordance with applicable law, as follows:

(1) To a CFPB employee, as that term is defined in § 1070.2 and in accordance with § 1070.41;

(2) To either House of the Congress or to an appropriate committee or subcommittee of the Congress, as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5562(d)(2), provided that, upon the receipt by the CFPB of a request from the Congress for confidential information that a financial institution submitted to the CFPB along with a claim that such information consists of a trade secret or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, or confidential supervisory information, the CFPB shall notify the financial institution in writing of its receipt of the request and provide the institution with a copy of the request;

(3) In investigational hearings and witness interviews, or otherwise in the investigation and administration of enforcement actions, as is reasonably necessary, at the discretion of the CFPB;

(4) In an administrative or court proceeding to which the CFPB is a party. In the case of confidential investigative information that contains any trade secret or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, as claimed by designation by the submitter of such material, or confidential supervisory information, the submitter, or the CFPB, in its discretion, may seek an appropriate order prior to disclosure of such material in a proceeding;

(5) In CFPB personnel matters, as necessary and subject to appropriate protections;

(6) To agencies in summary form to the extent necessary to confer with such agencies about matters relevant to the exercise of the agencies' statutory or regulatory authority; or

(7) As required under any other applicable law.

(b) [Reserved]

§ 1070.46 Other disclosures of confidential information.

(a) To the extent permitted by law and as authorized by the Director in writing, the CFPB may disclose confidential information other than as set forth in this subpart.

(b) Prior to disclosing confidential information pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the CFPB may, as it deems appropriate under the circumstances, provide written notice to the person to whom the confidential information pertains that the CFPB intends to disclose its confidential information in accordance with this section.

(c) The authority of the Director to disclose confidential information pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall not be delegated. However, a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director in accordance with law may exercise the authority of the Director as set forth in this section.

§ 1070.47 Other rules regarding the disclosure of confidential information.

(a) Further disclosure prohibited. (1) All confidential information made available under this subpart shall remain the property of the CFPB, unless the General Counsel provides otherwise in writing.

(2) Except as set forth in this subpart, no supervised financial institution, Federal or State agency, any officer, director, employee or agent thereof, or any other person to whom the confidential information is made available under this subpart, may further disclose such confidential information without the prior written permission of the Director.

(3) No person obtaining access to confidential information pursuant to this subpart may make a personal copy of any such information, and no person may remove confidential information from the premises of the institution or agency in possession of such information except as permitted under this subpart or by the CFPB.

(b) Third party requests for information. (1) A supervised financial institution, Federal or State agency, any officer, director, employee or agent thereof, or any other person to whom the CFPB's confidential information is made available under this subpart, that receives from a third party a legally enforceable demand or request for such confidential information (including but not limited to, a subpoena or discovery request or a request made pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, or any State analogue to such statutes) should:

(i) Inform the General Counsel of such request or demand in writing and provide the General Counsel with a copy of such request or demand as soon as practicable after receiving it;

(ii) To the extent permitted by applicable law, advise the requester that:

(A) The confidential information sought may not be disclosed insofar as it is the property of the CFPB; and

(B) Any request for the disclosure of such confidential information is properly directed to the CFPB pursuant to its regulations set forth in this subpart; and

(iii) Consult with the General Counsel before complying with the request or demand, and to the extent applicable:

(A) Give the CFPB a reasonable opportunity to respond to the demand or request;

(B) Assert all reasonable and appropriate legal exemptions or privileges that the CFPB may request be asserted on its behalf; and

(C) Consent to a motion by the CFPB to intervene in any action for the purpose of asserting and preserving any claims of confidentiality with respect to any confidential information.

(2) Nothing in this section shall prevent a supervised financial institution, Federal or State agency, any officer, director, employee or agent thereof, or any other person to whom the information is made available under this subpart from complying with a legally valid and enforceable order of a court of competent jurisdiction compelling production of the CFPB's confidential information, or, if compliance is deemed compulsory, with a request or demand from either House of the Congress or a duly authorized committee of the Congress. To the extent that compulsory disclosure of confidential information occurs as set forth in this paragraph (b)(2), the producing party shall use its best efforts to ensure that the requestor secures an appropriate protective order or, if the requestor is a legislative body, use its best efforts to obtain the commitment or agreement of the legislative body that it will maintain the confidentiality of the confidential information.

(c) Additional conditions and limitations. The CFPB may impose any additional conditions or limitations on disclosure or use under this subpart that it determines are necessary.

(d) Return or destruction of records. Except with respect to confidential investigative information disclosed pursuant to § 1070.42(a), the CFPB may require any person in possession of CFPB confidential information to return the records to the CFPB or destroy them.

(e) Non-waiver of CFPB rights. Except as provided in § 1070.42(c), the disclosure of confidential information to any person in accordance with this subpart does not constitute a waiver by the CFPB of its right to control, or impose limitations on, the subsequent use and dissemination of the information.

(f) Non-waiver of privilege—(1) In general. The CFPB shall not be deemed to have waived any privilege applicable to any information by transferring that information to, or permitting that information to be used by, any Federal or State agency.

(2) Rule of construction. Paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall not be construed as implying that any person waives any privilege applicable to any information because paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to the transfer or use of that information.

(g) Reports of unauthorized disclosure. Any person that obtains confidential information under this subpart shall, as soon as possible and without unreasonable delay, notify the CFPB upon the discovery of any further disclosures made in violation of this subpart.

§ 1070.48 Disclosure of confidential information by the Inspector General.

Nothing in this subpart shall limit the discretion of the Office of the Inspector General of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau to disclose confidential information as needed in accordance with the Inspector General Act of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 3.

Subpart E Privacy Act

Source: 83 FR 46095, Sept. 12, 2018, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1070.50 Purpose and scope; definitions.

(a) This subpart implements the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a (the Privacy Act). The regulations apply to all records maintained by the CFPB and which are retrieved by an individual's name or personal identifier. The regulations set forth the procedures for requests for access to, or amendment of, records concerning individuals that are contained in systems of records maintained by the CFPB. These regulations should be read in conjunction with the Privacy Act, which provides additional information about this topic.

(b) For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:

(1) The term Chief Privacy Officer means the Senior Agency Official for Privacy of the CFPB or any CFPB employee to whom the Senior Agency Official for Privacy has delegated authority to act under this part;

(2) The term guardian means the parent of a minor, or the legal guardian of any individual who has been declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction;

(3) Individual means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;

(4) Maintain includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate;

(5) Record means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by an agency, including, but not limited to, his education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history and that contains his name or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voiceprint or a photograph;

(6) Routine use means the disclosure of a record that is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected;

(7) System of records means a group of any records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual; and

(8) Statistical record means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by 13 U.S.C. 8.

[83 FR 46095, Sept. 12, 2018, as amended at 86 FR 48901, Sept. 1, 2021]

§ 1070.51 Authority and responsibilities of the Chief Privacy Officer.

The Chief Privacy Officer is authorized to:

(a) Develop, implement, and maintain an organization-wide privacy program;

(b) Respond to requests for access to, accounting of, or amendment of records contained in a system of records maintained by the CFPB;

(c) Approve the publication of new systems of records and amend existing systems of record; and

(d) File any necessary reports related to the Privacy Act.

§ 1070.52 Fees.

(a) Copies of records. The CFPB shall provide the requester with copies of records requested pursuant to § 1070.53 at the same cost charged for duplication of records under § 1070.22.

(b) No fee. The CFPB will not charge a fee if:

(1) Total charges associated with a request are less than $5; or

(2) The requester is a CFPB employee or former employee, or an applicant for employment with the CFPB, and the request pertains to that employee, former employee, or applicant.

§ 1070.53 Request for access to records.

(a) Procedures for making a request for access to records. An individual's requests for access to records that pertain to that individual (or to the individual for whom the requester serves as guardian) may be submitted to the CFPB in writing as follows:

(1) If submitted by mail or delivery service, the request shall be labeled “Privacy Act Request” and shall be addressed to the Chief Privacy Officer, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552.

(2) If submitted by electronic means, the request shall be labeled “Privacy Act Request” and the request shall be submitted as set forth at the CFPB's website, http://www.consumerfinance.gov.

(b) Content of a request for access to records. A request for access to records shall include:

(1) A statement that the request is made pursuant to the Privacy Act;

(2) The name of the system of records that the requester believes contains the record requested, or a description of the nature of the record sought in detail sufficient to enable CFPB personnel to locate the system of records containing the record with a reasonable amount of effort;

(3) Whenever possible, a description of the nature of the record sought, the date of the record or the period in which the requester believes that the record was created, and any other information that might assist the CFPB in identifying the record sought (e.g., maiden name, dates of employment, account information, etc.);

(4) Information necessary to verify the requester's identity pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; and

(5) The mailing or email address where the CFPB's response or further correspondence should be sent.

(c) Verification of identity. To obtain access to the CFPB's records pertaining to a requester, the requester shall provide proof to the CFPB of the requester's identity as provided in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.

(1) In general, the following will be considered adequate proof of a requester's identity:

(i) A photocopy of two forms of identification, including one form of identification that bears the requester's photograph, and one form of identification that bears the requester's signature;

(ii) A photocopy of a single form of identification that bears both the requester's photograph and signature;

(iii) A statement swearing or affirming the requester's identity and to the fact that the requester understands the penalties provided in 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3); or

(iv) Successful completion of a third-party's identity verification process, designated by the Bureau, where that process meets the requirements of Identity Assurance Level 2 (IAL2) as described by the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a designated official may require additional proof of the requester's identity before action will be taken on any request, if such official determines that it is necessary to protect against unauthorized disclosure of information in a particular case. In addition, if a requester seeks records pertaining to an individual in the requester's capacity as that individual's guardian, the requester shall be required to provide adequate proof of the requester's legal relationship before action will be taken on any request.

(d) Request for accounting of previous disclosures. An individual may request an accounting of previous disclosures of records pertaining to that individual in a system of records as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552a(c). Such requests should conform to the procedures and form for requests for access to records set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.

[83 FR 46095, Sept. 12, 2018, as amended at 86 FR 48901, Sept. 1, 2021]

§ 1070.54 CFPB procedures for responding to a request for access.

(a) Acknowledgment and response. The CFPB will provide written acknowledgement of the receipt of a request within twenty (20) business days from the receipt of the request and will, where practicable, respond to each request within that twenty (20) day period. When a full response is not practicable within the twenty (20) day period, the CFPB will respond as promptly as possible.

(b) Disclosure. (1) When the CFPB discloses information in response to a request, the CFPB will make the information available for inspection and copying during regular business hours as provided in § 1070.13, or the CFPB will mail it or email it to the requester, if feasible, upon request.

(2) The requester may bring with him or her anyone whom the requester chooses to see the requested material. All visitors to the CFPB's buildings must comply with the applicable security procedures.

(c) Denial of a request. If the CFPB denies a request made pursuant to § 1070.53, it will inform the requester in writing of the reason(s) for denial and the procedures for appealing the denial.

§ 1070.55 Special procedures for medical records.

If an individual requests medical or psychological records pursuant to § 1070.53, the CFPB will disclose them directly to the requester unless the CFPB determines that such disclosure could have an adverse effect on the requester. If the CFPB makes that determination, the CFPB shall provide the information to a licensed physician or other appropriate representative that the requester designates, who shall disclose those records to the requester in a manner he or she deems appropriate.

§ 1070.56 Request for amendment of records.

(a) Procedures for making request. (1) If an individual wishes to amend a record that pertains to that individual in a system of records, that individual may submit a request in writing to the Chief Privacy Officer, as set forth in § 1070.53(a). The request shall be labeled “Privacy Act Amendment Request.”

(2) A request for amendment of a record must:

(i) Identify the name of the system of records that the requester believes contains the record for which the amendment is requested, or a description of the nature of the record in detail sufficient to enable CFPB personnel to locate the system of records containing the record with a reasonable amount of effort;

(ii) Specify the portion of that record requested to be amended; and

(iii) Describe the nature and reasons for each requested amendment.

(3) When making a request for amendment of a record, the CFPB will require a requester to verify his or her identity under the procedures set forth in § 1070.53(c), unless the requester has already done so in a related request for access or amendment.

(b) Burden of proof. In a request for amendment of a record, the requester bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete.

§ 1070.57 CFPB review of a request for amendment of records.

(a) Time limits. The CFPB will acknowledge a request for amendment of records within ten (10) business days after it receives the request. In the acknowledgment, the CFPB may request additional information necessary for a determination on the request for amendment. The CFPB will make a determination on a request to amend a record promptly.

(b) Contents of response to a request for amendment. When the CFPB responds to a request for amendment, the CFPB will inform the requester in writing whether the request is granted or denied, in whole or in part. If the CFPB grants the request, it will take the necessary steps to amend the record and, when appropriate and possible, notify prior recipients of the record of its action. If the CFPB denies the request, in whole or in part, it will inform the requester in writing:

(1) Why the request (or portion of the request) was denied;

(2) That the requester has a right to appeal; and

(3) How to file an appeal.

§ 1070.58 Appeal of adverse determination of request for access or amendment.

(a) Appeal. A requester may appeal a denial of a request made pursuant to § 1070.53 or § 1070.56 within ten (10) business days after the CFPB notifies the requester that it has denied the request.

(b) Content of appeal. A requester may submit an appeal in writing as set forth in § 1070.53(a). The appeal shall be addressed to the General Counsel and labeled “Privacy Act Appeal.” The appeal must also:

(1) Specify the background of the request; and

(2) Provide reasons why the requester believes the denial is in error.

(c) Determination. The General Counsel will make a determination as to whether to grant or deny an appeal within thirty (30) business days from the date it is received, unless the General Counsel extends the time for good cause.

(1) If the General Counsel grants an appeal regarding a request for amendment, he or she will take the necessary steps to amend the record and, when appropriate and possible, notify prior recipients of the record of its action.

(2) If the General Counsel denies an appeal, he or she will inform the requester of such determination in writing, including the reasons for the denial, and the requester's right to file a statement of disagreement and to have a court review its decision.

(d) Statement of disagreement. (1) If the General Counsel denies an appeal regarding a request for amendment, a requester may file a concise statement of disagreement with the denial. The CFPB will maintain the requester's statement with the record that the requester sought to amend and any disclosure of the record will include a copy of the requester's statement of disagreement.

(2) When practicable and appropriate, the CFPB will provide a copy of the statement of disagreement to any prior recipients of the record.

§ 1070.59 Restrictions on disclosure.

The CFPB will not disclose any record about an individual contained in a system of records to any person or agency without the prior written consent of that individual unless the disclosure is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b). Disclosures authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) include disclosures that are compatible with one or more routine uses that are contained within the CFPB's Systems of Records Notices, which are available on the CFPB's website, at http://www.consumerfinance.gov.

§ 1070.60 Exempt records.

(a) Exempt systems of records. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the CFPB exempts the systems of records listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G)-(H), and (f), and §§ 1070.53 through 1070.59, to the extent that such systems of records contain investigatory materials compiled for law enforcement purposes, provided, however, that if any individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which he or she would otherwise be entitled under Federal law, or for which he or she would otherwise be eligible as a result of the maintenance of such material, such material shall be disclosed to such individual, except to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the CFPB under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence:

(1) CFPB.002 Depository Institution Supervision Database.

(2) CFPB.003 Non-Depository Institution Supervision Database.

(3) CFPB.004 Enforcement Database.

(4) CFPB.005 Consumer Response System.

(b) Information compiled for civil actions or proceedings. This subpart does not permit an individual to have access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.

§ 1070.61 Training; rules of conduct; penalties for non-compliance.

(a) Training. The Chief Privacy Officer shall institute a training program to instruct CFPB employees and contractor personnel covered by 5 U.S.C. 552a(m), who are involved in the design, development, operation, or maintenance of any CFPB system of records, on a continuing basis with respect to the duties and responsibilities imposed on them and the rights conferred on individuals by the Privacy Act, the regulations in this subpart, and any other related regulations. Such training shall provide suitable emphasis on the civil and criminal penalties imposed on the CFPB and the individual employees or contractor personnel by the Privacy Act for non-compliance with specified requirements of the Act as implemented by the regulations in this subpart.

(b) Rules of conduct. The following rules of conduct are applicable to employees of the CFPB (including, to the extent required by the contract or 5 U.S.C. 552a(m), Government contractors and employees of such contractors), who are involved in the design, development, operation or maintenance of any system of records, or in maintaining any records, for or on behalf of the CFPB.

(1) The head of each office of the CFPB shall be responsible for assuring that employees subject to such official's supervision are advised of the provisions of the Privacy Act, including the criminal penalties and civil liabilities provided therein, and the regulations in this subpart, and that such employees are made aware of their individual and collective responsibilities to protect the security of personal information, to assure its accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness, to avoid unauthorized disclosure either orally or in writing, and to ensure that no system of records is maintained without public notice.

(2) Employees of the CFPB involved in the design, development, operation, or maintenance of any system of records, or in maintaining any record shall:

(i) Collect no information of a personal nature from individuals unless authorized to collect it to achieve a function or carry out a responsibility of the CFPB;

(ii) Collect information, to the extent practicable, directly from the individual to whom it relates;

(iii) Inform each individual asked to supply information, on the form used to collect the information or on a separate form that can be retained by the individual of—

(A) The authority (whether granted by statute, or by executive order of the President) which authorizes the solicitation of the information and whether disclosure of such information is mandatory or voluntary;

(B) The principal purpose or purposes for which the information is intended to be used;

(C) The routine uses which may be made of the information, as published pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(D); and

(D) The effects on the individual, if any, of not providing all or any part of the requested information;

(iv) Not collect, maintain, use or disseminate information concerning an individual's religious or political beliefs or activities or membership in associations or organizations, unless expressly authorized by statute or by the individual about whom the record is maintained or unless pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity;

(v) Advise their supervisors of the existence or contemplated development of any record system which is capable of retrieving information about individuals by individual identifier;

(vi) Assure that no records maintained in a CFPB system of records are disseminated without the permission of the individual about whom the record pertains, except when authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b);

(vii) Maintain and process information concerning individuals with care in order to ensure that no inadvertent disclosure of the information is made either within or without the CFPB;

(viii) Prior to disseminating any record about an individual to any person other than an agency, unless the dissemination is made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(2), make reasonable efforts to assure that such records are accurate, complete, timely, and relevant for agency purposes; and

(ix) Assure that an accounting is kept in the prescribed form, of all dissemination of personal information outside the CFPB, whether made orally or in writing, unless disclosed under 5 U.S.C. 552 or subpart B of this part.

(3) The head of each office of the CFPB shall, at least annually, review the record systems subject to their supervision to ensure compliance with the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974 and the regulations in this subpart.

§ 1070.62 Preservation of records.

The CFPB will preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this part, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized by title 44 of the United States Code or the National Archives and Records Administration's General Records Schedule 14. Records will not be disposed of or destroyed while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, proceeding, or lawsuit.

§ 1070.63 Use and collection of Social Security numbers.

The CFPB will ensure that employees authorized to collect information are aware:

(a) That individuals may not be denied any right, benefit, or privilege as a result of refusing to provide their Social Security numbers, unless the collection is authorized either by a statute or by a regulation issued prior to 1975; and

(b) That individuals requested to provide their Social Security numbers must be informed of:

(1) Whether providing Social Security numbers is mandatory or voluntary;

(2) Any statutory or regulatory authority that authorizes the collection of Social Security numbers; and

(3) The uses that will be made of the numbers.

PART 1071 RULE IMPLEMENTING EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 504.

Source: 77 FR 39119, June 29, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1071.100 Purpose.

(a) In general. The Equal Access to Justice Act (the Act), 5 U.S.C. 504, provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings (adversary adjudications) before the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (the Bureau). An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over the Bureau, unless the Bureau's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. This part describes the parties eligible for awards and the proceedings that are covered. This part also explains how to apply for awards, and the procedures and standards that the Bureau will use in ruling on those applications.

(b) When an eligible party will receive an award. An eligible party will receive an award when:

(1) It prevails in the adversary adjudication, unless the Bureau's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. Whether or not the position of the Bureau was substantially justified will be determined on the basis of the administrative record as a whole that is made in the adversary proceeding for which fees and other expenses are sought; or

(2) The Bureau's demand is substantially in excess of the decision of the adjudicative officer and is unreasonable when compared with that decision, under all the facts and circumstances of the case, unless the party has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or special circumstances make an award unjust. “Demand” means the express final written demand made by the Bureau prior to initiation of the adversary adjudication, but does not include a recitation by the Bureau of the statutory penalty in the notice of charges or elsewhere when accompanied by an express demand for a lesser amount. The relief requested in the Bureau's notice of charges issued pursuant to 12 CFR 1081.200(b)(3) may constitute the Bureau's demand only where the notice of charges was not preceded by an express final written demand.

§ 1071.101 When the Act applies.

The Act applies to any adversary adjudication pending before the Bureau at any time after July 21, 2011.

§ 1071.102 Proceedings covered.

The Act applies to all adjudicative proceedings under part 1081 as defined in § 1081.103.

§ 1071.103 Eligibility of applicants.

(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under the Act, the applicant must be a party to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award. The term “party” is defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3). The applicant must show that it meets all conditions of eligibility set out in this subpart.

(b) The types of eligible applicants are as follows:

(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million;

(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests, and not more than 500 employees;

(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees;

(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees; or

(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees.

(6) For purposes of receiving an award for fees and expenses for defending against an excessive Bureau demand, any small entity, as that term is defined under 5 U.S.C. 601(6).

(c) For purposes of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the proceeding was initiated.

(d) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests.

(e) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.

(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual or group of individuals, corporation or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or any corporation or entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will be considered an affiliate of that business for purposes of this part, unless the adjudicative officer determines that such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, the adjudicative officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.

(g) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.

§ 1071.104 Standards for awards.

(a) For a prevailing party:

(1) An eligible prevailing applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication in connection with the entire adversary adjudication, or on a substantive portion of the adversary adjudication that is sufficiently significant and discrete to merit treatment as a separate unit, unless the position of the Bureau was substantially justified. The burden of proof that an award should not be made to an eligible prevailing applicant because the Bureau's position was substantially justified is on counsel for the Bureau. However, no presumption arises that the Bureau's position was not substantially justified simply because the Bureau did not prevail.

(2) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.

(b) For a party defending against an excessive demand:

(1) An eligible applicant will receive an award for fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication related to defending against the portion of a Bureau demand that is substantially in excess of the decision of the adjudicative officer and is unreasonable when compared with that decision under all the facts and circumstances of the case.

(2) An award will be denied if the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith or if special circumstances make an award unjust.

§ 1071.105 Allowable fees and other expenses.

(a) Subject to the limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, awards will be based on rates customarily charged, in the locale of the hearing, by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the applicant.

(b) No award for the fee of any attorney or agent under this rule may exceed the hourly rate specified in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(A). No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the reasonable rate at which the Bureau pays witnesses with similar expertise. However an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.

(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent or expert witness, the adjudicative officer shall consider the following:

(1) If the attorney, agent or witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;

(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily performs services;

(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;

(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and

(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.

(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the services does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case.

(e) An award of fees or expenses under the Act is limited to fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication and, with respect to excessive demands, the fees and expenses incurred in defending against the excessive portion of the demand.

§ 1071.106 Delegations of authority.

The Director may delegate authority to take final action on matters pertaining to the Equal Access to Justice Act in particular cases.

Subpart B Information Required from Applicants

§ 1071.200 Contents of application.

An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act shall contain the following:

(a) Identity of the applicant and the proceeding for which the award is sought;

(b) A showing that the applicant has prevailed; or, if the applicant has not prevailed, a showing that the Bureau's demand was substantially in excess of the decision of the adjudicative officer and was unreasonable when compared with that decision, under the facts and circumstances of that case;

(c) Identification of the Bureau position(s) in the proceeding that the applicant alleges was (were) not substantially justified; or, identification of the Bureau's demand that is alleged to be excessive and unreasonable and an explanation as to why the demand was excessive and unreasonable;

(d) A brief description of the type and purpose of the organization or business (unless the applicant is an individual).

(e) A statement of how the applicant meets the eligibility criteria of § 1071.103;

(f) The amount of fees and expenses incurred after the initiation of the adversary adjudication, or in the case of a claim for defending against an allegedly excessive demand, the amount of fees and expenses incurred after the initiation of the adjudicative proceeding attributable to the allegedly excessive portion of the demand;

(g) Any other matter the applicant wishes the Bureau to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made; and

(h) A written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided is true and correct, accompanied by the signature of the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney.

§ 1071.201 Net worth exhibit.

(a) The application shall also include a detailed exhibit showing that the applicant's net worth did not exceed $2 million (if an individual) or $7 million (for all other applicants, including their affiliates) when the proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this subpart. The adjudicative officer may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.

(b) However, an applicant may omit this exhibit if:

(1) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such section;

(2) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a));

(3) In the case of an application for an award related to an allegedly excessive demand by the Bureau, it demonstrates that it is a small entity as that term is defined by 5 U.S.C. 601(6).

(c) Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit and believes there are legal grounds for withholding it from disclosure may submit that exhibit directly to the adjudicative officer in a sealed envelope labeled “Confidential Financial Information,” accompanied by a motion to withhold the information from public disclosure. The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why it falls within one or more of the specific exemptions from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 522(b)(1) through (9), why public disclosure of the information would adversely affect the applicant, and why disclosure is not required in the public interest. The material in question shall be served on Bureau counsel but need not be served on any other party to the proceeding. If the adjudicative officer finds that the information should not be withheld from disclosure, it shall be placed in the public record of the proceeding. Otherwise, any request to inspect or copy the exhibit shall be handled in accordance with the Bureau's established procedures under the Freedom of Information Act, 12 CFR subpart B.

§ 1071.202 Documentation of fees and expenses.

The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication, including the cost of any study, engineering report, test, or project for which an award is sought. With respect to a claim for fees and expenses involving an excessive demand by the Bureau, the application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication, including the cost of any study, engineering report, test, or project for which an award is sought attributable to the portion of the demand alleged to be excessive and unreasonable. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The adjudicative officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.

§ 1071.203 When an application may be filed.

(a) An application may be filed not later than 30 days after the final disposition of the proceeding to which the application relates.

(b) If review or reconsideration is sought or taken of a decision, proceedings for the award of fees shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy.

(c) For purposes of this subpart, final disposition means the later of—

(1) The date that the Director's final order issued pursuant to § 1081.405 is final and unappealable, both within the agency and to the courts; or

(2) The date that the Bureau issues any other final resolution of a proceeding, such as a consent agreement, settlement or voluntary dismissal, that is not subject to a petition for reconsideration.

Subpart C Procedures for Considering Applications

§ 1071.300 Filing and service of documents.

(a) Any application for an award or other pleading or document related to an application shall be filed and served on all parties to the proceeding in the same manner as other pleadings in proceedings under part 1081.

(b) In addition, a copy of each application for fees and expenses shall be served on the General Counsel of the Bureau.

§ 1071.301 Answer to application.

(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, counsel representing the Bureau may file an answer to the application. Unless Bureau counsel requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of this section, failure to file an answer within the 30-day period may be treated as consent to the award requested.

(b) If Bureau counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days and further extensions may be granted by the adjudicative officer upon joint request by Bureau counsel and the applicant.

(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of Bureau counsel's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, Bureau counsel shall include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 1071.305 of this part.

§ 1071.302 Reply.

Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 1071.305 of this part.

§ 1071.303 Comments by other parties.

Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and Bureau counsel may file comments on an application within 30 days after it is served or on an answer within 15 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the adjudicative officer determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.

§ 1071.304 Settlement.

The applicant and Bureau counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying proceeding or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded, in accordance with the Bureau's standard settlement procedures. If a prevailing party and Bureau counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement. If a proposed settlement of an underlying proceeding provides that each side shall bear its own expenses and the settlement is accepted, no application may be filed.

§ 1071.305 Further proceedings.

(a) Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or Bureau counsel, or on his or her own initiative, the adjudicative officer may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application, and shall be conducted as promptly as possible.

(b) A request that the adjudicative officer order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.

§ 1071.306 Recommended decision.

The adjudicative officer shall issue a recommended decision on the application within 60 days after the time for filing a reply, or where further proceedings are held, within 60 days after completion of such proceedings.

(a) For a decision involving a prevailing party: The decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision shall include, if at issue, findings on whether the agency's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust.

(b) For a decision involving an allegedly excessive Bureau demand: The decision on the application shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and an explanation of the reasons why the Bureau's demand was or was not determined to be substantially in excess of the underlying decision of the adjudicative officer and was or was not unreasonable when compared with that decision. That determination shall be based upon all the facts and circumstances of the case. The decision on the application shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust.

§ 1071.307 Bureau review.

Either the applicant or Bureau counsel may seek review of the recommended decision on the fee application by filing a notice of appeal under § 1081.402(a), or the Director may decide to review the decision on his or her own initiative, in accordance with § 1081.402(b). If neither the applicant nor Bureau counsel seeks review and the Director does not take review on his or her own initiative, the Director will adopt the recommended decision on the application as the final decision of the Bureau within 30 days of the issuance of the recommended decision. Whether to review a decision is a matter within the discretion of the Director. If review is taken, the Director will issue a final decision on the application or remand the application to the adjudicative officer for further proceedings.

§ 1071.308 Judicial review.

Judicial review of final Bureau decisions on awards may be sought as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).

§ 1071.309 Payment of award.

An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit to the Bureau a copy of the Bureau's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts. An applicant shall be paid the amount awarded within 60 days of entry of the final decision unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding.

PART 1072 ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF DISABILITY IN PROGRAMS AND ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE BUREAU OF CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION

Authority: 29 U.S.C. 794; 29 U.S.C. 794d.

Source: 77 FR 46609, August 6, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1072.101 Purpose.

(a) This part implements section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended by the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, Sec. 119 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2982), the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810), the Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (Pub. L. 105-220, 112 Stat. 936), and the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-325, 122 Stat. 3553), to prohibit discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.

(b) This part is also intended to implement section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 as amended to ensure that employees and members of the public with disabilities have access to, and are able to use, electronic and information technology (EIT) to the same extent as individuals without disabilities, unless an undue burden would be imposed on the department or the Bureau. Specifically, this part clarifies that individuals with disabilities may utilize the complaint procedures established in section 504 to enforce rights guaranteed under section 508.

§ 1072.102 Application.

This part applies to all programs, activities, and electronic and information technology developed, procured, maintained, used, or conducted by the Bureau.

§ 1072.103 Definitions.

For purposes of this part Auxiliary aids means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the Bureau. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunications devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, Computer-aided real-time transcription (CART), captioning, note takers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.

Bureau means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.

Complete complaint means a written statement or a complaint in audio, Braille, electronic, and/or video format, that contains the complainant's name and address, and describes the Bureau's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the Bureau of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504 or section 508. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints in audio, Braille, electronic, and/or video formats shall contain an affirmative identity statement of the individual, which for this purpose shall be considered to be functionally equivalent to a complaint's signature. Complaints filed on behalf of classes of individuals with disabilities shall also identify (where possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.

Electronic and information technology means information technology and any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the creation, conversion, or duplication of data or information. The term includes, but is not limited to, telecommunications products (such as telephones), information kiosks and transaction machines, world-wide web sites, multimedia, and office equipment such as copiers and fax machines. The term does not include any equipment that contains embedded information technology that is used as an integral part of the product, but the principal function of which is not the acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information. For example, HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) equipment such as thermostats or temperature control devices, and medical equipment where information technology is integral to its operation are not electronic and information technology.

Facility means all or any portion of a building, structure, equipment, road, walk, parking lot, rolling stock or other conveyance, or other real or personal property.

Has a record of such an impairment means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more of the individual's major life activities.

Is regarded as having an impairment means—

(1) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the Bureau as constituting such a limitation;

(2) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or

(3) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the Bureau as having such an impairment.

Individual with a disability means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the individual's major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase:

Major life activities includes without limitation—

(1) Caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, sitting, reaching, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating, interacting with others, and working.

(2) The operation of major bodily functions of the immune system, special sense organs and skin, normal cell growth, and digestive genitourinary, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain, respiratory, circulatory, cardiovascular, endocrine, hemic, lymphatic, musculoskeletal, and reproductive functions. The operation of a major bodily function includes the operation of an individual organ within a body system.

(3) In determining other examples of major life activities, the Bureau will follow the guidance provided by EEOC in its 2011 regulations interpreting the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act of 2008.

Physical or mental impairment includes without limitation:

(1) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive, digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine.

(2) Any mental or psychological disorder such as an intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities.

(3) Diseases and conditions such as orthopedic, visual, speech and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, intellectual disability, emotional illness, drug addiction and alcoholism.

Program or Activity means any activity of the Bureau permitted or required by its enabling statutes, including but not limited to any proceeding, investigation, hearing, or meeting.

Qualified individual with a disability means:

(1) In reference to individuals other than employees of the Bureau—

(i) With respect to any Bureau program or activity under which an individual is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with a disability who, with or without reasonable accommodations, meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in the program or activity, and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; or

(ii) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with a disability who, with or without reasonable modification to rules, policies, or practices that do not change the fundamental nature of the activity, or the provision of auxiliary aids, meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; or

(2) In reference to individuals employed by the Bureau, the definition of that term for purposes of employment contained in 29 CFR 1630.2(m), which is made applicable to this part by § 1072.101.

Section 504 means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 as amended. As used in this part, § 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.

Section 508 means section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 as amended.

§ 1072.104 Review of compliance.

(a) The Bureau shall, within two years of the promulgation of this regulation, review its current policies and practices in view of advances in relevant technology and achievability. Based on this review, the Bureau shall modify its practices and procedures to ensure that the Bureau's programs and activities are fully accessible.

(b) The Bureau shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with disabilities or organizations representing individuals with disabilities, to participate in the review process.

(c) The Bureau shall maintain on file and make available for public inspection until three years following the completion of the compliance review—

(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and

(2) A description of any modifications made.

§ 1072.105 Notice.

The Bureau shall make available to all Bureau employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the Bureau in a manner that apprises them of the protections against discrimination provided by § 504 and this regulation.

§ 1072.106 General prohibitions against discrimination.

(a) No qualified individual with a disability in the United States, shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from the participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Bureau.

(b) Discriminatory actions prohibited. (1) The Bureau, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability—

(i) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;

(ii) Afford a qualified individual with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not substantially equivalent to that afforded others;

(iii) Provide different or separate aid, benefits or services to individuals with disabilities or to any class of individuals with disabilities than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with aid, benefits or services that are as effective as those provided to others;

(iv) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards.

(2) For purposes of this part, aids, benefits, and services, to be equally effective, are not required to produce the identical result or level of achievement for individuals with disabilities and for persons who are not so identified, but must afford individuals with disabilities a reasonable opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement in the most integrated setting appropriate to the individual's needs.

(3) Even if the Bureau is permitted, under paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, to operate a separate or different program for individuals with disabilities or for any class of individuals with disabilities, to the extent reasonably feasible, the Bureau must permit any qualified individual with a disability who wishes to participate in the program that is not separate or different to do so.

(4) The Bureau may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—

(i) Subject qualified individuals with disabilities to unlawful discrimination on the basis of disability; or

(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.

(5) The Bureau may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—

(i) Exclude individuals with disabilities from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to unlawful discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Bureau; or

(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.

(6) The Bureau, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to unlawful discrimination on the basis of disability.

(7) The Bureau may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with disabilities to unlawful discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may the Bureau establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to unlawful discrimination on the basis of disability. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the Bureau are not, themselves, covered by this part.

(8) The Bureau shall make reasonable modifications in policies, practices, or procedures when the modifications are necessary to avoid discrimination on the basis of disability, unless the Bureau can demonstrate that making the modifications would fundamentally alter the nature of the program, service, or activity.

(c) The exclusion of persons who have not self-identified as having disabilities from the benefits of a program limited by federal statute or Executive order to individuals with disabilities or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with disabilities from a program limited by federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with disabilities is not prohibited by this part.

(d) The Bureau shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.

§ 1072.107 Employment.

No qualified individual with disability shall, on the basis of disability, be subjected to unlawful discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the Bureau. The definitions, requirements and procedures of § 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 791, as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR parts 1614 and 1630, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.

§ 1072.108 Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.

Except as otherwise provided in § 1072.109 no qualified individual with a disability shall, because the Bureau's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Bureau .

§ 1072.109 Program accessibility: Existing facilities.

(a) General. The Bureau shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This paragraph does not require the Bureau

(1) To make structural alterations in each of its existing facilities in order to make them accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section; or

(2) To take any action that would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Bureau shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless to the extent reasonably feasible ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.

(b) Methods. The Bureau may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The Bureau, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the Bureau shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.

(c) Time period for compliance. The Bureau shall comply with the obligations established under this section within ninety (90) days of the effective date of this part except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made within three years of the effective date of this part, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.

§ 1072.110 Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.

Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Bureau shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as implemented in 41 CFR 101-19.600 through 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.

§ 1072.111 Communications.

(a) The Bureau shall take appropriate steps to effectively communicate with applicants, participants, personnel of other federal entities, and members of the public.

(1) The Bureau shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with a disability an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the Bureau.

(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the Bureau shall give consideration to any reasonable request of the individual with a disability.

(ii) The Bureau need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature to applicants or participants in programs.

(2) Where the Bureau communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by

telephone, the Bureau shall use a telecommunication device for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems to communicate with persons with impaired hearing.

(b) The Bureau shall make available to interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.

(c) The Bureau shall post notices at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to an accessible facility, or to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.

(d) This section does not require the Bureau to take any action that would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens.

§ 1072.112 Compliance procedures.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of disability in programs and activities conducted by the Bureau and denial of access to electronic and information technology.

(b) The Bureau shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).

(c) All other complaints alleging violations of section 504 or section 508 may be sent to Labor and Employee Relations, Office of the Chief Human Capital Officer Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20052. The Office of the Chief Human Capital Officer shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section.

(d) Complaint-filing procedures. (1) Any person who believes that he or she has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part may by himself or herself or by his or her authorized representative file a complaint. Any person who believes that any specific class of persons has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part and who is a member of that class or the authorized representative of a member of that class may file a class complaint.

(2) The Bureau shall accept and investigate each timely filed, complete complaint over which it has jurisdiction.

(3) A complete complaint must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. A complaint submitted to the Bureau via first-class mail will be deemed to have been filed when postmarked. A complaint submitted to the Bureau via any other means of delivery will be deemed to have been filed when received by the Bureau. The Bureau may extend this time period for good cause.

(e) If the Bureau receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.

(f) The Bureau shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities.

(g)(1) Within 180 days of the receipt of a timely filed, complete complaint over which it has jurisdiction, the Bureau shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing:

(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;

(ii) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and

(iii) A notice of the right to appeal.

(2) Bureau employees are required to cooperate in the investigation and attempted resolution of complaints. Employees who are required to participate in any investigation under this section shall do so as part of their official duties and during the course of regular duty hours.

(3) If a complaint is resolved informally, the terms of the agreement shall be reduced to writing and made part of the complaint file, with a copy of the agreement provided to the complainant. The written agreement shall describe the subject matter of the complaint and any corrective action to which the parties have agreed.

(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 30 days of receipt from the Bureau of the letter required by § 1072.112(g). The Bureau may extend this time for good cause.

(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the Chief Human Capital Officer, who will issue the final agency decision which may include appropriate corrective action to be taken by the Bureau.

(j) The Bureau shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the timely appeal. If the Bureau determines that it needs additional information from the complainant, it shall have 60 days from the date it received the additional information to make its determination on the appeal.

(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended for an individual case when the Chief Human Capital Officer determines there is good cause, based on the particular circumstances of that case, for the extension.

(l) The Bureau may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other federal agencies or may contract with a nongovernment investigator to perform the investigation, but the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another entity.

PART 1073 PROCEDURES FOR BUREAU DEBT COLLECTION

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 301; 5 U.S.C. 5514; 31 U.S.C. 3711, et seq.

Source: 78 FR 41678, July 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Scope, Purpose, and Definitions

§ 1073.101 Scope.

This part establishes Bureau procedures for the collection of certain debts owed to the United States.

(a) This part applies to collections by the Bureau from:

(1) Federal employees who are indebted to the Bureau;

(2) Employees of the Bureau who are indebted to other agencies; and

(3) Other persons, organizations, or entities that are indebted to the United States, except those excluded in paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) This part does not apply:

(1) To debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code (Title 26, U.S. Code), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 et seq.), or the tariff laws of the United States;

(2) To a situation to which the Contract Disputes Act (41 U.S.C. 7101 et seq.) applies; or

(3) To debts arising out of acquisition contracts subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation. These debts shall be determined, collected, compromised, terminated, or settled in accordance with that regulation (see 48 CFR part 32).

(4) In any other case where collection of a debt is exclusively provided for or prohibited by another statute or applicable regulation.

(c) In addition to the procedures set forth in this part, the Bureau shall also follow the procedures set forth in 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, for the collection by offset from indebted government employees, and in 31 CFR part 285 and the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) (31 CFR chapter IX and parts 900 through 904) for the collection of debts owed to the United States.

(d) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3711 et seq.), the FCCS, or any other applicable law.

§ 1073.102 Purpose.

The purpose of this part is to implement Federal statutes and regulatory standards authorizing the Bureau to collect debts owed to the United States. This part is intended to be consistent with the following Federal statutes and regulations:

(1) DCIA at 31 U.S.C. 3711 (collection and compromise of claims), section 3716 (administrative offset), section 3717 (interest and penalty on claims), and section 3718 (contracts for collection services); 31 CFR part 285 (debt collection authorities under the DCIA)

(2) 31 CFR chapter IX and parts 900 through 904 (FCCS);

(3) 5 U.S.C. 5514, 5 CFR part 550, subpart K (salary offset);

(4) 5 U.S.C. 5584 (waiver of claims for overpayment);

(5) 31 U.S.C. 3720D, 31 CFR 285.11 (administrative wage garnishment); and

(6) 26 U.S.C. 6402(d), 31 U.S.C. 3720A, and 31 CFR 285.2 (tax refund offset).

§ 1073.103 Definitions.

Except where the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following definitions shall apply to this part.

Administrative offset means withholding funds payable by the United States to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt.

Agency means a department, agency, court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the executive, judicial, or legislative branch of the Federal government, including government corporations.

Bureau or CFPB means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.

Centralized administrative offset means an offset initiated by referral to the Secretary of the Treasury, or where applicable a debt collection center designated by the Department of the Treasury, by a creditor agency of a past due debt for the purpose of collection under the Treasury's centralized offset program.

Certification means a written statement transmitted from a creditor agency to a paying agency for purposes of administrative or salary offset, to the Financial Management Service (FMS) for offset or to the Secretary of the Treasury for centralized administrative offset. The certification confirms the existence and amount of the debt and verifies that the creditor agency has afforded the debtor the required procedural protections. Where the debtor requests a hearing on a claimed debt, the decision by a hearing official or administrative law judge constitutes a certification.

Compromise means the settlement or forgiveness of a debt under 31 U.S.C. 3711, in accordance with standards set forth in the FCCS and applicable Federal law.

Creditor agency means an agency of the Federal Government to which the debt is owed, or a debt collection center when acting on behalf of a creditor agency to collect a debt. An agency may be both the creditor agency and the paying agency.

Debt or claim means an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by an agency official to be due the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal entity. For purposes of this part, a debt or claim owed to the Bureau constitutes a debt or claim owed to the United States.

Debt collection center means the Department of the Treasury or other government agency or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury with authority to collect debts on behalf of creditor agencies in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g).

Debtor means a person who owes a debt or a claim. The term “person” includes any individual, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency.

Director means the Director of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection or the Director's designee.

Disposable pay means that part of current adjusted basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, and, in the case of an employee not entitled to adjusted basic pay, other authorized pay, remaining for each pay period after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld.

Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) means standards published at 31 CFR Parts 900 through 904.

Financial Management Service (FMS) is a Bureau of the Department of the Treasury.

Garnishment means the process of withholding amounts from the disposable pay of a person employed outside the Federal Government, and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order.

Non-centralized administrative offset means offsets that an agency conducts, at the agency's discretion, internally or in cooperation with the agency certifying or authorizing payment to the debtor.

Notice of Intent to Offset or Notice of Intent means a written notice from a creditor agency to an employee, organization, entity, or restitution debtor that claims a debt and informs the debtor that the creditor agency intends to collect the debt by administrative or salary offset. The notice also informs the debtor of certain procedural rights with respect to the claimed debt and respective offset procedure.

Paying agency means the agency of the Federal Government that withholds funds payable to a person who owes a debt to an agency of the Federal Government. The term “person” includes any individual, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency. An agency may be both the creditor agency and the paying agency.

Recoupment means a special method of adjusting debts arising under the same transaction or occurrence.

Salary offset means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of a Federal employee without his or her consent.

Withholding order means any order for withholding or garnishment of pay issued by an agency, or judicial or administrative body.

Subpart B Administrative Offset

§ 1073.201 Applicability and scope.

(a) Applicability. The provisions of this subpart apply to the collection of debts owed to the United States arising out of the activities of, or referred to, the Bureau. This subpart is intended to be consistent with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR chapter IX and parts 900 through 904) on administrative offset issued by the Department of Treasury and the Department of Justice.

(b) Centralized administrative offset. (1) The Director will refer any eligible debt over 180 days delinquent to the Department of the Treasury or a designated debt collection center for collection by centralized administrative offset. The Director may also refer any eligible debt less than 180 days delinquent to the Department of the Treasury for offset.

(2) At least 60 days prior to referring a debt to the Department of the Treasury in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Director will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 1073.204 of this subpart.

(c) Non-centralized administrative offset. (1) When centralized administrative offset is not available or appropriate, the Director may collect past-due, legally enforceable debts through non-centralized administrative offset. In these cases, the Director may offset a payment internally or make an offset request directly to a paying agency.

(2) At least 30 days prior to offsetting a payment internally or requesting a paying agency to offset a payment in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Director will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 1073.204 of this subpart.

§ 1073.202 Collection.

(a) The Director may collect a claim from a person by administrative offset of monies payable by the Government only after:

(1) Providing the debtor with the procedures of this subpart; and

(2) Providing the paying agency with written certification that the debtor owes the debt in the amount stated and that the Bureau, as creditor agency, has complied with this part.

(b) The Director will initiate collection by administrative offset of only those debts for which that remedy is permissible under 31 CFR 901.3(a).

(c) Unless otherwise provided, debts or payments not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under common law, or any other applicable statutory authority.

§ 1073.203 Omission of procedures.

The Bureau shall not be required to follow the procedures described in § 1073.204 where:

(a) The offset is in the nature of a recoupment;

(b) The debt arises under a contract as set forth in Cecile Industries, Inc. v. Cheney, 995 F.2d 1052 (Fed. Cir. 1993); or

(c) In the case of non-centralized administrative offsets, the Bureau first learns of the existence of the amount owed by the debtor when there is insufficient time before payment would be made to the debtor/payee to allow for prior notice and an opportunity to review. When prior notice and an opportunity to review are omitted, the Director shall give the debtor such notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practicable and shall promptly refund any money ultimately found not to be due to the U.S. Government.

§ 1073.204 Debtor's rights.

(a) Debtor's rights prior to collection or referral. Prior to collecting any claim by administrative offset or referring such claim to another agency for collection through administrative offset, the Director shall provide the debtor with the following:

(1) A Notice of Intent to Offset, which shall include written notice of the type and amount of the debt, the intention of the Director to use administrative offset to collect the debt, and an explanation of the debtor's rights under 31 U.S.C. 3716;

(2) An opportunity to inspect and copy Bureau records related to the debt, unless such records are exempt from disclosure;

(3) An opportunity for review within the Bureau of the determination of indebtedness; and

(4) An opportunity to enter into a written agreement to repay the debt.

(b) Opportunity for review. (1) Any request by the debtor for such review shall be in writing and shall be submitted to the Bureau within 30 calendar days of the date of the Notice of Intent to Offset. The Director may waive the time limit for requesting review for good cause shown by the debtor;

(2) Upon receipt of a request for review by the debtor, the Director shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the Director determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence alone (e.g., when the determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity). Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although all significant matters discussed at the hearing shall be documented.

(3) In cases where an oral hearing is not required by this section, the Bureau shall make its determination based on a documentary hearing consisting of a review of the written record.

§ 1073.205 No requirement for duplicate notice.

Where the Director previously has given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, the Director is not required to duplicate such notice and review opportunities prior to initiating administrative offset.

§ 1073.206 Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.

(a) Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717, the Director shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs on debts owed to the United States. Interest, penalties, and administrative costs will be assessed in accordance with 31 CFR 901.9.

(b) The Director shall waive collection of interest on a debt or any portion of the debt which is paid in full within 30 days after the date on which the interest began to accrue.

(c) The Director may waive interest accrued during a period a disputed debt is under investigation or review by the Bureau, i.e., from the date the Bureau receives a request for review until the date the Bureau issues a final agency decision. The Director may only grant this waiver for good cause shown by the debtor. This waiver must be requested by the debtor before the expiration of the 30-day waiver period described in paragraph (b) of this section.

(d) The Director may at any time waive collection of interest, penalties, or administrative costs if he or she finds that one or more of the following conditions exists:

(1) The Debtor is unable to pay any significant sum toward the debt within a reasonable period of time;

(2) Collection of interest, penalties, or administrative costs will jeopardize collection of the principal of the debt;

(3) The Bureau is unable to enforce collection in full within a reasonable period of time through collection proceedings; or

(4) Collection is against equity and good conscience or is not in the best interest of the United States.

(e) The Director is authorized to assess interest, penalties, administrative costs, or other related charges on debts that are not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 to the extent authorized under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.

§ 1073.207 Termination or suspension of collection action.

The Director may suspend or terminate collection action on a claim not in excess of $100,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, after deducting the amount of partial payments or collections, if any. Any such termination or suspension shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3711 under the procedures established in 31 CFR part 903.

§ 1073.208 Refunds.

Amounts recovered by administrative offset but later found not to be owed to the Government shall be promptly refunded. Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest.

§ 1073.209 Request for offset to other Federal agencies.

The Director may request that a debt owed to the Bureau be administratively offset against funds due and payable to a debtor by another Federal agency. In requesting administrative offset, the Bureau, as the creditor agency, will provide written certification to the Federal agency holding funds payable to the debtor, stating:

(a) That the debtor owes the debt;

(b) The amount and basis of the debt; and

(c) That the Bureau has fully complied with the requirements of its own administrative offset regulations and the applicable provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3716.

§ 1073.210 Request for offset from other Federal agencies.

Any Federal agency may request that funds due and payable to its debtor by the Bureau be administratively offset by the Bureau in order to collect a debt owed to such agency by the debtor. The Director shall initiate the requested offset only upon:

(a) Receipt of written certification from the creditor agency stating:

(1) That the debtor owes the debt;

(2) The amount and basis of the debt; and

(3) That the creditor agency has fully complied with its own administrative offset regulations and with the applicable provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3716; and

(b) A determination that collection by offset against funds payable by the Bureau would be in the best interest of the United States and that such offset would not be contrary to law.

Subpart C Salary Offset

§ 1073.301 Scope.

(a) These salary offset regulations should be read in conjunction with 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, and apply to the collection of debts owed by employees of the Bureau or other Federal agencies.

(b) These salary offset procedures do not apply:

(1) Where an employee consents to the recovery of a debt from his current pay account;

(2) To debts arising under the Internal Revenue Code (Title 26, U.S. Code), the tariff laws of the United States, or to any case where collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute.

(c) These procedures do not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver of an erroneous payment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, or from questioning the amount or validity of a debt, in the manner specified by law or these agency regulations. This subpart also does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of the collection of a debt under any other applicable statutory authority.

(d) When possible, salary offset through centralized administrative offset procedures should be attempted before seeking salary offset from a paying agency different than the creditor agency.

§ 1073.302 Notice requirement where CFPB is creditor agency.

Where the Bureau seeks salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514 as the creditor agency, the Director shall first provide the employee with a written Notice of Intent to Offset at least 30 calendar days before salary offset is to commence. The Notice of Intent to Offset shall include the following information and statements:

(a) That the Director has determined that a debt is owed to the Bureau, and the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;

(b) That the Director intends to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account;

(c) The frequency and amount of the intended deduction, stated as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of disposable pay, not to exceed 15 percent of disposable pay;

(d) That the Director intends to continue the deductions until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved;

(e) The opportunity (under terms agreeable to the Director) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset. The agreement must be in writing, signed by both the employee and the Director, and documented in the Bureau's files;

(f) The Bureau's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, including a statement that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the FCCS or these regulations;

(g) That the employee has the right to inspect and copy Bureau records not exempt from disclosure that relate to the debt or, if the employee or his or her representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive a copy of such records;

(1) Such requests must be made in writing, and identify by name and address the designated individual to whom the request should be sent.

(2) Upon receipt of such a request, the designated official shall notify the employee of the time and location where the records may be inspected and copied;

(h) That the employee has a right to a hearing regarding the existence and amount of the debt claimed or the salary offset schedule proposed by the Director, provided that the employee files a request for such a hearing with the Bureau in accordance with § 1073.303. Such a hearing will be conducted by an impartial official who is an administrative law judge or who is an other hearing official not under the supervision or control of the Director;

(i) The procedure and deadline for requesting a hearing, including the name, address, and telephone number of the designated individual to whom a request for hearing must be sent;

(j) That a request for hearing must be received by the Bureau within 15 calendar days following receipt of the Notice of Intent, and that filing of a request for hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;

(k) That the Director will initiate salary offset procedures not less than 30 days from the date of the employee's receipt of the Notice of Intent to Offset, unless the employee files a timely request for a hearing;

(l) That if a hearing is held, the administrative law judge or other hearing official will issue a decision on the hearing at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the request for the hearing, unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;

(m) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:

(1) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;

(2) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3731, or under any other applicable statutory authority; or

(3) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 or under any other applicable statutory authority;

(n) That the employee also has the right to request waiver of overpayment pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5584, and may exercise any other rights and remedies available under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and

(o) That amounts paid on or deducted from the debt which are later waived or found not to be owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee, unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary.

§ 1073.303 Procedures to request a hearing.

(a) To request a hearing, an employee must send a written request to the designated official indicated in the Notice of Intent stating why the employee believes the determination concerning the existence or amount of debt is in error. The request must be received by the Bureau within 15 calendar days following the employee's receipt of the Notice of Intent.

(b) The request must be signed by the employee and fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, which the employee believes support his or her position. The request for hearing must state whether the employee is requesting an oral or documentary hearing. If an oral hearing is requested, the request shall explain why the matter cannot be resolved by a review of documentary evidence alone.

§ 1073.304 Failure to timely submit request for a hearing.

If the Bureau does not receive an employee's request for hearing within the 15-day period set forth in § 1073.303, the employee shall not be entitled to a hearing, and salary offset may be initiated. However, the Bureau may accept an untimely request for hearing if the employee can show that the delay was because of circumstances beyond his or her control or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless otherwise aware of it).

§ 1073.305 Procedures for hearing.

(a) Obtaining the services of a hearing official. The Director must obtain the services of an impartial hearing official who is an administrative law judge or who is an other official not under the supervision or control of the Director. The Director shall designate an administrative law judge or contact an agent of another agency designated in appendix A to 5 CFR part 581 to arrange for a hearing official.

(b) Notice and format of hearing—(1) Notice. The hearing official shall determine whether the hearing shall be oral or documentary and shall notify the employee of the form of the hearing. If the hearing will be oral, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing, which must be held within 30 calendar days after the request is received, unless the employee requests that the hearing be delayed. If the hearing will be documentary, the employee shall be notified to submit evidence and written arguments in support of his or her case to the hearing official within 30 calendar days.

(2) Oral hearing. The hearing official may grant a request for an oral hearing if he or she determines that the issues raised by the employee cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone (e.g., where credibility or veracity is at issue). Witnesses who testify in oral hearings shall do so under written or recorded oath or affirmation. An oral hearing is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing. Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:

(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official in which the employee and Bureau representative are given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;

(ii) Informal meetings in which the hearing official interviews the employee; or

(iii) Formal written submissions with an opportunity for oral presentation.

(3) Documentary hearing. If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she will make the determination based upon a review of the available written record, including any documentation submitted by the employee in support of his or her position.

(4) Record. The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.

(c) Rescheduling of the hearing date. The hearing official shall reschedule a hearing if requested to do so by both parties, who shall be given reasonable notice of the time and place of this new hearing.

(d) Failure to appear or submit documentary evidence. In the absence of good cause shown, an employee who fails to appear at an oral hearing, or fails to submit documentary evidence for a documentary hearing, will have waived the right to a hearing. Furthermore, the employee will have been deemed to admit the existence and amount of the debt as described in the Notice of Intent. If the representative of the creditor agency fails to appear without good cause shown, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and issue a decision based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentation submitted by both parties.

(e) Date of decision. The hearing official shall issue a written decision based upon the evidence and information developed at the hearing, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 calendar days after the date on which the request for hearing was received by the Bureau, unless the hearing was delayed at the request of the employee. In the event of such a delay, the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed. The decision of the hearing official shall be final.

(f) Content of decision. The written decision shall include:

(1) The facts purported to evidence the nature and origin of the proposed debt;

(2) The hearing official's analysis, findings and conclusions, in light of the hearing, as to the employee's and/or Bureau's grounds, the amount and validity of the alleged debt and, where applicable, the repayment schedule.

§ 1073.306 Salary offset process.

(a) Method and source of deductions. Salary offsets under this subpart shall be deducted from current disposable pay, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section.

(b) Determination of disposable pay. The Bureau's Office of the Chief Financial Officer will consult with the Bureau's Office of Human Capital to determine the amount of a Bureau employee's disposable pay and will implement the salary offset. If the debtor is not employed by the Bureau, the agency employing the debtor will determine the amount of the employee's disposable pay and will implement the salary offset.

(c) When salary offset may begin. Deductions shall begin within three official pay periods following, as applicable, the initiation of salary offset without a hearing under § 1073.304, the decision of the hearing official under § 1073.305, or receipt of the creditor agency's request for offset where the Bureau is not the creditor agency.

(d) Amount of salary offset. The amount to be offset from each salary payment will be up to 15 percent of a debtor's disposable pay, as follows:

(1) If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the disposable pay, such debt generally will be collected in one lump sum payment;

(2) If the employee is financially unable to pay in one lump sum or the amount of the debt exceeds 15 percent of disposable pay for an officially established pay interval, collection will be made in installments. Installment deductions will be made over a period of no greater than the anticipated period of employment, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section. Installment deductions must ordinarily bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. An installment deduction will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. The creditor agency may determine that smaller deductions are appropriate based on the employee's ability to pay.

(e) Final salary or other payment. After the employee has separated either voluntarily or involuntarily from the payment agency, the payment agency may, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, make a lump sum deduction exceeding 15 percent of disposable pay from any final salary or other payments in order to satisfy a debt. If the debt cannot be liquidated by offset from any final payment due the former employee as of the date of separation, it may be offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 from later payments of any kind due the former employee from the United States, unless prohibited by law.

§ 1073.307 Voluntary repayment agreements as alternative to salary offset where the CFPB is the creditor agency.

(a) In response to a Notice of Intent, an employee may propose to voluntarily repay the debt through scheduled voluntary payments, in lieu of salary offset. An employee who wishes to repay a debt in this manner shall submit to the Bureau a written agreement proposing a repayment schedule. This proposal must be received by the Bureau within 30 calendar days following the date of the Notice of Intent.

(b) The Director shall notify the employee whether the employee's proposed voluntary repayment agreement is acceptable. It is within the discretion of the Director whether to accept or reject the debtor's proposal, or whether to propose to the debtor a modification of the proposed repayment agreement:

(1) If the Director decides that the proposed repayment agreement is unacceptable, he or she shall notify the employee and the employee shall have 30 calendar days from the date he or she received notice of the decision in which to file a request for a hearing on the proposed repayment agreement, as provided in § 1073.303; or

(2) If the Director decides that the proposed repayment agreement is acceptable or the debtor agrees to a modification proposed by the Director, the agreement shall be put in writing and signed by both the employee and the Director.

§ 1073.308 Special review of repayment agreement or salary offset due to changed circumstances.

(a) An employee subject to a voluntary repayment agreement or salary offset payable to the Bureau as creditor agency may request a special review by the Director of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary repayment, based on materially changed circumstances, including, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability. A request for special review may be made at any time.

(b) In support of a request for special review, the employee shall submit to the Bureau a detailed statement and supporting documents for the employee, his or her spouse, and dependents indicating:

(1) Income from all sources;

(2) Assets;

(3) Liabilities;

(4) Number of dependents;

(5) Monthly expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;

(6) Medical expenses; and

(7) Exceptional expenses, if any.

(c) The employee shall also file an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a statement, with supporting documents, showing why the current salary offset or payments result in extreme financial hardship to the employee.

(d) The Director shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents and determine whether the original salary offset or repayment schedule imposes extreme financial hardship on the employee, for example, by preventing the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses such as food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care. The Director shall notify the employee in writing within 30 calendar days of his or her determination.

(e) If the special review results in a revised salary offset or repayment schedule, the Director shall provide a new certification to the paying agency.

§ 1073.309 Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.

Where the Bureau is the creditor agency, it shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 1073.206 and in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717 and 31 CFR parts 900 through 904.

§ 1073.310 Refunds.

(a) Where the Bureau is the creditor agency, it shall promptly refund any amount deducted under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 when the debt is waived or otherwise found not to be owing to the United States (unless expressly prohibited by statute or regulation), or when an administrative or judicial order directs the Bureau to refund amounts deducted from the employee's current pay.

(b) Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest.

§ 1073.311 Non-waiver of rights by payment.

An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected under 5 U.S.C. 5514 shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights which the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary.

§ 1073.312 Exception to procedures.

(a) The procedures set forth in this subpart shall not apply to the following:

(1) Any adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less;

(2) A routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is made to correct an overpayment attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment and, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or

(3) Any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.

(b) In the event of a negative adjustment to pay, as described in subsection (a)(1), the Bureau will provide a clear and concise statement in the employee's earnings statement advising the employee of the previous overpayment at the time the adjustment is made.

Subpart D Administrative Wage Garnishment

§ 1073.401 Administrative wage garnishment.

The Director may collect debts from a debtor's wages by means of administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D under the procedures established in 31 CFR 285.11.

Subpart E Tax Refund Offset

§ 1073.501 Tax refund offset.

The provisions of 26 U.S.C. 6402(d) and 31 U.S.C. 3720A authorize the Secretary of the Treasury to offset a debt owed to the United States Government from the tax refund due a taxpayer. The Director may administer tax refund offsets in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720A under the procedures established in 31 CFR 285.2.

PART 1074 RULEMAKING AND GUIDANCE

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5492(a)(1), 5512(b).

Source: 77 FR 76354, Dec. 28, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A [Reserved]

Subpart B Use of Supervisory Guidance

Source: 86 FR 9268, Feb. 12, 2021, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1074.2 Purpose.

The Bureau issues regulations and guidance as part of its supervisory function. This subpart reiterates the distinctions between regulations and guidance, as stated in the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance (appendix A to this part) (Statement), and provides that the Statement is binding on the Bureau.

§ 1074.3 Implementation of the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance.

The Statement describes the official policy of the Bureau with respect to the use of supervisory guidance in the supervisory process. The Statement is binding on the Bureau.

Appendix A to Part 1074 Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance

Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance

The Bureau is issuing this statement to explain the role of supervisory guidance and to describe the Bureau's approach to supervisory guidance.

Difference Between Supervisory Guidance and Laws or Regulations

Supervisory agencies like the Bureau issue various types of supervisory guidance, including interagency statements, advisories, bulletins, policy statements, questions and answers, or frequently asked questions, to their respective supervised institutions. A law or regulation has the force and effect of law. 1 Unlike a law or regulation, supervisory guidance does not have the force and effect of law, and the Bureau does not take enforcement actions based on supervisory guidance. Rather, supervisory guidance outlines the Bureau's supervisory expectations or priorities and articulates the Bureau's general views regarding appropriate practices for a given subject area. Supervisory guidance often provides examples of practices that the Bureau generally considers consistent with applicable laws and regulations, including those designed to protect consumers. Supervised institutions at times request supervisory guidance, and such guidance is important to provide insight to industry, as well as supervisory staff, in a transparent way that helps to ensure consistency in the supervisory approach.

Ongoing Efforts To Clarify the Role of Supervisory Guidance

The Bureau is clarifying the following policies and practices related to supervisory guidance:

• The Bureau intends to limit the use of numerical thresholds or other “bright-lines” in describing expectations in supervisory guidance. Where numerical thresholds are used, the Bureau intends to clarify that the thresholds are exemplary only and not suggestive of requirements. The Bureau will continue to use numerical thresholds to tailor, and otherwise make clear, the applicability of supervisory guidance or programs to supervised institutions, and as required by statute.

• Examiners will not criticize (through the issuance of matters requiring attention, matters requiring immediate attention, matters requiring board attention, documents of resolution, and supervisory recommendations) a supervised financial institution for, and the Bureau will not issue an enforcement action on the basis of, a “violation” of or “non-compliance” with supervisory guidance. In some situations, examiners may reference (including in writing) supervisory guidance to provide examples of appropriate consumer protection and risk management practices and other actions for addressing compliance with laws or regulations.

• Supervisory criticisms should continue to be specific as to practices, operations or other matters that could cause consumer harm or could cause violations of laws, regulations, final agency orders, or other legally enforceable conditions.

• The Bureau may decide to seek public comment on supervisory guidance. Seeking public comment on supervisory guidance does not mean that the guidance is intended to be a regulation or have the force and effect of law. The comment process helps the Bureau to improve its understanding of an issue, to gather information on institutions' risk management practices, or to seek ways to achieve a supervisory objective most effectively and with the least burden on institutions.

• The Bureau will aim to reduce the issuance of multiple supervisory guidance documents on the same topic and will generally limit such multiple issuances going forward.

• The Bureau will continue efforts to make the role of supervisory guidance clear in communications to examiners and to supervised financial institutions and encourages supervised institutions with questions about this statement or any applicable supervisory guidance to discuss the questions with their appropriate agency contact.

[86 FR 9268, Feb. 12, 2021]

PART 1075 CONSUMER FINANCIAL CIVIL PENALTY FUND RULE

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1), 5497(d).

Source: 78 FR 26501, May 7, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1075.100 Scope and purpose.

Section 1017(d)(1) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1978 (12 U.S.C. 5497(d)) (Dodd-Frank Act) establishes the “Consumer Financial Civil Penalty Fund.” This part describes the conditions under which victims will be eligible for payments from the Consumer Financial Civil Penalty Fund and the amounts of the payments they may receive. This part also establishes procedures and guidelines for allocating funds from the Consumer Financial Civil Penalty Fund to classes of victims and distributing such funds to individual victims, and for allocating funds to consumer education and financial literacy programs. This part also establishes reporting requirements.

§ 1075.101 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

Bureau means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.

Bureau enforcement action means any judicial or administrative action or proceeding in which the Bureau has obtained relief with respect to a violation.

Chief Financial Officer means the Chief Financial Officer of the Bureau or any Bureau employee to whom that officer has delegated authority to act under this part. In the absence of a Chief Financial Officer of the Bureau, the Director shall designate an alternative official of the Bureau to perform the functions of the Chief Financial Officer under this part.

Civil Penalty Fund means the Consumer Financial Civil Penalty Fund established by 12 U.S.C. 5497(d).

Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board means the body, comprised of senior Bureau officials, established by the Director of the Bureau to advise on matters relating to the Civil Penalty Fund.

Class of victims means a group of similarly situated victims who suffered harm from the same or similar violations for which the Bureau obtained relief in a Bureau enforcement action.

Defendant means a party in a Bureau enforcement action that is found or alleged to have committed a violation.

Final order means a consent order or settlement issued by a court or by the Bureau, or an appealable order issued by a court or by the Bureau as to which the time for filing an appeal has expired and no appeals are pending. For purposes of this definition, “appeals” include petitions for reconsideration, review, rehearing, and certiorari.

Person means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.

Redress means any amounts—including but not limited to restitution, refunds, and damages—that a final order requires a defendant:

(1) To distribute, credit, or otherwise pay to those harmed by a violation; or

(2) To pay to the Bureau or another intermediary for distribution to those harmed by the violation.

Victim means a person harmed as a result of a violation.

Violation means any act or omission that constitutes a violation of law for which the Bureau is authorized to obtain relief pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5565(a).

§ 1075.102 Fund administrator.

(a) In general. There is established the position of Civil Penalty Fund Administrator (Fund Administrator). The Fund Administrator will report to the Chief Financial Officer. The Chief Financial Officer may, to the extent permitted by applicable law, relieve the Fund Administrator of the duties of that position without notice, without cause, and prior to the naming of a successor Fund Administrator.

(b) Powers and duties. The Fund Administrator will have the powers and duties assigned to that official in this part.

(c) Interpretation of these regulations. (1) On its own initiative or at the Fund Administrator's request, the Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board may advise or direct the Fund Administrator on the administration of the Civil Penalty Fund, including regarding the interpretation of this part and its application to particular facts and circumstances.

(2) The Fund Administrator must follow any written directions that the Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board provides pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(d) Unavailability of the Fund Administrator. If there is no Fund Administrator or if the Fund Administrator is otherwise unavailable, the Chief Financial Officer will perform the functions and duties of the Fund Administrator.

§ 1075.103 Eligible victims.

A victim is eligible for payment from the Civil Penalty Fund if a final order in a Bureau enforcement action imposed a civil penalty for the violation or violations that harmed the victim.

§ 1075.104 Payments to victims.

(a) In general. The Bureau will use funds in the Civil Penalty Fund for payments to compensate eligible victims' uncompensated harm, as described in to paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) Victims' uncompensated harm. (1) A victim's uncompensated harm is the victim's compensable harm, as described in paragraph (c) of this section, minus any compensation for that harm that the victim has received or is reasonably expected to receive.

(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a victim has received or is reasonably expected to receive compensation in the amount of:

(i) Any Civil Penalty Fund payment that the victim has previously received or will receive as a result of a previous allocation from the Civil Penalty Fund to the victim's class;

(ii) Any redress that a final order in a Bureau enforcement action orders to be distributed, credited, or otherwise paid to the victim, and that has not been suspended or waived and that the Chief Financial Officer has not determined to be uncollectible; and

(iii) Any other redress that the Bureau knows that has been distributed, credited, or otherwise paid to the victim, or has been paid to an intermediary for distribution to the victim, to the extent that:

(A) That redress compensates the victim for the same harm as would be compensated by a Civil Penalty Fund payment; and

(B) It is not unduly burdensome, in light of the amounts at stake, to determine the amount of that redress or the extent to which it compensates the victim for the same harm as would be compensated by a Civil Penalty Fund payment.

(3) If the Fund Administrator deems it impracticable to assess the uncompensated harm of individual victims in a class, each individual victim's uncompensated harm will be the victim's share of the aggregate uncompensated harm of the victim's class.

(c) Victims' compensable harm. Victims' compensable harm for purposes of this part is as follows:

(1) If a final order in a Bureau enforcement action ordered redress for a class of victims, the compensable harm of each victim in the class is equal to that victim's share of the total redress ordered, including any amounts that are suspended or waived.

(2) If a final order in a Bureau enforcement action does not order redress for a class of victims, those victims' compensable harm is as follows:

(i) If the Bureau sought redress for a class of victims but a court or administrative tribunal denied that request for redress in the final order, the victims in that class have no compensable harm.

(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, if the final order in the Bureau enforcement action specifies the amount of the victims' harm, including by prescribing a formula for calculating that harm, each victim's compensable harm is equal to that victim's share of the amount specified.

(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, if the final order in the Bureau enforcement action does not specify the amount of the victims' harm, each victim's compensable harm is equal to the victim's out-of-pocket losses that resulted from the violation or violations for which a civil penalty was imposed, except to the extent such losses are impracticable to determine.

§ 1075.105 Allocating funds from the Civil Penalty Fund—in general.

(a) In general. The Fund Administrator will allocate Civil Penalty Fund funds specified in paragraph (c) of this section to classes of victims and to consumer education and financial literacy programs as appropriate according to the schedule established in paragraph (b) of this section and the guidelines established in §§ 1075.106 and 1075.107.

(b) Schedule for making allocations. (1) Within 60 days of May 7, 2013, the Fund Administrator will establish, and publish on www.consumerfinance.gov, a schedule for allocating funds in the Civil Penalty Fund, in accordance with the following:

(i) The schedule will establish six-month periods and identify the start and end dates of those periods. The start date of one period will be the day immediately after the end date of the preceding period.

(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, the first and second periods may be longer or shorter than six months to allow future six-month periods to start and end on dates that better serve administrative efficiency. The first and second periods will constitute “six-month periods” under this part regardless of their actual length.

(iii) The start date of the first period is July 21, 2011.

(2) Within 60 days after the end of a six-month period, the Fund Administrator will allocate available funds in the Civil Penalty Fund in accordance with §§ 1075.106 and 1075.107.

(3) If the Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board determines that the schedule established under paragraph (b)(1) of this section should be changed to better serve administrative efficiency, it may change that schedule by directing the Fund Administrator to publish the new schedule on www.consumerfinance.gov. Any new schedule must comply with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. The first period of any new schedule may be shorter or longer than six months. That first period will constitute a “six-month period” under this part regardless of its actual length.

(c) Funds available for allocation. The funds available for allocation following the end of a six-month period are those funds that were in the Civil Penalty Fund on the end date of that six-month period, minus:

(1) Any funds already allocated,

(2) Any funds that the Fund Administrator determines are necessary for authorized administrative expenses, and

(3) Any funds collected pursuant to an order that has not yet become a final order.

§ 1075.106 Allocating funds to classes of victims.

(a) Allocations when there are sufficient funds available to compensate all uncompensated harm. If the funds available under § 1075.105(c) are sufficient, the Fund Administrator will allocate to each class of victims the amount necessary to compensate fully the uncompensated harm, determined under § 1075.104(b) as of the last day of the most recently concluded six-month period, of all victims in that class to whom it is practicable to make payments.

(b) Allocations when there are insufficient funds available to compensate all uncompensated harm. If the funds available under § 1075.105(c) are not sufficient to make the allocations described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Fund Administrator will allocate the available funds to classes of victims as follows:

(1) Priority to classes of victims from the most recent six-month period. The Fund Administrator will first allocate funds to classes of victims from the most recently concluded six-month period, as determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. If funds remain after allocating to each class of victims from that six-month period the amount necessary to compensate fully the uncompensated harm, determined under § 1075.104(b) as of the last day of the most recently concluded six-month period, of all victims in that class to whom it is practicable to make payments, the Fund Administrator next will allocate funds to classes of victims from the preceding six-month period, and so forth until no funds remain.

(2) Assigning classes of victims to a six-month period. For purposes of this paragraph (b), the Fund Administrator will assign each class of victims to the six-month period in which the victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b). When a class of victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b) will be determined as follows:

(i) If redress was ordered for a class of victims in a Bureau enforcement action but suspended or waived in whole or in part, the class of victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b) on the date the suspension or waiver became effective.

(ii) If redress was ordered for a class of victims in a Bureau enforcement action but determined by the Chief Financial Officer to be uncollectible in whole or in part, the class of victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b) on the date the Chief Financial Officer made that determination.

(iii) If no redress was ordered for a class of victims in a Bureau enforcement action, the class of victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b) on the date the order imposing a civil penalty became a final order.

(c) No allocation to a class of victims if making payments would be impracticable. Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, the Fund Administrator will not allocate funds available under § 1075.105(c) to a class of victims if she determines that making payments to that class of victims would be impracticable.

(d) Fund Administrator's discretion. (1) Notwithstanding any provision in this part, the Fund Administrator, in her discretion, may depart from the procedures specified by this section, including by declining to make, or altering the amount of, any allocation provided for by this section. Whenever the Fund Administrator exercises this discretion, she will provide the Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board a written explanation of the reason for departing from the procedures specified by this section.

(2) If, in allocating funds during a given time period described in § 1075.105(b)(2), the Fund Administrator exercises her discretion under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, she may allocate funds to consumer education and financial literacy programs under 1075.107 during that time period only to the same extent she could have absent that exercise of discretion.

§ 1075.107 Allocating funds to consumer education and financial literacy programs.

(a) If funds available under § 1075.105(c) remain after the Fund Administrator allocates funds as described in § 1075.106(a), the Fund Administrator may allocate those remaining funds for consumer education and financial literacy programs.

(b) The Fund Administrator shall not have the authority to allocate funds to particular consumer education or financial literacy programs or otherwise to select the particular consumer education or financial literacy programs for which allocated funds will be used.

§ 1075.108 Distributing payments to victims.

(a) Designation of a payments administrator. Upon allocating Civil Penalty Fund funds to a class of victims pursuant to § 1075.106, the Fund Administrator will designate a payments administrator who will be responsible for distributing payments to the victims in that class. A payments administrator may be any person, including a Bureau employee or contractor.

(b) Distribution plan. The payments administrator must submit to the Fund Administrator a proposed plan for the distribution of funds allocated to a class of victims. The Fund Administrator will approve, approve with modifications, or disapprove the proposed distribution plan. If the Fund Administrator disapproves a proposed plan, the payments administrator must submit a new proposed plan.

(c) Contents of plan. The Fund Administrator will instruct the payments administrator to prepare a distribution plan and may require that plan to include:

(1) Procedures for determining the amount each victim will receive. Such procedures may, but need not, include a process for submitting and approving claims.

(2) Procedures for locating and notifying victims eligible or potentially eligible for payment.

(3) The method or methods by which the payments will be made.

(4) The method or methods by which potentially eligible victims may contact the payments administrator.

(5) Any other provisions that the Fund Administrator deems appropriate.

(d) Distribution of payments. The payments administrator will make payments to victims in a class, except to the extent such payments are impracticable, in accordance with the distribution plan approved under paragraph (b) of this section and subject to the Fund Administrator's supervision.

(e) Disposition of funds remaining after attempted distribution to a class of victims. If funds allocated to a class of victims remain after a payments administrator distributes payments to that class, the payments administrator will distribute those remaining funds as follows:

(1) To the extent practicable, the payments administrator will distribute those remaining funds to victims in that class up to the amount of their remaining uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b).

(2) Any remaining funds that cannot be distributed pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section will be returned to the Civil Penalty Fund.

§ 1075.109 When payments to victims are impracticable.

(a) Individual payments. Making a payment to an individual victim will be deemed impracticable if:

(1) The payment to the victim would be of such a small amount that the victim would not be likely to redeem the payment;

(2) The payment to the victim is too small to justify the cost of locating the victim and making the payment;

(3) The victim cannot be located with effort that is reasonable in light of the amount of the payment;

(4) The victim does not timely submit information that a distribution plan requires to be submitted before a payment will be made;

(5) The victim does not redeem the payment within a reasonable time; or

(6) The Fund Administrator determines that other circumstances make it unreasonable to make a payment to the victim.

(b) Payments to a class of victims. Making payments to a class of victims will be deemed impracticable if:

(1) The expected aggregate actual payment to the class of victims is too small to justify the costs of locating the victims in the class and making payments to them;

(2) It would be impracticable under paragraph (a) of this section to make a payment to any victim in the class; or

(3) The Fund Administrator determines that other circumstances make it unreasonable to make payments to the class.

§ 1075.110 Reporting requirements.

The Fund Administrator must issue regular reports, on at least an annual basis, that describe how funds in the Civil Penalty Fund have been allocated, the basis for those allocations, and how funds that have been allocated to classes of victims have been distributed. These reports will be made available on www.consumerfinance.gov.

PART 1076 CLAIMS AGAINST THE UNITED STATES

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5492(a)(1), (11); 28 U.S.C. 2672; 28 CFR 14.11.

Source: 78 FR 47153, Aug. 5, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1076.101 Claims against a Bureau employee based on negligence, wrongful act or omission.

(a) Procedure for filing claims. A claimant, or the claimant's duly authorized agent or legal representative may present a claim against a Bureau employee based on negligence, or wrongful act or omission, as specified in 28 CFR 14.3. Claimant or claimant's duly authorized agent or legal representative must file with the General Counsel of the Bureau a completed Claim for Damage or Injury (Standard Form 95), together with appropriate evidence and information, as specified in 28 CFR 14.4. Standard Form 95 may be obtained at http://www.justice.gov/civil/docs_forms./SF-95.pdf, or from the CFPB. Claimants also may submit a claim in the form of a letter or any other writing, a written statement, an audio file, a Braille or electronic document, and/or a video, as long as the submission contains all of the requirements of an administrative claim specified in 28 CFR part 14. Claims should be mailed or delivered to the General Counsel, Legal Division, CFPB, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552, or emailed to CFPB_tortclaims@cfpb.gov.

(b) Determination of claims—(1) Delegation of authority to determine claims. The General Counsel, and such employees of the Legal Division as the General Counsel may designate are authorized to consider, ascertain, adjust, determine, compromise, and settle claims pursuant to the FTCA, as amended, and the regulations contained in 28 CFR part 14 and in this section.

(2) Disallowance of claims. If the General Counsel, or the General Counsel's designee, denies a claim, the General Counsel or designee shall notify the claimant, or the claimant's duly authorized agent or legal representative.

PART 1077 FINANCIAL DATA TRANSPARENCY

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5334.

Source: 91 FR 38269, June 25, 2026, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1077.1 Definitions.

Agencies means, collectively, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; National Credit Union Administration; Consumer Financial Protection Bureau; Federal Housing Finance Agency; Commodity Futures Trading Commission; Securities and Exchange Commission; and Department of the Treasury; and Agency means any one of the Agencies, individually.

Collection of information means a collection of information as defined in the Paperwork Reduction Act (codified at 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.).

Data standard means a standard that specifies rules by which data is described and recorded.

Geospatial Intelligence Standards Working Group means the joint technical working group established in 2005 by the National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency.

International Organization for Standardization or ISO means the independent, non-governmental international organization that develops voluntary, consensus-based, market-relevant, international standards.

§ 1077.2 Establishment of standards.

(a) Data standards. The Agencies establish the following data standards for purposes of section 124(b)(2) of the Financial Stability Act of 2010, 12 U.S.C. 5334(b)(2), as added by section 5811 of the Financial Data Transparency Act of 2022, for collections of information reported to each Agency by financial entities under the jurisdiction of such Agency and the data collected from Agencies on behalf of the Financial Stability Oversight Council.

(1) Legal entity identifier. The legal entity identifier is established to be ISO 17442—Financial Services—the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI).

(2) Other common identifiers and classifiers. The following common identifiers and classifiers are established as data standards, as applicable:

(i) For identification of swaps and security-based swaps: ISO 4914—Financial services—Unique product identifier (UPI);

(ii) For classification of financial instruments that are not swaps or security-based swaps: ISO 10962—Securities and related financial instruments—Classification of financial instruments (CFI);

(iii) For identification of dates: date as defined by ISO 8601—Date and time—Representations for information interchange;

(iv) For identification of states, possessions, or military “states” of the United States of America or geographic directionals: U.S. Postal Service Abbreviations as published in appendix B of Publication 28—Postal Addressing Standards, Mailing Standards of the United States Postal Service;

(v) For identification of countries and their subdivisions: the country code with the code for subdivisions, as appropriate, as defined by the Geopolitical Entities, Names, and Codes (GENC) developed by the Country Codes Working Group of the Geospatial Intelligence Standards Working Group; and

(vi) For identification of currencies: the alphabetic currency code as defined by ISO 4217—Currency Codes.

(3) Data transmission and schema and taxonomy format data standards—(i) Data standard. For the reporting of information pursuant to a collection of information to the Agencies and the use of schemas and taxonomies by the Agencies, the Agencies establish the data standard that the data transmission or schema and taxonomy format used have the properties set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section.

(ii) Properties. To be considered a data transmission or schema and taxonomy format that meets the data standard set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the data transmission or schema and taxonomy format must, to the extent practicable:

(A) Render data fully searchable and machine-readable;

(B) Enable high quality data through schemas, with accompanying metadata documented in machine-readable taxonomy or ontology models, which clearly define the semantic meaning of the data, as defined by the underlying regulatory information collection requirements, as appropriate;

(C) Ensure that a data element or data asset that exists to satisfy an underlying regulatory information collection requirement be consistently identified as such in associated machine-readable metadata; and

(D) Be nonproprietary or available under an open license.

(b) Consideration by the Agencies. The data standards established in paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to consideration by the Agencies of the applicability, feasibility, practicability, scaling, minimization of disruption to affected persons, and tailoring, as specified in the Financial Data Transparency Act of 2022, and the Agencies therefore may tailor the data standards they adopt, or adopt data standards not established by this section.

PART 1080 RULES RELATING TO INVESTIGATIONS

Authority: Pub. L. 111-203, title X, 12 U.S.C. 5481 et seq.

Source: 77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1080.1 Scope.

The rules of this part apply to Bureau investigations conducted pursuant to section 1052 of the Dodd-Frank Act, 12 U.S.C. 5562.

§ 1080.2 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:

Bureau means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.

Bureau investigation means any inquiry conducted by a Bureau investigator for the purpose of ascertaining whether any person is or has been engaged in any conduct that is a violation.

Bureau investigator means any attorney or investigator employed by the Bureau who is charged with the duty of enforcing or carrying into effect any Federal consumer financial law.

Custodian means the custodian or any deputy custodian designated by the Bureau for the purpose of maintaining custody of information produced pursuant to this part.

Director means the Director of the Bureau or a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director in accordance with the law.

Documentary material means the original or any copy of any book, document, record, report, memorandum, paper, communication, tabulation, chart, log, electronic file, or other data or data compilation stored in any medium, including electronically stored information.

Dodd-Frank Act means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, as amended, Public Law 111-203 (July 21, 2010), title X, codified at 12 U.S.C. 5481 et seq.

Electronically stored information (ESI) means any information stored in any electronic medium from which information can be obtained either directly or, if necessary, after translation by the responding party into a reasonably usable form.

Person means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.

Violation means any act or omission that, if proved, would constitute a violation of any provision of Federal consumer financial law.

[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

§ 1080.3 Policy as to private controversies.

The Bureau shall act only in the public interest and will not initiate an investigation or take other enforcement action when the alleged violation is merely a matter of private controversy and does not tend to affect adversely the public interest.

§ 1080.4 Initiating and conducting investigations.

The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors have the nondelegable authority to initiate investigations. Bureau investigations are conducted by Bureau investigators designated and duly authorized under section 1052 of the Dodd-Frank Act, 12 U.S.C. 5562, to conduct such investigations. Bureau investigators are authorized to exercise and perform their duties in accordance with the laws of the United States and the regulations of the Bureau.

[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

§ 1080.5 Notification of purpose.

Any person compelled to furnish documentary material, tangible things, written reports or answers to questions, oral testimony, or any combination of such material, answers, or testimony to the Bureau shall be advised of the nature of the conduct constituting the alleged violation that is under investigation and the provisions of law applicable to such violation.

§ 1080.6 Civil investigative demands.

(a) In general. In accordance with section 1052(c) of the Act, the Director of the Bureau, the Enforcement Director, and the Deputy Enforcement Directors, have the nondelegable authority to issue a civil investigative demand in any Bureau investigation directing the person named therein to produce documentary material for inspection and copying or reproduction in the form or medium requested by the Bureau; to submit tangible things; to provide a written report or answers to questions; to appear before a designated representative at a designated time and place to testify about documentary material, tangible things, or other information; and to furnish any combination of such material, things, answers, or testimony.

(1) Documentary material. (i) Civil investigative demands for the production of documentary material shall describe each class of material to be produced with such definiteness and certainty as to permit such material to be fairly identified, prescribe a return date or dates that will provide a reasonable period of time within which the material so demanded may be assembled and made available for inspection and copying or reproduction, and identify the custodian to whom such material shall be made available. Documentary material for which a civil investigative demand has been issued shall be made available as prescribed in the civil investigative demand.

(ii) Production of documentary material in response to a civil investigative demand shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the demand designates, by the person to whom the demand is directed or, if not a natural person, by any person having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production, to the effect that all of the documentary material required by the demand and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the demand is directed has been produced and made available to the custodian.

(2) Tangible things. (i) Civil investigative demands for tangible things shall describe each class of tangible things to be produced with such definiteness and certainty as to permit such things to be fairly identified, prescribe a return date or dates which will provide a reasonable period of time within which the things so demanded may be assembled and submitted, and identify the custodian to whom such things shall be submitted.

(ii) Submissions of tangible things in response to a civil investigative demand shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the demand designates, by the person to whom the demand is directed or, if not a natural person, by any person having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production, to the effect that all of the tangible things required by the demand and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the demand is directed have been submitted to the custodian.

(3) Written reports or answers to questions. (i) Civil investigative demands for written reports or answers to questions shall propound with definiteness and certainty the reports to be produced or the questions to be answered, prescribe a date or dates at which time written reports or answers to questions shall be submitted, and identify the custodian to whom such reports or answers shall be submitted.

(ii) Each reporting requirement or question in a civil investigative demand shall be answered separately and fully in writing under oath. Responses to a civil investigative demand for a written report or answers to questions shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the demand designates, by the person to whom the demand is directed or, if not a natural person, by any person responsible for answering each reporting requirement or question, to the effect that all of the information required by the demand and in the possession, custody, control, or knowledge of the person to whom the demand is directed has been submitted to the custodian.

(4) Oral testimony. (i) Civil investigative demands for the giving of oral testimony shall prescribe a date, time, and place at which oral testimony shall be commenced, and identify a Bureau investigator who shall conduct the investigation and the custodian to whom the transcript of such investigation shall be submitted. Oral testimony in response to a civil investigative demand shall be taken in accordance with the procedures for investigational hearings prescribed by §§ 1080.7 and 1080.9 of this part.

(ii) Where a civil investigative demand requires oral testimony from an entity, the civil investigative demand shall describe with reasonable particularity the matters for examination and the entity must designate one or more officers, directors, or managing agents, or designate other persons who consent to testify on its behalf. Unless a single individual is designated by the entity, the entity must designate the matters on which each designee will testify. The individuals designated must testify about information known or reasonably available to the entity and their testimony shall be binding on the entity.

(b) Manner and form of production of ESI. When a civil investigative demand requires the production of ESI, it shall be produced in accordance with the instructions provided by the Bureau regarding the manner and form of production. Absent any instructions as to the form for producing ESI, ESI must be produced in the form in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form.

(c) Meet and confer. The recipient of a civil investigative demand shall meet and confer with a Bureau investigator within 10 calendar days after receipt of the demand or before the deadline for filing a petition to modify or set aside the demand, whichever is earlier, to discuss and attempt to resolve all issues regarding compliance with the civil investigative demand. The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors may authorize the waiver of this requirement for routine third-party civil investigative demands or in other circumstances where he or she determines that a meeting is unnecessary. The meeting may be in person or by telephone.

(1) Personnel. The recipient must make available at the meeting personnel with the knowledge necessary to resolve any issues relevant to compliance with the demand. Such personnel could include individuals knowledgeable about the recipient's information or records management systems and/or the recipient's organizational structure.

(2) ESI. If the civil investigative demand seeks ESI, the recipient shall ensure that a person familiar with its ESI systems and methods of retrieval participates in the meeting.

(3) Petitions. The Bureau will not consider petitions to set aside or modify a civil investigative demand unless the recipient has meaningfully engaged in the meet and confer process described in this subsection and will consider only issues raised during the meet and confer process.

(d) Compliance. The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors are authorized to negotiate and approve the terms of satisfactory compliance with civil investigative demands and, for good cause shown, may extend the time prescribed for compliance.

(e) Petition for order modifying or setting aside demand—in general. Any petition for an order modifying or setting aside a civil investigative demand shall be filed with the Executive Secretary of the Bureau with a copy to the Enforcement Director within 20 calendar days after service of the civil investigative demand, or, if the return date is less than 20 calendar days after service, prior to the return date. Such petition shall set forth all factual and legal objections to the civil investigative demand, including all appropriate arguments, affidavits, and other supporting documentation. The attorney who objects to a demand must sign any objections.

(1) Statement. Each petition shall be accompanied by a signed statement representing that counsel for the petitioner has conferred with counsel for the Bureau pursuant to section 1080.6(c) in a good-faith effort to resolve by agreement the issues raised by the petition and has been unable to reach such an agreement. If some of the matters in controversy have been resolved by agreement, the statement shall specify the matters so resolved and the matters remaining unresolved. The statement shall recite the date, time, and place of each such meeting between counsel, and the names of all parties participating in each such meeting.

(2) Extensions of time. The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors are authorized to rule upon requests for extensions of time within which to file such petitions. Requests for extensions of time are disfavored.

(3) Bureau investigator response. Bureau investigators may, without serving the petitioner, provide the Director with a statement setting forth any factual and legal response to a petition for an order modifying or setting aside the demand.

(4) Disposition. The Director has the authority to rule upon a petition for an order modifying or setting aside a civil investigative demand. The order may be served on the petitioner via email, facsimile, or any other method reasonably calculated to provide notice of the order to the petitioner.

(f) Stay of compliance period. The timely filing of a petition for an order modifying or setting aside a civil investigative demand shall stay the time permitted for compliance with the portion challenged. If the petition is denied in whole or in part, the ruling will specify a new return date.

(g) Public disclosure. All such petitions and the Director's orders in response to those petitions are part of the public records of the Bureau unless the Bureau determines otherwise for good cause shown. Any showing of good cause must be made no later than the time the petition is filed.

[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

§ 1080.7 Investigational hearings.

(a) Investigational hearings, as distinguished from hearings in adjudicative proceedings, may be conducted pursuant to a civil investigative demand for the giving of oral testimony in the course of any Bureau investigation, including inquiries initiated for the purpose of determining whether or not a respondent is complying with an order of the Bureau.

(b) Investigational hearings shall be conducted by any Bureau investigator for the purpose of hearing the testimony of witnesses and receiving documentary material, tangible things, or other information relating to any subject under investigation. Such hearings shall be under oath or affirmation and stenographically reported, and a transcript thereof shall be made a part of the record of the investigation. The Bureau investigator conducting the investigational hearing also may direct that the testimony be recorded by audio, audiovisual, or other means, in which case the recording shall be made a part of the record of the investigation as well.

(c) In investigational hearings, the Bureau investigators shall exclude from the hearing room all persons except the person being examined, his or her counsel, the officer before whom the testimony is to be taken, any investigator or representative of an agency with which the Bureau is engaged in a joint investigation, and any individual transcribing or recording such testimony. At the discretion of the Bureau investigator, and with the consent of the person being examined, persons other than those listed in this paragraph may be present in the hearing room. The Bureau investigator shall certify or direct the individual transcribing the testimony to certify on the transcript that the witness was duly sworn and that the transcript is a true record of the testimony given by the witness. A copy of the transcript shall be forwarded promptly by the Bureau investigator to the custodian designated in section 1080.13.

§ 1080.8 Withholding requested material.

(a) Any person withholding material responsive to a civil investigative demand or any other request for production of material shall assert a claim of privilege not later than the date set for the production of material. Such person shall, if so directed in the civil investigative demand or other request for production, submit, together with such claim, a schedule of the items withheld which states, as to each such item, the type, specific subject matter, and date of the item; the names, addresses, positions, and organizations of all authors and recipients of the item; and the specific grounds for claiming that the item is privileged. The person who submits the schedule and the attorney stating the grounds for a claim that any item is privileged must sign it.

(b) A person withholding material solely for reasons described in this subsection shall comply with the requirements of this subsection in lieu of filing a petition for an order modifying or setting aside a civil investigative demand pursuant to section 1080.6(e).

(c) Disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications produced pursuant to a civil investigative demand shall be handled as follows:

(1) The disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications shall not operate as a waiver with respect to the Bureau if:

(i) The disclosure was inadvertent;

(ii) The holder of the privilege or protection took reasonable steps to prevent disclosure; and

(iii) The holder promptly took reasonable steps to rectify the error, including notifying a Bureau investigator of the claim of privilege or protection and the basis for it.

(2) After being notified, the Bureau investigator must promptly return, sequester, or destroy the specified information and any copies; must not use or disclose the information until the claim is resolved; must take reasonable steps to retrieve the information if he or she disclosed it before being notified; and, if appropriate, may sequester such material until such time as a hearing officer or court rules on the merits of the claim of privilege or protection. The producing party must preserve the information until the claim is resolved.

(3) The disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications shall waive the privilege or protection with respect to the Bureau as to undisclosed information or communications only if:

(i) The waiver is intentional;

(ii) The disclosed and undisclosed information or communications concern the same subject matter; and

(iii) They ought in fairness to be considered together.

§ 1080.9 Rights of witnesses in investigations.

(a) Any person compelled to submit documentary material, tangible things, or written reports or answers to questions to the Bureau, or to testify in an investigational hearing, shall be entitled to retain a copy or, on payment of lawfully prescribed costs, request a copy of the materials, things, reports, or written answers submitted, or a transcript of his or her testimony. The Bureau, however, may for good cause deny such a request and limit the witness to inspection of the official transcript of the testimony. Upon completion of transcription of the testimony of the witness, the witness shall be offered an opportunity to read the transcript of his or her testimony. Any changes by the witness shall be entered and identified upon the transcript by the Bureau investigator with a statement of the reasons given by the witness for making such changes. The transcript shall then be signed by the witness and submitted to the Bureau unless the witness cannot be found, is ill, waives in writing his or her right to signature, or refuses to sign. If the signed transcript is not submitted to the Bureau within 30 calendar days of the witness being afforded a reasonable opportunity to review it, the Bureau investigator, or the individual transcribing the testimony acting at the Bureau investigator's direction, shall sign the transcript and state on the record the fact of the waiver, illness, absence of the witness, or the refusal to sign, together with any reasons given for the failure to sign.

(b) Any witness compelled to appear in person at an investigational hearing may be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel as follows:

(1) Counsel for a witness may advise the witness, in confidence and upon the initiative of either counsel or the witness, with respect to any question asked of the witness where it is claimed that a witness is privileged to refuse to answer the question. Counsel may not otherwise consult with the witness while a question directed to the witness is pending.

(2) Any objections made under the rules in this part shall be made only for the purpose of protecting a constitutional or other legal right or privilege, including the privilege against self-incrimination. Neither the witness nor counsel shall otherwise object or refuse to answer any question. Any objection during an investigational hearing shall be stated concisely on the record in a nonargumentative and nonsuggestive manner. Following an objection, the examination shall proceed and the testimony shall be taken, except for testimony requiring the witness to divulge information protected by the claim of privilege or work product.

(3) Counsel for a witness may not, for any purpose or to any extent not allowed by paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, interrupt the examination of the witness by making any objections or statements on the record. Petitions challenging the Bureau's authority to conduct the investigation or the sufficiency or legality of the civil investigative demand shall be addressed to the Bureau in advance of the hearing in accordance with § 1080.6(e). Copies of such petitions may be filed as part of the record of the investigation with the Bureau investigator conducting the investigational hearing, but no arguments in support thereof will be allowed at the hearing.

(4) Following completion of the examination of a witness, counsel for the witness may, on the record, request that the Bureau investigator conducting the investigational hearing permit the witness to clarify any of his or her answers. The grant or denial of such request shall be within the sole discretion of the Bureau investigator conducting the hearing.

(5) The Bureau investigator conducting the hearing shall take all necessary action to regulate the course of the hearing to avoid delay and to prevent or restrain disorderly, dilatory, obstructionist, or contumacious conduct, or contemptuous language. Such Bureau investigator shall, for reasons stated on the record, immediately report to the Bureau any instances where an attorney has allegedly refused to comply with his or her obligations under the rules in this part, or has allegedly engaged in disorderly, dilatory, obstructionist, or contumacious conduct, or contemptuous language in the course of the hearing. The Bureau will thereupon take such further action, if any, as the circumstances warrant, including actions consistent with those described in 12 CFR 1081.107(c) to suspend or disbar the attorney from further practice before the Bureau or exclude the attorney from further participation in the particular investigation.

§ 1080.10 Noncompliance with civil investigative demands.

(a) In cases of failure to comply in whole or in part with Bureau civil investigative demands, appropriate action may be initiated by the Bureau, including actions for enforcement.

(b) The Director, the Enforcement Director, and the General Counsel of the Bureau are authorized to:

(1) Institute, on behalf of the Bureau, an enforcement proceeding in the district court of the United States for any judicial district in which a person resides, is found, or transacts business, in connection with the failure or refusal of such person to comply with, or to obey, a civil investigative demand in whole or in part if the return date or any extension thereof has passed; and

(2) Seek civil contempt or other appropriate relief in cases where a court order enforcing a civil investigative demand has been violated.

[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

§ 1080.11 Disposition.

(a) When the facts disclosed by an investigation indicate that an enforcement action is warranted, further proceedings may be instituted in Federal or State court or pursuant to the Bureau's administrative adjudicatory process. Where appropriate, the Bureau also may refer investigations to appropriate Federal, State, or foreign governmental agencies.

(b) When the facts disclosed by an investigation indicate that an enforcement action is not necessary or would not be in the public interest, the investigational file will be closed. The matter may be further investigated, at any time, if circumstances so warrant.

(c) The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors are authorized to close Bureau investigations.

[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

§ 1080.12 Orders requiring witnesses to testify or provide other information and granting immunity.

The Director has the nondelegable authority to request approval from the Attorney General of the United States for the issuance of an order requiring a witness to testify or provide other information and granting immunity under 18 U.S.C. 6004.

§ 1080.13 Custodians.

(a) The Bureau shall designate a custodian and one or more deputy custodians for material to be delivered pursuant to a civil investigative demand in an investigation. The custodian shall have the powers and duties prescribed by 12 CFR 1070.3 and section 1052 of the Act, 12 U.S.C. 5562. Deputy custodians may perform all of the duties assigned to custodians.

(b) Material produced pursuant to a civil investigative demand, while in the custody of the custodian, shall be for the official use of the Bureau in accordance with the Act; but such material shall upon reasonable notice to the custodian be made available for examination by the person who produced such material, or his or her duly authorized representative, during regular office hours established for the Bureau.

§ 1080.14 Confidential treatment of demand material and non-public nature of investigations.

(a) Documentary materials, written reports, answers to questions, tangible things or transcripts of oral testimony the Bureau receives in any form or format pursuant to a civil investigative demand are subject to the requirements and procedures relating to the disclosure of records and information set forth in part 1070 of this title.

(b) Bureau investigations generally are non-public. Bureau investigators may disclose the existence of an investigation to potential witnesses or third parties to the extent necessary to advance the investigation.

PART 1081 RULES OF PRACTICE FOR ADJUDICATION PROCEEDINGS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1), 5563(e).

Source: 90 FR 48740, Oct. 29, 2025, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Rules

§ 1081.100 Scope of the rules of practice.

This part prescribes rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudication proceedings authorized by section 1053 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Dodd-Frank Act) to ensure or enforce compliance with the provisions of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act, rules prescribed by the Bureau under title X of the Dodd-Frank Act, and any other Federal law or regulation that the Bureau is authorized to enforce. These rules of practice do not govern the conduct of Bureau investigations, investigational hearings or other proceedings that do not arise from proceedings after a notice of charges.

§ 1081.101 Expedition and fairness of proceedings.

To the extent practicable, consistent with requirements of law, the Bureau's policy is to conduct such adjudication proceedings fairly and expeditiously. In the conduct of such proceedings, the hearing officer and counsel for all parties shall make every effort at each stage of a proceeding to avoid delay. With the consent of the parties, the Director, at any time, or the hearing officer at any time prior to the filing of his or her recommended decision, may shorten any time limit prescribed by this part.

§ 1081.102 Rules of construction.

For the purposes of this part:

(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;

(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neutral gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate;

(c) Unless context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party; and

(d) To the extent this part uses terms defined by section 1002 of the Dodd-Frank Act, such terms shall have the same meaning as set forth therein, unless defined differently by § 1081.103.

§ 1081.103 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:

Dodd-Frank Act means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203 (July 21, 2010).

Adjudication proceeding means a proceeding conducted pursuant to section 1053 of the Dodd-Frank Act and intended to lead to the formulation of a final order other than a temporary order to cease and desist issued pursuant to section 1053(c) of the Dodd-Frank Act.

Bureau means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.

Chief hearing officer means the hearing officer charged with assigning hearing officers to specific proceedings, in the event there is more than one hearing officer available to the Bureau.

Counsel means any person representing a party pursuant to § 1081.107.

Decisional employee means any employee of the Bureau who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Director or the hearing officer, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under this part.

Director means the Director of the Bureau or a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director in accordance with the law.

Enforcement counsel means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the Office of Enforcement in an adjudication proceeding.

Final order means an order issued by the Bureau with or without the consent of the respondent, which has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.

General Counsel means the General Counsel of the Bureau or any Bureau employee to whom the General Counsel has delegated authority to act under this part.

Hearing officer means an administrative law judge or any other person duly authorized to preside at a hearing.

Notice of charges means the pleading that commences an adjudication proceeding, as described in § 1081.200, except that it does not include a stipulation and consent order under § 1081.200(d).

Office of Administrative Adjudication means the office of the Bureau responsible for conducting adjudication proceedings.

Office of Enforcement means the office of the Bureau responsible for enforcement of Federal consumer financial law.

Party means the Office of Enforcement, any person named as a party in any notice of charges issued pursuant to this part, and, to the extent applicable, any person who intervenes in the proceeding pursuant to § 1081.119(a) to seek a protective order.

Person means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.

Person employed by the Bureau means Bureau employees, contractors, agents, and others acting for or on behalf of the Bureau, or at its direction, including consulting experts.

Respondent means the party named in the notice of charges.

State means any State, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, American Samoa, or the United States Virgin Islands or any federally recognized Indian tribe, as defined by the Secretary of the Interior under section 104(a) of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994, 25 U.S.C. 479a-1(a).

§ 1081.104 Authority of the hearing officer.

(a) General rule. The hearing officer shall have all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay. No provision of this part shall be construed to limit the powers of the hearing officers provided by the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 556, 557.

(b) Powers. The powers of the hearing officer include but are not limited to the power:

(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;

(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas duces tecum, and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas or orders;

(3) To take depositions or cause depositions to be taken;

(4) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;

(5) To regulate the course of a proceeding and the conduct of parties and their counsel;

(6) To reject written submissions that materially fail to comply with the requirements of this part, and to deny confidential status to documents and testimony without prejudice until a party complies with all relevant rules of this chapter;

(7) To hold conferences for settlement, simplification of the issues, or any other proper purpose and require the attendance at any such conference of at least one representative of each party who has authority to negotiate concerning the resolution of issues in controversy;

(8) To inform the parties as to the availability of one or more alternative means of dispute resolution, and to encourage the use of such methods;

(9) To certify questions to the Director for his or her determination in accordance with the rules of this part;

(10) To consider and rule upon, as justice may require, all procedural and other motions appropriate in adjudication proceedings;

(11) To issue and file recommended decisions;

(12) To recuse himself or herself by motion made by a party or on his or her own motion;

(13) To issue such sanctions against parties or their counsel as may be necessary to deter repetition of sanctionable conduct or comparable conduct by others similarly situated, as provided for in this part or as otherwise necessary to the appropriate conduct of hearings and related proceedings, provided that no sanction shall be imposed before providing the sanctioned person an opportunity to show cause why no such sanction should issue; and

(14) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.

§ 1081.105 Assignment, substitution, performance, disqualification of hearing officer.

(a) How assigned. In the event that more than one hearing officer is available to the Bureau for the conduct of proceedings under this part, the presiding hearing officer shall be designated by the chief hearing officer, who shall notify the parties of the hearing officer designated.

(b) Interference. Hearing officers shall not be subject to the supervision or direction of, or responsible to, any officer, employee, or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Bureau, and all direction by the Bureau to the hearing officer concerning any adjudication proceedings shall appear in and be made part of the record.

(c) Disqualification of hearing officers. (1) When a hearing officer deems himself or herself disqualified to preside in a particular proceeding, he or she shall issue a notice stating that he or she is withdrawing from the matter and setting forth the reasons therefore.

(2) Any party who has a reasonable, good faith basis to believe that a hearing officer has a personal bias, or is otherwise disqualified from hearing a case, may make a motion to the hearing officer that the hearing officer withdraw. The motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit setting forth the facts alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification. Such motion shall be filed at the earliest practicable time after the party learns, or could reasonably have learned, of the alleged grounds for disqualification. If the hearing officer does not disqualify himself or herself within 14 days, he or she shall certify the motion to the Director pursuant to § 1081.211, together with any statement he or she may wish to have considered by the Director. The Director shall promptly determine the validity of the grounds alleged, either directly or on the report of another hearing officer appointed to conduct a hearing for that purpose, and shall either direct the reassignment of the matter or confirm the hearing officer's continued role in the matter.

(d) Unavailability of hearing officer. In the event that the hearing officer withdraws or is otherwise unable to perform the duties of the hearing officer, the chief hearing officer or the Director shall designate another hearing officer to serve.

§ 1081.106 Deadlines.

The deadlines for action by the hearing officer established by §§ 1081.203, 1081.205, 1081.211, 1081.212, and 1081.400, or elsewhere in this part, confer no substantive rights on respondents.

§ 1081.107 Appearance and practice in adjudication proceedings.

(a) Appearance before the Bureau or a hearing officer. (1) By attorneys. Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State may represent others before the Bureau if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Bureau or by a court of the United States or of any State.

(2) By non-attorneys. So long as such individual is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Bureau:

(i) An individual may appear on his or her own behalf;

(ii) A member of a partnership may represent the partnership;

(iii) A duly authorized officer of a corporation, trust, or association may represent the corporation, trust or association; and

(iv) A duly authorized officer or employee of any government unit, agency, or authority may represent that unit, agency, or authority.

(3) Notice of appearance. Any individual acting as counsel on behalf of a party, including Enforcement counsel, shall file a notice of appearance at or before the time that the individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudication proceeding. The notice of appearance must include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party, and if applicable, must include the attorney's jurisdiction of admission or qualification, attorney identification number, and a statement by the appearing attorney attesting to his or her good standing within the legal profession. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudication proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that he or she is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the hearing officer, continue to accept service until a new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a pro se basis. The notice of appearance shall provide the representative's email address, telephone number, and business address and, if different from the representative's addresses, electronic or other address at which the represented party may be served.

(b) Sanctions. Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudication proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding. An order imposing a sanction must describe the sanctioned conduct and explain the basis for the sanction.

(c) Standards of conduct; disbarment. (1) All attorneys practicing before the Bureau shall conform to the standards of ethical conduct required by the bars of which the attorneys are members.

(2) If for good cause shown, the Director believes that any attorney is not conforming to such standards, or that an attorney or counsel to a party has otherwise engaged in conduct warranting disciplinary action, the Director may issue an order requiring such person to show cause why he should not be suspended or disbarred from practice before the Bureau. The alleged offender shall be granted due opportunity to be heard in his or her own defense and may be represented by counsel. Thereafter, if warranted by the facts, the Director may issue against the attorney or counsel an order of reprimand, suspension, or disbarment.

§ 1081.108 Good faith certification.

(a) General requirement. Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice of charges shall be signed by at least one counsel of record in his or her individual name and shall state counsel's address, email address, and telephone number. A party who acts as his or her own counsel shall sign his or her individual name and state his or her address, email address, and telephone number on every filing or submission of record. Papers filed by electronic transmission may be signed with an “/s/” notation, which shall be deemed the signature of the party or representative whose name appears below the signature line.

(b) Effect of signature. (1) The signature of counsel or a party shall constitute a certification that: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.

(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the hearing officer shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the filer.

(c) Effect of making oral motion or argument. The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, his or her statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.

(d) Sanctions. Counsel or a party that fails to abide by the requirements of this section may be subject to sanctions pursuant to § 1081.104(b)(13).

§ 1081.109 Conflict of interest.

(a) Conflict of interest in representation. No person shall appear as counsel for another person in an adjudication proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The hearing officer may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.

(b) Certification and waiver. If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudication proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 1081.107(a)(3):

(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and

(2) That each such party and/or non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.

§ 1081.110 Ex parte communication.

(a) Definitions. (1) For purposes of this section, ex parte communication means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudication proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:

(i) An interested person not employed by the Bureau (including such person's counsel); and

(ii) The hearing officer handling the proceeding, the Director, or a decisional employee.

(2) Exception. A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an ex parte communication.

(3) Pendency of an adjudication proceeding means the time from when the Bureau issues a notice of charges, unless the person responsible for the communication has knowledge that a notice of charges will be issued, in which case the pendency of an adjudication shall commence at the time of his or her acquisition of such knowledge, or from when an order by a court of competent jurisdiction remanding a Bureau decision and order for further proceedings becomes effective, until the time the Director enters his or her final decision and order in the proceeding and the time permitted to seek reconsideration of that decision and order has elapsed. For purposes of this section, an order of remand by a court of competent jurisdiction shall be deemed to become effective when the Bureau's right to petition for review or for a writ of certiorari has lapsed without a petition having been filed, or when such a petition has been denied. If a petition for reconsideration of a Bureau decision is filed pursuant to § 1081.406, the matter shall be considered to be a pending adjudication proceeding until the time the Bureau enters an order disposing of the petition.

(b) Prohibited ex parte communications. During the pendency of an adjudication proceeding, except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law or as otherwise authorized by this part:

(1) No interested person not employed by the Bureau shall make or knowingly cause to be made to the Director, or to the hearing officer, or to any decisional employee, an ex parte communication; and

(2) The Director, the hearing officer, or any decisional employee shall not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person not employed by the Bureau any ex parte communication.

(c) Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication. If an ex parte communication prohibited by paragraph (b) of this section is received by the hearing officer, the Director, or any decisional employee, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity, within 14 days of receipt of service of the ex parte communication, to file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances.

(d) Sanctions—(1) Adverse action on claim. Upon receipt of an ex parte communication knowingly made or knowingly caused to be made by a party and prohibited by paragraph (b) of this section, the Director or hearing officer, as appropriate, may, to the extent consistent with the interests of justice and the policy of the underlying statutes, require the party to show cause why his claim or interest in the proceeding should not be dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of such violation.

(2) Discipline of persons practicing before the Bureau. The Director may, to the extent not prohibited by law, censure, suspend, or revoke the privilege to practice before the Bureau of any person who makes, or solicits the making of, an unauthorized ex parte communication.

(e) Separation of functions. Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law, the hearing officer may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless upon notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Bureau in a case, other than the Director, may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision, except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.

§ 1081.111 Filing of papers.

(a) Filing. The following papers must be filed by parties in an adjudication proceeding: the notice of charges, proof of service of the notice of charges, notices of appearance, answer, the disclosure statement required under § 1081.201(e), motion, brief, request for issuance or enforcement of a subpoena, response, opposition, reply, notice of appeal, or petition for reconsideration. The hearing officer shall file all written orders, rulings, notices, or requests. Any papers required to be filed shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Adjudication, except as otherwise provided in this section.

(b) Manner of filing. Unless otherwise specified by the Director or the hearing officer, filing may be accomplished by:

(1) Electronic transmission in accordance with guidance issued by the Office of Administrative Adjudication; or

(2) Any of the following methods if respondent demonstrates, in accordance with guidance issued by the Office of Administrative Adjudication, that electronic filing is not practicable:

(i) Personal delivery;

(ii) Delivery to a reliable commercial courier service or overnight delivery service; or

(iii) Mailing the papers through the U.S. Postal Service by First Class Mail, Registered Mail, Certified Mail or Express Mail.

(c) Papers filed in an adjudication proceeding are presumed to be public. Unless otherwise ordered by the Director or the hearing officer, all papers filed in connection with an adjudication proceeding are presumed to be open to the public. The Bureau may provide public access to and publish any papers filed in an adjudication proceeding except if there is a pending motion for a protective order filed pursuant to § 1081.119, or if there is an order from the Director, hearing officer, or a Federal court authorizing the confidential treatment of the papers filed.

§ 1081.112 Formal requirements as to papers filed.

(a) Form. All papers filed by parties must:

(1) Set forth the name, address, telephone number, and email address of the counsel or party making the filing;

(2) Be double-spaced (except for single-spaced footnotes and single-spaced indented quotations) and printed or typewritten on 8 1/2 x 11 inch paper in 12-point or larger font;

(3) Include at the head of the paper, or on a title page, a caption setting forth the title of the case, the docket number of the proceeding, and a brief descriptive title indicating the purpose of the paper;

(4) Be paginated with margins at least one inch wide; and

(5) If filed by other than electronic means, be stapled, clipped, or otherwise fastened in a manner that lies flat when opened.

(b) Signature. All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 1081.108.

(c) Number of copies. Unless otherwise specified by the Director or the hearing officer, one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed if filing is by electronic transmission. If filing is accomplished by any other means, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits must be filed.

(d) Authority to reject document for filing. The Office of Administrative Adjudication or the hearing officer may reject a document for filing that materially fails to comply with this part.

(e) Sensitive personal information. Sensitive personal information means an individual's Social Security number, taxpayer identification number, financial account number, credit card or debit card number, driver's license number, State-issued identification number, passport number, date of birth (other than year), and any sensitive health information identifiable by individual, such as an individual's medical records. Sensitive personal information shall not be included in, and must be redacted or omitted from, filings unless the person filing the paper determines that such information is relevant or otherwise necessary for the conduct of the proceeding. If the person filing a paper determines the sensitive personal information contained in the paper is relevant or necessary to the proceeding, the person shall file the paper in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, including filing an expurgated copy of the paper with the sensitive personal information redacted.

(f) Confidential treatment of information in certain filings. A party seeking confidential treatment of information contained in a filing must contemporaneously file either a motion requesting such treatment in accordance with § 1081.119 or a copy of the order from the Director, hearing officer, or Federal court authorizing such confidential treatment. The filing must comply with any applicable order of the Director or hearing officer and must be accompanied by:

(1) A complete, sealed copy of the documents containing the materials as to which confidential treatment is sought, with the allegedly confidential material clearly marked as such, and with the first page of the document labeled “Under Seal.” If the movant seeks or has obtained a protective order against disclosure to other parties as well as the public, copies of the documents shall not be served on other parties; and

(2) An expurgated copy of the materials as to which confidential treatment is sought, with the allegedly confidential materials redacted. The redacted version shall indicate any omissions with brackets or ellipses, and its pagination and depiction of text on each page shall be identical to that of the sealed version.

(g) Certificate of service. Any papers filed in an adjudication proceeding shall contain proof of service on all other parties or their counsel in the form of a statement of the date and manner of service and of the names of the persons served, certified by the person who made service. The certificate of service must be affixed to the papers filed and signed in accordance with § 1081.108.

§ 1081.113 Service of papers.

(a) When required. In every adjudication proceeding, each paper required to be filed by § 1081.111 shall be served upon each party in the proceeding in accordance with the provisions of this section; provided, however, that absent an order to the contrary, no service shall be required for motions which are to be heard ex parte.

(b) Upon a person represented by counsel. Whenever service is required to be made upon a person represented by counsel who has filed a notice of appearance pursuant to § 1081.107(a)(3), service shall be made pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section upon counsel, unless service upon the person represented is ordered by the Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate.

(c) Method of service. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section or as otherwise ordered by the hearing officer or the Director, service shall be made by delivering a copy of the filing by one of the following methods:

(1) Transmitting the papers by electronic transmission where the persons so serving each other have consented to service by specified electronic transmission and provided the Bureau and the parties with notice of the means for service by electronic transmission (e.g., email address or facsimile number);

(2) Handing a copy to the person required to be served; or leaving a copy at the person's office with a clerk or other person in charge thereof, or, if there is no one in charge, leaving it in a conspicuous place therein; or, if the office is closed or the person to be served has no office, leaving it at the person's dwelling or usual place of abode with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing therein;

(3) Mailing the papers through the U.S. Postal Service by First Cass Mail, Registered Mail, Certified Mail, or Express Mail delivery addressed to the person; or

(4) Sending the papers through a third-party commercial courier service or express delivery service.

(d) Service of certain papers by the Office of Enforcement or the Office of Administrative Adjudication—(1) Service of a notice of charges by the Office of Enforcement. (i) To individuals. Notice of a proceeding shall be made to an individual by delivering a copy of the notice of charges to the individual or to an agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive such notice. Delivery, for purposes of this paragraph (d)(1)(i), means handing a copy of the notice to the individual; or leaving a copy at the individual's office with a clerk or other person in charge thereof; or leaving a copy at the individual's dwelling house or usual place of abode with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing therein; or sending a copy of the notice addressed to the individual through the U.S. Postal Service by Registered Mail, Certified Mail or Express Mail delivery, or by third-party commercial carrier, for overnight delivery and obtaining a confirmation of receipt.

(ii) To corporations or entities. Notice of a proceeding shall be made to a person other than a natural person by delivering a copy of the notice of charges to an officer, managing or general agent, or any other agent authorized by appointment or law to receive such notice, by any method specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.

(iii) Upon persons registered with the Bureau. In addition to any other method of service specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, notice may be made to a person currently registered with the Bureau by sending a copy of the notice of charges addressed to the most recent business address shown on the person's registration form by U.S. Postal Service certified, registered, or Express Mail and obtaining a confirmation of receipt or attempted delivery.

(iv) Upon persons in a foreign country. Notice of a proceeding to a person in a foreign country may be made by any method specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, or by any other method reasonably calculated to give notice, provided that the method of service used is not prohibited by the law of the foreign country.

(v) Record of service. The Office of Enforcement will maintain and file a record of service of the notice of charges on parties, identifying the party given notice, the method of service, the date of service, the address to which service was made, and the person who made service. If service is made in person, the certificate of service shall state, if available, the name of the individual to whom the notice of charges was given. If service is made by U.S. Postal Service Registered Mail, Certified Mail, or Express Mail, the Office of Enforcement will maintain the confirmation of receipt or attempted delivery. If service is made to an agent authorized by appointment to receive service, the certificate of service shall be accompanied by evidence of the appointment.

(vi) Waiver of service. In lieu of service as set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, the party may be provided a copy of the notice of charges by First Class Mail or other reliable means if a waiver of service is obtained from the party and placed in the record.

(2) Service of recommended decisions and final orders. Recommended decisions issued by the hearing officer and final orders issued by the Bureau shall be served promptly on each party pursuant to any method of service authorized under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Such decisions and orders may also be served by electronic transmission if the party to be served has agreed to accept such service in writing, signed by the party or its counsel, and has provided the Bureau with information concerning the manner of electronic transmission.

§ 1081.114 Construction of time limits.

(a) General rule. In computing any time period prescribed by this part, by order of the Director or a hearing officer, or by any applicable statute, exclude the day of the event that triggers the period, count every day, including intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, and include the last day of the period unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.

(b) When papers are deemed to be filed or served. Filing and service are deemed to be effective:

(1) In the case of personal service or same day commercial courier delivery, upon actual receipt by person served;

(2) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, Express Mail delivery, First Class Mail, Registered Mail, or Certified Mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or

(3) In the case of electronic transmission, upon transmission.

(c) Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers. Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:

(1) If service is made by First Class Mail, Registered Mail, or Certified Mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;

(2) If service is made by Express Mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or

(3) If service is made by electronic transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period.

§ 1081.115 Change of time limits.

(a) Except as otherwise provided by law, the hearing officer may, in any proceeding before him or her, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by this part or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After appeal to the Director pursuant to § 1081.402, the Director may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted on the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or on the Director's or the hearing officer's own motion, as appropriate.

(b) Considerations in determining whether to extend time limits or grant postponements, adjournments and extensions. Motions for extensions of time filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section are generally disfavored. In determining whether to grant any motions, the Director or hearing officer, as appropriate, shall consider, in addition to any other relevant factors:

(1) The length of the proceeding to date;

(2) The number of postponements, adjournments or extensions already granted;

(3) The stage of the proceedings at the time of the motion;

(4) The impact of the motion on the hearing officer's ability to complete the proceeding in the time specified by § 1081.400(a); and

(5) Any other matters as justice may require.

(c) Time limit. Postponements, adjournments, or extensions of time for filing papers shall not exceed 21 days unless the Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate, states on the record or sets forth in a written order the reasons why a longer period of time is necessary.

(d) No effect on deadline for recommended decision. The granting of any extension of time pursuant to this section shall not affect any deadlines set pursuant to § 1081.400(a).

§ 1081.116 Witness fees and expenses.

Respondents shall pay to witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions on their behalf the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a deposition subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by any respondent requesting the issuance of a subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the Office of Enforcement is the party requesting the subpoena. The Bureau shall pay to witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions on behalf of the Office of Enforcement the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, but the Bureau need not tender such fees in advance.

§ 1081.117 Bureau's right to conduct examination, collect information.

Nothing contained in this part limits in any manner the right of the Bureau to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any person, to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law, to collect information in order to monitor the market for risks to consumers in the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services, or to otherwise gather information in accordance with law.

§ 1081.118 Collateral attacks on adjudication proceedings.

Unless a court of competent jurisdiction, or the Director for good cause, so directs, if an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudication proceeding, the challenged adjudication proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudication proceeding within the times prescribed in this part shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.

§ 1081.119 Confidential information; protective orders.

(a) Rights of third parties. Any party that intends to disclose information obtained from a third party that is subject to a claim of confidentiality must provide notice to the third party at least seven days prior to the proposed disclosure of such information. In response to such notice, the third party may consent to the disclosure of such information, which may be conditioned on the entry of an appropriate protective order, or may intervene in the proceeding for the limited purpose of moving for a protective order pursuant to this section. Any written filing by a party that contains such confidential information must be accompanied by a certification that proper notice was provided. The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party which contains such confidential information constitutes a certification that proper notice was provided. A third party wishing to intervene for purposes of protecting its confidential information may file a single motion, in conformity with all applicable rules, setting forth the basis of both the third party's right to intervene and the basis for the protective order, in conformity with paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) Procedure. In any adjudication proceeding, a party, including a third party who has intervened pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, may file a motion requesting a protective order to limit from disclosure to other parties or to the public documents or testimony that contain confidential information. The motion should include a general summary or extract of the documents or testimony without revealing confidential details, and a copy of the proposed protective order. A motion for confidential treatment of documents should be filed in accordance with § 1081.112(f), and all other applicable rules.

(c) Basis for issuance. Documents and testimony introduced in a public hearing, or filed in connection with an adjudication proceeding, are presumed to be public. A motion for a protective order shall be granted:

(1) Upon a finding that public disclosure will likely result in a clearly defined, serious injury to the party or third party requesting confidential treatment;

(2) After finding that the material constitutes sensitive personal information, as defined in § 1081.112(e);

(3) If all parties, including third parties to the extent their information is at issue, stipulate to the entry of a protective order; or

(4) Where public disclosure is prohibited by law.

(d) Requests for additional information supporting confidentiality. The hearing officer may require a movant under paragraph (b) of this section to furnish in writing additional information with respect to the grounds for confidentiality. Failure to supply the information so requested within seven days from the date of receipt by the movant of a notice of the information required shall be deemed a waiver of the objection to public disclosure of that portion of the documents to which the additional information relates, unless the hearing officer shall otherwise order for good cause shown at or before the expiration of such seven-day period.

(e) Confidentiality of documents pending decision. Pending a determination of a motion under this section, the documents as to which confidential treatment is sought and any other documents that would reveal the confidential information in those documents shall be maintained under seal and shall be disclosed only in accordance with orders of the hearing officer. Any order issued in connection with a motion under this section shall be public unless the order would disclose information as to which a protective order has been granted, in which case that portion of the order that would reveal the protected information shall be nonpublic.

§ 1081.120 Settlement.

(a) Availability. Any respondent in an adjudication proceeding instituted under this part, may, at any time, propose in writing an offer of settlement.

(b) Procedure. An offer of settlement shall state that it is made pursuant to this section; shall recite or incorporate as a part of the offer the provisions of paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section; shall be signed by the person making the offer, not by counsel; and shall be submitted to enforcement counsel.

(c) Consideration of offers of settlement. (1) Offers of settlement shall be considered when time, the nature of the proceedings, and the public interest permit.

(2) Any settlement offer shall be presented to the Director with a recommendation, except that, if the recommendation is unfavorable, the offer shall not be presented to the Director unless the person making the offer so requests.

(3) By submitting an offer of settlement, the person making the offer waives, subject to acceptance of the offer:

(i) All hearings pursuant to the statutory provisions under which the proceeding has been instituted;

(ii) The filing of proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law;

(iii) Proceedings before, and a recommended decision by, a hearing officer;

(iv) All post-hearing procedures;

(v) Judicial review by any court; and

(vi) Any objection to the jurisdiction of the Bureau under section 1053 of the Dodd-Frank Act.

(4) By submitting an offer of settlement the person further waives:

(i) Such provisions of this part or other requirements of law as may be construed to prevent any Bureau employee from participating in the preparation of, or advising the Director as to, any order, opinion, finding of fact, or conclusion of law to be entered pursuant to the offer; and

(ii) Any right to claim bias or prejudgment by the Director based on the consideration of or discussions concerning settlement of all or any part of the proceeding.

(5) If the Director rejects the offer of settlement, the person making the offer shall be notified of the Director's action and the offer of settlement shall be deemed withdrawn. The rejected offer shall not constitute a part of the record in any proceeding against the person making the offer, provided, however, that rejection of an offer of settlement does not affect the continued validity of waivers pursuant to paragraph (c)(4) of this section with respect to any discussions concerning the rejected offer of settlement.

(d) Consent orders. If the Director accepts the offer of settlement, all terms and conditions of a settlement entered into under this section shall be recorded in a written stipulation signed by all settling parties, and a consent order concluding the proceeding. The stipulation and consent order shall be filed pursuant to § 1081.111, and shall recite or incorporate as a part of the stipulation the provisions of paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section. The Director will then issue a consent order, which shall be a final order concluding the proceeding.

§ 1081.121 Cooperation with other agencies.

It is the policy of the Bureau to cooperate with other governmental agencies to avoid unnecessary overlap or duplication of regulatory functions.

Subpart B Initiation of Proceedings and Prehearing Rules

§ 1081.200 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice of charges.

(a) Commencement of proceeding. A proceeding governed by subparts A through D of this part is commenced when the Bureau, through the Office of Enforcement, files a notice of charges in accordance with § 1081.111. The notice of charges must be served by the Office of Enforcement upon the respondent in accordance with § 1081.113(d)(1).

(b) Contents of a notice of charges. The notice of charges must set forth:

(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the Bureau's jurisdiction over the proceeding;

(2) A statement of the matters of fact and law showing that the Bureau is entitled to relief;

(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;

(4) The time and place of the hearing as required by law or regulation;

(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;

(6) That the answer shall be filed and served in accordance with subpart A of this part; and

(7) The docket number for the adjudication proceeding.

(c) Publication of notice of charges. Unless otherwise ordered by the Director, the notice of charges shall be given general circulation by release to the public, by publication on the Bureau's website and, where directed by the hearing officer or the Director, by publication in the Federal Register. The Bureau may publish any notice of charges after 14 days from the date of service except if there is a pending motion for a protective order filed pursuant to § 1081.119.

(d) Commencement of proceeding through a consent order. Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, where the parties agree to settlement before the filing of a notice of charges, a proceeding may be commenced by filing a stipulation and consent order. The stipulation and consent order shall be filed pursuant to § 1081.111. The stipulation shall contain the information required under § 1081.120(d), and the consent order shall contain the information required under paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section. The proceeding shall be concluded upon issuance of the consent order by the Director.

(e) Voluntary dismissal—(1) Without an order. The Office of Enforcement may voluntarily dismiss an adjudication proceeding without an order entered by a hearing officer by filing either:

(i) A notice of dismissal before the respondent(s) serves an answer; or

(ii) A stipulation of dismissal signed by all parties who have appeared.

(2) Effect. Unless the notice or stipulation states otherwise, the dismissal is without prejudice, and does not operate as an adjudication on the merits.

§ 1081.201 Answer and disclosure statement and notification of financial interest.

(a) Time to file answer. Within 14 days of service of the notice of charges, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice of charges.

(b) Content of answer. An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice of charges and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice of charges which is not denied in the answer shall be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice of charges that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.

(c) If the allegations of the complaint are admitted. If the respondent elects not to contest the allegations of fact set forth in the notice of charges, the answer shall consist of a statement that the respondent admits all of the material allegations to be true. Such an answer shall constitute a waiver of hearings as to the facts alleged in the notice of charges, and together with the notice of charges will provide a record basis on which the hearing officer shall issue a recommended decision containing appropriate findings and conclusions and a proposed order disposing of the proceeding. In such an answer, the respondent may, however, reserve the right to submit proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law under § 1081.305.

(d) Default. (1) Failure of a respondent to file an answer within the time provided shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations of the notice of charges and to authorize the hearing officer, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the notice of charges and to enter a recommended decision containing appropriate findings and conclusions. In such cases, respondent shall have no right to appeal pursuant to § 1081.402, but must instead proceed pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(2) A motion to set aside a default shall be made within a reasonable time, state the reasons for the failure to appear or defend, and specify the nature of the proposed defense in the proceeding. In order to prevent injustice and on such conditions as may be appropriate, the hearing officer, at any time prior to the filing of the recommended decision, or the Director, at any time, may for good cause shown set aside a default.

(e) Disclosure statement and notification of financial interest—(1) Who must file; contents. A respondent, nongovernmental intervenor, or nongovernmental amicus must file a disclosure statement and notification of financial interest that:

(i) Identifies any parent corporation, any publicly owned corporation owning ten percent or more of its stock, and any publicly owned corporation not a party to the proceeding that has a financial interest in the outcome of the proceeding and the nature of that interest; or

(ii) States that there are no such corporations.

(2) Time for filing; supplemental filing. A respondent, nongovernmental intervenor, or nongovernmental amicus must:

(i) File the disclosure statement with its first appearance, pleading, motion, response, or other request addressed to the hearing officer or the Bureau; and

(ii) Promptly file a supplemental statement if any required information changes.

§ 1081.202 Amended pleadings.

(a) Amendments before the hearing. The notice of charges, answer, or any other pleading may be amended or supplemented only with the opposing party's written consent or leave of the hearing officer. The respondent must answer an amended notice of charges within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice of charges, or within 14 days after service of the amended notice of charges, whichever is later, unless the hearing officer orders otherwise for good cause.

(b) Amendments to conform to the evidence. When issues not raised in the notice of charges or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice of charges or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice of charges or answer, the hearing officer may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the hearing officer that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The hearing officer may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.

§ 1081.203 Scheduling conference.

(a) Meeting of the parties before scheduling conference. As early as practicable before the scheduling conference described in paragraph (b) of this section, counsel for the parties shall meet to discuss the nature and basis of their claims and defenses and the possibilities for a prompt settlement or resolution of the case. The parties shall also discuss and agree, if possible, on the matters set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) Scheduling conference. Within 21 days of service of the notice of charges or such other time as the parties and hearing officer may agree, counsel for all parties shall appear before the hearing officer in person at a specified time and place or by telephone for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting or telephone conference is called a scheduling conference. At the scheduling conference, counsel for the parties shall be prepared to address:

(1) Determination of the dates and location of the hearing, including, in proceedings under section 1053(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act, whether the hearing should commence later than 60 days after service of the notice of charges;

(2) Simplification and clarification of the issues;

(3) Amendments to pleadings;

(4) Settlement of any or all issues;

(5) Production of documents as set forth in § 1081.206 and of witness statements as set forth in § 1081.207, and prehearing production of documents in response to subpoenas duces tecum as set forth in § 1081.208;

(6) Whether or not the parties intend to move for summary disposition of any or all issues;

(7) Whether the parties intend to seek the deposition of witnesses pursuant to § 1081.209;

(8) A schedule for the exchange of expert reports and the taking of expert depositions, if any; and

(9) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.

(c) Transcript. The hearing officer, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.

(d) Scheduling order. At or within seven days following the conclusion of the scheduling conference, the hearing officer shall serve on each party an order setting forth the date and location of the hearing and any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.

(e) Failure to appear, default. Any person who is named in a notice of charges as a person against whom findings may be made or sanctions imposed and who fails to appear, in person or through counsel, at a scheduling conference of which he or she has been duly notified may be deemed in default pursuant to § 1081.201(d)(1). A party may make a motion to set aside a default pursuant to § 1081.201(d)(2).

(f) Public access. The scheduling conference shall be public unless the hearing officer determines, based on the standard set forth in § 1081.119(c), that the conference (or any part thereof) shall be closed to the public.

§ 1081.204 Consolidation and severance of actions.

(a) Consolidation. (1) On the motion of any party, or on the hearing officer's own motion, the hearing officer may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.

(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule may be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.

(b) Severance. The hearing officer may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the hearing officer finds that:

(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and

(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.

§ 1081.205 Non-dispositive motions.

(a) Scope. This section applies to all motions except motions to dismiss and motions for summary disposition. A non-dispositive motion filed pursuant to another section of this part shall comply with any specific requirements of that section and this section to the extent these requirements are not inconsistent.

(b) In writing. (1) Unless made during a hearing or conference, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.

(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.

(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the hearing officer. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.

(c) Oral motions. The Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate, may order that an oral motion be submitted in writing.

(d) Responses and replies. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, within 14 days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the hearing officer or the Director, as appropriate, any party may file a written response to a motion. The hearing officer shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.

(2) Reply briefs, if any, may be filed within seven days after service of the response.

(3) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.

(e) Length limitations. No motion subject to this section (together with the brief in support of the motion) or brief in response to the motion shall exceed 15 pages in length, exclusive of pages containing the table of contents, table of authorities, and any addendum that consists solely of copies of applicable cases, pertinent legislative provisions or rules, and exhibits. No reply brief shall exceed six pages in length, exclusive of pages containing the table of contents, table of authorities, and any addendum that consists solely of copies of applicable cases, pertinent legislative provisions or rules, and exhibits. Motions for leave to file motions and briefs in excess of these limitations are disfavored.

(f) Meet and confer requirements. Each motion filed under this section shall be accompanied by a signed statement representing that counsel for the moving party has conferred or made a good faith effort to confer with opposing counsel in a good faith effort to resolve by agreement the issues raised by the motion and has been unable to reach such an agreement. If some of the matters in controversy have been resolved by agreement, the statement shall specify the matters so resolved and the matters remaining unresolved.

(g) Ruling on non-dispositive motions. Unless otherwise provided by a relevant section of this part, a hearing officer shall rule on non-dispositive motions. Such ruling shall be issued within 14 days after the expiration of the time period allowed for the filing of all motion papers authorized by this section. The Director, for good cause, may extend the time allowed for a ruling.

(h) Proceedings not stayed. A motion under consideration by the Director or the hearing officer shall not stay proceedings before the hearing officer unless the Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate, so orders.

(i) Dilatory motions. Frivolous, dilatory, or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.

§ 1081.206 Availability of documents for inspection and copying.

For purposes of this section, the term documents shall include any book, document, record, report, memorandum, paper, communication, tabulation, chart, logs, electronic files, or other data or data compilations stored in any medium.

(a) Documents to be available for inspection and copying. (1) Unless otherwise provided by this section, or by order of the hearing officer, the Office of Enforcement shall make available for inspection and copying by any respondent documents obtained by the Office of Enforcement prior to the institution of proceedings, from persons not employed by the Bureau, in connection with the investigation leading to the institution of proceedings. Such documents shall include:

(i) Any documents turned over in response to civil investigative demands or other written requests to provide documents or to be interviewed issued by the Office of Enforcement;

(ii) All transcripts and transcript exhibits; and

(iii) Any other documents obtained from persons not employed by the Bureau.

(2) In addition, the Office of Enforcement shall make available for inspection and copying by any respondent:

(i) Each civil investigative demand or other written request to provide documents or to be interviewed issued by the Office of Enforcement in connection with the investigation leading to the institution of proceedings; and

(ii) Any final examination or inspection reports prepared by any other Office of the Bureau if the Office of Enforcement either intends to introduce any such report into evidence or to use any such report to refresh the recollection of, or impeach, any witness.

(3) Nothing in paragraph (a) of this section shall limit the right of the Office of Enforcement to make available any other document, or shall limit the right of a respondent to seek access to or production pursuant to subpoena of any other document, or shall limit the authority of the hearing officer to order the production of any document pursuant to subpoena.

(4) Nothing in paragraph (a) of this section shall require the Office of Enforcement to produce a final examination or inspection report prepared by any other Office of the Bureau or any other government agency to a respondent who is not the subject of that report.

(b) Documents that may be withheld. (1) The Office of Enforcement may withhold a document if:

(i) The document is privileged;

(ii) The document is an internal memorandum, note or writing prepared by a person employed by the Bureau or another government agency, other than an examination or supervision report as specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, or would otherwise be subject to the work product doctrine and will not be offered in evidence;

(iii) The document was obtained from a domestic or foreign governmental entity and is either not relevant to the resolution of the proceeding or was provided on condition that the information not be disclosed;

(iv) The document would disclose the identity of a confidential source;

(v) Applicable law prohibits the disclosure of the document; or

(vi) The hearing officer grants leave to withhold a document or category of documents as not relevant to the subject matter of the proceeding or otherwise, for good cause shown.

(2) Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section authorizes the Office of Enforcement in connection with an adjudication proceeding to withhold material exculpatory evidence in the possession of the Office that would otherwise be required to be produced pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Withheld document list. The hearing officer may require the Office of Enforcement to produce a list of documents or categories of documents withheld pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section or to submit to the hearing officer any document withheld, except for any documents that are being withheld pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, in which case the Office of Enforcement shall inform the other parties of the fact that such documents are being withheld, but no further disclosures regarding those documents shall be required. The hearing officer may determine whether any withheld document should be made available for inspection and copying. When similar documents are withheld pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section, those documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The hearing officer retains discretion to determine when an identification by category is insufficient.

(d) Timing of inspection and copying. Unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer, the Office of Enforcement shall commence making documents available to a respondent for inspection and copying pursuant to this section no later than 14 days after service of the notice of charges.

(e) Place of inspection and copying. Documents subject to inspection and copying pursuant to this section shall be made available to the respondent for inspection and copying at the Bureau office where they are ordinarily maintained, or at such other place as the parties, in writing, may agree. A respondent shall not be given custody of the documents or leave to remove the documents from the Bureau's offices pursuant to the requirements of this section other than by written agreement of the Office of Enforcement. Such agreement shall specify the documents subject to the agreement, the date they shall be returned, and such other terms or conditions as are appropriate to provide for the safekeeping of the documents. If the Office of Enforcement determines that production of some or all the documents required to be produced under this section can be produced in an electronic format, the Office of Enforcement may instead produce the documents in an electronic format.

(f) Copying costs and procedures. The respondent may obtain a photocopy of any documents made available for inspection or, at the discretion of the Office of Enforcement, electronic copies of such documents. The respondent shall be responsible for the cost of photocopying. Unless otherwise ordered, charges for copies made by the Office of Enforcement at the request of the respondent will be at the rate charged pursuant to part 1070. The respondent shall be given access to the documents at the Bureau's offices or such other place as the parties may agree during normal business hours for copying of documents at the respondent's expense.

(g) Duty to supplement. If the Office of Enforcement acquires information that it intends to rely upon at a hearing after making its disclosures under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Office of Enforcement shall supplement its disclosures to include such information.

(h) Failure to make documents available—harmless error. In the event that a document required to be made available to a respondent pursuant to this section is not made available by the Office of Enforcement, no rehearing or redecision of a proceeding already heard or decided shall be required unless the respondent establishes that the failure to make the document available was not harmless error.

(i) Disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications; scope of waiver; obligations of receiving party. (1) The disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications by any party during an adjudication proceeding shall not operate as a waiver if:

(i) The disclosure was inadvertent;

(ii) The holder of the privilege or protection took reasonable steps to prevent disclosure; and

(iii) The holder promptly took reasonable steps to rectify the error, including notifying any party that received the information or communication of the claim and the basis for it.

(2) After being notified, the receiving party must promptly return, sequester, or destroy the specified information and any copies it has; must not use or disclose the information until the claim is resolved; must take reasonable steps to retrieve the information if the party disclosed it before being notified; and may promptly present the information to the hearing officer under seal for a determination of the claim. The producing party must preserve the information until the claim is resolved.

(3) The disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications by any party during an adjudication proceeding shall waive the privilege or protection, with respect to other parties to the proceeding, as to undisclosed information or communications only if:

(i) The waiver is intentional;

(ii) The disclosed and undisclosed information or communications concern the same subject matter; and

(iii) They ought in fairness to be considered together.

§ 1081.207 Production of witness statements.

(a) Availability. Any respondent may move that the Office of Enforcement produce for inspection and copying any statement of any person called or to be called as a witness by the Office of Enforcement that pertains, or is expected to pertain, to his or her direct testimony and that would be required to be produced pursuant to the Jencks Act, 18 U.S.C. 3500, if the adjudication proceeding were a criminal proceeding. For purposes of this section, the term “statement” shall have the meaning set forth in 18 U.S.C. 3500(e). Such production shall be made at a time and place fixed by the hearing officer and shall be made available to any party, provided, however, that the production must be made under conditions intended to preserve the items to be inspected or copied.

(b) Failure to produce—harmless error. In the event that a statement required to be made available to a respondent pursuant to this section is not made available by the Office of Enforcement, no rehearing or redecision of a proceeding already heard or decided shall be required unless the respondent establishes that the failure to make the statement available was not harmless error.

§ 1081.208 Subpoenas.

(a) Availability. In connection with any hearing ordered by the hearing officer, a party may request the issuance of one or more subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses at the designated time and place of the hearing, or the production of documentary or other tangible evidence returnable at any designated time or place.

(b) Procedure. Unless made on the record at a hearing, requests for issuance of a subpoena shall be made in writing, and filed and served on each party pursuant to subpart A of this part. The request must contain a proposed subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of testimony or documents sought.

(c) Signing may be delegated. A hearing officer may authorize issuance of a subpoena, and may delegate the manual signing of the subpoena to any other person.

(d) Standards for issuance. The hearing officer shall promptly issue any subpoena requested pursuant to this section. However, where it appears to the hearing officer that the subpoena sought may be unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may, in his or her discretion, as a condition precedent to the issuance of the subpoena, require the person seeking the subpoena to show further the general relevance and reasonable scope of the testimony or other evidence sought. If after consideration of all the circumstances, the hearing officer determines that the subpoena or any of its terms is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena, or issue it only upon such conditions as fairness requires. In making the foregoing determination, the hearing officer may inquire of the other participants whether they will stipulate to the facts sought to be proved.

(e) Service. Upon issuance by the hearing officer, the party making the request shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party in accordance with § 1081.113(c). Subpoenas may be served in any State, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any State, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.

(f) Tender of fees required. When a subpoena compelling the attendance of a person at a hearing is issued at the request of anyone other than an officer or agency of the United States, service is valid only if the subpoena is accompanied by a tender to the subpoenaed person of the fees for one day's attendance and mileage specified by § 1081.116.

(g) Production of documentary material. Production of documentary material in response to a subpoena shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the subpoena designates, by the person to whom the subpoena is directed or, if not a natural person, by any person having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production, to the effect that all of the documentary material required by the subpoena and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the subpoena is directed has been produced and made available to the custodian.

(h) Motion to quash or modify. (1) Procedure. Any person to whom a subpoena is directed, or who is an owner, creator, or the subject of the documents that are to be produced pursuant to a subpoena, or any party may, prior to the time specified therein for compliance, but in no event more than seven days after the date of service of such subpoena, move that the subpoena be quashed or modified. Such motion shall be filed and served on all parties pursuant to subpart A of this part. Notwithstanding § 1081.205, the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued or enforcement counsel may, within seven days of service of the motion, file a response to the motion. Reply briefs are not permitted unless requested by the hearing officer. Filing a motion to modify a subpoena does not stay the movant's obligation to comply with those portions of the subpoena that the person has not sought to modify.

(2) Standards governing motion to quash or modify. If compliance with the subpoena would be unreasonable, oppressive, or unduly burdensome, the hearing officer shall quash or modify the subpoena, or may order return of the subpoena only upon specified conditions. These conditions may include but are not limited to a requirement that the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued shall make reasonable compensation to the person to whom the subpoena was addressed for the cost of copying or transporting evidence to the place for return of the subpoena.

(i) Enforcing subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the hearing officer which directs compliance with all or any portion of a subpoena, the Bureau's General Counsel may, on its own motion or at the request of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued, apply to an appropriate United States district court, in the name of the Bureau but on relation of such party, for an order requiring compliance with so much of the subpoena as the hearing officer has not quashed or modified, unless, in the judgment of the General Counsel, the enforcement of such subpoena would be inconsistent with law and the policies of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act. Failure to request that the Bureau's General Counsel seek enforcement of a subpoena constitutes a waiver of any claim of prejudice predicated upon the unavailability of the testimony or evidence sought.

§ 1081.209 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.

(a) General rules. (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness's testimony for the record may request in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section that the hearing officer issue a subpoena, including a subpoena duces tecum, requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The hearing officer may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon a showing that:

(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness, or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;

(ii) The witness's unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;

(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and

(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.

(2) In addition to making a showing as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the request for a deposition subpoena must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of testimony and documents sought, and the time and place for taking the deposition. Any request to record the deposition by audio-visual means must be made in the request for a deposition subpoena.

(3) Any requested deposition subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the hearing officer on his or her own motion requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued. However, where it appears to the hearing officer that the deposition subpoena sought may be unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may, in his or her discretion, as a condition precedent to the issuance of the deposition subpoena, require the person seeking the deposition subpoena to show further the general relevance and reasonable scope of the testimony or other evidence sought. If after consideration of all the circumstances, the hearing officer determines that the deposition subpoena or any of its terms is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the deposition subpoena, or issue it only upon such conditions as fairness requires. In making the foregoing determination, the hearing officer may inquire of the other participants whether they will stipulate to the facts sought to be proved.

(4) Unless the hearing officer orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than 14 days' notice to the witness and all parties.

(b) Procedure. Unless made on the record at a hearing, requests for issuance of a deposition subpoena shall be made in writing, and filed and served on each party pursuant to subpart A of this part.

(c) Signing may be delegated. A hearing officer may authorize issuance of a deposition subpoena, and may delegate the manual signing of the deposition subpoena to any other person.

(d) Service. Upon issuance by the hearing officer, the party making the request shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party in accordance with § 1081.113(c). Deposition subpoenas may be served in any State, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any State, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.

(e) Tender of fees required. When a subpoena compelling the attendance of a person at a deposition is issued at the request of anyone other than an officer or agency of the United States, service is valid only if the subpoena is accompanied by a tender to the subpoenaed person of the fees for one day's attendance and mileage specified by § 1081.116.

(f) Motion to quash or modify. (1) Procedure. Any person to whom a deposition subpoena is directed, or who is an owner, creator, or the subject of the documents that are to be produced pursuant to a deposition subpoena, or any party may, prior to the time specified therein for compliance, but in no event more than ten days after the date of service of such subpoena, move that the deposition subpoena be quashed or modified. Such motion must include a statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify the deposition subpoena, and shall be filed and served on all parties pursuant to subpart A of this part. Notwithstanding § 1081.205, the party on whose behalf the deposition subpoena was issued or enforcement counsel may, within five days of service of the motion, file a response to the motion. Reply briefs are not permitted unless requested by the hearing officer.

(2) Standards governing motion to quash or modify. If compliance with the deposition subpoena would be unreasonable, oppressive or unduly burdensome, or the deposition subpoena does not meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the hearing officer shall quash or modify the deposition subpoena, or may order return of the deposition subpoena only upon specified conditions. These conditions may include but are not limited to a requirement that the party on whose behalf the deposition subpoena was issued shall make reasonable compensation to the person to whom the deposition subpoena was addressed for the cost of copying or transporting evidence to the place for return of the deposition subpoena.

(g) Procedure upon deposition. (1) Depositions shall be taken before any person before whom a deposition may be taken pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (the “deposition officer”).

(2) The witness being deposed may have an attorney present during the deposition.

(3) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Objections to questions of evidence shall be noted by the deposition officer upon the deposition, but a deposition officer other than the hearing officer shall not have the power to decide on the competency, materiality, or relevance of evidence. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.

(4) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.

(5) The original deposition transcript and exhibits shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Adjudication. The cost of the transcript shall be paid by the party requesting the deposition. A copy of the deposition shall be available to the deponent and each party for purchase at prescribed rates.

(h) Enforcing subpoenas. Any party may move before the hearing officer for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the hearing officer which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under this section, the Bureau's General Counsel may, on its own motion or at the request of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued, apply to an appropriate United States district court, in the name of the Bureau but on relation of such party, for an order requiring compliance with so much of the subpoena as the hearing officer has not quashed or modified, unless, in the judgment of the General Counsel, the enforcement of such subpoena would be inconsistent with law and the policies of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act. Failure to request that the Bureau seek enforcement of a subpoena constitutes a waiver of any claim of prejudice predicated upon the unavailability of the testimony or evidence sought.

§ 1081.210 Expert discovery.

(a) At a date set by the hearing officer at the scheduling conference, each party shall serve the other with a report prepared by each of its expert witnesses. Each party shall serve the other parties with a list of any rebuttal expert witnesses and a rebuttal report prepared by each such witness not later than 28 days after the deadline for service of expert reports, unless another date is set by the hearing officer. A rebuttal report shall be limited to rebuttal of matters set forth in the expert report for which it is offered in rebuttal. If material outside the scope of fair rebuttal is presented, a party may file a motion not later than seven days after the deadline for service of rebuttal reports, seeking appropriate relief with the hearing officer, including striking all or part of the report, leave to submit a surrebuttal report by the party's own experts, or leave to call a surrebuttal witness and to submit a surrebuttal report by that witness.

(b) No party may call an expert witness at the hearing unless he or she has been listed and has provided reports as required by this section, unless otherwise directed by the hearing officer at a scheduling conference. Each side will be limited to calling at the hearing five expert witnesses, including any rebuttal or surrebuttal expert witnesses. A party may file a motion seeking leave to call additional expert witnesses due to extraordinary circumstances.

(c) Each report shall be signed by the expert and contain a complete statement of all opinions to be expressed and the basis and reasons therefore; the data, materials, or other information considered by the witness in forming the opinions; any exhibits to be used as a summary of or support for the opinions; the qualifications of the witness, including a list of all publications authored or co-authored by the witness within the preceding ten years; the compensation to be paid for the study and testimony; and a listing of any other cases in which the witness has testified or sought to testify as an expert at trial or hearing, or by deposition within the preceding four years. A rebuttal or surrebuttal report need not include any information already included in the initial report of the witness.

(d) A party may depose any person who has been identified as an expert whose opinions may be presented at trial. Unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer, a deposition of any expert witness shall be conducted after the disclosure of a report prepared by the witness in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, and at least seven days prior to the deadline for submission of rebuttal expert reports. A deposition of an expert witness shall be completed no later than 14 days before the hearing unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer. No expert deposition shall exceed eight hours on the record, absent agreement of the parties or an order of the hearing officer for good cause shown. Expert depositions shall be conducted pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 1081.209(g).

(e) A party may not discover facts known or opinions held by an expert who has been retained or specifically employed by another party in anticipation of litigation or preparation for the hearing and who is not listed as a witness for the hearing. A party may not discover drafts of any report required by this section, regardless of the form in which the draft is recorded, or any communications between another party's attorney and any of that other party's experts, regardless of the form of the communications, except to the extent that the communications:

(1) Relate to compensation for the testifying expert's study or testimony;

(2) Identify facts or data that the other party's attorney provided and that the testifying expert considered in forming the opinions to be expressed; or

(3) Identify assumptions that the other party's attorney provided and that the testifying expert relied on in forming the opinions to be expressed.

(f) The hearing officer shall have the discretion to dispense with the requirement of expert discovery in appropriate cases.

§ 1081.211 Interlocutory review.

(a) Availability. The Director may, at any time, direct that any matter be submitted to him or her for review. Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, the hearing officer may, on his or her own motion or on the motion of any party, certify any matter for interlocutory review by the Director. This section is the exclusive remedy for review of a hearing officer's ruling or order prior to the Director's consideration of the entire proceeding.

(b) Procedure. Any party's motion for certification of a ruling or order for interlocutory review shall be filed with the hearing officer within seven days of service of the ruling or order, shall specify the ruling or order or parts thereof for which interlocutory review is sought, shall attach any other portions of the record on which the moving party relies, and shall otherwise comply with § 1081.205. Notwithstanding § 1081.205, any response to such a motion must be filed within seven days of service of the motion. The hearing officer shall issue a ruling on the motion within seven days of the deadline for filing a response.

(c) Certification process. Unless the Director directs otherwise, a ruling or order may not be submitted to the Director for interlocutory review unless the hearing officer, upon the hearing officer's motion or upon the motion of a party, certifies the ruling or order in writing. The hearing officer shall not certify a ruling or order unless:

(1) The ruling or order would compel testimony of Bureau officers or employees, or those from another governmental agency, or the production of documentary evidence in the custody of the Bureau or another governmental agency;

(2) The ruling or order involves a motion for disqualification of the hearing officer pursuant to § 1081.105(c)(2);

(3) The ruling or order suspended or barred an individual from appearing before the Bureau pursuant to § 1081.107(c); or

(4) Upon motion by a party, the hearing officer is of the opinion that:

(i) The ruling or order involves a controlling question of law as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion; and

(ii) An immediate review of the ruling or order is likely to materially advance the completion of the proceeding or subsequent review will be an inadequate remedy.

(d) Interlocutory review. A party whose motion for certification has been denied by the hearing officer may petition the Director for interlocutory review.

(e) Director review. The Director shall determine whether or not to review a ruling or order certified under this section or the subject of a petition for interlocutory review. Interlocutory review is disfavored, and the Director will grant a petition to review a hearing officer's ruling or order prior to his or her consideration of a recommended decision only in extraordinary circumstances. The Director may decline to review a ruling or order certified by a hearing officer pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section or the petition of a party who has been denied certification if he or she determines that interlocutory review is not warranted or appropriate under the circumstances, in which case he or she may summarily deny the petition. If the Director determines to grant the review, he or she will review the matter and issue his or her ruling and order in an expeditious fashion, consistent with the Bureau's other responsibilities.

(f) Proceedings not stayed. The filing of a motion requesting that the hearing officer certify any of his or her prior rulings or orders for interlocutory review or a petition for interlocutory review filed with the Director, and the grant of any such review, shall not stay proceedings before the hearing officer unless he or she, or the Director, shall so order. The Director will not consider a motion for a stay unless the motion shall have first been made to the hearing officer.

§ 1081.212 Dispositive motions.

(a) Dispositive motions. This section governs the filing of motions to dismiss and motions for summary disposition. The filing of any such motion does not obviate a party's obligation to file an answer or take any other action required by this part or by an order of the hearing officer, unless expressly so provided by the hearing officer.

(b) Motions to dismiss. A respondent may file a motion to dismiss asserting that, even assuming the truth of the facts alleged in the notice of charges, it is entitled to dismissal as a matter of law.

(c) Motion for summary disposition. A party may make a motion for summary disposition asserting that the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:

(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and

(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.

(d) Filing of motions for summary disposition and responses. (1) After a respondent's answer has been filed and documents have been made available to the respondent for inspection and copying pursuant to § 1081.206, any party may move for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding.

(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends support his or her position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which he or she contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as may be submitted in support of a motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.

(3) Any affidavit or declaration submitted in support of or in opposition to a motion for summary disposition shall set forth such facts as would be admissible in evidence, shall show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated therein, and must be signed under oath and penalty of perjury.

(e) Page limitations for dispositive motions. A motion to dismiss or for summary disposition, together with any brief in support of the motion (exclusive of any declarations, affidavits, or attachments) shall not exceed 35 pages in length. Motions for extensions of this length limitation are disfavored.

(f) Opposition and reply response time and page limitation. Any party, within 21 days after service of a dispositive motion, or within such time period as allowed by the hearing officer, may file a response to such motion. The length limitations set forth in paragraph (e) of this section shall also apply to such responses. Any reply brief filed in response to an opposition to a dispositive motion shall be filed within seven days after service of the opposition. Reply briefs shall not exceed ten pages.

(g) Oral argument. At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the hearing officer may hear oral argument on a dispositive motion.

(h) Decision on motion. Within 30 days following the expiration of the time for filing all responses and replies to any dispositive motion, the hearing officer shall determine whether the motion shall be granted. If the hearing officer determines that dismissal or summary disposition is warranted, he or she shall issue a recommended decision granting the motion. If the hearing officer finds that no party is entitled to dismissal or summary disposition, he or she shall make a ruling denying the motion. If it appears that a party, for good cause shown, cannot present by affidavit, prior to hearing, facts essential to justify opposition to the motion, the hearing officer shall deny or defer the motion.

§ 1081.213 Partial summary disposition.

If on a motion for summary disposition under § 1081.212 a decision is not rendered upon the whole case or for all the relief asked and a hearing is necessary, the hearing officer shall issue an order specifying the facts that appear without substantial controversy and directing further proceedings in the action. The facts so specified shall be deemed established.

§ 1081.214 Prehearing conferences.

(a) Prehearing conferences. The hearing officer may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to meet with him or her (in person or by telephone) at a prehearing conference for further discussion of the issues outlined in § 1081.203, or for discussion of any additional matters that in the view of the hearing officer will aid in an orderly disposition of the proceeding, including but not limited to:

(1) Identification of potential witnesses and limitation on the number of witnesses;

(2) The exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, exhibits, and any other materials;

(3) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity, and admissibility into evidence of documents;

(4) Matters of which official notice may be taken; and

(5) Whether the parties intend to introduce prior sworn statements of witnesses as set forth in § 1081.303(h).

(b) Transcript. The hearing officer, in his or her discretion, may require that a prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.

(c) Public access. Any prehearing conferences shall be public unless the hearing officer determines, based on the standard set forth in § 1081.119(c), that the conference (or any part thereof) shall be closed to the public.

§ 1081.215 Prehearing submissions.

(a) Generally. Within the time set by the hearing officer, but in no case later than 14 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party:

(1) A prehearing statement, which shall include an outline or narrative summary of its case or defense, and the legal theories upon which it will rely;

(2) A final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including the name and address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;

(3) Any prior sworn statements that a party intends to admit into evidence pursuant to § 1081.303(h);

(4) A list of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and

(5) Any stipulations of fact or liability.

(b) Expert witnesses. Each party who intends to call an expert witness shall also serve, in addition to the information required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a statement of the expert's qualifications, a listing of other proceedings in which the expert has given or sought to give expert testimony at trial or hearing or by deposition within the preceding four years, and a list of publications authored or co-authored by the expert within the preceding ten years, to the extent such information has not already been provided pursuant to § 1081.210.

(c) Effect of failure to comply. No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.

§ 1081.216 Amicus participation.

(a) Availability. An amicus brief may be filed only if:

(1) A motion for leave to file the brief has been granted;

(2) The brief is accompanied by written consent of all parties;

(3) The brief is filed at the request of the Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate; or

(4) The brief is presented by the United States or an officer or agency thereof, or by a State or a political subdivision thereof.

(b) Procedure. An amicus brief may be filed conditionally with the motion for leave. The motion for leave shall identify the interest of the movant and shall state the reasons why a brief of an amicus curiae is desirable. Except as all parties otherwise consent, any amicus curiae shall file its brief within the time allowed the party whose position the amicus will support, unless the Director or hearing officer, as appropriate, for good cause shown, grants leave for a later filing. In the event that a later filing is allowed, the order granting leave to file shall specify when an opposing party may reply to the brief.

(c) Motions. A motion for leave to file an amicus brief shall be subject to § 1081.205.

(d) Formal requirements as to amicus briefs. Amicus briefs shall be filed pursuant to § 1081.111 and shall comply with the requirements of § 1081.112 and shall be subject to the length limitation set forth in § 1081.212(e).

(e) Oral argument. An amicus curiae may move to present oral argument at any hearing before the hearing officer, but such motions will be granted only for extraordinary reasons.

Subpart C Hearings

§ 1081.300 Public hearings.

All hearings in adjudication proceedings shall be public unless a confidentiality order is entered by the hearing officer pursuant to § 1081.119 or unless otherwise ordered by the Director on the grounds that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest.

§ 1081.301 Failure to appear.

Failure of a respondent to appear in person or by a duly authorized counsel at the hearing constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and may be deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice of charges. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the hearing officer shall file a recommended decision containing findings of fact and addressing the relief sought in the notice of charges.

§ 1081.302 Conduct of hearings.

All hearings shall be conducted in a fair, impartial, expeditious, and orderly manner. Enforcement counsel shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement counsel shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement, and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the hearing officer shall fix the order.

§ 1081.303 Evidence.

(a) Burden of proof. Enforcement counsel shall have the burden of proof of the ultimate issue(s) of the Bureau's claims at the hearing.

(b) Admissibility. (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law. Irrelevant, immaterial, and unreliable evidence shall be excluded.

(2) Evidence, even if relevant, may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice or confusion of the issues; if the evidence would be misleading; or based on considerations of undue delay, waste of time, or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.

(3) Evidence that constitutes hearsay may be admitted if it is relevant, material, and bears satisfactory indicia of reliability so that its use is fair. Hearsay is a statement, other than one made by the declarant while testifying at the hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted. If otherwise meeting the standards for admissibility described in this section, transcripts of depositions, investigational hearings, prior testimony in Bureau or other proceedings, and any other form of hearsay shall be admissible and shall not be excluded solely on the ground that they are or contain hearsay.

(4) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this part. Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this part solely on that basis.

(c) Official notice. Official notice may be taken of any material fact that is not subject to reasonable dispute in that it is either generally known or capable of accurate and ready determination by resort to sources whose accuracy cannot reasonably be questioned. If official notice is requested or is taken of a material fact not appearing in the evidence in the record, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to disprove such noticed fact.

(d) Documents. (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.

(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection or visitation, prepared by the Bureau, a prudential regulator, as that term is defined in section 1002(24) of the Dodd-Frank Act, or by a State regulatory agency, is presumptively admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.

(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the hearing officer's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.

(4) As respondents are in the best position to determine the nature of documents generated by such respondents and which come from their own files, the burden of proof is on the respondent to introduce evidence to rebut a presumption that such documents are authentic and kept in the regular course of business.

(e) Objections. (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.

(2) Whenever evidence is excluded from the record, the party offering such evidence may make an offer of proof, which shall be included in the record. Rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, shall be retained pursuant to § 1081.306(b) so as to be available for consideration by any reviewing authority.

(3) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.

(f) Stipulations. (1) The parties may, at any stage of the proceeding, stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.

(2) Unless the hearing officer directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.

(g) Presentation of evidence. (1) A witness at a hearing for the purpose of taking evidence shall testify under oath or affirmation.

(2) A party is entitled to present its case or defense by sworn oral testimony and documentary evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination as, in the discretion of the hearing officer, may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts.

(3) An adverse party, or an officer, agent, or employee thereof, and any witness who appears to be hostile, unwilling, or evasive, may be interrogated by leading questions and may also be contradicted and impeached by the party calling him or her.

(4) The hearing officer shall exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to:

(i) Make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth;

(ii) Avoid needless consumption of time; and

(iii) Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.

(5) The hearing officer may permit a witness to appear at a hearing via video conference or telephone for good cause shown.

(h) Introducing prior sworn statements of witnesses into the record. At a hearing, any party wishing to introduce a prior, sworn statement of a witness, not a party, otherwise admissible in the proceeding, may make a motion setting forth the reasons therefore. If only part of a statement is offered in evidence, the hearing officer may require that all relevant portions of the statement be introduced. If all of a statement is offered in evidence, the hearing officer may require that portions not relevant to the proceeding be excluded. A motion to introduce a prior sworn statement may be granted if:

(1) The witness is dead;

(2) The witness is out of the United States, unless it appears that the absence of the witness was procured by the party offering the prior sworn statement;

(3) The witness is unable to attend or testify because of age, sickness, infirmity, imprisonment, or other disability;

(4) The party offering the prior sworn statement has been unable to procure the attendance of the witness by subpoena; or

(5) In the discretion of the hearing officer, it would be desirable, in the interests of justice, to allow the prior sworn statement to be used. In making this determination, due regard shall be given to the presumption that witnesses will testify orally in an open hearing. If the parties have stipulated to accept a prior sworn statement in lieu of live testimony, consideration shall also be given to the convenience of the parties in avoiding unnecessary expense.

§ 1081.304 Record of the hearing.

(a) Reporting and transcription. Hearings shall be stenographically reported and transcribed under the supervision of the hearing officer, and the original transcript shall be a part of the record and the sole official transcript. The live oral testimony of each witness may be video recorded digitally, in which case the video recording and the written transcript of the testimony shall be made part of the record. Copies of transcripts shall be available from the reporter at prescribed rates.

(b) Corrections. Corrections of the official transcript may be made only when they involve errors affecting substance and then only in the manner herein provided. Corrections ordered by the hearing officer or agreed to in a written stipulation signed by all counsel and parties not represented by counsel, and approved by the hearing officer, shall be included in the record, and such stipulations, except to the extent they are capricious or without substance, shall be approved by the hearing officer. Corrections shall not be ordered by the hearing officer except upon notice and opportunity for the hearing of objections. Such corrections shall be made by the official reporter by furnishing substitute type pages, under the usual certificate of the reporter, for insertion in the official record. The original uncorrected pages shall be retained in the files of the Bureau.

(c) Closing of the hearing record. Upon completion of the hearing, the hearing officer shall issue an order closing the hearing record after giving the parties seven days to determine if the record is complete or needs to be supplemented. The hearing officer shall retain the discretion to permit or order correction of the record as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.

§ 1081.305 Post-hearing filings.

(a) Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs. (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the hearing officer shall serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed promptly after that filing. Any party may file with the hearing officer proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 28 days following service of this notice by the hearing officer or within such longer period as may be ordered by the hearing officer.

(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.

(b) Responsive briefs. Responsive briefs may be filed within 14 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Responsive briefs must be strictly limited to responding to matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a responsive brief. Unless directed by the hearing officer, reply briefs are not permitted.

(c) Order of filing. The hearing officer shall not order the filing by any party of any post-hearing brief or responsive brief in advance of the other party's filing of its post-hearing brief or responsive brief.

§ 1081.306 Record in proceedings before hearing officer; retention of documents; copies.

(a) Contents of the record. The record of the proceeding shall consist of:

(1) The notice of charges, the answer, and any amendments thereto;

(2) Each motion, submission, or other paper filed in the proceedings, and any amendments and exceptions to or regarding them;

(3) Each stipulation, transcript of testimony, and any document or other item admitted into evidence;

(4) Any transcript of a conference or hearing before the hearing officer;

(5) Any amicus briefs filed pursuant to § 1081.216;

(6) With respect to a request to disqualify a hearing officer or to allow the hearing officer's withdrawal under § 1081.105(c), each affidavit or transcript of testimony taken and the decision made in connection with the request;

(7) All motions, briefs, and other papers filed on interlocutory appeal;

(8) All proposed findings and conclusions;

(9) Each written order issued by the hearing officer or Director; and

(10) Any other document or item accepted into the record by the hearing officer.

(b) Retention of documents not admitted. Any document offered into evidence but excluded shall not be considered part of the record. The Office of Administrative Adjudication shall retain any such document until the later of the date upon which an order by the Director ending the proceeding becomes final and not appealable, or upon the conclusion of any judicial review of the Director's order.

(c) Substitution of copies. A true copy of a document may be substituted for any document in the record or any document retained pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.

Subpart D Decision and Appeals

§ 1081.400 Recommended decision of the hearing officer.

(a) Time period for filing recommended decision. Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, the hearing officer shall file a recommended decision no later than 90 days after the deadline for filing post-hearing responsive briefs pursuant to § 1081.305(b) and in no event later than 360 days after filing of the notice of charges.

(b) Extension of deadlines. In the event the hearing officer presiding over the proceeding determines that it will not be possible to issue the recommended decision within the time periods specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the hearing officer shall submit a written request to the Director for an extension of the time period for filing the recommended decision. This request must be filed no later than 28 days prior to the expiration of the time for issuance of a recommended decision. The request will be served on all parties in the proceeding, who may file with the Director briefs in support of or in opposition to the request. Any such briefs must be filed within seven days of service of the hearing officer's request and shall not exceed five pages. If the Director determines that additional time is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, the Director shall issue an order extending the time period for filing the recommended decision.

(c) Content. (1) A recommended decision shall be based on a consideration of the whole record relevant to the issues decided, and shall be supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence. The recommended decision shall include a statement of findings of fact (with specific page references to principal supporting items of evidence in the record) and conclusions of law, as well as the reasons or basis therefore, as to all the material issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record and the appropriate order, sanction, relief or denial thereof. The recommended decision shall also state that a notice of appeal may be filed within 14 days after service of the recommended decision and include a statement that, unless a party timely files and perfects a notice of appeal of the recommended decision, the Director may adopt the recommended decision as the final decision and order of the Bureau without further opportunity for briefing or argument.

(2) Consistent with paragraph (a) of this section, when more than one claim for relief is presented in an adjudication proceeding, or when multiple parties are involved, the hearing officer may direct the entry of a recommended decision as to one or more but fewer than all of the claims or parties only upon an express determination that there is no just reason for delay and upon an express direction for the entry of a recommended decision.

(d) By whom made. The recommended decision shall be made and filed by the hearing officer who presided over the hearings, except when he or she shall have become unavailable to the Bureau.

(e) Reopening of proceeding by hearing officer; termination of jurisdiction. (1) At any time from the close of the hearing record pursuant to § 1081.304(c) until the filing of his or her recommended decision, a hearing officer may reopen the proceeding for the receipt of further evidence for good cause shown.

(2) Except for the correction of clerical errors or pursuant to an order of remand from the Director, the jurisdiction of the hearing officer is terminated upon the filing of his or her recommended decision with respect to those issues decided pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.

(f) Filing, service, and publication. Upon filing by the hearing officer of the recommended decision, the Office of Administrative Adjudication shall promptly transmit the recommended decision to the Director and serve the recommended decision upon the parties.

§ 1081.401 Transmission of documents to Director; record index; certification.

(a) Filing of index. At the same time the Office of Administrative Adjudication transmits the recommended decision to the Director, the hearing officer shall furnish to the Director a certified index of the entire record of the proceedings. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence.

(b) Retention of record items by the Office of Administrative Adjudication. After the close of the hearing, the Office of Administrative Adjudication shall retain originals of any motions, exhibits or any other documents filed with, or accepted into evidence by, the hearing officer, or any other portions of the record that have not already been filed with the Office of Administrative Adjudication.

§ 1081.402 Notice of appeal; review by the Director.

(a) Notice of appeal. (1) Filing. Any party may file exceptions to the recommended decision of the hearing officer by filing a notice of appeal with the Office of Administrative Adjudication within 14 days after service of the recommended decision. The notice shall specify the party or parties against whom the appeal is taken and shall designate the recommended decision or part thereof appealed from. If a timely notice of appeal is filed by a party, any other party may thereafter file a notice of appeal within seven days after service of the first notice, or within 14 days after service of the recommended decision, whichever period expires last.

(2) Perfecting a notice of appeal. Any party filing a notice of appeal must perfect its appeal by filing its opening appeal brief within 28 days of service of the recommended decision. Any party may respond to the opening appeal brief by filing an answering brief within 28 days of service of the opening brief. Any party may file a reply to an answering brief within seven days of service of the answering brief. These briefs must conform to the requirements of § 1081.403.

(b) Director review other than pursuant to an appeal. In the event no party perfects an appeal of the recommended decision, the Director shall, within 42 days after the date of service of the recommended decision, either issue a final decision and order adopting the recommended decision, or order further briefing regarding any portion of the recommended decision. The Director's order for further briefing shall set forth the scope of review and the issues that will be considered and will make provision for the filing of briefs in accordance with the timelines set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section (except that that opening briefs shall be due within 28 days of service of the order of review) if deemed appropriate by the Director.

(c) Exhaustion of administrative remedies. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 704, a perfected appeal to the Director of a recommended decision pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is a prerequisite to the seeking of judicial review of a final decision and order, or portion of the final decision and order, adopting the recommended decision.

§ 1081.403 Briefs filed with the Director.

(a) Contents of briefs. Briefs shall be confined to the particular matters at issue. Each exception to the findings or conclusions being reviewed shall be stated succinctly. Exceptions shall be supported by citation to the relevant portions of the record, including references to the specific pages relied upon, and by concise argument including citation of such statutes, decisions, and other authorities as may be relevant. If the exception relates to the admission or exclusion of evidence, the substance of the evidence admitted or excluded shall be set forth in the brief, in an appendix thereto, or by citation to the record. Reply briefs shall be confined to matters in answering briefs of other parties.

(b) Length limitation. Except with leave of the Director, opening and answering briefs shall not exceed 30 pages, and reply briefs shall not exceed 15 pages, exclusive of pages containing the table of contents, table of authorities, and any addendum that consists solely of copies of applicable cases, pertinent legislative provisions or rules, and exhibits. Motions to file briefs in excess of these limitations are disfavored.

§ 1081.404 Oral argument before the Director.

(a) Availability. The Director will consider appeals, motions, and other matters properly before him or her on the basis of the papers filed by the parties without oral argument unless the Director determines that the presentation of facts and legal arguments in the briefs and record and decisional process would be significantly aided by oral argument, in which case the Director shall issue an order setting the date on which argument shall be held. A party seeking oral argument shall so indicate on the first page of its opening or answering brief.

(b) Public arguments; transcription. All oral arguments shall be public unless otherwise ordered by the Director. Oral arguments before the Director shall be reported stenographically, unless otherwise ordered by the Director. Motions to correct the transcript of oral argument shall be made according to the same procedure provided in § 1081.304(b).

§ 1081.405 Decision of the Director.

(a) Upon appeal from or upon further review of a recommended decision, the Director will consider such parts of the record as are cited or as may be necessary to resolve the issues presented and, in addition, will, to the extent necessary or desirable, exercise all powers which he or she could have exercised if he or she had made the recommended decision. In proceedings before the Director, the record shall consist of all items part of the record below in accordance with § 1081.306; any notices of appeal or order directing review; all briefs, motions, submissions, and other papers filed on appeal or review; and the transcript of any oral argument held. Review by the Director of a recommended decision may be limited to the issues specified in the notice(s) of appeal or the issues, if any, specified in the order directing further briefing. On notice to all parties, however, the Director may, at any time prior to issuance of his or her decision, raise and determine any other matters that he or she deems material, with opportunity for oral or written argument thereon by the parties.

(b) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Director in the consideration and disposition of the case.

(c) In rendering his or her decision, the Director will affirm, adopt, reverse, modify, set aside, or remand for further proceedings the recommended decision and will include in the decision a statement of the reasons or basis for his or her actions and the findings of fact upon which the decision is predicated.

(d) At the expiration of the time permitted for the filing of reply briefs with the Director, the Office of Administrative Adjudication will notify the parties that the case has been submitted for final Bureau decision. The Director will issue and the Office of Administrative Adjudication will serve the Director's final decision and order within 90 days after such notice, unless within that time the Director orders that the adjudication proceeding or any aspect thereof be remanded to the hearing officer for further proceedings.

(e) Copies of the final decision and order of the Director shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Director or required by statute, upon any appropriate State or Federal supervisory authority. The final decision and order will also be published on the Bureau's website or as otherwise deemed appropriate by the Bureau.

§ 1081.406 Reconsideration.

Within 14 days after service of the Director's final decision and order, any party may file with the Director a petition for reconsideration, briefly and specifically setting forth the relief desired and the grounds in support thereof. Any petition filed under this section must be confined to new questions raised by the final decision or final order and upon which the petitioner had no opportunity to argue, in writing or orally, before the Director. No response to a petition for reconsideration shall be filed unless requested by the Director, who will request such response before granting any petition for reconsideration. The filing of a petition for reconsideration shall not operate to stay the effective date of the final decision or order or to toll the running of any statutory period affecting such decision or order unless specifically so ordered by the Director.

§ 1081.407 Effective date; stays pending judicial review.

(a) Other than consent orders, which shall become effective at the time specified therein, an order to cease and desist or for other affirmative action under section 1053(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act becomes effective at the expiration of 30 days after the date of service pursuant to § 1081.113(d)(2), unless the Director agrees to stay the effectiveness of the order pursuant to this section.

(b) Any party subject to a final decision and order, other than a consent order, may apply to the Director for a stay of all or part of that order pending judicial review.

(c) A motion for stay shall state the reasons a stay is warranted and the facts relied upon, and shall include supporting affidavits or other sworn statements, and a copy of the relevant portions of the record. The motion shall address the likelihood of the movant's success on appeal, whether the movant will suffer irreparable harm if a stay is not granted, the degree of injury to other parties if a stay is granted, and why the stay is in the public interest.

(d) A motion for stay shall be filed within 28 days of service of the order on the party. Any party opposing the motion may file a response within seven days after receipt of the motion. The movant may file a reply brief, limited to new matters raised by the response, within seven days after receipt of the response.

(e) The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Director does not, unless specifically ordered by the Director or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Director. The Director may, in his or her discretion, and on such terms as he or she finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order pending a final decision on a petition for judicial review of that order.

Subpart E Temporary Cease-and-Desist Proceedings

§ 1081.500 Scope.

(a) This subpart prescribes the rules of practice and procedure applicable to the issuance of a temporary cease-and-desist order authorized by section 1053(c) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5563(c)).

(b) The issuance of a temporary cease-and-desist order does not stay or otherwise affect the proceedings instituted by the issuance of a notice of charges, which are governed by subparts A through D of this part.

§ 1081.501 Basis for issuance, form, and service.

(a) In general. The Director or his or her designee may issue a temporary cease-and-desist order if he or she determines that one or more of the alleged violations specified in a notice of charges, or the continuation thereof, is likely to cause the respondent to be insolvent or otherwise prejudice the interests of consumers before the completion of the adjudication proceeding. A temporary cease-and-desist order may require the respondent to cease and desist from any violation or practice specified in the notice of charges and to take affirmative action to prevent or remedy such insolvency or other condition pending completion of the proceedings initiated by the issuance of a notice of charges.

(b) Incomplete or inaccurate records. When a notice of charges specifies, on the basis of particular facts and circumstances, that the books and records of a respondent are so incomplete or inaccurate that the Bureau is unable to determine the financial condition of the respondent or the details or purpose of any transaction or transactions that may have a material effect on the financial condition of the respondent, then the Director or his or her designee may issue a temporary order requiring:

(1) The cessation of any activity or practice which gave rise, whether in whole or in part, to the incomplete or inaccurate state of the books or records; or

(2) Affirmative action to restore such books or records to a complete and accurate state, until the completion of the adjudication proceeding.

(c) Content, scope, and form of order. Every temporary cease-and-desist order accompanying a notice of charges shall describe:

(1) The basis for its issuance, including the alleged violations and the harm that is likely to result without the issuance of an order; and

(2) The act or acts the respondent is to take or refrain from taking.

(d) Effective and enforceable upon service. A temporary cease-and-desist order is effective and enforceable upon service.

(e) Service. Service of a temporary cease-and-desist order shall be made pursuant to § 1081.113(d).

§ 1081.502 Judicial review, duration.

(a) Availability of judicial review. Judicial review of a temporary cease-and-desist order shall be available solely as provided in section 1053(c)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5563(c)(2)). Any respondent seeking judicial review of a temporary cease-and-desist order issued under this subpart must, not later than ten days after service of the temporary cease-and-desist order, apply to the United States district court for the judicial district in which the residence or principal office or place of business of the respondent is located, or the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an injunction setting aside, limiting, or suspending the enforcement, operation, or effectiveness of such order.

(b) Duration. Unless set aside, limited, or suspended by the Director or his or her designee, or by a court in proceedings authorized under section 1053(c)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5563(c)(2)), a temporary cease-and-desist order shall remain effective and enforceable until:

(1) The effective date of a final order issued upon the conclusion of the adjudication proceeding.

(2) With respect to a temporary cease-and-desist order issued pursuant to § 1081.501(b) only, the Bureau determines by examination or otherwise that the books and records are accurate and reflect the financial condition of the respondent, and the Director or his or her designee issues an order terminating, limiting, or suspending the temporary cease-and-desist order.

PART 1082 STATE OFFICIAL NOTIFICATION RULES

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5481 et seq.

Source: 77 FR 39116, June 29, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1082.1 Procedures for notifying the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection when a State Official takes an action to enforce title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010.

(a) Notice requirement. (1) Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5552(b) and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, every State attorney general and State regulator (State Official) shall provide the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section to the Enforcement Division of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (the Bureau), the unit of the Bureau responsible for enforcement of Federal consumer financial law pursuant to title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, as amended, Public Law 111-203 (July 21, 2010), codified at 12 U.S.C. 5481 et seq. (the Dodd-Frank Act), and the Office of the Executive Secretary of the Bureau at least ten calendar days prior to initiating any action against any covered person. For purposes of this section, an action requiring notification is any adjudicative proceeding before a court or an administrative or regulatory body to determine whether a violation of any provision of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act or any regulation prescribed thereunder has occurred. Initiating an action under this section would include but not be limited to the filing of a complaint, motion for relief, or other document which initiates an action or a proceeding.

(2) Notice shall be provided to the Enforcement Division and the Office of the Executive Secretary, or their successor offices, via electronic mail to Enforcement@cfpb.gov and ExecSec@cfpb.gov. In the event of technical problems preventing the delivery of notice, the Enforcement Division or its successor entity should be contacted.

(3) On the same date that notice is provided to the Enforcement Division and the Office of the Executive Secretary pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a copy of the notice shall be sent to the relevant prudential regulator, if any, or the designee thereof, by mail or electronic mail.

(4) Notice shall be deemed to have been provided as of the date of transmitting or mailing the materials described in paragraph (c) of this section.

(5) The Enforcement Division, or its successor entity, in consultation with a State Official, may provide, for good cause shown, an alternative deadline for the notice described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(b) Emergency actions. (1) Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5552(b), in the event that a State Official initiates or intends to initiate an action and, in order to protect the public interest or prevent irreparable and imminent harm, is unable to provide timely notice as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the State Official shall provide the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section as soon as is practicable and not later than 48 hours after initiation of the action.

(2) Notice shall be provided in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraphs (a)(2) through (4) of this section.

(3) The Enforcement Division, or its successor entity, in consultation with a State Official, may provide, for good cause shown, an alternative deadline for the notice described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(c) Contents of notice. (1) Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5552(b), the notice required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall include a written description of the anticipated action, including:

(i) The court or body in which the action is to be initiated;

(ii) The identity of the parties to the action;

(iii) The nature of the action to be initiated;

(iv) The anticipated date of initiating the action;

(v) The alleged facts underlying the action;

(vi) A contact name, electronic mail address, and phone number of an individual involved with the matter in the office of the State Official with whom the Bureau may consult;

(vii) A determination as to whether there may be a need to coordinate the prosecution of the action so as not to interfere with any action, including any rulemaking, undertaken by the Bureau, a prudential regulator, or another Federal agency; and

(viii) A statement by the State Official setting forth any limitations on the disclosure of the substance or fact of the notice to any person or entity outside of the recipient agency.

(2) The notice required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall further include a complete and unredacted copy of any complaint, motion for relief, or similar document that is the subject of the notice, in its form as of the date the notice is provided. To the extent the complaint, motion for relief, or similar document contains the information described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provision of the complaint, motion for relief, or similar document shall be deemed sufficient notice of that information.

(3) In the event that notice is provided after the initiation of an action, the written description shall also include the following, in addition to the information described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section:

(i) A brief description of any proceeding that occurred as a result of the initiation of the action, including any orders issued by a court or other body;

(ii) Any case number, matter number, or designation assigned to the action; and

(iii) Information on scheduled court or other administrative or regulatory proceedings.

(4) In the event that notice is provided after the initiation of an action, in addition to the requirements set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the notice shall further include a complete, unredacted copy of any document filed by any party in relation to the action and any orders issued by the court or other body.

(5) If the State Official, after providing the notice described in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section, intends to file a complaint, motion for relief, or similar document that is materially different from the document included with the notice, the State Official shall provide a copy of that document prior to filing, in accordance with the method described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(d) Bureau response. In any action described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Bureau may:

(1) Intervene in the action as a party;

(2) Upon intervening,

(i) Remove the action to the appropriate United States district court, if the action was not originally brought there; and

(ii) Be heard on all matters arising in the action;

(3) Appeal any order or judgment, to the same extent as any other party in the proceeding may; and

(4) Otherwise participate in the action as appropriate.

(e) Confidentiality and privilege. (1) The information described in paragraph (c) of this section, including the complaint, motion for relief, or other document, as well as the fact that notice has been provided, shall be subject to any limitations on disclosure imposed by the State Official pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(viii) of this section; provided, however, that the recipient may disclose such information:

(i) As required by law;

(ii) When the information is or becomes publicly available;

(iii) With the consent of the State Official; or

(iv) To another State or Federal government entity when necessary to protect the public interest, after consultation with the State Official who provided the notice.

(2) Provision of notice by a State Official and disclosure of information pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall not be deemed a waiver of any applicable privilege.

(f) No private right of action or defense. The requirements set forth in this section are not intended to, do not, and may not be relied upon to create any right, benefit, or defense, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the United States or any State enforcing the provisions of the Dodd-Frank Act or any regulation prescribed thereunder.

[77 FR 39116, June 29, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 39116, June 29, 2012]

PART 1083 CIVIL PENALTY ADJUSTMENTS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 2609(d); 12 U.S.C. 5113(d)(2); 12 U.S.C. 5565(c); 15 U.S.C. 1639e(k); 15 U.S.C. 1717a(a); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.

§ 1083.1 Adjustment of civil penalty amounts.

(a) The maximum amount of each civil penalty within the jurisdiction of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau to impose is adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 and further amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (28 U.S.C. 2461 note), as follows:

Table 1 to Paragraph (a)

Law | Penalty description | Adjusted maximum civil penalty amount

12 U.S.C. 5565(c)(2)(A) | Tier 1 penalty | $7,217

12 U.S.C. 5565(c)(2)(B) | Tier 2 penalty | 36,083

12 U.S.C. 5565(c)(2)(C) | Tier 3 penalty | 1,443,275

15 U.S.C. 1717a(a)(2) | Per violation | 2,515

15 U.S.C. 1717a(a)(2) | Annual cap | 2,513,215

12 U.S.C. 2609(d)(1) | Per failure | 118

12 U.S.C. 2609(d)(1) | Annual cap | 236,451

12 U.S.C. 2609(d)(2)(A) | Per failure, where intentional | 236

12 U.S.C. 5113(d)(2) | Per violation | 36,439

15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)(1) | First violation | 14,435

15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)(2) | Subsequent violations | 28,866

(b) The adjustments in paragraph (a) of this section shall apply to civil penalties assessed after January 15, 2025, whose associated violations occurred on or after November 2, 2015.

[90 FR 1356, Jan. 8, 2025]

PART 1090 DEFINING LARGER PARTICIPANTS OF CERTAIN CONSUMER FINANCIAL PRODUCT AND SERVICE MARKETS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(B); 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(2); 12 U.S.C. 5514(b)(7)(A); and 12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1).

Source: 77 FR 42898, July 20, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1090.100 Scope and purpose.

This part defines those nonbank covered persons that qualify as larger participants of certain markets for consumer financial products or services pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(B) and (a)(2). A larger participant of a market covered by this part is subject to the supervisory authority of the Bureau under 12 U.S.C. 5514. This part also establishes rules to facilitate the Bureau's supervision of such larger participants pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(b)(7).

§ 1090.101 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

Affiliated company means any company (other than an insured depository institution or insured credit union) that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, a person.

(1) For purposes of this definition “company” means any corporation, limited liability company, business trust, general or limited partnership, proprietorship, cooperative, association, or similar organization.

(2) A person has control over another person if:

(i) The person directly or indirectly or acting through one or more other persons owns, controls, or has power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities or similar ownership interest of the other person;

(ii) The person controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, members, or general partners of the other person; or

(iii) The person directly or indirectly exercises a controlling influence over the management or policies of the other person.

Bureau means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.

Completed fiscal year means a tax year including any fiscal year, calendar year, or short tax year. “Fiscal year,” “calendar year,” “tax year,” and “short tax year” have the meanings attributed to them by the IRS as set forth in IRS Publication 538, which provides that:

(1) A “fiscal year” is 12 consecutive months ending on the last day of any month except December 31.

(2) A “calendar year” is 12 consecutive months ending on December 31.

(3) A “tax year” is an annual accounting period for keeping records and reporting income and expenses, or, if appropriate, a short tax year. An annual accounting period does not include a short tax year.

(4) A “short tax year” is a tax year of less than 12 months.

Consumer means an individual or an agent, trustee, or representative acting on behalf of an individual.

Consumer financial product or service means any financial product or service, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(15), that is described in one or more categories under:

(1) 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A) and is offered or provided for use by consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; or

(2) Clause (i), (iii), (ix), or (x) of 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A) and is delivered, offered, or provided in connection with a consumer financial product or service referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition.

Dodd-Frank Act means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.

Larger participant means a nonbank covered person that has met a test under subpart B of this part within the period provided in § 1090.102 of this part.

Nonbank covered person means, except for persons described in 12 U.S.C. 5515(a) and 5516(a):

(1) Any person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service; and

(2) Any affiliate of a person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service if such affiliate acts as a service provider to such person.

Person means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.

Supervision and supervisory activity mean the Bureau's exercise, or intended exercise, of supervisory authority, including by initiating or undertaking an examination, or requiring a report of a person, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514.

Supervision Director means the Supervision Director or any Bureau employee designated by the Director of the Bureau or the Supervision Director to act under this part. The Director of the Bureau may perform the functions of the Supervision Director under this part.

[77 FR 42898, July 20, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015; 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

§ 1090.102 Status as larger participant subject to supervision.

A person qualifying as a larger participant under subpart B of this part shall not cease to be a larger participant under this part until two years from the first day of the tax year in which the person last met the applicable test under subpart B.

§ 1090.103 Assessing status as a larger participant.

(a) If a person receives a written communication from the Bureau initiating a supervisory activity pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514, such person may respond by asserting that the person does not meet the definition of a larger participant of a market covered by this part within 45 days of the date of the communication. Such response must be sent to the Supervision Director by electronic transmission at the address included in the communication and must include an affidavit setting forth an explanation of the basis for the person's assertion that it does not meet the definition of larger participant of a market covered by this part and therefore is not subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514. In addition, a person may include with the response copies of any records, documents, or other information on which the person relied in making the assertion.

(b) A person shall be deemed to have waived the opportunity, at any time that it may dispute that it qualifies as a larger participant, to rely on any argument, records, documents, or other information that it fails to submit to the Supervision Director under paragraph (a) of this section. A person who fails to respond to the Bureau's written communication within 45 days will be deemed to have acknowledged that it is a larger participant.

(c) The Supervision Director shall review the affidavit, any attached records, documents, or other information submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, and any other information the Supervision Director deems relevant, and thereafter send by electronic transmission to the person a statement explaining whether the person meets the definition for a larger participant of a market covered by this part.

(d) At any time, including prior to issuing the written communication referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the Supervision Director may require that a person provide to the Bureau such records, documents, and information as the Supervision Director may deem appropriate to assess whether a person qualifies as a larger participant. Persons must provide the requisite records, documents, and other information to the Bureau within the time period specified in the request.

(e) The Supervision Director, in her or his discretion, may modify any timeframe prescribed by this section on her or his own initiative or for good cause shown.

[77 FR 42898, July 20, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]

Subpart B Markets

§ 1090.104 Consumer Reporting Market.

(a) Market-Related definitions.

Annual receipts means receipts calculated as follows:

(i) Receipts means “total income” (or in the case of a sole proprietorship, “gross income”) plus “cost of goods sold” as these terms are defined and reported on Internal Revenue Service (IRS) tax return forms (such as Form 1120 for corporations; Form 1120S and Schedule K for S corporations; Form 1120, Form 1065 or Form 1040 for LLCs; Form 1065 and Schedule K for partnerships; Form 1040, Schedule C for sole proprietorships). Receipts do not include net capital gains or losses; taxes collected for and remitted to a taxing authority if included in gross or total income, such as sales or other taxes collected from customers and excluding taxes levied on the entity or its employees; and amounts collected for another (but fees earned in connection with such collections are receipts). Items such as subcontractor costs, reimbursements for purchases a contractor makes at a customer's request, and employee-based costs such as payroll taxes are included in receipts.

(ii) Period of measurement. (A) Annual receipts of a person that has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years means the total receipts of the person over its three most recently completed fiscal years divided by three.

(B) Annual receipts of a person that has been in business for less than three completed fiscal years means the total receipts of the person for the period the person has been in business divided by the number of weeks in business, multiplied by 52.

(C) Where a person has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years, but one of the years within its period of measurement is a short tax year, annual receipts means the total receipts for the short year and the two full fiscal or calendar years divided by the total number of weeks in the short year and the two full fiscal or calendar years, multiplied by 52.

(iii) Annual receipts of affiliated companies. (A) The annual receipts of a person are calculated by adding the annual receipts of the person with the annual receipts of each of its affiliated companies.

(B) If a person has acquired an affiliated company or been acquired by an affiliated company during the applicable period of measurement, the annual receipts of the person and the affiliated company are aggregated for the entire period of measurement (not just the period after the affiliation arose).

(C) Receipts are calculated separately for the person and each of its affiliated companies in accordance with paragraph (ii) of this definition even though this may result in using a different period of measurement to calculate an affiliated company's annual receipts. Thus, for example, if an affiliated company has been in business for a period of less than three years, the affiliated company's receipts are to be annualized in accordance with paragraph (ii)(B) of this definition even if the person has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years.

(D) The annual receipts of a formerly affiliated company are not included in the annual receipts of a nonbank covered person for purposes of this section, if the affiliation ceased before the applicable period of measurement as set forth in paragraph (ii) of this definition. The annual receipts of a nonbank covered person and its formerly affiliated company are aggregated for the entire period of measurement if the affiliation ceased during the applicable period of measurement as set forth in paragraph (ii) of this definition.

Consumer reporting means:

(i) In general. Consumer reporting means collecting, analyzing, maintaining, or providing consumer report information or other account information used or expected to be used in any decision by another person regarding the offering or provision of any consumer financial product or service.

(ii) Exclusion for transaction and experience information. Consumer reporting does not include the activities of a person to the extent that a person collects, analyzes, maintains, or provides information that relates solely to the person's transactions or experiences with consumers.

(iii) Exclusion for furnishing affiliate information to a consumer reporting entity. Consumer reporting does not include the activities of a person to the extent that a person provides information that solely relates to transactions or experiences between a consumer and an affiliate of such person to another person that is engaged in consumer reporting.

(iv) Exclusion for certain authorizations or approvals. Consumer reporting does not include any authorization or approval of a specific extension of credit directly or indirectly by the issuer of a credit card or similar device.

(v) Exclusion for providing information to be used solely in a decision regarding employment, government licensing, or residential leasing or tenancy. Consumer reporting does not include the activities of a person to the extent that a person provides consumer report or other account information that is used or expected to be used solely regarding a decision for employment, government licensing, or a residential lease or tenancy involving a consumer, or to be used solely in any decision regarding the offering or provision of a product or service that is not a consumer financial product or service.

(b) Test to define larger participants. A nonbank covered person that offers or provides consumer reporting is a larger participant of the consumer reporting market if the person's annual receipts resulting from consumer reporting are more than $7 million.

[77 FR 42898, July 20, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015]

§ 1090.105 Consumer debt collection market.

(a) Market-Related definitions. As used in this subpart:

Annual receipts means, for the consumer debt collection market, receipts calculated as follows:

(i) Receipts means “total income” (or in the case of a sole proprietorship, “gross income”) plus “cost of goods sold” as these terms are defined and reported on Internal Revenue Service (IRS) tax return forms (such as Form 1120 for corporations; Form 1120S and Schedule K for S corporations; Form 1120, Form 1065 or Form 1040 for LLCs; Form 1065 and Schedule K for partnerships; and Form 1040, Schedule C for sole proprietorships). Receipts do not include net capital gains or losses; taxes collected for and remitted to a taxing authority if included in gross or total income, such as sales or other taxes collected from customers but excluding taxes levied on the entity or its employees; or amounts collected for another (but fees earned in connection with such collections are receipts). Items such as subcontractor costs, reimbursements for purchases a contractor makes at a customer's request, and employee-based costs such as payroll taxes are included in receipts.

(ii) Period of measurement. (A) Annual receipts of a person that has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years means the total receipts of the person over its three most recently completed fiscal years divided by three.

(B) Annual receipts of a person that has been in business for less than three completed fiscal years means the total receipts of the person for the period the person has been in business divided by the number of weeks in business, multiplied by 52.

(C) Where a person has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years, but one of the years within its period of measurement is a short tax year, annual receipts means the total receipts for the short year and the two full fiscal or calendar years divided by the total number of weeks in the short year and the two full fiscal or calendar years, multiplied by 52.

(iii) Annual receipts of affiliated companies. (A) The annual receipts of a person are calculated by adding the annual receipts of the person with the annual receipts of each of its affiliated companies.

(B) If a person has acquired an affiliated company or been acquired by an affiliated company during the applicable period of measurement, the annual receipts of the person and the affiliated company are aggregated for the entire period of measurement (not just the period after the affiliation arose).

(C) Receipts are calculated separately for the person and each of its affiliated companies in accordance with paragraph (ii) of this definition even though this may result in using a different period of measurement to calculate an affiliated company's annual receipts. Thus, for example, if an affiliated company has been in business for a period of less than three years, the affiliated company's receipts are to be annualized in accordance with paragraph (ii) of this definition even if the person has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years.

(D) The annual receipts of a formerly affiliated company are not included in the annual receipts of a nonbank covered person for purposes of this section if the affiliation ceased before the applicable period of measurement as set forth in paragraph (ii) of this definition. The annual receipts of a nonbank covered person and its formerly affiliated company are aggregated for the entire period of measurement if the affiliation ceased during the applicable period of measurement as set forth in paragraph (ii) of this definition.

(E) Annual receipts do not include receipts that result from the collection of debt that was originally owed to a medical provider.

Consumer debt collection is a debt collector's collection of debt incurred by a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes and related to a consumer financial product or service.

Creditor means any person who offers or extends credit creating a debt or to whom a debt is owed, but such term does not include any person to the extent that the person receives an assignment or transfer of a debt in default solely for the purpose of facilitating the collection of debt for another.

Debt collector means any person who uses any instrumentality of interstate commerce or the mails in any business the principal purpose of which is the collection of any debts, or who regularly collects or attempts to collect, directly or indirectly, debts owed or due or asserted to be owed or due to another. Notwithstanding the exclusion provided by paragraph (iii) of this definition, the term includes any creditor who, in the process of collecting his own debts, uses any name other than his own which would indicate that a third person is collecting or attempting to collect such debts. The term does not include:

(i) Any person while acting as a debt collector for another person, both of whom are related by common ownership or affiliated by corporate control, if the person acting as a debt collector does so only for persons to whom it is so related or affiliated and if the principal business of such person is not the collection of debts;

(ii) Any nonprofit organization which, at the request of consumers, performs bona fide consumer credit counseling and assists consumers in the liquidation of their debts by receiving payments from such consumers and distributing such amounts to creditors;

(iii) Any person collecting or attempting to collect any debt owed or due or asserted to be owed or due another to the extent such activity:

(A) Concerns a debt which was originated by such person; or

(B) Concerns a debt which was not in default at the time it was obtained by such person; and

(iv) Any person engaged solely in enforcing a security interest.

(b) Test to define larger participants. A nonbank covered person is a larger participant of the consumer debt collection market if the nonbank covered person's annual receipts resulting from consumer debt collection are more than $10 million.

[77 FR 65798, Oct. 31, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 72913, Dec. 7, 2012; 80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015]

§ 1090.106 Student loan servicing market.

(a) Market-related definitions. As used in this subpart:

Account volume means the number of accounts with respect to which a nonbank covered person is considered to perform student loan servicing, calculated as follows:

(i) Number of accounts. A nonbank covered person has at least one account for each student or prior student with respect to whom the nonbank covered person performs student loan servicing. If a nonbank covered person is receiving separate fees for performing student loan servicing with respect to a given student or prior student, the nonbank covered person has one account for each stream of fees to which the person is entitled.

(ii) Time of measurement. The number of accounts is counted as of December 31 of the prior calendar year.

(iii) Affiliated companies. (A) The account volume of a nonbank covered person is the sum of the number of accounts of that nonbank covered person and of any affiliated companies of that person.

(B) If two persons become affiliated companies, each person's number of accounts as of the prior calendar year's December 31 is included in the total account volume.

(C) If two affiliated companies cease to be affiliated companies, the number of accounts of each continues to be included in the other's account volume until the succeeding December 31.

Post-secondary education expenses means any of the expenses that are included as part of the cost of attendance of a student as defined in 20 U.S.C. 1087ll.

Post-secondary education loan means a loan that is made, insured or guaranteed under Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 et seq.) or that is extended to a consumer with the expectation that the funds extended will be used in whole or in part to pay post-secondary education expenses. A loan that is extended in order to refinance or consolidate a consumer's existing post-secondary education loans is also a post-secondary education loan. However, no loan under an open-end credit plan (as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20)) or loan that is secured by real property is a post-secondary education loan, regardless of the purpose for the loan.

Student loan servicing means:

(i)(A) Receiving any scheduled periodic payments from a borrower or notification of such payments and

(B) Applying payments to the borrower's account pursuant to the terms of the post-secondary education loan or of the contract governing the servicing;

(ii) During a period when no payment is required on a post-secondary education loan,

(A) Maintaining account records for the loan and

(B) Communicating with the borrower regarding the loan, on behalf of the loan's holder; or

(iii) Interactions with a borrower, including activities to help prevent default on obligations arising from post-secondary education loans, conducted to facilitate the activities described in paragraph (i) or (ii) of this definition.

(b) Test to define larger participants. A nonbank covered person that offers or provides student loan servicing is a larger participant of the student loan servicing market if the nonbank covered person's account volume exceeds one million.

[78 FR 73406, Dec. 6, 2013]

§ 1090.107 International Money Transfer Market.

(a) Market-related definitions. As used in this subpart:

Aggregate annual international money transfers means the sum of the annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person and the annual international money transfers of each of the nonbank covered person's affiliated companies.

(i) Annual international money transfers. Annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person means the international money transfers provided by the nonbank covered person during the preceding calendar year.

(ii) Agents. (A) Annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person include international money transfers in which another person acts as an agent on behalf of the nonbank covered person.

(B) Annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person do not include international money transfers in which another person provided the international money transfers and the nonbank covered person performed activities as an agent on behalf of that other person.

(C) For purposes of this paragraph (ii), agent means an agent or authorized delegate, as defined under State or other applicable law, or affiliated company of a person that provides international money transfers when such agent, authorized delegate, or affiliated company acts for that person.

(iii) Aggregating the annual international money transfers of affiliated companies. (A) The annual international money transfers of each affiliated company of a nonbank covered person are calculated separately in accordance with paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this definition, treating the affiliated company as if it were an independent nonbank covered person for purposes of the calculation.

(B) The annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person must be aggregated with the annual international money transfers of any person that was an affiliated company of the nonbank covered person at any time during the preceding calendar year. The annual international money transfers of the nonbank covered person and its affiliated companies are aggregated for the entire preceding calendar year, even if the affiliation did not exist for the entire calendar year.

Designated recipient means any person specified by the sender as the authorized recipient of an international money transfer to be received at a location in a foreign country.

International money transfer means the electronic transfer of funds requested by a sender to a designated recipient that is sent by an international money transfer provider. The term applies regardless of whether the sender holds an account with the international money transfer provider, and regardless of whether the transaction is also an electronic fund transfer, as defined in § 1005.3(b) of this chapter. The term does not include any transfer that is excluded from the definition of “electronic fund transfer” under § 1005.3(c)(4) of this chapter.

International money transfer provider means any nonbank covered person that provides international money transfers for a consumer, regardless of whether the consumer holds an account with such person.

Sender means a consumer in a State who primarily for personal, family, or household purposes requests an international money transfer provider to send an international money transfer to a designated recipient.

State means any State, territory, or possession of the United States; the District of Columbia; the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; or any political subdivision thereof.

(b) Test to define larger participants. A nonbank covered person is a larger participant of the international money transfer market if the nonbank covered person has at least one million aggregate annual international money transfers.

[79 FR 56650, Sept. 23, 2014]

§ 1090.108 Automobile financing market.

(a) Market-related definitions. As used in this section:

Aggregate annual originations means the sum of the number of annual originations of a nonbank covered person and the number of annual originations of each of the nonbank covered person's affiliated companies, calculated as follows:

(i) Annual Originations. (A) Annual originations means the sum of the following transactions for the preceding calendar year:

(1) Credit granted for the purpose of purchasing an automobile;

(2) Automobile leases;

(3) Refinancings of obligations described in (i)(A)(1) of this definition that are secured by an automobile, and any subsequent refinancings thereof that are secured by an automobile; and

(4) Purchases or acquisitions of obligations described in (i)(A)(1), (2), or (3) of this definition.

(B) The term annual originations does not include:

(1) Investments in asset-backed securities; and

(2) Purchases or acquisitions of obligations by a special purpose entity established for the purpose of facilitating asset-backed securities transactions if the purchases or acquisitions are made for the purpose of facilitating an asset-backed securities transaction.

(ii) Aggregating the annual originations of affiliated companies. The annual originations of a nonbank covered person must be aggregated with the annual originations of any person (other than an entity described in paragraph (c) of this section) that was an affiliated company of the nonbank covered person at any time during the preceding calendar year. The annual originations of a nonbank covered person and its affiliated companies are aggregated for the entire preceding calendar year, even if the affiliation did not exist for the entire calendar year.

Automobile means any self-propelled vehicle primarily used for personal, family, or household purposes for on-road transportation. The term does not include motor homes, recreational vehicles (RVs), golf carts, and motor scooters.

Automobile financing means providing or engaging in the transactions identified under the term “Annual originations” as defined in this section.

Automobile lease means a lease that is for the use of an automobile, as defined in this section, and that meets the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A)(ii) or 12 CFR 1001.2(a).

Refinancing has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.20(a), except that the nonbank covered person need not be the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original obligation.

(b) Test to define larger participants. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a nonbank covered person that engages in automobile financing is a larger participant of the automobile financing market if the person has at least 10,000 aggregate annual originations.

(c) Exclusion for dealers. The following entities do not qualify as larger participants under this section:

(1) Persons excluded from the Bureau's authority by 12 U.S.C. 5519; and

(2) Persons who meet the definition in 12 U.S.C. 5519(f)(2); are identified in 12 U.S.C. 5519(b)(2); and are predominantly engaged in the sale and servicing of motor vehicles (as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 5519(f)(1)), the leasing and servicing of motor vehicles, or both.

[80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015]

§ 1090.109 General-use digital consumer payment applications market.

(a)(1) Market definition. Providing a general-use digital consumer payment application means providing a covered payment functionality through a digital payment application for consumers' general use in making consumer payment transaction(s) as defined in this subpart.

(2) Market-related definitions. As used in this section:

(i) Consumer payment transaction(s) means, except for transactions excluded under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(A) through (D) of this section, the transfer of funds by or on behalf of a consumer who resides in a State to another person primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. The term applies to transfers of consumer funds and transfers made by extending consumer credit, except for the following transactions:

(A) An international money transfer as defined in § 1090.107(a);

(B) A transfer of funds by a consumer:

(1) That is linked to the consumer's receipt of a different form of funds, such as a transaction for foreign exchange as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(16); or

(2) That is excluded from the definition of “electronic fund transfer” under § 1005.3(c)(4) of this chapter;

(C) A payment transaction conducted by a person for the sale or lease of goods or services that a consumer selected from that person or its affiliated company's online or physical store or marketplace, or for a donation to a fundraiser that a consumer selected from that person or its affiliated company's platform; and

(D) An extension of consumer credit initiated through a digital application that is provided by a person who is extending, brokering, acquiring, or purchasing the credit or that person's affiliated company.

(ii) Covered payment functionality means a funds transfer functionality as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, a wallet functionality as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, or both.

(A) Funds transfer functionality means, in connection with a consumer payment transaction:

(1) Receiving funds from a consumer for the purpose of transmitting them; or

(2) Accepting from a consumer and transmitting payment instructions.

(B) Payment wallet functionality means a product or service that:

(1) Stores for a consumer account or payment credentials, including in encrypted or tokenized form; and

(2) Transmits, routes, or otherwise processes such stored account or payment credentials to facilitate a consumer payment transaction.

(iii) Digital payment application, for purposes of this subpart, means a software program a consumer may access through a personal computing device, including but not limited to a mobile phone, smart watch, tablet, laptop computer, or desktop computer. Examples of digital payment applications covered by this definition include an application a consumer downloads to a personal computing device, a website a consumer accesses by using an internet browser on a personal computing device, or a program the consumer activates from a personal computing device using a personal identifier such as a passkey, password, PIN, or consumer's biometric identifier, such as a fingerprint, palmprint, face, eyes, or voice. Operating a web browser is not an example of providing a digital payment application.

(iv) General use, for purposes of this subpart, means usable for a consumer to transfer funds in a consumer payment transaction to multiple, unaffiliated persons, subject to an exception for a payment functionality provided through a digital consumer payment application solely for the following:

(A) Using accounts described in § 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(A), (C) or (D) of this chapter; or

(B) To pay a specific debt or type of debt including:

(1) Debts owed in connection with origination or repayment of an extension of consumer credit; or

(2) Debts in default.

(v) State means any State, territory, or possession of the United States; the District of Columbia; the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; or any political subdivision thereof.

(b) Test to define larger participants. A nonbank covered person is a larger participant of the general-use digital consumer payment applications market if the nonbank covered person met both of the following criteria during the preceding calendar year:

(1) It provided annual covered consumer payment transaction volume as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section of at least 50 million consumer payment transactions; and

(2) It was not a “small business concern” as that term is defined by section 3(a) of the Small Business Act, 15 U.S.C. 632(a) and implemented by the Small Business Administration under 13 CFR part 121, or any successor provisions.

(3) Annual covered consumer payment transaction volume means the sum of the number of consumer payment transactions denominated in U.S. dollars that the nonbank covered person and its affiliated companies facilitated in the preceding calendar year by providing general-use digital consumer payment applications.

(i) Method of aggregating the annual covered consumer payment transaction volume of affiliated companies. The annual covered consumer payment transaction volume of each affiliated company of a nonbank covered person is first calculated separately, treating the affiliated company as if it were an independent nonbank covered person for purposes of the calculation. The annual covered consumer payment transaction volume of a nonbank covered person then must be aggregated with the separately-calculated annual covered consumer payment transaction volume of each person that was an affiliated company of the nonbank covered person at any time in the preceding calendar year. However, if any two or more of these companies facilitated a single consumer payment transaction denominated in U.S. dollars, that consumer payment transaction shall only be counted one time in the aggregated annual covered consumer payment volume calculation. The annual covered consumer payment transaction volumes of the nonbank covered person and its affiliated companies are aggregated for the entire preceding calendar year, even if the affiliation did not exist for the entire calendar year.

(ii) [Reserved]

[89 FR 99653, Dec. 10, 2024]

PART 1091 PROCEDURES FOR SUPERVISORY DESIGNATION PROCEEDINGS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1), 5514(a)(1)(C), 5514(b)(7).

Source: 90 FR 46040, Sept. 25, 2025, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1091.100 Scope and purpose.

This part sets forth procedures to implement section 1024(a)(1)(C) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203 (12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C)) (Dodd-Frank Act), and establishes rules to facilitate the Bureau's supervisory authority over certain nonbank covered persons pursuant to section 1024(b)(7) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5514(b)(7)).

§ 1091.101 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

Bureau means the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.

Consumer means an individual or an agent, trustee, or representative acting on behalf of an individual.

Consumer financial product or service means any financial product or service, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(15), that is described in one or more categories under:

(1) 12 U.S.C. 5481(15) and is offered or provided for use by consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; or

(2) Clause (i), (iii), (ix), or (x) of 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A) and is delivered, offered, or provided in connection with a consumer financial product or service referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition.

Decisional employee means any employee of the Bureau who has not engaged in:

(1) Assisting the initiating official in either determining whether to issue a Notice of Reasonable Cause, or presenting the initiating official's position in support of a Notice of Reasonable Cause, either in writing or in a supplemental oral response, to the recommending official; or

(2) Assisting the recommending official in the preparation of a recommended determination.

Director means the Director of the Bureau or his or her designee. If there is no Director, the term shall mean a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director under this part, or his or her designee.

Executive Secretary means the Executive Secretary of the Bureau.

Initiating official means the Supervision Director or another Bureau employee designated by the Director to initiate proceedings under this part.

Nonbank covered person means, except for persons described in 12 U.S.C. 5515(a) and 5516(a):

(1) Any person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service; and

(2) Any affiliate of a person described in paragraph (1) of this definition if such affiliate acts as a service provider to such person.

Notice of Reasonable Cause and Notice mean a Notice issued under § 1091.102.

Person means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.

Recommending official means an employee designated by the Director to make a recommended determination under this part.

Respondent means a person who has been issued a Notice of Reasonable Cause under § 1091.102.

Response means the response to a Notice of Reasonable Cause filed by a respondent with the recommending official under § 1091.105.

Subpart B Determination and Voluntary Consent Procedures

§ 1091.102 Issuance of Notice of Reasonable Cause.

(a) An initiating official is authorized to issue a Notice of Reasonable Cause to a person stating that the Bureau may have reasonable cause to determine that the respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.

(b) A Notice of Reasonable Cause shall be based on:

(1) Complaints collected through the system under 12 U.S.C. 5493(b)(3); or

(2) Information from other sources.

(c) Except as provided in § 1091.111, a Notice of Reasonable Cause shall contain the information set forth in § 1091.103, and be served on respondent as described in § 1091.104.

§ 1091.103 Contents of Notice.

(a) A Notice of Reasonable Cause shall contain the following:

(1) A description of the basis for the assertion that the Bureau may have reasonable cause to determine that a respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services, including a summary of the documents, records, or other items relied on by the initiating official to issue a Notice. Such summary will be consistent with the protection of sensitive information, including compliance with Federal privacy law and whistleblower protections; and

(2) A statement informing a respondent that:

(i) A respondent may file with the recommending official a written response to a Notice of Reasonable Cause no later than 30 days after the Notice is served on the respondent;

(ii) The written response shall include the elements addressed in § 1091.105(b);

(iii) A respondent may request in its written response to a Notice an opportunity to present a supplemental oral response to the recommending official as set forth in § 1091.106, including its preference that the supplemental oral response be by telephone, by video conference, or in person at the Bureau's headquarters in Washington, DC;

(iv) A failure timely to file a response to a Notice shall constitute a waiver of a respondent's right to respond, and may result in a default determination by the Director, based on the Notice, that a respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services and the issuance of a decision and order subjecting a respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C);

(v) The recommending official shall serve a respondent with a notice of the date and time of a supplemental oral response, if a respondent has requested the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response, within 14 days of the recommending official's receipt of a timely-filed response;

(vi) If a respondent has not requested the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response, the recommending official shall, not later than 45 days after receiving a timely-filed response, or not later than 45 days after the service of a Notice of Reasonable Cause when a respondent fails to file a timely response, provide a recommended determination to the Director including either a proposed decision and order subjecting a respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C), or a proposed notification that the Bureau has determined not to subject a respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority at that time, pursuant to § 1091.108; and

(vii) In connection with a proceeding under this part, including a petition for termination under § 1091.113, all documents, records or other items submitted by a respondent to the Bureau, all documents prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of the Bureau, and any communications between the Bureau and a person, shall be deemed confidential supervisory information under 12 CFR 1070.2(i).

(b) A Notice shall be accompanied by a proposed consent agreement under § 1091.110.

(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring the Bureau to produce any documents or other information to a respondent other than as set forth in this section.

§ 1091.104 Service of Notice.

(a) A Notice of Reasonable Cause shall be served on a respondent as follows:

(1) To individuals. A Notice shall be served on a respondent that is a natural person by delivering a copy of the Notice to the individual or to an agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive such a Notice. Delivery, for purposes of this paragraph, means handing a copy of a Notice to the individual; or leaving a copy at the individual's office with a clerk or other person in charge thereof; or leaving a copy at the individual's dwelling house or usual place of abode with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing therein; or sending a copy of a Notice addressed to the individual through the U.S. Postal Service by Registered Mail, Certified Mail or Express Mail delivery, or by third-party commercial carrier, for overnight delivery and obtaining a confirmation of receipt.

(2) To corporations or entities. Notice shall be served on a person other than an individual by delivering a copy of a Notice to an officer, managing or general agent, or any other agent authorized by appointment or law to receive such a Notice, by any method specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(3) Upon persons registered with the Bureau. In addition to any other method of service specified in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, Notice may be served on a person registered with the Bureau by sending a copy of a Notice addressed to the most recent business address shown on the person's registration form by U.S. Postal Service Certified, Registered, or Express Mail and obtaining a confirmation of receipt or attempted delivery.

(4) Upon persons in a foreign country. Notice may be served on a person in a foreign country by any method specified in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, or by any other method reasonably calculated to give notice, provided that the method of service used is not prohibited by the law of the foreign country.

(5) Record of service. The Bureau shall maintain a record of service of a Notice on a respondent, identifying the party given Notice, the method of service, the date of service, the address to which service was made, and the person who made service. If service is made in person, the certificate of service shall state, if available, the name of the individual to whom a Notice was given. If service is made by U.S. Postal Service Registered Mail, Certified Mail, or Express Mail, the Bureau shall maintain the confirmation of receipt or attempted delivery.

(6) Waiver of service. In lieu of service as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, a person may be provided a copy of a Notice by First Class Mail or other reliable means if a written waiver of service is obtained from the person to be served. In the case of a respondent that is not a natural person, a written waiver may be provided by an officer, managing or general member, or partner authorized to represent the respondent.

(b) The initiating official shall promptly submit a copy of a Notice and a copy of the certificate of service to the recommending official.

§ 1091.105 Response.

(a) Timing. Within 30 days of service of a Notice, a respondent shall file any response with the recommending official according to the instructions set forth in a Notice.

(b) Content of the response. (1) The response shall set forth the basis for a respondent's contention that the respondent is not a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.

(2) The response shall include all documents, records, or other evidence a respondent wishes to use to support the arguments or assertions set forth in the response.

(3) Any request to present a supplemental oral response, including the respondent's preference that the supplemental oral response be by telephone, by video conference, or in person at the Bureau's headquarters in Washington, DC, must be included in the response. A respondent's failure to request to present a supplemental oral response shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response.

(4) A response shall include an affidavit or declaration, made by the individual respondent if a natural person, or, if a corporate or other entity that is not a natural person, by an officer, managing or general member, or partner authorized to represent the respondent, affirming that the response is true and accurate and does not contain any omissions that would cause the response to be materially misleading.

(5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this paragraph (b), a respondent may respond to a Notice of Reasonable Cause by voluntarily consenting to the Bureau's authority to supervise the respondent under 12 U.S.C. 5514 by completing and executing the consent agreement form provided to the respondent with a Notice of Reasonable Cause in accordance with § 1091.103(b).

(c) Default. Failure of a respondent to file a response within the time period set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall constitute a waiver of the respondent's right to respond, and shall, based on the Notice, authorize the recommending official, without further notice to the respondent, to issue a proposed decision and order as provided in § 1091.108(c)(1) and the Director to issue a decision and order as provided in § 1091.109(a)(1).

(d) Waiver. A respondent shall be deemed to have waived the right, at any future stage of the recommending official's or the Director's consideration of a matter, and in any petition for judicial review of an order issued pursuant to § 1091.109(a)(1), to rely on any argument, record, document, or other information that the respondent does not raise or include in its response.

(e) No discovery. There shall be no discovery in connection with a response.

(f) Reply by initiating official. If the respondent files a written response, within 21 days the initiating official may file a reply with the recommending official and serve it on the respondent.

§ 1091.106 Supplemental oral response.

(a) A respondent may request in a response under § 1091.105 the opportunity to present to the recommending official a supplemental oral response in support of a respondent's assertion that the respondent is not a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.

(b) The conduct of a supplemental oral response shall be subject to the following procedures:

(1) The recommending official will determine whether the supplemental oral response will be by telephone, by video conference, or in person at the Bureau's headquarters in Washington, DC, after considering the preference of the respondent stated in the written response;

(2) The recommending official may impose any limitations on the conduct of a supplemental oral response, including but not limited to establishing a time limit for the presentation of a supplemental oral response, and limiting the subjects to be addressed in a supplemental oral response;

(3) There shall be no discovery permitted or witnesses called in connection with a supplemental oral response;

(4) If a respondent is a corporate or other entity, and not a natural person, the respondent shall be represented in any supplemental oral response by:

(i) An officer, managing or general member, or partner authorized to represent the respondent; or

(ii) An attorney in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State.

(5) If a respondent is a natural person, the respondent shall be represented in any supplemental oral response by:

(i) Himself or herself; or

(ii) An attorney in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State.

(6) The recommending official shall cause an audio recording of a supplemental oral response to be made by a court reporter. A respondent may purchase a copy or transcript of the recording at the respondent's own expense.

(c) The initiating official may participate in any supplemental oral response conducted under this section.

(d) The Associate Director shall serve on a respondent, within 14 days after the Associate Director receives the respondent's timely-filed response requesting a supplemental oral response, a notice setting forth the date, time, and general information relating to the conduct of a supplemental oral response. The date of a supplemental oral response shall be scheduled not less than ten days after the date the respondent is served with the notice of supplemental oral response.

(e) The notice of supplemental oral response shall be served on a respondent pursuant to § 1091.107.

(f) The recommending official shall send a copy of the notice of supplemental oral response to the initiating official.

(g) A respondent's failure to participate in a supplemental oral response scheduled by the recommending official shall constitute the respondent's waiver of the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response.

§ 1091.107 Manner of filing and serving papers.

Unless otherwise specified by the recommending official or Director, a respondent shall file the response and any other paper with the Executive Secretary at the mailing or electronic address provided by the Bureau, and the initiating official, recommending official, and Director shall serve any paper, other than a Notice as set forth in § 1091.104, on a respondent, by:

(a) Electronic transmission upon any condition specified by the recommending official or Director; or

(b) Any of the following methods if a respondent demonstrates electronic filing is not practicable and the recommending official or Director permits:

(1) Personal delivery;

(2) Delivery through a reliable commercial courier service or overnight delivery service; or

(3) Mailing the papers by U.S. Postal Service First Class, Registered, Certified, or Express Mail.

§ 1091.108 Recommended determination.

(a) If a respondent did not voluntarily consent to the Bureau's supervision authority, and did not request the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response, not later than 45 days after receipt of a timely-filed response, or not later than 45 days after the service of a Notice of Reasonable Cause when a respondent fails to file a timely response, the recommending official shall make a recommended determination whether there is reasonable cause for the Bureau to determine that the respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services which should result in an order subjecting the respondent to the Bureau's authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).

(b) If a respondent did request the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response, not later than 90 days after service of a Notice of Reasonable Cause, the recommending official shall make a recommended determination whether there is reasonable cause for the Bureau to determine that the respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services which should result in an order subjecting the respondent to the Bureau's authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).

(c) Upon making the recommended determination described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the recommending official shall submit to the Director either:

(1) A proposed decision and order that would subject a respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) if adopted by the Director; or

(2) A proposed notification that a respondent should not be subjected to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) based on the proceedings. Such a notification shall have no precedential effect and shall not prevent the issuance of another Notice of Reasonable Cause pursuant to either § 1091.102, or the procedures set forth in § 1091.111, at any time, or from issuance of a decision and order based on another Notice recommending that a respondent be subject to the Bureau's authority pursuant to either of those sections.

(d) Any proposed decision and order issued by the recommending official pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall set forth:

(1) A statement that the recommending official has preliminarily determined based on reasonable cause that a respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services;

(2) The basis for the recommending official's determination; and

(3) A proposed order directing that, pursuant to this determination, as of a specified date a respondent shall be subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514.

(e) The recommending official shall include with the recommended determination submitted to the Director copies of the following:

(1) The Notice of Reasonable Cause;

(2) The record of service of a Notice of Reasonable Cause;

(3) A respondent's response and any documents, records, or other items filed with the written response;

(4) Any document, record, or other item considered by the recommending official to be material in making a recommended determination; and

(5) An audio recording of a supplemental oral response, if a supplemental oral response was conducted, and/or a transcript if a transcript was prepared at a respondent's request or if requested by the Director.

(f) The requirement that the recommending official provide to the Director the items described in paragraph (e) of this section shall confer no substantive rights on a respondent and any omission of an item may be cured by the recommending official to the extent applicable.

(g) Supplemental briefing. The recommending official may, at any time before making a recommended determination, request that the respondent and initiating official provide any supplemental briefing that the recommending official considers appropriate.

§ 1091.109 Determination by the Director.

(a) Not later than 45 days after receipt of the recommending official's recommended determination, the Director shall, after considering the recommended determination and all documents, records, and other items submitted therewith by the recommending official, make a determination either adopting without revision, modifying, or rejecting the recommended determination, and shall issue to respondent, with copies to the recommending official and the initiating official:

(1) A decision and order subjecting the respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C); or

(2) A notification that the Director has determined that the respondent is not subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) as a result of the proceedings. Such notification shall have no precedential effect and shall not prevent the issuance of another Notice of Reasonable Cause pursuant to either § 1091.102, or the procedures set forth in § 1091.111, at any time, or the issuance of an order based on another Notice subjecting the respondent to the Bureau's authority pursuant to either of those sections.

(b) Any decision and order issued by the Director pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall include:

(1) A statement that the Director adopts the recommending official's proposed decision and order without revision as the Director's decision and order, or that the Director rejects or modifies the recommending official's proposed determination for reasons set forth by the Director;

(2) A statement that the Director has determined that the Bureau has reasonable cause to determine that a respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services;

(3) The basis for the Director's determination, which may be an adoption of the basis set forth in the recommending official's proposed decision;

(4) An order directing that, pursuant to this determination, as of a specified date a respondent shall be subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514 and informing a respondent that the respondent may petition for termination of the Bureau's supervisory authority no sooner than two years from the date of the order, and no more than annually thereafter; and

(5) A copy of the recommended determination issued by the recommending official.

(c) Only decisional employees may advise and assist the Director in the consideration and disposition of a proceeding under this part.

(d) A decision and order issued pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall constitute final agency action under 5 U.S.C. 704.

(e) Any item required to be served on a respondent under this section shall be served pursuant to § 1091.107.

(f) The Director may, at any time before making a determination, request that the respondent and initiating official provide any supplemental briefing that the Director considers appropriate.

§ 1091.110 Voluntary consent to Bureau's authority.

(a) At any time, a person and the initiating official may enter into a consent agreement by which the person voluntarily consents to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514. The consent agreement shall constitute an order authorized by 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).

(b) A consent agreement under this section does not constitute an admission that a person is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.

(c) A consent agreement may specify a period of time that the person will be subject to the Bureau's authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514. If the consent agreement specifies a period of time, it shall not be eligible for a petition for termination pursuant to § 1091.113. If the consent agreement does not specify a period of time, the consent agreement will continue until terminated pursuant to § 1091.113.

(d) A consent agreement under this section shall state that the person waives any right to judicial review of the consent agreement.

(e) The initiating official encloses a proposed consent agreement with the Notice of Reasonable Cause under § 1091.103(b).

§ 1091.111 Notice and response included in adjudication proceeding otherwise brought by the Bureau.

(a) Notwithstanding §§ 1091.102 through 1091.106, the Bureau may, in its discretion, provide the notice and opportunity to respond required by 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) in a notice of charges otherwise brought by the Bureau pursuant to 12 CFR 1081.200 and the adjudication proceedings pursuant to part 1081. Also, a person may agree to submit to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) as part of a consent order entered into in connection with an adjudication proceeding or civil action.

(b) If the Bureau chooses to proceed in the manner described in paragraph (a) of this section, it shall so indicate in the notice of charges, and any order of the Director resulting from the notice of charges shall constitute the order referred to in 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).

(c) If the Bureau proceeds pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the provisions of §§ 1091.101 through 1091.110, and §§ 1091.113 through 1091.115 will be inapplicable to such proceeding.

§ 1091.112 No limitation on relief sought in civil action or administrative adjudication.

Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit the relief the Bureau may seek in any civil action or administrative adjudication, including but not limited to, seeking an order to have a person deemed subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514, including for the reasons set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).

Subpart C Post-Determination Procedures

§ 1091.113 Petition for termination of order.

(a) Any person subject to an order issued pursuant to § 1091.109(a)(1) may, no sooner than two years after issuance of such an order and no more frequently than annually thereafter, petition the Director for termination of the order.

(b) A petition for termination submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall set forth the reasons supporting termination of the order, including any actions taken by a respondent since issuance of the order to address the conduct that led to issuance of the order, and may include any supporting information or evidence that the petitioner believes is relevant to the Director's determination of the matter.

(c) A petition for termination shall be filed by the petitioner with the Executive Secretary at the mailing or electronic address provided by the Bureau.

(d) The Director shall, promptly upon receipt of a petition for termination, send a copy of the same to the initiating official.

(1) The initiating official may, within 30 days of his or her receipt of a copy of a petition for termination, file with the Director a response to the petition stating whether the initiating official recommends that the order be terminated, or modified, or that the petition for termination be denied and the basis for such recommendation.

(2) The initiating official shall serve a copy of the response to a petition for termination on the petitioner pursuant to § 1091.107 at the time of filing it with the Director.

(e) Not later than 90 days after submission of a petition under paragraph (a) of this section, the Director shall issue a written decision either terminating or modifying the order, or denying the petition. If the Director modifies the order or denies the petition, the Director shall explain the basis for his or her decision with respect to the petition and send the written decision to the petitioner and the initiating official.

(1) The Director shall serve the written decision on a petition for termination of order on a respondent pursuant to § 1091.107.

(2) The Director shall send a copy of the written decision on a petition for termination of order to the recommending official and initiating official promptly upon issuing the written decision.

(3) The decision of the Director made pursuant to this paragraph (e) shall constitute final agency action under 5 U.S.C. 704.

Subpart D Time Limits and Deadlines

§ 1091.114 Construction of time limits.

(a) General rule. In computing any period of time prescribed by this part, or by order of the recommending official or Director, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time, except when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Filing or service of papers. Filing and service are deemed to be effective:

(1) In the case of personal service or same day commercial courier delivery, upon actual receipt by the person served;

(2) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Postal Service Express Mail delivery, or First Class, Registered, or Certified Mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or

(3) In the case of electronic transmission, including email, upon transmission.

(c) Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers. Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:

(1) If service is made by U.S. Postal Service First Class, Registered, or Certified Mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;

(2) If service is made by Express Mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or

(3) If service is made by electronic transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period.

§ 1091.115 Change of time limits and confidentiality of proceedings.

(a) Except as otherwise provided by law, the recommending official until the issuance of a recommended determination, or the Director at any time thereafter, at their respective discretion, may extend the time limits prescribed by this part or by any notice or order issued pursuant to this part. Any request for an extension of a time limit by a respondent must be for good cause shown, in writing, and filed with the recommending official or Director, as appropriate. The mere filing of a written request for an extension does not alleviate a respondent of the obligation to meet an applicable time limit absent written confirmation that an extension has been granted.

(b) Deadlines for action by the initiating official, recommending official, or the Director established in this part confer no substantive rights on respondents.

(c) In connection with a proceeding under this part, including a petition for termination under § 1091.113, all documents, records or other items submitted by a respondent to the Bureau, all documents prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of the Bureau, and any communications between the Bureau and a person, shall be deemed confidential supervisory information under 12 CFR 1070.2(i).

1092-1099 PARTS 1092-1099 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER XI FEDERAL FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS EXAMINATION COUNCIL

1100 PART 1100 [RESERVED]

PART 1101 DESCRIPTION OF OFFICE, PROCEDURES, PUBLIC INFORMATION

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 3307.

Source: 45 FR 46794, July 11, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1101.1 Scope and purpose.

This part implements the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, with respect to the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (Council), and establishes related information disclosure procedures.

§ 1101.2 Authority and functions.

(a) The Council was established by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Act of 1978 (Act), 12 U.S.C. 3301-3308. It is composed of the Comptroller of the Currency; the Chairman of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a Governor of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; the Chairman of the Federal Home Loan Bank Board; and the Chairman of the National Credit Union Administration Board.

(b) The statutory functions of the Council are set out at 12 U.S.C. 3305. In summary, the mission of the Council is to promote consistency and progress in federal examination and supervision of financial institutions and their affiliates. The Council is empowered to prescribe uniform principles, standards, and reporting forms and systems; make recommendations in the interest of uniformity; and conduct examiner schools open to personnel of the agencies represented on the Council and employees of state financial institutions supervisory agencies.

§ 1101.3 Organization and methods of operation.

(a) Statutory requirements relating to the Council's organization are stated in 12 U.S.C. 3303.

(b) Council staff. Administrative support and substantive coordination for Council activities are provided by a small staff detailed on a full-time basis from the five member agencies. The Executive Secretary and Deputy Executive Secretary of the Council supervise this staff.

(c) Agency Liaison Group, Task Forces and Legal Advisory Group. Most staff support in the substantive areas of the Council's duties is provided by interagency task forces and the Council's Legal Advisory Group (LAG). These task forces and the LAG are responsible for securing the services, as needed, of staff experts from the five agencies; supervising research and other investigative work for the Council; and preparing reports and recommendations for the Council. The Agency Liaison Group (ALG) is responsible for the overall coordination of the respective agencies' staff contributions to Council business. The ALG, the task forces, and the LAG are each composed of Council member agency staff serving the Council on a part-time basis.

(d) State Liaison Committee. Under 12 U.S.C. 3306, the Council has established a State Liaison Committee, composed of five representatives of state financial institutions supervisory agencies.

(e) Council address. Council offices are located at 3501 Fairfax Drive, Room B-7081a, Arlington, VA, 22226-3550.

[45 FR 46794, July 11, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 7341, Mar. 8, 1988; 75 FR 71014, Nov. 22, 2010]

§ 1101.4 Disclosure of information, policies, and records.

(a) Statements of policy published in the Federal Register or available for public inspection in an electronic format; indices. (1) Under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(l), the Council publishes general rules, policies and interpretations in the Federal Register.

(2) Under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), policies and interpretations adopted by the Council, including instructions to Council staff affecting members of the public are available for public inspection in an electronic format at the office of the Executive Secretary of the Council, 3501 Fairfax Drive, Room B-7081a, Arlington, VA, 22226-3550, during regular business hours. Policies and interpretations of the Council may be withheld from disclosure under the principles stated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(3) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, are available for public inspection in an electronic format if they:

(i) Have been released to any person under paragraph (b) of this section; and

(ii)(A) Because of the nature of their subject matter, the Council determines that they have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or

(B) They have been requested three or more times.

(4) An index of the records referred to in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section is available for public inspection in an electronic format.

(b) Other records of the Council available to the public upon request; procedures—(1) General rule and exemptions. Under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3), all other records of the Council are available to the public upon request, except to the extent exempted from disclosure as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) and described in this paragraph (b)(1), or if disclosure is prohibited by law. Unless specifically authorized by the Council, or as set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the following records, and portions thereof, are not available to the public:

(i) A record, or portion thereof, which is specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and which is, in fact, properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order.

(ii) A record, or portion thereof, relating solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of an agency.

(iii) A record, or portion thereof, specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552b), provided that such statute:

(A) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; or

(B) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld.

(iv) A record, or portion thereof, containing trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential.

(v) An intra-agency or interagency memorandum or letter that would not be routinely available by law to a private party in litigation, including, but not limited to, memoranda, reports, and other documents prepared by the personnel of the Council or its constituent agencies, and records of deliberations of the Council and discussions of meetings of the Council, any Council Committee, or Council staff, that are not subject to 5 U.S.C. 552b (the Government in the Sunshine Act). In applying this exemption, the Council will not withhold records based on the deliberative process privilege if the records were created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.

(vi) A personnel, medical, or similar record, including a financial record, or any portion thereof, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.

(vii) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, to the extent permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7), including records relating to a proceeding by a financial institution's State or Federal regulatory agency for the issuance of a cease-anddesist order, or order of suspension or removal, or assessment of a civil money penalty and the granting, withholding, or revocation of any approval, permission, or authority.

(viii) A record, or portion thereof, containing, relating to, or derived from an examination, operating, or condition report prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of any State or Federal agency directly or indirectly responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions.

(ix) A record, or portion thereof, which contains or is related to geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.

(2) Discretionary release of exempt information. Notwithstanding the applicability of an exemption, the Council will only withhold records requested under this paragraph (b) if the Council reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption listed in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) and described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. In addition, whenever the Council determines that full disclosure of a requested record is not possible, the Council will consider whether partial disclosure is possible and will take reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release the nonexempt portion of a record. The Council or the Council's designee may elect, under the circumstances of a particular request, to disclose all or a portion of any requested record where permitted by law. Such disclosure has no precedential significance.

(3) Procedure for records request-(i) Initial request. Requests for records shall be submitted in writing to the Executive Secretary of the Council:

(A) By sending a letter to: FFIEC, Attn: Executive Secretary, 3501 Fairfax Drive, Room B-708la, Arlington, VA, 22226-3550. Both the mailing envelope and the request should be marked “Freedom of Information Request,” “FOIA Request,” or the like; or

(B) By facsimile clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Request,” “FOIA Request,” or the like to the Executive Secretary at (703) 562-6446; or

(C) By email to the address provided on the FFIEC's World Wide Web page, found at: http://www.ffiec.gov. Requests must reasonably describe the records sought.

(ii) Contents of request. All requests should contain the following information:

(A) The name and mailing address of the requester, an electronic mail address, if available, and the telephone number at which the requester may be reached during normal business hours;

(B) A statement as to whether the information is intended for commercial use, and whether the requester is an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, or news media representative; and

(C) A statement agreeing to pay all applicable fees, or a statement identifying any desired fee limitation, or a request for a waiver or reduction of fees that satisfies paragraph (b)(5)(ii)(H) of this section.

(iii) Defective requests. The Council need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this section. The Executive Secretary may return a defective request specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as an initial request.

(iv) Expedited processing. (A) Where a person requesting expedited access to records has demonstrated a compelling need for the records, or where the Executive Secretary has determined to expedite the response, the Executive Secretary shall process the request as soon as practicable. To show a compelling need for expedited processing, the requester shall provide a statement demonstrating that:

(1) Failure to obtain the records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or

(2) The requester is primarily engaged in information dissemination as a main professional occupation or activity, and there is urgency to inform the public of the government activity involved in the request.

(B) The requester's statement must be certified to be true and correct to the best of the person's knowledge and belief and explain in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing.

(C) The formality of the certification required to obtain expedited treatment may be waived by the Executive Secretary as a matter of administrative discretion.

(v) Response to initial requests. (A) Except where the Executive Secretary has determined to expedite the processing of a request, the Executive Secretary will respond by mail or electronic mail to all properly submitted initial requests within 20 working days of receipt. The time for response may be extended up to 10 additional working days in unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), where the Council has provided written notice to the requester setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched. In addition, where the extension of the 20-day time limit exceeds 10 working days, as described by the FOIA, the requester shall be provided with an opportunity to modify the scope of the FOIA request so that it can be processed within that time frame or provided an opportunity to arrange an alternative time frame for processing the request or a modified request. To aid the requester, the Council's FOIA Public Liaison is available to assist the requester for this purpose and in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and the Council. The Council's FOIA Public Liaison's contact information is available at http://www.ffiec.gov/foia.htm. The requester may also seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.

(B) In response to a request that reasonably describes the records sought and otherwise satisfies the requirements of this section, a search shall be conducted of records in existence and maintained by the Council on the date of receipt of the request, and a review made of any responsive information located. The Executive Secretary shall notify the requester of:

(1) The Executive Secretary's determination of the response to the request;

(2) The reasons for the determination;

(3) The right of the requester to seek assistance from the Council's FOIA Public Liaison; and

(4) When an adverse determination is made (including a determination that the requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester; a fee waiver request or other fee categorization matter is denied; and a request for expedited processing is denied), the Executive Secretary will advise the requester in writing of that determination and will further advise the requester:

(i) If the denial is in part or in whole;

(ii) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (when other than the person signing the notification);

(iii) The exemptions relied on for the denial;

(iv) The right of the requester to appeal any adverse determination to the Chairman of the Council within 90 days following the date of issuance of the notification, as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section; and

(v) The right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the Council's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services.

(vi) Appeals of responses to initial requests. A requester may appeal any adverse determination in writing, within 90 days of the date of issuance of the adverse determination. Appeals should refer to the date and tracking number of the original request and the date of the Council's initial ruling. Appeals should include an explanation of the basis for the appeal. Appeals shall be submitted to the Chairman of the Council:

(A) By sending a letter to: FFIEC, Attn: Executive Secretary, 3501 Fairfax Drive, Room B-7081a, Arlington, VA, 22226-3550. Both the mailing envelope and the request should be marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal,” “FOIA Appeal,” or the like; or

(B) By facsimile clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal,” “FOIA Appeal,” or the like to the Executive Secretary at (703) 562-6446; or

(C) By email with the subject line marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal,” “FOIA Appeal,” or the like to FOIA@ffiec.gov.

(vii) Council response to appeals. The Chairman of the Council, or another member designated by the Chairman, will respond to all properly submitted appeals within 20 working days of actual receipt of the appeal by the Executive Secretary. The time for response may be extended up to 10 additional working days, as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), or for other periods by agreement between the requester and the Chairman or the Chairman's designee.

(4) Procedure for access to records if request is granted. (i) When a request for access to records is granted, in whole or in part, a copy of the records to be disclosed will be promptly delivered to the requester or made available for inspection in an electronic format, whichever was requested. Inspection of records, or duplication and delivery of copies of records, will be arranged so as not to interfere with their use by the Council and other users of the records.

(ii) When delivery to the requester is to be made, copies of requested records shall be sent to the requester by regular U.S. mail to the address indicated in the request, unless the Executive Secretary deems it appropriate to send the documents by another means.

(iii) The Council shall provide a copy of the record in any form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible by the Council in that form or format, but the Council need not provide more than one copy of any record to a requester.

(iv) By arrangement with the requester, the Executive Secretary may elect to send the responsive records electronically if a substantial portion of the records is in electronic format. If the information requested is subject to disclosure under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, it will not be sent by electronic means unless reasonable security measures can be established.

(5) Fees for document search, review, and duplication; waiver and reduction of fee—(i) Definitions—(A) Direct costs means those expenditures which the Council actually incurs in searching for, duplicating, and reviewing documents to respond to a FOIA request.

(B) Search means all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents. Searches may be done manually or by computer using existing programming.

(C) Duplication means the process of making a copy of a document necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Such copies can take the form of paper copy, microfilm, audiovisual records, or machine readable records (e.g., magnetic tape or computer disk).

(D) Review means the process of examining documents located in response to a request that is for a commercial use (see paragraph (b)(5)(i)(E) of this section) to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted to be withheld and processing such documents for disclosure.

(E) Commercial use request means a request from or on behalf of one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. In determining whether a request falls within this category, the Executive Secretary will determine the use to which a requester will put the records requested and seek additional information as the Executive Secretary deems necessary.

(F) Educational institution means a preschool, an elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education, which operates a program or programs of scholarly research.

(G) Noncommercial scientific institution means an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis as that term is referenced in paragraph (b)(5)(i)(E) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purposes of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.

(H) Representative of the news media means any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. In this paragraph (b)(5)(i)(H), the term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news-media entities are television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase by or subscription by or free distribution to the general public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example, the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media shall be considered to be news-media entities. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news-media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the Council may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making such a determination.

(ii) Fees to be charged. The Council will charge fees that recoup the full allowable direct costs it incurs, except that the charging of search and/or duplication fees is subject to the restrictions of paragraph (b)(5)(ii)(G) of this section. The Council may contract with the private sector to locate, reproduce, and/or disseminate records. Provided, however, that the Council has ensured that the ultimate cost to the requester is no greater than it would be if the Council performed these tasks. Fees are subject to change as costs change. In no case will the Council contract out responsibilities which the FOIA provides that it alone may discharge, such as determining the applicability of an exemption, or determining whether to waive or reduce fees.

(A) Manual searches and review. The Council will charge fees at the following rates for manual searches for and review of records:

(1) If search/review is done by clerical staff, the hourly rate for GS-7, step 5, plus 16 percent of the rate to cover benefits;

(2) If search/review is done by professional staff, the hourly rate for GS-13, step 5, plus 16 percent of the rate to cover benefits.

(B) Computer searches. The Council will charge fees at the hourly rate for GS-13, step 5, plus 16 percent of the rate to cover benefits, plus the hourly cost of operating the computer for computer searches for records.

(C) Duplication of records. (1) The per-page fee for paper copy reproduction of a document is $.25;

(2) The fee for records generated by computer is the hourly rate for the computer operator (at GS-7, step 5, plus 16 percent for benefits if clerical staff, and GS-13, step 5, plus 16 percent for benefits if professional staff) plus the cost of materials (computer paper, tapes, disks, labels, etc.).

(3) If any other method of duplication is used, the Council will charge the actual direct cost of duplicating the records.

(D) Hourly rates. If search, duplication and/or review is provided by personnel of member agencies of the Council, fees will reflect their actual hourly rates, plus 16 percent for benefits.

(E) Fees to exceed $25. If the Council estimates that duplication and/or search fees are likely to exceed $25, it will notify the requester of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has indicated in advance his/her willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. In the case of such notification by the Council, the requester will then have the opportunity to confer with the Council's FOIA Public Liaison with the object of reformulating the request to meet his/her needs at a lower cost.

(F) Other services. Complying with requests for special services such as certifying records as true copies or mailing records by express mail is entirely at the discretion of the Council. The Council will recover the full costs of providing such services to the extent it elects to provide them.

(G) Restriction on assessing fees. (1) The Council will not charge fees to any requester, including commercial use requesters, if the cost of collecting a fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself.

(2)(i) If the Council fails to comply with the time limits specified in the FOIA in which to respond to a request, the Council will not charge search fees, or, in the case of a requester described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, will not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (b)(5)(ii)(G)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section.

(ii) If the Council has determined that unusual circumstances apply (as the term is defined in the FOIA) and the Council provided a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 working days.

(iii) If the Council has determined that unusual circumstances apply (as the term is defined in the FOIA) and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Council may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken: The Council provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA; and The Council discussed with the requester via written mail, email message, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, the Council may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.

(iv) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.

(H) Waiving or reducing fees. As part of the initial request for records, a requester may ask that the Council waive or reduce fees if disclosure of the records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Council and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. The initial request for records must also state the justification for a waiver or reduction of fees. Determinations as to a waiver or reduction of fees will be made by the Executive Secretary of the Council and the requester will be notified in writing of his/her determination. A determination not to grant a request for a waiver or reduction of fees under this paragraph (b)(5)(ii)(H) may be appealed to the Chairman of the Council pursuant to the procedure set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section.

(iii) Categories of requesters—(A) Commercial use requesters. The Council will assess fees for commercial use requesters sufficient to recover the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought. Commercial use requesters are not entitled to two hours of free search time nor 100 free pages of reproduction of documents.

(B) News media, educational and noncommercial scientific institution requesters. Requesters who are representatives of the news media, educational and noncommercial scientific institution requesters. The Council shall provide documents to requesters in these categories for the cost of reproduction alone, excluding fees for the first 100 pages.

(C) All other requesters. The Council shall charge requesters who do not fit into any of the categories in paragraphs (b)(5)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section fees which recover the full reasonable direct cost of searching for and reproducing records that are responsive to the request, except that the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first two hours of search time shall be furnished without a fee.

(D) Description of records. All requesters must specifically describe records sought.

(iv) Interest on unpaid fees. The Council may begin assessing interest charges on an unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the day on which the bill was sent. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing.

(v) Fees for unsuccessful search and review. The Council may assess fees for time spent searching and reviewing, even if it fails to locate the records or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure.

(vi) Aggregating requests. A requester(s) may not file multiple requests each seeking portions of a document or documents, solely in order to avoid payment of fees. If this is done, the Council may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. In no case will the Council aggregate multiple requests on unrelated subjects from the same requester.

(vii) Advance payment of fees. The Council will not require a requester to make an assurance of payment or an advance payment unless:

(A) The Council estimates or determines that allowable charges that a requester may be required to pay are likely to exceed $250. The Council will notify the requester of the likely cost and obtain satisfactory assurance of full payment where the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees, or require an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case of requesters with no history of payment; or

(B) A requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged in a timely fashion. The Council may require the requester to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(iv) of this section or demonstrate that he/she has, in fact, paid the fee, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the Council begins to process a new request or a pending request from that requester.

(C) When the Council acts under paragraph (b)(5)(vii)(A) or (B) of this section, the administrative time limits prescribed in subsection (a)(6) of the FOIA (i.e., 20 working days from receipt of initial requests, plus permissible extensions of these time limits) will begin only after the Council has received the fee payments described.

(6) Records of another agency. If a requested record originated with or incorporates the information of another State or Federal agency or department, upon receipt of a request for the record the Council will promptly inform the requester of this circumstance and immediately shall forward the request to the originating agency or department either for processing in accordance with the latter's regulations or for guidance with respect to disposition.

[82 FR 30726, July 3, 2017]

§ 1101.5 Testimony and production of documents in response to subpoena, order, etc.

No person shall testify, in court or otherwise, as a result of activities on behalf of the Council without prior written authorization from the Council. This section shall not restrict the authority of a Council member to testify before Congress on matters within his or her official responsibilities as a Council member. No person shall furnish documents reflecting information of the Council in compliance with a subpoena, order, or otherwise, without prior written authorization from the Council. The Council may authorize testimony or production of documents after the litigant (or the litigant's attorney) submits an affidavit to the Council setting forth the interest of the litigant and the testimony or documents desired. Authorization to testify or produce documents is limited to authority expressly granted by the Council. When the Council has not authorized testimony or production of documents, the individual to whom the subpoena or order has been directed will appear in court and respectfully state that he or she is unable to comply further with the subpoena or order by reason of this section.

PART 1102 APPRAISER REGULATION

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 3348(a), 3332, 3335, 3338 (a)(4)(B), 3348(c), 5 U.S.C. 552a, 553(e); Executive Order 12600, 52 FR 23781 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235).

Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to part appear at 83 FR 43739, Aug. 28, 2018.

Subpart A Temporary Waiver Requests

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 3348(b).

Source: 87 60875, Oct. 7, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1102.1 Authority, purpose, and scope.

(a) Authority. This subpart is issued under section 1119(b) of Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (Title XI; 12 U.S.C. 3348(b)).

(b) Purpose and scope. This subpart prescribes rules of practice and procedure governing temporary waiver proceedings under section 1119(b) of Title XI (12 U.S.C. 3348(b)). These procedures apply whenever a Request for Temporary Waiver is submitted to the Appraisal Subcommittee (ASC) of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) for a temporary waiver of any requirement relating to State certification or licensing (credentialing requirements) of persons eligible to perform appraisals for federally related transactions (FRTs) under Title XI. These procedures also apply in the event the ASC receives a Petition requesting the ASC initiate a temporary waiver proceeding. This subpart also contains the ASC's interpretations of terms used in section 1119(b) of Title XI.

§ 1102.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

(a) Federally related transaction (FRT) means any real estate-related financial transaction which:

(1) A Federal financial institutions regulatory agency engages in, contracts for, or regulates; and

(2) Requires the services of an appraiser under the interagency appraisal rules. ((Title XI, section 1121(4), 12 U.S.C. 3350), implemented by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency: 12 CFR 34.42(g) and 34.43(a); Federal Reserve Board: 12 CFR 225.62 and 225.63(a); Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation: 12 CFR 323.2(f) and 323.3(a); and National Credit Union Administration: 12 CFR 722.2(f) and 722.3(a).)

(b) Performance of appraisals means the appraisal service requested of an appraiser is provided to the lender or appraisal management company (AMC).

(c) Petition means information submitted to the ASC by the Federal or State financial institutions regulatory agencies, their respective regulated financial institutions, or other persons or institutions with a demonstrable interest in appraiser regulation, including a State Appraisal Agency, asking the ASC to exercise its discretionary authority to initiate a temporary waiver proceeding, and that meets the requirements, as determined by the ASC, set forth in § 1102.4.

(d) Request for Temporary Waiver means information submitted to the ASC by a State Appraisal Agency with a written determination requesting a temporary waiver that meets the requirements, as determined by the ASC, set forth in § 1102.3.

(e) Scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers means the number of active certified or licensed appraisers within a State or a specified geographical political subdivision is insufficient to meet the demand for appraisal services and such appraisers are difficult to retain.

(f) Significant delays in the performance of appraisals means delays that are substantially out of the ordinary when compared to performance of appraisals for similarly situated FRTs based on factors such as geographic location (e.g., rural versus urban) and assignment type, and the delay is not the result of intervening circumstances outside the appraiser's control or brought about by the appraiser's client (e.g., inability to access the subject property).

(g) State Appraisal Agency means the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency (Title XI, section 1121(1); see also 12 U.S.C. 3350(1)).

(h) Temporary waiver means a waiver of any or all credentialing requirements for persons eligible to perform appraisals for FRTs; if granted, a temporary waiver does not waive the requirement for a Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP)-compliant appraisal.

§ 1102.3 Request for Temporary Waiver.

(a) Who can file a Request for Temporary Waiver. The State Appraisal Agency for the State in which the temporary waiver relief is sought may file a Request for Temporary Waiver.

(b) Contents and receipt of a Request for Temporary Waiver. A Request for Temporary Waiver from a State Appraisal Agency will not be deemed received by the ASC unless it fully and accurately sets out:

(1) A written determination by the State Appraisal Agency that there is a scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a specified class of FRTs within either a portion of, or the entire State;

(2) The requirement(s) of State law from which relief is being sought;

(3) The nature of the scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers (including supporting documentation, statistical or otherwise verifiable);

(4) The extent of the delays anticipated or experienced in the performance of appraisals by certified or licensed appraisers (including supporting documentation, statistical or otherwise verifiable);

(5) How complaints concerning appraisals by persons who are not certified or licensed would be processed in the event a temporary waiver is granted; and

(6) Meaningful suggestions and recommendations for remedying the situation.

(c) Receipt of a Request for Temporary Waiver. A Request for Temporary Waiver shall be deemed received for purposes of publication in the Federal Register for notice and comment if the ASC determines that the information submitted meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section to support that a scarcity of appraisers exists and that the scarcity is leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a specified class of FRTs within either a portion of, or the entire State.

(d) Deny or refer back. In the event the Request for Temporary Waiver is not deemed received, it may be denied in its entirety or referred back to the State Appraisal Agency for further action. In either case, the ASC shall provide written notice to the State Appraisal Agency providing an explanation for the determination.

§ 1102.4 Petition requesting the ASC initiate a temporary waiver proceeding.

(a) Who can file a Petition requesting the ASC initiate a temporary waiver proceeding. The Federal or State financial institutions regulatory agencies, their respective regulated financial institutions, and other persons or institutions with a demonstrable interest in appraiser regulation, including a State Appraisal Agency, may petition the ASC to exercise its discretionary authority to initiate a temporary waiver proceeding.

(b) Contents of a Petition. (1) A Petition should include:

(i) Information (statistical or otherwise verifiable) to support the existence of a scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a specified class of FRTs for either a portion of, or the entire State; and

(ii) The extent of the delays anticipated or experienced in the performance of appraisals by certified or licensed appraisers (including supporting documentation, statistical or otherwise verifiable).

(2) A Petition may also include meaningful suggestions and recommendations for remedying the situation.

(c) Copy of Petition to State Appraisal Agency. In the case of a Petition from a party other than a State Appraisal Agency, the party must promptly provide a copy of its Petition to the State Appraisal Agency.

(d) ASC review of a Petition. A Petition may be processed for further action if the ASC determines that the information submitted meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and that further action should be taken to determine whether a scarcity of appraisers exists and that the scarcity is leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a specified class of FRTs within either a portion of, or the entire State.

(e) Deny or refer back. In the event a Petition does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section it may be denied in its entirety or referred back to the petitioner for further action. In either event, the ASC shall provide written notice to the petitioner providing an explanation for the determination.

(f) Further action on a Petition. If the ASC determines that a Petition should be processed for further action, at its discretion the ASC may:

(1) Refer a Petition to the State Appraisal Agency where temporary waiver relief is sought for further evaluation and study, to include items that would be addressed in a Request for Temporary Waiver (see § 1102.3(b)); or

(2) Take further action without referring the Petition to the State Appraisal Agency.

(g) State Appraisal Agency action. (1) In the event the State Appraisal Agency opts to conduct further evaluation and study on a Petition, the State Appraisal Agency may:

(i) Issue a written determination that there is a scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a class of FRTs within either a portion of, or the entire State (or request that the ASC issue such a written determination), in which case, the procedures and requirements of §§ 1102.3 and 1102.6(a) shall apply; or

(ii) Recommend that the ASC take no further action.

(2) In the event the State Appraisal Agency either recommends no further action or declines to conduct further evaluation and study on a Petition, the ASC may exercise its discretion in determining whether to issue an Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding in accordance with § 1102.5(a).

§ 1102.5 Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding.

The ASC may exercise discretion in determining whether to issue an Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding in response to a Petition, or alternatively, the ASC may exercise discretion to initiate a temporary waiver proceeding on its own initiative without a Petition being submitted. In either event, such an Order would include consideration of certain items that would be addressed in a Request for Temporary Waiver. (See, e.g., § 1102.3(b)(2) through (6).) If such an Order is issued, the ASC shall publish a Federal Register notice in accordance with § 1102.6(b).

§ 1102.6 Notice and comment.

(a) The ASC shall publish promptly in the Federal Register a notice respecting:

(1) A received Request for Temporary Waiver (see § 1102.3(c)); or

(2) An ASC Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding (see § 1102.5).

(b) The notice of a received Request for Temporary Waiver or ASC Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding shall contain a concise statement of the nature and basis for the action and shall give interested persons 30 calendar days from its publication in which to submit written data, views, and arguments.

§ 1102.7 ASC determination.

(a) Order by the ASC. Within 90 calendar days of the date of publication of the notice in the Federal Register, the ASC, by Order, shall either grant or deny a waiver, in whole or in part, and upon specified terms and conditions, including provisions for waiver termination. The Order shall be published in the Federal Register, which in the case of an Order approving a waiver, shall only be published after FFIEC approval of the waiver (see paragraph (b) of this section). Such Order shall respond to comments received from interested members of the public and shall provide the reasons for the ASC's finding(s).

(b) Approval by the FFIEC. Any ASC Order approving a waiver shall be effective only upon FFIEC approval of the waiver. FFIEC consideration of a waiver is not subject to the ASC's 90-day timeframe for a determination.

§ 1102.8 Waiver extension.

The ASC may initiate an extension of temporary waiver relief and shall follow §§ 1102.6, 1102.7 and 1102.9. A State Appraisal Agency also may seek an extension of temporary waiver relief by forwarding an additional written Request for Temporary Waiver to the ASC. A request for an extension from a State Appraisal Agency shall be subject to all the requirements of this subpart.

§ 1102.9 Waiver termination.

(a) Mandatory waiver termination. The ASC shall terminate a temporary waiver Order when the ASC determines that significant delays in the performance of appraisals by certified or licensed appraisers no longer exist.

(b) Discretionary waiver termination. The ASC at any time may terminate a waiver Order on the finding that the terms and conditions of the waiver Order are not being satisfied.

(c) Publication in the Federal Register. The ASC shall publish either a mandatory or discretionary waiver termination in the Federal Register, and a discretionary waiver termination requires such publication with a 30-day comment period. In the absence of further ASC action to the contrary, a discretionary waiver termination automatically becomes final 21 calendar days after the close of the comment period. A mandatory waiver termination is final upon such a determination being made by the ASC.

Subpart B Rules of Practice for Proceedings

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 3332, 3335, 3347, and 3348(c).

Source: 57 FR 31650, July 17, 1992, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1102.20 Authority, purpose, and scope.

(a) Authority. This subpart is issued under sections 1103, 1106, 1118 and 1119(c) of title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (12 U.S.C. 3332, 3335, 3347, and 3348(c)).

(b) Purpose and scope. This subpart prescribes rules of practice and procedure governing non-recognition proceedings under section 1118 of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3347); and other proceedings necessary to carry out the purposes of title XI under section 1119(c) of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3348(c)).

[57 FR 31650, July 17, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 35004, Aug. 7, 1992]

§ 1102.21 Definitions.

As used in this subpart:

(a) Subcommittee or ASC means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, as established under section 1011 of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3310).

(b) Party means the ASC or a person, agency or other entity named as a party, including, when appropriate, persons appearing in the proceeding under § 1102.22 of this subpart.

(c) Respondent means any party other than the ASC.

(d) Secretary means the Secretary of the ASC under its Rules of Operation.

§ 1102.22 Appearance and practice before the Subcommittee.

(a) By attorneys and notice of appearance. Any person who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State or of the District of Columbia, or of any possession, territory, or commonwealth of the United States, may represent parties before the ASC upon filing with the Secretary a written notice of appearance stating that he or she is currently qualified as provided in this paragraph and is authorized to represent the particular party on whose behalf he or she acts.

(b) By non-attorneys. An individual may appear on his or her own behalf. A member of a partnership may represent the partnership, and an officer, director or employee of any government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority may represent that unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority. The partner, officer, director or employee must file with the Secretary a written statement that he or she has been duly authorized by the partnership, government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority to act on its behalf. The ASC may require the representative to attach to the statement appropriate supporting documentation, such as a corporate resolution.

(c) Conduct during proceedings. All participants in a proceeding shall conduct themselves with dignity and in an orderly and ethical manner. The attorney or other representative of a party shall make every effort to restrain a client from improper conduct in connection with a proceeding. Improper language or conduct, refusal to comply with directions, use of dilatory tactics, or refusal to adhere to reasonable standards of orderly and ethical conduct constitute grounds for immediate exclusion from the proceeding at the direction of the ASC.

§ 1102.23 Formal requirements as to papers filed.

(a) Form. All papers filed under this subpart must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on 8 1/2″ × 11″ paper. All copies shall be clear and legible.

(b) Caption. All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the ASC and of the filing party, the title and/or docket number of the proceeding and the subject of the particular paper.

(c) Party names, signatures, certificates of service. All papers filed must set forth the name, address and telephone number of the attorney or party making the filing, must be signed by the attorney or party, and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties.

(d) Copies. Unless otherwise specifically provided in the notice of proceeding or by the ASC during the proceeding, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be furnished to the Secretary.

§ 1102.24 Filing requirements.

(a) Filing. All papers filed with the ASC in any proceeding shall be filed with the Secretary, Appraisal Subcommittee, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.

(b) Manner of filing. Unless otherwise specified by the ASC, filing may be accomplished by:

(1) Personal service;

(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery; and

(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.

[57 FR 31650, July 17, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004]

§ 1102.25 Service.

(a) Methods; appearing party. A serving party, who has made an appearance under § 1102.22 of this subpart, shall use one or more of the following methods of service:

(1) Personal service;

(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery; and

(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.

(b) Methods; non-appearing party. If a party has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 1102.22 of this subpart, the ASC or any other party shall make service by any of the following methods:

(1) By personal service;

(2) By delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the party's last known address;

(3) By registered or certified mail addressed to the party's last known address; or

(4) By any other manner reasonably calculated to give actual notice.

(c) By the Subcommittee. All papers required to be served by the ASC shall be served by the Secretary unless some other person shall be designated for such purpose by the ASC.

(d) By the respondent. All papers filed in a proceeding under this subpart shall be served by a respondent on the Secretary and each party's attorney, or, if any party is not so represented, then upon such party. Such service may be made by any of the appropriate methods specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.

§ 1102.26 When papers are deemed filed or served.

(a) Effectiveness. Filing and service are deemed effective:

(1) For personal service or same-day commercial courier delivery, upon actual delivery; and

(2) For overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Express Mail delivery, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in, or delivery to, an appropriate point of collection.

(b) Modification. The effective times for filing and service in paragraph (a) of this section may be modified by the ASC in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.

§ 1102.27 Computing time.

(a) General rule. In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this subpart, the date of the act, event or default from which the designated period of time begins to run is not included. The last day so computed is included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day which is not a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays shall not be included in the computation.

(b) For service and filing responsive papers. Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time periods are calculated as follows:

(1) If service is made by first class, registered or certified mail, add three days to the prescribed period; and

(2) If service is made by express mail or overnight delivery service, add one day to the prescribed period.

§ 1102.28 Documents and exhibits in proceedings public.

Unless and until otherwise ordered by the ASC or unless otherwise provided by statute or by ASC regulation, all documents, papers and exhibits filed in connection with any proceeding, other than those that may be withheld from disclosure under applicable law, shall be placed by the Secretary in the proceeding's public file and will be available for public inspection and copying at the address set out in § 1102.24 of this subpart.

§ 1102.29 Conduct of proceedings.

(a) In general. Unless otherwise provided in the notice of proceedings, all proceedings under this subpart shall be conducted as hereinafter provided.

(b) Written submissions. All aspects of the proceeding shall be conducted by written submissions only, with the exception of oral presentations allowed under § 1102.36 of this subpart.

(c) Disqualification. A Subcommittee member who deems himself or herself disqualified may at any time withdraw. Upon receipt of a timely and sufficient affidavit of personal bias or disqualification of such member, the ASC will rule on the matter as a part of the record and decision in the case.

(d) User of ASC staff. Appropriate members of the ASC's staff who are not engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions in the proceeding may advise and assist the ASC in the consideration of the case and in the preparation of appropriate documents for its disposition.

(e) Authority of Subcommittee Chairperson. The Chairperson of the ASC, in consultation with other members of the ASC whenever appropriate, shall have complete charge of the proceeding and shall have the duty to conduct it in a fair and impartial manner and to take all necessary action to avoid delay in the disposition of proceedings in accordance with this subpart.

(f) Conferences. (1) The ASC may on its own initiative or at the request of any party, direct all parties or counsel to meet with one or more duly authorized ASC members or staff at a specified time and place, or to submit to the ASC or its designee, suggestions in writing for the purpose of considering any or all of the following:

(i) Scheduling of matters, including a timetable for the information-gathering phase of the proceeding;

(ii) Simplification and clarification of the issues;

(iii) Stipulations and admissions of fact and of the content and authenticity of documents;

(iv) Matters of which official notice will be taken; and

(v) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding, including disclosure of the names of persons submitting affidavits or other documents and exhibits which may be introduced into the public file of the proceeding.

(2) Such conferences will not be recorded, but the Secretary shall place in the proceeding's public file a memorandum summarizing the results of the conference and shall provide a copy of the memorandum to each party. The memorandum shall control the subsequent course of the proceedings, unless the ASC for good cause shown by one or more parties to the conference, modifies those results and instructs the Secretary to place an amendatory memorandum to that effect in the public file.

(g) Changes or extensions of time and changes of place of proceeding. The ASC, in connection with initiating a specific proceedings under § 1102.32 of this subpart, may instruct the Secretary to publish in the Federal Register time limits different from those specified in this subpart, and may, on its own initiative or for good cause shown, issue an exemption changing the place of the proceeding or extending any time limit prescribed by this subpart, including the date for ending the information-gathering phase of the proceeding.

(h) Call for further briefs, memoranda, statements; reopening of matters. The ASC may call for the production of further information upon any issue, the submission of briefs, memoranda and statements (together with written responses), and, upon appropriate notice, may reopen any aspect of the proceeding at any time prior to a decision on the matter.

[57 FR 31650, July 17, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 35004, Aug. 7, 1992]

§ 1102.30 Rules of evidence.

(a) In general. (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 et seq.) and other applicable law.

(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted under this subpart.

(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may be deemed or ruled admissible in a proceeding conducted under this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.

(b) Stipulations. Any party may stipulate in writing as to any relevant matters of fact, law, or the authenticity of any relevant documents. The Secretary shall place such stipulations in the public file, and they shall be binding on the parties.

(c) Official notice. Every matter officially noticed by the ASC shall appear in the public file, unless the ASC determines that the matter must be withheld from public disclosure under applicable Federal law.

§ 1102.31 Burden of proof.

The ultimate burden of proof shall be on the respondent. The burden of going forward with a prima facie case shall be on the ASC.

§ 1102.32 Notice of Intention to Commence a Proceeding.

The ASC shall instruct the Secretary or other designated officer acting for the ASC to publish in the Federal Register a Notice of Intention To Commence A Proceeding (Notice of Intention). The Notice of Intention shall be served upon the party or parties to the proceeding and shall commence at the time of service. The Notice of Intention shall state the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the proceeding is to be held; shall contain, or incorporate by appropriate reference, a specific statement of the matters of fact or law constituting the grounds for the proceeding; and shall state a date no sooner than 25 days after service of the Notice of Intention is made for termination of the information-gathering phase of the proceeding. The Notice of Intention also must contain a bold-faced warning respecting the effect of a failure to file a Rebuttal or Notice Not To Contest under § 1102.33(d) of this subpart. The ASC may amend a Notice of Intention in any manner and to the extent consistent with provisions of applicable law.

§ 1102.33 Rebuttal or Notice Not To Contest.

(a) When required. A party to the proceeding may file either a Rebuttal or a Notice Not to Contest the statements contained in the Notice of Intention or any amendment thereto with the Secretary within 15 days after being served with the Notice of Intention or an amendment to such Notice. The Secretary shall place the Rebuttal or the Notice Not To Contest in the public file.

(b) Requirements of Rebuttal; effect of failure to deny. A Rebuttal filed under this section shall specifically admit, deny or state that the party does not have sufficient information to admit or deny each statement in the Notice of Intention. A statement of lack of information shall have the effect of a denial. Any statement not denied shall be deemed to be admitted. When a party intends to deny only a part or a qualification of a statement, the party shall admit so much of it as is true and shall deny only the remainder.

(c) Notice Not To Contest. A party filing a Notice Not To Contest the statement of fact set forth in the Notice of Intention shall constitute a waiver of the party's opportunity to rebut the facts alleged, and together with the Notice of Intention and any referenced documents, will provide a record basis on which the ASC shall decide the matter. The filing of a Notice Not To Contest shall not constitute a waiver of the right of such party to a judicial review of the ASC's decision, findings and conclusions.

(d) Effect of failure to file Rebuttal or Notice Not To Contest. Failure of a party to file a response required by this section within the time provided shall constitute a waiver of the party's opportunity to rebut and to contest the statements in the Notice of Intention and shall constitute authorization for the ASC to find the facts to be as presented in the Notice of Intention and to file with the Secretary a decision containing such findings and appropriate conclusions. The ASC, for good cause shown, will permit the filing of a Rebuttal after the prescribed time.

§ 1102.34 Briefs, memoranda and statements.

(a) By the parties. Until the end of the information-gathering phase of the proceeding, any party may file with the Secretary a written brief, memorandum or other statement providing factual data and policy and legal arguments regarding the matters set out in the Notice of Intention. The filing party shall simultaneously serve other parties to the proceeding with a copy of the document. No later than ten days after such service, any party may file with the Secretary a written response to the document and must simultaneously serve a copy thereof on the other parties to the proceeding. The Secretary will receive documents and responses and will place them in the public file.

(b) By interested persons, in non-recognition proceedings. Until the end of the information-gathering phase of a proceeding under section 1118 of FIRREA (12 U.S.C. 3347), any person with a demonstrable, direct interest in the outcome of the proceeding may file with the Secretary a written brief, memorandum or other statement providing factual data and policy and legal arguments regarding the matters set out in the Notice of Intention. The ASC's Chairperson or his or her designee may not accept any such written brief, memorandum or other statement if the submitting person cannot demonstrate a direct interest in the outcome of the proceeding. Upon acceptance of the written brief, memorandum or other statement, the Secretary shall make copies of the document and forward one copy thereof to each party to the proceeding. No later than ten days after such service, any party may file with the Secretary a written response to the document and must simultaneously serve one copy thereof on the other parties to the proceeding. The Secretary will place a copy of such briefs, memoranda, statements and responses in the public file.

§ 1102.35 Opportunity for informal settlement.

Any party may at any time submit to the Secretary, for consideration by the Subcommittee, written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of the parties. No offer or proposal shall be included in the proceeding's public file over the objection of any party to such proceeding. This paragraph shall not preclude settlement of any proceeding by the filing of a Notice Not To Contest as provided in § 1102.33(c) or by the submission of the case to the ASC on a stipulation of facts.

§ 1102.36 Oral presentations.

(a) In general. A party does not have a right to an oral presentation. Under this section, a party's request to make an oral presentation may be denied if such a denial is appropriate and reasonable under the circumstances. An oral presentation shall be considered as an opportunity to offer, emphasize and clarify the facts, policies and laws concerning the proceeding.

(b) Method and time of request. Between the commencement of the proceeding and ten days before the end of the information-gathering phase, any party to the proceeding may file with the Secretary a letter requesting that the Secretary schedule an opportunity for the party to give an oral presentation to the ASC. That letter shall include the reasons why an oral presentation is necessary.

(c) ASC processing. The Secretary must promptly forward the letter request to the Chairman of the ASC. The Chairman, after informally contacting other ASC members and the ASC's senior staff for their views, will instruct the Secretary to forward a letter to the party either: Scheduling a date and time for the oral presentation and specifying the allowable duration of the presentation; or declining the request and providing the reasons therefor. The party's letter request and the ASC's response will be included in the proceeding's public file.

(d) Procedure on presentation day. On the appropriate date and time, the party or his or her attorney (if any) will make the oral presentation before the ASC. Any ASC member may ask the party or the attorney, as the case may be, pertinent questions relating to the content of the oral presentation. Oral presentations will not be recorded or otherwise transcribed. The Secretary must enter promptly into the proceeding's public file a memorandum summarizing the subjects discussed during the oral presentation.

§ 1102.37 Decision of the Subcommittee and judicial review.

At a reasonable time after the end of the information-gathering phase of the proceeding, but not exceeding 35 days, the ASC shall issue a final decision, containing specified terms and conditions as it deems appropriate, in the matter and shall cause the decision to be published promptly in the Federal Register. The final decision shall be effective on issuance. The Secretary shall serve the decision upon the parties promptly, shall place it in the proceeding's public file and shall furnish it to such other persons as the ASC may direct. Pursuant to the provisions of chapter 7 of title 5 of the U.S. Code and section 1118(c)(3) of title XI of FIRREA (12 U.S.C. 3348(c)(3)), a final decision of the ASC is a prerequisite to seeking judicial review.

§ 1102.38 Compliance activities.

(a) Where, from complaints received from members of the public, communications from Federal or State agencies, examination of information by the ASC, or otherwise, it appears that a person has violated, is violating or is about to violate title XI of FIRREA or the rules or regulations thereunder, the ASC staff may commence an informal, preliminary inquiry into the matter. If, upon such inquiry, it appears that one or more allegations relate to possible violations of regulations administered by another agency or instrumentality of the Federal Government, then the matter shall be referred to that agency or instrumentality for appropriate action. The ASC, pursuant to its responsibilities under section 1103(a)(2) of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3332(a)(2)) and section 1119(c) of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3348)), shall monitor the matter. If, upon inquiry, it appears that one or more allegations are within the ASC's jurisdiction, then the ASC, in its discretion, may determine to commence a formal investigation respecting the matter and shall instruct the Secretary to create a public file for the formal investigation. The Secretary shall place in that file a memorandum naming the person or persons subject to the investigation and the statutory basis for the investigation.

(b) Unless otherwise instructed by the ASC or required by law, the Secretary shall ensure that all other papers, documents and materials gathered or submitted in connection with the investigation are non-public and for ASC use only.

(c) Persons who become involved in preliminary inquiries or formal investigations may, on their own initiative, submit a written statement to the Secretary setting forth their interests, positions or views regarding the subject matter of the investigation. Upon request, the staff, in its discretion, may advise such persons of the general nature of the investigation, including the indicated violations as they pertain to them and the amount of time that may be available for preparing and submitting such a statement prior to the presentation of a staff recommendation to the ASC. Upon the commencement of a formal investigation or a proceeding under this subpart, the Secretary shall place any such statement in the appropriate public file.

(d) In instances where the staff has concluded its inquiry of a particular matter and has determined that it will not recommend the commencement of a formal investigation or a proceeding under this subpart against a person, the staff shall advise the person that its inquiry has been terminated. Such advice, if given, must in no way be construed as indicating that the person has been exonerated or that no action may ultimately result from the staff's inquiry into the particular matter.

§ 1102.39 Duty to cooperate.

In the course of the investigations and proceedings, the ASC (and its staff, with appropriate authorization) must provide parties or persons ample opportunity to work out problems by consent, by settlement, or in some other manner.

Subpart C Rules Pertaining to the Privacy of Individuals and Systems of Records Maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee

Authority: Privacy Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-579, 88 Stat. 1896; 12 U.S.C. 552a, as amended.

Source: 57 FR 36357, Aug. 13, 1992, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1102.100 Authority, purpose and scope.

(a) This subpart is issued under the Privacy Act of 1974, Public Law 93-579, 88 Stat. 1896; 12 U.S.C. 552a, as amended.

(b) The Privacy Act of 1974 is based, in part, on the finding by Congress that “in order to protect the privacy of individuals identified in information systems maintained by Federal agencies, it is necessary and proper for the Congress to regulate the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of information by such agencies.” To achieve this objective, the Act generally provides that Federal agencies must advise an individual upon request whether records maintained by the agency in a system of records pertain to the individual and must grant the individual access to such records. The Act further provides that individuals may request amendments to records pertaining to them that are maintained by the agency, and that the agency shall either grant the requested amendments or set forth fully its reasons for refusing to do so.

(c) The Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (ASC), pursuant to subsection (f) of the Privacy Act, adopts the following rules and procedures to implement the provisions of the Act summarized above and other provisions of the Act. These rules and procedures are applicable to all requests for information and access or amendment to records pertaining to an individual that are contained in any system of records that is maintained by the ASC.

§ 1102.101 Definitions.

The following definitions shall apply for purposes of this subpart:

(a) The terms individual, maintain, record, system of records, and routine use are defined for purposes of these rules as they are defined in 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5) and (a)(7).

(b) ASC or Subcommittee means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.

(c) Privacy Act Officer means the ASC's Associate Director for Administration or such other ASC staff officer, other than the Executive Director, duly designated by the ASC's Executive Director.

§ 1102.102 Times, places and requirements for requests pertaining to individual records in a record system and for the identification of individuals making requests for access to records pertaining to them.

(a) Place to make request. Any request by an individual to be advised whether any system of records maintained by the ASC and named by the individual contains a record pertaining to him or her, or any request by an individual for access to a record pertaining to him or her that is contained in a system of records maintained by the ASC, shall be submitted in person at the ASC between 9 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, which is located at 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, or by mail addressed to: Privacy Act Officer, ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005. All requests will be required to be put in writing and signed by the individual making the request. In the case of requests for access that are made by mail, the envelope should be clearly marked “Privacy Act Request.”

(1) Information to be included in requests. Each request by an individual concerning whether the ASC maintains in a system of records a record that pertains to the individual, or for access to any record pertaining to the individual that is maintained by the ASC in a system of records, shall include such information as will assist the ASC in identifying those records as to which the individual is seeking information or access. Where practicable, the individual should identify the system of records that is the subject of his or her request by reference to the ASC's notices of systems of records, which are published in the Federal Register, as required by section (e)(4) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4). Where a system of records is compiled on the basis of a specific identification scheme, the individual should include in his or her request the identification number or other identifier assigned to the individual. In the event the individual does not know that number or identifier, the individual shall provide other information, including his or her full name, address, date of birth and subject matter of the record, to aid in processing his or her request. If additional information is required before a request can be processed, the individual shall be so advised.

(2) Verification of identity. When the fact of the existence of a record is not required to be disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended, or when a record as to which access has been requested is not required to be disclosed under that Act, the individual seeking the information or requesting access to the record shall be required to verify his or her identity before access will be granted or information given. For this purpose, individuals shall appear at the ASC located at 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, between 9 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday. The ASC's Office is not open on Saturdays, Sundays or Federal holidays.

(3) Methods for verifying identity—appearance in person. For the purpose of verifying identity, an individual seeking information regarding pertinent records or access to those records shall furnish documentation that may reasonably be relied on to establish the individual's identity. Such documentation might include a valid birth certificate, driver's license, employee or military identification card, and medicare card.

(4) Method for verifying identity—by mail. Where an individual cannot appear at the ASC's Office for the purpose of verifying identity, the individual shall submit, along with the request for information or access, a signed and notarized statement attesting to his or her identity. Where access is being sought, the sworn statement shall include a representation that the records being sought pertain to the individual and a stipulation that the individual is aware that knowingly and willfully requesting or obtaining records pertaining to an individual from the ASC under false pretenses is a criminal offense.

(5) Additional procedures for verifying identity. When it appears appropriate to the Privacy Act Officer, other arrangements may be made for the verification of identity as are reasonable under the circumstances and appear to be effective to prevent unauthorized disclosure of, or access to, individual records.

(b) Acknowledgement of requests for information pertaining to individual records in a record system or for access to individual records. (1) Except where an immediate acknowledgement is given for requests made in person, the receipt of a request for information pertaining to individual records in a record system will be acknowledged within 10 days, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays. Requests will be processed as promptly as possible and a response to such requests will be given within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays) unless, within the 30 day period and for cause shown, the individual making the request is notified in writing that a longer period is necessary.

[57 FR 36357, Aug. 13, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004; 75 FR 36270, June 25, 2010]

§ 1102.103 Disclosure of requested records.

(a) Initial review. Requests by individuals for access to records pertaining to them will be referred to the ASC's Privacy Act Officer, who initially will determine whether access will be granted.

(b) Grant of request for access. (1) If it is determined that a request for access to records pertaining to an individual will be granted, the individual will be advised by mail that access will be given at the ASC or a copy of the requested record will be provided by mail if the individual shall so indicate. Where the individual requests that copies of the record be mailed to or her or requests copies of a record upon reviewing it at the ASC, the individual shall pay the cost of making requested copies, as set forth in § 1102.109 of this subpart.

(2) In granting access to an individual to a record pertaining to him or her, the ASC staff shall take steps to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of information pertaining to other individuals.

(c) Denial of request for access. If it is determined that access will not be granted, the individual making the request will be notified of that fact and given the reasons why access is being denied. The individual also will be advised of his or her right to seek review by the Executive Director of the initial decision to deny access, in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1102.107 of this subpart.

(d) Time for acting on requests for access. Access to a record pertaining to an individual normally will be granted or denied within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays) after the receipt of the request for access, unless the individual making the request is notified in writing within the 30 day period that, for good cause shown, a longer time is required. In such cases, the individual making the request shall be informed in writing of the difficulties encountered and an indication shall be given as to when it is anticipated that access may be granted or denied.

(e) Authorization to allow designated person to review and discuss records pertaining to another individual. An individual, who is granted access to records pertaining to him or her and who appears at the ASC Office to review the records, may be accompanied by another person of his or her choosing. Where the records as to which access has been granted are not required to be disclosed under provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended, the individual requesting the records, before being granted access, shall execute a written statement, signed by him or her, specifically authorizing the latter individual to review and discuss the records. If such authorization has not been given as described, the person who has accompanied the individual making the request will be excluded from any review or discussion of the records.

(f) Exclusion for certain records. Nothing contained in these rules shall allow an individual access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of an administrative judicial or civil action or proceeding.

§ 1102.104 Special procedure: Medical records.

(a) Statement of physician or mental health professional. When an individual requests access to records pertaining to the individual that include medical and/or psychological information, the ASC, if it deems it necessary under the particular circumstances, may require the individual to submit with the request a signed statement by the individual's physician or a mental health professional indicating that, in his or her opinion, disclosure of the requested records or information directly to the individual will not have an adverse effect on the individual.

(b) Designation of physician or mental health professional to receive records. If the ASC believes, in good faith, that disclosure of medical and/or psychological information, directly to an individual could have an adverse effect on that individual, the individual may be asked to designate in writing a physician or mental health professional to whom the individual would like the records to be disclosed, and disclosure that otherwise would be made to the individual will instead be made to the designated physician or mental health professional.

§ 1102.105 Requests for amendment of records.

(a) Place to make requests. A request by an individual to amend records pertaining to him or her may be made in person during normal business hours at the ASC located at 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, or by mail addressed to the Privacy Act Officer, ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.

(1) Information to be included in requests. Each request to amend an ASC record shall reasonably describe the record sought to be amended. Such description should include, for example, relevant names, dates and subject matter to permit the record to be located among the records maintained by the ASC. An individual who has requested that a record pertaining to the individual be amended will be advised promptly if the record cannot be located on the basis of the description given and that further identifying information is necessary before the request can be processed. An initial evaluation of a request presented in person will be made immediately to ensure that the request is complete and to indicate what, if any, additional information will be required. Verification of the individual's identity as set forth in § 1102.102(a) (2), (3), (4) and (5) may also be required.

(2) Basis for amendment. An individual requesting an amendment to a record pertaining to the individual shall specify the substance of the amendment and set forth facts and provide such materials that would support his or her contention that the record as maintained by the ASC is not accurate, timely or complete, or that the record is not necessary and relevant to accomplish a statutory purpose of the ASC as authorized by law or by Executive Order of the President.

(b) Acknowledgement of requests for amendment. Receipt of a request to amend a record pertaining to an individual normally will be acknowledged in writing within 10 days after such request has been received, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays. When a request to amend is made in person, the individual making the request will be given a written acknowledgement when the request is presented. The acknowledgement will describe the request received and indicate when it is anticipated that action will be taken on the request. No acknowledgement will be sent when the request for amendment will be reviewed, and an initial decision made, within the 10 day period after such request has been received.

[57 FR 36357, Aug. 13, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004; 75 FR 36270, June 25, 2010]

§ 1102.106 Review of requests for amendment.

(a) Initial review. As in the case of requests for access, requests by individuals for amendment to records pertaining to them will be referred to the ASC's Privacy Act Officer for an initial determination.

(b) Standards to be applied in reviewing requests. In reviewing requests to amend records, the Privacy Act Officer will be guided by the criteria set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(e) (1) and (5), i.e., that records maintained by the ASC shall contain only such information as is necessary and relevant to accomplish a statutory purpose of the ASC as required by statute or Executive Order of the President and that such information also be accurate, timely, relevant and complete. These criteria will be applied whether the request is to add material to a record or to delete information from a record.

(c) Time for acting on requests. Initial review of a request by an individual to amend a record shall be completed as promptly as is reasonably possible and normally within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays) from the date the request was received, unless unusual circumstances preclude completion of review within that time. If the anticipated completion date indicated in the acknowledgement cannot be met, the individual requesting the amendment will be advised in writing of the delay and the reasons therefor, and also advised when action is expected to be completed.

(d) Grant of requests to amend records. If a request to amend a record is granted in whole or in part, the Privacy Act Officer will:

(1) Advise the individual making the request in writing of the extent to which it has been granted;

(2) Amend the record accordingly; and

(3) Where an accounting of disclosures of the record has been kept pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c), advise all previous recipients of the record of the fact that the record has been amended and the substance of the amendment.

(e) Denial of requests to amend records. If an individual's request to amend a record pertaining to him is denied in whole or in part, the Privacy Act Officer will:

(1) Promptly advise the individual making the request in writing of the extent to which the request has been denied;

(2) State the reasons for the denial of the request;

(3) Describe the procedures established by the ASC to obtain further review within the ASC of the request to amend, including the name and address of the person to whom the appeal is to be addressed; and

(4) Inform the individual that the Privacy Act Officer will provide information and assistance to the individual in perfecting an appeal of the initial decision.

§ 1102.107 Appeal of initial adverse agency determination regarding access or amendment.

(a) Administrative review. Any person who has been notified pursuant to § 1102.103(c) that a request for access to records pertaining to him or her has been denied in whole or in part, or pursuant to § 1102.106(e) of this subpart that a request for amendment has been denied in whole or in part, or who has received no response to a request for access or to amend within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays) after the request was received by the ASC's staff (or within such extended period as may be permitted in accordance with §§ 1102.103(d) and 1102.106(c) of this subpart), may appeal the adverse determination or failure to respond by applying for an order of the Executive Director determining and directing that access to the record be granted or that the record be amended in accordance with his or her request.

(1) The application shall be in writing and shall describe the record in issue and set forth the proposed amendment and the reasons therefor.

(2) The application shall be delivered to the ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, or by mail addressed to the Privacy Act Officer, ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.

(3) The applicant may state such facts and cite such legal or other authorities in support of the application.

(4) The Executive Director will make a determination with respect to any appeal within 30 days after the receipt of such appeal (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays), unless for good cause shown, the Executive Director shall extend that period. If such an extension is made, the individual who is appealing shall be advised in writing of the extension, the reasons therefor, and the anticipated date when the appeal will be decided.

(5) In considering an appeal from a denial of a request to amend a record, the Executive Director shall apply the same standards as set forth in § 1102.106(b).

(6) If the Executive Director concludes that access should be granted, the Executive Director shall issue an order granting access and instructing the Privacy Act Officer to comply with § 1102.103(b).

(7) If the Executive Director concludes that the request to amend the record should be granted in whole or in part, the Executive Director shall issue an order granting the requested amendment in whole or in part and instructing the Privacy Act Officer to comply with the requirements of § 1102.106(d) of this subpart, to the extent applicable.

(8) If the Executive Director affirms the initial decision denying access, the Executive Director shall issue an order denying access and advising the individual seeking access of:

(i) The order;

(ii) The reasons for denying access; and

(iii) The individual's right to obtain judicial review of the decision pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(B).

(9) If the Executive Director determines that the decision of the Privacy Act Officer denying a request to amend a record should be upheld, the Executive Director shall issue an order denying the request and the individual shall be advised of:

(i) The order refusing to amend the record and the reasons therefor;

(ii) The individual's right to file a concise statement setting forth his or her disagreement with the Executive Director's decision not to amend the record;

(iii) The procedures for filing such a statement of disagreement with the Executive Director;

(iv) The fact that any such statement of disagreement will be made available to anyone to whom the record is disclosed, together with, if the Executive Director deems it appropriate, a brief statement setting forth the Executive Director's reasons for refusing to amend;

(v) The fact that prior recipients of the record in issue will be provided with the statement of disagreement and the Executive Director's statement, if any, to the extent that an accounting of such disclosures has been maintained pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c); and

(vi) The individual's right to seek judicial review of the Executive Director's refusal to amend, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(A).

(b) Statement of disagreement. As noted in paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section, an individual may file with the Executive Director a statement setting forth his or her disagreement with the Executive Director's denial of his or her request to amend a record.

(1) Such statement of disagreement shall be delivered to the ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, within 30 days after receipt by the individual of the Executive Director's order denying the amendment, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays. For good cause shown, this period can be extended for a reasonable time.

(2) Such statement of disagreement shall concisely state the basis for the individual's disagreement. Unduly lengthy or irrelevant materials will be returned to the individual by the Executive Director for appropriate revisions before they become a permanent part of the individual's record.

(3) The record about which a statement of disagreement has been filed will clearly note which part of the record is disputed and the Executive Director will provide copies of the statement of disagreement and, if the Executive Director deems it appropriate, provide a concise statement of his or her reasons for refusing to amend the record, to persons or other agencies to whom the record has been or will be disclosed.

[57 FR 36357, Aug. 13, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004; 75 FR 36270, June 25, 2010]

§ 1102.108 General provisions.

(a) Extensions of time. Pursuant to §§ 1102.103(b), 1102.104(d), 1102.109(c) and 1102.109(a)(4) of this subpart, the time within which a request for information, access or amendment by an individual with respect to records maintained by the ASC that pertain to him or her normally would be processed may be extended for good cause shown or because of unusual circumstances. As used in these rules, good cause and unusual circumstances shall include, but only to the extent reasonably necessary to the proper processing of a particular request:

(1) The need to search for and collect the requested records from establishments that are separate from the ASC. Some records of the ASC may be stored in Federal Records Centers in accordance with law—including many of the documents that have been on file with the ASC for more than 2 years—and cannot be made available promptly. Any person who has requested for personal examination a record stored at the Federal Records Center will be notified when the record will be made available.

(2) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which may be demanded in a single request. While every reasonable effort will be made to comply fully with each request as promptly as possible on a first-come, first-served basis, work done to search for, collect and appropriately examine records in response to a request for a large number of records will be contingent upon the availability of processing personnel in accordance with an equitable allocation of time to all members of the public who have requested or wish to request records.

(3) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or among two or more components within the ASC having substantial subject-matter interest herein.

(b) Effective date of action. Whenever it is provided in this subpart that an acknowledgement or response to a request will be given by specific times, deposit in the mails of such acknowledgement or response by that time, addressed to the person making the request, will be deemed full compliance.

(c) Records in use by a member of the ASC or its staff. Although every effort will be made to make a record in use by a member of the ASC or its staff available when requested, it may occasionally be necessary to delay making such a record available when doing so at the time the request is made would seriously interfere with the work of the ASC or its staff.

(d) Missing or lost records. Any person who has requested a record or a copy of a record pertaining to him or her will be notified if the record sought cannot be found. If the person so requests, he or she will be notified if the record subsequently is found.

(e) Oral requests; misdirected written requests—(1) Telephone and other oral requests. Before responding to any request by an individual for information concerning whether records maintained by the ASC in a system of records pertain to the individual or to any request for access to records by an individual, such request must be in writing and signed by the individual making the request. The Executive Director will not entertain any appeal from an alleged denial of failure to comply with an oral request. Any person who has made an oral request for information or access to records who believes that the request has been improperly denied should resubmit the request in appropriate written form to obtain proper consideration and, if need be, administrative review.

(2) Misdirected written requests. The ASC cannot assure that a timely or satisfactory response will be given to written requests for information, access or amendment by an individual with respect to records pertaining to him or her that are directed to the ASC other than in a manner prescribed in §§ 1102.103(a), 1102.106(a), 1102.108(a)(2), and 1102.110 of this subpart. Any staff member who receives a written request for information, access or amendment should promptly forward the request to the Privacy Act Officer. Misdirected requests for records will be considered to have been received by the ASC only when they have been actually received by the Privacy Act Officer in cases under § 1102.108(a)(2). The Executive Director will not entertain any appeal from an alleged denial or failure to comply with a misdirected request, unless it is clearly shown that the request was in fact received by the Privacy Act Officer.

§ 1102.109 Fees.

(a) There will be no charge assessed to the individual for the ASC's expense involved in searching for or reviewing the record. Copies of the ASC's records will be provided by a commercial copier at rates established by a contract between the copier and the ASC or by the ASC at the rates in § 1101.4(b)(5)(ii) of 12 CFR part 1101.

(b) Waiver or reduction of fees. Whenever the Executive Director of the ASC determines that good cause exists to grant a request for reduction or waiver of fees for copying documents, he or she may reduce or waive any such fees.

§ 1102.110 Penalties.

Title 18 U.S.C. 1001 makes it a criminal offense, subject to a maximum fine of $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years or both, to knowingly and willingly make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent statements or representations in any matter within the jurisdiction of any agency of the United States. 5 U.S.C. 552a(i) makes it a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not more than $5,000 for any person knowingly and willfully to request or obtain any record concerning an individual from the ASC under false pretenses. 5 U.S.C. 552a(i) (1) and (2) provide criminal penalties for certain violations of the Privacy Act by officers and employees of the ASC.

Subpart D Description of Office, Procedures, Public Information

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552, 553(e); and Executive Order 12600, 52 FR 23781 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235).

Source: 57 FR 60724, Dec. 22, 1992, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1102.300 Purpose and scope.

This part sets forth the basic policies of the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (“ASC”) regarding information it maintains and the procedures for obtaining access to such information. This part does not apply to the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council. Section 1102.301 sets forth definitions applicable to this part 1102, subpart D. Section 1102.302 describes the ASC's statutory authority and functions. Section 1102.303 describes the ASC's organization and methods of operation. Section 1102.304 describes the types of information and documents typically published in the Federal Register. Section 1102.305 explains how to access public records maintained on the ASC's World Wide Web site and at the ASC's office and describes the categories of records generally found there. Section 1102.306 implements the Freedom of Information Act (“FOIA”) (5 U.S.C. 552). Section 1102.307 authorizes the discretionary disclosure of exempt records under certain limited circumstances. Section 1102.308 provides anyone with the right to petition the ASC to issue, amend, and repeal rules of general application. Section 1102.309 sets out the ASC's confidential treatment procedures. Section 1102.310 outlines procedures for serving a subpoena or other legal process to obtain information maintained by the ASC.

[64 FR 72496, Dec. 28, 1999]

§ 1102.301 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

(a) ASC means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.

(b) Commercial use request means a request from, or on behalf of, a requester who seeks records for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. In determining whether a request falls within this category, the ASC will determine the use to which a requester will put the records requested and seek additional information as it deems necessary.

(c) Direct costs means those expenditures the ASC actually incurs in searching for, duplicating, and, in the case of commercial requesters, reviewing records in response to a request for records.

(d) Disclose or disclosure mean to give access to a record, whether by producing the written record or by oral discussion of its contents. Where the ASC member or employee authorized to release ASC documents makes a determination that furnishing copies of the documents is necessary, these words include the furnishing of copies of documents or records.

(e) Duplication means the process of making a copy of a record necessary to respond to a request for records or for inspection of original records that contain exempt material or that cannot otherwise be directly inspected. Such copies can take the form of paper copy, microfilm, audiovisual records, or machine readable records (e.g., magnetic tape or computer disk).

(f) Educational institution means a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate or graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education, which operates a program or programs of scholarly research.

(g) Field review includes, but is not limited to, formal and informal investigations of potential irregularities occurring at State appraiser regulatory agencies involving suspected violations of Federal or State civil or criminal laws, as well as such other investigations as may conducted pursuant to law.

(h) Non-commercial scientific institution means an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis as that term is defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.

(i) Record includes records, files, documents, reports correspondence, books, and accounts, or any portion thereof, in any form the ASC regularly maintains them.

(j) Representative of the news media means any person primarily engaged in gathering news for, or a free-lance journalist who can demonstrate a reasonable expectation of having his or her work product published or broadcast by, an entity that is organized and operated to publish or broadcast news to the public. The term news means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the general public.

(k) Review means the process of examining documents located in a response to a request that is for a commercial use to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted to be withheld. It also includes processing any documents for disclosure, e.g, doing all that is necessary to excise them and otherwise prepare them for release. Review does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.

(l) Search includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within records. Searches may be done manually and/or by computer using existing programming.

(m) State appraiser regulatory agency includes, but is not limited to, any board, commission, individual or other entity that is authorized by State law to license, certify, and supervise the activities or persons authorized to perform appraisals in connections with federally related transactions and real estate related financial transactions that require the services of a State licensed or certified appraiser.

[64 FR 72496, Dec. 28, 1999]

§ 1102.302 ASC authority and functions.

(a) Authority. The ASC was established on August 9, 1989, pursuant to title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (“FIRREA”), 12 U.S.C. 3331 and 3310 through 3351. title XI is intended “to provide that Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate related transactions will be protected by requiring that real estate appraisals utilized in connection with federally related transactions are performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by individuals whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision.” 12 U.S.C. 3331.

(b) Functions. The ASC's statutory functions are generally set out in 12 U.S.C. 3332. In summary, the ASC must:

(1) Monitor the requirements established by the States for the certification and licensing of individuals who are qualified to perform appraisals in connection with federally related transactions, including a code of professional responsibility;

(2) Monitor the requirements of the Federal financial institutions regulatory agency and Resolution Trust Corporation with respect to appraisal standards for federally related transactions and determinations as to which federally related transactions require the services of a State certified appraiser and which require the services of a State licensed appraiser;

(3) Monitor and review the practices, procedures, activities and organizational structure of the Appraisal Foundation; and

(4) Maintain a national registry of State certified and licensed appraisers eligible to perform appraisals in federally related transactions.

§ 1102.303 Organization and methods of operation.

(a) Statutory and other guidelines. Statutory requirements relating to the ASC's organization are stated in 12 U.S.C. 3310, 3333 and 3334. The ASC has adopted and published Rules of Operation guiding its administration, meetings and procedures. These Rules of Operation were published at 56 FR 28561 (June 21, 1991) and 56 FR 33451 (July 22, 1991).

(b) ASC members and staff. The ASC is composed of six members, each being designated by the head of their respective agencies: the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, National Credit Union Administration, Office of Thrift Supervision, and the Department of Housing and Urban Development. Administrative support and substantive program, policy, and legal guidance for ASC activities are provided by a small, full-time, professional staff supervised by an Executive Director.

(c) FFIEC. title XI placed the ASC within FFIEC as a separate, appropriated agency of the United States Government with specific statutory responsibilities under Federal law.

(d) ASD Address ASC offices are located at 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.

[57 FR 60724, Dec. 22, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]

§ 1102.304 Federal Register publication.

The ASC publishes the following information in the Federal Register for the guidance of the public:

(a) Description of its organization and the established places at which, the officers from whom, and the methods whereby, the public may secure information, make submittals or re nests, or obtain decisions;

(b) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of all formal and informal procedures available;

(c) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and contents of all papers, reports or examinations;

(d) Substantive rules of general applicability adopted as authorized by law, and statements of general policy or interpretations of general applicability formulated and adopted by the ASC;

(e) Every amendment, revision or repeal of the foregoing; and

(f) General notices of proposed rulemaking.

[64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]

§ 1102.305 Publicly available records.

(a) Records available on the ASCs World Wide Web site—(1) Discretionary release of documents. The ASC encourages the public to explore the wealth of resources available on the ASC's Internet World Wide Web site, located at: http://www.asc.gov. The ASC has elected to publish a broad range to materials on its Web site.

(2) Documents required to be made available via computer telecommunications. (i) The following types of documents created on or after November 1, 1996, and required to be made available through computer telecommunications, may be found on the ASC's Internet World Wide Web site located at: http://www.asc.gov:

(A) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as final orders, made in the adjudication of cases;

(B) Statements of policy and interpretations adopted by the ASC that are not published in the Federal Register;

(C) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;

(D) Copies of all records (regardless of form or format), such as correspondence relating to field reviews or other regulatory subjects, released to any person under § 1102.306 that, because of the nature of their subject matter, the ASC has determined are likely to be the subject of subsequent requests;

(E) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(D) of this section.

(ii) To the extent permitted by law, the ASC may delete identifying details when it makes available or publishes any records. If reduction is necessary, the ASC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction.

(b) Types of written communications. The following types of written communications shall be subject to paragraph (a) of this section:

(1) The ASC's annual report to Congress;

(2) All final opinions and orders made in the adjudication of cases;

(3) All statements of general policy not published in the Federal Register.

(4) Requests for the ASC or its staff to provide interpretive advice with respect to the meaning or application of any statute administered by the ASC or any rule or regulation adopted thereunder and any ASC responses thereto;

(5) Requests for a statement that, on the basis of the facts presented in such a request, the ASC would not take any enforcement action pertaining to the facts as represented and any ASC responses thereto: and

(6) Correspondence between the ASC and a State appraiser regulatory agency arising out of the ASC's field review of the State agency's appraiser regulatory program.

(c) Applicable fees. (1) If applicable, fees for furnishing records under this section are as set forth in § 1102.306(e).

(2) Information on the ASC's World Wide Web site is available to the public without charge. If, however, information available on the ASC's World Wide Web site is provided pursuant to a Freedom of Information Act request processed under g 1102.306 then fees apply and will be assessed pursuant to § 1102.306(e).

[59 FR 1902, Jan. 13, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]

§ 1102.306 Procedures for requesting records.

(a) Making a request for records. (1) The request shall be submitted in writing to the Executive Director:

(i) By facsimile clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Request” to (202) 293-6251;

(ii) By letter to the Executive Director marked “Freedom of Information Act Request”; 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005; or

(iii) By sending Internet e-mail to the Executive Director marked “Freedom of Information Act Request” at his or her e-mail address listed on the ASC's World Wide Web site.

(2) The request shall contain the following information:

(i) The name and address of the requester, an electronic mail address, if available, and the telephone number at which the requester may be reached during normal business hours;

(ii) Whether the requester is an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or news media representative;

(iii) A statement agreeing to pay the applicable fees, or a statement identifying a maximum fee that is acceptable to the requester, or a request for a waiver or reduction of fees that satisfies paragraph (e)(1)(x) of this section; and

(iv) The preferred form and format of any responsive information requested, if other than paper copies.

(3) A request for identifiable records shall reasonably describe the records in a way that enables the ASC's staff to identify and produce the records with reasonable effort and without unduly burdening or significantly interfering with any ASC operations.

(b) Defective requests. The ASC need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this subpart. The ASC may return a defective request, specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as a new request.

(c) Processing requests—(1) Receipt of requests. Upon receipt of any request that satisfies paragraph (a) of this section, the Executive Director shall assign the request to the appropriate processing track pursuant to this section. The date of receipt for any request, including one that is addressed incorrectly or that is referred by another agency, is the date the Executive Director actually receives the request.

(2) Expedited processing. (i) Where a person requesting expedited access to records has demonstrated a compelling need for the records, or where the ASC has determined to expedite the response, the ASC shall process the request as soon as practicable. To show a compelling need for expedited processing, the requester shall provide a statement demonstrating that:

(A) The failure to obtain the records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or

(B) The requester can establish that it is primarily engaged in information dissemination as its main professional occupation or activity, and there is urgency to inform the public of the government activity involved in the re request; and

(C) The requester's statement must be certified to be true and correct to the best of the person's knowledge and belief and explain in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing.

(ii) The formality of the certification required to obtain expedited treatment may be waived by the Executive Director as a matter of administrative discretion.

(3) A requester seeking expedited processing will be notified whether expedited processing has been granted within ten (10) working days of the receipt of the request. If the request for expedited processing is denied, the requester may file an appeal pursuant to the procedures set forth in paragraph (g) of this section, and the ASC shall respond to the appeal within ten (10) working days after receipt of the appeal.

(4) Priority of responses. Consistent with sound administrative process, the ASC processes requests in the order they are received. However, in the ASC's discretion, or upon a court order in a matter to which the ASC is a party, a particular request may be processed out of turn.

(5) Notification. (i) The time for response to requests will be twenty (20) working days except:

(A) In the case of expedited treatment under paragraph (c)(2) of this section;

(B) Where the running of such time is suspended for the calculation of a cost estimate for the requester if the ASC determines that the processing of the request may exceed the requester's maximum fee provision or if the charges are likely to exceed $250 as provided for in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section;

(C) Where the running of such time is suspended for the payment of fees pursuant to the paragraph (c)(5)(i)(B) and (e)(1) of this section; or

(D) In unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and further described in paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section.

(ii) In unusual circumstances as referred to in paragraph (c)(5)(i)(D) of this section, the time limit may be extended for a period of:

(A) Ten (10) working days as provided by written notice to the requester, setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched; or

(B) Such alternative time period as agreed to by the requester or as reasonably determined by the ASC when the ASC notifies the requester that the request cannot be processed in the specified time limit.

(iii) Unusual circumstances may arise when:

(A) The records are in facilities that are not located at the ASC's Washington office;

(B) The records requested are voluminous or are not in close proximity to one another; or

(C) There is a need to consult with another agency or among two or more components of the ASC having a substantial interest in the determination.

(6) Response to request. In response to a request that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a search shall be conducted of records maintained by the ASC in existence on the date of receipt of the request, and a review made of any responsive information located. To the extent permitted by law, the ASC may redact identifying details when it makes available or publishes any records. If redaction is appropriate, the ASC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction. The ASC shall notify the requester of:

(i) The ASC's determination of the request;

(ii) The reasons for the determination;

(iii) If the response is a denial of an initial request or if any information is withheld, the ASC will advise the requester in writing:

(A) If the denial is in part or in whole;

(B) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (when other than the person signing the notification);

(C) The exemptions relied on for the denial; and

(D) The right of the requester to appeal the denial to the Chairman of the ASC within 30 business days following receipt of the notification, as specified in paragraph (h) of this section.

(d) Providing responsive records. (1) Copies of requested records shall be sent to the requester by regular U.S. mail to the address indicated in the request, unless the requester elects to take delivery of the documents at the ASC or makes other acceptable arrangements, or the ASC deems it appropriate to send the documents by another means.

(2) The ASC shall provide a copy of the record in any form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible by the ASC in that form or format, but the ASC need not provide more than one copy of any record to a requester.

(3) By arrangement with the requester, the ASC may elect to send the responsive records electronically if a substantial portion of the request is in electronic format. If the information requested is made pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, it will not be sent by electronic means unless reasonable security measures can be provided.

(e) Fees—(1) General rules. (i) Persons requesting records of the ASC shall be charged for the direct costs of search, duplication, and review as set forth in paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section, unless such costs are less than the ASC's cost of processing the requester's remittance.

(ii) Requesters will be charged for search and review costs even if responsive records are not located or, if located, are determined to be exempt from disclosure.

(iii) Multiple requests seeking similar or related records from the same requester or group of requesters will be aggregated for the purposes of this section.

(iv) If the ASC determines that the estimated costs of search, duplication, or review of requested records will exceed the dollar amount specified in the request, or if no dollar amount is specified, the ASC will advise the requester of the estimated costs. The requester must agree in writing to pay the costs of search, duplication, and review prior to the ASC initiating any records search.

(v) If the ASC estimates that its search, duplication, and review costs will exceed $250, the requester must pay an amount equal to 20 percent of the estimated costs prior to the ASC initiating any records search.

(vi) The ASC ordinarily will collect all applicable fees under the final invoice before releasing copies of requested records to the requester.

(vii) The ASC may require any requester who has previously failed to pay charges under this section within 30 calendar days of mailing of the invoice to pay in advance the total estimated costs of search, duplication, and review. The ASC also may require a requester who has any charges outstanding in excess of 30 calendar days following mailing of the invoice to pay the full amount due, or demonstrate that the fee has been paid in full, prior to the ASC initiating any additional records search.

(viii) The ASC may begin assessing interest charges on unpaid bills on the 31st day following the day on which the invoice was sent. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in § 3717 of title 31 of the United States Code and will accrue from the date of the invoice.

(ix) The time limit for the ASC to respond to a request will not begin to run until the ASC has received the requester's written agreement under paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section, and advance payment under paragraph (e)(1)(v) or (vii) of this section, or payment of outstanding charges under paragraph (e)(1)(vii) or (viii) of this section.

(x) As part of the initial request, a requester may ask that the ASC waive or reduce fees if disclosure of the records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Determinations as to a waiver or reduction of fees will be made by the Executive Director (or designee), and the requester will be notified in writing of his or her determination. A determination not to grant a request for a waiver or reduction of fees under this paragraph may be appealed to the ASC's Chairman pursuant to the procedure set forth in paragraph (g) of this section.

(2) Chargeable fees by category of requester. (i) Commercial use requesters shall be charged search, duplication, and review costs.

(ii) Educational institutions, noncommercial scientific institutions, and news media representatives shall be charged duplication costs, except for the first 100 pages.

(iii) Requesters not described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section shall be charged the full reasonable direct cost of search and duplication, except for the first two hours of search time and first 100 pages of duplication.

(3) Fee schedule. The dollar amount of fees which the ASC may charge to records requesters will be established by the Executive Director. The ASC may charge fees that recoup the full allowable direct costs it incurs. Fees are subject to change as costs change. The fee schedule will be published periodically on the ASC's Internet World Wide Web site (http://www.asc.gov) and will be effective on the date of publication. Copies of the fee schedule may be obtained by request at no charge by contacting the Executive Director by letter, Internet email or facsimile.

(i) Manual searches for records. The ASC will charge for manual searches for records at the basic rate of pay of the employee making the search plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs.

(ii) Computer searches for records. The fee for searches of computerized records is the actual direct cost of the search, including computer time, computer runs, and the operator's time apportioned to the search multiplied by the operator's basic rate of pay plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs.

(iii) Duplication of records. (A) The per-page fee for paper copy reproduction of documents is $.25.

(B) For other methods of reproduction or duplication, the ASC will charge the actual direct costs of reproducing or duplicating the documents, including each involved employee's basic rate of pay plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs.

(iv) Review of records. The ASC will charge commercial use requesters for the review of records at the time of processing the initial request to determine whether they are exempt from mandatory disclosure at the basic rate of pay of the employee making the search plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. The ASC will not charge at the administrative appeal level for review of an exemption already applied. When records or portions of records are withheld in full under an exemption which is subsequently determined not to apply, the ASC may charge for a subsequent review to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered.

(v) Other services. Complying with requests for special services, other than a readily produced electronic form or format, is at the ASC's discretion. The ASC may recover the full costs of providing such services to the requester.

(4) Use of contractors. The ASC may contact with independent contractors to locate, reproduce, and/or disseminate records; provided, however, that the ASC has determined that the ultimate cost to the requester will be no greater than it would be if the ASC performed these tasks itself. In no case will the ASC contract our responsibilities which FOIA provides that the ASC alone may discharge, such as determining the applicability of an exemption or whether to waive or reduce fees.

(f) Exempt information. A request for records may be denied if the requested record contains information that falls into one or more of the following categories. 1 If the requested record contains both exempt and nonexempt information, the nonexempt portions, which may reasonable be segregated from the exempt portions, will be released to the requester. If redaction is necessary, the ASC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction. The categories of exempt records are as follows:

1 Classification of a record as exempt from disclosure under the provisions of this paragraph (f) shall not be construed as authority to withhold the record if it is otherwise subject to disclosure under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) or other Federal statute, any applicable regulation of ASC or any other Federal agency having jurisdiction thereof, or any directive or order of any court of competent jurisdiction.

(1) Records that are specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order;

(2) Records related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the ASC;

(3) Records specifically exempted from disclosure by statute, provided that such statute:

(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; or

(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;

(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that is privileged or confidential;

(5) Interagency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a private party in litigation with the ASC;

(6) Personnel, medical, and similar files (including financial files) the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

(7) Records compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records:

(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;

(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trail or an impartial adjudication;

(ii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution which furnished records on a confidential basis;

(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or

(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual;

(8) Records that are contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the ASC or any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or

(9) Geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.

(g) Appeals. (1) Appeals should be addressed to the Executive Director; ASC; 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.

(2) A person whose initial request for records under this section, or whose request for a waiver of fees under paragraph (e)(1)(x) of this section, has been denied, either in part or in whole, has the right to appeal the denial to the ASC's Chairman (or designee) within 30 business days after receipt of notification of the denial. Appeals of denials of initial requests or for a waiver of fees must be in writing and include any additional information relevant to consideration of the appeal.

(3) Except in the case of an appeal for expedited treatment under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the ASC will notify the appellant in writing within 20 business days after receipt of the appeal and will state:

(i) Whether it is granted or denied in whole or in part;

(ii) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (if other than the person signing the notification);

(iii) The exemptions relied upon for the denial in the case of initial requests for records; and

(iv) The right to judicial review of the denial under the FOIA.

(4) If a requester is appealing for denial of expedited treatment, the ASC will notify the appellant within ten business days after receipt of the appeal of the ASC's disposition.

(5) Complete payment of any outstanding fee invoice will be required before an appeal is processed.

(h) Records of another agency. If a requested record is the property of another Federal agency or department, and that agency or department, either in writing or by regulation, expressly retains ownership of such record, upon receipt of a request for the record the ASC will promptly inform the requester of this ownership and immediately shall forward the request to the proprietary agency or department either for processing in accordance with the latter's regulations or for guidance with respect to disposition.

[64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999; 65 FR 31960, May 19, 2000, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004]

§ 1102.307 Disclosure of exempt records.

(a) Disclosure prohibited. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section or by 12 CFR part 1102, subpart C, no person shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any exempt records, or information contained therein, to any persons other than those officers, directors, employees, or agents of the ASC or a State appraiser regulatory agency who has a need for such records in the performance of their official duties. In any instance in which any person has possession, custody or control of ASC exempt records or information contained therein, all copies of such records shall remain the property of the ASC and under no circumstances shall any person, entity or agency disclose or make public in any manner the exempt records or information without written authorization from the Executive Director, after consultation with the ASC General Counsel.

(b) Disclosure authorized. Exempt records or information of the ASC may be disclosed only in accordance with the conditions and requirements set forth in this paragraph (b). Requests for discretionary disclosure of exempt records of information pursuant to this paragraph (b) may be submitted directly to the Executive Director. Such administrative request must clearly state that it seeks discretionary disclosure of exempt records, clearly identify the records sought, provide sufficient information for the ASC to evaluate whether there is good cause for disclosure, and meet all other conditions set forth in paragraph (b)(1) through (3) of this section. Authority to disclose or authorize disclosure of exempt records of the ASC is delegated to the Executive Director, after consultation with the ASC General Counsel.

(1) Disclosure by Executive Director. (i) The Executive Director, or designee, may disclose or authorize the disclosure of any exempt record in response to a valid judicial subpoena, court order, or other legal process, and authorize any current or former member, officer, employee, agent of the ASC, or third party, to appear and testify regarding an exempt record or any information obtained in the performance of such person's official duties, at any administrative or judicial hearing or proceeding where such person has been served with a valid subpoena, court order, or other legal process requiring him or her to testify. The Executive Director shall consider the relevancy of such exempt records or testimony to the ligation, and the interests of justice, in determining whether to disclose such records or testimony. Third parties seeking disclosure of exempt records or testimony in litigation to which the ASC is not a party shall submit a request for discretionary disclosure directly to the Executive Director. Such requests shall specify the information sought with reasonable particularity and shall be accompanied by a statement with supporting documentation showing in detail the relevance of such exempt information to the litigation, justifying good cause for disclosure, and a commitment to be bound by a protective order. Failure to exhaust such administration request prior to service of a subpoena or other legal process may, in the Executive Director's discretion, serve as a basis for objection to such subpoena or legal process.

(ii) The Executive Director, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose or authorize disclosure of any exempt record or testimony by a current or former member, officer, employee, agent of the ASC, or third party, sought in connection with any civil or criminal hearing, proceeding or investigation without the service of a judicial subpoena, or other legal process requiring such disclosure or testimony. If he or she determines that the records or testimony are relevant to the hearing, proceeding or investigation and that disclosure is in the best interests of justice and not otherwise prohibited by Federal statute. Where the Executive Director or designee authorizes a current or former member, officer, director, empl9oyee or agent of the ASC to testify or disclose exempt records pursuant to this paragraph (b)(1), he or she may, in his or her discretion, limit the authorization to so much of the record or testimony as is relevant to the issues at such hearing, proceeding or investigation, and he or she shall give authorization only upon fulfillment of such conditions as he or she deems necessary and practicable to protect the confidential nature of such records or testimony.

(2) Authorization for disclosure by the Chairman of the ASC. Except where expressly prohibited by law, the Chairman of the ASC may, in his or her discretion, authorize the disclosure of any ASC records. Except where disclosure is required by law, the Chairman may direct any current or former member, officer, director, employee or agent of the ASC to refuse to disclose any record or to give testimony if the Chairman determines, in his or her discretion, that refusal to permit such disclosure is in the public interest.

(3) Limitations on disclosure. All steps practicable shall be taken to protect the confidentiality of exempt records and information. Any disclosure permitted by paragraph (b) of this section is discretionary and nothing in paragraph (b) of this section shall be construed as requiring the disclosure of information. Further, nothing in paragrah (b) of this section shall be construed as restricting, in any manner, the authority of the ASC, the Chairman of the ASC, the Executive Director, the ASC General Counsel, or their designees, in their discretion and in light of the facts and circumstances attendant in any given case, to require conditions upon, and to limit, the form, manner, and extent of any disclosure permitted by this section. Wherever practicable, disclosure of exempt records shall be made pursuant to a protective order and redacted to exclude all irrelevant or non-responsive exempt information.

[64 FR 72500, Dec. 28, 1999]

§ 1102.308 Right to petition for issuance, amendment and repeal of rules of general application.

Any person desiring the issuance, amendment or repeal of a rule of general application may file a petition for those purposes with the Executive Director of the ASC. The petition shall include a statement setting forth the text or substance of any proposed rule or amendment desired or shall specify the rule for which repeal is desired. The petitioner also shall state the nature of his or her interest and the reasons for seeking ASC action. The Executive Director shall acknowledge receipt of the petition within ten business days of receipt. As soon as reasonably practicable, the ASC shall consider the petition and related staff recommendations and shall take such action as it deems appropriate. The Executive Director shall notify the petitioner in writing of the ASC action within ten business days of the action.

[59 FR 1902, Jan. 13, 1994. Redesignated at 64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]

§ 1102.309 Confidential treatment procedures.

(a) In general. Any submitter of written information to the ASC who desires that some or all of his or her submission be afforded confidential treatment under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) (i.e., trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential) shall file a request for confidential treatment with the Executive Director of the ASC at the time the written information is submitted to the ASC or within ten business days thereafter. Nothing in this section limits the authority of the ASC and its staff to make determinations regarding access to documents under this subpart.

(b) Form of request. A request for confidential treatment shall be submitted in a separate letter or memorandum conspicuously entitled, “Request for Confidential Treatment.” Each request shall state in reasonable detail the facts and arguments supporting the request and its legal justification. If the submitter had been required by the ASC to provide the particular information, conclusory statements that the information would be useful to competitors or would impair sales or similar statements generally will not be considered sufficient to justify confidential treatment. When the submitter had voluntarily provided the particular information to the ASC, the submitter must specifically identify the documents or information which are of a kind the submitter would not customarily make available to the public.

(c) Designation and separation of confidential material. Submitters shall clearly designate all information considered confidential and shall clearly separate such information from other non-confidential information, whenever possible.

(d) ASC action on request. A request for confidential treatment of information will be considered only in connection with a request for access to the information under FOIA as implemented by this subpart. Upon the receipt of a request for access, the Executive Director or his or her designee (“ASC Officer”) as soon as possible shall provide the submitter with a written notice describing the request and shall provide the submitter with a reasonable opportunity, no longer than ten business days, to submit written objections to disclosure of the information. Notice may be given orally, and such notice shall be promptly confirmed in writing. The ASC Officer may provide a submitter with a notice if the submitter did not request confidential treatment of the requested information. If the ASC required the submitter to provide the requested information, the ASC Officer would need substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the requested information would result in substantial competitive harm to the submitter. If the submitter provided the information voluntarily to the ASC, the ASC officer would need to believe that the information is of a kind the submitter would not customarily make available to the public. The ASC Officer similarly shall notify the person seeking disclosure of the information under FOIA of the existence of a request for confidential treatment. These notice requirements need not be followed if the ASC Officer determines under this subpart that the information should not be disclosed; the information has been published or has been officially made available to the public; disclosure of the information is required by law (other than FOIA); or the submitter's request for confidential treatment appears obviously frivolous, in such instance the submitter shall be given written notice of the determination to disclose the information at least five business days prior to release. The ASC Officer shall carefully consider the issues involved, and if disclosure of the requested information is warranted, a written notice, containing a brief description of why the submitter's objections were not sustained, must be forwarded to the submitter within ten business days. The time for response may be extended up to ten additional business days, as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), or for other periods by agreement between the requester and the ASC Officer. This notice shall be provided to the submitter at least five business days prior to release of the requested information.

(e) Notice of lawsuit. The ASC Officer shall notify a submitter of any filing of any suit against the ASC pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552 to compel disclosure of documents or information covered by the submitter's request for confidential treatment within ten business days of service of the suit. The ASC Officer also shall notify the requester of the documents or information of any suit filed by the submitter against the ASC to enjoin their disclosure within ten business days of service of the suit.

[59 FR 1902, Jan. 13, 1994. Redesignated at 64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]

§ 1102.310 Service of process.

(a) Service. Any subpoena or other legal process to obtain information maintained by the ASC shall be duly issued by a court having jurisdiction over the ASC, and served upon the Chairman ASC; 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005. Where the ASC is named as a party, service of process shall be made pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure upon the Chairman at the above address. The Chairman shall immediately forward any subpoena, court order or legal process to the General Counsel. If consistent with the terms of the subpoena, court order or legal process, the ASC may require the payment of fees, in accordance with the fee schedule referred to in § 1102.306(e) prior to the release of any records requested pursuant to any subpoena or other legal process.

(b) Notification by person served. If any current or former member, officer, employee or agent of the ASC, or any other person who has custody of records belonging to the ASC, is served with a subpoena, court order, or other process requiring that person's attendance as a witness concerning any matter related to official duties, or the production of any exempt record of the ASC, such person shall promptly advise the Executive Director of such service, the testimony and records described in the subpoena, and all relevant facts that may assist the Executive Director, in consultation with the ASC General Counsel, in determining whether the individual in question should be authorized to testify or the records should be produced. Such person also should inform the court or tribunal that issued the process and the attorney for the party upon whose application the process was issued, if known, of the substance of this section.

(c) Appearance by person served. Absent the written authorization of the Executive Director or designee to disclose the requested information, any current or former member, officer, employee, or agent of the ASC, and any other person having custody of records of the ASC, who is required to respond to a subpoena or other legal process, shall attend at the time and place therein specified and respectfully decline to produce any such record or give any testimony with respect thereto, basing such refusal on this section.

[64 FR 72501, Dec. 28, 1999]

Subpart E Collection and Transmission of Appraisal Management Company (AMC) Registry Fees

Source: 82 FR 44501, Sept. 25, 2017, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1102.400 Authority, purpose, and scope.

(a) Authority. This subpart is issued by the Appraisal Subcommittee (ASC) under sections 1106 and 1109 (a)(4)(B) of Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (Title XI), as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010)), 12 U.S.C. 3335, 3338 (a)(4)(B)).

(b) Purpose. The purpose of this subpart is to implement section 1109 (a)(4)(B) of Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3338.

(c) Scope. This subpart applies to States that elect to register and supervise appraisal management companies pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3346 and 3353, and the regulations promulgated thereunder.

§ 1102.401 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

(a) AMC Registry means the national registry maintained by the ASC of those AMCs that meet the Federal definition of AMC, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(11), are registered by a State or are Federally regulated, and have paid the annual AMC registry fee.

(b) AMC Rule means the interagency final rule on minimum requirements for AMCs. (12 CFR 34.210-34.216; 12 CFR 225.190-225.196; 12 CFR 323.8-323.14; 12 CFR 1222.20-1222.26).

(c) ASC means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council established under section 1102 (12 U.S.C. 3310) as it amended the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3301 et seq.) by adding section 1011.

(d) Performed an appraisal means the appraisal service requested of an appraiser by the AMC was provided to the AMC.

(e) State means any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, and American Samoa.

(f) Other terms. Definitions of: Appraisal management company (AMC); appraisal management services; appraisal panel; consumer credit; covered transaction; dwelling; Federally regulated AMC are incorporated from the AMC Rule by reference.

§ 1102.402 Establishing the annual AMC registry fee.

The annual AMC registry fee to be applied by States that elect to register and supervise AMCs is established as follows:

(a) In the case of an AMC that has been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC in connection with a covered transaction in such State during the previous year; and

(b) In the case of an AMC that has not been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC in connection with a covered transaction in such State since the AMC commenced doing business.

§ 1102.403 Collection and transmission of annual AMC registry fees.

(a) Collection of annual AMC registry fees. States that elect to register and supervise AMCs pursuant to the AMC Rule shall collect an annual registry fee as established in § 1102.402 from AMCs eligible to be on the AMC Registry.

(b) Transmission of annual AMC registry fee. States that elect to register and supervise AMCs pursuant to the AMC Rule shall transmit AMC registry fees as established in § 1102.402 to the ASC on an annual basis. States may align a one-year period with any 12-month period, which may, or may not, be based on the calendar year. Only those AMCs whose registry fees have been transmitted to the ASC will be eligible to be on the AMC Registry.

1103-1199 PARTS 1103-1199 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER XII FEDERAL HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY

SUBCHAPTER A ORGANIZATION AND OPERATIONS

PART 1200 ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552, 12 U.S.C. 4512, 12 U.S.C. 4526, 44 U.S.C. 3506.

Source: 77 FR 73264, Dec. 10, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1200.1 Federal Housing Finance Agency.

(a) Scope and authority. The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) is an independent agency of the Federal Government. Division A of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654, titled the Federal Housing Finance Regulatory Reform Act of 2008, amended the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq.) (Safety and Soundness Act) and the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1421-1449) to establish FHFA. FHFA administers the Safety and Soundness Act and the regulated entities' authorizing statutes: the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act. FHFA is responsible for the supervision and regulation of the Federal National Mortgage Corporation (Fannie Mae), the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac), (together, Enterprises), the Federal Home Loan Banks (Banks) (collectively, the “regulated entities”), and the Office of Finance (OF). FHFA is charged with ensuring that the regulated entities: Operate in a safe and sound manner, including maintaining adequate capital and internal controls; foster liquid, efficient, competitive, and resilient national housing finance markets; comply with the Safety and Soundness Act and their respective authorizing statutes, and rules, regulations and orders issued under the Safety and Soundness Act and the authorizing statutes; and carry out their respective statutory missions through activities and operations that are authorized and consistent with the Safety and Soundness Act, their respective authorizing statutes, and the public interest. FHFA's costs and expenses are funded by annual assessments paid by the regulated entities. FHFA is headed by a director, who is appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate for a five-year term.

(b) Location. FHFA's headquarters is located at 400 Seventh Street SW., Washington, DC 20219. FHFA's official hours of business are 8:00 a.m.-5 p.m. (Eastern Time), Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays.

[77 FR 73264, Dec. 10, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]

§ 1200.2 Organization of the Federal Housing Finance Agency.

(a) Director. The Director is responsible for overseeing the prudential operations of each regulated entity, and for ensuring that each regulated entity: Operates in a safe and sound manner; operates and acts to foster liquid, efficient, competitive, and resilient national housing financing markets; complies with the Safety and Soundness Act, its authorizing statute, and rules, regulations, guidelines, and orders issued under those statutes; carries out its mission only through activities that are authorized by statute; and acts and operates consistent with the public interest. The Director may delegate to FHFA officers and employees any of the functions, powers, and duties of the Director as the Director considers appropriate. The Director manages FHFA, including through authorities delegated to FHFA officers and employees.

(b) Deputy Director of the Division of Enterprise Regulation. The Deputy Director is responsible for managing FHFA's program of prudential supervision of the Enterprises. The Deputy Director provides management oversight, direction, and support for all examination activity involving the Enterprises, the development of supervision findings, and preparation of the annual reports of examination. The Deputy Director provides support and advice to the Director and other senior executives and represents the division on significant and emerging supervisory issues and development of FHFA supervisory policy, and has such other responsibilities as the Director may prescribe.

(c) Deputy Director of the Division of Housing Mission and Goals. The Deputy Director is responsible for FHFA policy development and analysis, oversight of housing and regulatory policy, and oversight of the mission and goals of the Enterprises. The Deputy Director oversees and coordinates FHFA activities regarding data analysis, market surveillance, policy development, policy research and analysis affecting housing finance and financial markets, and policy analysis and research in support of FHFA's mission and the Director's responsibilities as a member of the Federal Housing Finance Oversight board, the Financial Stability Oversight Board, and the Financial Stability Oversight Council, and has such other responsibilities as the Director may prescribe.

(d) Deputy Director of the Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation. The Deputy Director is responsible for managing FHFA's program of prudential supervision of the Banks and the OF. The Deputy Director provides management oversight, direction and support for all examination activity involving the Banks, the development of supervision findings, and preparation of the annual reports of examination. The Deputy Director provides support and advice to the Director and other senior executives and represents the division on significant and emerging supervisory issues and development of FHFA supervisory policy, and has such other responsibilities as the Director may prescribe.

(e) Offices and functions—(1) Office of the Director. The Office of the Director supports the activities of the Director and includes Offices as the Director may create within the Office of the Director.

(2) Division of Enterprise Regulation. The division supports and implements the responsibilities of the Deputy Director described in paragraph (b) of this section. The division oversees and directs all Enterprise supervisory activities, develops examination findings, prepares reports of examination, and prepares the sections of the Annual Report to Congress that describe the condition and performance of each Enterprise. The division monitors and assesses the financial condition and performance of the Enterprises. By means of annual examinations and a continuous on-site presence, the division monitors and assesses the amount of risk each Enterprise assumes, the quality of risk management, and compliance with regulations.

(3) Division of Housing Mission and Goals. The division supports and implements the responsibilities of the Deputy Director described in paragraph (c) of this section. In support of FHFA's mission and the Director's responsibilities as a member of the Federal Housing Finance Oversight Board, the Financial Stability Oversight Board, and the Financial Stability Oversight Committee, the division also oversees and coordinates FHFA activities that involve certain data analysis, and analysis affecting housing finance and financial markets.

(4) Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation. The division supports and implements the responsibilities of the Deputy Director described in paragraph (d) of this section, including overseeing and directing all Bank supervisory activities, developing examination findings, preparing reports of examination, and preparing the sections of the annual report to Congress that describe the condition and performance of the Banks. The division monitors and assesses the financial condition and performance of the Banks and the OF and monitors and assesses their compliance with regulations, the amount of risk they assume, and the quality of their risk management through annual on-site examinations, periodic visits, and ongoing off-site monitoring and analysis.

(5) Office of Inspector General. The office is headed by a presidentially appointed and Senate-confirmed Inspector General who serves under the general supervision of the Director. The office carries out activities and responsibilities established in the Inspector General Act of 1978.

(6) Office of General Counsel. The office advises and supports the Director and FHFA staff on legal matters related to the functions, activities, and operations of FHFA and the regulated entities; it supports supervision functions, development and promulgation of regulations and orders, and enforcement actions. The office manages the Freedom of Information, Privacy Act and ethics programs. The Designated Agency Ethics Official advises, counsels, and trains FHFA employees on ethical standards and conflicts of interest, and manages the agency's financial disclosure program.

(7) Office of the Ombudsman. The office is responsible for considering complaints and appeals from the regulated entities, the OF and any person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the OF concerning any matter relating to FHFA's regulation and supervision of that entity or the OF.

(8) Office of Minority and Women Inclusion. The office is responsible for all matters of FHFA relating to diversity in management, employment, and business activities, and for supervising the diversity requirements applicable to the regulated entities and the OF.

(f) Other Offices and Departments. The Director may from time to time establish or terminate Offices and Divisions of the agency as the Director deems necessary or appropriate to carry out FHFA's mission. The Director may establish Offices and positions as the Director deems necessary and appropriate to support the operations of a federal agency, such as a Deputy Director for one or more specified areas of responsibility, a Chief Operating Officer, a Chief Financial Officer, an Office of Information Technology, and such other offices, departments, and positions as are necessary and appropriate or may be required by statute.

(g) Additional information. Current information on the organization of FHFA may be obtained by mail from the Office of Congressional Affairs and Communications, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Washington, DC 20219. Such information, as well as other FHFA information, also may be obtained electronically by accessing FHFA's Web site located at www.FHFA.gov.

[77 FR 73264, Dec. 10, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 45599, July 31, 2015; 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]

§ 1200.3 Official logo and seal.

This section describes and displays the logo adopted by the Director as the official symbol representing FHFA. It is displayed on correspondence, selected documents, and signage. The logo serves as the official seal to certify and authenticate official documents of the agency.

(a) Description. The logo is a disc consisting of three polygons each drawn in a manner resembling a silhouette of a pitched roof house and with distinctive eaves under its roof. Each polygon is placed one in front of the other, two of which are diminished in size from the polygon behind it. Placed in the center of the smallest polygon is the acronym for the organization, “FHFA.” The polygons are encircled by a designation scroll having a solid background and containing the words “FEDERAL HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY” in capital letters with serifs, with two mullets on the extreme left and right of the scroll. Upon approval by the Director, FHFA may employ variations of the color or shading of its logo and seal for specified purposes; these will be available for reference on the agency Web site at www.fhfa.gov.

(b) Display. FHFA's official logo and seal appears below:

[77 FR 73264, Dec. 10, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 45599, July 31, 2015]

§ 1200.4 OMB control numbers assigned under the Paperwork Reduction Act.

(a) Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3531) and the implementing regulations of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) (5 CFR part 1320), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

(b) OMB has approved the collections of information contained in FHFA's regulations and has assigned each collection a control number. The following table displays the sections of FHFA's regulations (both those located in this chapter and those promulgated by the former Federal Housing Finance Board that appear in chapter IX of this title) containing collections of information, along with the applicable OMB control numbers and the expirations dates for those control numbers:

12 CFR part or section where identified and described | OMB control No. | Expiration date

1222.22 | 2590-0013 | 07/31/2018

1222.23 | 2590-0013 | 07/31/2018

1222.24 | 2590-0013 | 07/31/2018

1222.25 | 2590-0013 | 07/31/2018

1222.26 | 2590-0013 | 07/31/2018

1223.23 | 2590-0014 | 07/31/2018

1261.7 | 2590-0006 | 02/28/2021

1261.12 | 2590-0006 | 02/28/2021

1261.14 | 2590-0006 | 02/28/2021

1263.2 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.4 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.5 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.6 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.7 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.8 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.9 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.11 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.12 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.13 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.14 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.15 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.16 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.17 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.18 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.19 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.24 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.26 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1263.31 | 2590-0003 | 03/31/2020

1264.4 | 2590-0001 | 12/31/2018

1264.5 | 2590-0001 | 12/31/2018

1264.6 | 2590-0001 | 12/31/2018

1266.17 | 2590-0001 | 12/31/2018

1268.7 | 2590-0008 | 02/29/2016

1277.22 | 2590-0002 | 04/30/2020

1277.28 | 2590-0002 | 04/30/2020

1290.2 | 2590-0005 | 03/31/2020

1290.3 | 2590-0005 | 03/31/2020

1290.4 | 2590-0005 | 03/31/2020

1290.5 | 2590-0005 | 03/31/2020

1291.5 | 2590-0007 | 03/31/2020

1291.6 | 2590-0007 | 03/31/2020

1291.7 | 2590-0007 | 03/31/2020

1291.8 | 2590-0007 | 03/31/2020

1291.9 | 2590-0007 | 03/31/2020

[81 FR 76294, Nov. 2, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 39325, Aug. 9, 2018]

PART 1201 GENERAL DEFINITIONS APPLYING TO ALL FEDERAL HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY REGULATIONS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513(b).

Source: 78 FR 2322, Jan. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1201.1 Definitions.

As used throughout this chapter, the following basic terms relating to the Federal Housing Finance Agency, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, the Federal Home Loan Banks, the Office of Finance, and related entities have the meanings set forth below, unless otherwise indicated in a particular subchapter, part, section, or paragraph:

1934 Act means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.).

Acquired member assets or AMA means assets acquired in accordance with, and satisfying the applicable requirements of, part 1268 of this chapter.

Advance means a loan from a Bank that is:

(1) Provided pursuant to a written agreement;

(2) Supported by a note or other written evidence of the borrower's obligation; and

(3) Fully secured by collateral in accordance with the Bank Act and part 1266 of this chapter.

Affordable Housing Program or AHP means the Affordable Housing Program that each Bank is required to establish pursuant to section 10(j) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)) and part 1291 of this chapter.

Appropriate Federal banking agency has the meaning set forth in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)) and, for federally-insured credit unions, means the NCUA.

Appropriate state regulator means any state officer, agency, supervisor or other entity that has regulatory authority over, or is empowered to institute enforcement action against, a particular institution.

Authorizing Statutes means the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, and the Federal Home Loan Bank Act.

Bank, written in title case, means a Federal Home Loan Bank established under section 12 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1432).

Bank Act means the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1421 et seq.).

Bank System means the Federal Home Loan Bank System, consisting of all of the Banks and the Office of Finance.

Capital plan means the capital structure plan required for each Bank by section 6(b) of the Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1426(b)).

CIP means the Community Investment Program, an advance program under CICA required to be offered pursuant to section 10(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(i)).

Community Investment Cash Advance or CICA means any advance made through a program offered by a Bank under section 10 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430) and parts 1291 and 1292 of this chapter to provide funding for targeted community lending and affordable housing, including advances made under a Bank's Rural Development Funding (RDF) program, offered under section 10(j)(10) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(10)); a Bank's Urban Development Funding (UDF) program, offered under section 10(j)(10) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(10)); a Bank's Affordable Housing Program (AHP), offered under section 10(j) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)); a Bank's Community Investment Program (CIP), offered under section 10(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(i)); or any other program offered by a Bank that meets the requirements of part 1292 of this chapter.

Community lending means providing financing for economic development projects for targeted beneficiaries, and, for community financial institutions (as defined in § 1263.1 of this chapter), purchasing or funding small business loans, small farm loans, small agri-business loans, or community development loans (as defined in § 1266.1 of this chapter).

Consolidated obligation or CO means any bond, debenture, or note on which the Banks are jointly and severally liable and which was issued under section 11 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1431) and any implementing regulations, whether or not such instrument was originally issued jointly by the Banks or by the Federal Housing Finance Board on behalf of the Banks.

Data Reporting Manual or DRM means a manual issued by FHFA and amended from time to time containing reporting requirements for the Regulated Entities.

Director, written in title case, means the Director of FHFA or his or her designee.

Enterprise means Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac (collectively, Enterprises) and any affiliate thereof.

Excess stock means that amount of a Bank's capital stock owned by a member or other institution in excess of that member's or other institution's minimum investment in capital stock required under the Bank's capital plan, the Bank Act, or FHFA's regulations, as applicable.

Fannie Mae means the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof.

FDIC means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

FHFA means the Federal Housing Finance Agency established by Section 1311(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act. (12 U.S.C. 4511(a)).

Financing Corporation or FICO means the Financing Corporation established and supervised by the Director under section 21 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441) and part 1271 of this chapter.

FRB means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.

Freddie Mac means the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof.

Generally Accepted Accounting Principles or GAAP means accounting principles generally accepted in the United States.

Ginnie Mae means the Government National Mortgage Association.

GLB Act means the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Pub. L. 106-102 (1999)).

HERA means the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law No. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654.

Housing associate means an entity that has been approved as a housing associate pursuant to part 1264 of this chapter.

HUD means the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

Member means an institution that has been approved for membership in a Bank and has purchased capital stock in the Bank in accordance with §§ 1263.20 or 1263.24(b) of this chapter.

NCUA means the National Credit Union Administration.

NRSRO means a credit rating organization registered with the SEC as a nationally recognized statistical rating organization by the Securities and Exchange Commission.

OCC means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.

Office of Finance or OF means the Office of Finance, a joint office of the Banks established under part 1273 of this chapter and referenced in the Bank Act and the Safety and Soundness Act.

President, when referring to an officer of a Bank only, means a Bank's principal executive officer.

Regulated Entity means the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof, the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof, and any Federal Home Loan Bank.

Resolution Funding Corporation or REFCORP means the Resolution Funding Corporation established by section 21B of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441b).

Safety and Soundness Act means the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq.).

SBIC means a small business investment company formed pursuant to section 301 of the Small Business Investment Act (15 U.S.C. 681).

SEC means the United States Securities and Exchange Commission.

State means a state of the United States, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the United States Virgin Islands.

[78 FR 2322, Jan. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 64665, Oct. 31, 2014; 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016; 81 FR 91688, Dec. 19, 2016]

PART 1202 FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT

Authority: Pub. L. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654; 5 U.S.C. 301, 552; 12 U.S.C. 4526; E.O. 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235; E.O. 13392, 70 FR 75373-75377, 3 CFR, 2006 Comp., p. 216-200.

Source: 82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1202.1 Why did FHFA issue this part?

The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) issued this regulation to comply with the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552).

(a) The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), is a Federal law that requires the Federal Government to disclose certain Federal Government records to the public.

(b) This part explains the rules that the FHFA will follow when processing and responding to requests for records under the FOIA. It also explains what you must do to request records from FHFA under the FOIA. You should read this part together with the FOIA, which explains in more detail your rights and the records FHFA may release to you.

(c) If you want to request information about yourself that is contained in a system of records maintained by FHFA, you may do so under the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a). This is considered a first-party or Privacy Act request under the Privacy Act, and you must file your request following FHFA's Privacy Act regulation at part 1204 of this title. If you file a request for information about yourself, FHFA will process your request under both the FOIA and Privacy Act in order to give you the greatest degree of access to any responsive material.

(d) Notwithstanding the FOIA and this part, FHFA may routinely publish or disclose to the public information without following these procedures.

§ 1202.2 What do the terms in this part mean?

Some of the terms you need to understand while reading this regulation are—

Aggregating means combing multiple requests for documents that could reasonably have been the subject of a single request and which occur within a 30-day period, by a single requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances.

Appeals Officer or FOIA Appeals Officer means a person designated by FHFA who processes appeals of denied FOIA requests for FHFA records.

Chief FOIA Officer means the designated high-level official within FHFA (FHFA-OIG does not have a separate Chief FOIA Officer) who has overall responsibility for the agency's FOIA program and compliance with the FOIA.

Confidential commercial information means records provided to the Federal Government by a submitter that contain material exempt from release under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), because disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause substantial competitive harm.

Days, unless stated as “calendar days,” are working days and do not include Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays. If the last day of any period prescribed herein falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the last day of the period will be the next working day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.

Direct costs means the expenses, including contract services and retrieving documents from at a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration, incurred by FHFA, in searching for, reviewing and/or duplicating records to respond to a request for information. In the case of a commercial use request, the term also means those expenditures FHFA actually incurs in reviewing records to respond to the request. Direct costs include the cost of the time of the employee performing the work, the cost of any computer searches, and the cost of operating duplication equipment. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses such as costs of space, and heating or lighting the facility in which the records are stored.

Duplication means reproducing a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Copies can take the form of paper, audiovisual materials, or electronic records, among others.

Employee, for the purposes of this regulation, means any person holding an appointment to a position of employment with FHFA, or any person who formerly held such an appointment; any conservator appointed by FHFA; or any agent or independent contractor acting on behalf of FHFA, even though the appointment or contract has terminated.

Fee Waiver means the waiver or reduction of fees if the requester can demonstrate that certain statutory standards are met.

FHFA means each separate component designated by the agency as a primary organizational unit that is responsible for processing FOIA requests, as specified in Appendices A and B to this part. FHFA has two components: Federal Housing Finance Agency Headquarters (FHFA-HQ) and FHFA Office of Inspector General (FHFA-OIG).

FOIA Officer, FOIA Official and Chief FOIA Officer are persons designated by FHFA to process and respond to requests for FHFA records under the FOIA.

FOIA Public Liaison is a person designated by FHFA who is responsible for assisting requesters with their requests.

Proactive disclosure means records that are required by the FOIA to be made publicly available, as well as additional records identified as being of interest to the public that are appropriate for public disclosure, and for posting and indexing such records.

Readily reproducible means that the requested record or records exist in electronic format and can be downloaded or transferred intact to a computer disk, tape, or another electronic medium with equipment and software currently in use by FHFA.

Record means information or documentary material FHFA maintains in any form or format, including electronic, which FHFA—

(1) Created or received under Federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business;

(2) Preserved or determined is appropriate for preservation as evidence of operations or activities of FHFA, or because of the value of the information it contains; and

(3) Controls at the time it receives a request under the FOIA.

Regulated entities means the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, the Federal National Mortgage Association, and the Federal Home Loan Banks.

Requester means any person seeking access to FHFA records under the FOIA. A requester falls into one of three categories for the purpose of determining what fees may be charged. The three categories are—

(1) Commercial—A request that asks for information for a use or a purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. A decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information;

(2) Noncommercial—Three distinct subcategories—

(i) Educational institution—Any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is authorized by, and is made under the auspices of, an educational institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use, but rather are sought to further scholarly research. To fall with this fee category, the request must serve the scholarly research goals of the institution rather than an individual research goal. A student who makes a request in furtherance of their coursework or other school-sponsored activities and provides a copy of a course syllabus or other reasonable documentation to indicate the research purpose for the request would qualify as part of this fee category;

(ii) Noncommercial scientific institution—An institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in this section and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A request in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use; or

(iii) Representative of the news media—Any person or entity that publishes or broadcasts news to the public, actively gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public; and

(3) Other—All requesters who do not fall within either of the preceding two categories.

Requester Service Centers serve as the primary contacts for a requester when the requester has questions, is seeking information about how the FOIA works, or to check the status of their request.

Review means the examination of a record located in response to a request in order to determine whether any portion of it is exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure, such as doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure, including the process of redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time also includes time spent both obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential commercial information submitter under § 1202.8(f) of this part.

Search means the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request, whether manually or by electronic means. Search time includes a page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within a record and the reasonable efforts expanded to locate and retrieve information from electronic records.

Submitter means any person or entity providing confidential information to the Federal Government. The term “submitter” includes, but is not limited to corporations, state governments, and foreign governments.

Unusual circumstances means the need to—

(1) Search for and collect records from agencies, offices, facilities, or locations that are separate from the office processing the request;

(2) Search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records in order to process a single request; or

(3) Consult with another agency or among two or more components of the FHFA that have a substantial interest in the determination of a request.

Vaughn index means an itemized index, used in litigation, correlating each withheld document (or portion) with a specific FOIA exemption and the relevant part of the agency's nondisclosure justification.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.3 What information can I obtain through the FOIA?

(a) General. You may request that FHFA disclose to you its records on a subject of interest to you. The FOIA only requires the disclosure of records. It does not require FHFA to create compilations of information or to provide narrative responses to questions or queries.

(b) Proactive disclosure. FHFA will make available for public inspection and copying in its electronic reading room the following records:

(1) Final opinions or orders made in the adjudication of cases;

(2) Statements of policy and interpretation adopted by FHFA that are not published in the Federal Register;

(3) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public and are not exempt from disclosure under the FOIA;

(4) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, that have been released to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3), that because of the nature of their subject matter, FHFA determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records, or that have been requested 3 or more times; and

(5) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.

(c) Reading rooms. FHFA maintains an electronic reading room. FHFA will ensure that its reading room is reviewed and updated on an ongoing basis. See the Appendices to this part for location and contact information for FHFA-HQ and FHFA-OIG respective reading rooms.

§ 1202.4 What information is exempt from disclosure?

(a) General. Unless the Director of FHFA or his or her designee, or any regulation or statute specifically authorizes disclosure, FHFA will not release records if it reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by one or more of the following—

(1) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, and in fact is properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order;

(2) Related solely to FHFA's internal personnel rules and practices;

(3) Specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552a), provided that such statute—

(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or

(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;

(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;

(5) Contained in inter-agency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a private party in litigation with FHFA; provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.

(6) Contained in personnel, medical or similar files (including financial files) the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

(7) Compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records or information—

(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;

(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to fair trial or an impartial adjudication;

(iii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution or an entity that is regulated and examined by FHFA that furnished information on a confidential basis, and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, information furnished by a confidential source;

(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or

(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual.

(8) Contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports that are prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or

(9) Geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.

(b) Redacted portion. If a requested record contains exempt information and information that can be disclosed and the portions can reasonably be segregated from each other, the disclosable portion of the record will be released to the requester after FHFA redacts the exempt portions. If it is technically feasible, FHFA will indicate the amount of the information redacted at the place in the record where the redaction is made and include a notation identifying the exemption that was applied, unless including that indication would harm an interest protected by an exemption.

(c) Exempt and redacted material. FHFA is not required to and will not provide a Vaughn index during the administrative stage of processing your FOIA request.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.5 How do I request information from FHFA under the FOIA?

(a) Where to send your request. FHFA has a decentralized system for processing FOIA requests, made up of two components. To make a request for FHFA records, the FOIA request must be in writing. A requester must write directly to the FOIA office of the component that maintains the records being sought. The Appendices to this part contain the respective location and contact information for submitting a FOIA request for each FHFA component.

(b) Provide your name and address. Your request must include your full name, your address and, if different, the address at which the component is to notify you about your request, a telephone number at which you can be reached during normal business hours, and an electronic mail address, if any.

(c) Request is under the FOIA. Your request must have a statement identifying it as being made under the FOIA.

(d) Your FOIA status. Your request should include a statement specifically identifying your status as a “commercial use” requester, an “educational institution” requester, a “non-commercial scientific institution” requester, or a “representative of the news media” for the purposes of the fee provisions of the FOIA.

(e) Describing the records you request. You must describe the records that you seek in enough detail to enable FHFA to search for and locate the records with a reasonable amount of effort. Your request must include as much specific information as possible that you know about each record in your request, such as the date, title, name, author, recipient, subject matter, file designations, or the description of the record.

(f) How you want the records produced to you. Your request may state in what form or format you want FHFA to furnish the releasable records, e.g., hardcopy, or electronic.

(g) Agreement to pay fees. In your FOIA request you must acknowledge that you are aware of the applicable fees charged under § 1202.11, and specify an amount, if any, you are willing to pay without consultation. Your inability to pay a fee does not justify granting a fee waiver. The fact that FHFA withholds all responsive documents or does not locate any documents responsive to your request, does not mean that you are not responsible for paying applicable fees. Your FOIA request will not be considered received by FHFA until your acknowledgement of the applicable fees, in writing, is received. FHFA will notify a requester of any fees above $25.00.

(h) Valid requests. FHFA will only process valid requests. A valid request must meet all the requirements of this part.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.6 What if my request does not have all the information FHFA requires?

If FHFA determines that your request does not reasonably describe the records you seek, cannot be processed for reasons related to fees, or lacks required information, you will be informed in writing why your request cannot be processed. You will be given 15 calendar days to meet all requirements. If you are notified that your request cannot be processed for the reasons cited herein, your request will be placed on hold and will not be considered as being received by FHFA for the purpose of processing your request under this part.

(a) If you respond with all the necessary information, FHFA will process this response as a new request and the time period for FHFA to respond to your request will start from the date the additional information is actually received by FHFA.

(b) If you do not respond or provide additional information within the time period allowed, or if the additional information you provide is still incomplete or insufficient, FHFA will consider your request closed and will notify you that it will not be processed.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.7 How will FHFA respond to my FOIA request?

(a) Authority to grant or deny requests. The FOIA Officer, FOIA Official, and the Chief FOIA Officer are authorized to grant or deny any request for FHFA records.

(b) Designated standard “cut-off” date for searches. In determining which records are responsive to a request, FHFA will include only records in its possession as of the date the FOIA request is received.

(c) Multi-Track request processing. FHFA uses a multi-track system to process FOIA requests. This means that a FOIA request is processed based on its complexity. When FHFA receives your request, it is assigned to a Standard Track or Complex Track. FHFA will notify you if your request is assigned to the Complex Track as described in paragraph (h) of this section.

(1) Standard Track. FHFA assigns FOIA requests that are routine and require little or no search time, review, or analysis to the Standard Track. FHFA responds to these requests in the order in which they are received and normally responds within 20 days after receipt. If FHFA determines while processing your Standard Track request, that it is more appropriately a Complex Track request, it will be reassigned to the Complex Track and you will be notified as described in paragraph (h) of this section.

(2) Complex Track. (i) FHFA assigns requests that are non-routine to the Complex Track. Complex Track requests are those to which FHFA determines that the request and/or response may—

(A) Be voluminous;

(B) Involve two or more FHFA components or units;

(C) Require consultation with other agencies or entities;

(D) Require searches of archived documents;

(E) Seek confidential commercial information as described in § 1202.8 of this part;

(F) Require an unusually high level of effort to search for, review and/or duplicate records; or

(G) Cause undue disruption to the day-to-day activities of FHFA in regulating and supervising the regulated entities or in carrying out its statutory responsibilities.

(ii) FHFA will respond to Complex Track requests as soon as reasonably possible, regardless of the date of receipt.

(d) Referrals to other agencies. If you submit a FOIA request that seeks records originating in another Federal Government agency, FHFA will refer those records, as applicable, to the other agency for a direct response. FHFA will provide you notice of the referral, what records were referred, and the name of the other agency and relevant contact information.

(e) Consultation with other agencies. When records originate with FHFA, but contain within them information of interest to another agency, FHFA will consult with the other agency(ies) prior to making a determination on your request.

(f) Responses to FOIA requests. FHFA will respond to your request by granting or denying it in full, or by granting and denying it in part. The response will be in writing. In determining which records are responsive to your request, FHFA will conduct a search for records in its possession as of the date of your request.

(1) Requests that are granted. If FHFA grants your request, the response will include the requested records or details about how FHFA will provide them to you and the amount of any fees charged.

(2) Requests that are denied, or granted and denied in part. If FHFA denies your request in whole or in part because a requested record does not exist or cannot be located, is not readily reproducible in the form or format you sought, is not subject to the FOIA, or is exempt from disclosure, the written response will include the requested releasable records, if any, the amount of any fees charged, the reasons for denial, and a notice and description of your right to file an administrative appeal under § 1202.9. FHFA will not provide you with a Vaughn index during the administrative stage of processing your request.

(g) Format and delivery of disclosed records. If FHFA grants, in whole or in part, your request for disclosure of records under the FOIA, the records may be made available to you in the form or format you requested, if they are readily reproducible in that form or format. The records will be sent to the address you provided by regular U.S. mail or by electronic mail unless alternate arrangements are made by mutual agreement, such as your agreement to pay express or expedited delivery service fees, or to pick up records at FHFA offices.

(h) Extensions of time. (1) In unusual circumstances, FHFA may extend the statutory time limit in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for no more than 10 days and notify you of—

(i) The reason for the extension; and

(ii) The date on which the determination is expected.

(2) When a request requires more than 30 days to process, FHFA will make available its FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA contact to assist you in modifying or reformulating your request. If the request cannot be modified or reformulated, FHFA will notify you regarding an alternative time period for processing the request. FHFA will also notify you of the availability of the Office of Government Information Services to provide dispute resolution service.

(3) For the purpose of satisfying unusual circumstances under the FOIA, FHFA may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. FHFA will not aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.8 If the requested records contain confidential commercial information, what procedures will FHFA follow?

(a) General. FHFA will not disclose confidential commercial information in response to your FOIA request except as described in this section.

(b) Designation of confidential commercial information. Submitters of commercial information must use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings or written request, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, those portions of the information they deem to be protected under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and § 1202.4(a)(4) of this part. Any such designation will expire 10 years after the records are submitted to the Federal Government, unless the submitter requests, and provides reasonable justification for a designation period of longer duration.

(c) Pre-Disclosure Notification. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if your FOIA request encompasses confidential commercial information, FHFA will, prior to disclosure of the information and to the extent permitted by law, provide prompt written notice to a submitter that confidential commercial information was requested when—

(1) The submitter has in good faith designated the information as confidential commercial information protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and § 1202.4(a)(4) of this part; or

(2) FHFA has reason to believe that the request seeks confidential commercial information, the disclosure of which may result in substantial competitive harm to the submitter.

(d) Content of Pre-Disclosure Notification. When FHFA sends a Pre-Disclosure Notification to a submitter, it will contain—

(1) A description of the commercial information requested or copies of the records or portions thereof containing the business information; and

(2) An opportunity to object to disclosure within 10 days or such other time period that FHFA may allow by providing to FHFA a detailed written statement demonstrating all reasons the submitter opposes disclosure.

(e) Exceptions to Pre-Disclosure Notification. FHFA is not required to send a Pre-Disclosure Notification if—

(1) FHFA determines that information should not be disclosed;

(2) The information has been published lawfully or has been made officially available to the public;

(3) Disclosure of the information is required by law, other than the FOIA;

(4) The information requested is not designated by the submitter as confidential commercial information pursuant to this section, unless the agency has substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the information would result in competitive harm; or

(5) The submitter's designation, under paragraph (b) of this section, appears on its face to be frivolous; except that FHFA will provide the submitter with written notice of any final decision to disclose the designated confidential commercial information within a reasonable number of days prior to a specified disclosure date.

(f) Submitter's objection to disclosure. A submitter may object to disclosure within 10 days after the date of the Pre-Disclosure Notification, or such other time period that FHFA may allow, by delivering to FHFA a written statement demonstrating all grounds on which it opposes disclosure, and all reasons supporting its contention that the information should not be disclosed. The submitter's objection must contain a certification by the submitter, or an officer or authorized representative of the submitter, that the grounds and reasons presented are true and correct to the best of the submitter's knowledge. The submitter's objection may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.

(g) Notice of Intent to disclose information. FHFA will carefully consider all grounds and reasons provided by a submitter objecting to disclosure. If FHFA decides to disclose the information over the submitter's objection, the submitter will be provided with a written Notice of Intent to disclose at least 10 days before the date of disclosure. The written Notice of Intent will contain—

(1) A statement of the reasons why the information will be disclosed;

(2) A description of the information to be disclosed; and

(3) A specific disclosure date.

(h) Notice to requester. FHFA will give a requester whose request encompasses confidential commercial information—

(1) A written notice that the request encompasses confidential commercial information that may be exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and § 1202.4(a)(4) of this part and that the submitter of the information has been given a Pre-Disclosure Notification with the opportunity to comment on the proposed disclosure of the information; and

(2) A written notice that a Notice of Intent to disclose has been provided to the submitter, and that the submitter has 10 days, or such other time period that FHFA may allow, to respond.

(i) Notice of FOIA lawsuit. FHFA will promptly notify the submitter whenever a requester files suit seeking to compel disclosure of the submitter's confidential commercial information. FHFA will promptly notify the requester whenever a submitter files suit seeking to prevent disclosure of information.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5684, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.9 How do I appeal a response denying my FOIA request?

(a) Right of appeal. If FHFA denied your request in whole or in part, you may appeal the denial by writing directly to the appropriate FHFA component specified in the Appendices to this part.

(b) Timing, form, content, and receipt of an appeal. Your written appeal must be postmarked or submitted within 90 calendar days of the date of the decision by FHFA denying, in whole or in part, your request. Your appeal must include a copy of the initial request, a copy of the letter denying the request in whole or in part, and a statement of the circumstances, reasons, or arguments you believe support disclosure of the requested record(s). FHFA will not consider an improperly addressed appeal to have been received for the purposes of the 20-day time period of paragraph (d) of this section until it is actually received by the correct FHFA component.

(c) Extensions of time to appeal. If you need more time to file your appeal, you may request, in writing, an extension of time of no more than 10 calendar days in which to file your appeal, but only if your request is made within the original 90-calendar day time period for filing the appeal. Granting such an extension is in the sole discretion of the designated component Appeals Officer.

(d) Final action on appeal. FHFA's determination on your appeal will be in writing, signed by the designated component Appeals Officer, and sent to you within 20 days after the appeal is received, or by the last day of the last extension under paragraph (e) of this section. The determination of an appeal is the final action of FHFA on a FOIA request. A determination may—

(1) Affirm, in whole or in part, the initial denial of the request and may include a brief statement of the reason or reasons for the decision, including each FOIA exemption relied upon;

(2) Reverse, in whole or in part, the denial of a request in whole or in part, and require the request to be processed promptly in accordance with the decision; or

(3) Remand a request to FHFA, as appropriate, for re-processing.

(e) Notice of delayed determinations on appeal. If FHFA cannot send a final determination on your appeal within the 20-day time limit, the designated component Appeals Officer will continue to process the appeal and upon expiration of the time limit, will inform you of the reason(s) for the delay and the date on which a determination may be expected.

(f) Judicial review. If the denial of your request for records is upheld in whole or in part, or if a determination on your appeal has not been sent at the end of the 20-day period in paragraph (d) of this section, or the last extension thereof, you may seek judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). Before seeking review by a court of FHFA's adverse determination, a requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.

(g) Additional resource. To aid the requester, the FOIA Public Liaison is available and will assist in the resolution of any disputes. Also, the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) offers non-compulsory, non-binding services to resolve FOIA disputes. If you need information regarding the OGIS and/or the services it offers, please contact OGIS directly at Office of Government Information Services, National Archives and Records Administration, 8601 Adelphi Road-OGIS, College Park, MD 20740-6001; email: ogis@nara.gov; phone: (202) 741-5770; toll-free: 1 (877) 684-6448; or facsimile at (202) 741-5769. This information is provided as a public service only.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5684, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.10 Will FHFA expedite my request or appeal?

(a) Request for expedited processing. You may request, in writing, expedited processing of an initial request or of an appeal. FHFA may grant expedited processing, and give your request or appeal priority if your request for expedited processing demonstrates a compelling need by establishing one or more of the following—

(1) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual;

(2) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity if you are a person primarily engaged in disseminating information;

(3) The loss of substantial due process or rights;

(4) A matter of widespread and exceptional media interest in which there exists possible questions about the Federal Government's integrity, affecting public confidence; or

(5) Humanitarian need.

(b) Certification of compelling need. Your request for expedited processing must include a statement certifying that the reason(s) you present demonstrate a compelling need are true and correct to the best of your knowledge.

(c) Determination on request. FHFA will notify you within 10 calendar days of receipt of your request whether expedited processing has been granted. If a request for expedited treatment is granted, the request will be given priority and will be processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision under § 1202.9 of this part will be acted on expeditiously.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5684, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.11 What will it cost to get the records I requested?

(a) Assessment of fees, generally. FHFA will assess you for fees covering the direct costs of responding to your request and costs for duplicating records, except as otherwise provided in a statute with respect to the determination of fees that may be assessed for disclosure, search time, or review of particular records.

(b) Assessment of fees, categories of requesters. The fees that FHFA may assess vary depending on the type of request or the type of requester you are—

(1) Commercial use. If you request records for a commercial use, the fees that FHFA may assess are limited to FHFA's operating costs incurred for document search, review, and duplication.

(2) Educational institution, noncommercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media. If you are not requesting records for commercial use and you are an educational institution or a noncommercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research, or a representative of the news media, the fees that may be assessed are limited to standard reasonable charges for duplication in excess of 100 pages or an electronic equivalent of 100 pages.

(3) Other. If neither paragraph (b)(1) nor paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies, the fees assessed are limited to the costs for document searching in excess of two hours and duplication in excess of 100 pages, or an electronic equivalent of 100 pages.

(c) Fee schedule. FHFA will charge fees for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and OMB guidelines (basic pay plus 16 percent). There are three different groups of grades typically involved in processing FOIA requests: Personnel in grades EL-6 to EL-9; personnel in grades EL-10 to EL-13; and personnel EL-14 and above. FHFA's Web site, www.fhfa.gov, will contain current rates for search and review fees for each group. The rates will be updated as salaries change and will be determined by using the formula in this regulation. The formula is the sum of the mid-point of each grade divided by the number of grades in each category divided by 2088 and then multiplied by 1.16. 1 Fees for searches of computerized records are based on the actual cost to FHFA. For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by FHFA at a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration, FHFA will charge additional costs in accordance with the Transaction Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA.

1 Example of the rate formula is as follows: For 2016, EL-6 to EL-9 is [($55,769 + $63,554 + $71,816 + $81,152)/4][1/2088 hours per year][1.16 OMB markup factor] = $37.82 per hour.

(d) Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00. When FHFA determines or estimates that the fees chargeable to you will exceed $25.00, you will be notified of the actual or estimated amount of fees you will incur, unless you earlier indicated your willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. When you are notified that the actual or estimated fees exceed $25.00, your request will be tolled until you agree to pay, in writing, the anticipated total fee.

(e) Advance payment of fees. FHFA may request that you pay estimated fees or a deposit in advance of responding to your request. If FHFA requests advance payment or a deposit, your request will be tolled by FHFA until the advance payment or deposit is received. FHFA may request advance payment or a deposit if—

(1) The fees are likely to exceed $250.00;

(2) You do not have a history of payment;

(3) You previously failed to pay a FOIA fee to FHFA in a timely fashion, i.e., within 30 calendar days of the date of a billing; or

(4) You have an outstanding balance due from a prior request. FHFA will require you to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, or demonstrate that the fee owed has been paid, as well as payment of the full amount of anticipated fees before processing your request.

(f) Interest. FHFA may charge you interest on an unpaid bill starting on the 31st calendar day following the day on which the bill was sent. Once a fee payment has been received by FHFA, even if not processed, FHFA will stay the accrual of interest. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate prescribed by 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing.

(g) FHFA assistance to reduce costs. If FHFA notifies you of estimated fees exceeding $100.00 or requests advance payment or a deposit, you will have an opportunity to consult with FHFA FOIA staff to modify or reformulate your request to meet your needs at a lower cost.

(h) Fee waiver requests. You may request a fee waiver in accordance with the FOIA and this regulation. Requests for a waiver of fees must be made in writing and should be made at the time you submit your FOIA request. However, your fee waiver may be submitted at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. FHFA may grant your fee waiver request or a reduction of fees if disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Federal Government and is not primarily in your commercial interest. In submitting a fee waiver request, you must address the following six factors—

(1) Whether the subject of the requested records concerns the operations or activities of the Federal Government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated;

(2) Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute significantly to the public understanding of Federal Government operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:

(i) Disclosure of the requested information must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding; and

(ii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to your individual understanding. Your expertise in the subject area as well as your ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. FHFA will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.

(3) The disclosure must not be primarily in your commercial interest. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in your commercial interest FHFA will consider the following criteria:

(i) FHFA will determine whether you have any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. You will be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration; and

(ii) If there is an identified commercial interest, FHFA will determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request.

(i) Fee Waiver determination. FHFA will notify you within 20 days of receipt of your request whether the fee waiver has been granted. Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver will be granted for those records. For those records that do not satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, you may be charged for those records. When you have committed to pay fees and subsequently ask for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, you must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received. A request for fee waiver that is denied may only be appealed when a final decision has been made on the initial FOIA request.

(j) Restrictions on charging fees. (1) When FHFA determines that you are an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media, and the records are not sought for commercial use, FHFA will not charge search fees.

(2)(i) If FHFA fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to your request, FHFA will not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, will not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (j)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section.

(ii) If FHFA has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and FHFA has provided timely written notice to you in accordance with the FOIA, FHFA's failure to comply with the time limit will be excused for an additional 10 days.

(iii) If FHFA determines that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to your request, FHFA may charge search fees, or, in the case of a requester described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken. FHFA must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to you in accordance with the FOIA and FHFA must have discussed with you via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how you could effectively limit the scope of your request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, FHFA may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.

(iv) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.

(3) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.

(4) If you seek records for a commercial use, FHFA will provide without charge:

(i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media); and

(ii) The first two hours of search.

(5) No fee will be charged when the total fee, after deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, is equal to or less than $25.00.

(k) Additional resource. The FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA contact is available to assist you in modifying or reformulating a request to meet your needs at a lower cost. FHFA will also notify you of the availability of OGIS to provide dispute resolution service.

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5684, Feb. 9, 2018]

§ 1202.12 Is there anything else I need to know about FOIA procedures?

This FOIA regulation does not and shall not be construed to create any right or to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA. This regulation only provides procedures for requesting records under the FOIA.

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Appendix A to Part 1202 FHFA Headquarters

1. This Appendix applies to the Federal Housing Finance Agency's Headquarters Office.

2. Reading room. FHFA Headquarters only maintains an electronic reading room. The electronic reading room is located on FHFA's public website at http://www.fhfa.gov/AboutUs/FOIAPrivacy/Pages/Reading-Room.aspx.

3. Where to send your request. You may make a request for FHFA Headquarters records by writing directly to the FOIA Office through electronic mail, U.S. mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: foia@fhfa.gov. For U.S. mail or delivery service, the mailing address is: FOIA Officer, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219. The facsimile number is: (202) 649-1073. When submitting your request, please mark electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “FOIA Request.” FHFA's “Freedom of Information Act Reference Guide,” which is available on FHFA's Web site, provides additional information to assist you in making your request. You can find additional information on FHFA's FOIA program at http://www.fhfa.gov/AboutUs/FOIAPrivacy/Pages/FOIA-Reference-Guide.aspx.

4. Right of appeal. If FHFA Headquarters denied your request in whole or in part, you may appeal the denial by writing directly to the FOIA Appeals Officer through electronic mail, U.S. mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: foia@fhfa.gov. For U.S. mail or delivery service, the mailing address is: FOIA Appeals Officer, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219. The facsimile number is: (202) 649-1073. When submitting your appeal, please mark electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “FOIA Appeal.” FHFA's “Freedom of Information Act Reference Guide,” which is available on FHFA's Web site, provides additional information to assist you in making your appeal. You can find additional information on FHFA's FOIA program at http://www.fhfa.gov/AboutUs/FOIAPrivacy/Pages/FOIA-Reference-Guide.aspx

[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5685, Feb. 9, 2018]

Appendix B to Part 1202 FHFA Office of Inspector General

This Appendix applies to the Federal Housing Finance Agency's Office of Inspector General (FHFA-OIG).

1. Contact information for FOIA Officer. You may contact the FOIA Officer at (202) 730-0399 or by email at FOIA@fhfaoig.gov. Hearing impaired users may utilize the Federal Relay Service (external link) by dialing 1(800) 877-8339. A Communications Assistant will dial the requested number and relay the conversation between a standard (voice) telephone user and text telephone (TTY).

2. Information about the FHFA-OIG FOIA process. You may find information about the FHFA-OIG FOIA process at https://www.fhfaoig.gov/FOIA.

3. Reading room. FHFA-OIG maintains an electronic reading room. The electronic reading room is located at https://www.fhfaoig.gov/FOIA/ReadingRoom.

4. Where to send your request. You may make a request for FHFA-OIG records by writing directly to the FOIA Office through electronic mail, U.S. mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: FOIA@fhfaoig.gov. For U.S. mail or delivery service, the mailing address is: Federal Housing Finance Agency Office of Inspector General, 400 Seventh Street SW., Third Floor, Washington, DC 20219, ATTN: Office of Inspector General—FOIA Officer. The facsimile number is: (202) 318-8602. When submitting your request, please mark electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “FOIA Request.”

5. Right of appeal. If FHFA-OIG denies your request in whole or in part, you may appeal the denial by writing directly to the FOIA Officer through electronic mail, U.S. mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: FOIA@fhfaoig.gov. For U.S. mail or delivery service, the mailing address is: Federal Housing Finance Agency, Office of Inspector General, 400 Seventh Street SW., Third Floor, Washington, DC 20219, ATTN: Office of Inspector General—FOIA Officer. The facsimile number is: (202) 318-8602. When submitting your appeal, please mark electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “FOIA Appeal.”

PART 1203 EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4526, 5 U.S.C. 504.

Source: 75 FR 65219, Oct. 22, 2010, unless otherwise noted..

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 1203.1 Purpose and scope.

(a) This part implements the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504, by establishing procedures for the filing and consideration of applications for awards of fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to adversary adjudications before FHFA.

(b) This part applies to the award of fees and other expenses in connection with adversary adjudications before FHFA. However, if a court reviews the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication, an award for fees and other expenses may be made only pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 2412(d)(3).

§ 1203.2 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Adjudicative officer means the official who presided at the underlying adversary adjudication, without regard to whether the official is designated as a hearing examiner, administrative law judge, administrative judge, or otherwise.

Adversary adjudication means an administrative proceeding conducted by FHFA under 5 U.S.C. 554 in which the position of FHFA or any other agency of the United States is represented by counsel or otherwise, including but not limited to an adjudication conducted under the Safety and Soundness Act, as amended, and any implementing regulations. Any issue as to whether an administrative proceeding is an adversary adjudication for purposes of this part will be an issue for resolution in the proceeding on the application for award.

Affiliate means an individual, corporation, or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interests of the party, or any corporation or other entity of which the party directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, unless the adjudicative officer determines that it would be unjust and contrary to the purpose of the Equal Access to Justice Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities to consider them to be affiliates for purposes of this part.

Agency counsel means the attorney or attorneys designated by the General Counsel of FHFA to represent FHFA in an adversary adjudication covered by this part.

Demand of FHFA means the express demand of FHFA that led to the adversary adjudication, but does not include a recitation by FHFA of the maximum statutory penalty when accompanied by an express demand for a lesser amount.

Director means the Director of the Federal Housing Finance Agency.

Fees and other expenses means reasonable attorney or agent fees, the reasonable expenses of expert witnesses, and the reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, or test, which the agency finds necessary for the preparation of the eligible party's case.

FHFA means the Federal Housing Finance Agency.

Final disposition date means the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of the adversary adjudication or any other complete resolution of the adversary adjudication, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, becomes final and unappealable, both within the agency and to the courts.

Party means an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization that is named or admitted as a party, that is admitted as a party for limited purposes, or that is properly seeking and entitled as of right to be admitted as a party in an adversary adjudication.

Position of FHFA means the position taken by FHFA in the adversary adjudication, including the action or failure to act by FHFA upon which the adversary adjudication was based.

§ 1203.3 Eligible parties.

(a) To be eligible for an award of fees and other expenses under the Equal Access to Justice Act, the applicant must show that it meets all conditions of eligibility set out in this paragraph and has complied with all the requirements in subpart B of this part. The applicant must also be a party to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award.

(b) To be eligible for an award of fees and other expenses for prevailing parties, a party must be one of the following:

(1) An individual who has a net worth of not more than $2 million;

(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interest, and not more than 500 employees; however, a party who owns an unincorporated business will be considered to be an “individual” rather than the “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the party prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests;

(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3), with not more than 500 employees;

(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1141j(a), with not more than 500 employees;

(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or organization that has a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees; or

(6) For the purposes of an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.

(c) For purposes of eligibility under this section:

(1) The employees of a party must include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the party, under the party's direction and control. Part-time employees must be included on a proportional basis.

(2) The net worth and number of employees of the party and its affiliates must be aggregated to determine eligibility.

(3) The net worth and number of employees of a party will be determined as of the date the underlying adversary adjudication was initiated.

(4) A party that participates in an adversary adjudication primarily on behalf of one or more entities that would be ineligible for an award is not itself eligible for an award.

§ 1203.4 Standards for awards.

(a) An eligible party that files an application for award of fees and other expenses in accordance with this part will receive an award of fees and other expenses related to defending against a demand of FHFA if the demand was in excess of the decision in the underlying adversary adjudication and was unreasonable when compared with the decision under the facts and circumstances of the case, unless the party has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or unless special circumstances make an award unjust. The burden of proof that the demand of FHFA was substantially in excess of the decision and is unreasonable when compared with the decision is on the eligible party.

(b) An eligible party that submits an application for award in accordance with this part will receive an award of fees and other expenses incurred in connection with an adversary adjudication in which it prevailed or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the adversary adjudication in which it prevailed, unless the position of FHFA in the adversary adjudication was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. FHFA has the burden of proof to show that its position was substantially justified and may do so by showing that its position was reasonable in law and in fact.

§ 1203.5 Allowable fees and expenses.

(a) Awards of fees and other expenses will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the party. However, except as provided in § 1203.6, an award for the fee of an attorney or agent may not exceed $125 per hour and an award to compensate an expert witness may not exceed the highest rate at which FHFA pays expert witnesses. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or expert witness as a separate item if he or she ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.

(b) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the adjudicative officer will consider the following:

(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fees for similar services; or, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness is an employee of the eligible party, the fully allocated costs of the services;

(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services;

(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the eligible party;

(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the adversary adjudication; and

(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.

(c) In determining the reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party, the adjudicative officer will consider the prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the services were performed.

(d) Fees and other expenses incurred before the date on which an adversary adjudication was initiated will be awarded only if the eligible party can demonstrate that they were reasonably incurred in preparation for the adversary adjudication.

§ 1203.6 Rulemaking on maximum rate for fees.

If warranted by an increase in the cost of living or by special circumstances, FHFA may adopt regulations providing for an award of attorney or agent fees at a rate higher than $125 per hour in adversary adjudications covered by this part. Special circumstances include the limited availability of attorneys or agents who are qualified to handle certain types of adversary adjudications. FHFA will conduct any rulemaking proceedings for this purpose under the informal rulemaking procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553.

§ 1203.7 Awards against other agencies.

If another agency of the United States participates in an adversary adjudication before FHFA and takes a position that was not substantially justified, the award or appropriate portion of the award to an eligible party that prevailed over that agency will be made against that agency.

§§ 1203.8-1203.9 [Reserved]
Subpart B Information Required From Applicants
§ 1203.10 Contents of the application for award.

(a) An application for award of fees and other expenses under either § 1203.4(a) and § 1203.4(b) must:

(1) Identify the applicant and the adversary adjudication for which an award is sought;

(2) State the amount of fees and other expenses for which an award is sought;

(3) Provide the statements and documentation required by paragraph (b) or (c) of this section and § 1203.12 and any additional information required by the adjudicative officer; and

(4) Be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant and contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.

(b) An application for award under § 1203.4(a) must show that the demand of FHFA was substantially in excess of, and was unreasonable when compared to, the decision in the underlying adversary adjudication under the facts and circumstances of the case. It must also show that the applicant is a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.

(c) An application for award under § 1203.4(b) must:

(1) Show that the applicant has prevailed in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the underlying adversary adjudication and identify the position of FHFA in the adversary adjudication that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified;

(2) State the number of employees of the applicant and describe briefly the type and purposes of its organization or business (if the applicant is not an individual);

(3) State that the net worth of the applicant does not exceed $2 million, if the applicant is an individual; or for all other applicants, state that the net worth of the applicant and its affiliates, if any, does not exceed $7 million; and

(4) Include one of the following:

(i) A detailed exhibit showing the net worth (net worth exhibit) of the applicant and its affiliates, if any, when the underlying adversary adjudication was initiated. The net worth exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant as long as the net worth exhibit provides full disclosure of the assets and liabilities of the applicant and its affiliates, if any, and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies as an eligible party;

(ii) A copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that shows that the applicant qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3); or in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the belief that the applicant qualifies under such section; or

(iii) A statement that the applicant is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1141j(a).

§ 1203.11 Confidentiality of net worth exhibit.

Unless otherwise ordered by the Director, or required by law, the statement of net worth will be for the confidential use of the adjudicative officer, the Director, and agency counsel.

§ 1203.12 Documentation for fees and expenses.

(a) The application for award must be accompanied by full and itemized documentation of the fees and other expenses for which an award is sought. The adjudicative officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, logs, or other documentation for any fees or expenses claimed.

(b) A separate itemized statement must be submitted for each entity or individual whose services are covered by the application. Each itemized statement must include:

(1) The hours spent by each entity or individual;

(2) A description of the specific services performed and the rates at which each fee has been computed; and

(3) Any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity.

§§ 1203.13-1203.19 [Reserved]
Subpart C Procedures for Filing and Consideration of the Application for Award
§ 1203.20 Filing and service of the application for award and related papers.

(a) An application for an award of fees and other expenses must be filed no later than 30 days after the final disposition of the underlying adversary adjudication.

(b) An application for award and other papers related to the proceedings on the application for award must be filed and served on all parties in the same manner as papers are filed and served in the underlying adversary adjudication, except as otherwise provided in this part.

(c) The computation of time for filing and service of the application of award and other papers must be computed in the same manner as in the underlying adversary adjudication.

§ 1203.21 Response to the application for award.

(a) Agency counsel must file a response within 30 days after service of an application for award of fees and other expenses except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. In the response, agency counsel must explain any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied upon to support the objections. If any of the alleged facts are not already in the record of the underlying adversary adjudication, agency counsel must include with the response either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 1203.25.

(b) If agency counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the application for award can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement will extend the time for filing a response for an additional 30 days. Upon request by agency counsel and the applicant, the adjudicative officer may grant for good cause further time extensions.

(c) Agency counsel may request that the adjudicative officer extend the time period for filing a response. If agency counsel does not respond or otherwise does not contest or settle the application for award within the 30-day period or the extended time period, the adjudicative officer may make an award of fees and other expenses upon a satisfactory showing of entitlement by the applicant.

§ 1203.22 Reply to the response.

Within 15 days after service of a response, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the underlying adversary adjudication, the applicant must include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 1203.25.

§ 1203.23 Comments by other parties.

Any party to the underlying adversary adjudication other than the applicant and agency counsel may file comments on an application for award within 30 calendar days after it is served, or on a response within 15 calendar days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the adjudicative officer determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.

§ 1203.24 Settlement.

The applicant and agency counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of an award before the final decision on the application for award is made, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying adversary adjudication or after the underlying adversary adjudication has been concluded. If the eligible party and agency counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application for award has been filed, the application must be filed with the proposed settlement.

§ 1203.25 Further proceedings on the application for award.

(a) On request of either the applicant or agency counsel, on the adjudicative officer's own initiative, or as requested by the Director under § 1203.27, the adjudicative officer may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or, as to issues other than substantial justification (such as the applicant's eligibility or substantiation of fees and expenses), pertinent discovery or an evidential hearing. Such further proceedings will be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application for award and will be conducted as promptly as possible. The issue as to whether the position of FHFA in the underlying adversary adjudication was substantially justified will be determined on the basis of the whole administrative record that was made in the underlying adversary adjudication.

(b) A request that the adjudicative officer order further proceedings under this section must specifically identify the information sought on the disputed issues and must explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.

§ 1203.26 Decision of the adjudicative officer.

(a) The adjudicative officer must make the initial decision on the basis of the written record, except if further proceedings are ordered under § 1203.25.

(b) The adjudicative officer must issue a written initial decision on the application for award within 30 days after completion of proceedings on the application. The initial decision will become the final decision of FHFA after 30 days from the day it was issued, unless review is ordered under § 1203.27.

(c) In all initial decisions, the adjudicative officer must include findings and conclusions with respect to the applicant's eligibility and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested by the applicant and the amount awarded. If the applicant has sought an award against more than one agency, the adjudicative officer must also include findings and conclusions with respect to the allocation of payment of any award made.

(d) In initial decisions on applications filed pursuant to § 1203.4(a), the adjudicative officer must include findings and conclusions as to whether FHFA made a demand that was substantially in excess of the decision in the underlying adversary adjudication and that was unreasonable when compared with that decision; and, if at issue, whether the applicant has committed a willful violation of the law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or whether special circumstances would make the award unjust.

(e) In decisions on applications filed pursuant to § 1203.4(b), the adjudicative officer must include written findings and conclusions as to whether the applicant is a prevailing party and whether the position of FHFA was substantially justified; and, if at issue, whether the applicant unduly protracted or delayed the underlying adversary adjudication or whether special circumstance make the award unjust.

§ 1203.27 Review by FHFA.

Within 30 days after the adjudicative officer issues an initial decision under § 1203.26, either the applicant or agency counsel may request the Director to review the initial decision of the adjudicative officer. The Director may also decide, at his or her discretion, to review the initial decision. If review is ordered, the Director must issue a final decision on the application for award or remand the application for award to the adjudicative officer for further proceedings under § 1203.25.

§ 1203.28 Judicial review.

Any party, other than the United States, that is dissatisfied with the final decision on an application for award of fees and expenses under this part may seek judicial review as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).

§ 1203.29 Payment of award.

To receive payment of an award of fees and other expenses granted under this part, the applicant must submit a copy of the final decision that grants the award and a certification that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts to the Director, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219. FHFA must pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 60 days of receipt of the submission of the copy of the final decision and the certification, unless judicial review of the award has been sought by any party to the proceedings.

[75 FR 65219, Oct. 22, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]

PART 1204 PRIVACY ACT IMPLEMENTATION

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552a.

Source: 76 FR 51871, Aug. 19, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to part 1204 appear at 77 FR 4646, Jan. 31, 2012.

§ 1204.1 Why did FHFA issue this part?

The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) issued this part to—

(a) Implement the Privacy Act, a Federal law that helps protect private information about individuals that Federal agencies collect or maintain. You should read this part together with the Privacy Act, which provides additional information about records maintained on individuals;

(b) Establish rules that apply to all FHFA and FHFA Office of Inspector General (FHFA-OIG) maintained systems of records retrievable by an individual's name or other personal identifier;

(c) Describe procedures through which you may request access to records, request amendment or correction of those records, or request an accounting of disclosures of those records by FHFA or FHFA-OIG;

(d) Inform you, that when it is appropriate to do so, FHFA or FHFA-OIG automatically processes a Privacy Act request for access to records under both the Privacy Act and FOIA, following the rules contained in this part and in FHFA's Freedom of Information Act regulation at part 1202 of this title so that you will receive the maximum amount of information available to you by law;

(e) Notify you that this part does not entitle you to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which you are not entitled under the Privacy Act. It also does not, and may not be relied upon, to create any substantive or procedural right or benefit enforceable against FHFA or FHFA-OIG; and

(f) Notify you that this part applies to both FHFA and FHFA-OIG.

§ 1204.2 What do the terms in this part mean?

The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part—

Access means making a record available to a subject individual.

Amendment means any correction of, addition to, or deletion from a record.

Court means any entity conducting a legal proceeding.

Days, unless stated as “calendar days,” are working days and do not include Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. If the last day of any period prescribed herein falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or federal holiday, the last day of the period will be the next working day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or federal holiday.

FHFA means the Federal Housing Finance Agency and includes its predecessor agencies, the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight (OFHEO) and the Federal Housing Finance Board (FHFB).

FHFA-OIG means the Office of Inspector General for FHFA.

FOIA means the Freedom of Information Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552).

Individual means a natural person who is either a citizen of the United States of America or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence.

Maintain includes collect, use, disseminate, or control.

Privacy Act means the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a).

Privacy Act Appeals Officer means a person designated by the FHFA Director to process appeals of denials of requests for or seeking amendment of records maintained by FHFA under the Privacy Act. For appeals pertaining to records maintained by FHFA-OIG, Privacy Act Appeals Officer means a person designated by the FHFA Inspector General to process appeals of denials of requests for or seeking amendment of records maintained by FHFA-OIG under the Privacy Act.

Privacy Act Officer means a person designated by the FHFA Director who has primary responsibility for privacy and data protection policy and is authorized to process requests for or amendment of records maintained by FHFA under the Privacy Act. For requests pertaining to records maintained by FHFA-OIG, Privacy Act Officer means a person designated by the FHFA Inspector General to process requests for or amendment of records maintained by FHFA-OIG under the Privacy Act.

Record means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that FHFA or FHFA-OIG maintains within a system of records, including, but not limited to, the individual's name, an identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print, or photograph.

Routine use means the purposes for which records and information contained in a system of records may be disclosed by FHFA or FHFA-OIG without the consent of the subject of the record. Routine uses for records are identified in each system of records notice. Routine use does not include disclosure that subsection (b) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(b)) otherwise permits.

Senior Agency Official for Privacy means a person designated by the FHFA Director who has the authority and responsibility to oversee and supervise the FHFA privacy program and implementation of the Privacy Act.

System of Records means a group of records FHFA or FHFA-OIG maintains or controls from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. Single records or groups of records that are not retrieved by a personal identifier are not part of a system of records.

System of Records Notice means a notice published in the Federal Register which announces the creation, deletion, or amendment of one or more system of records. System of records notices are also used to identify a system of records' routine uses.

§ 1204.3 How do I make a Privacy Act request?

(a) What is a valid request? In general, a Privacy Act request can be made on your own behalf for records or information about you. You can make a Privacy Act request on behalf of another individual as the parent or guardian of a minor, or as the guardian of someone determined by a court to be incompetent. You also may request access to another individual's record or information if you have that individual's written consent, unless other conditions of disclosure apply.

(b) How and where do I make a request? Your request must be in writing. Regardless of whether your request seeks records from FHFA, FHFA-OIG, or both, you may appear in person to submit your written request to the FHFA Privacy Act Officer, or send your written request to the FHFA Privacy Act Officer by electronic mail, mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: privacy@fhfa.gov. For mail or delivery service, the address is: FHFA Privacy Act Officer, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219. The facsimile number is (202) 649-1073. Requests for FHFA-OIG maintained records will be forwarded to FHFA-OIG for processing and direct response. You can help FHFA and FHFA-OIG process your request by marking electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “Privacy Act Request.” FHFA's “Privacy Act Reference Guide,” which is available on FHFA's Web site, http://www.fhfa.gov, provides additional information to assist you in making your request.

(c) What must the request include? You must describe the record that you want in enough detail to enable either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer to locate the system of records containing it with a reasonable amount of effort. Include specific information about each record sought, such as the time period in which you believe it was compiled, the name or identifying number of each system of records in which you believe it is kept, and the date, title or name, author, recipient, or subject matter of the record. As a general rule, the more specific you are about the record that you want, the more likely FHFA or FHFA-OIG will be able to locate it in response to your request.

(d) How do I request amendment or correction of a record? If you are requesting an amendment or correction of any FHFA or FHFA-OIG record, identify each particular record in question and the system of records in which the record is located, describe the amendment or correction that you want, and state why you believe that the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete. You may submit any documentation that you think would be helpful, including an annotated copy of the record.

(e) How do I request for an accounting of disclosures? If you are requesting an accounting of disclosures by FHFA or FHFA-OIG of a record to another person, organization, or Federal agency, you must identify each particular record in question. An accounting generally includes the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure, as well as the name and address of the person, organization, or Federal agency to which the disclosure was made, subject to § 1204.7.

(f) Must I verify my identity? Yes. When making requests under the Privacy Act, your request must verify your identity to protect your privacy or the privacy of the individual on whose behalf you are acting. If you make a Privacy Act request and you do not follow these identity verification procedures, FHFA or FHFA-OIG cannot and will not process your request.

(1) How do I verify my identity? To verify your identity, you must state your full name, current address, and date and place of birth. In order to help identify and locate the records you request, you also may, at your option, include your Social Security number. If you make your request in person and your identity is not known to either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer, you must provide either two forms of unexpired identification with photographs issued by a federal, state, or local government agency or entity (i.e. passport, passport card, driver's license, ID card, etc.), or one form of unexpired identification with a photograph issued by a federal, state, or local government agency or entity (i.e. passport, passport card, driver's license, ID card, etc.) and a properly authenticated birth certificate. If you make your request by mail, your signature either must be notarized or submitted under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits statements to be made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization. You may fulfill this requirement by having your signature on your request letter witnessed by a notary or by including the following statement just before the signature on your request letter: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on [date]. [Signature].”

(2) How do I verify parentage or guardianship? If you make a Privacy Act request as the parent or guardian of a minor, or as the guardian of someone determined by a court to be incompetent, with respect to records or information about that individual, you must establish—

(i) The identity of the individual who is the subject of the record, by stating the individual's name, current address, date and place of birth, and, at your option, the Social Security number of the individual;

(ii) Your own identity, as required in paragraph (f)(1) of this section;

(iii) That you are the parent or guardian of the individual, which you may prove by providing a properly authenticated copy of the individual's birth certificate showing your parentage or a properly authenticated court order establishing your guardianship; and

(iv) That you are acting on behalf of the individual in making the request.

[76 FR 51871, Aug. 19, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 4646, Jan. 31, 2012; 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]

§ 1204.4 How will FHFA or FHFA-OIG respond to my Privacy Act request?

(a) How will FHFA or FHFA-OIG locate the requested records? FHFA or FHFA-OIG will search to determine if requested records exist in the system of records it owns or controls. You can find FHFA and FHFA-OIG system of records notices on our Web site at http://www.fhfa.gov. You can also find descriptions of OFHEO and FHFB system of records that have not yet been superseded on the FHFA Web site. A description of the system of records also is available in the “Privacy Act Issuances” compilation published by the Office of the Federal Register of the National Archives and Records Administration. You can access the “Privacy Act Issuances” compilation in most large reference and university libraries or electronically at the Government Printing Office Web site at: http://www.gpoaccess.gov/privacyact/index.html. You also can request a copy of FHFA or FHFA-OIG system of records from the Privacy Act Officer.

(b) How long does FHFA or FHFA-OIG have to respond? Either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer generally will respond to your request in writing within 20 days after receiving it, if it meets the § 1204.3 requirements. For requests to amend a record, either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer will respond within 10 days after receipt of the request to amend. FHFA or FHFA-OIG may extend the response time in unusual circumstances, such as when consultation is needed with another Federal agency (if that agency is subject to the Privacy Act) about a record or to retrieve a record shipped offsite for storage. If you submit your written request in person, either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer may disclose records or information to you directly and create a written record of the grant of the request. If you are to be accompanied by another person when accessing your record or any information pertaining to you, FHFA or FHFA-OIG may require your written authorization before permitting access or discussing the record in the presence of the other person.

(c) What will the FHFA or FHFA-OIG response include? The written response will include a determination to grant or deny your request in whole or in part, a brief explanation of the reasons for the determination, and the amount of the fee charged, if any, under § 1204.6. If you are granted a request to access a record, FHFA or FHFA-OIG will make the record available to you. If you are granted a request to amend or correct a record, the response will describe any amendments or corrections made and advise you of your right to obtain a copy of the amended or corrected record.

(d) What is an adverse determination? An adverse determination is a determination on a Privacy Act request that—

(1) Withholds any requested record in whole or in part;

(2) Denies a request for an amendment or correction of a record in whole or in part;

(3) Declines to provide a requested accounting of disclosures;

(4) Advises that a requested record does not exist or cannot be located; or

(5) Finds what has been requested is not a record subject to the Privacy Act.

(e) What will be stated in a response that includes an adverse determination? If an adverse determination is made with respect to your request, either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer's written response under this section will identify the person responsible for the adverse determination, state that the adverse determination is not a final action of FHFA or FHFA-OIG, and state that you may appeal the adverse determination under § 1204.5.

§ 1204.5 What if I am dissatisfied with the response to my Privacy Act request?

(a) May I appeal the response? You may appeal any adverse determination made in response to your Privacy Act request. If you wish to seek review by a court of any adverse determination or denial of a request, you must first appeal it under this section.

(b) How do I appeal the response?—(1) You may appeal by submitting in writing, a statement of the reasons you believe the adverse determination should be overturned. FHFA or FHFA-OIG must receive your written appeal within 30 calendar days of the date of the adverse determination under § 1204.4. Your written appeal may include as much or as little related information as you wish, as long as it clearly identifies the determination (including the request number, if known) that you are appealing.

(2) If FHFA or FHFA-OIG denied your request in whole or in part, you may appeal the denial by writing directly to the FHFA Privacy Act Appeals Officer through electronic mail, mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: privacy@fhfa.gov. For mail or express mail, the address is: FHFA Privacy Act Appeals Officer, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219. The facsimile number is: (202) 649-1073. For appeals of FHFA-OIG denials, whether in whole or in part, the appeal must be clearly marked by adding “FHFA-OIG” after “Privacy Act Appeal.” All appeals from denials, in whole or part, made by FHFA-OIG will be forwarded to the FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer for processing and direct response. You can help FHFA and FHFA-OIG process your appeal by marking electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “Privacy Act Appeal.” FHFA's “Privacy Act Reference Guide,” which is available on FHFA's Web site, http://www.fhfa.gov, provides additional information to assist you in making your appeal. FHFA or FHFA-OIG ordinarily will not act on an appeal if the Privacy Act request becomes a matter of litigation.

(3) If you need more time to file your appeal, you may request an extension of time of no more than ten (10) calendar days in which to file your appeal, but only if your request is made within the original 30-calendar day time period for filing the appeal. Granting an extension is in the sole discretion of either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer.

(c) Who has the authority to grant or deny appeals? For appeals from the FHFA Privacy Act Officer, the FHFA Privacy Act Appeals Officer is authorized to act on your appeal. For appeals from the FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer, the FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer is authorized to act on your appeal.

(d) When will FHFA or FHFA-OIG respond to my appeal? FHFA or FHFA-OIG generally will respond to you in writing within 30 days of receipt of an appeal that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, unless for good cause shown, the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer extends the response time.

(e) What will the FHFA or FHFA-OIG response include? The written response will include the determination of either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer, whether to grant or deny your appeal in whole or in part, a brief explanation of the reasons for the determination, and information about the Privacy Act provisions for court review of the determination.

(1) If your appeal concerns a request for access to records or information and the appeal determination grants your access, the records or information, if any, will be made available to you.

(2)(i) If your appeal concerns an amendment or correction of a record and the appeal determination grants your request for an amendment or correction, the response will describe any amendment or correction made to the record and advise you of your right to obtain a copy of the amended or corrected record under this part. FHFA or FHFA-OIG will notify all persons, organizations, or Federal agencies to which it previously disclosed the record, if an accounting of that disclosure was made, that the record has been amended or corrected. Whenever the record is subsequently disclosed, the record will be disclosed as amended or corrected.

(ii) If the response to your appeal denies your request for an amendment or correction to a record, the response will advise you of your right to file a Statement of Disagreement under paragraph (f) of this section.

(f) What is a Statement of Disagreement?—(1) A Statement of Disagreement is a concise written statement in which you clearly identify each part of any record that you dispute and explain your reason(s) for disagreeing with either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer's denial, in whole or in part, of your appeal requesting amendment or correction. Your Statement of Disagreement must be received by either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer within 30 calendar days of either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer's denial, in whole or in part, of your appeal concerning amendment or correction of a record. FHFA and FHFA-OIG will place your Statement of Disagreement in the system of records in which the disputed record is maintained. FHFA and FHFA-OIG may also append a concise statement of its reason(s) for denying the request for an amendment or correction of the record.

(2) FHFA and FHFA-OIG will notify all persons, organizations, and Federal agencies to which it previously disclosed the disputed record, if an accounting of that disclosure was made, that the record is disputed and provide your Statement of Disagreement and the FHFA or FHFA-OIG concise statement, if any. Whenever the disputed record is subsequently disclosed, a copy of your Statement of Disagreement and the FHFA or FHFA-OIG concise statement, if any, will also be disclosed.

[76 FR 51871, Aug. 19, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 4646, Jan. 31, 2012; 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]

§ 1204.6 What does it cost to get records under the Privacy Act?

(a) Must I agree to pay fees? Your Privacy Act request is your agreement to pay all applicable fees, unless you specify a limit on the amount of fees you agree to pay. FHFA or FHFA-OIG will not exceed the specified limit without your written agreement.

(b) How does FHFA or FHFA-OIG calculate fees? FHFA and FHFA-OIG will charge a fee for duplication of a record under the Privacy Act in the same way it charges for duplication of records under FOIA in 12 CFR 1202.11. There are no fees to search for or review records.

§ 1204.7 Are there any exemptions from the Privacy Act?

(a) What is a Privacy Act exemption? The Privacy Act authorizes the Director and the FHFA Inspector General to exempt records or information in a system of records from some of the Privacy Act requirements, if the Director or the FHFA Inspector General, as appropriate, determines that the exemption is necessary.

(b) How do I know if the records or information I want are exempt?—(1) Each system of records notice will advise you if the Director or the FHFA Inspector General has determined records or information in records are exempt from Privacy Act requirements. If the Director or the FHFA Inspector General has claimed an exemption for a system of records, the system of records notice will identify the exemption and the provisions of the Privacy Act from which the system is exempt.

(2) Until superseded by FHFA or FHFA-OIG systems of records, the following OFHEO and FHFB systems of records are, under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) or (k)(5), exempt from the Privacy Act requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f)—

(i) OFHEO-11 Litigation and Enforcement Information System; and

(ii) FHFB-5 Agency Personnel Investigative Records.

(c) What exemptions potentially apply to FHFA-OIG records? Unless the FHFA Inspector General, his or her designee, or a statute specifically authorizes disclosure, FHFA-OIG will not release records of matters that are subject to the following exemptions—

(1) To the extent that the systems of records entitled “FHFA-OIG Audit Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative & Evaluative Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative & Evaluative MIS Database,” “FHFA-OIG Hotline Database,” and “FHFA-OIG Correspondence Database” contain any information compiled by FHFA-OIG for the purpose of criminal law enforcement investigations, such information falls within the scope of exemption (j)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), and therefore these systems of records are exempt from the requirements of the following subsections of the Privacy Act to that extent, for the reasons stated in paragraphs (1)(i) through (vi) of this section.

(i) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), because release of an accounting of disclosures to an individual who is the subject of an investigation or evaluation could reveal the nature and scope of the investigation or evaluation and could result in the altering or destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, and other evasive actions that could impede or compromise the investigation or evaluation.

(ii) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1), because release of investigative or evaluative records to an individual who is the subject of an investigation or evaluation could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of third parties, reveal the identity of confidential sources, or reveal sensitive investigative or evaluative techniques and procedures.

(iii) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(2), because amendment or correction of investigative or evaluative records could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, or could impose an impossible administrative and investigative or evaluative burden by requiring FHFA-OIG to continuously retrograde its investigations or evaluations attempting to resolve questions of accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness.

(iv) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), because it is often impossible to determine relevance or necessity of information in the early stages of an investigation or evaluation. The value of such information is a question of judgment and timing; what appears relevant and necessary when collected may ultimately be evaluated and viewed as irrelevant and unnecessary to an investigation or evaluation. In addition, FHFA-OIG may obtain information concerning the violation of laws other than those within the scope of its jurisdiction. In the interest of effective law enforcement, FHFA-OIG should retain this information because it may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity and provide leads for other law enforcement agencies. Further, in obtaining evidence during an investigation or evaluation, information may be provided to FHFA-OIG that relates to matters incidental to the main purpose of the investigation or evaluation, but which may be pertinent to the investigative or evaluative jurisdiction of another agency. Such information cannot readily be identified.

(v) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(2), because in a law enforcement investigation or an evaluation it is usually counterproductive to collect information to the greatest extent practicable directly from the subject thereof. It is not always feasible to rely upon the subject of an investigation or evaluation as a source for information which may implicate him or her in illegal activities. In addition, collecting information directly from the subject could seriously compromise an investigation or evaluation by prematurely revealing its nature and scope, or could provide the subject with an opportunity to conceal criminal activities, or intimidate potential sources, in order to avoid apprehension.

(vi) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3), because providing such notice to the subject of an investigation or evaluation, or to other individual sources, could seriously compromise the investigation or evaluation by prematurely revealing its nature and scope, or could inhibit cooperation, permit the subject to evade apprehension, or cause interference with undercover activities.

(2) To the extent that the systems of records entitled “FHFA-OIG Audit Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative & Evaluative Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative & Evaluative MIS Database,” “FHFA-OIG Hotline Database,” and “FHFA-OIG Correspondence Database,” contain information compiled by FHFA-OIG for the purpose of criminal law enforcement investigations, such information falls within the scope of exemption (k)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), and therefore these systems of records are exempt from the requirements of the following subsections of the Privacy Act to that extent, for the reasons stated in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section.

(i) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), because release of an accounting of disclosures to an individual who is the subject of an investigation or evaluation could reveal the nature and scope of the investigation or evaluation and could result in the altering or destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, and other evasive actions that could impede or compromise the investigation or evaluation.

(ii) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1), because release of investigative or evaluative records to an individual who is the subject of an investigation or evaluation could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of third parties, reveal the identity of confidential sources, or reveal sensitive investigative or evaluative techniques and procedures.

(iii) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(2), because amendment or correction of investigative or evaluative records could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, or could impose an impossible administrative and investigative or evaluative burden by requiring FHFA-OIG to continuously retrograde its investigations or evaluations attempting to resolve questions of accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness.

(iv) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), because it is often impossible to determine relevance or necessity of information in the early stages of an investigation or evaluation. The value of such information is a question of judgment and timing; what appears relevant and necessary when collected may ultimately be evaluated and viewed as irrelevant and unnecessary to an investigation or evaluation. In addition, FHFA-OIG may obtain information concerning the violation of laws other than those within the scope of its jurisdiction. In the interest of effective law enforcement, FHFA-OIG should retain this information because it may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity and provide leads for other law enforcement agencies. Further, in obtaining evidence during an investigation or evaluation, information may be provided to FHFA-OIG that relates to matters incidental to the main purpose of the investigation or evaluation but which may be pertinent to the investigative or evaluative jurisdiction of another agency. Such information cannot readily be identified.

(3) To the extent that the systems of records entitled “FHFA-OIG Audit Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative & Evaluative Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative & Evaluative MIS Database,” “FHFA-OIG Hotline Database,” and “FHFA-OIG Correspondence Database” contain any investigatory material compiled by FHFA-OIG for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment or Federal contracts, the release of which would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, such information falls within the scope of exemption (k)(5) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), and therefore these systems of records are exempt from the requirements of subsection (d)(1) of the Privacy Act to that extent, because release would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise of confidentiality. Revealing the identity of a confidential source could impede future cooperation by sources, and could result in harassment or harm to such sources.

§ 1204.8 How are records secured?

(a) What controls must FHFA and FHFA-OIG have in place? FHFA and FHFA-OIG must establish administrative and physical controls to prevent unauthorized access to their systems of records, unauthorized or inadvertent disclosure of records, and physical damage to or destruction of records. The stringency of these controls corresponds to the sensitivity of the records that the controls protect. At a minimum, the administrative and physical controls must ensure that—

(1) Records are protected from public view;

(2) The area in which records are kept is supervised during business hours to prevent unauthorized persons from having access to them;

(3) Records are inaccessible to unauthorized persons outside of business hours; and

(4) Records are not disclosed to unauthorized persons or under unauthorized circumstances in either oral or written form.

(b) Is access to records restricted? Access to records is restricted to authorized employees who require access in order to perform their official duties.

§ 1204.9 Does FHFA or FHFA-OIG collect and use Social Security numbers?

FHFA and FHFA-OIG collect Social Security numbers only when it is necessary and authorized. At least annually, the FHFA Privacy Act Officer or the Senior Agency Official for Privacy will inform employees who are authorized to collect information that—

(a) Individuals may not be denied any right, benefit, or privilege as a result of refusing to provide their Social Security numbers, unless the collection is authorized either by a statute or by a regulation issued prior to 1975; and

(b) They must inform individuals who are asked to provide their Social Security numbers—

(1) If providing a Social Security number is mandatory or voluntary;

(2) If any statutory or regulatory authority authorizes collection of a Social Security number; and

(3) The uses that will be made of the Social Security number.

§ 1204.10 What are FHFA and FHFA-OIG employee responsibilities under the Privacy Act?

At least annually, the FHFA Privacy Act Officer or the Senior Agency Official for Privacy will inform employees about the provisions of the Privacy Act, including the Privacy Act's civil liability and criminal penalty provisions. Unless otherwise permitted by law, an authorized FHFA or FHFA-OIG employee shall—

(a) Collect from individuals only information that is relevant and necessary to discharge FHFA or FHFA-OIG responsibilities;

(b) Collect information about an individual directly from that individual whenever practicable;

(c) Inform each individual from whom information is collected of—

(1) The legal authority to collect the information and whether providing it is mandatory or voluntary;

(2) The principal purpose for which FHFA or FHFA-OIG intends to use the information;

(3) The routine uses FHFA or FHFA-OIG may make of the information; and

(4) The effects on the individual, if any, of not providing the information.

(d) Ensure that the employee's office does not maintain a system of records without public notice and notify appropriate officials of the existence or development of any system of records that is not the subject of a current or planned public notice;

(e) Maintain all records that are used in making any determination about an individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as is reasonably necessary to ensure fairness to the individual in the determination;

(f) Except for disclosures made under FOIA, make reasonable efforts, prior to disseminating any record about an individual, to ensure that the record is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete;

(g) When required by the Privacy Act, maintain an accounting in the specified form of all disclosures of records by FHFA or FHFA-OIG to persons, organizations, or Federal agencies;

(h) Maintain and use records with care to prevent the unauthorized or inadvertent disclosure of a record to anyone; and

(i) Notify the appropriate official of any record that contains information that the Privacy Act does not permit FHFA or FHFA-OIG to maintain.

§ 1204.11 May FHFA-OIG obtain Privacy Act records from other Federal agencies for law enforcement purposes?

(a) The FHFA Inspector General is authorized under the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended, to make written requests under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7) for transfer of records maintained by other Federal agencies which are necessary to carry out an authorized law enforcement activity under the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended.

(b) The FHFA Inspector General delegates the authority under paragraph (a) of this section to the following FHFA-OIG officials—

(1) Principal Deputy Inspector General;

(2) Deputy Inspector General for Audits;

(3) Deputy Inspector General for Investigations;

(4) Deputy Inspector General for Evaluations; and

(5) Deputy Inspector General for Administration.

(c) The officials listed in paragraph (b) of this section may not further delegate or re-delegate the authority described in paragraph (a) of this section.

PART 1206 ASSESSMENTS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4516.

Source: 73 FR 56713, Sept. 30, 2008, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1206.1 Purpose.

This part sets forth the policy and procedures of the FHFA with respect to the establishment and collection of the assessments of the Regulated Entities under 12 U.S.C. 4516.

§ 1206.2 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Act means the Federal Housing Finance Regulatory Reform Act of 2008.

Adequately capitalized means the adequately capitalized capital classification under 12 U.S.C. 1364 and related regulations.

Director means the Director of the Federal Housing Finance Agency or his or her designee.

Enterprise means the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation; and “Enterprises” means, collectively, the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation.

Federal Home Loan Bank, or Bank, means a Federal Home Loan Bank established under section 12 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1432).

FHFA means the Federal Housing Finance Agency.

Minimum required regulatory capital means the highest amount of capital necessary for a Bank to comply with any of the capital requirements established by the Director and applicable to it.

Regulated Entity means the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or any of the Federal Home Loan Banks.

Surplus funds means any amounts that are not obligated as of September 30 of the fiscal year for which the assessment was made.

Total exposure has the same meaning given to adjusted total assets in 12 CFR 1240.2.

Working capital fund means an account for amounts collected from the Regulated Entities to establish an operating reserve that is intended to provide for the payment of large or multiyear capital and operating expenditures, as well as unanticipated expenses.

[73 FR 56713, Sept. 30, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 82198, Dec. 17 2020]

§ 1206.3 Annual assessments.

(a) Establishing assessments. The Director shall establish annual assessments on the Regulated Entities in an amount sufficient to maintain a working capital fund and provide for the payment of the FHFA's costs and expenses, including, but not limited to:

(1) Expenses of any examinations under 12 U.S.C. 4517 and section 20 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1440);

(2) Expenses of obtaining any reviews and credit assessments under 12 U.S.C. 4519;

(3) Expenses of any enforcement activities under 12 U.S.C. 4635;

(4) Expenses of other FHFA litigation under 12 U.S.C. 4513;

(5) Expenses relating to the maintenance of the FHFA records relating to examinations and other reviews of the Regulated Entities;

(6) Such amounts in excess of actual expenses for any given year deemed necessary to maintain a working capital fund;

(7) Expenses relating to monitoring and ensuring compliance with housing goals;

(8) Expenses relating to conducting reviews of new products;

(9) Expenses related to affordable housing and community programs;

(10) Other administrative expenses of the FHFA;

(11) Expenses related to preparing reports and studies;

(12) Expenses relating to the collection of data and development of systems to calculate the House Price Index (HPI) and the conforming loan limit;

(13) Amounts deemed necessary by the Director to wind up the affairs of the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight and the Federal Housing Finance Board; and

(14) Expenses relating to other responsibilities of the FHFA under the Safety and Soundness Act, the Federal Home Loan Bank Act and the Act.

(b) Allocating assessments. The Director shall allocate the annual assessments as follows:

(1) Enterprises. Assessments collected from the Enterprises shall not exceed amounts sufficient to provide for payment of the costs and expenses relating to the Enterprises as determined by the Director. Each Enterprise shall pay a proportional share that bears the same ratio to the total portion of the annual assessment allocated to the Enterprises that the total exposure of each Enterprise bears to the total exposure of both Enterprises.

(2) Federal Home Loan Banks. Assessments collected from the Banks shall not exceed amounts sufficient to provide for payment of the costs and expenses relating to the Banks as determined by the Director. Each Bank shall pay a pro rata share of the annual assessments based on the ratio between its minimum required regulatory capital and the aggregate minimum required regulatory capital of every Bank.

(c) Timing and amount of semiannual payment. Each Regulated Entity shall pay on or before October 1 and April 1 an amount equal to one-half of its annual assessment.

(d) Surplus funds. Surplus funds shall be credited to the annual assessment by reducing the amount collected in the following semiannual period by the amount of the surplus funds. Surplus funds shall be allocated to all Regulated Entities in the same proportion in which they were collected, except as determined by the Director.

[73 FR 56713, Sept. 30, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]

§ 1206.4 Increased costs of regulation.

(a) Increase for inadequate capitalization. The Director may, at his or her discretion, increase the amount of a semiannual payment allocated to a Regulated Entity that is not classified as adequately capitalized to pay additional estimated costs of regulation of that Regulated Entity.

(b) Increase for enforcement activities. The Director may, at his or her discretion, adjust the amount of a semiannual payment allocated to a Regulated Entity to ensure that the Regulated Entity bears the estimated costs of enforcement activities under the Act related to that Regulated Entity.

(c) Additional assessment for deficiencies. At any time, the Director may make and collect from any Regulated Entity an assessment, payable immediately or through increased semiannual payments, to cover the estimated amount of any deficiency for the semiannual period as a result of increased costs of regulation of a Regulated Entity due to its classification as other than adequately capitalized, or as a result of enforcement activities related to that Regulated Entity. Any amount remaining from such additional assessment and the semiannual payments at the end of any semiannual period during which such an additional assessment is made shall be deducted pro rata (based upon the amount of the additional assessments) from the assessment for the following semiannual period for that Regulated Entity.

§ 1206.5 Working capital fund.

(a) Assessments. The Director shall establish and collect from the Regulated Entities such assessments he or she deems necessary to maintain a working capital fund.

(b) Purposes. Assessments collected to maintain the working capital fund shall be used to establish an operating reserve and to provide for the payment of large or multiyear capital and operating expenditures as well as unanticipated expenses.

(c) Remittance of excess assessed funds. At the end of each year for which an assessment under this section is made, the Director shall remit to each Regulated Entity any amount of assessed and collected funds in excess of the amount the Director deems necessary to maintain a working capital fund in the same proportions as paid under the most recent annual assessment.

§ 1206.6 Notice and review.

(a) Written notice of budget. The Director shall provide to each Regulated Entity written notice of the projected budget for the Agency for the upcoming fiscal year. Such notice shall be provided at least 30 days before the beginning of the applicable fiscal year.

(b) Written notice of assessments. The Director shall provide each Regulated Entity with written notice of assessments as follows:

(1) Annual assessments. The Director shall provide each Regulated Entity with written notice of the annual assessment and the semiannual payments to be collected under this part. Notice of the annual assessment and semiannual payments shall be provided before the start of the new fiscal year.

(2) Immediate assessments. The Director shall provide each Regulated Entity with written notice of any immediate assessments to be collected under § 1206.4 of this chapter. Notice of any immediate assessment and the required payments shall be provided at such reasonable time as determined by the Director.

(3) Changes to assessments. The Director shall provide each Regulated Entity with written notice of any changes in the assessment procedures that the Director, in his or her sole discretion, deems necessary under the circumstances.

(c) Request for review. At the written request of a Regulated Entity, the Director, in his or her discretion, may review the calculation of the proportional share of the annual assessment, the semiannual payments, and any partial payments to be collected under this part. The determination of the Director upon such review is final. Except as provided by the Director, review by the Director does not suspend the requirement that the Regulated Entity make the semiannual payment or partial payment on or before the date it is due. Any adjustments determined appropriate shall be credited or otherwise addressed by the following year's assessment for that entity.

§ 1206.7 Delinquent payment.

The Director may assess interest and penalties on any delinquent semiannual payment or other payment assessed under this part in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717 (interest and penalty on claims) and part 1704 of this title (debt collection).

§ 1206.8 Enforcement of payment.

The Director may enforce the payment of any assessment under 12 U.S.C. 4631 (cease-and-desist proceedings), 12 U.S.C. 4632 (temporary cease-and-desist orders), and 12 U.S.C. 4626 (civil money penalties).

PART 1207 MINORITY AND WOMEN OUTREACH PROGRAM

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4520 and 4526; 12 U.S.C. 1833e; E.O. 11478.

Source: 82 FR 14994, Mar. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1207.1 Definitions.

The terms in this part have the same meaning as in FHFA's Minority and Women Inclusion Regulation at part 1223 of this chapter, as may be amended from time to time.

§ 1207.2 FHFA workforce diversity; Equal Employment Opportunity Program.

(a) Responsibility. FHFA's Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI) shall have overall responsibility for diversity and inclusion in FHFA's employment practices.

(b) General. FHFA shall maintain an Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) program consistent with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission requirements for Federal agencies and Executive Order 11478.

(c) Workforce diversity. FHFA shall not discriminate in employment against any person because of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, age, genetic information, disability, sexual orientation, gender identity, or status as a parent.

(d) Affirmative steps for workforce diversity. FHFA shall take affirmative steps to seek diversity in its workforce, at all levels of the agency, in a manner consistent with applicable law. Such steps shall include:

(1) Recruiting at historically Black colleges and universities, Hispanic-serving institutions, women's colleges, and colleges that typically serve the individuals with disabilities and majority minority populations;

(2) Sponsoring and recruiting at job fairs in urban communities;

(3) Placing employment advertisements in media oriented toward minorities and women;

(4) Partnering with organizations that are focused on developing opportunities for minorities and women to place talented minorities and women in industry internships, summer employment, and full-time positions; and

(5) Where feasible, partnering with inner-city high schools, girls' high schools, and high schools with majority minority populations, to establish or enhance financial literacy and provide mentoring.

§ 1207.3 FHFA contracting and diversity and inclusion.

(a) Responsibilities. FHFA's Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI) shall have responsibility for diversity and inclusion in FHFA's contracting practices.

(b) Outreach. FHFA's policy is to promote diversity in its contracting process. FHFA shall establish a contractor outreach program intended to ensure that minority- and women-owned businesses are made aware of and given the opportunity to compete for contracts with FHFA. FHFA shall conduct outreach activities that may include, but are not limited to:

(1) Identifying contractors that are minority- and women-owned by obtaining lists and directories maintained by government agencies, trade groups, and other organizations;

(2) Advertising contract opportunities through media targeted to reach potential contractors that are minority- and women-owned; and

(3) Participating in events such as conventions, trade shows, seminars, professional meetings, and other gatherings intended to promote business opportunities for minority- and women-owned businesses.

(c) Technical assistance. FHFA shall provide technical assistance and guidance to facilitate the identification and solicitation of minority and women-owned businesses.

(d) Monitoring. FHFA's OMWI shall monitor that FHFA staff interfacing with the contracting community are knowledgeable about, and actively promoting, FHFA's Outreach program.

§ 1207.4 Limitations.

The regulations in this part do not, are not intended to, and should not be construed to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law, in equity, or through administrative proceeding, by any party against FHFA, the United States, its other departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents.

PART 1208 DEBT COLLECTION

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 5514; 12 U.S.C. 4526; 26 U.S.C. 6402(d); 31 U.S.C. 3701-3720D; 31 CFR 285.2; 31 CFR Chapter IX.

Subpart A General

Source: 75 FR 68958, Nov. 10, 2010, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1208.1 Authority and scope.

(a) Authority. FHFA issues this part 1208 under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3701-3720D, and in conformity with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) at 31 CFR chapter IX; the regulations on salary offset issued by the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) at 5 CFR part 550, subpart K; the regulations on tax refund offset issued by the United States Department of the Treasury (Treasury) at 31 CFR 285.2; and the regulations on administrative wage garnishment issued by Treasury at 31 CFR 285.11.

(b) Scope—(1) This part applies to debts that are owed to the Federal Government by Federal employees; other persons, organizations, or entities that are indebted to FHFA; and by Federal employees of FHFA who are indebted to other agencies, except for those debts listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(2) Subparts B and C of this part 1208 do not apply to—

(i) Debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 et seq.) or the tariff laws of the United States;

(ii) Any case to which the Contract Disputes Act (41 U.S.C. 601 et seq.) applies;

(iii) Any case where collection of a debt is explicitly provided for or provided by another statute, e.g. travel advances under 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses under 5 U.S.C. 4108, or, as provided for by title 11 of the United States Code, when the claims involve bankruptcy;

(iv) Any debt based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws or involving fraud, the presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any party having an interest in the claim, unless the Department of Justice authorizes FHFA to handle the collection; or

(v) Claims between agencies.

(3) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3701 et seq.), the FCCS (31 CFR chapter IX) or the use of alternative dispute resolution methods if they are not inconsistent with applicable law and regulations.

(4) Nothing in this part precludes an employee from requesting waiver of an erroneous payment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 716, or from questioning the amount or validity of a debt, in the manner set forth in this part.

§ 1208.2 Definitions.

The following terms apply to this part, unless defined otherwise elsewhere-

Administrative offset means an action, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, in which the Federal Government withholds funds payable to, or held by the Federal Government for a person, organization, or other entity in order to collect a debt from that person, organization, or other entity. Such funds include funds payable by the Federal Government on behalf of a State Government.

Agency means an executive department or agency; a military department; the United States Postal Service; the Postal Regulatory Commission; any nonappropriated fund instrumentality described in 5 U.S.C. 2105(c); the United States Senate; the United States House of Representatives; any court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the judicial or legislative branches of the Government; or a Government corporation. If an agency under this definition is a component of an agency, the broader definition of agency may be used in applying the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 5514(b) (concerning the authority to prescribe regulations).

Centralized administrative offset means the mandatory referral to the Secretary of the Treasury by a creditor agency of a past due debt which is more than 180 days delinquent, for the purpose of collection under the Treasury's centralized offset program.

Certification means a written statement received by a paying agency from a creditor agency that requests the paying agency to institute salary offset of an employee, to the Financial Management Service (FMS) for offset or to the Secretary of the Treasury for centralized administrative offset, and specifies that required procedural protections have been afforded the debtor. Where the debtor requests a hearing on a claimed debt, the decision by a hearing official or administrative law judge constitutes a certification.

Claim or debt (used interchangeably in this part) means any amount of funds or property that has been determined by an agency official to be due the Federal Government by a person, organization, or entity, except another agency. It also means any amount of money, funds, or property owed by a person to a State, the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. For purposes of this part, a debt owed to FHFA constitutes a debt owed to the Federal Government. A claim or debt includes:

(1) Funds owed on account of loans made, insured, or guaranteed by the Federal Government, including any deficiency or any difference between the price obtained by the Federal Government in the sale of a property and the amount owed to the Federal Government on a mortgage on the property;

(2) Unauthorized expenditures of agency funds;

(3) Overpayments, including payments disallowed by audits performed by the Inspector General of the agency administering the program;

(4) Any amount the Federal Government is authorized by statute to collect for the benefit of any person;

(5) The unpaid share of any non-Federal partner in a program involving a Federal payment, and a matching or cost-sharing payment by the non-Federal partner;

(6) Any fine or penalty assessed by an agency; and

(7) Other amounts of money or property owed to the Federal Government.

Compromise means the settlement or forgiveness of a debt under 31 U.S.C. 3711, in accordance with standards set forth in the FCCS and applicable Federal law.

Creditor agency means the agency to which the debt is owed, including a debt collection center when acting on behalf of a creditor agency in matters pertaining to the collection of a debt.

Debt See the definition of the terms “Claim or debt” of this section.

Debt collection center means the Department of the Treasury or any other agency or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury with authority to collect debts on behalf of creditor agencies in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g).

Debtor means the person, organization, or entity owing money to the Federal Government.

Delinquent debt means a debt that has not been paid by the date specified in the agency's initial written demand for payment or applicable agreement or instrument (including a post-delinquency payment agreement) unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made.

Director means the Director of FHFA or Director's designee.

Disposable pay means that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, or retainer pay (or in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay) remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld (other than deductions to execute garnishment orders in accordance with 5 CFR parts 581 and 582). FHFA will apply the order of precedence contained in OPM guidance (PPM-2008-01; Order Of Precedence When Gross Pay Is Not Sufficient To Permit All Deductions), as follows—

(1) Retirement deductions for defined benefit plan (including Civil Service Retirement System, Federal Employees Retirement System, or other similar defined benefit plan);

(2) Social security (OASDI) tax;

(3) Medicare tax;

(4) Federal income tax;

(5) Basic health insurance premium (including Federal Employees Health Benefits premium, pre-tax or post-tax, or premium for similar benefit under another authority but not including amounts deducted for supplementary coverage);

(6) Basic life insurance premium (including Federal Employees' Group Life Insurance—FEGLI—Basic premium or premium for similar benefit under another authority);

(7) State income tax;

(8) Local income tax;

(9) Collection of debts owed to the U.S. Government (e.g., tax debt, salary overpayment, failure to withhold proper amount of deductions, advance of salary or travel expenses, etc.; debts which may or may not be delinquent; debts which may be collected through the Treasury's Financial Management Services Treasury Offset Program, an automated centralized debt collection program for collecting Federal debt from Federal payments):

(i) Continuous levy under the Federal Payment Levy Program (tax debt); and

(ii) Salary offsets (whether involuntary under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or similar authority or required by a voluntarily signed written agreement; if multiple debts are subject to salary offset, the order is based on when each offset commenced—with earliest commencing offset at the top of the order—unless there are special circumstances, as determined by the paying agency).

(10) Court-Ordered collection/debt:

(i) Child support (may include attorney and other fees as provided for in 5 CFR 581.102(d)). If there are multiple child support orders, the priority of orders is governed by 42 U.S.C. 666(b) and implementing regulations, as required by 42 U.S.C. 659(d)(2);

(ii) Alimony (may include attorney and other fees as provided for in 5 CFR 581.102(d)). If there are multiple alimony orders, they are prioritized on a first-come, first-served basis, as required by 42 U.S.C. 659(d)(3);

(iii) Bankruptcy; and

(iv) Commercial garnishments.

(11) Optional benefits:

(i) Health care/limited-expense health care flexible spending accounts (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);

(ii) Dental (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);

(iii) Vision (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);

(iv) Health Savings Account (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);

(v) Optional life insurance premiums (FEGLI optional benefits or similar benefits under other authority);

(vi) Long-term care insurance premiums;

(vii) Dependent-care flexible spending accounts (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);

(viii) Thrift Savings Plan (TSP):

(A) Loan payments;

(B) Basic contributions; and

(C) Catch-up contributions; and

(ix) Other optional benefits.

(12) Other voluntary deductions/allotments:

(i) Military service deposits;

(ii) Professional associations;

(iii) Union dues;

(iv) Charities;

(v) Bonds;

(vi) Personal account allotments (e.g., to savings or checking account); and

(vii) Additional voluntary deductions (on first-come, first-served basis); and

(13) IRS paper levies.

Employee means a current employee of FHFA or other agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or a Reserve of the Armed Forces of the United States.

Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) means standards published at 31 CFR chapter IX.

FHFA means the Federal Housing Finance Agency.

Garnishment means the process of withholding amounts from the disposable pay of a person employed outside the Federal Government, and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order.

Hearing official means an individual who is responsible for conducting any hearing with respect to the existence or amount of a debt claimed and for rendering a final decision on the basis of such hearing. A hearing official may not be under the supervision or control of the Director of FHFA when FHFA is the creditor agency but may be an administrative law judge.

Notice of intent means a written notice of a creditor agency to a debtor that states that the debtor owes a debt to the creditor agency and apprises the debtor of the applicable procedural rights.

Notice of salary offset means a written notice from the paying agency to an employee after a certification has been issued by a creditor agency that informs the employee that salary offset will begin at the next officially established pay interval.

Paying agency means an agency of the Federal Government that employs the individual who owes a debt to an agency of the Federal Government and transmits payment requests in the form of certified payment vouchers, or other similar forms, to a disbursing official for disbursement. The same agency may be both the creditor agency and the paying agency.

Salary offset means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deductions at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his or her consent.

Waiver means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to FHFA or another agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or any other law.

Withholding order means any order for withholding or garnishment of pay issued by an agency, or judicial, or administrative body. For purposes of administrative wage garnishment, the terms “wage garnishment order” and “garnishment order” have the same meaning as “withholding order.”

§ 1208.3 Referrals to the Department of the Treasury, collection services, and use of credit bureaus.

(a) Referral of delinquent debts. (1) FHFA shall transfer to the Secretary of the Department of the Treasury any past due, legally enforceable nontax debt that has been delinquent for a period of 180 days or more so that the Secretary may take appropriate action to collect the debt or terminate collection action in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716, 5 U.S.C. 5514, 5 CFR 550.1108, 31 CFR part 285, and the FCCS.

(2) FHFA may transfer any past due, legally enforceable nontax debt that has been delinquent for less than a period of 180 days to a debt collection center for collection in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716, 5 U.S.C. 5514, 5 CFR 550.1108, 31 CFR part 285, and the FCCS.

(b) Collection Services. Section 13 of the Debt Collection Act (31 U.S.C. 3718) authorizes agencies to enter into contracts for collection services to recover debts owed the Federal Government. The Debt Collection Act requires that certain provisions be contained in such contracts, including:

(1) The agency retains the authority to resolve a dispute, including the authority to terminate a collection action or refer the matter to the Attorney General for civil remedies; and

(2) The contractor is subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, as it applies to private contractors, as well as subject to State and Federal laws governing debt collection practices.

(c) Referrals to collection agencies. (1) FHFA has authority to contract for collection services to recover delinquent debts in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3718(a) and the FCCS (31 CFR 901.5).

(2) FHFA may use private collection agencies where it determines that their use is in the best interest of the Federal Government. Where FHFA determines that there is a need to contract for collection services, the contract will provide that:

(i) The authority to resolve disputes, compromise claims, suspend or terminate collection action, or refer the matter to the Department of Justice for litigation or to take any other action under this part will be retained by FHFA;

(ii) Contractors are subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, to the extent specified in 5 U.S.C. 552a(m) and to applicable Federal and State laws and regulations pertaining to debt collection practices, such as the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, 15 U.S.C. 1692;

(iii) The contractor is required to strictly account for all amounts collected;

(iv) The contractor must agree that uncollectible accounts shall be returned with appropriate documentation to enable FHFA to determine whether to pursue collection through litigation or to terminate collection; and

(v) The contractor must agree to provide any data in its files requested by FHFA upon returning the account to FHFA for subsequent referral to the Department of Justice for litigation.

§ 1208.4 Reporting delinquent debts to credit bureaus.

(a) FHFA may report delinquent debts to consumer reporting agencies (31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(3), 3711). Sixty calendar days prior to release of information to a consumer reporting agency, the debtor shall be notified, in writing, of the intent to disclose the existence of the debt to a consumer reporting agency. Such notice of intent may be a separate correspondence or included in correspondence demanding direct payment. The notice shall be in conformance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(e) and the FCCS. In the notice, FHFA shall provide the debtor with:

(1) An opportunity to inspect and copy agency records pertaining to the debt;

(2) An opportunity for an administrative review of the legal enforceability or past due status of the debt;

(3) An opportunity to enter into a repayment agreement on terms satisfactory to FHFA to prevent FHFA from reporting the debt as overdue to consumer reporting agencies, and provide deadlines and method for requesting this relief;

(4) An explanation of the rate of interest that will accrue on the debt, that all costs incurred to collect the debt will be charged to the debtor, the authority for assessing these costs, and the manner in which FHFA will calculate the amount of these costs;

(5) An explanation that FHFA will report the debt to the consumer reporting agencies to the detriment of the debtor's credit rating; and

(6) A description of the collection actions that the agency may take in the future if those presently proposed actions do not result in repayment of the debt, including the filing of a lawsuit against the borrower by the agency and assignment of the debt for collection by offset against Federal income tax refunds or the filing of a lawsuit against the debtor by the Federal Government.

(b) The information that may be disclosed to the consumer reporting agency is limited to:

(1) The debtor's name, address, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and any other information necessary to establish the identity of the individual;

(2) The amount, status, and history of the claim; and

(3) FHFA program or activity under which the claim arose.

(c) Subsequent reports. FHFA may update its report to the credit bureau whenever it has knowledge of events that substantially change the status of the amount of liability.

(d) Subsequent reports of delinquent debts. Pursuant to 31 CFR 901.4, FHFA will report delinquent debt to the Department of Housing and Urban Development's Credit Alert Interactive Voice Response System (CAIVRS).

(e) Privacy Act considerations. A delinquent debt may not be reported under this section unless a notice issued pursuant to the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4), authorizes the disclosure of information about the debtor to a credit bureau or CAIVRS.

§§ 1208.5-1208.19 [Reserved]
Subpart B Salary Offset
§ 1208.20 Authority and scope.

(a) Authority. FHFA may collect debts owed by employees to the Federal Government by means of salary offset under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR part 550, subpart K; and this subpart B.

(b) Scope. (1) The procedures set forth in this subpart B apply to situations where FHFA is attempting to collect a debt by salary offset that is owed to it by an individual employed by FHFA or by another agency; or where FHFA employs an individual who owes a debt to another agency.

(2) The procedures set forth in this subpart B do not apply to:

(i) Any routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is attributable to clerical or administrative error or delay in processing pay documents that have occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment, or any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less. However, at the time of any such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as possible, FHFA or its designated payroll agent shall provide the employee with a written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.

(ii) Any negative adjustment to pay that arises from an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program that requires periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less. However, at the time such adjustment is made, FHFA or its payroll agent shall provide in the employee's earnings statement a clear and concise statement that informs the employee of the previous overpayment.

§ 1208.21 Notice requirements before salary offset where FHFA is the creditor agency.

(a) Notice of Intent. Deductions from an employee's salary may not be made unless FHFA provides the employee with a Notice of Intent at least 30 calendar days before the salary offset is initiated.

(b) Contents of Notice of Intent. The Notice of Intent shall advise the employee of the following:

(1) That FHFA has reviewed the records relating to the claim and has determined that the employee owes the debt;

(2) That FHFA intends to collect the debt by deductions from the employee's current disposable pay account;

(3) The amount of the debt and the facts giving rise to the debt;

(4) The frequency and amount of the intended deduction (stated as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of pay not to exceed 15 percent of disposable pay), and the intention to continue the deductions until the debt and all accumulated interest are paid in full or otherwise resolved;

(5) The name, address, and telephone number of the person to whom the employee may propose a written alternative schedule for voluntary repayment, in lieu of salary offset. The employee shall include a justification for the alternative schedule in his or her proposal. If the terms of the alternative schedule are agreed upon by the employee and FHFA, the alternative written schedule shall be signed by both the employee and FHFA;

(6) An explanation of FHFA's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, the date by which payment should be made to avoid such costs, and a statement that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the FCCS;

(7) The employee's right to inspect and copy all records of FHFA pertaining to his or her debt that are not exempt from disclosure or to receive copies of such records if he or she is unable personally to inspect the records as the result of geographical or other constraints;

(8) The name, address, and telephone number of the FHFA employee to whom requests for access to records relating to the debt must be sent;

(9) The employee's right to a hearing conducted by an impartial hearing official with respect to the existence and amount of the debt claimed or the repayment schedule i.e., the percentage of disposable pay to be deducted each pay period, so long as a request is filed by the employee as prescribed in § 1208.23; the name and address of the office to which the request for a hearing should be sent; and the name, address, and telephone number of a person whom the employee may contact concerning procedures for requesting a hearing;

(10) The filing of a request for a hearing on or before the 30th calendar day following receipt of the Notice of Intent will stay the commencement of collection proceedings and a final decision on whether a hearing will be held (if a hearing is requested) or will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 calendar days after the request for the hearing;

(11) FHFA shall initiate certification procedures to implement a salary offset unless the employee files a request for a hearing on or before the 30th calendar day following receipt of the Notice of Intent;

(12) Any knowingly false or frivolous statement, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:

(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;

(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3731, or under any other applicable statutory authority; or

(iii) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002, or under any other applicable statutory authority;

(13) That the employee also has the right to request waiver of overpayment pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5584 and may exercise any other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made;

(14) Unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, amounts paid on or deducted from debts that are later waived or found not to be owed to the Federal Government shall be promptly refunded to the employee; and

(15) Proceedings with respect to the debt are governed by 5 U.S.C. 5514.

§ 1208.22 Review of FHFA records related to the debt.

(a) Request for review. An employee who desires to inspect or copy FHFA records related to a debt owed by the employee to FHFA must send a letter to the individual designated in the Notice of Intent requesting access to the relevant records. The letter must be received in the office of that individual within 15 calendar days after the employee's receipt of the Notice of Intent.

(b) Review location and time. In response to a timely request submitted by the employee, the employee shall be notified of the location and time when the employee may inspect and copy records related to his or her debt that are not exempt from disclosure. If the employee is unable personally to inspect such records as the result of geographical or other constraints, FHFA shall arrange to send copies of such records to the employee. The debtor shall pay copying costs unless they are waived by FHFA. Copying costs shall be assessed pursuant to FHFA's Freedom of Information Act Regulation, 12 CFR part 1202.

§ 1208.23 Opportunity for a hearing where FHFA is the creditor agency.

(a) Request for a hearing. (1) Time-period for submission. An employee who requests a hearing on the existence or amount of the debt held by FHFA or on the salary-offset schedule proposed by FHFA, must send a written request to FHFA. The request for a hearing must be received by FHFA on or before the 30th calendar day following receipt by the employee of the Notice of Intent.

(2) Failure to submit timely. If the employee files a request for a hearing after the expiration of the 30th calendar day, the employee shall not be entitled to a hearing. However, FHFA may accept the request if the employee can show that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond his or her control or that he or she failed to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.

(3) Contents of request. The request for a hearing must be signed by the employee and must fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, that the employee believes support his or her position. The employee must also specify whether he or she requests an oral hearing. If an oral hearing is requested, the employee should explain why a hearing by examination of the documents without an oral hearing would not resolve the matter.

(4) Failure to request a hearing. The failure of an employee to request a hearing will be considered an admission by the employee that the debt exists in the amount specified in the Notice of Intent that was provided to the employee under § 1208.21(b).

(b) Obtaining the services of a hearing official—(1) Debtor is not an FHFA employee. When the debtor is not an FHFA employee and FHFA cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before an administrative law judge or other hearing official, FHFA may request a hearing official from an agent of the paying agency, as designated in 5 CFR part 581, appendix A, or as otherwise designated by the paying agency. The paying agency must cooperate with FHFA to provide a hearing official, as required by the FCCS.

(2) Debtor is an FHFA employee. When the debtor is an FHFA employee, FHFA may contact any agent of another agency, as designated in 5 CFR part 581, appendix A, or as otherwise designated by the agency, to request a hearing official.

(c) Procedure—(1) Notice of hearing. After the employee requests a hearing, the hearing official shall notify the employee of the form of the hearing to be provided. If the hearing will be oral, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing, which must occur no more than 30 calendar days after the request is received, unless the employee requests that the hearing be delayed. If the hearing will be conducted by an examination of documents, the employee shall be notified within 30 calendar days that he or she should submit evidence and arguments in writing to the hearing official within 30 calendar days.

(2) Oral hearing. (i) An employee who requests an oral hearing shall be provided an oral hearing if the hearing official determines that the matter cannot be resolved by an examination of the documents alone, as for example, when an issue of credibility or veracity is involved. The oral hearing need not be an adversarial adjudication; and rules of evidence need not apply. Witnesses who testify in an oral hearing shall do so under oath or affirmation.

(ii) Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:

(A) Informal conferences with the hearing official in which the employee and agency representative are given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;

(B) Informal meetings in which the hearing examiner interviews the employee; or

(C) Formal written submissions followed by an opportunity for oral presentation.

(3) Hearing by examination of documents. If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she shall make the determination based upon an examination of the documents.

(d) Record. The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.

(e) Decision. (1) The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision, based upon all evidence and information developed during the hearing, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 calendar days after the date on which the request was received by FHFA, unless the hearing was delayed at the request of the employee, in which case the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed.

(2) The decision of the hearing official shall be final and is considered to be an official certification regarding the existence and the amount of the debt for purposes of executing salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514. If the hearing official determines that a debt may not be collected by salary offset, but FHFA finds that the debt is still valid, FHFA may seek collection of the debt through other means in accordance with applicable law and regulations.

(f) Content of decision. The written decision shall include:

(1) A summary of the facts concerning the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;

(2) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and

(3) The terms of any repayment schedules, if applicable.

(g) Failure to appear. If, in the absence of good cause shown, such as illness, the employee or the representative of FHFA fails to appear, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and make his or her decision based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentation submitted by both parties. At the request of both parties, the hearing official may schedule a new hearing date. Both parties shall be given reasonable notice of the time and place of the new hearing.

§ 1208.24 Certification where FHFA is the creditor agency.

(a) Issuance. FHFA shall issue a certification in all cases where the hearing official determines that a debt exists or the employee admits the existence and amount of the debt, as for example, by failing to request a hearing.

(b) Contents. The certification must be in writing and state:

(1) That the employee owes the debt;

(2) The amount and basis of the debt;

(3) The date the Federal Government's right to collect the debt first accrued;

(4) The date the employee was notified of the debt, the action(s) taken pursuant to FHFA's regulations, and the dates such actions were taken;

(5) If the collection is to be made by lump-sum payment, the amount and date such payment will be collected;

(6) If the collection is to be made in installments through salary offset, the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment and, if FHFA wishes, the desired commencing date of the first installment, if a date other than the next officially established pay period; and

(7) A statement that FHFA's regulation on salary offset has been approved by OPM pursuant to 5 CFR part 550, subpart K.

§ 1208.25 Voluntary repayment agreements as alternative to salary offset where FHFA is the creditor agency.

(a) Proposed repayment schedule. In response to a Notice of Intent, an employee may propose to repay the debt voluntarily in lieu of salary offset by submitting a written proposed repayment schedule to FHFA. Any proposal under this section must be received by FHFA within 30 calendar days after receipt of the Notice of Intent.

(b) Notification of decision. In response to a timely proposal by the employee, FHFA shall notify the employee whether the employee's proposed repayment schedule is acceptable. FHFA has the discretion to accept, reject, or propose to the employee a modification of the proposed repayment schedule.

(1) If FHFA decides that the proposed repayment schedule is unacceptable, the employee shall have 30 calendar days from the date he or she received notice of the decision in which to file a request for a hearing.

(2) If FHFA decides that the proposed repayment schedule is acceptable or the employee agrees to a modification proposed by FHFA, an agreement shall be put in writing and signed by both the employee and FHFA.

§ 1208.26 Special review where FHFA is the creditor agency.

(a) Request for review. (1) An employee subject to salary offset or a voluntary repayment agreement may, at any time, request a special review by FHFA of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary repayment, based on materially changed circumstances, including, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability.

(2) The request for special review must include an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a detailed statement, with supporting documents, that shows why the current salary offset or payments result in extreme financial hardship to the employee and his or her spouse and dependents. The detailed statement must indicate:

(i) Income from all sources;

(ii) Assets;

(iii) Liabilities;

(iv) Number of dependents;

(v) Expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;

(vi) Medical expenses; and

(vii) Exceptional expenses, if any.

(b) Evaluation of request. FHFA shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents and determine whether the original offset or repayment schedule imposes extreme financial hardship on the employee, for example, by preventing the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses such as food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care. FHFA shall notify the employee in writing within 30 calendar days of such determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset or payment schedule. If the special review results in a revised offset or repayment schedule, FHFA shall provide a new certification to the paying agency.

§ 1208.27 Notice of salary offset where FHFA is the paying agency.

(a) Notice. Upon issuance of a proper certification by FHFA (for debts owed to FHFA) or upon receipt of a proper certification from another creditor agency, FHFA shall send the employee a written notice of salary offset.

(b) Content of notice. Such written notice of salary offset shall advise the employee of the:

(1) Certification that has been issued by FHFA or received from another creditor agency;

(2) Amount of the debt and of the deductions to be made; and

(3) Date and pay period when the salary offset will begin.

(c) If FHFA is not the creditor agency, FHFA shall provide a copy of the notice of salary offset to the creditor agency and advise the creditor agency of the dollar amount to be offset and the pay period when the offset will begin.

§ 1208.28 Procedures for salary offset where FHFA is the paying agency.

(a) Generally. FHFA shall coordinate salary deductions under this section and shall determine the amount of an employee's disposable pay and the amount of the salary offset subject to the requirements in this section. Deductions shall begin the pay period following the issuance of the certification by FHFA or the receipt by FHFA of the certification from another agency, or as soon thereafter as possible.

(b) Upon issuance of a proper certification by FHFA for debts owed to FHFA, or upon receipt of a proper certification from a creditor agency, FHFA shall send the employee a written notice of salary offset. Such notice shall advise the employee:

(1) That certification has been issued by FHFA or received from another creditor agency;

(2) Of the amount of the debt and of the deductions to be made; and provided for in the certification, and

(3) Of the initiation of salary offset at the next officially established pay interval or as otherwise provided for in the certification.

(c) Where appropriate, FHFA shall provide a copy of the notice to the creditor agency and advise such agency of the dollar amount to be offset and the pay period when the offset will begin.

(d) Types of collection—(1) Lump-sum payment. If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay, such debt ordinarily will be collected in one lump-sum payment.

(2) Installment deductions. Installment deductions will be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of employment. The size and frequency of installment deductions will bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted for any pay period will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. The installment payment should normally be sufficient in size and frequency to liquidate the debt in no more than three years. Installment payments of less than $50 should be accepted only in the most unusual circumstances.

(3) Lump-sum deductions from final check. In order to liquidate a debt, a lump-sum deduction exceeding 15 percent of disposable pay may be made pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 from any final salary payment due a former employee, whether the former employee was separated voluntarily or involuntarily.

(4) Lump-sum deductions from other sources. Whenever an employee subject to salary offset is separated from FHFA, and the balance of the debt cannot be liquidated by offset of the final salary check, FHFA may offset any later payments of any kind to the former employee to collect the balance of the debt pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716.

(e) Multiple debts—(1) Where two or more creditor agencies are seeking salary offset, or where two or more debts are owed to a single creditor agency, FHFA may, at its discretion, determine whether one or more debts should be offset simultaneously within the 15 percent limitation.

(2) In the event that a debt owed FHFA is certified while an employee is subject to salary offset to repay another agency, FHFA may, at its discretion, determine whether the debt to FHFA should be repaid before the debt to the other agency is repaid, repaid simultaneously with the other debt, or repaid after the debt to the other agency.

(3) A levy pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 shall take precedence over other deductions under this section, as provided in 5 U.S.C. 5514(d).

§ 1208.29 Coordinating salary offset with other agencies.

(a) Responsibility of FHFA as the creditor agency. (1) FHFA shall be responsible for:

(i) Arranging for a hearing upon proper request by a Federal employee;

(ii) Preparing the Notice of Intent consistent with the requirements of § 1208.21;

(iii) Obtaining hearing officials from other agencies pursuant to § 1208.23(b); and

(iv) Ensuring that each certification of debt pursuant to § 1208.24(b) is sent to a paying agency.

(2) Upon completion of the procedures set forth in §§ 1208.24 through 1208.26, FHFA shall submit to the employee's paying agency, if applicable, a certified debt claim and an installment agreement or other instruction on the payment schedule.

(i) If the employee is in the process of separating from the Federal Government, FHFA shall submit its debt claim to the employee's paying agency for collection by lump-sum deduction from the employee's final check. The paying agency shall certify the total amount of its collection and furnish a copy of the certification to FHFA and to the employee.

(ii) If the employee is already separated and all payments due from his or her former paying agency have been paid, FHFA may, unless otherwise prohibited, request that money due and payable to the employee from the Federal Government, including payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (5 CFR 831.1801) or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the debt.

(iii) When an employee transfers to another paying agency, FHFA shall not repeat the procedures described in §§ 1208.24 through 1208.26. Upon receiving notice of the employee's transfer, FHFA shall review the debt to ensure that collection is resumed by the new paying agency.

(b) Responsibility of FHFA as the paying agency—(1) Complete claim. When FHFA receives a certified claim from a creditor agency, the employee shall be given written notice of the certification, the date salary offset will begin, and the amount of the periodic deductions. Deductions shall be scheduled to begin at the next officially established pay interval or as otherwise provided for in the certification.

(2) Incomplete claim. When FHFA receives an incomplete certification of debt from a creditor agency, FHFA shall return the claim with notice that procedures under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR 550.1104 must be followed, and that a properly certified claim must be received before FHFA will take action to collect the debt from the employee's current pay account.

(3) Review. FHFA is not authorized to review the merits of the creditor agency's determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency.

(4) Employees who transfer from one paying agency to another agency. If, after the creditor agency has submitted the debt claim to FHFA, the employee transfers to another agency before the debt is collected in full, FHFA must certify the total amount collected on the debt as required by 5 CFR 550.1109. One copy of the certification shall be furnished to the employee and one copy shall be sent to the creditor agency along with notice of the employee's transfer. If FHFA is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund or other similar payments, it must provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that the requirements set forth herein and in 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, have been met. FHFA must submit a properly certified claim to the new payment agency before a collection can be made.

§ 1208.30 Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.

Where FHFA is the creditor agency, FHFA shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717 and the FCCS, 31 CFR chapter IX.

§ 1208.31 Refunds.

(a) Where FHFA is the creditor agency, FHFA shall promptly refund any amount deducted under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 when:

(1) FHFA receives notice that the debt has been waived or otherwise found not to be owing to the Federal Government; or

(2) An administrative or judicial order directs FHFA to make a refund.

(b) Unless required by law or contract, refunds under this section shall not bear interest.

§ 1208.32 Request from a creditor agency for the services of a hearing official.

(a) FHFA may provide qualified personnel to serve as hearing officials upon request of a creditor agency when:

(1) The debtor is employed by FHFA and the creditor agency cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before a hearing official furnished pursuant to another lawful arrangement; or

(2) The debtor is employed by the creditor agency and that agency cannot arrange for a hearing official.

(b) Services provided by FHFA to creditor agencies under this section shall be provided on a fully reimbursable basis pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 1535, or other applicable authority.

§ 1208.33 Non-waiver of rights by payments.

A debtor's payment, whether voluntary or involuntary, of all or any portion of a debt being collected pursuant to this subpart B shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights that the debtor may have under any statute, regulation, or contract, except as otherwise provided by law or contract.

Subpart C Administrative Offset
§ 1208.40 Authority and scope.

(a) The provisions of this subpart C apply to the collection of debts owed to the Federal Government arising from transactions with FHFA. Administrative offset is authorized under the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (DCIA). This subpart C is consistent with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) on administrative offset issued by the Department of Justice.

(b) FHFA may collect a debt owed to the Federal Government from a person, organization, or other entity by administrative offset, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, where:

(1) The debt is certain in amount;

(2) Administrative offset is feasible, desirable, and not otherwise prohibited;

(3) The applicable statute of limitations has not expired; and

(4) Administrative offset is in the best interest of the Federal Government.

§ 1208.41 Collection.

(a) FHFA may collect a claim from a person, organization, or other entity by administrative offset of monies payable by the Federal Government only after:

(1) Providing the debtor with due process required under this part; and

(2) Providing the paying agency with written certification that the debtor owes the debt in the amount stated and that FHFA, as creditor agency, has complied with this part.

(b) Prior to initiating collection by administrative offset, FHFA should determine that the proposed offset is within the scope of this remedy, as set forth in 31 CFR 901.3(a). Administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may not be used to collect debts more than 10 years after the Federal Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, except as otherwise provided by law. In addition, administrative offset may not be used when a statute explicitly prohibits its use to collect the claim or type of claim involved.

(c) Unless otherwise provided, debts or payments not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under common law, or any other applicable statutory authority.

§ 1208.42 Administrative offset prior to completion of procedures.

FHFA shall not be required to follow the procedures described in § 1208.43 where:

(a) Prior to the completion of the procedures described in § 1208.43, FHFA may effect administrative offset if failure to offset would substantially prejudice its ability to collect the debt, and if the time before the payment is to be made does not reasonably permit completion of the procedures described in § 1208.43. Such prior administrative offset shall be followed promptly by the completion of the procedures described in § 1208.43. Amounts recovered by administrative offset but later found not to be owed to FHFA shall be promptly refunded. This section applies only to administrative offset pursuant to 31 CFR 901.3(c), and does not apply when debts are referred to the Department of the Treasury for mandatory centralized administrative offset under 31 CFR 901.3(b)(1).

(b) The administrative offset is in the nature of a recoupment (i.e., FHFA may offset a payment due to the debtor when both the payment due to the debtor and the debt owed to FHFA arose from the same transaction); or

(c) In the case of non-centralized administrative offsets, FHFA first learns of the existence of a debt due when there would be insufficient time to afford the debtor due process under these procedures before the paying agency makes payment to the debtor; in such cases, the Director shall give the debtor notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practical and shall refund any money ultimately found not to be due to the Federal Government.

§ 1208.43 Procedures.

Unless the procedures described in § 1208.42 are used, prior to collecting any debt by administrative offset or referring such claim to another agency for collection through administrative offset, FHFA shall provide the debtor with the following:

(a) Written notification of the nature and amount of the debt, the intention of FHFA to collect the debt through administrative offset, and a statement of the rights of the debtor under this section;

(b) An opportunity to inspect and copy the records of FHFA related to the debt that are not exempt from disclosure;

(c) An opportunity for review within FHFA of the determination of indebtedness. Any request for review by the debtor shall be in writing and shall be submitted to FHFA within 30 calendar days of the date of the notice of the offset. FHFA may waive the time limits for requesting review for good cause shown by the debtor. FHFA shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when:

(1) An applicable statute authorizes or requires FHFA to consider waiver of the indebtedness involved, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or

(2) The debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and FHFA determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, as for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity. Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this subpart C is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although FHFA shall document all significant matters discussed at the hearing. In those cases where an oral hearing is not required by this subpart C, FHFA shall make its determination on the request for waiver or reconsideration based upon a review of the written record; and

(d) An opportunity to enter into a written agreement for the voluntary repayment of the amount of the claim at the discretion of FHFA.

§ 1208.44 Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.

FHFA shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs on debts owed to the Federal Government, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717 and the FCCS. FHFA may also assess interest and related charges on debts that are not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 and the FCCS to the extent authorized under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.

§ 1208.45 Refunds.

FHFA shall refund promptly those amounts recovered by administrative offset but later found not to be owed to the Federal Government. Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest.

§ 1208.46 No requirement for duplicate notice.

Where FHFA has previously given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, FHFA is not required to duplicate such notice and review opportunities prior to initiating administrative offset.

§ 1208.47 Requests for administrative offset to other Federal agencies.

(a) FHFA may request that a debt owed to FHFA be collected by administrative offset against funds due and payable to a debtor by another agency.

(b) In requesting administrative offset, FHFA, as creditor, shall certify in writing to the agency holding funds of the debtor:

(1) That the debtor owes the debt;

(2) The amount and basis of the debt; and

(3) That FHFA has complied with the requirements of its own administrative offset regulations and the applicable provisions of the FCCS with respect to providing the debtor with due process, unless otherwise provided.

§ 1208.48 Requests for administrative offset from other Federal agencies.

(a) Any agency may request that funds due and payable to a debtor by FHFA be administratively offset in order to collect a debt owed to such agency by the debtor.

(b) FHFA shall initiate the requested administrative offset only upon:

(1) Receipt of written certification from the creditor agency that:

(i) The debtor owes the debt, including the amount and basis of the debt;

(ii) The agency has prescribed regulations for the exercise of administrative offset; and

(iii) The agency has complied with its own administrative offset regulations and with the applicable provisions of the FCCS, including providing any required hearing or review.

(2) A determination by FHFA that collection by administrative offset against funds payable by FHFA would be in the best interest of the Federal Government as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case and that such administrative offset would not otherwise be contrary to law.

§ 1208.49 Administrative offset against amounts payable from Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund.

(a) Request for administrative offset. Unless otherwise prohibited by law, FHFA may request that monies that are due and payable to a debtor from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (Fund) be offset administratively in reasonable amounts in order to collect in one full payment or in a minimal number of payments debt owed to FHFA by the debtor. Such requests shall be made to the appropriate officials of OPM in accordance with such regulations as may be prescribed by FHFA or OPM.

(b) Contents of certification. When making a request for administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section, FHFA shall provide OPM with a written certification that:

(1) The debtor owes FHFA a debt, including the amount of the debt;

(2) FHFA has complied with the applicable statutes, regulations, and procedures of OPM; and

(3) FHFA has complied with the requirements of the FCCS, including any required hearing or review.

(c) If FHFA decides to request administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section, it shall make the request as soon as practicable after completion of the applicable procedures. This will satisfy any requirement that administrative offset be initiated prior to the expiration of the applicable statute of limitations. At such time as the debtor makes a claim for payments from the Fund, if at least one year has elapsed since the administrative offset request was originally made, the debtor shall be permitted to offer a satisfactory repayment plan in lieu of administrative offset if he or she establishes that changed financial circumstances would render the administrative offset unjust.

(d) If FHFA collects part or all of the debt by other means before deductions are made or completed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, FHFA shall act promptly to modify or terminate its request for administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section.

Subpart D Tax Refund Offset
§ 1208.50 Authority and scope.

The provisions of 26 U.S.C. 6402(d) and 31 U.S.C. 3720A authorize the Secretary of the Treasury to offset a delinquent debt owed the Federal Government from the tax refund due a taxpayer when other collection efforts have failed to recover the amount due. In addition, FHFA is authorized to collect debts by means of administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 and, as part of the debt collection process, to notify the United States Department of Treasury's Financial Management Service of the amount of such debt for collection by tax refund offset.

§ 1208.51 Definitions.

The following terms apply to this subpart D—

Debt or claim means an amount of money, funds or property which has been determined by FHFA to be due to the Federal Government from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency.

(1) A debt becomes eligible for tax refund offset procedures if:

(i) It cannot currently be collected pursuant to the salary offset procedures of 5 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1);

(ii) The debt is ineligible for administrative offset or cannot be collected currently by administrative offset; and

(iii) The requirements of this section are otherwise satisfied.

(2) All judgment debts are past due for purposes of this subpart D. Judgment debts remain past due until paid in full.

Debtor means a person who owes a debt or a claim. The term “person” includes any individual, organization or entity, except another Federal agency.

Dispute means a written statement supported by documentation or other evidence that all or part of an alleged debt is not past due or legally enforceable, that the amount is not the amount currently owed, that the outstanding debt has been satisfied, or in the case of a debt reduced to judgment, that the judgment has been satisfied or stayed.

Notice means the information sent to the debtor pursuant to § 1208.53. The date of the notice is that date shown on the notice letter as its date of issuance.

Tax refund offset means withholding or reducing a tax refund payment by an amount necessary to satisfy a debt owed by the payee(s) of a tax refund payment.

Tax refund payment means any overpayment of Federal taxes to be refunded to the person making the overpayment after the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) makes the appropriate credits.

§ 1208.52 Procedures.

(a) Referral to the Department of the Treasury. (1) FHFA may refer any past due, legally enforceable nonjudgment debt of an individual, organization, or entity to the Department of the Treasury for tax refund offset if FHFA's or the referring agency's rights of action accrued more than three months but less than 10 years before the offset is made.

(2) Debts reduced to judgment may be referred at any time.

(3) Debts in amounts lower than $25 are not subject to referral.

(4) In the event that more than one debt is owed, the tax refund offset procedures shall be applied in the order in which the debts became past due.

(5) FHFA shall notify the Department of the Treasury of any change in the amount due promptly after receipt of payment or notice of other reductions.

(b) Notice. FHFA shall provide the debtor with written notice of its intent to offset before initiating the offset. Notice shall be mailed to the debtor at the current address of the debtor, as determined from information obtained from the Internal Revenue Service pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 6103(m)(2), (4), (5) or maintained by FHFA. The notice sent to the debtor shall state the amount of the debt and inform the debtor that:

(1) The debt is past due;

(2) FHFA intends to refer the debt to the Department of the Treasury for offset from tax refunds that may be due to the taxpayer;

(3) FHFA intends to provide information concerning the delinquent debt exceeding $100 to a consumer reporting bureau unless such debt has already been disclosed; and

(4) Before the debt is reported to a consumer reporting agency, if applicable, and referred to the Department of the Treasury for offset from tax refunds, the debtor has 65 calendar days from the date of notice to request a review under paragraph (d) of this section.

(c) Report to consumer reporting agency. If the debtor neither pays the amount due nor presents evidence that the amount is not past due or is satisfied or stayed, FHFA will report the debt to a consumer reporting agency at the end of the notice period, if applicable, and refer the debt to the Department of the Treasury for offset from the taxpayer's Federal tax refund. FHFA shall certify to the Department of the Treasury that reasonable efforts have been made by FHFA to obtain payment of such debt.

(d) Request for review. A debtor may request a review by FHFA if he or she believes that all or part of the debt is not past due or is not legally enforceable, or in the case of a judgment debt, that the debt has been stayed or the amount satisfied, as follows:

(1) The debtor must send a written request for review to FHFA at the address provided in the notice.

(2) The request must state the amount disputed and reasons why the debtor believes that the debt is not past due, is not legally enforceable, has been satisfied, or if a judgment debt, has been satisfied or stayed.

(3) The request must include any documents that the debtor wishes to be considered or state that additional information will be submitted within the time permitted.

(4) If the debtor wishes to inspect records establishing the nature and amount of the debt, the debtor must make a written request to FHFA for an opportunity for such an inspection. The office holding the relevant records not exempt from disclosure shall make them available for inspection during normal business hours within one week from the date of receipt of the request.

(5) The request for review and any additional information submitted pursuant to the request must be received by FHFA at the address stated in the notice within 65 calendar days of the date of issuance of the notice.

(6) In reaching its decision, FHFA shall review the dispute and shall consider its records and any documentation and arguments submitted by the debtor. FHFA shall send a written notice of its decision to the debtor. There is no administrative appeal of this decision.

(7) If the evidence presented by the debtor is considered by a non-FHFA agent or other entities or persons acting on behalf of FHFA, the debtor shall be accorded at least 30 calendar days from the date the agent or other entity or person determines that all or part of the debt is past due and legally enforceable to request review by FHFA of any unresolved dispute.

(8) Any debt that previously has been reviewed pursuant to this section or any other section of this part, or that has been reduced to a judgment, may not be disputed except on the grounds of payments made or events occurring subsequent to the previous review or judgment.

(9) To the extent that a debt owed has not been established by judicial or administrative order, a debtor may dispute the existence or amount of the debt or the terms of repayment. With respect to debts established by a judicial or administrative order, FHFA review will be limited to issues concerning the payment or other discharge of the debt.

§ 1208.53 No requirement for duplicate notice.

Where FHFA has previously given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, FHFA is not required to duplicate such notice and review opportunities prior to initiating tax refund offset.

§§ 1208.54-1208.59 [Reserved]
Subpart E Administrative Wage Garnishment
§ 1208.60 Scope and purpose.

These administrative wage garnishment procedures are issued in compliance with 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11(f). This subpart E provides procedures for FHFA to collect money from a debtor's disposable pay by means of administrative wage garnishment. The receipt of payments pursuant to this subpart E does not preclude FHFA from pursuing other debt collection remedies, including the offset of Federal payments. FHFA may pursue such debt collection remedies separately or in conjunction with administrative wage garnishment. This subpart E does not apply to the collection of delinquent debts from the wages of Federal employees from their Federal employment. Federal pay is subject to the Federal salary offset procedures set forth in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and other applicable laws.

§ 1208.61 Notice.

At least 30 days before the initiation of garnishment proceedings, FHFA will send, by first class mail to the debtor's last known address, a written notice informing the debtor of:

(a) The nature and amount of the debt;

(b) FHFA's intention to initiate proceedings to collect the debt through deductions from the debtor's pay until the debt and all accumulated interest penalties and administrative costs are paid in full;

(c) An explanation of the debtor's rights as set forth in § 1208.62(c); and

(d) The time frame within which the debtor may exercise these rights. FHFA shall retain a stamped copy of the notice indicating the date the notice was mailed.

§ 1208.62 Debtor's rights.

FHFA shall afford the debtor the opportunity:

(a) To inspect and copy records related to the debt;

(b) To enter into a written repayment agreement with FHFA, under terms agreeable to FHFA; and

(c) To the extent that a debt owed has not been established by judicial or administrative order, to request a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt or the terms of the repayment schedule. With respect to debts established by a judicial or administrative order, a debtor may request a hearing concerning the payment or other discharge of the debt. The debtor is not entitled to a hearing concerning the terms of the proposed repayment schedule if these terms have been established by written agreement.

§ 1208.63 Form of hearing.

(a) If the debtor submits a timely written request for a hearing as provided in § 1208.62(c), FHFA will afford the debtor a hearing, which at FHFA's option may be oral or written. FHFA will provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when FHFA determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the claim turns on the issue of credibility or veracity.

(b) If FHFA determines that an oral hearing is appropriate, the time and location of the hearing shall be established by FHFA. An oral hearing may, at the debtor's option, be conducted either in person or by telephone conference. All travel expenses incurred by the debtor in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the debtor. All telephonic charges incurred during the hearing will be the responsibility of the agency.

(c) In cases when it is determined that an oral hearing is not required by this section, FHFA will accord the debtor a “paper hearing,” that is, FHFA will decide the issues in dispute based upon a review of the written record.

§ 1208.64 Effect of timely request.

If FHFA receives a debtor's written request for a hearing within 15 business days of the date FHFA mailed its notice of intent to seek garnishment, FHFA shall not issue a withholding order until the debtor has been provided the requested hearing, and a decision in accordance with § 1208.68 and § 1208.69 has been rendered.

§ 1208.65 Failure to timely request a hearing.

If FHFA receives a debtor's written request for a hearing after 15 business days of the date FHFA mailed its notice of intent to seek garnishment, FHFA shall provide a hearing to the debtor. However, FHFA will not delay issuance of a withholding order unless it determines that the untimely filing of the request was caused by factors over which the debtor had no control, or FHFA receives information that FHFA believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order.

§ 1208.66 Hearing official.

A hearing official may be any qualified individual, as determined by FHFA, including an administrative law judge.

§ 1208.67 Procedure.

After the debtor requests a hearing, the hearing official shall notify the debtor of:

(a) The date and time of a telephonic hearing;

(b) The date, time, and location of an in-person oral hearing; or

(c) The deadline for the submission of evidence for a written hearing.

§ 1208.68 Format of hearing.

FHFA will have the burden of proof to establish the existence or amount of the debt. Thereafter, if the debtor disputes the existence or amount of the debt, the debtor must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that no debt exists, or that the amount of the debt is incorrect. In addition, the debtor may present evidence that the terms of the repayment schedule are unlawful, would cause a financial hardship to the debtor, or that collection of the debt may not be pursued due to operation of law. The hearing official shall maintain a record of any hearing held under this section. Hearings are not required to be formal, and evidence may be offered without regard to formal rules of evidence. Witnesses who testify in oral hearings shall do so under oath or affirmation.

§ 1208.69 Date of decision.

The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision as soon as practicable, but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for such hearing was received by FHFA. If FHFA is unable to provide the debtor with a hearing and decision within 60 days after the receipt of the request for such hearing:

(a) FHFA may not issue a withholding order until the hearing is held and a decision rendered; or

(b) If FHFA had previously issued a withholding order to the debtor's employer, the withholding order will be suspended beginning on the 61st day after the date FHFA received the hearing request and continuing until a hearing is held and a decision is rendered.

§ 1208.70 Content of decision.

The written decision shall include:

(a) A summary of the facts presented;

(b) The hearing official's findings, analysis and conclusions; and

(c) The terms of any repayment schedule, if applicable.

§ 1208.71 Finality of agency action.

A decision by a hearing official shall become the final decision of FHFA for the purpose of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act.

§ 1208.72 Failure to appear.

In the absence of good cause shown, a debtor who fails to appear at a scheduled hearing will be deemed as not having timely filed a request for a hearing.

§ 1208.73 Wage garnishment order.

(a) Unless FHFA receives information that it believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order, FHFA will send by first class mail a withholding order to the debtor's employer within 30 calendar days after the debtor fails to make a timely request for a hearing (i.e., within 15 business days after the mailing of the notice of FHFA's intent to seek garnishment) or, if a timely request for a hearing is made by the debtor, within 30 calendar days after a decision to issue a withholding order becomes final.

(b) The withholding order sent to the employer will be in the form prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury, on FHFA's letterhead, and signed by the head of the agency or delegate. The order will contain all information necessary for the employer to comply with the withholding order, including the debtor's name, address, and social security number, as well as instructions for withholding and information as to where payments should be sent.

(c) FHFA will keep a stamped copy of the order indicating the date it was mailed.

§ 1208.74 Certification by employer.

Along with the withholding order, FHFA will send to the employer a certification in a form prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury. The employer shall complete and return the certification to FHFA within the time frame prescribed in the instructions to the form. The certification will address matters such as information about the debtor's employment status and disposable pay available for withholding.

§ 1208.75 Amounts withheld.

(a) Upon receipt of the garnishment order issued under this section, the employer shall deduct from all disposable pay paid to the debtor during each pay period the amount of garnishment described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section.

(b) Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the amount of garnishment shall be the lesser of:

(1) The amount indicated on the garnishment order up to 15 percent of the debtor's disposable pay; or

(2) The amount set forth in 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2). The amount set forth at 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2) is the amount by which the debtor's disposable pay exceeds an amount equivalent to thirty times the minimum wage.

(c) When a debtor's pay is subject to withholding orders with priority, the following shall apply:

(1) Unless otherwise provided by Federal law, withholding orders issued under this section shall be paid in the amounts set forth under paragraph (b) of this section and shall have priority over other withholding orders which are served later in time. However, withholding orders for family support shall have priority over withholding orders issued under this section.

(2) If amounts are being withheld from a debtor's pay pursuant to a withholding order served on an employer before a withholding order issued pursuant to this section, or if a withholding order for family support is served on an employer at any time, the amounts withheld pursuant to the withholding order issued under this section shall be the lesser of:

(i) The amount calculated under paragraph (b) of this section; or

(ii) An amount equal to 25 percent of the debtor's disposable pay less the amount(s) withheld under the withholding order(s) with priority.

(3) If a debtor owes more than one debt to FHFA, FHFA may issue multiple withholding orders. The total amount garnished from the debtor's pay for such orders will not exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.

(d) An amount greater than that set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section may be withheld upon the written consent of the debtor.

(e) The employer shall promptly pay to FHFA all amounts withheld in accordance with the withholding order issued pursuant to this section.

(f) An employer shall not be required to vary its normal pay and disbursement cycles in order to comply with the withholding order.

(g) Any assignment or allotment by the employee of the employee's earnings shall be void to the extent it interferes with or prohibits execution of the withholding order under this section, except for any assignment or allotment made pursuant to a family support judgment or order.

(h) The employer shall withhold the appropriate amount from the debtor's wages for each pay period until the employer receives notification from FHFA to discontinue wage withholding. The garnishment order shall indicate a reasonable period of time within which the employer is required to commence wage withholding.

§ 1208.76 Exclusions from garnishment.

FHFA will not garnish the wages of a debtor it knows has been involuntarily separated from employment until the debtor has been re-employed continuously for at least 12 months. The debtor has the burden of informing FHFA of the circumstances surrounding an involuntary separation from employment.

§ 1208.77 Financial hardship.

(a) A debtor whose wages are subject to a wage withholding order under this section, may, at any time, request a review by FHFA of the amount garnished, based on materially changed circumstances such as disability, divorce, or catastrophic illness which result in financial hardship.

(b) A debtor requesting a review under this section shall submit the basis for claiming that the current amount of garnishment results in a financial hardship to the debtor, along with supporting documentation.

(c) If a financial hardship is found, FHFA will downwardly adjust, by an amount and for a period of time agreeable to FHFA, the amount garnished to reflect the debtor's financial condition. FHFA will notify the employer of any adjustments to the amounts to be withheld.

§ 1208.78 Ending garnishment.

(a) Once FHFA has fully recovered the amounts owed by the debtor, including interest, penalties, and administrative costs consistent with the Federal Claims Collection Standards, FHFA will send the debtor's employer notification to discontinue wage withholding.

(b) At least annually, FHFA will review its debtors' accounts to ensure that garnishment has been terminated for accounts that have been paid in full.

§ 1208.79 Prohibited actions by employer.

The Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 prohibits an employer from discharging, refusing to employ, or taking disciplinary action against the debtor due to the issuance of a withholding order under this subpart E.

§ 1208.80 Refunds.

(a) If a hearing official determines that a debt is not legally due and owing to the United States, FHFA shall promptly refund any amount collected by means of administrative wage garnishment.

(b) Unless required by Federal law or contract, refunds under this section shall not bear interest.

§ 1208.81 Right of action.

FHFA may sue any employer for any amount that the employer fails to withhold from wages owed and payable to its employee in accordance with this subpart E. However, a suit will not be filed before the termination of the collection action involving a particular debtor, unless earlier filing is necessary to avoid expiration of any applicable statute of limitations. For purposes of this subpart E, “termination of the collection action” occurs when the agency has terminated collection action in accordance with the FCCS or other applicable standards. In any event, termination of the collection action will have been deemed to occur if FHFA has not received any payments to satisfy the debt from the particular debtor whose wages were subject to garnishment, in whole or in part, for a period of one (1) year.

PART 1209 RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 554, 556, 557, and 701 et seq.; 12 U.S.C. 1430c(d); 12 U.S.C. 4501, 4502, 4503, 4511, 4513, 4513b, 4517, 4526, 4566(c)(1) and (c)(7), 4581-4588, 4631-4641; and 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.

Source: 76 FR 53607, Aug. 26, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Scope and Authority
§ 1209.1 Scope.

(a) Authority. This part sets forth the Rules of Practice and Procedure for hearings on the record in administrative enforcement proceedings in accordance with the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, title XIII of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Public Law 102-550, sections 1301 et seq., codified at 12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq., as amended (the “Safety and Soundness Act”), as stated in § 1209.4 of this part. 1

1 As used in this part, the “Safety and Soundness Act” means the Federal Housing Enterprise Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended. See § 1209.3. The Safety and Soundness Act was amended by the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law No. 110-289, sections 1101 et seq., 122 Stat. 2654 (July 30, 2008) (HERA). Specifically, sections 1151 through 1158 of HERA amended sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act, (codified at 12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641) (hereafter, “Enforcement Proceedings”).

(b) Enforcement Proceedings. Subpart B of this part (Enforcement Proceedings Under sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act) sets forth the statutory authority for enforcement proceedings under sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641) (Enforcement Proceedings).

(c) Rules of Practice and Procedure. Subpart C of this part (Rules of Practice and Procedure) prescribes the general rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings that the Director is required by statute to conduct on the record after opportunity for a hearing under the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 554, 556, and 557, under the following statutory provisions:

(1) Enforcement proceedings under sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641);

(2) Removal, prohibition, and civil money penalty proceedings for violations of post-employment restrictions imposed by applicable law;

(3) Proceedings under section 102 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4012a) to assess civil money penalties; and

(4) Enforcement proceedings under sections 1341 through 1348 of the Safety and Soundness Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4581 through 4588), and section 10C of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1430c), except where the Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart C are inconsistent with such statutory provisions or with part 1281 or 1282 of this title, in which case the statutory or regulatory provisions shall apply.

(d) Representation and conduct. Subpart D of this part (Parties and Representational Practice before the Federal Housing Finance Agency; Standards of Conduct) sets out the rules of representation and conduct that shall govern any appearance by any person, party, or representative of any person or party, before a presiding officer, the Director of FHFA, or a designated representative of the Director or FHFA staff, in any proceeding or matter pending before the Director.

(e) Civil money penalty inflation adjustments. Subpart E of this part (Civil Money Penalty Inflation Adjustments) sets out the requirements for the periodic adjustment of maximum civil money penalty amounts under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended (Inflation Adjustment Act) on a recurring four-year cycle. 2

2 Public Law 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Public Law 104-134, title III, sec. 31001(s)(1), Apr. 26, 1996, 110 Stat. 1321-373; Public Law 105-362, title XIII, sec. 1301(a), Nov. 10, 1998, 112 Stat. 3293 (28 U.S.C. 2461 note).

(f) Informal proceedings. Subpart F of this part (Suspension or Removal of an Entity-Affiliated Party Charged with Felony) sets out the scope and procedures for the suspension or removal of an entity-affiliated party charged with a felony under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)), which provides for an informal hearing before the Director.

[76 FR 53607, Aug. 26, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 37103, June 20, 2013; 90 FR 59965, Dec. 23, 2025]

§ 1209.2 Rules of construction.

For purposes of this part:

(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;

(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neuter gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate; and

(c) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's representative of record, if any, on behalf of that party, may take any action required to be taken by the party.

§ 1209.3 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:

Adjudicatory proceeding means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules, on the record, and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.

Agency has the meaning defined in section 1303(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(2)).

Associated with the regulated entity means, for purposes of section 1379 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4637), any direct or indirect involvement or participation in the conduct of operations or business affairs of a regulated entity, including engaging in activities related to the operations or management of, providing advice or services to, consulting or contracting with, serving as agent for, or in any other way affecting the operations or business affairs of a regulated entity—with or without regard to—any direct or indirect payment, promise to make payment, or receipt of any compensation or thing of value, such as money, notes, stock, stock options, or other securities, or other benefit or remuneration of any kind, by or on behalf of the regulated entity, except any payment made pursuant to a retirement plan or deferred compensation plan, which is determined by the Director to be permissible under section 1318(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4518(e)), or by reason of the death or disability of the party, in the form and manner commonly paid or provided to retirees of the regulated entity, unless such payment, compensation, or such benefit is promised or provided to or for the benefit of said party for the provision of services or other benefit to the regulated entity.

Authorizing statutes has the meaning defined in section 1303(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(3)).

Bank Act means the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1421 et seq.).

Board or Board of Directors means the board of directors of any Enterprise or Federal Home Loan Bank (Bank), as provided for in the respective authorizing statutes.

Decisional employee means any member of the Director's or the presiding officer's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Director or the presiding officer, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under subpart C of this part.

Director has the meaning defined in section 1303(9) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(9)); except, as the context requires in this part, “director” may refer to a member of the Board of Directors or any Board committee of an Enterprise, a Federal Home Loan Bank, or the Office of Finance.

Enterprise has the meaning defined in section 1303(10) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(10)).

Entity-affiliated party has the meaning defined in section 1303(11) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(11)), and may include an executive officer, any director, or management of the Office of Finance, as applicable under relevant provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act or FHFA regulations.

Executive officer has the meaning defined in section 1303(12) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(12)), and may include an executive officer of the Office of Finance, as applicable under relevant provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act or FHFA regulations.

FHFA means the Federal Housing Finance Agency as defined in section 1303(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(2)).

Notice of charges means the charging document served by FHFA to commence an enforcement proceeding under this part for the issuance of a cease and desist order; removal, suspension, or prohibition order; or an order to assess a civil money penalty, under 12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641 and § 1209.23. A “notice of charges,” as used or referred to as such in this part, is not an “effective notice” under section 1375(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4635(a)).

Office of Finance has the meaning defined in section 1303(19) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(19)).

Party means any person named as a respondent in any notice of charges, or FHFA, as the context requires in this part.

Person means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, organization, regulated entity, entity-affiliated party, or other entity.

Presiding officer means an administrative law judge or any other person appointed by or at the request of the Director under applicable law to conduct an adjudicatory proceeding under this part.

Regulated entity has the meaning defined in section 1303(20) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)).

Representative of record means an individual who is authorized to represent a person or is representing himself and who has filed a notice of appearance and otherwise has complied with the requirements under § 1209.72. FHFA's representative of record may be referred to as FHFA counsel of record, agency counsel or enforcement counsel.

Respondent means any party that is the subject of a notice of charges under this part.

Safety and Soundness Act means title XIII of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Public Law 102-550, known as the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq.)

Violation has the meaning defined in section 1303(25) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(25)).

Subpart B Enforcement Proceedings Under Sections 1371 Through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act
§ 1209.4 Scope and authority.

The rules of practice and procedure set forth in Subpart C (Rules of Practice and Procedure) of this part shall be applicable to any hearing on the record conducted by FHFA in accordance with sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641), as follows:

(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under sections 1371 and 1373 of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4633);

(b) Civil money penalty assessment proceedings under sections 1373 and 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4633, 4636); and

(c) Removal and prohibition proceedings under sections 1373 and 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4633, 4636a), except removal proceedings under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)).

§ 1209.5 Cease and desist proceedings.

(a) Cease and desist proceedings—(1) Authority—(i) In general. As prescribed by section 1371(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(a)), if in the opinion of the Director, a regulated entity or any entity-affiliated party is engaging or has engaged, or the Director has reasonable cause to believe that the regulated entity or any entity-affiliated party is about to engage, in an unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the business of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, or is violating or has violated, or the Director has reasonable cause to believe is about to violate, a law, rule, regulation, or order, or any condition imposed in writing by the Director in connection with the granting of any application or other request by the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or any written agreement entered into with the Director, the Director may issue and serve upon the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party a notice of charges (as described in § 1209.23) to institute cease and desist proceedings, except with regard to the enforcement of any housing goal that must be addressed under sections 1341 and 1345 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4581, 4585).

(ii) Hearing on the record. In accordance with section 1373 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633), a hearing on the record shall be held in the District of Columbia. Subpart C of this part shall govern the hearing procedures.

(iii) Consent to order. Unless the party served with a notice of charges shall appear at the hearing personally or through an authorized representative of record, the party shall be deemed to have consented to the issuance of the cease and desist order.

(2) Unsatisfactory rating. In accordance with section 1371(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(b)), if a regulated entity receives, in its most recent report of examination, a less-than-satisfactory rating for asset quality, management, earnings, or liquidity, the Director may deem the regulated entity to be engaging in an unsafe or unsound practice within the meaning of section 1371(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(a)), if any such deficiency has not been corrected.

(3) Order. As provided by section 1371(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(c)(2)), if the Director finds on the record made at a hearing in accordance with section 1373 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633) that any practice or violation specified in the notice of charges has been established (or the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party consents pursuant to section 1373(a)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633(a)(4)), the Director may issue and serve upon the regulated entity, executive officer, director, or entity-affiliated party, an order (as set forth in § 1209.55) requiring such party to cease and desist from any such practice or violation and to take affirmative action to correct or remedy the conditions resulting from any such practice or violation.

(b) Affirmative action to correct conditions resulting from violations or activities. The authority to issue a cease and desist order or a temporary cease and desist order requiring a regulated entity, executive officer, director, or entity-affiliated party to take affirmative action to correct or remedy any condition resulting from any practice or violation with respect to which such cease and desist order or temporary cease and desist order is set forth in section 1371(a), (c)(2), and (d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(a), (c)(2), and (d)), and includes the authority to:

(1) Require the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party to make restitution, or to provide reimbursement, indemnification, or guarantee against loss, if—

(i) Such entity or party or finance facility was unjustly enriched in connection with such practice or violation, or

(ii) The violation or practice involved a reckless disregard for the law or any applicable regulations, or prior order of the Director;

(2) Require the regulated entity to seek restitution, or to obtain reimbursement, indemnification, or guarantee against loss; as

(3) Restrict asset or liability growth of the regulated entity;

(4) Require the regulated entity to obtain new capital;

(5) Require the regulated entity to dispose of any loan or asset involved;

(6) Require the regulated entity to rescind agreements or contracts;

(7) Require the regulated entity to employ qualified officers or employees (who may be subject to approval by the Director at the direction of the Director); and

(8) Require the regulated entity to take such other action, as the Director determines appropriate, including limiting activities.

(c) Authority to limit activities. As provided by section 1371(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(e)), the authority of the Director to issue a cease and desist order under section 1371 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631) or a temporary cease and desist order under section 1372 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632), includes the authority to place limitations on the activities or functions of the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party or any executive officer or director of the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party.

(d) Effective date of order; judicial review—(1) Effective date. The effective date of an order is as set forth in section 1371(f) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(f)).

(2) Judicial review. Judicial review is governed by section 1374 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4634).

§ 1209.6 Temporary cease and desist orders.

(a) Temporary cease and desist orders—(1) Grounds for issuance. The grounds for issuance of a temporary cease and desist order are set forth in section 1372(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a)). In accordance with section 1372(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a)), the Director may:

(i) Issue a temporary order requiring that regulated entity or entity-affiliated party to cease and desist from any violation or practice specified in the notice of charges; and

(ii) Require that regulated entity or entity-affiliated party to take affirmative action to prevent or remedy any insolvency, dissipation, condition, or prejudice, pending completion of the proceedings.

(2) Additional requirements. As provided by section 1372(a)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a)(2)), an order issued under section 1372(a)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a)(1)) may include any requirement authorized under section 1371(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(d)).

(b) Effective date of temporary order. The effective date of a temporary order is as provided by section 1372(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(b)). And, unless set aside, limited, or suspended by a court in proceedings pursuant to the judicial review provisions of section 1372(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(d)), shall remain in effect and enforceable pending the completion of the proceedings pursuant to such notice of charges, and shall remain effective until the Director dismisses the charges specified in the notice or until superseded by a cease-and-desist order issued pursuant to section 1371 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631).

(c) Incomplete or inaccurate records—(1) Temporary order. As provided by section 1372(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(c)), if a notice of charges served under section 1371(a) or (b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(a), (b)), specifies on the basis of particular facts and circumstances that the books and records of the regulated entity served are so incomplete or inaccurate that the Director is unable, through the normal supervisory process, to determine the financial condition of the regulated entity or the details or the purpose of any transaction or transactions that may have a material effect on the financial condition of that regulated entity, the Director may issue a temporary order requiring:

(i) The cessation of any activity or practice that gave rise, whether in whole or in part, to the incomplete or inaccurate state of the books or records; or

(ii) Affirmative action to restore the books or records to a complete and accurate state.

(2) Effective period. Any temporary order issued under section 1372(c)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(c)(1)) shall become effective upon service, and remain in effect and enforceable unless set aside, limited, or suspended in accordance with section 1372(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(d)), as provided by section 1372(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(c)(2)).

(d) Judicial review. Section 1372(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(d)), authorizes a regulated entity, executive officer, director, or entity-affiliated party that has been served with a temporary order pursuant to section 1372(a) or (b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a), (b)) to apply to the United States District Court for the District of Columbia within 10 days after service of the temporary order for an injunction setting aside, limiting, or suspending the enforcement, operation, or effectiveness of the temporary order, pending the completion of the administrative enforcement proceeding. The district court has jurisdiction to issue such injunction.

(e) Enforcement of temporary order. As provided by section 1372(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(e)), in the case of any violation, threatened violation, or failure to obey a temporary order issued pursuant to this section, the Director may bring an action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia for an injunction to enforce a temporary order, and the district court is to issue such injunction upon a finding made in accordance with section 1372(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(e)).

§ 1209.7 Civil money penalties.

(a) Civil money penalty proceedings—(1) In general. Section 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636) governs the imposition of civil money penalties. Upon written notice, which shall conform to the requirements of § 1209.23 of this part, and a hearing on the record to be conducted in accordance with subpart C of this part, the Director may impose a civil money penalty on any regulated entity or any entity-affiliated party as provided by section 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act for any violation, practice, or breach addressed under sections 1371, 1372, or 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, 4636), except with regard to the enforcement of housing goals that are addressed separately under sections 1341 and 1345 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4581, 4585).

(2) Amount of penalty—(i) First Tier. Section 1376(b)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(1)) prescribes the civil penalty for violations as stated therein, in the amount of $10,000 for each day during which a violation continues.

(ii) Second Tier. Section 1376(b)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(2)) provides that notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) thereof, a regulated entity or entity-affiliated party shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty of not more than $50,000 for each day during which a violation, practice, or breach continues, if the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party commits any violation described in (b)(1) thereof, recklessly engages in an unsafe or unsound practice, or breaches any fiduciary duty, and the violation, practice, or breach is part of a pattern of misconduct; causes or is likely to cause more than a minimal loss to the regulated entity; or results in pecuniary gain or other benefit to such party.

(iii) Third Tier. Section 1376(b)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(3)) provides that, notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) thereof, any regulated entity or entity-affiliated party shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty, in accordance with section 1376(b)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(4)), for each day during which such violation, practice, or breach continues, if such regulated entity or entity-affiliated party:

(A) Knowingly—

(1) Commits any violation described in any subparagraph of section 1376(b)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act;

(2) Engages in any unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the affairs of the regulated entity; or

(3) Breaches any fiduciary duty; and

(B) Knowingly or recklessly causes a substantial loss to the regulated entity or a substantial pecuniary gain or other benefit to such party by reason of such violation, practice, or breach.

(b) Maximum amounts—(1) Maximum daily penalty. Section 1376(b)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(4)), prescribes the maximum daily amount of a civil penalty that may be assessed for any violation, practice, or breach pursuant to section 1376(b)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(3)), in the case of any entity-affiliated party (not to exceed $2,000,000.00), and in the case of any regulated entity ($2,000,000.00).

(2) Inflation Adjustment Act. The maximum civil penalty amounts are subject to periodic adjustment under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended (28 U.S.C. 2461 note), as provided in subpart E of this part.

(c) Factors in determining amount of penalty. In accordance with section 1376(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(c)(2)), in assessing civil money penalties on a regulated entity or an entity-affiliated party in amounts as provided in section 1376(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)), the Director shall give consideration to such factors as:

(1) The gravity of the violation, practice, or breach;

(2) Any history of prior violations or supervisory actions, or any attempts at concealment;

(3) The effect of the penalty on the safety and soundness of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance;

(4) Any loss or risk of loss to the regulated entity or to the Office of Finance;

(5) Any benefits received or derived, whether directly or indirectly, by the respondent(s);

(6) Any injury to the public;

(7) Any deterrent effect on future violations, practices, or breaches;

(8) The financial capacity of the respondent(s), or any unusual circumstance(s) of hardship upon an executive officer, director, or other individual;

(9) The promptness, cost, and effectiveness of any effort to remedy or ameliorate the consequences of the violation, practice, or breach;

(10) The candor and cooperation, if any, of the respondent(s); and

(11) Any other factors the Director may determine by regulation to be appropriate.

(d) Review of imposition of penalty. Section 1376(c)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(c)(3)) governs judicial review of a penalty order under section 1374 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4634).

§ 1209.8 Removal and prohibition proceedings.

(a) Removal and prohibition proceedings—(1) Authority to issue order. As provided by section 1377(a)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a)(1)), the Director may serve upon a party described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or any officer, director, or management of the Office of Finance, a notice of the intention of the Director to suspend or remove such party from office, or to prohibit any further participation by such party in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

(2) Applicability. As provided by section 1377(a)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a)(2)), a party described in this paragraph is an entity-affiliated party or any officer, director, or management of the Office of Finance, if the Director determines that:

(i) That party, officer, or director has, directly or indirectly—

(A) Violated—

(1) Any law or regulation;

(2) Any cease and desist order that has become final;

(3) Any condition imposed in writing by the Director in connection with an application, notice, or other request by a regulated entity; or

(4) Any written agreement between such regulated entity and the Director;

(B) Engaged or participated in any unsafe or unsound practice in connection with any regulated entity or business institution; or

(C) Committed or engaged in any act, omission, or practice which constitutes a breach of such party's fiduciary duty;

(ii) By reason of such violation, practice, or breach—

(A) Such regulated entity or business institution has suffered or likely will suffer financial loss or other damage; or

(B) Such party directly or indirectly received financial gain or other benefit; and

(iii) The violation, practice, or breach described in subparagraph (i) of this section—

(A) Involves personal dishonesty on the part of such party; or

(B) Demonstrates willful or continuing disregard by such party for the safety or soundness of such regulated entity or business institution.

(3) Applicability to business entities. Under section 1377(f) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(f)), this remedy applies only to a person who is an individual, unless the Director specifically finds that it should apply to a corporation, firm, or other business entity.

(b) Suspension order—(1) Suspension or prohibition authorized. If the Director serves written notice under section 1377(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a)) upon a party subject to that section, the Director may, by order, suspend or remove such party from office, or prohibit such party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, if the Director:

(i) Determines that such action is necessary for the protection of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance; and

(ii) Serves such party with written notice of the order.

(2) Effective period. The effective period of any order under section 1377(b)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(b)(1)) is specified in section 1377(b)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(b)(2)). An order of suspension shall become effective upon service and, absent a court-ordered stay, remains effective and enforceable until the date the Director dismisses the charges or the effective date of an order issued by the Director under section 1377(c)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)(4),(5)).

(3) Copy of order to be served on regulated entity. In accordance with section 1377(b)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(b)(3)), the Director will serve a copy of any order to suspend, remove, or prohibit participation in the conduct of the affairs on the Office of Finance or any regulated entity with which such party is affiliated at the time such order is issued.

(c) Notice; hearing and order—(1) Written notice. A notice of the intention of the Director to issue an order under sections 1377(a) and (c) of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a), (c)), shall conform with § 1209.23, and may include any such additional information as the Director may require.

(2) Hearing. A hearing on the record shall be held in the District of Columbia in accordance with sections 1373(a)(1) and 1377(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act. See 12 U.S.C. 4633(a)(1), 4636a(c)(2).

(3) Consent. As provided by section 1377(c)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)(3)), unless the party that is the subject of a notice delivered under paragraph (a) of this section appears in person or by a duly authorized representative of record, in the adjudicatory proceeding, such party shall be deemed to have consented to the issuance of an order under this section.

(4) Issuance of order of suspension or removal. As provided by section 1377(c)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)(4)), the Director may issue an order under this part, as the Director may deem appropriate, if:

(i) A party is deemed to have consented to the issuance of an order under paragraph (d); or

(ii) Upon the record made at the hearing, the Director finds that any of the grounds specified in the notice have been established.

(5) Effectiveness of order. As provided by section 1377(c)(5) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)(5)), any order issued and served upon a party in accordance with this section shall become effective at the expiration of 30 days after the date of service upon such party and any regulated entity or entity-affiliated party. An order issued upon consent under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, however, shall become effective at the time specified therein. Any such order shall remain effective and enforceable except to such extent as it is stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by action of the Director or a reviewing court.

(d) Prohibition of certain activities and industry-wide prohibition—(1) Prohibition of certain activities. As provided by section 1377(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(d)), any person subject to an order issued under subpart B of this part shall not—

(i) Participate in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of any regulated entity or the Office of Finance;

(ii) Solicit, procure, transfer, attempt to transfer, vote, or attempt to vote any proxy, consent, or authorization with respect to any voting rights in any regulated entity;

(iii) Violate any voting agreement previously approved by the Director; or

(iv) Vote for a director, or serve or act as an entity-affiliated party of a regulated entity or as an officer or director of the Office of Finance.

(2) Industry-wide prohibition. As provided by section 1377(e)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(1)), except as provided in section 1377(e)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(2)), any person who, pursuant to an order issued under section 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a), has been removed or suspended from office in a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, or prohibited from participating in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, may not, while such order is in effect, continue or commence to hold any office in, or participate in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of, any regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

(3) Relief from industry-wide prohibition at the discretion of the Director—(i) Relief from order. As provided by section 1377(e)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(2)), if, on or after the date on which an order has been issued under section 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a) that removes or suspends from office any party, or prohibits such party from participating in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, such party receives the written consent of the Director, the order shall cease to apply to such party with respect to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to the extent described in the written consent. Such written consent shall be on such terms and conditions as the Director therein may specify in his discretion. Any such consent shall be publicly disclosed.

(ii) No private right of action; no final agency action. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require the Director to entertain or to provide such written consent, or to confer any rights to such consideration or consent upon any party, regulated entity, entity-affiliated party, or the Office of Finance. Additionally, whether the Director consents to relief from an outstanding order under this part is committed wholly to the discretion of the Director, and such determination shall not be a final agency action for purposes of seeking judicial review.

(4) Violation of industry-wide prohibition. As provided by section 1377(e)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(3)), any violation of section 1377(e)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(1)) by any person who is subject to an order issued under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)) (suspension or removal of entity-affiliated party charged with felony) shall be treated as a violation of the order.

(e) Stay of suspension or prohibition of entity-affiliated party. As provided by section 1377(g) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(g)), not later than 10 days after the date on which any entity-affiliated party has been suspended from office or prohibited from participation in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity, such party may apply to the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, or the United States district court for the judicial district in which the headquarters of the regulated entity is located, for a stay of such suspension or prohibition pending the completion of the administrative enforcement proceeding pursuant to section 1377(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)). The court shall have jurisdiction to stay such suspension or prohibition, but such jurisdiction does not extend to the administrative enforcement proceeding.

§ 1209.9 Supervisory actions not affected.

As provided by section 1311(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4511(c)), the authority of the Director to take action under subtitle A of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4611 et seq.) (e.g., the appointment of a conservator or receiver for a regulated entity; entering into a written agreement or pursuing an informal agreement with a regulated entity as the Director deems appropriate; and undertaking other such actions as may be applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized regulated entities), or to initiate enforcement proceedings under subtitle C of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631 et seq.), shall not in any way limit the general supervisory or regulatory authority granted the Director under section 1311(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4511(b)). The selection and form of regulatory or supervisory action under the Safety and Soundness Act is committed to the discretion of the Director, and the selection of one form of action or a combination of actions does not foreclose the Director from pursuing any other supervisory action authorized by law.

Subpart C Rules of Practice and Procedure
§ 1209.10 Authority of the Director.

The Director may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of any act that could be done or ordered by the presiding officer.

§ 1209.11 Authority of the Presiding Officer.

(a) General rule. All proceedings governed by subpart C of this part shall be conducted consistent with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The presiding officer shall have complete charge of the adjudicative proceeding, conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid unnecessary delay, and assure that a complete record of the proceeding is made.

(b) Powers. The presiding officer shall have all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section and 5 U.S.C. 556(c). The presiding officer is authorized to:

(1) Control the proceedings. (i) Upon reasonable notice to the parties, not earlier than 30 days or later than 60 days after service of a notice of charges under the Safety and Soundness Act, set a date, time, and place for an evidentiary hearing on the record, within the District of Columbia, as provided in section 1373 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633), in a scheduling order that may be issued in conjunction with the initial scheduling conference set under § 1209.36, or otherwise as the presiding officer finds in the best interest of justice, in accordance with this part; and

(ii) Upon reasonable notice to the parties, reset or change the date, time, or place (within the District of Columbia) of an evidentiary hearing;

(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time;

(3) Hold conferences to address legal or factual issues, or evidentiary matters materially relevant to the charges or allowable defenses; to regulate the timing and scope of discovery and rule on discovery plans; or otherwise to consider matters that may facilitate an effective, fair, and expeditious disposition of the proceeding;

(4) Administer oaths and affirmations;

(5) Issue and enforce subpoenas, subpoenas duces tecum, discovery and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to revoke, quash, or modify such subpoenas issued by the presiding officer;

(6) Take and preserve testimony under oath;

(7) Rule on motions and other procedural matters appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, except that only the Director shall have the power to grant summary disposition or any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to make a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;

(8) Take all actions authorized under this part to regulate the scope, timing, and completion of discovery of any non-privileged documents that are materially relevant to the charges or allowable defenses;

(9) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties;

(10) Examine witnesses;

(11) Receive materially relevant evidence, and rule upon the admissibility of evidence or exclude, limit, or otherwise rule on offers of proof;

(12) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts;

(13) Recuse himself upon his own motion or upon motion made by a party;

(14) Prepare and present to the Director a recommended decision as provided in this part;

(15) Establish time, place, and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and

(16) Do all other things necessary or appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.

§ 1209.12 Public hearings; closed hearings.

(a) General rule. As provided in section 1379B(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4639(b)), all hearings shall be open to the public, except that the Director, in his discretion, may determine that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. The Director may make such determination sua sponte at any time by written notice to all parties, or as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.

(b) Motion for closed hearing. Within 20 days of service of the notice of charges, any party may file with the presiding officer a motion for a private hearing and any party may file a pleading in reply to the motion. The presiding officer shall forward the motion and any reply, together with a recommended decision on the motion, to the Director, who shall make a final determination. Such motions and replies are governed by § 1209.28 of this part. A determination under this section is committed to the discretion of the Director and is not a reviewable final agency action.

(c) Filing documents under seal. FHFA counsel of record, in his discretion, may file or require the filing of any document or part of a document under seal, if such counsel makes a written determination that disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The presiding officer shall issue an order to govern confidential information, and take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents in whole or in part, including closing any portion of a hearing to the public or issuing a protective order under such terms as may be acceptable to FHFA counsel of record.

(d) Procedures for closed hearing. An evidentiary hearing, or any part thereof, that is closed for the purpose of offering into evidence testimony or documents filed under seal as provided in paragraph (c) of this section shall be conducted under procedures that may include: prior notification to the submitter of confidential information; provisions for sealing portions of the record, briefs, and decisions; in camera arguments, offers of proof, and testimony; and limitations on representatives of record or other participants, as the presiding officer may designate. Additionally, at such proceedings the presiding officer may make an opening statement as to the confidentiality and limitations and deliver an oath to the parties, representatives of record, or other approved participants as to the confidentiality of the proceedings.

§ 1209.13 Good faith certification.

(a) General requirement. Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice of charges by the Director shall be signed by at least one representative of record in his individual name and shall state that representative's business contact information, which shall include his address, electronic mail address, and telephone number; and the names, addresses and telephone numbers of all other representatives of record for the person making the filing or submission.

(b) Effect of signature. (1) By signing a document, a representative of record or party appearing pro se certifies that:

(i) The representative of record or party has read the filing or submission of record;

(ii) To the best of his knowledge, information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith, non-frivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, regulation, or FHFA order or policy; and

(iii) The filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.

(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the presiding officer shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.

(c) Effect of making oral motion or argument. The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any representative or party shall constitute a certification that to the best of his knowledge, information, and belief, formed after reasonable inquiry, his statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith, non-frivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, regulation, or FHFA order or policy, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or to needlessly increase litigation-related costs.

§ 1209.14 Ex parte communications.

(a) Definition—(1) Ex parte communication means any material oral or written communication relevant to an adjudication of the merits of any proceeding under this subpart that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:

(i) An interested person outside FHFA (including the person's representative of record); and

(ii) The presiding officer handling that proceeding, the Director, a decisional employee assigned to that proceeding, or any other person who is or may be reasonably expected to be involved in the decisional process.

(2) A communication that is procedural in that it does not concern the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding, such as a request for status of the proceeding, does not constitute an ex parte communication.

(b) Prohibition of ex parte communications. From the time a notice of charges commencing a proceeding under this part is issued by the Director until the date that the Director issues his final decision pursuant to § 1209.55 of this part, no person referred to in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section shall knowingly make or cause to be made an ex parte communication with the Director or the presiding officer. The Director, presiding officer, or a decisional employee shall not knowingly make or cause to be made an ex parte communication.

(c) Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication. If an ex parte communication is received by any person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity within 10 days of receipt of service of the ex parte communication to file responses thereto, and to recommend sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.

(d) Sanctions. Any party or representative for a party who makes an ex parte communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make an ex parte communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Director or the presiding officer, including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings, an adverse ruling on the issue that is the subject of the prohibited communication, or other appropriate and commensurate action(s).

(e) Consultations by presiding officer. Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law, the presiding officer may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless upon notice to and opportunity for all parties to participate.

(f) Separation of functions. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of any investigative or prosecuting function for FHFA in a case may not, in that or in a factually related case, participate or advise in the recommended decision, the Director's review under § 1209.55 of the recommended decision, or the Director's final determination on the merits based upon his review of the recommended decision, except as a witness or counsel in the adjudicatory proceedings. This section shall not prohibit FHFA counsel of record from providing necessary and appropriate legal advice to the Director on supervisory (including information or legal advice as to settlement issues) or regulatory matters.

§ 1209.15 Filing of papers.

(a) Filing. All pleadings, motions, memoranda, and any other submissions or papers required to be filed in the proceeding shall be addressed to the presiding officer and filed with FHFA, 400 7th Street SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219, in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.

(b) Manner of filing. Unless otherwise specified by the Director or the presiding officer, filing shall be accomplished by:

(1) Overnight delivery. Overnight U.S. Postal Service delivery or delivery by a reliable commercial delivery service for same day or overnight delivery to the address stated above; or

(2) U.S. Mail. First class, registered, or certified mail via the U.S. Postal Service; and

(3) Electronic media. Transmission by electronic media shall be required by and upon any conditions specified by the Director or the presiding officer. FHFA shall provide a designated site for the electronic filing of all papers in a proceeding in accordance with any conditions specified by the presiding officer. All papers filed by electronic media shall be filed concurrently in a manner set out above and in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.

(c) Formal requirements as to papers filed—(1) Form. To be filed, all papers must set forth the name, address, telephone number, and electronic mail address of the representative or party seeking to make the filing. Additionally, all such papers must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced on 8 1/2 × 11-inch paper and must be clear, legible, and formatted as required by paragraph (c)(5) of this section.

(2) Signature. All papers filed must be dated and signed as provided in § 1209.13.

(3) Caption. All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the FHFA caption, title and docket number of the proceeding, the name of the filing party, and the subject of the particular paper.

(4) Number of copies. Unless otherwise specified by the Director or the presiding officer, an original and one copy of all pleadings, motions and memoranda, or other such papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits shall be filed.

(5) Content format. All papers filed shall be formatted in such program(s) (e.g., MS WORD ©, MS Excel ©, or WordPerfect ©) as the presiding officer or Director shall specify.

[76 FR 53607, Aug. 26, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]

§ 1209.16 Service of papers.

(a) Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers or serving a subpoena shall serve a copy upon the representative of record for each party to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party who is not so represented, in accordance with the requirements of this section.

(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party shall use one or more of the following methods of service:

(1) Personal service;

(2) Overnight U.S. Postal Service delivery or delivery by a reliable commercial delivery service for same day or overnight delivery to the parties' respective street addresses; or

(3) First class, registered, or certified mail via the U.S. Postal Service; and

(4) For transmission by electronic media, each party shall promptly provide the presiding officer and all parties, in writing, an active electronic mail address where service will be accepted on behalf of such party. Any document transmitted via electronic mail for service on a party shall comply in all respects with the requirements of § 1209.15(c).

(5) Service of pleadings or other papers made by facsimile may not exceed a total page count of 30 pages. Any paper served by facsimile transmission shall meet the requirements of § 1209.15(c).

(6) Any party serving a pleading or other paper by electronic media under paragraph (4) of this section also shall concurrently serve that pleading or paper by one of the methods specified in paragraphs (1) through (5) of this section.

(c) By the Director or the presiding officer. (1) All papers required to be served by the Director or the presiding officer upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 1209.72 shall be served by the means specified in paragraph (b) of this section.

(2) If a notice of appearance has not been filed in the proceeding for a party in accordance with § 1209.72, the Director or the presiding officer shall make service upon the party by any of the following methods:

(i) By personal service;

(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;

(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;

(iv) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or

(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.

(d) Subpoenas. Service of a subpoena may be made:

(1) By personal service;

(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;

(3) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;

(4) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or

(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.

(e) Area of service. Service in any State or the District of Columbia, or any commonwealth, possession, territory or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, or on any person doing business in any State or the District of Columbia, or any commonwealth, possession, territory or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, or on any person as otherwise permitted by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held.

(f) Proof of service. Proof of service of papers filed by a party shall be filed before action is taken thereon. The proof of service, which shall serve as prima facie evidence of the fact and date of service, shall show the date and manner of service and may be by written acknowledgment of service, by declaration of the person making service, or by certificate of a representative of record. However, failure to file proof of service contemporaneously with the papers shall not affect the validity of actual service. The presiding officer may allow the proof to be amended or supplied, unless to do so would result in material prejudice to a party.

§ 1209.17 Time computations.

(a) General rule. In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed under this part, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. Computations shall include the last day of the time period, unless the day falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday, the period of time shall run until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is 10 days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays are not included.

(b) When papers are deemed to be filed or served. (1) Filing or service are deemed to be effective:

(i) In the case of personal service or same day reliable commercial delivery service, upon actual service;

(ii) In the case of U.S. Postal Service or reliable commercial overnight delivery service, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection;

(iii) In the case of transmission by electronic media, as specified by the authority receiving the filing, in the case of filing; or

(iv) In the case of transmission by electronic media or facsimile, when the device through which the document was sent provides a reliable indicator that the document has been received by the opposing party, in the case of service.

(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Director or the presiding officer, or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.

(c) Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers. Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice, pleading or paper, the applicable time limits shall be calculated as follows:

(1) If service was made by delivery to the U.S. Postal Service for longer than overnight delivery service by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period for the responsive pleading or other filing.

(2) If service was personal, or was made by delivery to the U.S. Postal Service or any reliable commercial delivery service for overnight delivery, add one calendar-day to the prescribed period for the responsive pleading or other filing.

(3) If service was made by electronic media transmission or facsimile, add one calendar-day to the prescribed period for the responsive pleading or other filing—unless otherwise determined by the Director or the presiding officer sua sponte, or upon motion of a party in the case of filing or by prior agreement among the parties in the case of service.

§ 1209.18 Change of time limits.

Except as otherwise by law required, the presiding officer may extend any time limit that is prescribed above or in any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Director pursuant to § 1209.53, the Director may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted on the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all nonmoving parties, or on the Director's or the presiding officer's own motion.

§ 1209.19 Witness fees and expenses.

Witnesses (other than parties) subpoenaed for testimony (or for a deposition in lieu of personal appearance at a hearing) shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage shall be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where FHFA is the party requesting the subpoena. FHFA shall not be required to pay any fees to or expenses of any witness who was not subpoenaed by FHFA.

§ 1209.20 Opportunity for informal settlement.

Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to FHFA's counsel of record written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any FHFA representative other than FHFA counsel of record. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning, deferring or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.

§ 1209.21 Conduct of examination.

Nothing in this part limits or constrains in any manner any duty, authority, or right of FHFA to conduct or to continue any examination, investigation, inspection, or visitation of any regulated entity or entity-affiliated party.

§ 1209.22 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.

If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in subpart C of this part shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.

§ 1209.23 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice of charges.

Proceedings under subpart C of this part are commenced by the Director by the issuance of a notice of charges, as defined in § 1209.3(p), that must be served upon a respondent. A notice of charges shall state all of the following:

(a) The legal authority for the proceeding and for FHFA's jurisdiction over the proceeding;

(b) A statement of the matters of fact or law showing that FHFA is entitled to relief;

(c) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;

(d) Information concerning the nature of the proceeding and pertinent procedural matters, including: the requirement that the hearing shall be held in the District of Columbia; the presiding officer will set the date and location for an evidentiary hearing in a scheduling order to be issued not less than 30 days or more than 60 days after service of the notice of charges; contact information for FHFA enforcement counsel and the presiding officer, if known; submission information for filings and appearances, the time within which to request a hearing, and citation to FHFA Rules of Practice and Procedure; and

(e) Information concerning proper filing of the answer, including the time within which to file the answer as required by law or regulation, a statement that the answer shall be filed with the presiding officer or with FHFA as specified therein, and the address for filing the answer (and request for a hearing, if applicable).

§ 1209.24 Answer.

(a) Filing deadline. Unless otherwise specified by the Director in the notice, respondent shall file an answer within 20 days of service of the notice of charges initiating the enforcement action.

(b) Content of answer. An answer must respond specifically to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice of charges and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice that is not denied in the answer is deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.

(c) Default. Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of such respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, FHFA counsel of record may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the presiding officer shall file with the Director a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Director based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.

§ 1209.25 Amended pleadings.

(a) Amendments. The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within 10 days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Director or presiding officer orders otherwise for good cause shown.

(b) Amendments to conform to the evidence. When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, or as the presiding officer may allow for good cause shown, such issues will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the presiding officer may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action. The presiding officer will do so freely when the determination of the merits of the action is served thereby and the objecting party fails to satisfy the presiding officer that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The presiding officer may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.

§ 1209.26 Failure to appear.

Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized representative of record constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the presiding officer shall file with the Director a recommended decision containing the Agency's findings and the relief sought in the notice.

§ 1209.27 Consolidation and severance of actions.

(a) Consolidation. On the motion of any party, or on the presiding officer's own motion, the presiding officer may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice. In the event of consolidation under this section, appropriate adjustment to the pre-hearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.

(b) Severance. The presiding officer may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the presiding officer finds that undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding and such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.

§ 1209.28 Motions.

(a) In writing. (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.

(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.

(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the presiding officer. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.

(b) Oral motions. A motion may be made orally on the record, unless the presiding officer directs that such motion be reduced to writing, in which case the motion will be subject to the requirements of this section.

(c) Filing of motions. Motions must be filed with the presiding officer and served on all parties; except that following the filing of a recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Director. Motions for pre-trial relief such as motions in limine or objections to offers of proof or experts shall be filed not less than 10 days prior to the date of the evidentiary hearing, except as provided with the consent of the presiding officer for good cause shown.

(d) Responses and replies. (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, any party may file a written response to a non-dispositive motion within 10 days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the presiding officer or the Director; and the moving party may file a written reply to a written response to a non-dispositive motion within five days after the service of the response, unless some other period is ordered by the presiding officer or the Director. The presiding officer shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party with an interest in the motion has had an opportunity to respond as provided in this section.

(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed as consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.

(e) Dilatory motions. Frivolous, dilatory, or substantively repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.

(f) Dispositive motions. Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 1209.34 and 1209.35 of this part.

§ 1209.29 Discovery.

(a) General rule. (1) Limits on discovery. Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (a)(2), (b), (d), and (e) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this part may obtain document discovery by serving upon any other party in the proceeding a written request to produce documents. For purposes of such requests, the term “documents” may be defined to include records, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, or data stored in electronic form or other data compilations from which information can be obtained or translated, if necessary, by the parties through detection devices into reasonably usable form (e.g., electronically stored information), as well as written material of all kinds.

(2) Discovery plan. (i) In the initial scheduling conference held in accordance with § 1209.36, or otherwise at the earliest practicable time, the presiding officer shall require the parties to confer in good faith to develop and submit a joint discovery plan for the timely, cost-effective management of document discovery (including, if applicable, electronically stored information). The discovery plan should provide for the coordination of similar discovery requests by multiple parties, if any, and specify how costs are to be apportioned among those parties. The discovery plan shall specify the form of electronic productions, if any. Documents are to be produced in accordance with the technical specifications described in the discovery plan.

(ii) Discovery in the proceeding may commence upon the approval of the discovery plan by the presiding officer. Thereafter, the presiding officer may interpret or modify the discovery plan for good cause shown or in his or her discretion due to changed circumstances.

(iii) Nothing in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be interpreted or deemed to require the production of documents that are privileged or not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost, or to require any document production otherwise inconsistent with the limitations on discovery set forth in this part.

(b) Relevance and scope. (1) A party may obtain document discovery regarding any matter not privileged that is materially relevant to the charges or allowable defenses raised in the pending proceeding.

(2) The scope of available discovery shall be limited in accordance with subpart C of this part. Any request for the production of documents that seeks to obtain privileged information or documents not materially relevant under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, cumulative, or repetitive of any prior discovery requests, shall be denied or modified.

(3) A request for document discovery is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome—and shall be denied or modified—if, among other things, the request:

(i) Fails to specify justifiable limitations on the relevant subject matter, time period covered, search parameters, or the geographic location(s) or data repositories to be searched;

(ii) Fails to identify documents with sufficient specificity;

(iii) Seeks material that is duplicative, cumulative, or obtainable from another source that is more accessible, cost-effective, or less burdensome;

(iv) Calls for the production of documents to be delivered to the requesting party or his or her designee and fails to provide a written agreement by the requestor to pay in advance for the costs of production in accordance with § 1209.30, or otherwise fails to take into account costs associated with processing electronically stored information or any cost-sharing agreements between the parties;

(v) Fails to afford the responding party adequate time to respond; or

(vi) Fails to take into account retention policies or security protocols with respect to Federal information systems.

(c) Forms of discovery. Discovery shall be limited to requests for production of documents for inspection and copying. No other form of discovery shall be allowed. Discovery by use of interrogatories is not permitted. This paragraph shall not be interpreted to require the creation of a document.

(d) Privileged matter. (1) Privileged documents are not discoverable. (i) Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, work-product privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, and any other privileges provided by the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law.

(ii) The parties may enter into a written agreement to permit a producing party to assert applicable privileges of a document even after its production and to request the return or destruction of privileged matter (claw back agreement). The parties shall file the claw back agreement with the presiding officer. To ensure the enforceability of the terms of any such claw back agreement, the presiding officer shall enter an order. Any party may petition the presiding officer for an order specifying claw back procedures for good cause shown.

(2) No effect on examination authority. The limitations on discoverable matter provided for in this part are not intended and shall not be construed to limit or otherwise affect the examination, regulatory or supervisory authority of FHFA.

(e) Time limits. All discovery matters, including all responses to discovery requests, shall be completed at least 20 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the testimonial phase of the hearing. No exception to this discovery time limit shall be permitted, unless the presiding officer finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the 20-day requirement of this paragraph.

(f) Production. Documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business, or labeled and organized to correspond with the categories in the request, or otherwise produced in a manner determined by mutual agreement between the requesting party and the party or non-party to whom the request is directed in accordance with this part.

§ 1209.30 Request for document discovery from parties.

(a) General rule. Each request for the production of documents must conform to the requirements of this part.

(1) Limitations. Subject to applicable limitations on discovery in this part, a party may serve (requesting party) a request on another party (responding party) for the production of any non-privileged, discoverable documents in the possession, custody, or control of the responding party. A requesting party shall serve a copy of any such document request on all other parties. Each request for the production of documents must, with reasonable particularity, identify or describe the documents to be produced, either by individual item or by category, with sufficient specificity to enable the responding party to respond consistent with the requirements of this part.

(2) Discovery plan. Document discovery under subpart C of this part shall be consistent with any discovery plan approved by the presiding officer under § 1209.29.

(b) Production and costs—(1) General rule. Subject to the applicable limitations on discovery in this part and the discovery plan, the requesting party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for the production of documents and the performance of any related acts. The responding party shall produce documents to the requesting party in a manner consistent with the discovery plan.

(2) Costs. All costs associated with document productions—including, without limitation, photocopying (as specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section) or electronic processing (as specified in paragraph (b)(5) of this section)—shall be born by the requesting party, or otherwise in accordance with any discovery plan approved by the presiding officer that may require such costs be apportioned between parties, or as otherwise ordered by the presiding officer. If consistent with the discovery plan approved by the presiding officer, the responding party may require receipt of payment of any such document production costs in advance before any such production of responsive documents.

(3) Organization. Unless otherwise provided for in any discovery plan approved by the presiding officer under § 1209.29 of this part, or by order of the presiding officer, documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business or they shall be labeled and organized to correspond with the categories in the document request.

(4) Photocopying charges. Photocopying charges are to be set at the current rate per page imposed by FHFA under the fee schedule pursuant to § 1202.11(c) of this part for requests for documents filed under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.

(5) Electronic processing. In the event that any party seeks the production of electronically stored information (i.e., information created, stored, communicated, or used in digital format requiring the use of computer hardware and software), the parties shall confer in good faith to resolve common discovery issues related to electronically stored information, such as preservation, search methodology, collection, and need for such information; the suitability of alternative means to obtain it; and the format of production. Consistent with the discovery plan approved by the presiding officer under § 1209.29, costs associated with the processing of such electronic information (i.e., imaging; scanning; conversion of “native” files to images that are viewable and searchable; indexing; coding; database or Web-based hosting; searches; branding of endorsements, such as “confidential” or document control numbering; privilege reviews; and copies of production discs) and delivery of any such document production, shall be born by the requesting party, apportioned among the parties, or as otherwise ordered by the presiding officer. Nothing in this part shall be deemed to require FHFA to produce privileged documents or any electronic records in violation of applicable Federal law or security protocols.

(c) Obligation to update responses. A party who has responded to a discovery request is not required to supplement the response, unless:

(1) The responding party learns that in some material respect the information disclosed is incomplete or incorrect, and

(2) The additional or corrective information has not otherwise been made known to the other parties during the discovery process or in writing.

(d) Motions to strike or limit discovery requests. (1) Any party served with a document discovery request may object within 30 days of service of the request by filing a motion to strike or limit the request in accordance with the provisions of § 1209.28 of this part. No other party may file an objection. If an objection is made only to a portion of an item or category in a request, the objection shall specify that portion. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 1209.28 are waived.

(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response in accordance with the provisions of § 1209.28. A reply by the moving party, if any, shall be governed by § 1209.28. No other party may file a response.

(e) Privilege. At the time other documents are produced, all documents withheld on a claim of privilege must be reasonably identified, together with a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege on a privilege log. When similar documents that are protected by the government's deliberative process, investigative or examination privilege, the attorney work-product doctrine, or the attorney-client privilege are voluminous, such documents may be identified on the log by category instead of by individual document. The presiding officer has discretion to permit submission of a privilege log subsequent to the document production(s), which may occur on a rolling basis if agreed to by the parties in the discovery plan, and to determine whether an identification by category is sufficient to provide notice of withheld documents.

(f) Motions to compel production. (1) If a party withholds any document as privileged or fails to comply fully with a document discovery request, the requesting party may, within 10 days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 1209.28 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling the production of any such document.

(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the request may, within five days of service of a motion for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production, file a written response to the motion. No other party may file a response.

(g) Ruling on motions—(1) Appropriate protective orders. After the time for filing a response to a motion to compel pursuant to this section has expired, the presiding officer shall rule promptly on any such motion. The presiding officer may deny, grant in part, or otherwise modify any request for the production of documents, if he determines that a discovery request, or any one or more of its terms, seeks to obtain the production of documents that are privileged or otherwise not within the scope of permissible discovery under § 1209.29(b), and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require.

(2) No stay. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery, or to compel the production of any document, shall not stay or continue the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the presiding officer may not release, or order any party to produce, any document withheld on the basis of privilege, if the withholding party has stated to the presiding officer its intention to file with the Director a timely motion for interlocutory review of the presiding officer's privilege determination or order to produce the documents, until the Director has rendered a decision on the motion for interlocutory review.

(3) Interlocutory review by the Director. Interlocutory review of a privilege determination or document discovery subpoena of the presiding officer shall be in accordance with § 1209.33. To the extent necessary to rule promptly on such matters, the Director may request that the presiding officer provide additional information from the record. As provided by § 1209.33 of this part, a pending interlocutory review of a privilege determination or document discovery subpoena shall not stay the proceedings, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer or the Director.

(h) Enforcement of document discovery subpoenas—(1) Authority. If the presiding officer or Director issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party in a proceeding under this part, in the event of noncompliance with the subpoena and to the extent authorized by section 1379D(c)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4641(c)(1)), the Director or the subpoenaing party may apply to the appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena.

(2) United States district court jurisdiction. As provided by section 1379D(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4641(c)(2)), the appropriate United States district court has the jurisdiction and power to order and to require compliance with any discovery subpoena issued under this part.

(3) No stay; sanctions. The judicial enforcement of a discovery subpoena shall not operate as a stay of the proceedings, unless the presiding officer or the Director orders a stay of such duration as the presiding officer or Director may find reasonable and in the best interest of the parties or as justice may require. A party's right to seek judicial enforcement of a subpoena shall not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer or Director against a party who fails to produce or induces another to fail to produce subpoenaed documents.

§ 1209.31 Document discovery subpoenas to non-parties.

(a) General rules—(1) Application for subpoena. As provided under this part, any party may apply to the presiding officer for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain the proposed document subpoena, and a brief statement of facts demonstrating that the documents are materially relevant to the charges and issues presented in the proceeding and the reasonableness of the scope of the document request. The subpoenaing party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for production in response to the subpoena, and state its unequivocal intention to pay for the production of the documents as provided in this part.

(2) Service of subpoena. A party shall apply for a document subpoena under this section only within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 1209.30 of this part. The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all other parties. Document subpoenas may be served in the District of Columbia, or any State, Territory, possession, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, or as otherwise provided by law.

(3) Presiding officer's discretion. The presiding officer shall issue promptly any document subpoena applied for under this section subject to the application conditions set forth in this section and his or her discretion. If the presiding officer determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the requested document subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or otherwise objectionable under § 1209.29(b), he may refuse to issue the requested document subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such additional conditions as may be determined by the presiding officer.

(b) Motion to quash or modify—(1) Limited appearance. Any non-party to a pending proceeding to whom a document subpoena is directed may enter a limited appearance, through a representative or on his or her own behalf, before the presiding officer to file with the presiding officer a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena.

(2) Objections. Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of any privileges, upon which a party could object to a discovery document request under § 1209.30 and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.

(3) Responses and replies. The party who obtained the subpoena may respond to such motion within 10 days of service of the motion; the response shall be served on the non-party in accordance with this part. Absent express leave of the presiding officer, no other party may respond to the non-party's motion. The non-party may file a reply within five days of service of a response.

(4) No stay. A non-party's right to seek to quash or modify a document subpoena shall not stay the proceeding, or limit in any manner the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer against a party who induces another to fail to produce any such subpoenaed documents. No party may rely upon the pendency of a non-party's motion to quash or modify a document subpoena to excuse performance of any action required of that party under this part.

(c) Enforcing document subpoenas to non-parties—(1) Application for enforcement of subpoena. If a non-party fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or with any order of the presiding officer that directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena issued pursuant to this section, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party to the proceeding may, to the extent authorized by section 1379D(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4641(c)), apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena.

(2) No stay. A party's right to seek district court enforcement of a non-party document production subpoena under this section shall not automatically stay an enforcement proceeding under of the Safety and Soundness Act.

(3) Sanctions. A party's right to seek district court enforcement of a non-party document subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer on a party who induces another to fail to comply with any subpoena issued under this section.

§ 1209.32 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.

(a) General rules. (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness's testimony for the record may apply to the presiding officer in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the issuance of a subpoena or subpoena duces tecum requiring attendance of the witness at a deposition for the purpose of preserving that witness's testimony. The presiding officer may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon a showing that:

(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the testimonial phase of the hearing because of age, sickness, or infirmity, or will be otherwise unavailable;

(ii) The subpoenaing party did not cause or contribute to the unavailability of the witness for the hearing;

(iii) The witness has personal knowledge and the testimony is reasonably expected to be materially relevant to claims, defenses, or matters determined to be at issue in the proceeding; and

(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.

(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed anywhere within the United States, or its Territories and possessions, in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the presiding officer shall fix.

(3) Subpoenas must be issued promptly upon request, unless the presiding officer determines that the request fails to set forth a valid basis under this section for its issuance. Before making a determination that there is no valid basis for issuing the subpoena, the presiding officer shall require a written response from the party requesting the subpoena or require attendance at a conference to determine whether there is a valid basis upon which to issue the requested subpoena.

(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the presiding officer orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than 10 days' notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served anywhere within the United States or its Territories and possessions, or on any person doing business anywhere within the United States or its Territories and possessions, or as otherwise permitted by law.

(b) Objections to deposition subpoenas. (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the presiding officer under § 1209.28 of this part to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than 10 days after service of the subpoena.

(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.

(c) Procedure upon deposition. (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for objection might have been avoided if the objection had been presented timely. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded and transcribed. Videotaped depositions must be transcribed for the record; copies and transcriptions must be supplied to each party.

(2) Any party may move before the presiding officer for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence that, during the deposition, the witness has refused to submit.

(3) The deposition transcript must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.

(d) Enforcing subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or with any order of the presiding officer made upon motion under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by section 1379D(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4641(c)), apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the presiding officer has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer on a party who fails to comply with or induces a failure to comply with a subpoena issued under this section.

§ 1209.33 Interlocutory review.

(a) General rule. The Director may review a ruling of the presiding officer prior to the certification of the record to the Director only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section.

(b) Scope of review. The Director may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the presiding officer if the Director finds that:

(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;

(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;

(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or

(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.

(c) Procedure. Any motion for interlocutory review shall be filed by a party with the presiding officer within 10 days of his or her ruling. Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the presiding officer shall refer the matter to the Director for final disposition. In referring the matter to the Director, the presiding officer may indicate agreement or disagreement with the asserted grounds for interlocutory review of the ruling in question.

(d) Suspension of proceeding. Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Director under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer or the Director.

§ 1209.34 Summary disposition.

(a) In general. The presiding officer shall recommend that the Director issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:

(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and

(2) The movant is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.

(b) Filing of motions and responses. (1) Any party who believes there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that such party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 30 days after service of such motion or within such time period as allowed by the presiding officer, may file a response to such motion.

(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of material facts as to which the movant contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits, and any other evidentiary materials that the movant contends support its position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the movant. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which the party contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.

(c) Hearing on motion. At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the presiding officer may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.

(d) Decision on motion. Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the presiding officer shall determine whether the movant is entitled to summary disposition. If the presiding officer determines that summary disposition is warranted, the presiding officer shall submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Director, under § 1209.53. If the presiding officer finds that the moving party is not entitled to summary disposition, the presiding officer shall make a ruling denying the motion.

§ 1209.35 Partial summary disposition.

If the presiding officer determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, he shall defer submitting a recommended decision to the Director as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the presiding officer has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.

§ 1209.36 Scheduling and pre-hearing conferences.

(a) Scheduling conference. After service of a notice of charges commencing a proceeding under this part, the presiding officer shall order the representative(s) of record for each party, and any party not so represented who is appearing pro se, to meet in person or to confer by telephone at a specified time within 30 days of service of such notice for the purpose of setting the time and place of the testimonial hearing on the record to be held within the District of Columbia and scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding (the “scheduling conference”). The identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any pre-hearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits, and any other materials also may be determined at the scheduling conference.

(b) Pre-hearing conferences. The presiding officer may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct representatives for the parties to meet with (in person or by telephone) at a pre-hearing conference to address any or all of the following:

(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;

(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;

(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;

(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;

(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;

(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;

(7) Amendments to pleadings; and

(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.

(c) Transcript. The presiding officer, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling or pre-hearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. Any transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, become part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of a transcript at such party's expense.

(d) Scheduling or pre-hearing orders. Within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any pre-hearing conference, the presiding officer shall serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.

§ 1209.37 Pre-hearing submissions.

(a) General. Within the time set by the presiding officer, but in no case later than 10 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party the serving party's:

(1) Pre-hearing statement;

(2) Final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including name and address of each witness, and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;

(3) List of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and

(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.

(b) Effect of failure to comply. No witness may testify and no exhibit may be introduced at the hearing that is not listed in the pre-hearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.

§ 1209.38 Hearing subpoenas.

(a) Issuance. (1) Upon application of a party to the presiding officer showing relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the presiding officer may issue a subpoena or a subpoena duces tecum requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at such hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any place within the United States or its territories and possessions, or as otherwise provided by law, at the designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application shall serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.

(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of or during a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the presiding officer.

(3) The presiding officer shall promptly issue any hearing subpoena applied for under this section; except that, if the presiding officer determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue the subpoena in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with subpart C of this part. Upon issuance by the presiding officer, the party making the application shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.

(b) Motion to quash or modify. (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within 10 days of service of the motion.

(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance, but no more than 10 days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.

(c) Enforcing subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the presiding officer that directs compliance with all or any portion of a hearing subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 1209.31. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a hearing subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.

§§ 1209.39-1209.49 [Reserved]
§ 1209.50 Conduct of hearings.

(a) General rules. (1) Conduct. Hearings shall be conducted in accordance with chapter 5 of title 5 and other applicable law and so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Except as limited by this subpart, each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.

(2) Order of hearing. FHFA counsel of record shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. FHFA counsel of record shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to the order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the presiding officer shall fix the order.

(3) Examination of witnesses. Only one representative for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the presiding officer may permit more than one representative for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one representative conduct the direct examination and another representative conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one representative conduct the cross examination of a witness and another representative conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.

(4) Stipulations. Unless the presiding officer directs otherwise, all documents that the parties have stipulated as admissible shall be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.

(b) Transcript. The hearing shall be recorded and transcribed. The transcript shall be made available to any party upon payment of the cost thereof. The presiding officer shall have authority to order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the presiding officer's own motion.

§ 1209.51 Evidence.

(a) Admissibility. (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 552 et seq.) and other applicable law.

(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to subpart C of this part.

(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to subpart C of this part if such evidence is relevant, material, probative and reliable, and not unduly repetitive.

(b) Official notice. (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact that may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and of any materially relevant information in the official public records of any Federal or State government agency.

(2) All matters officially noticed by the presiding officer or the Director shall appear on the record.

(3) If official notice is requested of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to object.

(c) Documents. (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.

(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, oversight activity, inspection, or visitation prepared by FHFA or by another Federal or State financial institution's regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.

(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the presiding officer's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.

(d) Objections. (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear in the record.

(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning is sustained, the examining representative of record may make a specific proffer on the record of what he or she expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness. The proffer may be by representation of the representative or by direct interrogation of the witness.

(3) The presiding officer shall retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record and transmit such exhibits to the Director.

(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.

(e) Stipulations. The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any document to be admitted into evidence. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing, are binding on the parties with respect to the matters stipulated, and shall be made part of the record.

(f) Depositions of unavailable witnesses. (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing and that witness has testified in a deposition in accordance with § 1209.32, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.

(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the deposition the presiding officer may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.

(3) Only those portions of a deposition or related exhibits received in evidence at the hearing in accordance with this section shall constitute a part of the record.

§ 1209.52 Post-hearing filings.

(a) Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs. (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the presiding officer shall serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed with the presiding officer. Any party may file with the presiding officer proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days after the parties have received notice that the transcript has been filed with the presiding officer, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer.

(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page and line references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.

(3) A party is deemed to have waived any issue not raised in proposed findings or conclusions timely filed by that party.

(b) Reply briefs. Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings and conclusions and proposed order are due. Reply briefs shall be limited strictly to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised by another party in papers filed in the proceeding. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.

(c) Simultaneous filing required. The presiding officer shall not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief supporting proposed findings and conclusions in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.

§ 1209.53 Recommended decision and filing of record.

(a) Filing of recommended decision and record. Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 1209.52(b), the presiding officer shall file with and certify to the Director, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the presiding officer's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact and conclusions of law, and proposed order; all pre-hearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The presiding officer shall serve upon each party the recommended decision, recommended findings and conclusions, and proposed order.

(b) Filing of index. At the same time the presiding officer files with and certifies to the Director, for final determination, the record of the proceeding, the presiding officer shall furnish to the Director a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed with the presiding officer in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.

§ 1209.54 Exceptions to recommended decision.

(a) Filing exceptions. Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, recommended findings and conclusions, and proposed order under § 1209.53, a party may file with the Director written exceptions to the presiding officer's recommended decision, recommended findings and conclusions, and proposed order; to the admission or exclusion of evidence; or to the failure of the presiding officer to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.

(b) Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions. (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.

(2) No exception need be considered by the Director if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the presiding officer and failed to do so.

(c) Contents. (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in or omissions from the presiding officer's recommendations to which that party takes exception.

(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the presiding officer's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception. Exceptions and briefs in support shall not exceed a total of 30 pages, except by leave of the Director on motion.

(3) One reply brief may be submitted by each party opposing the exceptions within 10 days of service of exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions. Reply briefs shall not exceed 15 pages, except by leave of the Director on motion.

§ 1209.55 Review by Director.

(a) Notice of submission to the Director. When the Director determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Director shall serve notice upon the parties that the case has been submitted to the Director for final decision.

(b) Oral argument before the Director. Upon the initiative of the Director or on the written request of any party filed with the Director within the time for filing exceptions, the Director may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision and order of the presiding officer. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Director's final decision. Oral argument before the Director must be transcribed.

(c) Director's final decision and order. (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Director in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Director will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Director may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.

(2) The Director shall render a final decision and issue an appropriate order within 90 days after notification to the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, unless the Director orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the presiding officer for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision including findings of fact and an appropriate order of the Director shall be served upon each party to the proceeding and as otherwise required by statute.

(3) The Director may modify, terminate, or set aside an order in accordance with section 1373(b)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633(b)(2)).

§ 1209.56 Exhaustion of administrative remedies.

To exhaust administrative remedies as to any issue on which a party disagrees with the presiding officer's recommendations, a party must file exceptions with the Director under § 1209.54 of this part. A party must exhaust administrative remedies as a precondition to seeking judicial review of any final decision and order issued under this part.

§ 1209.57 Judicial review; no automatic stay.

(a) Judicial review. Judicial review of any final order of the Director shall be exclusively as provided by section 1374 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4634).

(b) No automatic stay. Commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Director may not, unless specifically ordered by the Director or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Director. The Director may, in his or her discretion and on such terms as he finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order of the Director pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.

§§ 1209.58-1209.69 [Reserved]
Subpart D Parties and Representational Practice Before the Federal Housing Finance Agency; Standards of Conduct
§ 1209.70 Scope.

Subpart D of this part contains rules governing practice by parties or their representatives before FHFA. This subpart addresses the imposition of sanctions by the presiding officer or the Director against parties or their representatives in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part. This subpart also covers other disciplinary sanctions—censure, suspension, or disbarment—against individuals who appear before FHFA in a representational capacity either in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part or in any other matters connected with presentations to FHFA relating to a client's or other principal's rights, privileges, or liabilities. This representation includes, but is not limited to, the practice of attorneys and accountants. Employees of FHFA are not subject to disciplinary proceedings under this subpart.

§ 1209.71 Definitions.

Practice before FHFA for the purposes of subpart D of this part, includes, but is not limited to, transacting any business with FHFA as counsel of record, representative, or agent for any other person, unless the Director orders otherwise. Practice before FHFA also includes the preparation of any statement, opinion, or other paper by a counsel, representative or agent that is filed with FHFA in any certification, notification, application, report, or other document, with the consent of such counsel, representative, or agent. Practice before FHFA does not include work prepared for a regulated entity or entity-affiliated party solely at the request of such party for use in the ordinary course of its business.

§ 1209.72 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.

(a) Appearance before FHFA or a presiding officer—(1) By attorneys. A party may be represented by an attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State, commonwealth, possession or territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia, and who is not currently suspended or disbarred from practice before FHFA.

(2) By non-attorneys. An individual may appear on his or her own behalf, pro se. A member of a partnership may represent the partnership and a duly authorized officer, director, employee, or other agent of any corporation or other entity not specifically listed herein may represent such corporation or other entity; provided that such officer, director, employee, or other agent is not currently suspended or disbarred from practice before FHFA. A duly authorized officer or employee of any Government unit, agency, or authority may represent that unit, agency, or authority.

(b) Notice of appearance. Any person appearing in a representative capacity on behalf of a party, including FHFA, shall execute and file a notice of appearance with the presiding officer at or before the time such person submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. Such notice of appearance shall include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the representative thereby agrees and represents that he is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the presiding officer, continue to accept service until a new representative has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a pro se basis. Unless the representative filing the notice is an attorney, the notice of appearance shall also be executed by the person represented or, if the person is not an individual, by the chief executive officer, or duly authorized officer of that person.

§ 1209.73 Conflicts of interest.

(a) Conflict of interest in representation. No representative shall represent another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be limited materially by that representative's responsibilities to a third person or by that representative's own interests. The presiding officer may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.

(b) Certification and waiver. If any person appearing as counsel or other representative represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding, or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, that representative must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 1209.72 of this part as follows:

(1) That the representative has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each affected party and non-party; and

(2) That each affected party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.

§ 1209.74 Sanctions.

(a) General rule. Appropriate sanctions may be imposed during the course of any proceeding when any party or representative of record has acted or failed to act in a manner required by applicable statute, regulation, or order, and that act or failure to act:

(1) Constitutes contemptuous conduct, which includes dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contumacious, unethical, or other improper conduct at any phase of any proceeding, hearing, or appearance before a presiding officer or the Director;

(2) Has caused some other party material and substantive injury, including, but not limited to, incurring expenses including attorney's fees or experiencing prejudicial delay;

(3) Is a clear and unexcused violation of an applicable statute, regulation, or order; or

(4) Has delayed the proceeding unduly.

(b) Sanctions. Sanctions that may be imposed include, but are not limited to, any one or more of the following:

(1) Issuing an order against a party;

(2) Rejecting or striking any testimony or documentary evidence offered, or other papers filed, by the party;

(3) Precluding the party from contesting specific issues or findings;

(4) Precluding the party from offering certain evidence or from challenging or contesting certain evidence offered by another party;

(5) Precluding the party from making a late filing or conditioning a late filing on any terms that may be just; or

(6) Assessing reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by any other party as a result of the improper action or failure to act.

(c) Procedure for imposition of sanctions. (1) The presiding officer, on the motion of any party, or on his or her own motion, and after such notice and responses as may be directed by the presiding officer, may impose any sanction authorized by this section. The presiding officer shall submit to the Director for final ruling any sanction that would result in a final order that terminates the case on the merits or is otherwise dispositive of the case.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no sanction authorized by this section, other than refusing to accept late papers, shall be imposed without prior notice to all parties and an opportunity for any representative or party against whom sanctions may be imposed to be heard. The presiding officer shall determine and direct the appropriate notice and form for such opportunity to be heard. The opportunity to be heard may be limited to an opportunity to respond verbally immediately after the act or inaction in question is noted by the presiding officer.

(3) For purposes of interlocutory review, motions for the imposition of sanctions by any party and the imposition of sanctions shall be treated the same as motions for any other ruling by the presiding officer.

(4) Nothing in this section shall be read to preclude the presiding officer or the Director from taking any other action or imposing any other restriction or sanction authorized by any applicable statute or regulation.

(d) Sanctions for contemptuous conduct. If, during the course of any proceeding, a presiding officer finds any representative or any individual representing themself to have engaged in contemptuous conduct, the presiding officer may summarily suspend that individual from participating in that or any related proceeding or impose any other appropriate sanction.

§ 1209.75 Censure, suspension, disbarment, and reinstatement.

(a) Discretionary censure, suspension, and disbarment. (1) The Director may censure any individual who practices or attempts to practice before FHFA or suspend or revoke the privilege to appear or practice before FHFA of such individual if, after notice of and opportunity for hearing in the matter, that individual is found by the Director—

(i) Not to possess the requisite qualifications or competence to represent others;

(ii) To be seriously lacking in character or integrity or to have engaged in material unethical or improper professional conduct;

(iii) To have caused unfair and material injury or prejudice to another party, such as prejudicial delay or unnecessary expenses including attorney's fees;

(iv) To have engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing violation of the Safety and Soundness Act, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act, or the rules or regulations issued under those statutes, or any other applicable law or regulation;

(v) To have engaged in contemptuous conduct before FHFA;

(vi) With intent to defraud in any manner, to have willfully and knowingly deceived, misled, or threatened any client or prospective client; or

(vii) Within the last 10 years, to have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude, dishonesty, or breach of trust, if the conviction has not been reversed on appeal. A conviction within the meaning of this paragraph shall be deemed to have occurred when the convicting court enters its judgment or order, regardless of whether an appeal is pending or could be taken and includes a judgment or an order on a plea of nolo contendere or on consent, regardless of whether a violation is admitted in the consent.

(2) Suspension or revocation on the grounds set forth in paragraphs (a)(1)(ii) through (vii) of this section shall only be ordered upon a further finding that the individual's conduct or character was sufficiently egregious as to justify suspension or revocation. Suspension or disbarment under this paragraph shall continue until the applicant has been reinstated by the Director for good cause shown or until, in the case of a suspension, the suspension period has expired.

(3) If the final order against the respondent is for censure, the individual may be permitted to practice before FHFA, but such individual's future representations may be subject to conditions designed to promote high standards of conduct. If a written letter of censure is issued, a copy will be maintained in FHFA's files.

(b) Mandatory suspension and disbarment. (1) Any counsel who has been and remains suspended or disbarred by a court of the United States or of any State, commonwealth, possession or territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia; any accountant or other licensed expert whose license to practice has been revoked in any State, commonwealth, possession or territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia; any person who has been and remains suspended or barred from practice by or before the Department of Housing and Urban Development, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Office of Thrift Supervision, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the National Credit Union Administration, the Federal Housing Finance Board, the Farm Credit Administration, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission is also suspended automatically from appearing or practicing before FHFA. A disbarment or suspension within the meaning of this paragraph shall be deemed to have occurred when the disbarring or suspending agency or tribunal enters its judgment or order, regardless of whether an appeal is pending or could be taken and regardless of whether a violation is admitted in the consent.

(2) A suspension or disbarment from practice before FHFA under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall continue until the person suspended or disbarred is reinstated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(c) Notices to be filed. (1) Any individual appearing or practicing before FHFA who is the subject of an order, judgment, decree, or finding of the types set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall file promptly with the Director a copy thereof, together with any related opinion or statement of the agency or tribunal involved.

(2) Any individual appearing or practicing before FHFA who is or within the last 10 years has been convicted of a felony or of a misdemeanor that resulted in a sentence of prison term or in a fine or restitution order totaling more than $5,000 promptly shall file a notice with the Director. The notice shall include a copy of the order imposing the sentence or fine, together with any related opinion or statement of the court involved.

(d) Reinstatement. (1) Unless otherwise ordered by the Director, an application for reinstatement for good cause may be made in writing by a person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (a)(1) of this section at any time more than three years after the effective date of the suspension or disbarment and, thereafter, at any time more than one year after the person's most recent application for reinstatement. An applicant for reinstatement hereunder may, in the Director's sole discretion, be afforded a hearing.

(2) An application for reinstatement for good cause by any person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be filed at any time, but not less than one year after the applicant's most recent application. An applicant for reinstatement for good cause hereunder may, in the Director's sole discretion, be afforded a hearing.

If, however, all the grounds for suspension or disbarment under paragraph (b)(1) of this section have been removed by a reversal of the order of suspension or disbarment or by termination of the underlying suspension or disbarment, any person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may apply immediately for reinstatement and shall be reinstated by FHFA upon written application notifying FHFA that the grounds have been removed.

(e) Conferences. (1) General rule. The FHFA counsel of record may confer with a proposed respondent concerning allegations of misconduct or other grounds for censure, disbarment, or suspension, regardless of whether a proceeding for censure, disbarment or suspension has been commenced. If a conference results in a stipulation in connection with a proceeding in which the individual is the respondent, the stipulation may be entered in the record at the request of either party to the proceeding.

(2) Resignation or voluntary suspension. In order to avoid the institution of or a decision in a disbarment or suspension proceeding, a person who practices before FHFA may consent to censure, suspension, or disbarment from practice. At the discretion of the Director, the individual may be censured, suspended, or disbarred in accordance with the consent offered.

(f) Hearings under this section. Hearings conducted under this section shall be conducted in substantially the same manner as other hearings under this part, except that in proceedings to terminate an existing FHFA suspension or disbarment order, the person seeking the termination of the order shall bear the burden of going forward with an application and with proof and that the Director may, in the Director's sole discretion, direct that any proceeding to terminate an existing suspension or disbarment by FHFA be limited to written submissions. All hearings held under this section shall be closed to the public unless the Director, on the Director's own motion or upon the request of a party, otherwise directs.

§§ 1209.76-1209.79 [Reserved]
Subpart E Civil Money Penalty Inflation Adjustments
§ 1209.80 Inflation adjustments.

The maximum amount of each civil money penalty within FHFA's jurisdiction, as set by the Safety and Soundness Act and thereafter adjusted in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act, is as follows:

Table 1 to § 1209.80

U.S. Code citation | Description | Catch-up adjusted maximum penalty amount

12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(1) | First Tier | $14,575

12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(2) | Second Tier | 72,876

12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(4) | Third Tier (Regulated Entity or Entity-Affiliated party) | 2,915,057

12 U.S.C. 4585(b)(1) | Maximum penalty for failure described in section 1345(a)(1), for each day that the failure occurs | 145,754

12 U.S.C. 4585(b)(2) | Maximum penalty for failure described in section 1345(a)(2), (3), or (4), for each day that the failure occurs | 72,876

[90 FR 59965, Dec. 23, 2025]

§ 1209.81 Applicability.

(a) Applicability to penalties under 12 U.S.C. 4636. The inflation adjustments set out in § 1209.80 for 12 U.S.C. 4636 shall apply to civil money penalties assessed in accordance with the provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4636, and subparts B and C of this part, for violations occurring on or after January 15, 2025.

(b) Applicability to penalties under 12 U.S.C. 4585. The inflation adjustments set out in § 1209.80 for 12 U.S.C. 4585 shall apply to civil money penalties assessed under the provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4585 and subpart C of this part. The inflation adjusted maximum civil money penalty amounts shall apply to violations occurring on or after the effective date of this section.

[90 FR 59965, Dec. 23, 2025]

§§ 1209.82-1209.99 [Reserved]
Subpart F Suspension or Removal of an Entity-Affiliated Party Charged With Felony
§ 1209.100 Scope.

Subpart F of this part applies to informal hearings afforded to any entity-affiliated party who has been suspended, removed, or prohibited from further participation in the business affairs of a regulated entity by a notice or order issued by the Director under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)).

§ 1209.101 Suspension, removal, or prohibition.

(a) Notice of suspension or prohibition. (1) As provided by section 1377(h)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(1)), if an entity-affiliated party is charged in any information, indictment, or complaint, with the commission of or participation in a crime that involves dishonesty or breach of trust that is punishable by imprisonment for more than one year under State or Federal law, the Director may, if continued service or participation by such party may pose a threat to the regulated entity or impair public confidence in the regulated entity, by written notice served upon such party, suspend such party from office or prohibit such party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of any regulated entity.

(2) In accordance with section 1377(h)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(1)), the notice of suspension or prohibition is effective upon service. A copy of such notice will be served on the relevant regulated entity. The notice will state the basis for the suspension and the right of the party to request an informal hearing as provided in § 1209.102. The suspension or prohibition is to remain in effect until the information, indictment, or complaint is finally disposed of, or until terminated by the Director, or otherwise as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Order of removal or prohibition. As provided by section 1377(h)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(2)), at such time as a judgment of conviction is entered (or pretrial diversion or other plea bargain is agreed to) in connection with a crime as referred to above in paragraph (a) (the “conviction”), and the conviction is no longer subject to appellate review, the Director may, if continued service or participation by such party may pose a threat to the regulated entity or impair public confidence in the regulated entity, issue an order removing such party from office or prohibiting such party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity without the prior written consent of the Director. A copy of such order will be served on the relevant regulated entity, at which time the entity-affiliated party shall immediately cease to be a director or officer of the regulated entity. The notice will state the basis for the removal or prohibition and the right of the party to request a hearing as provided in § 1209.102.

(c) Effective period. Unless terminated by the Director, a notice of suspension or order of removal issued under section 1377(h)(1) or (2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(1), (2)) shall remain effective and outstanding until the completion of any informal hearing or appeal provided under section 1377(h)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(4)). The pendency of an informal hearing, if any, does not stay any notice of suspension or prohibition or order of removal or prohibition under subpart F of this part.

(d) Effect of acquittal. As provided by section 1377(h)(2)(B)(ii) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(2)(B)(ii)), a finding of not guilty or other disposition of the charge does not preclude the Director from instituting removal, suspension, or prohibition proceedings under section 1377(a) or (b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a), (b)).

(e) Preservation of authority. Action by the Director under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)), shall not be deemed as a predicate or a bar to any other regulatory, supervisory, or enforcement action under the Safety and Soundness Act.

§ 1209.102 Hearing on removal or suspension.

(a) Hearing requests—(1) Deadline. An entity-affiliated party served with a notice of suspension or prohibition or an order of removal or prohibition, within 30 days of service of such notice or order, may submit to the Director a written request to appear before the Director to show that his or her continued service or participation in the affairs of the regulated entity will not pose a threat to the interests of, or threaten to impair public confidence in, the Enterprises or the Banks. The request must be addressed to the Director and sent to the Federal Housing Finance Agency at 400 Seventh Street, SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219, by:

(i) Overnight U.S. Postal Service delivery or delivery by a reliable commercial delivery service for same day or overnight delivery to the address stated above; or

(ii) First class, registered, or certified mail via the U.S. Postal Service.

(2) Waiver of appearance. An entity-affiliated party may elect in writing to waive his or her right to appear to make a statement in person or through counsel and have the matter determined solely on the basis of his or her written submission.

(b) Form and timing of hearing. (1) Informal hearing. Hearings under subpart F of this part are not subject to the formal adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554 through 557), and are not conducted under subpart C of this part.

(2) Setting of the hearing. Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing, the Director will give written notice and set a date within 30 days for the entity-affiliated party to appear, personally, or through counsel, before the Director or his or her designee(s) to submit written materials (or, at the discretion of the Director, oral testimony and oral argument) to make the necessary showing under paragraph (a) of this section. The entity-affiliated party may submit a written request for additional time for the hearing to commence, without undue delay, and the Director may extend the hearing date for a specified time.

(3) Oral testimony. The Director or his or her designee, in his or her discretion, may deny, permit, or limit oral testimony in the hearing.

(c) Conduct of the hearing—(1) Hearing officer. A hearing under this section may be presided over by the Director or one or more designated FHFA employees, except that an officer designated by the Director (hearing officer) to conduct the hearing may not have been involved in an underlying criminal proceeding, a factually related proceeding, or an enforcement proceeding in a prosecutorial or investigative role. This provision does not preclude the Director otherwise from seeking information on the matters at issue from appropriate FHFA staff on an as needed basis consistent with § 1209.101(d)(2).

(2) Submissions. All submissions of the requestor and FHFA's counsel of record must be received by the Director or his or her designee no later than 10 days prior to the date set for the hearing. FHFA may respond in writing to the requestor's submission and serve the requestor (and any other interested party such as the regulated entity) not later than the date fixed by the hearing officer for submissions or other time period as the hearing officer may require.

(3) Procedures. (i) Fact finding authority of the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall determine all procedural matters under subpart F of this part, permit or limit the appearance of witnesses in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and impose time limits as he or she deems reasonable. All oral statements, witness testimony, if permitted, and documents submitted that are found by the hearing officer to be materially relevant to the proceeding and not unduly repetitious may be considered. The hearing officer may question any person appearing in the proceeding, and may make any ruling reasonably necessary to ensure the full and fair presentation of evidence and to facilitate the efficient and effective operation of the proceeding.

(ii) Statements to an officer. Any oral or written statement made to the Director, a hearing officer, or any FHFA employee under subpart F of this part is deemed to be a statement made to a Federal officer or agency within the meaning of 18 U.S.C. 1006.

(iii) Oral testimony. If either the requestor or FHFA counsel of record desires to present oral testimony to supplement the party's written submission he or she must make a request in writing to the hearing officer not later than 10 days prior to the hearing, as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, or within a shorter time period as permitted by the hearing officer for good cause shown. The request should include the name of the individual(s), a statement generally descriptive of the expected testimony, and the reasons why such oral testimony is warranted. The hearing officer generally will not admit witnesses, absent a strong showing of specific and compelling need. Witnesses, if admitted, shall be sworn.

(iv) Written materials. Each party must file a copy of any affidavit, memorandum, or other written material to be presented at the hearing with the hearing officer and serve copies on any other interested party (such as the affected regulated entity) not later than 10 days prior to commencement of the informal hearing, as provided in paragraph (c)(2), or within a shorter time period as permitted by the hearing officer for good cause shown.

(v) Relief. The purpose of the hearing is to determine whether the suspension or prohibition from participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified, or whether the order removing such party from office or prohibiting the party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity will be rescinded or otherwise modified.

(vi) Ultimate question. In deciding on any request for relief from a notice of suspension or prohibition, the hearing officer shall not consider the ultimate question of guilt or innocence with respect to the outstanding criminal charge(s). In deciding on a request for relief from a removal order, the hearing officer shall not consider challenges to or efforts to impeach the validity of the conviction. In either case, the hearing officer may consider facts that show the nature of the events on which the conviction or charges were based.

(4) Record. If warranted under the circumstances of the matter, the hearing officer may require that a transcript of the proceedings be prepared at the expense of the requesting party. The hearing officer may order the record be kept open for a reasonable time following the hearing, not to exceed five business days, to permit the filing of additional pertinent submissions for the record. Thereafter, no further submissions are to be admitted to the record, absent good cause shown.

[76 FR 53607, Aug. 26, 2011,, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]

§ 1209.103 Recommended and final decisions.

(a) Recommended decision—(1) Written recommended decision of the hearing officer. Not later than 20 days following the close of the hearing (or if the requestor waived a hearing, from the deadline for submission of the written materials), the hearing officer will serve a copy of the recommended decision on the parties to the proceeding. The recommended decision must include a summary of the findings, the parties' respective arguments, and support for the determination.

(2) Five-day comment period. Not later than five business days after receipt of the recommended decision, the parties shall submit written comments in response to the recommended decision, if any, to the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall not grant any extension of the stated time for responses to a recommended decision.

(3) Recommended decision to be transmitted to the Director. The hearing officer shall promptly forward the recommended decision, and written comments, if any, and the record to the Director for final determination.

(b) Decision of the Director. Within 60 days of the date of the hearing, or if the requestor waived a hearing the date fixed for the hearing, the Director will notify the entity-affiliated party in writing by registered mail of the disposition of his or her request for relief from the notice of suspension or prohibition or the order of removal or prohibition. The decision will state whether the suspension or prohibition will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified, or whether the order removing such party from any participation in the affairs of the regulated entity will be rescinded or otherwise modified. The decision will contain a brief statement of the basis for an adverse determination. The Director's decision is a final and non-appealable order.

(c) Effect of notice or order. A removal or prohibition by order shall remain in effect until terminated by the Director. A suspension or prohibition by notice remains in effect until the criminal charge is disposed of or until terminated by the Director.

(d) Reconsideration. A suspended or removed entity-affiliated party subsequently may petition the Director to reconsider the final decision any time after the expiration of a 12-month period from the date of the decision, but no such request may be made within 12 months of a previous petition for reconsideration. An entity-affiliated party must submit a petition for reconsideration in writing; the petition shall state the specific grounds for relief from the notice of suspension or order or removal and be supported by a memorandum and any other documentation materially relevant to the request for reconsideration. No hearing will be held on a petition for reconsideration, and the Director will inform the requestor of the disposition of the reconsideration request in a timely manner. A decision on a request for reconsideration shall not constitute an appealable order.

PART 1211 PROCEDURES

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4513(a), 4526.

Source: 79 FR 64665, Oct. 31, 2014, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Definitions
§ 1211.1 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Approval means a written statement issued to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance approving a transaction, activity, or item that requires FHFA approval under a statute, rule, regulation, policy, or order.

Non-Objection Letter means a written statement issued to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance providing that FHFA does not object to a proposed transaction or activity.

Regulatory Interpretation means a written interpretation issued by the FHFA General Counsel with respect to the application of a statute, rule, regulation, or order to a proposed transaction or activity.

Requester means an entity that has submitted an application for a Waiver or Approval or a request for a Non-Objection Letter or Regulatory Interpretation.

Waiver means a written statement issued by the Director to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance that waives a provision, restriction, or requirement of an FHFA rule, regulation, policy, or order, or a required submission of information, not otherwise required by law, in connection with a particular transaction or activity.

Subpart B Waivers, Approvals, Non-Objection Letters, and Regulatory Interpretations
§ 1211.2 Waivers.

(a) Authority. The Director reserves the right, in his or her discretion and in connection with a particular transaction or activity, to waive any provision, restriction, or requirement of this chapter (or of any Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight or Federal Housing Finance Board regulation), or any required submission of information, not otherwise required by law, if such Waiver is not inconsistent with the law and does not adversely affect any substantial existing rights, upon a determination that application of the provision, restriction, or requirement would adversely affect achievement of the purposes of the Authorizing Statutes or the Safety and Soundness Act, or upon a requester's showing of good cause. The Director also reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede any previously issued Waiver, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.

(b) Application. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may apply for a Waiver in accordance with § 1211.6.

§ 1211.3 Approvals.

(a) Authority. The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, or their designees, may grant requests submitted by an Enterprise or by a Bank or the Office of Finance, respectively, seeking approval of any transaction, activity, or item that requires FHFA approval under any applicable statute, rule, regulation, policy, or order. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede an Approval, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.

(b) Requests. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may apply for an Approval in accordance with § 1211.6, unless alternative application procedures are prescribed by the applicable statute, rule, regulation, policy, or order for the transaction, activity, or item at issue.

(c) Reservation. The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, as appropriate, may, in their discretion, prescribe additional or alternative procedures for any application for approval of a transaction, activity, or item.

§ 1211.4 Non-Objection Letters.

(a) Authority. The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, or their designees, may, in their discretion, issue to an Enterprise or to a Bank or the Office of Finance, respectively, a Non-Objection Letter stating that FHFA does not object to a proposed transaction or activity for supervisory, regulatory, or policy reasons. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede a Non-Objection Letter, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.

(b) Requests. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may request a Non-Objection Letter in accordance with § 1211.6.

§ 1211.5 Regulatory Interpretations.

(a) Authority. The General Counsel may, in his or her discretion, issue a Regulatory Interpretation to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, providing guidance with respect to the application of any applicable statute, rule, regulation, or order to a proposed transaction or activity. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede a Regulatory Interpretation, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.

(b) Requests. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may request a Regulatory Interpretation in accordance with § 1211.6.

§ 1211.6 Submission requirements.

Applications for a Waiver or Approval and requests for a Non-Objection Letter or Regulatory Interpretation shall comply with the requirements of this section and shall pertain to regulatory matters relating to the Banks or Enterprises, and not to conservatorship matters.

(a) Filing. Each application or request shall be in writing. A Bank or the Office of Finance shall submit its filing to the Deputy Director for the Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, and an Enterprise shall submit its filing to the Deputy Director for Enterprise Regulation. Applications for regulatory interpretations shall be submitted also to the General Counsel.

(b) Authorization. An application for a Waiver or Approval and a request for a Non-Objection Letter or Regulatory Interpretation shall be signed by the principal executive officer or other authorized executive officer of the regulated entity or by the chairperson of the board of directors or authorized executive officer of the Office of Finance, as appropriate.

(c) Information requirements. Each application or request shall contain:

(1) The name of the requester, and the name, title, business address, telephone number, and business electronic mail address, if any, of the official filing the application or request on its behalf;

(2) The name, business address, telephone number, and business electronic mail address, if any, of a contact person from whom FHFA staff may seek additional information if necessary;

(3) The section numbers of the particular provisions of the applicable statutes or rules, regulations, policies, or orders to which the application or request relates;

(4) Identification of the determination or relief requested, including any alternative relief requested if the primary relief is denied, and a clear statement of why such relief is needed;

(5) A statement of the particular facts and circumstances giving rise to the application or request and identifying all relevant legal and factual issues;

(6) References to all other relevant authorities that the regulated entity or Office of Finance believes should be considered in evaluating the application or request, including the Authorizing Statutes, Safety and Soundness Act, FHFA rules, regulations, policies, orders, judicial decisions, administrative decisions, relevant statutory interpretations, and policy statements;

(7) References to any Waivers, Non-Objection Letters, Approvals, or Regulatory Interpretations issued in the past in response to circumstances similar to those surrounding the request or application;

(8) For any application or request involving interpretation of the Authorizing Statutes, Safety and Soundness Act, or FHFA regulations, a reasoned opinion of counsel supporting the relief or interpretation sought and distinguishing any adverse authority;

(9) Any other non-duplicative, relevant supporting documentation; and

(10) A certification by a person with knowledge of the facts that the representations made in the application or request are accurate and complete. The following form of certification is sufficient for this purpose: “I hereby certify that the statements contained in the submission are true and complete to the best of my knowledge. [Name and Title].”

(d) Exceptions. In any given matter or class of matters, the Director, the Deputy Director for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, the Deputy Director for Enterprise Regulation, or the General Counsel, as appropriate, may accept an application or request that does not comply with the requirements of this section, for supervisory reasons or administrative efficiency.

(e) Withdrawal. Once filed, an application or request may be withdrawn only upon written request, and only if FHFA has not yet acted on the application or request.

PART 1212 POST-EMPLOYMENT RESTRICTION FOR SENIOR EXAMINERS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4526, 12 U.S.C. 4517(e).

Source: 74 FR 51075, Oct. 5, 2009, unless otherwise noted.

A Subpart A [Reserved]
Subpart B Post-Employment Restriction for Senior Examiners
§ 1212.1 Purpose and scope.

This subpart sets forth a one-year post-employment restriction applicable to senior examiners of the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA). This restriction is in addition to the post-employment restriction applicable to employees of FHFA under 12 U.S.C. 4523.

§ 1212.2 Definitions.

For purposes of subpart B of this part, the term:

Consultant means a person who works directly on matters for, or on behalf of, a regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

Director means the Director of FHFA or his or her designee.

Employee means an officer or employee of FHFA, including a special Government employee.

Federal Home Loan Bank or Bank means a Bank established under the Federal Home Loan Bank Act; the term “Federal Home Loan Banks” means, collectively, all the Federal Home Loan Banks.

Office of Finance means the Office of Finance of the Federal Home Loan Bank System, or any successor thereto.

Regulated entity means the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof, any Federal Home Loan Bank; the term “regulated entities” means, collectively, the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof, and the Federal Home Loan Banks.

Safety and Soundness Act means the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended by the Federal Housing Finance Regulatory Reform Act of 2008, Division A of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law No. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654 (2008).

Senior examiner means an employee of FHFA who has been:

(1) Authorized by FHFA to conduct examinations or inspections on behalf of FHFA;

(2) Assigned continuing, broad and lead responsibility for examining a regulated entity or the Office of Finance; and

(3) Assigned responsibilities for examining, inspecting and supervising the regulated entity or the Office of Finance that—

(i) Represents a substantial portion of the employee's assigned responsibilities; and

(ii) Requires the employee to interact routinely with officers or employees of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

§ 1212.3 Post-employment restriction for senior examiners.

(a) Prohibition. An employee of FHFA who serves as the senior examiner of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance for two or more months during the last 12 months of his or her employment with FHFA may not, within one year after leaving the employment of FHFA, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director, or consultant from a regulated entity or the Office of Finance unless the Director grants a waiver pursuant to § 1212.4.

(b) Effective date. The post-employment restriction in paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to any officer or employee of FHFA or any former officer or employee of FHFA who ceased to be an officer or employee of FHFA before November 4, 2009.

§ 1212.4 Waiver.

At the written request of a senior examiner or former senior examiner, the Director may waive the post-employment restriction in § 1212.3 if he or she certifies, in writing, and on a case-by-case basis, that granting a waiver of such restriction does not affect the integrity of the supervisory program of FHFA.

§ 1212.5 Penalties.

(a) General. A senior examiner who, after leaving the employment of FHFA, violates the restriction set forth in § 1212.3 shall be subject to one or both of the following penalties—

(1) An order:

(i) Removing the individual from office at the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or prohibiting the individual from further participation in the affairs of the relevant regulated entity or the Office of Finance for a period of up to five years; and

(ii) Prohibiting the individual from participating in the affairs of any regulated entity or the Office of Finance for a period of up to five years; and/or

(2) A civil money penalty of not more than $250,000.

(b) Other penalties. The penalties set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are not exclusive, and a senior examiner who violates the restrictions in § 1212.3 also may be subject to other administrative, civil, or criminal remedies or penalties as provided in law.

(c) Procedural rights. The procedures applicable to actions under paragraph (a) of this section are those provided in the Safety and Soundness Act under section 1376, in connection with the imposition of a civil money penalty; under section 1377, in connection with a removal and prohibition order (12 U.S.C. 4636 and 4636a, respectively); and under any regulations issued by FHFA implementing such procedures.

PART 1213 OFFICE OF THE OMBUDSMAN

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511(b)(2), 4517(i), and 4526.

Source: 76 FR 7481, Feb 10, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1213.1 Purpose and scope.

(a) Purpose. The purpose of this part is to establish within FHFA the Office of the Ombudsman (Office) under section 1317(i) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4517(i)), as amended, and to set forth the authorities and duties of the Ombudsman.

(b) Scope. (1) This part applies to complaints and appeals from any regulated entity and any person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of such regulated entity or the Office of Finance by FHFA.

(2) The establishment of the Office does not alter or limit any other right or procedure associated with appeals, complaints, or administrative matters submitted by a person regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance under any other law or regulation.

§ 1213.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the term:

Business relationship means any existing or potential interaction between a person and a regulated entity or the Office of Finance for the provision of goods or services. The term business relationship does not include any interaction between a mortgagor and a regulated entity that directly or indirectly owns, purchased, guarantees, or sold the mortgage.

Director means the Director of FHFA or his or her designee.

FHFA means the Federal Housing Finance Agency.

Office of Finance means the Office of Finance of the Federal Home Loan Bank System.

Person means an organization, business entity, or individual that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, or that represents the interests of a person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the Office of Finance. The term person does not include an individual borrower.

Regulated entity means the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate, and any Federal Home Loan Bank.

§ 1213.3 Authorities and duties of the Ombudsman.

(a) General. The Office shall be headed by an Ombudsman, who shall consider complaints and appeals from any regulated entity, the Office of Finance, and any person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the Office of Finance regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of such regulated entity or the Office of Finance by FHFA. In considering any complaint or appeal under this part, the Ombudsman shall:

(1) Conduct inquiries and submit findings of fact and recommendations to the Director concerning resolution of the complaint or appeal, and

(2) Act as a facilitator or mediator to advance the resolution of the complaint or appeal.

(b) Other duties. The Ombudsman shall:

(1) Establish procedures for carrying out the functions of the Office,

(2) Establish and publish procedures for receiving and considering complaints and appeals, and

(3) Report annually to the Director on the activities of the Office, or more frequently, as determined by the Director.

§ 1213.4 Complaints and appeals from a regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

(a) Complaints. (1) General. Any regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit a complaint in accordance with procedures established by the Ombudsman.

(2) Matters subject to complaint. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit a complaint regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance by FHFA that is not subject to appeal or in litigation, arbitration, or mediation. The Ombudsman may further define what matters are subject to complaint.

(b) Appeals. (1) General. Any regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit an appeal in accordance with procedures established by the Ombudsman.

(2) Matters subject to appeal. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit an appeal regarding any final, written regulatory or supervisory conclusion, decision, or examination rating by FHFA. The Ombudsman may further define what matters are subject to appeal.

(3) Matters not subject to appeal. Matters for which there is an existing avenue of appeal or for which there is another forum for appeal; non-final decisions or conclusions; and matters in ongoing litigation, arbitration, or mediation, unless there has been a breakdown in the process, may not be appealed. Matters not subject to appeal include, but are not limited to, appointments of conservators or receivers, preliminary examination conclusions, formal enforcement decisions, formal and informal rulemakings, Freedom of Information Act appeals, final FHFA decisions subject to judicial review, and matters within the jurisdiction of the FHFA Inspector General. The Ombudsman may further define what matters are not subject to appeal.

(4) Effect of filing an appeal. An appeal under this section does not excuse a regulated entity or the Office of Finance from complying with any regulatory or supervisory decision while the appeal is pending. However, the Director, upon consideration of a written request, may waive compliance with a regulatory or supervisory decision during the pendency of the appeal.

§ 1213.5 Complaints from a person.

(a) General. Any person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit a complaint in accordance with procedures established by the Ombudsman.

(b) Matters subject to complaint. A person may submit a complaint regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance by FHFA that is not a matter in litigation, arbitration, or mediation. The Ombudsman may further define what matters are subject to complaints.

§ 1213.6 No retaliation.

Neither FHFA nor any FHFA employee may retaliate against a regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or a person for submitting a complaint or appeal under this part. The Ombudsman shall receive and address claims of retaliation. Upon receiving a complaint, the Ombudsman, in coordination with the Inspector General, shall examine the basis of the alleged retaliation. Upon completion of the examination, the Ombudsman shall report the findings to the Director with recommendations, including a recommendation to take disciplinary action against any FHFA employee found to have retaliated.

§ 1213.7 Confidentiality.

The Ombudsman shall ensure that safeguards exist to preserve confidentiality. If a party requests that information and materials remain confidential, the Ombudsman shall not disclose the information or materials, without approval of the party, except to appropriate reviewing or investigating officials, such as the Inspector General, or as required by law. However, the resolution of certain complaints (such as complaints of retaliation against a regulated entity or the Office of Finance) may not be possible if the identity of the party remains confidential. In such cases, the Ombudsman shall discuss with the party the circumstances limiting confidentiality.

PART 1214 AVAILABILITY OF NON-PUBLIC INFORMATION

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 301, 552; 12 U.S.C. 4501, 4513, 4522, 4526, 4639.

Source: 78 FR 39958, July 3, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1214.1 Definitions.

Confidential supervisory information means information prepared or received by FHFA that meets all of the following criteria:

(1) The information is not a document prepared by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance for its own business purposes that is in its possession;

(2) The information is exempt from the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 (1966); and

(3) The information—(i) Consists of reports of examination, inspection and visitation, confidential operating and condition reports, and any information derived from, related to, or contained in such reports, or

(ii) Is gathered by FHFA in the course of any investigation, suspicious activity report, cease-and-desist order, civil money penalty enforcement order, suspension, removal or prohibition order, or other supervisory or enforcement orders or actions taken under the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, Public Law 102-550, 122 Stat. 2654.

Disclosure means release or divulgence of information by any person to a person outside of FHFA.

FHFA employee means strictly for the purpose of this regulation, any person employed by FHFA, including any current or former officer, intern, agent, contractor or contractor personnel, or detailee of FHFA, and any person employed by the FHFA Office of the Inspector General (FHFA-OIG), including any current or former officer, intern, agent, contractor or contractor personnel, or detailee of FHFA-OIG.

Non-public information means information that FHFA has not made public that is created by, obtained by, or communicated to an FHFA employee in connection with the performance of official duties, regardless of who is in possession of the information. This includes confidential supervisory information as defined above. It does not include information or documents that FHFA has disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552; 12 CFR part 1202), or Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a; 12 CFR part 1204). It also does not include specific information or documents that were previously disclosed to the public at large or information or documents that are customarily furnished to the public at large in the course of the performance of official FHFA duties, including but not limited to: Disclosures made by the Director pursuant to 24 CFR subpart F, and any FHFA successor rules; the annual report that FHFA submits to Congress pursuant to the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq.), press releases, FHFA blank forms, and materials published in the Federal Register.

Person means individual or business entity.

§ 1214.2 Purpose and scope.

(a) Purpose. The purpose of this part is to control the dissemination of non-public information, which includes confidential supervisory information, and maintain its controlled, sensitive, privileged, or proprietary nature, as appropriate.

(b) Scope. This part imposes a broad-based prohibition against unauthorized disclosure of any non-public information. This part does not supersede the regulations at 12 CFR part 1202 (governing disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act); 12 CFR part 1204 (governing disclosure under the Privacy Act); and the sections describing permitted disclosures in any FHFA rules on Federal Home Loan Bank Information Sharing or on the FHFA Public Use Database.

(c) These provisions also do not supersede or otherwise alter the rights or liabilities created by 5 U.S.C. 7211 (governing disclosures to Congress); 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(8) (governing disclosures of illegality, waste, fraud, abuse, or public health or safety threats); or 12 U.S.C. 3401 (governing disclosure of financial institution customer information).

§ 1214.3 General rule.

(a) In general, Non-FHFA Employees. The Director makes available to each regulated entity a copy of FHFA's report of examination of that regulated entity. The report of examination and all other confidential supervisory information is the property of FHFA and is provided to the regulated entity for its confidential internal use only. Under no circumstance shall any person in possession or control of confidential supervisory information make public or disclose, in any manner, the confidential supervisory information, or any portion of the contents thereof, except as authorized in writing by the Director.

(b) In general, FHFA Employees. Except as authorized in writing by the Director, no FHFA employee in possession or control of non-public information may disclose or permit the use or disclosure of such information in any manner or for any purpose.

(c) Persons possessing confidential supervisory information. All confidential supervisory information, for which the Director authorizes disclosure, remains the property of FHFA and may not be used or disclosed for any purpose other than that authorized under this part without the prior written permission of the Director.

(d) No Waiver. FHFA's disclosure of non-public information to any person does not constitute a waiver by FHFA of any privilege or FHFA's right to control, supervise, or impose limitations on, the subsequent use and disclosure of the non-public information.

(e) Penalties, Confidential Supervisory Information. Any person that discloses or uses confidential supervisory information except as authorized under this part may be subject to the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641 and other applicable laws. In addition to those penalties, FHFA, regulated entity, Office of Finance, affiliate (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4502(20)), or entity-affiliated party (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4502(11)) employees may be subject to appropriate administrative, enforcement, or disciplinary proceedings.

(f) Penalties, Non-Public Information. Any FHFA employee that discloses or uses non-public information except as authorized under this part may be subject to the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641, other applicable laws, and appropriate administrative, enforcement, or disciplinary proceedings.

§ 1214.4 Exceptions.

(a) FHFA Employees. Current FHFA employees may disclose or permit the disclosure of non-public information to another FHFA employee or regulated entity or the Office of Finance, when necessary and appropriate, for the performance of their official duties.

(b) Regulated Entity Agents and Consultants. (1) When necessary and appropriate for regulated entity or Office of Finance business purposes, a regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or any director, officer, or employee thereof may disclose confidential supervisory information to any person currently engaged by the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, as officer, director, employee, attorney, auditor, or independent auditor (“regulated entity agents”).

(2) A regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or a director, officer, employee, or agent thereof, also may disclose confidential supervisory information to a consultant under this paragraph if the consultant is under a written contract to provide services to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance and the consultant has agreed in writing:

(i) To abide by the prohibition on the disclosure of confidential supervisory information contained in this section; and

(ii) That it will not use the confidential supervisory information for any purposes other than those stated in its contract to provide services to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

(c) Law Enforcement Proceedings. Notwithstanding the general prohibition of disclosure of non-public information, to the minimum extent required by the Inspector General Act, Public Law 95-452, 92 Stat. 1101 (1978), FHFA's Office of Inspector General is permitted under this section to disclose non-public FHFA information without Director approval.

(d) Privilege. FHFA retains all privilege claims for non-public information shared under § 1214.4, including, but not limited to attorney-client, attorney-work product, deliberative process, and examination privileges.

PART 1215 PRODUCTION OF FHFA RECORDS, INFORMATION, AND EMPLOYEE TESTIMONY IN THIRD-PARTY LEGAL PROCEEDINGS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 301; 12 U.S.C. 4526.

Source: 78 FR 39961, July 3, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1215.1 Scope and purpose.

(a) This regulation sets forth the policies and procedures that must be followed in order to compel an employee of the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) to produce records or information, or to provide testimony relating to the employee's official duties, in the context of a legal proceeding. Parties seeking records, information, or testimony must comply with these requirements when submitting demands or requests:

(b) FHFA intends these provisions to:

(1) Promote economy and efficiency in its programs and operations;

(2) Minimize the possibility of involving FHFA in controversial issues not related to its mission and functions;

(3) Maintain FHFA's impartiality;

(4) Protect employees from being compelled to serve as involuntary witnesses for wholly private interests, or as inappropriate expert witnesses regarding current law or the activities of FHFA; and

(5) Protect sensitive, confidential information and FHFA's deliberative processes.

(c) By providing these policies and procedures, FHFA does not waive the sovereign immunity of the United States.

(d) This part provides guidance for FHFA's internal operations. This part does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, that a party may rely upon in any legal proceeding against the United States.

(e) The production of records, information, or testimony pursuant to this part, does not constitute a waiver by FHFA of any privilege.

§ 1215.2 Applicability.

(a) This regulation applies to demands or requests for records, information, or testimony, in legal proceedings in which FHFA is not a named party.

(b) This regulation does not apply to:

(1) Demands or requests for an FHFA employee to testify as to facts or events that are unrelated to his or her official duties or that are unrelated to the functions of FHFA;

(2) Requests for the release of non-exempt records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a; or

(3) Congressional demands or requests for records or testimony.

§ 1215.3 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Confidential supervisory information means information prepared or received by FHFA that meets all of the following criteria:

(1) The information is not a document prepared by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance for its own business purposes that is in its possession;

(2) The information is exempt from the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 (1966); and

(3) The information:

(i) Consists of reports of examination, inspection and visitation, confidential operating and condition reports, and any information derived from, related to, or contained in such reports, or

(ii) Is gathered by FHFA in the course of any investigation, suspicious activity report, cease-and-desist order, civil money penalty enforcement order, suspension, removal or prohibition order, or other supervisory or enforcement orders or actions taken under the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq.

(4) The inclusion of the term “confidential” within the definition of “confidential supervisory information” is not intended to invoke the meaning of “confidential,” as that term is used in Executive Order No. 13526, December 29, 2009 (75 FR 707 (Jan. 5, 2010) (President's order on the classification of National Security Information). Confidential supervisory information is used in part 1215 to refer to the distinct category of information defined in § 1215.3. FHFA used the word “confidential” within the label for this category of information simply to be consistent with the manner in which federal banking agencies refer to similar or identical types of information.

Demand means a subpoena, or an order or other command of a court or other competent authority, for the production of records, information, or testimony that is issued in a legal proceeding.

Employee means:

(1) Any current or former officer or employee of FHFA or of FHFA-OIG;

(2) Any other individual hired through contractual agreement by or on behalf of FHFA who has performed or is performing services under such an agreement for FHFA; and

(3) Any individual who has served or is serving in any consulting or advisory capacity to FHFA, whether formal or informal.

Federal Home Loan Bank means a bank established under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 1423(a).

FHFA means the Federal Housing Finance Agency including the FHFA-OIG.

FHFA Counsel means an attorney in FHFA's Office of General Counsel.

General Counsel means FHFA's General Counsel or a person within FHFA's Office of General Counsel to whom the General Counsel has delegated responsibilities under this part.

Legal proceeding means any matter before a court of law, administrative board or tribunal, commission, administrative law judge, hearing officer, or other body that conducts a legal or administrative proceeding. Legal proceeding includes all phases of litigation.

Produce means provide, disclose, expose, or grant access to.

Records or information means, regardless of the person or entity in possession:

(1) All documents and materials that are FHFA agency records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552;

(2) All other documents and materials contained in FHFA files; and

(3) All other information or materials acquired by an FHFA employee in the performance of his or her official duties or because of his or her official status, including confidential supervisory information.

Regulated entity has the same meaning as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 4502(20). For this regulation's purposes, “regulated entity” also includes:

(1) The Office of Finance; and

(2) Any current or former director, officer, employee, contractor or agent of a regulated entity.

Request means any informal request, by whatever method, in connection with a legal proceeding, seeking production of records, information, or testimony that has not been ordered by a court or other competent authority.

Testimony means any written or oral statements, including depositions, answers to interrogatories, affidavits, declarations, and recorded interviews made by an individual about FHFA information in connection with a legal proceeding.

§ 1215.4 General prohibition.

(a) No employee may produce records or information, or provide any testimony related to the records or information, in response to any demand or request without prior written approval to do so from the Director or the Director's designee.

(b) Any person or entity that fails to comply with this part may be subject to the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641 and other applicable laws. A current employee also may be subject to administrative or disciplinary proceedings.

§ 1215.5 Delegation.

To the extent permissible by statute, the Director may delegate his or her authority under this part to any FHFA employee and the General Counsel may delegate his or her authority under this part to any FHFA Counsel.

§ 1215.6 Factors FHFA may consider.

The Director may grant an employee permission to testify regarding agency matters, and to produce records and information, in response to a demand or request. Among the relevant factors that the Director may consider in making this determination are whether:

(a) This part's purposes are met;

(b) FHFA has an interest in the decision that may be rendered in the legal proceeding;

(c) Approving the demand or request would assist or hinder FHFA in performing statutory duties or use FHFA resources;

(d) Production might assist or hinder employees in doing their work;

(e) The records, information, or testimony can be obtained from other sources. (Concerning testimony, “other sources” means a non-agency employee, or an agency employee other than the employee named).

(f) The demand or request is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the rules of discovery or procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand or request arose;

(g) Production of the records, information, or testimony might violate or be inconsistent with a statute, Executive Order, regulation, or other legal authority;

(h) Production of the records, information, or testimony might reveal confidential or privileged information, trade secrets, or confidential commercial or financial information;

(i) Production of the records, information, or testimony might impede or interfere with an ongoing law enforcement investigation or proceedings, or compromise constitutional rights;

(j) Production of the records, information, or testimony might result in FHFA appearing to favor one litigant over another;

(k) The demand or request pertains to documents that were produced by another agency;

(l) The demand or request complies with all other applicable rules;

(m) The demand or request is sufficiently specific to be answered;

(n) The relevance of the records, information, or testimony to the purposes for which they are sought, and for which they may be used for substantive evidence;

(o) Production of the records, information, or employee testimony may implicate a substantial government interest; and

(p) Any other good cause.

§ 1215.7 Serving demands and submitting requests.

(a) All demands and requests must be in writing.

(b) Demands must be served and requests must be submitted to the FHFA General Counsel at the following address: General Counsel, Federal Housing Finance Agency, Constitution Center, Eighth Floor, 400 Seventh Street SW., Washington, DC 20219.

(c) Demands must not be served upon, nor requests submitted to any regulated entity for records, information, or testimony regardless of whether the records, information, or testimony sought are in the possession of, or known by, the regulated entity. If a regulated entity receives a request or demand for records, information, or testimony, the regulated entity must immediately notify the General Counsel and provide FHFA an opportunity to object to the demand or request before responding to the demand or request. Submitting a demand or request to a regulated entity may result in rejection of the demand or request under § 1215.9.

(d) If an employee receives a request or demand that is not properly routed through FHFA's General Counsel, as required under this section, the employee must promptly notify the General Counsel. An employee's failure to notify the General Counsel is grounds for discipline or other adverse action.

[78 FR 39961, July 3, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]

§ 1215.8 Timing and form of demands and requests.

(a) A party seeking records, information, or testimony must submit a request and receive a rejection before making a demand for records, information, or testimony.

(b) A demand or request to FHFA must include a detailed description of the basis for the demand or request and comply with the requirements in § 1215.7.

(c) Demands and requests must be submitted at least 60 days in advance of the date on which the records, information, or testimony is needed. Exceptions to this requirement may be granted upon a showing of compelling need.

(d) A demand or request for testimony also must include an estimate of the amount of time that the employee will need to devote to the process of testifying (including anticipated travel time and anticipated duration of round trip travel), plus a showing that no document or the testimony of non-agency persons, including retained experts, could suffice in lieu of the employee's testimony.

(e) Upon submitting a demand or request seeking employee testimony, the requesting party must notify all other parties to the legal proceeding.

(f) After receiving notice of a demand or request for testimony, but before the testimony occurs, a party to the legal proceeding who did not join in the demand or request and who wishes to question the witness beyond the scope of the testimony sought must submit a separate demand or request within 60 days of receiving the notice required under paragraph (e) of this section and must then comply with paragraph (c) of this section.

(g) Every demand or request must include the legal proceeding's caption and docket number, the forum; the name, address, phone number, State Bar number, and, if available, electronic mail address of counsel to all parties to the legal proceeding (in the case of pro-se parties, substitute the name, address, phone number, and electronic mail address of the pro-se party); and a statement of the demanding or requesting party's interest in the case. In addition, the demanding or requesting party must submit a clear and concise written statement that includes: a summary of the legal and factual issues in the proceeding and a detailed explanation as to how the records, information or testimony will contribute substantially to the resolution of one or more specially identified issues in the legal proceeding. A copy of the complaint or charging document may accompany—but must not be substituted for—the required statement.

§ 1215.9 Failure to meet this part's requirements.

FHFA may oppose any demand or request that does not meet the requirements set forth in this part.

§ 1215.10 Processing demands and requests.

(a) The Director will review every demand or request received and, in accordance with this regulation, determine whether, and under what conditions, to authorize an employee to produce records, information, or testimony.

(b) The Director will process demands and requests in the order in which they are received. The Director will ordinarily respond within 60 days from the date that the agency receives all information necessary to evaluate the demand or request. However, the time for response will depend upon the scope of the demand or request. The Director may respond outside of the 60-day period:

(1) Under exigent or unusual circumstances; or

(2) When FHFA must receive and process records or information in the possession, custody, or control of a third party.

(c) The Director may confer with counsel to parties to a legal proceeding about demands or requests made pursuant to this part. The conference may be ex-parte. Failure to confer in good faith, in order to enable the Director to make an informed determination, may justify rejection of the demand or request.

(d) The Director may rely on sources of information other than those provided by the demanding or requesting parties as bases for making a determination.

(e) The Director may grant a waiver of any requirement in this section to promote a significant interest of FHFA or the United States, or for other good cause.

§ 1215.11 FHFA determination.

(a) The Director makes FHFA's determinations regarding demands and requests.

(b) The Director will notify the demanding or requesting party of FHFA's determination, the reasons for the approval or rejection of the demand or request, and any conditions that the Director may impose on the release of records, information, or testimony.

§ 1215.12 Restrictions that apply to testimony.

(a) The Director may impose conditions or restrictions on testimony, including but not limited to limiting the scope of testimony or requiring the demanding or requesting party and other parties to the legal proceeding to agree that the testimony transcript will be kept under seal or will only be used or made available in the particular legal proceeding for which testimony was requested. The Director may also require a copy of the transcript of testimony to be provided to FHFA at the demanding or requesting party's expense.

(b) The Director may offer an employee's written declaration in lieu of testimony.

(c) If authorized to testify pursuant to this part, an employee may testify as to facts within his or her personal knowledge, but, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Director, the employee must not:

(1) Disclose confidential or privileged information; or

(2) Testify as an expert or opinion witness with regard to any matter arising out of the employee's official duties or FHFA's mission or functions. This provision does not apply to requests from the United States for expert or opinion testimony.

(d) The Director may assign FHFA Counsel to be present for an employee's testimony.

§ 1215.13 Restrictions that apply to records and information.

(a) The Director may impose conditions or restrictions on the release of records and information, including but not limited to requiring that parties to the legal proceeding obtain a protective order or execute a confidentiality agreement to limit access and further disclosure, or that parties take other appropriate steps to comply with applicable privacy requirements. The terms of a protective order or confidentiality agreement must be acceptable to the Director. In cases where protective orders or confidentiality agreements have already been executed, the Director may condition the release of records and information on an amendment to the existing protective order or confidentiality agreement.

(b) If the Director so determines, original agency records may be presented for examination in response to a demand or request, but they are not to be presented as evidence or otherwise used in a manner by which they could lose their status as original records, nor are they to be marked or altered. In lieu of the original records, certified copies will be presented for evidentiary purposes.

(c) The scope of permissible production is limited to that set forth in the prior, written authorization granted by the Director.

(d) If records or information are produced in connection with a legal proceeding, the demanding or requesting party must:

(1) Promptly notify all other parties to the legal proceeding that the records or information are FHFA records or information and are subject to this part and any applicable confidentiality agreement or protective order;

(2) Provide copies of any confidentiality agreement or protective order to all other parties; and

(3) Retrieve the records or information from the court or other competent authority's file when the court or other competent authority no longer requires the records or information and certify that every party covered by a confidentiality agreement, protective order, or other privacy protection has destroyed all copies of the records or information.

§ 1215.14 Procedure in the event of an adverse FHFA determination.

(a) Procedure for seeking reconsideration of FHFA's determination. A demanding or requesting party seeking reconsideration of FHFA's rejection of a demand or request, or of any restrictions on receiving records, information, or testimony, may seek reconsideration of the rejection or restrictions as follows:

(1) Notice of Intention to Petition for Reconsideration. The aggrieved demanding or requesting party may seek reconsideration by filing a written Notice of Intention to Petition for Reconsideration (Notice) within 10 business days of the date of FHFA's determination. The Notice must identify the petitioner, the determination for which reconsideration is being petitioned, and any dates (such as deposition, hearing, or court dates) that are significant to petitioner. The Notice must be served in accordance with § 1215.7.

(2) Petition for Reconsideration. Within five business days of filing Notice, the petitioner must file a Petition for Reconsideration (Petition) in accordance with § 1215.7. The Petition must contain a clear and concise statement of the basis for the reconsideration with supporting authorities. Determinations about petitions for reconsideration are within the discretion of the FHFA Director, and are final.

(b) Prerequisite to judicial review. Pursuant to section 704 of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 704, a petition to FHFA for reconsideration of a final determination made under the authority of this part is a prerequisite to judicial review.

§ 1215.15 Conflicting court order.

Notwithstanding FHFA's rejection of a demand for records, information, or testimony, if a court or other competent authority orders an FHFA employee to comply with the demand, the employee must promptly notify FHFA's General Counsel of the order, and the employee must respectfully decline to comply, citing United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951). An employee's failure to notify the General Counsel of a court or other authority's order is grounds for discipline or other adverse action.

§ 1215.16 Fees.

(a) The Director may condition the production of records, information, or an employee's appearance on advance payment of reasonable costs to FHFA, which may include but are not limited to those associated with employee search time, copying, computer usage, and certifications.

(b) Witness fees will include fees, expenses, and allowances prescribed by the rules applicable to the particular legal proceeding. If no fees are prescribed, FHFA will base fees on the rule of the federal district court closest to the location where the witness will appear. Such fees may include but are not limited to time for preparation, travel, and attendance at the legal proceeding.

§ 1215.17 Responses to demands served on nonemployees.

(a) FHFA confidential supervisory information is the property of FHFA, and is not to be disclosed to any person without the Director's prior written consent.

(b) If any person in possession of FHFA confidential supervisory information, is served with a demand in a legal proceeding directing that person to produce FHFA's confidential supervisory information or to testify with respect thereto, such person shall immediately notify the General Counsel of such service, of the testimony requested and confidential supervisory information described in the demand, and of all relevant facts. Such person shall also object to the production of such confidential supervisory information on the basis that the confidential supervisory information is the property of FHFA and cannot be released without FHFA's consent and that production must be sought from FHFA following the procedures set forth in §§ 1215.7, 1215.8, and 1215.14 of this part.

§ 1215.18 Inspector General.

Notwithstanding the general prohibition of disclosure of records and information, to the minimum extent required by the Inspector General Act, Public Law 9-452 (1978), FHFA's Office of Inspector General is permitted under this section to disclose records and information and permit FHFA-OIG employee testimony without Director approval.

PART 1217 PROGRAM FRAUD CIVIL REMEDIES ACT

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4501; 12 U.S.C. 4526, 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812.

Source: 81 FR 43034, July 1, 2016, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1217.1 Purpose and scope.

(a) Purpose. This part:

(1) Establishes administrative procedures for imposing civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit, or present, or cause to be made, submitted, or presented, false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to FHFA or to its agents; and

(2) Specifies the hearing and appeal rights of persons subject to allegations of liability for such penalties and assessments. Hearings under this part shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to part 1209, subpart C, of this chapter.

(b) Scope. This part applies only to persons who make, submit, or present or cause to be made, submitted, or presented false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to FHFA or to those acting on its behalf in connection with FHFA employment matters and FHFA contracting activities. It does not apply to false claims or statements made in connection with matters or activities related to FHFA's supervisory, regulatory, enforcement, conservatorship, or receivership responsibilities, as other civil and administrative actions available to FHFA to redress fraud in such areas provide for remedies that are equal to or exceed those available through this part.

§ 1217.2 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Ability to pay is determined based on a review of the respondent's resources available both currently and prospectively, from which FHFA could ultimately recover the total penalty, and as appropriate, assessment, which may be predicted based on historical evidence.

Assessment means a monetary penalty that is in addition to a civil penalty and may be imposed if FHFA has made any payment, transferred property, or provided services for a claim that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of § 1217.3. An assessment may not exceed an amount that is twice the amount of the claim or portion of the claim determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of § 1217.3. A civil penalty other than an assessment may be imposed whether or not FHFA has made a payment, transferred property, or provided services in response to the false claim or statement.

Benefit means anything of value, including, but not limited to, any advantage, preference, privilege, license, permit, favorable decision, ruling, or status.

Claim means any request, demand, or submission:

(1) Made to FHFA for property, services, or money (including money representing benefits);

(2) Made to a recipient of property, services, or money from FHFA or to a party to a contract with FHFA:

(i) For property or services, if FHFA:

(A) Provided such property or services;

(B) Provided any portion of the funds for the purchase of such property or services; or

(C) Will reimburse such recipient or party for the purchase of such property or services; or

(ii) For the payment of money (including money representing benefits) if the United States:

(A) Provided any portion of the money requested or demanded; or

(B) Will reimburse such recipient or party for any portion of the money paid on such request or demand; or

(3) Made to FHFA, which has the effect of decreasing an obligation to pay or account for property, services, or money.

Investigating official means the FHFA Inspector General, or an officer or employee of the FHFA Office of Inspector General designated by the FHFA Inspector General.

Knows or has reason to know. (1) For purposes of establishing liability under 31 U.S.C. 3802 and this part, means that a person, with respect to a claim or statement:

(i) Has actual knowledge that the claim or statement is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;

(ii) Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement; or

(iii) Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement.

(2) No proof of specific intent to defraud is required for purposes of establishing liability under 31 U.S.C. 3802 or this part.

Makes a claim or statement includes making, presenting, or submitting the claim or statement and causing the claim or statement to be made, presented, or submitted.

Notice means the charging document served by FHFA to commence an administrative proceeding to impose a civil penalty and, if appropriate, an assessment under chapter 38 of subtitle III of title 31, U.S.C., and this part.

Person means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or private organization.

Presiding officer means an administrative law judge appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105 or detailed to FHFA under 5 U.S.C. 3344.

Reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments is determined based on a generalized analysis made by the reviewing official, based on the limited information available in the report of investigation for purposes of determining whether the allocation of FHFA's resources to any particular action is appropriate.

Report of investigation means a report containing the findings and conclusions of an investigation under chapter 38 of subtitle III of title 31, U.S.C., by the investigating official, as described in § 1217.4.

Respondent means any person alleged to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 1217.3.

Reviewing official means the General Counsel of FHFA, as so designated by the Director pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3801(a)(8)(A).

Statement means, unless the context indicates otherwise, any representation, certification, affirmation, document, record, or accounting or bookkeeping entry made:

(1) With respect to a claim or to obtain the approval or payment of a claim (including relating to eligibility to make a claim); or

(2) With respect to (including relating to eligibility for) a contract with, or a bid or proposal for a contract with, or benefit from, FHFA or any State, political subdivision of a State, or other party, if FHFA provides any portion of the money or property under such contract or benefit, or if FHFA will reimburse such State, political subdivision, or party for any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such benefit.

§ 1217.3 Basis for civil penalties and assessments.

(a) False, fictitious or fraudulent claims.

(1) A civil penalty of not more than $14,308 may be imposed upon a person who makes a claim to FHFA for property, services, or money where the person knows or has reason to know that the claim:

(i) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;

(ii) Includes or is supported by a written statement that:

(A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or

(B) Omits a material fact and, as a result of the omission, is false, fictitious, or fraudulent, where the person making, presenting, or submitting such statement has a duty to include such material fact; or

(iii) Is for payment for the provision of property or services to FHFA which the person has not provided as claimed.

(2) Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim for purposes of this part.

(3) A claim shall be considered made to FHFA, a recipient, or party when the claim is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, acting for or on behalf of FHFA, the recipient, or the party.

(4) Each claim for property, services, or money is subject to a civil penalty, without regard to whether the property, services, or money actually is delivered or paid.

(5) There is no liability under this part if the amount of money or value of property or services claimed exceeds $150,000 as to each claim that a person submits. For purposes of this paragraph (a), a group of claims submitted simultaneously as part of a single transaction shall be considered a single claim.

(6) If the FHFA has made any payment, transferred property, or provided services for a claim, then FHFA may make an assessment against a person found liable in an amount of up to twice the amount of the claim or portion of the claim that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. This assessment is in addition to the amount of any civil penalty imposed.

(b) False, fictitious or fraudulent statements.

(1) A civil penalty of up to $14,308 may be imposed upon a person who makes a written statement to FHFA with respect to a claim, contract, bid or proposal for a contract, or benefit from FHFA that:

(i) The person knows or has reason to know:

(A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or

(B) Omits a material fact and is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of such omission, where the person making, presenting, or submitting such statement has a duty to include such material fact; and

(ii) Contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement.

(2) Each written representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement.

(3) A statement shall be considered made to FHFA when the statement is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity acting for or on behalf of FHFA.

(c) Joint and several liability. A civil penalty or assessment may be imposed jointly and severally if more than one person is determined to be liable.

[81 FR 43034, July 1, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 43968, Aug. 29, 2018; 84 FR 9704, Mar. 18, 2019; 85 FR 4905, Jan. 28, 2020; 86 FR 7496, Jan. 29, 2021; 87 FR 1661, Jan. 12, 2022; 87 FR 80025, Dec. 29, 2022; 89 FR 3333, Jan. 18, 2024; 90 FR 4609, Jan. 16, 2025]

§ 1217.4 Investigation.

(a) General. FHFA may initiate an action under chapter 38 of subtitle III of title 31, U.S.C., and this part against a respondent only upon an investigation by the investigating official.

(b) Subpoena. Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3804(a), the investigating official may require by subpoena the production of records and other documents. The subpoena shall state the authority under which it is issued, identify the records sought, and name the person designated to receive the records. The recipient of the subpoena shall provide a certification that the documents sought have been produced, that the documents are not available and the reasons they are not available, or that the documents, suitably identified, have been withheld based upon the assertion of an identified privilege.

(c) Investigation report. If the investigating official concludes that an action under chapter 38 of subtitle III of title 31, U.S.C., and this part may be warranted, the investigating official shall prepare a report containing the findings and conclusions of the investigation, including:

(1) A description of the claim or statement at issue;

(2) The evidence supporting the allegations;

(3) An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of § 1217.3; and

(4) Any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claim or statement.

(d) Referrals to the Attorney General. The investigating official may refer allegations directly to the Department of Justice for civil relief under other applicable law, as appropriate, or may defer or postpone submitting a report to the reviewing official to avoid interference with a criminal investigation or prosecution.

§ 1217.5 Request for approval by the Department of Justice.

(a) General. If the reviewing official determines that the report of investigation supports an action under this part, the reviewing official must submit a written request to the Department of Justice for approval to issue a notice under § 1217.6.

(b) Content of request. A request under this section shall include:

(1) A description of the claim or statement at issue;

(2) The evidence supporting the allegations;

(3) An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of § 1217.3;

(4) Any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claim or statement; and

(5) A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments. Determining there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments is separate from determining ability to pay, and may not be considered in determining the amount of any penalty or assessment in any particular case.

§ 1217.6 Notice.

(a) Commencement of action; notice. Upon obtaining approval from the Department of Justice, the reviewing official may commence an action to establish liability of the respondent under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (31 U.S.C. 3801 et seq.) and this part. To commence an action, the reviewing official must issue a notice to the respondent of the allegations of liability against the respondent. The notice shall be mailed, by registered or certified mail, or shall be delivered through such other means by which delivery may be confirmed.

(b) Notice contents. The notice required under this section shall include:

(1) The allegations of liability against the respondent, including the statutory basis for liability, the claim or statement at issue, and the reasons why liability arises from that claim or statement;

(2) A statement that the required approval to issue the notice was received from the Department of Justice;

(3) The amount of the penalty and, if applicable, any assessment for which the respondent may be held liable;

(4) A statement that the respondent may request a hearing by submitting a written response to the notice;

(5) The addresses to which a response must be sent in accordance with § 1209.15 of this chapter;

(6) A statement that failure to submit an answer within 30 days of receipt of the notice may result in the imposition of the maximum amount of penalties and assessments sought, without right of appeal;

(7) A statement that the respondent must preserve and maintain all documents and data, including electronically stored data, within the possession or control of the respondent that may relate to the allegations; and

(8) A copy of this part 1217 and part 1209, subpart C of this chapter.

(c) Obligation to preserve documents. Upon the issuance of a notice under this section, FHFA and the respondent shall each preserve and maintain all documents and data, including electronically stored data, within their respective possession or control that may relate to the allegations in the complaint.

§ 1217.7 Response.

(a) General. (1) To obtain a hearing, the respondent must file a written response to a notice under § 1217.6:

(i) In accordance with § 1209.24 of this chapter; and

(ii) Not later than 30 days after the date of service of the notice.

(2) A timely filed response to a notice under § 1217.6 shall be deemed to be a request for a hearing.

(3) A response to a notice under § 1217.6 must include:

(i) The admission or denial of each allegation of liability made in the notice;

(ii) Any defense on which the respondent intends to rely;

(iii) Any reasons why the penalty and, if appropriate, any assessment should be less than the amount set forth in the notice; and

(iv) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who will act as the respondent's representative, if any.

(b) Failure to respond. If no response to a notice under this part is timely submitted, FHFA may file a motion for default judgment in accordance with § 1209.24(c) of this part.

§ 1217.8 Statute of limitations.

The statute of limitations for commencing a hearing under this part shall be tolled:

(a) If the hearing is commenced in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(d)(2)(B) within 6 years after the date on which the claim or statement is made; or

(b) If the parties agree to such tolling.

§ 1217.9 Hearings.

(a) General. Hearings under this part shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures in subpart C of part 1209 of this chapter, governing actions in accordance with subchapter II of chapter 5, U.S.C. (commonly known as the Administrative Procedure Act).

(b) Factors to consider in determining amount of penalties and assessments. In determining an appropriate amount of any civil penalty and, if appropriate, any assessment, the presiding officer and, upon appeal, the Director or designee thereof, shall consider and state in his or her opinion any mitigating or aggravating circumstances. The amount of penalties and assessments imposed shall be based on the presiding officer's and the Director's or designee's consideration of evidence in support of one or more of the following factors:

(1) The number of false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements;

(2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made;

(3) The degree of the respondent's culpability with respect to the misconduct;

(4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed;

(5) The value of the actual loss to FHFA as a result of the misconduct, including foreseeable consequential damages and the cost of investigation;

(6) The relationship of the civil penalties to the amount of the loss to FHFA;

(7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon public health or safety or public confidence in the management of FHFA programs and operations, including particularly the impact on the intended beneficiaries of such programs;

(8) Whether the respondent has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct;

(9) Whether the respondent attempted to conceal the misconduct;

(10) The degree to which the respondent has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it;

(11) If the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the respondent, the extent to which the respondent's practices fostered or attempted to preclude the misconduct;

(12) Whether the respondent cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct;

(13) Whether the respondent assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers;

(14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the respondent's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the respondent's prior participation in the program or in similar transactions;

(15) Whether the respondent has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the Government of the United States or of a State, directly or indirectly;

(16) The need to deter the respondent and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct;

(17) The respondent's ability to pay; and

(18) Any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the seriousness of the false claim or statement.

(c) Stays ordered by the Department of Justice. If at any time the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General notifies the Director in writing that continuation of FHFA's action may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to the claim or statement at issue, the presiding officer or the Director shall stay the FHFA action immediately. The FHFA action may be resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General.

§ 1217.10 Settlements.

(a) General. The reviewing official, on behalf of FHFA, and the respondent may enter into a settlement agreement under § 1209.20 of this chapter at any time prior to the issuing of a notice of final decision under § 1209.55 of this chapter.

(b) Failure to comply. Failure of the respondent to comply with a settlement agreement shall be sufficient cause for resuming an action under this part, or for any other judicial or administrative action.

SUBCHAPTER B ENTITY REGULATIONS

PART 1221 MARGIN AND CAPITAL REQUIREMENTS FOR COVERED SWAP ENTITIES

Authority: 7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e), 12 U.S.C. 4513 and 12 U.S.C. 4526(a).

Source: 80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1221.1 Authority, purpose, scope, exemptions and compliance dates.

(a) Authority. This part is issued by FHFA under section 4s(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s(e)), section 15F(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e)), 12 U.S.C. 4513 and 12 U.S.C. 4526(a)).

(b) Purpose. Section 4(s) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s) and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10) require FHFA to establish capital and margin requirements for any regulated entity that is registered as a swap dealer, major swap participant, security-based swap dealer, or major security-based swap participant with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This regulation implements section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing capital and margin requirements, and explaining the statute's requirements.

(c) Scope. This part establishes minimum capital and margin requirements for each covered swap entity subject to this part with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This part applies to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by a covered swap entity on or after the related compliance date set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. Nothing in this part is intended to prevent a covered swap entity from collecting margin in amounts greater than are required under this part.

(d) Exemptions—(1) Swaps. The requirements of this part (except for § 45.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared swap if the counterparty:

(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) and implementing regulations;

(ii) Qualifies for an exemption from clearing under a rule, regulation, or order that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission issued pursuant to its authority under section 4(c)(1) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1)) concerning cooperative entities that would otherwise be subject to the requirements of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(1)(A)); or

(iii) Satisfies the criteria in section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) and implementing regulations.

(2) Security-based swaps. The requirements of this part (except for § 1221.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared security-based swap if the counterparty:

(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) and implementing regulations; or

(ii) Satisfies the criteria in section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.

(e) Compliance dates. Covered swap entities shall comply with the minimum margin requirements of this part on or before the following dates for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the following dates:

(1) September 1, 2016 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin and § 1221.4 for variation margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:

(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and

(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2016 that exceeds $3 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and

(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.

(2) March 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.4 for variation margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.

(3) September 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:

(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and

(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2017 that exceeds $2.25 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and

(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.

(4) September 1, 2018 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:

(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and

(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2018 that exceeds $1.5 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and

(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.

(5) September 1, 2019 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:

(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and

(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2019 that exceeds $0.75 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and

(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.

(6) September 1, 2021 with respect to requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:

(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and

(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April, and May 2021 that exceeds $50 billion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and

(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.

(7) September 1, 2022 with respect to requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.

(f) Once a covered swap entity must comply with the margin requirements for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with respect to a particular counterparty based on the compliance dates in paragraph (e) of this section, the covered swap entity shall remain subject to the requirements of this part with respect to that counterparty.

(g)(1) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to stricter margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user without material swaps exposure to a financial end user with material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity shall comply with the stricter margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status.

(2) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to less strict margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user with material swaps exposure to a financial end user without material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity may comply with the less strict margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status as well as for any outstanding non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into after the applicable compliance date in paragraph (e) of this section and before the counterparty changed its status.

(h) Legacy swaps. Covered swaps entities are required to comply with the requirements of this part for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the relevant compliance dates for variation margin and for initial margin established in paragraph (e) of this section. Any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into before such relevant date shall remain outside the scope of this part if amendments are made to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by method of adherence to a protocol, other amendment of a contract or confirmation, or execution of a new contract or confirmation in replacement of and immediately upon termination of an existing contract or confirmation, as follows:

(1) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap solely to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 47, 12 CFR part 252 subpart I, or 12 CFR part 382, as applicable;

(2) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap was amended under the following conditions:

(i) The swap was originally entered into before the relevant compliance date established in paragraph (e) of this section and one party to the swap booked it at, or otherwise held it at, an entity (including a branch or other authorized form of establishment) located in the United Kingdom;

(ii) The entity in the United Kingdom subsequently arranged to amend the swap, solely for the purpose of transferring it to an affiliate, or a branch or other authorized form of establishment, located in any European Union member state or the United States, in connection with the entity's planning for or response to the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section, and the transferee is:

(A) A covered swap entity, or

(B) A covered swap entity's counterparty to the swap, and the counterparty represents to the covered swap entity that the counterparty performed the transfer in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section;

(iii) The law of the European Union ceases to apply to the United Kingdom pursuant to Article 50(3) of the Treaty on European Union, without conclusion of a Withdrawal Agreement between the United Kingdom and the European Union pursuant to Article 50(2);

(iv) The amendments do not modify any of the following: The payment amount calculation methods, the maturity date, or the notional amount of the swap;

(v) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect on or after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section transpires; and

(vi) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect by the later of:

(A) The date that is one year after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section; or

(B) Such other date permitted by transitional provisions under Article 35 of Commission Delegated Regulation (E.U.) No. 2016/2251, as amended.

(3)(i) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that are made solely to accommodate the replacement of:

(A) An interbank offered rate (IBOR) including, but not limited to, the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), the Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (TIBOR), the Bank Bill Swap Rate (BBSW), the Singapore Interbank Offered Rate (SIBOR), the Canadian Dollar Offered Rate (CDOR), the Euro Interbank Offered Rate (EURIBOR), and the Hong Kong Interbank Offered Rate (HIBOR);

(B) Any other interest rate that a covered swap entity reasonably expects to be replaced or discontinued or reasonably determines has lost its relevance as a reliable benchmark due to a significant impairment; or

(C) Any other interest rate that succeeds a rate referenced in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. An amendment made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C) could be one of multiple amendments made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C). For example, an amendment could replace an IBOR with a temporary interest rate and later replace the temporary interest rate with a permanent interest rate.

(ii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also incorporate spreads or other adjustments to the replacement interest rate and make other necessary technical changes to operationalize the determination of payments or other exchanges of economic value using the replacement interest rate, including changes to determination dates, calculation agents, and payment dates. The changes may not have a longer maturity or increase the total effective notional amount of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap beyond what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.

(iii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also be effectuated through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties. Portfolio compression under this paragraph (h)(3)(iii) is not subject to the limitations in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, but any non-cleared swap[s] or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression may not have a longer maturity or increase the total effective notional amount more than what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.

(4) Amendments solely to reduce risk or remain risk-neutral through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties, as long as any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression do not:

(i) Exceed the sum of the total effective notional amounts of all of the swaps that were submitted to the compression exercise that had the same or longer remaining maturity as the resulting swap; or

(ii) Exceed the longest remaining maturity of all the swaps submitted to the compression exercise.

(5) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended solely for one of the following reasons:

(i) To reflect technical changes, such as addresses, identities of parties for delivery of formal notices, and other administrative or operational provisions as long as they do not alter the non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's underlying asset or reference, the remaining maturity, or the total effective notional amount; or

(ii) To reduce the notional amount, so long as:

(A) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully terminated; or

(B) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully novated to a third party, who complies with applicable margin rules for the novated portion upon the transfer.

[80 FR 74913, 74914, Nov. 13, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 50813, Oct. 10, 2018; 84 FR 9950, Mar. 19, 2019; 85 FR 39470, 39778, July 1, 2020]

§ 1221.2 Definitions.

Affiliate. A company is an affiliate of another company if:

(1) Either company consolidates the other on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;

(2) Both companies are consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with such principles or standards;

(3) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or

(4) FHFA has determined that a company is an affiliate of another company, based on the FHFA's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks or losses of, the other company.

Bank holding company has the meaning specified in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).

Broker has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)).

Business day means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.

Clearing agency has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(23) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).

Company means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.

Counterparty means, with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to which a person is a party, each other party to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.

Covered swap entity means any regulated entity that is a swap entity or any other entity that FHFA determines.

Cross-currency swap means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.

Currency of settlement means a currency in which a party has agreed to discharge payment obligations related to a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a group of non-cleared swaps, or a group of non-cleared security-based swaps subject to a master agreement at the regularly occurring dates on which such payments are due in the ordinary course.

Day of execution means the calendar day at the time the parties enter into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, provided:

(1) If each party is in a different calendar day at the time the parties enter into the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, the day of execution is deemed the latter of the two dates; and

(2) If a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:

(i) Entered into after 4:00 p.m. in the location of a party; or

(ii) Entered into on a day that is not a business day in the location of a party, then the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is deemed to have been entered into on the immediately succeeding day that is a business day for both parties, and both parties shall determine the day of execution with reference to that business day.

Dealer has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).

Depository institution has the meaning specified in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).

Derivatives clearing organization has the meaning specified in section 1a(15) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(15)).

Eligible collateral means collateral described in § 1221.6.

Eligible master netting agreement means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:

(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;

(2) The agreement provides the covered swap entity the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,

(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:

(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 et seq.), Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 et seq.), the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4617), or the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2183 and 2279cc), or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or

(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and

(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, Subpart I of part 252 or part 382 of Title 12, as applicable;

(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and

(4) A covered swap entity that relies on the agreement for purposes of calculating the margin required by this part must:

(i) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:

(A) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of this definition; and

(B) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding), the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and

(ii) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of this definition.

Financial end user means:

(1) Any counterparty that is not a swap entity and that is:

(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company; a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153; or a nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);

(ii) A depository institution; a foreign bank; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) & (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));

(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:

(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;

(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;

(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;

(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2001 et seq., that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;

(vi) A securities holding company; a broker or dealer; an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq.); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));

(vii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80-b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;

(viii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in section 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));

(ix) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);

(x) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;

(xi) An entity, person or arrangement that is, or holds itself out as being, an entity, person, or arrangement that raises money from investors, accepts money from clients, or uses its own money primarily for the purpose of investing or trading or facilitating the investing or trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets; or

(xii) An entity that would be a financial end user described in paragraph (1) of this definition or a swap entity, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.

(2) The term “financial end user” does not include any counterparty that is:

(i) A sovereign entity;

(ii) A multilateral development bank;

(iii) The Bank for International Settlements;

(iv) An entity that is exempt from the definition of financial entity pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)) and implementing regulations; or

(v) An affiliate that qualifies for the exemption from clearing pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) or section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.

Foreign bank means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States.

Foreign exchange forward has the meaning specified in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)).

Foreign exchange swap has the meaning specified in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)).

Initial margin means the collateral as calculated in accordance with § 1221.8 that is posted or collected in connection with a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.

Initial margin collection amount means:

(1) In the case of a covered swap entity that does not use an initial margin model, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under appendix A of this part; and

(2) In the case of a covered swap entity that uses an initial margin model pursuant to § 1221.8, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under the initial margin model.

Initial margin model means an internal risk management model that:

(1) Has been developed and designed to identify an appropriate, risk-based amount of initial margin that the covered swap entity must collect with respect to one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps to which the covered swap entity is a party; and

(2) Has been approved by FHFA pursuant to § 1221.8.

Initial margin threshold amount means an aggregate credit exposure of $50 million resulting from all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps between a covered swap entity and its affiliates, and a counterparty and its affiliates. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 1221.1(d).

Major currency means:

(1) United States Dollar (USD);

(2) Canadian Dollar (CAD);

(3) Euro (EUR);

(4) United Kingdom Pound (GBP);

(5) Japanese Yen (JPY);

(6) Swiss Franc (CHF);

(7) New Zealand Dollar (NZD);

(8) Australian Dollar (AUD);

(9) Swedish Kronor (SEK);

(10) Danish Kroner (DKK);

(11) Norwegian Krone (NOK); or

(12) Any other currency as determined by FHFA.

Margin means initial margin and variation margin.

Market intermediary means a securities holding company; a broker or dealer; a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28)); a swap dealer as defined in section 1a(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)); or a security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3(a)(71) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).

Material swaps exposure for an entity means that an entity and its affiliates have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards, and foreign exchange swaps with all counterparties for June, July, and August of the previous calendar year that exceeds $8 billion, where such amount is calculated only for business days. An entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 1221.1(d).

Multilateral development bank means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which FHFA determines poses comparable credit risk.

Non-cleared swap means a swap that is not cleared by a derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission pursuant to section 5b(a) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(a)) or by a clearing organization that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 5b(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(h)).

Non-cleared security-based swap means a security-based swap that is not, directly or indirectly, submitted to and cleared by a clearing agency registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1) or by a clearing agency that the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1).

Prudential regulator has the meaning specified in section 1a(39) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(39)).

Regulated entity means any regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)).

Savings and loan holding company has the meaning specified in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)).

Securities holding company has the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a).

Security-based swap has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(68) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)).

Sovereign entity means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.

State means any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.

Subsidiary. A company is a subsidiary of another company if:

(1) The company is consolidated by the other company on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;

(2) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or

(3) FHFA has determined that the company is a subsidiary of another company, based on FHFA's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks of loss of, the other company.

Swap has the meaning specified in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)).

Swap entity means a person that is registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), or a person that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.).

U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by federal statute but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.

Variation margin means collateral provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of its obligations under one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such collateral was provided.

Variation margin amount means the cumulative mark-to-market change in value to a covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, as measured from the date it is entered into (or, in the case of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that has a positive or negative value to a covered swap entity on the date it is entered into, such positive or negative value plus any cumulative mark-to-market change in value to the covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap after such date), less the value of all variation margin previously collected, plus the value of all variation margin previously posted with respect to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.

[80 FR 74913, 74914, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 50813, Oct. 10, 2018]

§ 1221.3 Initial margin.

(a) Collection of margin. A covered swap entity shall collect initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap from a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure or that is a swap entity in an amount that is no less than the greater of:

(1) Zero; or

(2) The initial margin collection amount for such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap less the initial margin threshold amount (not including any portion of the initial margin threshold amount already applied by the covered swap entity or its affiliates to other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with the counterparty or its affiliates), as applicable.

(b) Posting of margin. A covered swap entity shall post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure. Such initial margin shall be in an amount at least as large as the covered swap entity would be required to collect under paragraph (a) of this section if it were in the place of the counterparty.

(c) Timing. A covered swap entity shall comply with the initial margin requirements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap terminates or expires.

(d) Other counterparties. A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 1221.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user with a material swaps exposure nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect initial margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.

§ 1221.4 Variation margin.

(a) General. After the date on which a covered swap entity enters into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity or financial end user, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin equal to the variation margin amount from the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is positive and post variation margin equal to the variation margin amount to the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is negative.

(b) Timing. A covered swap entity shall comply with the variation margin requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap terminates or expires.

(c) Other counterparties. A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post variation margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 1221.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.

§ 1221.5 Netting arrangements, minimum transfer amount, and satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.

(a) Netting arrangements. (1) For purposes of calculating and complying with the initial margin requirements of § .3 using an initial margin model as described in § 1221.8, or with the variation margin requirements of § 1221.4, a covered swap entity may net non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with this subsection.

(2) To the extent that one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps are executed pursuant to an eligible master netting agreement between a covered swap entity and its counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user, a covered swap entity may calculate and comply with the applicable requirements of this part on an aggregate net basis with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps governed by such agreement, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section.

(3)(i) Except as permitted in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, if an eligible master netting agreement covers non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 1221.1(e) or (g), all the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps covered by that agreement are subject to the requirements of this part and included in the aggregate netting portfolio for the purposes of calculating and complying with the margin requirements of this part.

(ii) An eligible master netting agreement may identify one or more separate netting portfolios that independently meet the requirements in paragraph (1) of the definition of “Eligible master netting agreement” in § 1221.2 and to which collection and posting of margin applies on an aggregate net basis separate from and exclusive of any other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by the eligible master netting agreement. Any such netting portfolio that contains any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 1221.1(e) or (g) is subject to the requirements of this part. Any such netting portfolio that contains only non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps entered into before the applicable compliance date is not subject to the requirements of this part.

(4) If a covered swap entity cannot conclude after sufficient legal review with a well-founded basis that the netting agreement described in this section meets the definition of eligible master netting agreement set forth in § 1221.2, the covered swap entity must treat the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps covered by the agreement on a gross basis for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to collect margin, but the covered swap entity may net those non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to post margin.

(b) Minimum transfer amount. Notwithstanding § 1221.3 or § 1221.4, a covered swap entity is not required to collect or post margin pursuant to this part with respect to a particular counterparty unless and until the combined amount of initial margin and variation margin that is required pursuant to this part to be collected or posted and that has not yet been collected or posted with respect to the counterparty is greater than $500,000.

(c) Satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements. A covered swap entity shall not be deemed to have violated its obligation to collect or post margin from or to a counterparty under § 1221.3, § 1221.4, or § 1221.6(e) if:

(1) The counterparty has refused or otherwise failed to provide or accept the required margin to or from the covered swap entity; and

(2) The covered swap entity has:

(i) Made the necessary efforts to collect or post the required margin, including the timely initiation and continued pursuit of formal dispute resolution mechanisms, or has otherwise demonstrated upon request to the satisfaction of FHFA that it has made appropriate efforts to collect or post the required margin; or

(ii) Commenced termination of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty promptly following the applicable cure period and notification requirements.

§ 1221.6 Eligible collateral.

(a) Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a swap entity. For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity, a covered swap entity shall collect initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this part solely in the form of the following types of collateral:

(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:

(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or

(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;

(2) With respect to initial margin only:

(i) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;

(ii) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;

(iii) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under 12 CFR part 324;

(iv) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;

(v) A publicly traded debt security that meets the definition of “Investment quality” in § 1267.1 of this chapter and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;

(vi) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;

(vii) A security solely in the form of:

(A) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section that meets the definition of “Investment quality” in § 1267.1 of this chapter and is not an asset-backed security;

(B) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:

(1) The Standard & Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by FHFA; or

(2) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;

(viii) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:

(A) The fund's investments are limited to the following:

(1) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or

(2) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under 12 CFR part 324, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and

(B) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or

(ix) Gold.

(b) Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a financial end user. For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a financial end user, a covered swap entity shall collect and post initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this part solely in the form of the following types of collateral:

(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:

(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or

(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;

(2) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;

(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;

(4) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under 12 CFR part 324;

(5) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;

(6) A publicly traded debt security that meets the definition of “Investment quality” in § 1267.1 of this chapter and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;

(7) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;

(8) A security solely in the form of:

(i) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in this paragraph (b) that meets the definition of “Investment quality” in § 1267.1 of this chapter and is not an asset-backed security;

(ii) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:

(A) The Standard & Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by FHFA; or

(B) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;

(9) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:

(i) The fund's investments are limited to the following:

(A) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or

(B) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under 12 CFR part 324, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and

(ii) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or

(10) Gold.

(c)(1) The value of any eligible collateral collected or posted to satisfy margin requirements pursuant to this part is subject to the sum of the following discounts, as applicable:

(i) An 8 percent discount for variation margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for immediately available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars or another major currency;

(ii) An 8 percent discount for initial margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for eligible types of collateral denominated in a single termination currency designated as payable to the non-posting counterparty as part of the eligible master netting agreement; and

(iii) For variation and initial margin non-cash collateral, the discounts described in appendix B of this part.

(2) The value of variation margin or initial margin collateral is computed as the product of the cash or market value of the eligible collateral asset times one minus the applicable discounts pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section expressed in percentage terms. The total value of all variation margin or initial margin collateral is calculated as the sum of those values for each eligible collateral asset.

(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, eligible collateral for initial margin and variation margin required by this part does not include a security issued by:

(1) The party or an affiliate of the party pledging such collateral;

(2) A bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153, a foreign bank, a depository institution, a market intermediary, a company that would be any of the foregoing if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State, or an affiliate of any of the foregoing institutions; or

(3) A nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323).

(e) A covered swap entity shall monitor the market value and eligibility of all collateral collected and posted to satisfy the minimum initial margin and minimum variation margin requirements of this part. To the extent that the market value of such collateral has declined, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post such additional eligible collateral as is necessary to maintain compliance with the margin requirements of this part. To the extent that the collateral is no longer eligible, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post sufficient eligible replacement collateral to comply with the margin requirements of this part.

(f) A covered swap entity may collect or post initial margin and variation margin that is required by § 1221.3(d) or § 1221.4(c) or that is not required pursuant to this part in any form of collateral.

[80 FR 74914, Nov. 30, 2015]

§ 1221.7 Segregation of collateral.

(a) A covered swap entity that posts any collateral other than for variation margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that all funds or other property other than variation margin provided by the covered swap entity be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.

(b) A covered swap entity that collects initial margin required by § 1221.3(a) with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that such initial margin be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.

(c) For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the custodian must act pursuant to a custody agreement that:

(1) Prohibits the custodian from rehypothecating, repledging, reusing, or otherwise transferring (through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement or other means) the collateral held by the custodian, except that cash collateral may be held in a general deposit account with the custodian if the funds in the account are used to purchase an asset described in § 1221.6(a)(2) or (b), such asset is held in compliance with this § 1221.7, and such purchase takes place within a time period reasonably necessary to consummate such purchase after the cash collateral is posted as initial margin; and

(2) Is a legal, valid, binding, and enforceable agreement under the laws of all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding.

(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a custody agreement may permit the posting party to substitute or direct any reinvestment of posted collateral held by the custodian, provided that, with respect to collateral collected by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 1221.3(a) or posted by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 1221.3(b), the agreement requires the posting party to:

(1) Substitute only funds or other property that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 1221.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this part would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 1221.3; and

(2) Direct reinvestment of funds only in assets that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 1221.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this part would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 1221.3.

§ 1221.8 Initial margin models and standardized amounts.

(a) Standardized amounts. Unless a covered swap entity's initial margin model conforms to the requirements of this section, the covered swap entity shall calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 1221.3 on a daily basis pursuant to appendix A of this part.

(b) Use of initial margin models. A covered swap entity may calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 1221.3 on a daily basis using an initial margin model only if the initial margin model meets the requirements of this section.

(c) Requirements for initial margin model. (1) A covered swap entity must obtain the prior written approval of FHFA before using any initial margin model to calculate the initial margin required in this part.

(2) A covered swap entity must demonstrate that the initial margin model satisfies all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis.

(3) A covered swap entity must notify FHFA in writing 60 days prior to:

(i) Extending the use of an initial margin model that FHFA has approved under this section to an additional product type;

(ii) Making any change to any initial margin model approved by FHFA under this section that would result in a material change in the covered swap entity's assessment of initial margin requirements; or

(iii) Making any material change to modeling assumptions used by the initial margin model.

(4) FHFA may rescind its approval of the use of any initial margin model, in whole or in part, or may impose additional conditions or requirements if FHFA determines, in its sole discretion, that the initial margin model no longer complies with this section.

(d) Quantitative requirements. (1) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must calculate an amount of initial margin that is equal to the potential future exposure of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. Potential future exposure is an estimate of the one-tailed 99 percent confidence interval for an increase in the value of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps due to an instantaneous price shock that is equivalent to a movement in all material underlying risk factors, including prices, rates, and spreads, over a holding period equal to the shorter of ten business days or the maturity of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio.

(2) All data used to calibrate the initial margin model must be based on an equally weighted historical observation period of at least one year and not more than five years and must incorporate a period of significant financial stress for each broad asset class that is appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.

(3) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must use risk factors sufficient to measure all material price risks inherent in the transactions for which initial margin is being calculated. The risk categories must include, but should not be limited to, foreign exchange or interest rate risk, credit risk, equity risk, and commodity risk, as appropriate. For material exposures in significant currencies and markets, modeling techniques must capture spread and basis risk and must incorporate a sufficient number of segments of the yield curve to capture differences in volatility and imperfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.

(4) In the case of a non-cleared cross-currency swap, the covered swap entity's initial margin model need not recognize any risks or risk factors associated with the fixed, physically-settled foreign exchange transaction associated with the exchange of principal embedded in the non-cleared cross-currency swap. The initial margin model must recognize all material risks and risk factors associated with all other payments and cash flows that occur during the life of the non-cleared cross-currency swap.

(5) The initial margin model may calculate initial margin for a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap or a netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. It may reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and other hedging benefits for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that are governed by the same eligible master netting agreement by incorporating empirical correlations within the following broad risk categories, provided the covered swap entity validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for modeling and measuring hedging benefits: Commodity, credit, equity, and foreign exchange or interest rate. Empirical correlations under an eligible master netting agreement may be recognized by the initial margin model within each broad risk category, but not across broad risk categories.

(6) If the initial margin model does not explicitly reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and hedging benefits between subsets of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category, the covered swap entity must calculate an amount of initial margin separately for each subset within which such relationships are explicitly recognized by the initial margin model. The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each subset of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty for the portfolio of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within the broad risk category.

(7) The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty.

(8) The initial margin model may not permit the calculation of any initial margin collection amount to be offset by, or otherwise take into account, any initial margin that may be owed or otherwise payable by the covered swap entity to the counterparty.

(9) The initial margin model must include all material risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of option positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the market value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors.

(10) The covered swap entity may not omit any risk factor from the calculation of its initial margin that the covered swap entity uses in its initial margin model unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of FHFA that such omission is appropriate.

(11) The covered swap entity may not incorporate any proxy or approximation used to capture the risks of the covered swap entity's non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of FHFA that such proxy or approximation is appropriate.

(12) The covered swap entity must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal margin model to ensure continued applicability and relevance.

(13) The covered swap entity must review and, as necessary, revise the data used to calibrate the initial margin model at least annually, and more frequently as market conditions warrant, to ensure that the data incorporate a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.

(14) The level of sophistication of the initial margin model must be commensurate with the complexity of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it is applied. In calculating an initial margin collection amount, the initial margin model may make use of any of the generally accepted approaches for modeling the risk of a single instrument or portfolio of instruments.

(15) FHFA may in its sole discretion require a covered swap entity using an initial margin model to collect a greater amount of initial margin than that determined by the covered swap entity's initial margin model if FHFA determines that the additional collateral is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the covered swap entity's transaction(s), or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction(s).

(e) Periodic review. A covered swap entity must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its initial margin model in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance the initial margin model as appropriate to ensure that the initial margin model continues to meet the requirements for approval in this section.

(f) Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms. (1) The covered swap entity must maintain a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.

(2) The covered swap entity's risk control unit must validate its initial margin model prior to implementation and on an ongoing basis. The covered swap entity's validation process must be independent of the development, implementation, and operation of the initial margin model, or the validation process must be subject to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. The validation process must include:

(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the initial margin model;

(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking by comparing the covered swap entity's initial margin model outputs (estimation of initial margin) with relevant alternative internal and external data sources or estimation techniques. The benchmark(s) must address the chosen model's limitations. When applicable, the covered swap entity should consider benchmarks that allow for non-normal distributions such as historical and Monte Carlo simulations. When applicable, validation shall include benchmarking against observable margin standards to ensure that the initial margin required is not less than what a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency would require for similar cleared transactions; and

(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting the initial margin model. This analysis must recognize and compensate for the challenges inherent in back-testing over periods that do not contain significant financial stress.

(3) If the validation process reveals any material problems with the initial margin model, the covered swap entity must promptly notify FHFA of the problems, describe to FHFA any remedial actions being taken, and adjust the initial margin model to ensure an appropriately conservative amount of required initial margin is being calculated.

(4) The covered swap entity must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management and the risk control unit that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the covered swap entity's initial margin model measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the covered swap entity's initial margin requirements under this part. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the covered swap entity's board of directors or a committee thereof.

(g) Documentation. The covered swap entity must adequately document all material aspects of its initial margin model, including the management and valuation of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it applies, the control, oversight, and validation of the initial margin model, any review processes and the results of such processes.

(h) Escalation procedures. The covered swap entity must adequately document internal authorization procedures, including escalation procedures, that require review and approval of any change to the initial margin calculation under the initial margin model, demonstrable analysis that any basis for any such change is consistent with the requirements of this section, and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.

§ 1221.9 Cross-border application of margin requirements.

(a) Transactions to which this rule does not apply. The requirements of §§ 1221.3 through 1221.8 and §§ 1221.10 through 1221.12 shall not apply to any foreign non-cleared swap or foreign non-cleared security-based swap of a foreign covered swap entity.

(b) For purposes of this section, a foreign non-cleared swap or foreign non-cleared security-based swap is any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with respect to which neither the counterparty to the foreign covered swap entity nor any party that provides a guarantee of either party's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:

(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States;

(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or

(3) A swap entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.

(c) For purposes of this section, a foreign covered swap entity is any covered swap entity that is not:

(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State, including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank;

(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or

(3) An entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.

(d) Transactions for which substituted compliance determination may apply—(1) Determinations and reliance. For non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into by covered swap entities described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a covered swap entity may satisfy the provisions of this part by complying with the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that the prudential regulators jointly, conditionally or unconditionally, determine by public order satisfy the corresponding requirements of §§ 1221.3 through 1221.8 and §§ 1221.10 through 1221.12.

(2) Standard. In determining whether to make a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the prudential regulators will consider whether the requirements of such foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps applicable to such covered swap entities are comparable to the otherwise applicable requirements of this part and appropriate for the safe and sound operation of the covered swap entity, taking into account the risks associated with non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.

(3) Covered swap entities eligible for substituted compliance. A covered swap entity may rely on a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section only if:

(i) The covered swap entity's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:

(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (other than a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or

(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and

(ii) The covered swap entity is:

(A) A foreign covered swap entity;

(B) A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank; or

(C) An entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation.

(4) Compliance with foreign margin collection requirement. A covered swap entity satisfies its requirement to post initial margin under § 1221.3(b) by posting to its counterparty initial margin in the form and amount, and at such times, that its counterparty is required to collect pursuant to a foreign regulatory framework, provided that the counterparty is subject to the foreign regulatory framework and the prudential regulators have made a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless otherwise stated in that determination, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:

(i) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or

(ii) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State.

(e) Requests for determinations. (1) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may request that the prudential regulators make a determination pursuant to this section. A request for a determination must include a description of:

(i) The scope and objectives of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps;

(ii) The specific provisions of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that govern:

(A) The scope of transactions covered;

(B) The determination of the amount of initial margin and variation margin required and how that amount is calculated;

(C) The timing of margin requirements;

(D) Any documentation requirements;

(E) The forms of eligible collateral;

(F) Any segregation and rehypothecation requirements; and

(G) The approval process and standards for models used in calculating initial margin and variation margin;

(iii) The supervisory compliance program and enforcement authority exercised by a foreign financial regulatory authority or authorities in such system to support its oversight of the application of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap regulatory framework and how that framework applies to the non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps of the covered swap entity; and

(iv) Any other descriptions and documentation that the prudential regulators determine are appropriate.

(2) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may make a request under this section only if the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap activities of the covered swap entity are directly supervised by the authorities administering the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.

(f) Segregation unavailable. Sections 1221.3(b) and 1221.7 do not apply to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by:

(1) A foreign branch of a covered swap entity that is a depository institution; or

(2) A covered swap entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation, if:

(i) Inherent limitations in the legal or operational infrastructure in the foreign jurisdiction make it impracticable for the covered swap entity and the counterparty to post any form of eligible initial margin collateral recognized pursuant to § 1221.6(b) in compliance with the segregation requirements of § 1221.7;

(ii) The covered swap entity is subject to foreign regulatory restrictions that require the covered swap entity to transact in the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty through an establishment within the foreign jurisdiction and do not accommodate the posting of collateral for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap outside the jurisdiction;

(iii) The counterparty to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is not, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:

(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or

(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State;

(iv) The covered swap entity collects initial margin for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap in accordance with § 1221.3(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 1221.6(b)(1), and posts and collects variation margin in accordance with § 1221.4(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 1221.6(b)(1); and

(v) FHFA provides the covered swap entity with prior written approval for the covered swap entity's reliance on this paragraph (f) for the foreign jurisdiction.

(g) Guarantee means an arrangement pursuant to which one party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a third-party guarantor, with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. For these purposes, a party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a guarantor if the party has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from the guarantor with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. In addition, any arrangement pursuant to which the guarantor has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from any other third party guarantor with respect to the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, such arrangement will be deemed a guarantee of the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by the other guarantor.

(h)(1) A covered swap entity described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section is not subject to the requirements of § 1221.3(a) or § 1221.11(a) for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap executed with an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and

(2) For purposes of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, “affiliate” has the same meaning provided in § 1221.11(d).

[80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39779, July 1, 2020]

§ 1221.10 Documentation of margin matters.

A covered swap entity shall execute trading documentation with each counterparty that is either a swap entity or financial end user regarding credit support arrangements that:

(a) Provides the covered swap entity and its counterparty with the contractual right to collect and post initial margin and variation margin in such amounts, in such form, and under such circumstances as are required by this part, and at such time as initial margin or variation margin is required to be collected or posted under § 1221.3 or § 1221.4, as applicable; and

(b) Specifies:

(1) The methods, procedures, rules, and inputs for determining the value of each non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap for purposes of calculating variation margin requirements; and

(2) The procedures by which any disputes concerning the valuation of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps, or the valuation of assets collected or posted as initial margin or variation margin, may be resolved; and

(c) Describes the methods, procedures, rules, and inputs used to calculate initial margin for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps entered into between the covered swap entity and the counterparty.

[80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39779, July 1, 2020]

§ 1221.11 Special rules for affiliates.

(a)(1) A covered swap entity shall calculate on each business day an initial margin collection amount for each counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity.

(2) If the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not exceed 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital, the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 1221.3(a) do not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.

(3) On each business day that the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section exceeds 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital:

(i) The covered swap entity shall collect initial margin under § 1221.3(a) for each additional non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap executed that business day with a counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity, commencing on the day after execution and continuing on a daily basis as required under § 1221.3(c), until the earlier of;

(A) The termination date of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, or

(B) The business day on which the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section falls below 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital;

(ii) Notwithstanding § 1221.7(b), to the extent the covered swap entity collects initial margin pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section in the form of collateral other than cash collateral, the custodian for such collateral may be the covered swap entity or an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and

(4) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, “tier 1 capital” means:

(i) The sum of common equity tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 1240.20(b) and additional tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 1240.20(c).

(5) If any subsidiary of the covered swap entity (including a subsidiary described in § 1221.9(h)) executes any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with any counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity;

(i) The covered swap entity shall treat such non-cleared swap or security-based swap as its own for purposes of this paragraph (a); and

(ii) If the subsidiary is itself a covered swap entity, the compliance by its parent covered swap entity with this paragraph (a)(5) shall be deemed to establish the subsidiary's compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (a) and to exempt the subsidiary from the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 1221.3(a) from an affiliate.

(b) The requirement for a covered swap entity to post initial margin under § 1221.3(b) does not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.

(c) Section 1221.3(d) shall apply to a counterparty that is an affiliate in the same manner as it applies to any counterparty that is neither a financial end user without a material swap exposure nor a swap entity.

(d) For purposes of this section:

(1) An affiliate means:

(i) An affiliate as defined in § 1221.2; or

(ii) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.

(2) A subsidiary means:

(i) A subsidiary as defined in § 1221.2; or

(ii) Any company that is controlled by the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.

[85 FR 39779, July 1, 2020]

§ 1221.12 Capital.

A covered swap entity shall comply with the capital levels or such other amounts applicable to it as required by the Director of FHFA pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4611.

[80 FR 74914, Nov. 30, 2015]

Appendix A to Part 1221 Standardized Minimum Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non—cleared Security-based Swaps

Table A—Standardized Minimum Gross Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non-cleared Security-Based Swaps 1

Asset Class | Gross initial margin (% of notional exposure)

Credit: 0-2 year duration | 2

Credit: 2-5 year duration | 5

Credit: 5+ year duration | 10

Commodity | 15

Equity | 15

Foreign Exchange/Currency | 6

Cross Currency Swaps: 0-2 year duration | 1

Cross-Currency Swaps: 2-5 year duration | 2

Cross-Currency Swaps: 5+ year duration | 4

Interest Rate: 0-2 year duration | 1

Interest Rate: 2-5 year duration | 2

Interest Rate: 5+ year duration | 4

Other | 15

1 The initial margin amount applicable to multiple non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps subject to an eligible master netting agreement that is calculated according to Appendix A will be computed as follows:

Initial Margin=0.4xGross Initial Margin +0.6x NGRxGross Initial Margin

where;

Gross Initial Margin = the sum of the product of each non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's effective notional amount and the gross initial margin requirement for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement;

and

NGR = the net-to-gross ratio (that is, the ratio of the net current replacement cost to the gross current replacement cost). In calculating NGR, the gross current replacement cost equals the sum of the replacement cost for each non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap subject to the eligible master netting agreement for which the cost is positive. The net current replacement cost equals the total replacement cost for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement. In cases where the gross replacement cost is zero, the NGR should be set to 1.0.

Appendix B to Part 1221 Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral

Table B—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral

Asset class | Discount (%)

Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity less than one-year | 0.5

Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity between one and five years | 2.0

Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity greater than five years | 4.0

Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity less than one-year | 1.0

Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity between one and five years: | 4.0

Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity greater than five years: | 8.0

Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity less than one-year | 1.0

Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity between one and five years | 4.0

Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity greater than five years | 8.0

Equities included in S&P 500 or related index | 15.0

Equities included in S&P 1500 Composite or related index but not S&P 500 or related index | 25.0

Gold | 15.0

1 The discount to be applied to an eligible investment fund is the weighted average discount on all assets within the eligible investment fund at the end of the prior month. The weights to be applied in the weighted average should be calculated as a fraction of the fund's total market value that is invested in each asset with a given discount amount. As an example, an eligible investment fund that is comprised solely of $100 of 91 day Treasury bills and $100 of 3 year US Treasury bonds would receive a discount of (100/200)*0.5+(100/200)*2.0=(0.5)*0.5+(0.5)*2.0=1.25 percent.

PART 1222 APPRAISALS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 3354(b); 12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq.; 12 U.S.C. 4526; and 15 U.S.C. 1639h.

Source: 78 FR 10446, Feb. 13, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Requirements for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans
§ 1222.1 Purpose and scope.

This subpart cross-references the requirement that creditors extending credit in the form of higher-priced mortgage loans comply with Section 129H of the Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA), 15 U.S.C. 1639h, and its implementing regulations in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.35. Neither the Banks nor the Enterprises are subject to Section 129H of TILA or 12 CFR 1026.35. Originators of higher-priced mortgage loans, including Bank members and institutions that sell mortgage loans to the Enterprises, are subject to those provisions. A failure of those institutions to comply with Section 129H of TILA and 12 CFR 1026.35 may limit their ability to sell such loans to the Banks or Enterprises or to pledge such loans to the Banks as collateral, to the extent provided in the parties' agreements.

§ 1222.2 Reservation of authority.

Nothing in this subpart A shall be read to limit the authority of the Director of the Federal Housing Finance Agency to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe and unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law. In addition, nothing in this subpart A shall be read to limit the authority of the Director to impose requirements for any purchase of higher-priced mortgage loans by an Enterprise or a Federal Home Loan Bank, or acceptance of higher-priced mortgage loans as collateral to secure advances by a Federal Home Loan Bank.

Subpart B Appraisal Management Company Minimum Requirements

Source: 80 FR 32687, June 9, 2015, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1222.20 Authority, purpose, and scope.

(a) Authority. This subpart is issued by the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq., 12 U.S.C. 4526, and Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act (FIRREA), as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010)), 12 U.S.C. 3331 et seq.

(b) Purpose. The purpose of this subpart is to implement sections 1109, 1117, 1121, and 1124 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3338, 3346, 3350, and 3353.

(c) Scope. This subpart applies to States and to appraisal management companies (AMCs) providing appraisal management services in connection with consumer credit transactions secured by a consumer's principal dwelling or securitizations of those transactions.

(d) Rule of construction. Nothing in this subpart should be construed to prevent a State from establishing requirements in addition to those in this subpart. In addition, nothing in this subpart should be construed to alter guidance in, and applicability of, the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines 1 or other relevant agency guidance that cautions banks, bank holding companies, Federal savings associations, state savings associations, and credit unions, as applicable, that each such entity is accountable for overseeing the activities of third-party service providers and ensuring that any services provided by a third party comply with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance applicable directly to the financial institution.

1 75 FR 77450 (December 10, 2010).

§ 1222.21 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

(a) Affiliate has the meaning provided in 12 U.S.C. 1841.

(b) AMC National Registry means the registry of State-registered AMCs and Federally regulated AMCs maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee.

(c)(1) Appraisal management company (AMC) means a person that:

(i) Provides appraisal management services to creditors or to secondary mortgage market participants, including affiliates;

(ii) Provides such services in connection with valuing a consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction or incorporating such transactions into securitizations; and

(iii) Within a given 12-month period, as defined in § 1222.22(d), oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States, as described in § 1222.22;

(2) An AMC does not include a department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services only to that entity.

(d) Appraisal management services means one or more of the following:

(1) Recruiting, selecting, and retaining appraisers;

(2) Contracting with State-certified or State-licensed appraisers to perform appraisal assignments;

(3) Managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary market participants, collecting fees from creditors and secondary market participants for services provided, and paying appraisers for services performed; and

(4) Reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers.

(e) Appraiser panel means a network, list or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by an AMC to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the AMC. Appraisers on an AMC's “appraiser panel” under this part include both appraisers accepted by the AMC for consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions and appraisers engaged by the AMC to perform one or more appraisals in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions. An appraiser is an independent contractor for purposes of this subpart if the appraiser is treated as an independent contractor by the AMC for purposes of Federal income taxation.

(f) Appraisal Subcommittee means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.

(g) Consumer credit means credit offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.

(h) Covered transaction means any consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling.

(i) Creditor means:

(1) A person who regularly extends consumer credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments (not including a down payment), and to whom the obligation is initially payable, either on the face of the note or contract, or by agreement when there is no note or contract.

(2) A person regularly extends consumer credit if the person extended credit (other than credit subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32) more than 5 times for transactions secured by a dwelling in the preceding calendar year. If a person did not meet these numerical standards in the preceding calendar year, the numerical standards shall be applied to the current calendar year. A person regularly extends consumer credit if, in any 12-month period, the person originates more than one credit extension that is subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32 or one or more such credit extensions through a mortgage broker.

(j) Dwelling means:

(1) A residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.

(2) A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this section.

(k) Federally regulated AMC means an AMC that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813 and that is regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

(l) Federally related transaction regulations means regulations established by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the National Credit Union Administration, pursuant to sections 1112, 1113, and 1114 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3341-3343.

(m) Person means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, estate, trust, or government unit.

(n) Secondary mortgage market participant means a guarantor or insurer of mortgage-backed securities, or an underwriter or issuer of mortgage-backed securities. Secondary mortgage market participant only includes an individual investor in a mortgage-backed security if that investor also serves in the capacity of a guarantor, insurer, underwriter, or issuer for the mortgage-backed security.

(o) States mean the 50 States and the District of Columbia and the territories of Guam, Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.

(p) Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) means the appraisal standards promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.

§ 1222.22 Appraiser panel—annual size calculation.

For purposes of determining whether, within a 12-month period, an AMC oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States pursuant to § 1222.21(c)(1)(iii)—

(a) An appraiser is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel as of the earliest date on which the AMC:

(1) Accepts the appraiser for the AMC's consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions; or

(2) Engages the appraiser to perform one or more appraisals on behalf of a creditor for a covered transaction or secondary mortgage market participant in connection with covered transactions.

(b) An appraiser who is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is deemed to remain on the panel until the date on which the AMC:

(1) Sends written notice to the appraiser removing the appraiser from the appraiser panel, with an explanation of its action; or

(2) Receives written notice from the appraiser asking to be removed from the appraiser panel or notice of the death or incapacity of the appraiser.

(c) If an appraiser is removed from an AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, but the AMC subsequently accepts the appraiser for consideration for future assignments or engages the appraiser at any time during the twelve months after the AMC's removal, the removal will be deemed not to have occurred, and the appraiser will be deemed to have been part of the AMC's appraiser panel without interruption.

(d) The period for purposes of counting appraisers on an AMC's appraiser panel may be the calendar year or a 12-month period established by law or rule of each State with which the AMC is required to register.

§ 1222.23 Appraisal management company registration.

Each State electing to register AMCs pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section must:

(a) Establish and maintain within the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency a licensing program that is subject to the limitations set forth in § 1222.24 and with the legal authority and mechanisms to:

(1) Review and approve or deny an AMC's application for initial registration;

(2) Review and renew or review and deny an AMC's registration periodically;

(3) Examine the books and records of an AMC operating in the State and require the AMC to submit reports, information, and documents;

(4) Verify that the appraisers on the AMC's panel hold valid State certifications or licenses, as applicable;

(5) Conduct investigations of AMCs to assess potential violations of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders;

(6) Discipline, suspend, terminate, or deny renewal of the registration of an AMC that violates applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders; and

(7) Report an AMC's violation of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders, as well as disciplinary and enforcement actions and other relevant information about an AMC's operations, to the Appraisal Subcommittee.

(b) Impose requirements on AMCs that are not owned and controlled by an insured depository institution and not regulated by a Federal financial institutions regulatory agency to:

(1) Register with and be subject to supervision by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency;

(2) Engage only State-certified or State-licensed appraisers for Federally related transactions in conformity with any Federally related transaction regulations;

(3) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC, in engaging an appraiser, selects an appraiser who is independent of the transaction and who has the requisite education, expertise, and experience necessary to competently complete the appraisal assignment for the particular market and property type;

(4) Direct the appraiser to perform the assignment in accordance with USPAP; and

(5) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC conducts its appraisal management services in accordance with the requirements of section 129E(a)-(i) of the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1639e(a)-(i), and regulations thereunder.

§ 1222.24 Ownership limitations for State-registered appraisal management companies.

(a) Appraiser certification or licensing of owners. (1) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 1222.23 shall not be registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the appropriate State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.

(2) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 1222.23 is not barred by paragraph (a)(1) of this section from being registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.

(b) Good moral character of owners. An AMC shall not be registered by a State if any person that owns more than 10 percent of the AMC—

(1) Is determined by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency not to have good moral character; or

(2) Fails to submit to a background investigation carried out by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.

§ 1222.25 Requirements for Federally regulated appraisal management companies.

(a) Requirements in providing services. To provide appraisal management services for a creditor or secondary mortgage market participant relating to a covered transaction, a Federally regulated AMC must comply with the requirements in § 1222.23(b)(2) through (5).

(b) Ownership limitations. (1) A Federally regulated AMC shall not be included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the ASC.

(2) A Federally regulated AMC is not barred pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section from being included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.

(c) Reporting information for the AMC National Registry. A Federally regulated AMC must report to the State or States in which it operates the information required to be submitted by the State to the Appraisal Subcommittee pursuant to the Appraisal Subcommittee's policies regarding the determination of the AMC National Registry fee, including but not necessarily limited to the collection of information related to the limitations set forth in this section, as applicable.

§ 1222.26 Information to be presented to the Appraisal Subcommittee by participating States.

Each State electing to register AMCs for purposes of permitting AMCs to provide appraisal management services relating to covered transactions in the State must submit to the Appraisal Subcommittee the information required to be submitted by Appraisal Subcommittee regulations or guidance concerning AMCs that operate in the State.

Subpart C Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models

Source: 90 FR 64579, Aug. 7, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1222. 27 Authority, purpose, and scope.

(a) Authority. This subpart is issued by the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq., 12 U.S.C. 4526, section 1125 of FIRREA, 12 U.S.C. 3354, as added by section 1473(q) of the Dodd-Frank Act.

(b) Purpose and scope. (1) The purpose of this subpart is to implement the quality control standards in section 3354 of title 12 for the use of automated valuation models in determining the value of collateral in connection with making a credit decision or covered securitization determination regarding a mortgage or mortgage-backed security. This subpart applies to entities regulated by the Federal Housing Finance Agency.

(2) This subpart does not apply to the use of automated valuation models in:

(i) Monitoring of the quality or performance of mortgages or mortgage-backed securities;

(ii) Reviews of the quality of already completed determinations of the value of collateral; or

(iii) The development of an appraisal by a certified or licensed appraiser.

§ 1222.28 Definitions.

As used in this subpart:

Automated valuation model means any computerized model used by mortgage originators and secondary market issuers to determine the value of a consumer's principal dwelling collateralizing a mortgage.

Control systems means the functions (such as internal and external audits, risk review, quality control, and quality assurance) and information systems that are used to measure performance, make decisions about risk, and assess the effectiveness of processes and personnel, including with respect to compliance with statutes and regulations.

Covered securitization determination means a determination regarding:

(1) Whether to waive an appraisal requirement for a mortgage origination in connection with its potential sale or transfer to a secondary market issuer; or

(2) Structuring, preparing disclosures for, or marketing initial offerings of mortgage-backed securitizations.

Credit decision means a decision regarding whether and under what terms to originate, modify, terminate, or make other changes to a mortgage, including a decision whether to extend new or additional credit or change the credit limit on a line of credit.

Dwelling means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, factory-built housing, or manufactured home, if it is used as a residence. A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this subpart.

Mortgage means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in a consumer's principal dwelling.

Mortgage originator means:

(1) Any person who, for direct or indirect compensation or gain, or in the expectation of direct or indirect compensation or gain—

(i) Takes a mortgage application;

(ii) Assists a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain a mortgage; or

(iii) Offers or negotiates terms of a mortgage;

(2) Includes any person who represents to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information (including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items), that such person can or will provide any of the services or perform any of the activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition;

(3) Does not include any person who is—

(i) Not otherwise described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition and who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a person who is described in any such paragraph; or

(ii) A retailer of manufactured or modular homes or an employee of the retailer if the retailer or employee, as applicable—

(A) Does not receive compensation or gain for engaging in activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition that is in excess of any compensation or gain received in a comparable cash transaction;

(B) Discloses to the consumer—

(1) In writing any corporate affiliation with any creditor; and

(2) If the retailer has a corporate affiliation with any creditor, at least one unaffiliated creditor; and

(C) Does not directly negotiate with the consumer or lender on loan terms (including rates, fees, and other costs);

(4) Does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable State law, unless such person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator or by any agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator;

(5) Does not include a person that meets all of the following criteria:

(i) The person provides seller financing for the sale of three or fewer properties in any 12-month period to purchasers of such properties, each of which is owned by the person and serves as security for the financing;

(ii) The person has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;

(iii) The person provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:

(A) The financing is fully amortizing;

(B) The financing is one that the person determines in good faith the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay;

(C) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.

(6) Does not include a natural person, estate, or trust that meets all of the following criteria:

(i) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing for the sale of only one property in any 12-month period to purchasers of such property, which is owned by the natural person, estate, or trust and serves as security for the financing;

(ii) The natural person, estate, or trust has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;

(iii) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:

(A) The financing has a repayment schedule that does not result in negative amortization;

(B) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.

(7) Does not include a servicer or servicer employees, agents and contractors, including but not limited to those who offer or negotiate terms of a mortgage for purposes of renegotiating, modifying, replacing and subordinating principal of existing mortgages where borrowers are behind in their payments, in default or have a reasonable likelihood of being in default or falling behind.

Person has the meaning given in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).

Secondary market issuer means any party that creates, structures, or organizes a mortgage-backed securities transaction.

§ 1222.29 Quality control standards.

Mortgage originators and secondary market issuers that engage in credit decisions or covered securitization determinations themselves, or through or in cooperation with a third-party or affiliate, must adopt and maintain policies, practices, procedures, and control systems to ensure that automated valuation models used in these transactions adhere to quality control standards designed to:

(a) Ensure a high level of confidence in the estimates produced;

(b) Protect against the manipulation of data;

(c) Seek to avoid conflicts of interest;

(d) Require random sample testing and reviews; and

(e) Comply with applicable nondiscrimination laws.

PART 1223 MINORITY AND WOMEN INCLUSION

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4520 and 4526; 12 U.S.C. 1833e; E.O. 11478.

Source: 75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010. Redesignated at 82 FR 14994, Mar. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General
§ 1223.1 Definitions.

The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part:

Applicant means an individual who submits an expression of interest in employment in conjunction with all of the following:

(1) The regulated entity acted to fill a particular position;

(2) The individual followed the regulated entity's standard process for submitting an application;

(3) The individual's expression of interest indicates that the individual possesses the basic qualifications for the position; and

(4) The individual has not removed him or herself from consideration or otherwise indicated that he or she is no longer interested in the position.

Business and activities means operational, commercial, and economic endeavors of any kind, whether for profit or not for profit and whether regularly or irregularly engaged in by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, and includes, but is not limited to, management of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, employment, procurement, insurance, and all types of contracts, including contracts for the issuance or guarantee of any debt, equity, or mortgage-related securities, the management of mortgage and securities portfolios, the making of equity investments, the purchase, sale and servicing of single- and multi-family mortgage loans, and the implementation of affordable housing or community investment programs and initiatives.

Disability has the same meaning as defined in 29 CFR 1630.2(g) and 1630.3 and Appendix to Part 1630—Interpretive Guidance on title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Disabled-owned business means a business, and includes, but is not limited to, financial institutions, firms engaged in mortgage banking, investment banking, financial services, asset management, investment consultants or advisors, underwriters, accountants, brokers, broker-dealers, and providers of legal services—

(1) Qualified as a Service-Disabled Veteran-Owned Small Business Concern as defined in 13 CFR 125.8 through 125.13; or

(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly, by one or more persons with a disability; and

(3) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more persons with a disability.

D&I strategic planning is the process of analyzing the business and activities of a regulated entity to develop strategies for promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs in all activities and at every level of the organization, including management, employment, and contracting. A D&I strategic plan serves as the primary means to communicate the board of directors' long-term D&I vision for the organization, to establish measurable goals and objectives for achieving the vision, and to ensure accountability for achieving those goals and objectives.

Diversity spend with non-diverse-owned businesses means the dollar amount(s) paid by a regulated entity to a prime contractor that is not a minority-, women-, or disabled-owned business for professional services (i.e., the amount paid for work performed, as may be adjusted, in connection with providing legal, accounting, or other professional or consulting services) provided by or allocated to a partner, member, or other equity owner who is a minority, woman, or an individual with a disability.

Minority means any Black (or African) American, Native American (or American Indian), Hispanic (or Latino) American, or Asian American.

Minority-owned business means a business, and includes, but is not limited to, financial institutions, firms engaged in mortgage banking, investment banking, financial services, and asset management, investment consultants or advisors, underwriters, accountants, brokers, broker-dealers, and providers of legal services—

(1) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly, by one or more minority individuals; and

(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more minority individuals.

Prime contractor (tier 1) means a supplier that enters into a contract with a regulated entity to provide goods and/or services directly to that regulated entity.

Promotion means the advancement of an employee within a regulated entity and may be the result of an employee's proactive pursuit of a higher job ranking or a reward for good performance. A promotion is typically associated with an increase in an employee's pay due to additional or enhanced job responsibilities.

Reasonable accommodation has the same meaning as defined in 29 CFR 1630.2(o) and Appendix to Part 1630—Interpretive Guidance on title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Subcontractor (tier 2) means a supplier that enters into a contract with a prime contractor (tier 1) of a regulated entity to provide goods and/or services to that prime contractor (tier 1) for the benefit of the regulated entity.

Women-owned business means a business and includes, but is not limited to, financial institutions, firms engaged in mortgage banking, investment banking, financial services, and asset management, investment consultants or advisors, underwriters, accountants, brokers, broker-dealers, and providers of legal services—

(1) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly, by one or more women; and

(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more women.

[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34394, July 25, 2017]

§ 1223.2 Policy, purpose, and scope.

(a) General policy. FHFA's policy is to promote non-discrimination, diversity and, at a minimum, the inclusion of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities in its own activities and in the business and activities of the regulated entities.

(b) Purpose. This part establishes minimum standards and requirements for the regulated entities to promote diversity and ensure, to the maximum extent possible, in balance with financially safe and sound business practices, the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses at all levels, in management and employment, in all business and activities, and in all contracts for services of any kind, including services that require the services of investment banking, asset management entities, broker-dealers, financial services entities, underwriters, accountants, investment consultants, and providers of legal services.

(c) Scope. This part applies to each regulated entity's development, implementation, and adherence to diversity, inclusion, and non-discrimination policies, practices, and principles, including opportunities to award contracts for goods and/or services.

[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34395, July 25, 2017]

§ 1223.3 Limitations.

(a) Except as expressly provided herein for enforcement by FHFA, the regulations in this part do not, are not intended to, and should not be construed to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law, in equity, or through administrative proceeding, by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, a regulated entity, their officers, employees or agents, or any other person.

(b) The contract clause required by § 1223.21(b)(9) and the itemized data reporting on numbers of contracts and amounts involved required under §§ 1223.22 and 1223.23(b)(13) through (22) apply only to contracts for services in any amount and to contracts for goods that equal or exceed $25,000 in annual value, whether in a single contract, multiple contracts, a series of contracts or renewals of contracts, with a single vendor.

(c) Within ninety (90) days after August 24, 2017 each regulated entity shall submit to FHFA a list of the types of contracts it considers exempt under § 1223.3(b) and any thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for the implementation of § 1223.21(c)(2). The submission shall address the criteria identified in § 1223.21(b)(9).

(d) Each regulated entity shall notify FHFA within thirty (30) days after any change in the types of contracts it considers exempt under § 1223.3(b) or any change in the thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for the implementation of § 1223.21(c)(2).

[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34395, July 25, 2017; 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]

§§ 1223.4-1223.9 [Reserved]
B Subpart B [Reserved]
Subpart C Minority and Women Inclusion and Diversity at Regulated Entities
§ 1223.20 Office of Minority and Women Inclusion.

(a) Establishment. Each regulated entity shall establish and maintain an Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or designate and maintain an office to perform the responsibilities of this part, under the direction of an officer of the regulated entity who reports directly to either the Chief Executive Officer or the Chief Operating Officer, or the equivalent. Each regulated entity shall notify the Director within thirty (30) days after any change in the designation of the office performing the responsibilities of this part.

(b) Adequate resources. The board of directors of each regulated entity will ensure that the Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or office designated to lead the regulated entity in performing the responsibilities of this part, is provided relevant resources including, but not limited to, human, technological, and financial resources sufficient to fulfill the requirements of this part. The regulated entity will also ensure that any officer(s) designated to direct and oversee its D&I programs has the necessary knowledge, skills, competencies, and abilities to effectively implement the minimum standards and requirements found in this part.

(c) Responsibilities. Each Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or the office designated to perform the responsibilities of this part, is responsible for leading the regulated entity's board-approved strategies, for fulfilling the requirements of this part, 12 U.S.C. 1833e(b) and 4520, and such standards and requirements as the Director may issue hereunder.

[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34395, July 25, 2017]

§ 1223.21 Promoting diversity and ensuring inclusion in all business and activities.

(a) Equal opportunity notice. Each regulated entity shall publish a statement, endorsed by its Chief Executive Officer and approved by its Board of Directors, confirming its commitment to the principles of equal opportunity in employment and in contracting, at a minimum, regardless of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability status, genetic information, age, sexual orientation, gender identity, or status as a parent. The notice also shall confirm commitment against retaliation or reprisal. Publication shall include, at a minimum, conspicuous posting in all regulated entity physical facilities, including through alternative media formats, as necessary, and accessible posting on the regulated entity's Web site. The notice shall be updated and re-published, re-endorsed by the Chief Executive Officer and re-approved by the Board of Directors annually.

(b) Policies and procedures. Each regulated entity shall develop, implement, and maintain policies and procedures to ensure, to the maximum extent possible in balance with financially safe and sound business practices, the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses in all business and activities and at all levels of the regulated entity, including in management, employment, procurement, insurance, and all types of contracts. The policies and procedures of each regulated entity, at a minimum, shall:

(1) Confirm its adherence to the principles of equal opportunity and non-discrimination in employment and in contracting;

(2) Describe its practices and principles for prohibiting discrimination in employment and contracting;

(3) Describe its processes for giving consideration to MWDOBs when reviewing and evaluating contract proposals and hiring service providers as required under § 1223.2(c);

(4) Establish a process for receiving and attempting to resolve complaints of discrimination in employment and in contracting. Publication will include, at a minimum, making the procedure conspicuously accessible to employees and applicants through print, electronic, or alternative media formats, as necessary, and through the regulated entity's Web site;

(5) Establish a process for accepting, reviewing, and granting or denying requests for reasonable accommodations of disabilities from employees or applicants for employment;

(6) Establish a process for accepting, reviewing, and granting or denying requests for reasonable accommodations for religious beliefs or practices from employees or applicants for employment;

(7) Encourage the consideration of diversity in nominating or soliciting nominees for positions on boards of directors and engage in recruiting and outreach directed at encouraging individuals who are minorities, women and individuals with disabilities to seek or apply for employment with the regulated entity;

(8) Establish a process for developing a stand-alone D&I strategic plan or incorporating into its existing strategic plan a D&I plan that proactively focuses on promoting the advancement of D&I. The stand-alone D&I strategic plan and the incorporated D&I plan are hereinafter referred to as the D&I strategic plan;

(9) Except as limited by § 1223.3(b), require that each contract it enters contains a material clause committing the contractor to practice the principles of equal employment opportunity and non-discrimination in all its business activities and requiring each such contractor to include the clause in each subcontract it enters for services or goods provided to the regulated entity;

(10) Identify the types of contracts the regulated entity considers exempt under § 1223.3(b) and any thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for implementing paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The policies and procedures must describe the following:

(i) The rationale and need for the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations;

(ii) The criteria used to implement the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations; and

(iii) Any negative or adverse impact the implementation of the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations would likely have on contracting opportunities for minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs;

(11) Be published and made accessible to employees, applicants for employment, contractors, potential contractors, and members of the public through print, electronic, or alternative media formats, as necessary, and through the regulated entity's Web site; and

(12) Be reviewed at the direction of the officer immediately responsible for directing the Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or other office designated to perform the responsibilities of this part, at least annually to assess their effectiveness and to incorporate appropriate changes.

(c) Outreach for contracting. Each regulated entity shall establish a program for outreach designed to ensure to the maximum extent possible the inclusion in contracting opportunities of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses. The program at a minimum shall:

(1) Apply to all contracts entered into by the regulated entity, including contracts with financial institutions, investment banking firms, investment consultants or advisors, financial services entities, mortgage banking firms, asset management entities, underwriters, accountants, brokers, brokers-dealers, and providers of legal services;

(2) Establish policies, procedures and standards requiring the publication of contracting opportunities designed to encourage contractors that are minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses to submit offers or bid for the award of such contracts; and

(3) Ensure the consideration of the diversity of a contractor when the regulated entity reviews and evaluates offers from contractors.

(d) D&I strategic planning. By no later than January 25, 2018 the board of directors of each regulated entity shall adopt a D&I strategic plan for promoting D&I of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs. The board of directors of each regulated entity shall review the D&I strategic plan at least annually and shall readopt the plan, including any interim amendments, at least every three years.

(e) Contents of the D&I strategic plan. The D&I strategic plan shall include the following:

(1) A vision and/or mission statement that addresses the importance of promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities in order to fulfill § 1223.2;

(2) Measurable strategic goals and objectives for accomplishing the agreed-upon priorities and intended outcomes developed to advance diversity and ensure the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities at the regulated entity in accordance with § 1223.2; and

(3) A requirement to create and implement action plans to achieve the strategic goals and objectives and management reporting requirements for monitoring the implementation of those goals and objectives.

[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34396, July 25, 2017; 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]

§ 1223.22 Regulated entity reports.

(a) General. Each regulated entity, through its Office of Minority and Women Inclusion or other office designated to perform the responsibilities of this part, shall report in writing, in such format as the Director may require, to the Director describing its efforts to promote diversity and ensure the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs at all levels, in management and employment, in all business and activities, and in all contracts for services and those contracts for goods above the material clause threshold in § 1223.3(b) and the results of such efforts.

(1) Within 180 days after the effective date of this regulation each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall submit to the Director or his or her designee a preliminary status report describing actions taken, plans for and progress toward implementing the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 4520 and this part; and including to the extent available the data and information required by this part to be included in an annual report.

(2) FHFA intends to use the preliminary status report solely for the purpose of examining the submitting regulated entity or the Office of Finance and reporting to the institution on its operations and the condition of its program.

(b) FHFA use of reports. The data and information reported to FHFA under this part (except for the initial report under paragraph (a)(1) of this section) are intended to be used for any permissible supervisory and regulatory purpose, including examinations, enforcement actions, identification of matters requiring attention, and production of FHFA examination, operating and condition reports related to one or more of the regulated entities. FHFA may use the information and data submitted to issue aggregate reports and data summaries that each regulated entity may use to assess its own progress and accomplishments, or to the public as it deems necessary. FHFA is not requiring, and does not desire, that reports under this part contain personally identifiable information.

(c) Frequency of reports. Each regulated entity shall submit an annual report on or before March 31 of each year, reporting on the period of January 1 through December 31 of the preceding year, and such other reports as the Director may require. If the date for submission falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the report is due no later than the next business day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.

(d) Annual summary. Each regulated entity shall include in its annual report to the Director (pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1723a(k), 1456(c), or 1440, with respect to the regulated entities) a summary of its activities under this part during the previous year, including at a minimum, detailed information describing the actions taken by the regulated entity pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4520 and a statement of the total amounts paid by the regulated entity to contractors during the previous year and the percentage of such amounts paid to contractors that are minorities or minority-owned businesses, women or women-owned businesses, and individuals with disabilities and disabled-owned businesses respectively, as limited by § 1207.3(b).

[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 25215, May 4, 2015; 82 FR 34395, July 25, 2017]

§ 1223.23 Annual reports—format and contents.

(a) Format. Each annual report shall consist of a detailed summary of the regulated entity's activities during the reporting year to carry out the requirements of this part, which report may also be made a part of the regulated entity's annual report to the Director. The report shall contain a table of contents and conclude with a certification by the regulated entity's officer responsible for the annual report that the data and information presented in the report are accurate, and are approved for submission.

(b) Contents. The annual report shall contain the information provided in the regulated entity's annual summary pursuant to § 1223.22(d) and shall include:

(1) The EEO-1 Employer Information Report (Form EEO-1 used by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) and the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) to collect certain demographic information) or similar reports filed by the regulated entity during the reporting year. If the regulated entity does not file Form EEO-1 or similar reports, the regulated entity shall submit to FHFA a completed Form EEO-1;

(2) All other reports or plans the regulated entity submitted to the EEOC, the Department of Labor, OFCCP or Congress (“reports or plans” is not intended to include separate complaints or charges of discrimination or responses thereto) during the reporting year;

(3) Data showing by minority and gender the number of applicants for employment with the regulated entity in each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1 during the reporting year;

(4) Data showing by minority and gender the number of individuals hired for employment with the regulated entity in each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1 during the reporting year;

(5) Data showing by minority, gender and disability classification, and categorized as voluntary or involuntary, the number of separations from employment with the regulated entity in each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1 during the reporting year;

(6) Data showing the number of requests for reasonable accommodation received from employees and applicants for employment, the number of requests granted, and the disabilities accommodated and the types of accommodation granted during the reporting year;

(7) Data showing for the reporting year by minority, gender, and disability classification the number of applicants for promotion at the regulated entity—

(i) Within each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1; and

(ii) From one such occupational or job category to another;

(8) Data showing by minority, gender, and disability classification the number of individuals—

(i) Promoted at the regulated entity within each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1, after applying for such a promotion;

(ii) Promoted at the regulated entity within each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1, without applying for such a promotion; and

(iii) Promoted at the regulated entity from one occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1 to another such category, after applying for such a promotion;

(9) Data showing for the reporting year by minority, gender, and disability classification—

(i) The number of individuals responsible for supervising employees and/or managing the functions or departments of the regulated entity; and

(ii) A description of the strategies, initiatives, and activities executed during the preceding year to promote diverse individuals to supervisory and management roles;

(10)(i) Data showing for the reporting year by minority and gender classification, the number of individuals on the board of directors of each Bank and the Office of Finance—

(A) Using data collected by each Bank and the Office of Finance through an information collection requesting each director's voluntary self-identification of his or her minority and gender classification without personally identifiable information;

(B) Using the same classifications as those on the Form EEO-1; and

(ii) A description of the outreach activities and strategies executed during the preceding year to promote diversity in nominating or soliciting nominees for positions on boards of directors of the Banks (consistent with 12 CFR 1261.9) and the Office of Finance;

(11) A comparison of the data reported by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac under paragraphs (b)(1) through (8) of this section, and by the Banks under paragraphs (b)(1) through (9) of this section, to such data as reported in the previous year together with a narrative analysis;

(12) A provision addressing the strategies, initiatives, and activities that the regulated entity has undertaken during the prior year to:

(i) Communicate with minority serving organizations to help identify ways in which it might be able to improve MWDOB business with the regulated entity by enhancing MWDOB customer access, including in affordable housing and community investment programs;

(ii) Evaluate the regulated entity's processes for identifying, considering, and selecting MWDOBs to participate in financial transactions, which evaluation shall include an assessment of the regulated entity's internal policies and practices that may have presented unique challenges to MWDOBs' participation in financial transactions of the regulated entity.

(13) Descriptions of all regulated entity outreach activity during the reporting year to recruit individuals who are minorities, women, or persons with disabilities for employment, to solicit or advertise for minority or minority-owned, women or women-owned, and disabled-owned contractors or contractors who are individuals with disabilities to offer proposals or bids to enter into business with the regulated entity, or to inform such contractors of the regulated entity's contracting process, including the identification of any partners, organizations, or government offices with which the regulated entity participated in such outreach activity;

(14) Cumulative data separately showing the total number of contracts in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;

(15) Cumulative data separately showing the total amount paid for contracts in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;

(16) Cumulative data separately showing the total number of contracts entered into during the reporting year that were—

(i) Considered exempt under § 1223.3(b);

(ii) Prime contracts (tier 1) entered into with minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs;

(iii) Subcontractor (tier 2) contracts that prime contractors (tier 1) entered into with minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs;

(17) Cumulative data separately showing the total amount paid for contracts entered into during the reporting year that were—

(i) Considered exempt under § 1223.3(b);

(ii) To prime contractors (tier 1) that are minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;

(iii) To subcontractors (tier 2) that are minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs in place at the beginning of the reporting year;

(18) Cumulative data separately showing the total diversity spend with non-diverse-owned businesses during the reporting year;

(19) The annual total of amounts paid to prime contractors (tier 1) and subcontractors (tier 2) and the percentage of which was paid separately through prime contracts and subcontracts to minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs during the reporting year;

(20) Certification of compliance with §§ 1223.20 and 1223.21, together with sufficient documentation to verify compliance;

(21) Data for the reporting year showing, separately, the number of equal opportunity complaints (including administrative agency charges or complaints, arbitral or judicial claims) against the regulated entity that—

(i) Claim employment discrimination, by basis or kind of the alleged discrimination (race, sex, disability, etc.) and by result (settlement, favorable, or unfavorable outcome);

(ii) Claim discrimination in any aspect of the contracting process or administration of contracts, by basis of the alleged discrimination and by result; and

(iii) Were resolved through the regulated entity's internal processes;

(22) Data showing for the reporting year amounts paid to claimants by the regulated entity for settlements or judgments on discrimination complaints—

(i) In employment, by basis of the alleged discrimination; and

(ii) In any aspect of the contracting process or in the administration of contracts, by basis of the alleged discrimination;

(23) A comparison of the data reported under paragraphs (b)(13) through (19) of this section with the same information reported for the previous year;

(24) A narrative identification and analysis of the reporting year's activities the regulated entity considers successful and unsuccessful in achieving the purpose and policy of regulations in this part and a description of progress made from the previous year; and

(25) A narrative identification and analysis of business activities, levels, and areas in which the regulated entity's efforts need to improve with respect to achieving the purpose and policy of regulations in this part, together with a description of anticipated efforts and results the regulated entity expects in the succeeding year.

[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 25215, May 4, 2015; 82 FR 34396, July 25, 2017; 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]

§ 1223.24 Enforcement.

The Director may enforce this regulation and standards issued under it in any manner and through any means within his or her authority, including through identifying matters requiring attention, corrective action orders, directives, or enforcement actions under 12 U.S.C. 4513b and 4514. The Director may conduct examinations of a regulated entity's activities under and in compliance with this part pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4517.

[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34397, July 25, 2017]

§ 1223.25 Office of Finance.

All sections of this part and the standards issued under it shall apply to the Office of Finance, as defined in § 1201.1 of this chapter, in the same manner in which it applies to the regulated entities, unless the Office of Finance is otherwise specifically addressed or excluded.

[82 FR 34397, July 25, 2017]

C Subparts C-Z [Reserved]

PART 1225 MINIMUM CAPITAL—TEMPORARY INCREASE

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4513, 4526, and 4612.

Source: 76 FR 11674, Mar. 3, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1225.1 Purpose.

FHFA is responsible for ensuring the safe and sound operation of regulated entities. In furtherance of that responsibility, this part sets forth standards and procedures FHFA will employ to determine whether to require or rescind a temporary increase in the minimum capital levels for a regulated entity or entities pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4612(d).

§ 1225.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the term:

Minimum capital level means the lowest amount of capital meeting any regulation or orders issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1426 and 12 U.S.C. 4612, or any similar requirement established by regulation, order or other action.

Rescission means a removal in whole or in part of an increase in the temporary minimum capital level.

[76 FR 11674, Mar. 3, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2323, Jan. 11, 2013; 85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020]

§ 1225.3 Procedures.

(a) Information—(1) Information to the regulated entity or entities. If the Director determines, based on standards enunciated in this part, that a temporary increase in the minimum capital level is necessary, the Director will provide notice to the affected regulated entity or entities 30 days in advance of the date that the temporary minimum capital requirement becomes effective, unless the Director determines that an exigency exists that does not permit such notice or the Director determines a longer time period would be appropriate.

(2) Information to the Government. The Director shall inform the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development, and the Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Commission of a temporary increase in the minimum capital level contemporaneously with informing the affected regulated entity or entities.

(b) Comments. The affected regulated entity or entities may provide comments regarding or objections to the temporary increase to FHFA within 15 days or such other period as the Director determines appropriate under the circumstances. The Director may determine to modify, delay, or rescind the announced temporary increase in response to such comments or objection, but no further notice is required for the temporary increase to become effective upon the date originally determined by the Director.

(c) Communication. The Director shall transmit notice of a temporary increase or rescission of a temporary increase in the minimum capital level in writing, using electronic or such other means as appropriate. Such communication shall set forth, at a minimum, the bases for the Director's determination, the amount of increase or decrease in the minimum capital level, the anticipated duration of such increase, and a description of the procedures for requesting a rescission of the temporary increase in the minimum capital level.

(d) Written plan. In making a finding under this part, the Director may require a written plan to augment capital to be submitted on a timely basis to address the methods by which such temporary increase may be attained and the time period for reaching the new temporary minimum capital level.

(e) Time frame for review of temporary increase for purpose of rescission. (1) Absent an earlier determination to rescind in whole or in part a temporary increase in the minimum capital level for a regulated entity or entities, the Director shall no less than every 12 months, consider the need to maintain, modify, or rescind such increase.

(2) A regulated entity or regulated entities may at any time request in writing such review by the Director.

§ 1225.4 Standards and factors.

(a) Standard for imposing a temporary increase. In making a determination to increase temporarily a minimum capital requirement for a regulated entity or entities, the Director will consider the necessity and consistency of such an increase with the prudential regulation and the safe and sound operations of a regulated entity. The Director may impose a temporary minimum-capital increase if consideration of one or more of the following factors leads the Director to the judgment that the current minimum capital requirement for a regulated entity is insufficient to address the entity's risks:

(1) Current or anticipated declines in the value of assets held by a regulated entity; the amounts of mortgage-backed securities issued or guaranteed by the regulated entity; and, its ability to access liquidity and funding;

(2) Credit (including counterparty), market, operational and other risks facing a regulated entity, especially where an increase in risks is foreseeable and consequential;

(3) Current or projected declines in the capital held by a regulated entity;

(4) A regulated entity's material non-compliance with regulations, written orders, or agreements;

(5) Housing finance market conditions;

(6) Level of reserves or retained earnings;

(7) Initiatives, operations, products, or practices that entail heightened risk;

(8) With respect to a Bank, the ratio of the market value of its equity to par value of its capital stock where the market value of equity is the value calculated and reported by the Bank as “market value of total capital” under 12 CFR 932.5(a)(1)(ii)(A); or

(9) Other conditions as detailed by the Director in the notice provided under § 1225.3.

(b) Standard for rescission of a temporary increase. In making a determination to rescind a temporary increase in the minimum capital level for a regulated entity or entities, whether in full or in part, the Director will consider the consistency of such a rescission with the prudential regulation and safe and sound operations of a regulated entity. The Director will rescind, in full or in part, a temporary minimum capital increase if consideration of one or more of the following factors leads the Director to the judgment that rescission of a temporary minimum-capital increase for a regulated entity is appropriate considering the entity's risks:

(1) Changes to the circumstances or facts that led to the imposition of a temporary increase in the minimum capital levels;

(2) The meeting of targets set for a regulated entity in advance of any capital or capital-related plan agreed to by the Director;

(3) Changed circumstances or facts based on new developments occurring since the imposition of the temporary increase in the minimum capital level, particularly where the original problems or concerns have been successfully addressed or alleviated in whole or in part; or

(4) Such other standard as the Director may consider as detailed by the Director in the notice provided under § 1225.3.

§ 1225.5 Guidances.

The Director may determine, from time to time, issue guidance to elaborate, to refine or to provide new information regarding standards or procedures contained herein.

1226 PART 1226 FINANCIAL DATA TRANSPARENCY

Authority: 7 U.S.C. 2(a) (12), 12a, 13(c), 13(d), 13(e), and 16(b); 12 U.S.C. 5334.

Source: 91 FR 38269, June 25, 2026, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1226.1 Definitions.

Agencies means, collectively, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; National Credit Union Administration; Consumer Financial Protection Bureau; Federal Housing Finance Agency; Commodity Futures Trading Commission; Securities and Exchange Commission; and Department of the Treasury; and Agency means any one of the Agencies, individually.

Collection of information means a collection of information as defined in the Paperwork Reduction Act (codified at 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.).

Data standard means a standard that specifies rules by which data is described and recorded.

Geospatial Intelligence Standards Working Group means the joint technical working group established in 2005 by the National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency.

International Organization for Standardization or ISO means the independent, non-governmental international organization that develops voluntary, consensus-based, market-relevant, international standards.

§ 1226.2 Establishment of standards.

(a) Data standards. The Agencies establish the following data standards for purposes of section 124(b)(2) of the Financial Stability Act of 2010, 12 U.S.C. 5334(b)(2), as added by section 5811 of the Financial Data Transparency Act of 2022, for collections of information reported to each Agency by financial entities under the jurisdiction of such Agency and the data collected from Agencies on behalf of the Financial Stability Oversight Council.

(1) Legal entity identifier. The legal entity identifier is established to be ISO 17442—Financial Services—the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI).

(2) Other common identifiers and classifiers. The following common identifiers and classifiers are established as data standards, as applicable:

(i) For identification of swaps and security-based swaps: ISO 4914—Financial services—Unique product identifier (UPI);

(ii) For classification of financial instruments that are not swaps or security-based swaps: ISO 10962—Securities and related financial instruments—Classification of financial instruments (CFI);

(iii) For identification of dates: date as defined by ISO 8601—Date and time—Representations for information interchange;

(iv) For identification of states, possessions, or military “states” of the United States of America or geographic directionals: U.S. Postal Service Abbreviations as published in appendix B of Publication 28—Postal Addressing Standards, Mailing Standards of the United States Postal Service;

(v) For identification of countries and their subdivisions: the country code with the code for subdivisions, as appropriate, as defined by the Geopolitical Entities, Names, and Codes (GENC) developed by the Country Codes Working Group of the Geospatial Intelligence Standards Working Group; and

(vi) For identification of currencies: the alphabetic currency code as defined by ISO 4217—Currency Codes.

(3) Data transmission and schema and taxonomy format data standards—(i) Data standard. For the reporting of information pursuant to a collection of information to the Agencies and the use of schemas and taxonomies by the Agencies, the Agencies establish the data standard that the data transmission or schema and taxonomy format used have the properties set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section.

(ii) Properties. To be considered a data transmission or schema and taxonomy format that meets the data standard set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the data transmission or schema and taxonomy format must, to the extent practicable:

(A) Render data fully searchable and machine-readable;

(B) Enable high quality data through schemas, with accompanying metadata documented in machine-readable taxonomy or ontology models, which clearly define the semantic meaning of the data, as defined by the underlying regulatory information collection requirements, as appropriate;

(C) Ensure that a data element or data asset that exists to satisfy an underlying regulatory information collection requirement be consistently identified as such in associated machine-readable metadata; and

(D) Be nonproprietary or available under an open license.

(b) Consideration by the Agencies. The data standards established in paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to consideration by the Agencies of the applicability, feasibility, practicability, scaling, minimization of disruption to affected persons, and tailoring, as specified in the Financial Data Transparency Act of 2022, and the Agencies therefore may tailor the data standards they adopt, or adopt data standards not established by this section.

PART 1227 SUSPENDED COUNTERPARTY PROGRAM

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4513, 4513b, 4514, 4526.

Source: 78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General
§ 1227.1 Purpose.

This part sets forth the procedures FHFA follows under its Suspended Counterparty Program, the purpose of which is to protect the safety and soundness of the regulated entities. The procedures require the regulated entities to submit reports when they become aware that a person with whom they have engaged or are engaging in a covered transaction within the past three (3) years has engaged in covered misconduct. The procedures set forth a process for FHFA to issue suspension orders directing the regulated entities to cease or refrain from engaging in covered transactions with such persons and any affiliates thereof for a specified period of time or permanently. A suspension order is not intended to be, and may not be issued as, a form of punishment for the suspended person. The procedures include options for:

(a) Appeal of a final suspension order to the Director;

(b) Request for reconsideration of a final suspension order after twelve (12) months have elapsed; and

(c) Request for an exception to a final suspension order in effect in order to engage in a particular covered transaction with the suspended person.

§ 1227.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this part:

Administrative sanction means debarment or suspension imposed by any Federal agency, or any similar administrative action that has the effect of limiting the ability of a person to do business with a Federal agency, including Limited Denials of Participation, Temporary Denials of Participation, or settlements of proposed administrative sanctions if the terms of the settlement restrict the person's ability to do business with the Federal agency in question.

Affiliate means a party that either controls or is controlled by another person, whether directly or indirectly, including one or more persons that are controlled by the same third person.

Conviction means:

(1) A judgment or any other determination of guilt of a criminal offense by any court of competent jurisdiction, whether entered upon a verdict or plea; or

(2) Any other resolution that is the functional equivalent of a judgment of guilt of a criminal offense, including probation before judgment and deferred prosecution. A disposition without the participation of the court is the functional equivalent of a judgment only if it includes an admission of guilt.

Covered misconduct means:

(1) Any conviction or administrative sanction within the past three (3) years if the basis of such action involved fraud, embezzlement, theft, conversion, forgery, bribery, perjury, making false statements or claims, tax evasion, obstruction of justice, or any similar offense, in each case in connection with a mortgage, mortgage business, mortgage securities or other lending product.

(2) FHFA may impute covered misconduct among affiliates as follows:

(i) Conduct imputed from an individual to an organization. FHFA may impute the covered misconduct of any officer, director, shareholder, partner, employee, or other individual associated with an organization, to that organization when the conduct occurred in connection with the individual's performance of duties for or on behalf of that organization, or with the organization's knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. The organization's acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct is evidence of knowledge, approval, or acquiescence.

(ii) Conduct imputed from an organization to an individual, or between individuals. FHFA may impute the covered misconduct of any organization to an individual, or from one individual to another individual, if the individual to whom the conduct is imputed either participated in, had knowledge of, or had reason to know of the conduct.

(iii) Conduct imputed from one organization to another organization. FHFA may impute the covered misconduct of one organization to another organization when the conduct occurred in connection with a partnership, joint venture, joint application, association, or similar arrangement, or when the organization to whom the conduct is imputed has the power to direct, manage, control, or influence the activities of the organization responsible for the conduct. Acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct is evidence of knowledge, approval, or acquiescence and hence is a basis for imputation of conduct.

Covered transaction means a contract, agreement, or financial or business relationship between a regulated entity and a person and any affiliates thereof.

Person means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, organization, or other entity.

Respondent means a person and any affiliate thereof that is the subject of a proposed or final suspension order.

Suspending official means the Director, or any other FHFA official with delegated authority to sign proposed and final suspension orders and their accompanying notices.

Suspension means an action taken by a suspending official pursuant to a final suspension order that requires a regulated entity to cease or refrain from engaging in any covered transactions with a person and any affiliates thereof for a specified period of time or permanently.

§ 1227.3 Scope of suspension orders.

(a) General. A suspending official may issue a final suspension order to the regulated entities directing them to cease or refrain from engaging in any covered transactions with a particular person and any affiliates thereof for a specified period of time or permanently, pursuant to the requirements of this part.

(b) No effect on other actions by FHFA. Nothing in this part shall limit the authority of FHFA to pursue any other regulatory or supervisory action with respect to any regulated entity or any other person and any affiliates thereof, whether instead of or in addition to any action taken under this part.

(c) No effect on other actions by a regulated entity. Nothing in this part shall limit the authority of any regulated entity to take any action it determines appropriate to address risks from any person and any affiliates thereof with which it engages in covered transactions.

(d) No effect on residential mortgage loans secured by respondent's own personal or household residence. A final suspension order issued pursuant to this part shall have no effect on any transaction involving a residential mortgage loan if the loan is secured by the respondent's own personal or household residence.

[78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 79680, Dec. 23, 2015]

§ 1227.4 Regulated entity reports on covered misconduct.

(a) General. A regulated entity shall submit a report to FHFA when the regulated entity becomes aware that a person or any affiliates thereof with which the regulated entity is engaging or has engaged in a covered transaction within the past three (3) years has engaged in covered misconduct. A regulated entity is aware of covered misconduct when the regulated entity has reliable information that such misconduct has occurred.

(b) Content of reports. Each report on covered misconduct shall:

(1) Include sufficient information for FHFA to identify the person or persons that are the subject of the report, as well as any affiliates thereof if such affiliates are known to the regulated entity;

(2) Describe the nature and extent of any covered transaction that the regulated entity has or had with any persons and any affiliates thereof identified in the report; and

(3) Include a description of the covered misconduct, including the date of the covered misconduct, documents evidencing the covered misconduct if in the possession of the regulated entity, and any other relevant information that the regulated entity chooses to submit.

(c) Timing of reports. (1) A regulated entity shall submit a report to FHFA on covered misconduct no later than thirty (30) calendar daysafter the regulated entity becomes aware of such misconduct, even if the regulated entity lacks sufficient information to submit a complete report.

(2) A regulated entity may supplement the submission of any covered misconduct report by submitting additional relevant information to FHFA at any time.

[78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 79680, Dec. 23, 2015]

§ 1227.5 Proposed suspension order.

(a) A suspending official may base a proposed suspension order upon evidence of covered misconduct from any of the following sources:

(1) A required report submitted by a regulated entity;

(2) A referral submitted by FHFA's Office of Inspector General; or

(3) Any other source of information.

(b) Grounds for issuance. A suspending official may issue a proposed suspension order with respect to a particular person and any affiliates thereof if the suspending official determines that there is evidence that:

(1) The person or any affiliates thereof has engaged in covered misconduct, which evidence may include copies of any order or other documents documenting a conviction or administrative sanction for such conduct; and

(2) The covered misconduct is of a type that would be likely to cause significant financial or reputational harm to a regulated entity or otherwise threaten the safe and sound operation of a regulated entity.

(c) Notice required. If a suspending official determines that grounds exist under paragraph (b) of this section for issuance of a proposed suspension order with respect to a particular person and any affiliates thereof, the suspending official may issue a written notice of proposed suspension to the person and any affiliates thereof, and shall provide a copy of such notice to the regulated entity and to all of the other regulated entities.

(d) Content of notice. The notice of proposed suspension shall include:

(1) The time period during which the suspension will apply;

(2) A statement of the suspending official's proposed suspension determination and supporting grounds;

(3) The proposed suspension order;

(4) Instructions on how to respond; and

(5) The date by which any response must be received, which must be at least thirty (30) calendar days after the date on which the notice is sent.

(e) Method of sending notice. The suspending official shall send the notice of proposed suspension to the last known street address, facsimile number, or email address of:

(1) The person, the person's counsel, or an agent for service of process; and

(2) Any affiliates of the person, the counsel for those affiliates, or an agent for service of process, if suspension is also being proposed for such affiliates.

(f) Response from respondent—(1) Timing of response. Any response from the affected person and any affiliates thereof must be submitted to FHFA within the time period specified in the notice. If a response is submitted after the specified deadline, the suspending official may consider or disregard such response, in the suspending official's discretion.

(2) Content of response. The response shall identify:

(i) Any information and argument in opposition to the proposed suspension;

(ii) Any specific facts that contradict the statements contained in the notice of proposed suspension. A general denial is insufficient to raise a genuine dispute over facts material to the suspension;

(iii) All criminal and civil proceedings not included in the notice of proposed suspension that grew out of facts relevant to the bases for the proposed suspension stated in such notice;

(iv) All existing, proposed, or prior exclusions under regulations implementing Executive Order 12549 and all similar actions taken by Federal, state, or local agencies, including administrative agreements that affect only those agencies; and

(v) The names and identifying information for any affiliates of the affected person.

(g) Response from regulated entities—(1) Timing of response. Any response from the regulated entities must be submitted to FHFA within the time period specified in the notice. If a response is submitted after the specified deadline, the suspending official may consider or disregard such response, in the suspending official's discretion.

(2) Content of response. (i) The response shall include:

(A) Any information that would indicate that suspension of the person in question could reasonably be expected to have a negative financial impact or other significant adverse effect on the financial or operating performance of the regulated entity; and

(B) Any existing contractual relationship with the person in question for which the regulated entity might request a limitation or qualification.

(ii) The response may include any other information that the regulated entity believes would be relevant to the proposed suspension determination, including but not limited to:

(A) Any information related to the factual basis for the proposed suspension;

(B) Any information about other known affiliates of the person;

(C) Recommendations for alternatives to suspension that could mitigate the risks presented by engaging in covered transactions with the respondent; and

(D) Recommendations for limitations or qualifications on the scope of the proposed suspension.

[78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 79680, Dec. 23, 2015]

§ 1227.6 Final suspension order.

(a) Grounds for issuance. A suspending official may issue a final suspension order with respect to a respondent proposed for suspension if, based solely on the written record, the suspending official determines that there is adequate evidence that:

(1) The respondent engaged in covered misconduct; and

(2) The covered misconduct is of a type that would be likely to cause significant financial or reputational harm to a regulated entity or otherwise threaten the safe and sound operation of a regulated entity.

(b) Written record. The written record shall include any material submitted by the respondent and any material submitted by the regulated entities, as well as any other material that was considered by the suspending official in making the final determination, including any information related to the factors in paragraph (c) of this section. FHFA may independently obtain information relevant to the suspension determination for inclusion in the written record.

(c) Factors that may be considered by the suspending official. In determining whether or not to issue a final suspension order with respect to the respondent where the grounds for suspension are satisfied, the suspending official may also consider any factors that the suspending official determines may be relevant in light of the circumstances of the particular case, including but not limited to:

(1) The actual or potential harm or impact that results or may result from the covered misconduct;

(2) The frequency of incidents or duration of the covered misconduct;

(3) Whether there is a pattern of prior covered misconduct;

(4) Whether and to what extent the respondent planned, initiated, or carried out the covered misconduct;

(5) Whether the respondent has accepted responsibility for the covered misconduct and recognizes its seriousness;

(6) Whether the respondent has paid or agreed to pay all criminal, civil and administrative penalties or liabilities for the covered misconduct, including any investigative or administrative costs incurred by the government, and has made or agreed to make full restitution;

(7) Whether the covered misconduct was pervasive within the respondent's organization;

(8) The kind of positions held by the individuals involved in the covered misconduct;

(9) Whether the respondent's organization took appropriate corrective action or remedial measures, such as establishing ethics training and implementing programs to prevent recurrence of the covered misconduct;

(10) Whether the respondent brought the covered misconduct to the attention of the appropriate government agency in a timely manner;

(11) Whether the respondent has fully investigated the circumstances surrounding the covered misconduct and, if so, made the result of the investigation available to the suspending official;

(12) Whether the respondent had effective standards of conduct and internal control systems in place at the time the covered misconduct occurred;

(13) Whether the respondent has taken appropriate disciplinary action against the individuals responsible for the covered misconduct; or

(14) Whether the respondent has had adequate time to eliminate the circumstances within the organization that led to the covered misconduct.

(d) Deadline for decision. The suspending official shall make a determination on whether to issue a final suspension order with respect to the respondent within thirty (30) calendar days of the deadline given for the respondent's response in the notice of proposed suspension, unless the suspending official notifies the respondent in writing that additional time is needed.

(e) Determination not to issue final suspension order. If the suspending official determines that suspension is not appropriate with respect to the respondent, the suspending official shall provide prompt written notice of that determination to the respondent, the regulated entity, and all of the other regulated entities.

(f) Issuance of final suspension order—(1) General. If the suspending official makes a final determination to suspend the respondent, the suspending official shall issue a final suspension order to each regulated entity regarding the respondent.

(2) Content of final suspension order. A final suspension order shall include:

(i) A statement of the suspension determination and supporting grounds, including a discussion of any relevant information submitted by the respondent or regulated entities;

(ii) Identification of each person and any affiliates thereof to which the suspension applies;

(iii) A description of the scope of the suspension, including the time period to which the suspension applies; and

(iv) A description of any limitations or qualifications that apply to the scope of the suspension, including modification of the conduct of covered transactions that may be engaged in with the respondent.

(3) Notice to respondent required. The suspending official shall provide prompt written notice to the respondent of the final suspension order issued to the regulated entities with respect to such respondent.

(4) Content of notice. The notice of a final suspension order shall include:

(i) A statement of the suspension determination and supporting grounds, including a discussion of any relevant information submitted by the respondent; and

(ii) A copy of the final suspension order.

(g) Effective date. A final suspension order shall take effect on the date specified in the order, which shall be at least forty-five (45) calendar days after the date on which the order is signed by the suspending official.

[78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 79680, Dec. 23, 2015]

§ 1227.7 Appeal to the Director.

(a) Opportunity to appeal. A respondent may submit an appeal to the Director within thirty (30) calendar days after the date a final suspension order has been signed. If the Director signed the final suspension order as the suspension official, the respondent has no appeal right under this section. The appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief specifically identifying the respondent's objections to the final suspension order and the supporting reasons for such objections.

(b) Decision on appeal. The Director shall issue a written final decision on an appeal of a final suspension order based on the record submitted by the suspending official, together with any material submitted with an appeal. The Director may affirm, vacate or amend the suspension, or remand to the suspending official for further proceedings, in the discretion of the Director. If the Director does not take action on an appeal prior to the effective date of the order, the order shall take effect as if it had been affirmed by the Director, on the date specified in the order.

(c) Final agency action. The written final decision of the Director on an appeal of a final suspension order shall be the final agency action. If the Director does not take action on an appeal prior to the effective date of the order, the order shall be the final agency action.

(d) Exhaustion of administrative remedies. In order to fulfill the requirement to exhaust administrative remedies, a respondent must appeal a final suspension order to the Director as provided in this section prior to seeking judicial review of such order.

§ 1227.8 Posting of final suspension orders.

(a) Required posting. FHFA will publish on its Web site all final suspension orders issued by FHFA on the effective date of the order.

(b) Content of posting. Each posting on FHFA's Web site shall include:

(1) The full name (where available) of each suspended person and any affiliates thereof subject to the final suspension order, in alphabetical order;

(2) A description of the time period for which the suspension applies; and

(3) A copy of each final suspension order applicable to the person and any affiliates thereof.

(c) Removal of names. FHFA will remove from the Web site all references to the suspension of a person and any affiliates thereof at such time as the suspension expires or is otherwise vacated.

§ 1227.9 Request for reconsideration.

(a) Time period for request. A suspended person may submit a request to the Director for reconsideration of a final suspension order at any time after the expiration of a twelve (12)-month period from the date the order took effect, but no such request may be made within twelve (12) months of a previous request for reconsideration from such person.

(b) Content of request. A request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing and state the specific grounds for relief from the final suspension order, which shall be limited to any new information that may indicate that engaging in covered transactions with a regulated entity would no longer present a risk of significant financial or reputational harm or threat to the safe and sound operation of a regulated entity.

(c) Decision on request. The Director may approve a request for reconsideration if the Director determines that engaging in covered transactions with a regulated entity is no longer likely to result in significant financial or reputational harm to a regulated entity or otherwise threaten the safe and sound operation of a regulated entity. The Director will inform the requestor of the decision on the request for reconsideration in a timely manner. A decision on a request for reconsideration shall not constitute an appealable order.

§ 1227.10 Exception to final suspension order in effect.

(a) Request for exception. A regulated entity to which a final suspension order in effect is applicable may request an exception from such order to allow it to engage in a particular covered transaction with a suspended person and any affiliates thereof. Any such request shall clearly state any reasons supporting an exception, as well as any steps the regulated entity will take to mitigate any risks presented by the exception. An exception may not be requested by a suspended person or any affiliates thereof.

(b) Decision on exception. A suspending official may approve an exception from a final suspension order in effect to permit a regulated entity to engage in a particular covered transaction with a suspended person and any affiliates thereof for reasons consistent with those for which the suspending official may limit or qualify the scope or effect of a final suspension order under § 1227.6(f)(2)(iv) of this part. The decision on a request for an exception shall not constitute an appealable order.

(c) Notice required. FHFA shall provide written notice in a timely manner to the regulated entity, the suspended person and any affiliates thereof, and the other regulated entities of any exception approved for a particular covered transaction.

B Subpart B [Reserved]

PART 1228 RESTRICTIONS ON THE ACQUISITION OF, OR TAKING SECURITY INTERESTS IN, MORTGAGES ON PROPERTIES ENCUMBERED BY CERTAIN PRIVATE TRANSFER FEE COVENANTS AND RELATED SECURITIES

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513, 4526, 4565, 4616, 4617, 4631.

Source: 77 FR 15574, Mar. 16, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1228.1 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

Adjacent or contiguous property means property that borders the burdened community, provided that such adjacent or contiguous property may be separated from the burdened community by public right of way.

Burdened community means a community comprising all of the parcels or interests in real property encumbered by a single private transfer fee covenant or a series of separate private transfer fee covenants that require payment of private transfer fees to the same entity to be used for the same purposes.

Covered association means a nonprofit mandatory membership organization comprising owners of homes, condominiums, cooperatives, manufactured homes, or any interest in real property, created pursuant to a declaration, covenant or other applicable law; or an organization described in section 501(c)(3) or section 501(c)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code. A covered association may include master and sub-associations, each of which is also a covered association.

Direct benefit means that the proceeds of a private transfer fee are used exclusively to support maintenance and improvements to encumbered properties, and acquisition, improvement, administration, and maintenance of property owned by the covered association of which the owners of the burdened property are members and used primarily for their benefit. Direct benefit also includes cultural, educational, charitable, recreational, environmental, conservation or other similar activities that—

(1) Are conducted in or protect the burdened community or adjacent or contiguous property, or

(2) Are conducted on other property that is used primarily by residents of the burdened community.

Excepted transfer fee covenant means a private transfer fee covenant that:

(1) Requires payment of a private transfer fee to a covered association and limits the use of such transfer fees exclusively to purposes which provide a direct benefit to the real property encumbered by the private transfer fee covenants; or

(2) Requires payment of a private transfer fee under a program meeting the Duty to Serve shared equity loan program criteria for resale restriction programs in § 1282.34(d)(4)(i)(A) and (d)(4)(ii) of this chapter, except that no household income limit shall apply.

Private transfer fee means a transfer fee, including a charge or payment, imposed by a covenant, restriction, or other similar document and required to be paid in connection with or as a result of a transfer of title to real estate, and payable on a continuing basis each time a property is transferred (except for transfers specifically excepted) for a period of time or indefinitely. A private transfer fee does not include fees, charges, payments, or other obligations—

(1) Imposed by or payable to the Federal government or a State or local government; or

(2) That defray actual costs of the transfer of the property, including transfer of membership in the relevant covered association.

Private transfer fee covenant means a covenant that:

(1) Purports to run with the land or to bind current owners of, and successors in title to, such real property; and

(2) Obligates a transferee or transferor of all or part of the property to pay a private transfer fee upon transfer of an interest in all or part of the property, or in consideration for permitting such transfer.

Transfer means, with respect to real property, the sale, gift, grant, conveyance, assignment, inheritance, or other transfer of an interest in the real property.

[77 FR 15574, Mar. 16, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 2323, Jan. 11, 2013; 89 FR 17716, Mar. 12, 2024]

§ 1228.2 Restrictions.

The regulated entities shall not purchase, invest or otherwise deal in any mortgages on properties encumbered by private transfer fee covenants, securities backed by such mortgages, or securities backed by the income stream from such covenants, unless such covenants are excepted transfer fee covenants. The Federal Home Loan Banks shall not accept such mortgages or securities as collateral, unless such covenants are excepted transfer fee covenants.

§ 1228.3 Limitations on applicability.

(a) Beginning July 16, 2012, this part shall apply only to mortgages on properties encumbered by private transfer fee covenants if those covenants were created on or after February 8, 2011, except that this part shall not apply to mortgages on properties encumbered by private transfer fee covenants if those covenants were created pursuant to an agreement entered into before February 8, 2011 applicable to land that is identified in the agreement and the agreement was in settlement of litigation or approved by a government agency or body. This part also applies to securities backed by mortgages to which this part applies, and to securities issued after February 8, 2011 backed by revenue from private transfer fees, regardless of when the covenants were created.

(b) This part does not apply to shared equity loans, or related securities, with promissory note dates prior to July 1, 2023, regardless of whether the loans met the Duty to Serve shared equity loan program criteria for resale restriction programs in § 1282.34(d)(4)(i)(A) and (d)(4)(ii) of this chapter.

[91 FR 12675, Mar. 17, 2026]

§ 1228.4 State restrictions unaffected.

This part does not affect state restrictions or requirements with respect to private transfer fee covenants, such as with respect to validity, enforceability, disclosures, or duration.

PART 1229 CAPITAL CLASSIFICATIONS AND PROMPT CORRECTIVE ACTION

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 1426, 4513, 4526, 4613, 4614, 4615, 4616, 4617, 4618, 4622, 4623.

Source: 74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Federal Home Loan Banks
§ 1229.1 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

Capital distribution means any payment by the Bank, whether in cash or stock, of a dividend, any return of capital or retained earnings by the Bank to its shareholders, any transaction in which the Bank redeems or repurchases capital stock, or any transaction in which the Bank redeems, repurchases or retires any other instrument which is included in the calculation of its total capital.

Class A stock means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified in section 6(a)(4)(A)(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(4)(A)(i)) and related regulations.

Class B stock means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified in section 6(a)(4)(A)(ii) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(4)(A)(ii)) and related regulations.

Critical capital level for a Bank means an amount equal to 2 percent of the Bank's total assets.

Executive officer means for a Bank any of the following persons, provided that the Director may from time to time add or remove persons, positions, or functions to or from the list (individually for one or more Banks or jointly for all the Banks) by communication to the affected Banks:

(1) Executive officers about whom the Banks must publicly disclose detailed compensation information under Regulation S-K, 17 CFR part 229, issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission;

(2) Any other executive who occupies one of the following positions or is in charge of one of the following subject areas:

(i) Overall Bank operations, such as the Chief Operating Officer or an equivalent employee;

(ii) Chief Financial Officer or an equivalent employee;

(iii) Chief Administrative Officer or an equivalent employee;

(iv) Chief Risk Officer or an equivalent employee;

(v) Asset and Liability Management officer, or an equivalent employee;

(vi) Chief Accounting Officer or an equivalent employee;

(vii) General Counsel or an equivalent employee;

(viii) Strategic Planning officer or an equivalent employee;

(ix) Internal Audit officer or an equivalent employee; or

(x) Chief Information Officer or an equivalent employee; or

(3) Any other individual, without regard to title:

(i) Who is in charge of a principal business unit, division or function; or

(ii) Who reports directly to the Bank's chairman of the board of directors, vice chairman of the board of directors, president or chief operating officer.

Minimum capital requirement means the leverage and total capital requirements established for a Bank under section 6(a)(2) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(2)) and related regulations, as such requirements may be revised by the Director, or any similar requirement established for a Bank by regulation, order, written agreement or other action.

New business activity when used in this subpart has the same meaning set forth in § 1272.1 of this chapter.

Permanent capital means the retained earnings of a Bank, determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles in the United States (GAAP), plus the amount paid-in for the Bank's Class B stock.

Risk-based capital requirement means any capital requirement established for a Bank under section 6(a)(3) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(3)) and related regulations that ensures a Bank will hold sufficient permanent capital and reserves to support the risks that arise from its operations.

Tangible equity means, for a Bank, the paid-in value of its outstanding capital stock plus its retained earnings calculated in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles in the United States (GAAP) less the amount of any assets that would be intangible assets under GAAP.

Total capital means the sum of the Bank's permanent capital, the amount paid-in for its Class A stock, the amount of any general allowances for losses, and the amount of any other instruments identified in a Bank's capital plan that the Director has determined to be available to absorb losses incurred by such Bank.

[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 78 FR 2323, Jan. 11, 2013; 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016]

§ 1229.2 Determination of a Bank's capital classification.

(a) Quarterly determination. The Director shall determine the capital classification for each Bank no less often than once a quarter based on the capital classifications in § 1229.3 of this subpart. The Director may make a determination with regard to a capital classification for a Bank more often than the minimum required under this paragraph or make a determination for one or more Banks without making a determination for all the Banks.

(b) Notification to a Bank. Before finalizing any action to classify a Bank under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the proposed action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.

(c) Notification to the FHFA. A Bank shall provide written notification within ten calendar days of any event or development that has caused or is likely to cause its permanent or total capital to fall below the level necessary to maintain its capital classification at the level assigned in the most recent capital classification or reclassification determination by the Director or that is contained in the most recent notice of a proposed capital classification or reclassification provided under § 1229.12(a) of this subpart.

§ 1229.3 Criteria for a Bank's capital classification.

(a) Adequately capitalized. Except where the Director has exercised authority to reclassify a Bank, a Bank shall be considered adequately capitalized if, at the time of the determination under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart, the Bank has sufficient permanent and total capital, as applicable, to meet or exceed its risk-based and minimum capital requirements.

(b) Undercapitalized. Except where the Director has exercised authority to reclassify a Bank, a Bank shall be considered undercapitalized if, at the time of the determination under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart, the Bank does not have sufficient permanent or total capital, as applicable, to meet any one or more of its risk-based or minimum capital requirements but such deficiency is not of a magnitude to classify the Bank as significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized.

(c) Significantly undercapitalized. Except where the Director has exercised authority to reclassify a Bank, a Bank shall be considered significantly undercapitalized if, at the time of the determination under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart, the amount of permanent or total capital held by the Bank is less than 75 percent of what is required to meet any one of its risk-based or minimum capital requirements but the magnitude of the Bank's deficiency in total capital is not sufficient to classify it as critically undercapitalized.

(d) Critically undercapitalized. Except where the Director has exercised authority to reclassify a Bank, a Bank shall be considered critically undercapitalized if, at the time of the determination under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart, the total capital held by the Bank is less than or equal to the critical capital level for a Bank as defined under § 1229.1 of this subpart.

§ 1229.4 Reclassification by the Director.

(a) Discretionary reclassification. Where the Director determines that any of the grounds described in paragraph (b) of this section exist, the Director may reclassify a Bank as:

(1) Undercapitalized, if it is otherwise classified as adequately capitalized;

(2) Significantly undercapitalized, if it is otherwise classified as undercapitalized; or

(3) Critically undercapitalized if it is otherwise classified as significantly undercapitalized.

(b) Grounds for discretionary reclassification. Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, the Director may at any time reclassify a Bank under this section if:

(1) The Director determines in writing that:

(i) The Bank is engaging in conduct that could result in the rapid depletion of permanent or total capital;

(ii) The value of collateral pledged to the Bank has decreased significantly; or

(iii) The value of property subject to mortgages owned by the Bank has decreased significantly.

(2) The Director determines, after notice to the Bank and opportunity for an informal hearing before the Director, that a Bank is in an unsafe and unsound condition; or

(3) The Director finds, under § 1371(b) of Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(b)), that the Bank is engaging in an unsafe and unsound practice because the Bank's asset quality, management, earnings or liquidity were found to be less than satisfactory during the most recent examination, and any deficiency has not been corrected.

(c) Procedures. Before finalizing any action to reclassify a Bank under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the Director's proposed action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.

(d) Duration. Any condition, action or inaction by a Bank that is the basis for a decision to reclassify a Bank under this section or under any other authority provided the Director may be considered by the Director and form the basis of further, subsequent actions to reclassify the Bank until such time as the Bank remedies such condition or takes necessary action to correct such situation to the satisfaction of the Director.

(e) Reservation of authority. Nothing in this section shall prevent the Director from exercising any other authority under the Safety and Soundness Act, the Bank Act or any regulation to reclassify a Bank for reasons not set forth in paragraph (b) of this section or to take any other action against a Bank.

§ 1229.5 Capital distributions for adequately capitalized Banks.

(a) Restriction. An adequately capitalized Bank may not make a capital distribution if after doing so the Bank's capital would be insufficient to maintain a classification of adequately capitalized. A Bank may not make a capital distribution if such distribution would violate any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of capital stock or the payment of a dividend set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) and any other applicable regulation.

(b) Exception. Notwithstanding the restriction in paragraph (a) of this section, the Director may permit a Bank to repurchase or redeem its shares of stock if the transaction is made in connection with the issuance of additional Bank shares or obligations in at least an equivalent amount to the shares that are redeemed or repurchased and will reduce the Bank's financial obligations or otherwise improve its financial condition. Any transaction under this paragraph also must conform with any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of Bank stock set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) and in any other applicable regulation.

§ 1229.6 Mandatory actions applicable to undercapitalized Banks.

(a) Mandatory Actions by the Bank. A Bank that is classified as undercapitalized shall:

(1) Submit to the Director for approval a capital restoration plan that complies with the requirements and procedures established by § 1229.11 of this part and receive approval from the Director for such plan;

(2) Fulfill all terms, conditions and obligations contained in the capital restoration plan as approved by the Director;

(3) Not make any capital distribution unless:

(i) The distribution meets the requirements of § 1229.5(b) and paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section and the Director has provided permission for such distribution as set forth in § 1229.5(b);

(ii) The capital distribution will not result in the Bank being reclassified as significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized; and

(iii) The capital distribution does not violate any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of capital stock or the declaration or payment of a dividend set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) or in any other applicable regulation;

(4) Not permit its average total assets in any calendar quarter to exceed its average total assets during the preceding calendar quarter, where such average is calculated based on the total amount of assets held by the Bank for each day in a quarter, unless:

(i) The Director has approved the Bank's capital restoration plan; and

(ii) The Director determines that:

(A) The increase in total assets is consistent with the approved capital restoration plan; and

(B) The ratio of tangible equity to the Bank's total assets is increasing at a rate sufficient to enable the Bank to become adequately capitalized within a reasonable time and consistent with any schedule established in the capital restoration plan; and

(5) Not acquire, directly or indirectly, an equity interest in any operating entity (other than as necessary to enforce a security interest granted to the Bank) nor engage in any new business activity unless:

(i) The Director has approved the Bank's capital restoration plan, the Bank is implementing the capital restoration plan and the Director determines that proposed acquisition or activity will further achievement of the goals set forth in that plan; or

(ii) The Director determines that the proposed acquisition or activity will be consistent with the safe and sound operation of the Bank and will further the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time.

(b) Mandatory reclassification by the Director. The Director shall reclassify an undercapitalized Bank as significantly undercapitalized if:

(1) The Bank does not submit a capital restoration plan that is substantially in compliance with § 1229.11 of this subpart and within the time frame required.

(2) The Director does not approve the capital restoration plan submitted by the Bank; or

(3) The Director determines that the Bank has failed in any material respect to comply with its approved capital restoration plan or fulfill any schedule for action established by that plan.

(c) Monitoring. The Director shall monitor the condition of any undercapitalized Bank and monitor the Bank's compliance with the capital restoration plan and any restrictions imposed under this section or § 1229.7 of this subpart. As part of this process, the Director shall review the capital restoration plan and any restrictions or requirements imposed on the undercapitalized Bank to determine whether such plan, restrictions or requirements are consistent with the safe and sound operation of the Bank and will further the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time.

[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 38513, Aug. 4, 2009; 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016]

§ 1229.7 Discretionary actions applicable to undercapitalized Banks.

(a) Discretionary safeguards. The Director may take any action with regard to an undercapitalized Bank that may be taken with regard to a significantly undercapitalized Bank under section 1366 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4616) or § 1229.8 or § 1229.9 if the Director determines that such action is necessary to assure the safe and sound operation of the Bank and the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time.

(b) Procedures. Before finalizing any action under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action or actions and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the Director's decision to take such action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.

[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016]

§ 1229.8 Mandatory actions applicable to significantly undercapitalized Banks.

A Bank that is classified as significantly undercapitalized:

(a) Shall submit to the Director for approval a capital restoration plan that complies with the requirements and procedures established by § 1229.11 of this part and receive approval from the Director for such plan;

(b) Fulfill all terms, conditions and obligations contained in the capital restoration plan once the plan is approved by the Director;

(c) Shall not make any capital distribution that would result in the Bank being reclassified as critically undercapitalized or that would violate any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of capital stock or the payment of a dividend set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) or any applicable regulation;

(d) Shall not make any capital distribution not otherwise prohibited under paragraph (c) of this section absent the prior written approval of the Director, provided that the Director may approve such distribution only if the Director determines that:

(1) The capital distribution will enhance the ability of the Bank to meet its risk-based and minimum capital requirements promptly;

(2) The capital distribution will contribute to the long-term financial safety and soundness of the Bank; or

(3) The capital distribution is otherwise in the public interest;

(e) Shall not without prior written approval of the Director pay a bonus to any executive officer, provided that for purposes of this paragraph a bonus shall include any amount paid or accruing to an executive officer under a profit sharing arrangement;

(f) Shall not without the prior written approval of the Director compensate an executive officer at a rate exceeding the average rate of compensation of that officer during the 12 months preceding the calendar month in which the Bank became significantly undercapitalized, provided however, that for purposes of calculating the executive officer's average rate of compensation, such compensation shall not include any bonus or profit sharing paid or accruing to the officer during the 12 month period;

(g) Comply with § 1229.6(a)(4) and (a)(5) of this subpart; and

(h) Comply with any on-going restrictions or obligations that were imposed on the Bank by the Director under § 1229.7 of this subpart.

[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 38513, Aug. 4, 2009]

§ 1229.9 Discretionary actions applicable to significantly undercapitalized Banks.

(a) Actions by the Director. The Director shall carry out this section by taking, at any time, one or more of the following actions with respect to a significantly undercapitalized Bank:

(1) Limit the increase in any obligations or class of obligations of the Bank, including any off-balance sheet obligations. Such limitation may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;

(2) Reduce the amount of any obligations or class of obligations held by the Bank, including any off-balance sheet obligations. Such reduction may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;

(3) Limit the increase in, or prohibit the growth of any asset or class of assets held by the Bank. Such limitation may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current assets or in any other form chosen by the Director;

(4) Reduce the amount of any asset or class of asset held by the Bank. Such reduction may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;

(5) Acquire new capital in the form and amount determined by the Director, which specifically may include requiring a Bank to increase its level of retained earnings;

(6) Modify, limit or terminate any activity of the Bank that the Director determines creates excessive risk;

(7) Take steps to improve the management at the Bank by:

(i) Ordering a new election for the Bank's board of directors in accordance with procedures established by the Director;

(ii) Dismissing particular directors or executive officers, in accordance with section 1366(b)(5)(B) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4616(b)(5)(B)), who held office for more than 180 days immediately prior to the date on which the Bank became undercapitalized, provided further that such dismissals shall not be considered removal pursuant to an enforcement action under section 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a) and shall not be subject to the requirements necessary to remove an officer or director under that section; or

(iii) Ordering the Bank to hire qualified executive officers, the hiring of whom, prior to employment by the Bank and at of the option of the Director, may be subject to review and approval by the Director; or

(8)(i) Reclassify a significantly undercapitalized Bank as critically undercapitalized if:

(A) The Bank does not submit a capital restoration plan that is substantially in compliance with § 1229.11 of this part and within the time frame required;

(B) The Director does not approve the capital restoration plan submitted by the Bank; or

(C) The Director determines that the Bank has failed to make reasonable, good faith efforts to comply with its approved capital restoration plan and fulfill any schedule established by that plan.

(ii) Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, the Director may reclassify a significantly undercapitalized Bank under paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section at any time the grounds for such action exist, notwithstanding the fact that such grounds had formed the basis on which the Director reclassified a Bank from undercapitalized to significantly undercapitalized.

(b) Additional safeguards. The Director may require a significantly undercapitalized Bank to take any other action not specifically listed in this section if the Director determines such action will help ensure the safe and sound operation of the Bank and the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time more than any action specifically authorized under paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Procedures. Before finalizing any action under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action or actions and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the Director's decision to take such action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.

§ 1229.10 Actions applicable to critically undercapitalized Banks.

(a) Appointment of conservator or receiver. Notwithstanding any other provision of federal or state law, the Director may appoint the FHFA as conservator or receiver of any Bank at any time after the Director determines that the Bank is, or the Director otherwise exercises authority to reclassify the Bank as, critically undercapitalized.

(b) Periodic determination—(1) Determination. Not later than 30 calendar days after the Director first determines that a Bank is, or the Director otherwise exercises authority to reclassify the Bank as, critically undercapitalized, and a least once during each succeeding 30-day calendar period, the Director make a determination in writing as to whether:

(i) The assets of the Bank are, and during the preceding 60 calendar days have been, less than its obligations to its creditors and others, provided that the Director shall consider as an obligation only that amount of outstanding consolidated obligations for which the Bank is primary obligor or for which the Bank has been ordered to make payments of principal or interest on behalf of another Bank, or is actually making payments of principal or interest on behalf of another Bank; or

(ii) The Bank is not, and during the previous 60 calendar days has not been paying its debts on a regular basis as such debts become due, provided that this provision does not apply to any unpaid debts that are the subject of a bona fide dispute.

(2) Mandatory receivership. If the Director determines that the conditions described in either paragraph (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section applies to a Bank, the Director shall appoint the FHFA as receiver for the Bank. The appointment of the FHFA as receiver under this paragraph shall immediately terminate any conservatorship established for the Bank.

(3) Determination not required. A determination under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not be required during any period in which the FHFA serves as receiver for a Bank.

(c) Judicial review. If the Director appoints the FHFA as conservator or receiver of a Bank under paragraph (a) or (b)(2) of this section, the Bank may within 30 days of such appointment bring an action in the United States district court for the judicial district in which the Bank was established pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1423) or in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an order requiring the FHFA to remove itself as conservator or receiver.

(d) Other applicable actions. Until such time as FHFA is appointed as conservator or receiver for a critically undercapitalized Bank, a critically undercapitalized Bank shall be subject to all mandatory restrictions or obligations applicable to a significantly undercapitalized Bank under § 1229.8 of this subpart and will remain subject to any on-going restrictions or obligations that the Director imposed on the Bank under § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 of this subpart, or any restrictions or obligations that are applicable to the Bank under the terms of an approved capital restoration plan.

[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 38513, Aug. 4, 2009]

§ 1229.11 Capital restoration plans.

(a) Contents. Each capital restoration plan submitted by a Bank shall set forth a plan to restore its permanent and total capital to levels sufficient to fulfill its risk-based and minimum capital requirements within a reasonable period of time. Such plan must be feasible given general market conditions and the conditions of the Bank and, at a minimum, shall:

(1) Describe the actions the Bank will take, including any changes that the Bank will make to member stock purchase requirements, to assure that it will become adequately capitalized within the meaning of § 1229.3(a) of this subpart and, if appropriate, to resolve any structural or long term causes for the capital deficiency;

(2) Specify the level of permanent and total capital the Bank will achieve and maintain and provide quarterly projections indicating how each component of total and permanent capital and the major components of income, assets and liabilities are expected to change over the term of the plan;

(3) Specify the types and levels of activities in which the Bank will engage during the term of the plan, including any new business activities that it intends to begin during such term;

(4) Describe any other actions the Bank intends to take to comply with any other requirements imposed on it under this subpart A of part 1229;

(5) Provide a schedule which sets forth dates for meeting specific goals and benchmarks and taking other actions described in the proposed capital restoration plan, including setting forth a schedule for it to restore its permanent and total capital to levels necessary for meeting its risk-based and minimum capital requirements; and

(6) Address such other items that the Director shall provide in writing in advance of such submission.

(b) Deadline for submission. A Bank must submit a proposed capital restoration plan no later than 15 business-days after it receives written notification that such a plan is required either because the notice specifically states that the Director has required the submission of a plan or the notice indicates that the Bank's capital classification or reclassification is to a category for which a capital restoration plan is a mandatory action required of the Bank. The Director may extend this deadline if the Director determines that such extension is necessary. Any such extension shall be in writing and provide a specific date by which the Bank must submit its proposed capital restoration plan.

(c) Review of the plan by the Director. The Director shall have 30 calendar days from the date the Bank submits a proposed capital restoration plan to approve or disapprove the plan. The Director may extend the period for consideration of a capital restoration plan for a single 30 calendar day period by providing the Bank with written notification that the decision deadline has been extended. The Director shall provide the Bank with written notification of the decision to approve or not approve a proposed capital restoration plan. If the Director does not approve the capital restoration plan, the written notification of such decision shall provide the reasons for the disapproval.

(d) Resubmission. If the Director does not approve the Bank's proposed capital restoration plan, the Bank shall submit a new capital restoration plan acceptable to the Director within 30 calendar days of the date that the Bank was notified of the disapproval. The Director may extend the period for the Bank's submission of a new acceptable capital restoration plan upon a determination that such extension is in the public interest. The Director shall provide the Bank written notice of the extension and include in such notice the date by which the Bank must submit an acceptable plan.

(e) Amendments. The Director, in his or her sole discretion, may approve amendments to an approved capital restoration plan if, after consideration of changes in conditions of the Bank, changes in market conditions and other relevant factors, the Director determines that such amendments are consistent with the restoration of the Bank's capital to levels necessary to meet its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time and with the safe and sound operations of the Bank.

(f) Effectiveness of provisions. A Bank is obligated to implement and fulfill all provisions of an approved capital restoration plan. Unless expressly addressed by the terms of the capital restoration plan, a Bank remains bound by each and every obligation and requirement set forth in the approved capital restoration plan until such requirement or obligation is amended under paragraph (e) of this section or terminated in writing by the Director.

(g) Appointment of conservator or receiver. Notwithstanding any other provision of federal or state law, the Director may appoint the FHFA as conservator or receiver of any Bank that is classified as undercapitalized or significantly undercapitalized if the Bank fails to submit a capital restoration plan acceptable to the Director within the time frames established by this section or if the Bank materially fails to implement any capital restoration plan that has been approved by the Director. A Bank may within 30 days of such appointment bring an action in the United States district court for the judicial district in which the Bank is established pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1423) or in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an order requiring the FHFA to remove itself as conservator or receiver.

[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 38513, Aug. 4, 2009]

§ 1229.12 Procedures related to capital classification and other actions.

(a) Classification or reclassification of a Bank. Before finalizing any decision to classify a Bank under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart or reclassify the Bank under § 1229.4(a) of this subpart, the Director shall provide the Bank with written notification of the proposed action that states the reasons for the proposed action and describes the information on which the proposed action is based. The notice required under this paragraph may be combined with the notice of a proposed supervisory action required under paragraph (b) of this section. The Director also may combine a notice informing the Bank of its capital classification and simultaneously informing the Bank that the Director intends to reclassify a Bank to a lower capital classification category.

(b) Notice of a supervisory action. Before finalizing any action or actions authorized under § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 of this subpart, the Director shall provide the Bank with written notification of the proposed action that states the reasons for the proposed action and describes the information on which the proposed action is based. The notice required under this paragraph may be combined with the notice of a proposed action to classify or reclassify the Bank required under paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Bank response. During the 30 calendar day period beginning on the date that the Bank is provided notice under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section of a proposed action or actions, a Bank may submit to the Director any information that the Bank considers relevant or appropriate for the Director to consider in determining whether to finalize the proposed action. The Director may, in his or her sole discretion, convene an informal hearing with representatives of the Bank to receive or discuss any such information. The Director, in his or her sole discretion, also may extend the period in which the Bank may respond to a notice for an additional 30 calendar days for good cause, or shorten such comment period if the Director determines the condition of the Bank requires faster action or a shorter comment period or if the Bank consents to a shorter comment period. The Director shall inform the Bank in writing, which may be provided as part of the notice required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, of any decision to extend or shorten the comment period. The failure of a Bank to provide information during the allotted comment period will waive any right of the Bank to comment on the proposed action.

(d) Final action. At the earlier of the completion of the comment period established under paragraph (c) or the receipt of information provided by the Bank during such period, the Director shall determine whether to take the proposed action or actions that were the subject of the notice under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, after taking into consideration any information provided by the Bank. Such notice shall respond to any information submitted by the Bank. Any final order that the Bank take action, refrain from action or comply with any other requirement that was the subject of a notice under paragraph (b) of this section shall take effect upon the Bank's receipt of the notice required under this paragraph, unless a different effective date is set forth in this notice, and shall remain in effect and binding on the Bank until terminated in writing by the Director or until any terms and conditions for termination, as set forth in the notice, have been met.

(e) Final actions under this section. Any final decision that the Bank take action, refrain from action or comply with any other requirement that was the subject of a notice under paragraph (b) of this section shall constitute an order under the Safety and Soundness Act. The Director in his or her discretion may apply to the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or to the United States district court for the judicial district in which the Bank in question is established pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1423) for the enforcement of such order, as allowed under § 1375 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4635) . In addition, a Bank or any executive officer or director of a Bank can be subject to enforcement action, including the imposition of civil monetary penalties, under § 1371, § 1372 or § 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, or 4636) for failure to comply with such an order.

(f) Judicial review. A Bank that is not classified as critically undercapitalized may obtain judicial review of any final capital classification decision or of any final decision to take supervisory action made by the Director under § 1229.2, § 1229.4, § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 in accordance with the requirements and procedures set forth in § 1369D of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4623).

Subpart B Enterprises

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4513b, 4526, 4613, 4614, 4615, 4616, 4617.

Source: 76 FR 35733, June 20, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1229.13 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

Capital distribution means—

(1) Any dividend or other distribution in cash or in kind made with respect to any shares of, or other ownership interest in, an Enterprise, except a dividend consisting only of shares of the Enterprise;

(2) Any payment made by an Enterprise to repurchase, redeem, retire, or otherwise acquire any of its shares or other ownership interests, including any extension of credit made to finance an acquisition by the Enterprise of such shares or other ownership interests, except to the extent the Enterprise makes a payment to repurchase its shares for the purpose of fulfilling an obligation of the Enterprise under an employee stock ownership plan that is qualified under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401 et seq.) or any substantially equivalent plan as determined by the Director of FHFA in writing in advance; and

(3) Any payment of any claim, whether or not reduced to judgment, liquidated or unliquidated, fixed, contingent, matured or unmatured, disputed or undisputed, legal, equitable, secured or unsecured, arising from rescission of a purchase or sale of an equity security of an Enterprise or for damages arising from the purchase, sale, or retention of such a security.

PART 1230 EXECUTIVE COMPENSATION

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 1427, 1431(l)(5), 1452(h), 4502(6), 4502(12), 4513, 4514, 4517, 4518, 4518a, 4526, 4631, 4632, 4636, and 1723a(d).

Source: 79 FR 4393, Jan. 28, 2014, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1230.1 Purpose.

The purpose of this part is to implement requirements relating to the supervisory authority of FHFA under the Safety and Soundness Act with respect to compensation provided by the regulated entities and the Office of Finance to their executive officers. This part also establishes a structured process for submission of relevant information by the regulated entities and the Office of Finance, in order to facilitate and enhance the efficiency of FHFA's oversight of executive compensation.

§ 1230.2 Definitions.

The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part:

Charter acts mean the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, which are codified at 12 U.S.C. 1716 through 1723i and 12 U.S.C. 1451 through 1459, respectively.

Compensation means any payment of money or the provision of any other thing of current or potential value in connection with employment. Compensation includes all direct and indirect payments of benefits, both cash and non-cash, granted to or for the benefit of any executive officer, including, but not limited to, payments and benefits derived from an employment contract, compensation or benefit agreement, fee arrangement, perquisite, stock option plan, post-employment benefit, or other compensatory arrangement.

Enterprise means the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (collectively, Enterprises) and, except as provided by the Director, any affiliate thereof.

Executive officer means:

(1) With respect to an Enterprise:

(i) The chairman of the board of directors, chief executive officer, chief financial officer, chief operating officer, president, vice chairman, any executive vice president, any senior vice president, any individual in charge of a principal business unit, division, or function, and any individual who performs functions similar to such positions whether or not the individual has an official title; and

(ii) Any other officer as identified by the Director;

(2) With respect to a Bank:

(i) The president, the chief financial officer, and the three other most highly compensated officers; and

(ii) Any other officer as identified by the Director.

(3) With respect to the Office of Finance:

(i) The chief executive officer, chief financial officer, and chief operating officer; and

(ii) Any other officer identified by the Director.

Reasonable and comparable means compensation that is:

(1) Reasonable—compensation, taken in whole or in part, that would be appropriate for the position and based on a review of relevant factors including, but not limited to:

(i) The duties and responsibilities of the position;

(ii) Compensation factors that indicate added or diminished risks, constraints, or aids in carrying out the responsibilities of the position; and

(iii) Performance of the regulated entity, the specific employee, or one of the entity's significant components with respect to achievement of goals, consistency with supervisory guidance and internal rules of the entity, and compliance with applicable law and regulation.

(2) Comparable—compensation that, taken in whole or in part, does not materially exceed compensation paid at institutions of similar size and function for similar duties and responsibilities.

Regulated entity means any Enterprise and any Federal Home Loan Bank.

§ 1230.3 Prohibition and withholding of executive compensation.

(a) In general. The Director may review the compensation arrangements for any executive officer of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance at any time, and shall prohibit the regulated entity or the Office of Finance from providing compensation to any such executive officer that the Director determines is not reasonable and comparable with compensation for employment in other similar businesses involving similar duties and responsibilities. No regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall pay compensation to an executive officer that is not reasonable and comparable with compensation paid by such similar businesses involving similar duties and responsibilities. No Enterprise in conservatorship shall pay a bonus to any senior executive during the period of that conservatorship.

(b) Factors to be taken into account. In determining whether compensation provided by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to an executive officer is not reasonable and comparable, the Director may take into consideration any factors the Director considers relevant, including any wrongdoing on the part of the executive officer, such as any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, violation of law, rule, regulation, order, or written agreement, and insider abuse with respect to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

(c) Prohibition on setting compensation by Director. In carrying out paragraph (a) of this section, the Director may not prescribe or set a specific level or range of compensation.

(d) Advance notice to Director of certain compensation actions. (1) A regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall not, without providing the Director at least 60 days' advance written notice, enter into any written arrangement that provides incentive awards to any executive officer or officers.

(2) A regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall not, without providing the Director at least 30 days' advance written notice, enter into any written arrangement that:

(i) Provides an executive officer a term of employment for a term of six months or more; or

(ii) In the case of a Bank or the Office of Finance, provides compensation to any executive officer in connection with the termination of employment, or establishes a policy of compensation in connection with the termination of employment.

(3) A regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall not, without providing the Director at least 30 days' advance written notice, pay, disburse, or transfer to any executive officer, annual compensation (where the annual amount has changed); pay for performance or other incentive pay; any amounts under a severance plan, change-in-control agreement, or other separation agreement; any compensation that would qualify as direct compensation for purposes of securities filings; or any other element of compensation identified by the Director prior to the notice period.

(4) Notwithstanding the foregoing review periods, a regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall provide five business days' advance written notice to the Director before committing to pay compensation of any amount or type to an executive officer who is being newly hired.

(5) The Director reserves the right to extend any of the foregoing review periods, and may do so in the Director's discretion, upon notice to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance. Any such notice shall set forth the number of business or calendar days by which the review period is being extended.

(e) Withholding, escrow, prohibition. During the review period required by paragraph (d) of this section, or any extension thereof, a regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall not execute the compensation action that is under review unless the Director provides written notice of approval or non-objection. During a review under paragraph (a) or (d) of this section, or at any time before an executive compensation action has been taken, the Director may, by written notice, require a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to withhold any payment, transfer, or disbursement of compensation to an executive officer, or to place such compensation in an escrow account, or may prohibit the action.

§ 1230.4 Prior approval of termination agreements of Enterprises.

(a) In general. An Enterprise may not enter into any agreement or contract to provide any payment of money or other thing of current or potential value in connection with the termination of employment of an executive officer unless the agreement or contract is approved in advance by the Director.

(b) Covered agreements or contracts. An agreement or contract that provides for termination payments to an executive officer of an Enterprise that was entered into before October 28, 1992, 1 is not retroactively subject to approval or disapproval by the Director. However, any renegotiation, amendment, or change to such an agreement or contract shall be considered as entering into an agreement or contract that is subject to approval by the Director.

1 This date refers to the date of enactment of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992.

(c) Factors to be taken into account. In making the determination whether to approve or disapprove termination benefits, the Director may consider:

(1) Whether the benefits provided under the agreement or contract are comparable to benefits provided under such agreements or contracts for officers of other public or private entities involved in financial services and housing interests who have comparable duties and responsibilities;

(2) The factors set forth in § 1230.3(b); and

(3) Such other information as deemed appropriate by the Director.

(d) Exception to prior approval. An employment agreement or contract subject to prior approval of the Director under this section may be entered into prior to that approval, provided that such agreement or contract specifically provides notice that termination benefits under the agreement or contract shall not be effective and no payments shall be made under such agreement or contract unless and until approved by the Director. Such notice should make clear that alteration of benefit plans subsequent to FHFA approval under this section, which affect final termination benefits of an executive officer, requires review at the time of the individual's termination from the Enterprise and prior to the payment of any benefits.

(e) Effect of prior approval of an agreement or contract. The Director's approval of an executive officer's termination of employment benefits shall not preclude the Director from making any subsequent determination under this section to prohibit and withhold executive compensation.

(f) Form of approval. The Director's approval pursuant to this section may occur in such form and manner as the Director shall provide through written notice to the regulated entities or the Office of Finance.

§ 1230.5 Submission of supporting information.

In support of the reviews and decisions provided for in this part, the Director may issue guidance, orders, or notices on the subject of information submissions by the regulated entities and the Office of Finance.

PART 1231 GOLDEN PARACHUTE AND INDEMNIFICATION PAYMENTS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513, 4517, 4518, 4518a, 4526, and 4617.

Source: 73 FR 53357, Sept. 16, 2008, unless otherwise noted.

Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to part appear at 83 FR 49993, Oct. 4, 2018.

§ 1231.1 Purpose.

The purpose of this part is to implement section 1318(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4518(e)) by setting forth the factors that the Director will take into consideration in determining whether to limit or prohibit golden parachute payments and agreements and by setting forth conditions for prohibited and permissible indemnification payments that regulated entities and the Office of Finance (OF) may make to affiliated parties.

[83 FR 65289, Dec. 20, 2018]

§ 1231.2 Definitions.

The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part:

Affiliated party means:

(1) With respect to a golden parachute payment:

(i) Any director, officer, or employee of a regulated entity or the OF; and

(ii) Any other person as determined by the Director (by regulation or on a case-by-case basis) who participates or participated in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity or the OF, provided that a member of a Federal Home Loan Bank shall not be deemed to have participated in the affairs of that Federal Home Loan Bank solely by virtue of being a shareholder of, and obtaining advances from, that Federal Home Loan Bank; and

(2) With respect to an indemnification payment:

(i) By the OF, any director, officer, or manager of the OF; and

(ii) By a regulated entity:

(A) Any director, officer, employee, or controlling stockholder of, or agent for, a regulated entity;

(B) Any shareholder, affiliate, consultant, or joint venture partner of a regulated entity, and any other person as determined by the Director (by regulation or on a case-by-case basis) that participates in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity, provided that a member of a Federal Home Loan Bank shall not be deemed to have participated in the affairs of that Federal Home Loan Bank solely by virtue of being a shareholder of, and obtaining advances from, that Federal Home Loan Bank;

(C) Any independent contractor for a regulated entity (including any attorney, appraiser, or accountant) if:

(1) The independent contractor knowingly or recklessly participates in any violation of any law or regulation, any breach of fiduciary duty, or any unsafe or unsound practice; and

(2) Such violation, breach, or practice caused, or is likely to cause, more than a minimal financial loss to, or a significant adverse effect on, the regulated entity; or

(D) Any not-for-profit corporation that receives its principal funding, on an ongoing basis, from any regulated entity.

Agreement means, with respect to a golden parachute payment, any plan, contract, arrangement, or other statement setting forth conditions for any payment by a regulated entity or the OF to an affiliated party.

Bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement means any plan, contract, agreement, or other arrangement:

(1) Whereby an affiliated party voluntarily elects to defer all or a portion of the reasonable compensation, wages, or fees paid for services rendered which otherwise would have been paid to such party at the time the services were rendered (including a plan that provides for the crediting of a reasonable investment return on such elective deferrals); or

(2) That is established as a nonqualified deferred compensation or supplemental retirement plan, other than an elective deferral plan described in paragraph (1) of this definition:

(i) Primarily for the purpose of providing benefits for certain affiliated parties in excess of the limitations on contributions and benefits imposed by sections 401(a)(17), 402(g), 415, or any other applicable provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401(a)(17), 402(g), 415); or

(ii) Primarily for the purpose of providing supplemental retirement benefits or other deferred compensation for a select group of directors, management, or highly compensated employees; and

(3) In the case of any plans as described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, the following requirements shall apply:

(i) The affiliated party has a vested right, as defined under the applicable plan document, at the time of termination of employment to payments under such plan;

(ii) Benefits under such plan are accrued each period only for current or prior service rendered to the employer (except that an allowance may be made for service with a predecessor employer);

(iii) Any payment made pursuant to such plan is not based on any discretionary acceleration of vesting or accrual of benefits which occurs at any time later than one year prior to the regulated entity or the OF becoming a troubled institution;

(iv) The regulated entity or the OF has previously recognized compensation expense and accrued a liability for the benefit payments according to GAAP, or segregated or otherwise set aside assets in a trust which may only be used to pay plan benefits and related expenses, except that the assets of such trust may be available to satisfy claims of the troubled institution's creditors in the case of insolvency; and

(v) Payments pursuant to such plans shall not be in excess of the accrued liability computed in accordance with GAAP.

Executive officer means an “executive officer” as defined in 12 CFR 1230.2, and includes any director, officer, employee or other affiliated party whose participation in the conduct of the business of the regulated entity or the OF has been determined by the Director to be so substantial as to justify treatment as an “executive officer.”

Golden parachute payment means any payment in the nature of compensation made by a troubled institution for the benefit of any current or former affiliated party that is contingent on or provided in connection with the termination of such party's primary employment or affiliation with the troubled institution.

Indemnification payment means any payment (or any agreement to make any payment) by any regulated entity or the OF for the benefit of any current or former affiliated party, to pay or reimburse such person for any liability or legal expense.

Individually negotiated settlement agreement means an agreement that settles a claim, or avoids a claim reasonably anticipated to be brought, against a troubled institution by an affiliated party and involves a payment in association with termination to, and a release of claims by, the affiliated party.

Liability or legal expense means—

(1) Any legal or other professional expense incurred in connection with any claim, proceeding, or action;

(2) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any settlement of any claim, proceeding, or action; and

(3) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any judgment or penalty imposed with respect to any claim, proceeding, or action.

Payment means:

(1) Any direct or indirect transfer of any funds or any asset;

(2) Any forgiveness of any debt or other obligation;

(3) The conferring of any benefit, including but not limited to stock options and stock appreciation rights; and

(4) Any segregation of any funds or assets, the establishment or funding of any trust or the purchase of or arrangement for any letter of credit or other instrument, for the purpose of making, or pursuant to any agreement to make, any payment on or after the date on which such funds or assets are segregated, or at the time of or after such trust is established or letter of credit or other instrument is made available, without regard to whether the obligation to make such payment is contingent on:

(i) The determination, after such date, of the liability for the payment of such amount; or

(ii) The liquidation, after such date, of the amount of such payment.

Permitted means, with regard to any agreement, that the agreement either does not require the Director's consent under this part or has received the Director's consent in accordance with this part.

Troubled institution means a regulated entity or the OF that is:

(1) Insolvent;

(2) In conservatorship or receivership;

(3) Subject to a cease-and-desist order or written agreement issued by FHFA that requires action to improve its financial condition or is subject to a proceeding initiated by the Director, which contemplates the issuance of an order that requires action to improve its financial condition, unless otherwise informed in writing by FHFA;

(4) Assigned a composite rating of 4 or 5 by FHFA under its CAMELSO examination rating system as it may be revised from time to time;

(5) Informed in writing by the Director that it is a troubled institution for purposes of the requirements of this part on the basis of the most recent report of examination or other information available to FHFA, on account of its financial condition, risk profile, or management deficiencies; or

(6) In contemplation of the occurrence of an event described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of this definition. A regulated entity or the OF is subject to a rebuttable presumption that it is in contemplation of the occurrence of such an event during the 90 day period preceding such occurrence.

[83 FR 65289, Dec. 20, 2018]

§ 1231.3 Golden parachute payments and agreements.

(a) In general, FHFA consent is required. No troubled institution shall make or agree to make any golden parachute payment without the Director's consent, except as provided in this part.

(b) Exempt agreements and payments. The following agreements and payments, including payments associated with an agreement, are not golden parachute agreements or payments for purposes of this part and, for that reason, may be made without the Director's consent:

(1) Any pension or retirement plan that is qualified (or is intended to be qualified) under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401);

(2) Any “employee welfare benefit plan” as that term is defined in section 3(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (29 U.S.C. 1002(1)), other than:

(i) Any deferred compensation plan or arrangement; and

(ii) Any severance pay plan or agreement;

(3) Any benefit plan that:

(i) Is a “nondiscriminatory employee plan or program” for the purposes of section 280G of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 280G) and applicable regulations; or

(ii) Has been submitted to the Director for review in accordance with this part and that the Director has determined to be nondiscriminatory, unless such a plan is otherwise specifically addressed by this part;

(4) Any “bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement” as defined in this part provided that the plan:

(i) Was in effect for, and not materially amended to increase benefits payable thereunder (except for changes required by law) within, the one-year period prior to the regulated entity or the OF becoming a troubled institution; or

(ii) Has been determined to be permissible by the Director;

(5) Any payment made by reason of:

(i) Death; or

(ii) Termination caused by disability of the affiliated party; and

(6) Any severance or similar payment that is required to be made pursuant to a state statute that is applicable to all employers within the appropriate jurisdiction (with the exception of employers that are exempt due to their small number of employees or other similar criteria).

(c) Golden parachute payment agreements for which FHFA consent is not required. A troubled institution may enter into the following agreements to make a golden parachute payment without the Director's consent:

(1) With any affiliated party where the agreement is expressly directed or established by the Director exercising authority conferred by 12 U.S.C. 4617.

(2) With an affiliated party who is not an executive officer where the agreement:

(i) Is an individually negotiated settlement agreement, and the conditions of paragraph (e)(2) of this section are met; or

(ii) Provides for a golden parachute payment that, when aggregated with all other golden parachute payments to the affiliated party, does not exceed $5,000 (subject to any adjustment for inflation pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section).

(d) Golden parachute payments for which FHFA consent is not required. A troubled institution may make the following golden parachute payments without the Director's consent:

(1) To any affiliated party where:

(i) The payment is required to be made pursuant to a permitted individually negotiated settlement agreement; or

(ii) The Director previously consented to such payment in a written notice to the troubled institution (which may be included in the Director's consent to the agreement), the payment is made in accordance with a permitted agreement, and the troubled institution has met any conditions established by the Director for making the payment.

(2) To an executive officer where the payment recognizes a significant life event and does not exceed $500 in value (subject to any adjustment for inflation pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section).

(3) To an affiliated party who is not an executive officer, where:

(i) The payment is made in accordance with a permitted agreement and the conditions of paragraph (e)(2) of this section are met; or

(ii) The payment when aggregated with other golden parachute payments to the affiliated party does not exceed $5,000 (subject to any adjustment for inflation pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section).

(e) Required due diligence review; due diligence standard—(1) Agreements and payments where consent is requested. A troubled institution making a request for consent to enter into a golden parachute payment agreement with, or to make a golden parachute payment to, an individual affiliated party shall conduct due diligence appropriate to the level and responsibility of the affiliated party covered by the agreement or to whom payment would be made, to determine whether there is information, evidence, documents, or other materials that indicate there is a reasonable basis to believe, at the time the request is submitted, that the affiliated party:

(i) Has committed any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the regulated entity or the OF that is likely to have a material adverse effect on the regulated entity or the OF;

(ii) Is substantially responsible for the regulated entity or the OF being a troubled institution;

(iii) Has materially violated any applicable Federal or State law or regulation that has had or is likely to have a material effect on the regulated entity or the OF; or

(iv) Has violated or conspired to violate sections 215, 657, 1006, 1014, or 1344 of title 18 of the United States Code, or section 1341 or 1343 of such title affecting a “financial institution” as the term is defined in title 18 of the United States Code (18 U.S.C. 20).

(2) Agreements and payments permitted without the Director's consent. No troubled institution shall enter into an agreement pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section or make a payment pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section unless it is reasonably assured, following due diligence in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, that the affiliated party to whom payment would be made has not engaged in any of the actions listed in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.

(3) Required notice to FHFA. If a troubled institution determines it is unable to enter into an agreement pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section or make a payment pursuant to (d)(3)(i) of this section without the Director's consent because it cannot meet the standard set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, and thereafter does not request the Director's consent to make the payment, then the troubled institution shall provide notice to FHFA of each reason for which it cannot meet the standard set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, within 15 business days of its determination.

(f) Factors for Director consideration. In making a determination under this section, the Director may consider:

(1) Whether, and to what degree, the affiliated party was in a position of managerial or fiduciary responsibility;

(2) The length of time the affiliated party was affiliated with the regulated entity or the OF, and the degree to which the proposed payment represents a reasonable payment for services rendered over the period of affiliation;

(3) Whether the golden parachute payment would be made pursuant to an employee benefit plan that is usual and customary;

(4) Whether the golden parachute payment or agreement is excessive or abusive or threatens the financial condition of the troubled institution; and

(5) Any other factor the Director determines relevant to the facts and circumstances surrounding the golden parachute payment or agreement, including any fraudulent act or omission, breach of fiduciary duty, violation of law, rule, regulation, order, or written agreement, and the level of willful misconduct, breach of fiduciary duty, and malfeasance on the part of the affiliated party.

(g) Adjustment for inflation. Monetary amounts set forth in this part may be adjusted for inflation by increasing the dollar amount set forth in this part by the percentage, if any, by which the Consumer Price Index for all-urban consumers published by the Department of Labor (“CPI-U”) for December of the calendar year preceding payment exceeds the CPI-U for the month of November 2018, with the resulting sum rounded up to the nearest whole dollar.

[83 FR 62590, Dec. 20, 2018]

§ 1231.4 Indemnification payments.

(a) Prohibited indemnification payments. Except as permitted in paragraph (b) of this section, a regulated entity or the OF may not make indemnification payments with respect to an administrative proceeding or civil action that has been initiated by FHFA.

(b) Permissible indemnification payments. A regulated entity or the OF may pay:

(1) Premiums for any commercial insurance policy or fidelity bonds for directors and officers, to the extent that the insurance or fidelity bond covers expenses and restitution, but not a judgment in favor of FHFA or a civil money penalty imposed by FHFA.

(2) Expenses of defending an action, subject to the affiliated party's agreement to repay those expenses if the affiliated party either:

(i) When the proceeding results in a final and non-reviewable order, is found culpable for violating a law or regulation that is the basis for the charges to which the expenses specifically relate; or

(ii) Enters into a settlement of those charges in which the affiliated party admits culpability with respect to them; or

(iii) Is subject to a final and non-reviewable prohibition order under 12 U.S.C. 4636a.

(3) Amounts due under an indemnification agreement entered into with a named affiliated party on or prior to September 20, 2016.

(c) Process; factors. With respect to payments under paragraph (b)(2) of this section:

(1) The board of directors of the regulated entity or the OF must conduct a due investigation and make a written determination in good faith that:

(i) The affiliated party acted in good faith and in a manner that he or she reasonably believed to be in the best interests of the regulated entity or the OF; and

(ii) Such payments will not materially adversely affect the safety and soundness of the regulated entity or the OF.

(2) The affiliated party may not participate in the board's deliberations or decision.

(3) If a majority of the board are respondents in the action, the remaining board members may approve payment after obtaining a written opinion of outside counsel that the conditions of this regulation have been met.

(4) If all of the board members are respondents, they may approve payment after obtaining a written opinion of outside counsel that the conditions of this regulation have been met.

(d) Scope. This section does not apply to a regulated entity operating in conservatorship or receivership or to a limited-life regulated entity.

[83 FR 49993, Oct. 4, 2018]

§ 1231.5 Applicability in the event of receivership.

The provisions of this part, or any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by FHFA, shall not in any way bind any receiver of a regulated entity. Any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by FHFA shall not in any way obligate FHFA as receiver to pay any claim or obligation pursuant to any golden parachute, severance, indemnification, or other agreement, or otherwise improve any claim of any affiliated party on or against FHFA as receiver. Nothing in this part may be construed to permit the payment of salary or any liability or legal expense of an affiliated party contrary to section 1318(e)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4518(e)(3)).

[83 FR 65291, Dec, 20, 2018]

§ 1231.6 Filing instructions.

(a) Scope. This section contains procedures for requesting the consent of the Director and for filing any notice, where consent or notice is required by § 1231.3.

(b) Where to file. A troubled institution must submit any request for consent or notice required by § 1231.3 to the Manager, Executive Compensation Branch, or to such other person as FHFA may direct.

(c) Content of a request for FHFA consent. A request pursuant to § 1231.3 must:

(1) Be in writing;

(2) State the reasons why the troubled institution seeks to enter into the agreement or make the payment;

(3) Identify the affiliated party or describe of the class or group of affiliated parties who would receive or be eligible to receive payment;

(4) Include a copy of any agreement, including any plan document, contract, other agreement or policy regarding the subject matter of the request;

(5) State the cost of the proposed payment or payments, and the impact on the capital and earnings of the troubled institution;

(6) State the reasons why consent to the agreement or payment, or to both the agreement and payment, should be granted;

(7) For any plan that the troubled institution believes is a nondiscriminatory benefit plan, other than a plan covered by § 1231.3(b)(3)(i), state the basis for the conclusion that the plan is nondiscriminatory;

(8) For any bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement, state whether the plan would be exempt under this part but for the fact that it was either established or materially amended to increase benefits payable thereunder (except for changes required by law) within the one-year period prior to the regulated entity or the OF becoming a troubled institution;

(9) For any agreement with an individual affiliated party, or for any payment, either:

(i) State that the troubled institution is reasonably assured that the affiliated party has not engaged in any of the actions listed in § 1231.3(e)(1)(i) through (iv), or,

(ii) If the troubled institution is not reasonably assured that the affiliated party has not engaged in any of the actions listed in § 1231.3(e)(1)(i) through (iv) but nonetheless wishes to request consent, describe the results of its due diligence and, in light of those results, the reason why consent to the agreement or payment should be granted.

(d) FHFA decision on a request. FHFA shall provide the troubled institution with written notice of the decision on a request as soon as practicable after it is rendered.

(e) Content of notice to FHFA. A notice pursuant to § 1231.3(e)(3) must:

(1) Be in writing;

(2) Identify the affiliated party who would receive or be eligible to receive payment;

(3) Include a copy of any agreement or policy regarding the subject matter of the request; and

(4) State each reason why the troubled institution cannot meet the standard set forth in § 1231.3(e)(2).

(f) Waiver of form or content requirements. FHFA may waive or modify any requirement related to the form or content of a request or notice, in circumstances deemed appropriate by FHFA.

(g) Additional information. FHFA may request additional information at any time during the processing of the request or after receiving a notice.

[83 FR 65291, Dec. 20, 2018]

PART 1233 REPORTING OF FRAUDULENT FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513, 4514, 4526, 4642.

Source: 75 FR 4258, Jan. 27, 2010, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1233.1 Purpose.

The purpose of this part is to implement the Safety and Soundness Act by requiring each regulated entity to report to FHFA upon discovery that it has purchased or sold a fraudulent loan or financial instrument, or suspects a possible fraud relating to the purchase or sale of any loan or financial instrument. In addition, each regulated entity must establish and maintain internal controls, policies, procedures, and operational training to discover such transactions.

§ 1233.2 Definitions.

The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part:

Entity-affiliated party means—

(1) Any director, officer, employee, or controlling stockholder of, or agent for, a regulated entity;

(2) Any shareholder, affiliate, consultant, or joint venture partner of a regulated entity, and any other person, as determined by the Director (by regulation or on a case-by-case basis) that participates in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity, provided that a member of a Federal Home Loan Bank shall not be deemed to have participated in the affairs of that Federal Home Loan Bank solely by virtue of being a shareholder of, and obtaining advances from, that Federal Home Loan Bank;

(3) Any independent contractor for a regulated entity (including any attorney, appraiser, or accountant);

(4) Any not-for-profit corporation that receives its principal funding, on an ongoing basis, from any regulated entity; and

(5) The Office of Finance.

Financial instrument means any legally enforceable agreement, certificate, or other writing, in hardcopy or electronic form, having monetary value including, but not limited to, any agreement, certificate, or other writing evidencing an asset pledged as collateral to a Bank by a member to secure an advance by the Bank to that member.

Fraud means a misstatement, misrepresentation, or omission that cannot be corrected and that was relied upon by a regulated entity to purchase or sell a loan or financial instrument.

Possible fraud means that a regulated entity has a reasonable belief, based upon a review of information available to the regulated entity, that fraud may be occurring or has occurred.

Purchased or sold or relating to the purchase or sale means any transaction involving a financial instrument including, but not limited to, any purchase, sale, other acquisition, or creation of a financial instrument by the member of a Bank to be pledged as collateral to the Bank to secure an advance by the Bank to that member, the pledging by a member to a Bank of such financial instrument to secure such an advance, the making of a grant by a Bank under its affordable housing program or community investment program, and the effecting of a wire transfer or other form of electronic payments transaction by the Bank.

[75 FR 4258, Jan. 27, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 2323, Jan. 11, 2013]

§ 1233.3 Reporting.

(a) Timeframe for reporting. (1) A regulated entity shall submit to the Director a timely written report upon discovery by the regulated entity that it has purchased or sold a fraudulent loan or financial instrument, or suspects a possible fraud relating to the purchase or sale of any loan or financial instrument.

(2) In addition to submitting a report in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, in any situation that would have a significant impact on the regulated entity, the regulated entity shall immediately report any fraud or possible fraud to the Director by telephone or electronic communication.

(b) Format for reporting. (1) The report shall be in such format and shall be filed in accordance with such procedures that the Director may prescribe.

(2) The Director may require a regulated entity to provide such additional or continuing information relating to such fraud or possible fraud that the Director deems appropriate.

(3) A regulated entity may satisfy the reporting requirements of this section by submitting the required information on a form or in another format used by any other regulatory agency, provided it has first obtained the prior written approval of the Director.

(c) Retention of records. A regulated entity or entity-affiliated party shall maintain a copy of any report submitted to the Director and the original or business record equivalent of any supporting documentation for a period of five years from the date of submission.

(d) Nondisclosure. (1) A regulated entity or entity-affiliated party may not disclose to any person that it has submitted a report to the Director pursuant to this section, unless it has first obtained the prior written approval of the Director.

(2) The restriction in paragraph (d)(1) of this section does not prohibit a regulated entity from—

(i) Disclosing or reporting such fraud or possible fraud pursuant to legal requirements, including reporting to appropriate law enforcement or other governmental authorities; or

(ii) Taking any legal or business action it may deem appropriate, including any action involving the party or parties connected with the fraud or possible fraud.

(e) No waiver of privilege. A regulated entity does not waive any privilege it may possess under any applicable law as a consequence of reporting fraud or possible fraud under this part.

§ 1233.4 Internal controls, policies, procedures, and training.

(a) In general. Each regulated entity shall establish and maintain adequate and efficient internal controls, policies, procedures, and an operational training program to discover and report fraud or possible fraud in connection with the purchase or sale of any loan or financial instrument.

(b) Examination. The examination by FHFA of fraud reporting programs of each regulated entity includes an evaluation of the effectiveness of the internal controls, policies, procedures, and operational training program in place to minimize risks from fraud and to report fraud or possible fraud to FHFA in accordance with this regulation.

§ 1233.5 Protection from liability for reports.

As provided by section 1379E of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4642(b)), a regulated entity that, in good faith, submits a report pursuant to this part, and any entity-affiliated party, that, in good faith, submits or requires a person to submit a report pursuant to this part, shall not be liable to any person under any provision of law or regulation, any constitution, law, or regulation of any State or political subdivision of any State, or under any contract or other legally enforceable agreement (including any arbitration agreement) for such report, or for any failure to provide notice of such report to the person who is the subject of such report, or any other persons identified in the report.

§ 1233.6 Supervisory action.

Failure by a regulated entity to comply with this part may subject the regulated entity or the board members, officers, or employees thereof to supervisory action by FHFA, including but not limited to, cease-and-desist proceedings and civil money penalties.

PART 1234 CREDIT RISK RETENTION

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4526, 4617; 15 U.S.C. 78o-11(b)(2).

Source: 79 FR 77740, Dec. 24, 2014, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Authority, Purpose, Scope and Definitions
§ 1234.1 Purpose, scope and reservation of authority.

(a) Purpose. This part requires securitizers to retain an economic interest in a portion of the credit risk for any residential mortgage asset that the securitizer, through the issuance of an asset-backed security, transfers, sells, or conveys to a third party in a transaction within the scope of section 15G of the Exchange Act. This part specifies the permissible types, forms, and amounts of credit risk retention, and it establishes certain exemptions for securitizations collateralized by assets that meet specified underwriting standards or that otherwise qualify for an exemption.

(b) Scope. (1) Effective December 24, 2015, this part will apply to any securitizer that is an entity regulated by the Federal Housing Finance Agency with respect to a securitization transaction collateralized by residential mortgages.

(2) Effective December 24, 2016, this part will apply to any securitizer that is an entity regulated by the Federal Housing Finance Agency with respect to a securitization transaction collateralized by assets other than residential mortgages.

(c) Reservation of authority. Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the Director of the Federal Housing Finance Agency to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law.

[79 FR 77765, Dec. 24, 2014]

§ 1234.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

ABS interest means:

(1) Any type of interest or obligation issued by an issuing entity, whether or not in certificated form, including a security, obligation, beneficial interest or residual interest (other than an uncertificated regular interest in a REMIC that is held by another REMIC, where both REMICs are part of the same structure and a single REMIC in that structure issues ABS interests to investors, or a non-economic residual interest issued by a REMIC), payments on which are primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral owned or held by the issuing entity; and

(2) Does not include common or preferred stock, limited liability interests, partnership interests, trust certificates, or similar interests that:

(i) Are issued primarily to evidence ownership of the issuing entity; and

(ii) The payments, if any, on which are not primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral held by the issuing entity; and

(3) Does not include the right to receive payments for services provided by the holder of such right, including servicing, trustee services and custodial services.

Affiliate of, or a person affiliated with, a specified person means a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.

Appropriate Federal banking agency has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).

Asset means a self-liquidating financial asset (including but not limited to a loan, lease, mortgage, or receivable).

Asset-backed security has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(79) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(79)).

Collateral means, with respect to any issuance of ABS interests, the assets that provide the cash flow and the servicing assets that support such cash flow for the ABS interests irrespective of the legal structure of issuance, including security interests in assets or other property of the issuing entity, fractional undivided property interests in the assets or other property of the issuing entity, or any other property interest in or rights to cash flow from such assets and related servicing assets. Assets or other property collateralize an issuance of ABS interests if the assets or property serve as collateral for such issuance.

Commercial real estate loan has the same meaning as in § 1234.14.

Commission means the Securities and Exchange Commission.

Control including the terms “controlling,” “controlled by” and “under common control with”:

(1) Means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise.

(2) Without limiting the foregoing, a person shall be considered to control another person if the first person:

(i) Owns, controls or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other person; or

(ii) Controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees or persons performing similar functions of the other person.

Credit risk means:

(1) The risk of loss that could result from the failure of the borrower in the case of a securitized asset, or the issuing entity in the case of an ABS interest in the issuing entity, to make required payments of principal or interest on the asset or ABS interest on a timely basis;

(2) The risk of loss that could result from bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding with respect to the borrower or issuing entity, as appropriate; or

(3) The effect that significant changes in the underlying credit quality of the asset or ABS interest may have on the market value of the asset or ABS interest.

Creditor has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1602(g).

Depositor means:

(1) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity;

(2) The sponsor, in the case of a securitization transaction where there is not an intermediate transfer of the assets from the sponsor to the issuing entity; or

(3) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity in the case of a securitization transaction where the person transferring or selling the securitized assets directly to the issuing entity is itself a trust.

Eligible horizontal residual interest means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest in the issuing entity:

(1) That is an interest in a single class or multiple classes in the issuing entity, provided that each interest meets, individually or in the aggregate, all of the requirements of this definition;

(2) With respect to which, on any payment date or allocation date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds to satisfy its obligation to pay all contractual interest or principal due, any resulting shortfall will reduce amounts payable to the eligible horizontal residual interest prior to any reduction in the amounts payable to any other ABS interest, whether through loss allocation, operation of the priority of payments, or any other governing contractual provision (until the amount of such ABS interest is reduced to zero); and

(3) That, with the exception of any non-economic REMIC residual interest, has the most subordinated claim to payments of both principal and interest by the issuing entity.

Eligible horizontal cash reserve account means an account meeting the requirements of § 1234.4(b).

Eligible vertical interest means, with respect to any securitization transaction, a single vertical security or an interest in each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as part of the securitization transaction that constitutes the same proportion of each such class.

Federal banking agencies means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

GAAP means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.

Issuing entity means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the trust or other entity:

(1) That owns or holds the pool of assets to be securitized; and

(2) In whose name the asset-backed securities are issued.

Majority-owned affiliate of a person means an entity (other than the issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, such person. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.

Originator means a person who:

(1) Through an extension of credit or otherwise, creates an asset that collateralizes an asset-backed security; and

(2) Sells the asset directly or indirectly to a securitizer or issuing entity.

REMIC has the same meaning as in 26 U.S.C. 860D.

Residential mortgage means:

(1) A transaction that is a covered transaction as defined in § 1026.43(b) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1));

(2) Any transaction that is exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)); and

(3) Any other loan secured by a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property, including an individual condominium or cooperative unit and, if used as a residence, a mobile home or trailer.

Retaining sponsor means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the sponsor that has retained or caused to be retained an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets pursuant to subpart B of this part.

Securitization transaction means a transaction involving the offer and sale of asset-backed securities by an issuing entity.

Securitized asset means an asset that:

(1) Is transferred, sold, or conveyed to an issuing entity; and

(2) Collateralizes the ABS interests issued by the issuing entity.

Securitizer means, with respect to a securitization transaction, either:

(1) The depositor of the asset-backed securities (if the depositor is not the sponsor); or

(2) The sponsor of the asset-backed securities.

Servicer means any person responsible for the management or collection of the securitized assets or making allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests, but does not include a trustee for the issuing entity or the asset-backed securities that makes allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests if the trustee receives such allocations or distributions from a servicer and the trustee does not otherwise perform the functions of a servicer.

Servicing assets means rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to ABS interest holders and rights or other assets that are related or incidental to purchasing or otherwise acquiring and holding the issuing entity's securitized assets. Servicing assets include amounts received by the issuing entity as proceeds of securitized assets, including proceeds of rights or other assets, whether as remittances by obligors or as other recoveries.

Single vertical security means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest entitling the sponsor to a specified percentage of the amounts paid on each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity (other than such single vertical security).

Sponsor means a person who organizes and initiates a securitization transaction by selling or transferring assets, either directly or indirectly, including through an affiliate, to the issuing entity.

State has the same meaning as in Section 3(a)(16) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(16)).

United States or U.S. means the United States of America, including its territories and possessions, any State of the United States, and the District of Columbia.

Wholly-owned affiliate means a person (other than an issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, wholly controls, is wholly controlled by, or is wholly under common control with, another person. For purposes of this definition, “wholly controls” means ownership of 100 percent of the equity of an entity.

Subpart B Credit Risk Retention
§ 1234.3 Base risk retention requirement.

(a) Base risk retention requirement. Except as otherwise provided in this part, the sponsor of a securitization transaction (or majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor) shall retain an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 1234.4 through 1234.10. Credit risk in securitized assets required to be retained and held by any person for purposes of compliance with this part, whether a sponsor, an originator, an originator-seller, or a third-party purchaser, except as otherwise provided in this part, may be acquired and held by any of such person's majority-owned affiliates (other than an issuing entity).

(b) Multiple sponsors. If there is more than one sponsor of a securitization transaction, it shall be the responsibility of each sponsor to ensure that at least one of the sponsors of the securitization transaction (or at least one of their majority-owned or wholly-owned affiliates, as applicable) retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 1234.4, 1234.5, 1234.8, 1234.9, or 1234.10.

§ 1234.4 Standard risk retention.

(a) General requirement. Except as provided in §§ 1234.5 through 1234.10, the sponsor of a securitization transaction must retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of this section.

(1) If the sponsor retains only an eligible vertical interest as its required risk retention, the sponsor must retain an eligible vertical interest in a percentage of not less than 5 percent.

(2) If the sponsor retains only an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the amount of the interest must equal at least 5 percent of the fair value of all ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as a part of the securitization transaction, determined using a fair value measurement framework under GAAP.

(3) If the sponsor retains both an eligible vertical interest and an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the percentage of the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest and the percentage of the eligible vertical interest must equal at least five.

(4) The percentage of the eligible vertical interest, eligible horizontal residual interest, or combination thereof retained by the sponsor must be determined as of the closing date of the securitization transaction.

(b) Option to hold base amount in eligible horizontal cash reserve account. In lieu of retaining all or any part of an eligible horizontal residual interest under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor may, at closing of the securitization transaction, cause to be established and funded, in cash, an eligible horizontal cash reserve account in the amount equal to the fair value of such eligible horizontal residual interest or part thereof, provided that the account meets all of the following conditions:

(1) The account is held by the trustee (or person performing similar functions) in the name and for the benefit of the issuing entity;

(2) Amounts in the account are invested only in cash and cash equivalents; and

(3) Until all ABS interests in the issuing entity are paid in full, or the issuing entity is dissolved:

(i) Amounts in the account shall be released only to:

(A) Satisfy payments on ABS interests in the issuing entity on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to satisfy an amount due on any ABS interest; or

(B) Pay critical expenses of the trust unrelated to credit risk on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to pay such expenses and:

(1) Such expenses, in the absence of available funds in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account, would be paid prior to any payments to holders of ABS interests; and

(2) Such payments are made to parties that are not affiliated with the sponsor; and

(ii) Interest (or other earnings) on investments made in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be released once received by the account.

(c) Disclosures. A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction the following disclosures in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (c):

(1) Horizontal interest. With respect to any eligible horizontal residual interest held under paragraph (a) of this section, a sponsor must disclose:

(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,

(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction. If the specific prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization are not available, the sponsor must disclose a range of fair values (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the close of the securitization transaction based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization. A sponsor disclosing a range of fair values based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization must also disclose the method by which it determined any range of prices, tranche sizes, or rates of interest.

(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor;

(C) A description of the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair values or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including any portion of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by the sponsor;

(D) All key inputs and assumptions or a comprehensive description of such key inputs and assumptions that were used in measuring the estimated total fair value or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor.

(E) To the extent applicable to the valuation methodology used, the disclosure required in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section shall include, but should not be limited to, quantitative information about each of the following:

(1) Discount rates;

(2) Loss given default (recovery);

(3) Prepayment rates;

(4) Default rates;

(5) Lag time between default and recovery; and

(6) The basis of forward interest rates used.

(F) The disclosure required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(C) and (D) of this section shall include, at a minimum, descriptions of all inputs and assumptions that either could have a material impact on the fair value calculation or would be material to a prospective investor's ability to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculations. To the extent the disclosure required in this paragraph (c)(1) includes a description of a curve or curves, the description shall include a description of the methodology that was used to derive each curve and a description of any aspects or features of each curve that could materially impact the fair value calculation or the ability of a prospective investor to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculation. To the extent a sponsor uses information about the securitized assets in its calculation of fair value, such information shall not be as of a date more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided that for a subsequent issuance of ABS interests by the same issuing entity with the same sponsor for which the securitization transaction distributes amounts to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, such information shall not be as of a date more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided further, that the balance or value (in accordance with the transaction documents) of the securitized assets may be increased or decreased to reflect anticipated additions or removals of assets the sponsor makes or expects to make between the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security and the closing date of the securitization.

(G) A summary description of the reference data set or other historical information used to develop the key inputs and assumptions referenced in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section, including loss given default and default rates;

(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction:

(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest the sponsor retained at the closing of the securitization transaction, based on actual sale prices and finalized tranche sizes;

(B) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to retain under this section; and

(C) To the extent the valuation methodology or any of the key inputs and assumptions that were used in calculating the fair value or range of fair values disclosed prior to sale and required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section materially differs from the methodology or key inputs and assumptions used to calculate the fair value at the time of closing, descriptions of those material differences.

(iii) If the sponsor retains risk through the funding of an eligible horizontal cash reserve account:

(A) The amount to be placed (or that is placed) by the sponsor in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account at closing, and the fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to fund through the eligible horizontal cash reserve account in order for such account, together with other retained interests, to satisfy the sponsor's risk retention requirement;

(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal cash reserve account; and

(C) The disclosures required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.

(2) Vertical interest. With respect to any eligible vertical interest retained under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor must disclose:

(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,

(A) The form of the eligible vertical interest;

(B) The percentage that the sponsor is required to retain as a vertical interest under this section; and

(C) A description of the material terms of the vertical interest and the amount that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction.

(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of the vertical interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.

(d) Record maintenance. A sponsor must retain the certifications and disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.

§ 1234.5 Revolving pool securitizations.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

Revolving pool securitization means an issuing entity that is established to issue on multiple issuance dates more than one series, class, subclass, or tranche of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of securitized assets that will change in composition over time, and that does not monetize excess interest and fees from its securitized assets.

Seller's interest means an ABS interest or ABS interests:

(1) Collateralized by the securitized assets and servicing assets owned or held by the issuing entity, other than the following that are not considered a component of seller's interest:

(i) Servicing assets that have been allocated as collateral only for a specific series in connection with administering the revolving pool securitization, such as a principal accumulation or interest reserve account; and

(ii) Assets that are not eligible under the terms of the securitization transaction to be included when determining whether the revolving pool securitization holds aggregate securitized assets in specified proportions to aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests issued; and

(2) That is pari passu with each series of investor ABS interests issued, or partially or fully subordinated to one or more series in identical or varying amounts, with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets prior to early amortization of the revolving securitization (as specified in the securitization transaction documents); and

(3) That adjusts for fluctuations in the outstanding principal balance of the securitized assets in the pool.

(b) General requirement. A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 1234.3 with respect to a securitization transaction for which the issuing entity is a revolving pool securitization if the sponsor maintains a seller's interest of not less than 5 percent of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests in the issuing entity.

(c) Measuring the seller's interest. In measuring the seller's interest for purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section:

(1) The unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets for the numerator of the 5 percent ratio shall not include assets of the types excluded from the definition of seller's interest in paragraph (a) of this section;

(2) The aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator of the 5 percent ratio may be reduced by the amount of funds held in a segregated principal accumulation account for the repayment of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:

(i) The terms of the securitization transaction documents prevent funds in the principal accumulation account from being applied for any purpose other than the repayment of the unpaid principal of outstanding investor ABS interests; and

(ii) Funds in that account are invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 1234.4 are permitted to be invested;

(3) If the terms of the securitization transaction documents set minimum required seller's interest as a proportion of the unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, rather than as a proportion of the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests in all outstanding series combined, the percentage of the seller's interest for each such series must, when combined with the percentage of any minimum seller's interest set by reference to the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests, equal at least 5 percent;

(4) The 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied at the closing of each issuance of ABS interests to investors by the issuing entity, and

(i) At least monthly at a seller's interest measurement date specified under the securitization transaction documents, until no ABS interest in the issuing entity is held by any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor; or

(ii) If the revolving pool securitization fails to meet the 5 percent test as of any date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, and the securitization transaction documents specify a cure period, the 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied within the earlier of the cure period, or one month after the date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i).

(d) Measuring outstanding investor ABS interests. In measuring the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for purposes of this section, ABS interests held for the life of such ABS interests by the sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates may be excluded.

(e) Holding and retention of the seller's interest; legacy trusts. (1) Notwithstanding § 1234.12(a), the seller's interest, and any offsetting horizontal retention interest retained pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, must be retained by the sponsor or by one or more wholly-owned affiliates of the sponsor, including one or more depositors of the revolving pool securitization.

(2) If one revolving pool securitization issues collateral certificates representing a beneficial interest in all or a portion of the securitized assets held by that securitization to another revolving pool securitization, which in turn issues ABS interests for which the collateral certificates are all or a portion of the securitized assets, a sponsor may satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section by retaining the seller's interest for the assets represented by the collateral certificates through either of the revolving pool securitizations, so long as both revolving pool securitizations are retained at the direction of the same sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates.

(3) If the sponsor retains the seller's interest associated with the collateral certificates at the level of the revolving pool securitization that issues those collateral certificates, the proportion of the seller's interest required by paragraph (b) of this section retained at that level must equal the proportion that the principal balance of the securitized assets represented by the collateral certificates bears to the principal balance of the securitized assets in the revolving pool securitization that issues the ABS interests, as of each measurement date required by paragraph (c) of this section.

(f) Offset for pool-level excess funding account. The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced on a dollar-for-dollar basis by the balance, as of such date, of an excess funding account in the form of a segregated account that:

(1) Is funded in the event of a failure to meet the minimum seller's interest requirements or other requirement to maintain a minimum balance of securitized assets under the securitization transaction documents by distributions otherwise payable to the holder of the seller's interest;

(2) Is invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in a horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 1234.4 are permitted to be invested; and

(3) In the event of an early amortization, makes payments of amounts held in the account to holders of investor ABS interests in the same manner as payments to holders of investor ABS interests of amounts received on securitized assets.

(g) Combined seller's interests and horizontal interest retention. The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced to a percentage lower than 5 percent to the extent that, for all series of investor ABS interests issued after the applicable effective date of this § 1234.5, the sponsor, or notwithstanding § 1234.12(a) a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, retains, at a minimum, a corresponding percentage of the fair value of ABS interests issued in each series, in the form of one or more of the horizontal residual interests meeting the requirements of paragraphs (h) or (i).

(h) Residual ABS interests in excess interest and fees. The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for a residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, whether certificated or uncertificated, in a single or multiple classes, subclasses, or tranches, that meets, individually or in the aggregate, the requirements of this paragraph (h);

(1) Each series of the revolving pool securitization distinguishes between the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows and the series' share of the principal repayment cash flows from the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization, which may according to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, include not only the series' ratable share of such cash flows but also excess cash flows available from other series;

(2) The residual ABS interest's claim to any part of the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows for any interest payment period is subordinated to all accrued and payable interest due on the payment date to more senior ABS interests in the series for that period, and further reduced by the series' share of losses, including defaults on principal of the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization (whether incurred in that period or carried over from prior periods) to the extent that such payments would have been included in amounts payable to more senior interests in the series;

(3) The revolving pool securitization continues to revolve, with one or more series, classes, subclasses, or tranches of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of assets that change in composition over time; and

(4) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, and the fair value of the series of outstanding investor ABS interests to which it is subordinated and supports using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP, as of:

(i) The closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and

(ii) The seller's interest measurement dates described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, except that for these periodic determinations the sponsor must update the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees for the numerator of the percentage ratio, but may at the sponsor's option continue to use the fair values determined in (h)(4)(i) for the outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator.

(i) Offsetting eligible horizontal residual interest. The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for ABS interests that would meet the definition of eligible horizontal residual interests in § 1234.2 but for the sponsor's simultaneous holding of subordinated seller's interests, residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, or a combination of the two, if:

(1) The sponsor complies with all requirements of paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section for its holdings of subordinated seller's interest, and paragraph (h) for its holdings of residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, as applicable;

(2) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests in the series supported by the eligible horizontal residual interest, determined using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP:

(i) As of the closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and

(ii) Without including in the numerator of the percentage ratio any fair value based on:

(A) The subordinated seller's interest or residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees;

(B) the interest payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section in taking the offset in paragraph (g) of this section; and,

(C) the principal payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of the seller's interest pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section and distributions on that seller's interest are available to reduce charge-offs that would otherwise be allocated to reduce principal payable to the offset eligible horizontal residual interest.

(j) Specified dates. A sponsor using data about the revolving pool securitization's collateral, or ABS interests previously issued, to determine the closing-date percentage of a seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this § 1234.5 may use such data prepared as of specified dates if:

(1) The sponsor describes the specified dates in the disclosures required by paragraph (k) of this section; and

(2) The dates are no more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors of disclosures required for the interest by paragraph (k) of this section, or for revolving pool securitizations that make distributions to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, no more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors of such disclosures.

(k) Disclosure and record maintenance. (1) Disclosure. A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” the following disclosure in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (k):

(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security, a description of the material terms of the seller's interest, and the percentage of the seller's interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction, measured in accordance with the requirements of this § 1234.5, as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests issued, or as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, as required by the terms of the securitization transaction;

(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of seller's interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section; and

(iii) A description of the material terms of any horizontal residual interests offsetting the seller's interest in accordance with paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section; and

(iv) Disclosure of the fair value of those horizontal residual interests retained by the sponsor for the series being offered to investors and described in the disclosures, as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests issued, described in the same manner and within the same timeframes required for disclosure of the fair values of eligible horizontal residual interests specified in § 1234.4(c).

(2) Adjusted data. Disclosures required by this paragraph (k) to be made a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security of the amount of seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest may include adjustments to the amount of securitized assets for additions or removals the sponsor expects to make before the closing date and adjustments to the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for expected increases and decreases of those interests under the control of the sponsor.

(3) Record maintenance. A sponsor must retain the disclosures required in paragraph (k)(1) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.

(l) Early amortization of all outstanding series. A sponsor that organizes a revolving pool securitization that relies on this § 1234.5 to satisfy the risk retention requirements of § 1234.3, does not violate the requirements of this part if its seller's interest falls below the level required by § 1234. 5 after the revolving pool securitization commences early amortization, pursuant to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, of all series of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:

(1) The sponsor was in full compliance with the requirements of this section on all measurement dates specified in paragraph (c) of this section prior to the commencement of early amortization;

(2) The terms of the seller's interest continue to make it pari passu with or subordinate in identical or varying amounts to each series of outstanding investor ABS interests issued with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets;

(3) The terms of any horizontal interest relied upon by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (g) to offset the minimum seller's interest amount continue to require the interests to absorb losses in accordance with the terms of paragraph (h) or (i) of this section, as applicable; and

(4) The revolving pool securitization issues no additional ABS interests after early amortization is initiated to any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, either at the time of issuance or during the amortization period.

§ 1234.6 Eligible ABCP conduits.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following additional definitions apply:

100 percent liquidity coverage means an amount equal to the outstanding balance of all ABCP issued by the conduit plus any accrued and unpaid interest without regard to the performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit and without regard to any credit enhancement.

ABCP means asset-backed commercial paper that has a maturity at the time of issuance not exceeding 397 days, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited.

ABCP conduit means an issuing entity with respect to ABCP.

Eligible ABCP conduit means an ABCP conduit, provided that:

(1) The ABCP conduit is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the sponsor of the ABCP conduit and from any intermediate SPV;

(2) The ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit are:

(i) ABS interests collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets;

(ii) Special units of beneficial interest (or similar ABS interests) in a trust or special purpose vehicle that retains legal title to leased property underlying leases originated by an originator-seller that were transferred to an intermediate SPV in connection with a securitization collateralized solely by such leases and by servicing assets;

(iii) ABS interests in a revolving pool securitization collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets; or

(iv) ABS interests described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition that are collateralized, in whole or in part, by assets acquired by an originator-seller in a business combination that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP, and, if collateralized in part, the remainder of such assets are assets described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition; and

(v) Acquired by the ABCP conduit in an initial issuance by or on behalf of an intermediate SPV:

(A) Directly from the intermediate SPV,

(B) From an underwriter of the ABS interests issued by the intermediate SPV, or

(C) From another person who acquired the ABS interests directly from the intermediate SPV;

(3) The ABCP conduit is collateralized solely by ABS interests acquired from intermediate SPVs as described in paragraph (2) of this definition and servicing assets; and

(4) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage (in the form of a lending facility, an asset purchase agreement, a repurchase agreement, or other similar arrangement) to all the ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit by lending to, purchasing ABCP issued by, or purchasing assets from, the ABCP conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit. With respect to the 100 percent liquidity coverage, in the event that the ABCP conduit is unable for any reason to repay maturing ABCP issued by the issuing entity, the liquidity provider shall be obligated to pay an amount equal to any shortfall, and the total amount that may be due pursuant to the 100 percent liquidity coverage shall be equal to 100 percent of the amount of the ABCP outstanding at any time plus accrued and unpaid interest (amounts due pursuant to the required liquidity coverage may not be subject to credit performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit or reduced by the amount of credit support provided to the ABCP conduit and liquidity support that only funds performing loans or receivables or performing ABS interests does not meet the requirements of this section).

Intermediate SPV means a special purpose vehicle that:

(1) (i) Is a direct or indirect wholly-owned affiliate of the originator-seller; or

(ii) Has nominal equity owned by a trust or corporate service provider that specializes in providing independent ownership of special purpose vehicles, and such trust or corporate service provider is not affiliated with any other transaction parties;

(2) Is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the eligible ABCP conduit and from each originator-seller and each majority-owned affiliate in each case that, directly or indirectly, sells or transfers assets to such intermediate SPV;

(3) Acquires assets from the originator-seller that are originated by the originator-seller or acquired by the originator-seller in the acquisition of a business that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP or acquires ABS interests issued by another intermediate SPV of the originator-seller that are collateralized solely by such assets; and

(4) Issues ABS interests collateralized solely by such assets, as applicable.

Originator-seller means an entity that originates assets and sells or transfers those assets, directly or through a majority-owned affiliate, to an intermediate SPV, and includes (except for the purposes of identifying the sponsorship and affiliation of an intermediate SPV pursuant to this § 1234.6) any affiliate of the originator-seller that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, the originator-seller. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.

Regulated liquidity provider means:

(1) A depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813));

(2) A bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841), or a subsidiary thereof;

(3) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k), or a subsidiary thereof; or

(4) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor (as defined in § 211.21 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21)) has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof.

(b) In general. An ABCP conduit sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirement of § 1234.3 with respect to the issuance of ABCP by an eligible ABCP conduit in a securitization transaction if, for each ABS interest the ABCP conduit acquires from an intermediate SPV:

(1) An originator-seller of the intermediate SPV retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the assets collateralizing the ABS interest acquired by the eligible ABCP conduit in the amount and manner required under § 1234.4 or § 1234.5; and

(2) The ABCP conduit sponsor:

(i) Approves each originator-seller permitted to sell or transfer assets, directly or indirectly, to an intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit acquires ABS interests;

(ii) Approves each intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit is permitted to acquire ABS interests;

(iii) Establishes criteria governing the ABS interests, and the securitized assets underlying the ABS interests, acquired by the ABCP conduit;

(iv) Administers the ABCP conduit by monitoring the ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit and the assets supporting those ABS interests, arranging for debt placement, compiling monthly reports, and ensuring compliance with the ABCP conduit documents and with the ABCP conduit's credit and investment policy; and

(v) Maintains and adheres to policies and procedures for ensuring that the requirements in this paragraph (b) of this section have been met.

(c) Originator-seller compliance with risk retention. The use of the risk retention option provided in this section by an ABCP conduit sponsor does not relieve the originator-seller that sponsors ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit from such originator-seller's obligation to comply with its own risk retention obligations under this part.

(d) Disclosures—(1) Periodic disclosures to investors. An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to each purchaser of ABCP, before or contemporaneously with the first sale of ABCP to such purchaser and at least monthly thereafter, to each holder of commercial paper issued by the ABCP conduit, in writing, each of the following items of information, which shall be as of a date not more than 60 days prior to date of first use with investors:

(i) The name and form of organization of the regulated liquidity provider that provides liquidity coverage to the eligible ABCP conduit, including a description of the material terms of such liquidity coverage, and notice of any failure to fund.

(ii) With respect to each ABS interest held by the ABCP conduit:

(A) The asset class or brief description of the underlying securitized assets;

(B) The standard industrial category code (SIC Code) for the originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction; and

(C) A description of the percentage amount of risk retention pursuant to the rule by the originator-seller, and whether it is in the form of an eligible horizontal residual interest, vertical interest, or revolving pool securitization seller's interest, as applicable.

(2) Disclosures to regulators regarding originator-sellers. An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing, all of the information required to be provided to investors in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and the name and form of organization of each originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction.

(e) Sale or transfer of ABS interests between eligible ABCP conduits. At any time, an eligible ABCP conduit that acquired an ABS interest in accordance with the requirements set forth in this section may transfer, and another eligible ABCP conduit may acquire, such ABS interest, if the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) The sponsors of both eligible ABCP conduits are in compliance with this section; and

(2) The same regulated liquidity provider has entered into one or more legally binding commitments to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage to all the ABCP issued by both eligible ABCP conduits.

(f) Duty to comply. (1) The ABCP conduit sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.

(2) An ABCP conduit sponsor relying on this section:

(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor compliance by each originator-seller which is satisfying a risk retention obligation in respect of ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and

(ii) In the event that the ABCP conduit sponsor determines that an originator-seller no longer complies with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall:

(A) Promptly notify the holders of the ABCP, and upon request, the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing of:

(1) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that fails to retain risk in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit;

(2) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that hedges, directly or indirectly through an intermediate SPV, its risk retention in violation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit; and

(3) Any remedial actions taken by the ABCP conduit sponsor or other party with respect to such ABS interests; and

(B) Take other appropriate steps pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section which may include, as appropriate, curing any breach of the requirements in this section, or removing from the eligible ABCP conduit any ABS interest that does not comply with the requirements in this section.

§ 1234.7 Commercial mortgage-backed securities.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:

Special servicer means, with respect to any securitization of commercial real estate loans, any servicer that, upon the occurrence of one or more specified conditions in the servicing agreement, has the right to service one or more assets in the transaction.

(b) Third-party purchaser. A sponsor may satisfy some or all of its risk retention requirements under § 1234.3 with respect to a securitization transaction if a third party (or any majority-owned affiliate thereof) purchases and holds for its own account an eligible horizontal residual interest in the issuing entity in the same form, amount, and manner as would be held by the sponsor under § 1234.4 and all of the following conditions are met:

(1) Number of third-party purchasers. At any time, there are no more than two third-party purchasers of an eligible horizontal residual interest. If there are two third-party purchasers, each third-party purchaser's interest must be pari passu with the other third-party purchaser's interest.

(2) Composition of collateral. The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by commercial real estate loans and servicing assets.

(3) Source of funds. (i) Each third-party purchaser pays for the eligible horizontal residual interest in cash at the closing of the securitization transaction.

(ii) No third-party purchaser obtains financing, directly or indirectly, for the purchase of such interest from any other person that is a party to, or an affiliate of a party to, the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer other than a special servicer affiliated with the third-party purchaser), other than a person that is a party to the transaction solely by reason of being an investor.

(4) Third-party review. Each third-party purchaser conducts an independent review of the credit risk of each securitized asset prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction that includes, at a minimum, a review of the underwriting standards, collateral, and expected cash flows of each commercial real estate loan that is collateral for the asset-backed securities.

(5) Affiliation and control rights. (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, no third-party purchaser is affiliated with any party to the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer) other than investors in the securitization transaction.

(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, a third-party purchaser may be affiliated with:

(A) The special servicer for the securitization transaction; or

(B) One or more originators of the securitized assets, as long as the assets originated by the affiliated originator or originators collectively comprise less than 10 percent of the unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets included in the securitization transaction at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.

(6) Operating Advisor. The underlying securitization transaction documents shall provide for the following:

(i) The appointment of an operating advisor (the Operating Advisor) that:

(A) Is not affiliated with other parties to the securitization transaction;

(B) Does not directly or indirectly have any financial interest in the securitization transaction other than in fees from its role as Operating Advisor; and

(C) Is required to act in the best interest of, and for the benefit of, investors as a collective whole;

(ii) Standards with respect to the Operating Advisor's experience, expertise and financial strength to fulfill its duties and responsibilities under the applicable transaction documents over the life of the securitization transaction;

(iii) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation with respect to the securitization transaction;

(iv) When the eligible horizontal residual interest has been reduced by principal payments, realized losses, and appraisal reduction amounts (which reduction amounts are determined in accordance with the applicable transaction documents) to a principal balance of 25 percent or less of its initial principal balance, the special servicer for the securitized assets must consult with the Operating Advisor in connection with, and prior to, any material decision in connection with its servicing of the securitized assets, including, without limitation:

(A) Any material modification of, or waiver with respect to, any provision of a loan agreement (including a mortgage, deed of trust, or other security agreement);

(B) Foreclosure upon or comparable conversion of the ownership of a property; or

(C) Any acquisition of a property.

(v) The Operating Advisor shall have adequate and timely access to information and reports necessary to fulfill its duties under the transaction documents, including all reports made available to holders of ABS interests and third-party purchasers, and shall be responsible for:

(A) Reviewing the actions of the special servicer;

(B) Reviewing all reports provided by the special servicer to the issuing entity or any holder of ABS interests;

(C) Reviewing for accuracy and consistency with the transaction documents calculations made by the special servicer; and

(D) Issuing a report to investors (including any third-party purchasers) and the issuing entity on a periodic basis concerning:

(1) Whether the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that the special servicer is operating in compliance with any standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and

(2) Which, if any, standards the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, the special servicer has failed to comply.

(vi)(A) The Operating Advisor shall have the authority to recommend that the special servicer be replaced by a successor special servicer if the Operating Advisor determines, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that:

(1) The special servicer has failed to comply with a standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and

(2) Such replacement would be in the best interest of the investors as a collective whole; and

(B) If a recommendation described in paragraph (b)(6)(vi)(A) of this section is made, the special servicer shall be replaced upon the affirmative vote of a majority of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests voting on the matter, with a minimum of a quorum of ABS interests voting on the matter. For purposes of such vote, the applicable transaction documents shall specify the quorum and may not specify a quorum of more than the holders of 20 percent of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests in the issuing entity, with such quorum including at least three ABS interest holders that are not affiliated with each other.

(7) Disclosures. The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:

(i) The name and form of organization of each initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction;

(ii) A description of each initial third-party purchaser's experience in investing in commercial mortgage-backed securities;

(iii) Any other information regarding each initial third-party purchaser or each initial third-party purchaser's retention of the eligible horizontal residual interest that is material to investors in light of the circumstances of the particular securitization transaction;

(iv) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that will be retained (or was retained) by each initial third-party purchaser, as well as the amount of the purchase price paid by each initial third-party purchaser for such interest;

(v) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction that the sponsor would have retained pursuant to § 1234.4 if the sponsor had relied on retaining an eligible horizontal residual interest in that section to meet the requirements of § 1234.3 with respect to the transaction;

(vi) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by each initial third-party purchaser, including the same information as is required to be disclosed by sponsors retaining horizontal interests pursuant to § 1234.4;

(vii) The material terms of the applicable transaction documents with respect to the Operating Advisor, including without limitation:

(A) The name and form of organization of the Operating Advisor;

(B) A description of any material conflict of interest or material potential conflict of interest between the Operating Advisor and any other party to the transaction;

(C) The standards required by paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section and a description of how the Operating Advisor satisfies each of the standards; and

(D) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation under paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section; and

(viii) The representations and warranties concerning the securitized assets, a schedule of any securitized assets that are determined not to comply with such representations and warranties, and what factors were used to make the determination that such securitized assets should be included in the pool notwithstanding that the securitized assets did not comply with such representations and warranties, such as compensating factors or a determination that the exceptions were not material.

(8) Hedging, transfer and pledging—(i) General rule. Except as set forth in paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section, each third-party purchaser and its affiliates must comply with the hedging and other restrictions in § 1234.12 as if it were the retaining sponsor with respect to the securitization transaction and had acquired the eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to § 1234.4; provided that, the hedging and other restrictions in § 1234.12 shall not apply on or after the date that each CRE loan (as defined in § 1234.14) that serves as collateral for outstanding ABS interests has been defeased. For purposes of this section, a loan is deemed to be defeased if:

(A) cash or cash equivalents of the types permitted for an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 1234.4 whose maturity corresponds to the remaining debt service obligations, have been pledged to the issuing entity as collateral for the loan and are in such amounts and payable at such times as necessary to timely generate cash sufficient to make all remaining debt service payments due on such loan; and

(B) the issuing entity has an obligation to release its lien on the loan.

(ii) Exceptions—(A) Transfer by initial third-party purchaser or sponsor. An initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, or a sponsor that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, may, on or after the date that is five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction, transfer that interest to a subsequent third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The initial third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the subsequent third-party purchaser.

(B) Transfer by subsequent third-party purchaser. At any time, a subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this section may transfer its interest to a different third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The transferring third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the acquiring third-party purchaser.

(C) Requirements applicable to subsequent third-party purchasers. A subsequent third-party purchaser is subject to all of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section applicable to third-party purchasers, provided that obligations under paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section that apply to initial third-party purchasers at or before the time of closing of the securitization transaction shall apply to successor third-party purchasers at or before the time of the transfer of the eligible horizontal residual interest to the successor third-party purchaser.

(c) Duty to comply. (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section by itself and for compliance by each initial or subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction.

(2) A sponsor relying on this section:

(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures to monitor each third-party purchaser's compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section; and

(ii) In the event that the sponsor determines that a third-party purchaser no longer complies with one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), or (b)(8) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such third-party purchaser.

§ 1234.8 Federal National Mortgage Association and Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation ABS.

(a) In general. A sponsor satisfies its risk retention requirement under this part if the sponsor fully guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest on all ABS interests issued by the issuing entity in the securitization transaction and is:

(1) The Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to section 1367 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617) with capital support from the United States; or

(2) Any limited-life regulated entity succeeding to the charter of either the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation pursuant to section 1367(i) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617(i)), provided that the entity is operating with capital support from the United States.

(b) Certain provisions not applicable. The provisions of § 1234.12(b), (c), and (d) shall not apply to a sponsor described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, its affiliates, or the issuing entity with respect to a securitization transaction for which the sponsor has retained credit risk in accordance with the requirements of this section.

(c) Disclosure. A sponsor relying on this section shall provide to investors, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” and, upon request, to the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Commission, a description of the manner in which it has met the credit risk retention requirements of this part.

§ 1234.9 Open market CLOs.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:

CLO means a special purpose entity that:

(i) Issues debt and equity interests, and

(ii) Whose assets consist primarily of loans that are securitized assets and servicing assets.

CLO-eligible loan tranche means a term loan of a syndicated facility that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.

CLO manager means an entity that manages a CLO, which entity is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 et seq.), or is an affiliate of such a registered investment adviser and itself is managed by such registered investment adviser.

Commercial borrower means an obligor under a corporate credit obligation (including a loan).

Initial loan syndication transaction means a transaction in which a loan is syndicated to a group of lenders.

Lead arranger means, with respect to a CLO-eligible loan tranche, an institution that:

(i) Is active in the origination, structuring and syndication of commercial loan transactions (as defined in § 1234.14) and has played a primary role in the structuring, underwriting and distribution on the primary market of the CLO-eligible loan tranche.

(ii) Has taken an allocation of the funded portion of the syndicated credit facility under the terms of the transaction that includes the CLO-eligible loan tranche of at least 20 percent of the aggregate principal balance at origination, and no other member (or members affiliated with each other) of the syndication group that funded at origination has taken a greater allocation; and

(iii) Is identified in the applicable agreement governing the CLO-eligible loan tranche; represents therein to the holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche and to any holders of participation interests in such CLO-eligible loan tranche that such lead arranger satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i) of this definition and, at the time of initial funding of the CLO-eligible tranche, will satisfy the requirements of paragraph (ii) of this definition; further represents therein (solely for the purpose of assisting such holders to determine the eligibility of such CLO-eligible loan tranche to be held by an open market CLO) that in the reasonable judgment of such lead arranger, the terms of such CLO-eligible loan tranche are consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section; and covenants therein to such holders that such lead arranger will fulfill the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

Open market CLO means a CLO:

(i) Whose assets consist of senior, secured syndicated loans acquired by such CLO directly from the sellers thereof in open market transactions and of servicing assets,

(ii) That is managed by a CLO manager, and

(iii) That holds less than 50 percent of its assets, by aggregate outstanding principal amount, in loans syndicated by lead arrangers that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager or originated by originators that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager.

Open market transaction means:

(i) Either an initial loan syndication transaction or a secondary market transaction in which a seller offers senior, secured syndicated loans to prospective purchasers in the loan market on market terms on an arm's length basis, which prospective purchasers include, but are not limited to, entities that are not affiliated with the seller, or

(ii) A reverse inquiry from a prospective purchaser of a senior, secured syndicated loan through a dealer in the loan market to purchase a senior, secured syndicated loan to be sourced by the dealer in the loan market.

Secondary market transaction means a purchase of a senior, secured syndicated loan not in connection with an initial loan syndication transaction but in the secondary market.

Senior, secured syndicated loan means a loan made to a commercial borrower that:

(i) Is not subordinate in right of payment to any other obligation for borrowed money of the commercial borrower,

(ii) Is secured by a valid first priority security interest or lien in or on specified collateral securing the commercial borrower's obligations under the loan, and

(iii) The value of the collateral subject to such first priority security interest or lien, together with other attributes of the obligor (including, without limitation, its general financial condition, ability to generate cash flow available for debt service and other demands for that cash flow), is adequate (in the commercially reasonable judgment of the CLO manager exercised at the time of investment) to repay the loan and to repay all other indebtedness of equal seniority secured by such first priority security interest or lien in or on the same collateral, and the CLO manager certifies, on or prior to each date that it acquires a loan constituting part of a new CLO-eligible tranche, that it has policies and procedures to evaluate the likelihood of repayment of loans acquired by the CLO and it has followed such policies and procedures in evaluating each CLO-eligible loan tranche.

(b) In general. A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 1234.3 with respect to an open market CLO transaction if:

(1) The open market CLO does not acquire or hold any assets other than CLO-eligible loan tranches that meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and servicing assets;

(2) The governing documents of such open market CLO require that, at all times, the assets of the open market CLO consist of senior, secured syndicated loans that are CLO-eligible loan tranches and servicing assets;

(3) The open market CLO does not invest in ABS interests or in credit derivatives other than hedging transactions that are servicing assets to hedge risks of the open market CLO;

(4) All purchases of CLO-eligible loan tranches and other assets by the open market CLO issuing entity or through a warehouse facility used to accumulate the loans prior to the issuance of the CLO's ABS interests are made in open market transactions on an arms-length basis;

(5) The CLO manager of the open market CLO is not entitled to receive any management fee or gain on sale at the time the open market CLO issues its ABS interests.

(c) CLO-eligible loan tranche. To qualify as a CLO-eligible loan tranche, a term loan of a syndicated credit facility to a commercial borrower must have the following features:

(1) A minimum of 5 percent of the face amount of the CLO-eligible loan tranche is retained by the lead arranger thereof until the earliest of the repayment, maturity, involuntary and unscheduled acceleration, payment default, or bankruptcy default of such CLO-eligible loan tranche, provided that such lead arranger complies with limitations on hedging, transferring and pledging in § 1234.12 with respect to the interest retained by the lead arranger.

(2) Lender voting rights within the credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranche are defined so as to give holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche consent rights with respect to, at minimum, any material waivers and amendments of such applicable documents, including but not limited to, adverse changes to the calculation or payments of amounts due to the holders of the CLO-eligible tranche, alterations to pro rata provisions, changes to voting provisions, and waivers of conditions precedent; and

(3) The pro rata provisions, voting provisions, and similar provisions applicable to the security associated with such CLO-eligible loan tranches under the CLO credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranches are not materially less advantageous to the holder(s) of such CLO-eligible tranche than the terms of other tranches of comparable seniority in the broader syndicated credit facility.

(d) Disclosures. A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction and at least annually with respect to the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:

(1) Open market CLOs. A complete list of every asset held by an open market CLO (or before the CLO's closing, in a warehouse facility in anticipation of transfer into the CLO at closing), including the following information:

(i) The full legal name, Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) category code, and legal entity identifier (LEI) issued by a utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee or the Global LEI Foundation (if an LEI has been obtained by the obligor) of the obligor of the loan or asset;

(ii) The full name of the specific loan tranche held by the CLO;

(iii) The face amount of the entire loan tranche held by the CLO, and the face amount of the portion thereof held by the CLO;

(iv) The price at which the loan tranche was acquired by the CLO; and

(v) For each loan tranche, the full legal name of the lead arranger subject to the sales and hedging restrictions of § 1234.12; and

(2) CLO manager. The full legal name and form of organization of the CLO manager.

§ 1234.10 Qualified tender option bonds.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:

Municipal security or municipal securities shall have the same meaning as the term “municipal securities” in Section 3(a)(29) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(29)) and any rules promulgated pursuant to such section.

Qualified tender option bond entity means an issuing entity with respect to tender option bonds for which each of the following applies:

(i) Such entity is collateralized solely by servicing assets and by municipal securities that have the same municipal issuer and the same underlying obligor or source of payment (determined without regard to any third-party credit enhancement), and such municipal securities are not subject to substitution.

(ii) Such entity issues no securities other than:

(A) A single class of tender option bonds with a preferred variable return payable out of capital that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and

(B) One or more residual equity interests that, in the aggregate, are entitled to all remaining income of the issuing entity.

(C) The types of securities referred to in paragraphs (ii)(A) and (B) of this definition must constitute asset-backed securities.

(iii) The municipal securities held as assets by such entity are issued in compliance with Section 103 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the “IRS Code”, 26 U.S.C. 103), such that the interest payments made on those securities are excludable from the gross income of the owners under Section 103 of the IRS Code.

(iv) The terms of all of the securities issued by the entity are structured so that all holders of such securities who are eligible to exclude interest received on such securities will be able to exclude that interest from gross income pursuant to Section 103 of the IRS Code or as “exempt-interest dividends” pursuant to Section 852(b)(5) of the IRS Code (26 U.S.C. 852(b)(5)) in the case of regulated investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended.

(v) Such entity has a legally binding commitment from a regulated liquidity provider as defined in § 1234.6(a), to provide a 100 percent guarantee or liquidity coverage with respect to all of the issuing entity's outstanding tender option bonds.

(vi) Such entity qualifies for monthly closing elections pursuant to IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time.

Tender option bond means a security which has features which entitle the holders to tender such bonds to the issuing entity for purchase at any time upon no more than 397 days' notice, for a purchase price equal to the approximate amortized cost of the security, plus accrued interest, if any, at the time of tender.

(b) Risk retention options. Notwithstanding anything in this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds may retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 1234.4. In order to satisfy its risk retention requirements under this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain:

(1) An eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 1234.4; or

(2) An interest that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section; or

(3) A municipal security that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section; or

(4) Any combination of interests and securities described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section such that the sum of the percentages held in each form equals at least five.

(c) Tender option termination event. The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain an interest that upon issuance meets the requirements of an eligible horizontal residual interest but that upon the occurrence of a “tender option termination event” as defined in Section 4.01(5) of IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time will meet the requirements of an eligible vertical interest.

(d) Retention of a municipal security outside of the qualified tender option bond entity. The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may satisfy its risk retention requirements under this Section by holding municipal securities from the same issuance of municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity, the face value of which retained municipal securities is equal to 5 percent of the face value of the municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity.

(e) Disclosures. The sponsor shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:

(1) The name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity;

(2) A description of the form and subordination features of such retained interest in accordance with the disclosure obligations in § 1234.4(c);

(3) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible horizontal residual interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 1234.10(c)), the fair value of that interest (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and as a dollar amount);

(4) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible vertical interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 1234.10(c)), the percentage of ABS interests issued represented by the eligible vertical interest; and

(5) To the extent any portion of the retained interest claimed by the sponsor is a municipal security held outside of the qualified tender option bond entity, the name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity, the identity of the issuer of the municipal securities, the face value of the municipal securities deposited into the qualified tender option bond entity, and the face value of the municipal securities retained by the sponsor or its majority-owned affiliates and subject to the transfer and hedging prohibition.

(f) Prohibitions on Hedging and Transfer. The prohibitions on transfer and hedging set forth in § 1234.12, apply to any interests or municipal securities retained by the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity pursuant to of this section.

Subpart C Transfer of Risk Retention
§ 1234.11 Allocation of risk retention to an originator.

(a) In general. A sponsor choosing to retain an eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest (including an eligible horizontal cash reserve account), or combination thereof under § 1234.4, with respect to a securitization transaction may offset the amount of its risk retention requirements under § 1234.4 by the amount of the eligible interests, respectively, acquired by an originator of one or more of the securitized assets if:

(1) At the closing of the securitization transaction:

(i) The originator acquires the eligible interest from the sponsor and retains such interest in the same manner and proportion (as between horizontal and vertical interests) as the sponsor under § 1234.4, as such interest was held prior to the acquisition by the originator;

(ii) The ratio of the percentage of eligible interests acquired and retained by the originator to the percentage of eligible interests otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 1234.4, does not exceed the ratio of:

(A) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets originated by the originator; to

(B) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets in the securitization transaction;

(iii) The originator acquires and retains at least 20 percent of the aggregate risk retention amount otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 1234.4; and

(iv) The originator purchases the eligible interests from the sponsor at a price that is equal, on a dollar-for-dollar basis, to the amount by which the sponsor's required risk retention is reduced in accordance with this section, by payment to the sponsor in the form of:

(A) Cash; or

(B) A reduction in the price received by the originator from the sponsor or depositor for the assets sold by the originator to the sponsor or depositor for inclusion in the pool of securitized assets.

(2) Disclosures. In addition to the disclosures required pursuant to § 1234.4(c), the sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, the name and form of organization of any originator that will acquire and retain (or has acquired and retained) an interest in the transaction pursuant to this section, including a description of the form and amount (expressed as a percentage and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) and nature (e.g., senior or subordinated) of the interest, as well as the method of payment for such interest under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.

(3) Hedging, transferring and pledging. The originator and each of its affiliates complies with the hedging and other restrictions in § 1234.12 with respect to the interests retained by the originator pursuant to this section as if it were the retaining sponsor and was required to retain the interest under subpart B of this part.

(b) Duty to comply. (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.

(2) A retaining sponsor relying on this section:

(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor the compliance by each originator that is allocated a portion of the sponsor's risk retention obligations with the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section; and

(ii) In the event the sponsor determines that any such originator no longer complies with any of the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such originator.

§ 1234.12 Hedging, transfer and financing prohibitions.

(a) Transfer. Except as permitted by § 1234.7(b)(8), and subject to § 1234.5, a retaining sponsor may not sell or otherwise transfer any interest or assets that the sponsor is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part to any person other than an entity that is and remains a majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor and each such majority-owned affiliate shall be subject to the same restrictions.

(b) Prohibited hedging by sponsor and affiliates. A retaining sponsor and its affiliates may not purchase or sell a security, or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or other position, with any other person if:

(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; and

(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction.

(c) Prohibited hedging by issuing entity. The issuing entity in a securitization transaction may not purchase or sell a security or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or position, with any other person if:

(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor for the transaction (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to the securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part; and

(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part.

(d) Permitted hedging activities. The following activities shall not be considered prohibited hedging activities under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section:

(1) Hedging the interest rate risk (which does not include the specific interest rate risk, known as spread risk, associated with the ABS interest that is otherwise considered part of the credit risk) or foreign exchange risk arising from one or more of the particular ABS interests required to be retained by the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) under subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that underlie the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; or

(2) Purchasing or selling a security or other financial instrument or entering into an agreement, derivative, or other position with any third party where payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are based, directly or indirectly, on an index of instruments that includes asset-backed securities if:

(i) Any class of ABS interests in the issuing entity that were issued in connection with the securitization transaction and that are included in the index represents no more than 10 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index; and

(ii) All classes of ABS interests in all issuing entities that were issued in connection with any securitization transaction in which the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain an interest pursuant to subpart B of this part and that are included in the index represent, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index.

(e) Prohibited non-recourse financing. Neither a retaining sponsor nor any of its affiliates may pledge as collateral for any obligation (including a loan, repurchase agreement, or other financing transaction) any ABS interest that the sponsor is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part unless such obligation is with full recourse to the sponsor or affiliate, respectively.

(f) Duration of the hedging and transfer restrictions—(1) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the latest of:

(i) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance (if applicable) of the securitized assets that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;

(ii) The date on which the total unpaid principal obligations under the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal obligations of the ABS interests at closing of the securitization transaction; or

(iii) Two years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.

(2) Securitizations of residential mortgages. (i) If all of the assets that collateralize a securitization transaction subject to risk retention under this part are residential mortgages, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the later of:

(A) Five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction; or

(B) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance of the residential mortgages that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 25 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of such residential mortgages at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.

(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire with respect to the sponsor of a securitization transaction described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section on or after the date that is seven years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.

(3) Conservatorship or receivership of sponsor. A conservator or receiver of the sponsor (or any other person holding risk retention pursuant to this part) of a securitization transaction is permitted to sell or hedge any economic interest in the securitization transaction if the conservator or receiver has been appointed pursuant to any provision of federal or State law (or regulation promulgated thereunder) that provides for the appointment of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or an agency or instrumentality of the United States or of a State as conservator or receiver, including without limitation any of the following authorities:

(i) 12 U.S.C. 1811;

(ii) 12 U.S.C. 1787;

(iii) 12 U.S.C. 4617; or

(iv) 12 U.S.C. 5382.

(4) Revolving pool securitizations. The provisions of paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) are not available to sponsors of revolving pool securitizations with respect to the forms of risk retention specified in § 1234.5.

Subpart D Exceptions and Exemptions
§ 1234.13 Exemption for qualified residential mortgages.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:

Currently performing means the borrower in the mortgage transaction is not currently thirty (30) days or more past due, in whole or in part, on the mortgage transaction.

Qualified residential mortgage means a “qualified mortgage” as defined in section 129C of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C.1639c) and regulations issued thereunder, as amended from time to time.

(b) Exemption. A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction, if:

(1) All of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets;

(2) None of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are asset-backed securities;

(3) As of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, each qualified residential mortgage collateralizing the asset-backed securities is currently performing; and

(4)(i) The depositor with respect to the securitization transaction certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed security are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective; and

(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls must be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security in reliance on this section, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and

(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.

(c) Repurchase of loans subsequently determined to be non-qualified after closing. A sponsor that has relied on the exemption provided in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a securitization transaction shall not lose such exemption with respect to such transaction if, after closing of the securitization transaction, it is determined that one or more of the residential mortgage loans collateralizing the asset-backed securities does not meet all of the criteria to be a qualified residential mortgage provided that:

(1) The depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section;

(2) The sponsor repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining aggregate unpaid principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) no later than 90 days after the determination that the loans do not satisfy the requirements to be a qualified residential mortgage; and

(3) The sponsor promptly notifies, or causes to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is (or are) required to be repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, including the amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such repurchase.

§ 1234.14 Definitions applicable to qualifying commercial real estate loans.

The following definitions apply for purposes of §§ 1234.15 and 1234.17 :

Appraisal Standards Board means the board of the Appraisal Foundation that develops, interprets, and amends the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), establishing generally accepted standards for the appraisal profession.

Combined loan-to-value (CLTV) ratio means, at the time of origination, the sum of the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property, plus the principal balance of any junior-lien mortgage loan that, to the creditor's knowledge, would exist at the closing of the transaction and that is secured by the same property, divided by:

(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 1234.17(a)(2)(ii); or

(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 1234.17(a)(2)(ii).

Commercial real estate (CRE) loan means:

(1) A loan secured by a property with five or more single family units, or by nonfarm nonresidential real property, the primary source (50 percent or more) of repayment for which is expected to be:

(i) The proceeds of the sale, refinancing, or permanent financing of the property; or

(ii) Rental income associated with the property;

(2) Loans secured by improved land if the obligor owns the fee interest in the land and the land is leased to a third party who owns all improvements on the land, and the improvements are nonresidential or residential with five or more single family units; and

(3) Does not include:

(i) A land development and construction loan (including 1- to 4-family residential or commercial construction loans);

(ii) Any other land loan; or

(iii) An unsecured loan to a developer.

Debt service coverage (DSC) ratio means the ratio of:

(1) The annual NOI less the annual replacement reserve of the CRE property at the time of origination of the CRE loan(s); to

(2) The sum of the borrower's annual payments for principal and interest (calculated at the fully indexed rate) on any debt obligation.

Environmental risk assessment means a process for determining whether a property is contaminated or exposed to any condition or substance that could result in contamination that has an adverse effect on the market value of the property or the realization of the collateral value.

First lien means a lien or encumbrance on property that has priority over all other liens or encumbrances on the property.

Junior lien means a lien or encumbrance on property that is lower in priority relative to other liens or encumbrances on the property.

Loan-to-value (LTV) ratio means, at the time of origination, the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property divided by:

(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 1234.17(a)(2)(ii); or

(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 1234.17(a)(2)(ii).

Net operating income (NOI) refers to the income a CRE property generates for the owner after all expenses have been deducted for federal income tax purposes, except for depreciation, debt service expenses, and federal and state income taxes, and excluding any unusual and nonrecurring items of income.

Operating affiliate means an affiliate of a borrower that is a lessor or similar party with respect to the commercial real estate securing the loan.

Purchase money security interest means a security interest in property that secures the obligation of the obligor incurred as all or part of the price of the property.

Qualifying leased CRE loan means a CRE loan secured by commercial nonfarm real property, other than a multi-family property or a hotel, inn, or similar property:

(1) That is occupied by one or more qualified tenants pursuant to a lease agreement with a term of no less than one (1) month; and

(2) Where no more than 20 percent of the aggregate gross revenue of the property is payable from one or more tenants who:

(i) Are subject to a lease that will terminate within six months following the date of origination; or

(ii) Are not qualified tenants.

Qualifying multi-family loan means a CRE loan secured by any residential property (excluding a hotel, motel, inn, hospital, nursing home, or other similar facility where dwellings are not leased to residents):

(1) That consists of five or more dwelling units (including apartment buildings, condominiums, cooperatives and other similar structures) primarily for residential use; and

(2) Where at least 75 percent of the NOI is derived from residential rents and tenant amenities (including income from parking garages, health or swim clubs, and dry cleaning), and not from other commercial uses.

Rental income means:

(1) Income derived from a lease or other occupancy agreement between the borrower or an operating affiliate of the borrower and a party which is not an affiliate of the borrower for the use of real property or improvements serving as collateral for the applicable loan; and

(2) Other income derived from hotel, motel, dormitory, nursing home, assisted living, mini-storage warehouse or similar properties that are used primarily by parties that are not affiliates or employees of the borrower or its affiliates.

Replacement reserve means the monthly capital replacement or maintenance amount based on the property type, age, construction and condition of the property that is adequate to maintain the physical condition and NOI of the property.

Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) means generally accepted standards for professional appraisal practice issued by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.

[79 FR 77740, Dec. 24, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 77765, Dec. 24, 2014]

§ 1234.15 Qualifying commercial real estate loans.

(a) General exception. Commercial real estate loans that are securitized through a securitization transaction shall be subject to a 0 percent risk retention requirement under subpart B of this part, provided that the following conditions are met:

(1) The CRE assets meet the underwriting standards set forth in § 1234.17;

(2) The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by CRE loans and by servicing assets;

(3) The securitization transaction does not permit reinvestment periods; and

(4) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities of the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission, and to the FHFA, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” a description of the manner in which the sponsor determined the aggregate risk retention requirement for the securitization transaction after including qualifying CRE loans with 0 percent risk retention.

(b) Risk retention requirement. For any securitization transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section, the percentage of risk retention required under § 1234.3(a) is reduced by the percentage evidenced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the qualifying CRE loans to the total unpaid principal balance of CRE loans that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the qualifying asset ratio); provided that;

(1) The qualifying asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;

(2) If the qualifying asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the qualifying asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent; and

(3) The disclosure required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section also includes descriptions of the qualifying CRE loans and descriptions of the CRE loans that are not qualifying CRE loans, and the material differences between the group of qualifying CRE loans and CRE loans that are not qualifying loans with respect to the composition of each group's loan balances, loan terms, interest rates, borrower credit information, and characteristics of any loan collateral.

(c) Exception for securitizations of qualifying CRE only. Notwithstanding other provisions of this section, the risk retention requirements of subpart B of this part shall not apply to securitization transactions where the transaction is collateralized solely by servicing assets and qualifying CRE loans.

(d) Record maintenance. A regulated entity must retain the disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the certification required in § 1234.17(a)(10) of this part, in its records until three years after all ABS interests issued in the securitization are no longer outstanding. The regulated entity must provide the disclosures and certifications upon request to the Commission and the FHFA.

[79 FR 77765, Dec. 24, 2014]

§ 1234.16 [Reserved]
§ 1234.17 Underwriting standards for qualifying CRE loans.

(a) Underwriting, product and other standards. (1) The CRE loan must be secured by the following:

(i) An enforceable first lien, documented and recorded appropriately pursuant to applicable law, on the commercial real estate and improvements;

(ii)(A) An assignment of:

(1) Leases and rents and other occupancy agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor or similar party and all payments under such leases and occupancy agreements; and

(2) All franchise, license and concession agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor, licensor, concession granter or similar party and all payments under such other agreements, whether the assignments described in this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A)(2) are absolute or are stated to be made to the extent permitted by the agreements governing the applicable franchise, license or concession agreements;

(B) An assignment of all other payments due to the borrower or due to any operating affiliate in connection with the operation of the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; and

(C) The right to enforce the agreements described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the agreements under which payments under paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section are due against, and collect amounts due from, each lessee, occupant or other obligor whose payments were assigned pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section upon a breach by the borrower of any of the terms of, or the occurrence of any other event of default (however denominated) under, the loan documents relating to such CRE loan; and

(iii) A security interest:

(A) In all interests of the borrower and any applicable operating affiliate in all tangible and intangible personal property of any kind, in or used in the operation of or in connection with, pertaining to, arising from, or constituting, any of the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section; and

(B) In the form of a perfected security interest if the security interest in such property can be perfected by the filing of a financing statement, fixture filing, or similar document pursuant to the law governing the perfection of such security interest;

(2) Prior to origination of the CRE loan, the originator:

(i) Verified and documented the current financial condition of the borrower and each operating affiliate;

(ii) Obtained a written appraisal of the real property securing the loan that:

(A) Had an effective date not more than six months prior to the origination date of the loan by a competent and appropriately State-certified or State-licensed appraiser;

(B) Conforms to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the USPAP and the appraisal requirements 1 of the Federal banking agencies; and

1 12 CFR part 34, subpart C (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart E, and 12 CFR part 225, subpart G (Board); and 12 CFR part 323 (FDIC).

(C) Provides an “as is” opinion of the market value of the real property, which includes an income approach; 2

2 See USPAP, Standard 1.

(iii) Qualified the borrower for the CRE loan based on a monthly payment amount derived from level monthly payments consisting of both principal and interest (at the fully-indexed rate) over the term of the loan, not exceeding 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multi-family property;

(iv) Conducted an environmental risk assessment to gain environmental information about the property securing the loan and took appropriate steps to mitigate any environmental liability determined to exist based on this assessment;

(v) Conducted an analysis of the borrower's ability to service its overall debt obligations during the next two years, based on reasonable projections (including operating income projections for the property);

(vi)(A) Determined that based on the two years' actual performance immediately preceding the origination of the loan, the borrower would have had:

(1) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);

(2) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or

(3) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan;

(B) If the borrower did not own the property for any part of the last two years prior to origination, the calculation of the DSC ratio, for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(A) of this section, shall include the property's operating income for any portion of the two-year period during which the borrower did not own the property;

(vii) Determined that, based on two years of projections, which include the new debt obligation, following the origination date of the loan, the borrower will have:

(A) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);

(B) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or

(C) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan.

(3) The loan documentation for the CRE loan includes covenants that:

(i) Require the borrower to provide the borrower's financial statements and supporting schedules to the servicer on an ongoing basis, but not less frequently than quarterly, including information on existing, maturing and new leasing or rent-roll activity for the property securing the loan, as appropriate; and

(ii) Impose prohibitions on:

(A) The creation or existence of any other security interest with respect to the collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section;

(B) The transfer of any collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section or of any other collateral consisting of fixtures, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment other than any such fixture, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment that is obsolete or surplus; and

(C) Any change to the name, location or organizational structure of any borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor unless such borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor shall have given the holder of the loan at least 30 days advance notice and, pursuant to applicable law governing perfection and priority, the holder of the loan is able to take all steps necessary to continue its perfection and priority during such 30-day period.

(iii) Require each borrower and each operating affiliate to:

(A) Maintain insurance that protects against loss on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section for an amount no less than the replacement cost of the property improvements, and names the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan as an additional insured or lender loss payee;

(B) Pay taxes, charges, fees, and claims, where non-payment might give rise to a lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section;

(C) Take any action required to:

(1) Protect the security interest and the enforceability and priority thereof in the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and defend such collateral against claims adverse to the originator's or any subsequent holder's interest; and

(2) Perfect the security interest of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan in any other collateral for the CRE loan to the extent that such security interest is required by this section to be perfected;

(D) Permit the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, and the servicer, to inspect any collateral for the CRE loan and the books and records of the borrower or other party relating to any collateral for the CRE loan;

(E) Maintain the physical condition of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;

(F) Comply with all environmental, zoning, building code, licensing and other laws, regulations, agreements, covenants, use restrictions, and proffers applicable to collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;

(G) Comply with leases, franchise agreements, condominium declarations, and other documents and agreements relating to the operation of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and to not modify any material terms and conditions of such agreements over the term of the loan without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer; and

(H) Not materially alter collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer.

(4) The loan documentation for the CRE loan prohibits the borrower and each operating affiliate from obtaining a loan secured by a junior lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, unless:

(i) The sum of the principal amount of such junior lien loan, plus the principal amount of all other loans secured by collateral described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, does not exceed the applicable CLTV ratio in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, based on the appraisal at origination of such junior lien loan; or

(ii) Such loan is a purchase money obligation that financed the acquisition of machinery or equipment and the borrower or operating affiliate (as applicable) pledges such machinery and equipment as additional collateral for the CRE loan.

(5) At origination, the applicable loan-to-value ratios for the loan are:

(i) LTV less than or equal to 65 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 70 percent; or

(ii) LTV less than or equal to 60 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 65 percent, if an appraisal used to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section used a direct capitalization rate, and that rate is less than or equal to the sum of:

(A) The 10-year swap rate, as reported in the Federal Reserve's H.15 Report (or any successor report) as of the date concurrent with the effective date of such appraisal; and

(B) 300 basis points.

(iii) If the appraisal required under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section included a direct capitalization method using an overall capitalization rate, that rate must be disclosed to potential investors in the securitization.

(6) All loan payments required to be made under the loan agreement are:

(i) Based on level monthly payments of principal and interest (at the fully indexed rate) to fully amortize the debt over a term that does not exceed 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multifamily loan; and

(ii) To be made no less frequently than monthly over a term of at least ten years.

(7) Under the terms of the loan agreement:

(i) Any maturity of the note occurs no earlier than ten years following the date of origination;

(ii) The borrower is not permitted to defer repayment of principal or payment of interest; and

(iii) The interest rate on the loan is:

(A) A fixed interest rate;

(B) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that effectively results in a fixed interest rate; or

(C) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that established a cap on the interest rate for the term of the loan, and the loan meets the underwriting criteria in paragraphs (a)(2)(vi) and (vii) of this section using the maximum interest rate allowable under the interest rate cap.

(8) The originator does not establish an interest reserve at origination to fund all or part of a payment on the loan.

(9) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current.

(10)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying CRE loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 1234.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;

(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security;

(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any; and

(11) Within two weeks of the closing of the CRE loan by its originator or, if sooner, prior to the transfer of such CRE loan to the issuing entity, the originator shall have obtained a UCC lien search from the jurisdiction of organization of the borrower and each operating affiliate, that does not report, as of the time that the security interest of the originator in the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section was perfected, other higher priority liens of record on any property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, other than purchase money security interests.

(b) Cure or buy-back requirement. If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 1234.15 with respect to a qualifying CRE loan and it is subsequently determined that the CRE loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the CRE loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, and:

(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section is not material; or;

(2) No later than 90 days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) or (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor:

(i) Effectuates cure, restoring conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or

(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.

(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.

§ 1234.18 [Reserved]
§ 1234.19 General exemptions.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:

Community-focused residential mortgage means a residential mortgage exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a)(3)(iv) and (v) of the CFPB's Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)).

First pay class means a class of ABS interests for which all interests in the class are entitled to the same priority of payment and that, at the time of closing of the transaction, is entitled to repayments of principal and payments of interest prior to or pro-rata with all other classes of securities collateralized by the same pool of first-lien residential mortgages, until such class has no principal or notional balance remaining.

Inverse floater means an ABS interest issued as part of a securitization transaction for which interest or other income is payable to the holder based on a rate or formula that varies inversely to a reference rate of interest.

Qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan means a mortgage loan that is:

(i) Secured by a dwelling (as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(19)) that is owner occupied and contains three-to-four housing units;

(ii) Is deemed to be for business purposes for purposes of Regulation Z under 12 CFR part 1026, Supplement I, paragraph 3(a)(5)(i); and

(iii) Otherwise meets all of the requirements to qualify as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e) and (f) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(e) and (f)) as if the loan were a covered transaction under that section.

(b) This part shall not apply to:

(1) U.S. Government-backed securitizations. Any securitization transaction that:

(i) Is collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets that are insured or guaranteed (in whole or in part) as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States, and servicing assets; or

(ii) Involves the issuance of asset-backed securities that:

(A) Are insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States; and

(B) Are collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets or interests in such assets, and servicing assets.

(2) Certain agricultural loan securitizations. Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by loans or other assets made, insured, guaranteed, or purchased by any institution that is subject to the supervision of the Farm Credit Administration, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, and servicing assets;

(3) State and municipal securitizations. Any asset-backed security that is a security issued or guaranteed by any State, or by any political subdivision of a State, or by any public instrumentality of a State that is exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 by reason of section 3(a)(2) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 77c(a)(2)); and

(4) Qualified scholarship funding bonds. Any asset-backed security that meets the definition of a qualified scholarship funding bond, as set forth in section 150(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 150(d)(2)).

(5) Pass-through resecuritizations. Any securitization transaction that:

(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by asset-backed securities:

(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or

(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;

(ii) Is structured so that it involves the issuance of only a single class of ABS interests; and

(iii) Provides for the pass-through of all principal and interest payments received on the underlying asset-backed securities (net of expenses of the issuing entity) to the holders of such class.

(6) First-pay-class securitizations. Any securitization transaction that:

(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by first-pay classes of asset-backed securities collateralized by first-lien residential mortgages on properties located in any state:

(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or

(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;

(ii) Does not provide for any ABS interest issued in the securitization transaction to share in realized principal losses other than pro rata with all other ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction based on the current unpaid principal balance of such ABS interests at the time the loss is realized;

(iii) Is structured to reallocate prepayment risk;

(iv) Does not reallocate credit risk (other than as a consequence of reallocation of prepayment risk); and

(v) Does not include any inverse floater or similarly structured ABS interest.

(7) Seasoned loans. (i) Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by seasoned loans that meet the following requirements:

(A) The loans have not been modified since origination; and

(B) None of the loans have been delinquent for 30 days or more.

(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, a seasoned loan means:

(A) With respect to asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:

(1) A period of five years; or

(2) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 25 percent of the original principal balance.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(7)(ii)(A)(1) and (2) of this section, any residential mortgage loan that has been outstanding and performing for a period of at least seven years shall be deemed a seasoned loan.

(B) With respect to all other classes of asset-backed securities, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:

(1) A period of at least two years; or

(2) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 33 percent of the original principal balance.

(8) Certain public utility securitizations. (i) Any securitization transaction where the asset-back securities issued in the transaction are secured by the intangible property right to collect charges for the recovery of specified costs and such other assets, if any, of an issuing entity that is wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by an investor owned utility company that is subject to the regulatory authority of a State public utility commission or other appropriate State agency.

(ii) For purposes of this paragraph:

(A) Specified cost means any cost identified by a State legislature as appropriate for recovery through securitization pursuant to specified cost recovery legislation; and

(B) Specified cost recovery legislation means legislation enacted by a State that:

(1) Authorizes the investor owned utility company to apply for, and authorizes the public utility commission or other appropriate State agency to issue, a financing order determining the amount of specified costs the utility will be allowed to recover;

(2) Provides that pursuant to a financing order, the utility acquires an intangible property right to charge, collect, and receive amounts necessary to provide for the full recovery of the specified costs determined to be recoverable, and assures that the charges are non-bypassable and will be paid by customers within the utility's historic service territory who receive utility goods or services through the utility's transmission and distribution system, even if those customers elect to purchase these goods or services from a third party; and

(3) Guarantees that neither the State nor any of its agencies has the authority to rescind or amend the financing order, to revise the amount of specified costs, or in any way to reduce or impair the value of the intangible property right, except as may be contemplated by periodic adjustments authorized by the specified cost recovery legislation.

(c) Exemption for securitizations of assets issued, insured or guaranteed by the United States. This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are:

(1) Collateralized solely by obligations issued by the United States or an agency of the United States and servicing assets;

(2) Collateralized solely by assets that are fully insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States (other than those referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section) and servicing assets; or

(3) Fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the United States or any agency of the United States;

(d) Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation securitizations. This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction that is sponsored by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation acting as conservator or receiver under any provision of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.

(e) Reduced requirement for certain student loan securitizations. The 5 percent risk retention requirement set forth in § 1234.4 shall be modified as follows:

(1) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by student loans made under the Federal Family Education Loan Program (“FFELP loans”) that are guaranteed as to 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 0 percent;

(2) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans that are guaranteed as to at least 98 percent but less than 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 2 percent; and

(3) With respect to any other securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 3 percent.

(f) Community-focused lending securitizations. (1) This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by community-focused residential mortgages and servicing assets.

(2) For any securitization transaction that includes both community-focused residential mortgages and residential mortgages that are not exempt from risk retention under this part, the percent of risk retention required under § 1234.4(a) is reduced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the community-focused residential mortgages to the total unpaid principal balance of residential mortgages that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio); provided that:

(i) The community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the pool assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction; and

(ii) If the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent.

(g) Exemptions for securitizations of certain three-to-four unit mortgage loans. A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction if:

(1)(i) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans and servicing assets; or

(ii) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages as defined in § 1234.13, and servicing assets.

(2) The depositor with respect to the securitization provides the certifications set forth in § 1234.13(b)(4) with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages, or servicing assets; and

(3) The sponsor of the securitization complies with the repurchase requirements in § 1234.13(c) with respect to a loan if, after closing, it is determined that the loan does not meet all of the criteria to be either a qualified residential mortgage or a qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan, as appropriate.

(h) Rule of construction. Securitization transactions involving the issuance of asset-backed securities that are either issued, insured, or guaranteed by, or are collateralized by obligations issued by, or loans that are issued, insured, or guaranteed by, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or a Federal home loan bank shall not on that basis qualify for exemption under this part.

§ 1234.20 Safe harbor for certain foreign-related transactions.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:

U.S. person means:

(i) Any of the following:

(A) Any natural person resident in the United States;

(B) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity organized or incorporated under the laws of any State or of the United States;

(C) Any estate of which any executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);

(D) Any trust of which any trustee is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);

(E) Any agency or branch of a foreign entity located in the United States;

(F) Any non-discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary for the benefit or account of a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);

(G) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States; and

(H) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity if:

(1) Organized or incorporated under the laws of any foreign jurisdiction; and

(2) Formed by a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition) principally for the purpose of investing in securities not registered under the Act; and

(ii) “U.S. person(s)” does not include:

(A) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held for the benefit or account of a person not constituting a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) by a dealer or other professional fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States;

(B) Any estate of which any professional fiduciary acting as executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) if:

(1) An executor or administrator of the estate who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the assets of the estate; and

(2) The estate is governed by foreign law;

(C) Any trust of which any professional fiduciary acting as trustee is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section), if a trustee who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the trust assets, and no beneficiary of the trust (and no settlor if the trust is revocable) is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section);

(D) An employee benefit plan established and administered in accordance with the law of a country other than the United States and customary practices and documentation of such country;

(E) Any agency or branch of a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) located outside the United States if:

(1) The agency or branch operates for valid business reasons; and

(2) The agency or branch is engaged in the business of insurance or banking and is subject to substantive insurance or banking regulation, respectively, in the jurisdiction where located;

(F) The International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the United Nations, and their agencies, affiliates and pension plans, and any other similar international organizations, their agencies, affiliates and pension plans.

(b) In general. This part shall not apply to a securitization transaction if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The securitization transaction is not required to be and is not registered under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a et seq.);

(2) No more than 10 percent of the dollar value (or equivalent amount in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all classes of ABS interests in the securitization transaction are sold or transferred to U.S. persons or for the account or benefit of U.S. persons;

(3) Neither the sponsor of the securitization transaction nor the issuing entity is:

(i) Chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;

(ii) An unincorporated branch or office (wherever located) of an entity chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or

(iii) An unincorporated branch or office located in the United States or any State of an entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State; and

(4) If the sponsor or issuing entity is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State, no more than 25 percent (as determined based on unpaid principal balance) of the assets that collateralize the ABS interests sold in the securitization transaction were acquired by the sponsor or issuing entity, directly or indirectly, from:

(i) A majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor or issuing entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or

(ii) An unincorporated branch or office of the sponsor or issuing entity that is located in the United States or any State.

(c) Evasions prohibited. In view of the objective of these rules and the policies underlying Section 15G of the Exchange Act, the safe harbor described in paragraph (b) of this section is not available with respect to any transaction or series of transactions that, although in technical compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, is part of a plan or scheme to evade the requirements of section 15G and this part. In such cases, compliance with section 15G and this part is required.

§ 1234.21 Additional exemptions.

(a) Securitization transactions. The federal agencies with rulewriting authority under section 15G(b) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(b)) with respect to the type of assets involved may jointly provide a total or partial exemption of any securitization transaction as such agencies determine may be appropriate in the public interest and for the protection of investors.

(b) Exceptions, exemptions, and adjustments. The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, may jointly adopt or issue exemptions, exceptions or adjustments to the requirements of this part, including exemptions, exceptions or adjustments for classes of institutions or assets in accordance with section 15G(e) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(e)).

§ 1234.22 Periodic review of the QRM definition, exempted three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, and community-focused residential mortgage exemption

(a) The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, shall commence a review of the definition of qualified residential mortgage in § 1234.13, a review of the community-focused residential mortgage exemption in § 1234.19(f), and a review of the exemption for qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans in § 1234.19(g):

(1) No later than four years after the effective date of the rule (as it relates to securitizers and originators of asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages), five years following the completion of such initial review, and every five years thereafter; and

(2) At any time, upon the request of any Federal banking agency, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency or the Department of Housing and Urban Development, specifying the reason for such request, including as a result of any amendment to the definition of qualified mortgage or changes in the residential housing market.

(b) The Federal banking agencies, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development shall publish in the Federal Register notice of the commencement of a review and, in the case of a review commenced under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the reason an agency is requesting such review. After completion of any review, but no later than six months after the publication of the notice announcing the review, unless extended by the agencies, the agencies shall jointly publish a notice disclosing the determination of their review. If the agencies determine to amend the definition of qualified residential mortgage, the agencies shall complete any required rulemaking within 12 months of publication in the Federal Register of such notice disclosing the determination of their review, unless extended by the agencies.

PART 1235 RECORD RETENTION FOR REGULATED ENTITIES AND OFFICE OF FINANCE

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513b(a)(10) and (11), 4526.

Source: 76 FR 33127, June 8, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1235.1 Purpose and scope.

The purpose of this part is to set forth minimum requirements for a record retention program for each regulated entity and the Office of Finance. The requirements are intended to further prudent management as well as to ensure that complete and accurate records of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance are readily accessible to FHFA.

§ 1235.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the term—

Electronic record means a record created, generated, communicated, or stored by electronic means.

E-mail means a document created or received on a computer network for transmitting messages electronically, and any attachments which may be transmitted with the document.

Employee means any officer or employee of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

Record means any information, whether generated internally or received from outside sources by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, related to the conduct of the business of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance (which business, in the case of the Office of Finance, shall include any functions performed with respect to the Financing Corporation) or to legal or regulatory requirements, regardless of the following—

(1) Form or format, including hard copy documents (e.g., files, logs, and reports), electronic documents (e.g., e-mail, databases, spreadsheets, PowerPoint presentations, electronic reporting systems, electronic tapes and back-up tapes, optical discs, CD-ROMS, and DVDs), and voicemail or recorded telephone line records;

(2) Where the information is stored or located, including network servers, desktop or laptop computers and handheld computers, other wireless devices with text messaging capabilities, and on-site or off-site at a storage facility;

(3) Whether the information is maintained or used on regulated entity or Office of Finance equipment, or on personal or home computer systems of an employee; or

(4) Whether the information is active or inactive.

Record hold means a requirement, an order, or a directive from a regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or FHFA that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance is to retain records relating to a particular issue in connection with an actual or a potential FHFA examination, investigation, enforcement proceeding, or litigation of which the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has received notice from FHFA or otherwise has knowledge.

Record retention schedule means a schedule that details the categories of records a regulated entity or the Office of Finance is required to retain and the corresponding retention periods. The record retention schedule includes all media, such as microfilm and machine-readable computer records, for each record category.

Retention period means the length of time that records must be kept before they are destroyed, as determined by the organization's record retention schedule. Records not authorized for destruction have a retention period of “permanent.”

[76 FR 33127, June 8, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013]

§ 1235.3 Establishment and evaluation of a record retention program.

(a) Establishment. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall establish and maintain a written record retention program and provide a copy of such program to the Deputy Director of the Division of Enterprise Regulation, or his or her designee, or the Deputy Director for the Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, or his or her designee, as appropriate, within 180 days of the effective date of this part, and annually thereafter, and whenever a significant revision to the program has been made.

(b) Evaluation. Management of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall evaluate in writing the adequacy and effectiveness of the record retention program at least every two years and provide a copy of the evaluation to the board of directors and the Director.

§ 1235.4 Minimum requirements of a record retention program.

(a) General minimum requirements. The record retention program established and maintained by each regulated entity and the Office of Finance under § 1235.3 shall:

(1) Assure that retained records are complete and accurate;

(2) Assure that the form of retained records and the retention period—

(i) Are appropriate to support administrative, business, external and internal audit functions, and litigation of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance; and

(ii) Comply with requirements of applicable laws and regulations, including this part;

(3) Assign in writing the authorities and responsibilities for record retention activities for employees, including line managers and corporate management;

(4) Include policies and procedures concerning record holds, consistent with § 1235.5, and, as appropriate, integrate them with policies and procedures throughout the organization;

(5) Include an accurate, current, and comprehensive record retention schedule that lists records by major categories, subcategories, record type, and retention period, which retention period is appropriate to the specific record and consistent with applicable legal, regulatory, fiscal, operational, and business requirements;

(6) Include appropriate security and internal controls to protect records from unauthorized access and data alteration;

(7) Provide for appropriate back-up and recovery of electronic records to ensure the same accuracy as the primary records;

(8) Provide for a periodic testing of the ability to access records; and

(9) Provide for the proper disposition of records.

(b) Minimum storage requirements for electronic records. Electronic records, preferably searchable, must be maintained on immutable, non-rewritable storage in a manner that provides for both ready access by any person who is entitled to access the records, including staff of FHFA, and accurate reproduction for later reference by transmission, printing or other means.

(c) Communication and training—(1) The record retention program established and maintained by each regulated entity and the Office of Finance under § 1235.3 shall provide for periodic training and communication throughout the organization.

(2) The record retention program shall:

(i) Provide for communication throughout the organization on record retention policies, procedures, and record retention schedule updates; and

(ii) Provide for training of and notice to all employees on a periodic basis on their record retention responsibilities, including instruction regarding penalties provided by law for the unlawful removal or destruction of records. The record retention program also shall provide for training for the agents or independent contractors of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, as appropriate, consistent with their respective roles and responsibilities to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

§ 1235.5 Record hold.

(a) Notification by FHFA. In the event that FHFA is requiring a record hold, FHFA shall notify the chief executive officer of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance. Regulated entities and the Office of Finance must have a written policy for handling notice of a record hold.

(b) Notification by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance. The record retention program of a regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall—

(1) Address how employees and, as appropriate, how agents or independent contractors consistent with their respective roles and responsibilities to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, will receive prompt notification of a record hold;

(2) Designate an individual to communicate specific requirements and instructions, including, when necessary, the instruction to cease immediately any otherwise permissible destruction of records; and

(3) Provide that any employee and, as appropriate, any agent or independent contractor consistent with his or her respective role and responsibility to the regulated entity or Office of Finance, who has received notice of a potential investigation, enforcement proceeding, or litigation by FHFA involving the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or an employee, or otherwise has actual knowledge that an issue is subject to such an investigation, enforcement proceeding or litigation, shall notify immediately the legal department or the individual providing legal services as well as senior management of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance and shall retain any records that may be relevant in any way to such investigation, enforcement proceeding, or litigation.

(c) Method of record retention during a record hold. The record retention program of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall address the method by which the regulated entity or the Office of Finance will retain records during a record hold. Specifically, the program shall describe the method for the continued preservation of electronic records, including e-mail, and, as applicable, the conversion of records from paper to electronic form as well as any alternative storage method.

(d) Access to and retrieval of records during a record hold. The record retention program of each regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall ensure access to and retrieval of records by the regulated entity and the Office of Finance, and access, upon request, by FHFA, during a record hold. Such access shall be by reasonable means, consistent with the nature and availability of the records and existing information technology.

§ 1235.6 Access to records.

Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall make its records available promptly upon request by FHFA, at a location and in a form and manner acceptable to FHFA.

§ 1235.7 Supervisory action.

(a) Supervisory action. Failure by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to comply with this part may subject the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or the board members, officers, or employees thereof to supervisory action by FHFA under the Safety and Soundness Act, including but not limited to cease-and-desist proceedings, temporary cease-and-desist proceedings, and civil money penalties.

(b) No limitation of authority. This part does not limit or restrict the authority of FHFA to act under its safety and soundness mandate, in accordance with the Safety and Soundness Act. Such authority includes, but is not limited to, conducting examinations, requiring reports and disclosures, and enforcing compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations.

PART 1236 PRUDENTIAL MANAGEMENT AND OPERATIONS STANDARDS

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513(a) and (f), 4513b, and 4526.

Source: 77 FR 33959, June 8, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1236.1 Purpose.

This part addresses prudential management and operations standards that are required and authorized by 12 U.S.C. 4513b, including the establishment of Standards by Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) and the processes by which FHFA can notify a regulated entity or the Office of Finance of its failure to operate in accordance with a Standard and direct the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to take corrective action. This part further specifies the possible consequences if any regulated entity or the Office of Finance fails to operate in accordance with an applicable Standard or otherwise fails to comply with this part.

[89 FR 3539, Jan. 19, 2024]

§ 1236.2 Definitions.

Unless otherwise indicated, terms used in this part have the meanings that they have in part 1201 of this chapter, in the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4501 et seq., or in the Bank Act, 12 U.S.C. 1421 et seq.

Extraordinary growth—(1) For purposes of 12 U.S.C. 4513b(b)(3)(C), means:

(i) With respect to a Bank, growth of non-advance assets in excess of 30 percent over the six calendar quarter period preceding the date on which FHFA notified the Bank that it was required to submit a corrective plan; and

(ii) With respect to an Enterprise, quarterly non-annualized growth of assets in excess of 7.5 percent in any calendar quarter during the six calendar quarter period preceding the date on which FHFA notified the Enterprise that it was required to submit a corrective plan.

(2) For purposes of calculating an increase in assets, assets acquired through merger or acquisition approved by FHFA are not to be included.

Standard(s) means any one (or more) of the prudential management and operations standards established by the Director pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4513b(a). Standard includes the introductory statement of general responsibilities of boards of directors and senior management of the regulated entities set forth in the appendix to this part.

[77 FR 33959, June 8, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 80 FR 72336, Nov. 19, 2015; 89 FR 3539, Jan. 19, 2024]

§ 1236.3 Prudential standards as regulations or guidelines.

(a) Form. As expressly authorized by 12 U.S.C. 4513b(a), FHFA may establish Standards as regulations or guidelines.

(b) Standards established as guidelines. Each Standard that has been established as a guideline is located in the appendix to this part. FHFA will provide public notice of, and seek public comment on, any Standard it plans to establish as a guideline, or on any material modification to any Standard established as a guideline. FHFA may revoke any Standard established as a guideline at any time by order or notice. Standards established as guidelines are subject to the remedial provisions of §§ 1236.4 and 1236.5.

(c) Standards established as regulations. When establishing a Standard as a regulation or amending such a Standard, FHFA shall follow applicable rulemaking procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act, 12 U.S.C. 553. Standards established as regulations may be set forth as subparts or provisions of this part; or as other parts or subparts, or as provisions of such other parts or subparts, of this chapter XII of title 12. When not set forth as a subpart of this part, the regulation or any provision thereof that is a Standard shall be identified as a Standard in the body of the regulation. Standards established as regulations are subject to this part, including the remedial provisions of §§ 1236.4 and 1236.5, and to the enforcement provisions of 12 U.S.C. chapter 46, subchapter III.

(d) Conflicts. In the case of a direct conflict between a Standard established as a guideline and any FHFA regulation, when it is not possible to comply with both that Standard and the FHFA regulation, the FHFA regulation shall control.

[89 FR 3539, Jan. 19, 2024]

§ 1236.4 Failure to meet a Standard; corrective plans.

(a) Determination. FHFA may determine, based upon an examination, inspection, or any other information, that a regulated entity or the Office of Finance has failed to meet one or more of the Standards. Failure to meet any Standard may constitute an unsafe and unsound practice for purposes of the enforcement provisions of 12 U.S.C. chapter 46, subchapter III.

(b) Submission of corrective plan. When a regulated entity or the Office of Finance is required to submit a corrective plan, FHFA shall inform the regulated entity or the Office of Finance of that requirement by written notice, which shall also set forth FHFA's determination that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has failed a particular Standard or Standards. FHFA shall require a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to submit a corrective plan if FHFA determines that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has failed to meet a Standard established as a regulation. FHFA may require a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to submit a corrective plan for failure to meet a Standard established as a guideline.

(c) Corrective plans—(1) Contents of plan. A corrective plan shall be in writing and shall describe the actions the regulated entity or the Office of Finance will take to correct its failure(s) as determined by FHFA, and the time within which each action will be taken.

(2) Filing deadline—(i) In general. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance must file a corrective plan with FHFA within thirty (30) calendar days of being notified by FHFA of the requirement to file a corrective plan, unless FHFA notifies the regulated entity or the Office of Finance in writing that the plan must be filed within a different time period.

(ii) Other plans or submissions. If a regulated entity must file a capital restoration plan submitted pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4622, it may submit the corrective plan required under this section as part of the capital restoration plan, subject to the deadline established in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. If a regulated entity or the Office of Finance is operating under a cease-and-desist order entered into pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4631 or 4632, or a formal or informal agreement, or must file a response to a report of examination or report of inspection, it may, with the permission of FHFA, submit the corrective plan required under this section as part of its compliance with that order, agreement, or response, subject to the deadline established in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, but the corrective plan would not become a part of the order, agreement, or response. FHFA may also permit a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to submit a corrective plan required under this section as part of another type of required plan or submission by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, as deemed appropriate by FHFA.

(d) Amendment of corrective plan. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance that is operating in accordance with an approved corrective plan may submit a written request to FHFA to amend the plan as necessary to reflect any changes in circumstance. Until such time that FHFA approves a proposed amendment, the regulated entity or the Office of Finance must continue to operate in accordance with the terms of the corrective plan as previously approved.

(e) Review of corrective plans and amendments. Within thirty (30) calendar days of receiving a corrective plan or proposed amendment to a plan, FHFA will notify the regulated entity or the Office of Finance in writing of its decision on the plan, will direct the regulated entity to submit additional information, or will notify the regulated entity in writing of any extended deadline for review that FHFA has established.

[89 FR 3539, Jan. 19, 2024]

§ 1236.5 Failure to submit a corrective plan; noncompliance.

(a) Remedies. If a regulated entity or the Office of Finance fails to submit an acceptable corrective plan under § 1236.4(b), or fails in any material respect to implement or otherwise comply with an approved corrective plan, FHFA shall order the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to correct that deficiency, and may:

(1) Prohibit the regulated entity from increasing its average total assets, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4516(b)(4), for any calendar quarter over its average total assets for the preceding calendar quarter, or may otherwise restrict the rate at which the average total assets of the regulated entity may increase from one calendar quarter to another;

(2) Prohibit the regulated entity from paying dividends;

(3) Prohibit the regulated entity from redeeming or repurchasing capital stock;

(4) Require the regulated entity to maintain or increase its level of retained earnings;

(5) Require an Enterprise to increase its ratio of core capital to assets, or require a Bank to increase its ratio of total capital, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(5), to assets; or

(6) Require the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to take any other action that the Director determines will better carry out the purposes of the statute by bringing the regulated entity or the Office of Finance into conformance with the Standards.

(b) Extraordinary growth. If a regulated entity that has failed to submit an acceptable corrective plan or has failed in any material respect to implement or otherwise comply with an approved corrective plan, also has experienced extraordinary growth, FHFA shall impose at least one of the sanctions listed in paragraph (a) of this section, consistently with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 4513b(b)(3).

(c) Orders— (1) Notice. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, FHFA will notify a regulated entity or the Office of Finance in writing of FHFA's intent to issue an order requiring the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to correct its failure to submit a corrective plan or its failure in any material respect to implement or otherwise comply with an approved corrective plan. Any such notice will include:

(i) A statement that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has failed to submit a corrective plan under § 1236.4, or has not implemented or otherwise has not complied in any material respect with an approved plan;

(ii) A description of any sanctions that FHFA intends to impose and, in the case of the mandatory sanctions required by 12 U.S.C. 4513b(b)(3), a statement that FHFA believes that the regulated entity has experienced extraordinary growth; and

(iii) The proposed date when any sanctions would become effective or the proposed date for completion of any required actions.

(2) Response to notice. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue an order, which must be delivered to FHFA within fourteen (14) calendar days of the date of the notice, unless FHFA determines that a different time period is appropriate in light of the safety and soundness of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or other relevant circumstances. The response should include:

(i) An explanation of why the regulated entity or the Office of Finance believes that the action proposed by FHFA is not an appropriate exercise of discretion;

(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed order; and

(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation or other evidence in support of the position of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance regarding the proposed order.

(3) Failure to file response. The failure of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to file a written response within the specified time period will constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and will constitute consent to issuance of the order.

(4) Immediate issuance of final order. FHFA may issue an order requiring a regulated entity or the Office of Finance immediately to take actions to correct a Standards deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. Within fourteen (14) calendar days of the issuance of an order under this paragraph, or other time period specified by FHFA, a regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit a written appeal of the order to FHFA. FHFA will respond in writing to a timely filed appeal within sixty (60) days after receiving the appeal. During this period, the order will remain in effect unless FHFA stays the effectiveness of the order.

(d) Request for modification or rescission of order. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance subject to an order under this part may submit a written request to FHFA for an amendment to the order to reflect a change in circumstance. Unless otherwise ordered by FHFA, the order shall continue in place while such a request is pending before FHFA.

(e) Agency review and determination. FHFA will respond in writing within thirty (30) days after receiving a response or amendment request, unless FHFA notifies the regulated entity or the Office of Finance in writing that it will respond within a different time period. After considering the response or amendment request from a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, FHFA may:

(1) Issue the order as proposed or in modified form;

(2) Determine not to issue the order and instead issue a different order; or

(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the regulated entity, or any other relevant source.

[77 FR 33959, June 8, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 3540, Jan. 19, 2024]

Appendix to Part 1236 Prudential Management and Operations Standards

The following provisions constitute the prudential management and operations standards established as guidelines pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4513b(a). The General Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Standards 1, 2, 8, and 10 apply to the Office of Finance as appropriate.

General Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management

The following provisions address the general responsibilities of the boards of directors and senior management of the regulated entities as they relate to the matters addressed by each of the Standards, and the general responsibilities of the board of directors and senior management of the Office of Finance to the extent a particular Standard is applicable to the Office of Finance. The descriptions are not a comprehensive listing of the responsibilities of either the boards or senior management, each of whom have additional duties and responsibilities to those described in these Standards.

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors

1. With respect to the subject matter addressed by each applicable Standard, the board of directors of each regulated entity and of the Office of Finance is responsible for adopting business strategies and policies that are appropriate for the particular subject matter. The board should review all such strategies and policies periodically. It should review and approve all major strategies and policies at least annually and make any revisions that are necessary to ensure that such strategies and policies remain consistent with the overall business plan of the entity or the Office of Finance.

2. The board of directors is responsible for overseeing management of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, which includes ensuring that management includes personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to oversee the operation of the regulated entity and the Office of Finance as it relates to the functions and requirements addressed by each applicable Standard, and that management implements the policies set forth by the board.

3. The board of directors is responsible for remaining informed about the operations and condition of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, including operating consistently with the applicable Standards, and senior management's implementation of the strategies and policies established by the board of directors.

4. The board of directors must remain sufficiently informed about the nature and level of the regulated overall risk exposures of the entity or the Office of Finance, including, as applicable, market, credit, operational, and counterparty risk, so that it can understand the possible short- and long-term effects of those exposures on the financial health of the regulated entity, including the possible short- and long-term consequences, as applicable, to earnings, liquidity, and economic value. The board of directors should: establish the risk tolerances of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance and provide management with clear guidance regarding the level of acceptable risks; review the entire risk management framework of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, including policies and entity-wide risk limits at least annually; oversee the adequacy of the actions taken by senior management to identify, measure, manage, and control the risk exposures of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance; and ensure that management takes appropriate corrective measures whenever risk limit violations or breaches occur.

Responsibilities of Senior Management

5. With respect to the subject matter addressed by each applicable Standard, senior management is responsible for developing the policies, procedures and practices that are necessary to implement the business strategies and policies adopted by the board of directors. Senior management should ensure that such items are clearly written, sufficiently detailed, and are followed by all personnel. Senior management also should ensure that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to carry out their respective functions and that all delegated responsibilities are performed.

6. Senior management should ensure that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has adequate resources, systems, and controls available to execute effectively the business strategies, policies, and procedures of the entity or the Office of Finance, including operating consistently with each of the applicable Standards.

7. Senior management should provide the board of directors with periodic reports relating to the condition and performance of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, including the subject matter addressed by each of the applicable Standards, that are sufficiently detailed to allow the board of directors to remain fully informed about the business of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

8. Senior management should regularly review and discuss with the board of directors information regarding the risk exposures of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance that is sufficient in detail and timeliness to permit the board of directors to understand and assess the performance of management in identifying and managing the various risks to which the regulated entity or the Office of Finance is exposed.

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management

9. The board of directors and senior management should conduct themselves in such a manner as to promote high ethical standards and a culture of compliance throughout the organization.

10. The board of directors and senior management should ensure that the overall risk profile of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance is aligned with its mission objectives.

Standard 1—Internal Controls and Information Systems

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors

1. Regarding internal controls and information systems, the board of directors of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should adopt appropriate policies, ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent, approve and periodically review overall business strategies, approve the organizational structure, and assess the adequacy of senior management's oversight of this function.

Responsibilities of Senior Management

2. Regarding internal controls and information systems, senior management should implement strategies and policies approved by the board of directors, establish appropriate policies, monitor the adequacy and effectiveness of this function, and ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent. The organizational structure should clearly assign responsibility, authority, and reporting relationships.

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management

3. Regarding internal controls and information systems, both the board of directors and senior management should promote high ethical standards, create a culture that emphasizes the importance of this function, and promptly address any issues in need of remediation.

Framework

4. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an adequate and effective system of internal controls, which should include a board approved organizational structure that clearly assigns responsibilities, authority, and reporting relationships, and establishes an appropriate segregation of duties that ensures that personnel are not assigned conflicting responsibilities.

5. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should establish appropriate internal control policies and should monitor the adequacy and effectiveness of its internal controls and information systems on an ongoing basis through a formal self-assessment process.

6. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an organizational culture that emphasizes and demonstrates to personnel at all levels the importance of internal controls.

7. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should address promptly any violations, findings, weaknesses, deficiencies, and other issues in need of remediation relating to the internal control systems.

Risk Recognition and Assessment

8. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an effective risk assessment process that ensures that management recognizes and continually assesses all material risks, including credit risk, market risk, interest rate risk, liquidity risk, and operational risk.

Control Activities and Segregation of Duties

9. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an effective internal control system that defines control activities at every business level.

10. The control activities of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should include:

a. Board of directors and senior management reviews of progress toward goals and objectives;

b. Appropriate activity controls for each business unit;

c. Physical controls to protect property and other assets and limit access to property and systems;

d. Procedures for monitoring compliance with exposure limits and follow-up on non-compliance;

e. A system of approvals and authorizations for transactions over certain limits; and

f. A system for verification and reconciliation of transactions.

Information and Communication

11. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have information systems that provide relevant, accurate and timely information and data.

12. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have secure information systems that are supported by adequate contingency arrangements.

13. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have effective channels of communication to ensure that all personnel understand and adhere to policies and procedures affecting their duties and responsibilities.

Monitoring Activities and Correcting Deficiencies

14. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should monitor the overall effectiveness of its internal controls and key risks on an ongoing basis and ensure that business units and internal and external audit conduct periodic evaluations.

15. Internal control deficiencies should be reported to senior management and the board of directors on a timely basis and addressed promptly.

Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies

16. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins) governing internal controls and information systems.

Standard 2—Independence and Adequacy of Internal Audit Systems

Audit Committee

1. The board of directors of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an audit committee that exercises proper oversight and adopts appropriate policies and procedures designed to ensure the independence of the internal audit function. The audit committee should ensure that the internal audit department includes personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to oversee the internal audit function.

2. The board of directors should review and approve the audit committee charter at least every three years.

3. The audit committee of the board of directors is responsible for monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of the internal audit function of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance.

4. Issues reported by the internal audit department to the audit committee should be promptly addressed and satisfactorily resolved.

Internal Audit Function

5. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an internal audit function that provides for adequate testing of the system of internal controls.

6. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an independent and objective internal audit department that reports directly to the audit committee of the board of directors.

7. The internal audit department of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should be adequately staffed with properly trained and competent personnel.

8. The internal audit department should conduct risk-based audits.

9. The internal audit department should conduct adequate testing and review of internal control and information systems.

10. The internal audit department should determine whether violations, findings, weaknesses and other issues reported by regulators, external auditors, and others have been promptly addressed.

Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies

11. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should comply with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins) governing the independence and adequacy of internal audit systems.

Standard 3—Management of Market Risk Exposure

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors

1. Regarding the overall management of market risk exposure, the board of directors should remain sufficiently informed about the nature and level of the regulated entity's market risk exposures. At least annually, the board should review the entire market risk framework, including policies and risk limits, and provide an assessment of compliance.

2. Regarding the policies, practices and procedures surrounding the management of market risk, the board of directors should approve all major strategies and policies relating to the management of market risk, ensure all major strategies and policies are consistent with the overall business plan, establish and communicate a market risk tolerance, and ensure appropriate corrective measures are taken when market risk limit violations or breaches occur.

3. The board, or a board appointed committee, should oversee the adequacy of actions taken by senior management to identify, measure, manage, and control market risk exposures, ensure market risk policies establish lines of authority and responsibility, and review risk exposures on a periodic basis.

Responsibilities of Senior Management

4. Regarding the overall management of market risk exposure, senior management should provide sufficient and timely information to the board of directors, ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent, ensure adequate systems and resources are available to manage and control market risk, report any breaches to the board of directors (or the appropriate board committee), and take appropriate remedial action.

5. Regarding the policies, practices, and procedures surrounding market risk exposure, senior management should ensure market risk policies and procedures are clearly written, sufficiently detailed, and followed. Approved policies and procedures should include clear market risk limits and lines of authority for managing market risk.

Market Risk Strategy

6. A regulated entity should have a clearly defined and well-documented strategy for managing market risk, which must be consistent with its overall business plan, must enable the regulated entity to identify, manage, monitor, and control the regulated entity's risk exposures on a business unit and an enterprise-wide basis, and must ensure that the lines of authority and responsibility for managing market risk and monitoring market risk limits are clearly identified. The strategy should specify a target account, or target accounts, for managing market risk (e.g., specify whether the objective is to control risk to earnings, net portfolio value, or some other target, or some combination of targets), and, if a market risk limit is breached, should require that the breach be reported to the board of directors, or the appropriate board committee, and that appropriate remedial action, including any ordered by the board of directors, should be taken.

7. Management should ensure that the board of directors is made aware of the advantages and disadvantages of the regulated entity's chosen market risk management strategy, as well as those of alternative strategies, so that the board of directors can make an informed judgment about the relative efficacy of the different strategies.

8. A Bank's strategy for managing market risk should take into account the importance of maintaining the market value of equity of member stock commensurate with the par value of that stock so that the Bank is able to redeem and repurchase member stock at par value.

9. A regulated entity should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance, (e.g., advisory bulletins) governing the independence and adequacy of the management of market risk exposure.

Standard 4—Management of Market Risk—Measurement Systems, Risk Limits, Stress Testing, and Monitoring and Reporting

Risk Measurement Systems

1. A regulated entity should have a risk measurement system (a model or models) that capture(s) all material sources of market risk and provide(s) meaningful and timely measures of the regulated entity's risk exposures, as well as personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to operate and oversee the risk measurement system.

2. The risk measurement system should be capable of estimating the effect of changes in interest rates and other key risk factors on the regulated entity's earnings and market value of equity over a range of scenarios.

3. The measurement system should be capable of valuing all financial assets and liabilities in the regulated entity's portfolio.

4. The measurement system should address all material sources of market risk including repricing risk, yield curve risk, basis risk, and options risk.

5. Management should ensure the integrity and timeliness of the data inputs used to measure the regulated entity's market risk exposures, and should ensure that assumptions and parameters are reasonable and properly documented.

6. The measurement system's methodologies, assumptions, and parameters should be thoroughly documented, understood by management, and reviewed on a regular basis.

7. A regulated entity's market risk model should be upgraded periodically to incorporate advances in risk modeling technology.

8. A regulated entity should have a documented approval process for model changes that requires model changes to be authorized by a party independent of the party making the change.

9. A regulated entity should ensure that its models are independently validated on a regular basis.

Risk Limits

10. Risk limits should be consistent with the regulated entity's strategy for managing interest rate risk and should take into account the financial condition of the regulated entity, including its capital position.

11. Risk limits should address the potential impact of changes in market interest rates on net interest income, net income, and the regulated entity's market value of equity.

Stress Testing

12. A regulated entity should conduct stress tests on a regular basis for a variety of institution-specific and market-wide stress scenarios to identify potential vulnerabilities and to ensure that exposures are consistent with the regulated entity's tolerance for risk.

13. A regulated entity should use stress test outcomes to adjust its market risk management strategies, policies, and positions and to develop effective contingency plans.

14. Special consideration should be given to ensuring that complex financial instruments, including instruments with complex option features, are properly valued under stress scenarios and that the risks associated with options exposures are properly understood.

15. Management should ensure that the regulated entity's board of directors or a committee thereof considers the results of stress tests when establishing and reviewing its strategies, policies, and limits for managing and controlling interest rate risk.

16. The board of directors and senior management should review periodically the design of stress tests to ensure that they encompass the kinds of market conditions under which the regulated entity's positions and strategies would be most vulnerable.

Monitoring and Reporting

17. A regulated entity should have an adequate management information system for reporting market risk exposures.

18. The board of directors, senior management, and the appropriate line managers should be provided with regular, accurate, informative, and timely market risk reports.

Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies

19. A regulated entity should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins) governing the management of market risk.

Standard 5—Adequacy and Maintenance of Liquidity and Reserves

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors

1. Regarding the adequacy and maintenance of liquidity and reserves, the board of directors should review (at least annually) all major strategies and policies governing this area, approve appropriate revisions to such strategies and policies, and ensure senior management are appropriately trained to effectively manage liquidity.

Responsibilities of Senior Management

2. Regarding the adequacy and maintenance of liquidity and reserves, senior management should develop strategies, policies, and practices to manage liquidity risk, ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent, and provide the board of directors with periodic reports on the regulated entity's liquidity position.

Policies, Practices, and Procedures

3. A regulated entity should establish a liquidity management framework that ensures it maintains sufficient liquidity to withstand a range of stressful events.

4. A regulated entity should articulate a liquidity risk tolerance that is appropriate for its business strategy and its mission goals and objectives.

5. A regulated entity should have a sound process for identifying, measuring, monitoring, controlling, and reporting its liquidity position and its liquidity risk exposures.

6. A regulated entity should establish a funding strategy that provides effective diversification in the sources and tenor of funding.

7. A regulated entity should conduct stress tests on a regular basis for a variety of institution-specific and market-wide stress scenarios to identify sources of potential liquidity strain and to ensure that current exposures remain in accordance with each regulated entity's established liquidity risk tolerance.

8. A regulated entity should use stress test outcomes to adjust its liquidity management strategies, policies, and positions and to develop effective contingency plans.

9. A regulated entity should have a formal contingency funding plan that clearly sets out the strategies for addressing liquidity shortfalls in emergencies. Where practical, contingent funding sources should be tested or drawn on periodically to assess their reliability and operational soundness.

10. A regulated entity should maintain adequate reserves of liquid assets, including adequate reserves of unencumbered, marketable securities that can be liquidated to meet unexpected needs.

Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies

11. A regulated entity should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins) governing the adequacy and maintenance of liquidity and reserves.

Standard 6—Management of Asset and Investment Portfolio Growth

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management

1. Regarding the management of asset and investment portfolio growth, the board of directors is responsible for overseeing the management of growth in these areas, ensuring senior management are appropriately trained and competent, establishing policies governing the regulated entity's assets and investment growth, with prudential limits on the growth of mortgages and mortgage-backed securities, and reviewing policies at least annually.

2. Regarding the management of asset and investment portfolio growth, senior management should adhere to board-approved policies governing growth in these areas, and ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent to manage the growth.

Risk Measurement, Monitoring, and Control

3. A regulated entity should manage its asset growth and investment growth in a prudent manner that is consistent with the regulated entity's business strategy, board-approved policies, risk tolerances, and safe and sound operations, and should establish prudential limits on the growth of its portfolios of mortgage loans and mortgage backed securities.

4. A regulated entity should manage asset growth and investment growth in a way that is compatible with mission goals and objectives.

5. A regulated entity should manage investments and acquisition of assets in a way that complies with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins).

Standard 7—Investments and Acquisitions of Assets

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management

1. The board of directors is responsible for overseeing the regulated entity's investments and acquisition of other assets, ensuring senior management are appropriately trained and competent, and establishing, approving and periodically reviewing policies and procedures governing investments and acquisitions of other assets.

Policies, Practices, and Procedures

2. A regulated entity should have a board-approved investment policy that establishes clear and explicit guidelines that are appropriate to the regulated entity's mission and objectives. The investment policy should establish the regulated entity's investment objectives, risk tolerances, investment constraints, and policies and procedures for selecting investments.

3. A regulated entity should have a board-approved policy governing acquisitions of major categories of assets other than investments. The policy should establish clear and explicit guidelines for asset acquisitions that are appropriate to the regulated entity's mission and objectives.

4. A regulated entity should manage investments and acquisitions of assets prudently and in a manner that is consistent with mission goals and objectives.

5. Each Bank's investment policies and acquisition of assets should take into account the importance of maintaining the market value of member stock commensurate with the par value of that stock so that the Bank is able to redeem and repurchase member stock at par value at all times.

6. A regulated entity should manage investments and acquisitions of assets in a way that complies with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins).

Standard 8—Overall Risk Management Processes

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors

1. Regarding overall risk management processes, the board of directors is responsible for overseeing the process, ensuring senior management are appropriately trained and competent, ensuring processes are in place to identify, manage, monitor and control risk exposures (this function may be delegated to a board appointed committee), approving all major risk limits, and ensuring incentive compensation measures for senior management capture a full range of risks to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.

Responsibilities of the Board and Senior Management

2. Regarding overall risk management processes, the board of directors and senior management should establish and sustain a culture that promotes effective risk management. This culture includes timely, accurate and informative risk reports, alignment of the overall risk profile of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance with its mission objectives, and the annual review of comprehensive self-assessments of material risks.

Independent Risk Management Function

3. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance should have an independent risk management function, or unit, with responsibility for risk measurement and risk monitoring, including monitoring and enforcement of risk limits.

4. The chief risk officer should head the risk management function.

5. The chief risk officer should report directly to the chief executive officer and the risk committee of the board of directors.

6. The risk management function should have adequate resources, including a well-trained and capable staff.

Risk Measurement, Monitoring, and Control

7. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should measure, monitor, and control its overall risk exposures, reviewing, as applicable, market, credit, liquidity, and operational risk exposures on both a business unit (or business segment) and enterprise-wide basis.

8. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have the risk management systems to generate, at an appropriate frequency, the information needed to manage risk. As applicable, such systems should include systems for market, credit, operational, and liquidity risk analysis, asset and liability management, regulatory reporting, and performance measurement.

9. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have a comprehensive set of risk limits and monitoring procedures to ensure that risk exposures remain within established risk limits, and a mechanism for reporting violations and breaches of risk limits to senior management and the board of directors.

10. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should ensure that it has sufficient controls around risk measurement models to ensure the completeness, accuracy, and timeliness of risk information.

11. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have adequate and well-tested disaster recovery and business resumption plans for all major systems and have remote facilitates to limit the impact of disruptive events.

Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies

12. As applicable, each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins) governing the management of risk.

Standard 9—Management of Credit and Counterparty Risk

Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management

1. Regarding the management of credit and counterparty risk, the board of directors and senior management are responsible for ensuring that the regulated entity has appropriate policies, procedures, and systems that cover all aspects of credit administration, including credit pricing, underwriting, credit limits, collateral standards, and collateral valuation procedures. This should also include derivatives and the use of clearing houses. They are also responsible for ensuring personnel are appropriately trained, competent, and equipped with the necessary tools, procedures and systems to assess risk.

2. Senior management should provide the board of directors with regular briefings and reports on credit exposures.

Policies, Procedures, Controls, and Systems

3. A regulated entity should have policies that limit concentrations of credit risk and systems to identify concentrations of credit risk.

4. A regulated entity should establish prudential limits to restrict exposures to a single counterparty that are appropriate to its business model.

5. A regulated entity should establish prudential limits to restrict exposures to groups of related counterparties that are appropriate to its business model.

6. A regulated entity should have policies, procedures, and systems for evaluating credit risk that will enable it to make informed credit decisions.

7. A regulated entity should have policies, procedures, and systems for evaluating credit risk that will enable it to ensure that claims are legally enforceable.

8. A regulated entity should have policies and procedures for addressing problem credits.

9. A regulated entity should have an ongoing credit review program that includes stress testing and scenario analysis.

Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies

10. A regulated entity should manage credit and counterparty risk in a way that complies with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins).

Standard 10—Maintenance of Adequate Records

1. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should maintain financial records in compliance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), FHFA guidelines, and applicable laws and regulations.

2. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should ensure that assets are safeguarded and financial and operational information is timely and reliable.

3. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have a records retention program consistent with laws and corporate policies, including accounting policies, as well as personnel that are appropriately trained and competent to oversee and implement the records management plan.

4. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance, with oversight from its board of directors, should conduct a review and approval of the records retention program and records retention schedule for all types of records at least once every two years.

5. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should ensure that reporting errors are detected and corrected in a timely manner.

6. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (e.g., advisory bulletins) governing the maintenance of adequate records.

[77 FR 33959, June 8, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 72336, Nov. 19, 2015; 89 FR 3540, Jan. 19, 2024]

PART 1237 CONSERVATORSHIP AND RECEIVERSHIP

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 4513b, 4526, 4617.

Source: 76 FR 35733, June 20, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1237.1 Purpose and applicability.

The provisions of this part shall apply to the appointment and operations of the Federal Housing Finance Agency (“Agency”) as conservator or receiver of a regulated entity. These provisions implement and supplement the procedures and process set forth in the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended, by the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (HERA), Public Law 110-289 for conduct of a conservatorship or receivership of such entity.

§ 1237.2 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part the following definitions shall apply:

Agency means the Federal Housing Finance Agency (“FHFA”) established under 12 U.S.C. 4511, as amended.

Authorizing statutes mean—

(1) The Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act,

(2) The Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, and

(3) The Federal Home Loan Bank Act.

Capital distribution has, with respect to a Bank, the definition stated in § 1229.1 of this chapter, and with respect to an Enterprise, the definition stated in § 1229.13 of this chapter.

Compensation means any payment of money or the provision of any other thing of current or potential value in connection with employment.

Conservator means the Agency as appointed by the Director as conservator for a regulated entity.

Default; in danger of default:

(1) Default means, with respect to a regulated entity, any official determination by the Director, pursuant to which a conservator or receiver is appointed for a regulated entity.

(2) In danger of default means, with respect to a regulated entity, the definition under section 1303(8)(B) of the Safety and Soundness Act or applicable FHFA regulations.

Entity-affiliated party means any party meeting the definition of an entity-affiliated party under section 1303(11) of the Safety and Soundness Act or applicable FHFA regulations.

Equity security of any person shall mean any and all shares, interests, rights to purchase or otherwise acquire, warrants, options, participations or other equivalents of or interests (however designated) in equity, ownership or profits of such person, including any preferred stock, any limited or general partnership interest and any limited liability company membership interest, and any securities or other rights or interests convertible into or exchangeable for any of the foregoing.

Executive officer means, with respect to an Enterprise, any person meeting the definition of executive officer under section 1303(12) of the Safety and Soundness Act and applicable FHFA regulations under that section, and, with respect to a Bank, an executive officer as defined in applicable FHFA regulations.

Golden parachute payment means, with respect to a regulated entity, the definition under 12 CFR part 1231 or other applicable FHFA regulations.

Limited-life regulated entity means an entity established by the Agency under section 1367(i) of the Safety and Soundness Act with respect to a Federal Home Loan Bank in default or in danger of default, or with respect to an Enterprise in default or in danger of default.

Receiver means the Agency as appointed by the Director to act as receiver for a regulated entity.

Securities litigation claim means any claim, whether or not reduced to judgment, liquidated or unliquidated, fixed, contingent, matured or unmatured, disputed or undisputed, legal, equitable, secured or unsecured, arising from rescission of a purchase or sale of an equity security of a regulated entity or for damages arising from the purchase, sale, or retention of such a security.

Transfer means every mode, direct or indirect, absolute or conditional, voluntary or involuntary, of disposing of or parting with property or with an interest in property, including retention of title as a security interest and foreclosure of the equity of redemption of the regulated entity.

[76 FR 35733, June 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 80 FR 72336, Oct. 22, 2015]

Subpart A Powers
§ 1237.3 Powers of the Agency as conservator or receiver.

(a) Operation of the regulated entity. The Agency, as it determines appropriate to its operations as either conservator or receiver, may:

(1) Take over the assets of and operate the regulated entity with all the powers of the shareholders (including the authority to vote shares of any and all classes of voting stock), the directors, and the officers of the regulated entity and conduct all business of the regulated entity;

(2) Continue the missions of the regulated entity;

(3) Ensure that the operations and activities of each regulated entity foster liquid, efficient, competitive, and resilient national housing finance markets;

(4) Ensure that each regulated entity operates in a safe and sound manner;

(5) Collect all obligations and money due the regulated entity;

(6) Perform all functions of the regulated entity in the name of the regulated entity that are consistent with the appointment as conservator or receiver;

(7) Preserve and conserve the assets and property of the regulated entity (including the exclusive authority to investigate and prosecute claims of any type on behalf of the regulated entity, or to delegate to management of the regulated entity the authority to investigate and prosecute claims); and

(8) Provide by contract for assistance in fulfilling any function, activity, action, or duty of the Agency as conservator or receiver.

(b) Agency as receiver. The Agency, as receiver, shall place the regulated entity in liquidation, employing the additional powers expressed in 12 U.S.C. 4617(b)(2)(E).

(c) Powers as conservator or receiver. The Agency, as conservator or receiver, shall have all powers and authorities specifically provided by section 1367 of the Safety and Soundness Act and paragraph (a) of this section, including incidental powers, which include the authority to suspend capital classifications under section 1364(e)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act during the duration of the conservatorship or receivership of that regulated entity.

(d) Transfer or sale of assets and liabilities. The Agency may, as conservator or receiver, transfer or sell any asset or liability of the regulated entity in default, and may do so without any approval, assignment, or consent with respect to such transfer or sale. Exercise of this authority by the Agency as conservator will nullify any restraints on sales or transfers in any agreement not entered into by the Agency as conservator. Exercise of this authority by the Agency as receiver will nullify any restraints on sales or transfers in any agreement not entered into by the Agency as receiver.

§ 1237.4 Receivership following conservatorship; administrative expenses.

If a receivership immediately succeeds a conservatorship, the administrative expenses of the conservatorship shall also be deemed to be administrative expenses of the subsequent receivership.

§ 1237.5 Contracts entered into before appointment of a conservator or receiver.

(a) The conservator or receiver for any regulated entity may disaffirm or repudiate any contract or lease to which such regulated entity is a party pursuant to section 1367(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act.

(b) For purposes of section 1367(d)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act, a reasonable period shall be defined as a period of 18 months following the appointment of a conservator or receiver.

§ 1237.6 Authority to enforce contracts.

The conservator or receiver may enforce any contract entered into by the regulated entity pursuant to the provisions and subject to the restrictions of section 1367(d)(13) of the Safety and Soundness Act.

Subpart B Claims
§ 1237.7 Period for determination of claims.

Before the end of the 180-day period beginning on the date on which any claim against a regulated entity is filed with the Agency as receiver, the Agency shall determine whether to allow or disallow the claim and shall notify the claimant of any determination with respect to such claim. This period may be extended by a written agreement between the claimant and the Agency as receiver, which may include an agreement to toll any applicable statute of limitations.

§ 1237.8 Alternate procedures for determination of claims.

Claimants seeking a review of the determination of claims may seek alternative dispute resolution from the Agency as receiver in lieu of a judicial determination. The Director may by order, policy statement, or directive establish alternative dispute resolution procedures for this purpose.

§ 1237.9 Priority of expenses and unsecured claims.

(a) General. The receiver will grant priority to unsecured claims against a regulated entity or the receiver for that regulated entity that are proven to the satisfaction of the receiver in the following order:

(1) Administrative expenses of the receiver (or an immediately preceding conservator).

(2) Any other general or senior liability of the regulated entity (that is not a liability described under paragraph (a)(3) or (a)(4) of this section).

(3) Any obligation subordinated to general creditors (that is not an obligation described under paragraph (a)(4) of this section).

(4) Any claim by current or former shareholders or members arising as a result of their current or former status as shareholders or members, including, without limitation, any securities litigation claim. Within this priority level, the receiver shall recognize the priorities of shareholder claims inter se, such as that preferred shareholder claims are prior to common shareholder claims. This subparagraph (a)(4) shall not apply to any claim by a current or former member of a Federal Home Loan Bank that arises from transactions or relationships distinct from the current or former member's ownership, purchase, sale, or retention of an equity security of the Federal Home Loan Bank.

(b) Similarly situated creditors. All claimants that are similarly situated shall be treated in a similar manner, except that the receiver may take any action (including making payments) that does not comply with this section, if:

(1) The Director determines that such action is necessary to maximize the value of the assets of the regulated entity, to maximize the present value return from the sale or other disposition of the assets of the regulated entity, or to minimize the amount of any loss realized upon the sale or other disposition of the assets of the regulated entity; and

(2) All claimants that are similarly situated under paragraph (a) of this section receive not less than the amount such claimants would have received if the receiver liquidated the assets and liabilities of the regulated entity in receivership and such action had not been taken.

(c) Priority determined at default. The receiver will determine priority based on a claim's status at the time of default, such default having occurred at the time of entry into the receivership, or if a conservatorship immediately preceded the receivership, at the time of entry into the conservatorship provided the claim then existed.

Subpart C Limited-Life Regulated Entities
§ 1237.10 Limited-life regulated entities.

(a) Status. The United States Government shall be considered a person for purposes of section 1367(i)(6)(C)(i) of the Safety and Soundness Act.

(b) Investment authority. The requirements of section 1367(i)(4) shall apply only to the liquidity portfolio of a limited-life regulated entity.

(c) Policies and procedures. The Agency may draft such policies and procedures with respect to limited-life regulated entities as it determines to be necessary and appropriate, including policies and procedures regarding the timing of the creation of limited-life regulated entities.

§ 1237.11 Authority of limited-life regulated entities to obtain credit.

(a) Ability to obtain credit. A limited-life regulated entity may obtain unsecured credit and issue unsecured debt.

(b) Inability to obtain credit. If a limited-life regulated entity is unable to obtain unsecured credit or issue unsecured debt, the Director may authorize the obtaining of credit or the issuance of debt by the limited-life regulated entity with priority over any and all of the obligations of the limited-life regulated entity, secured by a lien on property of the limited-life regulated entity that is not otherwise subject to a lien, or secured by a junior lien on property of the limited-life regulated entity that is subject to a lien.

(c) Limitations. The Director, after notice and a hearing, may authorize a limited-life regulated entity to obtain credit or issue debt that is secured by a senior or equal lien on property of the limited-life regulated entity that is already subject to a lien (other than mortgages that collateralize the mortgage-backed securities issued or guaranteed by an Enterprise) only if the limited-life regulated entity is unable to obtain such credit or issue such debt otherwise on commercially reasonable terms and there is adequate protection of the interest of the holder of the earlier lien on the property with respect to which such senior or equal lien is proposed to be granted.

(d) Adequate protection. The adequate protection referred to in paragraph (c) of this section may be provided by:

(1) Requiring the limited-life regulated entity to make a cash payment or periodic cash payments to the holder of the earlier lien, to the extent that there is likely to be a decrease in the value of such holder's interest in the property subject to the lien;

(2) Providing to the holder of the earlier lien an additional or replacement lien to the extent that there is likely to be a decrease in the value of such holder's interest in the property subject to the lien; or

(3) Granting the holder of the earlier lien such other relief, other than entitling such holder to compensation allowable as an administrative expense under section 1367(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act, as will result in the realization by such holder of the equivalent of such holder's interest in such property.

Subpart D Other
§ 1237.12 Capital distributions while in conservatorship.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a regulated entity shall make no capital distribution while in conservatorship.

(b) The Director may authorize, or may delegate the authority to authorize, a capital distribution that would otherwise be prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section if he or she determines that such capital distribution:

(1) Will enhance the ability of the regulated entity to meet the risk-based capital level and the minimum capital level for the regulated entity;

(2) Will contribute to the long-term financial safety and soundness of the regulated entity;

(3) Is otherwise in the interest of the regulated entity; or

(4) Is otherwise in the public interest.

(c) This section is intended to supplement and shall not replace or affect any other restriction on capital distributions imposed by statute or regulation.

§ 1237.13 Payment of Securities Litigation Claims while in conservatorship.

(a) Payment of Securities Litigation Claims while in conservatorship. The Agency, as conservator, will not pay a Securities Litigation Claim against a regulated entity, except to the extent the Director determines is in the interest of the conservatorship.

(b) Claims against limited-life regulated entities. A limited-life regulated entity shall not assume, acquire, or succeed to any obligation that a regulated entity for which a receiver has been appointed may have to any shareholder of the regulated entity that arises as a result of the status of that person as a shareholder of the regulated entity, including any Securities Litigation Claim. No creditor of the regulated entity shall have a claim against a limited-life regulated entity unless the receiver has transferred that liability to the limited-life regulated entity. The charter of the regulated entity, or of the limited-life regulated entity, is not an asset against which any claim can be made by any creditor or shareholder of the regulated entity.

§ 1237.14 Golden parachute payments [Reserved]

PART 1238 STRESS TESTING OF REGULATED ENTITIES

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 1426; 4513; 4526; 4612; 5365(i).

Source: 78 FR 59222, Sept. 26, 2013, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1238.1 Authority and purpose.

(a) Authority. This part is issued by the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) under section 165(i) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act), Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1423-32 (2010), 12 U.S.C. 5365(i), as amended by section 401 of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act (EGRRCPA), Public Law 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296 (2018), 12 U.S.C. 5365(i); and the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4513, 4526, 4612).

(b) Purpose. (1) This part implements section 165(i)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act, as amended by section 401 of the EGRRCPA, which requires all large financial companies that have total consolidated assets of more than $250 billion, and are regulated by a primary federal financial regulatory agency, to conduct periodic stress tests.

(2) This part establishes requirements that apply to each Enterprise's performance of periodic stress tests. The purpose of the periodic stress test is to provide the Enterprises, FHFA, and the FRB with additional, forward-looking information that will help them to assess capital adequacy at the Enterprises under various scenarios; to review the Enterprises' stress test results; and to increase public disclosure of the Enterprises' capital condition by requiring broad dissemination of the stress test scenarios and results.

[85 FR 16529, Mar. 24, 2020]

§ 1238.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

Planning horizon means the period of time over which the stress projections must extend. The planning horizon cannot be less than nine quarters.

Scenarios are sets of economic and financial conditions used in the Enterprises' stress tests, including baseline and severely adverse.

Stress test is a process to assess the potential impact on an Enterprise of economic and financial conditions (“scenarios”) on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of the Enterprise over a set planning horizon, taking into account the current condition of the Enterprise and the Enterprise's risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.

[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]

§ 1238.3 Annual stress test.

(a) In general. Each Enterprise:

(1) Shall complete an annual stress test of itself based on its data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year;

(2) The stress test shall be conducted in accordance with this section and the methodologies and practices described in § 1238.4 and in a supplemental guidance or order.

(b) Scenarios provided by FHFA. In conducting its annual stress tests under this section, each Enterprise must use scenarios provided by FHFA, which shall be generally consistent with and comparable to those established by the FRB, that reflect a minimum of two sets of economic and financial conditions, including a baseline and severely adverse scenario. Not later than 30 days after the FRB publishes its scenarios, FHFA will issue to the Enterprises a description of the baseline and severely adverse scenarios that each Enterprise shall use to conduct its annual stress tests under this part.

[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]

§ 1238.4 Methodologies and practices.

(a) Potential impact. Except as noted in this subpart, in conducting a stress test under § 1238.3, each Enterprise shall calculate how each of the following is affected during each quarter of the stress test planning horizon, for each scenario:

(1) Potential losses, pre-provision net revenues, and future pro forma capital positions over the planning horizon; and

(2) Capital levels and capital ratios, including regulatory capital and net worth, and any other capital ratios specified by FHFA.

(b) Planning horizon. Each Enterprise must use a planning horizon of at least nine quarters over which the impact of specified scenarios would be assessed.

(c) Additional analytical techniques. If FHFA determines that the stress test methodologies and practices of an Enterprise are deficient, FHFA may determine that additional or alternative analytical techniques and exercises are appropriate for an Enterprise to use in identifying, measuring, and monitoring risks to the financial soundness of the Enterprise, and require an Enterprise to implement such techniques and exercises in order to fulfill the requirements of this part. In addition, FHFA will issue guidance annually to describe the baseline and severely adverse scenarios, and methodologies to be used in conducting the annual stress test.

(d) Controls and oversight of the stress testing processes. (1) The appropriate senior management of each Enterprise must ensure that the Enterprise establishes and maintains a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, designed to ensure that the stress testing processes used by the Enterprises are effective in meeting the requirements of this part. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the Enterprise's testing practices and methodologies, validation and use of stress test results, and processes for updating the Enterprise's stress testing practices consistent with relevant supervisory guidance;

(2) The board of directors, or a designated committee thereof, shall review and approve the policies and procedures established to comply with this part as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the Enterprise warrants, but at least annually; and

(3) Senior management of the Enterprise and each member of the board of directors shall receive a summary of the stress test results.

[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]

§ 1238.5 Required report to FHFA and FRB of stress test results and related information.

(a) Report required for stress tests. On or before May 20 of each year, the Enterprises must report the results of the stress tests required under § 1238.3 to FHFA, and to the FRB, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section;

(b) Content of the report for annual stress test. Each Enterprise must file a report in the manner and form established by FHFA.

(c) Confidential treatment of information submitted. Reports submitted to FHFA under this part are FHFA property and records (as defined in 12 CFR part 1202). The reports are and include non-public information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of, FHFA in connection with the performance of the agency's responsibilities regulating or supervising the Enterprises. Disclosure of any reports submitted to FHFA or the information contained in any such report is prohibited unless authorized by this part, legal obligation, or otherwise by the Director of FHFA.

[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]

§ 1238.6 Post-assessment actions by the Enterprises.

Each Enterprise shall take the results of the stress test conducted under § 1238.3 into account in making changes, as appropriate, to the Enterprise's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital); its exposures, concentrations, and risk positions; any plans for recovery and resolution; and to improve overall risk management. If an Enterprise is under FHFA conservatorship, any post-assessment actions shall require prior FHFA approval.

[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]

§ 1238.7 Publication of results by regulated entities.

(a) Public disclosure of results required for stress tests of the Enterprises. The Enterprises must disclose publicly a summary of the stress test results for the severely adverse scenario not earlier than August 1 and not later than August 15 of each year. The summary may be published on the Enterprise's website or in any other form that is reasonably accessible to the public.

(b) Information to be disclosed in the summary. The information disclosed by each Enterprise shall, at minimum, include—

(1) A description of the types of risks being included in the stress test;

(2) A high-level description of the scenario provided by FHFA, including key variables (such as GDP, unemployment rate, housing prices, and foreclosure rate, etc.);

(3) A general description of the methodologies employed to estimate losses, pre-provision net revenue, and changes in capital positions over the planning horizon;

(4) A general description of the use of the required stress test as one element in an Enterprise's overall capital planning and capital assessment. If an Enterprise is under conservatorship, this description shall be coordinated with FHFA;

(5) Aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, net income, net worth, pro forma capital levels and capital ratios (including regulatory and any other capital ratios specified by FHFA) over the planning horizon, under the scenario; and

(6) Such other data fields, in such form (e.g., aggregated), as the Director may require.

[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]

§ 1238.8 Additional implementing action.

The Director may, in circumstances considered appropriate, require any regulated entity not subject to this part to conduct stress testing hereunder; and from time to time, issue such guidance and orders as may be necessary to facilitate implementation of this part.

PART 1239 RESPONSIBILITIES OF BOARDS OF DIRECTORS, CORPORATE PRACTICES, AND CORPORATE GOVERNANCE

Authority: 12 U.S.C. 1426, 1427, 1432(a), 1436(a), 1440, 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513(b), 4526, and 15 U.S.C. 78oo(b).

Source: 80 FR 72336, Nov. 19, 2015, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General
§ 1239.1 Purpose.

FHFA is responsible for supervising and ensuring the safety and soundness of the regulated entities. In furtherance of those responsibilities, this part sets forth minimum standards with respect to responsibilities of boards of directors, corporate practices, and corporate governance matters of the regulated entities.

§ 1239.2 Definitions.

As used in this part, (unless otherwise noted):

Board member means a member of the board of directors of a regulated entity.

Board of directors means the board of directors of a regulated entity.

Business risk means the risk of an adverse impact on a regulated entity's profitability resulting from external factors as may occur in both the short and long run.

Community financial institution has the meaning set forth in § 1263.1 of this chapter.

Compensation means any payment of money or the provision of any other thing of current or potential value in connection with employment or in connection with service as a director.

Credit risk is the potential that a borrower or counterparty will fail to meet its financial obligations in accordance with agreed terms.

Employee means an individual, other than an executive officer, who works part-time, full-time, or temporarily for a regulated entity.

Executive officer means the chief executive officer, chief financial officer, chief operating officer, president, any executive vice president, any senior vice president, and any individual with similar responsibilities, without regard to title, who is in charge of a principal business unit, division, or function, or who reports directly to the chairperson, vice chairperson, chief operating officer, or chief executive officer or president of a regulated entity.

Immediate family member means a parent, sibling, spouse, child, dependent, or any relative sharing the same residence.

Internal auditor means the individual responsible for the internal audit function at a regulated entity.

Liquidity risk means the risk that a regulated entity will be unable to meet its financial obligations as they come due or meet the credit needs of its members and associates in a timely and cost-efficient manner.

Market risk means the risk that the market value, or estimated fair value if market value is not available, of a regulated entity's portfolio will decline as a result of changes in interest rates, foreign exchange rates, or equity or commodity prices.

NYSE means the New York Stock Exchange.

Operational risk means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, or systems, or from external events (including legal risk but excluding strategic and reputational risk).

Risk appetite means the aggregate level and types of risk the board of directors and management are willing to assume to achieve the regulated entity's strategic objectives and business plan, consistent with applicable capital, liquidity, and other regulatory requirements.

Significant deficiency means a deficiency, or a combination of deficiencies, in internal control that is less severe than a material weakness, yet important enough to merit attention by those charged with governance.

Subpart B Corporate Practices and Procedures Applicable to All Regulated Entities
§ 1239.3 Law applicable to corporate governance and indemnification practices.

(a) General. The corporate governance practices and procedures of each regulated entity, and practices and procedures relating to indemnification (including advancement of expenses), shall comply with and be subject to the applicable authorizing statutes and other Federal law, rules, and regulations, and shall be consistent with the safe and sound operations of the regulated entities.

(b) Election and designation of body of law. (1) To the extent not inconsistent with paragraph (a) of this section, each regulated entity shall elect to follow the corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures set forth in one of the following:

(i) The law of the jurisdiction in which the principal office of the regulated entity is located;

(ii) The Delaware General Corporation Law (Del. Code Ann. Title 8); or

(iii) The Revised Model Business Corporation Act.

(2) Each regulated entity shall designate in its bylaws the body of law elected for its corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures pursuant to this paragraph, and shall do so by no later than March 18, 2016.

(c) Indemnification. (1) Subject to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, to the extent applicable, a regulated entity shall indemnify (and advance the expenses of) its directors, officers, and employees under such terms and conditions as are determined by its board of directors. The regulated entity is authorized to maintain insurance for its directors and any other officer or employee.

(2) Each regulated entity shall have in place policies and procedures consistent with this section for indemnification of its directors, officers, and employees. Such policies and procedures shall address how the board of directors is to approve or deny requests for indemnification from current and former directors, officers, and employees, and shall include standards relating to indemnification, investigations by the board of directors, and review by independent counsel.

(3) Nothing in this paragraph (c) shall affect any rights to indemnification (including the advancement of expenses) that a director or any other officer or employee had with respect to any actions, omissions, transactions, or facts occurring prior to the effective date of this paragraph.

(4) FHFA has the authority under the Safety and Soundness Act to review a regulated entity's indemnification policies, procedures, and practices to ensure that they are conducted in a safe and sound manner, and that they are consistent with the body of law adopted by the board of directors under paragraph (b) of this section.

(d) No rights created. Nothing in this part shall create or be deemed to create any rights in any third party, including in any member of a Bank, nor shall it cause or be deemed to cause any regulated entity to become subject to the jurisdiction of any state court with respect to the entity's corporate governance or indemnification practices or procedures.

§ 1239.4 Duties and responsibilities of directors.

(a) Management of a regulated entity. The management of each regulated entity shall be by or under the direction of its board of directors. While a board of directors may delegate the execution of operational functions to officers and employees of the regulated entity, the ultimate responsibility of each entity's board of directors for that entity's oversight is non-delegable. The board of directors of a regulated entity is responsible for directing the conduct and affairs of the entity in furtherance of the safe and sound operation of the entity and shall remain reasonably informed of the condition, activities, and operations of the entity.

(b) Duties of directors. Each director of a regulated entity shall have the duty to:

(1) Carry out his or her duties as director in good faith, in a manner such director believes to be in the best interests of the regulated entity, and with such care, including reasonable inquiry, as is required under the Revised Model Business Corporation Act or the other body of law that the entity's board of directors has chosen to follow for its corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures in accordance with § 1239.3(b);

(2) For Bank directors, administer the affairs of the regulated entity fairly and impartially and without discrimination in favor of or against any member institution;

(3) At the time of election, or within a reasonable time thereafter, have a working familiarity with basic finance and accounting practices, including the ability to read and understand the regulated entity's balance sheet and income statement and to ask substantive questions of management and the internal and external auditors;

(4) Direct the operations of the regulated entity in conformity with the requirements set forth in the authorizing statutes, the Safety and Soundness Act, and this chapter; and

(5) Adopt and maintain in effect at all times bylaws governing the manner in which the regulated entity administers its affairs. Such bylaws shall be consistent with applicable laws and regulations administered by FHFA, and with the body of law designated for the entity's corporate governance practices and procedures in accordance with § 1239.3(b).

(c) Director responsibilities. The responsibilities of the board of directors include having in place adequate policies to assure its oversight of, among other matters, the following:

(1) The risk management and compensation programs of the regulated entity;

(2) The processes for providing accurate financial reporting and other disclosures, and communications with stockholders; and

(3) The responsiveness of executive officers in providing accurate and timely reports to FHFA and in addressing all supervisory concerns of FHFA in a timely and appropriate manner.

(d) Authority regarding staff and outside consultants. (1) In carrying out its duties and responsibilities under the authorizing statutes, the Safety and Soundness Act, and this chapter, each regulated entity's board of directors and all committees thereof shall have authority to retain staff and outside counsel, independent accountants, or other outside consultants at the expense of the regulated entity.

(2) The board of directors and its committees may require that staff of the regulated entity that provides services to the board or any committee under paragraph (d)(1) of this section report directly to the board or such committee, as appropriate.

§ 1239.5 Board committees.

(a) General. The board of directors may rely, in directing a regulated entity, on reports from committees of the board of directors, provided, however, that no committee of the board of directors shall have the authority of the board of directors to amend the bylaws and no committee shall operate to relieve the board of directors or any board member of a responsibility imposed by applicable law, rule, or regulation.

(b) Required committees. The board of directors of each regulated entity shall have committees, however styled, that address each of the following areas of responsibility: Risk management; audit; compensation; and corporate governance (in the case of the Banks, including the nomination of independent board of director candidates, and, in the case of the Enterprises, including the nomination of all board of director candidates). The risk management committee and the audit committee shall not be combined with any other committees. The board of directors may establish any other committees that it deems necessary or useful to carrying out its responsibilities, subject to the provisions of this section. In the case of the Enterprises, board committees shall comply with the charter, independence, composition, expertise, duties, responsibilities, and other requirements set forth under rules issued by the NYSE, and the audit committees shall also comply with the requirements set forth under section 301 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Public Law 107-204.

(c) Charter. The board of directors shall adopt a formal written charter for each committee that specifies the scope of a committee's powers and responsibilities, as well as the committee's structure, processes, and membership requirements.

(d) Frequency of meetings. Each committee of the board of directors shall meet regularly and with sufficient frequency to carry out its obligations and duties under applicable laws, rules, regulations, and guidelines. Committees that are structured to meet only on an as-needed basis shall meet in the manner specified by their charter. All such committees shall also meet with sufficient timeliness as necessary in light of relevant conditions and circumstances to fulfill their obligations and duties.

Subpart C Other Requirements Applicable to All Regulated Entities
§ 1239.10 Code of conduct and ethics.

(a) General. A regulated entity shall establish and administer a written code of conduct and ethics that is reasonably designed to assure that its directors, officers, and employees discharge their duties and responsibilities in an objective and impartial manner that promotes honest and ethical conduct, compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations, accountability for adherence to the code, and prompt internal reporting of violations of the code to appropriate persons identified in the code. The code also shall include provisions applicable to the regulated entity's principal executive officer, principal financial officer, principal accounting officer or controller, or persons performing similar functions, that are reasonably designed to promote full, fair, accurate, and understandable disclosure in reports and other documents filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission and in other public communications reporting on the entity's financial condition.

(b) Review. Not less often than once every three years, a regulated entity shall review the adequacy of its code of conduct and ethics for consistency with practices appropriate to the entity and make any appropriate revisions to such code.

§ 1239.11 Risk management.

(a) Risk management program—(1) Adoption. Each regulated entity's board of directors shall approve, have in effect at all times, and periodically review an enterprise-wide risk management program that establishes the regulated entity's risk appetite, aligns the risk appetite with the regulated entity's strategies and objectives, addresses the regulated entity's exposure to credit risk, market risk, liquidity risk, business risk and operational risk, and complies with the requirements of this part and with all applicable FHFA regulations and policies.

(2) Risk appetite. The board of directors shall ensure that the risk management program aligns with the regulated entity's risk appetite.

(3) Risk management program requirements. The risk management program shall include:

(i) Risk limitations appropriate to each business line of the regulated entity;

(ii) Appropriate policies and procedures relating to risk management governance, risk oversight infrastructure, and processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks, including emerging risks;

(iii) Provisions for monitoring compliance with the regulated entity's risk limit structure and policies relating to risk management governance, risk oversight, and effective and timely implementation of corrective actions; and

(iv) Provisions specifying management's authority and independence to carry out risk management responsibilities, and the integration of risk management with management's goals and compensation structure.

(b) Risk committee. The board of each regulated entity shall establish and maintain a risk committee of the board of directors that assists the board in carrying out its duties to oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program at the regulated entity.

(1) Committee structure. The risk committee shall:

(i) Be chaired by a director not serving in a management capacity of the regulated entity;

(ii) Have at least one member with risk management experience that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk-related factors;

(iii) Have committee members that have, or that will acquire within a reasonable time after being elected to the committee, a practical understanding of risk management principles and practices relevant to the regulated entity;

(iv) Fully document and maintain records of its meetings, including its risk management decisions and recommendations; and

(v) Report directly to the board and not as part of, or combined with, another committee.

(2) Committee responsibilities. The risk committee shall:

(i) Periodically review and recommend for board approval an appropriate enterprise-wide risk management program that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk-related factors;

(ii) Receive and review regular reports from the regulated entity's chief risk officer, as required under paragraph (c)(5) of this section ; and

(iii) Periodically review the capabilities for, and adequacy of resources allocated to, enterprise-wide risk management.

(c) Chief Risk Officer.—(1) Appointment of a chief risk officer (CRO). Each regulated entity shall appoint a CRO to implement and maintain appropriate enterprise-wide risk management practices for the regulated entity.

(2) Organizational structure of the risk management function. The CRO shall head an independent enterprise-wide risk management function, or unit, and shall report directly to the risk committee and to the chief executive officer.

(3) Responsibilities of the CRO. The CRO shall be responsible for the enterprise-wide risk management function, including:

(i) Allocating risk limits and monitoring compliance with such limits;

(ii) Establishing appropriate policies and procedures relating to risk management governance, practices, and risk controls, and developing appropriate processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks, including emerging risks;

(iii) Monitoring risk exposures, including testing risk controls and verifying risk measures; and

(iv) Communicating within the organization about any risk management issues and/or emerging risks, and ensuring that risk management issues are effectively resolved in a timely manner.

(4) The CRO should have risk management expertise that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk related factors.

(5) The CRO shall report regularly to the risk committee and to the chief executive officer on significant risk exposures and related controls, changes to risk appetite, risk management strategies, results of risk management reviews, and emerging risks. The CRO shall also report regularly on the regulated entity's compliance with, and the adequacy of, its current risk management policies and procedures, and shall recommend any adjustments to such policies and procedures that he or she considers necessary or appropriate.

(6) The compensation of a regulated entity's CRO shall be appropriately structured to provide for an objective and independent assessment of the risks taken by the regulated entity.

§ 1239.12 Compliance program.

A regulated entity shall establish and maintain a compliance program that is reasonably designed to assure that the regulated entity complies with applicable laws, rules, regulations, and internal controls. The compliance program shall be headed by a compliance officer, however styled, who reports directly to the chief executive officer. The compliance officer also shall report regularly to the board of directors, or an appropriate committee thereof, on the adequacy of the entity's compliance policies and procedures, including the entity's compliance with them, and shall recommend any revisions to such policies and procedures that he or she considers necessary or appropriate.

§ 1239.13 Regulatory reports.

(a) Reports. Each regulated entity shall file Regulatory Reports with FHFA in accordance with the forms, instructions, and schedules issued by FHFA from time to time. If no regularly scheduled reporting dates are established, Regulatory Reports shall be filed as requested by FHFA.

(b) Definition. For purposes of this section, the term Regulatory Report means any report to FHFA of information or raw or summary data needed to evaluate the safe and sound condition or operations of a regulated entity, or to determine compliance with any:

(1) Provision in the Bank Act, Safety and Soundness Act, or other law, order, rule, or regulation;

(2) Condition imposed in writing by FHFA in connection with the granting of any application or other request by a regulated entity; or

(3) Written agreement entered into between FHFA and a regulated entity.

§ 1239.14 Strategic business plan.

(a) Adoption of strategic business plan. Each board of directors shall adopt and have in effect at all times a strategic business plan for the regulated entity that describes, at a minimum, how the significant business activities of the regulated entity will achieve its mission and public purposes consistent with its authorizing statute, the Safety and Soundness Act, and, in the case of a Bank, part 1265 of this chapter. Specifically, each regulated entity's strategic business plan shall at a minimum:

(1)(i) In the case of a Bank, articulate measurable goals and objectives for each significant business activity and for all authorized new business activities, which must include plans for maximizing activities that further the Bank's housing finance and community lending mission, consistent with part 1265 of this chapter;

(ii) In the case of an Enterprise, articulate measurable goals and objectives for each significant existing activity and for significant authorized new activities;

(2) Discuss how the regulated entity will address credit needs and market opportunities identified through ongoing market research and stakeholder consultations;

(3) Describe any significant activities in which the regulated entity is planning to be engaged, including any significant changes to business strategy or approach that the regulated entity is planning to undertake, and discuss how such activities would further the regulated entity's mission and public purposes;

(4)(i) In the case of a Bank, be supported by appropriate and timely research and analysis of relevant market developments and member and housing associate demand for Bank products and services;

(ii) In the case of an Enterprise, be supported by appropriate and timely research and analysis of relevant market developments; and

(5) Identify current and emerging risks associated with the regulated entity's significant existing activities or new activities, and discuss how the regulated entity plans to address such risks while furthering its public purposes and mission in a safe and sound manner.

(b) Review and monitoring. Each board of directors shall:

(1) Review the regulated entity's strategic business plan at least annually;

(2) Re-adopt the strategic business plan for the regulated entity at least every three years; and

(3) Establish management reporting requirements and monitor implementation of the strategic business plan and the goals and objectives contained therein.

[83 FR 52954, Oct. 19, 2018]

Subpart D Enterprise Specific Requirements
§ 1239.20 Board of directors of the Enterprises.

(a) Membership—(1) Limits on service of board members.—(i) General requirement. No board member of an Enterprise may serve on the board of directors for more than 10 years or past the age of 72, whichever comes first; provided, however, a board member may serve his or her full term if he or she has served less than 10 years or is 72 years on the date of his or her election or appointment to the board; and

(ii) Waiver. Upon written request of an Enterprise, the Director may waive, in his or her sole discretion and for good cause, the limits on the service of a board member under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.

(2) Independence of board members. A majority of seated members of the board of directors of an Enterprise shall be independent board members, as defined under rules set forth by the NYSE, as amended from time to time.

(3) Segregation of duties. The position of chairperson of the board of directors shall be filled by a person other than the chief executive officer, who shall also be a director of the Enterprise that is independent, as defined under the rules set forth by the NYSE, as amended from time to time.

(b) Meetings, quorum and proxies, information, and annual review—(1) Frequency of meetings. The board of directors of an Enterprise shall meet at least eight times a year and no less than once a calendar quarter to carry out its obligations and duties under applicable laws, rules, regulations, and guidelines.

(2) Non-management board member meetings. Non-management directors of an Enterprise shall meet at regularly scheduled executive sessions without management participation.

(3) Quorum of board of directors; proxies not permissible. For the transaction of business, a quorum of the board of directors of an Enterprise is at least a majority of the seated board of directors and a board member may not vote by proxy.

(4) Information. Management of an Enterprise shall provide a board member of the Enterprise with such adequate and appropriate information that a reasonable board member would find important to the fulfillment of his or her fiduciary duties and obligations.

(5) Annual review. At least annually, the board of directors of an Enterprise shall be informed of significant changes to the requirements of laws, rules, regulations, and guidelines that are applicable to its activities and duties.

§ 1239.21 Compensation of Enterprise board members.

Each Enterprise may pay its directors reasonable and appropriate compensation for the time required of them, and their necessary and reasonable expenses, in the performance of their duties.

Subpart E Bank Specific Requirements
§ 1239.30 Bank member products policy.

(a) Adoption and review of member products policy—(1) Adoption. Each Bank's board of directors shall have in effect at all times a policy that addresses the Bank's management of products offered by the Bank to members and housing associates, including but not limited to advances, standby letters of credit, and acquired member assets, consistent with the requirements of the Bank Act, paragraph (b) of this section, and all applicable FHFA regulations and policies.

(2) Review and compliance. Each Bank's board of directors shall:

(i) Review the Bank's member products policy annually;

(ii) Amend the member products policy as appropriate; and

(iii) Re-adopt the member products policy, including interim amendments, not less often than every three years.

(b) Member products policy requirements. In addition to meeting any other requirements set forth in this chapter, each Bank's member products policy shall:

(1) Address credit underwriting criteria to be applied in evaluating applications for advances, standby letters of credit, and renewals;

(2) Address appropriate levels of collateralization, valuation of collateral and discounts applied to collateral values for advances and standby letters of credit;

(3) Address advances-related fees to be charged by each Bank, including any schedules or formulas pertaining to such fees;

(4) Address standards and criteria for pricing member products, including differential pricing of advances pursuant to § 1266.5(b)(2) of this chapter, and criteria regarding the pricing of standby letters of credit, including any special pricing provisions for standby letters of credit that facilitate the financing of projects that are eligible for any of the Banks' CICA programs under part 1292 of this chapter;

(5) Provide that, for any draw made by a beneficiary under a standby letter of credit, the member will be charged a processing fee calculated in accordance with the requirements of § 1271.6(b) of this chapter;

(6) Address the maintenance of appropriate systems, procedures, and internal controls; and

(7) Address the maintenance of appropriate operational and personnel capacity.

§ 1239.31 [Reserved]
§ 1239.32 Audit committee.

(a) Establishment. The audit committee of each Bank established as required by § 1239.5(b) shall be consistent with the requirements set forth in this section.

(b) Composition. (1) The audit committee shall comprise five or more persons drawn from the Bank's board of directors, each of whom shall meet the criteria of independence set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.

(2) The audit committee shall include, to the extent practicable, a balance of representatives of:

(i) Community financial institutions and other members; and

(ii) Independent directors and member directors of the Bank, both as defined in the Bank Act.

(3) The terms of audit committee members shall be appropriately staggered so as to provide for continuity of service.

(4) At least one member of the audit committee shall have extensive accounting or related financial management experience.

(c) Independence. Any member of the Bank's board of directors shall be considered to be sufficiently independent to serve as a member of the audit committee if that director does not have a disqualifying relationship with the Bank or its management that would interfere with the exercise of that director's independent judgment. Such disqualifying relationships include, but are not limited to:

(1) Being employed by the Bank in the current year or any of the past five years;

(2) Accepting any compensation from the Bank other than compensation for service as a board director;

(3) Serving or having served in any of the past five years as a consultant, advisor, promoter, underwriter, or legal counsel of or to the Bank; or

(4) Being an immediate family member of an individual who is, or has been in any of the past five years, employed by the Bank as an executive officer.

(d) Charter. (1) The audit committee of each Bank shall review and assess the adequacy of the Bank's audit committee charter on an annual basis, and shall recommend to the board of directors any amendments that it believes to be appropriate;

(2) The board of directors of each Bank shall review and assess the adequacy of the audit committee charter on an annual basis, shall amend the audit committee charter whenever it deems it appropriate to do so, and shall reapprove the audit committee charter not less often than every three years; and

(3) Each Bank's audit committee charter shall:

(i) Provide that the audit committee has the responsibility to select, evaluate and, where appropriate, replace the internal auditor and that the internal auditor may be removed only with the approval of the audit committee;

(ii) Provide that the internal auditor shall report directly to the audit committee on substantive matters and that the internal auditor is ultimately accountable to the audit committee and board of directors;

(iii) Provide that the audit committee shall be directly responsible for the appointment, compensation, retention, and oversight of the work of the external auditor;

(iv) Provide that the external auditor shall report directly to the audit committee;

(v) Provide that both the internal auditor and the external auditor shall have unrestricted access to the audit committee without the need for any prior management knowledge or approval; and

(vi) Provide that the Bank shall make available appropriate funding, as determined by the audit committee, for payment of compensation to the external auditor, to any independent advisors or counsel engaged by the audit committee, and ordinary administrative expenses that are necessary or appropriate for the audit committee to carry out its duties.

(e) Duties. Each Bank's audit committee shall have the duty to:

(1) Direct senior management to maintain the reliability and integrity of the accounting policies and financial reporting and disclosure practices of the Bank;

(2) Review the basis for the Bank's financial statements and the external auditor's opinion rendered with respect to such financial statements (including the nature and extent of any significant changes in accounting principles or the application thereof) and ensure that policies are in place that are reasonably designed to achieve disclosure and transparency regarding the Bank's true financial performance and governance practices;

(3) Oversee the internal audit function by:

(i) Reviewing the scope of audit services required, significant accounting policies, significant risks and exposures, audit activities, and audit findings;

(ii) Assessing the performance and determining the compensation of the internal auditor; and

(iii) Reviewing and approving the internal auditor's work plan.

(4) Oversee the external audit function by:

(i) Approving the external auditor's annual engagement letter; and

(ii) Reviewing the performance of the external auditor.

(5) Provide an independent, direct channel of communication between the Bank's board of directors and the internal and external auditors;

(6) Conduct or authorize investigations into any matters within the audit committee's scope of responsibilities;

(7) Ensure that senior management has established and is maintaining an adequate internal control system within the Bank by:

(i) Reviewing the Bank's internal control system and the resolution of identified material weaknesses and significant deficiencies in the internal control system, including the prevention or detection of management override or compromise of the internal control system; and

(ii) Reviewing the programs and policies of the Bank designed to ensure compliance with applicable laws, regulations and policies, and monitoring the results of these compliance efforts;

(8) Review the policies established by senior management to assess and monitor implementation of the Bank's strategic business plan and the operating goals and objectives contained therein;

(9) Report periodically its findings to the Bank's board of directors; and

(10) Establish procedures for the receipt, retention, and treatment of complaints received by the Bank regarding accounting, internal accounting controls, or auditing matters, and for the confidential, anonymous submission by employees of the Bank of concerns regarding questionable accounting or auditing matters.

(f) Meetings. The audit committee shall prepare written minutes of each audit committee meeting.

[80 FR 72336, Nov. 19, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016]

§ 1239.33 Dividends.

A Bank's board of directors may not declare or pay a dividend based on projected or anticipated earnings and may not declare or pay a dividend if the par value of the Bank's stock is impaired or is projected to become impaired after paying such dividend.