§ 250.180 Reports of changes in control of management.
(a) Under a statute enacted September 12, 1964 (Pub. L. 88-593; 78 Stat. 940) all insured banks are required to report promptly (1) changes in the outstanding voting stock of the bank which will result in control or in a change in control of the bank and (2) any instances where the bank makes a loan or loans, secured, or to be secured, by 25 percent or more of the outstanding voting stock of an insured bank.
(b) Reports concerning changes in control of a State member bank are to be made by the president or other chief executive officer of the bank, and shall be submitted to the Federal Reserve Bank of its district.
(c) Reports concerning loans by an insured bank on the stock of a State member bank are to be made by the president or other chief executive officer of the lending bank, and shall be submitted to the Federal Reserve Bank of the State member bank on the stock of which the loan was made.
(d) Paragraphs 3 and 4 of this legislation specify the information required in the reports which, in cases involving State member banks, should be addressed to the Vice President in Charge of Examinations of the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank.
(12 U.S.C. 1817)
§ 250.181 Reports of change in control of bank management incident to a merger.
(a) A State member bank has inquired whether Pub. L. 88-593 (78 Stat. 940) requires reports of change in control of bank management in situations where the change occurs as an incident in a merger.
(b) Under the Bank Merger Act of 1960 (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), no bank with Federal deposit insurance may merge or consolidate with, or acquire the assets of, or assume the liability to pay deposits in, any other insured bank without prior approval of the appropriate Federal bank supervisory agency. Where the bank resulting from any such transaction is a State member bank, the Board of Governors is the agency that must pass on the transaction. In the course of consideration of such an application, the Board would, of necessity, acquire knowledge of any change in control of management that might result. Information concerning any such change in control of management is supplied with each merger application and, in the circumstances, it is the view of the Board that the receipt of such information in connection with a merger application constitutes compliance with Pub. L. 88-593. However, once a merger has been approved and completely effectuated, the resulting bank would thereafter be subject to the reporting requirements of Pub. L. 88-593.
(12 U.S.C. 1817)
§ 250.182 Terms defining competitive effects of proposed mergers.
Under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), a Federal Banking agency receiving a merger application must request the views of the other two banking agencies and the Department of Justice on the competitive factors involved. Standard descriptive terms are used by the Board, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the Comptroller of the Currency. The terms and their definitions are as follows:
(a) The term monopoly means that the proposed transaction must be disapproved in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(5)(A).
(b) The term substantially adverse means that the proposed transaction would have anticompetitive effects which preclude approval unless the anticompetitive effects are clearly outweighed in the public interest by the probable effect of the transaction in meeting the convenience and needs of the community to be served as specified in 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(5)(B).
(c) The term adverse means that proposed transaction would have anticompetitive effects which would be material to the decision but which would not preclude approval.
(d) The term no significant effect means that the anticompetitive effects of the proposed transaction, if any, would not be material to the decision.
(12 U.S.C. 1828(c))
[45 FR 45257, July 3, 1980]
§ 250.200 Investment in bank premises by holding company banks.
(a) The Board of Governors has been asked whether, in determining under section 24A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371d) how much may be invested in bank premises without prior Board approval, a State member bank, which is owned by a registered bank holding company, is required to include indebtedness of a corporation, wholly owned by the holding company, that is engaged in holding premises of banks in the holding company system.
(b) Section 24A provides, in part, as follows:
Hereafter * * * no State member bank, without the approval of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, shall (1) invest in bank premises, or in the stock, bonds, debentures, or other such obligations of any corporation holding the premises of such bank or (2) make loans to or upon the security of the stock of any such corporation, if the aggregate of all such investments and loans, together with the amount of any indebtedness incurred by any such corporation which is an affiliate of the bank, as defined in section 2 of the Banking Act of 1933, as amended [12 U.S.C. 221a], will exceed the amount of the capital stock of such banks.
(c) A corporation that is owned by a holding company is an “affiliate of each of the holding company's majority-owned banks as that term is defined in said section 2. Therefore, under the explicit provisions of section 24A, each State member bank, any part of whose premises is owned by such an affiliate, must include the affiliate's total indebtedness in determining whether a proposed premises investment by the bank would cause the aggregate figure to exceed the amount of the bank's capital stock, so that the Board's prior approval would be required. Where the affiliate holds the premises of a number of the holding company's banks, the amount of the affiliate's indebtedness may be so large that Board approval is required for every proposed investment in bank premises by each majority-owned State member bank, to which the entire indebtedness of the affiliate is required to be attributed. The Board believes that, in these circumstances, individual approvals are not essential to effectuate the purpose of section 24A, which is to safeguard the soundness and liquidity of member banks, and that the protection sought by Congress can be achieved by a suitably circumscribed general approval.
(d) Accordingly the Board hereby grants general approval for any investment or loan (as described in section 24A) by any State member bank, the majority of the stock of which is owned by a registered bank holding company, if the proposed investment or loan will not cause either (1) all such investments and loans by the member bank (together with the indebtedness of any bank premises subsidiary thereof) to exceed 100 percent of the bank's capital stock, or (2) the aggregate of such investments and loans by all of the holding company's subsidiary banks (together with the indebtedness of any bank premises affiliates thereof) to exceed 100 percent of the aggregate capital stock of said banks.
(12 U.S.C. 221a, 371d)
§ 250.220 Whether member bank acting as trustee is prohibited by section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 from acquiring majority of shares of mutual fund.
(a) The Board recently considered whether section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 377) would prohibit a member bank, while acting as trustee of a tax exempt employee benefit trust or trusts, from, under the following circumstances, acquiring a majority of the shares of an open-end investment company (“Fund”) registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, or more than 50 percent of the number of Fund's shares voted at the preceding election of directors of the Fund.
(b) The bank has acted as trustee, since December 1963, pursuant to a trust agreement with a county medical society to administer its group retirement program, under which individual members of the society could participate in accordance with the provisions of the Self-Employed Individuals Tax Retirement Act of 1962 (commonly referred to as “H.R. 10”).
(c) Under the trust agreement as presently constituted, each employer, who is a participating member of the medical society, directs the bank to invest his contributions to the retirement plan in such proportions as he may elect in insurance or annuity contracts or in a diversified portfolio of securities and other property. The diversified portfolio held by the bank is invested and administered by the bank solely at the direction of a committee of the medical society.
(d) It has now been proposed that the trust agreement be amended to provide that all investments constituting the trust fund, apart from insurance and annuity contracts, will be made exclusively in shares of a single open-end investment company to be named in the trust agreement and that the assets constituting the diversified portfolio now held by the bank, as trustee, will be exchanged for the Fund's shares. The bank will, in addition to holding the shares of the Fund, allocate income and dividends to the accounts of the various participants in the retirement program, invest and reinvest income and dividends, and perform other ministerial functions.
(e) In addition, it is proposed to amend the trust agreement so that voting of the shares held by the bank as trustee will be controlled exclusively by the participants. Under the proposed amendment, the bank will sign all proxies prior to mailing them to the participants,
it being intended that the Participant(s) shall vote the proxies notwithstanding the fact that the Trustee is the owner of the shares * * *.
(f) The bank believes that amendments are now under consideration that will also require investment of the assets of these plans exclusively in the Fund's shares. Accordingly, the bank may eventually own the Fund's shares in several separate trust accounts and in an aggregate amount equal to a majority of the Fund's shares.
(g) Section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 provides in relevant part that
no member bank shall be affiliated in any manner described in section 2(b) hereof with any corporation * * * engaged principally in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution at wholesale or retail or through syndicate participation of stocks * * * or other securities: * * *.
(h) Section 2(b) defines the term affiliate to include
any corporation, business trust, association or other similar organization (1) Of which a member bank, directly or indirectly, owns or controls either a majority of the voting shares or more than 50 per centum of the number of shares voted for the election of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions at the preceding election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions; * * *.
(i) The Board has previously taken the position, in an interpretation involving the term affiliate under the Banking Act of 1933, that it would not require a member bank to obtain and publish a report of a corporation the majority of the stock of which is held by the member bank as executor or trustee, provided that the member bank holds such stock subject to control by a court or by a beneficiary or other principal and that the member bank may not lawfully exercise control of such stock independently of any order or direction of a court, beneficiary or other principal. 1933 Federal Reserve Bulletin 651. The rationale of that interpretation—which was reaffirmed by the Board in 1957—would appear to be equally applicable to the facts in the present case. In the circumstances, and on the basis of the Board's understanding that the bank will not vote any of Fund's shares or control in any manner the election of any of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions, the Board has concluded that the situation in question would not fall within the purpose or coverage of section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 and, therefore, would not involve a violation of the statute.
§ 250.221 Issuance and sale of short-term debt obligations by bank holding companies.
(a) The opinion of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has been requested recently with respect to the proposed sale of “thrift notes” by a bank holding company for the purpose of supplying capital to its wholly-owned nonbanking subsidiaries.
(b) The thrift notes would bear the name of the holding company, which in the case presented, was substantially similar to the name of its affiliated banks. It was proposed that they be issued in denominations of $50 to $100 and initially be of 12-month or less maturities. There would be no maximum amount of the issue. Interest rates would be variable according to money market conditions but would presumably be at rates somewhat above those permitted by Regulation Q ceilings. There would be no guarantee or indemnity of the notes by any of the banks in the holding company system and, if required to do so, the holding company would place on the face of the notes a negative representation that the purchase price was not a deposit, nor an indirect obligation of banks in the holding company system, nor covered by deposit insurance.
(c) The notes would be generally available for sale to members of the public, but only at offices of the holding company and its nonbanking subsidiaries. Although offices of the holding company may be in the same building or quarters as its banking offices, they would be physically separated from the banking offices. Sales would be made only by officers or employees of the holding company and its nonbanking subsidiaries. Initially, the notes would only be offered in the State in which the holding company was principally doing business, thereby complying with the exemption provided by section 3(a)(11) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77c) for “intra-state” offerings. If it was decided to offer the notes on an interstate basis, steps would be taken to register the notes under the Securities Act of 1933. Funds from the sale of the notes would be used only to supply the financial needs of the nonbanking subsidiaries of the holding company. These nonbank subsidiaries are, at present, a small loan company, a mortgage banking company and a factoring company. In no instance would the proceeds from the sale of the notes be used in the bank subsidiaries of the holding company nor to maintain the availability of funds in its bank subsidiaries.
(d) The sale of the thrift notes, in the specific manner proposed, is an activity described in section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 377), that is, “the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale or distribution * * * of * * * notes, or other securities”. Briefly stated, this statute prohibits a member bank to be affiliated with a company “engaged principally” in such activity. Since the continued issuance and sale of such securities would be necessary to permit maintenance of the holding company's activities without substantial contraction and would be an integral part of its operations, the Board concluded that the issuance and sale of such notes would constitute a principal activity of a holding company within the spirit and purpose of the statute. (For prior Board decisions in this connection, see 1934 Federal Reserve Bulletin 485, 12 CFR 218.104, 12 CFR 218.105 and 12 CFR 218.101.)
(e) In reaching this conclusion, the Board distinguished the proposed activity from the sale of short-term notes commonly known as commercial paper, which is a recognized form of financing for bank holding companies. For purposes of this interpretation, commercial paper may be defined as notes, with maturities not exceeding nine months, the proceeds of which are to be used for current transactions, which are usually sold to sophisticated institutional investors, rather than to members of the general public, in minimum denominations of $10,000 (although sometimes they may be sold in minimum denominations of $5,000). Commercial paper is exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933 by reason of the exemption provided by section 3(a)(3) thereof (15 U.S.C. 77c). That exemption is inapplicable where the securities are sold to the general public (17 CFR 231.4412). The reasons for such exemption, taken together with the abuses that gave rise to the passage of the Banking Act of 1933 (“the Glass-Steagall Act”), have led the Board to conclude that the issuance of commercial paper by a bank holding company is not an activity intended to be included within the scope of section 20.
(Interprets and applies 12 U.S.C. 377 and 1843)
[Reg. Y, 38 FR 35231, Dec. 26, 1973]
§ 250.260 Miscellaneous interpretations; gold coin and bullion.
The Board has received numerous inquiries from member banks relating to the repeal of the ban on ownership of gold by United States citizens. Listed below are questions and answers which affect member banks and relate to the responsibilities of the Federal Reserve System.
(a) May gold in the form of coins or bullion be counted as vault cash in order to satisfy reserve requirements? No. Section 19(c) of the Federal Reserve Act requires that reserve balances be satisfied either by a balance maintained at the Federal Reserve Bank or by vault cash, consisting of United States currency and coin. Gold in bullion form is not United States currency. Since the bullion value of United States gold coins far exceeds their face value, member banks would not in practice distribute them over the counter at face value to satisfy customer demands.
(b) Will the Federal Reserve Banks perform services for member banks with respect to gold, such as safekeeping or assaying? No.
(c) Will a Federal Reserve Bank accept gold as collateral for an advance to a member bank under section 10(b) of the Federal Reserve Act? No.
[39 FR 45254, Dec. 31, 1974]
2 Interpretations of Section 32 of the Glass-Steagall Act
§ 250.400 Service of open-end investment company.
An open-end investment company is defined in section 5(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 as a company “which is offering for sale or has outstanding any redeemable security of which it is the issuer.” Section 2(a)(31) of said act provides that a redeemable security means “any security, other than short-term paper, under the terms of which the holder, upon its presentation to the issuer or to a person designated by the issuer, is entitled (whether absolutely or only out of surplus) to receive approximately his proportionate share of the issuer's current net assets, or the cash equivalent thereof.”
It is customary for such companies to have but one class of securities, namely, capital stock, and it is apparent that the more or less continued process of redemption of the stock issued by such a company would restrict and contract its activities if it did not continue to issue its stock. Thus, the issuance and sale of its stock is essential to the maintenance of the company's size and to the continuance of operations without substantial contraction, and therefore the issue and sale of its stock constitutes one of the primary activities of such a company.
Accordingly, it is the opinion of the Board that if such a company is issuing or offering its redeemable stock for sale, it is “primarily engaged in the issue * * * public sale, or distribution, * * * of securities” and that section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933, as amended, prohibits an officer, director or employee of any such company from serving at the same time as an officer, director or employee of any member bank. It is the Board's view that this is true even though the shares are sold to the public through independent organizations with the result that the investment company does not derive any direct profit from the sales.
If, however, the company has ceased to issue or offer any of its stock for sale, the company would not be engaged in the issue or distribution of its stock, and, therefore, the prohibition contained in section 32 would be inapplicable unless the company were primarily engaged in the underwriting, public sale or distribution of securities other than its own stock.
[16 FR 4963, May 26, 1951. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.401 Director serving member bank and closed-end investment company being organized.
(a) The Board has previously expressed the opinion (§ 218.101) that section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) is applicable to a director of a member bank serving as a director of an open-end investment company, because the more or less continued process of redemption of the stock issued by such company makes the issuance and sale of its stock essential to the maintenance of the company's size and to the continuance of operations, with the result that the issuance and sale of its stock constitutes one of the primary activities of such a company. The Board also stated that if the company had ceased to issue or offer any of its stock for sale, the company would not be engaged in the issuance or distribution of its stock and therefore the prohibitions of section 32 would not be applicable. Subsequently, the Board expressed the opinion that section 32 would not be applicable in the case of a closed-end investment company.
(b) The Board has recently stated that it believed that a closed-end company which was in process of organization and was actively engaged in issuing and selling its shares was in the same position relative to section 32 as an open-end company, and that the section would be applicable while this activity continued.
[25 FR 3464, Apr. 21, 1960. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.402 Service as officer, director, or employee of licensee corporation under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958.
(a) The Board of Governors has been requested to express an opinion whether § 218.1 would prohibit an officer, director, or employee of a member bank from serving at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of a Licensee corporation under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 et seq.). It is understood that a Licensee would be authorized to engage only in the activities set forth in the statute, namely, to provide capital and long-term loan funds to small business concerns.
(b) In the opinion of the Board, a corporation engaged exclusively in the enumerated activities would not be “primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities.” Accordingly, the prohibition of § 218.1 would not apply to serving as an officer, director, or employee of either a small business investment company organized under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, or an investment company chartered under the laws of a State solely for the purpose of operating under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958.
[25 FR 4427, May 19, 1960. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.403 Service of member bank and real estate investment company.
(a) The Board recently considered two inquiries regarding the question whether proposed real estate investment companies would be subject to the provisions of sections 20 and 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 377 and 78). These sections relate to affiliations between member banks and companies engaged principally in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale or distribution of stocks, bonds, or similar securities, and interlocking directorates between member banks and companies primarily so engaged. In both instances the companies, after their organization, would engage only in the business of financing real estate development or investing in real estate interests, and not in the type of business described in the statute. However, each of the companies, in the process of its organization, would issue its own stock. In one instance, it appeared that the stock would be issued over a period of from 30 to 60 days; in the other instance it was stated that the stock would be sold by a firm of underwriters and that distribution was expected to be completed in not more than a few days.
(b) On the basis of the facts stated, the Board concluded that the companies involved would not be subject to sections 20 and 32 of the Banking Act of 1933, since they would not be principally or primarily engaged in the business of issuing or distributing securities but would only be issuing their own stock for a period ordinarily required for corporate organization. The Board stated, however, that if either of the companies should subsequently issue additional shares frequently and in substantial amounts relative to the size of the company's capital structure, it would be necessary for the Board to reconsider the matter.
(c) Apart from the legal question, the Board noted that an arrangement of the kind proposed could involve some dangers to an affiliated bank because the relationship might tend to impair the independent judgment that should be exercised by the bank in appraising its credits and might cause the company to be so identified in the minds of the public with the bank that any financial reverses suffered by the company might affect the confidence of the public in the bank.
(d) Because of the foregoing conclusion that the companies would not be subject to sections 20 and 32, it seems advisable to clarify § 218.102, in which the Board took the position that a closed-end investment company which was in process of organization and was actively engaged in issuing and selling its shares was subject to section 32 as long as this activity continued. That interpretation should be regarded as applicable only where the circumstances are such as to indicate that the issuance of the company's stock is a primary or principal activity of the company. For example, such circumstances might exist where the initial stock of a company is actively issued over a period of time longer than that ordinarily required for corporate organization, or where, subsequent to organization, the company issues its own stock frequently and in substantial amounts relative to the total amount of shares outstanding.
[26 FR 868, Jan. 28, 1961. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.404 Serving as director of member bank and corporation selling own stock.
(a) The Board recently considered the question whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) would be applicable to the service of a director of a corporation which planned to acquire or organize, as proceeds from the sale of stock became available, subsidiaries to operate in a wide variety of fields, including manufacturing, foreign trade, leasing of heavy equipment, and real estate development. The corporation had a paid-in capital of about $60,000 and planned to sell additional shares at a price totaling $10 million, with the proviso that if less than $3 million worth were sold by March 1962, the funds subscribed would be refunded. It thus appeared to be contemplated that the sale of stock would take at least a year, and there appeared to be no reason for believing that, if the venture proved successful, additional shares would not be offered so that the corporation could continue to expand.
(b) The Board concluded that section 32 would be applicable, stating that although § 218.102, as clarified by § 218.104, related to closed-end investment companies, the rationale of that interpretation is applicable to corporations generally.
[26 FR 2456, Mar. 23, 1961. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.405 No exception granted a special or limited partner.
(a) The Board has been asked on several occasions whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) is applicable to a director, officer, or employee of a member bank who is a special or limited partner in a firm primarily engaged in the business described in that section.
(b) Since the Board cannot issue an individual permit, it can exempt a limited or special partner only by amending part 218 (Regulation R). After the statute was amended in 1935 so as to make it applicable to a partner, the Board carefully considered the desirability of making such an exception. On several subsequent occasions it has reconsidered the question. In each instance the Board has decided that in view of a limited partner's interest in the underwriting and distributing business, it should not make the exception.
[27 FR 7954, Aug. 10, 1962. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.406 Serving member bank and investment advisor with mutual fund affiliation.
(a) The opinion of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has been requested with respect to service as vice president of a corporation engaged in supplying investment advice and management services to mutual funds and others (“Manager”) and as director of a member bank.
(b) Section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78), forbids any officer, director, or employee of any corporation “primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities * * *” to serve at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of a member bank.
(c) Manager has for several years served a number of different open-end or mutual funds, as well as individuals, institutions, and other clients, as an investment advisor and manager. However, it appears that Manager has a close relationship with two of the mutual funds which it serves. A wholly owned subsidiary of Manager (“Distributors”), serves as distributor for the two mutual funds and has no other function. In addition, the chairman and treasurer of Manager, as well as the president, assistant treasurer, and a director of Manager, are officers and directors of Distributors and trustees of both funds. It appears also that a director of Manager is president and director of Distributors, while the clerk of Manager is also clerk of Distributors. Manager, Distributors and both funds are listed at the same address in the local telephone directory.
(d) While the greater part of the total annual income of Manager during the past five years has derived from “individuals, institutions, and other clients”, it appears that a substantial portion has been attributable to the involvement with the two funds in question. During each of the last four years, that portion has exceeded a third of the total income of Manager, and in 1962 it reached nearly 40 percent.
(e) The Board has consistently held that an open-end or mutual fund is engaged in the activities described in section 32, so long as it is issuing its securities for sale, since it is apparent that the more or less continued process of redemption of the stock issued by such a company would restrict and contract its activities if it did not continue to issue the stock. Clearly, a corporation that is engaged in underwriting or selling open-end shares, is so engaged.
(f) In connection with incorporated manager-advisors to open-end or mutual funds, the Board has expressed the view in a number of cases that where the corporation served a number of different clients, and the corporate structure was not interlocked with that of mutual fund and underwriter in such a way that it could be regarded as being controlled by or substantially one with them, it should not be held to be “primarily engaged” in section 32 activities. On the other hand, where a manager-advisor was created for the sole purpose of serving a particular fund, and its activities were limited to that function, the Board has regarded the group as a single entity for purposes of section 32.
(g) In the present case, the selling organization is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the advisor-manager, hence subject to the parent's control. Stock of the subsidiary will be voted according to decisions by the parent's board of directors, and presumably will be voted for a board of directors of the subsidiary which is responsive to policy lines laid down by the parent. Financial interests of the parent are obviously best served by an aggressive selling policy, and, in fact, both the share and the absolute amount of the parent's income provided by the two funds have shown a steady increase over recent years. The fact that dividends from Distributors have represented a relatively small proportion of the income of Manager, and that there were, indeed, no dividends in 1961 or 1962, does not support a contrary argument, in view of the steady increase in total income of Manager from the funds and Distributors taken as a whole.
(h) In view of all these facts, the Board has concluded that the separate corporate entities of Manager and Distributors should be disregarded and Distributors viewed as essentially a selling arm of Manager. As a result of this conclusion, section 32 would forbid interlocking service as an officer of Manager and a director of a member bank.
[28 FR 13437, Dec. 12, 1963. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.407 Interlocking relationship involving securities affiliate of brokerage firm.
(a) The Board of Governors was asked recently whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (“section 32”), 12 U.S.C. 78, prohibits the interlocking service of X as a director of a member bank of the Federal Reserve System and as a partner in a New York City brokerage firm (“Partnership”) having a corporation affiliate (“Corporation”) engaged in business of the kinds described in section 32 (“section 32 business”).
(b) Section 32, subject to an exception not applicable here, provides that
No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *.
(c) From the information submitted it appears that Partnership, a member firm of the New York Stock Exchange, is the successor of two prior partnerships, in one of which X had been a partner. This prior partnership had been found not to be “primarily engaged” in section 32 business. The other prior partnership, however, had been so engaged. By arrangement between the two prior firms, Corporation was formed chiefly for the purpose of carrying on the section 32 business of the prior firm that had been “primarily engaged” in that business, which business was transferred to Corporation. The two prior firms were then merged and the stock of Corporation was acquired by all the partners of Partnership, other than X, in proportion to the respective partnership interests of the stockholding partners. The information submitted indicated also that two of the three directors and “some” of the principal officers of Corporation are partners in Partnership, although X is not a director or officer of Corporation.
(d) It is understood that the practice of forming corporate affiliates of brokerage firms, in order that the affiliate may carry on the securities business (such as section 32 business) with limited liability and other advantages, has become rather widespread in recent years. Accordingly, other cases may arise where a partner in such a firm may desire to serve at the same time as director of a member bank.
(e) On the basis of the information presented the Board concluded that X in his capacity as an “individual”, was not engaged in section 32 business. However, as that information showed Corporation to be “primarily engaged” in section 32 business, the Board stated that a finding that Partnership and Corporation were one entity for the purposes of the statute would mean that X would be forbidden to serve both the member bank and Partnership, if the one entity were so engaged.
(f) Paragraph .15 of Rule 321 of the New York Stock Exchange governing the formation and conduct of affiliated companies of member organizations states that:
Since Rule 314 provides that each member and allied member in a member organization must have a fixed interest in its entire business, it follows that the fixed interest of each member and allied member must extend to the member organization's corporate affiliate. When any of the corporate affiliate's participating stock is owned by the members and allied members in the member organization, such holdings must at all times be distributed among such members and allied members in approximately the same proportions as their respective interests in the profits of the member organization. When a member or allied member's interest in the member organization is changed, a corresponding change must be made in his participating interest in the affiliate.
(g) Although it was understood that X had received special permission from the Exchange not to own any of the stock of Corporation, it appeared to the Board that Rule 321.15 would apply to the remaining partners. Moreover, other paragraphs of the rule forbid transfers of the stock, except under certain circumstances to limited classes of persons, such as employees of the organization or estates of decedent partners, without permission of the Exchange.
(h) The information supplied to the Board clearly indicated that Corporation was formed in order to provide Partnership with an “underwriting arm”. Under Rule 321 of the Exchange, the partners (other than X) are required to own stock in Corporation because of their partnership interest, would be required to surrender that stock on leaving the partnership, and incoming partners would be required to acquire such stock. Furthermore, Rule 321 speaks of a corporate affiliate, such as Corporation, as a part of the “entire business” of a member organization.
(i) On the basis of the foregoing, the Board concluded that Partnership and Corporation must be regarded as a single entity or enterprise for purposes of section 32.
(j) The remaining question was whether the enterprise, as a whole, should be regarded as “primarily engaged” in section 32 business. The Information presented stated that the total dollar volume of section 32 business of Corporation during the first eleven months of its operation was $89 million. The gross income from section 32 business was less than half a million, and represented about 7.9 percent of the income of Partnership. The Board was advised that the relatively low amount of income from section 32 business of Corporation as due to special costs, and to the condition of the market for municipal and State bonds during the past year, a field in which Corporation specializes. Corporation is listed in a standard directory of securities dealers, and holds itself out as having separate departments to deal with the principal underwriting areas in which it functions.
(k) In view of the above information, the Board concluded that the enterprise consisting of Partnership and Corporation was “primarily engaged” in section 32 business. Accordingly, the Board stated that the partners in Partnership, including X, were forbidden by that section and by this part 218 (Reg. R), issued pursuant to the statute, to serve as officers, directors, or employees of any member banks.
[29 FR 5315, Apr. 18, 1964. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.408 Short-term negotiable notes of banks not securities under section 32, Banking Act of 1933.
(a) The Board of Governors has been asked whether short-term unsecured negotiable notes of the kinds issued by some of the large banks in this country as a means of obtaining funds are “other similar securities” within the meaning of section 32, Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) and this part.
(b) Section 32 forbids certain interlocking relationships between banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System and individuals or organizations “primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities * * *.” Therefore, if such notes are securities similar to stocks or bonds, any dealing therein would be an activity covered in section 32 and would have to be taken into consideration in determining whether the individual or organization involved was “primarily engaged” in such activities.
(c) The Board has concluded that such short-term notes of the kind described above are not “other similar securities” within the meaning of section 32 and this part.
[29 FR 16065, Dec. 2, 1964. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.409 Investment for own account affects applicability of section 32.
(a) The Board of Governors has been presented with the question whether a certain firm is primarily engaged in the activities described in section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933. If the firm is so engaged, then the prohibitions of section 32 forbids a limited partner to serve as employee of a member bank.
(b) The firm describes the bulk of its business, producing roughly 60 percent of its income, as “investing for its own account.” However, it has a seat on the local stock exchange, and acts as specialist and odd-lot dealer on the floor of the exchange, an activity responsible for some 30 percent of its volume and profits. The firm's “off-post trading,” apart from the investment account, gives rise to about 5 percent of its total volume and 10 percent of its profits. Gross volume has risen from $4 to $10 million over the past 3 years, but underwriting has accounted for no more than one-half of 1 percent of that amount.
(c) Section 32 provides that
No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner, or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale, or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve the same time (sic) as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *
(d) In interpreting this language, the Board has consistently held that underwriting, acting as a dealer, or generally speaking, selling, or distributing securities as a principal, is covered by the section, while acting as broker or agent is not.
(e) In one type of situation, however, although a firm was engaged in selling securities as principal, on its own behalf, the Board held that section 32 did not apply. In these cases, the firm alleged that it bought and sold securities purely for investment purposes. Typically, those cases involved personal holding companies or small family investment companies. Securities had been purchased only for members of a restricted family group, and had been held for relatively long periods of time.
(f) The question now before the Board is whether a similar exception can apply in the case of the investment account of a professional dealer. In order to answer this question, it is necessary to analyze, in the light of applicable principles under the statute, the three main types of activity in which the firm has been engaged, (1) acting as specialist and odd-lot dealer, (2) off-post trading as an ordinary dealer, and (3) investing for its own account.
(g) On several occasions, the Board has held that, to the extent the trading of a specialist or odd-lot dealer is limited to that required for him to perform his function on the floor of the exchange, he is acting essentially in an agency capacity. In a letter of September 13, 1934, the Board held that the business of a specialist was not of the kind described in the (unamended) section on the understanding that
* * * in acting as specialists on the New York Curb Exchange, it is necessary for the firm to buy and sell odd lots and * * * in order to protect its position after such transactions have been made, the firm sells or buys shares in lots of 100 or multiples thereof in order to reduce its position in the stock in question to the smallest amount possible by this method. It appears therefore that, in connection with these transactions, the firm is neither trading in the stock in question or taking a position in it except to the extent made necessary by the fact that it deals in odd lots and cannot complete the transactions by purchases and sales on the floor of the exchange except to the nearest 100 share amount.
(h) While subsequent amendments to section 32 to some extent changed the definition of the kinds of securities business that would be covered by the section, the amendments were designed so far as is relevant to the present question, to embody existing interpretations of the Board. Accordingly, to the extent that the firm's business is described by the above letter of the Board, it should not be considered to be of a kind described in section 32.
(i) Turning to the firm's off-post trading, the Board is inclined to agree with the view that this is sufficient to make the case a borderline one under the statute. In the circumstances, the Board might prefer to postpone making a determination until figures for 1965 could be reviewed, particularly in the light of the recent increase in total volume, if it were not for the third category, the firm's own investment account.
(j) While this question has not been squarely presented to it in the past, the Board is of the opinion that when a firm is doing any significant amount of business as a dealer or underwriter, then investments for the firm's own account should be taken into consideration in determining whether the firm is “primarily engaged” in the activities described in section 32. The division into dealing for one's own account, and dealing with customers, is a highly subjective one, and although a particular firm or individual may be quite scrupulous in separating the two, the opportunity necessarily exists for the kind of abuse at which the statute is directed. The Act is designed to prevent situations from arising in which a bank director, officer, or employee could influence the bank or its customers to invest in securities in which his firm has an interest, regardless of whether he, as an individual, is likely to do so. In the present case, when these activities are added to the firm's “off-post trading”, the firm clearly falls within the statutory definition.
(k) For the reasons just discussed, the Board concludes that the firm must be considered to be primarily engaged in activities described in section 32, and that the prohibitions of the section forbid a limited partner in that firm to serve as employee of a member bank.
(12 U.S.C. 248(i))
[30 FR 7743, June 16, 1965. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.410 Interlocking relationships between bank and its commingled investment account.
(a) The Board of Governors was asked recently whether the establishment of a proposed “Commingled Investment Account” (“Account”) by a national bank would involve a violation of section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 in view of the interlocking relationships that would exist between the bank and Account.
(b) From the information submitted, it was understood that Account would comprise a commingled fund, to be operated under the effective control of the bank, for the collective investment of sums of money that might otherwise be handled individually by the bank as managing agent. It was understood further that the Comptroller of the Currency had taken the position that Account would be an eligible operation for a national bank under his Regulation 9, “Fiduciary Powers of National Banks and Collective Investment Funds” (part 9 of this title). The bank had advised the Board that the Securities and Exchange Commission was of the view that Account would be a “registered investment company” within the meaning of the Investment Company Act of 1940, and that participating interests in Account would be “securities” subject to the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933.
(c) The information submitted showed also that the minimum individual participation that would be permitted in Account would be $10,000, while the maximum acceptable individual investment would be half a million dollars; that there would be no “load” or payment by customers for the privilege of investing in Account; and that:
The availability of the Commingled Account would not be given publicity by the Bank except in connection with the promotion of its fiduciary services in general and the Bank would not advertise or publicize the Commingled Account as such. Participations in the Commingled Account are to be made available only on the premises of the Bank (including its branches), or to persons who are already customers of the Bank in other connections, or in response to unsolicited requests.
(d) Such information indicated further that participations would be received by the bank as agent, under a broad authorization signed by the customer, substantially equivalent to the power of attorney under which customers currently deposit their funds for individual investment, and that the participations would not be received “in trust.”
(e) The Board understood that Account would be required to comply with certain requirements of the Federal securities laws not applicable to an ordinary common trust fund operated by a bank. In particular, supervision of Account would be in the hands of a committee to be initially appointed by the bank, but subsequently elected by participants having a majority of the units of participation in Account. At least one member of the committee would be entirely independent of the bank, but the remaining members would be officers in the trust department of the bank.
(f) The committee would make a management agreement with the bank under which the bank would be responsible for managing Account's investments, have custody of its assets, and maintain its books and records. The management agreement would be renewed annually if approved by the committee, including a “majority” of the independent members, or by a vote of participants having a majority of the units of participation. The agreement would be terminable on 60 days' notice by the committee, by such a majority of the participants, or by the bank, and would terminate automatically if assigned by the bank.
(g) It was understood also that the bank would receive as annual compensation for its services one-half of one percent of Account's average net assets. Account would also pay for its own independent professional services, including legal, auditing, and accounting services, as well as the cost of maintaining its registration and qualification under the Federal securities laws.
(h) Initially, the assets of Account would be divided into units of participation of an arbitrary value, and each customer would be credited with a number of units proportionate to his investment. Subsequently, the assets of Account would be valued at regular intervals, and divided by the number of units outstanding. New investors would receive units at their current value, determined in this way, according to the amount invested. Each customer would receive a receipt evidencing the number of units to which he was entitled. The receipts themselves would be nontransferable, but it would be possible for a customer to arrange with Account for the transfer of his units to someone else. A customer could terminate his participation at any time and withdraw the current value of his units.
(i) Section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 provides in relevant part that:
No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve [at] the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *.
(j) The Board concluded, based on its understanding of the proposal and on the general principles that have been developed in respect to the application of section 32, that the bank and Account would constitute a single entity for the purposes of section 32, at least so long as the operation of Account conformed to the representations made by the bank and outlined herein. Accordingly, the Board said that section 32 would not forbid officers of the bank to serve on Account's committee, since Account would be regarded as nothing more than an arm or department of the bank.
(k) In conclusion, the Board called attention to section 21 of the Banking Act of 1933 which, briefly, forbids a securities firm or organization to engage in the business of receiving deposits, subject to certain exceptions. However, since section 21 is a criminal statute, the Board has followed the policy of not expressing views as to its meaning. (1934 Federal Reserve Bulletin 41, 543.) The Board, therefore, expressed no position with respect to whether the section might be held Applicable to the establishment and operation of the proposed “Commingled Investment Account.”
(12 U.S.C. 248(i))
[30 FR 12836, Oct. 8, 1965. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.411 Interlocking relationships between member bank and variable annuity insurance company.
(a) The Board has recently been asked to consider whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) and this part prohibit interlocking service between member banks and (1) the board of managers of an accumulation fund, registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80), that sells variable annuities and (2) the board of directors of the insurance company, of which the accumulation fund is a “separate account,” but as to which the insurance company is the sponsor, investment advisor, underwriter, and distributor. Briefly, a variable annuity is one providing for annuity payment varying in accordance with the changing values of a portfolio of securities.
(b) Section 32 provides in relevant part that:
No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve [at] the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *.
(c) For many years, the Board's position has been that an open-end investment company (or mutual fund) is “primarily engaged in the issue * * * public sale, or distribution * * * of securities” since the issuance and sale of its stock is essential to the maintenance of the company's size and to the continuance of its operations without substantial contraction, and that section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 prohibits an officer, director, or employee of any such company from serving at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank. (1951 Federal Reserve Bulletin 645; § 218.101.)
(d) For reasons similar to those stated by the U.S. Supreme Court in Securities and Exchange Commission v. Variable Annuity Life Insurance Company of America, 359 U.S. 65 (1959), the Board concluded that there is no meaningful basis for distinguishing a variable annuity interest from a mutual fund share for section 32 purposes and that, therefore, variable annuity interests should also be regarded as “other similar securities” within the prohibition of the statute and regulation.
(e) The Board concluded also that, since the accumulation fund, like a mutual fund, must continually issue and sell its investment units in order to avoid the inevitable contraction of its activities as it makes annuity payments or redeems variable annuity units, the accumulation fund is “primarily engaged” for section 32 purposes. The Board further concluded that the insurance company was likewise “primarily engaged” for the purposes of the statute since it had no significant revenue producing operations other than as underwriter and distributor of the accumulation fund's units and investment advisor to the fund.
(f) Although it was clear, therefore, that section 32 prohibits any officers, directors, and employees of member banks from serving in any such capacity with the insurance company or accumulation fund, the Board also considered whether members of the board of managers of the accumulation fund are “officers, directors, or employees” within such prohibition. The functions of the board of managers, who are elected by the variable annuity contract owners, are, with the approval of the variable annuity contract owners, to select annually an independent public accountant, execute annually an agreement providing for investment advisory services, and recommend any changes in the fundamental investment policy of the accumulation fund. In addition, the Board of managers has sole authority to execute an agreement providing for sales and administrative services and to authorize all investments of the assets of the accumulation fund in accordance with its fundamental investment policy. In the opinion of the Board of Governors, the board of managers of the accumulation fund performs functions essentially the same as those performed by classes of persons as to whom the prohibition of section 32 was specifically directed and, accordingly, are within the prohibitions of the statute.
(12 U.S.C. 248(i))
[33 FR 12886, Sept. 12, 1968. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.412 Interlocking relationships between member bank and insurance company-mutual fund complex.
(a) The Board has been asked whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 and this part prohibited interlocking service between member banks and (1) the advisory board of a newly organized open-end investment company (mutual fund), (2) the fund's incorporated investment manager-advisor, (3) the insurance company sponsoring and apparently controlling the fund.
(b) X Fund, Inc. (“Fund”), the mutual fund, was closely related to X Life Insurance Company (“Insurance Company”), as well as to the incorporated manager and investment advisor to Fund (“Advisors”), and the corporation serving as underwriter for Fund (“Underwriters”). The same persons served as principal officers and directors of Insurance Company, Fund, Advisors, and Underwriters. In addition, several directors of member banks served as directors of Insurance Company and of Advisors and as members of the Advisory Board of Fund, and additional directors of member banks had been named only as members of the Advisory Board. All outstanding shares of Advisors and of Underwriters were apparently owned by Insurance Company.
(c) Section 32 provides in relevant part that:
No officer, director, or employee of any corporation * * * primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve [at] the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *.
(d) The Board of Governors reaffirmed its earlier position that an open-end investment company is “primarily engaged” in activities described in section 32 “even though the shares are sold to the public through independent organizations with the result that the investment company does not derive any direct profit from the sales.” (1951 Federal Reserve Bulletin 654, § 218.101.) Accordingly, the Board concluded that Fund must be regarded as so engaged, even though its shares were underwritten and distributed by Underwriters.
(e) As directors of the member banks involved in the inquiry were not officers, directors, or employees of either Fund or Underwriters, the relevant questions were whether—(1) Advisors, and (2) Insurance Company, should be regarded as being functionally and structurally so closely allied with Fund that they should be treated as one with it in determining the applicability of section 32. An additional question was whether members of the Advisory Board are “officers, directors, or employees” of Fund within the prohibition of the statute.
(f) Interlocking service with Advisory Board: The function of the Advisory Board was merely to make suggestions and to counsel with Fund's Board of Directors in regard to investment policy. The Advisory Board had no authority to make binding recommendations in any area, and it did not serve in any sense as a check on the authority of the Board of Directors. Indeed, the Fund's bylaws provided that the Advisory Board “shall have no power or authority to make any contract or incur any liability whatever or to take any action binding upon the Corporation, the Officers, the Board of Directors or the Stockholders.” Members of the Advisory Board were appointed by the Board of Directors of Fund, which could remove any member of the Advisory Board at any time. None of the principal officers of Fund or of Underwriters were members of the Advisory Board; and the compensation of its members was expected to be nominal.
(g) The Board of Governors concluded that members of the Advisory Board need not be regarded as “officers, directors, or employees” of Fund or of Underwriters for purposes of section 32, and that the statute, therefore, did not prohibit officers, directors, or employees of member banks from serving as members of the Advisory Board.
(h) Interlocking service with Advisors: The principal officers and several of the directors of Advisors were identical with both those of Fund and of Underwriters. Entire management and investment responsibility for Fund had been placed, by contract, with Advisors, subject only to a review authority in the Board of Directors of Fund. Advisors also supplied office space for the conduct of Fund's affairs, and compensated members of the Advisory Board who are also officers or directors of Advisors. Moreover, it appeared that Advisors was created for the sole purpose of servicing Fund, and its activities were to be limited to that function.
(i) In the view of the Board of Governors, the structural and functional identity of Fund and Advisors was such that they were to be regarded as a single entity for purposes of section 32, and, accordingly, officers, directors, and employees of member banks were prohibited by section 32 from serving in any such capacity with such entity.
(j) Interlocking service with Insurance Company: It was clear that Insurance Company was not as yet “primarily engaged” in business of a kind described in section 32 with respect to the shares of the newly created Fund sponsored by Insurance Company, since the issue and sale of such shares had not yet commenced. Nor did it appear that Insurance Company would be so engaged in the preliminary stages of Fund's existence, when the disproportion between the insurance business of Insurance Company and the sale of Fund shares would be very great. However, it was also clear that if Fund was successfully launched, its activities would rather quickly reach a stage where a serious question would arise as to the applicability of the section 32 prohibition.
(k) An estimate supplied to the Board indicated that 100,000 shares of Fund might be sold annually to produce, based on then current values, annual gross sales receipts of over $1 million. Insurance Company's total gross income for its last fiscal year was almost $10 million. On this basis, about one-tenth of the annual gross income of the Insurance Company-Fund complex (more than one-tenth, if income from investments of Insurance Company was eliminated) would be derived from sales of Fund shares. Although total sales of shares of Fund during the first year might not approximate expectations, it was assumed that if the estimate or projection was correct, the annual rate of sale might well rise to that level before the end of the first year of operation.
(l) It appeared that net income of Insurance Company from Fund's operations would be minimal for the foreseeable future. However, it was understood that Insurance Company's chief reason for launching Fund was to provide salesmen for Insurance Company (who were to be the only sellers of shares of Fund, and most of whom, Insurance Company hoped, would qualify to sell those shares), with a “package” of mutual fund shares and life insurance policies that would provide increased competitive strength in a highly competitive field.
(m) The Board concluded that Insurance Company would be “primarily engaged” in issuing or distributing shares of Fund within the meaning of section 32 by not later than the time of realization of the aforementioned estimated annual rate of sale, and possibly before. As indicated in Board of Governors v. Agnew, 329 U.S. 441 at 446, the prohibition of the statute applies if the section 32 business involved is a “substantial” activity of the company.
(n) This, the Board observed, was not to suggest that officers, directors, or employees of Insurance Company who are also directors of member banks would be likely, as individuals, to use their positions with the banks to further sales of Fund's shares. However, as the Supreme Court pointed out in the Agnew case, section 32 is a “preventive or prophylactic measure.” The fact that the individuals involved “have been scrupulous in their relationships” to the banks in question “is immaterial.”
(12 U.S.C. 248(i))
[33 FR 13001, Sept. 14, 1968. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
§ 250.413 “Bank-eligible” securities activities.
Section 32 of the Glass-Steagall Act (12 U.S.C. 78) prohibits any officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, any partner or employee of any partnership, and any individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, from serving at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank of the Federal Reserve System. The Board is of the opinion that to the extent that a company, other entity or person is engaged in securities activities that are expressly authorized for a state member bank under section 16 of the Glass-Steagall Act (12 U.S.C. 24(7), 335), the company, other entity or individual is not engaged in the types of activities described in section 32. In addition, a securities broker who is engaged solely in executing orders for the purchase and sale of securities on behalf of others in the open market is not engaged in the business referred to in section 32.
[Reg. R, 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]
PART 251 CONCENTRATION LIMIT (REGULATION XX)
Authority: 12 U.S.C. 1818, 1844(b), 1852, 3101 et seq.
Source: 79 FR 68104, Nov. 14, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 251.1 Authority, purpose, and other authorities.
(a) Authority. This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under sections 5 and 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844 and 1852); section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818); the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq.); and the recommendations of the Financial Stability Oversight Council (76 Federal Register 6756) (February 8, 2011).
(b) Purpose. This subpart implements section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act, which generally prohibits a financial company from merging or consolidating with, acquiring all or substantially all of the assets of, or otherwise acquiring control of, another company if the resulting company's consolidated liabilities would exceed 10 percent of the aggregate consolidated liabilities of all financial companies.
(c) Other authorities. Nothing in this part limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law or regulation to prohibit or limit a financial company from merging or consolidating with, acquiring all or substantially all of the assets of, or otherwise acquiring control of, another company.
§ 251.2 Definitions.
Unless otherwise specified, for the purposes of this part:
(a) Applicable accounting standards means, with respect to a company, U.S. generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), or such other accounting standard or method of estimation that the Board determines is appropriate pursuant to § 251.3(e).
(b) Applicable risk-based capital rules means consolidated risk-based capital rules established by an appropriate Federal banking agency that are applicable to a financial company.
(c) Appropriate Federal banking agency has the same meaning as in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).
(d) Control has the same meaning as in § 225.2(e) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(e)).
(e) Council means the Financial Stability Oversight Council established by section 111 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321).
(f) Covered acquisition means a transaction in which a company directly or indirectly merges or consolidates with, acquires all or substantially all of the assets of, or otherwise acquires control of another company. A covered acquisition does not include an acquisition of ownership or control of a company:
(1) In the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith if the acquired securities or assets are divested within the time period permitted by the appropriate Federal banking agency (including extensions) or, if the financial company does not have an appropriate Federal banking agency, five years;
(2) In a fiduciary capacity in good faith under applicable fiduciary law if the acquired securities or assets are held in the ordinary course of business and not acquired for the benefit of the company or its shareholders, employees, or subsidiaries;
(3) In connection with bona fide underwriting or market-making activities;
(4) Solely in connection with a corporate reorganization and the companies involved are lawfully controlled and operated by the financial company both before and following the reorganization; and
(5) That is, or will be, an issuer of asset back securities (as defined in Section 3(a) of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934) so long as the financial company that retains an ownership interest in the company complies with the credit risk retention requirements in the regulations issued pursuant to section 15G of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934.
(g) Financial company includes:
(1) An insured depository institution;
(2) A bank holding company;
(3) A savings and loan holding company;
(4) A company that controls an insured depository institution;
(5) A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, and
(6) A foreign bank or company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of the Bank Holding Company Act.
(h) Foreign financial company means a financial company that is incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States.
(i) Insured depository institution has the same meaning as in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)).
(j) Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board means any nonbank financial company that the Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect.
(k) State means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
(l) U.S. agency has the same meaning as the term “agency” in § 211.21(b) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(b)).
(m) Total regulatory capital has the same meaning as the term “total capital” as defined under the applicable risk-based capital rules.
(n) Total risk-based capital ratio means the “total capital ratio” as calculated under the applicable risk-based capital rules.
(o) Total risk-weighted assets means the measure of consolidated risk-weighted assets that a financial company uses to calculate its risk-based capital ratios under the applicable risk-based capital rules.
(p) U.S. branch has the same meaning as the term “branch” in § 211.21(e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(e)).
(q) U.S. company means a company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
(r) U.S. financial company means a financial company that is a U.S. company.
(s) U.S. subsidiary means any subsidiary, as defined in § 225.2(o) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(o)), that is a U.S. company.
§ 251.3 Concentration limit.
(a) In general. (1) Except as otherwise provided in § 251.4, a company may not consummate a covered acquisition if upon consummation of the transaction, the liabilities of the resulting company would exceed 10 percent of the financial sector liabilities, and the company is or would become a financial company.
(2) Financial sector liabilities. (i) Subject to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, as of July 1 of a given year, financial sector liabilities are equal to the average of the year-end financial sector liabilities figure for the preceding two calendar years. The measure of financial sector liabilities will be in effect until June 30 of the following calendar year.
(ii) For the period beginning July 1, 2015, and ending June 30, 2016, financial sector liabilities are equal to the year-end financial sector liabilities figure as of December 31, 2014.
(iii) The year-end financial sector liabilities figure equals the sum of the total consolidated liabilities of all top-tier U.S. financial companies (as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section) and the U.S. liabilities of all top-tier foreign financial companies (as calculated under paragraph (c) of this section) as of December 31 of that year.
(iv) On an annual basis and no later than July 1 of any calendar year, the Board will calculate and publish the financial sector liabilities for the preceding calendar year and the average of the financial sector liabilities for the preceding two calendar years.
(b) Calculating total consolidated liabilities. For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section:
(1) Covered acquisition by a U.S. company. For a covered acquisition in which a U.S. company would acquire a U.S. company or a foreign company, liabilities of the resulting U.S. financial company equal the consolidated liabilities of the resulting U.S. financial company, calculated on a pro forma basis in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) Covered acquisition by a foreign company of another foreign company. For a covered acquisition in which a foreign company would acquire another foreign company, liabilities of the resulting foreign financial company equal the U.S. liabilities of the resulting financial company, calculated on a pro forma basis in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
(3) Covered acquisition by a foreign company of a U.S. company. For a covered acquisition in which a foreign company would acquire a U.S. company, liabilities of the resulting foreign financial company equal the sum of: (i) The U.S. liabilities of the foreign company immediately preceding the transaction (calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section) and (ii) the consolidated liabilities of the U.S. company immediately preceding the transaction (calculated in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section), reduced by the amount corresponding to any balances and transactions that would be eliminated in consolidation upon consummation of the transaction.
(c) Liabilities of a U.S. company—(1) U.S. company subject to applicable risk-based capital rules. For a U.S. company subject to applicable-risk based capital rules, consolidated liabilities are equal to:
(i) Total risk-weighted assets of the company; plus
(ii) The amount of assets that are deducted from the company's regulatory capital elements under the applicable risk-based capital rules, times a multiplier that is equal to the inverse of the company's total risk-based capital ratio minus one; minus
(iii) Total regulatory capital of the company.
(2) U.S. company not subject to applicable risk-based capital rules. For a U.S. company that is not subject to applicable risk-based capital rules (other than a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter)), consolidated liabilities are equal to the total liabilities of such company on a consolidated basis, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
(3) Qualifying community banking organizations. For a U.S. company that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), consolidated liabilities are equal to:
(i) Average total consolidated assets (as used in § 217.12 of this chapter) of the company as last reported on the qualifying community banking organization's applicable regulatory filing with the qualifying community banking organization's appropriate Federal banking agency; minus
(ii) The company's tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter).
(d) Liabilities of a foreign company—(1) Foreign banking organization. For a foreign banking organization, U.S. liabilities are equal to:
(i) The total consolidated assets of each U.S. branch or U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization, calculated in accordance with applicable accounting standards; plus
(ii) The total consolidated liabilities of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary that is subject to applicable risk-based capital rules (or reports information to the Board regarding its capital under risk-based capital rules applicable to bank holding companies), calculated as:
(A) Total consolidated risk-weighted assets of the subsidiary; plus
(B) The amount of assets that are deducted from the subsidiary's regulatory capital elements under the applicable risk-based capital rules, times a multiplier that is equal to the inverse of the subsidiary's total risk-based capital ratio minus one; minus
(C) Total consolidated regulatory capital of the subsidiary; plus
(iii) The total consolidated assets of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary that is not subject to applicable risk-based capital rules and does not report information regarding its capital under risk-based capital rules applicable to bank holding companies, calculated in accordance with applicable accounting standards.
(2) Foreign financial company that is not a foreign banking organization. For a foreign company that is not a foreign banking organization, U.S. liabilities are equal to:
(i) The total consolidated liabilities of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary that is subject to applicable risk-based capital rules (or reports information to the Board regarding its capital under risk-based capital rules applicable to bank holding companies), calculated as:
(A) Total consolidated risk-weighted assets of the subsidiary; plus
(B) The amount of assets that are deducted from the subsidiary's regulatory capital elements under the applicable risk-based capital rules, times a multiplier that is equal to the inverse of the company's total risk-based capital ratio minus one; minus
(C) Total regulatory capital of the subsidiary; plus
(ii) The total consolidated liabilities of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary that is not subject to applicable risk-based capital rules, calculated in accordance with applicable accounting standards.
(3) Intercompany balances and transactions—(i) Foreign banking organization. A foreign banking organization must reduce the amount of consolidated liabilities of its U.S. operations calculated pursuant to this paragraph (d) by amounts corresponding to intercompany balances and intercompany transactions between the foreign banking organization's U.S. domiciled affiliates, branches or agencies to the extent such items are not eliminated in consolidation, and increase consolidated liabilities by net intercompany balances and intercompany transactions between a non-U.S. domiciled affiliate and a U.S. domiciled affiliate, branch, or agency of the foreign banking organization, to the extent such items are not reflected in the measure of liabilities.
(ii) Foreign financial company. A foreign company that is not a foreign banking organization may reduce the amount of consolidated liabilities of its U.S. operations calculated pursuant to this paragraph (d) by amounts corresponding to intercompany balances and intercompany transactions between the foreign organization's U.S. domiciled affiliates to the extent such items are not already eliminated in consolidation; provided that it increases consolidated liabilities by net intercompany balances and intercompany transactions between a non-U.S. domiciled affiliate and a U.S. domiciled affiliate, to the extent such items are not already reflected in the measure of liabilities.
(e) Applicable accounting standard. If a company does not calculate its total consolidated assets or liabilities under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may submit a request to the Board that the company use an accounting standard or method of estimation other than GAAP to calculate its liabilities for purposes of this part. The Board may, in its discretion and subject to Board review and adjustment, permit the company to provide estimated total consolidated liabilities on an annual basis using this accounting standard or method of estimation.
[79 FR 68104, Nov. 14, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 61802, Nov. 13, 2019]
§ 251.4 Exceptions to the concentration limit.
(a) General. With the prior written consent of the Board, the concentration limit under § 251.3 shall not apply to:
(1) A covered acquisition of an insured depository institution that is in default or in danger of default (as determined by the appropriate Federal banking agency of the insured depository institution, in consultation with the Board);
(2) A covered acquisition with respect to which assistance is provided by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under section 13(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823(c)); or
(3) A covered acquisition that would result in an increase in the liabilities of the financial company that does not exceed $2 billion, when aggregated with all other acquisitions by the financial company made pursuant to this paragraph (a)(3) during the twelve months preceding the projected date of the acquisition.
(b) Prior written consent—(1) General. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a financial company must request that the Board provide prior written consent before the financial company consummates a transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section.
(2) Contents of request. (i) A request for prior written consent under paragraph (a) of this section must contain:
(A) A description of the covered acquisition;
(B) The projected increase in the company's liabilities resulting from the acquisition;
(C) If the request is made pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the projected aggregate increase in the company's liabilities from acquisitions during the twelve months preceding the projected date of the acquisition; and
(D) Any additional information requested by the Board.
(ii) A financial company may satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (b) if:
(A) The proposed transaction otherwise requires approval by, or prior notice to, the Board under the Change in Bank Control Act, Bank Holding Company Act, Home Owners' Loan Act, International Banking Act, or any other applicable statute, and any regulation thereunder; and
(B) The financial company includes the information required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section in the notice or request for prior approval described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
(3) Procedures for providing written consent. (i) The Board will act on a request for prior written consent filed under this paragraph (b) within 90 calendar days after the receipt of a complete request, unless that time period is extended by the Board. To the extent that a proposed transaction otherwise requires approval from, or prior notice to, the Board under another provision of law, the Board will act on that request for prior written consent concurrently with its action on the request for approval or notice.
(ii) In acting on a request under this paragraph (b), the Board will consider whether the consummation of the covered acquisition could pose a threat to financial stability.
(c) General consent. The Board grants prior written consent for a covered acquisition that would result in an increase in the liabilities of the financial company that does not exceed $100 million, when aggregated with all other covered acquisitions by the financial company made pursuant to this paragraph (c) during the twelve months preceding the date of the acquisition. A financial company that relies on prior written consent pursuant to this paragraph (c) must provide a notice to the Board within 10 days after consummating the covered acquisition that describes the covered acquisition, the increase in the company's liabilities resulting from the acquisition, and the aggregate increase in the company's liabilities from covered acquisitions during the twelve months preceding the date of the acquisition.
§ 251.5 No evasion.
A financial company may not organize or operate its business or structure any acquisition of or merger or consolidation with another company in such a manner that results in evasion of the concentration limit established by section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act or this part.
§ 251.6 Reporting requirements.
By March 31 of each year:
(a) A U.S. financial company (other than a U.S. financial company that is required to file the Bank Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report), the Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies (FR Y-9C), the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Small Holding Companies (FR Y-9SP), or the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Large Holding Companies (FR Y-9LP), or is required to report consolidated total liabilities on the Quarterly Savings and Loan Holding Company Report (FR 2320)) must report to the Board its consolidated liabilities as of the previous calendar year-end in the manner and form prescribed by the Board; and
(b) A foreign financial company (other than a foreign financial company that is required to file a FR Y-7) must report to the Board its U.S. liabilities as of the previous calendar year-end in the manner and form prescribed by the Board.
PART 252 ENHANCED PRUDENTIAL STANDARDS (REGULATION YY)
Authority: 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 481-486, 1467a, 1818, 1828, 1831n, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831w, 1835, 1844(b), 1844(c), 3101 et seq., 3101 note, 3904, 3906-3909, 4808, 5361, 5362, 5365, 5366, 5367, 5368, 5371.
Source: 77 FR 62391, Oct. 12, 2012, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 17315, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.1 Authority and purpose.
(a) Authority. This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) under sections 162, 165, 167, and 168 of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1423-1432, 12 U.S.C. 5362, 5365, 5367, and 5368); section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a); section 5(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(b)); sections 8 and 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) and 1831p-1); the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3101et seq.); the Foreign Bank Supervision Enhancement Act (12 U.S.C. 3101 note); and 12 U.S.C. 3904, 3906-3909, and 4808.
(b) Purpose. This part implements certain provisions of section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365), which require the Board to establish enhanced prudential standards for certain bank holding companies, foreign banking organizations, nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board, and certain other companies.
[84 FR 59096, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.2 Definitions.
Unless otherwise specified, the following definitions apply for purposes of this part:
Affiliate has the same meaning as in section 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)) and 12 CFR 225.2(a).
Applicable accounting standards means GAAP, international financial reporting standards, or such other accounting standards that a company uses in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements.
Average combined U.S. assets means the average of combined U.S. assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the combined U.S. assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
Average cross-jurisdictional activity means the average of cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the cross-jurisdictional activity for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
Average off-balance sheet exposure means the average of off-balance sheet exposure for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total exposure and total consolidated assets or combined U.S. assets, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the off-balance sheet exposure for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
Average total consolidated assets means the average of total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the total consolidated assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
Average total nonbank assets means the average of total nonbank assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported or calculated total nonbank assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the total nonbank assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
Average U.S. non-branch assets means the average of U.S. non-branch assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported the total consolidated assets of its top-tier U.S. subsidiaries for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the U.S. non-branch assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
Average weighted short-term wholesale funding means the average of weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the weighted short-term wholesale funding for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
Bank holding company has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)) and 12 CFR 225.2(c).
Banking organization means:
(1) A bank holding company that is a U.S. bank holding company;
(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company; or
(3) A foreign banking organization.
Board means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
Category II bank holding company means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Category II foreign banking organization means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Category II U.S. intermediate holding company means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Category III bank holding company means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Category III foreign banking organization means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Category III U.S. intermediate holding company means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Category IV bank holding company means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Category IV foreign banking organization means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Category IV U.S. intermediate holding company means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
Combined U.S. assets means the sum of the consolidated assets of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company, if applicable) and the total assets of each U.S. branch and U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization, as reported by the foreign banking organization on the FR Y-15 or FR Y-7Q.
Combined U.S. operations means:
(1) The U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization; and
(2) The U.S. subsidiaries of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company, if applicable) and subsidiaries of such U.S. subsidiaries.
Company means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
Control has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)), and the terms controlled and controlling shall be construed consistently with the term control.
Council means the Financial Stability Oversight Council established by section 111 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321).
Credit enhancement means a qualified financial contract of the type set forth in section 210(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XII), (iii)(X), (iv)(V), (v)(VI), or (vi)(VI) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XII), (iii)(X), (iv)(V), (v)(VI), or (vi)(VI)) or a credit enhancement that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determines by regulation is a qualified financial contract pursuant to section 210(c)(8)(D)(i) of Title II of the Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(i)).
Cross-jurisdictional activity. The cross-jurisdictional activity of a banking organization is equal to the cross-jurisdictional activity of the banking organization as reported on the FR Y-15.
Depository institution has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
DPC branch subsidiary means any subsidiary of a U.S. branch or a U.S. agency acquired, or formed to hold assets acquired, in the ordinary course of business and for the sole purpose of securing or collecting debt previously contracted in good faith by that branch or agency.
Foreign banking organization has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 211.21(o), provided that if the top-tier foreign banking organization is incorporated in or organized under the laws of any State, the foreign banking organization shall not be treated as a foreign banking organization for purposes of this part.
FR Y-7 means the Annual Report of Foreign Banking Organizations reporting form.
FR Y-7Q means the Capital and Asset Report for Foreign Banking Organizations reporting form.
FR Y-9C means the Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies reporting form.
FR Y-9LP means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements of Large Holding Companies.
FR Y-15 means the Systemic Risk Report.
Global methodology means the assessment methodology and the higher loss absorbency requirement for global systemically important banks issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as updated from time to time.
Global systemically important banking organization means a global systemically important bank, as such term is defined in the global methodology.
Global systemically important BHC means a bank holding company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402.
Global systemically important foreign banking organization means a top-tier foreign banking organization that is identified as a global systemically important foreign banking organization under § 252.147(b)(4) or § 252.153(b)(4) of this part.
GAAP means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
Home country, with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the country in which the foreign banking organization is chartered or incorporated.
Home country resolution authority, with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the governmental entity or entities that under the laws of the foreign banking organization's home county has responsibility for the resolution of the top-tier foreign banking organization.
Home-country supervisor, with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the governmental entity or entities that under the laws of the foreign banking organization's home county has responsibility for the supervision and regulation of the top-tier foreign banking organization.
Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board means a company that the Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect.
Non-U.S. affiliate means any affiliate of a foreign banking organization that is incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States.
Off-balance sheet exposure. (1) The off-balance sheet exposure of a U.S. bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to:
(i) The total exposure of such banking organization, as reported by the banking organization on the FR Y-15; minus
(ii) The total consolidated assets of such banking organization for the same calendar quarter.
(2) The off-balance sheet exposure of a foreign banking organization is equal to:
(i) The total exposure of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization, as reported by the foreign banking organization on the FR Y-15; minus
(ii) The combined U.S. assets of the foreign banking organization for the same calendar quarter.
Publicly traded means an instrument that is traded on:
(1) Any exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f); or
(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a non-U.S. national securities regulatory authority; and
(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question, meaning that there are enough independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a sales price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined promptly and a trade can be settled at such price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom.
(3) A company can rely on its determination that a particular non-U.S.-based securities exchange provides a liquid two-way market unless the Board determines that the exchange does not provide a liquid two-way market.
Section 2(h)(2) company has the same meaning as in section 2(h)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(h)(2)).
State means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
State member bank has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 208.2(g).
Subsidiary has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
Top-tier foreign banking organization, with respect to a foreign bank, means the top-tier foreign banking organization or, alternatively, a subsidiary of the top-tier foreign banking organization designated by the Board.
Total consolidated assets. (1) Total consolidated assets of a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to the total consolidated assets of such banking organization calculated based on the average of the balances as of the close of business for each day for the calendar quarter or an average of the balances as of the close of business on each Wednesday during the calendar quarter, as reported on the FR Y-9C.
(2) Total consolidated assets of a foreign banking organization is equal to the total consolidated assets of the foreign banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-7Q.
(3) Total consolidated assets of a state member bank is equal to the total consolidated assets as reported by a state member bank on its Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report).
Total nonbank assets. (1) Total nonbank assets of a U.S. bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to the total nonbank assets of such banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-9LP.
(2) Total nonbank assets of a foreign banking organization is equal to:
(i) The sum of the total nonbank assets of any U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, as reported on the FR Y-9LP; plus
(ii) The assets of the foreign banking organization's nonbank U.S. subsidiaries excluding the U.S. intermediate holding company, if any; plus
(iii) The sum of the foreign banking organization's equity investments in unconsolidated U.S. subsidiaries, excluding equity investments in any section 2(h)(2) company; minus
(iv) The assets of any section 2(h)(2) company.
U.S. agency has the same meaning as the term “agency” in § 211.21(b) of this chapter.
U.S. bank holding company means a bank holding company that is:
(1) Incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
(2) Not a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
U.S. branch has the same meaning as the term “branch” in § 211.21(e) of this chapter.
U.S. branches and agencies means the U.S. branches and U.S. agencies of a foreign banking organization.
U.S. government agency means an agency or instrumentality of the United States whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the United States.
U.S. government-sponsored enterprise means an entity originally established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress, but whose obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States.
U.S. intermediate holding company means a top-tier U.S. company that is required to be established pursuant to § 252.147 or § 252.153.
U.S. non-branch assets. U.S. non-branch assets are equal to the sum of the consolidated assets of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company and DPC branch subsidiary, if applicable) as reported on the FR Y-7Q. In calculating U.S. non-branch assets, a foreign banking organization must reduce its U.S. non-branch assets by the amount corresponding to balances and transactions between a top-tier U.S. subsidiary and any other top-tier U.S. subsidiary (excluding any 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary) to the extent such items are not already eliminated in consolidation.
U.S. subsidiary means any subsidiary that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the North Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
Weighted short-term wholesale funding is equal to the weighted short-term wholesale funding of a banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-15.
[84 FR 59096, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.3 Reservation of authority.
(a) In general. Nothing in this part limits the authority of the Board under any provision of law or regulation to impose on any company additional enhanced prudential standards, including, but not limited to, additional risk-based or leverage capital or liquidity requirements, leverage limits, limits on exposures to single counterparties, risk-management requirements, stress tests, or other requirements or restrictions the Board deems necessary to carry out the purposes of this part or Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act, or to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe and unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation.
(b) Modifications or extensions of this part. The Board may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the Board determines that such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the Board will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with this part, and the actions the company is taking to come into compliance with this part.
(c) Reservation of authority for certain foreign banking organizations. The Board may permit a foreign banking organization to comply with the requirements of this part through a subsidiary. In making this determination, the Board shall consider:
(1) The ownership structure of the foreign banking organization, including whether the foreign banking organization is owned or controlled by a foreign government;
(2) Whether the action would be consistent with the purposes of this part; and
(3) Any other factors that the Board determines are relevant.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17315, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59098, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.4 Nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board.
(a) U.S. nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board. The Board will establish enhanced prudential standards for a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State (U.S. nonbank financial company) by rule or order. In establishing such standards, the Board will consider the factors set forth in sections 165(a)(2) and (b)(3) of the Dodd-Frank Act, including:
(1) The nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, and mix of the activities of the U.S. nonbank financial company;
(2) The degree to which the U.S. nonbank financial company is already regulated by one or more primary financial regulatory agencies; and
(3) Any other risk-related factor that the Board determines is appropriate.
(b) Foreign nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board. The Board will establish enhanced prudential standards for a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is organized or incorporated in a country other than the United States (foreign nonbank financial company) by rule or order. In establishing such standards, the Board will consider the factors set forth in sections 165(a)(2), (b)(2), and (b)(3) of the Dodd-Frank Act, including:
(1) The nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, and mix of the activities of the foreign nonbank financial company;
(2) The extent to which the foreign nonbank financial company is subject to prudential standards on a consolidated basis in its home country that are administered and enforced by a comparable foreign supervisory authority; and
(3) Any other risk-related factor that the Board determines is appropriate.
§ 252.5 Categorization of banking organizations.
(a) General. (1) A U.S. bank holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must determine its category among the four categories described in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section at least quarterly.
(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must determine its category among the three categories described in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section at least quarterly.
(3) A foreign banking organization with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more and average combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more must determine its category among the three categories described in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section at least quarterly.
(b) Global systemically important BHC. A banking organization is a global systemically important BHC if it is identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402.
(c) Category II. (1) A banking organization is a Category II banking organization if the banking organization:
(i) Has:
(A)(1) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, $700 billion or more in average total consolidated assets;
(2) For a foreign banking organization, $700 billion or more in average combined U.S. assets; or
(B)(1) $75 billion or more in average cross-jurisdictional activity; and
(2)(i) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, $100 billion or more in average total consolidated assets; or
(ii) For a foreign banking organization, $100 billion or more in average combined U.S. assets; and
(ii) Is not a global systemically important BHC.
(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a banking organization continues to be a Category II banking organization until the banking organization:
(i) Has:
(A)(1) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
(2) For a foreign banking organization, less than $700 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
(B) Less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
(ii) Has:
(A) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
(B) For a foreign banking organization, less than $100 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
(iii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (b) to be a global systemically important BHC.
(d) Category III. (1) A banking organization is a Category III banking organization if the banking organization:
(i) Has:
(A)(1) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, $250 billion or more in average total consolidated assets; or
(2) For a foreign banking organization, $250 billion or more in average combined U.S. assets; or
(B)(1)(i) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, $100 billion or more in average total consolidated assets; or
(ii) For a foreign banking organization, $100 billion or more in average combined U.S. assets; and
(2) At least:
(i) $75 billion in average total nonbank assets;
(ii) $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
(iii) $75 billion in average off-balance sheet exposure;
(ii) Is not a global systemically important BHC; and
(iii) Is not a Category II banking organization.
(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a banking organization continues to be a Category III banking organization until the banking organization:
(i) Has:
(A)(1) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
(2) For a foreign banking organization, less than $250 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
(B) Less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
(C) Less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
(D) Less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
(ii) Has:
(A) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
(B) For a foreign banking organization, less than $100 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
(iii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section to be a global systemically important BHC; or
(iv) Meets the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to be a Category II banking organization.
(e) Category IV. (1) A banking organization is a Category IV banking organization if the banking organization:
(i) Is not global systemically important BHC;
(ii) Is not a Category II banking organization;
(iii) Is not a Category III banking organization; and
(iv) Has:
(A) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more; or
(B) For a foreign banking organization, average combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (e)(1), a banking organization continues to be a Category IV banking organization until the banking organization:
(i) Has:
(A) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
(B) For a foreign banking organization, less than $100 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
(ii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section to be a global systemically important BHC;
(iii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to be a Category II banking organization; or
(iv) Meets the criteria in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to be a Category III banking organization.
[84 FR 59099, Nov. 1, 2019]
Subpart B Company-Run Stress Test Requirements for State Member Banks With Total Consolidated Assets Over $250 Billion
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 64045, Oct. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.10 [Reserved]
§ 252.11 Authority and purpose.
(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 3906-3909, 5365.
(b) Purpose. This subpart implements section 165(i)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2)), which requires state member banks with total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress tests and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.
[84 FR 59100, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.12 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Advanced approaches means the regulatory capital requirements at 12 CFR 217, subpart E, as applicable, and any successor regulation.
Asset threshold means average total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion.
Baseline scenario means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a state member bank, and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
Capital action has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.8(d)).
Covered company subsidiary means a state member bank that is a subsidiary of a covered company as defined in subpart F of this part.
Planning horizon means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning on the first day of a stress test cycle over which the relevant projections extend.
Pre-provision net revenue means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
Provision for credit losses means:
(1) With respect to a state member bank that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as would be reported by the state member bank on the Call Report in the current stress test cycle; and
(2) With respect to a state member bank that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported by the state member bank on the Call Report in the current stress test cycle.
Regulatory capital ratio means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the state member bank by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the state member bank's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the state member bank shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
Scenarios are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a state member bank that the Board determines are appropriate for use in the company-run stress tests, including, but not limited to baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
Severely adverse scenario means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a state member bank and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
Stress test means a process to assess the potential impact of scenarios on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of a state member bank over the planning horizon, taking into account the current condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
Stress test cycle means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
Subsidiary has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2(o).
[84 FR 59100, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.13 Applicability.
(a) Scope—(1) Applicability. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart applies to any state member bank with average total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion.
(2) Ongoing applicability. A state member bank (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until its total consolidated assets fall below $250 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, effective on the as-of date of the fourth consecutive Call Report.
(b) Transition period. (1) A state member bank that exceeds the asset threshold for the first time on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the state member bank becomes subject to this subpart, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(2) A state member bank that exceeds the asset threshold for the first time after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the third year after the state member bank becomes subject to this subpart, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
[84 FR 59100, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.14 Stress test.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62923, Oct. 2, 2026.
(a) In general. (1) A state member bank must conduct a stress test as required under this subpart.
(2) Frequency—(i) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, a state member bank must conduct a stress test according to the frequency in table 1 to § 252.14(a)(2)(i).
Table 1 to § 252.14(a)(2)(i)
If the state member bank is a | Then the stress test must be conducted
Subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC | Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
Subsidiary of a Category II bank holding company | Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
Subsidiary of a Category II U.S. intermediate holding company | Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
Not a subsidiary of a: (A) Global systemically important BHC; (B) Category II bank holding company; or (C) Category II U.S. intermediate holding company. | Biennially, by April 5 of each calendar year ending in an even number, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
(ii) Change in frequency. The Board may require a state member bank to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
(3) Notice and response—(i) Notification of change in frequency. If the Board requires a state member bank to change the frequency of the stress test under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the Board will notify the state member bank in writing and provide a discussion of the basis for its determination.
(ii) Request for reconsideration and Board response. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, a state member bank may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. A state member bank's request for reconsideration must include an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
(b) Scenarios provided by the Board—(1) In general. In conducting a stress test under this section, a state member bank must, at a minimum, use the scenarios provided by the Board. Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, the Board will provide a description of the scenarios no later than February 15 of each calendar year.
(2) Additional components. (i) The Board may require a state member bank with significant trading activity, as determined by the Board and specified in the Capital Assessments and Stress Testing report (FR Y-14), to include a trading and counterparty component in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section. The Board may also require a state member bank that is subject to 12 CFR part 217, subpart F or that is a subsidiary of a bank holding company that is subject to section § 252.54(b)(2)(i) to include a trading and counterparty component in the state member bank's severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section. The data used in this component must be as of a date between October 1 of the previous calendar year and March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed, and the Board will communicate the as-of date and a description of the component to the company no later than March 1 of that calendar year.
(ii) The Board may require a state member bank to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section based on the state member bank's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
(3) Additional scenarios. The Board may require a state member bank to include one or more additional scenarios in the stress test required by this section based on the state member bank's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
(4) Notice and response—(i) Notification of additional component or scenario. If the Board requires a state member bank to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario under paragraph (b)(2) of this section or to use one or more additional scenarios under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing by December 31 and include a discussion of the basis for its determination.
(ii) Request for reconsideration and Board response. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, the state member bank may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement that the company include the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s), including an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
(iii) Description of component. The Board will provide the state member bank with a description of any additional component(s) or additional scenario(s) by March 1.
[84 FR 59100, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.15 Methodologies and practices.
(a) Potential impact on capital. In conducting a stress test under § 252.14, for each quarter of the planning horizon, a state member bank must estimate the following for each scenario required to be used:
(1) Losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, and net income; and
(2) The potential impact on the regulatory capital levels and ratios applicable to the covered bank, and any other capital ratios specified by the Board, incorporating the effects of any capital action over the planning horizon and maintenance of an allowance for loan losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as appropriate, for credit exposures throughout the planning horizon.
(b) Controls and oversight of stress testing processes—(1) In general. The senior management of a state member bank must establish and maintain a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, that are designed to ensure that its stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements in this subpart. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the company's stress testing practices and methodologies, and processes for validating and updating the company's stress test practices and methodologies consistent with applicable laws and regulations.
(2) Oversight of stress testing processes. The board of directors, or a committee thereof, of a state member bank must review and approve the policies and procedures of the stress testing processes as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the company may warrant, but no less than each year that a stress test is conducted. The board of directors and senior management of the state member bank must receive a summary of the results of the stress test conducted under this section.
(3) Role of stress testing results. The board of directors and senior management of a state member bank must consider the results of the stress test in the normal course of business, including but not limited to, the state member bank's capital planning, assessment of capital adequacy, and risk management practices.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64045, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75425, Dec. 2, 2015; 84 FR 4245, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59101, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.16 Reports of stress test results.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62923, Oct. 2, 2026.
(a) Reports to the Board of stress test results—(1) General. A state member bank must report the results of the stress test to the Board in the manner and form prescribed by the Board, in accordance with paragraphs (a)(2) of this section.
(2) Timing. For each stress test cycle in which a stress test is conducted:
(i) A state member bank that is a covered company subsidiary must report the results of the stress test to the Board by April 5, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing; and
(ii) A state member bank that is not a covered company subsidiary must report the results of the stress test to the Board by July 31, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(b) Contents of reports. The report required under paragraph (a) of this section must include the following information for the baseline scenario, severely adverse scenario, and any other scenario required under § 252.14(b)(3):
(1) A description of the types of risks being included in the stress test;
(2) A summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test; and
(3) For each quarter of the planning horizon, estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, net income, and regulatory capital ratios;
(c) Confidential treatment of information submitted. The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64045, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 4245, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59101, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15604, Mar. 18, 2020]
§ 252.17 Disclosure of stress test results.
(a) Public disclosure of results—(1) General. A state member bank must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test required under this subpart.
(2) Timing. For each stress test cycle in which a stress test is conducted:
(i) A state member bank that is a covered company subsidiary must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test within 15 calendar days after the Board discloses the results of its supervisory stress test of the covered company pursuant to § 252.46(b), unless that time is extended by the Board in writing; and
(ii) A state member bank that is not a covered company subsidiary must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test in the period beginning on October 15 and ending on October 31, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(3) Disclosure method. The summary required under this section may be disclosed on the website of a state member bank, or in any other forum that is reasonably accessible to the public.
(b) Summary of results—(1) State member banks that are subsidiaries of bank holding companies. A state member bank that is a subsidiary of a bank holding company satisfies the public disclosure requirements under this subpart if the bank holding company publicly discloses summary results of its stress test pursuant to this section or § 252.58, unless the Board determines that the disclosures at the holding company level do not adequately capture the potential impact of the scenarios on the capital of the state member bank and requires the state member bank to make public disclosures.
(2) State member banks that are not subsidiaries of bank holding companies. A state member bank that is not a subsidiary of a bank holding company or that is required to make disclosures under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must publicly disclose, at a minimum, the following information regarding the severely adverse scenario:
(i) A description of the types of risks being included in the stress test;
(ii) A summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test;
(iii) Estimates of—
(A) Aggregate losses;
(B) Pre-provision net revenue
(C) Provision for credit losses;
(D) Net income; and
(E) Pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board; and
(iv) An explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios.
(c) Content of results. (1) The disclosure of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, and net income that is required under paragraph (b) of this section must be on a cumulative basis over the planning horizon.
(2) The disclosure of pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board that is required under paragraph (b) of this section must include the beginning value, ending value and minimum value of each ratio over the planning horizon.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64045, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 4245, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59102, Nov. 1, 2019]
Subpart C Risk Committee Requirement for Bank Holding Companies With Total Consolidated Assets of $50 Billion or More and Less Than $100 Billion
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 17316, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.20 [Reserved]
§ 252.21 Applicability.
(a) General applicability. A bank holding company must comply with the risk-committee requirements set forth in this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $50 billion.
(b) Cessation of requirements. A bank holding company will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart until the earlier of the date on which:
(1) Its total consolidated assets are below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters; and
(2) It becomes subject to the requirements of subpart D of this part.
[84 FR 59102, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.22 Risk committee requirement for bank holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more.
(a) Risk committee—(1) General. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the bank holding company's global operations and oversees the operation of the bank holding company's global risk-management framework.
(2) Risk-management framework. The bank holding company's global risk-management framework must be commensurate with its structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size, and must include:
(i) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for its global operations; and
(ii) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
(A) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies for its global operations;
(B) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management;
(C) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function; and
(D) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and its compensation structure for its global operations.
(3) Corporate governance requirements. The risk committee must:
(i) Have a formal, written charter that is approved by the bank holding company's board of directors;
(ii) Be an independent committee of the board of directors that has, as its sole and exclusive function, responsibility for the risk-management policies of the bank holding company's global operations and oversight of the operation of the bank holding company's global risk-management framework;
(iii) Report directly to the bank holding company's board of directors;
(iv) Receive and review regular reports on a not less than a quarterly basis from the bank holding company's chief risk officer provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
(v) Meet at least quarterly, or more frequently as needed, and fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
(4) Minimum member requirements. The risk committee must:
(i) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
(ii) Be chaired by a director who:
(A) Is not an officer or employee of the bank holding company and has not been an officer or employee of the bank holding company during the previous three years;
(B) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in 12 CFR 225.41(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the bank holding company, as defined in 12 CFR 215.2(e)(1); and
(C)(1) Is an independent director under Item 407 of the Securities and Exchange Commission's Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.407(a)), if the bank holding company has an outstanding class of securities traded on an exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) (national securities exchange); or
(2) Would qualify as an independent director under the listing standards of a national securities exchange, as demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Board, if the bank holding company does not have an outstanding class of securities traded on a national securities exchange.
(b) Chief risk officer—(1) General. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must appoint a chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
(2) Responsibilities. (i) The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
(A) The establishment of risk limits on an enterprise-wide basis and the monitoring of compliance with such limits;
(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the development and implementation of the processes and systems set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section; and
(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the company's risk-control framework, and monitoring and testing of the company's risk controls.
(ii) The chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks to the risk committee and resolving risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
(3) Corporate governance requirements. (i) The bank holding company must ensure that the compensation and other incentives provided to the chief risk officer are consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the bank holding company; and
(ii) The chief risk officer must report directly to both the risk committee and chief executive officer of the company.
[84 FR 59102, Nov. 1, 2019]
Subpart D Enhanced Prudential Standards for Bank Holding Companies With Total Consolidated Assets of $100 Billion or More
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 17317, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.30 Scope.
This subpart applies to bank holding companies with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more.
[84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.31 Applicability.
(a) Applicability—(1) Initial applicability. Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, a bank holding company must comply with the risk-management and risk-committee requirements set forth in § 252.33 and the liquidity risk-management and liquidity stress test requirements set forth in §§ 252.34 and 252.35 no later than the first day of the fifth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $100 billion.
(2) Changes in requirements following a change in category. A bank holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more that changes from one category of banking organization described in § 252.5(b) through (e) to another of such categories must comply with the requirements applicable to the new category no later than on the first day of the second quarter following the change in the bank holding company's category.
(b) Cessation of requirements. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a bank holding company is subject to the risk-management and risk committee requirements set forth in § 252.33 and the liquidity risk-management and liquidity stress test requirements set forth in §§ 252.34 and 252.35 until its total consolidated assets are below $100 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters.
(c) Applicability for bank holding companies that are subsidiaries of foreign banking organizations. If a bank holding company that has average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more is controlled by a foreign banking organization, the U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated by the foreign banking organization must comply with the risk-management and risk committee requirements set forth in § 252.153(e)(3) and the liquidity risk-management and liquidity stress test requirements set forth in § 252.153(e)(4).
[84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.32 Risk-based and leverage capital and stress test requirements.
A bank holding company subject to this subpart must comply with, and hold capital commensurate with the requirements of, any regulations adopted by the Board relating to capital planning and stress tests, in accordance with the applicability provisions set forth therein.
[84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.33 Risk-management and risk committee requirements.
(a) Risk committee—(1) General. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the bank holding company's global operations and oversees the operation of the bank holding company's global risk-management framework. The risk committee's responsibilities include liquidity risk-management as set forth in § 252.34(b).
(2) Risk-management framework. The bank holding company's global risk-management framework must be commensurate with its structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size and must include:
(i) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for its global operations; and
(ii) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
(A) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies for its global operations;
(B) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management;
(C) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function; and
(D) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and its compensation structure for its global operations.
(3) Corporate governance requirements. The risk committee must:
(i) Have a formal, written charter that is approved by the bank holding company's board of directors;
(ii) Be an independent committee of the board of directors that has, as its sole and exclusive function, responsibility for the risk-management policies of the bank holding company's global operations and oversight of the operation of the bank holding company's global risk-management framework;
(iii) Report directly to the bank holding company's board of directors;
(iv) Receive and review regular reports on not less than a quarterly basis from the bank holding company's chief risk officer provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
(v) Meet at least quarterly, or more frequently as needed, and fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
(4) Minimum member requirements. The risk committee must:
(i) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
(ii) Be chaired by a director who:
(A) Is not an officer or employee of the bank holding company and has not been an officer or employee of the bank holding company during the previous three years;
(B) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in section 225.41(b)(3) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41(b)(3)), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the bank holding company, as defined in section 215.2(e)(1) of the Board's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)); and
(C)(1) Is an independent director under Item 407 of the Securities and Exchange Commission's Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.407(a)), if the bank holding company has an outstanding class of securities traded on an exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) (national securities exchange); or
(2) Would qualify as an independent director under the listing standards of a national securities exchange, as demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Board, if the bank holding company does not have an outstanding class of securities traded on a national securities exchange.
(b) Chief risk officer—(1) General. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must appoint a chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
(2) Responsibilities. (i) The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
(A) The establishment of risk limits on an enterprise-wide basis and the monitoring of compliance with such limits;
(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the development and implementation of the processes and systems set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section; and
(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the company's risk control framework, and monitoring and testing of the company's risk controls.
(ii) The chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks to the risk committee and resolving risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
(3) Corporate governance requirements. (i) The bank holding company must ensure that the compensation and other incentives provided to the chief risk officer are consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the bank holding company; and
(ii) The chief risk officer must report directly to both the risk committee and chief executive officer of the company.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17317, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.34 Liquidity risk-management requirements.
(a) Responsibilities of the board of directors—(1) Liquidity risk tolerance. The board of directors of a bank holding company that is subject to this subpart must:
(i) Approve the acceptable level of liquidity risk that the bank holding company may assume in connection with its operating strategies (liquidity risk tolerance) at least annually, taking into account the bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size; and
(ii) Receive and review at least semi-annually information provided by senior management to determine whether the bank holding company is operating in accordance with its established liquidity risk tolerance.
(2) Liquidity risk-management strategies, policies, and procedures. The board of directors must approve and periodically review the liquidity risk-management strategies, policies, and procedures established by senior management pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(b) Responsibilities of the risk committee. The risk committee (or a designated subcommittee of such committee composed of members of the board of directors) must approve the contingency funding plan described in paragraph (f) of this section at least annually, and must approve any material revisions to the plan prior to the implementation of such revisions.
(c) Responsibilities of senior management—(1) Liquidity risk. (i) Senior management of a bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and implement strategies, policies, and procedures designed to effectively manage the risk that the bank holding company's financial condition or safety and soundness would be adversely affected by its inability or the market's perception of its inability to meet its cash and collateral obligations (liquidity risk). The board of directors must approve the strategies, policies, and procedures pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(ii) Senior management must oversee the development and implementation of liquidity risk measurement and reporting systems, including those required by this section and § 252.35.
(iii) Senior management must determine at least quarterly whether the bank holding company is operating in accordance with such policies and procedures and whether the bank holding company is in compliance with this section and § 252.35 (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition warrant), and establish procedures regarding the preparation of such information.
(2) Liquidity risk tolerance. Senior management must report to the board of directors or the risk committee regarding the bank holding company's liquidity risk profile and liquidity risk tolerance at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the company warrant).
(3) Business lines or products. (i) Senior management must approve new products and business lines and evaluate the liquidity costs, benefits, and risks of each new business line and each new product that could have a significant effect on the company's liquidity risk profile. The approval is required before the company implements the business line or offers the product. In determining whether to approve the new business line or product, senior management must consider whether the liquidity risk of the new business line or product (under both current and stressed conditions) is within the company's established liquidity risk tolerance.
(ii) Senior management must review at least annually significant business lines and products to determine whether any line or product creates or has created any unanticipated liquidity risk, and to determine whether the liquidity risk of each strategy or product is within the company's established liquidity risk tolerance.
(4) Cash-flow projections. Senior management must review the cash-flow projections produced under paragraph (e) of this section at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the bank holding company warrant) to ensure that the liquidity risk is within the established liquidity risk tolerance.
(5) Liquidity risk limits. Senior management must establish liquidity risk limits as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section and review the company's compliance with those limits at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the company warrant).
(6) Liquidity stress testing. Senior management must:
(i) Approve the liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions required in § 252.35(a) at least quarterly, and whenever the bank holding company materially revises its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies or assumptions;
(ii) Review the liquidity stress testing results produced under § 252.35(a) at least quarterly;
(iii) Review the independent review of the liquidity stress tests under § 252.34(d) periodically; and
(iv) Approve the size and composition of the liquidity buffer established under § 252.35(b) at least quarterly.
(d) Independent review function. (1) A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a review function that is independent of management functions that execute funding to evaluate its liquidity risk management.
(2) The independent review function must:
(i) Regularly, but no less frequently than annually, review and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the company's liquidity risk-management processes, including its liquidity stress test processes and assumptions;
(ii) Assess whether the company's liquidity risk-management function complies with applicable laws and regulations, and sound business practices; and
(iii) Report material liquidity risk-management issues to the board of directors or the risk committee in writing for corrective action, to the extent permitted by applicable law.
(e) Cash-flow projections. (1) A bank holding company subject to this subpart must produce comprehensive cash-flow projections that project cash flows arising from assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures over, at a minimum, short- and long-term time horizons. The bank holding company must update short-term cash-flow projections daily and must update longer-term cash-flow projections at least monthly.
(2) The bank holding company must establish a methodology for making cash-flow projections that results in projections that:
(i) Include cash flows arising from contractual maturities, intercompany transactions, new business, funding renewals, customer options, and other potential events that may impact liquidity;
(ii) Include reasonable assumptions regarding the future behavior of assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures;
(iii) Identify and quantify discrete and cumulative cash flow mismatches over these time periods; and
(iv) Include sufficient detail to reflect the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, currency exposure, activities, and size of the bank holding company and include analyses by business line, currency, or legal entity as appropriate.
(3) The bank holding company must adequately document its methodology for making cash flow projections and the included assumptions and submit such documentation to the risk committee.
(f) Contingency funding plan—(1) General. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a contingency funding plan that sets out the company's strategies for addressing liquidity needs during liquidity stress events. The contingency funding plan must be commensurate with the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and established liquidity risk tolerance. The company must update the contingency funding plan at least annually, and when changes to market and idiosyncratic conditions warrant.
(2) Components of the contingency funding plan—(i) Quantitative assessment. The contingency funding plan must:
(A) Identify liquidity stress events that could have a significant impact on the bank holding company's liquidity;
(B) Assess the level and nature of the impact on the bank holding company's liquidity that may occur during identified liquidity stress events;
(C) Identify the circumstances in which the bank holding company would implement its action plan described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, which circumstances must include failure to meet any minimum liquidity requirement imposed by the Board;
(D) Assess available funding sources and needs during the identified liquidity stress events;
(E) Identify alternative funding sources that may be used during the identified liquidity stress events; and
(F) Incorporate information generated by the liquidity stress testing required under § 252.35(a).
(ii) Liquidity event management process. The contingency funding plan must include an event management process that sets out the bank holding company's procedures for managing liquidity during identified liquidity stress events. The liquidity event management process must:
(A) Include an action plan that clearly describes the strategies the company will use to respond to liquidity shortfalls for identified liquidity stress events, including the methods that the company will use to access alternative funding sources;
(B) Identify a liquidity stress event management team that would execute the action plan described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
(C) Specify the process, responsibilities, and triggers for invoking the contingency funding plan, describe the decision-making process during the identified liquidity stress events, and describe the process for executing contingency measures identified in the action plan; and
(D) Provide a mechanism that ensures effective reporting and communication within the bank holding company and with outside parties, including the Board and other relevant supervisors, counterparties, and other stakeholders.
(iii) Monitoring. The contingency funding plan must include procedures for monitoring emerging liquidity stress events. The procedures must identify early warning indicators that are tailored to the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
(iv) Testing. The bank holding company must periodically test:
(A) The components of the contingency funding plan to assess the plan's reliability during liquidity stress events;
(B) The operational elements of the contingency funding plan, including operational simulations to test communications, coordination, and decision-making by relevant management; and
(C) The methods the bank holding company will use to access alternative funding sources to determine whether these funding sources will be readily available when needed.
(g) Liquidity risk limits—(1) General. A bank holding company must monitor sources of liquidity risk and establish limits on liquidity risk that are consistent with the company's established liquidity risk tolerance and that reflect the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
(2) Liquidity risk limits established by a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or Category III bank holding company. If the bank holding company is a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or Category III bank holding company, liquidity risk limits established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must include limits on:
(i) Concentrations in sources of funding by instrument type, single counterparty, counterparty type, secured and unsecured funding, and as applicable, other forms of liquidity risk;
(ii) The amount of liabilities that mature within various time horizons; and
(iii) Off-balance sheet exposures and other exposures that could create funding needs during liquidity stress events.
(h) Collateral, legal entity, and intraday liquidity risk monitoring. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring liquidity risk as set forth in this paragraph.
(1) Collateral. The bank holding company must establish and maintain policies and procedures to monitor assets that have been, or are available to be, pledged as collateral in connection with transactions to which it or its affiliates are counterparties. These policies and procedures must provide that the bank holding company:
(i) Calculates all of its collateral positions according to the frequency specified in paragraph (h)(1)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, or as directed by the Board, specifying the value of pledged assets relative to the amount of security required under the relevant contracts and the value of unencumbered assets available to be pledged;
(A) If the bank holding company is not a Category IV bank holding company, on at least a weekly basis; or
(B) If the bank holding company is a Category IV bank holding company, on at least a monthly basis;
(ii) Monitors the levels of unencumbered assets available to be pledged by legal entity, jurisdiction, and currency exposure;
(iii) Monitors shifts in the bank holding company's funding patterns, such as shifts between intraday, overnight, and term pledging of collateral; and
(iv) Tracks operational and timing requirements associated with accessing collateral at its physical location (for example, the custodian or securities settlement system that holds the collateral).
(2) Legal entities, currencies, and business lines. The bank holding company must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring and controlling liquidity risk exposures and funding needs within and across significant legal entities, currencies, and business lines, taking into account legal and regulatory restrictions on the transfer of liquidity between legal entities.
(3) Intraday exposures. The bank holding company must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring intraday liquidity risk exposures that are consistent with the bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size. If the bank holding company is a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or a Category III bank holding company, these procedures must address how the management of the bank holding company will:
(i) Monitor and measure expected daily gross liquidity inflows and outflows;
(ii) Manage and transfer collateral to obtain intraday credit;
(iii) Identify and prioritize time-specific obligations so that the bank holding company can meet these obligations as expected and settle less critical obligations as soon as possible;
(iv) Manage the issuance of credit to customers where necessary; and
(v) Consider the amounts of collateral and liquidity needed to meet payment systems obligations when assessing the bank holding company's overall liquidity needs.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17317, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.35 Liquidity stress testing and buffer requirements.
(a) Liquidity stress testing requirement—(1) General. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must conduct stress tests to assess the potential impact of the liquidity stress scenarios set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section on its cash flows, liquidity position, profitability, and solvency, taking into account its current liquidity condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
(i) The bank holding company must take into consideration its balance sheet exposures, off-balance sheet exposures, size, risk profile, complexity, business lines, organizational structure, and other characteristics of the bank holding company that affect its liquidity risk profile in conducting its stress test.
(ii) In conducting a liquidity stress test using the scenarios described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (iii) of this section, the bank holding company must address the potential direct adverse impact of associated market disruptions on the bank holding company and incorporate the potential actions of other market participants experiencing liquidity stresses under the market disruptions that would adversely affect the bank holding company.
(2) Frequency. The bank holding company must perform the liquidity stress tests required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section according to the frequency specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii), or as directed by the Board:
(i) If the bank holding company is not a Category IV bank holding company, at least monthly; or
(ii) If the bank holding company is a Category IV bank holding company, at least quarterly.
(3) Stress scenarios. (i) Each liquidity stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include, at a minimum:
(A) A scenario reflecting adverse market conditions;
(B) A scenario reflecting an idiosyncratic stress event for the bank holding company; and
(C) A scenario reflecting combined market and idiosyncratic stresses.
(ii) The bank holding company must incorporate additional liquidity stress scenarios into its liquidity stress test, as appropriate, based on its financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities. The Board may require the bank holding company to vary the underlying assumptions and stress scenarios.
(4) Planning horizon. Each stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include an overnight planning horizon, a 30-day planning horizon, a 90-day planning horizon, a one-year planning horizon, and any other planning horizons that are relevant to the bank holding company's liquidity risk profile. For purposes of this section, a “planning horizon” is the period over which the relevant stressed projections extend. The bank holding company must use the results of the stress test over the 30-day planning horizon to calculate the size of the liquidity buffer under paragraph (b) of this section.
(5) Requirements for assets used as cash-flow sources in a stress test. (i) To the extent an asset is used as a cash flow source to offset projected funding needs during the planning horizon in a liquidity stress test, the fair market value of the asset must be discounted to reflect any credit risk and market volatility of the asset.
(ii) Assets used as cash-flow sources during a planning horizon must be diversified by collateral, counterparty, borrowing capacity, and other factors associated with the liquidity risk of the assets.
(iii) A line of credit does not qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon of 30 days or less. A line of credit may qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon that exceeds 30 days.
(6) Tailoring. Stress testing must be tailored to, and provide sufficient detail to reflect, a bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
(7) Governance—(i) Policies and procedures. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain policies and procedures governing its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions that provide for the incorporation of the results of liquidity stress tests in future stress testing and for the enhancement of stress testing practices over time.
(ii) Controls and oversight. A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a system of controls and oversight that is designed to ensure that its liquidity stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements of this section. The controls and oversight must ensure that each liquidity stress test appropriately incorporates conservative assumptions with respect to the stress scenario in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and other elements of the stress test process, taking into consideration the bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, business lines, legal entity or jurisdiction, and other relevant factors. The assumptions must be approved by the chief risk officer and be subject to the independent review under § 252.34(d) of this subpart.
(iii) Management information systems. The bank holding company must maintain management information systems and data processes sufficient to enable it to effectively and reliably collect, sort, and aggregate data and other information related to liquidity stress testing.
(8) Notice and response. If the Board determines that a bank holding company must conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the Board will notify the bank holding company before the change in frequency takes effect, and describe the basis for its determination. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the bank holding company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement. The Board will respond in writing to the company's request for reconsideration prior to requiring the company conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(b) Liquidity buffer requirement. (1) A bank holding company subject to this subpart must maintain a liquidity buffer that is sufficient to meet the projected net stressed cash-flow need over the 30-day planning horizon of a liquidity stress test conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section under each scenario set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(2) Net stressed cash-flow need. The net stressed cash-flow need for a bank holding company is the difference between the amount of its cash-flow need and the amount of its cash flow sources over the 30-day planning horizon.
(3) Asset requirements. The liquidity buffer must consist of highly liquid assets that are unencumbered, as defined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section:
(i) Highly liquid asset. A highly liquid asset includes:
(A) Cash;
(B) Assets that meet the criteria for high quality liquid assets as defined in 12 CFR 249.20; or
(C) Any other asset that the bank holding company demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board:
(1) Has low credit risk and low market risk;
(2) Is traded in an active secondary two-way market that has committed market makers and independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom; and
(3) Is a type of asset that investors historically have purchased in periods of financial market distress during which market liquidity has been impaired.
(ii) Unencumbered. An asset is unencumbered if it:
(A) Is free of legal, regulatory, contractual, or other restrictions on the ability of such company promptly to liquidate, sell or transfer the asset; and
(B) Is either:
(1) Not pledged or used to secure or provide credit enhancement to any transaction; or
(2) Pledged to a central bank or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, to the extent potential credit secured by the asset is not currently extended by such central bank or U.S. government-sponsored enterprise or any of its consolidated subsidiaries.
(iii) Calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset. In calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset included in the liquidity buffer, the bank holding company must discount the fair market value of the asset to reflect any credit risk and market price volatility of the asset.
(iv) Operational requirements. With respect to the liquidity buffer, the bank holding company must:
(A) Establish and implement policies and procedures that require highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer to be under the control of the management function in the bank holding company that is charged with managing liquidity risk; and
(B) Demonstrate the capability to monetize a highly liquid asset under each scenario required under § 252.35(a)(3).
(v) Diversification. The liquidity buffer must not contain significant concentrations of highly liquid assets by issuer, business sector, region, or other factor related to the bank holding company's risk, except with respect to cash and securities issued or guaranteed by the United States, a U.S. government agency, or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17317, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59105, Nov. 1, 2019]
Subpart E Supervisory Stress Test Requirements for Certain U.S. Banking Organizations With $100 Billion or More in Total Consolidated Assets and Nonbank Financial Companies Supervised by the Board
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.40 [Reserved]
§ 252.41 Authority and purpose.
(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 1844(b), 1844(c), 5361, 5365, 5366, sec. 401(e), Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296.
(b) Purpose. This subpart implements section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365) and section 401(e) of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act, which requires the Board to conduct annual analyses of nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board and bank holding companies with $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets to evaluate whether such companies have the capital, on a total consolidated basis, necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions.
[84 FR 59105, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.42 Definitions.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62923, Oct. 2, 2026.
For purposes of this subpart E, the following definitions apply:
Advanced approaches means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies at 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, as applicable, and any successor regulation.
Baseline scenario means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
Covered company means:
(1) A U.S. bank holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more;
(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153; and
(3) A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
Foreign banking organization has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 211.21(o).
Pre-provision net revenue means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
Planning horizon means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning on the first day of a stress test cycle over which the relevant projections extend.
Provision for credit losses means:
(1) With respect to a covered company that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle; and,
(2) With respect to a covered company that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle.
Regulatory capital ratio means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the company by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the company's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the company shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
Scenarios are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company that the Board determines are appropriate for use in the supervisory stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
Severely adverse scenario means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
Stress test cycle means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
Subsidiary has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
[84 FR 59106, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.43 Applicability.
(a) Scope—(1) Applicability. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart applies to any covered company, which includes:
(i) Any U.S. bank holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more;
(ii) Any U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153; and
(iii) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is made subject to this section pursuant to a rule or order of the Board.
(2) Ongoing applicability. A bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until its total consolidated assets fall below $100 billion for each of four consecutive quarters.
(b) Transitional arrangements. (1) A bank holding company that becomes a covered company on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the bank holding company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(2) A bank holding company that becomes a covered company after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the third calendar year after the bank holding company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75425, Dec. 2, 2015; 82 FR 9329, Feb. 3, 2017; 84 FR 59106, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.44 Analysis conducted by the Board.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62923, Oct. 2, 2026.
(a) In general. (1) The Board will conduct an analysis of each covered company's capital, on a total consolidated basis, taking into account all relevant exposures and activities of that covered company, to evaluate the ability of the covered company to absorb losses in specified economic and financial conditions.
(2) The analysis will include an assessment of the projected losses, net income, and pro forma capital levels and regulatory capital ratios and other capital ratios for the covered company and use such analytical techniques that the Board determines are appropriate to identify, measure, and monitor risks of the covered company that may affect the financial stability of the United States.
(3) In conducting the analysis, the Board will not incorporate changes to a firm's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the covered company's capital adequacy and funding profile in its projections of losses, net income, pro forma capital levels, and capital ratios.
(b) Economic and financial scenarios related to the Board's analysis. The Board will conduct its analysis using a minimum of two different scenarios, including a baseline scenario and a severely adverse scenario. The Board will notify covered companies of the scenarios that the Board will apply to conduct the analysis for each stress test cycle to which the covered company is subject by no later than February 15 of that year, except with respect to trading or any other components of the scenarios and any additional scenarios that the Board will apply to conduct the analysis, which will be communicated by no later than March 1 of that year.
(c) In conducting a stress test under this section, the Board will make the following assumptions regarding a covered company's capital actions over the planning horizon:
(1) The covered company will not pay any dividends on any instruments that qualify as common equity tier 1 capital;
(2) The covered company will make payments on instruments that qualify as additional tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital equal to the stated dividend, interest, or principal due on such instrument;
(3) The covered company will not make a redemption or repurchase of any capital instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio; and
(4) The covered company will not make any issuances of common stock or preferred stock.
(d) Frequency of analysis conducted by the Board—(1) General. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the Board will conduct its analysis of a covered company according to the frequency in Table 1 to § 252.44(d)(1).
Table 1 to § 252.44(d)(1)
If the covered company is a: | Then the Board will conduct its analysis:
Global systemically important BHC | Annually.
Category II bank holding company | Annually.
Category II U.S. intermediate holding company | Annually.
Category III bank holding company | Annually.
Category III U.S. intermediate holding company | Annually.
Category IV bank holding company | Biennially, occurring in each year ending in an even number.
Category IV U.S. intermediate holding company | Biennially, occurring in each year ending in an even number.
Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board | Annually.
(2) Change in frequency. (i) The Board may conduct a stress test of a covered company on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
(ii) A Category IV bank holding company or Category IV U.S. intermediate holding company may elect to have the Board conduct a stress test with respect to the company in a year ending in an odd number by providing notice to the Board and the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank by January 15 of that year. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, such a company may elect to have the Board conduct a stress test with respect to the company in the year 2021 by providing notice to the Board and the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank by April 5, 2021.
(3) Notice and response—(i) Notification of change in frequency. If the Board determines to change the frequency of the stress test under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing and provide a discussion of the basis for its determination.
(ii) Request for reconsideration and Board response. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, a covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. A covered company's request for reconsideration must include an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75425, Dec. 2, 2015; 84 FR 59106, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15604, Mar. 18, 2020; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021]
§ 252.45 Data and information required to be submitted in support of the Board's analyses.
(a) Regular submissions. Each covered company must submit to the Board such data, on a consolidated basis, that the Board determines is necessary in order for the Board to derive the relevant pro forma estimates of the covered company over the planning horizon under the scenarios described in § 252.44(b).
(b) Additional submissions required by the Board. The Board may require a covered company to submit any other information on a consolidated basis that the Board deems necessary in order to:
(1) Ensure that the Board has sufficient information to conduct its analysis under this subpart; and
(2) Project a company's pre-provision net revenue, losses, provision for credit losses, and net income; and pro forma capital levels, regulatory capital ratios, and any other capital ratio specified by the Board under the scenarios described in § 252.44(b).
(c) Confidential treatment of information submitted. The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75426, Dec. 2, 2015; 84 FR 4245, Feb. 14, 2019]
§ 252.46 Review of the Board's analysis; publication of summary results.
(a) Review of results. Based on the results of the analysis conducted under this subpart, the Board will conduct an evaluation to determine whether the covered company has the capital, on a total consolidated basis, necessary to absorb losses and continue its operation by maintaining ready access to funding, meeting its obligations to creditors and other counterparties, and continuing to serve as a credit intermediary under baseline, adverse and severely adverse scenarios, and any additional scenarios.
(b) Publication of results by the Board. (1) The Board will publicly disclose a summary of the results of the Board's analyses of a covered company by June 30 of the calendar year in which the stress test was conducted pursuant to § 252.44.
(2) The Board will notify companies of the date on which it expects to publicly disclose a summary of the Board's analyses pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section at least 14 calendar days prior to the expected disclosure date.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 9329, Feb. 3, 2017]
§ 252.47 Corporate use of stress test results.
(a) In general. The board of directors and senior management of each covered company must consider the results of the analysis conducted by the Board under this subpart, as appropriate:
(1) As part of the covered company's capital plan and capital planning process, including when making changes to the covered company's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital);
(2) When assessing the covered company's exposures, concentrations, and risk positions; and
(3) In the development or implementation of any plans of the covered company for recovery or resolution.
(b) Resolution plan updates. Each covered company must update its resolution plan as the Board determines appropriate, based on the results of the Board's analyses of the covered company under this subpart.
Subpart F Company-Run Stress Test Requirements for Certain U.S. Bank Holding Companies and Nonbank Financial Companies Supervised by the Board
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.50 [Reserved]
§ 252.51 Authority and purpose.
(a) Authority. 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 1844(b), 1844(c), 5361, 5365, 5366.
(b) Purpose. This subpart establishes the requirement for a covered company to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress test and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.
[84 FR 59107, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.52 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Advanced approaches means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies at 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, as applicable, and any successor regulation.
Baseline scenario means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
Capital action has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.8(d).
Covered company means:
(1) A global systemically important BHC;
(2) A Category II bank holding company;
(3) A Category III bank holding company;
(4) A Category II U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153;
(5) A Category III U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153; and
(6) A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is made subject to this section pursuant to a rule or order of the Board.
Foreign banking organization has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 211.21(o).
Planning horizon means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning on the first day of a stress test cycle over which the relevant projections extend.
Pre-provision net revenue means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
Provision for credit losses means:
(1) With respect to a covered company that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle; and
(2) With respect to a covered company that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle.
Regulatory capital ratio means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the company by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the company's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the company shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
Scenarios are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company that the Board determines are appropriate for use in the company-run stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
Severely adverse scenario means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
Stress test means a process to assess the potential impact of scenarios on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of a covered company over the planning horizon, taking into account its current condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
Stress test cycle means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
Subsidiary has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
[84 FR 59107, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.53 Applicability.
(a) Scope—(1) Applicability. Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, this subpart applies to any covered company, which includes:
(i) Any global systemically important BHC;
(ii) Any Category II bank holding company;
(iii) Any Category III bank holding company;
(iv) Any Category II U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153;
(v) Any Category III U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153; and
(vi) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is made subject to this section pursuant to a rule or order of the Board.
(2) Ongoing applicability. (i) A bank holding company (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until the bank holding company:
(A) Is not a global systemically important BHC;
(B) Is not a Category II bank holding company; and
(C) Is not a Category III bank holding company.
(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until the U.S. intermediate holding company:
(A) Is not a Category II U.S. intermediate holding company; and
(B) Is not a Category III U.S. intermediate holding company.
(3) Insurance bank holding companies. Notwithstanding any other provision of this paragraph (a), this subpart does not apply to a covered company that is a bank holding company that is subject to part 217, subpart J, of this chapter.
(b) Transitional arrangements. (1) A company that becomes a covered company on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(2) A company that becomes a covered company after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the third calendar year after the company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
[84 FR 59107, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 82980, Nov. 27, 2023]
§ 252.54 Stress test.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62924, Oct. 2, 2026.
(a) Stress test—(1) In general. A covered company must conduct a stress test as required under this subpart.
(2) Frequency—(i) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, a covered company must conduct a stress test according to the frequency in Table 1 to § 252.54(a)(2)(i).
Table 1 to § 252.54(a)(2)(i)
If the covered company is a | Then the stress test must be conducted
Global systemically important BHC | Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
Category II bank holding company | Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
Category II U.S. intermediate holding company | Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
Category III bank holding company | Biennially, by April 5 of each calendar year ending in an even number, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
Category III U.S. intermediate holding company | Biennially, by April 5 of each calendar year ending in an even number, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board | Periodically, as determined by rule or order.
(ii) Change in frequency. The Board may require a covered company to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
(3) Notice and response—(i) Notification of change in frequency. If the Board requires a covered company to change the frequency of the stress test under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing and provide a discussion of the basis for its determination.
(ii) Request for reconsideration and Board response. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, a covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. A covered company's request for reconsideration must include an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
(b) Scenarios provided by the Board—(1) In general. In conducting a stress test under this section, a covered company must, at a minimum, use the scenarios provided by the Board. Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, the Board will provide a description of the scenarios to each covered company no later than February 15 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section.
(2) Additional components. (i) The Board may require a covered company with significant trading activity to include a trading and counterparty component in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section. The data used in this component must be as of a date selected by the Board between October 1 of the previous calendar year and March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section, and the Board will communicate the as-of date and a description of the component to the company no later than March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section. A covered company has significant trading activity if it has:
(A) Aggregate trading assets and liabilities of $50 billion or more, or aggregate trading assets and liabilities equal to 10 percent or more of total consolidated assets;
(B) Is not a Category IV bank holding company.
(ii) The Board may require a covered company to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
(3) Additional scenarios. The Board may require a covered company to use one or more additional scenarios in the stress test required by this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
(4) Notice and response—(i) Notification of additional component. If the Board requires a covered company to include one or more additional components in its adverse and severely adverse scenarios under paragraph (b)(2) of this section or to use one or more additional scenarios under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing. The Board will provide such notification no later than December 31 of the preceding calendar year. The notification will include a general description of the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s) and the basis for requiring the company to include the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s).
(ii) Request for reconsideration and Board response. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement that the company include the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s), including an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
(iii) Description of component. The Board will provide the covered company with a description of any additional component(s) or additional scenario(s) by March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 9330, Feb. 3, 2017; 84 FR 59108, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15605, Mar. 18, 2020; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021; 86 FR 22844, Apr. 30, 2021]
§ 252.55 [Reserved]
§ 252.56 Methodologies and practices.
(a) Potential impact on capital. In conducting a stress test under § 252.54, for each quarter of the planning horizon, a covered company must estimate the following for each scenario required to be used:
(1) Losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, and net income; and
(2) The potential impact on the regulatory capital levels and ratios applicable to the covered bank, and any other capital ratios specified by the Board, and in doing so must:
(i) Incorporate the effects of any capital action over the planning horizon and maintenance of an allowance for loan losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as appropriate, for credit exposures throughout the planning horizon; and
(ii) Exclude the impacts of changes to a firm's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the covered company's capital adequacy and funding profile.
(b) Assumptions regarding capital actions. In conducting a stress test under § 252.54, a covered company is required to make the following assumptions regarding its capital actions over the planning horizon:
(1) The covered company will not pay any dividends on any instruments that qualify as common equity tier 1 capital;
(2) The covered company will make payments on instruments that qualify as additional tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital equal to the stated dividend, interest, or principal due on such instrument;
(3) The covered company will not make a redemption or repurchase of any capital instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio; and
(4) The covered company will not make any issuances of common stock or preferred stock.
(c) Controls and oversight of stress testing processes—(1) In general. The senior management of a covered company must establish and maintain a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, that are designed to ensure that its stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements in this subpart. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the covered company's stress testing practices and methodologies, and processes for validating and updating the company's stress test practices and methodologies consistent with applicable laws and regulations.
(2) Oversight of stress testing processes. The board of directors, or a committee thereof, of a covered company must review and approve the policies and procedures of the stress testing processes as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the covered company may warrant, but no less than each year a stress test is conducted. The board of directors and senior management of the covered company must receive a summary of the results of any stress test conducted under this subpart.
(3) Role of stress testing results. The board of directors and senior management of each covered company must consider the results of the analysis it conducts under this subpart, as appropriate:
(i) As part of the covered company's capital plan and capital planning process, including when making changes to the covered company's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital);
(ii) When assessing the covered company's exposures, concentrations, and risk positions; and
(iii) In the development or implementation of any plans of the covered company for recovery or resolution.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75426, Dec. 2, 2015; 84 FR 4246, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15605, Mar. 18, 2020; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021]
§ 252.57 Reports of stress test results.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62924, Oct. 2, 2026.
(a) Reports to the Board of stress test results. A covered company must report the results of the stress test required under § 252.54 to the Board in the manner and form prescribed by the Board. Such results must be submitted by April 5 of the calendar year in which the stress test is conducted pursuant to § 252.54, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(b) Confidential treatment of information submitted. The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 9330, Feb. 3, 2017; 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.58 Disclosure of stress test results.
(a) Public disclosure of results—(1) In general. A covered company must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test required under § 252.54 within the period that is 15 calendar days after the Board publicly discloses the results of its supervisory stress test of the covered company pursuant to § 252.46(b), unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(2) Disclosure method. The summary required under this section may be disclosed on the Web site of a covered company, or in any other forum that is reasonably accessible to the public.
(b) Summary of results. The summary results must, at a minimum, contain the following information regarding the severely adverse scenario:
(1) A description of the types of risks included in the stress test;
(2) A general description of the methodologies used in the stress test, including those employed to estimate losses, revenues, provision for credit losses, and changes in capital positions over the planning horizon.
(3) Estimates of—
(i) Pre-provision net revenue and other revenue;
(ii) Provision for credit losses, realized losses or gains on available-for-sale and held-to-maturity securities, trading and counterparty losses or gains;
(iii) Net income before taxes;
(iv) Loan losses (dollar amount and as a percentage of average portfolio balance) in the aggregate and by subportfolio, including: Domestic closed-end first-lien mortgages; domestic junior lien mortgages and home equity lines of credit; commercial and industrial loans; commercial real estate loans; credit card exposures; other consumer loans; and all other loans; and
(v) Pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board;
(4) An explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios; and
(5) With respect to any depository institution subsidiary that is subject to stress testing requirements pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2), as implemented by subpart B of this part, 12 CFR part 46 (OCC), or 12 CFR part 325, subpart C (FDIC), changes over the planning horizon in regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board and an explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios.
(c) Content of results. (1) The following disclosures required under paragraph (b) of this section must be on a cumulative basis over the planning horizon:
(i) Pre-provision net revenue and other revenue;
(ii) Provision for credit losses, realized losses/gains on available-for-sale and held-to-maturity securities, trading and counterparty losses, and other losses or gain;
(iii) Net income before taxes; and
(iv) Loan losses in the aggregate and by subportfolio.
(2) The disclosure of pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board that is required under paragraph (b) of this section must include the beginning value, ending value, and minimum value of each ratio over the planning horizon.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75426, Dec. 2, 2015; 82 FR 9330, Feb. 3, 2017; 84 FR 4246, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021]
Subpart G External Long-term Debt Requirement, External Total Loss-absorbing Capacity Requirement and Buffer, and Restrictions on Corporate Practices for U.S. Global Systemically Important Banking Organizations
Source: 82 FR 8306, Jan. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.60 Applicability.
(a) General applicability. This subpart applies to any U.S. bank holding company that is identified as a global systemically important BHC.
(b) Initial applicability. A global systemically important BHC shall be subject to the requirements of this subpart beginning on the later of:
(1) January 1, 2019; or
(2) 1095 days (three years) after the date on which the company becomes a global systemically important BHC.
§ 252.61 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart:
Additional tier 1 capital has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(c).
Common equity tier 1 capital has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(b).
Common equity tier 1 capital ratio has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(b)(1) and 12 CFR 217.10(d), as applicable.
Common equity tier 1 minority interest has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
Default right (1) Means any:
(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate the agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay or defer payment or performance thereunder, modify the obligations of a party thereunder or any similar rights; and
(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure; and
(2) Does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
Discretionary bonus payment has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.2.
Distribution has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.2.
Eligible debt security means, with respect to a global systemically important BHC:
(1) A debt instrument that:
(i) Is paid in, and issued by the global systemically important BHC;
(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the global systemically important BHC or a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
(iv) Is governed by the laws of the United States or any State thereof;
(v) Does not provide the holder of the instrument a contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument or in the event of:
(A) A receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the global systemically important BHC; or
(B) A failure of the global systemically important BHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due and payable that continues for 30 days or more;
(vi) Does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as an interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the global systemically important BHC's credit quality, but may have an interest rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the global systemically important BHC's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
(vii) Is not a structured note; and
(viii) Does not provide that the instrument may be converted into or exchanged for equity of the global systemically important BHC; and
(2) A debt instrument issued prior to December 31, 2016 that:
(i) Is paid in, and issued by the global systemically important BHC;
(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the global systemically important BHC or a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
(iv) Does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as an interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the global systemically important BHC's credit quality, but may have an interest rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the global systemically important BHC's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
(v) Is not a structured note; and
(vi) Does not provide that the instrument may be converted into or exchanged for equity of the global systemically important BHC.
External TLAC risk-weighted buffer means, with respect to a global systemically important BHC, the sum of 2.5 percent, any applicable countercyclical capital buffer under 12 CFR 217.11(b) (expressed as a percentage), and the global systemically important BHC's method 1 capital surcharge.
GAAP means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
Global systemically important BHC has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
GSIB surcharge has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
Method 1 capital surcharge means, with respect to a global systemically important BHC, the most recent method 1 capital surcharge (expressed as a percentage) the global systemically important BHC was required to calculate pursuant to subpart H of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.400 through 217.406).
Outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount is defined in § 252.62(b).
Person has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
Qualified financial contract has the same meaning as in section 210(c)(8)(D) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)).
Structured note means a debt instrument that:
(1) Has a principal amount, redemption amount, or stated maturity that is subject to reduction based on the performance of any asset, entity, index, or embedded derivative or similar embedded feature;
(2) Has an embedded derivative or similar embedded feature that is linked to one or more equity securities, commodities, assets, or entities;
(3) Does not specify a minimum principal amount that becomes due upon acceleration or early termination; or
(4) Is not classified as debt under GAAP, provided that an instrument is not a structured note solely because it is one or both of the following:
(i) An instrument that is not denominated in U.S. dollars; or
(ii) An instrument where interest payments are based on an interest rate index.
Supplementary leverage ratio has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(4).
Tier 1 minority interest has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
Tier 2 capital has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(d).
Total leverage exposure has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(4)(ii).
Total risk-weighted assets means the greater of total risk-weighted assets as calculated under 12 CFR part 217, subpart D (the standardized approach) or 12 CFR part 217, subpart E (the internal ratings-based and advanced measurement approaches).
[82 FR 8306, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021; 90 FR 55290, Dec. 1, 2025]
§ 252.62 External long-term debt requirement.
(a) External long-term debt requirement. Except as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, a global systemically important BHC must maintain an outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greater of:
(1) The global systemically important BHC's total risk-weighted assets multiplied by the sum of 6 percent plus the global systemically important BHC's GSIB surcharge (expressed as a percentage); and
(2) The global systemically important BHC's total leverage exposure multiplied by the sum of 2.5 percent plus the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 (expressed as a percentage).
(b) Outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount. (1) A global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount is the sum of:
(i) One hundred (100) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in greater than or equal to 730 days (two years);
(ii) Fifty (50) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) and less than 730 days (two years); and
(iii) Zero (0) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in less than 365 days (one year).
(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the date on which principal is due to be paid on an outstanding eligible debt security is calculated from the earlier of:
(i) The date on which payment of principal is required under the terms governing the instrument, without respect to any right of the holder to accelerate payment of principal; and
(ii) The date the holder of the instrument first has the contractual right to request or require payment of the amount of principal, provided that, with respect to a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument only on the occurrence of an event (other than an event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the global systemically important BHC, or a failure of the global systemically important BHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due), the date for the outstanding eligible debt security under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) will be calculated as if the event has occurred.
(3) After notice and response proceedings consistent with 12 CFR part 263, subpart E, the Board may order a global systemically important BHC to exclude from its outstanding eligible long-term debt amount any debt security with one or more features that would significantly impair the ability of such debt security to take losses.
(c) Redemption and repurchase. A global systemically important BHC may not redeem or repurchase any outstanding eligible debt security without the prior approval of the Board if, immediately after the redemption or repurchase, the global systemically important BHC would not meet its external long-term debt requirement under paragraph (a) of this section, or its external total loss-absorbing capacity requirement under § 252.63(a).
[82 FR 8306, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55290, Dec. 1, 2025]
§ 252.63 External total loss-absorbing capacity requirement and buffer.
(a) External total loss-absorbing capacity requirement. A global systemically important BHC must maintain an outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greater of:
(1) 18 percent of the global systemically important BHC's total risk-weighted assets; and
(2) 7.5 percent of the global systemically important BHC's total leverage exposure.
(b) Outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount. A global systemically important BHC's outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount is the sum of:
(1) The global systemically important BHC's common equity tier 1 capital (excluding any common equity tier 1 minority interest);
(2) The global systemically important BHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest); and
(3) The global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years).
(c) External TLAC buffer—(1) Composition of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer. The external TLAC risk-weighted buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
(2) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph, the following definitions apply:
(i) Eligible retained income. The eligible retained income of a global systemically important BHC is the greater of:
(A) The global systemically important BHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and
(B) The average of the global systemically important BHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter.
(ii) Maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio. The maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a global systemically important BHC can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio is based on the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.63.
(iii) Maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount. A global systemically important BHC's maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the global systemically important BHC's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.63.
(iv) Maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio. The maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a global systemically important BHC can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio is based on the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 2 to § 252.63.
(v) Maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount. A global systemically important BHC's maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the global systemically important BHC's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum TLAC leverage payout ratio, as set forth in Table 2 to § 252.63.
(3) Calculation of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level. (i) A global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level is equal to the global systemically important BHC's common equity tier 1 capital ratio (expressed as a percentage) minus the greater of zero and the following amount:
(A) 18 percent; minus
(B) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) to its total risk-weighted assets; and minus
(C) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC due to be paid in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years) to total risk-weighted assets.
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of a global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section to its risk-weighted assets is less than or equal to 18 percent, the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level is zero.
(4) Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments. (i) A global systemically important BHC shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount or the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount.
(ii) A global systemically important BHC with an external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level that is greater than the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer and an external TLAC leverage buffer level that is greater than the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section, is not subject to a maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount or a maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount.
(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section, a global systemically important BHC may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the global systemically important BHC's:
(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
(B) External TLAC risk-weighted buffer level was less than the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer as of the end of the previous calendar quarter or external TLAC leverage buffer level was less than the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 as of the end of the previous calendar quarter.
(iv) Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the Board may permit a global systemically important BHC to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the global systemically important BHC, if the Board determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the global systemically important BHC. In making such a determination, the Board will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
(v)(A) A global systemically important BHC is subject to the lowest of the maximum payout amounts as determined under 12 CFR 217.11(a)(2), the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount as determined under this paragraph, and the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount as determined under this paragraph.
(B) Additional limitations on distributions may apply to a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 225.4, 225.8, and 263.202.
(5) External TLAC leverage buffer—(i) General. A global systemically important BHC is subject to the lower of the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section and the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section.
(ii) Composition of the external TLAC leverage buffer. The external TLAC leverage buffer is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
(iii) Calculation of the external TLAC leverage buffer level. (A) A global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level is equal to the global systemically important BHC's supplementary leverage ratio (expressed as a percentage) minus the greater of zero and the following amount:
(1) 7.5 percent; minus
(2) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC due to be paid in in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years) to total leverage exposure.
(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of a global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section to its total leverage exposure is less than or equal to 7.5 percent, the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level is zero.
Table 1 to § 252.63—Calculation of Maximum External TLAC Risk-Weighted Payout Amount
External TLAC risk-weighted buffer level | Maximum External TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio (as a percentage of eligible retained income)
Greater than the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer | No payout ratio limitation applies.
Less than or equal to the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer, and greater than 75 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer | 60 percent.
Less than or equal to 75 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer, and greater than 50 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer | 40 percent.
Less than or equal to 50 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer, and greater 25 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer | 20 percent.
Less than or equal to 25 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer | 0 percent.
Table 2 to § 252.63—Calculation of Maximum External TLAC Leverage Payout Amount
External TLAC leverage buffer level | Maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio (as a percentage of eligible retained income)
Greater than 100 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 | No payout ratio limitation applies.
Less than or equal to 100 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11, and greater than 75 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 | 60 percent.
Less than or equal to 75 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11, and greater than 50 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 | 40 percent.
Less than or equal to 50 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11, and greater than 25 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 | 20 percent.
Less than or equal to 25 percent of global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 | 0 percent.
[82 FR 8306, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 17006, Mar. 26, 2020; 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021; 90 FR 55290, Dec. 1, 2025]
§ 252.64 Restrictions on corporate practices of U.S. global systemically important banking organizations.
(a) Prohibited corporate practices. A global systemically important BHC may not directly:
(1) Issue any debt instrument with an original maturity of less than 365 days (one year), including short term deposits and demand deposits, to any person, unless the person is a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC;
(2) Issue any instrument, or enter into any related contract, with respect to which the holder of the instrument has a contractual right to offset debt owed by the holder or its affiliates to a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC against the amount, or a portion of the amount, owed by the global systemically important BHC under the instrument;
(3) Enter into a qualified financial contract that is not a credit enhancement with a person that is not a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC;
(4) Enter into an agreement in which the global systemically important BHC guarantees a liability of a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC if such liability permits the exercise of a default right that is related, directly or indirectly, to the global systemically important BHC becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding other than a receivership proceeding under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 through 5394) unless the liability is subject to requirements of the Board restricting such default rights or subject to any similar requirements of another U.S. federal banking agency; or
(5) Enter into, or otherwise begin to benefit from, any agreement that provides for its liabilities to be guaranteed by any of its subsidiaries.
(b) Limit on unrelated liabilities. (1) The aggregate amount, on an unconsolidated basis, of unrelated liabilities of a global systemically important BHC owed to persons that are not affiliates of the global systemically important BHC may not exceed 5 percent of the systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.63(b).
(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an unrelated liability is any non-contingent liability of the global systemically important BHC owed to a person that is not an affiliate of the global systemically important BHC other than:
(i) The instruments that are used to satisfy the global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.63(b);
(ii) Any dividend or other liability arising from the instruments that are used to satisfy the global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.63(b);
(iii) An eligible debt security that does not provide the holder of the instrument with a currently exercisable right to require immediate payment of the total or remaining principal amount; and
(iv) A secured liability, to the extent that it is secured, or a liability that otherwise represents a claim that would be senior to eligible debt securities in Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(b)) and the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 507).
(c) A Covered BHC is not subject to paragraph (b) of this section if all of the eligible debt securities issued by the Covered BHC would represent the most subordinated debt claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered BHC.
§ 252.65 Disclosure requirements.
(a) A global systemically important BHC must publicly disclose a description of the financial consequences to unsecured debtholders of the global systemically important BHC entering into a resolution proceeding in which the global systemically important BHC is the only entity that would be subject to the resolution proceeding.
(b) A global systemically important BHC must provide the disclosure required by paragraph (a) of this section:
(1) In the offering documents for all of its eligible debt securities; and
(2) Either:
(i) On the global systemically important BHC's Web site; or
(ii) In more than one public financial report or other public regulatory reports, provided that the global systemically important BHC publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of this disclosure.
Subpart H Single-Counterparty Credit Limits
Source: 83 FR 38493, Aug. 6, 2018, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.70 Applicability and general provisions.
(a) In general. (1) This subpart establishes single counterparty credit limits for a covered company.
(2) For purposes of this subpart:
(i) Covered company means:
(A) A global systemically important BHC;
(B) A Category II bank holding company; and
(C) A Category III bank holding company;
(ii) Major covered company means any covered company that is a global systemically important BHC.
(b) Credit exposure limits. (1) Section 252.72 establishes credit exposure limits for a covered company and a major covered company.
(2) A covered company is required to calculate its aggregate net credit exposure, gross credit exposure, and net credit exposure to a counterparty using the methods in this subpart.
(c) Applicability of this subpart. (1)(i) A company that is a covered company as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.72, beginning on July 1, 2020, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, a company that is a major covered company as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.72, beginning on January 1, 2020, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(2) A covered company that becomes subject to this subpart after October 5, 2018 must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth calendar quarter after it becomes a covered company, unless that time is accelerated or extended by the Board in writing.
(d) Cessation of requirements. (1) Any company that becomes a covered company will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart unless and until:
(i) The covered company is not a global systemically important BHC;
(ii) The covered company is not a Category II bank holding company; and
(iii) The covered company is not a Category III bank holding company.
(2) A covered company that has ceased to be a major covered company for purposes of § 252.72(b) is no longer subject to the requirements of § 252.72(b) beginning on the first day of the calendar quarter following the reporting date on which it ceased to be a major covered company; provided that the covered company remains subject to the requirements of this subpart, unless it ceases to be a covered company pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
[83 FR 38493, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.71 Definitions.
Unless defined in this section, terms that are set forth in § 252.2 of this part and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned in § 252.2. For purposes of this subpart:
(a) Adjusted market value means:
(1) With respect to the value of cash, securities, or other eligible collateral transferred by the covered company to a counterparty, the sum of:
(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; and
(ii) The product of the market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132); and
(2) With respect to cash, securities, or other eligible collateral received by the covered company from a counterparty:
(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; minus
(ii) The market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132).
(3) Prior to calculating the adjusted market value pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, with regard to a transaction that meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2), the covered company would first multiply the applicable collateral haircuts in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132) by the square root of 1/2.
(b) Affiliate means, with respect to a company:
(1) Any subsidiary of the company and any other company that is consolidated with the company under applicable accounting standards; or
(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any subsidiary of the company and any other company that would be consolidated with the company, if consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
(c) Aggregate net credit exposure means the sum of all net credit exposures of a covered company and all of its subsidiaries to a single counterparty as calculated under this subpart.
(d) Bank-eligible investments means investment securities that a national bank is permitted to purchase, sell, deal in, underwrite, and hold under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) and 12 CFR part 1.
(e) Counterparty means, with respect to a credit transaction:
(1) With respect to a natural person, the natural person, and, if the credit exposure of the covered company to such natural person exceeds 5 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital, the natural person and members of the person's immediate family collectively;
(2) With respect to any company that is not a subsidiary of the covered company, the company and its affiliates collectively;
(3) With respect to a State, the State and all of its agencies, instrumentalities, and political subdivisions (including any municipalities) collectively;
(4) With respect to a foreign sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D), the foreign sovereign entity and all of its agencies and instrumentalities (but not including any political subdivision) collectively; and
(5) With respect to a political subdivision of a foreign sovereign entity such as a state, province, or municipality, any political subdivision of the foreign sovereign entity and all of such political subdivision's agencies and instrumentalities, collectively. 1
1 In addition, under § 252.76, under certain circumstances, a covered company is required to aggregate its net credit exposure to one or more counterparties for all purposes under this subpart.
(f) Covered company is defined in § 252.70(a)(2)(i) of this subpart.
(g) Credit derivative has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(h) Credit transaction means, with respect to a counterparty:
(1) Any extension of credit to the counterparty, including loans, deposits, and lines of credit, but excluding uncommitted lines of credit;
(2) Any repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement with the counterparty;
(3) Any securities lending or securities borrowing transaction with the counterparty;
(4) Any guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit (including any endorsement, confirmed letter of credit, or standby letter of credit) issued on behalf of the counterparty;
(5) Any purchase of securities issued by or other investment in the counterparty;
(6) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty;
(7) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party, the reference asset of which is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, the counterparty; and
(8) Any transaction that is the functional equivalent of the above, and any other similar transaction that the Board, by regulation or order, determines to be a credit transaction for purposes of this subpart.
(i) Depository institution has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
(j) Derivative transaction means any transaction that is a contract, agreement, swap, warrant, note, or option that is based, in whole or in part, on the value of, any interest in, or any quantitative measure or the occurrence of any event relating to, one or more commodities, securities, currencies, interest or other rates, indices, or other assets.
(k) Eligible collateral means collateral in which, notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent, the covered company has a perfected, first priority security interest (or the legal equivalent thereof, if outside of the United States), with the exception of cash on deposit, and is in the form of:
(1) Cash on deposit with the covered company or a subsidiary of the covered company (including cash in foreign currency or U.S. dollars held for the covered company by a custodian or trustee, whether inside or outside of the United States);
(2) Debt securities (other than mortgage- or asset-backed securities and resecuritization securities, unless those securities are issued by a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise) that are bank-eligible investments and that are investment grade, except for any debt securities issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company;
(3) Equity securities that are publicly traded, except for any equity securities issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company;
(4) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded, except for any convertible bonds issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company; or
(5) Gold bullion.
(l) Eligible credit derivative means a single-name credit derivative or a standard, non-tranched index credit derivative, provided that:
(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld; and
(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event.
(m) Eligible equity derivative means an equity derivative, provided that:
(1) The derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
(2) Any assignment of the derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties; and
(3) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the derivative contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract.
(n) Eligible guarantee has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(o) Eligible guarantor has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(p) Equity derivative has the same meaning as “equity derivative contract” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(q) Exempt counterparty means an entity that is identified as exempt from the requirements of this subpart under § 252.77, or that is otherwise excluded from this subpart, including any sovereign entity assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D).
(r) Financial entity means:
(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with this part; or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a federal credit union or state credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); a national association, state member bank, or state nonmember bank that is not a depository institution; an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
(iv) Any person registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.);
(v) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq.); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
(vi) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
(vii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
(viii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
(ix) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
(x) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5462); and
(xi) An entity that would be a financial entity described in paragraphs (r)(1)(i) through (x) of this section, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; and
(2) Provided that, for purposes of this subpart, “financial entity” does not include any counterparty that is a foreign sovereign entity or multilateral development bank.
(s) Foreign sovereign entity means a sovereign entity other than the United States government and the entity's agencies, departments, ministries, and central bank collectively.
(t) Gross credit exposure means, with respect to any credit transaction, the credit exposure of the covered company before adjusting, pursuant to § 252.74, for the effect of any eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible credit derivative, eligible equity derivative, other eligible hedge, and any unused portion of certain extensions of credit.
(u) Immediate family means the spouse of an individual, the individual's minor children, and any of the individual's children (including adults) residing in the individual's home.
(v) Intraday credit exposure means credit exposure of a covered company to a counterparty that by its terms is to be repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of its business day in the United States.
(w) Investment grade has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(x) Major counterparty means any counterparty that is or includes:
(1) A major covered company;
(2) A top-tier foreign banking organization that meets the requirements of § 252.172(c)(3) through (5); or
(3) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
(y) Major covered company is defined in § 252.70(a)(2)(ii) of this subpart.
(z) Multilateral development bank has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(aa) Net credit exposure means, with respect to any credit transaction, the gross credit exposure of a covered company and all of its subsidiaries calculated under § 252.73, as adjusted in accordance with § 252.74.
(bb) Qualifying central counterparty has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(cc) Qualifying master netting agreement has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(dd) Securities financing transaction means any repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement, securities borrowing transaction, or securities lending transaction.
(ee) Short sale means any sale of a security which the seller does not own or any sale which is consummated by the delivery of a security borrowed by, or for the account of, the seller.
(ff) Sovereign entity means a central national government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank, but not including any political subdivision such as a state, province, or municipality.
(gg) Subsidiary. A company is a subsidiary of another company if:
(1) The company is consolidated by the other company under applicable accounting standards; or
(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (gg)(1) of this definition, consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
(hh) Tier 1 capital means common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital, as defined in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) and as reported by the bank holding company on the most recent FR Y-9C report on a consolidated basis.
(ii) Total consolidated assets. A company's total consolidated assets are determined based on:
(1) The average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets in the four most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-9C; or
(2) If the bank holding company has not filed an FR Y-9C for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the company's FR Y-9C, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable.
§ 252.72 Credit exposure limits.
(a) General limit on aggregate net credit exposure. No covered company may have an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 25 percent of the tier 1 capital of the covered company.
(b) Limit on aggregate net credit exposure of major covered companies to major counterparties. No major covered company may have aggregate net credit exposure to any major counterparty that exceeds 15 percent of the tier 1 capital of the major covered company.
§ 252.73 Gross credit exposure.
(a) Calculation of gross credit exposure. The amount of gross credit exposure of a covered company to a counterparty with respect to a credit transaction is, in the case of:
(1) A deposit of the covered company held by the counterparty, loan by a covered company to the counterparty, and lease in which the covered company is the lessor and the counterparty is the lessee, equal to the amount owed by the counterparty to the covered company under the transaction.
(2) A debt security or debt investment held by the covered company that is issued by the counterparty, equal to:
(i) The market value of the securities, for trading and available-for-sale securities; and
(ii) The amortized purchase price of the securities or investments, for securities or investments held to maturity.
(3) An equity security held by the covered company that is issued by the counterparty, equity investment in a counterparty, and other direct investments in a counterparty, equal to the market value.
(4) A securities financing transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered company is authorized to use under the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E) to value such transactions:
(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered company and the counterparty that is not subject to a bilateral netting agreement or does not meet the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2); or
(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered company and the counterparty that is subject to a bilateral netting agreement with that counterparty and meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2);
(ii) For purposes of paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, the covered company must:
(A) Assign a value of zero to any security received from the counterparty that does not meet the definition of “eligible collateral” in § 252.71(k); and
(B) Include the value of securities that are eligible collateral received by the covered company from the counterparty (including any exempt counterparty), calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to the issuer of those securities;
(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section and with respect to each credit transaction, a covered company's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (a)(4) is limited to the covered company's gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction; and
(iv) In cases where the covered company receives eligible collateral from a counterparty in addition to the cash or securities received from that counterparty, the counterparty may reduce its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with § 252.74(b).
(5) A committed credit line extended by a covered company to a counterparty, equal to the face amount of the committed credit line.
(6) A guarantee or letter of credit issued by a covered company on behalf of a counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered company on the transaction.
(7) A derivative transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered company is authorized to use under the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E) to value such transactions:
(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; or
(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.
(ii) In cases where a covered company is required to recognize an exposure to an eligible guarantor pursuant to § 252.74(d), the covered company must exclude the relevant derivative transaction when calculating its gross exposure to the original counterparty under this section.
(8) A credit derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or debt security of the counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered company on the transaction.
(b) Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not subsidiaries. Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a covered company must calculate pursuant to § 252.75 its gross credit exposure due to any investment in the debt or equity of, and any credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, a securitization vehicle, investment fund, and other special purpose vehicle that is not a subsidiary of the covered company.
(c) Attribution rule. Notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart, a covered company must treat any transaction with any natural person or entity as a credit transaction with another party, to the extent that the proceeds of the transaction are used for the benefit of, or transferred to, the other party.
§ 252.74 Net credit exposure.
(a) In general. For purposes of this subpart, a covered company must calculate its net credit exposure to a counterparty by adjusting its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with the rules set forth in this section.
(b) Eligible collateral. (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction other than a securities financing transaction, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure on the transaction by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
(2) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must include the adjusted market value of the eligible collateral, when calculating its gross credit exposure to the collateral issuer.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (b) is limited to:
(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction, or
(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction if valued in accordance with § 252.73(a).
(c) Eligible guarantees. (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the amount of any eligible guarantee from an eligible guarantor that covers the transaction.
(2) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include the amount of eligible guarantees when calculating its gross credit exposure to the eligible guarantor.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible guarantee under this paragraph (c) is limited to:
(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee, or
(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee if valued in accordance with § 252.73(a).
(d) Eligible credit and equity derivatives. (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by:
(i) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
(ii) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 252.73(a)(7)).
(2)(i) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as provided under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must include, when calculating its net credit exposure to the eligible guarantor, including in instances where the underlying credit transaction would not be subject to the credit limits of § 252.72 (for example, due to an exempt counterparty), either
(A) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
(B) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 252.73(a)(7)).
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, in cases where the eligible credit derivative or eligible equity derivative is used to hedge covered positions that are subject to the Board's market risk rule (12 CFR part 217, subpart F) and the counterparty on the hedged transaction is not a financial entity, the amount of credit exposure that a company must recognize to the eligible guarantor is the amount that would be calculated pursuant to § 252.73(a).
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible credit derivative or an eligible equity derivative under this paragraph (d) is limited to:
(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative, or
(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative if valued in accordance with § 252.73(a).
(e) Other eligible hedges. In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the face amount of a short sale of the counterparty's debt security or equity security, provided that:
(1) The instrument in which the covered company has a short position is junior to, or pari passu with, the instrument in which the covered company has the long position; and
(2) The instrument in which the covered company has a short position and the instrument in which the covered company has the long position are either both treated as trading or available-for-sale exposures or both treated as held-to-maturity exposures.
(f) Unused portion of certain extensions of credit. (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for a committed credit line or revolving credit facility under this section, a covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure by the amount of the unused portion of the credit extension to the extent that the covered company does not have any legal obligation to advance additional funds under the extension of credit and the used portion of the credit extension has been fully secured by eligible collateral.
(2) To the extent that the used portion of a credit extension has been secured by eligible collateral, the covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral received from the counterparty, even if the used portion has not been fully secured by eligible collateral.
(3) To qualify for the reduction in net credit exposure under this paragraph, the credit contract must specify that any used portion of the credit extension must be fully secured by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
(g) Credit transactions involving exempt counterparties. (1) A covered company's credit transactions with an exempt counterparty are not subject to the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.72.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1) of this section, in cases where a covered company has a credit transaction with an exempt counterparty and the covered company has obtained eligible collateral from that exempt counterparty or an eligible guarantee or eligible credit or equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the covered company must include (for purposes of this subpart) such exposure to the issuer of such eligible collateral or the eligible guarantor, as calculated in accordance with the rules set forth in this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to that issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor.
(h) Currency mismatch adjustments. For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered company must apply, as applicable:
(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral and calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.37(c)(3)(ii) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(3)(ii)); and
(2) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor and calculating its gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(f) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.36(f)).
(i) Maturity mismatch adjustments. For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered company must apply, as applicable, the maturity mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(d) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.36(d)):
(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral or any eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, or eligible credit derivatives from an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, and
(2) In calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section; provided that
(3) The eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative subject to paragraph (i)(1) of this section:
(i) Has a shorter maturity than the credit transaction;
(ii) Has an original maturity equal to or greater than one year;
(iii) Has a residual maturity of not less than three months; and
(iv) The adjustment approach is otherwise applicable.
§ 252.75 Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not subsidiaries of the covered company.
(a) In general. (1) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(i) SPV means a securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle that is not a subsidiary of the covered company.
(ii) SPV exposure means an investment in the debt or equity of an SPV, or a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, an SPV.
(2)(i) A covered company must determine whether the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV, due to an SPV exposure, is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital using one of the following two methods:
(A) The sum of all of the issuer's assets (with each asset valued in accordance with § 252.73(a)) in the SPV; or
(B) The application of the look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) With respect to the determination required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, a covered company must use the same method to calculate gross credit exposure to each issuer of assets in a particular SPV.
(iii) In making a determination under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the covered company must consider only the credit exposure to the issuer arising from the covered company's SPV exposure.
(iv) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), a covered company that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure to all unidentified issuers and calculate such gross credit exposure using one method in either paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) or (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section.
(3)(i) If a covered company determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is less than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital, the amount of the covered company's gross credit exposure to that issuer may be attributed to either that issuer of assets or the SPV:
(A) If attributed to the issuer of assets, the issuer of assets must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section to that issuer of assets must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 252.73) to that same counterparty; and
(B) If attributed to the SPV, the covered company's gross credit exposure is equal to the covered company's SPV exposure, valued in accordance with § 252.73(a).
(ii) If a covered company determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital or the covered company is unable to determine that the amount of the gross credit exposure is less than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital:
(A) The covered company must calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets in the SPV using the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section;
(B) The issuer of assets in the SPV must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 252.73) to that same counterparty; and
(C) When applying the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, a covered company that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, to all unidentified issuers.
(iii) For purposes of this section, a covered company must aggregate all gross credit exposures to unknown counterparties for all SPVs as if the exposures related to a single unknown counterparty; this single unknown counterparty is subject to the limits of § 252.72 as if it were a single counterparty.
(b) Look-through approach. A covered company that is required to calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure with respect to an issuer of assets in accordance with this paragraph (b) must calculate the amount as follows:
(1) Where all investors in the SPV rank pari passu, the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to the covered company's pro rata share of the SPV multiplied by the value of the underlying asset in the SPV, valued in accordance with § 252.73(a); and
(2) Where all investors in the SPV do not rank pari passu, the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to:
(i) The pro rata share of the covered company's investment in the tranche of the SPV; multiplied by
(ii) The lesser of:
(A) The market value of the tranche in which the covered company has invested, except in the case of a debt security that is held to maturity, in which case the tranche must be valued at the amortized purchase price of the securities; and
(B) The value of each underlying asset attributed to the issuer in the SPV, each as calculated pursuant to § 252.73(a).
(c) Exposures to third parties. (1) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, a covered company must recognize, for purposes of this subpart, a gross credit exposure to each third party that has a contractual obligation to provide credit or liquidity support to an SPV whose failure or material financial distress would cause a loss in the value of the covered company's SPV exposure.
(2) The amount of any gross credit exposure that is required to be recognized to a third party under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is equal to the covered company's SPV exposure, up to the maximum contractual obligation of that third party to the SPV, valued in accordance with § 252.73(a). (This gross credit exposure is in addition to the covered company's gross credit exposure to the SPV or the issuers of assets of the SPV, calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.)
(3) A covered company must aggregate the gross credit exposure to a third party recognized in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section with its other gross credit exposures to that third party (that are unrelated to the SPV) for purposes of compliance with the limits of § 252.72.
§ 252.76 Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence or control relationships.
(a) In general. (1) If a covered company has an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 5 percent of its tier 1 capital, the covered company must assess its relationship with the counterparty under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is economically interdependent with one or more other counterparties of the covered company and under paragraph (c)(1) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is connected by a control relationship with one or more other counterparties.
(2) If, pursuant to an assessment required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the covered company determines that one or more of the factors of paragraph (b)(2) or (c)(1) of this section are met with respect to one or more counterparties, or the Board determines pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section that one or more other counterparties of a covered company are economically interdependent or that one or more other counterparties of a covered company are connected by a control relationship, the covered company must aggregate its net credit exposure to the counterparties for all purposes under this subpart, including, but not limited to, § 252.72.
(3) In connection with any request pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) or (c)(2) of this section, the Board may require the covered company to provide additional information.
(b) Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence. (1) For purposes of this paragraph, two counterparties are economically interdependent if the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of one counterparty would cause the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of the other counterparty, taking into account the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(2) A covered company must assess whether the financial distress of one counterparty (counterparty A) would prevent the ability of the other counterparty (counterparty B) to fully and timely repay counterparty B's liabilities and whether the insolvency or default of counterparty A is likely to be associated with the insolvency or default of counterparty B and, therefore, these counterparties are economically interdependent, by evaluating the following:
(i) Whether 50 percent or more of one counterparty's gross revenue is derived from, or gross expenditures are directed to, transactions with the other counterparty;
(ii) Whether counterparty A has fully or partly guaranteed the credit exposure of counterparty B, or is liable by other means, in an amount that is 50 percent or more of the covered company's net credit exposure to counterparty A;
(iii) Whether 25 percent or more of one counterparty's production or output is sold to the other counterparty, which cannot easily be replaced by other customers;
(iv) Whether the expected source of funds to repay the loans of both counterparties is the same and neither counterparty has another independent source of income from which the loans may be serviced and fully repaid; 1 and
1 An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment under this paragraph because of wages and salaries paid to an employee.
(v) Whether two or more counterparties rely on the same source for the majority of their funding and, in the event of the common provider's default, an alternative provider cannot be found.
(3)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, if a covered company determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (b)(2) is met, the covered company may request in writing a determination from the Board that those counterparties are not economically interdependent and that the covered company is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
(ii) Upon a request by a covered company pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered company and not require the covered company to aggregate one counterparty with another counterparty provided that the counterparty could promptly modify its business relationships, such as by reducing its reliance on the other counterparty, to address any economic interdependence concerns, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
(c) Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to certain control relationships. (1) For purposes of this subpart, one counterparty (counterparty A) is deemed to control the other counterparty (counterparty B) if:
(i) Counterparty A owns, controls, or holds with the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of counterparty B; or
(ii) Counterparty A controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of counterparty B.
(2)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, if a covered company determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (c)(1) is met, the covered company may request in writing a determination from the Board that counterparty A does not control counterparty B and that the covered company is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
(ii) Upon a request by a covered company pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered company and not require the covered company to aggregate counterparty A with counterparty B provided that, taking into account the specific facts and circumstances, such indicia of control does not result in the entities being connected by control relationships for purposes of this subpart, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
(d) Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties due to economic interdependence or control relationships. The Board may determine, after notice to the covered company and opportunity for hearing, that one or more counterparties of a covered company are:
(1) Economically interdependent for purposes of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as well as any other indicia of economic interdependence that the Board determines in its discretion to be relevant; or
(2) Connected by control relationships for purposes of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and whether counterparty A:
(i) Controls the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of Counterparty B pursuant to a voting agreement;
(ii) Has significant influence on the appointment or dismissal of counterparty B's administrative, management, or governing body, or the fact that a majority of members of such body have been appointed solely as a result of the exercise of counterparty A's voting rights; or
(iii) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of counterparty B.
(e) Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties to prevent evasion. Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a covered company must aggregate its exposures to a counterparty with the covered company's exposures to another counterparty if the Board determines in writing after notice and opportunity for hearing, that the exposures to the two counterparties must be aggregated to prevent evasions of the purposes of this subpart, including, but not limited to § 252.76 and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
[83 FR 38493, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 83 FR 64023, Dec. 13, 2018]
§ 252.77 Exemptions.
(a) Exempted exposure categories. The following categories of credit transactions are exempt from the limits on credit exposure under this subpart:
(1) Any direct claim on, and the portion of a claim that is directly and fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, only while operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency, and any additional obligation issued by a U.S. government-sponsored entity as determined by the Board;
(2) Intraday credit exposure to a counterparty;
(3) Any trade exposure to a qualifying central counterparty related to the covered company's clearing activity, including potential future exposure arising from transactions cleared by the qualifying central counterparty and pre-funded default fund contributions;
(4) Any credit transaction with the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Development Association, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, or the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes;
(5) Any credit transaction with the European Commission or the European Central Bank; and
(6) Any transaction that the Board exempts if the Board finds that such exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart.
(b) Exemption for Federal Home Loan Banks. For purposes of this subpart, a covered company does not include any Federal Home Loan Bank.
(c) Additional exemptions by the Board. The Board may, by regulation or order, exempt transactions, in whole or in part, from the definition of the term “credit exposure,” if the Board finds that the exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
§ 252.78 Compliance.
(a) Scope of compliance. (1) Using all available data, including any data required to be maintained or reported to the Federal Reserve under this subpart, a covered company must comply with the requirements of this subpart on a daily basis at the end of each business day.
(2) A covered company must report its compliance to the Federal Reserve as of the end of the quarter, unless the Board determines and notifies that company in writing that more frequent reporting is required.
(3) In reporting its compliance, a covered company must calculate and include in its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor the amounts of eligible collateral, eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, and eligible credit derivatives that were provided to the covered company in connection with credit transactions with exempt counterparties, valued in accordance with and as required by § 252.74(b) through (d) and (g).
(b) Qualifying Master Netting Agreement. With respect to any qualifying master netting agreement, a covered company must establish and maintain procedures that meet or exceed the requirements of § 217.3(d) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.3(d)) to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy these requirements.
(c) Noncompliance. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, if a covered company is not in compliance with this subpart with respect to a counterparty solely due to the circumstances listed in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (v) of this section, the covered company will not be subject to enforcement actions for a period of 90 days (or, with prior notice to the company, such shorter or longer period determined by the Board, in its sole discretion, to be appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered company or U.S. financial stability), if the covered company uses reasonable efforts to return to compliance with this subpart during this period. The covered company may not engage in any additional credit transactions with such a counterparty in contravention of this rule during the period of noncompliance, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2).
(2) A covered company may request a special temporary credit exposure limit exemption from the Board. The Board may grant approval for such exemption in cases where the Board determines that such credit transactions are necessary or appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered company or U.S. financial stability. In acting on a request for an exemption, the Board will consider the following:
(i) A decrease in the covered company's capital stock and surplus;
(ii) The merger of the covered company with another covered company;
(iii) A merger of two counterparties; or
(iv) An unforeseen and abrupt change in the status of a counterparty as a result of which the covered company's credit exposure to the counterparty becomes limited by the requirements of this section; or
(v) Any other factor(s) the Board determines, in its discretion, is appropriate.
(d) Other measures. The Board may impose supervisory oversight and additional reporting measures that it determines are appropriate to monitor compliance with this subpart. Covered companies must furnish, in the manner and form prescribed by the Board, such information to monitor compliance with this subpart and the limits therein as the Board may require.
Subpart I Requirements for Qualified Financial Contracts of Global Systemically Important Banking Organizations
Source: Reg. YY, 82 FR 42920, Sept. 12, 2017, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.81 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart:
Central counterparty (CCP) has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
Chapter 11 proceeding means a proceeding under Chapter 11 of Title 11, United States Code (11 U.S.C. 1101-74.).
Consolidated affiliate means an affiliate of another company that
(1) Either consolidates the other company, or is consolidated by the other company, on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
(2) Is, along with the other company, consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
(3) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1), if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
Default right (1) Means, with respect to a QFC, any:
(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including, without limitation, rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement, or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation, and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate such agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay, or defer payment or performance thereunder, or modify the obligations of a party thereunder, or any similar rights; and
(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral, or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure;
(2) With respect to § 252.84, does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
Excluded bank:
(1) Means a national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch, a Federal agency, or an FSI that is exempted from the scope of this subpart pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of § 252.82;
(2) Does not include any entity described in paragraph (1) of this definition that is owned pursuant to section 3(a)(A)(ii) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(A)(ii)); is owned by a depository institution in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith; is a portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662); is owned pursuant to paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24); or is a DPC branch subsidiary.
FDI Act proceeding means a proceeding in which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is appointed as conservator or receiver under section 11 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821).
FDI Act stay period means, in connection with an FDI Act proceeding, the period of time during which a party to a QFC with a party that is subject to an FDI Act proceeding may not exercise any right that the party that is not subject to an FDI Act proceeding has to terminate, liquidate, or net such QFC, in accordance with section 11(e) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)) and any implementing regulations.
Financial counterparty means a person that is:
(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company that is established or designated for purposes of compliance with this part; or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) & (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2002 et seq., that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
(vi) Any entity registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.);
(vii) A securities holding company, with the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq.); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
(viii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
(ix) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
(x) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
(xi) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator; or
(xii) An entity that would be a financial counterparty described in paragraphs (1)(i)-(xi) of this definition, if the entity were organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof.
(2) The term “financial counterparty” does not include any counterparty that is:
(i) A sovereign entity;
(ii) A multilateral development bank; or
(iii) The Bank for International Settlements.
Financial market utility (FMU) means any person, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the person is located or organized, that manages or operates a multilateral system for the purpose of transferring, clearing, or settling payments, securities, or other financial transactions among financial institutions or between financial institutions and the person, but does not include:
(1) Designated contract markets, registered futures associations, swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), or national securities exchanges, national securities associations, alternative trading systems, security-based swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.), solely by reason of their providing facilities for comparison of data respecting the terms of settlement of securities or futures transactions effected on such exchange or by means of any electronic system operated or controlled by such entities, provided that the exclusions in this clause apply only with respect to the activities that require the entity to be so registered; or
(2) Any broker, dealer, transfer agent, or investment company, or any futures commission merchant, introducing broker, commodity trading advisor, or commodity pool operator, solely by reason of functions performed by such institution as part of brokerage, dealing, transfer agency, or investment company activities, or solely by reason of acting on behalf of a FMU or a participant therein in connection with the furnishing by the FMU of services to its participants or the use of services of the FMU by its participants, provided that services performed by such institution do not constitute critical risk management or processing functions of the FMU.
FSI means a state savings association or state nonmember bank (as the terms are defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813).
Investment advisory contract means any contract or agreement whereby a person agrees to act as investment adviser to or to manage any investment or trading account of another person.
Master agreement means a QFC of the type set forth in sections 210(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XI), (iii)(IX), (iv)(IV), (v)(V), or (vi)(V) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XI), (iii)(IX), (iv)(IV), (v)(V), or (vi)(V)) or a master agreement that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determines by regulation is a QFC pursuant to section 210(c)(8)(D)(i) of Title II of the act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(i)).
Person has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
Qualified financial contract (QFC) has the same meaning as in section 210(c)(8)(D) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)).
Retail customer or counterparty has the same meaning as in § 249.3 of the Board's Regulation WW (12 CFR 249.3).
Small financial institution means a company that:
(1) Is organized as a bank, as defined in section 3(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a savings association, as defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a farm credit system institution chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971; or an insured Federal credit union or State-chartered credit union under the Federal Credit Union Act; and
(2) Has total assets of $10,000,000,000 or less on the last day of the company's most recent fiscal year.
U.S. special resolution regimes means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811-1835a) and regulations promulgated thereunder and Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381-5394) and regulations promulgated thereunder.
§ 252.82 Applicability.
(a) General requirement. A covered entity must ensure that each covered QFC conforms to the requirements of §§ 252.83 and 252.84.
(b) Covered entities. For purposes of this subpart, a covered entity is:
(1) A bank holding company that is identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402;
(2) A subsidiary of a company identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section other than a subsidiary that is:
(i) A national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch, a Federal agency, an FSI;
(ii) A company owned pursuant to section 3(a)(A)(ii), 4(c)(2), 4(k)(4)(H), or 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(A)(ii), 1843(c)(2), 1843(k)(4)(H), 1843(k)(4)(I));
(iii) A company owned by a depository institution in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith;
(iv) A portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662); or
(v) A company the business of which is to make investments that are designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs)); or
(3) A U.S. subsidiary, U.S. branch, or U.S. agency of a global systemically important foreign banking organization other than a U.S. subsidiary, U.S. branch, or U.S. agency that is:
(i) A national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch, a Federal agency, an FSI;
(ii) A company owned pursuant to section 3(a)(A)(ii), 4(c)(2), 4(k)(4)(H), or 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(A)(ii), 1843(c)(2), 1843(k)(4)(H), 1843(k)(4)(I));
(iii) A company owned by a depository institution in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith;
(iv) A portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662);
(v) A company the business of which is to make investments that are designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs);
(vi) A section 2(h)(2) company; or
(vii) A DPC branch subsidiary.
(c) Covered QFCs. For purposes of this subpart, a covered QFC is:
(1) With respect to a covered entity that is a covered entity on November 13, 2017, an in-scope QFC that the covered entity:
(i) Enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to on or after January 1, 2019; or
(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before January 1, 2019, if the covered entity or any affiliate that is a covered entity or excluded bank also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or a consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after January 1, 2019.
(2) With respect to a covered entity that becomes a covered entity after November 13, 2017, an in-scope QFC that the covered entity:
(i) Enters, executes or otherwise becomes a party to on or after the later of the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity and January 1, 2019; or
(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered entity, if the covered entity or any affiliate that is a covered entity or excluded bank also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) with respect to the covered entity.
(d) In-scope QFCs. An in-scope QFC is a QFC that explicitly:
(1) Restricts the transfer of a QFC (or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, the QFC) from a covered entity; or
(2) Provides one or more default rights with respect to a QFC that may be exercised against a covered entity.
(e) Rules of construction. For purposes of this subpart:
(1) A covered entity does not become a party to a QFC solely by acting as agent with respect to the QFC; and
(2) The exercise of a default right with respect to a covered QFC includes the automatic or deemed exercise of the default right pursuant to the terms of the QFC or other arrangement.
(f) Initial applicability of requirements for covered QFCs. (1) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered entity that is a covered entity on November 13, 2017 must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this subpart by:
(i) January 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity or an excluded bank;
(ii) July 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity or excluded bank; or
(iii) January 1, 2020, if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is not described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) or (f)(1)(ii) of this section or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1)(ii), a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a small financial institution.
(2) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered entity that is not a covered entity on November 13, 2017 must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this subpart by:
(i) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 1 year after the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity or an excluded bank;
(ii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 18 months from the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity or excluded bank; or
(iii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 2 years from the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii) of this section or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(ii), a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a small financial institution.
§ 252.83 U.S. Special Resolution Regimes.
(a) Covered QFCs not required to be conformed. (1) Notwithstanding § 252.82, a covered entity is not required to conform a covered QFC to the requirements of this section if:
(i) The covered QFC designates, in the manner described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC; and
(ii) Each party to the covered QFC, other than the covered entity, is:
(A) An individual that is domiciled in the United States, including any State;
(B) A company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
(C) A company the principal place of business of which is located in the United States, including any State; or
(D) A U.S. branch or U.S. agency.
(2) A covered QFC designates the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC if the covered QFC:
(i) Explicitly provides that the covered QFC is governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States; and
(ii) Does not explicitly provide that one or both of the U.S. special resolution regimes, or a broader set of laws that includes a U.S. special resolution regime, is excluded from the laws governing the covered QFC.
(b) Provisions required. A covered QFC must explicitly provide that:
(1) In the event the covered entity becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, the transfer of the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) from the covered entity will be effective to the same extent as the transfer would be effective under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) were governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States; and
(2) In the event the covered entity or an affiliate of the covered entity becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, default rights with respect to the covered QFC that may be exercised against the covered entity are permitted to be exercised to no greater extent than the default rights could be exercised under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC were governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States.
(c) Relevance of creditor protection provisions. The requirements of this section apply notwithstanding paragraphs (d), (f), and (h) of § 252.84.
§ 252.84 Insolvency proceedings.
(a) Covered QFCs not required to be conformed. Notwithstanding § 252.82, a covered entity is not required to conform a covered QFC to the requirements of this section if the covered QFC:
(1) Does not explicitly provide any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding; and
(2) Does not explicitly prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or would prohibit such a transfer only if the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
(b) General prohibitions. (1) A covered QFC may not permit the exercise of any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding.
(2) A covered QFC may not prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding unless the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
(c) Definitions relevant to the general prohibitions—(1) Direct party. Direct party means a covered entity or excluded bank that is a party to the direct QFC.
(2) Direct QFC. Direct QFC means a QFC that is not a credit enhancement, provided that, for a QFC that is a master agreement that includes an affiliate credit enhancement as a supplement to the master agreement, the direct QFC does not include the affiliate credit enhancement.
(3) Affiliate credit enhancement. Affiliate credit enhancement means a credit enhancement that is provided by an affiliate of a party to the direct QFC that the credit enhancement supports.
(d) General creditor protections. Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a covered direct QFC and covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC may permit the exercise of a default right with respect to the covered QFC that arises as a result of:
(1) The direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
(2) The direct party not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to the covered QFC or another contract between the same parties that gives rise to a default right in the covered QFC; or
(3) The covered affiliate support provider or transferee not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to a covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC.
(e) Definitions relevant to the general creditor protections—(1) Covered direct QFC. Covered direct QFC means a direct QFC to which a covered entity or excluded bank is a party.
(2) Covered affiliate credit enhancement. Covered affiliate credit enhancement means an affiliate credit enhancement in which a covered entity or excluded bank is the obligor of the credit enhancement.
(3) Covered affiliate support provider. Covered affiliate support provider means, with respect to a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the affiliate of the direct party that is obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement and is not a transferee.
(4) Supported party. Supported party means, with respect to a covered affiliate credit enhancement and the direct QFC that the covered affiliate credit enhancement supports, a party that is a beneficiary of the covered affiliate support provider's obligation(s) under the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
(f) Additional creditor protections for supported QFCs. Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, with respect to a covered direct QFC that is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right after the stay period that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding if:
(1) The covered affiliate support provider that remains obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, other than a Chapter 11 proceeding;
(2) Subject to paragraph (h) of this section, the transferee, if any, becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
(3) The covered affiliate support provider does not remain, and a transferee does not become, obligated to the same, or substantially similar, extent as the covered affiliate support provider was obligated immediately prior to entering the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding with respect to:
(i) The covered affiliate credit enhancement;
(ii) All other covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of other covered direct QFCs between the direct party and the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section; and
(iii) All covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of covered direct QFCs between the direct party and affiliates of the supported party referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section; or
(4) In the case of a transfer of the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee,
(i) All of the ownership interests of the direct party directly or indirectly held by the covered affiliate support provider are not transferred to the transferee; or
(ii) Reasonable assurance has not been provided that all or substantially all of the assets of the covered affiliate support provider (or net proceeds therefrom), excluding any assets reserved for the payment of costs and expenses of administration in the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, will be transferred or sold to the transferee in a timely manner.
(g) Definitions relevant to the additional creditor protections for supported QFCs—(1) Stay period. Stay period means, with respect to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, the period of time beginning on the commencement of the proceeding and ending at the later of 5:00 p.m. (eastern time) on the business day following the date of the commencement of the proceeding and 48 hours after the commencement of the proceeding.
(2) Business day. Business day means a day on which commercial banks in the jurisdiction the proceeding is commenced are open for general business (including dealings in foreign exchange and foreign currency deposits).
(3) Transferee. Transferee means a person to whom a covered affiliate credit enhancement is transferred upon the covered affiliate support provider entering a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or thereafter as part of the resolution, restructuring, or reorganization involving the covered affiliate support provider.
(h) Creditor protections related to FDI Act proceedings. Notwithstanding paragraphs (b), (d), and (f) of this section, with respect to a covered direct QFC that is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider becoming subject to FDI Act proceedings:
(1) After the FDI Act stay period, if the covered affiliate credit enhancement is not transferred pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(9)-(e)(10) and any regulations promulgated thereunder; or
(2) During the FDI Act stay period, if the default right may only be exercised so as to permit the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement to suspend performance with respect to the supported party's obligations under the covered direct QFC to the same extent as the supported party would be entitled to do if the covered direct QFC were with the covered affiliate support provider and were treated in the same manner as the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
(i) Prohibited terminations. A covered QFC must require, after an affiliate of the direct party has become subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding:
(1) The party seeking to exercise a default right to bear the burden of proof that the exercise is permitted under the covered QFC; and
(2) Clear and convincing evidence or a similar or higher burden of proof to exercise a default right.
§ 252.85 Approval of enhanced creditor protection conditions.
(a) Protocol compliance. (1) Unless the Board determines otherwise based on the specific facts and circumstances, a covered QFC is deemed to comply with this subpart if it is amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol.
(2) A covered QFC will be deemed to be amended by the universal protocol for purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section notwithstanding the covered QFC being amended by one or more Country Annexes, as the term is defined in the universal protocol.
(3) For purposes of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section:
(i) The universal protocol means the ISDA 2015 Universal Resolution Stay Protocol, including the Securities Financing Transaction Annex and Other Agreements Annex, published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc., as of May 3, 2016, and minor or technical amendments thereto;
(ii) The U.S. protocol means a protocol that is the same as the universal protocol other than as provided in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A)-(F) of this section.
(A) The provisions of Section 1 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to covered entities and excluded banks and may be limited with respect to resolutions under the Identified Regimes, as those regimes are identified by the universal protocol;
(B) The provisions of Section 2 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to covered entities and excluded banks;
(C) The provisions of Section 4(b)(i)(A) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply with respect to U.S. special resolution regimes;
(D) The provisions of Section 4(b) of the attachment to the universal protocol may only be effective to the extent that the covered QFCs affected by an adherent's election thereunder would continue to meet the requirements of this subpart;
(E) The provisions of Section 2(k) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply; and
(F) The U.S. protocol may include minor and technical differences from the universal protocol and differences necessary to conform the U.S. protocol to the differences described in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A)-(E) of this section;
(iii) Amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol, with respect to covered QFCs between adherents to the protocol, includes amendments through incorporation of the terms of the protocol (by reference or otherwise) into the covered QFC; and
(iv) The attachment to the universal protocol means the attachment that the universal protocol identifies as “ATTACHMENT to the ISDA 2015 UNIVERSAL RESOLUTION STAY PROTOCOL.”
(b) Proposal of enhanced creditor protection conditions. (1) A covered entity may request that the Board approve as compliant with the requirements of §§ 252.83 and 252.84 proposed provisions of one or more forms of covered QFCs, or proposed amendments to one or more forms of covered QFCs, with enhanced creditor protection conditions.
(2) Enhanced creditor protection conditions means a set of limited exemptions to the requirements of § 252.84(b) that is different than that of paragraphs (d), (f), and (h) of § 252.84.
(3) A covered entity making a request under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must provide:
(i) An analysis of the proposal that addresses each consideration in paragraph (d) of this section;
(ii) A written legal opinion verifying that proposed provisions or amendments would be valid and enforceable under applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions, including, in the case of proposed amendments, the validity and enforceability of the proposal to amend the covered QFCs; and
(iii) Any other relevant information that the Board requests.
(c) Board approval. The Board may approve, subject to any conditions or commitments the Board may set, a proposal by a covered entity under paragraph (b) of this section if the proposal, as compared to a covered QFC that contains only the limited exemptions in paragraphs of (d), (f), and (h) of § 252.84 or that is amended as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, would prevent or mitigate risks to the financial stability of the United States that could arise from the failure of a global systemically important BHC, a global systemically important foreign banking organization, or the subsidiaries of either and would protect the safety and soundness of bank holding companies and state member banks to at least the same extent.
(d) Considerations. In reviewing a proposal under this section, the Board may consider all facts and circumstances related to the proposal, including:
(1) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would reduce the resiliency of such covered entities during distress or increase the impact on U.S. financial stability were one or more of the covered entities to fail;
(2) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would materially decrease the ability of a covered entity, or an affiliate of a covered entity, to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;
(3) Whether, and the extent to which, the set of conditions or the mechanism in which they are applied facilitates, on an industry-wide basis, contractual modifications to remove impediments to resolution and increase market certainty, transparency, and equitable treatment with respect to the default rights of non-defaulting parties to a covered QFC;
(4) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal applies to existing and future transactions;
(5) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would apply to multiple forms of QFCs or multiple covered entities;
(6) Whether the proposal would permit a party to a covered QFC that is within the scope of the proposal to adhere to the proposal with respect to only one or a subset of covered entities;
(7) With respect to a supported party, the degree of assurance the proposal provides to the supported party that the material payment and delivery obligations of the covered affiliate credit enhancement and the covered direct QFC it supports will continue to be performed after the covered affiliate support provider enters a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
(8) The presence, nature, and extent of any provisions that require a covered affiliate support provider or transferee to meet conditions other than material payment or delivery obligations to its creditors;
(9) The extent to which the supported party's overall credit risk to the direct party may increase if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are not met and the likelihood that the supported party's credit risk to the direct party would decrease or remain the same if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are met; and
(10) Whether the proposal provides the counterparty with additional default rights or other rights.
§ 252.86 Foreign bank multi-branch master agreements.
(a) Treatment of foreign bank multi-branch master agreements. With respect to a U.S. branch or U.S. agency of a global systemically important foreign banking organization, a foreign bank multi-branch master agreement that is a covered QFC solely because the master agreement permits agreements or transactions that are QFCs to be entered into at one or more U.S. branches or U.S. agencies of the global systemically important foreign banking organization will be considered a covered QFC for purposes of this subpart only with respect to such agreements or transactions booked at such U.S. branches and U.S. agencies.
(b) Definition of foreign bank multi-branch master agreements. A foreign bank multi-branch master agreement means a master agreement that permits a U.S. branch or U.S. agency and another place of business of a foreign bank that is outside the United States to enter transactions under the agreement.
§ 252.87 Identification of global systemically important foreign banking organizations.
(a) For purposes of this subpart, a top-tier foreign banking organization that is or controls a covered company (as defined at 12 CFR 243.2(f)) is a global systemically important foreign banking organization if any of the following conditions is met:
(1) The top-tier foreign banking organization determines, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, that the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology; or
(2) The Board, using information available to the Board, determines:
(i) That the top-tier foreign banking organization would be a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology;
(ii) That the top-tier foreign banking organization, if it were subject to the Board's Regulation Q (part 217 of this chapter), would be identified as a global systemically important BHC under § 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q; or
(iii) That any U.S. intermediate holding company controlled by the top-tier foreign banking organization, if the U.S. intermediate holding company is or were subject to § 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q, is or would be identified as a global systemically important BHC.
(b) Each top-tier foreign banking organization that determines pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section that it has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must notify the Board of the determination by January 1 of each calendar year.
(c) A top-tier foreign banking organization that is or controls a covered company (as defined at 12 CFR 243.2(f)) and prepares or reports for any purpose the indicator amounts necessary to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization is a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must use the data to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.
(d) Each top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company and that meets the requirements of § 252.153(b)(5) and (6) also meets the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
§ 252.88 Exclusion of certain QFCs.
(a) Exclusion of QFCs with FMUs. Notwithstanding § 252.82, a covered entity is not required to conform to the requirements of this subpart a covered QFC to which:
(1) A CCP is party; or
(2) Each party (other than the covered entity) is an FMU.
(b) Exclusion of certain excluded bank QFCs. If a covered QFC is also a covered QFC under parts 47 or 382 of this title that an affiliate of the covered entity is also required to conform pursuant to parts 47 or 382 of this title and the covered entity is:
(1) The affiliate credit enhancement provider with respect to the covered QFC, then the covered entity is required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this subpart but is not required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this subpart; or
(2) The direct party to which the excluded bank is the affiliate credit enhancement provider, then the covered entity is required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this subpart but is not required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this subpart.
(c) Exclusion of certain contracts. Notwithstanding § 252.82, a covered entity is not required to conform the following types of contracts or agreements to the requirements of this subpart:
(1) An investment advisory contract that:
(i) Is with a retail customer or counterparty;
(ii) Does not explicitly restrict the transfer of the contract (or any QFC entered pursuant thereto or governed thereby, or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, any such QFC or the contract) from the covered entity except as necessary to comply with section 205(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-5(a)(2)); and
(iii) Does not explicitly provide a default right with respect to the contract or any QFC entered pursuant thereto or governed thereby.
(2) A warrant that:
(i) Evidences a right to subscribe to or otherwise acquire a security of the covered entity or an affiliate of the covered entity; and
(ii) Was issued prior to November 13, 2017.
(d) Exemption by order. The Board may exempt by order one or more covered entities from conforming one or more contracts or types of contracts to one or more of the requirements of this subpart after considering:
(1) The potential impact of the exemption on the ability of the covered entity(ies), or affiliates of the covered entity(ies), to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;
(2) The burden the exemption would relieve; and
(3) Any other factor the Board deems relevant.
J Subparts J-L [Reserved]
Subpart M Risk Committee Requirement for Foreign Banking Organizations With Total Consolidated Assets of at Least $50 Billion but Less Than $100 Billion
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 17323, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.130 [Reserved]
§ 252.131 Applicability.
(a) General applicability. A foreign banking organization with average total consolidated assets of at least $50 billion but less than $100 billion must comply with the risk-committee requirements set forth in this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $50 billion.
(b) Cessation of requirements. A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the risk-committee requirements of this section until the earlier of the date on which:
(1) Its total consolidated assets are below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters; and
(2) It becomes subject to the requirements of subpart N or subpart O of this part.
[84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.132 Risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more but less than $100 billion.
(a) U.S. risk committee certification. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart, must, on an annual basis, certify to the Board that it maintains a committee of its global board of directors (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as part of its enterprise-wide risk committee (or equivalent thereof) that:
(1) Oversees the risk management policies of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization; and
(2) Includes at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex firms.
(b) Timing of certification. The certification required under paragraph (a) of this section must be filed on an annual basis with the Board concurrently with the FR Y-7.
(c) Responsibilities of the foreign banking organization. The foreign banking organization must take appropriate measures to ensure that its combined U.S. operations implement the risk management policies overseen by the U.S. risk committee described in paragraph (a) of this section, and its combined U.S. operations provide sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart.
(d) Noncompliance with this section. If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions. If the Board determines to impose one or more requirements, conditions, or restrictions under this paragraph, the Board will notify the organization before it applies any requirement, condition or restriction, and describe the basis for imposing such requirement, condition, or restriction. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement, condition, or restriction. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to applying the requirement, condition, or restriction.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17323, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019]
Subpart N Enhanced Prudential Standards for Foreign Banking Organizations With Total Consolidated Assets of $100 Billion or More and Combined U.S. Assets of Less Than $100 Billion
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 17324, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.140 Scope.
This subpart applies to foreign banking organizations with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, but average combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.
[84 FR 59110, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.142 Applicability.
(a) General applicability. A foreign banking organization with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more and average combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion must:
(1) Comply with the capital stress testing, risk-management and risk-committee requirements set forth in this subpart beginning no later than on the first day of the ninth quarter the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $100 billion; and
(2) Comply with the risk-based and leverage capital requirements and liquidity risk-management requirements set forth in this subpart beginning no later than on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its total consolidated assets equal or exceed $250 billion; and
(3) Comply with the U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.147 beginning no later than on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average U.S. non-branch assets equal or exceed $50 billion.
(b) Cessation of requirements—(1) Enhanced prudential standards applicable to the foreign banking organization. (i) A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the requirements set forth in §§ 252.144 and 252.146 until its total consolidated assets are below $100 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters, or it becomes subject to the requirements of subpart O of this part.
(ii) A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the requirements set forth in §§ 252.143 and 252.145 until its total consolidated assets are below $250 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters, or it becomes subject to the requirements of subpart O of this part.
(2) Intermediate holding company requirement. A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.147 until the sum of the total consolidated assets of the top-tier U.S. subsidiaries of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company and DPC branch subsidiary) is below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters, or it becomes subject to the U.S. intermediate holding company requirements of subpart O of this part.
[84 FR 59110, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.143 Risk-based and leverage capital requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more and combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.
(a) General requirements. (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart and with average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more must certify to the Board that it meets capital adequacy standards on a consolidated basis established by its home-country supervisor that are consistent with the regulatory capital framework published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended from time to time (Basel Capital Framework).
(i) For purposes of this paragraph, home-country capital adequacy standards that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework include all minimum risk-based capital ratios, any minimum leverage ratio, and all restrictions based on any applicable capital buffers set forth in “Basel III: A global regulatory framework for more resilient banks and banking systems” (2010) (Basel III Accord), each as applicable and as implemented in accordance with the Basel III Accord, including any transitional provisions set forth therein.
(ii) [Reserved]
(2) In the event that a home-country supervisor has not established capital adequacy standards that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework, the foreign banking organization must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that it would meet or exceed capital adequacy standards on a consolidated basis that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework were it subject to such standards.
(b) Reporting. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart and with average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more must provide to the Board reports relating to its compliance with the capital adequacy measures described in paragraph (a) of this section concurrently with filing the FR Y-7Q.
(c) Noncompliance with the Basel Capital Framework. If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions, including risk-based or leverage capital requirements, relating to the activities or business operations of the U.S. operations of the organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions. If the Board determines to impose one or more requirements, conditions, or restrictions under this paragraph, the Board will notify the organization before it applies any requirement, condition or restriction, and describe the basis for imposing such requirement, condition, or restriction. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the organization may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement, condition, or restriction. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to applying the requirement, condition, or restriction.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17324, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59110, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.144 Risk-management and risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more but combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.
(a) Risk-management and risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of less than $50 billion—(1) U.S. risk committee certification. A foreign banking organization with average combined U.S. assets of less than $50 billion must, on an annual basis, certify to the Board that it maintains a committee of its global board of directors (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as part of its enterprise-wide risk committee (or equivalent thereof) that:
(i) Oversees the risk-management policies of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization; and
(ii) Includes at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex firms.
(2) Timing of certification. The certification required under paragraph (a) of this section must be filed on an annual basis with the Board concurrently with the FR Y-7.
(b) Risk-management and risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $50 billion or more but less than $100 billion—(1) U.S. risk committee—(i) General. A foreign banking organization subject to this this subpart and with average combined U.S. assets of $50 billion or more must maintain a U.S. risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and oversees the risk-management framework of such combined U.S. operations.
(ii) Risk-management framework. The foreign banking organization's risk-management framework for its combined U.S. operations must be commensurate with the structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of its combined U.S. operations and consistent with its enterprise-wide risk management policies. The framework must include:
(A) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization; and
(B) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
(1) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, on a combined U.S. operations basis and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies;
(2) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management of the combined U.S. operations;
(3) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function of the combined U.S. operations; and
(4) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and the compensation structure of the combined U.S. operations.
(iii) Placement of the U.S. risk committee. (A) A foreign banking organization that conducts its operations in the United States solely through a U.S. intermediate holding company must maintain its U.S. risk committee as a committee of the board of directors of its U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof).
(B) A foreign banking organization that conducts its operations through U.S. branches or U.S. agencies (in addition to through its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any) may maintain its U.S. risk committee either:
(1) As a committee of the global board of directors (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as a joint committee with its enterprise-wide risk committee (or equivalent thereof); or
(2) As a committee of the board of directors of its U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as a joint committee with the risk committee of its U.S. intermediate holding company required pursuant to § 252.147(e)(3).
(iv) Corporate governance requirements. The U.S. risk committee must meet at least quarterly and otherwise as needed, and must fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
(v) Minimum member requirements. The U.S. risk committee must:
(A) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
(B) Have at least one member who:
(1) Is not an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates and has not been an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates during the previous three years; and
(2) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in 12 CFR 225.41(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer, as defined in 12 CFR 215.2(e)(1) of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates.
(2) [Reserved]
(c) U.S. chief risk officer—(1) General. A foreign banking organization with average combined U.S. assets of $50 billion or more but less than $100 billion or its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, must appoint a U.S. chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
(2) Responsibilities. (i) The U.S. chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
(A) The measurement, aggregation, and monitoring of risks undertaken by the combined U.S. operations;
(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures for the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the development and implementation of processes and systems set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section; and
(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the risk-control framework for the combined U.S. operations, and the monitoring and testing of such risk controls.
(ii) The U.S. chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies of the combined U.S. operations, and resolving such risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
(3) Corporate governance and reporting. The U.S. chief risk officer must:
(i) Receive compensation and other incentives consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization;
(ii) Be employed by and located in the U.S. branch, U.S. agency, U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, or another U.S. subsidiary;
(iii) Report directly to the U.S. risk committee and the global chief risk officer or equivalent management official (or officials) of the foreign banking organization who is responsible for overseeing, on an enterprise-wide basis, the implementation of and compliance with policies and procedures relating to risk-management governance, practices, and risk controls of the foreign banking organization unless the Board approves an alternative reporting structure based on circumstances specific to the foreign banking organization;
(iv) Regularly provide information to the U.S. risk committee, global chief risk officer, and the Board regarding the nature of and changes to material risks undertaken by the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations, including risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks, and how such risks relate to the global operations of the foreign banking organization; and
(v) Meet regularly and as needed with the Board to assess compliance with the requirements of this section.
(d) Responsibilities of the foreign banking organization. The foreign banking organization must take appropriate measures to ensure that its combined U.S. operations implement the risk-management policies overseen by the U.S. risk committee described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, and its combined U.S. operations provide sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart.
(e) Noncompliance with this section. If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions. If the Board determines to impose one or more requirements, conditions, or restrictions under this paragraph, the Board will notify the organization before it applies any requirement, condition, or restriction, and describe the basis for imposing such requirement, condition, or restriction. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the organization may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement, condition, or restriction. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to applying the requirement, condition, or restriction.
[84 FR 59110, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.145 Liquidity risk-management requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more and combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.
(a) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart with average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more must report to the Board on an annual basis the results of an internal liquidity stress test for either the consolidated operations of the foreign banking organization or the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. Such liquidity stress test must be conducted consistent with the Basel Committee principles for liquidity risk management and must incorporate 30-day, 90-day, and one-year stress-test horizons. The “Basel Committee principles for liquidity risk management” means the document titled “Principles for Sound Liquidity Risk Management and Supervision” (September 2008) as published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as supplemented and revised from time to time.
(b) A foreign banking organization that does not comply with paragraph (a) of this section must limit the net aggregate amount owed by the foreign banking organization's non-U.S. offices and its non-U.S. affiliates to the combined U.S. operations to 25 percent or less of the third party liabilities of its combined U.S. operations, on a daily basis.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17324, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59111, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.146 Capital stress testing requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more and combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) Eligible asset means any asset of the U.S. branch or U.S. agency held in the United States that is recorded on the general ledger of a U.S. branch or U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization (reduced by the amount of any specifically allocated reserves held in the United States and recorded on the general ledger of the U.S. branch or U.S. agency in connection with such assets), subject to the following exclusions and, for purposes of this definition, as modified by the rules of valuation set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
(i) The following assets do not qualify as eligible assets:
(A) Equity securities;
(B) Any assets classified as loss at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff;
(C) Accrued income on assets classified loss, doubtful, substandard or value impaired, at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff;
(D) Any amounts due from the home office, other offices and affiliates, including income accrued but uncollected on such amounts;
(E) The balance from time to time of any other asset or asset category disallowed at the preceding examination or by direction of the Board for any other reason until the underlying reasons for the disallowance have been removed;
(F) Prepaid expenses and unamortized costs, furniture and fixtures and leasehold improvements; and
(G) Any other asset that the Board determines should not qualify as an eligible asset.
(ii) The following rules of valuation apply:
(A) A marketable debt security is valued at its principal amount or market value, whichever is lower;
(B) An asset classified doubtful or substandard at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff, is valued at 50 percent and 80 percent, respectively;
(C) With respect to an asset classified value impaired, the amount representing the allocated transfer risk reserve that would be required for such exposure at a domestically chartered bank is valued at 0 and the residual exposure is valued at 80 percent; and
(D) Real estate located in the United States and carried on the accounting records as an asset are valued at net book value or appraised value, whichever is less.
(2) Liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization means all liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization, including acceptances and any other liabilities (including contingent liabilities), but excluding:
(i) Amounts due to and other liabilities to other offices, agencies, branches and affiliates of such foreign banking organization, including its head office, including unremitted profits; and
(ii) Reserves for possible loan losses and other contingencies.
(3) Pre-provision net revenue means revenue less expenses before adjusting for total loan loss provisions.
(4) Stress test cycle has the same meaning as in subpart F of this part.
(5) Total loan loss provisions means the amount needed to make reserves adequate to absorb estimated credit losses, based upon management's evaluation of the loans and leases that the company has the intent and ability to hold for the foreseeable future or until maturity or payoff, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
(b) In general. (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must:
(i) Be subject on a consolidated basis to a capital stress testing regime by its home-country supervisor that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
(ii) Conduct such stress tests or be subject to a supervisory stress test and meet any minimum standards set by its home-country supervisor with respect to the stress tests.
(2) The capital stress testing regime of a foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor must include:
(i) A supervisory capital stress test conducted by the foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor or an evaluation and review by the foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor of an internal capital adequacy stress test conducted by the foreign banking organization, according to the frequency specified in the following paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) or (B) of this section:
(A) If the foreign banking organization has average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more, on at least an annual basis; or
(B) If the foreign banking organization has average total consolidated assets of less than $250 billion, at least biennially; and
(ii) Requirements for governance and controls of stress testing practices by relevant management and the board of directors (or equivalent thereof) of the foreign banking organization;
(c) Additional standards. (1) Unless the Board otherwise determines in writing, a foreign banking organization that does not meet each of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section must:
(i) Maintain eligible assets in its U.S. branches and agencies that, on a daily basis, are not less than 105 percent of the average value over each day of the previous calendar quarter of the total liabilities of all branches and agencies operated by the foreign banking organization in the United States;
(ii) Conduct a stress test of its U.S. subsidiaries to determine whether those subsidiaries have the capital necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions, according to the frequency specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section:
(A) If the foreign banking organization has average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more, on at least an annual basis; or
(B) If the foreign banking organization has average total consolidated assets of less than $250 billion, at least biennially; and
(iii) Report a summary of the results of the stress test to the Board that includes a description of the types of risks included in the stress test, a description of the conditions or scenarios used in the stress test, a summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test, estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, total loan loss provisions, net income before taxes and pro forma regulatory capital ratios required to be computed by the home-country supervisor of the foreign banking organization and any other relevant capital ratios, and an explanation of the most significant causes for any changes in regulatory capital ratios.
(2) An enterprise-wide stress test that is approved by the Board may meet the stress test requirement of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17324, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59112, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.147 U.S. intermediate holding company requirement for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion and U.S. non-branch assets of $50 billion or more.
(a) Requirement to form a U.S. intermediate holding company—(1) Formation. A foreign banking organization with average U.S. non-branch assets of $50 billion or more must establish a U.S. intermediate holding company, or designate an existing subsidiary that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, as its U.S. intermediate holding company.
(2) Structure. The U.S. intermediate holding company must be:
(i) Organized under the laws of the United States, any one of the fifty states of the United States, or the District of Columbia; and
(ii) Be governed by a board of directors or managers that is elected or appointed by the owners and that operates in an equivalent manner, and has equivalent rights, powers, privileges, duties, and responsibilities, to a board of directors of a company chartered as a corporation under the laws of the United States, any one of the fifty states of the United States, or the District of Columbia.
(3) Notice. Within 30 days of establishing or designating a U.S. intermediate holding company under this section, a foreign banking organization must provide to the Board:
(i) A description of the U.S. intermediate holding company, including its name, location, corporate form, and organizational structure;
(ii) A certification that the U.S. intermediate holding company meets the requirements of this section; and
(iii) Any other information that the Board determines is appropriate.
(b) Holdings and regulation of the U.S. intermediate holding company—(1) General. Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, a foreign banking organization that is required to form a U.S. intermediate holding company under paragraph (a) of this section must hold its entire ownership interest in any U.S. subsidiary (excluding each section 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary, if any) through its U.S. intermediate holding company.
(2) Reporting. Each U.S. intermediate holding company shall submit information in the manner and form prescribed by the Board.
(3) Examinations and inspections. The Board may examine or inspect any U.S. intermediate holding company and each of its subsidiaries and prepare a report of their operations and activities.
(4) Global systemically important banking organizations. For purposes of this part, a top-tier foreign banking organization with average U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion is a global systemically important foreign banking organization if any of the following conditions are met:
(i) The top-tier foreign banking organization determines, pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section, that the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology; or
(ii) The Board, using information available to the Board, determines:
(A) That the top-tier foreign banking organization would be a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology;
(B) That the top-tier foreign banking organization, if it were subject to the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 217.402; or
(C) That the U.S. intermediate holding company, if it were subject to 12 CFR 217.402, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC.
(5) Notice. Each top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company shall submit to the Board by January 1 of each calendar year through the U.S. intermediate holding company:
(i) Notice of whether the home-country supervisor (or other appropriate home country regulatory authority) of the top-tier foreign banking organization of the U.S. intermediate holding company has adopted standards consistent with the global methodology; and
(ii) Notice of whether the top-tier foreign banking organization prepares or reports the indicators used by the global methodology to identify a banking organization as a global systemically important banking organization and, if it does, whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has determined that it has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
(6) Global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology. A top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company and prepares or reports for any purpose the indicator amounts necessary to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization is a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must use the data to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.
(c) Alternative organizational structure—(1) General. Upon a written request by a foreign banking organization, the Board may permit the foreign banking organization to: Establish or designate multiple U.S. intermediate holding companies; not transfer its ownership interests in certain subsidiaries to a U.S. intermediate holding company; or use an alternative organizational structure to hold its combined U.S. operations.
(2) Factors. In making a determination under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Board may consider whether applicable law would prohibit the foreign banking organization from owning or controlling one or more of its U.S. subsidiaries through a single U.S. intermediate holding company, or whether circumstances otherwise warrant an exception based on the foreign banking organization's activities, scope of operations, structure, or similar considerations.
(3) Request—(i) Contents. A request submitted under this section must include an explanation of why the request should be granted and any other information required by the Board.
(ii) Timing. The Board shall act on a request for an alternative organizational structure within 90 days of receipt of a complete request, unless the Board provides notice to the organization that it is extending the period for action.
(4) Conditions. The Board may grant relief under this section upon such conditions as the Board deems appropriate, including, but not limited to, requiring the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization to comply with additional enhanced prudential standards, or requiring the foreign banking organization to enter into supervisory agreements governing such alternative organizational structure.
(d) Modifications. The Board may modify the application of any section of this subpart to a foreign banking organization that is required to form a U.S. intermediate holding company or to such U.S. intermediate holding company if appropriate to accommodate the organizational structure of the foreign banking organization or characteristics specific to such foreign banking organization and such modification is appropriate and consistent with the capital structure, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or financial condition of each U.S. intermediate holding company, safety and soundness, and the financial stability mandate of section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
(e) Enhanced prudential standards for U.S. intermediate holding companies—(1) Capital requirements for a U.S. intermediate holding company. (i)(A) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with 12 CFR part 217, other than subpart E of 12 CFR part 217, in the same manner as a bank holding company.
(B) A U.S. intermediate holding company may choose to comply with subpart E of 12 CFR part 217.
(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with capital adequacy standards beginning on the date it is required to established under this subpart, or if the U.S. intermediate holding company is subject to capital adequacy standards on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to § 252.142(a)(3), on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to this subpart.
(2) Risk-management and risk-committee requirements—(i) General. A U.S. intermediate holding company must establish and maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies and oversees the risk-management framework of the U.S. intermediate holding company. The risk committee must be a committee of the board of directors of the U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof). The risk committee may also serve as the U.S. risk committee for the combined U.S. operations required pursuant to § 252.144(b).
(ii) Risk-management framework. The U.S. intermediate holding company's risk-management framework must be commensurate with the structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the U.S. intermediate holding company and consistent with the risk management policies for the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The framework must include:
(A) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for the U.S. intermediate holding company; and
(B) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
(1) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies at the U.S. intermediate holding company, including regarding emerging risks and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies;
(2) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management of the U.S. intermediate holding company;
(3) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function of the U.S. intermediate holding company; and
(4) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and the compensation structure of the U.S. intermediate holding company.
(iii) Corporate governance requirements. The risk committee of the U.S. intermediate holding company must meet at least quarterly and otherwise as needed, and must fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
(iv) Minimum member requirements. The risk committee must:
(A) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
(B) Have at least one member who:
(1) Is not an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates and has not been an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates during the previous three years; and
(2) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in 12 CFR 225.41(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer, as defined in 12 CFR 215.2(e)(1), of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates.
(v) The U.S. intermediate holding company must take appropriate measures to ensure that it implements the risk-management policies for the U.S. intermediate holding company and it provides sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart;
(vi) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with risk-committee and risk-management requirements beginning on the date that it is required to be established or designated under this subpart or, if the U.S. intermediate holding company is subject to risk-committee and risk-management requirements on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to § 252.147(a)(3), on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to this subpart.
[84 FR 59112, Nov. 1, 2019]
Subpart O Enhanced Prudential Standards for Foreign Banking Organizations With Total Consolidated Assets of $100 Billion or More and Combined U.S. Assets of $100 Billion or More
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.150 Scope.
This subpart applies to foreign banking organizations with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more and average combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
[84 FR 59114, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.151 [Reserved]
§ 252.152 Applicability.
(a) General applicability. (1) A foreign banking organization must:
(i) Comply with the requirements of this subpart (other than the U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.153) beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average combined U.S. assets equal or exceed $100 billion; and
(ii) Comply with the requirement to establish or designate a U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.153(a) beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average U.S. non-branch assets equal or exceed $50 billion or, if the foreign banking organization has established or designated a U.S. intermediate holding company pursuant to § 252.147, beginning on the first day following the date on which the foreign banking organization's average combined U.S. assets equal or exceed $100 billion.
(2) Changes in requirements following a change in category. A foreign banking organization that changes from one category of banking organization described in § 252.5(c) through (e) to another of such categories must comply with the requirements applicable to the new category under this subpart no later than on the first day of the second quarter following the change in the foreign banking organization's category.
(b) Cessation of requirements—(1) Enhanced prudential standards applicable to the foreign banking organization. Subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a foreign banking organization will remain subject to the applicable requirements of this subpart until its combined U.S. assets are below $100 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters.
(2) Intermediate holding company requirement. A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.153 until the sum of the total consolidated assets of the top-tier U.S. subsidiaries of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company and DPC branch subsidiary) is below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters, or until the foreign banking organization is subject to subpart N of this part and is in compliance with the U.S. intermediate holding company requirements as set forth in § 252.147.
[84 FR 59114, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.153 U.S. intermediate holding company requirement for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more and U.S. non-branch assets of $50 billion or more.
(a) Requirement to form a U.S. intermediate holding company—(1) Formation. A foreign banking organization with average U.S. non-branch assets of $50 billion or more must establish a U.S. intermediate holding company, or designate an existing subsidiary that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, as its U.S. intermediate holding company.
(2) Structure. The U.S. intermediate holding company must be:
(i) Organized under the laws of the United States, any one of the fifty states of the United States, or the District of Columbia; and
(ii) Be governed by a board of directors or managers that is elected or appointed by the owners and that operates in an equivalent manner, and has equivalent rights, powers, privileges, duties, and responsibilities, to a board of directors of a company chartered as a corporation under the laws of the United States, any one of the fifty states of the United States, or the District of Columbia.
(3) Notice. Within 30 days of establishing or designating a U.S. intermediate holding company under this section, a foreign banking organization must provide to the Board:
(i) A description of the U.S. intermediate holding company, including its name, location, corporate form, and organizational structure;
(ii) A certification that the U.S. intermediate holding company meets the requirements of this section; and
(iii) Any other information that the Board determines is appropriate.
(b) Holdings and regulation of the U.S. intermediate holding company—(1) General. Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, a foreign banking organization that is required to form a U.S. intermediate holding company under paragraph (a) of this section must hold its entire ownership interest in any U.S. subsidiary (excluding each section 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary, if any) through its U.S. intermediate holding company.
(2) Reporting. Each U.S. intermediate holding company shall submit information in the manner and form prescribed by the Board.
(3) Examinations and inspections. The Board may examine or inspect any U.S. intermediate holding company and each of its subsidiaries and prepare a report of their operations and activities.
(4) For purposes of this part, a top-tier foreign banking organization with U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion is a global systemically important foreign banking organization if any of the following conditions are met:
(i) The top-tier foreign banking organization determines, pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section, that the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology; or
(ii) The Board, using information available to the Board, determines:
(A) That the top-tier foreign banking organization would be a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology;
(B) That the top-tier foreign banking organization, if it were subject to the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q; or
(C) That the U.S. intermediate holding company, if it were subject to 12 CFR 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC.
(5) Each top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company shall submit to the Board by January 1 of each calendar year through the U.S. intermediate holding company:
(i) Notice of whether the home country supervisor (or other appropriate home country regulatory authority) of the top-tier foreign banking organization of the U.S. intermediate holding company has adopted standards consistent with the global methodology; and
(ii) Notice of whether the top-tier foreign banking organization prepares or reports the indicators used by the global methodology to identify a banking organization as a global systemically important banking organization and, if it does, whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has determined that it has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
(6) A top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company and prepares or reports for any purpose the indicator amounts necessary to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization is a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must use the data to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.
(c) Alternative organizational structure—(1) General. Upon a written request by a foreign banking organization, the Board may permit the foreign banking organization to: Establish or designate multiple U.S. intermediate holding companies; not transfer its ownership interests in certain subsidiaries to a U.S. intermediate holding company; or use an alternative organizational structure to hold its combined U.S. operations.
(2) Factors. In making a determination under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Board may consider whether applicable law would prohibit the foreign banking organization from owning or controlling one or more of its U.S. subsidiaries through a single U.S. intermediate holding company, or whether circumstances otherwise warrant an exception based on the foreign banking organization's activities, scope of operations, structure, or other similar considerations.
(3) Request—(i) Contents. A request submitted under this section must include an explanation of why the request should be granted and any other information required by the Board.
(ii) Timing. The Board will act on a request for an alternative organizational structure within 90 days of receipt of a complete request, unless the Board provides notice to the organization that it is extending the period for action.
(4) Conditions. (i) The Board may grant relief under this section upon such conditions as the Board deems appropriate, including, but not limited to, requiring the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization to comply with additional enhanced prudential standards, or requiring the foreign banking organization to enter into supervisory agreements governing such alternative organizational structure.
(ii) If the Board permits a foreign banking organization to form two or more U.S. intermediate holding companies under this section, each U.S. intermediate holding company must determine its category pursuant to § 252.5 of this part as though the U.S. intermediate holding companies were a consolidated company.
(d) Modifications. The Board may modify the application of any section of this subpart to a foreign banking organization that is required to form a U.S. intermediate holding company or to such U.S. intermediate holding company if appropriate to accommodate the organizational structure of the foreign banking organization or characteristics specific to such foreign banking organization and such modification is appropriate and consistent with the capital structure, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or financial condition of each U.S. intermediate holding company, safety and soundness, and the mandate of section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
(e) Enhanced prudential standards for U.S. intermediate holding companies—(1) Capital requirements for a U.S. intermediate holding company. (i)(A) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with 12 CFR part 217, other than subpart E of 12 CFR part 217, in the same manner as a bank holding company.
(B) A U.S. intermediate holding company may choose to comply with subpart E of 12 CFR part 217.
(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with applicable capital adequacy standards beginning on the date that it is required to be established or designated under this subpart or, if the U.S. intermediate holding company is subject to capital adequacy standards on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to this subpart.
(2) Capital planning. (i) A U.S. intermediate holding company with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must comply with 12 CFR 225.8 in the same manner as a bank holding company.
(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must comply with 12 CFR 225.8 on the date prescribed in the transition provisions of 12 CFR 225.8.
(3) Risk-management and risk committee requirements—(i) General. A U.S. intermediate holding company must establish and maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies and oversees the risk-management framework of the U.S. intermediate holding company. The risk committee must be a committee of the board of directors of the U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof). The risk committee may also serve as the U.S. risk committee for the combined U.S. operations required pursuant to § 252.155(a).
(ii) Risk-management framework. The U.S. intermediate holding company's risk-management framework must be commensurate with the structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the U.S. intermediate holding company and consistent with the risk management policies for the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The framework must include:
(A) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for the U.S. intermediate holding company; and
(B) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
(1) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies at the U.S. intermediate holding company, including regarding emerging risks and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies;
(2) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management of the U.S. intermediate holding company;
(3) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function of the U.S. intermediate holding company; and
(4) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and the compensation structure of the U.S. intermediate holding company.
(iii) Corporate governance requirements. The risk committee of the U.S. intermediate holding company must meet at least quarterly and otherwise as needed, and must fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
(iv) Minimum member requirements. The risk committee must:
(A) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
(B) Have at least one member who:
(1) Is not an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates and has not been an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates during the previous three years; and
(2) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in 12 CFR 225.41(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer, as defined in 12 CFR 215.2(e)(1), of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates.
(v) The U.S. intermediate holding company must take appropriate measures to ensure that it implements the risk-management policies for the U.S. intermediate holding company and it provides sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart.
(vi) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with risk-committee and risk-management requirements beginning on the date that it is required to be established or designated under this subpart or, if the U.S. intermediate holding company is subject to risk-committee and risk-management requirements on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to § 252.153(a)(1)(ii), on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to this subpart.
(4) Liquidity requirements. (i) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the liquidity risk-management requirements in § 252.156 and conduct liquidity stress tests and hold a liquidity buffer pursuant to § 252.157.
(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with liquidity risk-management, liquidity stress test, and liquidity buffer requirements beginning on the date that it is required to be established or designated under this subpart.
(5) Stress test requirements. (i)(A) A U.S. intermediate holding company with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must comply with the requirements of subpart E of this part in the same manner as a bank holding company;
(B) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the requirements of subpart E beginning the later of:
(1) The stress test cycle of the calendar year after the calendar year in which the U.S. intermediate holding company becomes subject to regulatory capital requirements; or
(2) The transition period provided under subpart E.
(ii)(A) A Category II U.S. intermediate holding company or a Category III U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the requirements of subpart F of this part in the same manner as a bank holding company;
(B) A Category II U.S. intermediate holding company or Category III U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the requirements of subpart F beginning the later of:
(1) The stress test cycle of the calendar year after the calendar year in which the U.S. intermediate holding company becomes subject to regulatory capital requirements; or
(2) The transition period provided under subpart F.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 64055, Oct. 27, 2014; 80 FR 70673, Nov. 16, 2015; 82 FR 8310, Jan. 24, 2017; 84 FR 59114, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.154 Risk-based and leverage capital requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
(a) General requirements. (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart more must certify to the Board that it meets capital adequacy standards on a consolidated basis that are established by its home-country supervisor and that are consistent with the regulatory capital framework published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended from time to time (Basel Capital Framework).
(2) In the event that a home-country supervisor has not established capital adequacy standards that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework, the foreign banking organization must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that it would meet or exceed capital adequacy standards at the consolidated level that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework were it subject to such standards.
(b) Reporting. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must provide to the Board reports relating to its compliance with the capital adequacy measures described in paragraph (a) of this section concurrently with filing the FR Y-7Q.
(c) Noncompliance with the Basel Capital Framework. If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions. If the Board determines to impose one or more requirements, conditions, or restrictions under this paragraph, the Board will notify the organization before it applies any requirement, condition, or restriction, and describe the basis for imposing such requirement, condition, or restriction. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the organization may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement, condition, or restriction. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to applying the requirement, condition, or restriction.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59116, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.155 Risk-management and risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
(a) U.S. risk committee—(1) General. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must maintain a U.S. risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and oversees the risk-management framework of such combined U.S. operations. The U.S. risk committee's responsibilities include the liquidity risk-management responsibilities set forth in § 252.156(a).
(2) Risk-management framework. The foreign banking organization's risk-management framework for its combined U.S. operations must be commensurate with the structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of its combined U.S. operations and consistent with its enterprise-wide risk management policies. The framework must include:
(i) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization; and
(ii) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
(A) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, on a combined U.S. operations basis and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies;
(B) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management of the combined U.S. operations;
(C) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function of the combined U.S. operations; and
(D) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and the compensation structure of the combined U.S. operations.
(3) Placement of the U.S. risk committee. (i) A foreign banking organization that conducts its operations in the United States solely through a U.S. intermediate holding company must maintain its U.S. risk committee as a committee of the board of directors of its U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof).
(ii) A foreign banking organization that conducts its operations through U.S. branches or U.S. agencies (in addition to through its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any) may maintain its U.S. risk committee either:
(A) As a committee of the global board of directors (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as a joint committee with its enterprise-wide risk committee (or equivalent thereof); or
(B) As a committee of the board of directors of its U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as a joint committee with the risk committee of its U.S. intermediate holding company required pursuant to § 252.153(e)(3).
(4) Corporate governance requirements. The U.S. risk committee must meet at least quarterly and otherwise as needed, and must fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
(5) Minimum member requirements. The U.S. risk committee must:
(i) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
(ii) Have at least one member who:
(A) Is not an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates and has not been an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates during the previous three years; and
(B) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in § 225.41(b)(3) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41(b)(3)), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer, as defined in § 215.2(e)(1) of the Board's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)) of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates.
(b) U.S. chief risk officer—(1) General. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart or its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, must appoint a U.S. chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
(2) Responsibilities. (i) The U.S. chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
(A) The measurement, aggregation, and monitoring of risks undertaken by the combined U.S. operations;
(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures for the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the development and implementation of processes and systems set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section; and
(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the risk-control framework for the combined U.S. operations, and the monitoring and testing of such risk controls.
(ii) The U.S. chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies of the combined U.S. operations, and resolving such risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
(3) Corporate governance and reporting. The U.S. chief risk officer must:
(i) Receive compensation and other incentives consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization;
(ii) Be employed by and located in the U.S. branch, U.S. agency, U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, or another U.S. subsidiary;
(iii) Report directly to the U.S. risk committee and the global chief risk officer or equivalent management official (or officials) of the foreign banking organization who is responsible for overseeing, on an enterprise-wide basis, the implementation of and compliance with policies and procedures relating to risk-management governance, practices, and risk controls of the foreign banking organization, unless the Board approves an alternative reporting structure based on circumstances specific to the foreign banking organization;
(iv) Regularly provide information to the U.S. risk committee, global chief risk officer, and the Board regarding the nature of and changes to material risks undertaken by the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations, including risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks, and how such risks relate to the global operations of the foreign banking organization; and
(v) Meet regularly and as needed with the Board to assess compliance with the requirements of this section.
(4) Liquidity risk-management requirements. The U.S. chief risk officer must undertake the liquidity risk-management responsibilities set forth in § 252.156(b).
(c) Responsibilities of the foreign banking organization. The foreign banking organization must take appropriate measures to ensure that its combined U.S. operations implement the risk management policies overseen by the U.S. risk committee described in paragraph (a) of this section, and its combined U.S. operations provide sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart.
(d) Noncompliance with this section. If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59116, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.156 Liquidity risk-management requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
(a) Responsibilities of the U.S. risk committee. (1) The U.S. risk committee established by a foreign banking organization pursuant to § 252.155(a) (or a designated subcommittee of such committee composed of members of the board of directors (or equivalent thereof)) of the U.S. intermediate holding company or the foreign banking organization, as appropriate must:
(i) Approve at least annually the acceptable level of liquidity risk that the foreign banking organization may assume in connection with the operating strategies for its combined U.S. operations (liquidity risk tolerance), with concurrence from the foreign banking organization's board of directors or its enterprise-wide risk committee, taking into account the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations and the enterprise-wide liquidity risk tolerance of the foreign banking organization; and
(ii) Receive and review information provided by the senior management of the combined U.S. operations at least semi-annually to determine whether the combined U.S. operations are operating in accordance with the established liquidity risk tolerance and to ensure that the liquidity risk tolerance for the combined U.S. operations is consistent with the enterprise-wide liquidity risk tolerance established for the foreign banking organization.
(iii) Approve the contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations described in paragraph (e) of this section at least annually and whenever the foreign banking organization revises its contingency funding plan, and approve any material revisions to the contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations prior to the implementation of such revisions.
(b) Responsibilities of the U.S. chief risk officer—(1) Liquidity risk. The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must review the strategies and policies and procedures established by senior management of the U.S. operations for managing the risk that the financial condition or safety and soundness of the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations would be adversely affected by its inability or the market's perception of its inability to meet its cash and collateral obligations (liquidity risk).
(2) Liquidity risk tolerance. The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must review information provided by the senior management of the U.S. operations to determine whether the combined U.S. operations are operating in accordance with the established liquidity risk tolerance. The U.S. chief risk officer must regularly, and, at least semi-annually, report to the foreign banking organization's U.S. risk committee and enterprise-wide risk committee, or the equivalent thereof (if any) (or a designated subcommittee of such committee composed of members of the relevant board of directors (or equivalent thereof)) on the liquidity risk profile of the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations and whether it is operating in accordance with the established liquidity risk tolerance for the U.S. operations, and must establish procedures governing the content of such reports.
(3) Business lines or products. (i) The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must approve new products and business lines and evaluate the liquidity costs, benefits, and risks of each new business line and each new product offered, managed or sold through the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations that could have a significant effect on the liquidity risk profile of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The approval is required before the foreign banking organization implements the business line or offers the product through its combined U.S. operations. In determining whether to approve the new business line or product, the U.S. chief risk officer must consider whether the liquidity risk of the new business line or product (under both current and stressed conditions) is within the foreign banking organization's established liquidity risk tolerance for its combined U.S. operations.
(ii) The U.S. risk committee must review at least annually significant business lines and products offered, managed or sold through the combined U.S. operations to determine whether each business line or product creates or has created any unanticipated liquidity risk, and to determine whether the liquidity risk of each strategy or product is within the foreign banking organization's established liquidity risk tolerance for its combined U.S. operations.
(4) Cash-flow projections. The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must review the cash-flow projections produced under paragraph (d) of this section at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the foreign banking organization or the U.S. operations warrant) to ensure that the liquidity risk of the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations is within the established liquidity risk tolerance.
(5) Liquidity risk limits. The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must establish liquidity risk limits as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section and review the foreign banking organization's compliance with those limits at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization warrant).
(6) Liquidity stress testing. The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must:
(i) Approve the liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions required in § 252.157(a) at least quarterly, and whenever the foreign banking organization materially revises its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies or assumptions;
(ii) Review the liquidity stress testing results produced under § 252.157(a) of this subpart at least quarterly; and
(iii) Approve the size and composition of the liquidity buffer established under § 252.157(c) of this subpart at least quarterly.
(c) Independent review function. (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a review function, which is independent of the management functions that execute funding for its combined U.S. operations, to evaluate the liquidity risk management for its combined U.S. operations.
(2) The independent review function must:
(i) Regularly, but no less frequently than annually, review and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the foreign banking organization's liquidity risk management processes within the combined U.S. operations, including its liquidity stress test processes and assumptions;
(ii) Assess whether the foreign banking organization's liquidity risk-management function of its combined U.S. operations complies with applicable laws and regulations, and sound business practices; and
(iii) Report material liquidity risk management issues to the U.S. risk committee and the enterprise-wide risk committee in writing for corrective action, to the extent permitted by applicable law.
(d) Cash-flow projections. (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must produce comprehensive cash-flow projections for its combined U.S. operations that project cash flows arising from assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures over, at a minimum, short- and long-term time horizons. The foreign banking organization must update short-term cash-flow projections daily and must update longer-term cash-flow projections at least monthly.
(2) The foreign banking organization must establish a methodology for making cash-flow projections for its combined U.S. operations that results in projections which:
(i) Include cash flows arising from contractual maturities, intercompany transactions, new business, funding renewals, customer options, and other potential events that may impact liquidity;
(ii) Include reasonable assumptions regarding the future behavior of assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures;
(iii) Identify and quantify discrete and cumulative cash-flow mismatches over these time periods; and
(iv) Include sufficient detail to reflect the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, currency exposure, activities, and size of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations, and include analyses by business line, currency, or legal entity as appropriate.
(e) Contingency funding plan. (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a contingency funding plan for its combined U.S. operations that sets out the foreign banking organization's strategies for addressing liquidity needs during liquidity stress events. The contingency funding plan must be commensurate with the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and the established liquidity risk tolerance for the combined U.S. operations. The foreign banking organization must update the contingency funding plan for its combined U.S. operations at least annually, and when changes to market and idiosyncratic conditions warrant.
(2) Components of the contingency funding plan—(i) Quantitative assessment. The contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations must:
(A) Identify liquidity stress events that could have a significant impact on the liquidity of the foreign banking organization or its combined U.S. operations;
(B) Assess the level and nature of the impact on the liquidity of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations that may occur during identified liquidity stress events;
(C) Identify the circumstances in which the foreign banking organization would implement its action plan described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, which circumstances must include failure to meet any minimum liquidity requirement imposed by the Board on the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations;
(D) Assess available funding sources and needs during the identified liquidity stress events;
(E) Identify alternative funding sources that may be used during the identified liquidity stress events; and
(F) Incorporate information generated by the liquidity stress testing required under § 252.157(a) of this subpart.
(ii) Liquidity event management process. The contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations must include an event management process that sets out the foreign banking organization's procedures for managing liquidity during identified liquidity stress events for the combined U.S. operations. The liquidity event management process must:
(A) Include an action plan that clearly describes the strategies that the foreign banking organization will use to respond to liquidity shortfalls in its combined U.S. operations for identified liquidity stress events, including the methods that the organization or the combined U.S. operations will use to access alternative funding sources;
(B) Identify a liquidity stress event management team that would execute the action plan in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section for the combined U.S. operations;
(C) Specify the process, responsibilities, and triggers for invoking the contingency funding plan, describe the decision-making process during the identified liquidity stress events, and describe the process for executing contingency measures identified in the action plan; and
(D) Provide a mechanism that ensures effective reporting and communication within the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and with outside parties, including the Board and other relevant supervisors, counterparties, and other stakeholders.
(iii) Monitoring. The contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations must include procedures for monitoring emerging liquidity stress events. The procedures must identify early warning indicators that are tailored to the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations.
(iv) Testing. A foreign banking organization must periodically test:
(A) The components of the contingency funding plan to assess the plan's reliability during liquidity stress events;
(B) The operational elements of the contingency funding plan, including operational simulations to test communications, coordination, and decision-making by relevant management; and
(C) The methods it will use to access alternative funding sources for its combined U.S. operations to determine whether these funding sources will be readily available when needed.
(f) Liquidity risk limits—(1) General. A foreign banking organization must monitor sources of liquidity risk and establish limits on liquidity risk that are consistent with the organization's established liquidity risk tolerance and that reflect the organization's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
(2) Liquidity risk limits established by a Category II foreign banking organization or Category III foreign banking organization. If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV foreign banking organization, liquidity risk limits established under paragraph (f)(1) of this section must include limits on:
(i) Concentrations in sources of funding by instrument type, single counterparty, counterparty type, secured and unsecured funding, and as applicable, other forms of liquidity risk;
(ii) The amount of liabilities that mature within various time horizons; and
(iii) Off-balance sheet exposures and other exposures that could create funding needs during liquidity stress events.
(g) Collateral, legal entity, and intraday liquidity risk monitoring. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart or more must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring liquidity risk as set forth in this paragraph (g).
(1) Collateral. The foreign banking organization must establish and maintain policies and procedures to monitor assets that have been, or are available to be, pledged as collateral in connection with transactions to which entities in its U.S. operations are counterparties. These policies and procedures must provide that the foreign banking organization:
(i) Calculates all of the collateral positions for its combined U.S. operations according to the frequency specified in paragraph (g)(1)(i)(A) or (B) of this section or as directed by the Board, specifying the value of pledged assets relative to the amount of security required under the relevant contracts and the value of unencumbered assets available to be pledged:
(A) If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV foreign banking organization, on at least a weekly basis; or
(B) If the foreign banking organization is a Category IV foreign banking organization, on at least a monthly basis;
(ii) Monitors the levels of unencumbered assets available to be pledged by legal entity, jurisdiction, and currency exposure;
(iii) Monitors shifts in the foreign banking organization's funding patterns, including shifts between intraday, overnight, and term pledging of collateral; and
(iv) Tracks operational and timing requirements associated with accessing collateral at its physical location (for example, the custodian or securities settlement system that holds the collateral).
(2) Legal entities, currencies and business lines. The foreign banking organization must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring and controlling liquidity risk exposures and funding needs of its combined U.S. operations, within and across significant legal entities, currencies, and business lines and taking into account legal and regulatory restrictions on the transfer of liquidity between legal entities.
(3) Intraday exposure. The foreign banking organization must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring intraday liquidity risk exposure for its combined U.S. operations that are consistent with the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations. If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV banking organization these procedures must address how the management of the combined U.S. operations will:
(i) Monitor and measure expected gross daily inflows and outflows;
(ii) Manage and transfer collateral to obtain intraday credit;
(iii) Identify and prioritize time-specific obligations so that the foreign banking organizations can meet these obligations as expected and settle less critical obligations as soon as possible;
(iv) Manage the issuance of credit to customers where necessary; and
(v) Consider the amounts of collateral and liquidity needed to meet payment systems obligations when assessing the overall liquidity needs of the combined U.S. operations.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59116, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.157 Liquidity stress testing and buffer requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
(a) Liquidity stress testing requirement—(1) General. (i) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must conduct stress tests to separately assess the potential impact of liquidity stress scenarios on the cash flows, liquidity position, profitability, and solvency of:
(A) Its combined U.S. operations as a whole;
(B) Its U.S. branches and agencies on an aggregate basis; and
(C) Its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any.
(ii) Each liquidity stress test required under this paragraph (a)(1) must use the stress scenarios described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and take into account the current liquidity condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities of the combined U.S. operations.
(iii) The liquidity stress tests required under this paragraph (a)(1) must take into consideration the balance sheet exposures, off-balance sheet exposures, size, risk profile, complexity, business lines, organizational structure and other characteristics of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations that affect the liquidity risk profile of the combined U.S. operations.
(iv) In conducting a liquidity stress test using the scenarios described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (iii) of this section, the foreign banking organization must address the potential direct adverse impact of associated market disruptions on the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations and the related indirect effect such impact could have on the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and incorporate the potential actions of other market participants experiencing liquidity stresses under the market disruptions that would adversely affect the foreign banking organization or its combined U.S. operations.
(2) Frequency. The foreign banking organization must perform the liquidity stress tests required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section according to the frequency specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section or as directed by the Board:
(i) If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV foreign banking organization, at least monthly; or
(ii) If the foreign banking organization is a Category IV foreign banking organization, at least quarterly.
(3) Stress scenarios. (i) Each liquidity stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include, at a minimum:
(A) A scenario reflecting adverse market conditions;
(B) A scenario reflecting an idiosyncratic stress event for the U.S. branches/agencies and the U.S. intermediate holding company, if any; and
(C) a scenario reflecting combined market and idiosyncratic stresses.
(ii) The foreign banking organization must incorporate additional liquidity stress scenarios into its liquidity stress test as appropriate based on the financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities of the combined U.S. operations, the U.S. branches and agencies, and the U.S. intermediate holding company, as applicable. The Board may require the foreign banking organization to vary the underlying assumptions and stress scenarios.
(4) Planning horizon. Each stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include an overnight planning horizon, a 30-day planning horizon, a 90-day planning horizon, a 1-year planning horizon, and any other planning horizons that are relevant to the liquidity risk profile of the combined U.S. operations, the U.S. branches and agencies, and the U.S. intermediate holding company, if any. For purposes of this section, a “planning horizon” is the period over which the relevant stressed projections extend. The foreign banking organization must use the results of the stress test over the 30-day planning horizon to calculate the size of the liquidity buffers under paragraph (c) of this section.
(5) Requirements for assets used as cash-flow sources in a stress test. (i) To the extent an asset is used as a cash flow source to offset projected funding needs during the planning horizon in a liquidity stress test, the fair market value of the asset must be discounted to reflect any credit risk and market volatility of the asset.
(ii) Assets used as cash-flow sources during the planning horizon must be diversified by collateral, counterparty, borrowing capacity, or other factors associated with the liquidity risk of the assets.
(iii) A line of credit does not qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon of 30 days or less. A line of credit may qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon that exceeds 30 days.
(6) Tailoring. Stress testing must be tailored to, and provide sufficient detail to reflect, the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and, as appropriate, the foreign banking organization as a whole.
(7) Governance—(i) Stress test function. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart, within its combined U.S. operations and its enterprise-wide risk management, must establish and maintain policies and procedures governing its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions that provide for the incorporation of the results of liquidity stress tests in future stress testing and for the enhancement of stress testing practices over time.
(ii) Controls and oversight. The foreign banking organization must establish and maintain a system of controls and oversight that is designed to ensure that its liquidity stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements of this section. The controls and oversight must ensure that each liquidity stress test appropriately incorporates conservative assumptions with respect to the stress scenario in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and other elements of the stress-test process, taking into consideration the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and other relevant factors of the combined U.S. operations. These assumptions must be approved by U.S. chief risk officer and subject to independent review consistent with the standards set out in § 252.156(c).
(iii) Management information systems. The foreign banking organization must maintain management information systems and data processes sufficient to enable it to effectively and reliably collect, sort, and aggregate data and other information related to the liquidity stress testing of its combined U.S. operations.
(8) Notice and response. If the Board determines that a foreign banking organization must conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the Board will notify the foreign banking organization before the change in frequency takes effect, and describe the basis for its determination. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the foreign banking organization may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to requiring the foreign banking organization to conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(b) Reporting of liquidity stress tests required by home-country regulators. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must make available to the Board, in a timely manner, the results of any liquidity internal stress tests and establishment of liquidity buffers required by regulators in its home jurisdiction. The report required under this paragraph must include the results of its liquidity stress test and liquidity buffer, if required by the laws or regulations implemented in the home jurisdiction, or expected under supervisory guidance.
(c) Liquidity buffer requirement—(1) General. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must maintain a liquidity buffer for its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and a separate liquidity buffer for its U.S. branches and agencies, if any, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(2) Calculation of U.S. intermediate holding company buffer requirement. (i) The liquidity buffer for the U.S. intermediate holding company must be sufficient to meet the projected net stressed cash-flow need over the 30-day planning horizon of a liquidity stress test conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section under each scenario set forth in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(ii) Net stressed cash-flow need. The net stressed cash-flow need for the U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to the sum of its net external stressed cash-flow need (calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section) and its net internal stressed cash-flow need (calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section) over the 30-day planning horizon.
(iii) Net external stressed cash-flow need calculation. The net external stressed cash-flow need for a U.S. intermediate holding company equals the difference between:
(A) The projected amount of cash-flow needs that results from transactions between the U.S. intermediate holding company and entities that are not its affiliates; and
(B) The projected amount of cash-flow sources that results from transactions between the U.S. intermediate holding company and entities that are not its affiliates.
(iv) Net internal stressed cash-flow need calculation—(A) General. The net internal stressed cash-flow need for the U.S. intermediate holding company equals the greater of:
(1) The greatest daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need over the 30-day planning horizon as calculated under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section; and
(2) Zero.
(B) Daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need calculation. The daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need for the U.S. intermediate holding company for purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section is calculated as follows:
(1) Daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need. For any given day in the stress-test horizon, the daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need is a daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow that is greater than zero.
(2) Daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow. For any given day of the planning horizon, the daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow equals the sum of the net intragroup cash flow calculated for that day and the net intragroup cash flow calculated for each previous day of the stress-test horizon, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.
(C) Net intragroup cash flow. For any given day of the stress-test horizon, the net intragroup cash flow equals the difference between:
(1) The amount of cash-flow needs resulting from transactions between the U.S. intermediate holding company and its affiliates (including any U.S. branch or U.S. agency) for that day of the planning horizon; and
(2) The amount of cash-flow sources resulting from transactions between the U.S. intermediate holding company and its affiliates (including any U.S. branch or U.S. agency) for that day of the planning horizon.
(D) Amounts secured by highly liquid assets. For the purposes of calculating net intragroup cash flow under this paragraph, the amounts of intragroup cash-flow needs and intragroup cash-flow sources that are secured by highly liquid assets (as defined in paragraph (c)(7) of this section) must be excluded from the calculation.
(3) Calculation of U.S. branch and agency liquidity buffer requirement. (i) The liquidity buffer for the foreign banking organization's U.S. branches and agencies must be sufficient to meet the projected net stressed cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies over the first 14 days of a stress test with a 30-day planning horizon, conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section under the scenarios described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(ii) Net stressed cash-flow need. The net stressed cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization is equal to the sum of its net external stressed cash-flow need (calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section) and net internal stressed cash-flow need (calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section) over the first 14 days of the 30-day planning horizon.
(iii) Net external stressed cash-flow need calculation. (A) The net external stressed cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies equals the difference between:
(1) The projected amount of cash-flow needs that results from transactions between the U.S. branches and agencies and entities other than the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices and its U.S. and non-U.S. affiliates; and
(2) The projected amount of cash-flow sources that results from transactions between the U.S. branches and agencies and entities other than the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices and its U.S. and non-U.S. affiliates.
(iv) Net internal stressed cash-flow need calculation—(A) General. The net internal stressed cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization equals the greater of:
(1) The greatest daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need over the first 14 days of the 30-day planning horizon, as calculated under paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(B) of this section; and
(2) Zero.
(B) Daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need calculation. The daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization for purposes of paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section is calculated as follows:
(1) Daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need. For any given day of the stress-test horizon, the daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies means a daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow that is greater than zero.
(2) Daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow. For any given day of the planning horizon, the daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow of the U.S. branches and agencies equals the sum of the net intragroup cash flow calculated for that day and the net intragroup cash flow calculated for each previous day of the planning horizon, each as calculated in accordance with this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(C) of this section.
(C) Net intragroup cash flow. For any given day of the planning horizon, the net intragroup cash flow must equal the difference between:
(1) The amount of projected cash-flow needs resulting from transactions between a U.S. branch or U.S. agency and the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices and its affiliates; and
(2) The amount of projected cash-flow sources resulting from transactions between a U.S. branch or U.S. agency and the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices and its affiliates.
(D) Amounts secured by highly liquid assets. For the purposes of calculating net intragroup cash flow of the U.S. branches and agencies under this paragraph, the amounts of intragroup cash-flow needs and intragroup cash-flow sources that are secured by highly liquid assets (as defined in paragraph (c)(7) of this section) must be excluded from the calculation.
(4) Location of liquidity buffer—(i) U.S. intermediate holding companies. A U.S. intermediate holding company must maintain in accounts in the United States the highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer required under this section. To the extent that the assets consist of cash, the cash may not be held in an account located at a U.S. branch or U.S. agency of the affiliated foreign banking organization or other affiliate that is not controlled by the U.S. intermediate holding company.
(ii) U.S. branches and agencies. The U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization must maintain in accounts in the United States the highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer required under this section. To the extent that the assets consist of cash, the cash may not be held in an account located at the foreign banking organization's U.S. intermediate holding company or other affiliate.
(7) Asset requirements. The liquidity buffer required in this section for the U.S. intermediate holding company or the U.S. branches and agencies must consist of highly liquid assets that are unencumbered, as set forth below:
(i) Highly liquid assets. The asset must be a highly liquid asset. For these purposes, a highly liquid asset includes:
(A) Cash;
(B) Assets that meet the criteria for high quality liquid assets as defined in 12 CFR 249.20; or
(C) Any other asset that the foreign banking organization demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board:
(1) Has low credit risk and low market risk;
(2) Is traded in an active secondary two-way market that has committed market makers and independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom; and
(3) Is a type of asset that investors historically have purchased in periods of financial market distress during which market liquidity has been impaired.
(ii) Unencumbered. The asset must be unencumbered. For these purposes, an asset is unencumbered if it:
(A) Is free of legal, regulatory, contractual or other restrictions on the ability of such company promptly to liquidate, sell or transfer the asset; and
(B) Is either:
(1) Not pledged or used to secure or provide credit enhancement to any transaction; or
(2) Pledged to a central bank or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, to the extent potential credit secured by the asset is not currently extended by such central bank or U.S. government-sponsored enterprise or any of its consolidated subsidiaries.
(iii) Calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset. In calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset included in the liquidity buffer, the foreign banking organization must discount the fair market value of the asset to reflect any credit risk and market price volatility of the asset.
(iv) Operational requirements. With respect to the liquidity buffer, the foreign banking organization must:
(A) Establish and implement policies and procedures that require highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer to be under the control of the management function in the foreign banking organization that is charged with managing liquidity risk of its combined U.S. operations; and
(B) Demonstrate the capability to monetize a highly liquid asset under each scenario required under § 252.157(a)(3).
(v) Diversification. The liquidity buffer must not contain significant concentrations of highly liquid assets by issuer, business sector, region, or other factor related to the foreign banking organization's risk, except with respect to cash and securities issued or guaranteed by the United States, a U.S. government agency, or a U.S. government sponsored enterprise.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59118, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.158 Capital stress testing requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) Eligible asset means any asset of the U.S. branch or U.S. agency held in the United States that is recorded on the general ledger of a U.S. branch or U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization (reduced by the amount of any specifically allocated reserves held in the United States and recorded on the general ledger of the U.S. branch or U.S. agency in connection with such assets), subject to the following exclusions, and, for purposes of this definition, as modified by the rules of valuation set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
(i) The following assets do not qualify as eligible assets:
(A) Equity securities;
(B) Any assets classified as loss at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff;
(C) Accrued income on assets classified loss, doubtful, substandard or value impaired, at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff;
(D) Any amounts due from the home office, other offices and affiliates, including income accrued but uncollected on such amounts;
(E) The balance from time to time of any other asset or asset category disallowed at the preceding examination or by direction of the Board for any other reason until the underlying reasons for the disallowance have been removed;
(F) Prepaid expenses and unamortized costs, furniture and fixtures and leasehold improvements; and
(G) Any other asset that the Board determines should not qualify as an eligible asset.
(ii) The following rules of valuation apply:
(A) A marketable debt security is valued at its principal amount or market value, whichever is lower;
(B) An asset classified doubtful or substandard at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff, is valued at 50 percent and 80 percent, respectively;
(C) With respect to an asset classified value impaired, the amount representing the allocated transfer risk reserve that would be required for such exposure at a domestically chartered bank is valued at 0 and the residual exposure is valued at 80 percent; and
(D) Real estate located in the United States and carried on the accounting records as an asset are valued at net book value or appraised value, whichever is less.
(2) Liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization means all liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization, including acceptances and any other liabilities (including contingent liabilities), but excluding:
(i) Amounts due to and other liabilities to other offices, agencies, branches and affiliates of such foreign banking organization, including its head office, including unremitted profits; and
(ii) Reserves for possible loan losses and other contingencies.
(3) Pre-provision net revenue means revenue less expenses before adjusting for total loan loss provisions.
(4) Stress test cycle has the same meaning as in subpart F of this part.
(5) Total loan loss provisions means the amount needed to make reserves adequate to absorb estimated credit losses, based upon management's evaluation of the loans and leases that the company has the intent and ability to hold for the foreseeable future or until maturity or payoff, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
(b) In general. (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart and that has a U.S. branch or U.S. agency must:
(i) Be subject on a consolidated basis to a capital stress testing regime by its home-country supervisor that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
(ii) Conduct such stress tests or be subject to a supervisory stress test and meet any minimum standards set by its home-country supervisor with respect to the stress tests; and
(iii) Provide to the Board the information required under paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) The capital stress testing regime of a foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor must include:
(i) A supervisory capital stress test conducted by the foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor or an evaluation and review by the foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor of an internal capital adequacy stress test conducted by the foreign banking organization, according to the frequency specified in paragraph (b)(2)(A) or (B):
(A) If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV foreign banking organization, at least annually; or
(B) If the foreign banking organization is a Category IV foreign banking organization, at least biennially; and
(ii) Requirements for governance and controls of stress testing practices by relevant management and the board of directors (or equivalent thereof) of the foreign banking organization;
(c) Information requirements—(1) In general. A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must report to the Board by January 5 of each calendar year, unless such date is extended by the Board, summary information about its stress-testing activities and results, including the following quantitative and qualitative information:
(i) A description of the types of risks included in the stress test;
(ii) A description of the conditions or scenarios used in the stress test;
(iii) A summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test;
(iv) Estimates of:
(A) Aggregate losses;
(B) Pre-provision net revenue;
(C) Total loan loss provisions;
(D) Net income before taxes; and
(E) Pro forma regulatory capital ratios required to be computed by the home-country supervisor of the foreign banking organization and any other relevant capital ratios; and
(v) An explanation of the most significant causes for any changes in regulatory capital ratios.
(2) Additional information required for foreign banking organizations in a net due from position. If, on a net basis, the U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart provide funding to the foreign banking organization's non-U.S. offices and non-U.S. affiliates, calculated as the average daily position over a stress test cycle for a given year, the foreign banking organization must report the following information to the Board by January 5 of each calendar year, unless such date is extended by the Board:
(i) A detailed description of the methodologies used in the stress test, including those employed to estimate losses, revenues, and changes in capital positions;
(ii) Estimates of realized losses or gains on available-for-sale and held-to-maturity securities, trading and counterparty losses, if applicable; and loan losses (dollar amount and as a percentage of average portfolio balance) in the aggregate and by material sub-portfolio; and
(iii) Any additional information that the Board requests.
(d) Imposition of additional standards for capital stress tests. (1) Unless the Board otherwise determines in writing, a foreign banking organization that does not meet each of the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) and (2) of this section must:
(i) Maintain eligible assets in its U.S. branches and agencies that, on a daily basis, are not less than 108 percent of the average value over each day of the previous calendar quarter of the total liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization; and
(ii) To the extent that a foreign banking organization has not established a U.S. intermediate holding company, conduct an annual stress test of its U.S. subsidiaries to determine whether those subsidiaries have the capital necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions; and report to the Board on an annual basis a summary of the results of the stress test that includes the information required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and any other information specified by the Board.
(2) An enterprise-wide stress test that is approved by the Board may meet the stress test requirement of paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
(3) Intragroup funding restrictions or liquidity requirements for U.S. operations. If a foreign banking organization does not meet each of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, the Board may require the U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization and, if the foreign banking organization has not established a U.S. intermediate holding company, any U.S. subsidiary of the foreign banking organization, to maintain a liquidity buffer or be subject to intragroup funding restrictions.
(e) Notice and response. If the Board determines to impose one or more conditions under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the Board will notify the company before it applies the condition, and describe the basis for imposing the condition. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement. The Board will respond in writing to the company's request for reconsideration prior to applying the condition.
[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59119, Nov. 1, 2019]
Subpart P Covered IHC Long-Term Debt Requirement, Covered IHC Total Loss absorbing Capacity Requirement and Buffer, and Restrictions on Corporate Practices for Intermediate Holding Companies of Global Systemically Important Foreign Banking Organizations
Source: 82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.160 Applicability.
(a) General applicability. This subpart applies to a U.S. intermediate holding company that is required to be established pursuant to § 252.153 and is controlled by a global systemically important foreign banking organization (Covered IHC).
(b) Initial applicability. A Covered IHC is subject to the requirements of §§ 252.162, 252.163, 252.165, 252.166, and 252.167 beginning on the later of:
(1) January 1, 2019; and
(2) 1095 days (three years) after the later of the date on which:
(i) The U.S. non-branch assets of the global systemically important foreign banking organization that controls the Covered IHC equaled or exceeded $50 billion; and
(ii) The foreign banking organization that controls the Covered IHC became a global systemically important foreign banking organization.
(c) Applicability of § 252.164. Section 252.164 applies to a global systemically important foreign banking organization with U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion.
[82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021]
§ 252.161 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart:
Additional tier 1 capital has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(c).
Average total consolidated assets means the denominator of the leverage ratio as described in 12 CFR 217.10(b)(4).
Common equity tier 1 capital has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(b).
Common equity tier 1 capital ratio has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(b) and 12 CFR 217.10(d), as applicable.
Common equity tier 1 minority interest has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
Covered IHC is defined in § 252.160.
Covered IHC TLAC buffer means, with respect to a Covered IHC, the sum of 2.5 percent and any applicable countercyclical capital buffer under 12 CFR 217.11(b) (expressed as a percentage).
Covered IHC Total loss-absorbing capacity amount is defined in § 252.165(c).
Default right (1) Means any:
(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate such agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay or defer payment or performance thereunder, modify the obligations of a party thereunder or any similar rights; and
(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure; and
(2) Does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
Discretionary bonus payment has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.2.
Distribution has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.2.
Eligible Covered IHC debt security with respect to a non-resolution Covered IHC means eligible internal debt securities issued by the non-resolution Covered IHC, and with respect to a resolution Covered IHC means eligible internal debt securities and eligible external debt securities issued by the resolution Covered IHC.
Eligible external debt security means:
(1) A debt instrument that:
(i) Is paid in, and issued by the Covered IHC to, and remains held by, a person that does not directly or indirectly control the Covered IHC and is not a wholly owned subsidiary;
(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the Covered IHC or a subsidiary of the Covered IHC, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
(iv) Is governed by the laws of the United States or any State thereof;
(v) Does not provide the holder of the instrument a contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument or in the event of:
(A) A receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC; or
(B) A failure of the Covered IHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due and payable that continues for 30 days or more;
(vi) Does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as an interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the Covered IHC's credit quality, but may have an interest rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the Covered IHC's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
(vii) Is not a structured note; and
(viii) Does not provide that the instrument may be converted into or exchanged for equity of the covered IHC; and
(2) A debt instrument issued prior to December 31, 2016 that:
(i) Is paid in, and issued by the Covered IHC to, and remains held by, a person that does not directly or indirectly control the Covered IHC and is not a wholly owned subsidiary;
(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the Covered IHC or a subsidiary of the Covered IHC, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
(iv) Does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as an interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the Covered IHC's credit quality, but may have an interest rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the Covered IHC's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
(v) Is not a structured note; and
(vi) Does not provide that the instrument may be converted into or exchanged for equity of the Covered IHC.
Eligible internal debt security means a debt instrument that:
(i) Is paid in, and issued by the Covered IHC;
(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the Covered IHC or a subsidiary of the Covered IHC, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
(iv) Is governed by the laws of the United States or any State thereof;
(v) Does not provide the holder of the instrument a contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument or in the event of:
(A) A receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC; or
(B) A failure of the Covered IHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due and payable that continues for 30 days or more;
(vi) Is not a structured note;
(vii) Is issued to and remains held by a company that is incorporated or organized outside of the United States, and directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC or is a wholly owned subsidiary; and
(viii) Has a contractual provision that is approved by the Board that provides for the immediate conversion or exchange of the instrument into common equity tier 1 of the Covered IHC upon issuance by the Board of an internal debt conversion order.
GAAP means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
Internal debt conversion order means an order by the Board to immediately convert to, or exchange for, common equity tier 1 capital an amount of eligible internal debt securities of the Covered IHC specified by the Board in its discretion, as described in § 252.163.
Non-resolution Covered IHC means a Covered IHC identified as or determined to be a non-resolution Covered IHC pursuant to § 252.164.
Outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount is defined in § 252.162(b).
Person has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
Qualified financial contract has the same meaning as in section 210(c)(8)(D) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)).
Resolution Covered IHC means a Covered IHC identified as or determined to be a resolution Covered IHC pursuant to § 252.164.
Standardized total risk-weighted assets has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
Structured note means a debt instrument that:
(1) Has a principal amount, redemption amount, or stated maturity that is subject to reduction based on the performance of any asset, entity, index, or embedded derivative or similar embedded feature;
(2) Has an embedded derivative or other similar embedded feature that is linked to one or more equity securities, commodities, assets, or entities;
(3) Does not specify a minimum principal amount that becomes due and payable upon acceleration or early termination; or
(4) Is not classified as debt under GAAP, provided that an instrument is not a structured note solely because it is one or both of the following:
(i) A non-dollar-denominated instrument, or
(ii) An instrument whose interest payments are based on an interest rate index.
Supplementary leverage ratio has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(4).
Tier 1 minority interest has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
Tier 2 capital has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(d).
Total leverage exposure has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(4)(ii).
Total risk-weighted assets, with respect to a Covered IHC, is equal to the Covered IHC's standardized total risk-weighted assets.
U.S. non-branch assets has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 252.152(b)(2).
Wholly owned subsidiary means an entity, all of the outstanding ownership interests of which are owned directly or indirectly by a global systemically important foreign banking organization that directly or indirectly controls a Covered IHC, except that up to 0.5 percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests may be held by a third party if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by the third party for the purpose of establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns.
Editorial Note:At 82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, subpart P to part 252 was added, including § 252.161. The definition of Eligible internal debt security in § 252.161 was set out with inaccurate paragraph codification.
[82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55291, Dec. 1, 2025]
§ 252.162 Covered IHC long-term debt requirement.
(a) Covered IHC long-term debt requirement. A Covered IHC must have an outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greatest of:
(1) 6 percent of the Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;
(2) If the Covered IHC is required to maintain a minimum supplementary leverage ratio, 2.5 percent of the Covered IHC's total leverage exposure; and
(3) 3.5 percent of the Covered IHC's average total consolidated assets.
(b) Outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount. (1) A Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount is the sum of:
(i) One hundred (100) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in greater than or equal to 730 days (two years); and
(ii) Fifty (50) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) and less than 730 days (two years); and
(iii) Zero (0) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in less than 365 days (one year).
(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the date on which principal is due to be paid on an outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security is calculated from the earlier of:
(i) The date on which payment of principal is required under the terms governing the instrument, without respect to any right of the holder to accelerate payment of principal; and
(ii) The date the holder of the instrument first has the contractual right to request or require payment of the amount of principal, provided that, with respect to a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument only on the occurrence of an event (other than an event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC, or a failure of the Covered IHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due), the date for the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) will be calculated as if the event has occurred.
(3) After notice and response proceedings consistent with 12 CFR part 263, subpart E, the Board may order a Covered IHC to exclude from its outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount any debt security with one or more features that would significantly impair the ability of such debt security to take losses.
(c) Redemption and repurchase. Without the prior approval of the Board, a Covered IHC may not redeem or repurchase any outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security if, immediately after the redemption or repurchase, the Covered IHC would not have an outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount that is sufficient to meet its Covered IHC long-term debt requirement under paragraph (a) of this section.
[82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021]
§ 252.163 Internal debt conversion order.
(a) The Board may issue an internal debt conversion order if:
(1) The Board has determined that the Covered IHC is in default or danger of default; and
(2) Any of the following circumstances apply:
(i) A foreign banking organization that directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC or any subsidiary of the top-tier foreign banking organization has been placed into resolution proceedings (including the application of statutory resolution powers) in its home country;
(ii) The home country supervisor of the top-tier foreign banking organization has consented or not promptly objected after notification by the Board to the conversion or exchange of the eligible internal debt securities of the Covered IHC; or
(iii) The Board has made a written recommendation to the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5383(a) regarding the Covered IHC.
(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the Board will consider:
(1) A Covered IHC in default or danger of default if
(i) A case has been, or likely will promptly be, commenced with respect to the Covered IHC under the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 101 et seq.);
(ii) The Covered IHC has incurred, or is likely to incur, losses that will deplete all or substantially all of its capital, and there is no reasonable prospect for the Covered IHC to avoid such depletion;
(iii) The assets of the Covered IHC are, or are likely to be, less than its obligations to creditors and others; or
(iv) The Covered IHC is, or is likely to be, unable to pay its obligations (other than those subject to a bona fide dispute) in the normal course of business; and
(2) An objection by the home country supervisor to the conversion or exchange of the eligible internal debt securities to be prompt if the Board receives the objection no later than 24 hours after the Board requests such consent or non-objection from the home country supervisor.
§ 252.164 Identification as a resolution Covered IHC or a non-resolution Covered IHC.
(a) Initial certification. The top-tier global systemically important foreign banking organization with U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion must certify to the Board on the later of June 30, 2017, or one year prior to the date on which a Covered IHC becomes subject to the requirements of this subpart pursuant to § 252.160(b) whether the planned resolution strategy of the top-tier foreign banking organization involves the Covered IHC or the subsidiaries of the Covered IHC entering resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceedings in the United States.
(b) Certification update. The top-tier global systemically important foreign banking organization with U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion must provide an updated certification to the Board upon a change in the resolution strategy described in the certification provided pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) Identification of a resolution Covered IHC. A Covered IHC is a resolution Covered IHC if the most recent certification provided pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section indicates that the top-tier foreign banking organization's planned resolution strategy involves the Covered IHC or the subsidiaries of the Covered IHC entering resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceedings in the United States.
(d) Identification of a non-resolution Covered IHC. A Covered IHC is a non-resolution Covered IHC if the most recent certification provided pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section indicates that the top-tier foreign banking organization's planned resolution strategy involves neither the Covered IHC nor the subsidiaries of the Covered IHC entering resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceedings in the United States.
(e) Board determination. The Board may determine in its discretion that a non-resolution Covered IHC identified pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section is a resolution Covered IHC, or that a resolution Covered IHC identified pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section is a non-resolution Covered IHC.
(f) Transition. (1) A Covered IHC identified as a resolution Covered IHC pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section or determined by the Board to be a resolution Covered IHC pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section must comply with the requirements in this subpart applicable to a resolution Covered IHC within 365 days (one year) after such identification or determination, unless such time period is extended by the Board in its discretion.
(2) A Covered IHC identified as a non-resolution Covered IHC pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section or determined by the Board to be a non-resolution Covered IHC pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section must comply with the requirements in this subpart applicable to a non-resolution Covered IHC 365 days (one year) after such identification or determination, unless such time period is extended by the Board in its discretion.
§ 252.165 Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity requirement and buffer.
(a) Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity requirement for a resolution Covered IHC. A resolution Covered IHC must have an outstanding Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greatest of:
(1) 18 percent of the resolution Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;
(2) If the Board requires the resolution Covered IHC to maintain a minimum supplementary leverage ratio, 6.75 percent of the resolution Covered IHC's total leverage exposure; and
(3) Nine (9) percent of the resolution Covered IHC's average total consolidated assets.
(b) Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity requirement for a non-resolution Covered IHC. A non-resolution Covered IHC must have an outstanding Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greatest of:
(1) 16 percent of the non-resolution Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;
(2) If the Board requires the non-resolution Covered IHC to maintain a minimum supplementary leverage ratio, 6 percent of the non-resolution Covered IHC's total leverage exposure; and
(3) Eight (8) percent of the non-resolution Covered IHC's average total consolidated assets.
(c) Covered IHC Total loss-absorbing capacity amount. (1) A non-resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount is equal to the sum of:
(i) The Covered IHC's common equity tier 1 capital (excluding any common equity tier 1 minority interest) held by a company that is incorporated or organized outside of the United States and that directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC;
(ii) The Covered IHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) held by a company that is incorporated or organized outside of the United States and that directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC; and
(iii) The Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount, plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC due to be paid in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years).
(2) A resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount is equal to the sum of:
(i) The Covered IHC's common equity tier 1 capital (excluding any common equity tier 1 minority interest);
(ii) The Covered IHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest); and
(iii) The Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount, plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC due to be paid in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years).
(d) Covered IHC TLAC buffer—(1) Composition of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer. The Covered IHC TLAC buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
(2) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph, the following definitions apply:
(i) Eligible retained income. The eligible retained income of a Covered IHC is the greater of:
(A) The Covered IHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and
(B) The average of the Covered IHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter.
(ii) Maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio. The maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a Covered IHC can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio is based on the Covered IHC's Covered IHC TLAC buffer level, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.165.
(iii) Maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount. A Covered IHC's maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the Covered IHC's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.165.
(3) Calculation of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer level. (i) A Covered IHC's Covered IHC TLAC buffer level is equal to the Covered IHC's common equity tier 1 capital ratio (expressed as a percentage) minus the greater of zero and the following amount:
(A) 16 percent for a non-resolution Covered IHC, and 18 percent for a resolution Covered IHC; minus
(B)(1) For a non-resolution Covered IHC, the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the Covered IHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) held by a company that is incorporated or organized outside of the United States and that directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC to the Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;
(2) For a resolution Covered IHC, the ratio (expressed as a percentage of the Covered IHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) to the Covered IHC's total-risk weighted assets; and minus
(C) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC due to be paid in, as calculated in § 252.162(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years) to total risk-weighted assets.
(ii)(A) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, with respect to a resolution Covered IHC, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(a), to the resolution Covered IHC's risk-weighted assets is less than or equal to, 18 percent, the Covered IHC's Covered IHC TLAC buffer level is zero.
(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, with respect to a non-resolution Covered IHC, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the non-resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(b), to the Covered IHC's risk-weighted assets is less than or equal to 16 percent, the non-resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC TLAC buffer level is zero.
(4) Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments. (i) A Covered IHC shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount.
(ii) A Covered IHC with a Covered IHC TLAC buffer level that is greater than the Covered IHC TLAC buffer is not subject to a maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount.
(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4)(iv) of this section, a Covered IHC may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the Covered IHC's:
(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
(B) Covered IHC TLAC buffer level was less than the Covered IHC TLAC buffer as of the end of the previous calendar quarter.
(iv) Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (d)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the Board may permit a Covered IHC to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the Covered IHC, if the Board determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the Covered IHC. In making such a determination, the Board will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
Table 1 to § 252.165—Calculation of Maximum Covered IHC TLAC Payout Amount
Covered IHC TLAC buffer level | Maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio (as a percentage of eligible retained income)
Greater than the Covered IHC TLAC buffer | No payout ratio limitation applies.
Less than or equal to the Covered IHC TLAC buffer, and greater than 75 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer | 60 percent.
Less than or equal to 75 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer, and greater than 50 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer | 40 percent.
Less than or equal to 50 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer, and greater 25 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer | 20 percent.
Less than or equal to 25 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer | 0 percent.
(v)(A) A Covered IHC is subject to the lowest of the maximum payout amounts as determined under 12 CFR 217.11(a)(2) and the maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount as determined under this paragraph.
(B) Additional limitations on distributions may apply to a Covered IHC under 12 CFR 225.4, 225.8, and 263.202.
[82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 17006, Mar. 26, 2020; 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021]
§ 252.166 Restrictions on corporate practices of intermediate holding companies of global systemically important foreign banking organizations.
(a) Prohibited corporate practices. A Covered IHC may not directly:
(1) Issue any debt instrument with an original maturity of less than 365 days (one year), including short term deposits and demand deposits, to any person, unless the person is an affiliate of the Covered IHC;
(2) Issue any instrument, or enter into any related contract, with respect to which the holder of the instrument has a contractual right to offset debt owed by the holder or its affiliates to the Covered IHC or a subsidiary of the Covered IHC against the amount, or a portion of the amount, owed by the Covered IHC under the instrument;
(3) Enter into a qualified financial contract that is not a credit enhancement with a person that is not an affiliate of the Covered IHC;
(4) Enter into an agreement in which the Covered IHC guarantees a liability of an affiliate of the Covered IHC if such liability permits the exercise of a default right that is related, directly or indirectly, to the Covered IHC becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding other than a receivership proceeding under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 through 5394) unless the liability is subject to requirements of the Board restricting such default rights or subject to any similar requirements of another U.S. federal banking agency; or
(5) Enter into, or otherwise benefit from, any agreement that provides for its liabilities to be guaranteed by any of its subsidiaries.
(b) Limit on unrelated liabilities. (1) The aggregate amount, on an unconsolidated basis, of unrelated liabilities of a Covered IHC may not exceed 5 percent of the Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(c).
(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an unrelated liability includes:
(i) With respect to a non-resolution Covered IHC, any non-contingent liability of the non-resolution Covered IHC owed to a person that is not an affiliate of the non-resolution Covered IHC other than those liabilities specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and
(ii) With respect to a resolution Covered IHC, any non-contingent liability of the resolution Covered IHC owed to a person that is not a subsidiary of the resolution Covered IHC other than those liabilities specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
(3)(i) The instruments that are used to satisfy the Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(a);
(ii) Any dividend or other liability arising from the instruments that are used to satisfy the Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(c)(2);
(iii) An eligible Covered IHC debt security that does not provide the holder of the instrument with a currently exercisable right to require immediate payment of the total or remaining principal amount; and
(iv) A secured liability, to the extent that it is secured, or a liability that otherwise represents a claim that would be senior to eligible Covered IHC debt securities in Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(b)) and the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 507).
(c) A Covered IHC is not subject to paragraph (b) of this section if all of the eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC would represent the most subordinated debt claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC.
§ 252.167 Disclosure requirements for resolution Covered IHCs.
(a) A resolution Covered IHC that has any outstanding eligible external debt securities must publicly disclose a description of the financial consequences to unsecured debtholders of the resolution Covered IHC entering into a resolution proceeding in which the resolution Covered IHC is the only entity in the United States that would be subject to the resolution proceeding.
(b) A resolution Covered IHC must provide the disclosure required by paragraph (a) of this section:
(1) In the offering documents for all of its eligible external debt securities; and
(2) Either:
(i) On the resolution Covered IHC's Web site; or
(ii) In more than one public financial report or other public regulatory reports, provided that the resolution Covered IHC publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of this disclosure.
Subpart Q Single-Counterparty Credit Limits
Source: 83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.170 Applicability and general provisions.
(a) In general. (1) This subpart establishes single counterparty credit limits for a covered foreign entity.
(2) For purposes of this subpart:
(i) Covered foreign entity means:
(A) A Category II foreign banking organization;
(B) A Category III foreign banking organization;
(C) A foreign banking organization with total consolidated assets that equal or exceed $250 billion;
(D) A Category II U.S. intermediate holding company; and
(E) A Category III U.S. intermediate holding company.
(ii) Major foreign banking organization means a foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity and meets the requirements of § 252.172(c)(3) through (5).
(b) Credit exposure limits. (1) Section 252.172 establishes credit exposure limits for covered foreign entities and major foreign banking organizations.
(2) A covered foreign entity is required to calculate its aggregate net credit exposure, gross credit exposure, and net credit exposure to a counterparty using the methods in this subpart.
(c) Applicability of this subpart—(1) Foreign banking organizations. (i) A foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.172, beginning on January 1, 2022, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, a foreign banking organization that is a major foreign banking organization as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.172, beginning on July 1, 2021, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(2) U.S. intermediate holding companies. (i) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.172, beginning on July 1, 2020, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
(ii) [Reserved]
(iii) A U.S. intermediate holding company that becomes a covered foreign entity subject to this subpart after October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth calendar quarter after it becomes a covered foreign entity, unless that time is accelerated or extended by the Board in writing.
(d) Cessation of requirements—(1) Foreign banking organizations. (i) Any foreign banking organization that becomes a covered foreign entity will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart unless and until:
(A) The covered foreign entity is not a Category II foreign banking organization;
(B) The covered foreign entity is not a Category III foreign banking organization; and
(C) Its total consolidated assets fall below $250 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, as reported on the covered foreign entity's FR Y-7Q, effective on the as-of date of the fourth consecutive FR Y-7Q.
(ii) A foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity and that has ceased to be a major foreign banking organization for purposes of § 252.172(c) is no longer subject to the requirements of § 252.172(c) beginning on the first day of the calendar quarter following the reporting date on which it ceased to be a major foreign banking organization; provided that the foreign banking organization remains subject to the requirements of this subpart, unless it ceases to be a foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.
(2) U.S. intermediate holding companies. (i) Any U.S. intermediate holding company that becomes a covered foreign entity will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart unless and until:
(A) The covered foreign entity is not a Category II U.S. intermediate holding company; or
(B) The covered foreign entity is not a Category III U.S. intermediate holding company.
[84 FR 59119, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 31952, May 28, 2020]
§ 252.171 Definitions.
Unless defined in this section, terms that are set forth in § 252.2 of this part and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned in § 252.2. For purposes of this subpart:
(a) Adjusted market value means:
(1) With respect to the value of cash, securities, or other eligible collateral transferred by the covered foreign entity to a counterparty, the sum of:
(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; and
(ii) The product of the market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132); and
(2) With respect to cash, securities, or other eligible collateral received by the covered foreign entity from a counterparty:
(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; minus
(ii) The market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132).
(3) Prior to calculating the adjusted market value pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section, with regard to a transaction that meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2), the covered foreign entity would first multiply the applicable collateral haircuts in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132) by the square root of 1/2.
(b) Affiliate means, with respect to a company:
(1) Any subsidiary of the company and any other company that is consolidated with the company under applicable accounting standards; or
(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any subsidiary of the company and any other company that would be consolidated with the company, if consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
(c) Aggregate net credit exposure means the sum of all net credit exposures of a covered foreign entity and all of its subsidiaries to a single counterparty as calculated under this subpart.
(d) Bank-eligible investments means investment securities that a national bank is permitted to purchase, sell, deal in, underwrite, and hold under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) and 12 CFR part 1.
(e) Capital stock and surplus means, with respect to a U.S. intermediate holding company, the sum of the following amounts in each case as reported by the U.S. intermediate holding company on the most recent FR Y-9C on a consolidated basis:
(1) The tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital of the U.S. intermediate holding company, as calculated under the capital adequacy guidelines applicable to that U.S. intermediate holding company under subpart O of the Board's Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subpart O); and
(2) The excess allowance for loan and lease losses of the U.S. intermediate holding company not included in its tier 2 capital, as calculated under the capital adequacy guidelines applicable to that U.S. intermediate holding company under subpart O of the Board's Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subpart O).
(f) Counterparty means with respect to a credit transaction:
(1) With respect to a natural person:
(i) The natural person;
(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section, if the credit exposure of the covered foreign entity to such natural person exceeds 5 percent of tier 1 capital, the natural person and members of the person's immediate family collectively; and
(iii) Until January 1, 2021, with respect to a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019, if the credit exposure of the U.S. intermediate holding company to such natural person exceeds 5 percent of its capital stock and surplus, the natural person and member of the person's immediately family collectively.
(2) With respect to any company that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity, the company and its affiliates collectively;
(3) With respect to a State, the State and all of its agencies, instrumentalities, and political subdivisions (including any municipalities) collectively;
(4) With respect to a foreign sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D), other than the home country foreign sovereign entity of a foreign banking organization, the foreign sovereign entity and all of its agencies and instrumentalities (but not including any political subdivision), collectively; and
(5) With respect to a political subdivision of a foreign sovereign entity such as a state, province, or municipality, any political subdivision of the foreign sovereign entity and all of such political subdivision's agencies and instrumentalities, collectively. 1
1 In addition, under § 252.176, under certain circumstances, a covered foreign entity is required to aggregate its net credit exposure to one or more counterparties for all purposes under this subpart.
(g) Covered foreign entity is defined in § 252.170(a)(2)(i) of this subpart.
(h) Credit derivative has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(i) Credit transaction means, with respect to a counterparty:
(1) Any extension of credit to the counterparty, including loans, deposits, and lines of credit, but excluding uncommitted lines of credit;
(2) Any repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement with the counterparty;
(3) Any securities lending or securities borrowing transaction with the counterparty;
(4) Any guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit (including any endorsement, confirmed letter of credit, or standby letter of credit) issued on behalf of the counterparty;
(5) Any purchase of securities issued by or other investment in the counterparty;
(6) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a derivative transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty;
(7) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party, the reference asset of which is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, the counterparty; and
(8) Any transaction that is the functional equivalent of the above, and any other similar transaction that the Board, by regulation, determines to be a credit transaction for purposes of this subpart.
(j) Depository institution has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
(k) Derivative transaction means any transaction that is a contract, agreement, swap, warrant, note, or option that is based, in whole or in part, on the value of, any interest in, or any quantitative measure or the occurrence of any event relating to, one or more commodities, securities, currencies, interest or other rates, indices, or other assets.
(l) Eligible collateral means collateral in which, notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent, the covered foreign entity has a perfected, first priority security interest (or the legal equivalent thereof, if outside of the United States), with the exception of cash on deposit, and is in the form of:
(1) Cash on deposit with the covered foreign entity or an affiliate of the covered foreign entity (including cash in foreign currency or U.S. dollars held for the covered foreign entity by a custodian or trustee, whether inside or outside of the United States);
(2) Debt securities (other than mortgage- or asset-backed securities and resecuritization securities, unless those securities are issued by a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise) that are bank-eligible investments and that are investment grade, except for any debt securities issued by the covered foreign entity or any affiliate of the covered foreign entity;
(3) Equity securities that are publicly traded, except for any equity securities issued by the covered foreign entity or any affiliate of the covered foreign entity;
(4) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded, except for any convertible bonds issued by the covered foreign entity or any affiliate of the covered foreign entity; or
(5) Gold bullion.
(m) Eligible credit derivative means a single-name credit derivative or a standard, non-tranched index credit derivative, provided that:
(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld; and
(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event.
(n) Eligible equity derivative means an equity derivative, provided that:
(1) The derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
(2) Any assignment of the derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties; and
(3) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the derivative contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract.
(o) Eligible guarantee has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(p) Eligible guarantor has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2), but does not include the foreign banking organization or any entity that is an affiliate of either the U.S. intermediate holding company or of any part of the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations.
(q) Equity derivative has the same meaning as “equity derivative contract” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(r) Exempt counterparty means an entity that is identified as exempt from the requirements of this subpart under § 252.177, or that is otherwise excluded from this subpart, including any sovereign entity assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D).
(s) Financial entity means:
(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with this part; or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a federal credit union or state credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); a national association, state member bank, or state nonmember bank that is not a depository institution; an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
(iv) Any person registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a et seq.);
(v) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq.); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
(vi) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
(vii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
(viii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
(ix) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
(x) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5462); and
(xi) An entity that would be a financial entity described in paragraphs (s)(1)(i) through (x) of this section, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; and
(2) Provided that, for purposes of this subpart, “financial entity” does not include any counterparty that is a foreign sovereign entity or multilateral development bank.
(t) Foreign sovereign entity means a sovereign entity other than the United States government and the entity's agencies, departments, ministries, and central bank.
(u) Gross credit exposure means, with respect to any credit transaction, the credit exposure of the covered foreign entity before adjusting, pursuant to § 252.174, for the effect of any qualifying master netting agreement, eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible credit derivative, eligible equity derivative, other eligible hedge, and any unused portion of certain extensions of credit.
(v) Immediate family means the spouse of an individual, the individual's minor children, and any of the individual's children (including adults) residing in the individual's home.
(w) Intraday credit exposure means credit exposure of a covered foreign entity to a counterparty that by its terms is to be repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of its business day in the United States.
(x) Investment grade has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(y) Major counterparty means any counterparty that is or includes:
(1) A U.S. bank holding company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.402);
(2) A top-tier foreign banking organization that meets the requirements of § 252.172(c)(3) through (5); or
(3) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
(z) Major foreign banking organization is defined in § 252.170(a)(2)(ii) of this subpart.
(aa) Multilateral development bank has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(bb) Net credit exposure means, with respect to any credit transaction, the gross credit exposure of a covered foreign entity and all of its subsidiaries calculated under § 252.173, as adjusted in accordance with § 252.174.
(cc) Qualifying central counterparty has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(dd) Qualifying master netting agreement has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
(ee) Securities financing transaction means any repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement, securities borrowing transaction, or securities lending transaction.
(ff) Short sale means any sale of a security which the seller does not own or any sale which is consummated by the delivery of a security borrowed by, or for the account of, the seller.
(gg) Sovereign entity means a central national government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank, but not including any political subdivision such as a state, province, or municipality.
(hh) Subsidiary. A company is a subsidiary of another company if
(1) The company is consolidated by the other company under applicable accounting standards; or
(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (ii)(1) of this definition, consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
(ii) Tier 1 capital means common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital, as defined in subpart O of the Board's Regulation YY(12 CFR part 252, subpart O).
(jj) Tier 2 capital means tier 2 capital as defined in subpart O of the Board's Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subpart O).
(kk) Total consolidated assets. (1) A foreign banking organization's total consolidated assets are determined based on:
(i) The average of the foreign banking organization's total consolidated assets in the four most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-7Q; or
(ii) If the foreign banking organization has not filed an FR Y-7Q for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the average of the foreign banking organization's total consolidated assets, as reported on the foreign banking organization's FR Y-7Q, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable; or
(iii) If the foreign banking organization has not yet filed an FR Y-7Q, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company's total consolidated assets are determined based on:
(i) The average of the U.S. intermediate holding company's total consolidated assets in the four most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-9C; or
(ii) If the U.S. intermediate holding company has not filed an FR Y-9C for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the average of the U.S. intermediate holding company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the company's FR Y-9C, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable; or
(iii) If the U.S. intermediate holding company has not yet filed an FR Y-9C, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59120, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.172 Credit exposure limits.
(a) Transition limit on aggregate credit exposure for certain covered foreign entities. (1) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 is not required to comply with paragraph (b)(1) of this section until January 1, 2021.
(2) Until January 1, 2021, no U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 may have an aggregate net credit exposure that exceeds 25 percent of the consolidated capital stock and surplus of the U.S. intermediate holding company.
(b) Limit on aggregate net credit exposure for covered foreign entities. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, no U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity may have an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 25 percent of the tier 1 capital of the U.S. intermediate holding company.
(2) No foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity may permit its combined U.S. operations to have aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 25 percent of the tier 1 capital of the foreign banking organization.
(c) Limit on aggregate net credit exposure of major foreign banking organizations to major counterparties.
(1) [Reserved]
(2) No major foreign banking organization may permit its combined U.S. operations to have aggregate net credit exposure to any major counterparty that exceeds 15 percent of the tier 1 capital of the major foreign banking organization.
(3) For purposes of this subpart, a top-tier foreign banking organization will be a major counterparty if it meets one of the following conditions:
(i) The top-tier foreign banking organization determines, pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153(b)(6), that the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology; or
(ii) The Board, using information available to the Board, determines:
(A) That the top-tier foreign banking organization would be a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology;
(B) That the top-tier foreign banking organization, if it were subject to the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q; or
(C) That the U.S. intermediate holding company, if it were subject to 12 CFR 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC.
(4) Each top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company must submit to the Board by January 1 of each calendar year through the U.S. intermediate holding company:
(A) Notice of whether the home country supervisor (or other appropriate home country regulatory authority) of the top-tier foreign banking organization of the U.S. intermediate holding company has adopted standards consistent with the global methodology; and
(B) Notice of whether the top-tier foreign banking organization prepares or reports the indicators used by the global methodology to identify a banking organization as a global systemically important banking organization and, if it does, whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has determined that it has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153(b)(6).
(5) A top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company and prepares or reports for any purpose the indicator amounts necessary to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization is a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must use the data to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.
(d) Foreign banking organizations subject on a consolidated basis to a large exposures or single-counterparty credit limit regime by its home-country supervisor. (1) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, a foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity is not required to comply with the requirements of this subpart with respect to limits on the aggregate net credit exposure of its combined U.S. operations if the foreign banking organization certifies to the Board that it meets large exposure standards on a consolidated basis established by its home-country supervisor that are consistent with the large exposures framework published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (Basel Large Exposures Framework), unless the Board determines in writing, after notice to the foreign banking organization, that compliance with this subpart is required.
(i) For purposes of this paragraph, home-country large exposure standards that are consistent with the Basel Large Exposures Framework include single-counterparty credit limits and any restrictions set forth in “Supervisory framework for measuring and controlling large exposures” (2014) (Basel LE Standard), as implemented in accordance with the Basel LE Standard.
(ii) [Reserved]
(2) A foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity must provide to the Board reports relating to its compliance with the large exposure standards described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section concurrently with filing the FR Y-7Q or any successor report.
[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59120, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.173 Gross credit exposure.
(a) Calculation of gross credit exposure. The amount of gross credit exposure of a covered foreign entity to a counterparty with respect to a credit transaction is, in the case of:
(1) A deposit of the covered foreign entity held by the counterparty, loan by a covered foreign entity to the counterparty, and lease in which the covered foreign entity is the lessor and the counterparty is the lessee, equal to the amount owed by the counterparty to the covered foreign entity under the transaction.
(2) A debt security or debt investment held by the covered foreign entity that is issued by the counterparty, equal to:
(i) The market value of the securities, for trading and available-for-sale securities; and
(ii) The amortized purchase price of the securities or investments, for securities or investments held to maturity.
(3) An equity security held by the covered foreign entity that is issued by the counterparty, equity investment in a counterparty, and other direct investments in a counterparty, equal to the market value.
(4) A securities financing transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered foreign entity is authorized to use under the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E) to value such transactions:
(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty that is not subject to a bilateral netting agreement or does not meet the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2); or
(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty that is subject to a bilateral netting agreement with that counterparty and meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2);
(ii) For purposes of paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, the covered foreign entity must:
(A) Assign a value of zero to any security received from the counterparty that does not meet the definition of “eligible collateral” in § 252.171(l); and
(B) Include the value of securities that are eligible collateral received by the covered foreign entity from the counterparty (including any exempt counterparty), calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to the issuer of those securities;
(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section and with respect to each credit transaction, a covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (a)(4) is limited to the covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction;
(iv) In cases where the covered foreign entity receives eligible collateral from a counterparty in addition to the cash or securities received from that counterparty, the counterparty may reduce its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with § 252.174(b).
(5) A committed credit line extended by a covered foreign entity to a counterparty, equal to the face amount of the committed credit line.
(6) A guarantee or letter of credit issued by a covered foreign entity on behalf of a counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered foreign entity on the transaction.
(7) A derivative transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered foreign entity is authorized to use under the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E) to value such transactions:
(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; or
(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.
(ii) In cases where a covered foreign entity is required to recognize an exposure to an eligible guarantor pursuant to § 252.174(d), the covered foreign entity must exclude the relevant derivative transaction when calculating its gross exposure to the original counterparty under this section.
(8) A credit derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party where the covered foreign entity is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or debt security of the counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered foreign entity on the transaction.
(b) Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not affiliates. Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section.
(1) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 is not required to comply with paragraph (b)(3) of this section until January 1, 2021.
(2) Until January 1, 2021, unless the Board applies the requirements of § 252.175 to the transaction pursuant to § 252.175(d), a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 must:
(i) Calculate pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section its gross credit exposure due to any investment in the debt or equity of, and any credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party where the covered foreign entity is in the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, a securitization vehicle, investment fund, and other special purpose vehicle that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity; and
(ii) Attribute that gross credit exposure to the securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle for purposes of this subpart.
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a covered foreign entity must calculate pursuant to § 252.175 its gross credit exposure due to any investment in the debt or equity of, and any credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party where the covered foreign entity is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, a securitization vehicle, investment fund, and other special purpose vehicle that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity.
(c) Attribution rule. Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a covered foreign entity must treat any transaction with any natural person or entity as a credit transaction with another party, to the extent that the proceeds of the transaction are used for the benefit of, or transferred to, the other party.
[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59120, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.174 Net credit exposure.
(a) In general. For purposes of this subpart, a covered foreign entity must calculate its net credit exposure to a counterparty by adjusting its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with the rules set forth in this section.
(b) Eligible collateral. (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction other than a securities financing transaction, a covered foreign entity must reduce its gross credit exposure on the transaction by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
(2) A covered foreign entity that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must include the adjusted market value of the eligible collateral when calculating its gross credit exposure to the collateral issuer.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (b) is limited to:
(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction, or
(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction if valued in accordance with § 252.173(a).
(c) Eligible guarantees. (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction, a covered foreign entity must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the amount of any eligible guarantee from an eligible guarantor that covers the transaction.
(2) A covered foreign entity that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include the amount of eligible guarantees when calculating its gross credit exposure to the eligible guarantor.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible guarantee under this paragraph (c) is limited to:
(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee, or
(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee if valued in accordance with § 252.173(a).
(d) Eligible credit and equity derivatives. (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered foreign entity must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by:
(i) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
(ii) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 252.173(a)(7)).
(2)(i) A covered foreign entity that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as provided under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must include, when calculating its net credit exposure to the eligible guarantor, including in instances where the underlying credit transaction would not be subject to the credit limits of § 252.172 (for example, due to an exempt counterparty), either
(A) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
(B) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 252.173(a)(7)).
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, in cases where the eligible credit derivative or eligible equity derivative is used to hedge covered positions that are subject to the Board's market risk rule (12 CFR part 217, subpart F) and the counterparty on the hedged transaction is not a financial entity, the amount of credit exposure that a entity must recognize to the eligible guarantor is the amount that would be calculated pursuant to § 252.173(a).
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible credit derivative or an eligible equity derivative under this paragraph (d) is limited to:
(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative, or
(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative if valued in accordance with § 252.173(a).
(e) Other eligible hedges. In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered foreign entity may reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the face amount of a short sale of the counterparty's debt security or equity security, provided that:
(1) The instrument in which the covered foreign entity has a short position is junior to, or pari passu with, the instrument in which the covered foreign entity has the long position; and
(2) The instrument in which the covered foreign entity has a short position and the instrument in which the covered foreign entity has the long position are either both treated as trading or available-for-sale exposures or both treated as held-to-maturity exposures.
(f) Unused portion of certain extensions of credit. (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for a committed credit line or revolving credit facility under this section, a covered foreign entity may reduce its gross credit exposure by the amount of the unused portion of the credit extension to the extent that the covered foreign entity does not have any legal obligation to advance additional funds under the extension of credit and the used portion of the credit extension has been fully secured by eligible collateral.
(2) To the extent that the used portion of a credit extension has been secured by eligible collateral, the covered foreign entity may reduce its gross credit exposure by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral received from the counterparty, even if the used portion has not been fully secured by eligible collateral.
(3) To qualify for the reduction in net credit exposure under this paragraph, the credit contract must specify that any used portion of the credit extension must be fully secured by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
(g) Credit transactions involving exempt counterparties. (1) A covered foreign entity's credit transactions with an exempt counterparty are not subject to the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.172.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1) of this section, in cases where a covered foreign entity has a credit transaction with an exempt counterparty and the covered foreign entity has obtained eligible collateral from that exempt counterparty or an eligible guarantee or eligible credit or equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the covered foreign entity must include (for purposes of this subpart) such exposure to the issuer of such eligible collateral or the eligible guarantor, as calculated in accordance with the rules set forth in this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to that issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor.
(h) Currency mismatch adjustments. For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered foreign entity must apply, as applicable:
(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral and calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.37(c)(3)(ii) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(3)(ii)); and
(2) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor and calculating its gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(f) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.36(f)).
(i) Maturity mismatch adjustments. For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered foreign entity must apply, as applicable, the maturity mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(d) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.36(d)):
(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral or any eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, or eligible credit derivatives from an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, and
(2) In calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section; provided that
(3) The eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative subject to paragraph (i)(1) of this section:
(i) Has a shorter maturity than the credit transaction;
(ii) Has an original maturity equal to or greater than one year;
(iii) Has a residual maturity of not less than three months; and
(iv) The adjustment approach is otherwise applicable.
[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 83 FR 64023, Dec. 13, 2018]
§ 252.175 Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not affiliates of the covered foreign entity.
(a) In general. (1) This section applies to a covered foreign entity, except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
(i) Until January 1, 2021, this section does not apply to a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity with less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019, provided that:
(A) In order to avoid evasion of this subpart, the Board may determine, after notice to the covered foreign entity and opportunity for hearing, that a U.S. intermediate holding company with less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets must apply either the approach in this paragraph (a) or the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, or must recognize exposures to a third party that has a contractual obligation to provide credit or liquidity support to a securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity, as provided in paragraph (c) of this section; and
(B) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A) of this section, the Board, in its discretion and as applicable, may allow a covered foreign entity to measure its capital base using the covered foreign entity's capital stock and surplus rather than its tier 1 capital.
(ii) [Reserved]
(2) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(i) SPV means a securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity.
(ii) SPV exposure means an investment in the debt or equity of an SPV or a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party where the covered foreign entity is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, an SPV.
(3)(i) A covered foreign entity must determine whether the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV, due to an SPV exposure, is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered foreign entity's tier 1 capital using one of the following two methods:
(A) The sum of all of the issuer's assets (with each asset valued in accordance with § 252.173(a)) in the SPV; or
(B) The application of the look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) With respect to the determination required under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, a covered foreign entity must use the same method to calculate gross credit exposure to each issuer of assets in a particular SPV.
(iii) In making a determination under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the covered foreign entity must consider only the credit exposure to the issuer arising from the covered foreign entity's SPV exposure.
(iv) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a covered foreign entity that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure to all unidentified issuers and calculate such gross credit exposure using one method in either paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section.
(4)(i) If a covered foreign entity determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is less than 0.25 percent of the covered foreign entity's tier 1 capital, the amount of the covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to that issuer may be attributed to either that issuer of assets or the SPV:
(A) If attributed to the issuer of assets, the issuer of assets must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated under paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section to that issuer of assets must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 252.173) to that same counterparty; and
(B) If attributed to the SPV, the covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure is equal to the covered foreign entity's SPV exposure, valued in accordance with § 252.173(a).
(ii) If a covered foreign entity determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered foreign entity's tier 1 capital or the covered foreign entity is unable to determine that the amount of the gross credit exposure is less than 0.25 percent of the covered foreign entity's tier 1 capital:
(A) The covered foreign entity must calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets in the SPV using the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section;
(B) The issuer of assets in the SPV must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 252.173) to that same counterparty; and
(C) When applying the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, a covered foreign entity that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, to all unidentified issuers.
(iii) For purposes of this section, a covered foreign entity must aggregate all gross credit exposures to unknown counterparties for all SPVs as if the exposures related to a single unknown counterparty; this single unknown counterparty is subject to the limits of § 252.172 as if it were a single counterparty.
(b) Look-through approach. A covered foreign entity that is required to calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure with respect to an issuer of assets in accordance with this paragraph (b) must calculate the amount as follows:
(1) Where all investors in the SPV rank pari passu, the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to the covered foreign entity's pro rata share of the SPV multiplied by the value of the underlying asset in the SPV, valued in accordance with § 252.173(a); and
(2) Where all investors in the SPV do not rank pari passu, the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to:
(i) The pro rata share of the covered foreign entity's investment in the tranche of the SPV; multiplied by
(ii) The lesser of:
(A) The market value of the tranche in which the covered foreign entity has invested, except in the case of a debt security that is held to maturity, in which case the tranche must be valued at the amortized purchase price of the securities; and
(B) The value of each underlying asset attributed to the issuer in the SPV, each as calculated pursuant to § 252.173(a).
(c) Exposures to third parties. (1) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, a covered foreign entity must recognize, for purposes of this subpart, a gross credit exposure to each third party that has a contractual obligation to provide credit or liquidity support to an SPV whose failure or material financial distress would cause a loss in the value of the covered foreign entity's SPV exposure.
(2) The amount of any gross credit exposure that is required to be recognized to a third party under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is equal to the covered foreign entity's SPV exposure, up to the maximum contractual obligation of that third party to the SPV, valued in accordance with § 252.173(a). (This gross credit exposure is in addition to the covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to the SPV or the issuers of assets of the SPV, calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.)
(3) A covered foreign entity must aggregate the gross credit exposure to a third party recognized in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section with its other gross credit exposures to that third party (that are unrelated to the SPV) for purposes of compliance with the limits of § 252.172.
[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59121, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.176 Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence or control relationships.
(a) In general. (1) This section applies to a covered foreign entity except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
(i) Until January 1, 2021, paragraphs (a)(2) through (d) of this section do not apply to a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity with less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019.
(ii) [Reserved]
(2)(i) If a covered foreign entity has an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 5 percent of its tier 1 capital, the covered foreign entity must assess its relationship with the counterparty under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is economically interdependent with one or more other counterparties of the covered foreign entity and under paragraph (c)(1) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is connected by a control relationship with one or more other counterparties.
(ii) If, pursuant to an assessment required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the covered foreign entity determines that one or more of the factors of paragraph (b)(2) or (c)(1) of this section are met with respect to one or more counterparties, or the Board determines pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section that one or more other counterparties of a covered foreign entity are economically interdependent or that one or more other counterparties of a covered foreign entity are connected by a control relationship, the covered foreign entity must aggregate its net credit exposure to the counterparties for all purposes under this subpart, including, but not limited to, § 252.172.
(iii) In connection with any request pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) or (c)(2) of this section, the Board may require the covered foreign entity to provide additional information.
(b) Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence. (1) For purposes of this paragraph, two counterparties are economically interdependent if the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of one counterparty would cause the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of the other counterparty, taking into account the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(2) A covered foreign entity must assess whether the financial distress of one counterparty (counterparty A) would prevent the ability of the other counterparty (counterparty B) to fully and timely repay counterparty B's liabilities and whether the insolvency or default of counterparty A is likely to be associated with the insolvency or default of counterparty B and, therefore, these counterparties are economically interdependent, by evaluating the following:
(i) Whether 50 percent or more of one counterparty's gross revenue is derived from, or gross expenditures are directed to, transactions with the other counterparty;
(ii) Whether counterparty A has fully or partly guaranteed the credit exposure of counterparty B, or is liable by other means, in an amount that is 50 percent or more of the covered foreign entity's net credit exposure to counterparty A;
(iii) Whether 25 percent or more of one counterparty's production or output is sold to the other counterparty, which cannot easily be replaced by other customers;
(iv) Whether the expected source of funds to repay the loans of both counterparties is the same and neither counterparty has another independent source of income from which the loans may be serviced and fully repaid; 1 and
1 An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment under this paragraph because of wages and salaries paid to an employee.
(v) Whether two or more counterparties rely on the same source for the majority of their funding and, in the event of the common provider's default, an alternative provider cannot be found.
(3)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, if a covered foreign entity determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (b)(2) is met, the covered foreign entity may request in writing a determination from the Board that those counterparties are not economically interdependent and that the covered foreign entity is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
(ii) Upon a request by a covered foreign entity pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered foreign entity and not require the covered foreign entity to aggregate one counterparty with another counterparty provided that the counterparty could promptly modify its business relationships, such as by reducing its reliance on the other counterparty, to address any economic interdependence concerns, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
(c) Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to certain control relationships. (1) For purposes of this subpart, one counterparty (counterparty A) is deemed to control the other counterparty (counterparty B) if:
(i) Counterparty A owns, controls, or holds with the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of counterparty B; or
(ii) Counterparty A controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of counterparty B.
(2)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, if a covered foreign entity determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (c)(1) is met, the covered foreign entity may request in writing a determination from the Board that counterparty A does not control counterparty B and that the covered foreign entity is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
(ii) Upon a request by a covered foreign entity pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered foreign entity and not require the covered foreign entity to aggregate counterparty A with counterparty B provided that, taking into account the specific facts and circumstances, such indicia of control does not result in the entities being connected by control relationships for purposes of this subpart, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
(d) Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties due to economic interdependence or control relationships. The Board may determine, after notice to the covered foreign entity and opportunity for hearing, that one or more counterparties of a covered foreign entity are:
(1) Economically interdependent for purposes of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as well as any other indicia of economic interdependence that the Board determines in its discretion to be relevant; or
(2) Connected by control relationships for purpose of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and whether counterparty A:
(i) Controls the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of Counterparty B pursuant to a voting agreement;
(ii) Has significant influence on the appointment or dismissal of counterparty B's administrative, management, or governing body, or the fact that a majority of members of such body have been appointed solely as a result of the exercise of counterparty A's voting rights; or
(iii) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of counterparty B.
(e) Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties to prevent evasion. Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a covered foreign entity must aggregate its exposures to a counterparty with the covered foreign entity's exposures to another counterparty if the Board determines in writing after notice and opportunity for hearing, that the exposures to the two counterparties must be aggregated to prevent evasions of the purposes of this subpart, including, but not limited to § 252.176 and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59121, Nov. 1, 2019]
§ 252.177 Exemptions.
(a) Exempted exposure categories. The following categories of credit transactions are exempt from the limits on credit exposure under this subpart:
(1) Any direct claim on, and the portion of a claim that is directly and fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, only while operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency, and any additional obligation issued by a U.S. government-sponsored entity as determined by the Board;
(2) Intraday credit exposure to a counterparty;
(3) Any trade exposure to a qualifying central counterparty related to the covered foreign entity's clearing activity, including potential future exposure arising from transactions cleared by the qualifying central counterparty and pre-funded default fund contributions;
(4) Any credit transaction with the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Development Association, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, or the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes;
(5) Any credit transaction with the European Commission or the European Central Bank; and
(6) Any transaction that the Board exempts if the Board finds that such exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart.
(b) Additional exemptions by the Board. The Board may, by regulation or order, exempt transactions, in whole or in part, from the definition of the term “credit exposure,” if the Board finds that the exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
§ 252.178 Compliance.
(a) Scope of compliance. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, using all available data, including any data required to be maintained or reported to the Federal Reserve under this subpart, a covered foreign entity must comply with the requirements of this subpart on a daily basis at the end of each business day.
(2) Until December 31, 2020, using all available data, including any data required to be maintained or reported to the Federal Reserve under this subpart, a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity with less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 must comply with the requirements of this subpart on a quarterly basis, unless the Board determines and notifies the entity in writing that more frequent compliance is required.
(3) A covered foreign entity must report its compliance to the Federal Reserve as of the end of the quarter, unless the Board determines and notifies that entity in writing that more frequent reporting is required.
(4) In reporting its compliance, a covered foreign entity must calculate and include in its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor the amounts of eligible collateral, eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, and eligible credit derivatives that were provided to the covered foreign entity in connection with credit transactions with exempt counterparties, valued in accordance with and as required by § 252.174(b) through (d) and (g).
(b) Qualifying Master Netting Agreement. With respect to any qualifying master netting agreement, a covered foreign entity must establish and maintain procedures that meet or exceed the requirements of § 217.3(d) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.3(d)) to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy these requirements.
(c) Noncompliance. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, if a covered foreign entity is not in compliance with this subpart with respect to a counterparty solely due to the circumstances listed in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (v) of this section, the covered foreign entity will not be subject to enforcement actions for a period of 90 days (or, with prior notice to the foreign entity, such shorter or longer period determined by the Board, in its sole discretion, to be appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered foreign entity or U.S. financial stability), if the covered foreign entity uses reasonable efforts to return to compliance with this subpart during this period. The covered foreign entity may not engage in any additional credit transactions with such a counterparty in contravention of this rule during the period of noncompliance, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(2) A covered foreign entity may request a special temporary credit exposure limit exemption from the Board. The Board may grant approval for such exemption in cases where the Board determines that such credit transactions are necessary or appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered foreign entity or U.S. financial stability. In acting on a request for an exemption, the Board will consider the following:
(i) A decrease in the covered foreign entity's capital stock and surplus or tier 1 capital, as applicable;
(ii) The merger of the covered foreign entity with another covered foreign entity;
(iii) A merger of two counterparties; or
(iv) An unforeseen and abrupt change in the status of a counterparty as a result of which the covered foreign entity's credit exposure to the counterparty becomes limited by the requirements of this section; or
(v) Any other factor(s) the Board determines, in its discretion, is appropriate.
(d) Other measures. The Board may impose supervisory oversight and additional reporting measures that it determines are appropriate to monitor compliance with this subpart. Covered foreign entities must furnish, in the manner and form prescribed by the Board, such information to monitor compliance with this subpart and the limits therein as the Board may require.
[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59121, Nov. 1, 2019]
R Subparts R-T [Reserved]
Subpart U Debt-to-Equity Limits for U.S. Bank Holding Companies and Foreign Banking Organizations
Source: Reg. YY, 79 FR 17337, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 252.220 Debt-to-equity limits for U.S. bank holding companies.
(a) Definitions—(1) Debt-to-equity ratio means the ratio of a company's total liabilities to a company's total equity capital less goodwill.
(2) Debt and equity have the same meaning as “total liabilities” and “total equity capital,” respectively, as reported by a bank holding company on the FR Y-9C.
(b) Notice and maximum debt-to-equity ratio requirement. The Council, or the Board on behalf of the Council, will provide written notice to a bank holding company to the extent that the Council makes a determination, pursuant to section 165(j) of the Dodd-Frank Act, that a bank holding company poses a grave threat to the financial stability of the United States and that the imposition of a debt-to-equity requirement is necessary to mitigate such risk. Beginning no later than 180 days after receiving written notice from the Council or from the Board on behalf of the Council, the bank holding company must achieve and maintain a debt-to-equity ratio of no more than 15-to-1.
(c) Extension. The Board may, upon request by the bank holding company for which the Council has made a determination pursuant to section 165(j) of the Dodd-Frank Act, extend the time period for compliance established under paragraph (b) of this section for up to two additional periods of 90 days each, if the Board determines that the identified company has made good faith efforts to comply with the debt-to-equity ratio requirement and that each extension would be in the public interest. Requests for an extension must be received in writing by the Board not less than 30 days prior to the expiration of the existing time period for compliance and must provide information sufficient to demonstrate that the bank holding company has made good faith efforts to comply with the debt-to-equity ratio requirement and that each extension would be in the public interest.
(d) Termination. The debt-to-equity ratio requirement in paragraph (b) of this section shall cease to apply to a bank holding company as of the date it receives notice from the Council of a determination that the bank holding company no longer poses a grave threat to the financial stability of the United States and that the imposition of a debt-to-equity requirement is no longer necessary.
§ 252.221 Debt-to-equity limits for foreign banking organizations.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
(1) Debt and equity have the same meaning as “total liabilities” and “total equity capital,” respectively, as reported by a U.S. intermediate holding company or U.S. subsidiary on the FR Y-9C, or other reporting form prescribed by the Board.
(2) Debt-to-equity ratio means the ratio of total liabilities to total equity capital less goodwill.
(3) Eligible assets and liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign bank have the same meaning as in § 252.158(a).
(b) Notice and maximum debt-to-equity ratio requirement. Beginning no later than 180 days after receiving written notice from the Council or from the Board on behalf of the Council that the Council has made a determination, pursuant to section 165(j) of the Dodd-Frank Act, that the foreign banking organization poses a grave threat to the financial stability of the United States and that the imposition of a debt-to-equity requirement is necessary to mitigate such risk:
(1) The U.S. intermediate holding company, or if the foreign banking organization has not established a U.S. intermediate holding company, and any U.S. subsidiary (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary, if applicable), must achieve and maintain a debt-to-equity ratio of no more than 15-to-1; and
(2) The U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization must maintain eligible assets in its U.S. branches and agencies that, on a daily basis, are not less than 108 percent of the average value over each day of the previous calendar quarter of the total liabilities of all branches and agencies operated by the foreign banking organization in the United States.
(c) Extension. The Board may, upon request by a foreign banking organization for which the Council has made a determination pursuant to section 165(j) of the Dodd-Frank Act, extend the time period for compliance established under paragraph (b) of this section for up to two additional periods of 90 days each, if the Board determines that such company has made good faith efforts to comply with the debt to equity ratio requirement and that each extension would be in the public interest. Requests for an extension must be received in writing by the Board not less than 30 days prior to the expiration of the existing time period for compliance and must provide information sufficient to demonstrate that the foreign banking organization has made good faith efforts to comply with the debt-to-equity ratio requirement and that each extension would be in the public interest.
(d) Termination. The requirements in paragraph (b) of this section cease to apply to a foreign banking organization as of the date it receives notice from the Council of a determination that the company no longer poses a grave threat to the financial stability of the United States and that imposition of the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section are no longer necessary.
0
Appendix A to Part 252 Policy Statement on the Scenario Design Framework for Stress Testing
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62924, Oct. 2, 2026.
1. Background
(a) The Board has imposed stress testing requirements through its regulations (stress test rules) implementing section 165(i) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act or Act) and section 401(e) of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act, and through its capital plan rule (12 CFR 225.8). Under the stress test rules, the Board conducts a supervisory stress test of each bank holding company with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, intermediate holding company of a foreign banking organization with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, and nonbank financial company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has designated for supervision by the Board (together, covered companies). 1 In addition, under the stress test rules, certain firms are also subject to company-run stress test requirements. 2 The Board will provide for at least two different sets of conditions (each set, a scenario), including baseline and severely adverse scenarios for both supervisory and company-run stress tests (macroeconomic scenarios). 3
1 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(1); 12 CFR part 252, subpart E.
2 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2); 12 CFR part 252, subparts B and F.
3 The stress test rules define scenarios as those sets of conditions that affect the United States economy or the financial condition of a company that the Board determines are appropriate for use in stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios. The stress test rules define baseline scenario as a set of conditions that affect the United States economy or the financial condition of a company and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook. The stress test rules define severely adverse scenario as a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
(b) The stress test rules provide that the Board will notify covered companies by no later than February 15 of each year of the scenarios it will use to conduct its supervisory stress tests and provide, also by no later than February 15, covered companies and other financial companies subject to the final rules the set of scenarios they must use to conduct their company-run stress tests. Under the stress test rules, the Board may require certain companies to use additional components in the severely adverse scenario or additional scenarios. For example, the Board expects to require large banking organizations with significant trading activities to include a trading and counterparty component (market shock, described in the following sections) in their severely adverse scenario. The Board will provide any additional components or scenario by no later than March 1 of each year. 4 The Board expects that the scenarios it will require the companies to use will be the same as those the Board will use to conduct its supervisory stress tests (together, stress test scenarios).
4 Id.
(c) In addition, § 225.8 of the Board's Regulation Y (capital plan rule) requires covered companies to submit annual capital plans, including stress test results, to the Board in order to allow the Board to assess whether they have robust, forward-looking capital planning processes and have sufficient capital to continue operations throughout times of economic and financial stress. 5
5 See 12 CFR 225.8.
(d) Stress tests required under the stress test rules and under the capital plan rule require the Board and financial companies to calculate pro-forma capital levels—rather than “current” or actual levels—over a specified planning horizon under baseline and stressful scenarios. This approach integrates key lessons of the 2007-2009 financial crisis into the Board's supervisory framework. During the financial crisis, investor and counterparty confidence in the capitalization of financial companies eroded rapidly in the face of changes in the current and expected economic and financial conditions, and this loss in market confidence imperiled companies' ability to access funding, continue operations, serve as a credit intermediary, and meet obligations to creditors and counterparties. Importantly, such a loss in confidence occurred even when a financial institution's capital ratios were in excess of regulatory minimums. This is because the institution's capital ratios were perceived as lagging indicators of its financial condition, particularly when conditions were changing.
(e) The stress tests required under the stress test rules and capital plan rule are a valuable supervisory tool that provide a forward-looking assessment of large financial companies' capital adequacy under hypothetical economic and financial market conditions. Currently, these stress tests primarily focus on credit risk and market risk—that is, risk of mark-to-market losses associated with companies' trading and counterparty positions—and not on other types of risk, such as liquidity risk. Pressures stemming from these sources are considered in separate supervisory exercises. No single supervisory tool, including the stress tests, can provide an assessment of a company's ability to withstand every potential source of risk.
(f) Selecting appropriate scenarios is an especially significant consideration for stress tests required under the capital plan rule, which ties the review of a company's performance under stress scenarios to its ability to make capital distributions. More severe scenarios, all other things being equal, generally translate into larger projected declines in banks' capital. Thus, a company would need more capital today to meet its minimum capital requirements in more stressful scenarios and have the ability to continue making capital distributions, such as common dividend payments. This translation is far from mechanical, however; it will depend on factors that are specific to a given company, such as underwriting standards and the company's business model, which would also greatly affect projected revenue, losses, and capital.
2. Overview and Scope
(a) This policy statement provides more detail on the characteristics of the stress test scenarios and explains the considerations and procedures that underlie the approach for formulating these scenarios. The considerations and procedures described in this policy statement apply to the Board's stress testing framework, including to the stress tests required under 12 CFR part 252, subparts B, E, and F as well as the Board's capital plan rule (12 CFR 225.8). 6
6 12 CFR 252.14(a), 12 CFR 252.44(a), 12 CFR 252.54(a).
(b) Although the Board does not envision that the broad approach used to develop scenarios will change from year to year, the stress test scenarios will reflect changes in the outlook for economic and financial conditions and changes to specific risks or vulnerabilities that the Board, in consultation with the other federal banking agencies, determines should be considered in the annual stress tests. The stress test scenarios should not be regarded as forecasts; rather, they are hypothetical paths of economic variables that will be used to assess the strength and resilience of the companies' capital in various economic and financial environments.
(c) The remainder of this policy statement is organized as follows. Section 3 provides a broad description of the baseline and severely adverse scenarios and describes the types of variables that the Board expects to include in the macroeconomic scenarios and the market shock component of the stress test scenarios applicable to companies with significant trading activity. Section 4 describes the Board's approach for developing the macroeconomic scenarios, and section 5 describes the approach for the market shocks. Section 6 describes the relationship between the macroeconomic scenario and the market shock components. Section 7 provides a timeline for the formulation and publication of the macroeconomic assumptions and market shocks.
3. Content of the Stress Test Scenarios
(a) The Board will publish a minimum of two different scenarios, including baseline and severely adverse conditions, for use in stress tests required in the stress test rules. 7 In general, the Board anticipates that it will not issue additional scenarios. Specific circumstances or vulnerabilities that in any given year the Board determines require particular vigilance to ensure the resilience of the banking sector will be captured in the severely adverse scenario. A greater number of scenarios could be needed in some years—for example, because the Board identifies a large number of unrelated and uncorrelated but nonetheless significant risks.
7 12 CFR 252.14(b), 12 CFR 252.44(b), 12 CFR 252.54(b).
(b) While the Board generally expects to use the same scenarios for all companies subject to the final rule, it may require a subset of companies— depending on a company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy—to include additional scenario components or additional scenarios that are designed to capture different effects of adverse events on revenue, losses, and capital. One example of such components is the market shock that applies only to companies with significant trading activity. Additional components or scenarios may also include other stress factors that may not necessarily be directly correlated to macroeconomic or financial assumptions but nevertheless can materially affect companies' risks, such as the unexpected default of a major counterparty.
(c) Early in each stress testing cycle, the Board plans to publish the macroeconomic scenarios along with a brief narrative summary that provides a description of the economic situation underlying the scenario and explains how the scenarios have changed relative to the previous year. In addition, to assist companies in projecting the paths of additional variables in a manner consistent with the scenario, the narrative will also provide descriptions of the general path of some additional variables. These descriptions will be general—that is, they will describe developments for broad classes of variables rather than for specific variables—and will specify the intensity and direction of variable changes but not numeric magnitudes. These descriptions should provide guidance that will be useful to companies in specifying the paths of the additional variables for their company-run stress tests. Note that in practice it will not be possible for the narrative to include descriptions on all of the additional variables that companies may need for their company-run stress tests. In cases where scenarios are designed to reflect particular risks and vulnerabilities, the narrative will also explain the underlying motivation for these features of the scenario. The Board also plans to release a broad description of the market shock components.
3.1 Macroeconomic Scenarios
(a) The macroeconomic scenarios will consist of the future paths of a set of economic and financial variables. 8 The economic and financial variables included in the scenarios will likely comprise those included in the “2014 Supervisory Scenarios for Annual Stress Tests Required under the Dodd-Frank Act Stress Testing Rules and the Capital Plan Rule” (2013 supervisory scenarios). The domestic U.S. variables provided for in the 2013 supervisory scenarios included:
8 The future path of a variable refers to its specification over a given time period. For example, the path of unemployment can be described in percentage terms on a quarterly basis over the stress testing time horizon.
(i) Six measures of economic activity and prices: Real and nominal gross domestic product (GDP) growth, the unemployment rate of the civilian non-institutional population aged 16 and over, real and nominal disposable personal income growth, and the Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation rate;
(ii) Four measures of developments in equity and property markets: The Core Logic National House Price Index, the National Council for Real Estate Investment Fiduciaries Commercial Real Estate Price Index, the Dow Jones Total Stock Market Index, and the Chicago Board Options Exchange Market Volatility Index; and
(iii) Six measures of interest rates: The rate on the 3-month Treasury bill, the yield on the 5-year Treasury bond, the yield on the 10-year Treasury bond, the yield on a 10-year BBB corporate security, the prime rate, and the interest rate associated with a conforming, conventional, fixed-rate, 30-year mortgage.
(b) The international variables provided for in the 2014 supervisory scenarios included, for the euro area, the United Kingdom, developing Asia, and Japan:
(i) Percent change in real GDP;
(ii) Percent change in the Consumer Price Index or local equivalent; and
(iii) The U.S./foreign currency exchange rate. 9
9 The Board may increase the range of countries or regions included in future scenarios, as appropriate.
(c) The economic variables included in the scenarios influence key items affecting financial companies' net income, including pre-provision net revenue and credit losses on loans and securities. Moreover, these variables exhibit fairly typical trends in adverse economic climates that can have unfavorable implications for companies' net income and, thus, capital positions.
(d) The economic variables included in the scenario may change over time. For example, the Board may add variables to a scenario if the international footprint of companies that are subject to the stress testing rules changed notably over time such that the variables already included in the scenario no longer sufficiently capture the material risks of these companies. Alternatively, historical relationships between macroeconomic variables could change over time such that one variable (e.g., disposable personal income growth) that previously provided a good proxy for another (e.g., light vehicle sales) in modeling companies' pre-provision net revenue or credit losses ceases to do so, resulting in the need to create a separate path, or alternative proxy, for the other variable. However, recognizing the amount of work required for companies to incorporate the scenario variables into their stress testing models, the Board expects to eliminate variables from the scenarios only in rare instances.
(e) The Board expects that the company may not use all of the variables provided in the scenario, if those variables are not appropriate to the company's line of business, or may add additional variables, as appropriate. The Board expects the companies to ensure that the paths of such additional variables are consistent with the scenarios the Board provided. For example, the companies may use, as part of their internal stress test models, local-level variables, such as state-level unemployment rates or city-level house prices. While the Board does not plan to include local-level macro variables in the stress test scenarios it provides, it expects the companies to evaluate the paths of local-level macro variables as needed for their internal models, and ensure internal consistency between these variables and their aggregate, macro-economic counterparts. The Board will provide the macroeconomic scenario component of the stress test scenarios for a period that spans a minimum of 13 quarters. The scenario horizon reflects the supervisory stress test approach that the Board plans to use. Under the stress test rules, the Board will assess the effect of different scenarios on the consolidated capital of each company over a forward-looking planning horizon of at least nine quarters.
3.2 Market Shock Component
(a) The market shock component of the severely adverse scenario will only apply to companies with significant trading activity and their subsidiaries. 10 The component consists of large moves in market prices and rates that would be expected to generate losses. Market shocks differ from macroeconomic scenarios in a number of ways, both in their design and application. For instance, market shocks that might typically be observed over an extended period (e.g., 6 months) are assumed to be an instantaneous event which immediately affects the market value of the companies' trading assets and liabilities. In addition, under the stress test rules, the as-of date for market shocks will differ from the quarter-end, and the Board will provide the as-of date for market shocks no later than February 1 of each year. Finally, as described in section 4, the market shock includes a much larger set of risk factors than the set of economic and financial variables included in macroeconomic scenarios. Broadly, these risk factors include shocks to financial market variables that affect asset prices, such as a credit spread or the yield on a bond, and, in some cases, the value of the position itself (e.g., the market value of private equity positions).
10 Currently, companies with significant trading activity include any bank holding company or intermediate holding company that (1) has aggregate trading assets and liabilities of $50 billion or more, or aggregate trading assets and liabilities equal to 10 percent or more of total consolidated assets, and (2) is not a large and noncomplex firm. The Board may also subject a state member bank subsidiary of any such bank holding company to the market shock component. The set of companies subject to the market shock component could change over time as the size, scope, and complexity of financial company's trading activities evolve.
(b) The Board envisions that the market shocks will include shocks to a broad range of risk factors that are similar in granularity to those risk factors that trading companies use internally to produce profit and loss estimates, under stressful market scenarios, for all asset classes that are considered trading assets, including equities, credit, interest rates, foreign exchange rates, and commodities. Examples of risk factors include, but are not limited to:
(i) Equity indices of all developed markets, and of developing and emerging market nations to which companies with significant trading activity may have exposure, along with term structures of implied volatilities;
(ii) Cross-currency FX rates of all major and many minor currencies, along term structures of implied volatilities;
(iii) Term structures of government rates (e.g., U.S. Treasuries), interbank rates (e.g., swap rates) and other key rates (e.g., commercial paper) for all developed markets and for developing and emerging market nations to which companies may have exposure;
(iv) Term structures of implied volatilities that are key inputs to the pricing of interest rate derivatives;
(v) Term structures of futures prices for energy products including crude oil (differentiated by country of origin), natural gas, and power;
(vi) Term structures of futures prices for metals and agricultural commodities;
(vii) “Value-drivers” (credit spreads or instrument prices themselves) for credit-sensitive product segments including: Corporate bonds, credit default swaps, and collateralized debt obligations by risk; non-agency residential mortgage-backed securities and commercial mortgage-backed securities by risk and vintage; sovereign debt; and, municipal bonds; and
(viii) Shocks to the values of private equity positions.
4. Approach for Formulating the Macroeconomic Assumptions for Scenarios
(a) This section describes the Board's approach for formulating macroeconomic assumptions for each scenario. The methodologies for formulating this part of each scenario differ by scenario, so these methodologies for the baseline and severely adverse scenarios are described separately in each of the following subsections.
(b) In general, the baseline scenario will reflect the most recently available consensus views of the macroeconomic outlook expressed by professional forecasters, government agencies, and other public-sector organizations as of the beginning of the stress-test cycle. The severely adverse scenario will consist of a set of economic and financial conditions that reflect the conditions of post-war U.S. recessions.
(c) Each of these scenarios is described further in sections below as follows: Baseline (subsection 4.1) and severely adverse (subsection 4.2)
4.1 Approach for Formulating Macroeconomic Assumptions in the Baseline Scenario
(a) The stress test rules define the baseline scenario as a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a banking organization, and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook. Projections under a baseline scenario are used to evaluate how companies would perform in more likely economic and financial conditions. The baseline serves also as a point of comparison to the severely adverse scenario, giving some sense of how much of the company's capital decline could be ascribed to the scenario as opposed to the company's capital adequacy under expected conditions.
(b) The baseline scenario will be developed around a macroeconomic projection that captures the prevailing views of private-sector forecasters (e.g., Blue Chip Consensus Forecasts and the Survey of Professional Forecasters), government agencies, and other public-sector organizations (e.g., the International Monetary Fund and the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development) near the beginning of the annual stress-test cycle. The baseline scenario is designed to represent a consensus expectation of certain economic variables over the time period of the tests and it is not the Board's internal forecast for those economic variables. For example, the baseline path of short-term interest rates is constructed from consensus forecasts and may differ from that implied by the FOMC's Summary of Economic Projections.
(c) For some scenario variables—such as U.S. real GDP growth, the unemployment rate, and the consumer price index—there will be a large number of different forecasts available to project the paths of these variables in the baseline scenario. For others, a more limited number of forecasts will be available. If available forecasts diverge notably, the baseline scenario will reflect an assessment of the forecast that is deemed to be most plausible. In setting the paths of variables in the baseline scenario, particular care will be taken to ensure that, together, the paths present a coherent and plausible outlook for the U.S. and global economy, given the economic climate in which they are formulated.
4.2 Approach for Formulating the Macroeconomic Assumptions in the Severely Adverse Scenario
The stress test rules define a severely adverse scenario as a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a financial company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario. The financial company will be required to publicly disclose a summary of the results of its stress test under the severely adverse scenario, and the Board intends to publicly disclose the results of its analysis of the financial company under the severely adverse scenario.
4.2.1 General Approach: The Recession Approach
(a) The Board intends to use a recession approach to develop the severely adverse scenario. In the recession approach, the Board will specify the future paths of variables to reflect conditions that characterize post-war U.S. recessions, generating either a typical or specific recreation of a post-war U.S. recession. The Board chose this approach because it has observed that the conditions that typically occur in recessions—such as increasing unemployment, declining asset prices, and contracting loan demand—can put significant stress on companies' balance sheets. This stress can occur through a variety of channels, including higher loss provisions due to increased delinquencies and defaults; losses on trading positions through sharp moves in market prices; and lower bank income through reduced loan originations. For these reasons, the Board believes that the paths of economic and financial variables in the severely adverse scenario should, at a minimum, resemble the paths of those variables observed during a recession.
(b) This approach requires consideration of the type of recession to feature. All post-war U.S. recessions have not been identical: Some recessions have been associated with very elevated interest rates, some have been associated with sizable asset price declines, and some have been relatively more global. The most common features of recessions, however, are increases in the unemployment rate and contractions in aggregate incomes and economic activity. For this and the following reasons, the Board intends to use the unemployment rate as the primary basis for specifying the severely adverse scenario. First, the unemployment rate is likely the most representative single summary indicator of adverse economic conditions. Second, in comparison to GDP, labor market data have traditionally featured more prominently than GDP in the set of indicators that the National Bureau of Economic Research reviews to inform its recession dates. 11 Third and finally, the growth rate of potential output can cause the size of the decline in GDP to vary between recessions. While changes in the unemployment rate can also vary over time due to demographic factors, this seems to have more limited implications over time relative to changes in potential output growth. The unemployment rate used in the severely adverse scenario will reflect an unemployment rate that has been observed in severe post-war U.S. recessions, measuring severity by the absolute level of and relative increase in the unemployment rate. 12
11 More recently, a monthly measure of GDP has been added to the list of indicators.
12 Even though all recessions feature increases in the unemployment rate and contractions in incomes and economic activity, the size of this change has varied over post-war U.S. recessions. Table 1 documents the variability in the depth of post-war U.S. recessions. Some recessions—labeled mild in Table 1—have been relatively modest with GDP edging down just slightly and the unemployment rate moving up about a percentage point. Other recessions—labeled severe in Table 1—have been much harsher with GDP dropping 3 3/4 percent and the unemployment rate moving up a total of about 4 percentage points.
(c) The Board believes that the severely adverse scenario should also reflect a housing recession. The house prices path set in the severely adverse scenario will reflect developments that have been observed in post-war U.S. housing recessions, measuring severity by the absolute level of and relative decrease in the house prices.
(d) The Board will specify the paths of most other macroeconomic variables based on the paths of unemployment, income, house prices, and activity. Some of these other variables, however, have taken wildly divergent paths in previous recessions (e.g., foreign GDP), requiring the Board to use its informed judgment in selecting appropriate paths for these variables. In general, the path for these other variables will be based on their underlying structure at the time that the scenario is designed (e.g., economic or financial-system vulnerabilities in other countries).
(e) The Board considered alternative methods for scenario design of the severely adverse scenario, including a probabilistic approach. The probabilistic approach constructs a baseline forecast from a large-scale macroeconomic model and identifies a scenario that would have a specific probabilistic likelihood given the baseline forecast. The Board believes that, at this time, the recession approach is better suited for developing the severely adverse scenario than a probabilistic approach because it guarantees a recession of some specified severity. In contrast, the probabilistic approach requires the choice of an extreme tail outcome—relative to baseline—to characterize the severely adverse scenario (e.g., a 5 percent or a 1 percent tail outcome). In practice, this choice is difficult as adverse economic outcomes are typically thought of in terms of how variables evolve in an absolute sense rather than how far away they lie in the probability space away from the baseline. In this sense, a scenario featuring a recession may be somewhat clearer and more straightforward to communicate. Finally, the probabilistic approach relies on estimates of uncertainty around the baseline scenario and such estimates are in practice model-dependent.
4.2.2 Setting the Unemployment Rate Under the Severely Adverse Scenario
(a) The Board anticipates that the severely adverse scenario will feature an unemployment rate that increases between 3 to 5 percentage points from its initial level over the course of 6 to 8 calendar quarters. 13 The initial level will be set based on the conditions at the time that the scenario is designed. However, if a 3 to 5 percentage point increase in the unemployment rate does not raise the level of the unemployment rate to at least 10 percent—the average level to which it has increased in the most recent three severe recessions—the path of the unemployment rate in most cases will be specified so as to raise the unemployment rate to at least 10 percent.
13 Six to eight quarters is the average number of quarters for which a severe recession lasts plus the average number of subsequent quarters over which the unemployment rate continues to rise. The variable length of the timeframe reflects the different paths to the peak unemployment rate depending on the severity of the scenario.
(b) This methodology is intended to generate scenarios that feature stressful outcomes but do not induce greater procyclicality in the financial system and macroeconomy. When the economy is in the early stages of a recovery, the unemployment rate in a baseline scenario generally trends downward, resulting in a larger difference between the path of the unemployment rate in the severely adverse scenario and the baseline scenario and a severely adverse scenario that is relatively more intense. Conversely, in a sustained strong expansion—when the unemployment rate may be below the level consistent with full employment—the unemployment in a baseline scenario generally trends upward, resulting in a smaller difference between the path of the unemployment rate in the severely adverse scenario and the baseline scenario and a severely adverse scenario that is relatively less intense. Historically, a 3 to 5 percentage point increase in unemployment rate is reflective of stressful conditions. As illustrated in Table 1, over the last half-century, the U.S. economy has experienced four severe post-war recessions. In all four of these recessions, the unemployment rate increased 3 to 5 percentage points and in the three most recent of these recessions, the unemployment rate reached a level between 9 percent and 11 percent.
(c) Under this method, if the initial unemployment rate was low—as it would be after a sustained long expansion—the unemployment rate in the scenario would increase to a level as high as what has been seen in past severe recessions. However, if the initial unemployment rate was already high—as would be the case in the early stages of a recovery—the unemployment rate would exhibit a change as large as what has been seen in past severe recessions.
(d) The Board believes that the typical increase in the unemployment rate in the severely adverse scenario will be about 4 percentage points. However, the Board will calibrate the increase in unemployment based on its views of the status of cyclical systemic risk. The Board intends to set the unemployment rate at the higher end of the range if the Board believes that cyclical systemic risks are high (as it would be after a sustained long expansion), and to the lower end of the range if cyclical systemic risks are low (as it would be in the earlier stages of a recovery). This may result in a scenario that is slightly more intense than normal if the Board believed that cyclical systemic risks were increasing in a period of robust expansion. 14 Conversely, it will allow the Board to specify a scenario that is slightly less intense than normal in an environment where systemic risks appeared subdued, such as in the early stages of an expansion. Indeed, the Board expects that, in general, it will adopt a change in the unemployment rate of less than 4 percentage points when the unemployment rate at the start of the scenarios is elevated but the labor market is judged to be strengthening and higher-than-usual credit losses stemming from previously elevated unemployment rates were either already realized—or are in the process of being realized—and thus removed from banks' balance sheets. 15 However, even at the lower end of the range of unemployment-rate increases, the scenario will still feature an increase in the unemployment rate similar to what has been seen in about half of the severe recessions of the last 50 years.
14 Note, however, that the severity of the scenario would not exceed an implausible level: Even at the upper end of the range of unemployment-rate increases, the path of the unemployment rate would still be consistent with severe post-war U.S. recessions.
15 Evidence of a strengthening labor market could include a declining unemployment rate, steadily expanding nonfarm payroll employment, or improving labor force participation. Evidence that credit losses are being realized could include elevated charge-offs on loans and leases, loan-loss provisions in excess of gross charge-offs, or losses being realized in securities portfolios that include securities that are subject to credit risk.
(e) As indicated previously, if a 3 to 5 percentage point increase in the unemployment rate does not raise the level of the unemployment rate to 10 percent—the average level to which it has increased in the most recent three severe recessions—the path of the unemployment rate will be specified so as to raise the unemployment rate to 10 percent. Setting a floor for the unemployment rate at 10 percent recognizes the fact that not only do cyclical systemic risks build up at financial intermediaries during robust expansions but that these risks are also easily obscured by the buoyant environment.
(f) In setting the increase in the unemployment rate, the Board will consider the extent to which analysis by economists, supervisors, and financial market experts finds cyclical systemic risks to be elevated (but difficult to be captured more precisely in one of the scenario's other variables). In addition, the Board—in light of impending shocks to the economy and financial system—will also take into consideration the extent to which a scenario of some increased severity might be necessary for the results of the stress test and the associated supervisory actions to sustain confidence in financial institutions.
(g) While the approach to specifying the severely adverse scenario is designed to avoid adding sources of procyclicality to the financial system, it is not designed to explicitly offset any existing procyclical tendencies in the financial system. The purpose of the stress test scenarios is to make sure that the companies are properly capitalized to withstand severe economic and financial conditions, not to serve as an explicit countercyclical offset to the financial system.
(h) In developing the approach to the unemployment rate, the Board also considered a method that would increase the unemployment rate to some fairly elevated fixed level over the course of 6 to 8 quarters. This would result in scenarios being more severe in robust expansions (when the unemployment rate is low) and less severe in the early stages of a recovery (when the unemployment rate is high) and so would not result in pro-cyclicality. Depending on the initial level of the unemployment rate, this approach could lead to only a very modest increase in the unemployment rate—or even a decline. As a result, this approach—while not procyclical—could result in scenarios not featuring stressful macroeconomic outcomes.
4.2.3 Setting the Other Variables in the Severely Adverse Scenario
(a) Generally, all other variables in the severely adverse scenario will be specified to be consistent with the increase in the unemployment rate. The approach for specifying the paths of these variables in the scenario will be a combination of (1) how economic models suggest that these variables should evolve given the path of the unemployment rate, (2) how these variables have typically evolved in past U.S. recessions, and (3) evaluation of these and other factors.
(b) Economic models—such as medium-scale macroeconomic models—should be able to generate plausible paths consistent with the unemployment rate for a number of scenario variables, such as real GDP growth, CPI inflation and short-term interest rates, which have relatively stable (direct or indirect) relationships with the unemployment rate (e.g., Okun's Law, the Phillips Curve, and interest rate feedback rules). For some other variables, specifying their paths will require a case-by-case consideration.
(c) Declining house prices, which are an important source of stress to a company's balance sheet, are not a steadfast feature of recessions, and the historical relationship of house prices with the unemployment rate is not strong. Simply adopting their typical path in a severe recession would likely underestimate risks stemming from the housing sector. In specifying the path for nominal house prices, the Board will consider the ratio of the nominal house price index (HPI) to nominal, per capita, disposable income (DPI). The Board believes that the typical decline in the HPI-DPI ratio will be at a minimum 25 percent from its starting value, or enough to bring the ratio down to its Great Recession trough. As illustrated in Table 2, housing recessions have on average featured HPI-DPI ratio declines of about 25 percent and the HPI-DPI ratio fell to its Great Recession trough. 16
16 The house-price retrenchments that occurred over the periods 1980-1985, 1989-1996, 2006-2011 (as detailed in Table 2) are referred to in this document as housing recessions. The date-ranges of housing recessions are based on the timing of house-price retrenchments. These dates were also associated with sustained declines in real residential investment, although, the precise timings of housing recessions would likely be slightly different were they to be classified based on real residential investment in addition to house prices. The ratios described in Table 2 are calculated based on nominal HPI and HPI-DPI ratios indexed to 100 in 2000:Q1.
(d) In addition, judgment is necessary in projecting the path of a scenario's international variables. Recessions that occur simultaneously across countries are an important source of stress to the balance sheets of companies with notable international exposures but are not an invariable feature of the international economy. As a result, simply adopting the typical path of international variables in a severe U.S. recession would likely underestimate the risks stemming from the international economy. Consequently, an approach that uses both judgment and economic models informs the path of international variables.
4.2.4 Adding Salient Risks to the Severely Adverse Scenario
(a) The severely adverse scenario will be developed to reflect specific risks to the economic and financial outlook that are especially salient but will feature minimally in the scenario if the Board were only to use approaches that looked to past recessions or relied on historical relationships between variables.
(b) There are some important instances when it will be appropriate to augment the recession approach with salient risks. For example, if an asset price were especially elevated and thus potentially vulnerable to an abrupt and potentially destabilizing decline, it would be appropriate to include such a decline in the scenario even if such a large drop were not typical in a severe recession. Likewise, if economic developments abroad were particularly unfavorable, assuming a weakening in international conditions larger than what typically occurs in severe U.S. recessions would likely also be appropriate.
(c) Clearly, while the recession component of the severely adverse scenario is within some predictable range, the salient risk aspect of the scenario is far less so, and therefore, needs an annual assessment. Each year, the Board will identify the risks to the financial system and the domestic and international economic outlooks that appear more elevated than usual, using its internal analysis and supervisory information and in consultation with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC). Using the same information, the Board will then calibrate the paths of the macroeconomic and financial variables in the scenario to reflect these risks.
(d) Detecting risks that have the potential to weaken the banking sector is particularly difficult when economic conditions are buoyant, as a boom can obscure the weaknesses present in the system. In sustained robust expansions, therefore, the selection of salient risks to augment the scenario will err on the side of including risks of uncertain significance.
(e) The Board will factor in particular risks to the domestic and international macroeconomic outlook identified by its economists, bank supervisors, and financial market experts and make appropriate adjustments to the paths of specific economic variables. These adjustments will not be reflected in the general severity of the recession and, thus, all macroeconomic variables; rather, the adjustments will apply to a subset of variables to reflect co-movements in these variables that are historically less typical. The Board plans to discuss the motivation for the adjustments that it makes to variables to highlight systemic risks in the narrative describing the scenarios. 17
17 The means of effecting an adjustment to the severely adverse scenario to address salient systemic risks differs from the means used to adjust the unemployment rate. For example, in adjusting the scenario for an increased unemployment rate, the Board would modify all variables such that the future paths of the variables are similar to how these variables have moved historically. In contrast, to address salient risks, the Board may only modify a small number of variables in the scenario and, as such, their future paths in the scenario would be somewhat more atypical, albeit not implausible, given existing risks.
5. Approach for Formulating the Market Shock Component
(a) This section discusses the approach the Board proposes to adopt for developing the market shock component of the severely adverse scenario appropriate for companies with significant trading activities. The design and specification of the market shock component differs from that of the macroeconomic scenarios because profits and losses from trading are measured in mark-to-market terms, while revenues and losses from traditional banking are generally measured using the accrual method. As noted above, another critical difference is the time-evolution of the market shock component. The market shock component consists of an instantaneous “shock” to a large number of risk factors that determine the mark-to-market value of trading positions, while the macroeconomic scenarios supply a projected path of economic variables that affect traditional banking activities over the entire planning period.
(b) The development of the market shock component that are detailed in this section are as follows: Baseline (subsection 5.1) and severely adverse (subsection 5.2).
5.1 Approach for Formulating the Market Shock Component Under the Baseline Scenario
By definition, market shocks are large, previously unanticipated moves in asset prices and rates. Because asset prices should, broadly speaking, reflect consensus opinions about the future evolution of the economy, large price movements, as envisioned in the market shock, should not occur along the baseline path. As a result, the market shock will not be included in the baseline scenario.
5.2 Approach for Formulating the Market Shock Component Under the Severely Adverse Scenario
This section addresses possible approaches to designing the market shock component in the severely adverse scenario, including important considerations for scenario design, possible approaches to designing scenarios, and a development strategy for implementing the preferred approach.
5.2.1 Design Considerations for Market Shocks
(a) The general market practice for stressing a trading portfolio is to specify market shocks either in terms of extreme moves in observable, broad market indicators and risk factors or directly as large changes to the mark-to-market values of financial instruments. These moves can be specified either in relative terms or absolute terms. Supplying values of risk factors after a “shock” is roughly equivalent to the macroeconomic scenarios, which supply values for a set of economic and financial variables; however, trading stress testing differs from macroeconomic stress testing in several critical ways.
(b) In the past, the Board used one of two approaches to specify market shocks. During SCAP and CCAR in 2011, the Board used a very general approach to market shocks and required companies to stress their trading positions using changes in market prices and rates experienced during the second half of 2008, without specifying risk factor shocks. This broad guidance resulted in inconsistency across companies both in terms of the severity and the application of shocks. In certain areas, companies were permitted to use their own experience during the second half of 2008 to define shocks. This resulted in significant variation in shock severity across companies.
(c) To enhance the consistency and comparability in market shocks for the stress tests in 2012 and 2013, the Board provided to each trading company more than 35,000 specific risk factor shocks, primarily based on market moves in the second half of 2008. While the number of risk factors used in companies' pricing and stress-testing models still typically exceed that provided in the Board's scenarios, the greater specificity resulted in more consistency in the scenario across companies. The benefit of the comprehensiveness of risk factor shocks is at least partly offset by the potential difficulty in creating shocks that are coherent and internally consistent, particularly as the framework for developing market shocks deviates from historical events.
(d) Also importantly, the ultimate losses associated with a given market shock will depend on a company's trading positions, which can make it difficult to rank order, ex ante, the severity of the scenarios. In certain instances, market shocks that include large market moves may not be particularly stressful for a given company. Aligning the market shock with the macroeconomic scenario for consistency may result in certain companies actually benefiting from risk factor moves of larger magnitude in the market scenario if the companies are hedging against salient risks to other parts of their business. Thus, the severity of market shocks must be calibrated to take into account how a complex set of risks, such as directional risks and basis risks, interacts with each other, given the companies' trading positions at the time of stress. For instance, a large depreciation in a foreign currency would benefit companies with net short positions in the currency while hurting those with net long positions. In addition, longer maturity positions may move differently from shorter maturity positions, adding further complexity.
(e) The instantaneous nature of market shocks and the immediate recognition of mark-to-market losses add another element to the design of market shocks, and to determining the appropriate severity of shocks. For instance, in previous stress tests, the Board assumed that market moves that occurred over the six-month period in late 2008 would occur instantaneously. The design of the market shocks must factor in appropriate assumptions around the period of time during which market events will unfold and any associated market responses.
5.2.2 Approaches to Market Shock Design
(a) As an additional component of the severely adverse scenario, the Board plans to use a standardized set of market shocks that apply to all companies with significant trading activity. The market shocks could be based on a single historical episode, multiple historical periods, hypothetical (but plausible) events, or some combination of historical episodes and hypothetical events (hybrid approach). Depending on the type of hypothetical events, a scenario based on such events may result in changes in risk factors that were not previously observed. In the supervisory scenarios for 2012 and 2013, the shocks were largely based on relative moves in asset prices and rates during the second half of 2008, but also included some additional considerations to factor in the widening of spreads for European sovereigns and financial companies based on actual observation during the latter part of 2011.
(b) For the market shock component in the severely adverse scenario, the Board plans to use the hybrid approach to develop shocks. The hybrid approach allows the Board to maintain certain core elements of consistency in market shocks each year while providing flexibility to add hypothetical elements based on market conditions at the time of the stress tests. In addition, this approach will help ensure internal consistency in the scenario because of its basis in historical episodes; however, combining the historical episode and hypothetical events may require small adjustments to ensure mutual consistency of the joint moves. In general, the hybrid approach provides considerable flexibility in developing scenarios that are relevant each year, and by introducing variations in the scenario, the approach will also reduce the ability of companies with significant trading activity to modify or shift their portfolios to minimize expected losses in the severely adverse market shock.
(c) The Board has considered a number of alternative approaches for the design of market shocks. For example, the Board explored an option of providing tailored market shocks for each trading company, using information on the companies' portfolio gathered through ongoing supervision, or other means. By specifically targeting known or potential vulnerabilities in a company's trading position, the tailored approach would be useful in assessing each company's capital adequacy as it relates to the company's idiosyncratic risk. However, the Board does not believe this approach to be well-suited for the stress tests required by regulation. Consistency and comparability are key features of annual supervisory stress tests and annual company-run stress tests required in the stress test rules. It would be difficult to use the information on the companies' portfolios to design a common set of shocks that are universally stressful for all covered companies. As a result, this approach would be better suited to more customized, tailored stress tests that are part of the company's internal capital planning process or to other supervisory efforts outside of the stress tests conducted under the capital rule and the stress test rules.
5.2.3 Development of the Market Shock
(a) Consistent with the approach described above, the market shock component for the severely adverse scenario will incorporate key elements of market developments during the second half of 2008, but will also incorporate observations from other periods or price and rate movements in certain markets that the Board deems to be plausible, though such movements may not have been observed historically. Over time, the Board also expects to rely less on market events of the second half of 2008 and more on hypothetical events or other historical episodes to develop the market shock.
(b) The developments in the credit markets during the second half of 2008 were unprecedented, providing a reasonable basis for market shocks in the severely adverse scenario. During this period, key risk factors in virtually all asset classes experienced extremely large shocks; the collective breadth and intensity of the moves have no parallels in modern financial history and, on that basis, it seems likely that this episode will continue to be the most relevant historical scenario, although experience during other historical episodes may also guide the severity of the market shock component of the severely adverse scenario. Moreover, the risk factor moves during this episode are directly consistent with the “recession” approach that underlies the macroeconomic assumptions. However, market shocks based only on historical events could become stale and less relevant over time as the company's positions change, particularly if more salient features are not added each year.
(c) While the market shocks based on the second half of 2008 are of unparalleled magnitude, the shocks may become less relevant over time as the companies' trading positions change. In addition, more recent events could highlight the companies' vulnerability to certain market events. For example, in 2011, Eurozone credit spreads in the sovereign and financial sectors surpassed those observed during the second half of 2008, necessitating the modification of the severely adverse market shock in 2012 and 2013 to reflect a salient source of stress to trading positions. As a result, it is important to incorporate both historical and hypothetical outcomes into market shocks for the severely adverse scenario. For the time being, the development of market shocks in the severely adverse scenario will begin with the risk factor movements in a particular historical period, such as the second half of 2008. The Board will then consider hypothetical but plausible outcomes, based on financial stability reports, supervisory information, and internal and external assessments of market risks and potential flash points. The hypothetical outcomes could originate from major geopolitical, economic, or financial market events with potentially significant impacts on market risk factors. The severity of these hypothetical moves will likely be guided by similar historical events, assumptions embedded in the companies' internal stress tests or market participants, and other available information.
(d) Once broad market scenarios are agreed upon, specific risk factor groups will be targeted as the source of the trading stress. For example, a scenario involving the failure of a large, interconnected globally active financial institution could begin with a sharp increase in credit default swap spreads and a precipitous decline in asset prices across multiple markets, as investors become more risk averse and market liquidity evaporates. These broad market movements will be extrapolated to the granular level for all risk factors by examining transmission channels and the historical relationships between variables, though in some cases, the movement in particular risk factors may be amplified based on theoretical relationships, market observations, or the saliency to company trading books. If there is a disagreement between the risk factor movements in the historical event used in the scenario and the hypothetical event, the Board will reconcile the differences by assessing a priori expectations based on financial and economic theory and the importance of the risk factors to the trading positions of the covered companies.
6. Consistency Between the Macroeconomic Scenarios and the Market Shock
(a) As discussed earlier, the market shock comprises a set of movements in a very large number of risk factors that are realized instantaneously. Among the risk factors specified in the market shock are several variables also specified in the macroeconomic scenarios, such as short- and long-maturity interest rates on Treasury and corporate debt, the level and volatility of U.S. stock prices, and exchange rates.
(b) The market shock component is an add-on to the macroeconomic scenarios that is applied to a subset of companies, with no assumed effect on other aspects of the stress tests such as balances, revenues, or other losses. As a result, the market shock component may not be always directionally consistent with the macroeconomic scenario. Because the market shock is designed, in part, to mimic the effects of a sudden market dislocation, while the macroeconomic scenarios are designed to provide a description of the evolution of the real economy over two or more years, assumed economic conditions can move in significantly different ways. In effect, the market shock can simulate a market panic, during which financial asset prices move rapidly in unexpected directions, and the macroeconomic assumptions can simulate the severe recession that follows. Indeed, the pattern of a financial crisis, characterized by a short period of wild swings in asset prices followed by a prolonged period of moribund activity, and a subsequent severe recession is familiar and plausible.
(c) As discussed in section 4.2.4, the Board may feature a particularly salient risk in the macroeconomic assumptions for the severely adverse scenario, such as a fall in an elevated asset price. In such instances, the Board may also seek to reflect the same risk in one of the market shocks. For example, if the macroeconomic scenario were to feature a substantial decline in house prices, it may seem plausible for the market shock to also feature a significant decline in market values of any securities that are closely tied to the housing sector or residential mortgages.
7. Timeline for Scenario Publication
(a) The Board will provide a description of the macroeconomic scenarios by no later than February 15. During the period immediately preceding the publication of the scenarios, the Board will collect and consider information from academics, professional forecasters, international organizations, domestic and foreign supervisors, and other private-sector analysts that regularly conduct stress tests based on U.S. and global economic and financial scenarios, including analysts at the covered companies. In addition, the Board will consult with the FDIC and the OCC on the salient risks to be considered in the scenarios. The Board expects to conduct this process in October and November of each year and to update the scenarios, based on incoming macroeconomic data releases and other information, through the end of January.
(b) The Board expects to provide a broad overview of the market shock component along with the macroeconomic scenarios. The Board will publish the market shock templates by no later than March 1 of each year, and intends to publish the market shock earlier in the stress test and capital plan cycles to allow companies more time to conduct their stress tests.
Table 1—Classification of U.S. Recessions
Peak | Trough | Severity | Duration (quarters) | Decline in real GDP | Change in the unemployment rate during the recession | Total change in the unemployment rate (incl. after the recession)
1957Q3 | 1958Q2 | Severe | 4 (Medium) | −3.6 | 3.2 | 3.2
1960Q2 | 1961Q1 | Moderate | 4 (Medium) | −1.0 | 1.6 | 1.8
1969Q4 | 1970Q4 | Moderate | 5 (Medium) | −0.2 | 2.2 | 2.4
1973Q4 | 1975Q1 | Severe | 6 (Long) | −3.1 | 3.4 | 4.1
1980Q1 | 1980Q3 | Moderate | 3 (Short) | −2.2 | 1.4 | 1.4
1981Q3 | 1982Q4 | Severe | 6 (Long) | −2.8 | 3.3 | 3.3
1990Q3 | 1991Q1 | Mild | 3 (Short) | −1.3 | 0.9 | 1.9
2001Q1 | 2001Q4 | Mild | 4 (Medium) | 0.2 | 1.3 | 2.0
2007Q4 | 2009Q2 | Severe | 7 (Long) | −4.3 | 4.5 | 5.1
Average | Severe | 6 | −3.5 | 3.7 | 3.9
Average | Moderate | 4 | −1.1 | 1.8 | 1.8
Average | Mild | 3 | −0.6 | 1.1 | 1.9
Source: Bureau of Economic Analysis, National Income and Product Accounts, Comprehensive Revision on July 31, 2013.
Table 2—House Prices in Housing Recessions
Peak | Trough | Severity | Duration (quarters) | %-change in NHPI | %-change in HPI-DPI | HPI-DPI trough level (2000:Q1 = 100)
1980Q2 | 1985Q2 | Moderate | 20 (long) | 26.6 | −15.9 | 102.1
1989Q4 | 1997Q1 | Moderate | 29 (long) | 10.5 | −17.0 | 94.9
2005Q4 | 2012Q1 | Severe | 25 (long) | −29.6 | −41.3 | 86.9
Average | 24.7 | 2.5 | −24.7 | 94.6
Source: CoreLogic, BEA.
Note: The date-ranges of housing recessions listed in Table 2 are based on the timing of house-price retrenchments.
[84 FR 6655, Feb. 28, 2019, as amended at 84 FR 59121, Nov. 1, 2019]
Appendix B to Part 252 Stress Testing Policy Statement
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62654, Oct. 2, 2026.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62932, Oct. 2, 2026.
This Policy Statement describes the principles, policies, and procedures that guide the development, implementation, and validation of models used in the Federal Reserve's supervisory stress test.
1. Principles of Supervisory Stress Testing
The system of models used in the supervisory stress test is designed to result in projections that are (i) from an independent supervisory perspective; (ii) forward-looking; (iii) consistent and comparable across covered companies; (iv) generated from simpler and more transparent approaches, where appropriate; (v) robust and stable; (vi) conservative; and (vii) able to capture the impact of economic stress. These principles are further explained below.
1.1. Independence
(a) In the supervisory stress test, the Federal Reserve uses supervisory models that are developed internally and independently (i.e., separate from models used by covered companies). The supervisory models rely on detailed portfolio data provided by covered companies but do not rely on models or estimates provided by covered companies to the greatest extent possible.
(b) The Federal Reserve's stress testing framework is unique among regulators in its use of independent estimates of losses and revenues under stress. These estimates provide a perspective that is not formed in consultation with covered companies or influenced by firm-provided estimates and that is useful to the public in its evaluation of covered companies' capital adequacy. This perspective is also valuable to covered companies, who may benefit from external assessments of their own losses and revenues under stress, and from the degree of credibility that independence confers upon supervisory stress test results.
(c) The independence of the supervisory stress test allows stress test projections to adhere to the other key principles described in the Policy Statement. The use of independent models allows for consistent treatment across firms. Losses and revenues under stress are estimated using the same modeling assumptions for all covered companies, enabling comparisons across supervisory stress test results. Differences in covered companies' results reflect differences in firm-specific risks and input data instead of differences in modeling assumptions. The use of independent models also ensures that stress test results are produced by stress-focused models, designed to project the performance of covered companies in adverse economic conditions.
(d) In instances in which it is not possible or appropriate to create a supervisory model for use in the stress test, including when supervisory data are insufficient to support a modeled estimate of losses or revenues, the Federal Reserve may use firm-provided estimates or third-party models or data. For example, in order to project trading and counterparty losses, sensitivities to risk factors and other information generated by covered companies' internal models are used. In the cases where firm-provided or third-party model estimates are used, the Federal Reserve monitors the quality and performance of the estimates through targeted examination, additional data collection, or benchmarking. The Board releases a list of the providers of third-party models or data used in the stress test exercise in the annual disclosure of quantitative results.
1.2. Forward-Looking
(a) The Federal Reserve has designed the supervisory stress test to be forward-looking. Supervisory models are tools for producing projections of potential losses and revenue effects based on each covered company's portfolio and circumstances.
(b) While supervisory models are specified using historical data, they should generally avoid relying solely on extrapolation of past trends in order to make projections, and instead should be able to incorporate events or outcomes that have not occurred. As described in Section 2.4, the Federal Reserve implements several supervisory modeling policies to limit reliance on past outcomes in its projections of losses and revenues. The incorporation of the macroeconomic scenario and global market shock component also introduces elements outside of the realm of historical experience into the supervisory stress test.
1.3. Consistency and Comparability
The Federal Reserve uses the same set of models and assumptions to produce loss projections for all covered companies participating in the supervisory stress test. A standard set of scenarios, assumptions, and models promotes equitable treatment of firms participating in the supervisory stress test and comparability of results, supporting cross-firm analysis and providing valuable information to supervisors and to the public. Adhering to a consistent modeling approach across covered companies means that differences in projected results are due to differences in input data, such as instrument type or portfolio risk characteristics, rather than differences in firm-specific assumptions made by the Federal Reserve.
1.4. Simplicity
The Federal Reserve uses simple approaches in supervisory modeling, where possible. Given a range of modeling approaches that are equally conceptually sound, the Federal Reserve will select the least complex modeling approach. In assessing simplicity, the Federal Reserve favors those modeling approaches that allow for a more straightforward interpretation of the drivers of model results and that minimize operational challenges for model implementation.
1.5. Robustness and Stability
The Federal Reserve maintains supervisory models that aim to be robust and stable, such that changes in model projections over time reflect underlying risk factors, scenarios, and model enhancements, rather than transitory factors. The estimates of post-stress capital produced by the supervisory stress test provide information regarding a covered company's capital adequacy to market participants, covered companies, and the public. Adherence to this principle helps to ensure that changes in these model projections over time are not driven by temporary variations in model performance or inputs. Supervisory models are recalibrated with newly available input data each year. These data affect supervisory model projections, particularly in times of evolving risks. However, these changes generally should not be the principal driver of a change in results, year over year.
1.6. Conservatism
Given a reasonable set of assumptions or approaches, all else equal, the Federal Reserve will opt to use those that result in larger losses or lower revenue. For example, given a lack of information about the true risk of a portfolio, the Federal Reserve will compensate for the lack of data by using a high percentile loss rate.
1.7. Focus on the Ability To Evaluate the Impact of Severe Economic Stress
In evaluating whether supervisory models are appropriate for use in a stress testing exercise, the Federal Reserve places particular emphasis on supervisory models' abilities to project outcomes in stressed economic environments. In the supervisory stress test, the Federal Reserve also seeks to capture risks to capital that arise specifically in times of economic stress, and that would not be prevalent in more typical economic environments. For example, the Federal Reserve includes losses stemming from the default of a covered company's largest counterparty in its projections of post-stress capital for firms with substantial trading or processing and custodian operations. The default of a company's largest counterparty is more likely to occur in times of severe economic stress than in normal economic conditions.
2. Supervisory Stress Test Model Policies
To be consistent with the seven principles outlined in Section 1, the Federal Reserve has established policies and procedures to guide the development, implementation, and use of all models used in supervisory stress test projections, described in more detail below. Each policy facilitates adherence to at least one of the modeling principles that govern the supervisory stress test, and in most cases facilitates adherence to several modeling principles.
2.1. Soundness in Model Design
(a) During development, the Federal Reserve (i) subjects supervisory models to extensive review of model theory and logic and general conceptual soundness; (ii) examines and evaluates justifications for modeling assumptions; and (iii) tests models to establish the accuracy and stability of the estimates and forecasts that they produce.
(b) After development, the Federal Reserve continues to subject supervisory models to scrutiny during implementation to ensure that the models remain appropriate for use in the stress test exercise. The Federal Reserve monitors changes in the economic environment, the structure of covered companies and their portfolios, and the structure of the stress testing exercise, if applicable, to verify that a model in use continues to serve the purposes for which it was designed. Generally, the same principles, rigor, and standards for evaluating the suitability of supervisory models that apply in model development and design will apply in ongoing monitoring of supervisory models.
2.2. Disclosure of Information Related to the Supervisory Stress Test
(a) In general, the Board does not disclose information related to the supervisory stress test or firm-specific results to covered companies if that information is not also publicly disclosed.
(b) The Board has increased the breadth of its public disclosure since the inception of the supervisory stress test to include more information about model changes and key risk drivers, in addition to more detail on different components of projected net revenues and losses. Increasing public disclosure can help the public understand and interpret the results of the supervisory stress test, particularly with respect to the condition and capital adequacy of participating firms. Providing additional information about the supervisory stress test allows the public to make an evaluation of the quality of the Board's assessment. This policy also promotes consistent and equitable treatment of covered companies by ensuring that institutions do not have access to information about the supervisory stress test that is not also accessible publicly, corresponding to the principle of consistency and comparability.
2.3. Phasing in of Highly Material Model Changes
(a) The Federal Reserve may revise its supervisory stress test models to include advances in modeling techniques, enhancements in response to model validation findings, incorporation of richer and more detailed data, public comment, and identification of models with improved performance, particularly under adverse economic conditions. Revisions to supervisory stress models may at times have material impact on modeled outcomes.
(b) In order to mitigate sudden and unexpected changes to the supervisory stress test results, the Federal Reserve follows a general policy of phasing highly material model changes into the supervisory stress test over two years. The Federal Reserve assesses whether a model change would have a highly significant impact on the projections of losses, components of revenue, or post-stress capital ratios for covered companies. In these instances, in the first year when the model change is first implemented, estimates produced by the enhanced model are averaged with estimates produced by the model used in the previous stress test exercise. In the second and subsequent years, the supervisory stress test exercise will reflect only estimates produced by the enhanced model. This policy contributes to the stability of the results of the supervisory stress test. By implementing highly material model changes over the course of two stress test cycles, the Federal Reserve seeks to ensure that changes in model projections primarily reflect changes in underlying risk factors and scenarios, year over year.
(c) In general, phase-in thresholds for highly material model changes apply only to conceptual changes to models. Model changes related to changes in accounting or regulatory capital rules and model parameter re-estimation based on newly available data are implemented with immediate effect.
(d) In assessing the materiality of a model change, the Federal Reserve calculates the impact of using an enhanced model on post-stress capital ratios using data and scenarios from prior years' supervisory stress test exercises. The use of an enhanced model is considered a highly material change if its use results in a change in the CET1 ratio of 50 basis points or more for one or more firms, relative to the model used in prior years' supervisory exercises.
2.4. Limiting Reliance on Past Outcomes
(a) Models should not place undue emphasis on historical outcomes in predicting future outcomes. The Federal Reserve aims to produce supervisory stress test results that reflect likely outcomes under the supervisory scenarios. The supervisory scenarios may potentially incorporate events that have not occurred historically. It is not necessarily consistent with the purpose of a stress testing exercise to assume that the future will be like the past.
(b) In order to model potential outcomes outside the realm of historical experience, the Federal Reserve generally does not include variables that would capture unobserved historical patterns in supervisory models. The use of industry-level models, restricted use of firm-specific fixed effects (described below), and minimized use of dummy variables indicating a loan vintage or a specific year, ensure that the outcomes of the supervisory models are forward-looking, consistent and comparable across firms, and robust and stable.
(c) Firm-specific fixed effects are variables that identify a specific firm and capture unobserved differences in the revenues, expenses or losses between firms. Firm-specific fixed effects are generally not incorporated in supervisory models in order to avoid the assumption that unobserved firm-specific historical patterns will continue in the future. Exceptions to this policy are made where appropriate. For example, if granular portfolio-level data on key drivers of a covered company's performance are limited or unavailable, and firm-specific fixed effects are more predictive of a covered company's future performance than are industry-level variables, then supervisory models may be specified with firm-specific fixed effects.
(d) Models used in the supervisory stress test are developed according to an industry-level approach, calibrated using data from many institutions. In adhering to an industry-level approach, the Federal Reserve models the response of specific portfolios and instruments to variations in macroeconomic and financial scenario variables. In this way, the Federal Reserve ensures that differences across firms are driven by differences in firm-specific input data, as opposed to differences in model parameters or specifications. The industry approach to modeling is also forward-looking, as the Federal Reserve does not assume that historical patterns will necessarily continue into the future for individual firms. By modeling a portfolio or instrument's response to changes in economic or financial conditions at the industry level, the Federal Reserve ensures that projected future losses are a function of that portfolio or instrument's own characteristics, rather than the historical experience of the covered company. This policy helps to ensure that two firms with the same portfolio receive the same results for that portfolio in the supervisory stress test.
(e) The Federal Reserve minimizes the use of vintage or year-specific fixed effects when estimating models and producing supervisory projections. In general, these types of variables are employed only when there are significant structural market shifts or other unusual factors for which supervisory models cannot otherwise account. Similar to the firm-specific fixed effects policy, and consistent with the forward-looking principle, this vintage indicator policy is in place so that projections of future performance under stress do not incorporate assumptions that patterns in unmeasured factors from brief historical time periods persist. For example, the loans originated in a particular year should not be assumed to continue to default at a higher rate in the future because they did so in the past.
2.5. Treatment of Global Market Shock and Counterparty Default Component
(a) Both the global market shock and counterparty default components are exogenous components of the supervisory stress scenarios that are independent of the macroeconomic and financial market environment specified in those scenarios, and do not affect projections of risk-weighted assets or balances. The global market shock, which specifies movements in numerous market factors, 14 applies only to covered companies with significant trading exposure. The counterparty default scenario component applies only to covered companies with substantial trading or processing and custodian operations. Though these stress factors may not be directly correlated to macroeconomic or financial assumptions, they can materially affect covered companies' risks. Losses from both components are therefore considered in addition to the estimates of losses under the macroeconomic scenario.
14 See 12 CFR part 252, appendix A, “Policy Statement on the Scenario Design Framework for Stress Testing,” for a detailed description of the global market shock.
(b) Counterparty credit risk on derivatives and repo-style activities is incorporated in supervisory modeling in part by assuming the default of the single counterparty to which the covered firm would be most exposed in the global market shock event. 15 Requiring covered companies subject to the large counterparty default component to estimate and report the potential losses and effects on capital associated with such an instantaneous default is a simple method for capturing an important risk to capital for firms with large trading and custodian or processing activities. Engagement in substantial trading or custodial operations makes the covered companies subject to the counterparty default scenario component particularly vulnerable to the default of their major counterparty or their clients' counterparty, in transactions for which the covered companies act as agents. The large counterparty default component is consistent with the purpose of a stress testing exercise, as discussed in the principle about the focus on the ability to evaluate the impact of severe economic stress. The default of a covered company's largest counterparty is a salient risk in a macroeconomic and financial crisis, and generally less likely to occur in times of economic stability. This approach seeks to ensure that covered companies can absorb losses associated with the default of any counterparty, in addition to losses associated with adverse economic conditions, in an environment of economic uncertainty.
15 In addition to incorporating counterparty credit risk by assuming the default of the covered company's largest counterparty, the Federal Reserve incorporates counterparty credit risk in the supervisory stress test by estimating mark-to-market losses, credit valuation adjustment (CVA) losses, and incremental default risk (IDR) losses associated with the global market shock.
(c) The full effect of the global market shock and counterparty default components is realized in net income in the first quarter of the projection horizon in the supervisory stress test. The Board expects covered companies with material trading and counterparty exposures to be sufficiently capitalized to absorb losses stemming from these exposures that could occur during times of general macroeconomic stress.
2.6. [Reserved]
2.7. Credit Supply Maintenance
(a) The supervisory stress test incorporates the assumption that aggregate credit supply does not contract during the stress period. The aim of supervisory stress testing is to assess whether firms are sufficiently capitalized to absorb losses during times of economic stress, while also meeting obligations and continuing to lend to households and businesses. The assumption that a balance sheet of consistent magnitude is maintained allows supervisors to evaluate the health of the banking sector assuming firms continue to lend during times of stress.
(b) In order to implement this policy, the Federal Reserve must make assumptions about new loan balances. To predict losses on new originations over the planning horizon, newly originated loans are assumed to have the same risk characteristics as the existing portfolio, where applicable, with the exception of loan age and delinquency status. These newly originated loans would be part of a covered company's normal business, even in a stressed economic environment. While an individual firm may assume that it reacts to rising losses by sharply restricting its lending (e.g., by exiting a particular business line), the banking industry as a whole cannot do so without creating a “credit crunch” and substantially increasing the severity and duration of an economic downturn. The assumption that the magnitude of firm balance sheets will be fixed in the supervisory stress test ensures that covered companies cannot assume they will “shrink to health,” and serves the Federal Reserve's goal of helping to ensure that major financial firms remain sufficiently capitalized to accommodate credit demand in a severe downturn. In addition, by precluding the need to make assumptions about how underwriting standards might tighten or loosen during times of economic stress, the Federal Reserve follows the principle of consistency and comparability and promotes consistency across covered companies.
(c) In projecting the denominator for the calculation of the leverage ratio, the Federal Reserve will account for the effect of changes associated with the calculation of regulatory capital or changes to the Board's regulations.
2.8. Firm-Specific Overlays and Additional Firm-Provided Data
(a) The Federal Reserve does not make firm-specific overlays to model results used in the supervisory stress test. This policy ensures that the supervisory stress test results are determined solely by the industry-level supervisory models and by firm-specific input data. The Federal Reserve has instituted a policy of not using additional input data submitted by one or some of the covered companies unless comparable data can be collected from all the firms that have material exposure in a given area. Input data necessary to produce supervisory stress test estimates is collected via the FR Y-14 information collection. The Federal Reserve may request additional information from covered companies, but otherwise will not incorporate additional information provided as part of a firm's CCAR submission or obtained through other channels into stress test projections.
(b) This policy curbs the use of data only from firms that have incentives to provide it, as in cases in which additional data would support the estimation of a lower loss rate or a higher revenue rate, and promotes consistency across the stress test results of covered companies.
2.9. Treatment of Missing or Erroneous Data
(a) Missing data, or data with deficiencies significant enough to preclude the use of supervisory models, create uncertainty around estimates of losses or components of revenue. If data that are direct inputs to supervisory models are not provided as required by the FR Y-14 information collection or are reported erroneously, then a conservative value will be assigned to the specific data based on all available data reported by covered companies, depending on the extent of data deficiency. If the data deficiency is severe enough that a modeled estimate cannot be produced for a portfolio segment or portfolio, then the Federal Reserve may assign a conservative rate (e.g., 10th or 90th percentile PPNR or loss rate, respectively) to that segment or portfolio.
(b) This policy promotes the principle of conservatism, given a lack of information sufficient to produce a risk-sensitive estimate of losses or revenue components using information on the true characteristics of certain positions. This policy ensures consistent treatment for all covered companies that report data deemed insufficient to produce a modeled estimate. Finally, this policy is simple and transparent.
2.10. Treatment of Immaterial Portfolio Data
(a) The Federal Reserve makes a distinction between insufficient data reported by covered companies for material portfolios and immaterial portfolios. To limit regulatory burden, the Federal Reserve allows covered companies not to report detailed loan-level or portfolio-level data for loan types that are not material as defined in the FR Y-14 reporting instructions. In these cases, a loss rate representing the median rates among covered companies for whom the rate is calculated will be applied to the immaterial portfolio. This approach is consistent across covered companies, simple, and transparent, and promotes the principles of consistency and comparability and simplicity.
3. Principles and Policies of Supervisory Model Validation
(a) Independent and comprehensive model validation is key to the credibility of supervisory stress tests. An independent unit of validation staff within the Federal Reserve, with input from an advisory council of academic experts not affiliated with the Federal Reserve, ensures that stress test models are subject to effective challenge, defined as critical analysis by objective, informed parties that can identify model limitations and recommend appropriate changes.
(b) The Federal Reserve's supervisory model validation program, built upon the principles of independence, technical competence, and stature, is able to subject models to effective challenge, expanding upon efforts made by supervisory modeling teams to manage model risk and confirming that supervisory models are appropriate for their intended uses. The supervisory model validation program produces reviews that are consistent, thorough, and comprehensive. Its structure ensures independence from the Federal Reserve's model development function, and its prominent role in communicating the state of model risk to the Board of Governors assures its stature within the Federal Reserve.
3.1. Structural Independence
(a) The management and staff of the internal model validation program are structurally independent from the model development teams. Validators do not report to model developers, and vice versa. This ensures that model validation is conducted and overseen by objective parties. Validation staff's performance criteria include an ability to review all aspects of the models rigorously, thoroughly, and objectively, and to provide meaningful and clear feedback to model developers and users.
(b) In addition, the Model Validation Council, a council of external academic experts, provides independent advice on the Federal Reserve's process to assess models used in the supervisory stress test. In biannual meetings with Federal Reserve officials, members of the council discuss selective supervisory models, after being provided with detailed model documentation for and non-public information about those models. The documentation and discussions enable the council to assess the effectiveness of the models used in the supervisory stress tests and of the overarching model validation program.
3.2. Technical Competence of Validation Staff
(a) The model validation program is designed to provide thorough, high-quality reviews that are consistent across supervisory models.
(b) First, the model validation program employs technically expert staff with knowledge across model types. Second, reviews for every supervisory model follow the same set of review guidelines, and take place on an ongoing basis. The model validation program is comprehensive, in the sense that validators assess all models currently in use, expand the scope of validation beyond basic model use, and cover both model soundness and performance.
(c) The model validation program covers three main areas of validation: (1) Conceptual soundness; (2) ongoing monitoring; and (3) outcomes analysis. Validation staff evaluates all aspects of model development, implementation, and use, including but not limited to theory, design, methodology, input data, testing, performance, documentation standards, implementation controls (including access and change controls), and code verification.
3.3. Stature of Validation Function
(a) The validation program informs the Board of Governors about the state of model risk in the overall stress testing program, along with ongoing practices to control and mitigate model risk.
(b) The model validation program communicates its findings and recommendations regarding model risk to relevant parties within the Federal Reserve System. Validators provide detailed feedback to model developers and provide thematic feedback or observations on the overall system of models to the management of the modeling teams. Model validation feedback is also communicated to the users of supervisory model output for use in their deliberations and decisions about supervisory stress testing. In addition, the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation approves all models used in the supervisory stress test in advance of each exercise, based on validators' recommendations, development responses, and suggestions for risk mitigants. In several cases, models have been modified or implemented differently based on validators' feedback. The Model Validation Council also contributes to the stature of the Federal Reserve's validation program, by providing an external point of view on modifications to supervisory models and on validation program governance.
3.4. Simple approach for projecting risk-weighted assets
(a) In projecting risk-weighted assets, the Federal Reserve will generally assume that a covered company's risk-weighted assets remain unchanged over the planning horizon. This assumption allows the Federal Reserve to independently project the risk-weighted assets of covered companies in line with the goal of simplicity (Principle 1.4). In addition, this approach is forward-looking (Principle 1.2), as this assumption removes reliance on historical data and past outcomes from the projection of risk-weighted assets.
(b) In projecting a firm's risk-weighted assets, the Federal Reserve will account for the effect of changes associated with the calculation of regulatory capital or changes to the Board's regulations in the calculation of risk-weighted assets.
[84 FR 6668, Feb. 28, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 15605, Mar. 18, 2020; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021]
PART 253 REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING THE ADJUSTABLE INTEREST RATE (LIBOR) ACT (REGULATION ZZ)
Authority: 12 U.S.C. 5801 et seq.
Source: 88 FR 5220, Jan. 26, 2023, unless otherwise noted.
§ 253.1 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) has issued this part (Regulation ZZ) under the authority of Public Law 117-103, division U (the “Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act”), codified at 12 U.S.C. 5801 et seq.
(b) Purpose. The purposes of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act are to establish a clear and uniform process, on a nationwide basis, for replacing the overnight and one-, three-, six-, and 12-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR in existing contracts that do not provide for the use of a clearly defined or practicable replacement benchmark rate; to preclude litigation related to such existing contracts; to allow existing contracts that reference LIBOR but provide for the use of a clearly defined and practicable replacement rate to operate according to their terms; and to address LIBOR references in Federal law. 148 This part implements the statute by defining terms used in the statute and identifying Board-selected benchmark replacements for LIBOR contracts.
148 The act does not affect the ability of parties to use any appropriate benchmark rate in new contracts.
(c) Scope. As described in § 253.3, the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act and this part apply by their terms to existing contracts governed by Federal law or the law of any state that reference the overnight and one-, three-, six-, and 12-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR and do not have fallback provisions providing for the use of a clearly defined and practicable replacement benchmark rate following the LIBOR replacement date, unless the parties to that contract agree in writing that the contract is not subject to the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act. This part does not apply to or affect existing or prospective contracts that do not reference the overnight or one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR, and except as provided in § 253.3(a)(1)(iii) and (c), generally does not apply to or affect LIBOR contracts that have fallback provisions providing for the use of a clearly defined and practicable replacement benchmark for LIBOR (either directly or through selection by a determining person), even if that rate differs from the otherwise applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement. Any determining person's selection of the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement pursuant to § 253.3(c) is subject to §§ 253.4, 253.5 (including any benchmark replacement conforming changes made by a calculating person), §§ 253.6, and 253.7.
§ 253.2 Definitions.
30-day Average SOFR means the 30-calendar-day compounded average of SOFR, as published by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or any successor administrator.
90-day Average SOFR means the 90-calendar-day compounded average of SOFR, as published by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or any successor administrator.
Benchmark means an index of interest rates or dividend rates that is used, in whole or in part, as the basis of or as a reference for calculating or determining any valuation, payment, or other measurement.
Benchmark administrator means a person that publishes a benchmark for use by third parties.
Benchmark replacement means a benchmark, or an interest rate or dividend rate (which may or may not be based in whole or in part on a prior setting of LIBOR) to replace LIBOR or any interest rate or dividend rate based on LIBOR, whether on a temporary, permanent, or indefinite basis, under or with respect to a LIBOR contract.
Benchmark replacement conforming change means any technical, administrative, or operational change, alteration, or modification that:
(1) The Board determines, in its discretion, would address one or more issues affecting the implementation, administration, and calculation of the Board-selected benchmark replacement in LIBOR contracts; or
(2) Solely with respect to a LIBOR contract that is not a consumer loan, in the reasonable judgment of a calculating person, are otherwise necessary or appropriate to permit the implementation, administration, and calculation of the Board-selected benchmark replacement under or with respect to a LIBOR contract after giving due consideration to any benchmark replacement conforming changes determined by the Board under paragraph (1) of this definition.
Board-selected benchmark replacement means the benchmark replacements identified in § 253.4.
Business day means any day except for:
(1) A Saturday;
(2) A Sunday;
(3) A day on which the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association recommends that the fixed income departments of its members be closed for the entire day for purposes of trading in United States Government securities; or
(4) A day on which the Federal Reserve Bank of New York, with advance notice, chooses not to publish its Treasury repurchase agreement reference rates if participants in the Treasury repurchase agreement market broadly expect to treat that day as a holiday.
Calculating person means, with respect to any LIBOR contract, any person, including the determining person, responsible for calculating or determining any valuation, payment, or other measurement based on a benchmark.
CME Term SOFR means the CME Term SOFR Reference Rates published for one-, three-, six-, and 12-month tenors as administered by CME Group Benchmark Administration, Ltd. (or any successor administrator thereof).
Consumer has the same meaning as in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
Consumer loan means a consumer credit transaction.
Credit has the same meaning as in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
Derivative transaction means a contract that would satisfy the criteria to be a “Protocol Covered Document” under the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) protocol (see appendix A to this part) but for the fact that one or more parties to such contract is not an “Adhering Party” as such term is used in the ISDA protocol, provided that, for purposes of this definition, “Protocol Effective Date” as such term is used in the ISDA protocol means the LIBOR replacement date for the relevant LIBOR contract.
Derivative transaction fallback observation day means the day that is two payment business days prior to the payment date for the relevant calculation period.
Determining person means, with respect to any LIBOR contract, any person with the sole authority, right, or obligation, including on a temporary basis (as identified by the LIBOR contract or by the governing law of the LIBOR contract, as appropriate) to determine a benchmark replacement, whether or not the person's authority, right, or obligation is subject to any contingencies specified in the LIBOR contract or by the governing law of the LIBOR contract.
Fallback provisions means terms in a LIBOR contract for determining a benchmark replacement, including any terms relating to the date on which the benchmark replacement becomes effective.
Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA)-regulated entity has the same meaning as “regulated entity” in 12 U.S.C. 4502(20).
Federal Family Education Loan Program (FFELP) asset-backed securitization (ABS) means an asset-backed security for which more than 50 percent of the collateral pool consists of FFELP loans, as reported in the most recent servicer report available on the LIBOR replacement date.
FHFA-regulated-entity contract means a LIBOR contract that is a commercial or multifamily mortgage loan that has been purchased or guaranteed, in whole or in part, by an FHFA-regulated entity, or for which an FHFA-regulated entity is identified as a party in the transaction documents, and that is:
(1) A commercial or multifamily mortgage-backed security (other than a security backed by consumer loans);
(2) A collateralized mortgage obligation;
(3) A credit risk transfer transaction; or
(4) A Federal Home Loan Bank advance.
ISDA protocol means the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc., on October 23, 2020, and minor or technical amendments thereto (see appendix A to this part).
LIBOR, as used in this part:
(1) Means the overnight and one-, three-, six-, and 12-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR (formerly known as the London interbank offered rate) as administered by ICE Benchmark Administration Limited (or any predecessor or successor administrator thereof); and
(2) Does not include the one-week or two-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR.
LIBOR contract means any contract, agreement, indenture, organizational document, guarantee, mortgage, deed of trust, lease, security (whether representing debt or equity, including any interest in a corporation, a partnership, or a limited liability company), instrument, or other obligation or asset that, by its terms, uses LIBOR as a benchmark.
LIBOR replacement date means the first London banking day after June 30, 2023, unless the Board determines that any LIBOR tenor will cease to be published or cease to be representative on a different date.
Relevant benchmark administrator means:
(1) Bloomberg Index Services Limited with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR);
(2) CME Group Benchmark Administration, Ltd. with respect to CME Term SOFR;
(3) Refinitiv Limited with respect to the Board-selected benchmark replacement for a LIBOR contract that is a consumer loan; and
(4) The Federal Reserve Bank of New York with respect to 30-day Average SOFR and 90-day Average SOFR.
Security has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)).
SOFR means the Secured Overnight Financing Rate published by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or any successor administrator.
State means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
§ 253.3 Applicability.
(a) General requirement. On and after the LIBOR replacement date, the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement shall be the benchmark replacement for the following LIBOR contracts, except to the extent that an exception in paragraph (b) of this section applies:
(1) A LIBOR contract with one of the following characteristics as of the LIBOR replacement date, after giving effect to paragraph (a)(2) of this section:
(i) The LIBOR contract contains no fallback provisions;
(ii) The LIBOR contract contains fallback provisions that identify neither—
(A) A specific benchmark replacement; nor
(B) A determining person; or
(iii) The LIBOR contract contains fallback provisions that identify a determining person, but the determining person has not selected a benchmark replacement by the earlier of the LIBOR replacement date and the latest date for selecting a benchmark replacement according to the terms of the LIBOR contract, for any reason.
(2) For purposes of this part, on the LIBOR replacement date, any reference in any fallback provisions of a LIBOR contract to the following shall be disregarded as if not included in the fallback provisions of such LIBOR contract and shall be deemed null and void and without any force or effect:
(i) A benchmark replacement that is based in any way on any LIBOR value, except to account for the difference between LIBOR and the benchmark replacement; or
(ii) A requirement that a person (other than a benchmark administrator) conduct a poll, survey, or inquiries for quotes or information concerning interbank lending or deposit rates (including, but not limited to, Eurodollar deposit or lending rates).
(b) Exceptions. Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, this part shall not apply to—
(1) Any LIBOR contract that the parties have agreed in writing shall not be subject to the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act;
(2) Any LIBOR contract that contains fallback provisions that identify a benchmark replacement that is not based in any way on any LIBOR value (including the prime rate or the effective Federal Funds rate) after application of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; or
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(1)(iii) of this section, any LIBOR contract subject to paragraph (c) of this section as to which a determining person does not elect to use a Board-selected benchmark replacement pursuant to paragraph (c).
(c) Selection of Board-selected benchmark replacement by determining person. Except for any LIBOR contract described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a determining person may select the Board-selected benchmark replacement specified in § 253.4 as the benchmark replacement for a LIBOR contract. Any such selection shall be—
(1) Irrevocable;
(2) Made by the earlier of the LIBOR replacement date and the latest date for selecting a benchmark replacement according to the terms of the LIBOR contract; and
(3) Used in any determinations of the benchmark under or with respect to the LIBOR contract occurring on and after the LIBOR replacement date.
(d) Other provisions of LIBOR contracts unchanged. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and in § 253.5, where the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement becomes the benchmark replacement for a LIBOR contract on and after the LIBOR replacement date pursuant to paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, all other provisions of such contract shall not be altered or impaired and shall apply to such contract using the Board-selected benchmark replacement, including but not limited to:
(1) Any provision specifying the date for determining a benchmark, except in the case of derivative transactions, which are subject to § 253.4(a)(2), and Federal Home Loan Bank advances, which are subject to § 253.4(b)(3)(ii)(B);
(2) Any provision specifying rounding conventions for a benchmark;
(3) Any provision referencing LIBOR or any LIBOR value prior to the LIBOR replacement date (including any provision requiring a person to look back to a LIBOR value as of a date preceding the LIBOR replacement date);
(4) Any provision applying any cap, floor, modifier, or spread adjustment to which LIBOR had been subject pursuant to the terms of a LIBOR contract;
(5) Any provision of Federal consumer financial law that—
(i) Requires creditors to notify borrowers regarding a change-in-terms; or
(ii) Governs the reevaluation of rate increases on credit card accounts under open-ended (not home-secured) consumer credit plans; or
(6) Except as provided in 12 U.S.C. 5804(c), the rights or obligations of any person, or the authorities of any agency, under Federal consumer financial law, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481.
§ 253.4 Board-selected benchmark replacements.
(a) Derivative transactions. (1) A LIBOR contract subject to the requirements of this part that is a derivative transaction shall use the benchmark replacement identified as the “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” in the ISDA protocol (see appendix A to this part) for each day on which LIBOR would ordinarily be observed occurring on or after the LIBOR replacement date. For clarity, the reference to “spread relating to U.S. dollar LIBOR” in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” in the ISDA protocol is equal to the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) The benchmark replacement used to calculate the payment due for the relevant calculation period shall be determined on the derivative transaction fallback observation day in respect of the day that, under the LIBOR contract, would have been used to determine the LIBOR-based rate that is being replaced or, if the Board-selected benchmark replacement in respect of that day is not available on the derivative transaction fallback observation day, the most recently available publication on the derivative transaction fallback observation day shall be used.
(b) All other transactions. On the LIBOR replacement date, a LIBOR contract subject to the requirements of this part that is not a derivative transaction shall use the following benchmark replacements:
(1) For a LIBOR contract that is not a consumer loan, an FHFA-regulated-entity contract, or a FFELP ABS—
(i) In place of overnight LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
(ii) In place of one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be the corresponding one-, three-, six-, or 12-month CME Term SOFR plus the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) For a LIBOR contract that is a consumer loan—
(i) During the one-year period beginning on the LIBOR replacement date:
(A) In place of overnight LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be SOFR plus an amount that transitions linearly for each business day during that period from:
(1) The difference between SOFR and overnight LIBOR determined as of the day immediately before the LIBOR replacement date; to
(2) The tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; or
(B) In place of the one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be the corresponding one-, three-, six-, or 12-month CME Term SOFR plus an amount that transitions linearly for each business day during that period from:
(1) The difference between the relevant CME Term SOFR and the relevant LIBOR tenor determined as of the day immediately before the LIBOR replacement date; to
(2) The applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(ii) On the date one year after the LIBOR replacement date and thereafter:
(A) In place of overnight LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
(B) In place of one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be the corresponding one-, three-, six-, or 12-month CME Term SOFR plus the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(iii) The rates published or provided by Refinitiv Limited as “USD IBOR Cash Fallbacks” for “Consumer” products shall be deemed equal to the rates identified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(3) For a LIBOR contract that is an FHFA-regulated-entity contract—
(i) For an FHFA-regulated-entity contract that is not a Federal Home Loan Bank advance—
(A) In place of overnight LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
(B) In place of one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be the 30-day Average SOFR plus the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(ii) For an FHFA-regulated-entity contract that is a Federal Home Loan Bank advance—
(A) The benchmark replacement shall be the “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” in the ISDA protocol (see appendix A to this part) for each day on which LIBOR would ordinarily be observed occurring on or after the LIBOR replacement date. For clarity, the reference to “spread relating to U.S. dollar LIBOR” in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” in the ISDA protocol is equal to the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(B) The benchmark replacement used to calculate the payment due for the relevant calculation period shall be determined on the derivative transaction fallback observation day in respect of the day that, under the LIBOR contract, would have been used to determine the LIBOR-based rate that is being replaced or, if the Board-selected benchmark replacement in respect of that day is not available on the derivative transaction fallback observation day, the most recently available publication on the derivative transaction fallback observation day shall be used.
(4) For a LIBOR contract that is a FFELP ABS—
(i) In place of one-month LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be 30-day Average SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
(ii) In place of three-month LIBOR, the benchmark shall be 90-day Average SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; and
(iii) In place of six- or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be 30-day Average SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(4) or (5) of this section, as applicable.
(c) Tenor spread adjustments. The following tenor spread adjustments shall be included as part of the Board-selected benchmark replacements as indicated in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:
(1) 0.00644 percent for overnight LIBOR;
(2) 0.11448 percent for one-month LIBOR;
(3) 0.26161 percent for three-month LIBOR;
(4) 0.42826 percent for six-month LIBOR; and
(5) 0.71513 percent for 12-month LIBOR.
§ 253.5 Benchmark replacement conforming changes.
(a) Benchmark replacement conforming changes generally. (1) If the Board-selected benchmark replacement becomes the benchmark replacement for a LIBOR contract pursuant to § 253.3(a) or (c), all applicable benchmark replacement conforming changes shall become an integral part of the LIBOR contract.
(2) Paragraph (b) of this section establishes specific benchmark replacement conforming changes. The Board may, in its discretion, publish additional benchmark replacement conforming changes by regulation or order.
(3) Solely with respect to any LIBOR contract that is not a consumer loan, a calculating person may make any additional technical, administrative, or operational changes, alterations, or modifications that, in that person's reasonable judgment, would be necessary or appropriate to permit the implementation, administration, and calculation of the Board-selected benchmark replacement under or with respect to a LIBOR contract after giving due consideration to any changes, alterations, or modifications otherwise required by the Board, without any requirement to obtain consent from any other person prior to the adoption of such benchmark replacement conforming changes.
(b) Specified benchmark replacement conforming changes. (1) Any reference to a specified source for LIBOR (such as a particular newspaper, website, or screen) shall be replaced with the publication of the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement (inclusive or exclusive of the relevant tenor spread adjustment identified in § 253.4(c)) by either the relevant benchmark administrator for the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement or any third party authorized by the relevant benchmark administrator to publish the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement.
(2) Any reference to a particular time of day for determining LIBOR (such as 11:00 a.m. London time) shall be replaced with the standard publication time for the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement (inclusive or exclusive of the relevant tenor spread adjustment identified in § 253.4(c)), as established by the relevant benchmark administrator.
(3) Any provision of a LIBOR contract requiring use of a combination (such as an average) of LIBOR values over a period of time that spans the LIBOR replacement date shall be modified to provide that the combination shall be calculated consistent with that contractual provision using:
(i) The applicable LIBOR for any date prior to the LIBOR replacement date; and
(ii) The applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement rate for any date on or following the LIBOR replacement date, respectively.
(4) Subject to § 253.4(a) and (b)(3)(ii), to the extent a Board-selected benchmark replacement is not available or published on a particular day indicated in the LIBOR contract as the determination date, the most recently available publication of the Board-selected benchmark replacement will apply.
§ 253.6 Preemption.
Pursuant to section 107 of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, 12 U.S.C. 5806, this part supersedes any provision of any state or local law, statute, rule, regulation, or standard—
(a) Relating to the selection or use of a benchmark replacement or related conforming changes; or
(b) Expressly limiting the manner of calculating interest, including the compounding of interest, as that provision applies to the selection or use of a Board-selected benchmark replacement or benchmark replacement conforming changes.
§ 253.7 Continuity of contract and safe harbor.
(a) The provisions of section 105(a)-(d) of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, 12 U.S.C. 5804(a)-(d), shall apply to any LIBOR contract for which the Board-selected benchmark replacement becomes the benchmark replacement pursuant to § 253.3(a) or (c).
(b) Nothing in this part is intended to alter or modify the availability or effect of the provisions of section 105(e) of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, 12 U.S.C. 5804(e).
Appendix A to Part 253 ISDA Protocol
For ease of reference, the Board is republishing, with permission, the full text of the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol (ISDA protocol), published on October 23, 2020, by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. The full text of the ISDA protocol follows:
ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
Published on October 23, 2020
By the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc.
The International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. (ISDA) has published this ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol (this Protocol) to enable parties to Protocol Covered Documents to amend the terms of each such Protocol Covered Document to (i) in respect of a Protocol Covered Document which incorporates, or references a rate as defined in, a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet, include in the terms of such Protocol Covered Document either the terms of, or a particular defined term included in, the Supplement to the 2006 ISDA Definitions, finalized on October 23, 2020 and to be published by ISDA and effective on January 25, 2021 (the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement) and (ii) in respect of a Protocol Covered Document which otherwise references a Relevant IBOR, include in the terms of such Protocol Covered Document new fallbacks for that Relevant IBOR.
Accordingly, a party may adhere to this Protocol and be bound by its terms by completing and delivering a letter substantially in the form of Exhibit 1 to this Protocol (an Adherence Letter) to ISDA, as agent, as described below (each such party, an Adhering Party).
1. Adherence to and Effectiveness of the Protocol
(a) By adhering to this Protocol in the manner set forth in this paragraph 1, each Adhering Party agrees, in consideration of the mutual promises and covenants contained herein, that the terms of each Protocol Covered Document between such Adhering Party and any other Adhering Party will be amended in accordance with the terms and subject to the conditions set forth in the Attachment hereto.
(b) Adherence to this Protocol will be evidenced by the execution and online delivery, in accordance with this paragraph, to ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with subparagraphs 1(b)(i) to 1(b)(iii) below). ISDA shall have the right, in its sole and absolute discretion, upon at least thirty calendar days' notice on the “ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol” section of its website at www.isda.org (or by other suitable means), to designate a closing date of this Protocol (such closing date, the Cut-off Date). After the Cut-off Date, ISDA will not accept any further Adherence Letters to this Protocol.
(i) Each Adhering Party will access the “Protocols” section of the ISDA website at www.isda.org to enter information online that is required to generate its form of Adherence Letter and will submit payment of any applicable fee. Either by directly downloading the populated Adherence Letter from the Protocol system or upon receipt via email of the populated Adherence Letter, each Adhering Party will sign and upload the signed Adherence Letter as a PDF (portable document format) attachment into the Protocol system. Once the signed Adherence Letter has been approved and accepted by ISDA, such Adhering Party will receive an email confirmation of the Adhering Party's adherence to this Protocol.
(ii) A conformed copy of each Adherence Letter containing, in place of each signature, the printed or typewritten name of each signatory will be published by ISDA so that it may be viewed by all Adhering Parties. Each Adhering Party agrees that, for evidentiary purposes, a conformed copy of an Adherence Letter certified by the General Counsel (or other appropriate officer) of ISDA will be deemed to be an original.
(iii) Each Adhering Party agrees that the determination of the date and time of acceptance of any Adherence Letter will be determined by ISDA in its absolute discretion. Any Adherence Letter which is dated and delivered to ISDA before the date on which this Protocol is published will be deemed to have been delivered on the date on which this Protocol is published.
(c) As between two Adhering Parties, the agreement to make the amendments contemplated by this Protocol, on the terms and conditions set forth in this Protocol, will be effective on the Implementation Date and that agreement will form part of each Protocol Covered Document from the later of the Implementation Date and the related Protocol Covered Document Date. The amendments contemplated by this Protocol shall be made on the later of (i) the Implementation Date and (ii) the Protocol Effective Date.
(A) The Protocol Effective Date with respect to a Protocol Covered Document shall be January 25, 2021.
(B) The Implementation Date with respect to any two Adhering Parties shall be the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of such two Adhering Parties to adhere except that:
(I) In respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which an Agent has entered on behalf of a Client, subject to paragraph 3(m) below, the Implementation Date shall be the date specified in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C), paragraph 3(h), paragraph 3(i) or paragraph 3(j) below, as applicable; and
(II) In respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document, subject to paragraph 3(m) below, the Implementation Date shall be the day specified in paragraph 3(l) below.
Acceptance by ISDA of a subsequent or revised Adherence Letter from either such Adhering Party will not have the effect of changing such Implementation Date.
(d) This Protocol is intended for use without negotiation, but without prejudice to any amendment, modification or waiver in respect of a Protocol Covered Document that the parties may otherwise effect in accordance with the terms of that Protocol Covered Document.
(i) In adhering to this Protocol, an Adhering Party may not specify additional provisions, conditions or limitations in its Adherence Letter.
(ii) Any purported adherence that ISDA, as agent, determines in good faith is not in compliance with this Protocol will be void and ISDA will inform the relevant party of such fact as soon as reasonably possible after making such determination.
(e) Each Adhering Party acknowledges and agrees that adherence to this Protocol is irrevocable, except that an Adhering Party may, after the Protocol Effective Date, deliver to ISDA, as agent, a notice substantially in the form of Exhibit 2 to this Protocol that is effective (determined pursuant to paragraph 3(f) below) on any Protocol Business Day (a Revocation Notice) to designate the next Revocation Date as the last date on which an Implementation Date can occur in respect of any Protocol Covered Document between the counterparty and such Adhering Party. Following the effective delivery of a Revocation Notice by an Adhering Party, this Protocol will not amend any Protocol Covered Document between that Adhering Party and another Adhering Party for which the Implementation Date would occur after the related Revocation Date.
(i) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol on behalf of a Client, then, if the Client effectively delivers a Revocation Notice in accordance with this paragraph 1(e), this Protocol will not amend any Protocol Covered Document between another Adhering Party and that Client entered into by that Client itself or by the Agent on behalf of that Client or any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document (if applicable), in each case, for which the Implementation Date would occur after the Revocation Date designated as the last date on which an Implementation Date can occur in the Client's Revocation Notice.
(ii) If an Agent delivers a Revocation Notice in accordance with this paragraph 1(e) on behalf of a Client and the Client separately adheres to this Protocol directly rather than through the agency of an Agent, then the Revocation Notice delivered by the Agent will not prevent an Implementation Date from occurring after the Revocation Date in respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Client has entered with another Adhering Party (including through the Agent).
(iii) Subparagraph 1(e)(i), subparagraph 1(e)(ii) and subparagraph 1(e)(iii) are without prejudice to any amendment effected pursuant to this Protocol to any Protocol Covered Document between two Adhering Parties for which the Implementation Date occurred on or before the day on which that Revocation Date occurs or is deemed to occur, regardless of the date on which such Protocol Covered Document is entered into, and any such amendment shall be effective notwithstanding the occurrence or deemed occurrence of such Revocation Date.
(iv) Each Revocation Notice must be delivered by the means specified in paragraph 3(f) below.
(v) Each Adhering Party agrees that, for evidentiary purposes, a conformed copy of a Revocation Notice certified by the General Counsel or an appropriate officer of ISDA will be deemed to be an original.
(vi) Any purported revocation that ISDA, as agent, determines in good faith is not in compliance with this paragraph 1(e) will be void and ISDA will inform the relevant party of such fact as soon as reasonably possible after making such determination.
2. Representations and Undertakings
(a) As of the later of (i) the date on which an Adhering Party adheres to this Protocol in accordance with paragraph 1 above (which will be the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter from that Adhering Party (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above)) and (ii) the Protocol Covered Document Date, such Adhering Party represents to each other Adhering Party with which it has entered into a Protocol Covered Document (which representations will be deemed to be repeated on the Protocol Effective Date and the Implementation Date if one or both such dates are later than the date on which such Adhering Party adheres to this Protocol) each of the following matters:
(A) Status. It is, if relevant, duly organized and validly existing under the laws of the jurisdiction of its organization or incorporation and, if relevant under such laws, in good standing or, if it otherwise represents its status in or pursuant to the Protocol Covered Document, has such status.
(B) Powers. It has the power to execute and deliver the Adherence Letter and to perform its obligations under the Adherence Letter and the Protocol Covered Document as amended by the Adherence Letter and this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto), and has taken all necessary action to authorize such execution, delivery and performance.
(C) No Violation or Conflict. Such execution, delivery and performance do not violate or conflict with any law applicable to it, any provision of its constitutional documents, any order or judgment of any court or other agency of government applicable to it or any of its assets or any contractual restriction binding on or affecting it or any of its assets.
(D) Consents. All governmental and other consents that are required to have been obtained by it with respect to the Adherence Letter and the Protocol Covered Document, as amended by the Adherence Letter and this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto), have been obtained and are in full force and effect and all conditions of any such consents have been complied with.
(E) Obligations Binding. Its obligations under the Adherence Letter and the Protocol Covered Document, as amended by the Adherence Letter and this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto), constitute its legal, valid and binding obligations, enforceable in accordance with their respective terms (subject to applicable bankruptcy, reorganization, insolvency, moratorium or similar laws affecting creditors' rights generally and subject, as to enforceability, to equitable principles of general application (regardless of whether enforcement is sought in a proceeding in equity or at law)).
(F) Credit Support. Its adherence to this Protocol and any amendment contemplated by this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto) will not, in and of itself, adversely affect the enforceability, effectiveness or validity of any obligations owed, whether by it or by any third party, under any Credit Support Document or Third Party Credit Support Document in respect of its obligations relating to any Protocol Covered Document as amended by the Adherence Letter and this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto).
(b) Each Adhering Party agrees with each other Adhering Party with which it has entered into a Protocol Covered Document that each of the foregoing representations will be deemed, in the case of a Protocol Covered Document that is an ISDA Master Agreement, to be a representation for purposes of Section 5(a)(iv) and in the case of any other Protocol Covered Document, to be a representation for purposes of any analogous provisions of each such Protocol Covered Document, that is made by each Adhering Party as of the later of (i) the date on which such Adhering Party adheres to this Protocol in accordance with paragraph 1 above and (ii) the Protocol Covered Document Date and which is deemed repeated on the Protocol Effective Date and the Implementation Date if one or both such dates are later than the date on which such Adhering Party adheres to this Protocol.
(c) Undertakings in respect of Protocol Covered Documents with Third Party Credit Support Documents. With respect to Protocol Covered Documents with Third Party Credit Support Documents that expressly require the consent, approval, agreement, authorization or other action of a Third Party to be obtained, each Adhering Party whose obligations under such arrangements are secured, guaranteed or otherwise supported by such Third Party undertakes to each other Adhering Party with which it has entered into such arrangements that it has obtained the consent (including by way of paragraph 2(d) below), approval, agreement, authorization or other action of such Third Party and that it will, upon demand, deliver evidence of such consent, approval, agreement, authorization or other action to such other Adhering Party.
(d) Deemed Third Party Consent. Each Adhering Party which is also a Third Party in relation to a Third Party Credit Support Document is hereby deemed to have consented to the amendments imposed by this Protocol on the Protocol Covered Document supported by such Third Party Credit Support Document.
3. Miscellaneous
(a) Entire Agreement; Restatement; Survival.
(i) This Protocol constitutes the entire agreement and understanding of the Adhering Parties with respect to its subject matter and supersedes all oral communication and prior writings (except as otherwise provided herein) with respect thereto. Each Adhering Party acknowledges that in adhering to this Protocol it has not relied on any oral or written representation, warranty or other assurance (except as provided for or referred to elsewhere in this Protocol or in the Attachment) and waives all rights and remedies which might otherwise be available to it in respect thereof, except that nothing in this Protocol will limit or exclude any liability of an Adhering Party for fraud.
(ii) Except for any amendment deemed to be made pursuant to this Protocol in respect of any Protocol Covered Document, all terms and conditions of each Protocol Covered Document will continue in full force and effect in accordance with its provisions as in effect immediately prior to the date on which it first becomes subject to this Protocol. Except as explicitly stated in this Protocol, nothing herein shall constitute a waiver or release of any rights of any Adhering Party under any Protocol Covered Document to which such Adhering Party is a party or a provider or recipient of credit support. This Protocol will, with respect to its subject matter, survive, and any amendments made or deemed to be made pursuant to this Protocol will form a part of each Protocol Covered Document between the Adhering Parties, notwithstanding any statements in a Protocol Covered Document to the effect that such Protocol Covered Document constitutes the entire agreement and understanding between the parties to such Protocol Covered Document with respect to the subject of such Protocol Covered Document.
(b) Exclusion of Agreements. Notwithstanding anything in paragraph 1(a) above, with respect to any agreement between Adhering Parties, if the parties to such agreement have expressly stated in such agreement or otherwise agreed in writing that this Protocol shall not apply, then such agreement shall not be a Protocol Covered Document.
(c) Amendments. An amendment, modification or waiver in respect of the matters contemplated by this Protocol (including, for the avoidance of doubt, any amendment, modification or waiver relating to the alignment of a Protocol Covered Document with an instrument for which such Protocol Covered Document is intended to serve as a hedge (or vice versa)) will only be effective in respect of a Protocol Covered Document if made in accordance with the terms of the Protocol Covered Document and then only with effect between the parties to that Protocol Covered Document.
(d) Headings. The headings used in this Protocol and any Adherence Letter are for convenience of reference only and are not to affect the construction of or to be taken into consideration in interpreting this Protocol or any Adherence Letter.
(e) Governing Law. This Protocol and each Adherence Letter will, as between two Adhering Parties and in respect of each Protocol Covered Document between them, be governed by and construed in accordance with the laws of England and Wales, without reference to choice of law doctrine, provided that the amendments to each Protocol Covered Document shall be governed by and construed in accordance with the law specified to govern that Protocol Covered Document and otherwise in accordance with the applicable choice of law doctrine.
(f) Notices. Any Revocation Notice must be in writing and delivered as a locked PDF (portable document format) attachment to an email to ISDA at isda@isda.org and will be deemed effectively delivered on the date it is delivered unless, on the date of that delivery, ISDA's London office is closed or that communication is delivered after 5:00 p.m., London time, in which case that communication will be deemed effectively delivered on the next day ISDA's London office is open.
(g) Ability of an Agent to Adhere to the Protocol on Behalf of a Client.
(i) An Agent may adhere to this Protocol:
(A) On behalf of all Clients represented by such Agent (in which case, such Agent need not identify each Client through an online platform available generally to the industry, including, for example, the ISDA Amend platform provided by IHS Markit (a Platform) and, in respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of those Clients, the Implementation Date shall be the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere);
(B) On behalf of only those Clients represented by such Agent that such Agent specifically names or identifies through a Platform and, in respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of any such Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates the name or identity of that Client to the other Adhering Party (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from the other Adhering Party); or
(C) On behalf of all Clients represented by such Agent, excluding any Clients whose name or identity the Agent communicates to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as a Client excluded from adherence, subject to subparagraph 3(h)(i) below, on or before the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere (in which case, such Agent need not identify each Client on whose behalf it adheres through a Platform). In respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of any Client whose name or identity has not been communicated to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as a Client excluded from adherence, the Implementation Date shall (subject to subparagraph 3(h)(i) below) be the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere. If the Agent has not communicated the name or identity of any Clients excluded from adherence to the other Adhering Party through a Platform on or before the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere, then (subject to subparagraph 3(h)(i) below) in respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of any Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere, and, in each case, if the Agent elects for Option 2 in its Adherence Letter, on behalf of those Clients whose name or identity the Agent communicates to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) below applies (in which case, the Implementation Date in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document shall be as specified in subparagraph 3(l) below).
(ii) In each case, the Agent can elect to apply the amendments in this Protocol to either:
(A) In respect of all those Clients on whose behalf the Agent adheres pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) or subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above, each Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of those Clients (Option 1); or
(B) In respect of all those Clients on whose behalf the Agent adheres pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) or subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above, each Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of those Clients and (II) in respect of those Clients on whose behalf the Agent adheres whose name or identity the Agent communicates to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which this subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) applies, each Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent did not enter on behalf of those Clients but which the Agent has the authority from the relevant Client to amend (for the purpose of this Protocol, documents described in this subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) being Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents and the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates the name or identity of the Client to the other Adhering Party for the purposes of this subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) being the Identification Date) (Option 2). If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and elects for Option 2, in respect of any Client on whose behalf the Agent adheres pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) or subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above whose name or identity is communicated to the other Adhering Party as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above applies, Protocol Covered Documents referred to in both subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(I) and subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above will be amended in accordance with the terms of this Protocol. For the avoidance of doubt, any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent did not enter on behalf of a Client and which the Agent does not have the authority from the relevant Client to amend will not constitute a Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document.
(iii) The election for Option 1 or Option 2 shall be made in the Adherence Letter. Adherence by the Agent shall only be effective with respect to those Protocol Covered Documents described in Option 1 or Option 2, as applicable, and as elected in the Adherence Letter (subject to, if the Agent elects for Option 2 and with respect to Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents,
(A) Subparagraph 3(g)(iv) and paragraph 3(l) below and (B) the Agent communicating the name or identity of those Clients on behalf of which it is amending Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents to the other Adhering Party, in accordance with subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above (regardless of whether the Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach described in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) or subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above)).
(iv) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and elects for Option 2 in its Adherence Letter, then, in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document only, the Agent shall, as soon as reasonably practicable following a written request (including by email) from the other Adhering Party, and in any event by no later than the end of the fifteenth calendar day following such request, provide reasonable evidence satisfactory to the other Adhering Party in its sole discretion supporting the Agent's authority to amend such documents, provided that:
(A) If, prior to the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere, the Agent has delivered to the other Adhering Party a copy, or relevant extracts, of the agreement (such as an investment management agreement) pursuant to which the relevant Client appoints the Agent to act on its behalf and authorizes the Agent to make the amendments contemplated by this Protocol to the Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document (whether or not such authority expressly refers to this Protocol), then, subject to the other Adhering Party's right to request (which request must be in writing (which includes by email)) an additional copy of that agreement or those relevant extracts (which request shall be made no later than the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the later of the Identification Date and the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party), the Agent need not provide any further evidence supporting its authority to amend that Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document on behalf of that Client for the purposes of this Protocol and, in respect of that Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document, shall be deemed to have provided reasonable evidence satisfactory to the other Adhering Party on (I) if the other Adhering Party does not request an additional copy of that agreement or those relevant extracts, the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the later of the Identification Date and the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party or
(II) If the other Adhering Party does request an additional copy of that agreement or those relevant extracts, the day on which that additional copy is delivered to the other Adhering Party;
(B) If the other Adhering Party does not request such evidence by the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the later of the Identification Date and the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party, then the Agent shall be deemed to have provided reasonable evidence satisfactory to the other Adhering Party at the end of that fifteenth calendar day;
(C) Subject to subparagraph 3(g)(iv)(A) above, following the delivery of any such evidence by the Agent to the other Adhering Party, unless the other Adhering Party notifies the Agent to the contrary by the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the day on which such evidence is delivered, the Agent shall be deemed to have provided reasonable evidence satisfactory to the other Adhering Party at the end of that fifteenth calendar day;
(D) If: (I)
(I) following written request from the other Adhering Party, the Agent does not provide the other Adhering Party with any evidence supporting its authority to amend such documents or, if subparagraph 3(g)(iv)(A) above applies, with an additional copy of the relevant agreement or extracts, by the end of the fifteenth calendar day following such written request; or
(II) subject to subparagraph 3(g)(iv)(A) above, the other Adhering Party determines that the evidence provided by the Agent is not satisfactory and notifies the Agent accordingly by the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the day on which such evidence is delivered,
Then request for evidence and the Agent's right to provide such evidence and, in respect of any such evidence, subject to subparagraph 3(g)(iv)(C) above, the Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document shall not be amended by this Protocol; and
(E) Any failure by the Agent to provide the other Adhering Party with such evidence shall not give rise to a Potential Event of Default or an Event of Default (each as defined in the ISDA Master Agreement), or any similar event, under that Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document or other contractual right of action under this Protocol or that Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document.
(v) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and specifically names or identifies one or more Clients
(A) On whose behalf it is adhering (as contemplated in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) above), (B) which are excluded from adherence (as contemplated in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above), and/or (C) on whose behalf it is amending Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents (as contemplated in subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above), as applicable, through a Platform, that Agent shall provide the legal entity identifier (LEI) of each such Client through such Platform.
(vi) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol on behalf of a Client by executing and delivering an Adherence Letter on behalf of such Client in accordance with paragraph 1 above and this paragraph 3(g), references to the Adhering Party for purposes of this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto) and the Adherence Letter shall be interpreted to refer to such Client. If, in respect of a Client, more than one Adherence Letter is accepted by ISDA in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above (by virtue of the Client adhering on its own behalf and one or more Agents adhering on behalf of that Client), then:
(A) If ISDA accepts an Adherence Letter from an Agent on behalf of a Client after it accepts an Adherence Letter from that Client, any document entered into by:
(I) That Agent acting on behalf of that Client; or
(II) If the Agent elects for Option 2 in its Adherence Letter, that Client on its own behalf but which the Agent has the authority from the relevant Client to amend, in each case, which has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to:
(1) The Protocol Effective Date; or
(2) If later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that Agent (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from the other Adhering Party), will be deemed to have “a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere)” for the purposes of the definitions of Protocol Covered Confirmation, Protocol Covered Credit Support Document and Protocol Covered Master Agreement below; and
(B) If ISDA accepts an Adherence Letter from a Client after it accepts an Adherence Letter from an Agent on behalf of that Client, any document entered into by the Client, whether directly or through the agency of an Agent, which has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to:
(I) The Protocol Effective Date; or if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that Client (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from the other Adhering Party), will be deemed to have “a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere)” for the purposes of the definitions of Protocol Covered Confirmation, Protocol Covered Credit Support Document and Protocol Covered Master Agreement below.
(vii) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol on behalf of a Client, then as of the later of (A) the date on which such Agent adheres to this Protocol in accordance with paragraph 1 above and (B) the Protocol Covered Document Date, such Agent represents to each Adhering Party (I) with which it has entered into a Protocol Covered Document on behalf of such Client or (II) which is a party to any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document (which representation will be deemed to be repeated on the Protocol Effective Date and on the Implementation Date if one or both such dates are later than the date on which such Agent adheres to this Protocol) that it has, as at the relevant Implementation Date, all necessary authority to enter into the Adherence Letter on behalf of such Client. In respect of any Client referred to in paragraph 3(h), paragraph 3(i), paragraph 3(j) or paragraph 3(k) below, the Agent represents that it has, as at the relevant Implementation Date, all necessary authority to apply the terms of the Adherence Letter to such Client.
(h) Clients Added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document after the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere.
(i) Subject to subparagraph 3(h)(ii) below, in respect of any Client added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document between an Agent and an Adhering Party after the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere (a New Client), the Agent and such Adhering Party agree that the terms of such Agent Protocol Covered Document as between such Adhering Party and any New Client will be subject to the amendments effected by this Protocol and as between the Adhering Party and the New Client the Implementation Date shall be the date on which the New Client is added to the Agent Protocol Covered Document, unless otherwise agreed between such Agent and such Adhering Party (which agreement may, if the Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above, be reached by the Agent communicating to the other Adhering Party through a Platform, at the time the New Client is added to the Agent Protocol Covered Document, that the New Client is excluded from adherence).
(ii) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach described in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) above and therefore specifically names or identifies one or more Clients on whose behalf it is adhering, then in order for the terms of an Agent Protocol Covered Document as between an Adhering Party and any New Client to be subject to the amendments effected by this Protocol, the Agent shall communicate the identity of each New Client (including the legal entity identifier (LEI)) to the other Adhering Party which is a party to the Agent Protocol Covered Document to which the New Client is added through a Platform and, as between the other Adhering Party and that New Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates the identity of that New Client to the other Adhering Party through that Platform.
(i) Clients Added to an Agent's List of Identified In-Scope Clients after the date of Acceptance by ISDA of the Agent's Adherence Letter. If an Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach described in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) above and therefore specifically names or identifies one or more Clients on whose behalf it is adhering, then for the purposes of subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(A) or 3(g)(ii)(B)(I) above, as applicable, it may communicate the name or identity of additional Clients on whose behalf it is adhering (through a Platform) to another Adhering Party after the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of its Adherence Letter and, as between that other Adhering Party and the additional Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates the identity of that additional Client to the other Adhering Party through that Platform for those purposes (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party), unless otherwise agreed between such Agent and such Adhering Party.
(j) Clients Removed from an Agent's List of Excluded Clients after the date of Acceptance by ISDA of the Agent's Adherence Letter. If an Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach described in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above and therefore specifically names or identifies one or more Clients as excluded from adherence, then for the purposes of subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(A) or 3(g)(ii)(B)(I) above, as applicable, the Agent may, after the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of its Adherence Letter, remove one or more of those Clients from its list of excluded Clients through a Platform and, as between any other Adhering Party and that Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates to the other Adhering Party that the Client is removed from the list of excluded Clients (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party), unless otherwise agreed between such Agent and such Adhering Party.
(k) Clients Added to an Agent's List of Clients in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above applies. If an Agent adheres to this Protocol, elects for Option 2 in its Adherence Letter and therefore specifically names or identifies one or more Clients in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above applies, then it may name or identify additional Clients in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above applies (through a Platform) after the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of its Adherence Letter.
(l) Authority to amend Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents. If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and elects for Option 2 (as described in subparagraph 3(g)(ii) above), then, in respect of each Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document, the Implementation Date shall be the day on which the Agent is deemed to have provided evidence supporting the Agent's authority to amend such Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document to the other Adhering Party pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(iv) above and, for the purposes of subparagraph 3(g)(iii) above, with respect to such Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents only, the Agent's adherence will be deemed effective on that day.
(m) Implementation Date if both an Agent and a Client adhere to this Protocol or if more than one Agent adheres for a Client. If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and, in respect of a particular Client and a Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of that Client or a Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document, there is, pursuant to the terms of this Protocol, more than one Implementation Date, then, notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in this Protocol, the Implementation Date shall be the first of those dates to occur.
(n) Adhering Party that is an Agent with respect to a Protocol Covered Document. An Adhering Party that executes a Protocol Covered Document (including an annex thereto) as agent with respect to that Protocol Covered Document, shall not for purposes of this Protocol be considered to be a party to or to have entered into such Protocol Covered Document solely by acting as agent with respect to that Protocol Covered Document except as expressly provided therein.
4. Definitions
References in this Protocol and the Attachment to the following terms shall have the following meanings:
Additional Credit Support Document means the documents (which, for the avoidance of doubt, shall be deemed to include any annexes or appendices thereto) set out in Part 2 of the Additional Documents Annex to this Protocol.
Additional Master Agreement means the documents (which, for the avoidance of doubt, shall be deemed to include any annexes or appendices thereto) set out in Part 1 of the Additional Documents Annex to this Protocol.
Adherence Letter has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof.
Adhering Party has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof, as construed in accordance with subparagraph 3(g)(vi) above where relevant.
Agent means an entity that enters into a Protocol Covered Document (or which has the authority to amend a Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document) and executes and delivers an Adherence Letter with respect to this Protocol on behalf of, and as agent for, one or more Clients. With respect to paragraph 3(h) above, Agent also means an entity that enters into a Protocol Covered Document and executes and delivers an Adherence Letter pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(i) above solely for purposes of amending such agreements to which New Clients may be added under paragraph 3(h) above.
Agent Protocol Covered Document means any Protocol Covered Document signed by the Agent on behalf of one or more Clients prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere), including any agreement that is signed as an umbrella agreement by an Agent and an Adhering Party prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere) which would be a Protocol Covered Document but for the absence of any underlying Client which is an Adhering Party.
Client means, with respect to an Agent, a client, investor, fund, account and/or other principal on whose behalf the Agent acts.
Confirmation means, in respect of a transaction, one or more documents or other confirming evidence exchanged between the parties or otherwise effective for the purpose of confirming or evidencing the transaction.
Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet means each of the 2006 ISDA Definitions, the 2000 ISDA Definitions, the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions, the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions and the 1991 ISDA Definitions, each as published by ISDA.
Credit Support Document means, in respect of an Adhering Party and a Protocol Covered Document, any document in effect on the Implementation Date, which by its terms secures, guarantees or otherwise supports such Adhering Party's obligations under such Protocol Covered Document from time to time, whether or not such document is specified as such therein or in the Protocol Covered Document.
Cut-off Date has the meaning given to such term in paragraph 1(b) above.
IBOR Fallbacks Supplement has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof.
Identification Date has the meaning given to such term in subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above.
Implementation Date has the meaning given to such term in subparagraph 1(c)(B) above.
ISDA has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof.
ISDA Credit Support Document means each of the following documents:
(a) 1994 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form; ISDA Agreements Subject to New York Law Only);
(b) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreements Subject to English law);
(c) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Deed (Bilateral Form—Security Interest; ISDA Agreements Subject to English Law);
(d) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Loan and Pledge; Security Interest Subject to Japanese Law);
(e) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreement Subject to French Law);
(f) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreement Subject to Irish Law);
(g) 2008 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Loan/Japanese Pledge);
(h) 2013 Standard Credit Support Annex (New York Law);
(i) 2013 Standard Credit Support Annex (English Law);
(j) 2014 Standard Credit Support Annex (New York Law—Multicurrency Settlement);
(k) 2014 Standard Credit Support Annex (English Law—Multicurrency Settlement);
(l) 2014 ISDA Korean Law Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Loan and Pledge; Credit Support Annex Subject to Korean Law);
(m) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form; ISDA Agreements Subject to New York Law Only), including any such form entered into between the Parties pursuant to the ISDA 2016 Variation Margin Protocol;
(n) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreements Subject to English Law), including any such form entered into between the Parties pursuant to the ISDA 2016 Variation Margin Protocol;
(o) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form—Loan; ISDA Agreements Subject to Japanese Law), including any such form entered into between the Parties pursuant to the ISDA 2016 Variation Margin Protocol;
(p) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreements Subject to French Law); or
(q) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreements Subject to Irish Law).
ISDA Master Agreement means an ISDA 2002 Master Agreement, an ISDA 2002 Master Agreement (French law), an ISDA 2002 Master Agreement (Irish law), a 1992 ISDA Master Agreement (Multicurrency—Cross Border), a 1992 ISDA Master Agreement (Local Currency—Single Jurisdiction), a 1987 ISDA Interest Rate Swap Agreement or a 1987 ISDA Interest Rate and Currency Exchange Agreement, in each case as published by ISDA.
Master Agreement means an agreement which may be an ISDA Master Agreement or an Additional Master Agreement that has been entered into (a) by execution by the parties thereto (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent) or (b) by execution by the parties thereto (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent) of a Confirmation pursuant to which a party is deemed to have entered into an ISDA Master Agreement or an Additional Master Agreement with the other party.
New Client has the meaning given to such term in paragraph 3(h)(i) above.
Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents has the meaning given to such term in subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above.
Platform has the meaning given to such term in paragraph 3(g)(i)(A) above.
Protocol has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof.
Protocol Business Day means a day following the Protocol Effective Date on which commercial banks and foreign exchange markets are generally open to settle payments in both London and New York.
Protocol Covered Confirmation means, subject to subparagraph 3(g)(vi) above, a Confirmation which is entered into between two Adhering Parties (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent and, if through the agency of an Agent, whether executed by that Agent or by an entity on behalf of that Agent), has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere) and:
(a) supplements, forms part of and is subject to, or is otherwise governed by, a Master Agreement and incorporates a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet;
(b) supplements, forms part of and is subject to, or is otherwise governed by, a Master Agreement and references a Relevant IBOR “as defined” in, or otherwise provides that the Relevant IBOR has the meaning given in, a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet (regardless of whether such Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet is incorporated in full in that Confirmation); and/or
(c) supplements, forms part of and is subject to, or is otherwise governed by, a Master Agreement and references a Relevant IBOR, howsoever defined.
Protocol Covered Credit Support Document 1 means, subject to subparagraph 3(g)(vi) above, any ISDA Credit Support Document or Additional Credit Support Document which is entered into between two Adhering Parties (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent and, if through the agency of an Agent, whether executed by that Agent or by an entity on behalf of that Agent), has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere) and:
(a) Incorporates a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet;
(b) References a Relevant IBOR “as defined” in, or otherwise provides that the Relevant IBOR has the meaning given in, a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet (regardless of whether such Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet is incorporated in full in that ISDA Credit Support Document or Additional Credit Support Document); and/or
(c) References a Relevant IBOR, howsoever defined.
1 Note that the parties to any credit support document that is amended by the Protocol should consider whether they need to take any steps to reconfirm or retake any security or otherwise satisfy any formalities under or in connection with the relevant credit support document as a result of the amendment made by the Protocol.
Protocol Covered Document Date means, in respect of any document, the date of such document, howsoever described therein, provided that (a) if such document has different dates specified therein, one of which includes a date specified as an “as of” date, such date shall be the Protocol Covered Document Date, and (b) if such document is a Confirmation (other than a master confirmation agreement, including any related general terms confirmation), the Protocol Covered Document Date shall be the Trade Date.
Protocol Covered Documents means Protocol Covered Confirmations, Protocol Covered Master Agreements and Protocol Covered Credit Support Documents, other than any such documentation governing cleared transactions (including any transactions that are “Client Transactions” (or in substance equivalent) under a 2016 ISDA/FIA Client Cleared OTC Derivatives Addendum or any agreement that in substance relates to the same matters as those contemplated by the 2016 ISDA/FIA Client Cleared OTC Derivatives Addendum between a clearing member and its client).
Protocol Covered Master Agreement means, subject to subparagraph 3(g)(vi) above, a Master Agreement which is entered into (or deemed entered into) between two Adhering Parties (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent and, if through the agency of an Agent, whether executed by that Agent or by an entity on behalf of that Agent), has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere) and:
(a) Incorporates a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet;
(b) References a Relevant IBOR “as defined” in, or otherwise provides that the Relevant IBOR has the meaning given in, a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet (regardless of whether such Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet is incorporated in full in that Master Agreement); and/or
(c) References a Relevant IBOR, howsoever defined.
Protocol Effective Date has the meaning given to such term in subparagraph 1(c)(A) above.
Relevant IBOR means:
(a) Any of sterling LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), Swiss franc LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), U.S. dollar LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), euro LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), the euro interbank offered rate, Japanese yen LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the bank bill swap rate, the Canadian dollar offered rate, the Hong Kong interbank offered rate, the Singapore dollar swap offer rate and the Thai baht interest rate fixing; and
(b) LIBOR (London interbank offered rate) with no reference to, or indication of, the currency of the relevant LIBOR (London interbank offered rate) (including, for the avoidance of doubt, the reference in Section 7.3 (Corrections to Published Prices) of the 2005 ISDA Commodity Definitions to “the spot offered rate for deposits in the payment currency in the London interbank market as at approximately 11:00 a.m., London time”), in each case, howsoever defined or described (whether in English or in any other language) in the relevant Protocol Covered Document.
Revocation Date means, with respect to a Revocation Notice and an Adhering Party, the last Protocol Business Day of the calendar month following the calendar month in which that Revocation Notice is effectively delivered by that Adhering Party to ISDA.
Revocation Notice has the meaning given to such term in paragraph 1(e) above.
Third Party means, in relation to an agreement supported by a Third Party Credit Support Document, any party to such Third Party Credit Support Document other than either of the Adhering Parties which are parties to the agreement.
Third Party Credit Support Document means, with respect to an Adhering Party and a Protocol Covered Document, any Credit Support Document which is executed by one or more Third Parties (whether or not an Adhering Party is a party thereto), whether or not such document is specified as a Third Party Support Document or as a Credit Support Document therein or in the Protocol Covered Document.
Trade Date means, in respect of a Protocol Covered Confirmation (other than a master confirmation agreement, including any related general terms confirmation), the date on which the parties enter into the related transaction.
Exhibit 1 to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
Form of Adherence Letter
[Letterhead of Adhering Party]
[Date]
International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc.
Ladies and Gentlemen,
ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
The purpose of this letter is to confirm our adherence to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol as published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. (ISDA) on October 23, 2020 (the Protocol). By submitting this Adherence Letter, we confirm that we are an Adhering Party to the Protocol. This letter constitutes, as between each other Adhering Party and us, an Adherence Letter as referred to in the Protocol. The definitions and provisions contained in the Protocol are incorporated into this Adherence Letter, which will supplement and form part of each Protocol Covered Document between us and each other Adhering Party.
1. Specified Terms for Adhering Party as Principal
As between each Adhering Party and us, we acknowledge and agree that the amendments in the Attachment to the Protocol shall apply to each Protocol Covered Document to which we are a party in accordance with the terms of the Protocol and this Adherence Letter.
2. Appointment as Agent and Release
We hereby appoint ISDA as our agent for the limited purposes of the Protocol and accordingly we waive any rights and hereby release ISDA from any claims, actions or causes of action whatsoever (whether in contract, tort or otherwise) arising out of or in any way relating to this Adherence Letter or our adherence to the Protocol or any actions contemplated as being required by ISDA.
3. Arbitration Agreement and Class Action Waiver
By adhering to the Protocol, we agree that all claims or disputes arising out of or in connection with adherence to the Protocol shall be finally settled under the Rules of Arbitration of the International Chamber of Commerce (the Rules) by three arbitrators, and hereby waive any right to assert any such claims or disputes against ISDA as a representative or member in any class or representative action. The claimant(s) (as defined in the Rules) shall nominate one arbitrator in the `Request for Arbitration'. The respondent(s) (as defined in the Rules) shall nominate one arbitrator in the `Answer to the Request'. The two party-nominated arbitrators shall then have 30 days to agree, in consultation with the parties to the arbitration, upon the nomination of a third arbitrator to act as president of the tribunal, barring which the International Chamber of Commerce Court shall select the third arbitrator (or any arbitrator that claimant(s) or respondent(s) shall fail to nominate in accordance with the foregoing). This agreement to arbitrate shall not be affected by the Revocation Notice as described in the Protocol.
4. Payment
Each Adhering Party or, if such Adhering Party is a Client on whose behalf an Agent adheres to this Protocol, each Agent, that is classified by ISDA for purposes of membership of ISDA as an “ISDA Primary Member” must submit a one-time fee of U.S. $500 to ISDA at or before the submission of this Adherence Letter. Each Adhering Party or, if such Adhering Party is a Client on whose behalf an Agent adheres to this Protocol, each Agent, which is not an “ISDA Primary Member” is not required to submit a fee to ISDA if this Adherence Letter is submitted prior to the Protocol Effective Date. If an Adhering Party or, if such Adhering Party is a Client on whose behalf an Agent adheres to this Protocol, an Agent, which is not an “ISDA Primary Member” submits this Adherence Letter on or after the Protocol Effective Date, such Adhering Party or Agent (as applicable) must submit a one-time fee of U.S. $500 to ISDA at or before the submission of this Adherence Letter.
5. Contact Details
Our contact details for purposes of this Adherence Letter are:
Name:
Company Name:
Address:
Phone:
Fax:
Email:
We consent to the publication of a conformed copy of this letter by ISDA and to the disclosure by ISDA of the contents of this letter.
Yours faithfully,
[ADHERING PARTY] 2
By:
Name:
Title:
Note 2: Specify legal name of Adhering Party.
If you are an Agent, you may sign the Adherence Letter using one of the options below. Please note that, if you would like to adhere on behalf of yourself, as principal, and also on behalf of your Clients, as Agent, you must submit one adherence letter for yourself, as principal, and a second adherence letter on behalf of your Clients, as Agent, in the latter case, in accordance with one of the options set out below.
First, if you have the authority to adhere to this Protocol as Agent on behalf of all Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of [(a)] each fund, account or other principal (each, a “Client”) on whose behalf we have entered, or will enter, into a Protocol Covered Document and any New Clients added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document in the future [and (b) in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents, each Client which we name or identify through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) of the Protocol applies]”. If such a signature block is used, a separate Adherence Letter for each Client does not need to be submitted to ISDA and no specific names of Clients must be identified through a Platform (except if you elect for Option 2 in this Adherence Letter, in which case the Clients on whose behalf you are amending Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents should be identified through such Platform; you will be responsible for identifying such Clients and providing their LEIs. If you cannot or do not wish to name such Clients, then provided that you can identify the Clients by way of LEIs, you may identify such Clients using LEIs and without including any names). If you do not elect for Option 2 in this Adherence Letter, you should delete the wording in square brackets in the signature block.
Second, if you adhere to this Protocol as an agent on behalf of certain Clients only by specifically identifying such Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of [(a)] each fund, account or other principal (each a “Client”) which we name or identify through a Platform as being a Client on whose behalf we have entered, or will enter, into a Protocol Covered Document and any New Clients added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document and identified through a Platform as a New Client [and (b) in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents, each Client which we name or identify through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) of the Protocol applies]”. You will be responsible for identifying any Clients on whose behalf you have entered into, or will enter into, a Protocol Covered Document, any New Clients and any Clients on whose behalf you amend Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents and, in each case, providing their LEIs. If you cannot or do not wish to name such Clients, then provided that you can identify the Clients by way of LEIs, you may identify such Clients using LEIs and without including any names. If you do not elect for Option 2 in this Adherence Letter, you should delete the wording in square brackets in the signature block.
Third, if you adhere to this Protocol as an agent on behalf of certain Clients only by excluding certain Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of [(a)] each fund, account or other principal (each, a “Client”) on whose behalf we have entered, or will enter, into a Protocol Covered Document (except for those Clients which we identify through a Platform as excluded from adherence) and any New Clients added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document (except for any New Clients which we identify through a Platform as excluded from adherence) [and (b) in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents, each Client which we name or identify through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) of the Protocol applies]”. You will be responsible for identifying any excluded Clients and any Clients on whose behalf you amend Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents and, in each case, for providing their LEIs. If you cannot or do not wish to name those excluded Clients or those Clients on whose behalf you are amending Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents, then provided that you can identify them by way of LEIs, you may identify those Clients using LEIs and without including any names. If you do not elect for Option 2 in this Adherence Letter, you should delete the wording in square brackets in the signature block.
Fourth, if you adhere to this Protocol as an agent on behalf of no current Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting to amend each Protocol Covered Document (or other agreement which deems a Protocol Covered Document to have been created) between it (as agent) and each Adhering Party, with respect to New Clients.”
Specified Terms for Adhering Party as Agent 3
The election for Option 1 or Option 2 below should only be made by an Agent. Any entity which adheres to the Protocol and which is not acting as an Agent should not complete the election below.
As between each Adhering Party and us, we acknowledge and agree that the amendments in the Attachment to the Protocol shall apply to each:
Option 1
□ Protocol Covered Document into which we have entered on behalf of one or more Clients covered in accordance with the terms of the Protocol and this Adherence Letter (as contemplated by Option 1 in the Protocol); or
Option 2
□ Protocol Covered Document into (i) which we have entered on behalf of one or more Clients covered in accordance with the terms of the Protocol and this Adherence Letter and (ii) which we did not enter on behalf of one or more Clients but which we otherwise have the authority from the relevant Client to amend in accordance with and subject to the terms of the Protocol and this Adherence Letter (as contemplated by Option 2 in the Protocol).
We agree, in our capacity as Agent for the relevant Client(s), to provide each other Adhering Party, as soon as reasonably practicable following such other Adhering Party's written request (including by email), and in any event by no later than the end of the fifteenth calendar day following such request (and as required by and in accordance with subparagraph 3(g)(iv) of the Protocol), with reasonable evidence satisfactory to such other Adhering Party in its sole discretion supporting our authority to amend any Protocol Covered Document into which we did not enter on behalf of one or more Clients (whose name or identity we communicate to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) of the Protocol applies).
Failure to provide an Adhering Party with such evidence shall (unless the Agent is deemed to have provided such evidence, pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(iv) of the Protocol), only in respect of those Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents between the relevant Client(s) and such Adhering Party, result in this Adherence Letter being ineffective unless and until we, in our capacity as Agent for the relevant Client(s), are deemed to have provided that Adhering Party with such evidence pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(iv) of the Protocol. Failure to provide an Adhering Party with such evidence shall not give rise to a Potential Event of Default or an Event of Default (each as defined in the ISDA Master Agreement), or any similar event, under those Protocol Covered Documents or other contractual right of action under this Protocol or those Protocol Covered Documents.
Note 3: The descriptions of Option 1 and Option 2 in this Adherence Letter and of related provisions within the Protocol are intended for convenience of reference only. Adhering Parties should read the provisions of the Protocol before submitting an Adherence Letter. In the event of any inconsistency between the descriptions of Option 1 and Option 2 and related provisions in this Adherence Letter and the provisions of the Protocol, the provisions of the Protocol shall take precedence.
EXHIBIT 2 to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
Form of Revocation Notice
[Letterhead of Adhering Party]
[Date]
International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. Send to: isda@isda.org
Ladies and Gentlemen,
ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol—Designation of a Revocation Date
The purpose of this letter is to notify you that we wish to designate a Revocation Date as the last date on which an Implementation Date can occur pursuant to the terms of the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol as published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. (ISDA) on October 23, 2020 (the Protocol) in respect of any Protocol Covered Document between us and any other Adhering Party.
This letter constitutes a Revocation Notice as referred to in the Protocol.
We consent to the publication of the conformed copy of this notice by ISDA on and after the Revocation Date and to the disclosure by ISDA of the contents of this letter.
Yours faithfully,
[ADHERING PARTY] 4
By:
Name:
Title:
Signature:
Note 4: Specify legal name of Adhering Party.
If you are an Agent and act on behalf of multiple Clients, you may sign a Revocation Notice using one of the methods below. Alternatively, you may submit one Revocation Notice per Client.
First, if you have the authority to deliver a Revocation Notice for this Protocol as Agent on behalf of all Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of each fund, account or other principal (each, a “Client”) represented by us (as agent)” or such other language which indicates the Clients to which this letter is applicable. If such a signature block is used, a separate Revocation Notice for each Client does not need to be submitted to ISDA and no specific names of Clients must be identified in the Revocation Notice.
Second, if you have the authority to deliver a Revocation Notice for this Protocol as Agent on behalf of certain Clients only, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of each fund, account or other principal (each, a “Client”) represented by us (as agent) identified in the Revocation Notice or an appendix thereto”. If you cannot or do not wish to name such Clients, then provided that you can identify the revoking Clients by way of specific identifiers which will be known and recognized by allAdhering Parties with which the relevant Clients have entered into Confirmations, Master Agreements and/or credit support documents, you may identify such revoking Clients using specific identifiers and without including any names.
Paragraph 1(e) of the Protocol sets out the consequences of a Revocation Notice where an Agent adheres to the Protocol on behalf of a Client.
ANNEX to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
Additional Documents Annex
Part 1: Additional Master Agreements
(a) 2001 FBF Master Agreement relating to Transactions on Forward Financial Instruments.
(b) 2007 FBF Master Agreement relating to Transactions on Forward Financial Instruments.
(c) 2013 FBF Master Agreement relating to Transactions on Forward Financial Instruments.
(d) 1994 AFB Master Agreement for Foreign Exchange and Derivatives Transactions.
(e) 1997 AFTI/FBF Master Agreement for Loans of Securities.
(f) 2007 AFTI/FBF Master Agreement for Loans of Securities.
(g) 2007 FBF Master Agreement for Repurchase Transactions.
(h) 1994 AFTB Master Agreement for Repurchase Transactions with Delivery of Securities.
(i) Execution Annex with respect to the AFB/FBF 1994/2001/2007/2013 Master Agreements.
(j) 1997 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
(k) Annex III to the 1997 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
(l) 2009 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
(m) Annex III to the 2009 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
(n) 2013 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
(o) Annex III to the 2013 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
(p) 2003 Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
(q) 2013 Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association (for use in connection with certain ISDA definitions).
(r) 2013 Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association (non-ISDA version not for use in connection with any ISDA definitions).
(s) 1999 Bilateral Swiss Master Agreement for Repo Transactions published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
(t) 1999 Multilateral Swiss Master Agreement for Repo Transactions published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
(u) 2011 Swiss Master Agreement for Securities Lending and Borrowing prepared by the Swiss Bankers Association.
(v) 2001 Master Agreement for Financial Transactions sponsored by the Banking Federation of the European Union (EBF or FBE) in cooperation with the European Savings Banks Group (ESBG) and the European Association of Cooperative Banks (EACB).
(w) 2004 Master Agreement for Financial Transactions sponsored by the Banking Federation of the European Union (EBF or FBE) in cooperation with the European Savings Banks Group (ESBG) and the European Association of Cooperative Banks (EACB).
(x) 2020 Master Agreement for Financial Transactions sponsored by the Banking Federation of the European Union (EBF or FBE) in cooperation with the European Savings Banks Group (ESBG) and the European Association of Cooperative Banks (EACB).
(y) Austrian Master Agreement for Financial Transactions (Österreichischer Rahmenvertrag für Finanztermingeschäfte or ÖRV).
(z) 1997 International Foreign Exchange and Options Master Agreement (FEOMA).
(aa) 1993 International Foreign Exchange Master Agreement (IFEMA).
(bb) 1997 International Foreign Exchange Master Agreement (IFEMA).
(cc) 1997 International Currency Options Market (ICOM) Master Agreement.
(dd) 2005 International Foreign Exchange and Currency Option Master Agreement (IFXCO).
(ee) 1992 PSA/ISMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA).
(ff) 1995 PSA/ISMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA).
(gg) 2000 TBMA/ISMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA).
(hh) 2011 SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA).
(ii) 2000 ISLA Global Master Securities Lending Agreement (GMSLA).
(jj) 2010 ISLA Global Master Securities Lending Agreement (GMSLA).
(kk) 2018 ISLA Global Master Securities Lending Agreement (GMSLA)—Security Interest over Collateral.
(ll) 1993 TBMA/SIA Master Securities Loan Agreement (MSLA).
(mm) 2000 TBMA/SIA Master Securities Loan Agreement (MSLA).
(nn) 2017 SIFMA Master Securities Loan Agreement (MSLA).
(oo) 1987 PSA Master Repurchase Agreement (MRA).
(pp) 1996 TBMA Master Repurchase Agreement (MRA).
(qq) 2000 SIFMA Master OTC Options Agreement.
(rr) 1989 TBMA Master Dealer Agreement, OTC Option Transaction—U.S. Treasury Securities.
(ss) Emissions Master LF-IETA Master Agreement.
(tt) WSPP Agreement.
(uu) 2004 FIA Grid Trade Master Agreement.
(vv) EEI Master Power Purchase & Sale Agreement. (ww)
EL Master—Electricity Power Master Agreement.
(xx) 1994 LBMA/FEC International Bullion Master Agreement (English law version).
(yy) 1994 LBMA/FEC International Bullion Master Agreement (New York law version).
(zz) 1997 ASLA Australian Master Securities Lending Agreement (AMSLA).
(aaa) 2002 ASLA Australian Master Securities Lending Agreement (AMSLA).
(bbb) 2003 ASLA Australian Master Securities Lending Agreement (AMSLA).
(ccc) GISB Base Short-Term Contract for Sale and Purchase of Natural Gas.
(ddd) NAESB Base Contract for Sale and Purchase of Natural Gas.
(eee) 1996 Master Gilt Edged Stock Lending Agreement (GESLA).
(fff) 1996 Master Equity and Fixed Interest Stock Lending Agreement (MEFISLA).
(ggg) 1994 Equity and Fixed Interest Stock Lending (Agency) Agreement.
(hhh) 1994 Overseas Securities Lender's Agreement (OSLA).
(iii) 1995 Overseas Securities Lender's Agreement (OSLA).
(jjj) globalCOAL Standard Coal Trading Agreement (SCoTA).
(kkk) KOFIA Agreement on Margin Transactions.
(lll) KOFIA Agreement on Foreign Exchange Margin Trading.
(mmm) KOFIA Agreement on Securities Lending and Borrowing.
(nnn) KOFIA Agreement on Repurchase Agreement (Repo) between Institutions.
(ooo) KOFIA Agreement on Repurchase Agreement (Repo) with Customers.
(ppp) KOFIA best practice Korean language agreement template for OTC derivatives.
(qqq) Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (IIROC) Repurchase/Reverse Repurchase Transaction Agreement.
(rrr) Master Agreement Concerning Stock Lending Transactions (kabuken tou taishaku torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho) (including without limitation separate agreements to be executed pursuant to or in connection with that Master Agreement such as Supplemental Memorandum of Understanding (kabuken tou taishaku torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho fuzoku oboegaki)) published by Japan Securities Dealers Association.
(sss) Master Agreement Concerning Bond Lending Transactions (saiken taishaku torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho) (including without limitation separate agreements to be executed pursuant to or in connection with that Master Agreement such as Supplemental Memorandum of Understanding (saiken taishaku torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho fuzoku oboegaki)) published by Japan Securities Dealers Association.
(ttt) Master Agreement Concerning Bond Repo Transactions (saiken tou no gensaki torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho) (including without limitation separate agreements to be executed pursuant to or in connection with that Master Agreement such as Supplemental Memorandum of Understanding (saiken tou no gensaki torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho fuzoku oboegaki)) published by Japan Securities Dealers Association.
(uuu) Mexican Master Derivatives Agreement (Contrato Marco para Operaciones Financieras Derivadas) published by Asociación de Bancos de Mexico (ABM) y Asociación Mexicana de Instituciones Bursatiles (AMIB).
(vvv) Mexican Master Securities Purchase and Sale/Repo Agreement (Contrato Marco para Operaciones de Compraventa de Valores y Reporto) published by Asociación de Bancos de Mexico (ABM) y Asociación Mexicana de Instituciones Bursatiles (AMIB).
Part 2: Additional Credit Support Documents
(a) 2007 FBF Collateral Annex.
(b) 1997 ABF Collateral Annex.
(c) AFB/FBF Addendum to the ISDA 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM).
(d) 2008 Credit Support Appendix to the Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
(e) 2015 Credit Support Appendix to the Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
(f) Credit Support Appendix for Variation Margin to the Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
(g) Mexican Credit Support Agreement related to Derivatives (Contrato Global para Otorgar Garantías respecto de Operaciones Financieras Derivadas) published by Asociación de Bancos de Mexico (ABM) y Asociación Mexicana de Instituciones Bursatiles (AMIB).
Attachment to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
1. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Incorporating the 2006 ISDA Definitions
If a Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 2006 ISDA Definitions, the version of the 2006 ISDA Definitions so incorporated shall be amended in accordance with the terms of the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to a term defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the term as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions as amended in accordance with the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement).
2. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Incorporating the 2000 ISDA Definitions
If a Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 2000 ISDA Definitions, the version of the 2000 ISDA Definitions so incorporated shall be amended in accordance with the terms of the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to a term defined in the 2000 ISDA Definitions in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the term as defined in the 2000 ISDA Definitions as amended in accordance with the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement), provided that the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement shall be deemed amended as follows:
(a) Each of the following sections shall be deleted:
(i) “GBP-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(ii) “CHF-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(iii) “USD-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(iv) “EUR-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(v) “JPY-LIBOR-FRASETT”;
(vi) “JPY-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(vii) “JPY-TIBOR-TIBM-(All Banks)-Bloomberg”;
(viii) “AUD-BBR-BBSW-Bloomberg”;
(ix) “CAD-BA-CDOR-Bloomberg”; and
(x) “HKD-HIBOR-HKAB-Bloomberg”;
(b) The section titled “EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters” will be re-titled “EUR-EURIBOR-Telerate” and references in such section (or in related sections) to “EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters” will be deleted and replaced with “EUR-EURIBOR-Telerate”;
(c) The section titled “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW” will be re-titled “AUD-BBR-ISDC” and references in such section (or in related sections) to “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW” will be deleted and replaced with “AUD- BBR-ISDC”;
(d) The section titled “SGD-SOR-VWAP” will be re-titled “SGD-SOR-Telerate” and references in such section (or in related sections) to “SGD-SOR-VWAP” will be deleted and replaced with “SGD-SOR- Telerate”;
(e) Tn the section titled “THB-THBFIX-Reuters”, the paragraph entitled “No Index Cessation Effective Date” shall be deemed amended as follows:
(i) The words “THB-THBFIX-Reference Banks” as the applicable Floating Rate Option” will be deleted and replaced with the words ““THB-SOR-Reference Banks” as the applicable Floating Rate Option, but with the following variations:” and subparagraphs (a), (b) and (c) of Section 7.1(z)(iii) of the 2000 ISDA Definitions will be inserted immediately thereafter; and
(ii) The last sentence in that paragraph will be deleted; and
(f) All references to section numbers within the 2006 ISDA Definitions will be deemed to be references to the equivalent sections within the 2000 ISDA Definitions.
3. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Incorporating the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions
If a Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions, the version of the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions (as applicable) so incorporated shall be amended in accordance with the terms of the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to a term defined in the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the term as defined in the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions as amended in accordance with the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement), provided that the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement shall be deemed amended as follows:
(a) If the Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1991 ISDA Definitions only, the 1991 ISDA Definitions as supplemented by the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions only, each of the following sections shall be deleted:
(i) “GBP-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(ii) “CHF-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(iii) “USD-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(iv) “EUR-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(v) “EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters”;
(vi) “JPY-LIBOR-FRASETT”;
(vii) “JPY-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(viii) “JPY-TIBOR-17097”;
(ix) “JPY-TIBOR-TIBM-(All Banks)-Bloomberg”;
(x) “AUD-BBR-BBSW-Bloomberg”;
(xi) “CAD-BA-CDOR-Bloomberg”;
(xii) “HKD-HIBOR-HKAB-Bloomberg”; and
(xiii) “THB-THBFIX-Reuters”;
(b) If the Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1991 ISDA Definitions only, each of the following sections shall be deleted:
(i) “JPY-TIBOR-ZTIBOR”; and
(ii) “SGD-SOR-VWAP”;
(c) If the Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1991 ISDA Definitions as supplemented by the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions only, the section titled “SGD-SOR-VWAP” will be re-titled “SGD-SOR-Telerate” and references in such section (or in related sections) to “SGD-SOR-VWAP” will be deleted and replaced with “SGD-SOR- Telerate”;
(d) The section titled “EUR-LIBOR-BBA” will be re-titled “XEU-LIBOR-BBA” and references in such section (or in related sections) to “EUR-LIBOR-BBA” will be deleted and replaced with “XEU- LIBOR-BBA”;
(e) The section titled “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW” will be re-titled “AUD-BBR-ISDC” and references in such section (or in related sections) to “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW” will be deleted and replaced with “AUD-BBR-ISDC”; and
(f) All references to section numbers within the 2006 ISDA Definitions will be deemed to be references to the equivalent sections within the 1991 ISDA Definitions or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions (as applicable).
4. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Incorporating the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions
If a Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions:
(a) the version of the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions so incorporated shall be amended in accordance with the terms of the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to a term defined in the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the term as defined in the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions as amended in accordance with the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement), provided that the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement shall be deemed amended as follows:
(i) Each of the following sections shall be deleted:
(A) “GBP-LIBOR-BBA”;
(B) “GBP-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(C) “CHF-LIBOR-BBA”;
(D) “CHF-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(E) “USD-LIBOR-BBA”;
(F) “USD-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(G) “EUR-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(H) “JPY-LIBOR-FRASETT”;
(I) “JPY-LIBOR-BBA”;
(J) “JPY-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;
(K) “JPY-TIBOR-17097”;
(L) “JPY-TIBOR-TIBM-(All Banks)-Bloomberg”;
(M) “JPY-TIBOR-ZTIBOR”;
(N) “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW”;
(O) “AUD-BBR-BBSW”;
(P) “AUD-BBR-BBSW-Bloomberg”;
(Q) “CAD-BA-CDOR”;
(R) “CAD-BA-CDOR-Bloomberg”;
(S) “HKD-HIBOR-HKAB”;
(T) “HKD-HIBOR-HKAB-Bloomberg”;
(U) “SGD-SOR-VWAP”; and
(V) “THB-THBFIX-Reuters”;
(ii) the section titled “EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters” will be re-titled “EUR-EURIBOR- Telerate” and references in such section (or in related sections) to “EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters” will be deleted and replaced with “EUR-EURIBOR-Telerate”; and
(iii) all references to section numbers within the 2006 ISDA Definitions will be deemed to be references to the equivalent sections within the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions.
(b) If a Relevant Rate (as defined in the 1991 ISDA Definitions) is to be determined pursuant to Section 4.3(b) (Price Source Fallbacks) of the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions and “rates for deposits in euros” referred to in that section are required for any determination but are not available, they shall be deemed to be references to a Relevant IBOR (and, in particular, the euro interbank offered rate) to which paragraph 6 of this Attachment applies.
5. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Which Reference a Relevant IBOR “as defined”, or as Having the Meaning Given, in a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet
A Protocol Covered Document of the type described in subparagraph (b) of, respectively, the definition of Protocol Covered Confirmation, Protocol Covered Credit Support Document or Protocol Covered Master Agreement shall be amended so that the reference to the Relevant IBOR “as defined in”, or the reference to the Relevant IBOR as having the meaning given in, the Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet will instead be a reference to the relevant Rate Option in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (or, if there is more than one relevant Rate Option, the first relevant Rate Option in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement) for the Relevant IBOR “as defined in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement” (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to the Relevant IBOR (as defined in that Protocol Covered Master Agreement) in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the relevant Rate Option in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (or, if there is more than one relevant Rate Option, the first relevant Rate Option in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement) for the Relevant IBOR “as defined in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement”), provided that:
(a) If the Relevant IBOR is:
(i) “EUR-EURIBOR-Telerate”, it will be deemed to be a reference to “EUR-EURIBOR- Reuters”;
(ii) “AUD-BBR-ISDC”, it will be deemed to be a reference to “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW”;
(iii) “XEU-LIBOR-BBA”, it will be deemed to be a reference to “EUR-LIBOR-BBA”; and
(iv) “SGD-SOR-Telerate”, it will be deemed to be a reference to “SGD-SOR-VWAP”, in each case, as defined in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement; and
(b) If the Relevant IBOR is “THB-THBFIX-Reuters” and the Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet is the 2000 ISDA Definitions, the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement shall be deemed amended in accordance with subparagraph 2(e) of this Attachment.
6. Amendments to Certain Protocol Covered Documents That Reference a Relevant IBOR
If a Protocol Covered Document is of the type described in subparagraph (c) of, respectively, the definition of Protocol Covered Confirmation, Protocol Covered Credit Support Document or Protocol Covered Master Agreement and, in each case, includes a reference to a Relevant IBOR pursuant to which the Relevant IBOR is required for any determination, and:
(a) (i) the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is neither the Singapore dollar swap offer rate nor the Thai baht interest rate fixing, (ii) the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination has not been published by the source that is specified or otherwise ordinarily used to determine the level of the Relevant IBOR on the day on which it is required, and (iii) an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the Relevant IBOR has not occurred, then the reference to the Relevant IBOR will be deemed to be a reference to the rate as provided by the administrator of the Relevant IBOR and published by an authorized distributor of the Relevant IBOR or the administrator of the Relevant IBOR itself in respect of the day on which it is required. If neither an authorized distributor nor the administrator has published or provided the Relevant IBOR in respect of that day and an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the Relevant IBOR has not occurred, then, unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the reference to the Relevant IBOR will be deemed to be a reference to:
(A) A rate formally recommended for use by the administrator of the Relevant IBOR; or
(B) A rate formally recommended for use by:
(I) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is Swiss franc LIBOR, the competent authority responsible for supervising that rate or the administrator of that rate;
(II) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is sterling LIBOR, euro LIBOR or the euro interbank offered rate, the supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Relevant IBOR or the administrator of the Relevant IBOR;
(III) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is Japanese yen LIBOR, the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate or the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Bank of Japan for the purposes of recommending an alternative rate for that Relevant IBOR (which rate may be produced by the Bank of Japan or another administrator) or any other supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Relevant IBOR or the administrator of the Relevant IBOR;
(IV) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is U.S. dollar LIBOR, the Federal Reserve Board or the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or any other supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Relevant IBOR or the administrator of the Relevant IBOR; and
(V) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the bank bill swap rate, the Australian Securities and Investments Commission (or any successor to the Australian Securities and Investments Commission in its role as supervisor of the bank bill swap rate),
In each case, during the period of non-publication of the Relevant IBOR and for so long as an Index Cessation Effective Date has not occurred. If a rate described in subparagraph (A) above is available, that rate shall apply. If no such rate is available but, in respect of the Relevant IBOR, a rate described in subparagraph (B) above, if applicable, is available, that rate shall apply. If neither a rate described in subparagraph (A) above is available nor a rate described in subparagraph (B) above, if applicable, is available, then the Calculation Agent shall determine a commercially reasonable alternative for the Relevant IBOR, taking into account any rate implemented by central counterparties and/or futures exchanges, in each case with trading volumes in derivatives or futures referencing the Relevant IBOR that the Calculation Agent considers sufficient for that rate to be a representative alternative rate.
If the Relevant IBOR is the Hong Kong interbank offered rate and the Protocol Covered Document provides that the Hong Kong Association of Banks' (or any successor's) typhoon and rainstorm arrangements (as published on the Hong Kong Association of Banks' website or on any successor website) apply, then those typhoon and rainstorm arrangements shall continue to apply and shall take precedence over the provisions of this paragraph 6(a);
(b) (i) The Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate, (ii) the Singapore dollar swap offer rate has not been published by the source that is specified or otherwise ordinarily used to determine the level of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate on the day on which it is required and (iii) an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred, then the reference to the Singapore dollar swap offer rate will be deemed to be a reference to the substitute rate announced by ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. (or its successor as administrator or sponsor of that rate) in respect of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate.
If ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. (or its successor as administrator or sponsor of that rate) has not announced a substitute rate by 9:00 p.m., Singapore time, on the Relevant Original Fixing Date and an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred, then, unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the reference to the Singapore dollar swap offer rate will be deemed to be a reference to:
(A) A rate formally recommended for use by the administrator of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate; or
(B) A rate formally recommended for use by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (or any other supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the administrator of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate) or a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (or any other supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the administrator of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate), in each case, during the period of non-publication of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate and for so long as an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred. If a rate described in subparagraph (A) above is available, that rate shall apply. If no such rate is available but a rate described in subparagraph (B) above is available, that rate shall apply. If neither a rate described in subparagraph (A) above nor a rate described in subparagraph (B) above is available, then the Calculation Agent shall determine a commercially reasonable alternative for the Singapore dollar swap offer rate, taking into account any rate implemented by central counterparties and/or futures exchanges, in each case with trading volumes in derivatives or futures referencing the Singapore dollar swap offer rate that the Calculation Agent considers sufficient for that rate to be a representative alternative rate;
(c) (i) the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the Thai baht interest rate fixing, (ii) the Thai baht interest rate fixing has not been published by the source that is specified or otherwise ordinarily used to determine the level of the Thai baht interest rate fixing on the day on which it is required and (iii) an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred, then the reference to the Thai baht interest rate fixing will be deemed to be a reference to “THB-THBFIX-Reference Banks” (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) but with the references to (A) “Reset Date” being replaced by “the day on which the rate is required”; (B) “Designated Maturity” being replaced by “the period of time in respect of which the Thai baht interest rate fixing is to be determined”; (C) “Calculation Period” being replaced by “period”; and (D) “Representative Amount” being replaced by “an amount that is representative for a single transaction in the relevant market at the relevant time”. If the rate cannot be determined pursuant to “THB-THBFIX-Reference Banks” (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) andan Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred, the rate will be determined by the Calculation Agent taking into consideration all available information that in good faith it deems relevant;
(d) Subject to paragraphs 6(e), (f) and (g) below, an Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to the Relevant IBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR), then the reference to the Relevant IBOR will be deemed to be a reference to the Applicable Fallback Rate from and including either the Index Cessation Effective Date or, if the Relevant IBOR is observed on a day that is a period of time prior to the date for which the Relevant IBOR is set, such period of time following the Index Cessation Effective Date, provided that:
(i) If the Applicable Fallback Rate is Fallback Rate (SONIA), Fallback Rate (SARON), Fallback Rate (SOFR), Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), Fallback Rate (TONA), Fallback Rate (AONIA), Fallback Rate (CORRA), Fallback Rate (HONIA), Fallback Rate (SOR) or Fallback Rate (THBFIX), then the rate for the Relevant Original Fixing Date will be the Applicable Fallback Rate for the `Original IBOR Rate Record Day' (or, if Fallback Rate (SOR) or Fallback Rate (THBFIX) is the Applicable Fallback Rate, for the `Original SOR Rate Record Day' or `Original THBFIX Rate Record Day', as applicable) that corresponds to the Relevant Original Fixing Date, as most recently provided or published as at the Applicable Cut-off Time. If neither the provider of the Applicable Fallback Rate (or a successor provider, which, if the Applicable Fallback Rate is Fallback Rate (SONIA), Fallback Rate (SARON), Fallback Rate (SOFR), Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), Fallback Rate (TONA), Fallback Rate (AONIA), Fallback Rate (CORRA) or Fallback Rate (HONIA), is approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time) provides, nor any authorized distributors publish, the Applicable Fallback Rate for that `Original IBOR Rate Record Day' (or that `Original SOR Rate Record Day' or `Original THBFIX Rate Record Day', as applicable) at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to that Applicable Fallback Rate has not occurred, then the rate for the Relevant Original Fixing Date will be the Applicable Fallback Rate as most recently provided or published at the Applicable Cut-off Time for the most recent `Original IBOR Rate Record Day' (or `Original SOR Rate Record Day' or `Original THBFIX Rate Record Day', as applicable), notwithstanding that such day does not correspond to the Relevant Original Fixing Date;
(ii) If (A) the Applicable Fallback Rate is SONIA, the GBP Recommended Rate, SARON, the NWG Recommended Rate, the Modified SNB Policy Rate, SOFR, the Fed Recommended Rate, OBFR, the FOMC Target Rate, EuroSTR, the ECB Recommended Rate, Modified EDFR, TONA, the JPY Recommended Rate, AONIA, the RBA Recommended Rate, CORRA, the CAD Recommended Rate, the BOC Target Rate, HONIA, the HKD Recommended Rate, the MAS Recommended Rate, SORA, the BOT Recommended Rate or THOR, (B) neither the administrator provides nor authorized distributors publish that Applicable Fallback Rate (or if the Applicable Fallback Rate is the Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the definition thereof) and (C) a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to that Applicable Fallback Rate has not occurred, then, in respect of any day for which that Applicable Fallback Rate is required, references to that Applicable Fallback Rate will be deemed to be references to the last provided or published Applicable Fallback Rate. If the Applicable Fallback Rate is the Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, references to that Applicable Fallback Rate in subparagraph 6(d)(ii)(C) above shall be deemed to be references to the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the definition of Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, as applicable; and
(iii) If the Applicable Fallback Rate is UK Bank Rate, in respect of any day for which the UK Bank Rate is required, references to the UK Bank Rate will be deemed to be references to the last provided or published UK Bank Rate as at close of business in London on that day.
If the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, an Index Cessation Event with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR will also occur if the Relevant IBOR in the relevant tenor (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be equivalent to the “Designated Maturity”) has not been published by the source that is specified or otherwise ordinarily used to determine the level of the Relevant IBOR and, as of the Relevant Original Fixing Date, U.S. dollar LIBOR in the relevant tenor (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be equivalent to the “Designated Maturity”) has been permanently discontinued or is Non-Representative and there is either no U.S. dollar LIBOR which has not been permanently discontinued and which is not Non-Representative for a period which is longer than that relevant tenor or no U.S. dollar LIBOR which has not been permanently discontinued and which is not Non-Representative for a period which is shorter than that relevant tenor. The related Index Cessation Effective Date shall be the first date on which there is no such longer or shorter rate or, if later, the first date on which U.S. dollar LIBOR in the relevant tenor (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be equivalent to the “Designated Maturity”) is permanently unavailable or Non-Representative.
For the purposes of this paragraph 6(d), references to an “Original IBOR Rate Record Day”, “Original SOR Rate Record Day” and “Original THBFIX Rate Record Day” are to that term as used on the Fallback Rate Screen. For the purposes of the immediately preceding paragraph above, (A) references to a rate being “permanently discontinued” or “permanently unavailable” shall be deemed to be references to such rate being permanently discontinued or permanently unavailable following a public statement or publication of information which would constitute an Index Cessation Event in accordance with subparagraphs (a) and (b) of the definition thereof in respect of that rate in the relevant tenor and (B) references to “U.S. dollar LIBOR” in the definition of “Non-Representative” shall be deemed to be references to the relevant tenor of U.S. dollar LIBOR;
(e) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is neither the Singapore dollar swap offer rate nor the Thai baht interest rate fixing and:
(i) The determination for which the Relevant IBOR is required is ordinarily made by reference to linear interpolation between two rates, each of which is based on the Relevant IBOR, then (notwithstanding paragraph 6(d) above) the provisions of Section 7.9(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be deemed to apply, provided that the Calculation Agent shall make such adaptations as are reasonable and necessary to the provisions of Section 7.9(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions in order to apply them to the relevant Protocol Covered Document;
(ii) The Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is to be determined by reference to one or more rates, either (A) at least one of which has been permanently discontinued, or (B) if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, at least one of which is Non-Representative, and, in either case, at least two Relevant IBOR tenors, at least one of which is shorter than the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined and at least one of which is longer than the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined, have not been permanently discontinued (and, if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, are not Non- Representative), then the provisions of Section 8.5 and Section 8.6 of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be deemed to apply, provided that the Calculation Agent shall make such adaptations as are reasonable and necessary to the provisions of Sections 8.5 and 8.6 of the 2006 ISDA Definitions in order to apply them to the relevant Protocol Covered Document;
(iii) The Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is to be determined by reference to a tenor of the Relevant IBOR which has been permanently discontinued (or, if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, which is Non-Representative), and there are either no shorter or no longer tenors in respect of the Relevant IBOR which have not been permanently discontinued (or, if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, which are not Non-Representative), then an Index Cessation Event shall be deemed to have occurred with respect to the Relevant IBOR and the Index Cessation Effective Date shall be the first date on which there is either no such shorter or no such longer tenor or, if later, the first date on which the Relevant IBOR in the relevant tenor is permanently unavailable (or, if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, Non-Representative);
(iv) In the event of any inconsistency between the provisions of subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above and the provisions of subparagraph 6(e)(i) above, subparagraph 6(e)(i) above shall prevail; and
(v) In the event of any inconsistency between the provisions of subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above and paragraph 6(d) above (including any terms used in paragraph 6(d) above and defined below), subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above (as applicable) shall prevail,
For the purposes of this paragraph 6(e), (A) references to a rate being “permanently discontinued” shall be deemed to be references to such rate being permanently discontinued following a public statement or publication of information which would constitute an Index Cessation Event in accordance with subparagraphs (a) and (b) of the definition thereof in respect of that rate in the relevant tenor, (B) references to the “Relevant LIBOR” in the definition of “Non-Representative” shall be deemed to be references to the relevant tenor of the Relevant LIBOR and (C) Section 7.9(a), 8.5 and 8.6 of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be construed in accordance with Sections 7.3(r) and 7.3(s) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions;
(f) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing and the determination for which the Relevant IBOR is required is ordinarily made by reference to linear interpolation between two rates, each of which is based on the Relevant IBOR, then (notwithstanding paragraph 6(d) above) the provisions of Section 7.10(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be deemed to apply, provided that the Calculation Agent shall make such adaptations as are reasonable and necessary to the provisions of Section 7.10(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions in order to apply them to the relevant Protocol Covered Document.
For the purposes of this paragraph 6(f), Section 7.10(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be construed in accordance with Sections 7.3(r) and 7.3(s) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions;
(g) If (i) the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing and the Applicable Fallback Rate is Fallback Rate (SOR) or Fallback Rate (THBFIX), as applicable, (ii) the determination for which the Relevant IBOR is required is not ordinarily made by reference to linear interpolation between two rates and (iii) the period of time for which the rate is required (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Calculation Period”) is shorter than the Relevant IBOR in the relevant tenor (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Designated Maturity”), then (notwithstanding paragraph 6(d) above) the provisions of Section 7.11(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be deemed to apply, provided that the Calculation Agent shall make such adaptations as are reasonable and necessary to the provisions of Section 7.11(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions in order to apply them to the relevant Protocol Covered Document; and
(h) If the definition, methodology, formula or other means of calculating the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate (or, if applicable, the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate) is modified, each party acknowledges that, unless otherwise specified or agreed, references to that Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate (or the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate) shall be to the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate (or the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate) as modified. In the event of any inconsistency between this paragraph 6(h) and paragraphs 6(a) through 6(d) above (including any terms used in those paragraphs and defined below and including subparagraphs 6(e)(ii) and 6(e)(iii) above as they apply in priority to paragraph 6(d) above), paragraphs 6(a) through 6(d) above including subparagraphs 6(e)(ii) and 6(e)(iii) as they apply in priority to paragraph 6(d) above shall prevail.
If the Relevant IBOR referenced in the Protocol Covered Document is LIBOR with no reference to, or indication of, the currency of the relevant LIBOR (including, for the avoidance of doubt, the reference in Section 7.3 (Corrections to Published Prices) of the 2005 ISDA Commodity Definitions to “the spot offered rate for deposits in the payment currency in the London interbank market as at approximately 11:00 a.m., London time”), then the reference to LIBOR (howsoever defined or described) in the Protocol Covered Document will be deemed to be a reference to LIBOR in the currency of the related payment for which LIBOR is required pursuant to the terms of the Protocol Covered Document and paragraphs 6(a), 6(d) and 6(e) above, and the related definitions below, shall be construed accordingly.
For the purposes of any Protocol Covered Document which does not include a definition of “Calculation Agent”, the term “Calculation Agent” shall be deemed to be a reference to a party or parties who would ordinarily be responsible for calculating or determining any rates or amounts payable under the relevant Protocol Covered Document and performing any associated duties.
If the Protocol Covered Document to which this paragraph 6 applies is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, the Relevant IBOR is defined in the Protocol Covered Master Agreement and that definition is referenced in a Confirmation that supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement, then the reference in the Protocol Covered Master Agreement to the Relevant IBOR as amended by this paragraph 6 will also apply to the reference to the Relevant IBOR in that Confirmation.
For these purposes:
“Applicable Banking Days” means, if the Relevant IBOR is:
(a) Swiss franc LIBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR or Japanese yen LIBOR, London Banking Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions);
(b) Euro LIBOR or the euro interbank offered rate, TARGET Settlement Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions);
(c) The Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate or the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, Tokyo Banking Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions);
(d) The Singapore dollar swap offer rate, Singapore and London Banking Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions); and
(e) The Thai baht interest rate fixing, Bangkok Banking Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions).
“Applicable Cut-off Time” means:
(a) for Fallback Rate (SONIA), 11:30 a.m., London time;
(b) for Fallback Rate (SARON), 8:30 p.m., Zurich time;
(c) for Fallback Rate (SOFR), 10:30 a.m., New York City time;
(d) for Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), 11:30 a.m., Frankfurt time;
(e) for Fallback Rate (TONA), 12:30 p.m., Tokyo time;
(f) for Fallback Rate (AONIA), 11:30 a.m., Sydney time;
(g) for Fallback Rate (CORRA), 11:30 a.m., Toronto time;
(h) for Fallback Rate (HONIA), 7:30 p.m., Hong Kong time;
(i) for Fallback Rate (SOR), 11:30 a.m., New York City time; and
(j) for Fallback Rate (THBFIX), 10:00 a.m., Bangkok time, in each case, on the Fallback Observation Day.
“Applicable Fallback Rate” means, in respect of a Relevant IBOR, for the purposes of:
(a) Sterling LIBOR, Fallback Rate (SONIA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA) will be the Sterling Overnight Index Average (“SONIA”) rate administered by the Bank of England (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SONIA)” after making such adjustments to SONIA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of SONIA by comparison to Fallback Rate (SONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (SONIA) and SONIA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SONIA) will be the GBP Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SONIA)” after making such adjustments to the GBP Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the GBP Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If there is no GBP Recommended Rate before the end of the first London Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA) (or, if later, the end of the first London Banking Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SONIA), or there is a GBP Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SONIA) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the GBP Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be the UK Bank Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SONIA)” after making such adjustments to the UK Bank Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the UK Bank Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
(b) Swiss franc LIBOR, Fallback Rate (SARON) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) will be the Swiss Average Rate Overnight (“SARON”) administered by SIX Swiss Exchange AG (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SARON)” after making such adjustments to SARON as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of SARON by comparison to Fallback Rate (SARON) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (SARON) and SARON, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SARON) will be the NWG Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SARON)” after making such adjustments to the NWG Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the NWG Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SARON) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
If there is no NWG Recommended Rate before the end of the first Zurich Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) (or, if later, the end of the first Zurich Banking Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SARON), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SARON) will be the Modified SNB Policy Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SARON)” after making such adjustments to the Modified SNB Policy Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the Modified SNB Policy Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SARON) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
(c) U.S. dollar LIBOR, Fallback Rate (SOFR) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR) will be the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (“SOFR”) administered by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” after making such adjustments to SOFR as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of SOFR by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOFR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (SOFR) and SOFR, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SOFR) will be the Fed Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” after making such adjustments to the Fed Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the Fed Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOFR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If there is no Fed Recommended Rate before the end of the first U.S. Government Securities Business Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR) (or, if later, the end of the first U.S. Government Securities Business Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SOFR), or there is a Fed Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SOFR) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the Fed Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be OBFR, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” after making such adjustments to OBFR as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of OBFR by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOFR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
If there is no Fed Recommended Rate, or there is a Fed Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date also occurs with respect to OBFR, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to OBFR (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the Fed Recommended Rate, SOFR or Fallback Rate (SOFR), as applicable) will be the FOMC Target Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” after making such adjustments to the FOMC Target Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the FOMC Target Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOFR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
(d) Euro LIBOR and the euro interbank offered rate, Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) will be the Euro Short-Term Rate (“EuroSTR”) administered by the European Central Bank (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (EuroSTR)” after making such adjustments to EuroSTR as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of EuroSTR by comparison to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) and EuroSTR, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to EuroSTR) will be the ECB Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (EuroSTR)” after making such adjustments to the ECB Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the ECB Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
If no ECB Recommended Rate is recommended before the end of the first TARGET Settlement Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) (or, if later, the end of the first TARGET Settlement Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to EuroSTR), or a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the ECB Recommended Rate subsequently occurs, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) (or, if later, the Fallback IndexCessation Effective Date with respect to EuroSTR) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the ECB Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be Modified EDFR, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (EuroSTR)” after making such adjustments to Modified EDFR as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of Modified EDFR by comparison to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
(e) Japanese yen LIBOR, the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate and the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, Fallback Rate (TONA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA) will be the Tokyo Overnight Average Rate (“TONA”) administered by the Bank of Japan (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (TONA)” after making such adjustments to TONA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of TONA by comparison to Fallback Rate (TONA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (TONA) and TONA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to TONA) will be the JPY Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (TONA)” after making such adjustments to the JPY Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the JPY Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (TONA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
(f) The bank bill swap rate, Fallback Rate (AONIA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA) will be the interbank overnight cash rate (“AONIA”) administered by the Reserve Bank of Australia (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (AONIA)” after making such adjustments to AONIA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of AONIA by comparison to Fallback Rate (AONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (AONIA) and AONIA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to AONIA) will be the RBA Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (AONIA)” after making such adjustments to the RBA Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the RBA Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (AONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
(g) The Canadian dollar offered rate, Fallback Rate (CORRA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA) will be the Canadian Overnight Repo Rate Average (“CORRA”) administered by the Bank of Canada (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (CORRA)” after making such adjustments to CORRA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of CORRA by comparison to Fallback Rate (CORRA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (CORRA) and CORRA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to CORRA) will be the CAD Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (CORRA)” after making such adjustments to the CAD Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the CAD Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (CORRA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If there is no CAD Recommended Rate before the end of the first Toronto Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA) (or, if later, the end of the first Toronto Banking Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to CORRA), or there is a CAD Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to CORRA) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the CAD Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be the BOC Target Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (CORRA)” after making such adjustments to the BOC Target Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the BOC Target Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (CORRA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
(h) The Hong Kong interbank offered rate, Fallback Rate (HONIA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA) will be the Hong Kong Dollar Overnight Index Average (“HONIA”) rate administered by the Treasury Markets Association (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (HONIA)” after making such adjustments to HONIA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of HONIA by comparison to Fallback Rate (HONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (HONIA) and HONIA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to HONIA) will be the HKD Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (HONIA)” after making such adjustments to the HKD Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the HKD Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (HONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book; the Singapore dollar swap offer rate, Fallback Rate (SOR) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (SOR), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOR) will be the MAS Recommended Rate or, if there is no MAS Recommended Rate before the end of the first Singapore Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOR), or there is a MAS Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOR) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the MAS Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be SORA, to which the Calculation Agent shall make such adjustments as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of SORA by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOR) and by reference to the Calculation Methodology for Fallback Rate (SOR); and
(i) The Thai baht interest rate fixing, Fallback Rate (THBFIX) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (THBFIX), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (THBFIX) will be the BOT Recommended Rate or, if there is no BOT Recommended Rate before the end of the first Bangkok Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (THBFIX), or there is a BOT Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (THBFIX) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the BOT Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be THOR, to which the Calculation Agent shall make such adjustments as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of THOR by comparison to Fallback Rate (THBFIX) and by reference to the Bank of Thailand THBFIX Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
“Bank of Thailand THBFIX Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book” means the THBFIX Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book published by the Bank of Thailand as updated from time to time.
“Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book” means the IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book published by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time) as updated from time to time in accordance with its terms.
“BOC Target Rate” means the Bank of Canada's Target for the Overnight Rate as set by the Bank of Canada and published on the Bank of Canada's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions).
“BOT Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for Fallback Rate (THBFIX) by the Bank of Thailand or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Bank of Thailand (which rate may be produced by the Bank of Thailand or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate in respect of the day for which that rate is required (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Reset Date”) or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator of that rate (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“CAD Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for CORRA by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Bank of Canada for the purpose of recommending a replacement for CORRA (which rate may be produced by the Bank of Canada or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor. “Calculation Methodology for Fallback Rate (SOR)” means the Calculation Methodology for Fallback Rate (SOR) published by ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. as updated from time to time.
“ECB Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for EuroSTR by the European Central Bank (or any successor administrator of EuroSTR) and/or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the European Central Bank (or any successor administrator of EuroSTR) for the purpose of recommending a replacement for EuroSTR (which rate may be produced by the European Central Bank or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“EDFR Spread” means:
(a) If no ECB Recommended Rate is recommended before the end of the first TARGET Settlement Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) (or, if later, before the end of the first TARGET Settlement Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to EuroSTR), the arithmetic mean of the daily difference between EuroSTR and the Eurosystem Deposit Facility Rate over an observation period of 30 TARGET Settlement Days starting 30 TARGET Settlement Days prior to the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) occurs (or, if later, 30 TARGET Settlement Days prior to the day on which the first Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to EuroSTR occurs) and ending on the TARGET Settlement Day immediately preceding the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) occurs (or, if later, the TARGET Settlement Day immediately preceding the day on which the first Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to EuroSTR occurs); or
(b) If a Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to the ECB Recommended Rate occurs, the arithmetic mean of the daily difference between the ECB Recommended Rate and the Eurosystem Deposit Facility Rate over an observation period of 30 TARGET Settlement Days starting 30 TARGET Settlement Days prior to the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to the ECB Recommended Rate occurs and ending on the TARGET Settlement Day immediately preceding the day on which that Fallback Index Cessation Event occurs.
“Eurosystem Deposit Facility Rate” means the rate on the deposit facility, which banks may use to make overnight deposits with the Eurosystem and which is published on the ECB's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions).
“Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date” means, in respect of a Fallback Index Cessation Event, the first date on which the Applicable Fallback Rate is no longer provided. If the Applicable Fallback Rate ceases to be provided on the same day that it would have been observed but it was provided at the time at which it is ordinarily observed (or, if no such time is specified, at the time at which it is ordinarily published), then the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date will be the next day on which the rate would ordinarily have been published. If the Applicable Fallback Rate is the Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, references to the Applicable Fallback Rate in this definition of “Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date” shall be deemed to be references to the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the definition of Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, as applicable.
“Fallback Index Cessation Event” means, in respect of an Applicable Fallback Rate:
(a) A public statement or publication of information by or on behalf of the administrator or provider of the Applicable Fallback Rate announcing that it has ceased or will cease to provide the Applicable FallbackRate permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator or provider that will continue to provide the Applicable Fallback Rate; or
(b) If the Applicable Fallback Rate is:
(i) Fallback Rate (SONIA), Fallback Rate (SARON), Fallback Rate (SOFR), Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), Fallback Rate (TONA), Fallback Rate (AONIA), Fallback Rate (CORRA) or Fallback Rate (HONIA), a public statement or publication of information by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of the Underlying Rate, the central bank for the currency of the Underlying Rate, an insolvency official with jurisdiction over the administrator for the Underlying Rate, a resolution authority with jurisdiction over the administrator for the Underlying Rate or a court or an entity with similar insolvency or resolution authority over the administrator for the Underlying Rate, which states that the administrator of the Underlying Rate has ceased or will cease to provide the Underlying Rate permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator that will continue to provide the Underlying Rate; or
(ii) SONIA, the GBP Recommended Rate, SARON, the NWG Recommended Rate, the Modified SNB Policy Rate, SOFR, the Fed Recommended Rate, OBFR, the FOMC Target Rate, EuroSTR, the ECB Recommended Rate, Modified EDFR, TONA, the JPY Recommended Rate, AONIA, the RBA Recommended Rate, CORRA, the CAD Recommended Rate, the BOC Target Rate, HONIA, the HKD Recommended Rate, Fallback Rate (SOR), the MAS Recommended Rate, SORA, Fallback Rate (THBFIX), the BOT Recommended Rate or THOR, a public statement or publication of information by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator or provider of the Applicable Fallback Rate, the central bank for the currency of the Applicable Fallback Rate, an insolvency official with jurisdiction over the administrator or provider for the Applicable Fallback Rate, a resolution authority with jurisdiction over the administrator or provider for the Applicable Fallback Rate or a court or an entity with similar insolvency or resolution authority over the administrator or provider for the Applicable Fallback Rate, which states that the administrator or provider of the Applicable Fallback Rate has ceased or will cease to provide the Applicable Fallback Rate permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator or provider that will continue to provide the Applicable Fallback Rate.
If the Applicable Fallback Rate is the Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, references to the administrator or provider of such rate in this definition of “Fallback Index Cessation Event” shall be deemed to be references to the administrator or provider of the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the definition of Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, as applicable.
“Fallback Observation Day” means, in respect of an Applicable Fallback Rate and unless otherwise agreed, the day that is two Business Days (as defined in the relevant Protocol Covered Document or, if that term is not defined therein, as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions and, in each case, for the purposes of the payment which is calculated by reference to that Applicable Fallback Rate) preceding the day on which payment by reference to that rate is due (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be equivalent to the “Payment Date”).
“Fallback Rate (AONIA)” means the term adjusted AONIA plus the spread relating to the bank bill swap rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted AONIA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (AONIA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (AONIA) Screen” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for the bank bill swap rate for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <FBAK> <GO> Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <HP> <GO>) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
“Fallback Rate (CORRA)” means the term adjusted CORRA plus the spread relating to the Canadian dollar offered rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted CORRA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (CORRA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (CORRA) Screen” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for the Canadian dollar offered rate for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <FBAK> <GO> Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <HP> <GO>) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
“Fallback Rate (EuroSTR)” means:
(a) The term adjusted EuroSTR; plus
(b) If the Relevant IBOR is:
(i) Euro LIBOR, the spread relating to euro LIBOR; or
(ii) The euro interbank offered rate, the spread relating to the euro interbank offered rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted EuroSTR and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) Screen” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for euro LIBOR or the euro interbank offered rate, as applicable, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <FBAK> <GO> Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <HP> <GO>) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
“Fallback Rate (HONIA)” means the term adjusted HONIA rate plus the spread relating to the Hong Kong interbank offered rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted HONIA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (HONIA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (HONIA) Screen” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for the Hong Kong interbank offered rate for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <FBAK> <GO> Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <HP> <GO>) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
“Fallback Rate (SARON)” means the term adjusted SARON plus the spread relating to Swiss franc LIBOR, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted SARON and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (SARON) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (SARON) Screen” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for Swiss franc LIBOR for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <FBAK> <GO> Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <HP> <GO>) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
“Fallback Rate Screen” means, if the Applicable Fallback Rate is: (a) Fallback Rate (SONIA), the Fallback Rate (SONIA) Screen; (b) Fallback Rate (SARON), the Fallback Rate (SARON) Screen; (c) Fallback Rate (SOFR), the Fallback Rate (SOFR) Screen; (d) Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), the Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) Screen; (e) Fallback Rate (TONA), the Fallback Rate (TONA) Screen; (f) Fallback Rate (AONIA), the Fallback Rate (AONIA) Screen; (g) Fallback Rate (CORRA), the Fallback Rate (CORRA) Screen, (h) Fallback Rate (HONIA), the Fallback Rate (HONIA) Screen, (i) Fallback Rate (SOR), the Fallback Rate (SOR) Screen; and (j) Fallback Rate (THBFIX), the Fallback Rate (THBFIX) Screen.
“Fallback Rate (SOFR)” means the term adjusted SOFR plus the spread relating to U.S. dollar LIBOR, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted SOFR and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (SOFR) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (SOFR) Screen” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for U.S. dollar LIBOR for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <FBAK> <GO> Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <HP> <GO>) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
“Fallback Rate (SONIA)” means the term adjusted SONIA rate plus the spread relating to sterling LIBOR, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted SONIA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (SONIA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (SONIA) Screen” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for sterling LIBOR for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <FBAK> <GO> Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <HP> <GO>) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
“Fallback Rate (SOR)” means the rate based on actual transactions in the U.S. dollar/Singapore dollar foreign exchange swap market and a U.S. dollar interest rate calculated by reference to “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” as defined above and including any fallback rate that may apply pursuant to subparagraph (c) of the definition of “Applicable Fallback Rate” above for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. (or a successor provider), as the provider of Fallback Rate (SOR), on the Fallback Rate (SOR) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (SOR) Screen” means the Refinitiv Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Refinitiv ticker for the fallback for the Singapore dollar swap offer rate for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Refinitiv Screen <FBKSORFIX> (or, if applicable, accessed via the relevant Refinitiv Screen for `price history') or any other published source designated by ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. (or a successor provider).
“Fallback Rate (THBFIX)” means the rate based on actual transactions in the U.S. dollar/Thai baht foreign exchange swap market and a U.S. dollar interest rate calculated by reference to “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” as defined above and including any fallback rate that may apply pursuant to subparagraph (c) of the definition of “Applicable Fallback Rate” above for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by the Bank of Thailand (or a successor provider), as the provider of Fallback Rate (THBFIX), on the Fallback Rate (THBFIX) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (THBFIX) Screen” means the Refinitiv Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Refinitiv ticker for the fallback for the Thai baht interest rate fixing for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Refinitiv Screen <FBKTHBFIX> (or, if applicable, accessed via the relevant Refinitiv Screen for `price history') or any other published source designated by the Bank of Thailand (or a successor provider).
“Fallback Rate (TONA)” means:
(a) The term adjusted TONA; plus
(b) If the Relevant IBOR is:
(i) Japanese yen LIBOR, the spread relating to Japanese yen LIBOR;
(ii) The Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the spread relating to the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate; or the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the spread relating to the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted TONA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (TONA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
“Fallback Rate (TONA) Screen” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for Japanese yen LIBOR, the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate or the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, as applicable, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <FBAK> <GO> Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen <HP> <GO>) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
“Fed Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for SOFR by the Federal Reserve Board or the Federal Reserve Bank of New York, or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Federal Reserve Board or the Federal Reserve Bank of New York for the purpose of recommending a replacement for SOFR (which rate may be produced by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“FOMC Target Rate” means the short-term interest rate target set by the Federal Open Market Committee and published on the Federal Reserve's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) or, if the Federal Open Market Committee does not target a single rate, the mid-point of the short-term interest rate target range set by the Federal Open Market Committee and published on the Federal Reserve's website (calculated as the arithmetic average of the upper bound of the target range and the lower bound of the target range, rounded, if necessary, in accordance with the method set forth in Section 8.1(c) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions).
“GBP Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for SONIA by (a) the administrator of SONIA if the administrator of SONIA is a national central bank, or (b) if the national central bank administrator of SONIA does not make a recommendation or the administrator of SONIA is not a national central bank, a committee designated for this purpose by one or both of the Financial Conduct Authority (or any successor thereto) and the Bank of England and as provided by the then administrator of that rate (or a successor administrator) or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“HKD Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for HONIA by the administrator of HONIA or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the administrator of HONIA for the purpose of recommending a replacement for HONIA (which rate may be produced by the administrator of HONIA or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“Index Cessation Effective Date” means, in respect of a Relevant IBOR (or, if either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing is the Relevant IBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR) and one or more Index Cessation Events, the first date on which the Relevant IBOR (or, if either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing is the Relevant IBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR) is either (a) in respect of a Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, in respect of U.S. dollar LIBOR), Non-Representative by reference to the most recent statement or publication contemplated in subparagraph (c) of the definition of “Index Cessation Event” below and even if such rate continues to be provided on such date or (b) no longer provided. If the Relevant IBOR (or, if either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing is the Relevant IBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR) ceases to be provided on the Relevant Original Fixing Date but it was provided (and, in respect of a Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, in respect of U.S. dollar LIBOR), is not Non-Representative) at the time at which it is ordinarily observed, then the Index Cessation Effective Date will be the next day on which the rate would ordinarily have been published. An Index Cessation Effective Date may also occur in accordance with paragraph 6(d), subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above.
“Index Cessation Event” means, in respect of a Relevant IBOR:
(a) A public statement or publication of information by or on behalf of the administrator of the Relevant IBOR announcing that it has ceased or will cease to provide the Relevant IBOR permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator that will continue to provide the Relevant IBOR;
(b) A public statement or publication of information by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of the Relevant IBOR, the central bank for the currency of the Relevant IBOR, an insolvency official with jurisdiction over the administrator for the Relevant IBOR, a resolution authority with jurisdiction over the administrator for the Relevant IBOR or a court or an entity with similar insolvency or resolution authority over the administrator for the Relevant IBOR, which states that the administrator of the Relevant IBOR has ceased or will cease to provide the Relevant IBOR permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator that will continue to provide the Relevant IBOR; or
(c) If the Relevant IBOR is sterling LIBOR, Swiss franc LIBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR, euro LIBOR, Japanese yen LIBOR, the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, a public statement or publication of information by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of such Relevant IBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of U.S. dollar LIBOR) announcing that (i) the regulatory supervisor has determined that such Relevant IBOR is no longer, or as of a specified future date will no longer be, representative of the underlying market and economic reality that such Relevant IBOR is intended to measure and that representativeness will not be restored and (ii) it is being made in the awareness that the statement or publication will engage certain contractual triggers for fallbacks activated by pre-cessation announcements by such supervisor (howsoever described) in contracts, provided that, if either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing is the Relevant IBOR, references to the “Relevant IBOR” in subparagraphs (a), (b) and (c)(i) above of this definition of “Index Cessation Event” will be deemed to be references to U.S. dollar LIBOR.
An Index Cessation Event may also occur in accordance with paragraph 6(d), subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above.
“JPY Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for TONA by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Bank of Japan for the purpose of recommending a replacement for TONA (which rate may be produced by the Bank of Japan or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“MAS Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for Fallback Rate (SOR) by the Monetary Authority of Singapore or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (which rate may be produced by the Monetary Authority of Singapore or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate in respect of the day for which that rate is required (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Reset Date”) or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator of that rate (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“Modified EDFR” means a rate equal to the Eurosystem Deposit Facility Rate plus the EDFR Spread.
“Modified SNB Policy Rate” means a rate equal to the SNB Policy Rate plus the SNB Spread.
“Non-Representative” means, in respect of a Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, in respect of U.S. dollar LIBOR), the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of the Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, U.S. dollar LIBOR):
(a) Has determined and announced that the Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, U.S. dollar LIBOR) is no longer representative of the underlying market and economic reality it is intended to measure and representativeness will not be restored; and
(b) Is aware that certain contractual triggers for fallbacks activated by pre-cessation announcements by such supervisor (howsoever described) in contracts have been or are engaged, provided that such Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, U.S. dollar LIBOR) will be `Non-Representative' by reference to the date indicated in the most recent statement or publication contemplated in subparagraph (c) of the definition of “Index Cessation Event” above.
“NWG Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for SARON by any working group or committee in Switzerland organized in the same or a similar manner as the National Working Group on Swiss Franc Reference Rates that was founded in 2013 for purposes of, among other things, considering proposals to reform reference interest rates in Switzerland, and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“OBFR” means the Overnight Bank Funding Rate, as provided by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York (or a successor administrator) on the New York Fed's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) or, if that rate is not provided by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“RBA Recommended Rate” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for AONIA by the Reserve Bank of Australia (which rate may be produced by the Reserve Bank of Australia or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
“Relevant LIBOR” means sterling LIBOR, Swiss franc LIBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR, euro LIBOR and Japanese yen LIBOR.
“Relevant Original Fixing Date” means, in respect of a Relevant IBOR and unless otherwise agreed, the day on which that Relevant IBOR would have been observed (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Reset Date” or, if the Relevant IBOR is Swiss franc LIBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR, euro LIBOR, the euro interbank offered rate, Japanese yen LIBOR, the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, the day that is two Applicable Banking Days preceding a relevant “Reset Date”, as applicable).
“SNB Policy Rate” means the policy rate of the Swiss National Bank.
“SNB Spread” means the historical median between SARON and the SNB Policy Rate over an observation period of two years starting two years prior to the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) occurs (or, if later, two years prior to the day on which the first Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to SARON occurs) and ending on the Zurich Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) immediately preceding the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) occurs (or, if later, the Zurich Banking Day immediately preceding the day on which the first Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to SARON occurs), as determined by the Calculation Agent.
“SORA” means the Singapore Overnight Rate Average as provided by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (or a successor administrator) on the Monetary Authority of Singapore's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) (or as published by its authorized distributors).
“THOR” means the Thai Overnight Repurchase Rate as provided by the Bank of Thailand as administrator of the benchmark (or a successor administrator) on the Bank of Thailand's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) (or as published by its authorized distributors).
“UK Bank Rate” means the official bank rate as determined by the Monetary Policy Committee of the Bank of England and published by the Bank of England from time to time.
“Underlying Rate” means, if the Applicable Fallback Rate is: (a) Fallback Rate (SONIA), SONIA; (b) Fallback Rate (SARON), SARON; (c) Fallback Rate (SOFR), SOFR; (d) Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), EuroSTR; (e) Fallback Rate (TONA), TONA; (f) Fallback Rate (AONIA), AONIA; (g) Fallback Rate (CORRA), CORRA; and (h) Fallback Rate (HONIA), HONIA.
7. Negative Interest Protocol
The parties agree that the amendments made by this Protocol do not constitute a “Spread Provision” (as defined in the ISDA 2014 Collateral Agreement Negative Interest Protocol published on May 12, 2014 by ISDA).
Published by permission of the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. (“ISDA”) ISDA® reserves all rights in the Protocol.
Source: ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol, published on October 23, 2020, by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc., https://assets.isda.org/media/3062e7b4/08268161-pdf/.
PART 261 RULES REGARDING AVAILABILITY OF INFORMATION
Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 248(i) and (k), 321 et seq., 611 et seq., 1442, 1467a, 1817(a)(2)(A), 1817(a)(8), 1818(u) and (v), 1821(o), 1821(t), 1830, 1844, 1951 et seq., 2601, 2801 et seq., 2901 et seq., 3101 et seq., 3401 et seq.; 15 U.S.C. 77uuu(b), 78q(c)(3); 29 U.S.C. 1204; 31 U.S.C. 5301 et seq.; 42 U.S.C. 3601; 44 U.S.C. 3510.
Source: 85 FR 57627, Sept. 15, 2020, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General
§ 261.1 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Authority and purpose. This part establishes mechanisms for carrying out the Board's statutory responsibilities relating to the disclosure, production, or withholding of information to facilitate the Board's interaction with financial institutions and the public. In this regard, the Board has determined that the Board or its delegees may disclose nonpublic information of the Board, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part, whenever it is necessary or appropriate to do so in the exercise of any of the Board's authorities, including but not limited to authority granted to the Board in the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 221 et seq., the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841 et seq., the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1461 et seq., and the International Banking Act, 12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq. the Board has determined that all such disclosures made in accordance with the rules and procedures specified in this part are authorized by law, and are, as applicable, disclosures to proper persons pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 326. This part also sets forth the categories of information made available to the public, the procedures for obtaining information and records, the procedures for limited release of nonpublic information, and the procedures for protecting confidential business information.
(b) Scope. (1) This subpart A contains general provisions and definitions of terms used in this part.
(2) Subpart B implements the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552).
(3) Subpart C sets forth:
(i) The kinds of nonpublic information made available to supervised financial institutions, governmental agencies, and others in certain circumstances;
(ii) The procedures for disclosure; and
(iii) The procedures with respect to subpoenas, orders compelling production, and other process.
§ 261.2 Definitions.
For purposes of this part:
(a) Affiliate has the meaning given it in 12 CFR 225.2(a).
(b)(1) Confidential supervisory information means nonpublic information that is exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(8) and includes information that is or was created or obtained in furtherance of the Board's supervisory, investigatory, or enforcement activities, including activities conducted by a Federal Reserve Bank (Reserve Bank) under delegated authority, relating to any supervised financial institution, and any information derived from or related to such information. Examples of confidential supervisory information include, without limitation, reports of examination, inspection, and visitation; confidential operating and condition reports; supervisory assessments; investigative requests for documents or other information; and supervisory correspondence or other supervisory communications. Additionally, any portion of a document in the possession of any person, entity, agency or authority, including a supervised financial institution, that contains or would reveal confidential supervisory information is confidential supervisory information.
(2) Confidential supervisory information does not include:
(i) Documents prepared by or for a supervised financial institution for its own business purposes that are in its own possession and that do not include confidential supervisory information as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, even though copies of such documents in the Board's or Reserve Bank's possession constitute confidential supervisory information; or
(ii) Final orders, amendments, or modifications of final orders, or other actions or documents that are specifically required to be published or made available to the public pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(u), the Community Reinvestment Act, or other applicable law.
(c) Nonpublic information means information that has not been publicly disclosed by the Board and that is:
(1) Confidential supervisory information, or
(2) Exempt from disclosure under § 261.15(a).
(d)(1) Records of the Board or Board records means all recorded information, regardless of form or characteristics, that is created or obtained by the Board and is under the Board's control. A record is created or obtained by the Board if it is created or obtained by:
(i) Any Board member or any officer, employee, or contractor of the Board in the conduct of the Board's official duties, or
(ii) Any officer, director, employee, or contractor of any Reserve Bank and either constitutes confidential supervisory information as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or is created or obtained in the performance of Board functions delegated to the Reserve Bank pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 248(k).
(2) Records of the Board do not include:
(i) Personal files or notes of Board members, employees, or contractors; extra copies of documents and library and museum materials kept solely for reference or exhibition purposes; or unaltered publications otherwise available to the public in Board publications, libraries, or established distribution systems;
(ii) Records located at Reserve Banks other than those records identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; or
(iii) Records that belong to or are otherwise under the control of another entity or agency despite the Board's possession.
(e)(1) Search means a reasonable search of such records of the Board as seem likely in the particular circumstances to contain information of the kind requested.
(2) As part of the Board's search for responsive records, the Board is not obligated to conduct any research, create any document, or modify an electronic program or automated information system.
(f) Supervised financial institution includes any institution that is supervised by the Board, including a bank; a bank holding company, intermediate holding company, or savings and loan holding company (including their non-depository subsidiaries); an Edge Act or agreement corporation; a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank; any company designated for Board supervision by the Financial Stability Oversight Council; or any other entity or service subject to examination by the Board.
(g) Working day means any day except Saturday, Sunday, or a legal Federal holiday.
§ 261.3 Custodian of records; certification; service; alternative authority.
(a) Custodian of records. The Secretary of the Board (Secretary) is the official custodian of all records of the Board.
(b) Certification of record. The Secretary may certify the authenticity of any Board record, or any copy of such record, for any purpose, and for or before any duly constituted Federal or State court, tribunal, or agency.
(c) Service of subpoenas or other process. Subpoenas or other judicial or administrative process demanding access to any Board records or making any claim against the Board or against Board members or staff in their official capacity shall be addressed to and served upon the Secretary of the Board at the Board's office at 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551. The Board does not accept service of process on behalf of any employee in respect of purely private legal disputes.
(d) Alternative authority. Any action or determination required or permitted by this part to be done by the Board, the Secretary, the General Counsel, the Director of any Division, or any Reserve Bank, may be done by any employee who has been duly authorized or designated for this purpose by the Board, the Secretary, the General Counsel, the appropriate Director, or the appropriate Reserve Bank, respectively.
§ 261.4 Prohibition against disclosure.
Except as provided in this part or as otherwise authorized, no officer, employee, or agent of the Board or any Reserve Bank shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any nonpublic information of the Board to any person other than Board or Reserve Bank officers, employees, or agents properly entitled to such information for the performance of official duties.
Subpart B Published Information and Records Available to Public; Procedures for Requests
§ 261.10 Published information.
(a) Federal Register. The Board publishes in the Federal Register for the guidance of the public:
(1) Descriptions of the Board's central and field organization;
(2) Statements of the general course and method by which the Board's functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of procedures;
(3) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available and the place where they may be obtained, and instructions on the scope and contents of all papers, reports, and examinations;
(4) Substantive rules, interpretations of general applicability, and statements of general policy;
(5) Every amendment, revision, or repeal of the foregoing in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section; and
(6) Other notices as required by law.
(b) Publications. The Board maintains a list of publications on its website (at www.federalreserve.gov/publications). Most publications issued by the Board, including available back issues, may be downloaded from the website; some may be obtained through an order form located on the website (at www.federalreserve.gov/files/orderform.pdf) or by contacting Board Printing & Fulfillment, Federal Reserve Board, Washington, DC 20551. Subscription or other charges may apply for some publications.
(c) Publicly available information—(1) Electronic reading room. The Board makes the following records available in its electronic reading room, http://www.federalreserve.gov/foia/readingrooms.htm#rr1.
(i) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as final orders and written agreements, made in the adjudication of cases;
(ii) Statements of policy and interpretations adopted by the Board that are not published in the Federal Register;
(iii) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect the public;
(iv) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format—
(A) That have been released to any person under § 261.11; and
(B)(1) That because of the nature of their subject matter, the Board has determined have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or
(2) That have been requested three or more times;
(v) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section; and
(vi) The public section of Community Reinvestment Act examination reports.
(2) Inspection in electronic format at Reserve Banks. The Board may determine that certain classes of publicly available filings shall be made available for inspection in electronic format only at the Reserve Bank where those records are filed.
(3) Privacy protection. The Board may delete identifying details from any public record to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
§ 261.11 Records available to the public upon request.
(a) Procedures for requesting records. (1) Requesters are encouraged to submit requests electronically by filling out the required information at https://www.federalreserve.gov/secure/forms/efoiaform.aspx. Alternatively, requests may be submitted in writing to the Office of the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Attn: FOIA Requests, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551; or sent by facsimile to the Office of the Secretary, (202) 872-7565. Clearly mark the request FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT REQUEST.
(2) A request may not be combined with any other request or with any matter presented to the Board such as a protest on a pending application or a comment on a public rulemaking. It may, however, be combined with a request for records under the Privacy Act pursuant to 12 CFR 261a.5(a) or a request for discretionary release of confidential supervisory information pursuant to § 261.23.
(b) Contents of request. A request must include:
(1) The requester's name, address, daytime telephone number, and an email address if available.
(2) A description of the records that enables the Board's staff to identify and produce the records with reasonable effort and without unduly burdening or significantly interfering with any of the Board's operations. Whenever possible, the request should include specific information about each record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record.
(3) A statement agreeing to pay the applicable fees. If the information requested is not intended for a commercial use (as defined in § 261.16(d)(1)) and the requester seeks a reduction or waiver of fees because he or she is either a representative of the news media, an educational institution, or a noncommercial scientific institution, the requester should include the information called for in § 261.16(g)(2).
(c) Perfected and defective requests. (1) The Board will consider the request to be perfected on the date the Office of the Secretary receives a request that contains all of the information required by paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section.
(2) The Board need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this section.
(3) The Board may return a defective request, specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as a new request.
§ 261.12 Processing requests.
(a) Receipt of requests. Upon receipt of any request that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 261.11, the Office of the Secretary shall assign the request to the appropriate processing schedule, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. The date of receipt for any request, including one that is addressed incorrectly or that is referred to the Board by another agency or by a Reserve Bank, is the date the Office of the Secretary actually receives the request.
(b) Multitrack processing. (1) The Board provides different levels of processing for categories of requests under this section.
(i) Requests for records that are readily identifiable by the Office of the Secretary and that have already been cleared for public release or can easily be cleared for public release may qualify for simple processing.
(ii) All other requests shall be handled under normal processing procedures, unless expedited processing has been granted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) The Office of the Secretary will make the determination whether a request qualifies for simple processing. A requester may contact the Office of the Secretary to learn whether a particular request has been assigned to simple processing. If the request has not qualified for simple processing, the requester may limit the scope of the request in order to qualify for simple processing by contacting the Office of the Secretary in writing, by letter or email, or by telephone.
(c) Expedited processing. (1) A request for expedited processing may be made at any time. A request for expedited processing must be clearly labeled “Expedited Processing Requested.” The Board will process requests and appeals on an expedited basis whenever it is determined that they involve:
(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited processing could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if made by a person who is primarily engaged in disseminating information.
(2) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for making the request for expedited processing. For example, under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, a requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about Federal Government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic. As a matter of administrative discretion, the Board may waive the formal certification requirement.
(3) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of a request for expedited processing, the Board will notify the requester of its decision on the request. A denial of expedited processing may be appealed to the Board in accordance with § 261.14. The Board will respond to the appeal within 10 working days of receipt of the appeal.
(d) Priority of responses. The Office of the Secretary will normally process requests in the order they are received in the separate processing tracks, except when expedited processing is granted in which case the request will be processed as soon as practicable.
(e) Time limits. The time for response to requests shall be 20 working days from when a request is perfected. Exceptions to the 20-day time limit are only as follows:
(1) In the case of expedited treatment under paragraph (c) of this section, the Board shall give the expedited request priority over non-expedited requests and shall process the expedited request as soon as practicable.
(2) Where the running of such time is suspended for a requester to address fee requirements pursuant to § 261.16(c)(1) or (2).
(3) In unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), the Board may—
(i) Extend the 20-day time limit for a period of time not to exceed 10 working days, where the Board has provided written notice to the requester setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched; and
(ii) Extend the 20-day time limit for a period of more than 10 working days where the Board has provided the requester with an opportunity to modify the scope of the FOIA request so that it can be processed within that time frame or with an opportunity to arrange an alternative time frame for processing the original request or a modified request, and has notified the requester that the Board's FOIA Public Liaison is available to assist the requester for this purpose and in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and the Board and of the requester's right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
§ 261.13 Responses to requests.
(a) When the Board receives a perfected request, it will conduct a reasonable search of Board records in its possession on the date the Board's search begins and will review any responsive information it locates.
(b) If a request covers documents that were created by, obtained from, or classified by another agency, the Board may refer the request for such documents to that agency for a response and inform the requester promptly of the referral.
(c) In responding to a request, the Board will withhold information under this section only if—
(1) The Board reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in § 261.15(a); or
(2) Disclosure is prohibited by law.
(d) The Board will take reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release nonexempt information.
(e) The Board will notify the requester of:
(1) The Board's determination of the request;
(2) The reasons for the determination;
(3) An estimate of the amount of information withheld, if any. An estimate is not required if the amount of information is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
(4) The right of the requester to seek assistance from the Board's FOIA Public Liaison; and
(5) When an adverse determination is made, the Board will advise the requester in writing of that determination and will further advise the requester of:
(i) The right of the requester to appeal any adverse determination within 90 calendar days after the date of the determination as specified in § 261.14;
(ii) The right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the Board's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services; and
(iii) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the adverse determination.
(f) Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that the requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited treatment.
(g) The Board will normally send responsive, nonexempt documents to the requester by email but may use other means as arranged between the Board and the requester or as determined by the Board. The Board will attempt to provide records in the format requested by the requester.
§ 261.14 Appeals.
(a) Appeal of adverse determination. If the Board makes an adverse determination as defined in § 261.13(f), the requester may file a written appeal with the Board, as follows:
(1) The appeal should prominently display the phrase FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT APPEAL on the first page, and should be sent directly to FOIA-Appeals@frb.gov or, if sent by mail, addressed to the Office of the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Attn: FOIA Appeals, 20th Street & Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551; or sent by facsimile to the Office of the Secretary, (202) 872-7565. If the requester is appealing the denial of expedited treatment, the appeal should clearly be labeled “Appeal for Expedited Processing.”
(2) A request for records under § 261.11 may not be combined in the same letter with an appeal.
(3) To be considered timely, an appeal must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted, within 90 calendar days after the date of the adverse determination.
(b) Except as provided in § 261.12(c)(3), the Board shall make a determination regarding any appeal within 20 working days of actual receipt of the appeal by the Office of the Secretary. If an adverse determination is upheld on appeal, in whole or in part, the determination letter shall notify the appealing party of the right to seek judicial review and of the availability of dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services as a nonexclusive alternative to litigation.
(c) The Board may reconsider an adverse determination, including one on appeal, if intervening circumstances or additional facts not known at the time of the adverse determination come to the attention of the Board.
§ 261.15 Exemptions from disclosure.
(a) Types of records exempt from disclosure. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b), the following records of the Board are exempt from disclosure under this part:
(1) Any information that is specifically authorized under criteria established by an executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and is in fact properly classified pursuant to the executive order.
(2) Any information related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Board.
(3) Any information specifically exempted from disclosure by statute to the extent required by 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).
(4) Any matter that is a trade secret or that constitutes commercial or financial information obtained from a person and that is privileged or confidential.
(5) Inter- or intra-agency memorandums or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the Board, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records that were created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
(6) Any information contained in personnel and medical files and similar files the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
(7) Any records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, to the extent permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7).
(8) Any matter that is contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, including a State financial institution supervisory agency.
(b) Release of nonpublic information. (1) The Board may make any nonpublic information furnished in connection with an application for Board approval of a transaction available to the public in response to a request in accordance with § 261.11, and may, without prior notice and to the extent it deems necessary, comment on such information in any opinion or statement issued to the public in connection with a Board action to which such information pertains.
(2) The fact that the Board has determined to release particular nonpublic information does not waive the Board's ability to withhold similar nonpublic information in response to the same or a different request.
(3) Except where disclosure is expressly prohibited by statute, regulation, or order, the Board may release records that are exempt from mandatory disclosure whenever the Board or designated Board members, the Secretary, or the General Counsel determines that such disclosure would be in the public interest. The Board will provide predisclosure notice to submitters of confidential information in accordance with § 261.18(b)(1). Confidential supervisory information may only be released as set forth in subpart C.
(c) Delayed release. Except as required by law, publication in the Federal Register or availability to the public of certain information may be delayed if immediate disclosure would likely:
(1) Interfere with accomplishing the objectives of the Board in the discharge of its statutory functions;
(2) Interfere with the orderly conduct of the foreign affairs of the United States;
(3) Permit speculators or others to gain unfair profits or other unfair advantages by speculative trading in securities or otherwise;
(4) Result in unnecessary or unwarranted disturbances in the securities markets;
(5) Interfere with the orderly execution of the objectives or policies of other government agencies; or
(6) Impair the ability to negotiate any contract or otherwise harm the commercial or financial interest of the United States, the Board, any Reserve Bank, or any department or agency of the United States.
§ 261.16 Fee schedules; waiver of fees.
(a) Fee schedules. Consistent with the limitations set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(viii), the fees applicable to a request for records pursuant to § 261.11 are set forth in table 1 to this section. These fees cover only the full allowable direct costs of search, duplication, and review. No fees will be charged where the average cost of collecting the fee (calculated at $5.00) exceeds the amount of the fee.
(b) For purposes of computing fees. (1) Search time includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including line-by-line identification of material within documents. Such activity is distinct from “review” of material to determine whether the material is exempt from disclosure.
(2) Direct costs mean those expenditures that the Board actually incurs in searching for, reviewing, and duplicating records in response to a request made under § 261.11, as shown in table 1 to this section.
(3) Duplication refers to the process of making a copy, in any format, of a document.
(4) Review refers to the process of examining documents that have been located as being potentially responsive to a request for records to determine whether any portion of a document is exempt from disclosure. It includes doing all that is necessary to prepare the documents for release, including the redaction of exempt information. It does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
(c) Payment procedures. The Board may assume that a person requesting records pursuant to § 261.11 will pay the applicable fees, unless the request includes a limitation on fees to be paid or seeks a waiver or reduction of fees pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
(1) Advance notification of fees. If the estimated charges are likely to exceed the amount authorized by the requester, the Office of the Secretary shall notify the requester of the estimated amount. Upon receipt of such notice, the requester may confer with the Office of the Secretary to reformulate the request to lower the costs or may authorize a higher amount. The time period for responding to requests under § 261.12(e) and the processing of the request will be suspended until the requester agrees in writing to pay the applicable fees.
(2) Advance payment. The Board may require advance payment of any fee estimated to exceed $250. The Board may also require full payment in advance where a requester has previously failed to pay a fee in a timely fashion. The time period for responding to a request under § 261.12(e) and the processing of the request will be suspended until the Office of the Secretary receives the required payment.
(3) Late charges. The Board may assess interest charges when fee payment is not made within 30 days of the date on which the billing was sent. Interest is at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and accrues from the date of the billing.
(d) Categories of uses. The fees assessed depend upon the intended use for the records requested. In determining which category is appropriate, the Board will look to the intended use set forth in the request for records. Where a requester's description of the use is insufficient to make a determination, the Board may seek additional clarification before categorizing the request.
(1) A commercial use requester is one who requests records for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made, which can include furthering those interests through litigation.
(2) Representative of the news media is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience, including organizations that disseminate solely on the internet. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. A non-affiliated journalist who demonstrates a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity, such as a publishing contract or past publication record, will be considered as a representative of the news media.
(3) Educational institution is any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. The Board may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research.
(4) Noncommercial scientific institution is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use.
(5) Fees table. Please refer to table 1 to this section to determine what fees apply for different categories of users.
(e) Nonproductive search. Fees for search and review may be charged even if no responsive documents are located or if the request is denied.
(f) Aggregated requests. A requester may not file multiple requests at the same time, solely in order to avoid payment of fees. If the Board reasonably believes that a requester is separating a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, the Board may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. It is considered reasonable for the Board to presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made to avoid fees.
(g) Waiver or reduction of fees. A request for a waiver or reduction of the fees, and the justification for the waiver, shall be included with the request for records to which it pertains. If a waiver is requested and the requester has not indicated in writing an agreement to pay the applicable fees if the waiver request is denied, the time for response to the request for documents, as set forth in § 261.12(e), shall not begin until either a waiver has been granted or, if the waiver is denied, until the requester has agreed to pay the applicable fees.
(1) The Board will grant a waiver or reduction of fees where it is determined both that disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government, and that the disclosure of information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. In making this determination, the Board will consider the following factors:
(i) Whether the subject of the records would shed light on identifiable operations or activities of the government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated; and
(ii) Whether disclosure of the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
(A) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
(B) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. The Board will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
(iii) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, profit, or litigation interest.
(2) A request for a waiver or reduction of fees must include:
(i) A clear statement of the requester's interest in the documents;
(ii) The use proposed for the documents and whether the requester will derive income or other benefit for such use;
(iii) A statement of how the public will benefit from such use and from the Board's release of the documents;
(iv) A description of the method by which the information will be disseminated to the public; and
(v) If specialized use of the information is contemplated, a statement of the requester's qualifications that are relevant to that use.
(3) The requester has the burden to present evidence or information in support of a request for a waiver or reduction of fees.
(4) The Board will notify the requester of its determination on the request for a waiver or reduction of fees. The requester may appeal a denial in accordance with § 261.14(a).
(5) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver must be granted for those records.
(6) A request for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request for records is first submitted to the Board and should address the criteria referenced above. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.
(h) Restrictions on charging fees. (1) If the Board fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, the Board may not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as permitted under paragraphs (h)(2) through (4) of this section.
(2) If the Board determines that unusual circumstances exist, as described in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), and has provided timely written notice to the requester and subsequently responds within the additional 10 working days as provided in § 261.12(e)(3), the Board may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, may charge duplication fees.
(3) If the Board determines that unusual circumstances exist, as described in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, then the Board may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the Board has:
(i) Provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA; and
(ii) Discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii).
(4) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
(i) Employee requests. In connection with any request by an employee, former employee, or applicant for employment, for records for use in prosecuting a grievance or complaint of discrimination against the Board, fees shall be waived where the total charges (including charges for information provided under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a)) are $50 or less; but the Board may waive fees in excess of that amount.
(j) Special services. The Board may agree to provide, and set fees to recover the costs of, special services not covered by the FOIA, such as certifying records or information and sending records by special methods such as express mail or overnight delivery.
Table 1 to § 261.16—Fees
Type of requester | Search costs per hour | Review costs per hour | Duplication costs
Commercial | Clerical/Technical staff—$20 | Clerical/Technical staff—$20 | Photocopy per standard page—.10.
Professional/Supervisory staff—$40 | Professional/Supervisory staff—$40 | Other types of duplication—Direct Costs.
Manager/Senior professional staff—$65 | Manager/Senior professional staff—$65
Computer search, including computer search time, output, operator's salary—Direct Costs
Educational; or Non-commercial scientific; or News media | Costs waived | Costs waived | First 100 pages free, then: Photocopy per standard page—.10. Other types of duplication—Direct Costs.
All other requesters | First 2 hours free, then: Clerical/Technical staff—$20 | Costs waived | First 100 pages free, then: Photocopy per standard page—.10.
Professional/Supervisory staff—$40 | Other types of duplication—Direct Costs.
Manager/Senior professional staff—$65
Computer search, including computer search time, output, operator's salary—Direct Costs
§ 261.17 Request for confidential treatment.
(a) Submission of request. Any submitter of information to the Board who desires that such information be withheld pursuant to § 261.15(a)(4) or (6) shall file a request for confidential treatment with the Board (or in the case of documents filed with a Reserve Bank, with that Reserve Bank) at the time the information is submitted or within 10 working days thereafter.
(b) Form of request. Each request for confidential treatment shall state in reasonable detail the facts supporting the request, provide the legal justification, use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings any portion of the submission for which confidential treatment is requested, and include an affirmative statement that such information is not available publicly. A submitter's request for confidentiality in reliance upon § 261.15(a)(4) generally expires 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
(c) Designation and separation of confidential material. All information considered confidential by a submitter shall be clearly designated CONFIDENTIAL in the submission and separated from information for which confidential treatment is not requested. Failure to segregate confidential information from other material may result in release of the unsegregated material to the public without notice to the submitter.
(d) Exceptions. This section does not apply to:
(1) Data items collected on forms that are approved pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.) and deemed confidential by the Board. Any such data items deemed confidential by the Board shall so indicate on the face of the form or in its instructions. The data may, however, be disclosed in aggregate form in such a manner that individual company data is not disclosed or derivable.
(2) Any comments submitted by a member of the public on applications and regulatory proposals being considered by the Board, unless the Board determines that confidential treatment is warranted.
(3) A determination by the Board to comment upon information submitted to the Board in any opinion or statement issued to the public as described in § 261.15(b)(1).
(e) Special procedures. The Board may establish special procedures for particular documents, filings, or types of information by express provisions in this part or by instructions on particular forms that are approved by the Board. These special procedures shall take precedence over this section.
§ 261.18 Process for addressing a submitter's request for confidential treatment.
(a) Resolving requests for confidential treatment. In general, a request by a submitter for confidential treatment of any information shall be considered in connection with a request for access to that information. At its discretion, the Board may act on a request for confidentiality prior to any request for access to the documents.
(b) Notice to the submitter. (1) When the Board receives a FOIA request for information for which a submitter has requested confidential treatment, the Board shall promptly provide written notice of the request to the submitter if the Board determines that it may be required to disclose the records, provided:
(i) The requested information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) or (b)(6); and
(ii) The Board has reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure, but has not yet determined whether the information may be protected from disclosure.
(2) Where a submitter has not requested confidential treatment but the Board reasonably believes the requested information may be protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) or (b)(6), the Board may notify a submitter of the receipt of a request for access to that information and provide the submitter an opportunity to respond.
(3) The notice given to the submitter shall:
(i) Describe the information that has been requested or include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information. In cases involving a voluminous number of submitters, the Board may post or publish a notice in a place or manner reasonably likely to inform the submitters of the proposed disclosure, instead of sending individual notifications; and
(ii) Give the submitter a reasonable opportunity, not to exceed 10 working days from the date of notice, to submit written objections to disclosure of the information.
(c) Exceptions to notice to submitter. Notice to the submitter need not be given if:
(1) The Board determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA and, therefore, will not be disclosed;
(2) The requested information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
(3) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
(4) The submitter's claim of confidentiality appears obviously frivolous or has already been denied by the Board. In such case, the Board shall give the submitter written notice of the determination to disclose the information at least five working days prior to disclosure.
(d) Notice to requester. The requester shall be notified whenever:
(1) The submitter is provided with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure under paragraph (b) of this section;
(2) The submitter is notified of the Board's intention to disclose the requested information; or
(3) The submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of information.
(e) Written objections by submitter. (1) Upon receipt of the notice referenced in paragraph (b) of this section, a submitter that has any objections to disclosure should provide a detailed written statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption identified in § 261.15(a). A submitter relying on § 261.15(a)(4) as the basis for nondisclosure must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is confidential and must explain the consequences of disclosure of the information.
(2) A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. The Board is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this subpart, including a written request for confidential treatment, may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
(f) Analysis of objections. The Board's determination to disclose any information for which confidential treatment has been requested shall be communicated to the submitter immediately. If the Board determines to disclose the information and the submitter has objected to such disclosure pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, the Board shall provide the submitter with the reasons for disclosure and shall delay disclosure for 10 working days from the date of the determination.
(g) Notice of lawsuit. The Board shall promptly notify any submitter of information covered by this section of the filing of any legal action against the Board to compel disclosure of such information.
Subpart C Nonpublic Information Made Available to Supervised Financial Institutions, Governmental Agencies, and Others in Certain Circumstances
§ 261.20 General.
(a) All confidential supervisory information and other nonpublic information, including but not limited to information made available under this subpart, remains the property of the Board, and except as otherwise provided in this regulation, no person, entity, agency, or authority to whom the information is made available or who otherwise possesses the information, including any officer, director, employee, or agent thereof, may use any such information for an unauthorized purpose or disclose any such information without the prior written permission of the General Counsel.
(b) The disclosure of confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information in accordance with this subpart shall not constitute a waiver by the Board of any applicable privileges.
(c) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to limit or restrict the authority of the Board to impose any additional conditions or limitations on the use and disclosure of confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information. Further, nothing in this subpart shall be construed to limit or restrict the authority of the Board to make discretionary disclosures of confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information in addition to the disclosures expressly provided for in this subpart.
§ 261.21 Confidential supervisory information made available to supervised financial institutions.
(a) Disclosure of confidential supervisory information to supervised financial institutions. The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank may disclose confidential supervisory information concerning a supervised financial institution to that supervised financial institution.
(b) Disclosure of confidential supervisory information by supervised financial institutions—(1) General. Any supervised financial institution lawfully in possession of confidential supervisory information pursuant to this section may when necessary or appropriate for business purposes disclose such information to its directors, officers, or employees, and to the directors, officers, or employees of its affiliates.
(2) Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, and State financial supervisory agencies. Any supervised financial institution may, with the concurrence of the institution's central point of contact at the Reserve Bank, equivalent supervisory team leader, or other designated Reserve Bank employee (hereinafter, “Reserve Bank Point of Contact” or “Reserve Bank POC”), disclose confidential supervisory information about the institution that is contained in documents prepared by or for the institution for its own business purposes to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, and the State financial supervisory agency that supervises that institution when the Reserve Bank POC determines that the receiving agency has a legitimate supervisory or regulatory interest in the information. A Reserve Bank POC's action under this paragraph may require concurrence of other Federal Reserve staff in accordance with internal supervisory procedures. Requests to disclose any other confidential supervisory information to these or other agencies should be directed to the General Counsel under § 261.22(c) or § 261.23(c).
(3) Legal counsel and auditors. When necessary or appropriate in connection with the provision of legal or auditing services to the supervised financial institution, the supervised financial institution may disclose confidential supervisory information to its legal counsel or auditors. The supervised financial institution may also disclose confidential supervisory information to service providers (such as consultants, contractors, contingent workers, and technology providers) of its legal counsel or auditors if the service provider is under a written agreement with the legal counsel or auditor in which the service provider agrees that:
(i) It will treat the confidential supervisory information in accordance with § 261.20(a); and
(ii) It will not use the confidential supervisory information for any purpose other than as necessary to provide the services to the supervised financial institution.
(4) Other service providers. (i) A supervised financial institution may disclose confidential supervisory information to other service providers engaged by the supervised financial institution if the service provider is under a written contract to provide services to the institution, the disclosure of the confidential supervisory information is deemed necessary to the service provider's provision of services, and the service provider has a written agreement with the institution in which the service provider has agreed that:
(A) It will treat the confidential supervisory information in accordance with § 261.20(a); and
(B) It will not use the confidential supervisory information for any purpose other than as provided under its contract to provide services to the supervised financial institution.
(ii) A supervised financial institution shall maintain a written account of the disclosures of confidential supervisory information that the supervised financial institution makes to service providers under this section and provide the Board or Reserve Bank with a copy of such written account upon the Board's or Reserve Bank's request.
§ 261.22 Nonpublic information made available by the Board to governmental agencies and entities exercising governmental authority.
(a) Disclosure to Federal and State financial institution supervisory agencies. The Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, the Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, the General Counsel, or the appropriate Reserve Bank may, for legitimate supervisory or regulatory purposes and with or without a request, disclose confidential supervisory information and other nonpublic information to the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, and a State financial institution supervisory agency.
(b) Disclosures pursuant to the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, the Fair Housing Act, and the Employee Retirement Income Security Act. The Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, the Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, or the General Counsel may disclose confidential supervisory information and other nonpublic information concerning a supervised financial institution to:
(1) The Attorney General or to the Secretary of the Department of Housing and Urban Development related to the enforcement of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691 et seq.) or the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601 et seq.); and
(2) The Secretary of the Department of Labor and the Secretary of the Department the Treasury in accordance with section 3004(b) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1204(b)).
(c) Disclosure to other governmental agencies and entities exercising governmental authority. Except as provided in paragraph (d) or (e) of this section, other Federal, State, and local agencies, including law enforcement agencies, and other entities exercising governmental authority, may file written requests with the Board for access to confidential supervisory information and other nonpublic information under this section, including information in the form of testimony and interviews from current or former Federal Reserve System staff. Properly accredited foreign law enforcement agencies and other foreign government agencies may also file written requests with the Board in accordance with this paragraph, except that provision of confidential supervisory information to foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authorities is governed by 12 CFR 211.27.
(1) Contents of request. To obtain access to confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information under this section, including information in the possession of a person other than the Board, the requester shall address a letter request to the Board's General Counsel, specifying:
(i) The particular information, kinds of information, and where possible, the particular documents to which access is sought;
(ii) The reasons why such information cannot be obtained from the supervised financial institution in question or another source rather than from the Board;
(iii) A statement of the law enforcement purpose or other statutory purpose for which the information shall be used;
(iv) A commitment that the information requested shall not be disclosed to any person outside the requesting agency or entity without the written permission of the General Counsel; and
(v) If the document or information requested includes customer account information subject to the Right to Financial Privacy Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3401 et seq.), any Federal agency request must include a statement that such customer account information need not be provided, or a statement as to why the Act does not apply to the request, or a certification that the requesting Federal agency has complied with the requirements of the Act.
(2) Action on request. The General Counsel may approve the request upon determining that:
(i) The request complies with this section;
(ii) The information is needed in connection with a formal investigation or other official duties of the requesting agency or entity;
(iii) Satisfactory assurances of confidentiality have been given; and
(iv) Disclosure is consistent with the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities and policies of the Board.
(d) Federal and State grand jury, criminal trial, and government administrative subpoenas. The General Counsel shall review and may approve the disclosure of nonpublic information pursuant to Federal and State grand jury, criminal trial, and government administrative subpoenas.
(e) Conditions or limitations; written agreements. The General Counsel may impose any conditions or limitations on disclosure that the General Counsel determines to be necessary to effect the purposes of this regulation, including the protection of the confidentiality of the Board's information, or to ensure compliance with applicable laws or regulations. In addition, Board or Reserve Bank staff may make disclosures pursuant to any written agreement entered into by the Board when authorized by the express terms of such agreement or by the General Counsel.
§ 261.23 Other disclosure of confidential supervisory information.
(a) Board policy. (1) It is the Board's policy regarding confidential supervisory information that such information is confidential and privileged. Accordingly, the Board does not normally disclose confidential supervisory information to the public or authorize third parties in possession of confidential supervisory information to further use or disclose the information. When considering a request to access, use, or to disclose confidential supervisory information under this section, the Board will not authorize access, use, or disclosure unless the requesting person is able to show a substantial need to access, use, or disclose such information that outweighs the need to maintain confidentiality.
(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Board will not authorize access to or disclosure of any suspicious activity report (SAR), or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, except as necessary to fulfill official duties consistent with Title II of the Bank Secrecy Act. For purposes of this part, “official duties” shall not include the disclosure of a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, in response to a request for disclosure of nonpublic information or a request for use in a private legal proceeding, including a request pursuant to this section.
(b) Requests in connection with litigation. Except as provided in §§ 261.21 and 261.22:
(1) In connection with any proposed use of confidential supervisory information in litigation before a court, board, commission, agency, or arbitration, any person who—
(i) Seeks access to confidential supervisory information from the Board or a Reserve Bank (including the testimony of present or former Board or Reserve Bank employees on matters involving confidential supervisory information, whether by deposition or otherwise),
(ii) Seeks to use confidential supervisory information in its possession or to disclose such information to another party, or
(iii) Seeks to require a person to disclose confidential supervisory information to a party, shall file a written request with the General Counsel.
(2) The request shall include:
(i) The judicial or administrative action, including the case number and court or adjudicative body and a copy of the complaint or other pleading setting forth the assertions in the case;
(ii) A description of any prior judicial or other decisions or pending motions in the case that may bear on the asserted relevance of the requested information;
(iii) A narrow and specific description of the confidential supervisory information the requester seeks to access or to disclose for use in the litigation including, whenever possible, the specific documents the requester seeks to access or disclose;
(iv) The relevance of the confidential supervisory information to the issues or matters raised by the litigation;
(v) The reason why the information sought, or equivalent information adequate to the needs of the case, cannot be obtained from any other source; and
(vi) A commitment to obtain a protective order acceptable to the Board from the judicial or administrative tribunal hearing the action preserving the confidentiality of any information that is provided.
(3) In the case of requests covered by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the Board may require the party to whom disclosure would ultimately be made to substantiate its need for the information prior to acting on any request.
(c) All other requests. Any other person seeking to access, use, or disclose confidential supervisory information for any other purpose shall file a written request with the General Counsel. A request under this paragraph (c) shall describe the purpose for which access, use, or disclosure is sought and the requester shall provide other information as requested by the General Counsel.
(d) Action on request—(1) Determination of approval. The General Counsel may approve a request made under this section provided that he or she determines that:
(i) The person seeking access, or the person to whom access would be provided, has shown a substantial need to access confidential supervisory information that outweighs the need to maintain confidentiality; and
(ii) Approval is consistent with the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities and policies of the Board.
(2) Conditions or limitations. The General Counsel may, in approving a request, impose such conditions or limitations on use of any information disclosed as is deemed necessary to protect the confidentiality of the Board's information.
(e) Exhaustion of administrative remedies for discovery purposes in civil, criminal, or administrative action. Action on a request under this section by the General Counsel is necessary in order to exhaust administrative remedies for discovery purposes in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceeding. A request made pursuant to § 261.11 of this regulation does not exhaust administrative remedies for discovery purposes. Therefore, it is not necessary to file a request pursuant to § 261.11 to exhaust administrative remedies under this section.
§ 261.24 Subpoenas, orders compelling production, and other process.
(a) Advice by person served. Any person (including any officer, employee, or agent of the Board or any Reserve Bank) who is served with a subpoena, order, or other judicial or administrative process requiring the production of confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information of the Board or requiring the person's testimony regarding such Board information in any proceeding, shall:
(1) Promptly inform the Board's General Counsel of the service and all relevant facts, including the documents, information or testimony demanded, and any facts relevant to the Board in determining whether the material requested should be made available;
(2) Inform the entity issuing the process of the substance of these rules and, in particular, of the obligation to follow the request procedures in § 261.23(b); and
(3) At the appropriate time inform the court or tribunal that issued the process of the substance of these rules.
(b) Appearance by person served. Unless authorized by the Board or as ordered by a Federal court in a judicial proceeding in which the Board has had the opportunity to appear and oppose discovery, any person who is required to respond to a subpoena or other legal process concerning Board confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic Board information shall attend at the time and place required and respectfully decline to disclose or to give any testimony with respect to the information, basing such refusal upon the provisions of this regulation. If the court or other body orders the disclosure of the information or the giving of testimony, the person having the information shall continue to decline to disclose the information and shall promptly report the facts to the Board for such action as the Board may deem appropriate.
(c) Civil requests for production. A litigant or non-party who is served with a civil request for production of documents calling for production of confidential supervisory information should proceed under § 261.23 rather than this section.
PART 261a RULES REGARDING ACCESS TO PERSONAL INFORMATION UNDER THE PRIVACY ACT 1974
Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552a.
Source: 75 FR 63704, Oct. 18, 2010, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
§ 261a.1 Authority, purpose and scope.
(a) Authority. This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a).
(b) Purpose and scope. This part implements the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974 with regard to the maintenance, protection, disclosure, and amendment of records contained within systems of records maintained by the Board. It sets forth the procedures for requests for access to, or amendment of, records concerning individuals that are contained in systems of records maintained by the Board.
§ 261a.2 Definitions.
For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
(a) Business day means any day except Saturday, Sunday or a legal Federal holiday.
(b) Guardian means the parent of a minor, or the legal guardian of any individual who has been declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction.
(c) Individual means a natural person who is either a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence.
(d) Maintain includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate.
(e) Record means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual maintained by the Board that contains the individual's name or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a fingerprint, voice print, or photograph.
(f) Routine use means, with respect to disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose that is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected or created.
(g) System of records means a group of any records under the control of the Board from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.
(h) You means an individual making a request under the Privacy Act.
(i) We means the Board.
§ 261a.3 Custodian of records; delegations of authority.
(a) Custodian of records. The Secretary of the Board is the official custodian of all Board records.
(b) Delegated authority of the Secretary. The Secretary of the Board is authorized to—
(1) Respond to requests for access to, accounting of, or amendment of records contained in a system of records, except for requests regarding systems of records maintained by the Board's Office of Inspector General (OIG);
(2) Approve the publication of new systems of records and amend existing systems of records, except those systems of records exempted pursuant to § 261a.12(b), (c) and (d); and
(3) File any necessary reports related to the Privacy Act.
(c) Delegated authority of designee. Any action or determination required or permitted by this part to be done by the Secretary of the Board may be done by a Deputy or Associate Secretary or other responsible employee of the Board who has been duly designated for this purpose by the Secretary.
(d) Delegated authority of Inspector General. The Inspector General is authorized to respond to requests for access to, accounting of, or amendment of records contained in a system of records maintained by the OIG.
§ 261a.4 Fees.
(a) Copies of records. We will provide you with copies of the records you request under § 261a.5 of this part at the same cost we charge for duplication of records and/or production of computer output under the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information, 12 CFR Part 261.
(b) No fee. We will not charge you a fee if:
(1) Your total charges are less than $5, or
(2) You are a Board employee or former employee, or an applicant for employment with the Board, and you request records pertaining to you.
Subpart B Procedures for Requests by Individuals to Whom Record Pertains
§ 261a.5 Request for access to records.
(a) Procedures for making request. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or (f) of this section, if you (or your guardian) want to learn of the existence of, or to gain access to, your record in a system of records, you may submit a request in writing to the Secretary of the Board, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20551.
(2) If you request information contained in a system of records maintained by the Board's OIG, you may submit the request in writing to the Inspector General, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20551.
(b) Contents of request. Except for requests made under paragraph (f) of this section, your written request must include-
(1) A statement that the request is made pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974;
(2) The name of the system of records you believe contains the record you request, or a concise description of that system of records;
(3) Information necessary to verify your identity pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; and
(4) Any other information that might assist us in identifying the record you seek (e.g., maiden name, dates of employment, etc.).
(c) Verification of identity. We will require proof of your identity, and we reserve the right to determine whether the proof you submit is adequate. In general, we will consider the following to be adequate proof of identity:
(1) If you are a current or former Board employee, your Board identification card; or
(2) If you are not a current or former Board employee, either
(i) Two forms of identification, including one photo identification, or
(ii) A notarized statement attesting to your identity.
(d) Verification of identity not required. We will not require verification of identity when the records you seek are available to any person under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
(e) Request for accounting of previous disclosures. You may request an accounting of previous disclosures of records pertaining to you in a system of records as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552a(c).
(f) Requests Made by Board Employees. Unless the Secretary provides and you are notified otherwise, if you are a current or former Board employee, you also may request access to your record in a system of records by appearing in person before or writing directly to the Board office that maintains the record.
§ 261a.6 Board procedures for responding to request for access.
(a) Compliance with Freedom of Information Act. We will handle every request made pursuant to § 261a.5 of this part (other than requests submitted under § 261a.5(f) that were granted) as a request for information pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act. The time limits set forth in paragraph (b) of this section and the fees specified in § 261a.4 of this part will apply to such requests.
(b) Time for response. We will acknowledge every request made pursuant to § 261a.5 of this part within 20 business days from receipt of the request and will, where practicable, respond to each request within that 20-day period. When a full response is not practicable within the 20-day period, we will respond as promptly as possible.
(c) Disclosure. (1) When we disclose information in response to your request, except for information maintained by the Board's OIG, we will make the information available for inspection and copying during regular business hours at the Board's Freedom of Information Office, or we will mail it to you on your request. For requests made under paragraph § 261a.5(f), you may request that the information be provided orally or in person.
(2) When the information to be disclosed is maintained by the Board's OIG, the OIG will make the information available for inspection and copying or will mail it to you on request.
(3) You may bring with you anyone you choose to see the requested material. All visitors to the Board's buildings must comply with the Board's security procedures.
(d) Denial of request. If we deny a request made pursuant to § 261a.5 of this part, we will tell you the reason(s) for denial and the procedures for appealing the denial. If a request made under paragraph § 261a.5(f) is denied, in whole or in part, the Board office that denied your request will simultaneously notify the Secretary of the Board of its action.
§ 261a.7 Special procedures for medical records.
If you request medical or psychological records pursuant to § 261a.5, we will disclose them directly to you unless the Chief Privacy Officer, in consultation with the Board's physician or Employee Assistance Program counselor, determines that such disclosure could have an adverse effect on you. If the Chief Privacy Officer makes that determination, we will provide the information to a licensed physician or other appropriate representative that you designate, who may disclose those records to you in a manner he or she deems appropriate.
§ 261a.8 Request for amendment of record.
(a) Procedures for making request. (1) If you wish to amend a record that pertains to you in a system of records, you may submit the request in writing to the Secretary of the Board (or to the Inspector General for records in a system of records maintained by the OIG) in an envelope clearly marked “Privacy Act Amendment Request.”
(2) Your request for amendment of a record must—
(i) Identify the system of records containing the record for which amendment is requested;
(ii) Specify the portion of that record requested to be amended; and
(iii) Describe the nature of and reasons for each requested amendment.
(3) We will require you to verify your identity under the procedures set forth in § 261a.5(c) of this part, unless you have already done so in a related request for access or amendment.
(b) Burden of proof. Your request for amendment of a record must tell us why you believe the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete. You have the burden of proof for demonstrating the appropriateness of the requested amendment, and you must provide relevant and convincing evidence in support of your request.
§ 261a.9 Board review of request for amendment of record.
(a) Time limits. We will acknowledge your request for amendment of your record within 10 business days after we receive your request. In the acknowledgment, we may request additional information necessary for a determination on the request for amendment. We will make a determination on a request to amend a record promptly.
(b) Contents of response to request for amendment. When we respond to a request for amendment, we will tell you whether your request is granted or denied. If we grant your request, we will take the necessary steps to amend your record and, when appropriate and possible, notify prior recipients of the record of our action. If we deny the request, in whole or in part, we will tell you—
(1) Why we denied the request (or portion of the request);
(2) That you have a right to appeal; and
(3) How to file an appeal.
§ 261a.10 Appeal of adverse determination of request for access or amendment.
(a) Appeal. You may appeal a denial of a request made pursuant to § 261a.5 or § 261a.8 of this part within 10 business days after we notify you that we denied your request. Your appeal must—
(1) Be made in writing with the words “PRIVACY ACT APPEAL” written prominently on the first page and addressed to the Secretary of the Board, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20551;
(2) Specify the background of the request; and
(3) Provide reasons why you believe the initial denial is in error.
(b) Determination. We will make a determination on your appeal within 30 business days from the date we receive it, unless we extend the time for good cause.
(1) If we grant your appeal regarding a request for amendment, we will take the necessary steps to amend your record and, when appropriate and possible, notify prior recipients of the record of our action.
(2) If we deny your appeal, we will inform you of such determination, tell you our reasons for the denial, and tell you about your rights to file a statement of disagreement and to have a court review our decision.
(c) Statement of disagreement. (1) If we deny your appeal regarding a request for amendment, you may file a concise statement of disagreement with the denial. We will maintain your statement with the record you sought to amend and any disclosure of the record will include a copy of your statement of disagreement.
(2) When practicable and appropriate, we will provide a copy of the statement of disagreement to any prior recipients of the record.
Subpart C Disclosure of Records
§ 261a.11 Restrictions on disclosure.
We will not disclose any record about you contained in a system of records to any person or agency without your prior written consent unless the disclosure is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b).
§ 261a.12 Exempt records.
(a) Information compiled for civil action. This regulation does not permit you to have access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.
(b) Law enforcement information. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), we have determined that it is necessary to exempt the systems of records listed below from the requirements of the Privacy Act concerning access to records, accounting of disclosures of records, maintenance of only relevant and necessary information in files, and certain publication provisions, respectively, 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f), and §§ 261a.5, 261a.7, and 261a.8 of this part. The exemption applies only to the extent that a system of records contains investigatory materials compiled for law enforcement purposes.
(1) BGFRS-1 Recruiting and Placement Records
(2) BGFRS-2 Personnel Security Systems
(3) BGFRS-4 General Personnel Records
(4) BGFRS-5 EEO Discrimination Complaint File
(5) BGFRS-18 Consumer Complaint Information
(6) BGFRS-21 Supervisory Enforcement Actions and Special Examinations Tracking System
(7) BGFRS-31 Protective Information System
(8) BGFRS-32 Visitor Registration System
(9) BGFRS-36 Federal Reserve Application Name Check System
(10) BGFRS-37 Electronic Applications
(11) BGFRS-43 Security Sharing Platform
(12) BGFRS/OIG-1 OIG Investigative Records
(c) Confidential references. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), we have determined that it is necessary to exempt the systems of records listed below from the requirements of the Privacy Act concerning access to records, accounting of disclosures of records, maintenance of only relevant and necessary information in files, and certain publication provisions, respectively, 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f), and §§ 261a.5, 261a.7, and 261a.8 of this part. The exemption applies only to the extent that a system of records contains investigatory material compiled to determine an individual's suitability, eligibility, and qualifications for Board employment or access to classified information, and the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Board under a promise of confidentiality.
(1) BGFRS-1 Recruiting and Placement Records
(2) BGFRS-2 Personnel Security Systems
(3) BGFRS-4 General Personnel Records
(4) BGFRS-10 General Files on Board Members
(5) BGFRS-11 Official General Files
(6) BGFRS-13 Federal Reserve System Bank Supervision Staff Qualifications
(7) BGFRS-14 General File on Federal Reserve Bank and Branch Directors
(8) BGFRS-25 Multi-Rater Feedback Records
(9) BGFRS/OIG-1 OIG Investigative Records
(10) BGFRS/OIG-2 OIG Personnel Records
(d) Criminal law enforcement information. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), we have determined that the OIG Investigative Records (BGFRS/OIG-1) are exempt from the Privacy Act, except the provisions regarding disclosure, the requirement to keep an accounting, certain publication requirements, certain requirements regarding the proper maintenance of systems of records, and the criminal penalties for violation of the Privacy Act, respectively, 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), (c)(1), and (2), (e)(4)(A) through (F), (e)(6), (e)(7), (e)(9), (e)(10), (e)(11) and (i).
[75 FR 63704, Oct. 18, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 73604, Nov. 19, 2020]
PART 261b RULES REGARDING PUBLIC OBSERVATION OF MEETINGS
Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552b.
Source: 42 FR 13297, Mar. 10, 1977, unless otherwise noted.
§ 261b.1 Basis and scope.
This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“the Board”) under section 552b of title 5 of the United States Code, the Government in the Sunshine Act (“the Act”), to carry out the policy of the Act that the public is entitled to the fullest practicable information regarding the decision making processes of the Board while at the same time preserving the rights of individuals and the ability of the Board to carry out its responsibilities. These regulations fulfill the requirement of subsection (g) of the Act that each agency subject to the provisions of the Act shall promulgate regulations to implement the open meeting requirements of subsections (b) through (f) of the Act.
§ 261b.2 Definitions.
For purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply:
(a) The term agency means the Board and subdivisions thereof.
(b) The term subdivision means any group composed of two or more Board members that is authorized to act on behalf of the Board.
(c) The term meeting means the deliberations of at least the number of individual agency members required to take action on behalf of the agency where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Board business, but does not include (1) deliberations required or permitted by subsections (d) or (e) of the Act, or (2) the conduct or disposition of official agency business by circulating written material to individual members.
(d) The term number of individual agency members required to take action on behalf of the agency means in the case of the Board, a majority of its members except that (1) Board determination of the ratio of reserves against deposits under section 19(b) of the Federal Reserve Act requires the vote of four members, (2) Board action with respect to advances, discounts and rediscounts under sections 10(a), 11(b), and 13(3) of the Federal Reserve Act requires the vote of five members and (3) Board action with respect to the percentage of individual member bank capital and surplus which may be represented by loans secured by stock and bond collateral under section 11(m) of the Federal Reserve Act requires the vote of six members. In the case of subdivisions of the Board, the term means the number of members constituting a quorum of the designated subdivision.
(e) The term member means a member of the Board appointed under section 10 of the Federal Reserve Act. In the case of certain Board proceedings pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(e), the Comptroller of the Currency is entitled to sit as a member of the Board and for these proceedings he shall be deemed a member for the purposes of this part. In the case of any subdivision of the Board, the term member means a member of the Board designated to serve on that subdivision.
(f) The term public observation means that the public shall have the right to listen and observe but not to record any of the meetings by means of cameras or electronic or other recording devices unless approval in advance is obtained from the Public Affairs Office of the Board and shall not have the right to participate in the meeting, unless participation is provided for in the Board's Rules of Procedure.
(g) The term Federal agency means an agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(1).
(h) Committee means the Action Committee established pursuant to 12 CFR 265.1a(c).
[42 FR 13297, Mar. 10, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 34481, Aug. 4, 1978]
§ 261b.3 Conduct of agency business.
Members shall not jointly conduct or dispose of official agency business other than in accordance with this part.
§ 261b.4 Meetings open to public observation.
(a) Except as provided in § 261b.5, every portion of every meeting of the agency shall be open to public observation.
(b) Copies of staff documents considered in connection with agency discussion of agenda items for a meeting that is open to public observation shall be made available for distribution to members of the public attending the meeting, in accordance with the provisions of 12 CFR part 261.
(c) The agency will maintain a complete electronic recording adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting or portion of a meeting open to public observation. Cassettes will be available for listening in the Freedom of Information Office, and copies may be ordered for $5 per cassette by telephoning or by writing Freedom of Information Office, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
(d) The agency will maintain mailing lists of names and addresses of all persons who wish to receive copies of agency announcements of meetings open to public observation. Requests for announcements may be made by telephoning or by writing Freedom of Information Office, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
[44 FR 11750, Mar. 2, 1979]
§ 261b.5 Exemptions.
(a) Except in a case where the agency finds that the public interest requires otherwise, the agency may close a meeting or a portion or portions of a meeting under the procedures specified in § 261b.7 or § 261b.8 of this part, and withhold information under the provisions of §§ 261b.6, 261b.7, 261b.8, or 261b.11 of this part, where the agency properly determines that such meeting or portion or portions of its meeting or the disclosure of such information is likely to:
(1) Disclose matters that are (i) specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy, and (ii) in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order;
(2) Relate solely to internal personnel rules and practices;
(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code), provided that such statute (i) requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or (ii) establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;
(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;
(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person;
(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(7) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would—
(i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings,
(ii) Deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication,
(iii) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy,
(iv) Disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by a Federal agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source,
(v) Disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or
(vi) Endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel;
(8) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Board or other Federal agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions;
(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would—
(i) Be likely to (A) lead to significant speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities, or (B) significantly endanger the stability of any financial institution; or
(ii) Be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed action, except that paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section shall not apply in any instance where the Board has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Board is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final action on such proposal; or
(10) Specifically concern the issuance of a subpoena, participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures in section 554 of title 5 of the United States Code or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing.
§ 261b.6 Public announcement of meetings.
(a) Except as otherwise provided by the Act, public announcement of meetings open to public observation and meetings to be partially or completely closed to public observation pursuant to § 261b.8 of this part will be made at least one week in advance of the meeting. Except to the extent such information is determined to be exempt from disclosure under § 261b.5 of this part, each such public announcement will state the time, place and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open or closed to the public, and the name and phone number of the official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting.
(b) If a majority of the members of the agency determines by a recorded vote that agency business requires that a meeting covered by paragraph (a) of this section be called at a date earlier than that specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the agency will make a public announcement of the information specified in paragraph (a) of this section at the earliest practicable time.
(c) Changes in the subject matter of a publicly announced meeting, or in the determination to open or close a publicly announced meeting or any portion of a publicly announced meeting to public observation, or in the time or place of a publicly announced meeting made in accordance with the procedures specified in § 261b.9 of this part will be publicly announced at the earliest practicable time.
(d) Public announcements required by this section will be posted at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office and may be made available by other means or at other locations as may be desirable.
(e) Immediately following each public announcement required by this section, notice of the time, place and subject matter of a meeting, whether the meeting is open or closed, any change in one of the preceding announcements and the name and telephone number of the official designated by the Board to respond to requests about the meeting, shall also be submitted for publication in the Federal Register.
§ 261b.7 Meetings closed to public observation under expedited procedures.
(a) Since the Board and the Committee qualifies for the use of expedited procedures under subsection (d)(4) of the Act, meetings or portions thereof exempt under paragraph (a)(4), (a)(8), (a)(9)(i) or (a)(10) of § 261b.5 of this part, will be closed to public observation under the expedited procedures of this section. Following are examples of types of items that, absent compelling contrary circumstances, will qualify for these exemptions: Matters relating to a specific bank or bank holding company, such as bank branches or mergers, bank holding company formations, or acquisition of an additional bank or acquisition or de novo undertaking of a permissible nonbanking activity; matters relating to a specific savings and loan holding company or its subsidiaries, such as acquisitions, reorganizations, savings and loan holding company formations, conversions, or acquisition or de novo undertaking of a permissible activity; bank regulatory matters, such as applications for membership, issuance of capital notes and investment in bank premises; foreign banking matters; bank supervisory and enforcement matters, such as cease-and-desist and officer removal proceedings; monetary policy matters, such as discount rates, use of the discount window, changes in the limitations on payment of interest on time and savings accounts, and changes in reserve requirements or margin regulations.
(b) At the beginning of each meeting, a portion or portions of which is closed to public observation under expedited procedures pursuant to this section, a recorded vote of the members present will be taken to determine whether a majority of the members of the agency votes to close such meeting of portions of such meeting to public observation.
(c) A copy of the vote, reflecting the vote of each member, and except to the extent such information is determined to be exempt from disclosure under § 261b.5, a public announcement of the time, place and subject matter of the meeting or each closed portion thereof, will be made available at the earliest practicable time at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office.
[42 FR 13297, Mar. 10, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 34481, Aug. 4, 1978; 76 FR 56601, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 261b.8 Meetings closed to public observation under regular procedures.
(a) A meeting or a portion of a meeting will be closed to public observation under regular procedures, or information as to such meeting or portion of a meeting will be withheld only by recorded vote of a majority of the members of the agency when it is determined that the meeting or the portion of the meeting or the withholding of information qualifies for exemption under § 261b.5. Votes by proxy are not allowed.
(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, a separate vote of the members of the agency will be taken with respect to the closing or the withholding of information as to each meeting or portion thereof which is proposed to be closed to public observation or with respect to which information is proposed to be withheld pursuant to this section.
(c) A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings, a portion or portions of which are proposed to be closed to public observation or with respect to any information concerning such series of meetings proposed to be withheld, so long as each meeting or portion thereof in such series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in such series.
(d) Whenever any person's interests may be directly affected by a portion of a meeting for any of the reasons referred to in exemption (a)(5), (a)(6) or (a)(7) of § 261b.5 of this part, such person may request in writing to the Secretary of the Board that such portion of the meeting be closed to public observation. The Secretary, or in his or her absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board, will transmit the request to the members and upon the request of any one of them a recorded vote will be taken whether to close such meeting to public observation.
(e) Within one day of any vote taken pursuant to paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, the agency will make publicly available at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office a written copy of such vote reflecting the vote of each member on the question. If a meeting or a portion of a meeting is to be closed to public observation, the agency, within one day of the vote taken pursuant to paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, will make publicly available at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office a full, written explanation of its action closing the meeting or portion of the meeting together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation, except to the extent such information is determined by the agency to be exempt from disclosure under subsection (c) of the Act and § 261b.5 of this part.
(f) Any person may request in writing to the Secretary of the Board that an announced closed meeting, or portion of the meeting, be held open to public observation. The Secretary, or in his or her absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board, will transmit the request to the members of the Board and upon the request of any member a recorded vote will be taken whether to open such meeting to public observation.
[42 FR 13297, Mar. 10, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 11750, Mar. 2, 1979]
§ 261b.9 Changes with respect to publicly announced meeting.
The subject matter of a meeting or the determination to open or close a meeting or a portion of a meeting to public observation may be changed following public announcement under § 261b.6 only if a majority of the members of the agency determines by a recorded vote that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible. Public announcement of such change and the vote of each member upon such change will be made pursuant to § 261b.6(c). Changes in time, including postponements and cancellations of a publicly announced meeting or portion of a meeting or changes in the place of a publicly announced meeting will be publicly announced pursuant to § 261b.6(c) by the Secretary of the Board or, in the Secretary's absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board.
§ 261b.10 Certification of General Counsel.
Before every meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation under § 261b.7 or 261b.8 of this part, the General Counsel, or in the General Counsel's absence, the Acting General Counsel, shall publicly certify whether or not in his or her opinion the meeting may be closed to public observation and shall state each relevant exemptive provision. A copy of such certification, together with a statement from the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, will be retained for the time prescribed in § 261b.11(d).
§ 261b.11 Transcripts, recordings, and minutes.
(a) The agency will maintain a complete transcript or electronic recording or transcription thereof adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation pursuant to exemption (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7) or (a)(9)(ii) of § 261b.5 of this part. Transcriptions of recordings will disclose the identity of each speaker.
(b) The agency will maintain either such a transcript, recording or transcription thereof, or a set of minutes that will fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken and the reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any roll call vote (reflecting the vote of each member on the question), for meetings or portions of meetings closed to public observation pursuant to exemptions (a)(8), (a)(9)(A) or (a)(10) of § 261b.5 of this part. The minutes will identify all documents considered in connection with any action taken.
(c) Transcripts, recordings or transcriptions thereof, or minutes will promptly be made available to the public in the Freedom of Information Office except for such item or items of such discussion or testimony as may be determined to contain information that may be withheld under subsection (c) of the Act and § 261b.5 of this part.
(d) A complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes, or a complete electronic recording or verbatim copy of a transcription thereof of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation will be maintained for a period of at least two years or one year after the conclusion of any agency proceeding with respect to which the meeting or portion thereof was held, whichever occurs later.
§ 261b.12 Procedures for inspection and obtaining copies of transcriptions and minutes.
(a) Any person may inspect or copy a transcript, a recording or transcription of a recording, or minutes described in § 261b.11(c) of this part.
(b) Requests for copies of transcripts, recordings or transcriptions of recordings, or minutes described in § 261b.11(c) of this part shall specify the meeting or the portion of meeting desired and shall be submitted in writing to the Secretary of the Board, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. Copies of documents identified in minutes may be made available to the public upon request under the provisions of 12 CFR part 261 (Rules Regarding Availability of Information).
§ 261b.13 Fees.
(a) Copies of transcripts, recordings or transcriptions of recordings, or minutes requested pursuant to section § 261b.12(b) of this part will be provided at the cost of 10¢ per standard page for photocopying or at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of printing, typing, or otherwise preparing such copies.
(b) Documents may be furnished without charge where total charges are less than $2.
PART 262 RULES OF PROCEDURE
Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 248, 321, 325, 326, 483, 602, 611a, 625, 1467a, 1828(c), 1842, 1844, 1850a, 1867, 3105, 3106, 3108, 5334, 5361, 5368, 5467, and 5469.
Source: 38 FR 6807, Mar. 13, 1973, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Rules of Procedure
§ 262.1 Basis and scope.
This part is issued pursuant to section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code, which requires that every agency shall publish in the Federal Register statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, rules of procedure, and descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained.
§ 262.2 Procedure for regulations.
(a) Notice. Notices of proposed regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the “Board”) or amendments thereto are published in the Federal Register, except as specified in paragraph (e) of this section or otherwise excepted by law. Such notices include a statement of the terms of the proposed regulations or amendments and a description of the subjects and issues involved; but the giving of such notices does not necessarily indicate the Board's final approval of any feature of any such proposal. The notices also include a reference to the authority for the proposed regulations or amendments and a statement of the time, place, and nature of public participation.
(b) Public participation. The usual method of public submission of data, views, or arguments is in writing. It is ordinarily preferable that they be sent to the Secretary of the Board, Washington, DC 20551, with copies to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. The locations of the 12 Federal Reserve Banks and the boundaries of the Federal Reserve districts are shown in the appendix to the Board's rules of organization. Such material will be made available for inspection and copying upon request, except as provided in § 261.6(b) of this chapter regarding availability of information.
(c) Preparation of draft and action by Board. In the light of consideration of all relevant matter presented or ascertained, the appropriate division of the Board's staff, in collaboration with other divisions, prepares drafts of proposed regulations or amendments, and the staff submits them to the Board. The Board takes such action as it deems appropriate in the public interest. Any other documents that may be necessary to carry out any decision by the Board in the matter are usually prepared by the Legal Division, in collaboration with the other divisions of the staff.
(d) Effective dates. Any substantive regulation or amendment thereto issued by the Board is published not less than 30 days prior to the effective date thereof, except as specified in paragraph (e) of this section or as otherwise excepted by law.
(e) Exceptions as to notice or effective date. In certain situations, notice and public participation with respect to proposed regulations may be impracticable, unnecessary, contrary to the public interest, or otherwise not required in the public interest, or there may be reason and good cause in the public interest why the effective date should not be deferred for 30 days. The reason or reasons in such cases usually are that such notice, public participation, or deferment of effective date would prevent the action from becoming effective as promptly as necessary in the public interest, would permit speculators or others to reap unfair profits or to interfere with the Board's actions taken with a view to accommodating commerce and business and with regard to their bearing upon the general credit situation of the country, would provoke other consequences contrary to the public interest, would unreasonably interfere with the Board's necessary functions with respect to management or personnel, would not aid the persons affected, or would otherwise serve no useful purpose. The following may be mentioned as some examples of situations in which advance notice or deferred effective date, or both, will ordinarily be omitted in the public interest: The review and determination of discount rates established by Federal Reserve Banks, and changes in general requirements regarding reserves of member banks, maximum interest rates on time and savings deposits, or credit for purchasing or carrying securities.
[38 FR 6807, Mar. 13, 1973, as amended at 54 FR 33183, Aug. 14, 1989]
§ 262.3 Applications.
(a) Forms. Any application, request, or petition (hereafter referred to as “application”) for the approval, authority, determination, or permission of the Board with respect to any action for which such approval, authority, determination, or permission is required by law or regulation of the Board (including actions authorized to be taken by a Federal Reserve Bank or others on behalf of the Board pursuant to authority delegated under Part 265 of this chapter) shall be submitted in accordance with the pertinent form, if any, prescribed by the Board. Copies of any such form and details regarding information to be included therein may be obtained from any Federal Reserve Bank. Any application for which no form is prescribed should be signed by the person making the application or by his duly authorized agent, should state the facts involved, the action requested, and the applicant's interest in the matter, and should indicate the reasons why the application should be granted. Applications for access to, or copying of, records of the Board should be submitted as provided in § 261.9(a) of this chapter.
(b) Notice of applications. (1)(i) In the case of applications,
(A) By a State member bank for the establishment of a domestic branch or other facility that would be authorized to receive deposits,
(B) To become a bank holding company (except as provided in § 225.15 of this chapter),
(C) By a bank holding company to acquire ownership or control of shares or assets of a bank, or to merge or consolidate with any other bank holding company,
(D) To become a savings and loan holding company (except as provided in § 238.14 of this chapter), and
(E) By a savings and loan holding company to acquire ownership or control of shares or assets of a savings association, or to merge or consolidate with any other savings and loan holding company, the applicant shall cause to be published a notice in the form prescribed by the Board.
(ii) The notice shall be placed in the classified advertising legal notices section of the newspaper, and must provide an opportunity for the public to give written comment on the application to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank for the period specified in Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) in the case of applications specified in § 262.3(b)(1)(i)(A), and for at least thirty days after the date of publication in the case of applications specified in § 262.3(b)(1)(i)(B) and (C). Within 7 days of publication, the applicant shall submit its application to the appropriate Reserve Bank for acceptance along with a copy of the notice. If the Reserve Bank has not accepted the application as complete within ninety days of the date of publication of the notice, the applicant may be required to republish notice of the application. Such notice shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in—
(A) [Reserved]
(B) The community or communities in which the head office of the bank and the proposed branch or other facility (other than an electronic funds transfer facility) are located in the case of an application for the establishment of a domestic branch or other facility that would be authorized to receive deposits, other than an application incidental to an application by a bank for merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities,
(C) The community or communities in which the head office of the bank, the office to be closed, and the office to be opened are located in the case of an application for the relocation of a domestic branch office,
(D) The community or communities in which the head office of each of the banks to be party to the merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities are located in the case of an application by a bank for merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities,
(E) The community or communities in which the head offices of the largest subsidiary bank, if any, of an applicant and of each bank, shares of which are to be directly or indirectly acquired, are located in the case of applications under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act, or
(F) The community or communities in which the head offices of the largest subsidiary savings association, if any, of an applicant and of each savings association, shares of which are to be directly or indirectly acquired, are located in the case of applications under section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act.
(2) In addition to the foregoing notice, an applicant, in the case of an application to relocate a domestic branch office or other facility that would be authorized to receive deposits, shall post in a conspicuous public place in the lobby of the office to be closed a notice containing the information specified in § 262.3(b)(1). Such notice should be posted on the date of the notice required by § 262.3(b)(1).
(3) In the case of an application for a merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities, if the acquiring, assuming, or resulting bank is to be a State member bank, the applicant shall cause to be published notice in the form prescribed by the Board. The notice shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the community or communities in which the head office of each of the banks to be a party to the merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities is located. The notice shall be published on at least three occasions at appropriate intervals. The last publication of the notice shall appear at least thirty days after the first publication. The notice must provide an opportunity for the public to give written comment on the application to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank for at least thirty days after the date of the first publication of the notice. Within seven days of publication of notice for the first time, the applicant shall submit its application to the appropriate Reserve Bank for acceptance, along with a copy of the notice. If the Reserve Bank has not accepted the application as complete within ninety days of the date of the first publication of the notice, the applicant may be required to republish notice of the application.
(c) Filing of applications. Any application should be sent to the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which the head office of the parent banking organization is located, except as otherwise specified on application forms, and that Bank will forward it to the Board when appropriate; however, in the case of foreign banking organization, as defined in § 211.23(a)(2) of this chapter, applications shall be sent to the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which the operations of the organization's subsidiary banks are principally conducted. In the case of a foreign banking organization that is not a bank holding company but that has one or more branches, agencies, or commercial lending companies in any State of the United States or the District of Columbia, applications shall be sent to the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which the organization's banking assets are the largest. Applications of a member bank subsidiary, however, should be filed with the Reserve Bank of the district in which the member bank is located.
(d) Analysis by staff. In every case, the Reserve Bank makes such investigation as may be necessary, and, except when acting pursuant to delegated authority, reports the relevant facts, with its recommendation, to the Board. In the light of consideration of all relevant matter presented or ascertained, the Board's staff prepares and submits to the Board comments on the subject.
(e) Submission of comments and requests for hearing. The Board is only required to consider a comment or a request for a hearing with respect to an application or notice if it is in writing and received by the Secretary of the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank on or before the latest date prescribed in any notice with respect to the application or notice, or where no such date is prescribed, on or before the 30th day after the date notice is first published. Similarly, the Board will consider comments on an application from the Attorney General or a banking supervisory authority to which notification of receipt of an application has been given, only if such comment is received by the Secretary of the Board within 30 days of the date of the letter giving such notification. Any comment on an application or notice that requests a hearing must include a statement of why a written presentation would not suffice in lieu of a hearing, identifying specifically any questions of fact that are in dispute and summarizing the evidence that would be presented at a hearing. In every case where a timely comment or request for hearing is received as provided herein, a copy of such comment or request shall be forwarded promptly to the applicant for its response. The Board will consider the applicant's response only if it is in writing and sent to the Secretary of the Board on or before eight business days after the date of the letter by which it is forwarded to the applicant. At the same time it transmits its response to the Board, the applicant should transmit a copy of its response to the person or supervisory authority making such comment or requesting a hearing. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Board may, in its sole discretion and without notifying the parties, take into consideration the substance of comments with respect to an application, (but not requests for hearing) that are not received within the time periods provided herein.
(f) Action on applications. The Board takes such action as it deems appropriate in the public interest. Such documents as may be necessary to carry out any decision by the Board are prepared by the Board's staff. With respect to actions taken by a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of the Board under delegated authority, statements and necessary documents are prepared by the staff of such Federal Reserve Bank.
(g) Notice of action. Prompt notice is given to the applicant of the granting or denial in whole or in part of any application. In the case of a denial, except in affirming a prior denial or where the denial is self-explanatory, such notice is accompanied by a simple statement of the grounds for such action.
(h) Action at Board's initiative. When the Board, without receiving an application, takes action with respect to any matter as to which opportunity for hearing is not required by statute or Board regulation, similar procedure is followed, including investigations, reports, and recommendations by the Board's staff and by the Reserve Banks, where appropriate.
(i) General procedures for bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, and merger applications. In addition to procedures applicable under other provisions of this part, the following procedures are applicable in connection with the Board's consideration of applications under sections 3 and 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1842 and 1843), hereafter referred to as “section 3 applications” or “section 4 applications,” applications under section 10(c), (e), and (o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a), hereafter referred to as “section 10 applications,” and of applications under section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823), hereafter called “merger applications.” Except as otherwise indicated, the following procedures apply to all such applications.
(1) The Board issues each week a list that identifies section 3, section 4, section 10, and merger applications received and acted upon during the preceding week by the Board or the Reserve Banks pursuant to delegated authority. Notice of receipt of all section 3 section 4(c)(8), and section 10 applications acted on by the Board is published in the Federal Register.
(2) If a hearing is required by law or if the Board determines that a formal hearing for the purpose of taking evidence is desirable, the Board issues an order for such a hearing, and a notice thereof is published in the Federal Register. Any such formal hearing is conducted by an administrative law judge in accordance with subparts A and B of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (part 263 of this chapter).
(3) In any case in which a formal hearing is not ordered by the Board, the Board may afford the applicant and other properly interested persons (including Governmental agencies) an opportunity to present views orally before the Board or its designated representative. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, any such oral presentation is public and notice of such public proceeding is published in the Federal Register.
(4) Each action taken by the Board on an application is embodied in an order that indicates the votes of members of the Board. The order either contains reasons for the Board's action (i.e., an expanded order) or is accompanied by a statement of the reasons for the Board's action. Both the order and any accompanying statement are released to the press. Each order accompanied by a statement and any order of general interest, together with a list of other orders, are published in the Federal Reserve Bulletin. Action by a Reserve Bank under delegated authority as provided for under part 265 of this chapter is reflected in a letter of notification to the applicant.
(5) Unless the Board shall otherwise direct, each section 3, section 4, section 10, and merger application is made available for inspection by the public except for portions thereof as to which the Board determines that nondisclosure is warranted under section 552(b) of title 5 of the United States Code.
(j) Special procedures for certain applications. The following types of applications require procedures exclusive of, or in addition to, those described in paragraphs (i)(1) through (5) of this section.
(1) Special rules pertaining to section 3 and merger applications follow:
(i) Each order of the Board and each letter of notification by a Reserve Bank acting pursuant to delegated authority approving a section 3 application includes, pursuant to the Act approved July 1, 1966 (12 U.S.C. 1849(b)), a requirement that the transaction approved shall not be consummated before the 30th calendar day following the date of such order.
(ii) Each order of the Board approving a merger application includes, pursuant to the Act approved February 21, 1966 (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(6)), a requirement that the transaction approved shall not be consummated before the 30th calendar day following the date of such order, except as the Board may otherwise determine pursuant to emergency situations as to which the Act permits consummation at earlier dates.
(iii) Each order or each letter of notification approving an application also includes, as a condition of approval, a requirement that the transaction approved shall be consummated within 3 months and, in the case of acquisition by a holding company of stock of a newly organized bank, a requirement that such bank shall be opened for business within 6 months, but such periods may be extended for good cause by the Board (or by the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank where authority to grant such extensions is delegated to the Reserve Bank).
(2) For special rules governing procedures for section 4 applications, refer to § 225.23 of this chapter.
(3) Special rules pertaining to applications filed pursuant to section 10(e) and (o) of HOLA follow:
(i) Each order or each letter of notification approving an application also includes, as a condition of approval, a requirement that the transaction approved shall be consummated within 3 months and, in the case of acquisition by a holding company of stock of a newly organized savings association, a requirement that such savings association shall be opened for business within 6 months, but such periods may be extended for good cause by the Board (or by the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank where authority to grant such extensions is delegated to the Reserve Bank).
(ii) [Reserved]
(4) [Reserved]
(5) For special rules governing procedures for section 4(c)(13) applications, refer to § 225.4(f) of this chapter.
(k) Reconsideration of certain Board actions. The Board may reconsider any action taken by it on an application upon receipt by the Secretary of the Board of a written request for reconsideration from any party to such application, on or before the 15th day after the effective date of the Board's action. Such request should specify the reasons why the Board should reconsider its action, and present relevant facts that for good cause shown, were not previously presented to the Board. Within 10 days of receipt of such a request, the General Counsel, acting pursuant to delegated authority (12 CFR 265.2(b)(7)), shall determine whether or not the request for reconsideration should be granted, and shall notify all parties to the application orally by telephone of this determination within 10 days. Such notification will be confirmed promptly in writing. In the exercise of this authority, the General Counsel shall confer with the Directors of other interested Divisions of the Board or their designees. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Board may, on its own motion if it deems reconsideration appropriate, elect to reconsider its action with respect to any application, and the parties to such application shall be notified by the Secretary of the Board of its election as provided above. If it is determined that the Board should reconsider its action with respect to an application, such action will be stayed and will not be final until the Board has acted on the application upon reconsideration. If appropriate, notice of reconsideration of an application will be published promptly in the Federal Register.
(l) Waiver. The Board, or the officer or Reserve Bank authorized to approve an application, may waive or modify any procedural requirements for that application prescribed or cited in this section and may excuse any failure to comply with them upon a finding that immediate action on the application is necessary to prevent the probable failure of a bank or company or that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action.
(12 U.S.C. 1842(a), 1843, and 1844(b), 12 U.S.C. 1828(c), 321 and 248(i))
[38 FR 6807, Mar. 13, 1973]
Editorial Note:For Federal Register citations affecting § 262.3, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.
§ 262.4 Adjudication with formal hearing.
In connection with adjudication with respect to which a formal hearing is required by law or is ordered by the Board, the procedure is set forth in part 263 of this chapter, entitled “Rules of Practice for Formal Hearings.”
§ 262.5 Appearance and practice.
Appearance and practice before the Board in all matters are governed by § 263.3 of this chapter.
§ 262.6 Forms.
Necessary forms to be used in connection with applications and other matters are available at the Federal Reserve Banks. A list of all such forms, which is reviewed and revised periodically, may be obtained from any Federal Reserve Bank.
(a) This action is taken pursuant to and in accordance with the provisions of section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code.
(b) The provisions of section 553 of title 5, United States Code, relating to notice and public participation and to deferred effective dates, are not followed in connection with the adoption of this action, because the rules involved are procedural in nature and accordingly do not constitute substantive rules subject to the requirements of such section.
§ 262.7 Use of supervisory guidance.
(a) Purpose. The Board issues regulations and guidance as part of its supervisory function. This section reiterates the distinctions between regulations and guidance, as stated in the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance (appendix A to this part) (Statement).
(b) Implementation of the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance. The Statement describes the official policy of the Board with respect to the use of supervisory guidance in the supervisory process. The Statement is binding on the Board.
(c) Rule of construction. This section does not alter the legal status of guidelines authorized by statute, including but not limited to, 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1, to create binding legal obligations.
[86 FR 18179, Apr. 8, 2021]
§§ 262.8-262.24 [Reserved]
§ 262.25 Policy statement regarding notice of applications; timeliness of comments; informal meetings.
(a) Notice of applications. A bank or company applying to the Board for a deposit-taking facility must first publish notice of its application in local newspapers. This requirement, found in § 262.3(b)(1) of the Board's Rules of Procedure covers applications under the Bank Holding Company Act, Bank Merger Act, and Home Owners' Loan Act, as well as applications for membership in the Federal Reserve System and for new branches of State member banks. Notices of these applications are published in newspapers of general circulation in the communities where the applicant intends to do business as well as in the community where the applicant's head office is located. These notices are important in calling the public's attention to an applicant's plans and giving the public a chance to comment on these plans. To improve the effectiveness of the notices, the Board has supplemented its notice procedures as follows.
(1) The Board has adopted standard forms of notice for use by applicants that will specify the exact date on which the comment period on the application ends, which may not be less than thirty calendar days from the date of publication of the notice. The newspaper forms also provide the name and telephone number of the Community Affairs Officer of the appropriate Reserve Bank as the person to call to obtain more information about submitting comments on an application. In general, the Community Affairs Officer will be available to answer questions of a general nature concerning the submission of comments and the processing of applications.
(2) The Board also publishes notice of bank holding company applications for bank acquisitions (but not for bank mergers or branches) and savings and loan holding company applications for savings association acquisitions (but not for savings association mergers or branches) in the Federal Register after the application is received and the Community Affairs Officer can provide the exact date on which this comment period ends. (The Federal Register comment period will generally end after the date specified in the newspaper notice.)
(3) In addition to the formal newspaper and Federal Register notices discussed above, each Reserve Bank publishes a weekly list of applications submitted to the Reserve Bank for which newspaper notices have been published. Any person or organization may arrange to have the list mailed to them regularly, or may request particular lists, by contacting the Reserve Bank's Community Affairs Officer. Each Reserve Bank's list includes only applications submitted to that particular Reserve Bank, and persons or groups should request lists from each Reserve Bank having jurisdiction over applications in which they may be interested. Since the lists are prepared as a courtesy by the Reserve Bank, and are not intended to replace any formal notice required by statute or regulation, the Reserve Banks and the Board do not assume responsibility for errors or omissions. In addition, the weekly lists prepared by Reserve Banks include certain applications by bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies for nonbank and non-depository institution acquisitions, respectively, filed with the Reserve Bank.
(4) With respect to applications by bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies to engage de novo in nonbank activities or make acquisitions of nonbank firms, the Board publishes notice of most of these applications in the Federal Register when the applications are filed. Notice of certain small acquisitions may be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the area(s) to be served. While applications for nonbanking activities are not covered by the provisions of the Community Reinvestment Act or the notice provisions of § 262.3 of the Board's Rules of Procedure, the provisions of this Statement apply to such applications.
(b) Timeliness of comments. (1) All comments must be actually received by the Board or the Reserve Bank on or before the last date of the comment period specified in the notice. Where more than one notice is published with respect to an application, comments must be received on or before the last date of the latest comment period. The Board's Rules allow it to disregard comments received after the comment period expires. In particular, § 262.3(e) of the Board's Rules of Procedure states that the Board will not consider comments on an application that are not received on or before the expiration of the comment period. Thus, a commenter who fails to comment on an application within the specified comment period (or any extension) may be precluded from participating in the consideration of the application.
(2) In cases where a commenter for good cause is unable to send its comment within the specified comment period, § 265.2(a)(10) of the Board's Rules Regarding Delegation of Authority (12 CFR 265.2(a)(10)) allows the Secretary of the Board to grant requests for an extension of the period. Under this provision, upon receipt of a request received on or before the expiration of the comment period, the Secretary may grant a brief extension upon clear demonstration of hardship or other meritorious reason for seeking additional time.
(c) Private meetings. When a timely protest to approval of an application is received, the Reserve Bank may arrange a meeting between the applicant and the protestant to clarify and narrow the issues, and to provide a forum for the resolution of differences between the protestant and the applicant. If the Reserve Bank decides that a private meeting would be appropriate, the Reserve Bank will arrange a private meeting soon after the receipt of a protest and the applicant's response, if any, to the protest. In scheduling the meeting, the Reserve Bank will consider convenience to the parties with respect to the time and place of the meeting. A decision to hold a private meeting will not preclude the Reserve Bank or the Board from holding a public meeting or other proceeding if it is deemed appropriate.
(d) Public meetings. The Board's General Counsel (in consultation with the Reserve Bank and the directors of other interested divisions of the Board) may order that a public meeting or other proceeding be held if requested by the applicant or a protestant who files a timely protest, or if such a proceeding appears appropriate. In most instances, the determination to order a public meeting will be made after a private meeting has been held; however, where appropriate a public meeting may be convened immediately after receipt of the protest and the applicant's response, if any. Additional information may be requested prior to making a determination to convene a public meeting. In these cases, a determination will be made within ten days from the date all relevant information is received. The public meeting will be scheduled as soon as possible, but in no event, later than 30 days after the decision to hold the proceeding is made. The purpose of the public meeting will be to elicit information, to clarify factual issues related to the application and to provide an opportunity for interested individuals to provide testimony. The Board has adopted the following guidelines to be used for convening public meetings, although specific provisions may be altered by the General Counsel if circumstances warrant.
(1) Requesting a public meeting. A meeting may be requested by a person or an organization objecting to the application during the comment period, and by the applicant during the period within which it must respond to comments. Such a request must be timely and in writing.
(i) A protest does not have to be filed in a legal brief or other format in order for a public meeting to be granted. The Community Affairs Officer at the Reserve Bank will be available to assist any member of the public regarding the types of information generally included in protests; the format generally used by protestants; and any other specific questions about the procedures of the Federal Reserve System regarding protested applications.
(ii) In general, a protest should identify the protestant, state the basis for objection to approval of the application, and provide available written evidence to support the objection. Objections to approval of an application must relate to the factors that the Board is authorized to consider in acting on an application. Generally, these factors relate to the financial and managerial resources of the companies and banks involved, the effects of the proposal on competition, and the convenience and needs of the communities to be served by the companies and banks involved. If a public meeting is requested, the protest should indicate that there are members of the public who wish to speak on the issues in a public forum.
(iii) The protest will be transmitted by the Reserve Bank to the applicant, and the applicant will generally be allowed eight business days to respond in writing to the protest.
(2) Arranging the public meeting. Public meetings will be arranged and presided over by a representative of the Federal Reserve System (“Presiding Officer”). In determining the time and place for the public meeting, such factors as convenience to the parties, the number of people expected to attend the meeting, access to public transportation and possible after-hour security problems will be taken into account.
(3) Conducting the public meeting. Prior to the meeting, all necessary steps will be taken to ensure that the meeting is conducted appropriately, including scheduling of witnesses, submission of written materials and other arrangements. In conducting the public meeting the Presiding Officer will have the authority and discretion to ensure that the meeting proceeds in a fair and orderly manner. Generally, the public meeting will consist of opening and closing remarks by the Presiding Officer, a presentation by the protestant and a presentation by the applicant. An official transcript will be made of the proceedings and entered into the record. The conclusion of the public meeting normally marks the close of the public portion of the record on the application.
(4) Notification of Board decision on the application. After a decision is made on the application, and the applicant is notified of the decision, staff will notify the protestant by telephone. This notification will be confirmed promptly in writing. As set forth in § 262.3(k) of the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3(k)) or § 265.3 of the Board's Rules Regarding Delegation of Authority (12 CFR 265.3), a party to the application may request reconsideration of the Board's order, or review of the Reserve Bank's decision.
[49 FR 5603, Feb. 14, 1984, as amended at 57 FR 41642, Sept. 11, 1992; 76 FR 56602, Sept. 13, 2011]
Subpart B Financial Data Transparency
Source: 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026, unless otherwise noted.
§ 262.26 Definitions.
Agencies means, collectively, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; National Credit Union Administration; Consumer Financial Protection Bureau; Federal Housing Finance Agency; Commodity Futures Trading Commission; Securities and Exchange Commission; and Department of the Treasury; and Agency means any one of the Agencies, individually.
Collection of information means a collection of information as defined in the Paperwork Reduction Act (codified at 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.).
Data standard means a standard that specifies rules by which data is described and recorded.
Geospatial Intelligence Standards Working Group means the joint technical working group established in 2005 by the National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency.
International Organization for Standardization or ISO means the independent, non-governmental international organization that develops voluntary, consensus-based, market-relevant, international standards.
[38 FR 6807, Mar. 13, 1973. Redesignated at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026]
§262.27 Establishment of standards.
(a) Data standards. The Agencies establish the following data standards for purposes of section 124(b)(2) of the Financial Stability Act of 2010, 12 U.S.C. 5334(b)(2), as added by section 5811 of the Financial Data Transparency Act of 2022, for collections of information reported to each Agency by financial entities under the jurisdiction of such Agency and the data collected from Agencies on behalf of the Financial Stability Oversight Council.
(1) Legal entity identifier. The legal entity identifier is established to be ISO 17442—Financial Services—the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI).
(2) Other common identifiers and classifiers. The following common identifiers and classifiers are established as data standards, as applicable:
(i) For identification of swaps and security-based swaps: ISO 4914—Financial services—Unique product identifier (UPI);
(ii) For classification of financial instruments that are not swaps or security-based swaps: ISO 10962—Securities and related financial instruments—Classification of financial instruments (CFI);
(iii) For identification of dates: date as defined by ISO 8601—Date and time—Representations for information interchange;
(iv) For identification of states, possessions, or military “states” of the United States of America or geographic directionals: U.S. Postal Service Abbreviations as published in appendix B of Publication 28—Postal Addressing Standards, Mailing Standards of the United States Postal Service;
(v) For identification of countries and their subdivisions: the country code with the code for subdivisions, as appropriate, as defined by the Geopolitical Entities, Names, and Codes (GENC) developed by the Country Codes Working Group of the Geospatial Intelligence Standards Working Group; and
(vi) For identification of currencies: the alphabetic currency code as defined by ISO 4217—Currency Codes.
(3) Data transmission and schema and taxonomy format data standards—(i) Data standard. For the reporting of information pursuant to a collection of information to the Agencies and the use of schemas and taxonomies by the Agencies, the Agencies establish the data standard that the data transmission or schema and taxonomy format used have the properties set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section.
(ii) Properties. To be considered a data transmission or schema and taxonomy format that meets the data standard set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the data transmission or schema and taxonomy format must, to the extent practicable:
(A) Render data fully searchable and machine-readable;
(B) Enable high quality data through schemas, with accompanying metadata documented in machine-readable taxonomy or ontology models, which clearly define the semantic meaning of the data, as defined by the underlying regulatory information collection requirements, as appropriate;
(C) Ensure that a data element or data asset that exists to satisfy an underlying regulatory information collection requirement be consistently identified as such in associated machine-readable metadata; and
(D) Be nonproprietary or available under an open license.
(b) Consideration by the Agencies. The data standards established in paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to consideration by the Agencies of the applicability, feasibility, practicability, scaling, minimization of disruption to affected persons, and tailoring, as specified in the Financial Data Transparency Act of 2022, and the Agencies therefore may tailor the data standards they adopt, or adopt data standards not established by this section.
[38 FR 6807, Mar. 13, 1973. Redesignated at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026]
Appendix A to Part 262 Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
The Board is issuing this statement to explain the role of supervisory guidance and to describe the Board's approach to supervisory guidance.
Difference Between Supervisory Guidance and Laws or Regulations
The Board issues various types of supervisory guidance, including interagency statements, advisories, letters, policy statements, questions and answers, and frequently asked questions, to its supervised institutions. A law or regulation has the force and effect of law. 1 Unlike a law or regulation, supervisory guidance does not have the force and effect of law, and the Board does not take enforcement actions based on supervisory guidance. Rather, supervisory guidance outlines the Board's supervisory expectations or priorities and articulates the Board's general views regarding appropriate practices for a given subject area. Supervisory guidance often provides examples of practices that the Board generally considers consistent with safety-and-soundness standards or other applicable laws and regulations, including those designed to protect consumers. Supervised institutions at times request supervisory guidance, and such guidance is important to provide insight to industry, as well as supervisory staff, in a transparent way that helps to ensure consistency in the supervisory approach.
1 Government agencies issue regulations that generally have the force and effect of law. Such regulations generally take effect only after the agency proposes the regulation to the public and responds to comments on the proposal in a final rulemaking document.
Ongoing Efforts To Clarify the Role of Supervisory Guidance
The Board is clarifying the following policies and practices related to supervisory guidance:
• The Board intends to limit the use of numerical thresholds or other “bright-lines” in describing expectations in supervisory guidance. Where numerical thresholds are used, the Board intends to clarify that the thresholds are exemplary only and not suggestive of requirements. The Board will continue to use numerical thresholds to tailor, and otherwise make clear, the applicability of supervisory guidance or programs to supervised institutions, and as required by statute.
• Examiners will not criticize (through the issuance of matters requiring attention), a supervised financial institution for, and the Board will not issue an enforcement action on the basis of, a “violation” of or “non-compliance” with supervisory guidance. In some situations, examiners may reference (including in writing) supervisory guidance to provide examples of safe and sound conduct, appropriate consumer protection and risk management practices, and other actions for addressing compliance with laws or regulations.
• Supervisory criticisms should continue to be specific as to practices, operations, financial conditions, or other matters that could have a negative effect on the safety and soundness of the financial institution, could cause consumer harm, or could cause violations of laws, regulations, final agency orders, or other legally enforceable conditions.
• The Board has at times sought, and may continue to seek, public comment on supervisory guidance. Seeking public comment on supervisory guidance does not mean that the guidance is intended to be a regulation or have the force and effect of law. The comment process helps the Board to improve its understanding of an issue, to gather information on institutions' risk management practices, or to seek ways to achieve a supervisory objective most effectively and with the least burden on institutions.
• The Board will aim to reduce the issuance of multiple supervisory guidance documents on the same topic and will generally limit such multiple issuances going forward.
• The Board will continue efforts to make the role of supervisory guidance clear in communications to examiners and to supervised financial institutions and encourage supervised institutions with questions about this statement or any applicable supervisory guidance to discuss the questions with their appropriate agency contact.
[86 FR 18179, Apr. 8, 2021]
PART 263 RULES OF PRACTICE FOR HEARINGS
Authority: 5 U.S.C. 504, 554-557; 12 U.S.C. 248, 324, 334, 347a, 504, 505, 1464, 1467, 1467a, 1817(j), 1818, 1820(k), 1829, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1832(c), 1847(b), 1847(d), 1884, 1972(2)(F), 3105, 3108, 3110, 3349, 3907, 3909(d), 4717, 5323, 5362, 5365, 5463, 5464, 5466, 5467; 15 U.S.C. 21, 78l(i), 78o-4, 78o-5, 78u-2; 1639e(K); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 5321; and 42 U.S.C. 4012a.
Source: 56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure
Source: 88 FR 89909, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.
§ 263.1 Scope.
This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for a hearing under the following statutory provisions:
(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”) should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of a state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company;
(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the Board is the appropriate agency;
(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the Board against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which the Board is the appropriate agency for any violation of:
(1) Any provision of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (“BHC Act”), or any order or regulation issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1847(b) and (d);
(2) Sections 19, 22, 23, 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (“FRA”), or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 504 and 505;
(3) Section 9 of the FRA pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 324;
(4) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);
(5) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, as amended, or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
(6) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909;
(7) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108;
(8) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
(9) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
(10) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the Board or the former Office of Thrift Supervision (“OTS”), the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the Board or the former OTS in connection with the grant of an application or request, and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty or law or regulation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
(11) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
(12) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
(13) Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (“HOLA”) or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464(d), (s) and (v);
(14) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467(d); and
(15) Section 10 of the HOLA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a(i) and (r);
(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
(g) Removal, prohibition, and civil monetary penalty proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) for violations of the post-employment restrictions imposed by that section; and
(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules (see § 263.3(i)).
§ 263.2 Rules of construction.
For purposes of this subpart:
(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
(b) The term counsel includes a non-attorney representative; and
(c) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.
§ 263.3 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
(a) Administrative law judge (ALJ) means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
(b) Adjudicatory proceeding means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
(c) Decisional employee means any member of the Board's or ALJ's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Agency or the ALJ, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
(d) Electronic signature means electronically affixing the equivalent of a signature to an electronic document filed or transmitted electronically.
(e) Enforcement Counsel means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the Board in an adjudicatory proceeding.
(f) Final order means an order issued by the Board with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
(g) Institution includes:
(1) Any bank as that term is defined in section 3(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(a));
(2) Any bank holding company or any subsidiary (other than a bank) of a bank holding company as those terms are defined in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841 et seq.);
(3) Any organization organized and operated under section 25A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 611 et seq.) or operating under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 et seq.);
(4) Any foreign bank or company to which section 8 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106), applies or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof;
(5) Any branch or agency as those terms are defined in section 1(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101(1), (3), (5), (6));
(6) Any savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary (other than a depository institution) of a savings and loan holding company as those terms are defined in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1461 et seq.);
(7) Any U.S. or foreign nonbank financial company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council (“FSOC”) requires the Board to supervise under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323(a)(1), (b)(1)), or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof;
(8) Any financial market utility or financial institution conducting payment, clearing, or settlement activities that FSOC designates as systematically important under section 804 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5463); and
(9) Any other entity subject to the supervision of the Board.
(h) Institution-affiliated party means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
(i) Local Rules means those rules promulgated by the Board in this part other than this subpart.
(j) OFIA means the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication, the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings for the Board, the Office of Comptroller of the Currency (“OCC”), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), and the National Credit Union Administration (“NCUA”).
(k) Party means the Board and any person named as a party in any notice.
(l) Person means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency, or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (g) of this section.
(m) Respondent means any party other than the Board.
(n) Uniform Rules means those rules in this subpart A that are common to the Board, the OCC, the FDIC, and the NCUA.
(o) Violation means any violation as that term is defined in section 3(v) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(v)).
§ 263.4 Authority of the Board.
The Board may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the ALJ.
§ 263.5 Authority of the administrative law judge (“ALJ”).
(a) General rule. All proceedings governed by this part must be conducted in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. chapter 5. The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
(b) Powers. The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas duces tecum, protective orders, and other orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 263.31;
(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Board has the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
(8) To prepare and present to the Board a recommended decision as provided in this section;
(9) To recuse oneself by motion made by a party or on the ALJ's own motion;
(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of an ALJ.
§ 263.6 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.
(a) Appearance before the Board or an ALJ—(1) By attorneys. Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the Board if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Board.
(2) By non-attorneys. An individual may appear on the individual's own behalf.
(3) Notice of appearance. (i) Any individual acting on the individual's own behalf or as counsel on behalf of a party, including the Board, must file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that the individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include:
(A) A written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party; and
(B) A written acknowledgement that the individual has reviewed and will comply with the Uniform Rules and Local Rules in subpart B of this part.
(ii) By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that the counsel is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, the counsel will, if required by the ALJ, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that the party will proceed on a pro se basis.
(b) Sanctions. Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.
§ 263.7 Good faith certification.
(a) General requirement. Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice must be signed by at least one counsel of record in the counsel's individual name and must state that counsel's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number. A party who acts as the party's own counsel must sign that person's individual name and state that person's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number on every filing or submission of record. Electronic signatures may be used to satisfy the signature requirements of this section.
(b) Effect of signature. (1) The signature of counsel or a party will constitute a certification: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the ALJ will strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
(c) Effect of making oral motion or argument. The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the counsel's or party's statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
§ 263.8 Conflicts of interest.
(a) Conflict of interest in representation. No person may appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The ALJ may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
(b) Certification and waiver. If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 263.6(a):
(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.
§ 263.9 Ex parte communications.
(a) Definition—(1) Ex parte communication. Ex parte communication means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
(i) An interested person outside the Board (including such person's counsel); and
(ii) The ALJ handling that proceeding, a member of the Board, or a decisional employee.
(2) Exception. A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an ex parte communication.
(b) Prohibition of ex parte communications. From the time the notice is issued by the Board until the date that the Board issues a final decision pursuant to § 263.40(c):
(1) An interested person outside the Federal Reserve System must not make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication to a member of the Board, the ALJ, or a decisional employee; and
(2) A member of the Board, ALJ, or decisional employee may not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the Federal Reserve System any ex parte communication.
(c) Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication. If an ex parte communication is received by the ALJ, a member of the Board, or any other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person will cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding may, within ten days of service of the ex parte communication, file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances. The ALJ or the Board then determines whether any action should be taken concerning the ex parte communication in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
(d) Sanctions. Any party or counsel to a party who makes a prohibited ex parte communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Board or the ALJ including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
(e) Separation of functions—(1) In general. Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law, the ALJ may not:
(i) Consult a person or party on a fact in issue unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate; or
(ii) Be responsible to or subject to the supervision or direction of an employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Board.
(2) Decision process. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Board in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 263.40, except as witness or counsel in administrative or judicial proceedings.
§ 263.10 Filing of papers.
(a) Filing. Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 263.25 and 263.26, must be filed with OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
(b) Manner of filing. Unless otherwise specified by the Board or the ALJ, filing may be accomplished by:
(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the Board or the ALJ;
(2) Personal service;
(3) Delivering the papers to a same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
(c) Formal requirements as to papers filed—(1) Form. All papers filed must set forth the name, mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on an 8 1/2×11 inch page and must be clear and legible.
(2) Signature. All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 263.7.
(3) Caption. All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the Board and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.
§ 263.11 Service of papers.
(a) By the parties. Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers must serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
(b) Method of service. Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party must use one of the following methods of service:
(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means;
(2) Personal service;
(3) Delivering the papers by same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
(c) By the Board or the ALJ. (1) All papers required to be served by the Board or the ALJ upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 263.6 will be served by electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the Board or ALJ.
(2) If a respondent has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 263.6, the Board or the ALJ will serve the respondent by any of the following methods:
(i) By personal service;
(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the respondent;
(iv) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the respondent's last known mailing address; or
(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
(d) Subpoenas. Service of a subpoena may be made:
(1) By personal service;
(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
(3) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
(4) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the person's last known mailing address; or
(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
(e) Area of service. Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service must be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.
§ 263.12 Construction of time limits.
(a) General rule. In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
(b) When papers are deemed to be filed or served. (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
(i) In the case of transmission by electronic mail or other electronic means, upon transmittal by the serving party;
(ii) In the case of overnight delivery service or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or
(iii) In the case of personal service or same day courier delivery, upon actual service.
(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Board or ALJ in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
(c) Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers. Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
(1) If service is made by electronic mail or other electronic means or by same day courier delivery, add one calendar day to the prescribed period;
(2) If service is made by overnight delivery service, add two calendar days to the prescribed period; or
(3) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period.
§ 263.13 Change of time limits.
Except as otherwise provided by law, the ALJ may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Board pursuant to § 263.38, the Board may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or on the Board's or the ALJ's own motion.
§ 263.14 Witness fees and expenses.
(a) In general. A witness, including an expert witness, who testifies at a deposition or hearing will be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, except as provided in paragraph (b) and unless otherwise waived.
(b) Exception for testimony by a party. In the case of testimony by a party, no witness fees or mileage need to be paid. The Board will not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the Board.
(c) Timing of payment. Fees and mileage in accordance with this paragraph (c)must be paid in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the Board is the party requesting the subpoena.
§ 263.15 Opportunity for informal settlement.
Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. Any such offer or proposal may only be made to Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.
§ 263.16 The Board's right to conduct examination.
Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the Board to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the Board to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.
§ 263.17 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.
If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding will continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart will be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.
§ 263.18 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.
(a) Commencement of proceeding. (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the Board.
(ii) The notice must be served by Enforcement Counsel upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law. Enforcement Counsel may serve the notice upon counsel for the respondent, provided that Enforcement Counsel has confirmed that counsel represents the respondent in the matter and will accept service of the notice on behalf of the respondent.
(iii) Enforcement Counsel must file the notice with OFIA.
(2) Change-in control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the Board.
(b) Contents of notice. Notice pleading applies. The notice must provide:
(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the Board's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
(2) Matters of fact or law showing that the Board is entitled to relief;
(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing must be filed with OFIA.
§ 263.19 Answer.
(a) When. Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent must file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent must also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
(b) Content of answer. An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the respondent lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer is deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief, or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
(c) Default—(1) Effect of failure to answer. Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of the respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ will file with the Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Board based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
(2) Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings. If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order of the Board without further action by the ALJ.
§ 263.20 Amended pleadings.
(a) Amendments. The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Board or ALJ orders otherwise for good cause.
(b) Amendments to conform to the evidence. When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the ALJ may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the ALJ that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The ALJ may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.
§ 263.21 Failure to appear.
Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the ALJ will file with the Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.
§ 263.22 Consolidation and severance of actions.
(a) Consolidation. (1) On the motion of any party, or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
(b) Severance. The ALJ may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the ALJ finds:
(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.
§ 263.23 Motions.
(a) In writing. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the ALJ. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
(b) Oral motions. A motion may be made orally on the record unless the ALJ directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
(c) Filing of motions. Motions must be filed with the ALJ, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Board.
(d) Responses. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the ALJ or the Board, any party may file a written response to a motion. The ALJ will not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
(e) Dilatory motions. Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
(f) Dispositive motions. Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 263.29 and 263.30.
§ 263.24 Scope of document discovery.
(a) Limits on discovery. (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term documents includes writings, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, electronically stored information, and other data or data compilations stored in any medium from which information can be obtained either directly or, if necessary, after translation by the responding party, into a reasonably usable form.
(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by § 263.53.
(3) Discovery by use of either interrogatories or requests for admission is not permitted.
(4) Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material; or that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, or the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate.
(b) Relevance. A party may obtain document discovery regarding any non-privileged matter that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action.
(c) Privileged matter. Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
(d) Time limits. All document discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, must be completed by the date set by the ALJ and no later than 30 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing, except as provided in the Local Rules. No exceptions to this time limit are permitted, unless the ALJ finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph (d).
§ 263.25 Request for document discovery from parties.
(a) Document requests. (1) Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce and permit the requesting party or its representative to inspect or copy any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. In the case of a request for inspection, the responding party may produce copies of documents or of electronically stored information instead of permitting inspection.
(2) The request:
(i) Must describe with reasonable particularity each item or category of items to be inspected or produced; and
(ii) Must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for the inspection or production.
(b) Production or copying—(1) General. Unless otherwise specified by the ALJ or agreed upon by the parties, the producing party must produce copies of documents as they are kept in the usual course of business or organized to correspond to the categories of the request, and electronically stored information must be produced in a form in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form.
(2) Costs. The producing party must pay its own costs to respond to a discovery request, unless otherwise agreed by the parties.
(c) Obligation to update responses. A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns:
(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
(d) Motions to limit discovery. (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within 20 days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 263.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to must be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 263.23 are waived.
(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
(e) Privilege. At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, or any other privileges of the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law, or are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The ALJ retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
(f) Motions to compel production. (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 263.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the document request may file a written response to a motion to compel within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
(g) Ruling on motions. After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the ALJ will rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, the ALJ may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the ALJ may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the ALJ its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the ALJ's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
(h) Enforcing discovery subpoenas. If the ALJ issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena will not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.
§ 263.26 Document subpoenas to nonparties.
(a) General rules. (1) Any party may apply to the ALJ for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
(2) A party may apply for a document subpoena under this section only within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 263.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
(b) Motion to quash or modify. (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena with the ALJ. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 263.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
(c) Enforcing document subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the ALJ has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena will in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.
§ 263.27 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.
(a) General rules. (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness' testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the ALJ for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena duces tecum, requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The ALJ may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing:
(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
(ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time, manner, and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, by remote means, or such other convenient place or manner, as the ALJ fixes.
(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the ALJ requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the ALJ orders otherwise, no deposition under this section may be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties.
(b) Objections to deposition subpoenas. (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the ALJ to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
(c) Procedure upon deposition. (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Each party must have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
(2) Any party may move before the ALJ for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition must certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
(d) Enforcing subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section, or fails to comply with any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(2) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena with which the subpoenaed party has not complied. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.
§ 263.28 Interlocutory review.
(a) General rule. The Board may review a ruling of the ALJ prior to the certification of the record to the Board only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 263.23.
(b) Scope of review. The Board may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the ALJ if the Board finds:
(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
(c) Procedure. Any request for interlocutory review must be filed by a party with the ALJ within ten days of the ruling and must otherwise comply with § 263.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 263.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the ALJ will refer the matter to the Board for final disposition.
(d) Suspension of proceeding. Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Board under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ or the Board.
§ 263.29 Summary disposition.
(a) In general. The ALJ will recommend that the Board issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show:
(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
(b) Filing of motions and responses. (1) Any party who believes there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that the party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the ALJ, may file a response to such motion.
(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits, and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends supports the moving party's position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which the opposing party contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
(c) Hearing on motion. At the written request of any party or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
(d) Decision on motion. Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the ALJ will determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the ALJ determines that summary disposition is warranted, the ALJ will submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Board. If the ALJ finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, the ALJ will make a ruling denying the motion.
§ 263.30 Partial summary disposition.
If the ALJ determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, the ALJ will defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the ALJ has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.
§ 263.31 Scheduling and prehearing conferences.
(a) Scheduling conference. Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding, the ALJ will direct counsel for all parties to meet with the ALJ at a specified time and manner prior to the hearing for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting is called a “scheduling conference.” The schedule for the identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits, and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
(b) Prehearing conferences. The ALJ may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on the ALJ's own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to confer with the ALJ at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
(c) Transcript. The ALJ may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at the party's expense.
(d) Scheduling or prehearing orders. At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the ALJ will serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.
§ 263.32 Prehearing submissions.
(a) Party prehearing submissions. Within the time set by the ALJ, but in no case later than 20 days before the start of the hearing, each party must file with the ALJ and serve on every other party:
(1) A prehearing statement that states:
(i) The party's position with respect to the legal issues presented;
(ii) The statutory and case law upon which the party relies; and
(iii) The facts that the party expects to prove at the hearing;
(2) A final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including the name, mailing address, and electronic mail address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness, which need not identify the exhibits to be relied upon by each witness at the hearing;
(3) A list of the exhibits expected to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
(b) Effect of failure to comply. No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.
§ 263.33 Public hearings.
(a) General rule. All hearings must be open to the public, unless the Board, in the Board's discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Board a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the ALJ a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Board. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 263.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
(b) Filing document under seal. Enforcement Counsel, in Enforcement Counsel's discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The ALJ will take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.
§ 263.34 Hearing subpoenas.
(a) Issuance. (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the ALJ may issue a subpoena or a subpoena duces tecum requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application must serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the ALJ.
(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the ALJ, the party making the application must serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
(b) Motion to quash or modify. (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
(c) Enforcing subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 263.26(c).
§ 263.35 Conduct of hearings.
(a) General rules. (1) Conduct of hearings. Hearings must be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
(2) Order of hearing. Enforcement Counsel will present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel will be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the ALJ will fix the order.
(3) Examination of witnesses. Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the ALJ may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
(4) Stipulations. Unless the ALJ directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
(b) Transcript. The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The ALJ may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the ALJ's own motion.
(c) Electronic presentation. Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the ALJ may direct the use of, or any party may use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the ALJ requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for their own presentation and related costs, unless the parties agree to another manner in which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.
§ 263.36 Evidence.
(a) Admissibility. (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable, and not unduly repetitive.
(b) Official notice. (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or State government agency.
(2) All matters officially noticed by the ALJ or the Board must appear on the record.
(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, must be afforded an opportunity to object.
(c) Documents. (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection, or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institutions regulatory agency or by a State regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the ALJ's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
(d) Objections. (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what the examining counsel expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness either by representation of counsel or by direct questioning of the witness.
(3) The ALJ will retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Board.
(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
(e) Stipulations. The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
(f) Depositions of unavailable witnesses. (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the ALJ may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.
§ 263.37 Post-hearing filings.
(a) Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs. (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the ALJ will serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the ALJ proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the ALJ or within such longer period as may be ordered by the ALJ.
(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the ALJ any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
(b) Reply briefs. Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
(c) Simultaneous filing required. The ALJ will not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.
§ 263.38 Recommended decision and filing of record.
(a) Filing of recommended decision and record. Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 263.37(b), the ALJ will file with and certify to the Board, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the ALJ's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The ALJ will serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
(b) Filing of index. At the same time the ALJ files with and certifies to the Board for final determination the record of the proceeding, the ALJ will furnish to the Board a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index must include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document, or motion filed with the ALJ in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index must also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.
§ 263.39 Exceptions to recommended decision.
(a) Filing exceptions. Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 263.38, a party may file with the Board written exceptions to the ALJ's recommended decision, findings, conclusions, or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the ALJ to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
(b) Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions. (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
(2) No exception need be considered by the Board if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the ALJ and failed to do so.
(c) Contents. (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the ALJ's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the ALJ's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.
§ 263.40 Review by the Board.
(a) Notice of submission to the Board. When the Board determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Board will serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Board for final decision.
(b) Oral argument before the Board. Upon the initiative of the Board or on the written request of any party filed with the Board within the time for filing exceptions, the Board may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the ALJ. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Board's final decision. Oral argument before the Board must be on the record.
(c) Board's final decision. (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Board in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Board will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Board may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
(2) The Board will render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Board orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the ALJ for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Board will be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Board or required by statute, upon any appropriate State or Federal supervisory authority.
§ 263.41 Stays pending judicial review.
The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Board may not, unless specifically ordered by the Board or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Board. The Board may, in the Board's, and on such terms as the Board finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.
Subpart B Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules
Source: 88 FR 89909, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.
§ 263.50 Purpose and scope.
(a) This subpart prescribes the rules of practice and procedure governing formal adjudications set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, and supplements the rules of practice and procedure contained in subpart A of this part.
(b) The rules and procedures of this subpart and subpart A of this part will apply to the formal adjudications set forth in § 263.1 and to the following adjudications:
(1) Suspension of a member bank from use of credit facilities of the Federal Reserve System under section 4 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 301);
(2) Termination of a bank's membership in the Federal Reserve System under section 9 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 327);
(3) Issuance of a cease-and-desist order under section 11 of the Clayton Act (15 U.S.C. 21);
(4) Adjudications under sections 2, 3, or 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841, 1842, or 1843);
(5) Formal adjudications on bank merger applications under section 18(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
(6) Issuance of a divestiture order under section 5(e) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(e));
(7) Imposition of sanctions upon any municipal securities dealer for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency, or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with such a municipal securities dealer, under section 15B(c)(5) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4);
(8) Proceedings where the Board otherwise orders that a formal hearing be held;
(9) Termination of the activities of a state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary of a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to section 7(e) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d));
(10) Termination of the activities of a representative office of a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to section 10(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3107(b));
(11) Issuance of a prompt corrective action directive to a member bank under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o);
(12) Reclassification of a member bank on grounds of unsafe or unsound condition under section 38(g)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(g)(1));
(13) Reclassification of a member bank on grounds of unsafe and unsound practice under section 38(g)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(g)(1));
(14) Issuance of an order requiring a member bank to dismiss a director or senior executive officer under section 38 (e)(5) and 38(f)(2) (F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(5) and 1831o(f)(2) (F)(ii)); and
(15) Adjudications under section 10 of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
§ 263.51 Definitions.
As used in subparts B through G of this part:
(a) Secretary means the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
(b) Member bank means any bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
(c) Institution has the same meaning as that assigned to it in subpart A of this part, and includes any foreign bank with a representative office in the United States.
§ 263.52 Address for filing.
All papers to be filed with the Board must be filed with the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. All papers to be filed with the Board electronically must be sent to: OSEC-Litigation@frb.gov.
§ 263.53 Discovery depositions.
(a) In general. In addition to the discovery permitted in subpart A of this part, limited discovery by means of depositions will be allowed for individuals with knowledge of facts material to the proceeding that are not protected from discovery by any applicable privilege, and of identified expert witnesses. Except in unusual cases, accordingly, depositions will be permitted only of individuals identified as hearing witnesses, including experts. All discovery depositions must be completed within the time set forth in § 263.24(d).
(b) Application. A party who desires to take a deposition of any other party's proposed witnesses, must apply to the ALJ for the issuance of a deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum. The application must state the name and address of the proposed deponent, the subject matter of the testimony expected from the deponent and its relevancy to the proceeding, and the address of the place, the manner (e.g., remote means, in person), and the time, no sooner than ten days after the service of the subpoena, for the taking of the deposition. Any such application must be treated as a motion subject to the rules governing motions practice set forth in § 263.23.
(c) Issuance of subpoena. The ALJ must issue the requested deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum upon a finding that the application satisfies the requirements of this section and of § 263.24. If the ALJ determines that the taking of the deposition or its proposed location or manner is, in whole or in part, unnecessary, unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may deny the application or may grant it upon such conditions as justice may require. The party obtaining the deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum will be responsible for serving it on the deponent and all parties to the proceeding in accordance with § 263.11. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, by remote means, or such other convenient place or manner, as the ALJ fixes.
(d) Motion to quash or modify. A person named in a deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena or for the issuance of a protective order. Such motions must be filed within ten days following service of the subpoena, but in all cases at least five days prior to the commencement of the scheduled deposition. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for granting the motion and a copy of the motion and the statement must be served on the party which requested the subpoena. Only the party requesting the subpoena may file a response to a motion to quash or modify, and any such response must be filed within five days following service of the motion.
(e) Enforcement of a deposition subpoena. Enforcement of a deposition subpoena must be in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 263.27(d).
(f) Conduct of the deposition. The deponent must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or order by the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely, without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Each party may examine the deponent with respect to all non-privileged, relevant, and material matters. Objections to questions or evidence must be in the short form, stating the ground for the objection. Failure to object to questions or evidence will not be deemed a waiver except where the grounds for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. The discovery deposition must be transcribed or otherwise recorded as agreed among the parties.
(g) Protective orders. At any time during the taking of a discovery deposition, on the motion of any party or of the deponent, the ALJ may terminate or limit the scope and manner of the deposition upon a finding that grounds exist for such relief. Grounds for terminating or limiting the taking of a discovery deposition include a finding that the discovery deposition is being conducted in bad faith or in such a manner as to:
(1) Unreasonably annoy, embarrass, or oppress the deponent;
(2) Unreasonably probe into privilege, irrelevant, or immaterial matters; or
(3) Unreasonably attempt to pry into a party's preparation for trial.
§ 263.54 Delegation to the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication.
Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, administrative adjudications subject to subpart A of this part must be conducted by an ALJ of OFIA.
§ 263.55 Board as Presiding Officer.
The Board may, in its discretion, designate itself, one or more of its members, or an authorized officer, to act as presiding officer in a formal hearing. In such a proceeding, the authority of Board or its designee will include all the authority provided to an ALJ under this part. Proposed findings and conclusions, briefs, and other submissions by the parties permitted in subpart A of this part must be filed with the Secretary for consideration by the Board. Sections 263.38 and 263.39 will not apply to proceedings conducted under this section.
§ 263.56 Initial licensing proceedings.
Proceedings with respect to applications for initial licenses will include, but not be limited to, applications for Board approval under section 3 of the BHC Act and section 10 of HOLA and such proceedings as may be ordered by the Board with respect to applications under section 18(c) of the FDIA. In such initial licensing proceedings, the procedures set forth in subpart A of this part will apply, except that the Board may designate a Board Counsel to represent the Board in a nonadversary capacity for the purpose of developing for the record information relevant to the issues to be determined by the Presiding Officer and the Board. In such proceedings, Board Counsel will be considered to be a decisional employee for purposes of §§ 263.9 and 263.40.
§ 263.57 Sanctions relating to conduct in an adjudicatory proceeding.
(a) General rule. The ALJ may impose sanctions when any party or person in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part has failed to comply with an applicable statute, regulation, or order, and that failure to comply:
(1) Constitutes contemptuous conduct;
(2) Materially injures or prejudices another party in terms of substantive injury, incurring additional expenses including attorney's fees, prejudicial delay, or otherwise;
(3) Is a clear and unexcused violation of an applicable statute, regulation, or order; or
(4) Unduly delays the proceeding.
(b) Sanctions. Sanctions which may be imposed include any one or more of the following:
(1) Issuing an order against the party;
(2) Rejecting or striking any testimony or documentary evidence offered, or other papers filed, by the party;
(3) Precluding the party from:
(i) Contesting specific issues or findings;
(ii) Offering certain evidence or challenging or contesting certain evidence offered by another party; or
(iii) Making a late filing or conditioning a late filing on any terms that are just;
(4) Assessing reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by any other party as a result of the improper action or failure to act; and
(5) Excluding or suspending a party or person from the adjudicatory proceeding.
(c) Procedure for imposition of sanctions. (1) Upon the motion of any party, or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may impose sanctions in accordance with this section. The ALJ must submit to the Board for final ruling the sanction of entering a final order determining the case on the merits.
(2) No sanction authorized by this section, other than refusal to accept late filings, must be imposed without prior notice to all parties and an opportunity for any party or person against whom sanctions would be imposed to be heard. Such opportunity to be heard may be on such notice, and the response may be in such form, as the ALJ directs. The ALJ may limit the opportunity to be heard to an opportunity of a party or person to respond orally immediately after the act or inaction covered by this section is noted by the ALJ.
(3) Requests for the imposition of sanctions by any party, and the imposition of sanctions, are subject to interlocutory review in the same manner as any other ruling by the ALJ.
(d) Section not exclusive. Nothing in this section precludes the ALJ or the Board from taking any other action, or imposing any restriction or sanction, authorized by applicable statute or regulation.
Subpart C Rules and Procedures for Assessment and Collection of Civil Money Penalties
§ 263.60 Scope.
The Uniform Rules set forth in subpart A of this part shall govern the procedures for assessment of civil money penalties, except as otherwise provided in this subpart.
§ 263.61 Opportunity for informal proceeding.
In the sole discretion of the Board's General Counsel, the General Counsel may, prior to the issuance by the Board of a notice of assessment of civil penalty, advise the affected person that the issuance of a notice of assessment of civil penalty is being considered and the reasons and authority for the proposed assessment. The General Counsel may provide the person an opportunity to present written materials or request a conference with members of the Board's staff to show that the penalty should not be assessed or, if assessed, should be reduced in amount.
§ 263.62 Relevant considerations for assessment of civil penalty.
In determining the amount of the penalty to be assessed, the Board shall take into account the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the financial resources and good faith of the person charged, the gravity of the misconduct, the history of previous misconduct, the economic benefit derived by the person from the misconduct, and such other matters as justice may require.
§ 263.63 Assessment order.
(a) In the event of consent to an assessment by the person concerned, or if, upon the record made at an administrative hearing, the Board finds that the grounds for having assessed the penalty have been established, the Board may issue a final order of assessment of civil penalty. In its final order, the Board may modify the amount of the penalty specified in the notice of assessment.
(b) An assessment order is effective immediately upon issuance, or upon such other date as may be specified therein, and shall remain effective and enforceable until it is stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by action of the Board or a reviewing court.
§ 263.64 Payment of civil penalty.
(a) The date designated in the notice of assessment for payment of the civil penalty will normally be 60 days from the issuance of the notice. If, however, the Board finds in a specific case that the purposes of the authorizing statute would be better served if the 60-day period is changed, the Board may shorten or lengthen the period or make the civil penalty payable immediately upon receipt of the notice of assessment. If a timely request for a formal hearing to challenge an assessment of civil penalty is filed, payment of the penalty shall not be required unless and until the Board issues a final order of assessment following the hearing. If an assessment order is issued, it will specify the date by which the civil penalty should be paid or collected.
(b) Checks in payment of civil penalties should be made payable to the “Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.” Upon collection, the Board shall forward the amount of the penalty to the Treasury of the United States.
§ 263.65 Civil money penalty inflation adjustments.
(a) Inflation adjustments. In accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, which further amended the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, the Board has set forth in paragraph (b) of this section the adjusted maximum amounts for each civil money penalty provided by law within the Board's jurisdiction. The authorizing statutes contain the complete provisions under which the Board may seek a civil money penalty. The adjusted civil money penalties apply only to penalties assessed on or after January 13, 2025, whose associated violations occurred on or after November 2, 2015.
(b) Maximum civil money penalties. The maximum (or, in the cases of 12 U.S.C. 334 and 1832(c), fixed) civil money penalties as set forth in the referenced statutory sections are set forth in the table in this paragraph (b).
Table 1 to Paragraph (b)
Statute | Adjusted civil money penalty
12 U.S.C. 324:
Inadvertently late or misleading reports, inter alia | $5,026
Other late or misleading reports, inter alia | 50,265
Knowingly or reckless false or misleading reports, inter alia | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 334 | 365
12 U.S.C. 374a | 365
12 U.S.C. 504:
First Tier | 12,567
Second Tier | 62,829
Third Tier | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 505:
First Tier | 12,567
Second Tier | 62,829
Third Tier | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 1464(v)(4) | 5,026
12 U.S.C. 1464(v)(5) | 50,265
12 U.S.C. 1464(v)(6) | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 1467a(i)(2) | 62,829
12 U.S.C. 1467a(i)(3) | 62,829
12 U.S.C. 1467a(r):
First Tier | 5,026
Second Tier | 50,265
Third Tier | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16):
First Tier | 12,567
Second Tier | 62,829
Third Tier | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2):
First Tier | 12,567
Second Tier | 62,829
Third Tier | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 1820(k)(6)(A)(ii) | 413,388
12 U.S.C. 1832(c) | 3,650
12 U.S.C. 1847(b) | 62,829
12 U.S.C. 1847(d):
First Tier | 5,026
Second Tier | 50,265
Third Tier | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 1884 | 365
12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F):
First Tier | 12,567
Second Tier | 62,829
Third Tier | 2,513,215
12 U.S.C. 3110(a) | 57,435
12 U.S.C. 3110(c):
First Tier | 4,596
Second Tier | 45,946
Third Tier | 2,297,385
12 U.S.C. 3909(d) | 3,126
15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(1):
For a natural person | 11,823
For any other person | 118,225
15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(2):
For a natural person | 118,225
For any other person | 591,127
15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(3):
For a natural person | 236,451
For any other person | 1,182,251
15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)(1) | 14,435
15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)(2) | 28,866
42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)(5) | 2,730
[Reg. 1864, 90 FR 2607, Jan. 13, 2025]
Subpart D Rules and Procedures Applicable to Suspension or Removal of an Institution-Affiliated Party Where a Felony is Charged or Proven
§ 263.70 Purpose and scope.
The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to informal hearings afforded to any institution-affiliated party for whom the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency, who has been suspended or removed from office or prohibited from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the institution's affairs by a notice or order issued by the Board upon the grounds set forth in section 8(g) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)).
§ 263.71 Notice or order of suspension, removal, or prohibition.
(a) Grounds. The Board may suspend an institution-affiliated party from office or prohibit an institution-affiliated party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of an institution's affairs when the person is charged in any information, indictment, or complaint authorized by a United States attorney with the commission of, or participation in, a crime involving dishonesty or breach of trust that is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under State or Federal law. The Board may remove an institution-affiliated party from office or prohibit an institution-affiliated party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of an institution's affairs when the person is convicted of such an offense and the conviction is not subject to further direct appellate review. The Board may suspend or remove an institution-affiliated party or prohibit an institution-affiliated party from participation in an institution's affairs in these circumstances if the Board finds that continued service to the financial institution or participation in its affairs by the institution-affiliated party may pose a threat to the interests of the institution's depositors or may threaten to impair public confidence in the financial institution.
(b) Contents. The Board commences a suspension, removal, or prohibition action under this subpart with the issuance, and service upon an institution-affiliated party, of a notice of suspension from office, or order of removal from office, or notice or order of prohibition from participation in the financial institution's affairs. Such a notice or order shall indicate the basis for the suspension, removal, or prohibition and shall inform the institution-affiliated party of the right to request in writing, within 30 days of service of the notice or order, an opportunity to show at an informal hearing that continued service to, or participation in the conduct of the affairs of, the financial institution does not and is not likely to pose a threat to the interests of the financial institution's depositors or threaten to impair public confidence in the financial institution. Failure to file a timely request for an informal hearing shall be deemed to be a waiver of the right to request such a hearing. A notice of suspension or prohibition shall remain in effect until the criminal charge upon which the notice is based is finally disposed of or until the notice is terminated by the Board.
(c) Service. The notice or order shall be served upon the affiliated financial institution concerned, whereupon the institution-affiliated party shall immediately cease service to the financial institution or further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the financial institution. A notice or order of suspension, removal, or prohibition may be served by any of the means authorized for service under § 263.11(c)(2) of subpart A.
§ 263.72 Request for informal hearing.
An institution-affiliated party who is suspended or removed from office or prohibited from participation in the institution's affairs may request an informal hearing within 30 days of service of the notice or order. The request shall be filed in writing with the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The request shall state with particularity the relief desired and the grounds therefor and shall include, when available, supporting evidence in the form of affidavits. If the institution-affiliated party desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the institution-affiliated party must include a request to do so with the request for informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony.
§ 263.73 Order for informal hearing.
(a) Issuance of hearing order. Upon receipt of a timely request for an informal hearing, the Secretary shall promptly issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence within 30 days of the receipt of the request. At the request of the institution-affiliated party, the Secretary may order the hearing to commence at a time more than 30 days after the receipt of the request for hearing. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the Secretary, before presiding officers designated by the Secretary to conduct the hearing. The presiding officers normally will include representatives from the Board's Legal Division and the Division of Banking Supervision and Regulation and from the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank.
(b) Waiver of oral hearing. A institution-affiliated party may waive in writing his or her right to an oral hearing and instead elect to have the matter determined by the Board solely on the basis of written submissions.
(c) Hearing procedures. (1) The institution-affiliated party may appear at the hearing personally, through counsel, or personally with counsel. The institution-affiliated party shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present an oral argument. The institution-affiliated party may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the Board or the Secretary. Except as provided in § 263.11, the adjudicative procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) and of subpart A of this part shall not apply to the informal hearing ordered under this subpart unless the Board orders that subpart A of this part applies.
(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded and a transcript shall be furnished to the institution-affiliated party upon request and after the payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officers. The presiding officers may ask questions of any witness.
(3) The presiding officers may order the record to be kept open for a reasonable period following the hearing (normally five business days), during which time additional submissions to the record may be made. Thereafter, the record shall be closed.
(d) Authority of presiding officers. In the course of or in connection with any proceeding under this subpart, the Board or the presiding officers are authorized to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken depositions, to issue, quash or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, and, for the enforcement thereof, to apply to an appropriate United States district court. All action relating to depositions and subpoenas shall be in accordance with the rules provided in §§ 263.34 and 263.53.
(e) Recommendation of presiding officers. The presiding officers shall make a recommendation to the Board concerning the notice or order of suspension, removal, or prohibition within 20 calendar days following the close of the record on the hearing.
§ 263.74 Decision of the Board.
(a) Within 60 days following the close of the record on the hearing, or receipt of written submissions where a hearing has been waived, the Board shall notify the institution-affiliated party whether the notice of suspension or prohibition will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified, or whether the order of removal or prohibition will be rescinded or otherwise modified. The notification shall contain a statement of the basis for any adverse decision by the Board. In the case of a decision favorable to the institution-affiliated party, the Board shall take prompt action to rescind or otherwise modify the order of suspension, removal or prohibition.
(b) In deciding the question of suspension, removal, or prohibition under this subpart, the Board shall not rule on the question of the guilt or innocence of the individual with respect to the crime with which the individual has been charged.
Subpart E Procedures for Issuance and Enforcement of Directives To Maintain Adequate Capital
§ 263.80 Purpose and scope.
This subpart establishes procedures under which the Board may issue a directive or take other action to require a state member bank, bank holding company, or a savings and loan holding company to achieve and maintain adequate capital.
[76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.81 Definitions.
(a) Bank holding company means any company that controls a bank as defined in section 2 of the BHC Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841, and in the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(b)) or any direct or indirect subsidiary thereof other than a bank subsidiary as defined in section 2(c) of the BHC Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841(c), and in the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(a)).
(b) Capital Adequacy Guidelines means those guidelines for bank holding companies and state member banks contained in appendices A and D to the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225), and in appendix A to the Board's Regulation H (12 CFR part 208), or any succeeding capital guidelines promulgated by the Board.
(c) Directive means a final order issued by the Board:
(1) Pursuant to ILSA (12 U.S.C. 3907(b)(2)) requiring a state member bank or bank holding company to increase capital to or maintain capital at the minimum level set forth in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines or as otherwise established under procedures described in § 263.85; or
(2) Pursuant to HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(g)(1)) requiring a savings and loan holding company to increase capital to or maintain capital at a certain level.
(d) State member bank means any state-chartered bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
(e) Savings and loan holding company means any company that controls a savings association as defined in section 10 of the HOLA, 12 U.S.C. 1467a, and in the Board's Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.2) or any direct or indirect subsidiary thereof other than a savings association subsidiary as defined in section 10 of the HOLA, 12 U.S.C. 1467a, and in the Board's Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.2).
[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.82 Establishment of minimum capital levels.
The Board has established minimum capital levels for state member banks and bank holding companies in its Capital Adequacy Guidelines. The Board may set higher capital levels as necessary and appropriate for a particular state member bank or bank holding company based upon its financial condition, managerial resources, prospects, or similar factors, pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 263.85 of this subpart.
§ 263.83 Issuance of capital directives.
(a) Notice of intent to issue directive. If a state member bank or bank holding company is operating with less than the minimum level of capital established in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines, or as otherwise established under the procedures described in § 263.85, or if the Board has determined that the current capital level of a savings and loan holding company is not adequate, the Board may issue and serve upon such state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company written notice of the Board's intent to issue a directive to require the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company to achieve and maintain adequate capital within a specified time period.
(b) Contents of notice. The notice of intent to issue a directive shall include:
(1) The required minimum level of capital to be achieved or maintained by the institution;
(2) Its current level of capital;
(3) The proposed increase in capital needed to meet the minimum requirements;
(4) The proposed date or schedule for meeting these minimum requirements;
(5) When deemed appropriate, specific details of a proposed plan for meeting the minimum capital requirements; and
(6) The date for a written response by the bank or bank holding company to the proposed directive, which shall be at least 14 days from the date of issuance of the notice unless the Board determines a shorter period is necessary because of the financial condition of the bank or bank holding company.
(c) Response to notice. The bank or bank holding company may file a written response to the notice within the time period set by the Board. The response may include:
(1) An explanation why a directive should not be issued;
(2) Any proposed modification of the terms of the directive;
(3) Any relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation or other evidence in support of the institution's position regarding the proposed directive; and
(4) The institution's plan for attaining the required level of capital.
(d) Failure to file response. Failure by the bank or bank holding company to file a written response to the notice of intent to issue a directive within the specified time period shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of such directive.
(e) Board consideration of response. After considering the response of the bank or bank holding company, the Board may:
(1) Issue the directive as originally proposed or in modified form;
(2) Determine not to issue a directive and so notify the bank or bank holding company; or
(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response by the bank or bank holding company.
(f) Contents of directive. Any directive issued by the Board may order the bank or bank holding company to:
(1) Achieve or maintain the minimum capital requirement established pursuant to the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines or the procedures in § 263.85 of this subpart by a certain date;
(2) Adhere to a previously submitted plan or submit for approval and adhere to a plan for achieving the minimum capital requirement by a certain date;
(3) Take other specific action as the Board directs to achieve the minimum capital levels, including requiring a reduction of assets or asset growth or restriction on the payment of dividends; or
(4) Take any combination of the above actions.
(g) Request for reconsideration of directive. Any state member bank or bank holding company, upon a change in circumstances, may request the Board to reconsider the terms of a directive and may propose changes in the plan under which it is operating to meet the required minimum capital level. The directive and plan continue in effect while such request is pending before the Board.
[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.84 Enforcement of directive.
(a) Judicial and administrative remedies. (1) Whenever a bank or bank holding company fails to follow a directive issued under this subpart, or to submit or adhere to a capital adequacy plan as required by such directive, the Board may seek enforcement of the directive, including the capital adequacy plan, in the appropriate United States district court, pursuant to section 908 (b)(2)(B)(ii) of ILSA (12 U.S.C. 3907(b)(2)(B)(ii)) and to section 8(i) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)), in the same manner and to the same extent as if the directive were a final cease-and-desist order. Whenever a savings and loan holding company fails to follow a directive issued under this subpart, or to submit or adhere to a capital adequacy plan as required by such directive, the Board may seek enforcement of the directive, including the capital adequacy plan, in the proper United States district court, or the United States court of any territory or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, pursuant to section 10(g)(4) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1567a(g)(4)).
(2) The Board, pursuant to section 910(d) of ILSA (12 U.S.C. 3909(d)), may also assess civil money penalties for violation of the directive against any bank or bank holding company and any institution-affiliated party of the bank or bank holding company, in the same manner and to the same extent as if the directive were a final cease-and-desist order. The Board, pursuant to section 10(i) (12 U.S.C. 1467a(i)), may also assess civil money penalties for violation of the directive against any savings and loan holding company and any institution-affiliated party of the savings and loan holding company, in the same manner and to the same extent as if the directive were a final cease-and-desist order.
(b) Other enforcement actions. A directive may be issued separately, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement actions available to the Board, including issuance of cease-and-desist orders, the approval or denial of applications or notices, or any other actions authorized by law.
(c) Consideration in application proceedings. In acting upon any application or notice submitted to the Board pursuant to any statute administered by the Board, the Board may consider the progress of a state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary thereof in adhering to any directive or capital adequacy plan required by the Board pursuant to this subpart, or by any other appropriate banking supervisory agency pursuant to ILSA. The Board shall consider whether approval or a notice of intent not to disapprove would divert earnings, diminish capital, or otherwise impede the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company in achieving its required minimum capital level or complying with its capital adequacy plan.
[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.85 Establishment of increased capital level for specific institutions.
(a) Establishment of capital levels for specific institutions. The Board may establish a capital level higher than the minimum specified in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines for a specific bank or bank holding company pursuant to:
(1) A written agreement or memorandum of understanding between the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and the bank or bank holding company;
(2) A temporary or final cease-and-desist order issued pursuant to section 8(b) or (c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) or (c));
(3) A condition for approval of an application or issuance of a notice of intent not to disapprove a proposal;
(4) Or other similar means; or
(5) The procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Procedure to establish higher capital requirement—(1) Notice. When the Board determines that capital levels above those in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines may be necessary and appropriate for a particular bank or bank holding company under the circumstances, or when the Board determines that the current capital level of a savings and loan holding company is not adequate, the Board shall give the bank or bank holding company notice of the proposed higher capital requirement and shall permit the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company an opportunity to comment upon the proposed capital level, whether it should be required and, if so, under what time schedule. The notice shall contain the Board's reasons for proposing a higher level of capital.
(2) Response. The bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company shall be allowed at least 14 days to respond, unless the Board determines that a shorter period is necessary because of the financial condition of the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company. Failure by the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company to file a written response to the notice within the time set by the Board shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to issuance of a directive containing the required minimum capital level.
(3) Board decision. After considering the response of the institution, the Board may issue a written directive to the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company setting an appropriate capital level and the date on which this capital level will become effective. The Board may require the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company to submit and adhere to a plan for achieving such higher capital level as the Board may set.
(4) Enforcement of higher capital level. The Board may enforce the capital level established pursuant to the procedures described in this section and any plan submitted to achieve that capital level through the procedures set forth in § 263.84 of this subpart.
[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]
Subpart F Practice Before the Board
§ 263.90 Scope.
This subpart prescribes rules relating to general practice before the Board on one's own behalf or in a representational capacity, including the circumstances under which disciplinary sanctions—censure, suspension, or debarment—may be imposed upon persons appearing in a representational capacity, including attorneys and accountants, but not including employees of the Board. These disciplinary sanctions, which continue in effect beyond the duration of a specific proceeding, supplement the provisions of § 263.6(b) of subpart A, which address control of a specific proceeding.
§ 263.91 Censure, suspension or debarment.
The Board may censure an individual or suspend or debar such individual from practice before the Board if he or she engages, or has engaged, in conduct warranting sanctions as set forth in § 263.94; refuses to comply with the rules and regulations in this part; or with intent to defraud in any manner, willfully and knowingly deceives, misleads, or threatens any client or prospective client. The suspension or debarment of an individual shall be initiated only upon a finding by the Board that the conduct that forms the basis for the disciplinary action is egregious.
§ 263.92 Definitions.
(a) As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the meaning given in this section unless the context otherwise requires.
(b)(1) Practice before the Board includes any matters connected with presentations to the Board or to any of its officers or employees relating to a client's rights, privileges or liabilities under laws or regulations administered by the Board. Such matters include, but are not limited to, the preparation of any statement, opinion or other paper or document by an attorney, accountant, or other licensed professional which is filed with, or submitted to, the Board, on behalf of another person in, or in connection with, any application, notification, report or document; the representation of a person at conferences, hearings and meetings; and the transaction of other business before the Board on behalf of another person.
(2) Practice before the Board does not include work prepared for an institution solely at its request for use in the ordinary course of its business.
(c) Attorney means any individual who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, possession, territory, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.
(d) Accountant means any individual who is duly qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or a public accountant in any state, possession, territory, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.
§ 263.93 Eligibility to practice.
(a) Attorneys. Any attorney who is qualified to practice as an attorney and is not currently under suspension or debarment pursuant to this subpart may practice before the Board.
(b) Accountants. Any accountant who is qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or public accountant and is not currently under suspension or debarment by the Board may practice before the Board.
§ 263.94 Conduct warranting sanctions.
Conduct for which an individual may be censured, debarred or suspended from practice before the Board includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Willfully or recklessly violating or willfully or recklessly aiding and abetting the violation of any provision of the Federal banking or applicable securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder or conviction of any offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust;
(b) Knowingly or recklessly giving false or misleading information, or participating in any way in the giving of false information to the Board or to any Board officer or employee, or to any tribunal authorized to pass upon matters administered by the Board in connection with any matter pending or likely to be pending before it. The term “information” includes facts or other statements contained in testimony, financial statements, applications, affidavits, declarations, or any other document or written or oral statement;
(c) Directly or indirectly attempting to influence, or offering or agreeing to attempt to influence, the official action of any officer or employee of the Board by the use of threats, false accusations, duress or coercion, by the offer of any special inducement or promise of advantage or by the bestowing of any gift, favor, or thing of value;
(d) Disbarment or suspension from practice as an attorney, or debarment or suspension from practice as a certified public accountant or public accountant, by any duly constituted authority of any state, possession, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia for the conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving personal dishonesty or breach of trust in matters relating to the supervisory responsibilities of the Board, where the conviction has not been reversed on appeal;
(e) Knowingly aiding or abetting another individual to practice before the Board during that individual's period of suspension, debarment, or ineligibility;
(f) Contemptuous conduct in connection with practice before the Board, and knowingly making false accusations and statements, or circulating or publishing malicious or libelous matter;
(g) Suspension or debarment from practice before the OCC, the FDIC, the Office of Thrift Supervision, the Securities and Exchange Commission, the NCUA, or any other Federal agency based on matters relating to the supervisory responsibilities of the Board;
(h) Willful or knowing violation of any of the regulations contained in this part.
[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 48267, Aug. 13, 2003; 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.95 Initiation of disciplinary proceeding.
(a) Receipt of information. An individual, including any employee of the Board, who has reason to believe that an individual practicing before the Board in a representative capacity has engaged in any conduct that would serve as a basis for censure, suspension or debarment under § 263.94, may make a report thereof and forward it to the Board.
(b) Censure without formal proceeding. Upon receipt of information regarding an individual's qualification to practice before the Board, the Board may, after giving the individual notice and opportunity to respond, censure such individual.
(c) Institution of formal disciplinary proceeding. When the Board has reason to believe that any individual who practices before the Board in a representative capacity has engaged in conduct that would serve as a basis for censure, suspension or debarment under § 263.94 the Board may, after giving the individual notice and opportunity to respond, institute a formal disciplinary proceeding against such individual. The proceeding shall be conducted pursuant to § 263.97 and shall be initiated by a complaint issued by the Board that names the individual as a respondent. Except in cases when time, the nature of the proceeding, or the public interest do not permit, a proceeding under this section shall not be instituted until the respondent has been informed, in writing, of the facts or conduct which warrant institution of a proceeding and the respondent has been accorded the opportunity to comply with all lawful requirements or take whatever action may be necessary to remedy the conduct that is the basis for the initiation of the proceeding.
§ 263.96 Conferences.
(a) General. The Board's staff may confer with a proposed respondent concerning allegations of misconduct or other grounds for censure, debarment or suspension, regardless of whether a proceeding for debarment or suspension has been instituted. If a conference results in a stipulation in connection with a proceeding in which the individual is the respondent, the stipulation may be entered in the record at the request of either party to the proceeding.
(b) Resignation or voluntary suspension. In order to avoid the institution of, or a decision in, a debarment or suspension proceeding, a person who practices before the Board may consent to suspension from practice. At the discretion of the Board, the individual may be suspended or debarred in accordance with the consent offered.
§ 263.97 Proceedings under this subpart.
Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, any hearing held under this subpart shall be held before an administrative law judge of the OFIA pursuant to procedures set forth in subparts A and B of this part. The Board shall appoint a person to represent the Board in the hearing. Any person having prior involvement in the matter which is the basis for the suspension or debarment proceeding shall be disqualified from representing the Board in the hearing. The hearing shall be closed to the public unless the Board, sua sponte or on the request of a party, otherwise directs. The administrative law judge shall refer a recommended decision to the Board, which shall issue the final decision and order. In its final decision and order, the Board may censure, debar or suspend an individual, or take such other disciplinary action as the Board deems appropriate.
§ 263.98 Effect of suspension, debarment or censure.
(a) Debarment. If the final order against the respondent is for debarment, the individual will not thereafter be permitted to practice before the Board unless otherwise permitted to do so by the Board pursuant to § 263.99 of this subpart.
(b) Suspension. If the final order against the respondent is for suspension, the individual will not thereafter be permitted to practice before the Board during the period of suspension.
(c) Censure. If the final order against the respondent is for censure, the individual may be permitted to practice before the Board, but such individual's future representations may be subject to conditions designed to promote high standards of conduct. If a written letter of censure is issued, a copy will be maintained in the Board's files.
(d) Notice of debarment or suspension. Upon the issuance of a final order for suspension or debarment, the Board shall give notice of the order to appropriate officers and employees of the Board, to interested departments and agencies of the Federal Government, and to the appropriate authorities of the State in which any debarred or suspended individual is or was licensed to practice.
§ 263.99 Petition for reinstatement.
The Board may entertain a petition for reinstatement from any person debarred from practice before the Board. The Board shall grant reinstatement only if the Board finds that the petitioner is likely to act in accordance with the regulations in this part, and that granting reinstatement would not be contrary to the public interest. Any request for reinstatement shall be limited to written submissions unless the Board, in its discretion, affords the petitioner an informal hearing.
Subpart G Rules Regarding Claims Under the Equal Access to Justice Act
§ 263.100 Authority and scope.
This subpart implements the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504) as they apply to formal adversary adjudications before the Board. The types of proceedings covered by this subpart are listed in §§ 263.1 and 263.50.
§ 263.101 Standards for awards.
A respondent in a covered proceeding that prevails on the merits of that proceeding against the Board, and that is eligible under this subpart as defined in § 263.103, may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in the proceeding unless the position of the Board during the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. The position of the Board includes, in addition to the position taken by the Board in the adversary proceeding, the action or failure to act by the Board upon which the adversary proceeding was based. An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceedings.
§ 263.102 Prevailing party.
Only an eligible applicant that prevailed on the merits of an adversary proceeding may qualify for an award under this subpart.
§ 263.103 Eligibility of applicants.
(a) General rule. To be eligible for an award under this subpart, an applicant must have been named as a party to the adjudicatory proceeding and show that it meets all other conditions of eligibility set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
(b) Types of eligible applicant. An applicant is eligible for an award only if it meets at least one of the following descriptions:
(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated;
(2) Any sole owner of an unincorporated business, or any partnership, corporation, associations, unit of local government or organization, the net worth of which did not exceed $7,000,000 and which did not have more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated;
(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary proceeding was initiated; or
(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary proceeding was initiated.
(c) Factors to be considered. In determining the eligibility of an applicant:
(1) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business shall be considered as an individual rather than a sole owner of an unincorporated business if the issues on which he or she prevailed are related to personal interests rather than to business interests.
(2) An applicant's net worth includes the value of any assets disposed of for the purpose of meeting an eligibility standard and excludes the value of any obligations incurred for this purpose. Transfers of assets or obligations incurred for less than reasonably equivalent value will be presumed to have been made for this purpose.
(3) The net worth of a financial institution shall be established by the net worth information reported in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines on the financial institution's financial report to its supervisory agency for the last reporting date before the initiation of the adversary proceeding. A bank holding company's and a savings and loan holding company's net worth will be considered on a consolidated basis even if the bank holding company or the savings and loan holding company is not required to file its regulatory reports to the Board on a consolidated basis.
(4) The employees of an applicant include all those persons who were regularly providing services for remuneration for the applicant, under its direction and control, on the date the adversary proceeding was initiated. Part-time employees are counted on a proportional basis.
(5) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. As used in this subpart, affiliates are: Individuals, corporations, and entities that directly or indirectly or acting through one or more entities control at least 25% of the voting shares of the applicant, and corporations and entities of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls at least 25% of the voting shares. The Board may determine, in light of the actual relationship among the affiliated entities, that aggregation with regard to one or more of the applicant's affiliates would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of this subpart and decline to aggregate the net worth and employees of such affiliate; alternatively, the Board may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.104 Application for awards.
(a) Time to file. An application and any other pleading or document related to the application may be filed with the Board whenever the applicant has prevailed in the proceeding within 30 days after service of the final order of the Board disposing of the proceeding.
(b) Contents. An application for an award of fees and expenses under this subpart shall contain:
(1) The name of the applicant and an identification of the proceeding;
(2) A showing that the applicant has prevailed, and an identification of the way in which the applicant believes that the position of the Board in the proceeding was not substantially justified;
(3) If the applicant is not an individual, a statement of the number of its employees on the date the proceeding was initiated;
(4) A description of any affiliated individuals or entities, as defined in § 263.103(c)(5), or a statement that none exist;
(5) A declaration that the applicant, together with any affiliates, had a net worth not more than the maximum set forth in § 263.103(b) as of the date the proceeding was initiated, supported by a net worth statement conforming to the requirements of § 263.105;
(6) A statement of the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought conforming to § 263.107; and
(7) Any other matters that the applicant wishes the Board to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
(c) Verification. The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer of or attorney for the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application and supporting documents is true and correct.
(d) Service. The application and related documents shall be served on all parties to the adversary proceeding in accordance with § 263.11, except that statements of net worth shall be served only on counsel for the Board.
(e) Presiding officer. Upon receipt of an application, the Board shall, if feasible, refer the matter to the administrative law judge who heard the underlying adversary proceeding.
§ 263.105 Statement of net worth.
(a) General rule. A statement of net worth shall be filed with the application for an award of fees. The statement shall reflect the net worth of the applicant and all affiliates of the applicant, as specified in § 263.103(c)(5). In all cases, the administrative law judge or the Board may call for additional information needed to establish the applicant's net worth as of the initiation of the proceeding.
(b) Contents. (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, the statement of net worth may be in any form convenient to the applicant which fully discloses all the assets and liabilities of the applicant and all the assets and liabilities of its affiliates, as of the time of the initiation of the adversary adjudication. Unaudited financial statements are acceptable for individual applicants as long as the statement provides a reliable basis for evaluation, unless the administrative law judge or the Board otherwise requires. Financial statements or reports filed with or reported to a Federal or State agency, prepared before the initiation of the adversary proceeding for other purposes, and accurate as of a date not more than three months prior to the initiation of the proceeding, shall be acceptable in establishing net worth as of the time of the initiation of the proceeding, unless the administrative law judge or the Board otherwise requires.
(2) In the case of applicants or affiliates that are not banks, net worth shall be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the excess of total assets over total liabilities, as of the date the underlying proceeding was initiated, except as adjusted under § 263.103(c)(5). The net worth of a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company shall be considered on a consolidated basis. Assets and liabilities of individuals shall include those beneficially owned.
(3) If the applicant or any of its affiliates is a bank or a savings association, the portion of the statement of net worth which relates to the bank or the savings association shall consist of a copy of the bank's or a savings association's last Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed before the initiation of the adversary adjudication. Net worth shall be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the total equity capital (or, in the case of mutual savings banks or mutual savings associations, the total surplus accounts) as reported, in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines, on the bank's or the savings association's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the last reporting date before the initiation of the proceeding.
(c) Statement confidential. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board or required by law, the statement of net worth shall be for the confidential use of the Board, counsel for the Board, and the administrative law judge.
[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.106 Measure of awards.
(a) General rule. Awards shall be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, provided that no award under this subpart for the fee of an attorney or agent shall exceed $75 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness shall exceed the highest rate at which the Board pays expert witnesses. An award may include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or expert witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
(b) Determination of reasonableness of fees. In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, subject to the limits set forth above, the administrative law judge shall consider the following:
(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for like services;
(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services;
(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and
(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
(c) Awards for studies. The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of an applicant may be awarded to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate payable for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary solely for preparation of the applicant's case and not otherwise required by law or sound business or financial practice.
§ 263.107 Statement of fees and expenses.
The application shall be accompanied by a statement fully documenting the fees and expenses for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in work in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services performed. The administrative law judge or the Board may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.
§ 263.108 Responses to application.
(a) By counsel for the Board. (1) Within 20 days after service of an application, counsel for the Board may file an answer to the application.
(2) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the Board's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the answer shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 263.109, or both.
(b) Reply to answer. The applicant may file a reply only if the Board has addressed in its answer any of the following issues: that the position of the agency was substantially justified, that the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or that special circumstances make an award unjust. Any reply authorized by this section shall be filed within 15 days of service of the answer. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the reply shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 263.109, or both.
(c) Additional response. Additional filings in the nature of pleadings may be submitted only by leave of the administrative law judge.
§ 263.109 Further proceedings.
(a) General rule. The determination of a recommended award shall be made by the administrative law judge on the basis of the written record of the adversary adjudication, including any supporting affidavits submitted in connection with the application, unless, on the motion of either the applicant or Board counsel, or sua sponte, the administrative law judge or the Board orders further proceedings to amplify the record such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application and shall be conducted promptly and expeditiously.
(b) Request for further proceedings. A request for further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the issues in dispute and shall explain why additional proceedings are necessary.
(c) Hearing. The administrative law judge shall hold an oral evidentiary hearing only on disputed issues of material fact which cannot be adequately resolved through written submissions.
§ 263.110 Recommended decision.
The administrative law judge shall file with the Board a recommended decision on the fee application not later than 30 days after the submission of all pleadings and evidentiary material concerning the application. The recommended decision shall include written proposed findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and its status as a prevailing party and, if applicable, an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount of the recommended award. The recommended decision shall also include, if at issue, proposed findings as to whether the Board's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. The administrative law judge shall file the record of the proceeding on the fee application upon the filing of the recommended decision and, at the same time, serve upon each party a copy of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
§ 263.111 Action by the Board.
(a) Exceptions to recommended decision. Within 20 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order, the applicant or counsel for the Board may file written exceptions thereto. A supporting brief may also be filed.
(b) Decision by the Board. The Board shall render its decision within 90 days after it has notified the parties that the matter has been received for decision. The Board shall serve copies of the decision and order of the Board upon the parties. Judicial review of the decision and order may be obtained as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).
Subpart H Issuance and Review of Orders Pursuant to Prompt Corrective Action Provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act
Source: 57 FR 44888, Sept. 29, 1992, unless otherwise noted.
§ 263.201 Scope.
(a) The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to state member banks, companies that control state member banks or are affiliated with such banks, and senior executive officers and directors of state member banks that are subject to the provisions of section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 38) and subpart D of part 208 of this chapter.
(b) [Reserved]
[57 FR 44888, Sept. 29, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998]
§ 263.202 Directives to take prompt regulatory action.
(a) Notice of intent to issue directive—(1) In general. The Board shall provide an undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized state member bank or, where appropriate, any company that controls the bank, prior written notice of the Board's intention to issue a directive requiring such bank or company to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the Board's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including sections 38(e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). The bank shall have such time to respond to a proposed directive as provided by the Board under paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) Immediate issuance of final directive. If the Board finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act, the Board may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue a directive requiring a state member bank or any company that controls a state member bank immediately to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the Board's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including section 38(e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). A bank or company that is subject to such an immediately effective directive may submit a written appeal of the directive to the Board. Such an appeal must be received by the Board within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the directive, unless the Board permits a longer period. The Board shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the directive shall remain in effect unless the Board, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the directive.
(b) Contents of notice. A notice of intention to issue a directive shall include:
(1) A statement of the bank's capital measures and capital levels;
(2) A description of the restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that the Board proposes to impose or require;
(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of such affirmative actions; and
(4) The date by which the bank or company subject to the directive may file with the Board a written response to the notice.
(c) Response to notice—(1) Time for response. A bank or company may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue a directive within the time period set by the Board. The date shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the Board determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the bank or other relevant circumstances.
(2) Content of response. The response should include:
(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the Board is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 38;
(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed directive; and
(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank or company regarding the proposed directive.
(d) Board consideration of response. After considering the response, the Board may:
(1) Issue the directive as proposed or in modified form;
(2) Determine not to issue the directive and so notify the bank or company; or
(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the bank or company, or any other relevant source.
(e) Failure to file response. Failure by a bank or company to file with the Board, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed directive shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the directive.
(f) Request for modification or rescission of directive. Any bank or company that is subject to a directive under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the Board reconsider the terms of the directive, and may propose that the directive be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the directive shall continue in place while such request is pending before the Board.
§ 263.203 Procedures for reclassifying a state member bank based on criteria other than capital.
(a) Reclassification based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice—(1) Issuance of notice of proposed reclassification—(i) Grounds for reclassification. (A) Pursuant to § 208.43(c) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.43(c)), the Board may reclassify a well capitalized bank as adequately capitalized or subject an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized institution to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capital category if:
(1) The Board determines that the bank is in unsafe or unsound condition; or
(2) The Board deems the bank to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice and not to have corrected the deficiency.
(B) Any action pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i) shall hereinafter be referred to as “reclassification.”
(ii) Prior notice to institution. Prior to taking action pursuant to § 208.33(c) of this chapter, the Board shall issue and serve on the bank a written notice of the Board's intention to reclassify the bank.
(2) Contents of notice. A notice of intention to reclassify a bank based on unsafe or unsound condition shall include:
(i) A statement of the bank's capital measures and capital levels and the category to which the bank would be reclassified;
(ii) The reasons for reclassification of the bank;
(iii) The date by which the bank subject to the notice of reclassification may file with the Board a written appeal of the proposed reclassification and a request for a hearing, which shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the Board determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the bank or other relevant circumstances.
(3) Response to notice of proposed reclassification. A bank may file a written response to a notice of proposed reclassification within the time period set by the Board. The response should include:
(i) An explanation of why the bank is not in unsafe or unsound condition or otherwise should not be reclassified;
(ii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank or company regarding the reclassification.
(4) Failure to file response. Failure by a bank to file, within the specified time period, a written response with the Board to a notice of proposed reclassification shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the reclassification.
(5) Request for hearing and presentation of oral testimony or witnesses. The response may include a request for an informal hearing before the Board or its designee under this section. If the bank desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the bank shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. A request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right to present oral testimony or witnesses.
(6) Order for informal hearing. Upon receipt of a timely written request that includes a request for a hearing, the Board shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the bank requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC or at such other place as may be designated by the Board, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the Board to conduct the hearing.
(7) Hearing procedures. (i) The bank shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing. The bank may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the Board or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart A of this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the Board orders that such procedures shall apply.
(ii) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the bank upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
(iii) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
(8) Recommendation of presiding officers. Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the Board on the reclassification.
(9) Time for decision. Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the Board will decide whether to reclassify the bank and notify the bank of the Board's decision.
(b) Request for rescission of reclassification. Any bank that has been reclassified under this section, may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the Board reconsider the reclassification, and may propose that the reclassification be rescinded and that any directives issued in connection with the reclassification be modified, rescinded, or removed. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the bank shall remain subject to the reclassification and to any directives issued in connection with that reclassification while such request is pending before the Board.
[57 FR 44888, Sept. 29, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998]
§ 263.204 Order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.
(a) Service of notice. When the Board issues and serves a directive on a state member bank pursuant to § 263.202 requiring the bank to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under section 38(f) (2) (F) (ii) of the FDI Act, the Board shall also serve a copy of the directive, or the relevant portions of the directive where appropriate, upon the person to be dismissed.
(b) Response to directive—(1) Request for reinstatement. A director or senior executive officer who has been served with a directive under paragraph (a) of this section (Respondent) may file a written request for reinstatement. The request for reinstatement shall be filed within 10 calendar days of the receipt of the directive by the Respondent, unless further time is allowed by the Board at the request of the Respondent.
(2) Contents of request; informal hearing. The request for reinstatement shall include reasons why the Respondent should be reinstated, and may include a request for an informal hearing before the Board or its designee under this section. If the Respondent desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the Respondent shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right or opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses.
(3) Effective date. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the dismissal shall remain in effect while a request for reinstatement is pending.
(c) Order for informal hearing. Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring a bank to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the Board shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the Respondent requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the Board, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the Board to conduct the hearing.
(d) Hearing procedures. (1) A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument. A Respondent may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the Board or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart A of this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the Board orders that such procedures shall apply.
(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
(3) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
(e) Standard for review. A Respondent shall bear the burden of demonstrating that his or her continued employment by or service with the bank would materially strengthen the bank's ability:
(1) To become adequately capitalized, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the bank's capital level or failure to submit or implement a capital restoration plan; and
(2) To correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of classification of the bank based on supervisory criteria other than capital, pursuant to section 38(g) of the FDI Act.
(f) Recommendation of presiding officers. Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the Board concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the bank.
(g) Time for decision. Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the Board shall grant or deny the request for reinstatement and notify the Respondent of the Board's decision. If the Board denies the request for reinstatement, the Board shall set forth in the notification the reasons for the Board's action.
§ 263.205 Enforcement of directives.
(a) Judicial remedies. Whenever a state member bank or company that controls a state member bank fails to comply with a directive issued under section 38, the Board may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i) (1) of the FDI Act.
(b) Administrative remedies—(1) Failure to comply with directive. Pursuant to section 8(i) (2) (A) of the FDI Act, the Board may assess a civil money penalty against any state member bank or company that controls a state member bank that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final directive issued under section 38 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
(2) Failure to implement capital restoration plan. The failure of a bank to implement a capital restoration plan required under section 38, subpart D of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart D), or this subpart, or the failure of a company having control of a bank to fulfill a guarantee of a capital restoration plan made pursuant to section 38 (e) (2) of the FDI Act shall subject the bank or company to the assessment of civil money penalties pursuant to section 8(i) (2) (A) of the FDI Act.
(c) Other enforcement action. In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Board may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 38 or subpart B of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart B) through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.
[57 FR 44888, Sept. 29, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998]
Subpart I Submission and Review of Safety and Soundness Compliance Plans and Issuance of Orders To Correct Safety and Soundness Deficiencies
Source: 60 FR 35682, July 10, 1995, unless otherwise noted.
§ 263.300 Scope.
The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to State member banks that are subject to the provisions of section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 39) (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1).
§ 263.301 Purpose.
Section 39 of the FDI Act requires the Board to establish safety and soundness standards. Pursuant to section 39, a bank may be required to submit a compliance plan if it is not in compliance with a safety and soundness standard established by guideline under section 39(a) or (b). An enforceable order under section 8 may be issued if, after being notified that it is in violation of a safety and soundness standard established under section 39, the bank fails to submit an acceptable compliance plan or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan. This subpart establishes procedures for requiring submission of a compliance plan and issuing an enforceable order pursuant to section 39.
§ 263.302 Determination and notification of failure to meet safety and soundness standard and request for compliance plan.
(a) Determination. The Board may, based upon an examination, inspection, or any other information that becomes available to the Board, determine that a bank has failed to satisfy the safety and soundness standards contained in the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness or the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information, set forth in appendices D-1 and D-2 to part 208 of this chapter, respectively.
(b) Request for compliance plan. If the Board determines that a State member bank has failed a safety and soundness standard pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the Board may request, by letter or through a report of examination, the submission of a compliance plan, and the bank shall be deemed to have notice of the request three days after mailing of the letter by the Board or delivery of the report of examination.
[60 FR 35682, July 10, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 55488, Oct. 15, 1998; 66 FR 8637, Feb. 1, 2001]
§ 263.303 Filing of safety and soundness compliance plan.
(a) Schedule for filing compliance plan—(1) In general. A State member bank shall file a written safety and soundness compliance plan with the Board within 30 days of receiving a request for a compliance plan pursuant to § 263.302(b), unless the Board notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period.
(2) Other plans. If a State member bank is obligated to file, or is currently operating under, a capital restoration plan submitted pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), a cease-and-desist order entered into pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act, a formal or informal agreement, or a response to a report of examination or report of inspection, it may, with the permission of the Board, submit a compliance plan under this section as part of that plan, order, agreement, or response, subject to the deadline provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(b) Contents of plan. The compliance plan shall include a description of the steps the State member bank will take to correct the deficiency and the time within which those steps will be taken.
(c) Review of safety and soundness compliance plans. Within 30 days after receiving a safety and soundness compliance plan under this subpart, the Board shall provide written notice to the bank of whether the plan has been approved or seek additional information from the bank regarding the plan. The Board may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan will be provided.
(d) Failure to submit or implement a compliance plan—(1) Supervisory actions. If a State member bank fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time specified by the Board or fails in any material respect to implement a compliance plan, then the Board shall, by order, require the bank to correct the deficiency and may take further actions provided in section 39(e)(2)(B). Pursuant to section 39(e)(3), the Board may be required to take certain actions if the bank commenced operations or experienced a change in control within the previous 24-month period, or the bank experienced extraordinary growth during the previous 18-month period.
(2) Extraordinary growth. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, extraordinary growth means an increase in assets of more than 7.5 percent during any quarter within the 18-month period preceding the issuance of a request for submission of a compliance plan, by a bank that is not well capitalized for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act. For purposes of calculating an increase in assets, assets acquired through merger or acquisition approved pursuant to the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) will be excluded.
(e) Amendment of compliance plan. A State member bank that has filed an approved compliance plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the Board, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the bank shall implement the compliance plan as previously approved.
§ 263.304 Issuance of orders to correct deficiencies and to take or refrain from taking other actions.
(a) Notice of intent to issue order—(1) In general. The Board shall provide a bank prior written notice of the Board's intention to issue an order requiring the bank to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act. The bank shall have such time to respond to a proposed order as provided by the Board under paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) Immediate issuance of final order. If the Board finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 39 of the FDI Act, the Board may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue an order requiring a bank immediately to take actions to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39. A State member bank that is subject to such an immediately effective order may submit a written appeal of the order to the Board. Such an appeal must be received by the Board within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the order, unless the Board permits a longer period. The Board shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the order shall remain in effect unless the Board, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the order.
(b) Contents of notice. A notice of intent to issue an order shall include:
(1) A statement of the safety and soundness deficiency or deficiencies that have been identified at the bank;
(2) A description of any restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that the Board proposes to impose or require;
(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of any required action; and
(4) The date by which the bank subject to the order may file with the Board a written response to the notice.
(c) Response to notice—(1) Time for response. A bank may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue an order within the time period set by the Board. Such a response must be received by the Board within 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the Board determines that a different period is appropriate in light of the safety and soundness of the bank or other relevant circumstances.
(2) Contents of response. The response should include:
(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the Board is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 39;
(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed order; and
(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank regarding the proposed order.
(d) Agency consideration of response. After considering the response, the Board may:
(1) Issue the order as proposed or in modified form;
(2) Determine not to issue the order and so notify the bank; or
(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the bank, or any other relevant source.
(e) Failure to file response. Failure by a bank to file with the Board, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed order shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the order.
(f) Request for modification or rescission of order. Any bank that is subject to an order under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the Board reconsider the terms of the order, and may propose that the order be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the order shall continue in place while such request is pending before the Board.
§ 263.305 Enforcement of orders.
(a) Judicial remedies. Whenever a State member bank fails to comply with an order issued under section 39, the Board may seek enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i)(1) of the FDI Act.
(b) Failure to comply with order. Pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act, the Board may assess a civil money penalty against any State member bank that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final order issued under section 39 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
(c) Other enforcement action. In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Board may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 39 or this part through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.
Subpart J Removal, Suspension, and Debarment of Accountants From Performing Audit Services
Source: 68 FR 48267, Aug. 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.
§ 263.400 Scope.
This subpart, which implements section 36(g)(4) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDIA)(12 U.S.C. 1831m(g)(4)), provides rules and procedures for the removal, suspension, or debarment of independent public accountants and their accounting firms from performing independent audit and attestation services for insured state member banks, bank holding companies, and savings and loan holding companies required by section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m).
[68 FR 48267, Aug. 13, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.401 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the meaning given below unless the context requires otherwise:
(a) Accounting firm means a corporation, proprietorship, partnership, or other business firm providing audit services.
(b) Audit services means any service required to be performed by an independent public accountant by section 36 of the FDIA and 12 CFR part 363, including attestation services. Audit services include any service performed with respect to the holding company of an insured bank that is used to satisfy requirements imposed by section 36 or part 363 on that bank.
(c) Banking organization means an insured state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company that obtains audit services that are used to satisfy requirements imposed by section 36 or part 363 on an insured subsidiary bank or insured savings association of that holding company.
(d) Independent public accountant (accountant) means any individual who performs or participates in providing audit services.
[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 263.402 Removal, suspension, or debarment.
(a) Good cause for removal, suspension, or debarment—(1) Individuals. The Board may remove, suspend, or debar an independent public accountant from performing audit services for banking organizations that are subject to section 36 of the FDIA, if, after notice of and opportunity for hearing in the matter, the Board finds that the accountant:
(i) Lacks the requisite qualifications to perform audit services;
(ii) Has knowingly or recklessly engaged in conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards, including those standards and conflict of interest provisions applicable to accountants through the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Pub. L. 107-204, 116 Stat. 745 (2002) (Sarbanes-Oxley Act), and developed by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the Securities and Exchange Commission;
(iii) Has engaged in negligent conduct in the form of:
(A) A single instance of highly unreasonable conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards in circumstances in which an accountant knows, or should know, that heightened scrutiny is warranted; or
(B) Repeated instances of unreasonable conduct, each resulting in a violation of applicable professional standards, that indicate a lack of competence to perform audit services;
(iv) Has knowingly or recklessly given false or misleading information, or knowingly or recklessly participated in any way in the giving of false or misleading information, to the Board or any officer or employee of the Board;
(v) Has engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing or reckless violation of any provision of the Federal banking or securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder, or any other law;
(vi) Has been removed, suspended, or debarred from practice before any Federal or state agency regulating the banking, insurance, or securities industries, other than by an action listed in § 263.403, on grounds relevant to the provision of audit services; or
(vii) Is suspended or debarred for cause from practice as an accountant by any duly constituted licensing authority of any state, possession, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.
(2) Accounting firms. If the Board determines that there is good cause for the removal, suspension, or debarment of a member or employee of an accounting firm under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Board also may remove, suspend, or debar such firm or one or more offices of such firm. In considering whether to remove, suspend, or debar a firm or an office thereof, and the term of any sanction against a firm under this section, the Board may consider, for example:
(i) The gravity, scope, or repetition of the act or failure to act that constitutes good cause for removal, suspension, or debarment;
(ii) The adequacy of, and adherence to, applicable policies, practices, or procedures for the accounting firm's conduct of its business and the performance of audit services;
(iii) The selection, training, supervision, and conduct of members or employees of the accounting firm involved in the performance of audit services;
(iv) The extent to which managing partners or senior officers of the accounting firm have participated, directly, or indirectly through oversight or review, in the act or failure to act; and
(v) The extent to which the accounting firm has, since the occurrence of the act or failure to act, implemented corrective internal controls to prevent its recurrence.
(3) Limited scope orders. An order of removal, suspension (including an immediate suspension), or debarment may, at the discretion of the Board, be made applicable to a particular banking organization or class of banking organizations.
(4) Remedies not exclusive. The remedies provided in this subpart are in addition to any other remedies the Board may have under any other applicable provisions of law, rule, or regulation.
(b) Proceedings to remove, suspend, or debar—(1) Initiation of formal removal, suspension, or debarment proceedings. The Board may initiate a proceeding to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services by issuing a written notice of intention to take such action that names the individual or firm as a respondent and describes the nature of the conduct that constitutes good cause for such action.
(2) Hearing under paragraph (b) of this section. An accountant or firm named as a respondent in the notice issued under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may request a hearing on the allegations in the notice. Hearings conducted under this paragraph shall be conducted in the same manner as other hearings under the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 263, subpart A).
(c) Immediate suspension from performing audit services—(1) In general. If the Board serves a written notice of intention to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services, the Board may, with due regard for the public interest and without a preliminary hearing, immediately suspend such accountant or firm from performing audit services for banking organizations, if the Board:
(i) Has a reasonable basis to believe that the accountant or firm has engaged in conduct (specified in the notice served on the accountant or firm under paragraph (b) of this section) that would constitute grounds for removal, suspension, or debarment under paragraph (a) of this section;
(ii) Determines that immediate suspension is necessary to avoid immediate harm to an insured depository institution or its depositors or to the depository system as a whole; and
(iii) Serves such respondent with written notice of the immediate suspension.
(2) Procedures. An immediate suspension notice issued under this paragraph will become effective upon service. Such suspension will remain in effect until the date the Board dismisses the charges contained in the notice of intention, or the effective date of a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment issued by the Board to the respondent.
(3) Petition to stay. Any accountant or firm immediately suspended from performing audit services in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section may, within 10 calendar days after service of the notice of immediate suspension, file with the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551 for a stay of such immediate suspension. If no petition is filed within 10 calendar days, the immediate suspension shall remain in effect.
(4) Hearing on petition. Upon receipt of a stay petition, the Secretary will designate a presiding officer who shall fix a place and time (not more than 10 calendar days after receipt of the petition, unless extended at the request of petitioner) at which the immediately suspended party may appear, personally or through counsel, to submit written materials and oral argument. Any Board employee engaged in investigative or prosecuting functions for the Board in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, serve as a presiding officer or participate or advise in the decision of the presiding officer or of the Board, except as witness or counsel in the proceeding. In the sole discretion of the presiding officer, upon a specific showing of compelling need, oral testimony of witnesses may also be presented. In hearings held pursuant to this paragraph there shall be no discovery and the provisions of §§ 263.6 through 263.12, 263.16, and 263.21 of this part shall apply.
(5) Decision on petition. Within 30 calendar days after the hearing, the presiding officer shall issue a decision. The presiding officer will grant a stay upon a demonstration that a substantial likelihood exists of the respondent's success on the issues raised by the notice of intention and that, absent such relief, the respondent will suffer immediate and irreparable injury, loss, or damage. In the absence of such a demonstration, the presiding officer will notify the parties that the immediate suspension will be continued pending the completion of the administrative proceedings pursuant to the notice.
(6) Review of presiding officer's decision. The parties may seek review of the presiding officer's decision by filing a petition for review with the presiding officer within 10 calendar days after service of the decision. Replies must be filed within 10 calendar days after the petition filing date. Upon receipt of a petition for review and any reply, the presiding officer shall promptly certify the entire record to the Board. Within 60 calendar days of the presiding officer's certification, the Board shall issue an order notifying the affected party whether or not the immediate suspension should be continued or reinstated. The order shall state the basis of the Board's decision.
§ 263.403 Automatic removal, suspension, and debarment.
(a) An independent public accountant or accounting firm may not perform audit services for banking organizations if the accountant or firm:
(1) Is subject to a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment (other than a limited scope order) issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, or the Office of Thrift Supervision under section 36 of the FDIA;
(2) Is subject to a temporary suspension or permanent revocation of registration or a temporary or permanent suspension or bar from further association with any registered public accounting firm issued by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board or the Securities and Exchange Commission under sections 105(c)(4)(A) or (B) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(A) or (B)); or
(3) Is subject to an order of suspension or denial of the privilege of appearing or practicing before the Securities and Exchange Commission.
(b) Upon written request, the Board, for good cause shown, may grant written permission to such accountant or firm to perform audit services for banking organizations. The request shall contain a concise statement of the action requested. The Board may require the applicant to submit additional information.
§ 263.404 Notice of removal, suspension, or debarment.
(a) Notice to the public. Upon the issuance of a final order for removal, suspension, or debarment of an independent public accountant or accounting firm from providing audit services, the Board shall make the order publicly available and provide notice of the order to the other Federal banking agencies.
(b) Notice to the Board by accountants and firms. An accountant or accounting firm that provides audit services to a banking organization must provide the Board with written notice of:
(1) Any currently effective order or other action described in § 263.402(a)(1)(vi) through (a)(1)(vii) or § 263.403(a)(2) through (a)(3); and
(2) Any currently effective action by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board under sections 105(c)(4)(C) or (G) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(C) or (G)).
(c) Timing of notice. Written notice required by this paragraph shall be given no later than 15 calendar days following the effective date of an order or action, or 15 calendar days before an accountant or firm accepts an engagement to provide audit services, whichever date is earlier.
§ 263.405 Petition for reinstatement.
(a) Form of petition. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, a petition for reinstatement by an independent public accountant, an accounting firm, or an office of a firm that was removed, suspended, or debarred under § 263.402 may be made in writing at any time. The request shall contain a concise statement of the action requested. The Board may require the petitioner to submit additional information.
(b) Procedure. A petitioner for reinstatement under this section may, in the sole discretion of the Board, be afforded a hearing. The accountant or firm shall bear the burden of going forward with a petition and proving the grounds asserted in support of the petition. The Board may, in its sole discretion, direct that any reinstatement proceeding be limited to written submissions. The removal, suspension, or debarment shall continue until the Board, for good cause shown, has reinstated the petitioner or until the suspension period has expired. The filing of a petition for reinstatement shall not stay the effectiveness of the removal, suspension, or debarment of an accountant or firm.
Subpart K Formal Investigative Proceedings
Source: 88 FR 89921, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.
§ 263.450 Scope.
(a) The procedures of this subpart must be followed when a formal investigation is instituted and conducted pursuant to: section 8(n) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(n)); section 10(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)); section 7(j)(15) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(15)); section 5(f) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(f)); sections 10(b)(4) and 10(g)(2) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1464(b)(4) and 1467a(g)(2)); or section 162 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5362).
(b) Nothing in this subpart prohibits the Board from conducting informal investigations or obtaining information by any means other than a subpoena issued pursuant to this subpart.
(c) This subpart does not apply to adjudicatory proceedings as to which hearings are required by statute, the rules for which are contained in part 262 of this chapter and subpart A of this part.
§ 263.451 Definitions.
As used in this subpart:
(a) Formal investigative proceeding means an investigation conducted pursuant to an order of investigation as provided in § 263.452(a).
(b) Designated representative means the person or persons empowered by the Board or by the General Counsel or his or her designees in accordance with 12 CFR 265.6 to conduct a formal investigative proceeding.
§ 263.452 Conduct of a formal investigative proceeding.
(a) A formal investigative proceeding may be initiated upon issuance of an order of investigation by the Board or by the General Counsel or his or her designees in accordance with 12 CFR 265.6. The order of investigation must indicate the purpose of the formal investigative proceeding and designate the Board's representatives to direct the conduct of the investigation.
(b) Any person who is compelled or requested to furnish documentary evidence or testimony at a formal investigative proceeding may, upon request, inspect a copy of the order of investigation at a time and place that the Board's designated representative determines to be appropriate. Any person who is compelled or requested to furnish documentary evidence or testimony in a formal investigative proceeding may not refuse to comply with a subpoena on the grounds that the order of investigation was not made available in advance of the date of production or testimony set forth in a subpoena.
(c) Copies of an order of investigation may not be produced to or retained by any person except with the express written approval of the Board officer supervising the investigation. The Board may provide a copy of an order of investigation, in whole or in part, if the Board officer concludes, in the officer's discretion, that disclosure of the order of investigation would not infringe upon the privacy of persons involved in the investigation or impede the conduct of the investigation.
§ 263.453 Powers of the designated representative.
The designated representative conducting the formal investigative proceeding will have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take and preserve testimony under oath, to issue subpoenas ad testificandum and subpoenas duces tecum and to apply for their enforcement to the United States District Court for the judicial district or the United States court in any territory in which the witness or company subpoenaed resides or conducts business, or such other judicial district provided by law.
§ 263.454 Confidentiality of proceedings.
Formal investigative proceedings conducted pursuant to this subpart are confidential and, unless otherwise ordered or permitted by the Board, or required by law, the entire record of any formal investigative proceeding, including the order of investigation authorizing the proceeding, the transcripts of such proceeding, and all documents and information obtained by the designated representative(s) during the course of the formal investigative proceeding will be confidential. If the Board issues a notice of charges or otherwise initiates an administrative (adjudicatory) hearing, disclosure of documents and information obtained by the Board's designated representative(s) during the course of the formal investigative proceeding will be governed by the Uniform Rules and the Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules (subparts A and B of this part).
§ 263.455 Transcripts.
(a) Transcripts of testimony, if any, must be recorded by an official reporter, or by any other person or means designated by the designated representative conducting the investigation.
(b) Transcripts will be treated as confidential and must not be disclosed to any party except as provided in this subpart or as otherwise ordered or permitted by the Board, or required by law or regulation.
§ 263.456 Rights of witnesses.
(a) Any witness in a formal investigative proceeding may be accompanied and advised by an attorney personally representing that witness.
(1) Such attorney must be a member in good standing of the bar of any state, Commonwealth, possession, territory, or the District of Columbia, who has not been suspended or debarred from practice before the Board in accordance with any provision of this part, including paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
(2) Such attorney may advise the witness before, during, and after the taking of the witness' testimony and may briefly question the witness, on the record, at the conclusion of the witness' testimony, for the sole purpose of clarifying any of the answers the witness has given. During the taking of the testimony of a witness, such attorney may make summary notes solely for the attorney's use in representing the witness. Neither the attorney nor witness may retain copies of exhibits used or introduced in the course of a witness' testimony.
(3) All witnesses must be sequestered, and, unless permitted in the discretion of the designated representative, no witness or accompanying attorney may be present during the taking of testimony of any other witness called in such formal investigative proceeding. Attorneys for any other interested persons or entities will not, unless permitted in the discretion of the designated representative, have a right to be present during the testimony of any witness not personally being represented by such attorneys.
(4) The Board, for good cause, may exclude a particular attorney from further participation in any formal investigative proceeding in which the Board has found the attorney to have engaged in dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct. The designated representative conducting the formal investigative proceeding may report to the Board instances of apparently dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct on the part of an attorney. After due notice to the attorney, the Board may take such action as the circumstances warrant, including suspending any attorney representing a witness from further participation in the investigative proceeding, based upon a written record evidencing the conduct of the attorney in the formal investigative proceeding or such other or additional written or oral presentation as the Board may permit or direct.
(b) A witness may inspect the transcript of the witness' own testimony, without retaining a copy thereof, for the purpose of making non-substantive corrections to the transcript at a time and place that the designated representative determines to be appropriate in consideration of all relevant factors, including the convenience of the witness.
(c) A witness may, solely for the use of the witness and the witness' attorney, obtain a copy of the transcript of the witness' testimony, provided that the witness submits a written request for the transcript and the witness requesting a copy of the witness' testimony bears the cost thereof. However, the Board officer supervising the formal investigative proceeding may deny such a request if, in the officer's discretion, the provision of the transcript may infringe the privacy of third persons involved in the investigation, or impede or interfere with the conduct of any investigation. If the Board issues a notice of charges or otherwise initiates an administrative (adjudicatory) hearing, disclosure of formal investigative transcripts obtained by the Board's designated representative(s) during the course of the formal investigative proceeding will be governed by the Uniform Rules and the Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules (subparts A and B of this part).
§ 263.457 Subpoenas.
(a) Service. Service of a subpoena may be made:
(1) By personal service;
(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
(3) By delivery to an agent which, in the case of a corporation or other association, is delivery to an officer, director, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
(4) By registered or certified mail or by an express delivery service addressed to the person's or authorized agent's last known address; or
(5) In such other manner as is reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
(b) Area of service. Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing or testimony is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service must be made on at least one branch or agency so involved. Foreign nationals are subject to such subpoenas if such service is made upon a duly authorized agent located in the United States or such other means permissible by law.
(c) Witness fees and mileage. Witnesses summoned in any proceeding under this subpart must be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the district courts of the United States. Such fees and mileage need not be tendered when the subpoena is issued on behalf of the Board by any of its designated representatives.
Appendix A to Part 263 Rules Applicable to Proceedings Initiated Before April 1, 2024
Source:88 FR 89923, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.
Note:
The content of this appendix reproduces the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure and Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules in 12 CFR part 263, subparts A and B, respectively, as of April 1, 2024, and apply only to adjudicatory proceedings initiated before April 1, 2024. Proceedings initiated on or after April 1, 2024, are not governed by the version of the rules set out in this appendix. Cross-references to part 263 (as well as to included sections) in this appendix are to those provisions as contained within this appendix.
Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure
263.1 Scope.
263.2 Rules of construction.
263.3 Definitions.
263.4 Authority of the Board.
263.5 Authority of the administrative law judge.
263.6 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.
263.7 Good faith certification.
263.8 Conflicts of interest.
263.9 Ex parte communications.
263.10 Filing of papers.
263.11 Service of papers.
263.12 Construction of time limits.
263.13 Change of time limits.
263.14 Witness fees and expenses.
263.15 Opportunity for informal settlement.
263.16 The Board's right to conduct examination.
263.17 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.
263.18 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.
263.19 Answer.
263.21 Failure to appear.
263.22 Consolidation and severance of actions.
263.23 Motions.
263.24 Scope of document discovery.
263.25 Request for document discovery from parties.
263.26 Document subpoenas to nonparties.
263.27 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.
263.28 Interlocutory review.
263.29 Summary disposition.
263.30 Partial summary disposition.
263.31 Scheduling and prehearing conferences.
263.32 Prehearing submissions.
263.33 Public hearings.
263.34 Hearing subpoenas.
263.35 Conduct of hearings.
263.36 Evidence.
263.37 Post-hearing filings.
263.38 Recommended decision and filing of record.
263.39 Exceptions to recommended decision.
263.40 Review by the Board.
263.41 Stays pending judicial review.
Subpart B—Board Local Rules Supplementing Uniform Rules
263.50 Purpose and scope.
263.51 Definitions.
263.52 Address for filing.
263.53 Discovery depositions.
263.54 Delegation to the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication.
263.55 Board as Presiding Officer.
263.56 Initial licensing proceedings.
Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure
§ 263.1 Scope.
This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for hearing under the following statutory provisions:
(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”) should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of a state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company;
(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the Board is the appropriate agency;
(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the Board against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which the Board is the appropriate agency for any violation of:
(1) Any provision of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (“BHC Act”), or any order or regulation issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1847(b) and (d);
(2) Sections 19, 22, 23, 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (“FRA”), or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 504 and 505;
(3) Section 9 of the FRA pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 324;
(4) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);
(5) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, as amended, or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
(6) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909;
(7) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108;
(8) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
(9) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
(10) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the Board, the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the Board in connection with the grant of an application or request, and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty or law or regulation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
(11) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
(12) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
(13) Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (“HOLA”) or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464 (d), (s) and (v);
(14) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467(d); and
(15) Section 10 of the HOLA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a (i) and (r);
(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
(g) Removal, prohibition, and civil monetary penalty proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) for violations of the special post-employment restrictions imposed by that section; and
(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules.
§ 263.2 Rules of construction.
For purposes of this subpart:
(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neuter gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate;
(c) The term counsel includes a non-attorney representative; and
(d) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.
§ 263.3 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
(a) Administrative law judge means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
(b) Adjudicatory proceeding means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
(c) Decisional employee means any member of the Board's or administrative law judge's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Agency or the administrative law judge, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
(d) Enforcement Counsel means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the Board in an adjudicatory proceeding.
(e) Final order means an order issued by the Board with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
(f) Institution includes: (1) Any bank as that term is defined in section 3(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(a));
(2) Any bank holding company or any subsidiary (other than a bank) of a bank holding company as those terms are defined in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841 et seq.);
(3) Any organization operating under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 et seq.);
(4) Any foreign bank or company to which section 8 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106), applies or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof;
(5) Any Federal agency as that term is defined in section 1(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101(5)); and
(6) Any savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary (other than a savings association) of a savings and loan holding company as those terms are defined in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1461 et seq.).
(g) Institution-affiliated party means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
(h) Local Rules means those rules promulgated by the Board in this part other than subpart A.
(i) OFIA means the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication, the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings for the Board, the Office of Comptroller of the Currency (the OCC), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (the FDIC), and the National Credit Union Administration (the NCUA).
(j) Party means the Board and any person named as a party in any notice.
(k) Person means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (f) of this section.
(l) Respondent means any party other than the Board.
(m) Uniform Rules means those rules in subpart A of this part that are common to the Board, the OCC, the FDIC, and the NCUA.
(n) Violation includes any action (alone or with another or others) for or toward causing, bringing about, participating in, counseling, or aiding or abetting a violation.
§ 263.4 Authority of the Board.
The Board may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the administrative law judge.
§ 263.5 Authority of the administrative law judge.
(a) General rule. All proceedings governed by this part shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
(b) Powers. The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas duces tecum, and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 263.31;
(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Board shall have the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
(8) To prepare and present to the Board a recommended decision as provided herein;
(9) To recuse himself or herself by motion made by a party or on his or her own motion;
(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.
§ 263.6 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.
(a) Appearance before the Board or an administrative law judge—(1) By attorneys. Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the Board if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Board.
(2) By non-attorneys. An individual may appear on his or her own behalf; a member of a partnership may represent the partnership; a duly authorized officer, director, or employee of any government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority may represent that unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority if such officer, director, or employee is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Board.
(3) Notice of appearance. Any individual acting as counsel on behalf of a party, including the Board, shall file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that he or she is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the administrative law judge, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a pro se basis.
(b) Sanctions. Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.
§ 263.7 Good faith certification.
(a) General requirement. Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice shall be signed by at least one counsel of record in his or her individual name and shall state that counsel's address and telephone number. A party who acts as his or her own counsel shall sign his or her individual name and state his or her address and telephone number on every filing or submission of record.
(b) Effect of signature. (1) The signature of counsel or a party shall constitute a certification that: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the administrative law judge shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
(c) Effect of making oral motion or argument. The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, his or her statement is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
§ 263.8 Conflicts of interest.
(a) Conflict of interest in representation. No person shall appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The administrative law judge may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
(b) Certification and waiver. If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 263.6(a):
(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.
§ 263.9 Ex parte communications.
(a) Definition—(1) Ex parte communication means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
(i) An interested person outside the Board (including such person's counsel); and
(ii) The administrative law judge handling that proceeding, a member of the Board, or a decisional employee.
(2) Exception. A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an ex parte communication.
(b) Prohibition of ex parte communications. From the time the notice is issued by the Board until the date that the Board issues its final decision pursuant to § 263.40(c):
(1) No interested person outside the Federal Reserve System shall make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication to a member of the Board, the administrative law judge, or a decisional employee; and
(2) A member of the Board, administrative law judge, or decisional employee shall not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the Federal Reserve System any ex parte communication.
(c) Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication. If an ex parte communication is received by the administrative law judge, a member of the Board or any other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity, within ten days of receipt of service of the ex parte communication, to file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances.
(d) Sanctions. Any party or his or her counsel who makes a prohibited ex parte communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Board or the administrative law judge including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
(e) Separation of functions. Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law, the administrative law judge may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Board in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 263.40, except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.
§ 263.10 Filing of papers.
(a) Filing. Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 263.25 and 263.26, shall be filed with OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
(b) Manner of filing. Unless otherwise specified by the Board or the administrative law judge, filing may be accomplished by:
(1) Personal service;
(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if expressly authorized, and upon any conditions specified, by the Board or the administrative law judge. All papers filed by electronic media shall also concurrently be filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) Formal requirements as to papers filed—(1) Form. All papers filed must set forth the name, address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on 8 1/2 × 11 inch paper, and must be clear and legible.
(2) Signature. All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 263.7.
(3) Caption. All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the Board and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.
(4) Number of copies. Unless otherwise specified by the Board, or the administrative law judge, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits shall be filed.
§ 263.11 Service of papers.
(a) By the parties. Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers shall serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
(b) Method of service. Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party shall use one or more of the following methods of service:
(1) Personal service;
(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if the parties mutually agree. Any papers served by electronic media shall also concurrently be served in accordance with the requirements of § 263.10(c).
(c) By the Board or the administrative law judge. (1) All papers required to be served by the Board or the administrative law judge upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 263.6, shall be served by any means specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
(2) If a party has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 263.6, the Board or the administrative law judge shall make service by any of the following methods:
(i) By personal service;
(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
(iv) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
(d) Subpoenas. Service of a subpoena may be made:
(1) By personal service;
(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
(3) By delivery to an agent, which, in the case of a corporation or other association, is delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
(4) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
(5) By any other method as is reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
(e) Area of service. Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service shall be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.
§ 263.12 Construction of time limits.
(a) General rule. In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
(b) When papers are deemed to be filed or served. (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
(i) In the case of personal service or same-day commercial courier delivery, upon actual service;
(ii) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Express Mail delivery, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection;
(iii) In the case of transmission by electronic media, as specified by the authority receiving the filing, in the case of filing, and as agreed among the parties, in the case of service.
(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Board or administrative law judge in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
(c) Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers. Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
(1) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;
(2) If service is made by express mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or
(3) If service is made by electronic media transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period, unless otherwise determined by the Board or the administrative law judge in the case of filing, or by agreement among the parties in the case of service.
§ 263.13 Change of time limits.
Except as otherwise provided by law, the administrative law judge may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Board pursuant to § 263.38, the Board may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or sua sponte by the Board or the administrative law judge.
§ 263.14 Witness fees and expenses.
Witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the Board is the party requesting the subpoena. The Board shall not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the Board.
§ 263.15 Opportunity for informal settlement.
Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any Board representative other than Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.
§ 263.16 The Board's right to conduct examination.
Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the Board or any Federal Reserve Bank to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the Board or any Federal Reserve Bank to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.
§ 263.17 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.
If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.
§ 263.18 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.
(a) Commencement of proceeding. (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the Board.
(ii) The notice must be served by the Board upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law.
(iii) The notice must be filed with OFIA.
(2) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the Board.
(b) Contents of notice. The notice must set forth:
(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the Board's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
(2) A statement of the matters of fact or law showing that the Board is entitled to relief;
(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing shall be filed with OFIA.
§ 263.19 Answer.
(a) When. Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent shall also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
(b) Content of answer. An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer must be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
(c) Default—(1) Effect of failure to answer. Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Board based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
(2) Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings. If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order.
(a) Amendments. The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Board or administrative law judge orders otherwise for good cause.
(b) Amendments to conform to the evidence. When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the administrative law judge may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the administrative law judge that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The administrative law judge may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.
§ 263.21 Failure to appear.
Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.
§ 263.22 Consolidation and severance of actions.
(a) Consolidation. (1) On the motion of any party, or on the administrative law judge's own motion, the administrative law judge may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule shall be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
(b) Severance. The administrative law judge may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the administrative law judge finds that:
(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.
§ 263.23 Motions.
(a) In writing. (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the administrative law judge. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
(b) Oral motions. A motion may be made orally on the record unless the administrative law judge directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
(c) Filing of motions. Motions must be filed with the administrative law judge, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Board.
(d) Responses. (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the administrative law judge or the Board, any party may file a written response to a motion. The administrative law judge shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
(e) Dilatory motions. Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
(f) Dispositive motions. Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 263.29 and 263.30.
§ 263.24 Scope of document discovery.
(a) Limits on discovery. (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term “documents” may be defined to include drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, data stored in electronic form, and other data compilations from which information can be obtained, or translated, if necessary, by the parties through detection devices into reasonably usable form, as well as written material of all kinds.
(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by § 263.53 of subpart B of this part.
(3) Discovery by use of interrogatories is not permitted.
(b) Relevance. A party may obtain document discovery regarding any matter, not privileged, that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action. Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material, that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate, or the request calls for copies of documents to be delivered to the requesting party and fails to include the requestor's written agreement to pay in advance for the copying, in accordance with § 263.25.
(c) Privileged matter. Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, work-product privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative-process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
(d) Time limits. All discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, shall be completed at least 20 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing. No exceptions to this time limit shall be permitted, unless the administrative law judge finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph.
§ 263.25 Request for document discovery from parties.
(a) General rule. Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce for inspection any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. The request must identify the documents to be produced either by individual item or by category, and must describe each item and category with reasonable particularity. Documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business or must be organized to correspond with the categories in the request.
(b) Production or copying. The request must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for production and performing any related acts. In lieu of inspecting the documents, the requesting party may specify that all or some of the responsive documents be copied and the copies delivered to the requesting party. If copying of fewer than 250 pages is requested, the party to whom the request is addressed shall bear the cost of copying and shipping charges. If a party requests 250 pages or more of copying, the requesting party shall pay for the copying and shipping charges. Copying charges are the current per-page copying rate imposed by 12 CFR part 261 implementing the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). The party to whom the request is addressed may require payment in advance before producing the documents.
(c) Obligation to update responses. A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns that:
(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
(d) Motions to limit discovery. (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within ten days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 263.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to shall be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 263.23 are waived.
(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
(e) Privilege. At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by deliberative process, attorney-work-product, or attorney-client privilege are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The administrative law judge retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
(f) Motions to compel production. (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 263.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the request may file a written response to a motion to compel within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
(g) Ruling on motions. After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the administrative law judge shall rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, he or she may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the administrative law judge may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the administrative law judge its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the administrative law judge's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
(h) Enforcing discovery subpoenas. If the administrative law judge issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena shall not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.
§ 263.26 Document subpoenas to nonparties.
(a) General rules. (1) Any party may apply to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
(2) A party shall only apply for a document subpoena under this section within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 263.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
(b) Motion to quash or modify. (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant shall serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 263.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
(c) Enforcing document subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the administrative law judge has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.
§ 263.27 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.
(a) General rules. (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness's testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena duces tecum, requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The administrative law judge may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon a showing that:
(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
(ii) The witness's unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the administrative law judge shall fix.
(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the administrative law judge on his or her own motion, requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the administrative law judge orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.
(b) Objections to deposition subpoenas. (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the administrative law judge to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
(c) Procedure upon deposition. (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
(2) Any party may move before the administrative law judge for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
(d) Enforcing subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(3) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the administrative law judge has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.
§ 263.28 Interlocutory review.
(a) General rule. The Board may review a ruling of the administrative law judge prior to the certification of the record to the Board only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 263.23.
(b) Scope of review. The Board may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the administrative law judge if the Board finds that:
(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
(c) Procedure. Any request for interlocutory review shall be filed by a party with the administrative law judge within ten days of his or her ruling and shall otherwise comply with § 263.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 263.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the administrative law judge shall refer the matter to the Board for final disposition.
(d) Suspension of proceeding. Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Board under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge or the Board.
§ 263.29 Summary disposition.
(a) In general. The administrative law judge shall recommend that the Board issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:
(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
(b) Filing of motions and responses. (1) Any party who believes that there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that he or she is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the administrative law judge, may file a response to such motion.
(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends support his or her position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which he or she contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
(c) Hearing on motion. At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
(d) Decision on motion. Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the administrative law judge shall determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the administrative law judge determines that summary disposition is warranted, the administrative law judge shall submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Board. If the administrative law judge finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, he or she shall make a ruling denying the motion.
§ 263.30 Partial summary disposition.
If the administrative law judge determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, he or she shall defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the administrative law judge has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.
§ 263.31 Scheduling and prehearing conferences.
(a) Scheduling conference. Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding or such other time as parties may agree, the administrative law judge shall direct counsel for all parties to meet with him or her in person at a specified time and place prior to the hearing or to confer by telephone for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting or telephone conference is called a “scheduling conference.” The identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
(b) Prehearing conferences. The administrative law judge may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to meet with him or her (in person or by telephone) at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
(c) Transcript. The administrative law judge, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.
(d) Scheduling or prehearing orders. At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the administrative law judge shall serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.
§ 263.32 Prehearing submissions.
(a) Within the time set by the administrative law judge, but in no case later than 14 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party, his or her:
(1) Prehearing statement;
(2) Final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including name and address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;
(3) List of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
(b) Effect of failure to comply. No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.
§ 263.33 Public hearings.
(a) General rule. All hearings shall be open to the public, unless the Board, in the Board's discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Board a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the administrative law judge a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Board. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 263.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
(b) Filing document under seal. Enforcement Counsel, in his or her discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The administrative law judge shall take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.
§ 263.34 Hearing subpoenas.
(a) Issuance. (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the administrative law judge may issue a subpoena or a subpoena duces tecum requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application shall serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the administrative law judge.
(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the administrative law judge, the party making the application shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
(b) Motion to quash or modify. (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance, but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
(c) Enforcing subpoenas. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 263.26(c).
§ 263.35 Conduct of hearings.
(a) General rules. (1) Hearings shall be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
(2) Order of hearing. Enforcement Counsel shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement, and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree the administrative law judge shall fix the order.
(3) Examination of witnesses. Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the administrative law judge may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
(4) Stipulations. Unless the administrative law judge directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
(b) Transcript. The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The administrative law judge may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the administrative law judge's own motion.
§ 263.36 Evidence.
(a) Admissibility. (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.
(b) Official notice. (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or state government agency.
(2) All matters officially noticed by the administrative law judge or Board shall appear on the record.
(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to object.
(c) Documents. (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institutions regulatory agency or state regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the administrative law judge's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
(d) Objections. (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what he or she expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness, either by representation of counsel or by direct interrogation of the witness.
(3) The administrative law judge shall retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Board.
(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
(e) Stipulations. The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing, and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
(f) Depositions of unavailable witnesses. (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the administrative law judge may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.
§ 263.37 Post-hearing filings.
(a) Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs. (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the administrative law judge shall serve notice upon each party, that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the administrative law judge proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the administrative law judge or within such longer period as may be ordered by the administrative law judge.
(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the administrative law judge any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
(b) Reply briefs. Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
(c) Simultaneous filing required. The administrative law judge shall not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.
§ 263.38 Recommended decision and filing of record.
(a) Filing of recommended decision and record. Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 263.37(b), the administrative law judge shall file with and certify to the Board, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the administrative law judge's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The administrative law judge shall serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
(b) Filing of index. At the same time the administrative law judge files with and certifies to the Board for final determination the record of the proceeding, the administrative law judge shall furnish to the Board a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed with the administrative law judge in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: Each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.
§ 263.39 Exceptions to recommended decision.
(a) Filing exceptions. Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 263.38, a party may file with the Board written exceptions to the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the administrative law judge to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
(b) Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions. (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
(2) No exception need be considered by the Board if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the administrative law judge and failed to do so.
(c) Contents. (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the administrative law judge's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the administrative law judge's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.
§ 263.40 Review by the Board.
(a) Notice of submission to the Board. When the Board determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Board shall serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Board for final decision.
(b) Oral argument before the Board. Upon the initiative of the Board or on the written request of any party filed with the Board within the time for filing exceptions, the Board may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the administrative law judge. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Board's final decision. Oral argument before the Board must be on the record.
(c) Agency final decision. (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Board in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Board will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Board may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
(2) The Board shall render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Board orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the administrative law judge for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Board shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Board or required by statute, upon any appropriate state or Federal supervisory authority.
§ 263.41 Stays pending judicial review.
The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Board may not, unless specifically ordered by the Board or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Board. The Board may, in its discretion, and on such terms as it finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of its order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.
Subpart B—Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules
§ 263.50 Purpose and scope.
(a) This subpart prescribes the rules of practice and procedure governing formal adjudications set forth in § 263.50(b) of this subpart, and supplements the rules of practice and procedure contained in subpart A of this part.
(b) The rules and procedures of this subpart and subpart A of this part shall apply to the formal adjudications set forth in § 263.1 of subpart A and to the following adjudications:
(1) Suspension of a member bank from use of credit facilities of the Federal Reserve System under section 4 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 301);
(2) Termination of a bank's membership in the Federal Reserve System under section 9 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 327);
(3) Issuance of a cease-and-desist order under section 11 of the Clayton Act (15 U.S.C. 21);
(4) Adjudications under sections 2, 3, or 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841, 1842, or 1843);
(5) Formal adjudications on bank merger applications under section 18(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
(6) Issuance of a divestiture order under section 5(e) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(e));
(7) Imposition of sanctions upon any municipal securities dealer for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency, or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with such a municipal securities dealer, under section 15B(c)(5) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4);
(8) Proceedings where the Board otherwise orders that a formal hearing be held;
(9) Termination of the activities of a state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary of a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to section 7(e) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d));
(10) Termination of the activities of a representative office of a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to section 10(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3107(b));
(11) Issuance of a prompt corrective action directive to a member bank under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o);
(12) Reclassification of a member bank on grounds of unsafe or unsound condition under section 38(g)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(g)(1));
(13) Reclassification of a member bank on grounds of unsafe and unsound practice under section 38(g)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(g)(1));
(14) Issuance of an order requiring a member bank to dismiss a director or senior executive officer under section 38 (e)(5) and 38(f)(2) (F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(5) and 1831o(f)(2) (F)(ii));
(15) Adjudications under section 10 of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
§ 263.51 Definitions.
As used in subparts B through G of this part:
(a) Secretary means the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System;
(b) Member bank means any bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
(c) Institution has the same meaning as that assigned to it in § 263.3(f) of subpart A, and includes any foreign bank with a representative office in the United States.
§ 263.52 Address for filing.
All papers to be filed with the Board shall be filed with the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
§ 263.53 Discovery depositions.
(a) In general. In addition to the discovery permitted in subpart A of this part, limited discovery by means of depositions shall be allowed for individuals with knowledge of facts material to the proceeding that are not protected from discovery by any applicable privilege, and of identified expert witnesses. Except in unusual cases, accordingly, depositions will be permitted only of individuals identified as hearing witnesses, including experts. All discovery depositions must be completed within the time set forth in § 263.24(d).
(b) Application. A party who desires to take a deposition of any other party's proposed witnesses, shall apply to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum. The application shall state the name and address of the proposed deponent, the subject matter of the testimony expected from the deponent and its relevancy to the proceeding, and the address of the place and the time, no sooner than ten days after the service of the subpoena, for the taking of the deposition. Any such application shall be treated as a motion subject to the rules governing motions practice set forth in § 263.23.
(c) Issuance of subpoena. The administrative law judge shall issue the requested deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum upon a finding that the application satisfies the requirements of this section and of § 263.24. If the administrative law judge determines that the taking of the deposition or its proposed location is, in whole or in part, unnecessary, unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome, he or she may deny the application or may grant it upon such conditions as justice may require. The party obtaining the deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum shall be responsible for serving it on the deponent and all parties to the proceeding in accordance with § 263.11.
(d) Motion to quash or modify. A person named in a deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena or for the issuance of a protective order. Such motions must be filed within ten days following service of the subpoena, but in all cases at least five days prior to the commencement of the scheduled deposition. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for granting the motion and a copy of the motion and the statement must be served on the party which requested the subpoena. Only the party requesting the subpoena may file a response to a motion to quash or modify, and any such response shall be filed within five days following service of the motion.
(e) Enforcement of a deposition subpoena. Enforcement of a deposition subpoena shall be in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 263.27(d).
(f) Conduct of the deposition. The deponent shall be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the deponent with respect to all non-privileged, relevant and material matters. Objections to questions or evidence shall be in the short form, stating the ground for the objection. Failure to object to questions or evidence shall not be deemed a waiver except where the grounds for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. The discovery deposition shall be transcribed or otherwise recorded as agreed among the parties.
(g) Protective orders. At any time during the taking of a discovery deposition, on the motion of any party or of the deponent, the administrative law judge may terminate or limit the scope and manner of the deposition upon a finding that grounds exist for such relief. Grounds for terminating or limiting the taking of a discovery deposition include a finding that the discovery deposition is being conducted in bad faith or in such a manner as to:
(1) Unreasonably annoy, embarrass, or oppress the deponent;
(2) Unreasonably probe into privilege, irrelevant or immaterial matters; or
(3) Unreasonably attempt to pry into a party's preparation for trial.
§ 263.54 Delegation to the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication.
Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, administrative adjudications subject to subpart A of this part shall be conducted by an administrative law judge of OFIA.
§ 263.55 Board as Presiding Officer.
The Board may, in its discretion, designate itself, one or more of its members, or an authorized officer, to act as presiding officer in a formal hearing. In such a proceeding, proposed findings and conclusions, briefs, and other submissions by the parties permitted in subpart A shall be filed with the Secretary for consideration by the Board. Sections 263.38 and 263.39 of subpart A will not apply to proceedings conducted under this section.
§ 263.56 Initial licensing proceedings.
Proceedings with respect to applications for initial licenses shall include, but not be limited to, applications for Board approval under section 3 of the BHC Act and section 10 of HOLA and such proceedings as may be ordered by the Board with respect to applications under section 18(c) of the FDIA. In such initial licensing proceedings, the procedures set forth in subpart A of this part shall apply, except that the Board may designate a Board Counsel to represent the Board in a nonadversary capacity for the purpose of developing for the record information relevant to the issues to be determined by the Presiding Officer and the Board. In such proceedings, Board Counsel shall be considered to be a decisional employee for purposes of §§ 263.9 and 263.40 of subpart A.
PART 264 EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT
Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7301; 12 U.S.C. 244.
§ 264.101 Cross-reference to employees' ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.
Employees of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) are subject to the executive branch-wide standards of ethical conduct at 5 CFR part 2635 and the Board's regulation at 5 CFR part 6801, which supplements the executive branch-wide standards, and the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulation at 5 CFR part 2634.
[61 FR 53830, Oct. 16, 1996]
PART 264a POST-EMPLOYMENT RESTRICTIONS FOR SENIOR EXAMINERS
Authority: 12 U.S.C. 1820(k).
Source: 70 FR 69638, Nov. 17, 2005, unless otherwise noted.
§ 264a.1 What is the purpose and scope of this part?
This part identifies those officers and employees of the Federal Reserve that are subject to the special post-employment restrictions set forth in section 10(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) and implements those restrictions as they apply to officers and employees of the Federal Reserve.
§ 264a.2 Who is considered a senior examiner of the Federal Reserve?
For purposes of this part, an officer or employee of the Federal Reserve is considered to be the “senior examiner” for a particular state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or foreign bank if—
(a) The officer or employee has been authorized by the Board to conduct examinations or inspections on behalf of the Board;
(b) The officer or employee has been assigned continuing, broad and lead responsibility for examining or inspecting the state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or foreign bank; and
(c) The officer's or employee's responsibilities for examining, inspecting and supervising the state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or foreign bank—
(1) Represent a substantial portion of the officer's or employee's assigned responsibilities; and
(2) Require the officer or employee to interact routinely with officers or employees of the state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or foreign bank or its affiliates.
[76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 264a.3 What special post-employment restrictions apply to senior examiners?
(a) Senior Examiners of State Member Banks. An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a state member bank for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year after leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from—
(1) The state member bank; or
(2) Any company (including a bank holding company) that controls the state member bank.
(b) Senior Examiners of Bank Holding Companies. An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a bank holding company for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from—
(1) The bank holding company; or
(2) Any depository institution that is controlled by the bank holding company.
(c) Senior Examiners of Foreign Banks. An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a foreign bank for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from—
(1) The foreign bank; or
(2) Any branch or agency of the foreign bank located in the United States; or
(3) Any other depository institution controlled by the foreign bank.
(d) Senior Examiners of Savings and Loan Holding Companies. An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a savings and loan holding company for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from—
(1) The savings and loan holding company; or
(2) Any depository institution that is controlled by the savings and loan holding company.
[70 FR 69638, Nov. 17, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 56606, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 264a.4 When do these special restrictions become effective and may they be waived?
The post-employment restrictions set forth in section 10(k) of the FDI Act and § 264a.3 do not apply to any officer or employee of the Federal Reserve, or any former officer or employee of the Federal Reserve, if—
(a) The individual ceased to be an officer or employee of the Federal Reserve before December 17, 2005; or
(b) The Chairman of the Board of Governors certifies, in writing and on a case-by-case basis, that granting the individual a waiver of the restrictions would not affect the integrity of the Federal Reserve's supervisory program.
§ 264a.5 What are the penalties for violating these special post-employment restrictions?
(a) Penalties under section 10(k) of FDI Act. A senior examiner of the Federal Reserve who, after leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, violates the restrictions set forth in § 264a.3 shall, in accordance with section 10(k)(6) of the FDI Act, be subject to one or both of the following penalties—
(1) An order—
(i) Removing the individual from office or prohibiting the individual from further participation in the affairs of the relevant state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, foreign bank or other depository institution or company for a period of up to five years; and
(ii) Prohibiting the individual from participating in the affairs of any insured depository institution for a period of up to five years; and/or
(2) A civil monetary penalty of not more than $250,000.
(b) Imposition of penalties. The penalties described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be imposed by the appropriate Federal banking agency as determined under section 10(k)(6) of the FDI Act, which may be an agency other than the Federal Reserve.
(c) Scope of prohibition orders. Any senior examiner who is subject to an order issued under paragraph (a) of this section shall, as required by section 10(k)(6)(B) of the FDI Act, be subject to paragraphs (6) and (7) of section 8(e) of the FDI Act in the same manner and to the same extent as a person subject to an order issued under section 8(e).
(d) Procedures. The procedures applicable to actions under paragraph (a) of this section are provided in section 10(k)(6) of the FDI Act.
(e) Other penalties. The penalties set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are not exclusive, and a senior examiner who violates the restrictions in § 264a.3 also may be subject to other administrative, civil or criminal remedies or penalties as provided in law.
[70 FR 69638, Nov. 17, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 56606, Sept. 13, 2011]
§ 264a.6 What other definitions and rules of construction apply for purposes of this part?
For purposes of this part—
(a) Bank holding company means any company that controls a bank (as provided in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 et seq.)).
(b) A person shall be deemed to act as a consultant for a bank or other company only if such person works directly on matters for, or on behalf of, such bank or other company.
(c) Control has the meaning given in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act, with respect to banking holding companies, and has the meaning given in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, with respect to savings and loan holding companies.
(d) Depository institution has the meaning given in section 3 of the FDI Act and includes an uninsured branch or agency of a foreign bank, if such branch or agency is located in any State.
(e) Federal Reserve means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Federal Reserve Banks.
(f) Foreign bank means any foreign bank or company described in section 8(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)).
(g) Insured depository institution has the meaning given in section 3 of the FDI Act.
(h) Savings and loan holding company means any company that controls a savings association (as provided in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461 et seq.))
[70 FR 69638, Nov. 17, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 56606, Sept. 13, 2011]
PART 264b RULES REGARDING FOREIGN GIFTS AND DECORATIONS
Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552, 7342; 12 U.S.C. 248(i).
Source: 68 FR 68721, Dec. 10, 2003, unless otherwise noted.
§ 264b.1 Purpose and scope.
These rules govern when Board employees, their spouses, and their dependents may accept and retain gifts and decorations from foreign governments under the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act of 1966, as amended (5 U.S.C. 7342) (“Act”).
§ 264b.2 Definitions.
When used in this part, the following terms have the meanings indicated:
(a) Board employees means:
(1) Members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”), officers, and other employees of the Board, including experts or consultants while employed by, and acting on behalf of, the Board; and
(2) Spouses (unless separated) or dependents (within the meaning of section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 152)) of such persons.
(b) Foreign government means:
(1) Any unit of foreign governmental authority, including any foreign national, State, local, or municipal government;
(2) Any international or multinational organization whose membership is composed of any unit of foreign government as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
(3) Any agent or representative of any such unit or organization, while acting as such.
(c) Gift means a tangible or intangible present (other than a decoration) tendered by, or received from, a foreign government.
(d) Decoration means an order, device, medal, badge, insignia, emblem, or award tendered by, or received from, a foreign government.
(e) Minimal value means retail value in the United States at the time of acceptance of $285 or less as of January 1, 2002, and at 3-year intervals thereafter, as redefined in regulations prescribed by the Administrator of General Services, in consultation with the Secretary of State, to reflect changes in the consumer price index for the immediately preceding 3-year period.
(f) Administrative Governor means the Board member serving as the Administrative Governor and includes persons designated by the Administrative Governor to exercise the authority granted under this part in the governor's absence.
§ 264b.3 Restrictions on acceptance of gifts and decorations.
(a) Board employees are prohibited from requesting or otherwise encouraging the tender of a gift or decoration from a foreign government.
(b) Board employees are prohibited from accepting a gift or decoration from a foreign government, except in accordance with this part.
§ 264b.4 Gifts of minimal value.
(a) Board employees may accept and retain a gift of minimal value tendered and received as a souvenir or mark of courtesy. If more than one tangible gift is presented at or marks an event, the value of all such gifts must not exceed “minimal value.” If tangible gifts are presented at or mark separate events, their value must not exceed “minimal value” for each event, but may exceed “minimal value” for all events, even if the events occur on the same day.
(b) Board employees may determine at the time a gift is offered whether it is of minimal value, or they may submit an accepted gift as soon as practicable to the Office of the Secretary for valuation.
(c) Disagreements over whether a gift is of minimal value will be resolved by an independent appraisal under procedures established by the Office of the Secretary.
§ 264b.5 Gifts of more than minimal value.
(a) Educational scholarships or medical treatment. Board employees may accept and retain gifts of more than minimal value when such gifts are in the nature of an educational scholarship or medical treatment.
(b) Travel or travel expenses. Board employees may accept gifts of travel or expenses for travel taking place entirely outside the United States (such as transportation, food, and lodging) of more than minimal value if appropriate, consistent with the interests of the United States, and permitted by the Board under paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section.
(1) Board employees may accept gifts of travel or expenses for travel under paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with specific instructions of the Board, as evidenced by the prior approval of the Administrative Governor. Board employees must request prior approval under procedures established by the Office of the Secretary.
(2) Board employees may accept gifts of travel or expenses for travel under paragraph (b) of this section without the prior approval of the Administrative Governor if such expenses are reported under § 264b.6(b) and the Administrative Governor approves their acceptance after the fact. Board employees must personally repay gifts of travel or expenses for travel of more than minimal value that are not approved by the Administrative Governor.
(c) Other gifts. (1) Board employees may typically regard the refusal of gifts of more than minimal value at the inception (when offered or received without a prior offer) as consistent with the interests and general policy of the United States.
(2) Board employees may accept gifts of more than minimal value when it appears that refusal would likely cause offense or embarrassment or otherwise adversely affect the foreign relations of the United States. Tangible gifts are considered to have been accepted on behalf of the United States and become the property of the United States on acceptance. Accordingly, they must be deposited and documented in accordance with § 264b.6(a) and can only be returned or otherwise processed by the Office of the Secretary under § 264b.8.
§ 264b.6 Requirements for gifts of more than minimal value.
(a) Tangible gifts. Board employees must deposit tangible gifts of more than minimal value with the Office of the Secretary within 60 days of acceptance and assist in preparing a statement that contains the following information for each gift:
(1) The name and position of the Board employee;
(2) A brief description of the gift and the circumstances justifying acceptance;
(3) The identity, if known, of the foreign government and the name and position of the individual who presented the gift;
(4) The date of acceptance of the gift;
(5) The estimated value in the United States of the gift at the time of acceptance; and
(6) The disposition or current location of the gift.
(b) Travel or travel expenses without prior approval. Board employees who accept a gift of travel or expenses for travel under § 264b.5(b)(2) without the prior approval of the Administrative Governor must submit a report to the Office of the Secretary within 30 days of acceptance that contains the following information:
(1) The name and position of the Board employee;
(2) A brief description of the gift, including its estimated value, and the circumstances justifying acceptance; and
(3) The identity, if known, of the foreign government and the name and position of the individual who presented the gift.
(c) Reports to the Secretary of State. The Office of the Secretary must report the information contained in the statements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section to the Secretary of State, who must publish in the Federal Register not later than January 31 of each year a comprehensive listing of all such statements for gifts of more than minimal value that were received by federal employees during the preceding year.
§ 264b.7 Decorations.
(a) Board employees may accept, retain, and wear a decoration tendered or awarded by a foreign government in recognition of active field service in time of combat operations or for other outstanding or unusually meritorious performance, subject to the approval of the Administrative Governor. Requests for approval must be submitted to the Office of the Secretary and contain a statement of the circumstances surrounding the award and include any accompanying documentation. The recipient may retain the decoration pending action on the request.
(b) Decorations accepted by Board employees without the approval of the Administrative Governor are considered to have been accepted on behalf of the United States and must be deposited within 60 days of the decoration's acceptance with the Office of the Secretary for disposition or retention under § 264b.8.
§ 264b.8 Disposition or retention of gifts and decorations deposited with the Office of the Secretary.
(a) The Office of the Secretary may dispose of gifts and decorations deposited under §§ 264b.6(a) and 264b.7(b) by returning them to the donors or by handling them in accordance with instructions from the General Services Administration under applicable law.
(b) The Office of the Secretary may approve and retain gifts and decorations deposited under §§ 264b.6(a) and 264b.7(b) for official use. The Office of the Secretary must dispose of a gift within 30 days of the termination of its official use in accordance with instructions from the General Services Administration under applicable law.
§ 264b.9 Enforcement.
(a) The Administrative Governor, after consultation with the General Counsel, must report to the Attorney General cases in which there is reason to believe that a Board employee has violated the Act.
(b) The Attorney General may bring a civil action in any district court of the United States against a Board employee who knowingly solicits or accepts a gift from a foreign government in violation of the Act, or who fails to deposit or report such a gift as required by the Act. The court may assess a maximum penalty of the retail value of a gift improperly solicited or received plus $5,000.
§ 264b.10 Certain grants excluded.
This part does not apply to grants and other forms of assistance to which § 108A of the Mutual Educational and Cultural Exchange Act of 1961 applies. See 22 U.S.C. 2458a.
PART 265 RULES REGARDING DELEGATION OF AUTHORITY
Authority: 12 U.S.C. 248(i) and (k).
Source: 87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
§ 265.1 Authority, purpose, and scope.
(a) Pursuant to section 11(k) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(k)), the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) may delegate, by published order or rule, any of its functions other than those relating to rulemaking or pertaining principally to monetary and credit policies to Board members and employees, Reserve Banks, or administrative law judges. Pursuant to section 11(i) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(i)), the Board may make all rules and regulations necessary to enable it to effectively perform the duties, functions, or services specified in that Act. Other provisions of Federal law also may authorize specific delegations by the Board.
(b) This part details the functions that the Board has delegated. Subpart A contains general provisions pertaining to delegations of authority, including review of action taken pursuant to delegated authority. Subpart B contains the specific functions delegated to Board members, Board employees and the Federal Reserve Banks. Except as otherwise indicated in this part, the Board will review a delegated action only if a Board member, at his or her own initiative, requests a review.
§ 265.2 Delegation of functions generally.
(a) The Board has determined to delegate authority to exercise the functions described in this part.
(b) The Chair of the Board shall assign responsibility for performing such delegated functions.
(c) Where a delegatee must act with the concurrence of a Board employee, or in consultation with a Board employee, that Board employee may subdelegate his or her authority to concur or be consulted on the delegated action to an employee within the same division or office.
§ 265.3 Board review of delegated actions.
(a) Request by Board member. The Board shall review any action taken at a delegated level upon the vote of one member of the Board, either on the member's own initiative or on the basis of a petition for review by any person claiming to be adversely affected by the delegated action.
(b) Petition for review. A petition for review of a delegated action must be received by the Secretary of the Board not later than the fifth day following the date of the delegated action.
(c) Notice of review. The Secretary shall give notice of review by the Board of a delegated action to any person with respect to whom the action was taken not later than the tenth day following the date of the delegated action. Upon receiving notice, such person may not proceed further in reliance upon the delegated action until notified of the outcome of the review by the Board.
(d) By action of a delegatee. A delegatee may submit any matter to the Board for determination if the delegatee considers it appropriate because of the importance or complexity of the matter.
Subpart B Delegations of Authority
§ 265.4 Functions delegated to Board members or staff within the Division of Board Members.
(a) Chair. The Chair is authorized:
(1) Bank for International Settlements. To appoint a first and second alternate director to the Board of Directors of the Bank for International Settlements.
(2) Term Deposit Facility (TDF). To authorize TDF test operations with maximum award amounts of up to $20 billion and with maximum offering rates of up to 5 basis points over the interest on excess reserves rate, to adjust the schedules and other terms and conditions for TDF test operations as necessary, to approve additional TDF test operations, to determine when TDF test operations should offer term deposits with an early withdrawal feature, and to establish, with respect to term deposits that are offered with an early withdrawal feature, an early withdrawal penalty that includes forfeiture of all interest on any term deposits withdrawn before the expiration of the term plus an additional penalty of 75 basis points at an annual rate applied to the principal over the entire term of the term deposit.
(3) Disclosures related to emergency lending programs. To approve:
(i) Periodic reports to Congress under section 13(3)(C)(ii) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 343(3)(C)(ii)) for the Bank Term Funding Program, Primary Dealer Credit Facility, Money Market Liquidity Facility, Commercial Paper Funding Facility, Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, Secondary Market Corporate Credit Facility, Municipal Liquidity Facility, Term Asset-Backed Securities Loan Facility, Main Street New Loan Facility, Main Street Expanded Loan Facility, Main Street Priority Loan Facility, Nonprofit Organization New Loan Facility, and Nonprofit Organization Expanded Loan Facility, and to approve technical or minor changes to the scope of information included in such reports; and
(ii) Seven-day reports to Congress under section 13(3)(C)(i) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 343(3)(C)(ii)).
(b) Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation. The Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation is authorized:
(1) To act on requests for extensions of State member banks' and bank holding companies' advanced approaches first floor period start dates that are consistent with previous exemptions approved by the Board and that do not raise additional significant policy issues.
(2) [Reserved]
(c) Chair of the Committee on Federal Reserve Bank Affairs. The Chair of the Committee on Federal Reserve Bank Affairs is authorized to consider and grant or deny requests from the Federal Reserve Banks for exceptions to the Board's policies on Federal Reserve Bank directors.
(d) Individual members. Any Board member designated by the Chair is authorized:
(1) Approval of amendments to notice of charges or cease and desist orders. To approve (after receiving recommendations of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel) amendments to any notice, temporary order, or proposed order previously approved by the Board in a specific formal enforcement matter (including a notice of charges or removal notice) or any proposed or temporary cease and desist order previously approved by the Board under section 8(b) and (c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) and (c)).
(2) [Reserved]
(3) Extension of time period for final Board action. To extend for an additional 180 days the 180-day period within which final Board action is required on an application pursuant to section 7(d) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105(d)).
(e) Exigent circumstances. The Chair is authorized to determine when an emergency situation exists for purposes of section 2(b)(2) of the Board's Rules of Organization. If the Chair is unavailable or unable to determine that an emergency situation exists, then the Vice Chair is authorized to determine when an emergency situation exists.
(f) Three-member Action Committee. Any three Board members designated from time to time by the Chair are authorized:
(1) Absence of quorum. To act, upon certification by the Secretary of the Board of an absence of a quorum of the Board present in person, by unanimous vote on any matter that the Chair has certified must be acted upon promptly in order to avoid delay that would be inconsistent with the public interest except for matters:
(i) Relating to rulemaking;
(ii) Pertaining principally to monetary and credit policies; and
(iii) For which a statute expressly requires the affirmative vote of more than three Board members.
(2) [Reserved]
(g) Reports to Congress pursuant to the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996. The Assistant to the Board, Congressional Liaison Office, Division of Board Members, is authorized, in consultation with the General Counsel, to approve and submit the annual report to Congress describing the status of the Board's compliance with sections 212(a)(1) through (5) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 601 note), pursuant to section 212(a)(6) of the Act.
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023; 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]
§ 265.5 Functions delegated to the Secretary of the Board.
The Secretary of the Board (or the Secretary's delegatee) is authorized:
(a) Procedure—(1) Extension of time period for public participation in proposed regulations. To extend, when appropriate under the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.2(a) and (b)), the time period for public participation with respect to proposed regulations of the Board.
(2) Extension of time period in notices, orders, rules, or regulations. (i) To grant or deny requests to extend any time period in any notice, order, rule, or regulation of the Board relating to filing information, comments, opposition, briefs, exceptions, or other matters, in connection with any application, request, or petition for the Board's approval, authorization, determination, or permission, or any other action by the Board.
(ii) Notwithstanding § 265.3, no person claiming to be adversely affected by any such extension of time by the Secretary shall have the right to petition the Board or any Board member for review or reconsideration of the extension.
(3) Conforming citations and references in Board rules. (i) To conform references to administrative positions or units in Board rules with changes in the administrative structure of the Board and in the government and agencies of the United States.
(ii) To conform citations and references in Board rules with other regulatory or statutory changes adopted or promulgated by the Board or by the government or agencies of the United States.
(4) Technical corrections in Board rules and regulations. To make, with the concurrence of the General Counsel, technical corrections, such as spelling, grammar, construction, and organization (including making regular updates that are required by law and/or calculated via a formula prescribed by law, removal of obsolete provisions, and consolidation of related provisions), to the Board's rules, regulations, orders, and other records of Board action.
(5) Procedural motions in administrative cases pending before the Board. To grant or deny procedural motions arising after an administrative case has been forwarded to the Board for final decision.
(b) Availability of information—(1) Freedom of Information Act requests. To make available, upon request, information in Board records and consider requests for confidential treatment of information in Board records under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and under the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
(2) Review of denial of access to Board records; Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act. To review and determine an appeal of denial of access to Board records under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), and the Board's rules regarding such access (12 CFR parts 261 and 261a, respectively).
(3) File reports of rulemakings with Congress and the Government Accountability Office. To file reports of rulemakings with Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 et seq.).
(c) Bank holding companies; savings and loan holding companies; change in bank control; mergers—(1) Reports on competitive factors in bank mergers. To furnish reports on competitive factors involved in a bank merger to the Comptroller of the Currency and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)); the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a), 1843(c)(8) and (j)); the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1865(a) and (b)); the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)); and the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321 et seq., 601-604a, 611 et seq.).
(2) Reserve Bank director interlocks. To take actions the Reserve Bank could take except for the fact that the Reserve Bank may not act because a director, senior officer, or principal shareholder of any bank holding company, bank, savings and loan holding company, or company involved in the transaction is a director of that Reserve Bank or branch of the Reserve Bank.
(3) [Reserved]
(4) Savings and loan holding companies. (i) To approve the establishment of a mutual holding company or a subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and §§ 239.3 and 239.11 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.3 and 239.11), including issuing a charter, if the following conditions are met:
(A) The appropriate Reserve Bank and relevant divisions of the Board recommend approval; and
(B) No significant policy issue is raised on which the Board has not expressed its view.
(ii) To grant a request to deregister as a savings and loan holding company pursuant to section 10(b)(6) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(b)(6)) and § 238.4(d) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.4(d)).
(d) International banking—(1) Acquisition of foreign company or U.S. company financing exports. To grant, under sections 25 and 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 and 604, and 611 et seq.) and section 4(c)(13) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(13)) and the Board's Regulations K and Y (12 CFR parts 211 and 225), specific consent to the acquisition, either directly or indirectly, by a member bank, an Edge corporation, an agreement corporation, or a bank holding company, of stock of a company chartered under the laws of a foreign country or a company chartered under the laws of a State of the United States that is organized and operated for the purpose of financing exports from the United States, and to approve any such acquisition that may exceed the limitations of section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611a, 615(c), and 619) based on the company's capital and surplus, if all of the conditions in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section are met:
(i) The appropriate Reserve Bank and all relevant divisions of the Board's staff recommend approval;
(ii) No significant policy issue is raised on which the Board has not expressed its view;
(iii) The acquisition does not result, either directly or indirectly, in the bank, corporation, or bank holding company acquiring effective control of the company, except that this condition need not be met if:
(A) The company is to perform nominee, fiduciary, or other services incidental to the activities of a foreign branch or affiliate of the bank holding company, or corporation; or
(B) The stock is being acquired from the parent bank, parent bank holding company, subsidiary Edge corporation, or subsidiary agreement corporation, as the case may be, and the selling entity holds the stock with the consent of the Board pursuant to Regulation K or Y (12 CFR parts 211 or 225), as applicable.
(2) [Reserved]
(e) Member banks—(1) Waiver of penalty for early withdrawals of time deposits. To permit depository institutions to waive the penalty for early withdrawal of time deposits under section 19(j) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371b) and § 204.2 of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2) if the following conditions are met:
(i) The President declares an area of major disaster or emergency area pursuant to section 301 of the Disaster Relief Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5141);
(ii) The waiver is limited to depositors suffering disaster or emergency related losses in the officially designated area; and
(iii) The appropriate Reserve Bank and all relevant divisions of the Board's staff recommend approval.
(2) [Reserved]
(f) Location of institution. To determine the Federal Reserve District in which an institution is located pursuant to § 204.3(g)(2) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.3(g)(2)) or § 209.2(c) of Regulation I (12 CFR 209.2(c)) if:
(1) The relevant Federal Reserve Banks and the institution agree on the specific Reserve Bank in which the institution should hold stock or with which the institution should maintain reserve balances; and
(2) The agreed-upon location does not raise any significant policy issues.
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]
§ 265.6 Functions delegated to the General Counsel.
The General Counsel (or the General Counsel's delegatee) is authorized:
(a) Procedure—(1) Reconsideration of Board action. Pursuant to § 262.3(k) of the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3(k)) to determine whether or not to grant a request for reconsideration or whether to deny a request for stay of the effective date of any action taken by the Board with respect to an action as provided in that part.
(2) Public meetings. To order, after consulting with the directors of other interested divisions of the Board and the appropriate Reserve Bank, that a public meeting or other proceeding be held in accordance with § 262.25 of the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.25), in connection with any application or notice filed with the Board, and to designate the presiding officer in the proceeding under terms and conditions the General Counsel deems appropriate.
(3) Designation of Board counsel for hearings. To designate Board staff attorneys as Board counsel in any proceeding ordered by the Board in accordance with § 263.6 of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR 263.6).
(b) Availability of Information—(1) Board records. To make available information of the Board of the nature and in the circumstances described in the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
(2) Disclosure to foreign authorities. To make the determinations required for disclosure of information to a foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority, and to obtain, to the extent necessary, the agreement of such authority to maintain the confidentiality of such information to the extent possible under applicable law.
(3) Assistance to foreign authorities. To approve requests for assistance from any foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority that is conducting an investigation regarding violations of any law or regulation relating to banking matters or currency transactions administered or enforced by such authority, and to make the determinations required for any investigation or collection of information and evidence pertinent to such request. In deciding whether to approve requests for assistance under this paragraph (b)(3), the General Counsel shall consider:
(i) Whether the requesting authority has agreed to provide reciprocal assistance with respect to banking matters within the jurisdiction of any appropriate Federal banking agency;
(ii) Whether compliance with the request would prejudice the public interest of the United States; and
(iii) Whether the request is consistent with the requirement that the Board conduct any such investigation in compliance with the laws of the United States and the policies and procedures of the Board.
(c) Bank holding companies; savings and loan holding companies; change in bank control; mergers—(1) Control determinations under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act. To determine, or issue an order for a hearing to determine, whether a company engaged in financial, fiduciary, or insurance activities falls within the exemption in section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), permitting retention or acquisition of control thereof by a bank holding company.
(2) Data processing. In consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to review and act on requests for permission by bank holding companies to administer the 49 percent revenue limit on nonfinancial data processing activities on a business-line or multiple-entity basis in appropriate circumstances under § 225.28(b)(14)(ii) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)(14)(ii)).
(3) Notices under the Change in Bank Control Act. To revoke acceptance of and return as incomplete a notice filed under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) or to extend the time during which action must be taken on a notice where the General Counsel determines, with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, that the notice is materially incomplete under that Act or Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225), or contains material information that is substantially inaccurate.
(d) Management interlocks—(1) General exemptions. After consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to grant exceptions from the prohibitions of Regulation L (12 CFR part 212) or subpart J of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238 subpart J) under the general exemption of section 212.6 of Regulation L (12 CFR 212.6) or section 238.96 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.96).
(2) Legacy management interlocks. After consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to approve a request to extend a management interlock permissible under section 206 of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3205).
(e) Enforcement actions. With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation:
(1) To enter into a cease-and-desist order, removal and prohibition order, or civil money penalty assessment order with a bank holding company or any nonbanking subsidiary thereof, with a State member bank, with a savings and loan holding company, or with any other person or entity subject to the Board's jurisdiction under section 8(b) or (e) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) or (e)), when the order has been consented to by the institution or individual subject to the order; or to issue a notice suspending or prohibiting an institution-affiliated party under section 8(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)) when the notice has been consented to by the individual subject to the notice;
(2) To stay, modify, terminate, or suspend an order or notice issued pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
(3) To grant consent to a person subject to an order of removal and/or prohibition or suspension notice or order issued by the Board or other Federal financial institutions regulatory agency to become an institution-affiliated party of, to otherwise participate in the conduct of the affairs of, or to take an action with respect to any voting rights in, any Board-supervised institution or entity.
(4) To take, or authorize designated persons to take actions permitted under 12 U.S.C. 1818(n), 1820(c), and 12 U.S.C. 1844(f), including administering oaths and affirmations, taking depositions, and issuing, revoking, quashing, or modifying subpoenas duces tecum.
(f) International banking—(1) After-the-fact applications. With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to grant a request by a foreign bank to establish a branch, agency, commercial lending company, or representative office through certain acquisitions, mergers, consolidations, or similar transactions, in conjunction with which:
(i) The foreign bank would be required to file an after-the-fact application for the Board's approval under § 211.24(a)(6) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)(6)); or
(ii) The General Counsel may waive the requirement for an after-the-fact application if:
(A) The surviving foreign bank commits to wind down the U.S. operations of the acquired foreign bank; and
(B) The merger or consolidation raises no significant policy or supervisory issues.
(2) To modify the requirement that a foreign bank that has submitted an application or notice to establish a branch, agency, commercial lending company, or representative office pursuant to § 211.24(a) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)) shall publish notice of the application or notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the applicant or notificant proposes to engage in business, as provided in § 211.24(b)(2) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(b)(2)).
(3) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to grant a request for an exemption under section 4(c)(9) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(9)), provided that the request raises no significant policy or supervisory issues that the Board has not already considered.
(4) To return applications and notices filed under the International Banking Act for informational deficits.
(5) To determine that an entity qualifies as a “special-purpose foreign government-owned bank” for purposes of § 211.24(d)(3) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(d)(3)).
(g) Conflicts of interest waivers. To issue individual conflicts of interest waivers under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) to employees and officials other than Board members.
(h) Deregistration requests. With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to determine, pursuant to section 10(a)(1)(D)(ii) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(D)(ii)), that a company is not a savings and loan holding company by virtue of its control of a savings association that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)), where no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the specific proposal.
(i) Small entity compliance guides. In consultation with the director of any other division responsible for drafting the associated rule, as appropriate, to approve and publish small entity compliance guides in accordance with section 212 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 601 note).
(j) Internal debt conversion triggers. In consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to approve contractual language (“conversion trigger”) required to be included in the eligible internal debt securities (“eligible long-term debt”) issued pursuant to the Board's total loss-absorbing capacity rule (“TLAC Rule”) by the U.S. intermediate holding companies of foreign global systemically important banking organizations required to be formed under 12 CFR 252.153(a) (“Covered IHCs”), to the extent that such language does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory concerns. The authority delegated to the General Counsel in consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation to approve conversion triggers is limited to requests that meet the following criteria:
(1) The conversion trigger does not include any conditions for triggering the conversion other than the issuance of an internal debt conversion order by the Board;
(2) The instruments governing the long-term debt and related documents mitigate any impediments to conversion of the long-term debt into equity capital;
(3) The conversion trigger provides for the conversion of the long-term debt into common equity tier 1 capital;
(4) The conversion trigger requires the conversion of long-term debt in the amount specified by the Board's internal debt conversion order; and
(5) Upon conversion of long-term debt pursuant to the conversion trigger, the converted long-term debt would no longer remain outstanding as a liability of the Covered IHC.
(k) Section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to approve or disapprove requests under section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1829) where no significant legal, policy or supervisory issues are raised by the specific proposal.
(l) Section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970. To grant exceptions to the anti-tying provisions of section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1972) to allow a bank holding company's credit card subsidiary to offer a credit card secured by deposits at an affiliate and similar credit card programs.
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 80109, Nov. 17, 2023; 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]
§ 265.7 Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62933, Oct. 2, 2026.
The Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
(a) Procedure—(1) Cease and desist orders. To refuse, with the prior concurrence of the appropriate Reserve Bank and the General Counsel, an application to the Board to stay, modify, terminate, or set aside any effective cease and desist order previously issued by the Board under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)), or any written agreement between the Board or the Reserve Bank and a bank holding company or any nonbanking subsidiary thereof, a savings and loan holding company or any nondepository subsidiary thereof, or a State member bank.
(2) Modification of commitments or conditions. To grant or deny requests for modifying, including extending the time for, performing a commitment or condition relied on by the Board or its delegatee in taking any action under the Bank Holding Company Act, the Home Owners' Loan Act, section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the Change in Bank Control Act, the Federal Reserve Act, the International Banking Act, or the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act. In acting on such requests, the Director may take into account changed circumstances and good faith efforts to fulfill the commitments or conditions, and shall consult with the directors of other interested divisions where appropriate. The Director may not take any action that would be inconsistent with or result in an evasion of the provisions of the Board's original action.
(3) Processing extensions. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to extend the processing periods for the following applications and notices:
(i) The 60-day processing period for an acquisition of a bank or bank holding company filed under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842), pursuant to § 225.15(d)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.15(d)(2));
(ii) The 60-day processing period for a nonbanking proposal filed under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843), pursuant to:
(A) Section 225.24(d)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.24(d)(2)); and
(B) Section 4(j)(1)(C) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(j)(1)(C)) and § 225.24(d)(3) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.24(d)(3));
(iii) The 60-day processing period for an acquisition of a savings association or savings and loan holding company filed under section 10(e) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)), pursuant to § 238.14(g)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.14(g)(2));
(iv) The 60-day processing period for a nonbanking proposal filed under section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)), pursuant to:
(A) Section 238.53(f)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.53(f)(2)); and
(B) Section 238.53(f)(3) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.53(f)(3)); and
(v) For an additional 180 days, the 180-day period within which final Board action is required on an application pursuant to section 7(d) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105(d)).
(4) Notice of insufficient capital. To issue, with the concurrence of the General Counsel, a notice that a State member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company has insufficient capital and which directs the bank or company to file with its regional Reserve Bank a capital improvement plan under subpart E of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR part 263, subpart E).
(5) Obtaining possession or control of securities; extending time period. To approve, under section 403.5(g) of the Treasury Department regulations (17 CFR 403.5) implementing the Government Securities Act of 1986, as amended (Pub. L. 95-571), the application of a member bank, a State branch or agency of a foreign bank, a foreign bank, or a commercial lending company owned or controlled by a foreign bank, to extend for one or more limited periods commensurate with the circumstances the 30-day time period specified in 17 CFR 403.5(c)(1)(iii), provided that the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation is satisfied that the applicant is acting in good faith and that exceptional circumstances warrant such action.
(b) Availability of information—(1) Confidential supervisory information. To make available information of the Board of the nature and in the circumstances described in § 261.22 of the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR 261.22).
(2) Freedom of Information Act; availability of information. To make available, under the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261), reports and other information of the Board acquired pursuant to the Board's Regulations G, T, U, and X (12 CFR parts 207, 220, 221, 224) of the nature and in circumstances described in § 261.15(a)(4) and (8) of these rules.
(c) Bank holding companies; savings and loan holding companies; financial holding companies; change in bank control; mergers—(1) Bank holding company and savings and loan holding company registration forms and annual reports. To promulgate registration forms and annual reports and other forms for use in connection with the Bank Holding Company Act and the Home Owners' Loan Act, after receiving clearance from the Office of Management and Budget (where necessary), under section 5 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844) or section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a), and in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553.
(2) Emergency action. To take actions the Reserve Bank could take under this part at § 265.20(c)(2)(ii) if immediate or expeditious action is required to avert failure of a bank or savings association or because of an emergency pursuant to sections 3(a) and 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a), 1843(c)(8)), section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)), or the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)).
(3) Waiver of notice. To waive, dispense with, modify or excuse the failure to comply with the requirement for publication and solicitation of public comment regarding a notice filed under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), with the concurrence of the General Counsel, provided a written finding is made that such disclosure would seriously threaten the safety or soundness of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or a bank.
(4) Notices for addition or change of directors or officers. Under section 914(a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 1831i) and subpart H of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart H) or subpart H of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart H), provided that no senior officer or director or proposed senior officer or director of the notificant is also a director of the Reserve Bank or a branch of the Reserve Bank:
(i) To determine the informational sufficiency of notices filed pursuant to § 225.72 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.72) or § 238.73 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.73); and
(ii) To waive the prior notice requirements of that section.
(5) ERISA violations. To provide the Department of Labor written notification of possible significant violations of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1001 et seq.) by bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies, in accordance with section 3004(b) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1204(b)) and the Interagency Agreement adopted to implement its provisions.
(6) Appraisal not required. To determine pursuant to 12 CFR 225.63(a)(13) that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related financial transactions or to protect the safety and soundness of an institution.
(7) Financial holding company corrective action agreements. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to authorize a financial holding company, or a foreign bank that has elected to be treated as a financial holding company, that is subject to section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)):
(i) To acquire shares of a company pursuant to authority in section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)) in order to continue to engage in the following categories of existing activities which require recurring transactions in the ordinary course:
(A) Merchant banking,
(B) Underwriting dealing in, or making a market in securities;
(C) Sponsoring, organizing, and managing customer-driven investment funds; and
(D) Hedging risks incurred in ongoing permissible activities;
(ii) To extend the time within which a financial holding company must execute a corrective agreement under section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m));
(iii) To extend the time limits in, or otherwise modify, corrective agreements under section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m));
(iv) To determine not to make public any corrective agreement under section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)); and
(v) To acquire shares or assets pursuant to section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)) without prior Board approval up to the following thresholds:
(A) $25 million in consideration for a single transaction;
(B) $125 million in consideration over the past 12 months; and
(C) $400 million in consideration over the entire period the financial holding company is subject to the agreement required by section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)).
(8) Complementary physical commodity trading activities. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve requests by financial holding companies to engage in complementary physical commodity trading activities, pursuant to section 4(k)(1)(B) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(1)(B)), as an activity that is complementary to permissible commodity derivatives activities, provided that the proposal meets the conditions imposed by the Board approving previous requests and the proposal does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues.
(9) Extension of merchant banking investment holding periods. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve requests by financial holding companies to hold merchant banking investments beyond the standard time periods established in § 225.172(b)(4) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.172(b)(4)), where no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the specific request.
(10) Single-counterparty credit limits rule exemptions. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to act on exemption requests under section 165(e) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(e)) and subparts H and Q of Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subparts H and Q) where no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised.
(11) Stress tests. (i) Jointly with the Director of the Division of Financial Stability, with the concurrence of the Chair of the Board's Committee on Supervision and Regulation:
(A) To develop and issue scenarios, including, but not limited to, the baseline scenario and the severely adverse scenario, that the Board would use to conduct analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44) and that a company would use to conduct its stress tests under § 238.143 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143) or § 252.14 or § 252.54 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14 or 252.54), as appropriate, provided that no significant policy issues are raised; and
(B) To develop and issue additional scenarios or additional components for use in the severely adverse scenario under §§ 238.132(b) and 238.143(b)(2) and (3) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132(b) and 238.143(b)(2) and (b)(3)), and §§ 252.14(b)(2) and (3), 252.44(b), and 252.54(b)(2) and (b)(3) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(2) and (3), 252.44(b), and 252.54(b)(2) and (3)), that the Board would use to conduct analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 225.44) and that a company would use to conduct its stress tests under § 238.143 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143) or § 252.14 or § 252.54 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14 or 252.54), as appropriate, provided that no significant policy issues are raised;
(ii) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation:
(A) After consultation with the Board, to convey to a company the summary of the results of the Board's analyses of the company under § 238.134 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.134) or § 252.46 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.46);
(B) After consultation with the Board and the Director of the Division of Financial Stability, to determine the content and timing of the public disclosure of the results of the Board's analyses of a company under § 238.134 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.134) or § 252.46 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.46);
(C) To determine any appropriate updates to a company's resolution plan based on the results of the Board's analyses of the company under § 252.47 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.47); and
(D) To require a company to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario in its stress test based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy pursuant to § 238.143(b)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)(2)) and §§ 252.14(b)(2) and 252.54(b)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(2) and 252.54(b)(2));
(iii) After consultation with the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation:
(A) To evaluate whether a company has the capital necessary to absorb losses and continue its operation under baseline and severely adverse scenarios, and any additional scenarios, under § 238.134 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.134) or § 252.46 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.46);
(B) To conduct annual analyses of a company under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44); and
(C) To require a company with significant trading activity, as specified in the Capital Assessments and Stress Testing report (FR Y-14), or a subsidiary of such company, to include a trading and counterparty component in its severely adverse scenario in its stress test pursuant to § 238.143(b)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)(2)) and §§ 252.14(b)(2) and 252.54(b)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(2) and 252.54(b)(2));
(iv) In consultation with the General Counsel, to respond to a company's request for reconsideration that the company is required to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario, including a trading or counterparty component, or to use one or more additional scenarios under § 238.143(b)(4) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)(4)) and §§ 252.14(b)(4) and 252.54(b)(4) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(4) and 252.54(b)(4)); and
(v) The Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation is also authorized to:
(A) Notify a company of the determination that the company is required to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario, including a trading or counterparty component, or to use one or more additional scenarios under § 238.143(b)(4) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)(4)) and §§ 252.14(b)(4) and 252.54(b)(4) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(4) and 252.54(b)(4));
(B) Coordinate with the appropriate primary financial regulatory agencies in conducting the analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44);
(C) Provide the as-of date of any scenarios, additional scenarios, additional components, and the relevant data under § 238.143(b) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)), or § 252.14(b) or § 252.54(b) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b) or 252.54(b)), as appropriate;
(D) Extend (and in the case of nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board or savings and loan holding companies, accelerate) the compliance date for companies under § 238.131 or § 238.142 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.131 or 238.142), or § 252.13, § 252.43, or § 252.53 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.13, 252.43, or 252.53), as appropriate;
(E) Extend any or all of the following time periods:
(1) The time period by which a company must conduct its stress test or the as-of date of the data under § 238.143(a) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(a)), or § 252.14(a) or § 252.54(a) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(a) or 252.54(a)), as appropriate;
(2) The time period by which a company must file a report to the Board under § 238.145(a) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.145(a)), or § 252.16(a) or § 252.57(a) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.16(a) or 252.57(a)), as appropriate; and
(3) The time period by which a company must disclose a summary of results of its stress tests under § 238.146 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.146), or § 252.17 or § 252.58 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.17 or 252.58), as appropriate;
(F) Require a company to submit additional information on a consolidated basis pursuant to § 238.133 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.133) or § 252.45 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.45) that the Director determines necessary to ensure that the Board has sufficient information to conduct its analysis under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44) or as necessary to project a company's pro forma financial condition;
(G) Require a company to submit additional information under § 238.145 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.145), or § 252.16 or § 252.57 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.16 or 252.57), as appropriate; and
(H) Determine that disclosures made by a bank holding company do not adequately capture the potential impact of scenarios on the capital of a State member bank pursuant to § 252.17 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.17) and require that the State member bank make the same disclosure as required for State member banks that are not subsidiaries of bank holding companies.
(12) Volcker Rule conformance period extensions. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve (but not deny) a request by a new banking entity for an extension of time to conform its activities and investments to the requirements of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act and its implementing regulations, pursuant to § 225.181(a)(3) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.181(a)(3)), provided that the approval criteria thereunder are met and the request raises no significant policy or supervisory issues.
(d) International banking—(1) Foreign bank reports. To require submission of a report of condition respecting any foreign bank in which a member bank holds stock acquired under § 211.8(b) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.8(b)), pursuant to section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 602).
(2) Edge corporation reports. To require submission and publication of reports by an Edge corporation under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 625).
(3) International banking matters. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve applications, notices, exemption requests, waivers and suspensions, and other related matters under Regulation K (12 CFR part 211), where such matters do not raise any significant legal, supervisory, or policy issues.
(4) Allocated transfer risk reserves. To determine the need for establishing and the amount of any allocated transfer risk reserve against specific international assets, and notify the banking institutions of the determination and the amount of the reserve and whether the reserve may be reduced under subpart D of Regulation K (12 CFR part 211, subpart D).
(5) Conduct and coordination of examinations. To authorize the conduct of examinations of the U.S. offices and affiliates of foreign banks as provided in sections 7(c) and 10(c) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105(c) and 3107(c)), and, where appropriate, to coordinate those examinations with examinations of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the State entity that is authorized to supervise or regulate a State branch, State agency, commercial lending company, or representative office.
(6) Election by a foreign bank to be treated as financial holding company. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to determine that an election by a foreign bank to become or to be treated as a financial holding company is effective, provided that:
(i) The foreign bank meets the criteria for becoming or being treated as a financial holding company; and
(ii) The election raised no significant policy or supervisory issues.
(7) Enhanced prudential standards rule for foreign banking organizations. (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel, to grant or deny a request to permit a foreign banking organization to use an alternative organizational structure or not transfer its ownership interest in a U.S. subsidiary to its intermediate holding company under subpart O of Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subpart O), subject, as appropriate, to any commitments or conditions, provided that the request raises no significant policy or supervisory issues.
(ii) In consultation with the General Counsel, to:
(A) Commitments. Grant or deny requests for modifying, including extending the time for, performing a commitment or condition relied on by the Board or its delegatee in taking any action under subparts M through O of Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subparts M-O). In acting on such requests, the Director may take into account changed circumstances and good faith efforts to fulfill the commitments or conditions, and shall consult with the directors of other interested divisions where appropriate. The Director may not take any action that would be inconsistent with or result in an evasion of the provisions of the Board's original action;
(B) Stress testing. (1) Determine that an asset should not qualify as an eligible asset under §§ 252.146 and 252.158 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.146 and 252.158);
(2) Determine that a foreign banking organization or foreign savings and loan holding company must meet the additional standards, respectively, under § 238.162(b) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.162(b)) and §§ 252.146 and 252.158 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.146 and 252.158);
(3) Approve an enterprise-wide stress test and determine that it meets the stress test requirements under § 238.162(b) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.162(b)) and §§ 252.146 and 252.158 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.146 and 252.158);
(4) Require the U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization and, if the foreign banking organization has not established a U.S. intermediate holding company, any subsidiary of the foreign banking organization, to maintain a liquidity buffer or be subject to intragroup funding restrictions under § 252.158(d)(3) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.158(d)(3));
(C) Capital. Determine that a foreign banking organization would meet or exceed capital adequacy standards on a consolidated basis that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework were the foreign banking organization subject to such standards under §§ 252.143(a)(2) and 252.154(a)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.143(a)(2) and 252.154(a)(2));
(D) Risk management. Approve an alternative reporting structure for a U.S. chief risk officer based on circumstances specific to the foreign banking organization under §§ 252.144(c)(3)(iii) and 252.155(b)(3)(iii) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.144(c)(3)(iii) and 252.155(b)(3)(iii));
(E) Liquidity. (1) Require a foreign banking organization to calculate the collateral positions for its combined U.S. operations more frequently than required under § 252.156(g)(1)(i) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.156(g)(1)(i));
(2) Require a foreign banking organization to perform stress testing more frequently than is required under § 252.157(a)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.157(a)(2)); and
(F) Additional information. Require a foreign banking organization to provide additional information under §§ 252.147(a)(3), 252.153(a)(3) and 252.158(c)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.147(a)(3), 252.153(a)(3) and 252.158(c)(2)), as appropriate.
(e) Member banks—(1) Membership certification to FDIC. To certify, under section 4(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1814(b)), to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation that the factors specified in section 6 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1816) were considered with respect to the admission of a State-chartered bank to Federal Reserve membership.
(2) Dollar exchange. To permit any member bank to accept drafts or bill of exchange drawn upon it for the purpose of furnishing dollar exchange under section 13(12) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 373).
(3) ERISA violations. To provide to the Department of Labor written notification of possible significant violations of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1001 et seq.) by member banks, in accordance with section 3004(b) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1204(b)) and the Interagency Agreement adopted to implement its provisions.
(4) Examiners. To select or approve the appointment of Federal Reserve examiners, assistant examiners, and special examiners for the purpose of making examinations for or by the direction of the Board under 12 U.S.C. 325, 338, 625, 1844(c), and 3105(c)(1).
(5) Capital stock reduction; branch applications; declaration of dividends; investment in bank premises. To exercise the functions described in §§ 265.20(e)(5) and (11) (reductions in capital and early retirement of subordinated debt) when the conditions specified in those sections preclude a Reserve Bank from acting on a member bank's request for action or when the Reserve Bank concludes that it should not take action, and to exercise the functions in § 265.20(e)(3), (4), and (7) (approving branch applications, declaration of dividends, and investment in bank premises) in cases in which the Reserve Bank concludes that it should not take action.
(6) Security devices. To exercise the functions described in § 265.20(e)(8) in those cases in which the appropriate Reserve Bank concludes that it should not take action for good cause.
(7) Public welfare investments. (i) To permit a State member bank to make a public welfare investment in accordance with section 9(23) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a) in any case in which the appropriate Reserve Bank does not have delegated authority to act, unless the proposal does not satisfy § 208.22(b)(1) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.22(b)(1)). In acting on such requests, the Director shall consult with the directors of other interested divisions where appropriate; and
(ii) To determine, in connection with acting on a proposal pursuant to delegated authority as set forth in paragraph (e)(7)(i) of this section, that the aggregate amount of a State member bank's public welfare investments will not pose a significant risk to the deposit insurance fund in accordance with section 9(23) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a).
(8) Prior approval for capital distributions. With the concurrence of the Vice Chair for Supervision, to approve (but not deny) a request to make a distribution pursuant to § 217.303(g) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.303(g)).
(9) Bank-affiliate transactions. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve, or to make the requisite findings for approval of, requests for an exemption from the requirements of section 23A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c) and the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR part 223) for the purchase of assets by a State bank or other insured depository institution from an affiliate, provided that the purchase of assets is:
(i) Part of a one-time corporate reorganization;
(ii) Does not involve the purchase of low-quality assets;
(iii) Is accompanied by a commitment to repurchase any assets that have become low quality within two years of the transfer; and
(iv) Has been approved by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency.
(f) Securities—(1) Registration statements by member banks. Under section 12(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l(g)):
(i) To accelerate the effective date of a registration statement filed by a member bank with respect to its securities;
(ii) To accelerate termination of the registration of a security that is no longer held of record by 300 persons; and
(iii) To extend the time for filing a registration statement by a member bank.
(2) Exemption from registration. To issue notices with respect to application by a State member bank for exemption from registration under section 12(h) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l(h)).
(3) Accelerating registration of security on national securities exchange. To accelerate the effective date of an application by a State member bank for registration of a security on a national securities exchange under section 12(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l(d)).
(4) Unlisted trading in security of a State member bank. To issue notices with respect to an application by a national securities exchange for unlisted trading privileges in a security of a State member bank under section 12(f) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l(f)).
(5) Transfer agent registration; acceleration; withdrawal or cancellation. (i) To accelerate, under section 17A(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78q-1(c)(2)), the effective date of a registration statement for transfer agent activities filed by a member bank or a subsidiary thereof, a bank holding company or a subsidiary thereof that is a bank as defined in section 3(a)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(6)) other than a bank specified in clause (i) or (iii) of section 3(a)(34)(B) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(34)(B)).
(ii) To withdraw or cancel, under section 17A(c)(3)(C) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78q-1(c)(4)(B)), the transfer agent registration of a member bank or a subsidiary thereof, a bank holding company, or a subsidiary thereof that is a bank as defined in section 3(a)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(6)) other than a bank specified in clause (i) or (iii) of section 3(a)(34)(B) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(34)(B)), that has filed a written notice of withdrawal with the Board or upon a finding that such transfer agent is no longer in existence or has ceased to do business as a transfer agent.
(6) Proxy solicitation; financial statements. (i) To permit the mailing of proxy and other soliciting materials by a State member bank before the expiration of the time prescribed therein under § 208.36 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.36).
(ii) To permit the omission of financial statements from reports by a State member bank, or to require other financial statements in addition to, or in substitution for, the statements required therein under § 208.36 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.36).
(7) Municipal securities dealers. Under section 23 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78w).
(i) To grant or deny requests for waiver of examination and waiting period requirements for municipal securities principals and representatives under Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board Rule G-3;
(ii) To grant or deny requests for a determination that a natural person or municipal securities dealer subject to a statutory disqualification is qualified to act as a municipal securities representative or dealer under Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board Rule G-4;
(iii) To approve or disapprove clearing arrangements under Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board Rule G-8, in connection with the administration of these rules for municipal securities dealers for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency under section 3(a)(34) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(34)).
(8) Making reports available to SEC. To make available, upon request, to the Securities and Exchange Commission reports of examination of transfer agents, clearing agencies, and municipal securities dealers for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency for use by the Commission in exercising its supervisory responsibilities under the Act under section 17(c)(3) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q(c)(3)).
(9) Issuing examination manuals, forms, and other materials. To issue examination or inspection manuals, registration, report, agreement, and examination forms, guidelines, instructions, and other similar materials for use in administering sections 7, 8, 15B, and 17A(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78g, 78h, 78o-4, and 78q-1(c)).
(10) Lists of OTC and foreign margin stocks. To approve issuance of the lists of OTC margin stocks and foreign margin stocks and add, omit, or remove any stock in circumstances indicating that such change is necessary or appropriate in the public interest under § 207.6(d) of Regulation G (12 CFR 207.6(d)), § 220.17(f) of Regulation T (12 CFR 220.17(f)), or § 221.7(d) of Regulation U (12 CFR 221.7(d)).
(g) Golden parachute payments. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve an application to make a golden parachute payment or enter into an agreement to make a golden parachute payment under 12 CFR part 359.
(h) Prompt corrective action. With the approval of the General Counsel, to take the following actions pursuant to prompt corrective action under the rules implementing section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o) in connection with any institution or person, except a critically undercapitalized institution:
(1) Capital categories, capital restoration plans, and discretionary supervisory actions pursuant to §§ 208.42 through 208.44 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.42 through 208.44);
(2) Notices and directives pursuant to § 263.202 of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR 263.202);
(3) Reclassification of a capital category based on criteria other than capital pursuant to § 263.203 of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR 263.203); and
(4) Dismissal of directors or senior officers pursuant to § 263.204 of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR 263.204).
(i) Assessments for bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board. In consultation with the General Counsel, to take actions pursuant to Regulation TT (12 CFR part 246) to determine the elements of the assessment formula for each assessment period including the assessment rate, the amount of the assessment basis, and each company's total assessable assets; to determine the amount of assessment for each assessed company, including allowing for pro-rata adjustments, payment of a lesser amount than would otherwise be required pursuant to the reservation of authority, and responding to an appeal by revising the assessment amount; to notify the assessed companies of the assessment; and to publish information regarding calculation of the assessments for each assessment period (including a description of how the assessment basis was determined) on the Board's public website.
(j) Capital plans. (1) To take the following actions (or to provide concurrence to the appropriate Reserve Bank, where appropriate):
(i) To allow a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company to submit its capital plan after the 5th of January of a given year;
(ii) To object, in whole or in part, to the capital plan or provide the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company with a notice of non-objection to the capital plan;
(iii) To direct a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company to revise and resubmit its capital plan if:
(A) The capital plan is incomplete;
(B) There has been or will be a material change in the bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's risk profile, financial condition, or corporate structure;
(C) The stressed scenarios developed by the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company are not sufficiently stressed; or
(D) The capital plan or bank holding company or savings and loan holding company raise any issues that would cause the Board or the Reserve Bank to object to the capital plan;
(iv) To waive the requirement that a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company resubmit its entire capital plan with respect to those portions of the plan that are unchanged;
(v) To extend or shorten the 30-day period for resubmission of a capital plan;
(vi) To determine that a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company is required to obtain prior approval for a capital distribution that would result in a material adverse change to the organization's capital or liquidity structure or because earnings were materially underperforming projections;
(vii) To notify a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company in writing that it may not take advantage of the prior approval exception for well-capitalized bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies; or
(viii) To approve or disapprove, within 30 days of receipt of a complete request, a proposed capital distribution; and
(ix) To affirm or withdraw objection to a capital plan based on a bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's written request to reconsider an objection to a capital plan.
(2) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the Board and the Director of the Division of Financial Stability, to determine the content and timing of the public disclosure of the Board's decision to object or not object to a bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's capital plan and the summary of the Board's analyses of that company, under § 225.8 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8).
(3) Jointly with the Director of the Division of Financial Stability, with the concurrence of the Vice Chair for Supervision:
(i) To provide a firm subject to the Board's capital plan rules with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement and an explanation of the results of the supervisory stress test pursuant to §§ 225.8(h)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8(h)(1)) and 238.170(h)(1) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.170(h)(1)); and
(ii) To provide a firm subject to the Board's capital plan rules with its final stress capital buffer requirement and confirmation of its final planned capital distributions pursuant to §§ 225.8(h)(4)(i) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8(h)(4)(i)) and 238.170(h)(4)(i) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.170(h)(4)(i)).
(k) Capital adequacy—(1) Delegations regarding the general provisions of subpart A of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart A). (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the General Counsel:
(A) To determine under § 217.1(d)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(2)(ii)) whether a capital element may be included in a company's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the element and in accordance with § 217.20(e) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(e)); and
(B) To determine under the definition of “financial institution” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a company is a financial institution based on its activities.
(ii) After consultation with the General Counsel:
(A) To require under § 217.1(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(1)) a company to hold an amount of regulatory capital greater than otherwise required under Regulation Q because the company's capital requirements under Regulation Q are not commensurate with the company's credit, market, operational or other risks;
(B) To determine under § 217.1(d)(2)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(2)(i)) whether an element of capital must be excluded in whole or in part from capital because the capital element has characteristics or terms that diminish its ability to absorb losses, or otherwise presents safety and soundness concerns;
(C) To require under § 217.1(d)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(3)) that a company assign a different risk-weighted asset amount to an exposure or deduct the amount of the exposure from its regulatory capital because the risk-weighted asset amount calculated under Regulation Q for the exposure is not commensurate with the risks associated with the exposure;
(D) To determine under § 217.1(d)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(4)) whether the leverage exposure amount, or the amount reflected in a company's reported average total consolidated assets, for an on- or off-balance sheet exposure (under § 217.10 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10)) is inappropriate for the exposure(s) or the circumstances of the company, and, based on this determination, require the company to adjust this amount in the numerator and the denominator for purposes of the company's leverage ratio calculations;
(E) To determine under § 217.1(d)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(5)) whether the risk-based capital treatment for an exposure, or the treatment provided to an entity that is not consolidated on a company's balance sheet, is commensurate with the risk of the exposure and the relationship of the company to the entity, and, based on this determination, require the company to treat the exposure or entity as if it were consolidated on the company's balance sheet;
(F) With respect to any deduction or limitation required under Regulation Q, to require under § 217.1(d)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(6)) a different deduction or limitation provided that such alternative deduction or limitation is commensurate with the company's risk and consistent with safety and soundness;
(G) To approve a request by a Board-regulated institution to make or change an election, or a choice of treatment, under § 217.1(g)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(g)(2)(ii)); and
(H) To review and adjust estimated total consolidated assets under the definition of “insurance bank holding company” or “insurance savings and loan holding company” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) or under § 217.601(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.601(b)(2)).
(iii)(A) To determine under paragraph (5) of the definition of “distribution” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a transaction is in substance a distribution of capital;
(B) To act on a request from a company under the definition of “eligible credit derivative” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) to find that a credit derivative (other than a credit default swap, nth-to-default swap, or total return swap) should be considered an eligible credit derivative;
(C) To determine under the definition of “main index” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether an index is a main index because the equities represented by the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard & Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index;
(D) To determine under the definition of “multilateral development bank” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a multilateral lending institution or regional development bank poses a comparable credit risk to other multilateral development banks;
(E) To determine under the definition of “qualifying central counterparty” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a central counterparty meets the requirements for qualification as a qualifying central counterparty;
(F) To determine under paragraph (8) of the definition of “traditional securitization” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a transaction is not a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
(G) To determine under paragraph (9) of the definition of “traditional securitization” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a transaction is a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance.
(2) Delegation regarding the capital ratio requirements and buffers in subpart B of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart B). To act on a request under § 217.11(a)(4)(iv) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.11(a)(4)(iv)) to permit a company to make a capital distribution or discretionary bonus payment that would otherwise not be permissible.
(3) Delegations regarding the definition of capital in subpart C of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart C). (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the General Counsel, to act on a request from a company under § 217.20(e)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(e)(1)) to include a capital element in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital.
(ii)(A) To determine under § 217.20(c)(1)(v)(C) and (d)(1)(v)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(c)(1)(v)(C) and (d)(1)(v)(C)) whether a company would continue to hold capital commensurate to its risk following the exercise of a call option;
(B) To consult with the other banking agencies under § 217.20(e)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(e)(2)) when considering whether a company may include a regulatory capital element in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital;
(C) To make publicly available under § 217.20(e)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(e)(3)) a decision that a regulatory capital element may be included in a company's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital;
(D) To determine under § 217.22(a)(5)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(a)(5)(i)) whether the deduction of a defined benefit pension fund net asset is not required to the extent that the company has unrestricted and unfettered access to the assets in the fund;
(E) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(b)(2)(iv) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(b)(2)(iv)) to change to its AOCI opt-out election following a merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction;
(F) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(c)(4), (5), or (6) or (d)(2)(i)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(c)(4), (5), or (6) or (d)(2)(i)(C)) not to deduct investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution either:
(1) To the extent the investment is related to a failed underwriting, or
(2) If the financial institution is in distress and the investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution;
(G) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(d)(1)(iv) or (d)(2)(iii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(d)(1)(iv) or (d)(2)(iii)) to change its election whether to exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital;
(H) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(e)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(e)(5)) to change its preference regarding the manner in which it nets DTLs against specific assets subject to deduction;
(I) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(h)(2)(iii)(A) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(h)(2)(iii)(A)) to use a conservative estimate of the amount of its investment in its own capital instruments or the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution held through a position in an index; and
(J) To determine under § 217.22(h)(3)(iii)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(h)(3)(iii)(C)) whether a company's internal control process is adequate.
(iii)(A) To act on a company's request under § 217.20(b)(1)(iii), (c)(1)(vi), or (d)(1)(x) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(b)(1)(iii), (c)(1)(vi), (d)(1)(x)) to redeem a security; and
(B) To act on a company's request under § 217.20(c)(1)(v)(A) or (d)(1)(v)(A) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(c)(1)(v)(A), (d)(1)(v)(A)) to exercise a call option.
(4) Delegations regarding the standardized approach in subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D). (i) After consultation with the General Counsel, to determine under § 217.35(d)(3)(i)(E) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.35(d)(3)(i)(E)) that a risk weight higher than 20 percent for variable RW in formula KCCP is more appropriate based on the specific characteristics of the QCCP and its clearing members.
(ii)(A) To determine under § 217.35(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.35(d)(1)) whether there has been a material change in the financial condition of a CCP;
(B) To act on a request under § 217.35(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.35(d)(2)) for a company to use a risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to a CCP that is not QCCP other than a 1,250 percent risk weight; and
(C) In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement or clearing system, or a CCP, to waive under § 217.38(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.38(c)) risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions.
(iii)(A) To act on a request from a company under § 217.37(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)) to use its own estimates of haircuts, including:
(1) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.37(c)(4)(i)(E) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(4)(i)(E)) to make changes to the company's policies and procedures; and
(2) Requiring a company under § 217.37(c)(4)(i)(F) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(4)(i)(F)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own estimates of haircuts; and
(B) To determine under § 217.41(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.41(c)) whether or not a company has demonstrated a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure.
(5) Delegations regarding the advanced approaches risk-based capital rules in subpart E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart E). (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the General Counsel, to act on a request by a company under § 217.121(c) and (d) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.121(c) and (d)) to use the advanced approaches to calculate its risk-based capital requirements and notify the company of the date that it must begin to do so if the action would not raise significant policy issues.
(ii) After consultation with the General Counsel:
(A) To require a company (that no longer meets the qualification requirements in subpart E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart E)) under § 217.123(b)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.123(b)(3)) to calculate its advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets with modifications determined by the Director if the Director determines that the advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets are not commensurate with the company's credit, market, operational, or other risk; and
(B) To determine under § 217.133(d)(3)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(3)(i)) that a risk weight higher than 20 percent for variable RW in formula Kccp is more appropriate based on the specific characteristics of the QCCP and its clearing members.
(iii)(A) To determine under § 217.100(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.100(c)(1)) that not applying a provision of Regulation Q would, in all circumstances, unambiguously generate a risk-based capital requirement for each such exposure greater than that which would otherwise be required;
(B) To determine that a non-U.S. subsidiary of a U.S. company may use the retail definition of default defined in a non-U.S. jurisdiction under the definition of “default” in § 217.101 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.101);
(C) To determine for purposes of the definition of eligible double default guarantor in § 217.101 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.101) whether the guarantor is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on U.S. depository institutions or securities broker-dealers;
(D) To extend any of the following periods:
(1) A company's parallel run start date under § 217.121 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.121);
(2) For up to an additional 12 months, the time in which a company may use subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D) to determine the risk-weighted asset amounts for a merged or acquired company's exposures under § 217.124(a) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.124(a)); and
(3) For up to an additional 12 months, the time in which a company may use an acquired company's advanced systems to determine total risk-weighted assets for the merged or acquired company's exposures under § 217.124(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.124(b)(1));
(E) To assess compliance with any supervisory guidance on qualification requirements for purposes of § 217.121(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.121(b)(1));
(F) To waive the requirement under § 217.121(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.121(b)(2)) that a company submit a parallel run implementation plan to the Board at least 60 days before it proposes to begin its parallel run;
(G) To act on a request by a company under § 217.122(g)(2)(ii)(A)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(2)(ii)(A)(1)) to use a historical observation period of less than five years for internal operational loss event data to address transitional situations, such as integrating a new business line;
(H) To act on a request by a company under § 217.122(g)(2)(ii)(A)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(2)(ii)(A)(3)) to refrain from collecting internal operational loss event data for individual operational losses below established dollar threshold amounts;
(I) To act on a request by a company under § 217.122(g)(3)(i)(D) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(3)(i)(D)) to use internal estimates of dependence among operational losses across and within units of measure;
(J) To act on a request by a State member bank under § 217.122(g)(3)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(3)(ii)) to generate an estimate of the company's operational risk exposure using an alternative approach to that specified in § 217.122(g)(3)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(3)(i));
(K) To determine under § 217.123(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.123(b)) that a company that has conducted a satisfactory parallel run fails to comply with the qualification requirements in § 217.122 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122) and notify the company in writing of the determination;
(L) To determine under § 217.123(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.123(b)) whether a company's plan to return to compliance with the qualification requirements in § 217.122 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122) is satisfactory;
(M) To establish requirements under § 217.131(e)(1)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.131(e)(1)(i)) for the estimation of a margin loan's probability of default (“PD”) and loss given default (“LGD”);
(N) In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement or clearing system, or a central counterparty, to waive under § 217.136(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.136(c)) risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions; and
(O) To act on a request by a company under § 217.161(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.161(b)(2)) to use operational risk mitigants other than insurance.
(iv)(A) To act on a request for approval of any model or optional approach available under subpart E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart E), including without limitation:
(1) Any counterparty credit risk model or methodology (own estimates of haircuts, simple VaR methodology, internal models methodology, or advanced credit valuation adjustment (“CVA”) approach) under §§ 217.122(d) and 217.132 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(d) and 217.132), including:
(i) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(5)) to make changes to the company's policies and procedures;
(ii) Requiring a company under § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(6)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts;
(iii) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(1) introductory text and (d)(1)(iv) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(1) introductory text and (d)(1)(iv)) to use the internal models methodology, cease using the internal models methodology for a transaction type, or make a material change to its internal model;
(iv) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(2)(iv) and (d)(10) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(2)(iv) and (d)(10)) to use a more conservative estimate of exposure at default (“EAD”);
(v) Determining that a company must set a higher “alpha” under § 217.132(d)(2)(iv)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(2)(iv)(C)) based on the company's specific characteristics of and counterparty credit risk or model performance;
(vi) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(3)) to calculate the distributions of exposures upon which the EAD calculation is based;
(vii) Requiring a company under § 217.132(d)(3)(viii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(3)(viii)) to modify its stress calibration to better reflect actual historic losses of the portfolio;
(viii) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(5)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(5)(i)) to include the effect of a collateral agreement within an internal model used to calculate EAD;
(ix) Requiring a company under § 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C)) to set a longer holding period (for margin period of risk for a netting set that is subject to a collateral agreement) if the Director determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction;
(x) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(6)) to calculate alpha as the ratio of economic capital from a full simulation of counterparty exposure across counterparties that incorporates a joint simulation of market and credit risk factors (numerator) and economic capital based on expected positive exposure (“EPE”) (denominator), subject to a floor of 1.2;
(xi) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(e) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)) to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amounts for a class of counterparties using the advanced CVA approach;
(xii) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(e)(6)(ii)(D) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)(6)(ii)(D)) to use a conservative estimate when determining LGDMKT; and
(xiii) Requiring a company under § 217.132(e)(6)(v)(B) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)(6)(v)(B)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the CVAStressed measure;
(2) Any model or approach relating to cleared transactions under §§ 217.122(d) and 217.133 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(d) and 217.133), including:
(i) Requiring under § 217.133(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(1)) a company that is a clearing member to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP more frequently than quarterly if in the opinion of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP; and
(ii) Acting on a request under § 217.133(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(2)) for a company to use a risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to a CCP that is not QCCP other than a 1,250 percent risk weight;
(3) Any model or approach relating to the double default treatment under §§ 217.122(e) and 217.135 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(e) and 217.135), including acting on a request by a company under § 217.135(a)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.135(a)(6)) to implement a process to detect excessive correlation between the creditworthiness of the obligor of a hedged exposure and a protection provider;
(4) A company's own internal estimates of market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility under § 217.145(b)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.145(b)(4)); and
(5) The internal models approach for equity exposures under §§ 217.122(f) and 217.153(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(f) and 217.153(b));
(B) To determine under § 217.131(e)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.131(e)(4)) whether a portfolio of exposures is or is not material; and
(C) To assess for purposes of § 217.141(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.141(c)(1)) whether a company has a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure.
(6) Delegations regarding the market risk rule in subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F). (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the General Counsel, to act on a request by a company to be excluded from the market risk rule under § 217.201(b)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.201(b)(3)) if the action would not raise significant policy issues.
(ii) After consultation with the General Counsel, to require a company:
(A) Under § 217.201(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.201(c)(1)) to hold an amount of capital greater than otherwise required under subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F) upon a determination that the company's capital requirement for market risk as calculated under Regulation Q is not commensurate with the market risk of the company's covered positions;
(B) Under § 217.201(c)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.201(c)(2)) to assign a different risk-based capital requirement to one or more covered positions or portfolios that more accurately reflects the risk of the positions or portfolios; and
(C) Under § 217.201(c)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.201(c)(3)) to calculate risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F), or under subparts D or E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D or E), as appropriate, to more accurately reflect the risks of the positions.
(iii) To act regarding any model approval, disapproval, rescission, or supervision under subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F), including the authority to:
(A) Exclude from trading assets or liabilities structural foreign currency positions of a company or any hedge of a covered position that is outside the scope of the company's hedging strategy under § 217.202 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.202);
(B) Act on a request from a company under § 217.203(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.203(c)(1)) to approve its internal model(s) to calculate its risk-based capital requirement;
(C) Rescind approval under § 217.203(c)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.203(c)(3)) of a company's internal model(s) to calculate its risk-based capital requirement;
(D) Act on a request from a company under § 217.204(a)(2)(vi)(B) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.204(a)(2)(vi)(B)) to use alternative techniques to measure the risk of de minimis exposures;
(E) Act on a request from a company under § 217.204(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.204(b)(2)) to use a different adjustment of its VaR-based measure;
(F) Review and determine the appropriateness of a company's omission of risk factors under § 217.205(a)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(a)(4)) and the use of proxies under § 217.205(a)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(a)(5));
(G) Review and determine under § 217.205(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(b)(1)) the appropriateness of any conversions of VaR to other holding periods by a company;
(H) Review and determine under § 217.205(b)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(b)(2)(ii)) the appropriateness of a company's alternative weighting schemes;
(I) Approve or disapprove under § 217.205(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(c)) any requirements relating to a company's division of subportfolios;
(J) Approve or disapprove under § 217.206(b)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.206(b)(3)) any changes to a company's policies and procedures that describe how the company determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate its stressed VaR-based measure;
(K) Require a company under § 217.206(b)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.206(b)(4)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the stressed VaR-based measure;
(L) Act on a request by a company under § 217.208(a) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.208(a)) to include certain portfolios of equity positions in its incremental risk model;
(M) Act on a request by a company under § 217.209(a)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.209(a)(1)) to use the comprehensive risk approach for one or more portfolios of correlation trading positions and the related approval under § 217.209(a)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.209(a)(2)(ii)) regarding a company's comprehensive risk capital requirement;
(N) Determine under § 217.210(e)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.210(e)(3)) whether an index is a main index because the equities represented by the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard & Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index; and
(O) Determine under § 217.210(f)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.210(f)(1)) whether or not a company has demonstrated a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure.
(7) Delegations of Authority under Basel I-based Capital Guidelines (Appendix A to Regulation Y, 12 CFR part 225). (i) To approve under section II.A.1.c.ii.(2) of appendix A to Regulation Y, 12 CFR part 225, a bank or bank holding company's redemption of perpetual preferred stock; and
(ii) To approve under section II.A.2. of appendix A to Regulation Y, 12 CFR part 225, a bank or bank holding company's redemption of subordinated debt or mandatorily convertible securities prior to the stated maturity.
(8) Delegations regarding the Building Block Approach in subpart J of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart J).
(i) [Reserved]
(ii) After consultation with the General Counsel:
(A) To require a supervised insurance organization to exclude all or a portion of a particular company capital element from building block available capital, to approve the inclusion on a permanent or temporary basis of a capital resource in building block available capital, to adjust the building block capital requirement and building block available capital of a supervised insurance organization, or to require a supervised insurance organization to take certain actions to better reflect the risk profile of an inventory company or the supervised insurance organization, under § 217.601(d) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.601(d));
(B) To require a supervised insurance organization to apply an alternative treatment to a treatment otherwise required by subpart J of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217 subpart J) under § 217.601(d)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.601(d)(4));
(C) To approve a request to exercise a call option on an instrument under § 217.608(a)(1)(v)(A) or § 217.608(a)(2)(iv)(A) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.608(a)(1)(v)(A) or 217.608(a)(2)(iv)(A));
(D) To approve a request to redeem or repurchase an instrument under 217.608 (a)(1)(vi) or § 217.608(a)(2)(v) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.608(a)(1)(vi) or 217.608(a)(2)(v)); and
(E) To approve a request to include in building block available capital an instrument issued by a company in a supervised insurance organization under § 217.608(g) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.608(g)).
(l) Concentration Limit Actions (Regulation XX (12 CFR part 251)). (1) To approve requests from financial companies seeking to use an accounting standard or method of estimation other than GAAP to calculate and report liabilities pursuant to section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1852) and Regulation XX (12 CFR part 251);
(2) To calculate and publish total financial sector liabilities for the preceding calendar year and the average of financial sector liabilities for the preceding two calendar years, for use in calculating whether a firm exceeds 10 percent of the liabilities of all financial firms in the United States pursuant to section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1852); and
(3) To provide prior written consent for purposes of section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1852) to a financial company to consummate an acquisition of a de minimis transaction, to the extent that the transaction otherwise meets all other criteria for delegated action related to financial, managerial, convenience and needs, and other review factors.
(m) Savings and loan holding companies. (1) With concurrence of the General Counsel:
(i) To extend the time limits in, or otherwise modify, an agreement entered into by a savings and loan holding company pursuant to § 238.66 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.66).
(ii) To determine that publication of an agreement entered into by a savings and loan holding company pursuant to § 238.66 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.66) would be contrary to the public interest under the publication requirements of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 et seq.).
(iii) To act on requests for exemptions or otherwise make determinations under section 11 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1468), as implemented in Regulation W (12 CFR part 223), to the same extent authorized with respect to insured depository institutions and their affiliates and bank holding companies.
(2) With the Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, to designate the responsible Reserve Bank of a savings and loan holding company when the standard delegation would not result in an efficient allocation of supervisory resources or would not otherwise be appropriate.
(n) Swaps margin and swaps push-out. To approve internal margin models for entities for which the Board is the prudential regulator, in accordance with § 237.8 of Regulation KK (12 CFR 237.8).
(o) Certain determinations under Regulations LL, YY, and QQ. In consultation with the General Counsel, to:
(1) Determine that an asset meets the criteria to be a highly liquid asset under the Board's prudential standards in Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.124(b)(3)(i)) and Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.35(b)) to the extent that such determination is consistent with the criteria specified in such regulations and does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory concerns;
(2) Determine that a foreign banking organization may comply with the requirements in Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.3(c)) through a subsidiary to the extent that such determination is consistent with the criteria specified in Regulation YY and does not raise any significant legal, policy or supervisory concerns; and
(3) Identify which holding company in a multi-tiered holding company will be a covered company under Regulation QQ (12 CFR part 243) to the extent such identification is consistent with the criteria specified in Regulation QQ (12 CFR 243.2) and does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory concerns.
(p) Approving certain requests under the Capital Rule (Regulation Q, 12 CFR part 217) related to the exposure amount of derivative contracts. To the extent that the determination or request does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory issue:
(1) To act on a request under § 217.34(f) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.34(f)) as to whether a holding period greater than 5 days is appropriate for variable H due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or that is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction;
(2) To act on a request under § 217.132(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(c)(1)) from a banking organization to change its election between the use of the standardized approach to counterparty credit risk under § 217.132(c)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(c)(5)) and the internal models methodology under § 217.132(d) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)) for its derivative transactions;
(3) To require under § 217.132(c)(2)(iii)(H) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(c)(2)(iii)(H)) that a banking organization include a derivative contract in multiple hedging sets if the risk of the derivative contract materially depends on more than one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors;
(4) To act on a request under § 217.132(d)(10) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(10)) from a banking organization to use a more conservative estimate of EAD for purposes of the internal models methodology;
(5) To require under § 217.133(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(1)) that a banking organization determine the risk-weighted asset amount for its default fund contribution to a central counterparty (CCP) on the basis that there has been a material change in the financial condition of the CCP;
(6) To act on a request under § 217.133(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(2)) from a banking organization to use a risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP that is not a qualifying central counterparty (QCCP) other than 1,250 percent risk weight; and
(7) To act on a request under § 217.133(d)(6)(vi) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(6)(vi)) from a banking organization to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP according to § 217.35(d)(3)(ii) (12 CFR 217.35(d)(3)(ii)) rather than § 217.133(d) (12 CFR 217.133(d)).
(q) Insurance Policy Advisory Committee. To organize and administer the Insurance Policy Advisory Committee (“IPAC”), including by publishing future requests for IPAC applications in the Federal Register.
(r) Submission of reports. (1) With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to prepare and submit to Congress reports under section 165(b)(5) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(b)(5)).
(2) With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to prepare and submit to Congress reports under section 37(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831n(c)), and to submit such reports to the Federal Register for publication.
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023; 88 FR 80109, Nov. 17, 2023; 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]
§ 265.8 Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs.
The Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
(a) Examination and enforcement activities. For the consumer protection and consumer affairs statutes and regulations for which the Board has supervisory and enforcement responsibility, including but not limited to the Truth in Lending Act, Home Mortgage Disclosure Act, Community Reinvestment Act, Equal Credit Opportunity Act, Fair Housing Act, and the Federal Trade Commission Act's prohibition on unfair and deceptive acts and practices:
(1) To oversee policy development regarding compliance by State member banks and other supervised entities, including by establishing criteria for the execution of examination and enforcement activities delegated to the Reserve Banks and monitoring those activities; and
(2) To issue examination or inspection manuals; report, agreement, and examination forms; examination procedures, guidelines, instructions, and other similar materials.
(b) Community Advisory Council. To call meetings of and consult with the Community Advisory Council, approve the agenda for such meetings, publish Federal Register notices soliciting Community Advisory Council nominations from the public to assist in the selection of prospective members, and accept any resignations from Community Advisory Council members.
(c) Determining inconsistencies between State and Federal laws. To determine whether a State law is inconsistent with the following Federal acts and regulations to the extent that the laws are applicable to motor vehicle dealers, as defined in section 1029 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5519):
(1) Sections 111, 171(a) and 186(a) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1610(a), 1666j(a), 1667e(a)) and §§ 226.28 of Regulation Z (12 CFR 226.28) and 213.9 of Regulation M (12 CFR 213.9);
(2) Section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693q) and § 205.12 of Regulation E (12 CFR 205.12); and
(3) Section 705(f) of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691d(f)) and § 202.11 of Regulation B (12 CFR 202.11).
(d) Interpreting the Fair Credit Reporting Act. To issue interpretations pursuant to section 621(e) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s(e));
(e) [Reserved]
(f) Community Reinvestment Act determinations. To make determinations, pursuant to section 804 of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2903), approving or disapproving:
(1) Strategic plans and any amendments thereto pursuant to § 228.27(g) and (h) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.27(g) and (h)); and
(2) Requests for designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank or the revocation of such designation, pursuant to § 228.25(b) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.25(b)).
(g) Public hearings. To conduct hearings or other proceedings required or permitted by law, concerning consumer law or other matters within the responsibilities of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, in consultation with other interested divisions of the Board where appropriate.
(h) Designation of responsible Reserve Bank for savings and loan holding companies. With the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to designate the responsible Reserve Bank of a savings and loan holding company when the standard designation would not result in an efficient allocation of supervisory resources or would not otherwise be appropriate.
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 80109, Nov. 17, 2023]
§ 265.9 Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of International Finance.
The Director of the Division of International Finance (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
(a) Establishment of foreign accounts. To approve the establishment of foreign accounts and the terms of any account-related agreements with the Federal Reserve Bank of New York under section 14(e) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 358).
(b) [Reserved]
§ 265.10 Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Monetary Affairs.
The Director of the Division of Monetary Affairs (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
(a) Term Deposit Facility (TDF) test operations. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, and in consultation with the Chair if feasible, to adjust the terms and conditions of individual TDF test operations that raise significant technical or operational issues, including but not limited to the authority to:
(1) Delay the open of a TDF operation;
(2) Extend the close of a TDF operation;
(3) Reschedule a TDF operation; and
(4) Delay the announcement of TDF operation results.
(b) Regulation D. With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve the annual indexation of the reserve requirement exemption amount and low reserve tranche amount under Regulation D (12 CFR part 204), so long as no change is proposed to any of the formulas by which these amounts are calculated.
(c) Form FR 2900. With the concurrence of the General Counsel—
(1) To reassess the deposit reporting threshold each year, starting in February 2022, as is necessary to maintain a weekly reporting panel of 1,000 institutions comprised of foreign-related reporters and the largest M2 deposit holders for the weekly Report of Deposits and Vault Cash (Form FR 2900); and
(2) To determine the frequency with which the deposit reporting threshold is reassessed (e.g., annually or less frequently than annually) consistent with maintaining a stable panel of weekly reporters for the Form FR 2900 and enabling accurate construction of the monetary aggregates.
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023; 88 FR 80109, Nov. 17, 2023]
§ 265.11 Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Reserve Bank Operations and Payment Systems.
The Director of the Division of Reserve Bank Operations and Payment Systems (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
(a) Designated financial market utilities. (1) To issue a notice of no objection to a designated financial market utility relating to an advance notice of proposed material change submitted under section 806(e) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5465(e)) and section 234.4 of Regulation HH (12 CFR 234.4).
(2) To extend the review period for proposed changes that raise novel or complex issues and to request additional information from the designated financial market utility for consideration of the notice.
(b) Regulation II. (1) In consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel, to approve the publication of annual lists of institutions that fall above and below the small issuer exemption asset threshold under Regulation II (12 CFR part 235).
(2) In consultation with the General Counsel, to approve the publication of annual lists of the average interchange fees each network provides to non-exempt and exempt issuers.
(c) Regulation HH. After consulting with interested division directors, to establish the process for receiving notifications described in section 234.3(a)(17)(vi)(A) of the Board's Regulation HH (12 CFR 234.3(a)(17)(vi)(A)) and to provide notice of this process to affected firms.
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023; 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]
§ 265.12 Functions delegated to the Secretary of the Federal Open Market Committee.
The Secretary of the Federal Open Market Committee (or the Deputy Secretary in the Secretary's absence) is authorized:
(a) Records of policy actions. To approve for inclusion in the Board's Annual Report to Congress, records of policy actions of the Federal Open Market Committee.
(b) [Reserved]
§ 265.13 Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Financial Stability.
Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 62933, Oct. 2, 2026.
The Director of the Division of Financial Stability (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
(a) Bank holding companies; savings and loan holding companies; financial holding companies; change in bank control; mergers—(1) Stress tests. (i) Jointly with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, with the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation:
(A) To develop and issue scenarios, including, but not limited to, the baseline scenario and the severely adverse scenario, that the Board would use to conduct analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44) and that a company would use to conduct its stress tests under § 238.143 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143) or § 252.14 or § 252.54 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14 or 252.54), as appropriate, provided that no significant policy issues are raised; and
(B) To develop and issue additional scenarios or additional components for use in the severely adverse scenario under § 238.132(b) and 238.143(b)(2) and (3) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132(b) and 238.143(b)(2) and (3)), and §§ 252.14(b)(2) and (3), 252.44(b), and 252.54(b)(2) and (3) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(2) and (3), 252.44(b), and 252.54(b)(2) and (3)), that the Board would use to conduct analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 225.44) and that a company would use to conduct its stress tests under § 238.143 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143) or § 252.14 or § 252.54 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14 or 252.54), as appropriate, provided that no significant policy issues are raised;
(2) [Reserved]
(b) Capital plans. (1) Jointly with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, with the concurrence of the Vice Chair for Supervision:
(i) To provide a firm subject to the Board's capital plan rules with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement and an explanation of the results of the supervisory stress test pursuant to §§ 225.8(h)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8(h)(1)) and 238.170(h)(1) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.170(h)(1)); and
(ii) To provide a firm subject to the Board's capital plan rules with its final stress capital buffer requirement and confirmation of its final planned capital distributions pursuant to §§ 225.8(h)(4)(i) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8(h)(4)(i)) and 238.170(h)(4)(i) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.170(h)(4)(i)).
(2) [Reserved]
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023]
§§ 265.14-265.19 [Reserved]
§ 265.20 Functions delegated to Federal Reserve Banks.
Except as otherwise provided in this section, each Federal Reserve Bank is authorized as to a member bank or other indicated organization for which the Reserve Bank is responsible for receiving applications or registration statements or to take other actions as indicated:
(a) Procedure—(1) Member bank affiliate's reports. To extend the time for good cause shown, within which an affiliate of a State member bank must file reports under section 9(17) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 334).
(2) Edge corporation's divestiture of stock. To extend the time in which an Edge Act corporation must divest itself of stock acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted under section 25A(7) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 615).
(3) Edge corporation's corporate existence. To extend the period of corporate existence of an Edge corporation under section 25A(20) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 628).
(4) Bank holding company and savings and loan holding company registration statement. To extend the time within which a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company must file a registration statement under section 5(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(a)) or section 10(b) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(b)).
(5) Bank holding company divestiture of nonbanking interests. To extend the time within which a bank holding company must divest itself of interests in nonbanking organizations under section 4(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(a)).
(6) Bank holding company divestiture of DPC interests. To extend the time within which a bank holding company or any of its subsidiaries must divest itself of interests acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted:
(i) Under section 4(c)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(2)) or § 225.22(d)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.22(d)(1)); or
(ii) Under sections 2(a)(5)(D) and 3(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(5)(D) and 1842(a)).
(7) Member bank's surrender of Reserve Bank stock upon withdrawal from membership. To extend the time within which a member bank that has given notice of intention to withdraw from membership must surrender its Federal Reserve Bank stock and its certificate of membership under § 209.3(e) of Regulation H (12 CFR 209.3(e)).
(8) Members bank's reports of condition. To extend the time for publication of reports of condition under Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) for good cause shown.
(9) Bank holding company's and savings and loan holding company's annual reports. To grant to a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company a 90-day extension of time in which to file an annual report, and for good cause shown grant an additional extension of time not to exceed 90 days under section 5(c) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)) or section 10(b)(2) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(b)(2)).
(10) Regulation K; divestiture of impermissible interests. To extend the time within which an investor, under § 211.8(e) and (f) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.8(e) and (f)), must divest of investments in entities engaged in impermissible activities or interests acquired to prevent a loss upon a debt previously contracted in good faith.
(11) Bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's acquisition of shares, opening new bank, consummating merger. To extend the time within which a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company may acquire shares, open a new bank to be acquired, or consummate a merger in connection with an application approved by the Board, if no material change relevant to the proposal has occurred since its approval.
(12) Member bank's establishing domestic or foreign branch; Edge or agreement corporation's establishing branch or agency. To extend the times within which:
(i) A member bank may establish a domestic branch;
(ii) A member bank may establish a foreign branch; or
(iii) An Edge or agreement corporation may establish a branch or agency, if no material change has occurred in the bank's (or corporation's) general condition since the application was approved.
(13) Purchase of stock by Edge or agreement corporation, member bank, or bank holding company. To extend the time within which an Edge or agreement corporation, member bank, or a bank holding company may accomplish a purchase of stock if no material change has occurred in the general condition of the corporation, the member bank, or bank holding company since such authorization under sections 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act or section 4(c)(13) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 615, 628, 1843(c)(13)).
(14) Federal Reserve membership. To extend the time within which Federal Reserve membership must be accomplished, if no material change has occurred in the bank's general condition since the application was approved.
(15) Enforcement actions; written agreements; cease and desist orders. With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel:
(i) To enter into a written agreement with a bank holding company or any nonbanking subsidiary thereof, with a savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary thereof (other than a savings association), with a State member bank, with a foreign bank that has elected to be treated as a financial holding company, or with any person or entity subject to the Board's supervisory jurisdiction under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) concerning the prevention or correction of an unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the business of the bank holding company or its nonbanking subsidiary, savings and loan holding company or its subsidiary (other than a savings association), or State member bank, or foreign bank that has elected to be treated as a financial holding company, or other entity, or concerning the correction or prevention of any violation of law, rule, or regulation, including section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)), or any condition imposed in writing by the Board in connection with the granting of any application or other request by the bank or company; and
(ii) To stay, modify, terminate, or suspend an agreement entered into pursuant to this paragraph (a)(15), other than to extend time limits in a corrective agreement with a financial institution under section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)).
(iii) To stay, modify, terminate, or suspend an outstanding cease and desist order that has become final pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(b). Any agreement authorized under this paragraph may, by its terms, be enforceable to the same extent and in the same manner as an effective and outstanding cease and desist order that has become final pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(b).
(16) Appointment of assistant Federal Reserve agents. To approve the appointment of assistant Federal Reserve agents (including representatives or alternate representatives of such agents) under section 4(21) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 306).
(17) Relief from or modification of commitments. To grant or deny requests for relieving or modifying (including extending the time for performing) a commitment relied upon by the Reserve Bank in taking any action under the Bank Holding Company Act, section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), the Change in Bank Control Act, the Federal Reserve Act, the International Banking Act, the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or the Home Owners' Loan Act, so long as the requests do not raise any significant legal, supervisory, or policy issues. In acting on such requests, the Reserve Bank may take into account changed circumstances and good faith efforts to fulfill the commitments, and shall consult with Board staff as appropriate. The Reserve Bank may not take any action that would be inconsistent with or result in an evasion of the provisions of the original action.
(b) Availability of Information; Board records. To make available information of the Board of the nature and in the circumstances described in §§ 261.21(a) and 261.22(a) of the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR 261.21(a) and 261.22(a)).
(c) Holding companies; change in bank control; mergers—(1) Require reports under oath. To require reports under oath to determine whether a company is complying with section 5(c) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)) or section 10(b)(2) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(b)(2)).
(2) Acquisition of going concern—authorization of consummation; early consummation. (i) To notify a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that, because the circumstances surrounding the application to acquire a going concern indicate that additional information is required or that the acquisition should be considered by the Board, the acquisition should not be consummated until specifically authorized by the Reserve Bank or by the Board.
(ii) To permit a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company to make a proposed acquisition of a going concern before the expiration of the 30-day period referred to in § 225.24(d)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.24(d)(1)) or § 238.53(f)(1)(i) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.53(f)(1)(i)) because exigent circumstances justify consummation of the acquisition at an earlier time.
(3) Petition for review of decision that adverse comments are not substantive; permit proposed de novo activities; authorization of consummation. Under subpart C of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart C) or subpart F of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart F) and subject to § 265.3 (12 CFR 265.3), if a person submitting adverse comments that the Reserve Bank has decided are not substantive files a petition for review by the Board of that decision:
(i) To permit a bank holding company to engage de novo in activities specified in § 225.28(b) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)), or a savings and loan holding company to engage de novo in activities specified in §§ 238.53 and 238.54 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.53 and 238.54), or retain shares in a company established de novo and engaging in such activities, if the Reserve Bank's evaluation of the considerations specified in section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)) or section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)) leads it to conclude that the proposal can reasonably be expected to produce benefits to the public.
(ii) To notify a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that the proposal should not be consummated until specifically authorized by the Reserve Bank or by the Board or that the proposal should be processed in accordance with the procedures in subpart C of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart C) or subpart F of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart F).
(4) Nonbanking activities. (i) To approve requests by bank holding companies to engage in check cashing for checks drawn on unaffiliated banks, real estate title abstracting, or acting as a certification authority for digital signatures and authenticating the identity of persons conducting financial and nonfinancial transactions, as an activity that is closely related to banking for purposes of section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), when the proposal meets the conditions imposed by the Board in approving previous requests, and no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the specific proposal.
(ii) To approve requests by foreign banks subject to the Bank Holding Company Act by operation of section 8(a) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)) to engage in acting as a certification authority for digital signatures and authenticating the identity of persons conducting financial and nonfinancial transactions, as an activity that is closely related to banking for purposes of section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), when the proposal meets the conditions imposed by the Board in approving previous requests, and no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the specific proposal.
(5) Permit or stay of modification or location of activities. To permit or stay a proposed de novo modification or relocation of activities engaged in by a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company on the same basis as de novo proposals under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(6) Notices under the Change in Bank Control Act. With respect to a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, or a State member bank:
(i) To determine the informational sufficiency of notices and reports filed under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j));
(ii) To extend periods for consideration of notices;
(iii) To determine whether a person who is or will be subject to a presumption described in § 225.41(c)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41(c)(2)) or § 238.31(c)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.31(c)(2)) should file a notice regarding a proposed transaction; and
(iv) To issue a notice of intention not to disapprove a proposed change in control if all the following conditions are met:
(A) No member of the Board has indicated an objection prior to the Reserve Bank's action;
(B) No senior officer or director of an involved party is also a director of a Federal Reserve Bank or branch;
(C) All relevant departments of the Reserve Bank concur;
(D) If the proposal involves shares of a State member bank or a bank holding company controlling a State member bank, the appropriate bank supervisory authorities have indicated that they have no objection to the proposal, or no objection has been received from them within the time allowed by the act; and
(E) No significant policy issue under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), § 225.41 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41), or § 238.31 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.31) is raised by the proposal as to which the Board has not expressed its view.
(7) Failure to comply with publication requirement under the Change in Bank Control Act. To waive, dispense with, modify, or excuse the failure to comply with the requirement for publication and solicitation of public comment regarding a notice filed under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel, provided that a written finding is made that such disclosure or solicitation would seriously threaten the safety or soundness of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, savings association, or bank under paragraph (2) of the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(2)).
(8) Legacy nonbanking activities. To determine that termination of nonbanking activities conducted pursuant to the proviso in section 4(a)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(a)(2)) by a particular bank holding company is not warranted, provided the Reserve Bank is satisfied all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The company or its successor is “a company covered in 1970”;
(ii) The nonbanking activities that the bank holding company seeks to continue do not present any significant unsettled policy issues; and
(iii) The bank holding company was lawfully engaged in such activities as of June 30, 1968, and has been engaged in such activities continuously thereafter.
(9) Opening of additional nonbanking offices. To approve applications by a bank holding company under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)) and subpart C of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart C) to open additional offices to engage in nonbanking activities for which the bank holding company previously received approval pursuant to Board order, unless one of the conditions specified in paragraphs (c)(12)(i) through (iv) of this section is present.
(10) Volcker Rule. In consultation with Board staff, to approve (but not deny) an application by a banking entity for an extension of the period of time during which it must reduce its ownership interest in a covered fund to no more than 3 percent, if all of the following criteria are met:
(i) No significant issues have been identified regarding the firm's compliance program;
(ii) The banking entity has represented that all of the requirements under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and its implementing regulations (12 CFR part 248) for organizing and offering a covered fund have been met;
(iii) The banking entity provides a plan for reducing the permitted investment in a covered fund through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods by the end of the extension period; and
(iv) The primary Federal agency responsible for enforcing compliance with section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) by the banking entity that invests in or sponsors the covered fund (if other than the Federal Reserve) does not object to the extension.
(11) Notices for addition or change of directors or officers. Under section 914(a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 1831i) and subpart H of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart H)) and subpart H of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart H), provided that no senior officer or director or proposed senior officer or director of the notificant is also a director of the Reserve Bank or a branch of the Reserve Bank:
(i) To determine the informational sufficiency of notices filed pursuant to § 225.72 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.72) or § 238.73 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.73); and
(ii) To waive the prior notice requirements of those sections.
(12) Applications requiring Board approval; competitive factors reports for bank mergers and savings association mergers. To approve applications requiring prior approval of the Board and furnish to the Comptroller of the Currency and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation reports on competitive factors involved in a bank merger or savings association merger required to be approved by one of those agencies, unless one or more of the following conditions is present:
(i) A member of the Board has indicated an objection prior to the Reserve Bank's action; or
(ii) The Board has indicated that such delegated authority shall not be exercised by the Reserve Bank in whole or in part; or
(iii) A written substantive objection to the application has been properly made; or
(iv) The application raises a significant policy issue or legal question on which the Board has not established its position; or
(v)(A)With respect to holding company formations, acquisitions or mergers of holding companies, or acquisitions or mergers of insured depository institutions, except as set forth in paragraph (c)(12)(v)(B) of this section, upon consummation, the proposal would result in the control by a banking organization of over 35 percent of total deposits in banking offices in the relevant geographic market or an increase of at least 200 points in the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) for deposits in a highly concentrated market (a market with a post-merger HHI of at least 1800) when including:
(1) All thrift deposits at 50 percent weight, except for deposits of thrifts determined by the Reserve Bank, with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Research and Statistics, to be commercially active, which are included at 100 percent weight; and
(2) The deposits of credit unions determined by the Reserve Bank, with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Research and Statistics, to offer consumer banking products, operate street-level branches, and have broad membership criteria in the relevant geographic market, which are included at 50 percent weight; or
(B) With respect to the formation of a savings and loan holding company, the merger of savings and loan holding companies, or the acquisition by a savings and loan holding company of a savings association, upon consummation, the proposal would result in the control by a banking organization of over 35 percent of total deposits in banking offices in the relevant geographic market or an increase of at least 200 points in the HHI for deposits in a highly concentrated market (a market with a post-merger HHI of at least 1800) when including:
(1) All thrift deposits at 100 percent weight; and
(2) The deposits of credit unions determined by the Reserve Bank, with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Research and Statistics, to offer consumer banking products, operate street-level branches, and have broad membership criteria in the relevant geographic market, which are included at 50 percent weight; or
(vi) With respect to nonbank acquisitions, the nonbanking activities involved do not clearly fall within activities that the Board has designated as permissible for bank holding companies under § 225.28(b) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)); or
(vii) With respect to formations, acquisitions, or mergers involving depository institution holding companies, banks, or nonbank companies (except for internal corporate reorganizations), the proposed transaction represents an acquisition of assets equaling or exceeding $10 billion and would result in an organization with total assets equaling or exceeding $100 billion; or there is evidence that the transaction would result in a significant increase in interconnectedness, complexity, cross-border activities, or other risk factors related to the stability of the United States banking or financial system.
(13) Waivers. (i) To inform an acquiring bank holding company, in connection with a notice submitted by the bank holding company pursuant to § 225.12(d)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.12(d)(2)), that an application under § 225.11 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.11) is required.
(ii) To inform an acquiring savings and loan holding company, in connection with a notice submitted by the savings and loan holding company pursuant to § 238.12(d)(1) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.12(d)(1)), that an application under § 238.11 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.11) is required.
(14) Savings and loan holding companies in mutual form. (i) To act on reorganization notices filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.3 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.3), including with respect to the establishment of a mutual holding company, if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(ii) To act on applications to establish a subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.11 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.11), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(iii) To take any action related to an application by a mutual holding company to convert from mutual to stock form filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and subpart E of Regulation MM (12 CFR part 239, subpart E) if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(iv) To act on notices to repurchase stock filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.63(d) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.63(d)), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(v) To extend for an additional 60 days the 30-day period within which the Board may object to a notice to repurchase stock filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.63(d) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.63(d)).
(vi) To act on applications to acquire savings associations, savings and loan holding companies, and other corporations filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.7 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.7), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(vii) To act on notices and applications to engage in activities filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.8 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.8), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(viii) To act on notices of indemnification filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.40 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.40), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(ix) To act on notices of waiver by mutual holding companies of the right to receive dividends declared by subsidiaries of the mutual holding company filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.8(d) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.8(d)), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(x) To act on applications relating to charter and bylaw amendments of mutual holding companies and subsidiary holding companies filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and §§ 239.14, 239.15, 239.22, and 239.23 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.14, 239.15, 239.22, and 239.23), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(xi) To act on notices of transfer of stock and issuance of stock to insiders, associates of insiders, or tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plans filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and §§ 239.7(b) and 239.8(e) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.7(b) and 239.8(e)), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(xii) To act on notices of disposition of stock of certain subsidiaries filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.7(b) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.7(b)), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(xiii) To act on applications to engage in voluntary supervisory conversions filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.65 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.65), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(xiv) To approve requests from subsidiary holding companies of mutual holding companies to conduct stock issuances pursuant to § 239.24 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24), persons other than its mutual holding company parent pursuant to § 239.24 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24), including approval of nonconforming stock issuances pursuant to § 239.24(c)(6)(ii) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24(c)(6)(ii)) and determinations that certain procedural and substantive requirements are inapplicable pursuant to § 239.24(d) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24(d)), where such requests do not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues.
(xv) To approve plans of dissolution filed by mutual holding companies and subsidiary holding companies of mutual holding companies pursuant to § 239.16 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.16), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(xvi) To grant a request to waive the application of § 239.59(d)(1), (h), (j), and (p)(2) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.59(d)(1), (h), (j), and (p)(2)) as those provisions relate to applications and notices seeking the Board's prior approval to conduct a stock issuance pursuant to § 239.24 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24) related to a reorganization to mutual holding company form pursuant to section 10(o)(3) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)(3)), or subsequent to a mutual holding company reorganization, and that do not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory concerns, except that the authority to grant waiver requests under this paragraph (c)(14)(xvi) is limited to requests by firms that—
(A) Do not qualify for federal preemption of state securities filing requirements;
(B) Propose to register their shares in states with ten or more eligible account holders, as that term is defined in § 239.52(c) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.52(c)); and
(C) Would make a proposed stock offering available to account holders eligible to participate in the offering in states where the offering would qualify for an exemption from state securities filing requirements.
(d) International banking—(1) Member bank, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation establishing foreign branch. With regard to a prior notice to establish a branch in a foreign country under § 211.3 of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.3)—
(i) To waive the notice period if immediate action is required and there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue;
(ii) To suspend the notice period;
(iii) To determine not to object to the notice, provided that no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised by the proposal; or
(iv) To require the notificant to file an application for the Board's specific consent.
(2) Acquisitions by a foreign branch. To approve, under § 211.4(a)(8) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.4(a)(8)), a proposal by a foreign branch of a member bank to acquire all of the shares of a company that engages solely in activities in which the member bank is permitted to engage or that are incidental to the activities of the foreign branch, provided that no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised.
(3) Application to establish Edge corporation. To approve the application by a U.S. banking organization to establish an Edge corporation under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 et seq.) and § 211.5 of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5) if all of the following criteria are met:
(i) The U.S. banking organization meets the capital adequacy guidelines and is otherwise in satisfactory condition;
(ii) The proposed Edge corporation will be a wholly owned subsidiary of a single banking organization; and
(iii) No significant legal, supervisory, or policy issues are raised by the proposal.
(4) Issuance of permit to Edge corporation and amendments to articles of association and charter. To issue to an Edge corporation under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 614) and § 211.5 of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5) a permit to commence business and to approve amendments to the articles of association and charter of an Edge corporation.
(5) Investments in Edge and agreement corporations. To approve, pursuant to § 211.5(a)(3) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5(a)(3)) an application by a member bank to invest more than 10 percent of its capital and surplus in the aggregate amount of stock held in all Edge or agreement corporations; provided that:
(i) The member bank's total investment, including retained earnings of the Edge and agreement corporation, does not exceed 20 percent of the bank's capital and surplus and would not exceed that level as a result of the proposal; and
(ii) The proposal raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issues.
(6) Foreign ownership of an Edge corporation. To approve, under § 211.5(d) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5(d)), a foreign institution's acquisition, directly or indirectly, of a majority of the shares of the capital stock of an Edge corporation, provided that no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised.
(7) Change in control of an Edge corporation. With regard to a notice to acquire, directly or indirectly, 25 percent or more of the voting securities, or otherwise to acquire control, of an Edge corporation, under § 211.5(e) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5(e)):
(i) To waive the notice period if immediate action is required and no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised;
(ii) To extend the notice period;
(iii) To determine not to object to the notice if no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised; or
(iv) To require the notificant to file an application for the Board's specific consent.
(8) Granting specific consent. To grant prior specific consent to an investor for—
(i) A long range investment plan, under § 211.9(a)(4) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.9(a)(4)); or
(ii) An investment in its first subsidiary or its first joint venture, under § 211.9(a)(5) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.9(a)(5)), where such investment does not exceed the general consent limitations under § 211.9(b) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.9(b)).
(9) Investment in export trading company. To issue a notice of intention not to disapprove a proposed investment in an export trading company if all the following criteria are met:
(i) The proposed export trading company will be a wholly owned subsidiary of a single investor, or ownership will be shared with an individual or individuals involved in the operation of the export trading company;
(ii) A bank holding company investor and its lead bank meet the minimum capital adequacy guidelines of the Board, the Comptroller of the Currency, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or have enacted capital enhancement plans that have been determined by the appropriate supervisory authority to be acceptable;
(iii) The proposed activities of the export trading company do not include product research or design, product modification, or activities not specifically covered by the list of services contained in 4(c)(14)(F)(ii) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(14)(F)(ii)); and
(iv) No other significant policy issue is raised on which the Board has not previously expressed its view under section 4(c)(14) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(14)) and subpart C of Regulation K (12 CFR part 211, subpart C).
(10) Authority under prior-notice procedures. (i) With regard to a prior notice to make an investment under § 211.9(f) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.9(f)):
(A) To waive the notice period if immediate action is required and there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue raised;
(B) To suspend the notice period;
(C) To determine not to object to the notice if there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue raised; or
(D) To require the notificant to file an application for the Board's specific consent.
(ii)-(iv) [Reserved]
(v) With regard to a prior notice of a foreign bank to establish certain U.S. offices under § 211.24(a)(2)(i) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)(2)(i)):
(A) To waive the notice period if immediate action is required and there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue raised;
(B) To suspend the notice period;
(C) To determine not to object to the notice if there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue raised; or
(D) To require the notificant to file an application for the Board's specific consent.
(11) Activities usual in connection with banking or other financial operations abroad. (i) To approve a prior notice, under § 211.10(a)(14) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.10(a)(14)), to engage in underwriting and distribution of equity securities outside the United States, provided that the proposal raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
(ii) To approve a prior notice, under § 211.10(a)(15) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.10(a)(15)), to engage in dealing in equity securities outside the United States, provided that the proposal raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
(iii) To approve a prior notice, under § 211.10(a)(15)(iv)(B) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.10(a)(15)(iv)(B)), to use internal hedging models, provided that the proposal raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
(iv) To approve a prior notice, under § 211.10(a)(18) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.10(a)(18), to engage in futures commission merchant activities on an mutual exchange or clearinghouse that requires members to guarantee or otherwise contract to cover losses suffered by the other members, provided that the Board has previously approved the exchange, the application is on the same terms and conditions on which the Board based its approval of the exchange, and no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised.
(12) Change in foreign bank home state. With respect to a foreign bank's change of home state under § 211.22(b) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.22(b)) and provided no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised:
(i) To waive the notice period; or
(ii) To determine not to object to the notice.
(13) Waiver of 30-day prior notification period. To waive the 30-day prior notification period with respect to a foreign bank's change of home state under § 211.22(b)(1) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.22(b)(1)).
(14) Offices of foreign banks. (i) To approve the establishment of a branch, agency, commercial lending company, or representative office by a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to § 211.24(a)(1) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)(1)), if the Board has already determined that the foreign bank is subject to consolidated comprehensive supervision and provided that the application raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
(ii) To allow a foreign bank to establish a temporary office of a branch or agency, pursuant to § 211.24(a)(5) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)(5)), provided there is no direct public access to such office and no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised.
(15) Agreement with foreign bank concerning deposits of out-of-home-state branch. To enter into an agreement or undertaking with a foreign bank that it shall receive only such deposits at its out-of-home-state branch as would be permissible for an Edge corporation under section 5 of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3103).
(16) Dividends of property other than cash by an Edge corporation. To approve (but not deny) a request by an Edge corporation to declare or pay a dividend of property other than cash if the request does not raise a significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
(e) Member banks—(1) Approval of membership applications. To approve applications for membership in the Federal Reserve System under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321 et seq.) and Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that approval is warranted after considering the factors set forth in 12 CFR 208.3(b).
(2) Waiver of notice of intention to withdraw from membership. To approve or deny applications by State banks for waiver of the required six months' notice of intention to withdraw from Federal Reserve membership under section 9(10) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 328).
(3) Approval of branch applications. To approve a State member bank's establishment of a domestic branch under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321 et seq.) and Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that approval is warranted after considering the factors set forth in 12 CFR 208.6(b).
(4) Declaration of dividends in excess of net profits. To permit a State member bank under section 9(6) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 324) to declare dividends in excess of the amounts allowed in § 208.5(c) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.5(c)) if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that approval is warranted after giving consideration to:
(i) The bank's capitalization in relation to the character and condition of its assets and to its deposit liabilities and other corporate responsibilities, including the volume of its risk assets and of its marginal and inferior quality assets, all considered in relation to the strength of its management; and
(ii) The bank's capitalization after payment of the proposed dividends.
(5) Reduction of capital stock. To permit a State member bank under section 9(11) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 329) to reduce its capital stock below the amounts set forth in § 208.5(d) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.5(d)) if the State member bank's capitalization thereafter will be:
(i) In conformity with the requirements of Federal law; and
(ii) Adequate in relation to the character and condition of its assets and to its deposit liabilities and other corporate responsibilities, including the volume of its risk assets and of its marginal and inferior quality assets, all considered in relation to the strength of its management.
(6) Acceptance of drafts and bills of exchange. To permit a member bank or a Federal or State branch or agency of a foreign bank that is subject to reserve requirements under section 7 of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105) to accept drafts or bills of exchange under section 13(7) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 372) in an aggregate amount at any one time up to 200 percent of its paid-up and unimpaired capital stock and surplus, if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that such permission is warranted after giving consideration to the institution's capitalization in relation to the character and condition of its assets and to its deposit liabilities and other corporate responsibilities, including the volume of its risk assets and of its marginal and inferior quality assets, all considered in relation to the strength of its management.
(7) Investment in bank premises in excess of capital stock. To permit a State member bank to invest in bank premises under section 24A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371d) in an amount in excess of that set forth in § 208.21(a) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.21(a)), if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that approval is warranted after giving consideration to the bank's capitalization in relation to the character and condition of its assets and to its deposit liabilities and other corporate responsibilities, including the volume of its risk assets and of its marginal and inferior quality assets, all considered in relation to the strength of its management.
(8) Security devices. To determine whether security devices and procedures of State member banks are deficient in meeting the requirements of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) and whether such requirements should be varied in the circumstances of a particular banking office, and whether to require corrective action.
(9) Classifying member banks for election of directors. To classify member banks for the purposes of electing Federal Reserve Bank class A and class B directors under section 4(16) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 304), giving consideration to:
(i) The statutory requirement that each of the three groups shall consist as nearly as may be of banks of similar capitalization; and
(ii) The desirability that every member bank have the opportunity to vote for a class A or a class B director at least once every three years.
(10) Waiver of penalty for deficient reserves. To waive the penalty for deficient reserves by a member bank if, after a review of all the circumstances relating to the deficiency, the Reserve Bank concludes that waiver is warranted, except that in no case may a penalty be waived if the deficiency in reserves arises out of the bank's gross negligence or conduct inconsistent with the principles and purposes of reserve requirements.
(11) Retirement of subordinated debt. To approve the retirement prior to maturity of capital notes described in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(C) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(C)) and issued by a State member bank, provided the Reserve Bank is satisfied that the capital position of the bank will be adequate after the proposed redemption.
(12) Public welfare investments. (i) To permit a State member bank to make a public welfare investment in accordance with section 9(23) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a), provided that the proposal satisfies § 208.22(b)(1) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.22(b)(1)) and no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised; and
(ii) To determine, in connection with acting on a proposal pursuant to delegated authority as set forth in paragraph (e)(12)(i) of this section, that the aggregate amount of a State member bank's public welfare investments will not pose a significant risk to the deposit insurance fund in accordance with section 9(23) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a).
(13) Dividends of property other than cash by a State member bank. To approve (but not deny) a request by a State member bank to declare or pay a dividend of property other than cash if the request does not raise a significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
(f) Securities. To approve applications by a registered lender for termination of the registration under § 221.3(b)(2) of Regulation U (12 CFR 221.3(b)(2)).
(g) Management interlocks. After consultation with the General Counsel, to decide not to disapprove notices to establish director interlocks with diversified savings and loan holding companies under section 205(8) of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3204(8)).
(h) Qualified family partnerships. To act on requests for determinations of qualified family partnership status under section 2(o)(10) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(o)(10)).
(i) Financial holding companies. In consultation with Board staff, to make effective elections filed by U.S. bank holding companies to become financial holding companies.
(j) Savings and loan holding companies. (1) With the approval of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel, to enter into corrective action agreements with savings and loan holding companies pursuant to § 238.66 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.66).
(2) To act on notices of capital distributions filed pursuant to section 10(f) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(f)) and § 238.103 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.103).
(3) To act on elections to engage in financial holding company activities filed pursuant to section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)) and subpart G of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart G), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(4) To act on notices and applications to engage in activities filed pursuant to section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)) and subparts F and G of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subparts F and G), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(5) To grant requests by companies to deregister as savings and loan holding companies, if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
(k) Financial operations of the Bank for International Settlements. The Federal Reserve Bank of New York is authorized to assent or dissent, as appropriate, to financial operations of the Bank for International Settlements conducted in the U.S. market or in U.S. dollars.
(l) Regulatory capital rule—(1) Delegations regarding the definition of capital. (i) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to:
(A) Act on a company's request under § 217.20(b)(1)(iii), § 217.20(c)(1)(vi), or § 217.20(d)(1)(x) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(b)(1)(iii), 217.20(c)(1)(vi), or 217.20(d)(1)(x)) to redeem a security; and
(B) Act on a company's request under § 217.20(c)(1)(v)(A) or § 217.20(d)(1)(v)(A) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(c)(1)(v)(A) and 217.20(d)(1)(v)(A)) to exercise a call option.
(2) Delegations regarding standardized approach risk-weighted assets. (i) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to:
(A) Act on a request from a company under § 217.37(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)) to use its own estimates of haircuts, including:
(1) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.37(c)(4)(i)(E) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(4)(i)(E)) to make changes to the company's policies and procedures; and
(2) Requiring a company under § 217.37(c)(4)(i)(F) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(4)(i)(F)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own estimates of haircuts; and
(B) Determine under § 217.41(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.41(c)) whether or not a company has demonstrated a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure.
(3) Delegations regarding advanced approaches risk-weighted assets. (i) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to:
(A) Act on a request for approval of any model or optional approach available under subpart E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart E), including, without limitation:
(1) Any counterparty credit risk model or methodology (own estimates of haircuts, simple VaR methodology, internal models methodology, or advanced CVA approach) under §§ 217.122(d) and 217.132 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(d) and 217.132), including:
(i) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(5)) to make changes to the company's policies and procedures;
(ii) Requiring a company under § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(6)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts;
(iii) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(1) introductory text and (d)(1)(iv) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(1) introductory text and (d)(1)(iv)) to use the internal models methodology, cease using the internal models methodology for a transaction type, or to make a material change to its internal model;
(iv) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(2)(iv) and (d)(10) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(2)(iv) and (d)(10)) to use a more conservative estimate of Exposure at Default;
(v) Determining that a company must set a higher “alpha” under § 217.132(d)(2)(iv)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(2)(iv)(C)) based on the company's specific characteristics of and counterparty credit risk or model performance;
(vi) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(3)) to calculate the distributions of exposures upon which the EAD calculation is based;
(vii) Requiring a company under § 217.132(d)(3)(viii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(3)(viii)) to modify its stress calibration to better reflect actual historic losses of the portfolio;
(viii) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(5)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(5)(i)) to include the effect of a collateral agreement within an internal model used to calculate EAD;
(ix) Requiring a company under § 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C)) to set a longer holding period (for margin period of risk for a netting set that is subject to a collateral agreement) if the Director determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction;
(x) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(6)) to calculate alpha as the ratio of economic capital from a full simulation of counterparty exposure across counterparties that incorporates a joint simulation of market and credit risk factors (numerator) and economic capital based on EPE (denominator), subject to a floor of 1.2;
(xi) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(e) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)) to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amounts for a class of counterparties using the advanced CVA approach;
(xii) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(e)(6)(ii)(D) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)(6)(ii)(D)) to use a conservative estimate when determining LGDMKT; and
(xiii) Requiring a company under § 217.132(e)(6)(v)(B) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)(6)(v)(B)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the CVAstressed measure;
(2) Any model or approach relating to cleared transactions under §§ 217.122(d) and 217.133 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(d) and 217.133), including:
(i) Under § 217.133(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(1)) a company that is a clearing member to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP more frequently than quarterly if in the opinion of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP; and
(ii) Acting on a request under § 217.133(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(2)) for a company to use a risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to a CCP that is not a QCCP other than a 1,250 percent risk weight;
(3) Any model or approach relating to the double default treatment under §§ 217.122(e) and 217.135 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(e) and 217.135), including acting on a request by a company under § 217.135(a)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.135(a)(6)) to implement a process to detect excessive correlation between the creditworthiness of the obligor of a hedged exposure and a protection provider;
(4) A company's own internal estimates of market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility under § 217.145(b)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.145(b)(4)); and
(5) The internal models approach for equity exposures under §§ 217.122(f) and 217.153(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(f) and 217.153(b));
(B) Determine under § 217.131(e)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.131(e)(4)) whether a portfolio of exposures is or is not material; and
(C) Assess for purposes of § 217.141(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.141(c)(1)) whether a company has a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure.
(4) Delegations regarding market risk risk-weighted assets. (i) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to act regarding any model approval, disapproval, rescission, or supervision under subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F), including the authority to:
(A) Exclude from the definition of “covered position” structural foreign currency positions of a company, or any hedge of a trading position that is outside the scope of the company's hedging strategy, under § 217.202(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.202(b));
(B) Act on a request from a company under § 217.203(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.203(c)(1)) to approve its internal model(s) to calculate its risk-based capital requirement;
(C) Rescind approval under § 217.203(c)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.203(c)(3)) of a company's internal model(s) to calculate its risk-based capital requirement;
(D) Act on a request from a company under § 217.204(a)(2)(vi)(B) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.204(a)(2)(vi)(B)) to use alternative techniques to measure the risk of de minimis exposures;
(E) Act on a request from a company under § 217.204(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.204(b)(2)) to use a different adjustment of its VaR-based measure;
(F) Review and determine the appropriateness of a company's omission of risk factors under § 217.205(a)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(a)(4)) and the use of proxies under § 217.205(a)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(a)(5));
(G) Review and determine under § 217.205(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(b)(1)) the appropriateness of any conversions of VaR to other holding periods by a company;
(H) Review and determine under § 217.205(b)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(b)(2)(ii)) the appropriateness of a company's alternative weighting schemes;
(I) Approve or disapprove under § 217.205(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(c)) any requirements relating to a company's division of subportfolios;
(J) Approve or disapprove under § 217.206(b)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.206(b)(3)) any changes to a company's policies and procedures that describe how the company determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate its stressed VaR-based measure;
(K) Require a company under § 217.206(b)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.206(b)(4)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the stressed VaR-based measure;
(L) Act on a request by a company under § 217.208(a) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.208(a)) to include certain portfolios of equity positions in its incremental risk model;
(M) Act on a request by a company under § 217.209(a)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.209(a)(1)) to use the comprehensive risk approach for one or more portfolios of correlation trading positions and the related approval under § 217.209(a)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.209(a)(2)(ii)) regarding a company's comprehensive risk capital requirement;
(N) Determine under § 217.210(e)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.210(e)(3)) whether an index is a main index because the equities represented by the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard & Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index; and
(O) Determine under § 217.210(f)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.210(f)(1)) whether or not a company has demonstrated a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure.
[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023]
PART 266 LIMITATIONS ON ACTIVITIES OF FORMER MEMBERS AND EMPLOYEES OF THE BOARD
Authority: Sec. 11(i), Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(i)); 5 U.S.C. 552.
Source: 38 FR 31672, Nov. 16, 1973, unless otherwise noted.
§ 266.1 Basis and scope.
This part, issued under authority of section 11(i) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(i)), and pursuant to section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code, which requires that every agency shall publish in the Federal Register its rules of procedure, relates to limitations on former members and employees of the Board with respect to participation in matters connected with their former duties and official responsibilities while serving with the Board. 1
1 While the Board has not adopted rules with regard to the disclosure of unpublished information by former Board members and employees, it advises such persons not to disclose unpublished information of the Board obtained in the course of their work. Questions in this regard may be addressed to the General Counsel or the Secretary of the Board.
§ 266.2 Definitions.
(a) Employee means a regular officer or employee of the Board; it does not include a consultant to the Board. 2
2 While former consultants to the Board are not covered by these Rules, they appear to fall within the coverage of section 207 of the United States Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 207) that provides criminal penalties for engaging in activities similar, although not identical, to those described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 266.3.
(b) Official responsibility, with respect to a matter, means administrative, supervisory, or decisional authority, whether intermediate or final, exercisable alone or with others, personally or through subordinates, to approve, disapprove, decide, or recommend Board action or to express staff opinions in dealings with the public.
(c) Appear personally includes personal appearance or attendance before, or personal communication, either written or oral, with the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank of any member or employee thereof, or personal participation in the formulation or preparation of any material presented or communicated to, or filed with, the Board, in connection with any application or interpretation arising under the statutes or regulations administered by the Board or the Federal Reserve Banks, except that requests for general information or explanations of Board policy or interpretation shall not be construed to be a personal appearance.
§ 266.3 Limitations.
(a) Matters on which Board member or employee worked. No former member or employee of the Board shall appear personally before the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of anyone other than the United States, an agency thereof, or a Federal Reserve Bank, in connection with any judicial or other proceedings, application, request for ruling or determination, or other particular matter involving a specific party or parties in which the United States, an agency thereof, or a Federal Reserve Bank is also a party or has a direct and substantial interest and in which he participated personally and substantially as a member or employee of the Board through approval, disapproval, decision, recommendation, advice, investigation or otherwise.
(b) Matters within Board member or employee's official responsibility. No former member or employee of the Board shall appear personally before the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of anyone other than the United States, an agency thereof, or a Federal Reserve Bank, in connection with any judicial or other proceeding, application, request for ruling or determination, or other particular matter involving a specific party or parties in which the United States, an agency thereof, or a Federal Reserve Bank is also a party or has a direct and substantial interest, and which matter was in process during his tenure of office or period of employment and under his official Board responsibility, at any time within a period of one year after the termination of such responsibility.
(c) Consultation as to propriety of appearance before the Board. Any former member or employee of the Board who wishes to personally appear before the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of any party other than the United States or an agency thereof or a Federal Reserve Bank at any time within two years from termination of employment with the Board is advised to consult the General Counsel or the Secretary of the Board as to the propriety of such appearance.
(d) Rulemaking proceedings. Nothing in this section shall preclude a former member or employee of the Board from representing another person in any Board or Federal Reserve Bank proceeding governed by a rule, regulation, standard, or policy of the Board solely by reason of the fact that such former member or employee participated in or had official responsibility in the formation or adoption of such rule, regulation, standard, or policy.
(e) Effective date. This part shall become effective November 6, 1973. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the limitations of this part shall not apply to any activities with respect to a specific matter before the Board in which any former Board member or employee may be engaged on September 21, 1973, the date of publication of this part, until the expiration of 60 days following the effective date of this part or of such additional period as the Secretary of the Board may determine to be appropriate in order to avoid inequity.
§ 266.4 Suspension of appearance privilege.
If any person knowingly and willfully fails to comply with the provisions of this part, the Board may decline to permit such person to appear personally before it or a Federal Reserve Bank for such periods of time as it may determine and may impose such other sanctions as the Board may deem just and proper.
§ 266.5 Criminal penalties.
Any former member or employee of the Board who engages in actions in contravention of paragraph (a) or (b) of § 266.3 may be subject to criminal penalties for violation of section 207 of the United States Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 207).
PART 267 PROCEDURES FOR DEBT COLLECTION
Authority: 5 U.S.C. 5514; 12 U.S.C. 244, 248; 31 U.S.C. 3711, 3716, 3717, 3720A, 3720D.
Source: 84 FR 15503, Apr. 16, 2019, unless otherwise noted.
§ 267.1 Purpose and scope.
This part establishes Board procedures for the collection of certain debts owed to the United States.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this part applies to collections by the Board from persons, organizations, or entities indebted to the United States.
(b) This part does not apply to any debts whose collection is exclusively provided for or prohibited by another statute or applicable regulation, or to any debt of a current Board employee or other debtor where the Board has chosen to proceed solely under its existing internal debt collection policy. This part does not in any way limit or affect the Board's authority under 12 U.S.C. 244 and 12 U.S.C. 248. Nothing in this part precludes the collection of debts through any other legally-available means, or precludes the Board from engaging in litigation as provided under 12 U.S.C. 248(p), 1818(i), or any other applicable law.
(c) When the Board determines to collect a debt using the procedures under these regulations, in addition to the procedures set forth in this part and subject to paragraph (b) of this section, the Board shall also follow, as applicable, the procedures set forth in 31 CFR part 285 and the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) (31 CFR chapter IX and parts 900 through 904) for the collection of debts owed to the United States.
(d) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3711 et seq.), the FCCS, or any other applicable law, including rules, regulations, and policies adopted by the Board pursuant to authority granted to it under the Federal Reserve Act.
(e) Nothing in this part shall create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by a party against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or any other person, nor shall the Board's failure to comply with any of the provisions of this part be available to any debtor as a defense. Nothing in this part shall permit a debtor to collaterally attack a final administrative decision rendered under any other applicable statute or regulation, or a judgment by a competent court.
§ 267.2 Definitions.
Except where the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following definitions shall apply to this part.
Administrative offset means withholding funds payable by the United States to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a claim.
Agency incudes all executive departments and agencies or instrumentalities in the executive branch, and any other entity referenced in 5 U.S.C. 5514(a)(5)(B).
Board means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
Centralized offset is an offset initiated by referral to the Secretary of the Treasury (including a debt collection center designated by the Department of the Treasury) by a creditor agency of a debt for purposes of collection under the Treasury's centralized offset program.
Debt or claim means an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by a Board official, in connection with the operational or regulatory activities of the Board, to be owed to the United States from any person, organization or entity (except another Federal entity), including any type of debt referenced in 31 U.S.C. 3701(b). For purposes of this part, a debt or claim owed to the Board, including a debt or claim for repayment of Board-funded benefits administered through the Office of Employee Benefits of the Federal Reserve System, is a debt owed to the United States. A debt does not include any amounts owed by a current Board employee that the Board chooses to collect solely under its debt collection policy.
Debtor means a person who owes a debt, and includes any individual, organization, or entity except another agency.
Delinquent, with respect to a debt or claim, shall have the meaning given to such term at 31 CFR 900.2(b).
Eligible, with respect to a debt or claim, means that referral of the debt or claim for collection is not precluded by any statute or regulation, or by any guidance issued by the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Garnishment means the process of withholding amounts from the disposable pay of a person employed outside the Federal Government, and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order.
Salary offset means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of a Federal employee without his or her consent.
§ 267.3 Referral of debts for collection action, including offset.
(a) In general. To the extent not inconsistent with any applicable law or with any rule, regulation, or policy adopted by the Board in the exercise of authority granted to it under the Federal Reserve Act, the Board will refer debts covered by this regulation and which are eligible debts over 120 days delinquent to which this part applies to the U.S. Department of the Treasury for appropriate debt collection action, including but not limited to centralized offset, and offset of tax refunds. The Board may also refer any eligible debt less than 120 days delinquent to the U.S. Department of the Treasury for appropriate collection action.
(b) Proceedings prior to referral. At least 60 days prior to referring a debt in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the Board will send the debtor the notice described in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4)(ii)(A), and afford the debtor the procedural protections described in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4)(ii)(B) and 31 U.S.C. 3720A(b). However, the Board is not required to duplicate any prior notice or review opportunities that it has already afforded the debtor prior to referral.
(c) Non-centralized offset. The Board may request an agency other than the U.S. Department of the Treasury to conduct non-centralized offset. Except in the situations described in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4)(iii)(A)-(C), the Board will follow the procedures described in paragraph (b) of this section prior to making such a request. When making the request, the Board will certify in writing to the paying agency that the debtor owes the past due, legally enforceable delinquent debt in the amount stated, and that the Board has fully complied with these regulations.
§ 267.4 Administrative wage garnishment.
The Board may collect debts, or refer debts for collection, from the wages of persons employed outside of the Federal Government by administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D. Prior to such garnishment, the debtor will be provided a hearing in accordance with the procedures described at 31 CFR 285.11(f).
§ 267.5 Salary offset.
(a) Applicability. (1) This section covers government-wide collection of a delinquent debt by administrative offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514 from salary payments of federal government employees other than current Board employees.
(2) This section does not apply where an employee consents to the recovery of a debt from his or her federal government salary.
(b) Notice. A Federal Government employee from whom the Board proposes to collect a debt under this section will be provided written notice from the Board at least 30 days before any deductions begin. Such notice will state:
(1) The Board's determination that a debt is owed, including the origin, nature, and amount of that debt;
(2) The Board's intention to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's disposable pay (as defined in 5 CFR 550.1103);
(3) The frequency and amount of the intended deduction (stated as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of pay), and the Board's intention to continue the deductions until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved;
(4) An explanation of the Board's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, including a statement that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the Federal Claims Collections Standards published in 31 CFR parts 900 through 904;
(5) The employee's right to inspect and copy Government records relating to the debt or, if the employee or his or her representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive a copy of such records;
(6) If not previously provided, the opportunity (under terms agreeable to Board) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or to enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset;
(7) The employee's right to a hearing conducted by an official arranged by the Board if a petition is filed as prescribed by the Board;
(8) The method and time period for petitioning for a hearing, including the contact information of the official to whom such a petition should be sent;
(9) That the timely filing of a petition for a hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;
(10) That a final decision on the hearing (if one is requested) will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
(11) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under chapter 75 of title 5, United States Code, part 752 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;
(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, sections 3729 through 3731 of title 31, United States Code, or any other applicable statutory authority; or
(iii) Criminal penalties under sections 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 of title 18, United States Code or any other applicable statutory authority.
(12) Any other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and
(13) Unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, that amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee.
(c) Petitions for hearing—(1) Time to petition. A Federal Government employee from whom the Board proposes to collect a debt under this section may request a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt or the offset schedule established by the Board by sending a written petition addressed to the official designated in the notice described in paragraph (b) of this section on or before the fifteenth day following receipt of such notice. A hearing will be granted on a petition that is not filed within such period only if the petitioner shows that the delay was because of circumstances beyond his or her control or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless otherwise aware of it). In all other cases of late or non-filing of such a petition, the employee will be deemed to have waived the right to a hearing and will be subject to salary offset under this section.
(2) Contents of petition. The petition must:
(i) Be signed by the employee;
(ii) State why the employee believes the Board's determination concerning the existence of amount of the debt is in error;
(iii) Fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence and witnesses, if any, which the employee believes support his or her position.
(iv) Specify, if the employee desires an oral hearing, why the matter cannot be resolved by a paper hearing, which is a determination based upon a review of a written record, for example, because the existence or amount of the debt depends on the hearing official's determination of the credibility of witnesses.
(d) Form of hearings—(1) Hearing official. A hearing under this section will be conducted by an administrative law judge or another individual not under the supervision or control of the Board.
(2) Notice of hearing. After the employee requests a hearing, the hearing official must issue a notice to the employee and the Board of the type of hearing that will occur. If an oral hearing will occur, the notice will state the date, time, and location of the hearing. If a paper hearing will occur, the employee and the Board will be notified and required to submit evidence and arguments in writing to the hearing official by the date specified in the notice, after which the record will be closed. The employee's failure to appear for an oral hearing or timely submit evidence and arguments as provided for in the notice will be deemed a waiver of the right to a hearing unless the hearing official determines that the failure was due to good cause shown.
(3) Oral hearing. An employee who requests an oral hearing under this section will be provided such a hearing if the hearing official determines that the matter cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone because an issue of credibility or veracity is involved. Where an oral hearing is appropriate, the hearing need not take the form of an evidentiary hearing, as long as both the employee and the Board are afforded a reasonable opportunity to present their case. Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:
(i) Informal meetings in which the employee and Board representative are given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;
(ii) Informal meetings in which the hearing official interviews the employee and Board representative; or
(iii) Formal written submissions with an opportunity for oral presentation.
(4) Paper hearing. If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she will make the determination based upon a review of the formal written record, including any documentation submitted by the employee or the Board.
(5) Record. The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.
(e) Decision on hearing. Unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings, at the earliest practicable date, but in any event no later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing, the hearing official will issue a written decision to the employee. The decision will state the Board's position concerning the existence and amount of the debt, facts purporting to evidence the nature and origin of the alleged debt, the hearing official's analysis, findings and conclusions, in light of the hearing, as to the employee's and/or Board's grounds, the amount and validity of the debt as determined by the hearing official, and the repayment schedule, if not established by written agreement between the employee and the Board. If the hearing official determines that a debt may not be collected under this section, but the Board finds that the debt is still valid, the Board may still seek collection of the debt through other means, including but not limited to offset of other Federal payments.
(f) Deductions under this section. The method of collection under this section is salary offset from disposable pay (as defined in 5 CFR 550.1103), except as described in this paragraph. The size of installment deductions shall ordinarily bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted for any period under this section may not exceed 15 percent of disposable pay, unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount or a higher deduction has been ordered by a court under section 124 of Public Law 97-276 (97 stat. 1195). Ordinarily, debts must be collected in one lump sum where possible. However, if the employee is financially unable to pay in one lump sum or the amount of the debt exceeds 15 percent of disposable pay (or other applicable limitation as provided in this paragraph) for an officially established pay interval, collection must be made in installments. Such installment deductions must be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of active duty or employment, as the case may be, except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
(g) Separating or separated employees. If the employee retires or resigns or if his or her employment or period of active duty ends before collection of the debt is completed, offset may be performed under 31 U.S.C. 3716 from subsequent payments of any nature (e.g. final salary payment, lump-sum leave, etc.) due the employee from the paying agency as of the date of separation to the extent necessary to liquidate the debt. Such offset may also be performed where appropriate against later payments of any kind due the former employee from the United States if the debt cannot be liquidated by offset from any final payment due the former employee as of the date of separation. Nothing in this section shall affect any limitation on alienation of benefits administered by the Federal Reserve System's Office of Employee Benefits.
(h) Non-waiver and refunds of payments. An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected under 5 U.S.C. 5514 must not be construed as a waiver of any rights which the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary. Any amounts paid or deducted under this section will be promptly refunded when a debt is waived or otherwise found not owing to the United States (unless expressly prohibited by statute or regulation), or the employee's paying agency is directed by an administrative or judicial order to refund amounts deducted from his or her current pay. Refunds do not bear interest unless required or permitted by law or contract.
§ 267.6 Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.
Except with respect to debts referenced in 31 U.S.C. 3717(g), the Board will charge interest, costs, and a six percent penalty on debts covered by this regulation in accordance with 31 CFR 901.9. The Board will not impose interest charges on the portion of the debt that is paid within 30 days after the date on which interest began to accrue, nor impose penalty charges on the portion of the debt that is paid within 90 days after the date on which penalty began to accrue. The Board will not impose any charges during periods during which collection activity has been suspended pending any review provided for in this part if the reviewing official determines that collection of such charges is against equity and good conscience or is not in the best interest of the United States. The Board may, in its discretion, also waive interest, penalties, and cost charges for good cause shown by the debtor (for example, the debtor is unable to pay any significant portion of the debt within a reasonable period of time, or collection of these charges will jeopardize collection of the principal of the debt) or otherwise as authorized in 31 CFR 901.9(g) and 902.2.
PART 268 RULES REGARDING EQUAL OPPORTUNITY
Authority: 12 U.S.C. 244 and 248(i), (k) and (1).
Source: 68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions and Administration
§ 268.1 Authority, purpose and scope.
(a) Authority. The regulations in this part (12 CFR part 268) are issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under the authority of sections 10(4) and 11(i), (k), and (l) of the Federal Reserve Act (partially codified in 12 U.S.C. 244 and 248(i), (k) and (1)).
(b) Purpose and scope. This part sets forth the Board's policy, program and procedures for providing equal opportunity to Board employees and applicants for employment without regard to race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. It also sets forth the Board's policy, program and procedures for prohibiting discrimination on the basis of disability in programs and activities conducted by the Board.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27028, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.2 Definitions.
The definitions contained in this section shall have the following meanings throughout this part unless otherwise stated.
(a) Commission or EEOC means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
(b) Title VII means title VII of the Civil Rights Act (42 U.S.C. 2000e et seq.).
Subpart B Board Program To Promote Equal Opportunity
§ 268.101 General policy for equal opportunity.
(a) It is the policy of the Board to provide equal opportunity in employment for all persons, to prohibit discrimination in employment because of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information and to promote the full realization of equal opportunity in employment through a continuing affirmative program.
(b) No person shall be subject to retaliation for opposing any practice made unlawful by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (title VII) (42 U.S.C. 2000e et seq.), the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) (29 U.S.C. 621 et seq.), the Equal Pay Act (29 U.S.C. 206(d)), the Rehabilitation Act (29 U.S.C. 791 et seq.), or the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) (42 U.S.C. 2000ff et seq.) or for participating in any stage of administrative or judicial proceedings under those statutes.
[84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.102 Board program for equal employment opportunity.
(a) The Board shall maintain a continuing affirmative program to promote equal opportunity and to identify and eliminate discriminatory practices and policies. In support of this program, the Board shall:
(1) Provide sufficient resources to its equal opportunity program to ensure efficient and successful operation;
(2) Provide for the prompt, fair and impartial processing of complaints in accordance with this part and the instructions contained in the Commission's Management Directives;
(3) Conduct a continuing campaign to eradicate every form of prejudice or discrimination from the Board's personnel policies, practices and working conditions;
(4) Communicate the Board's equal employment opportunity policy and program and its employment needs to all sources of job candidates without regard to race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age disability, or genetic information, and solicit their recruitment assistance on a continuing basis;
(5) Review, evaluate and control managerial and supervisory performance in such a manner as to insure a continuing affirmative application and vigorous enforcement of the policy of equal opportunity, and provide orientation, training and advice to managers and supervisors to assure their understanding and implementation of the equal employment opportunity policy and program;
(6) Take appropriate disciplinary action against employees who engage in discriminatory practices;
(7) Make reasonable accommodation to the religious needs of employees and applicants for employment when those accommodations can be made without undue hardship on the business of the Board;
(8) Make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of qualified applicants and employees with a disability unless the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operations of the Board's program;
(9) Provide recognition to employees, supervisors, managers and units demonstrating superior accomplishment in equal employment opportunity;
(10) Establish a system for periodically evaluating the effectiveness of the Board's overall equal employment opportunity effort;
(11) Provide the maximum feasible opportunity to employees to enhance their skills through on-the-job training, work-study programs and other training measures so that they may perform at their highest potential and advance in accordance with their abilities;
(12) Inform its employees and recognized labor organizations of the Board's affirmative equal opportunity policy and program and enlist their cooperation; and
(13) Participate at the community level with other employers, with schools and universities and with other public and private groups in cooperative action to improve employment opportunities and community conditions that affect employability.
(b) In order to implement its program, the Board shall:
(1) Develop the plans, procedures and regulations necessary to carry out its program.
(2) Establish or make available an alternative dispute resolution program. Such program must be available for both the precomplaint process and the formal complaint process.
(3) Appraise its personnel operations at regular intervals to assure their conformity with the Board's program, this part and the instructions contained in the Commission's management directives relating to advice for ensuring compliance with the provisions of title VII, the Equal Pay Act, the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, GINA, and the Rehabilitation Act.
(4) Designate a Director for Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO Programs Director), EEO Officer(s), and such Special Emphasis Program Managers/Coordinators (e.g., People with Disabilities Program, Federal Women's Program and Hispanic Employment Program), clerical and administrative support as may be necessary to carry out the functions described in this part in all organizational units of the Board and at all Board installations. The EEO Programs Director shall be under the immediate supervision of the Chair. The EEO Programs Director may also serve as the Director of the Office of Diversity and Inclusion.
(5) Make written materials available to all employees and applicants informing them of the variety of equal employment opportunity programs and administrative and judicial remedial procedures available to them and prominently post such written materials in all personnel and EEO offices and throughout the workplace.
(6) Ensure that full cooperation is provided by all Board employees to EEO Counselors and Board EEO personnel in the processing and resolution of pre-complaint matters and complaints within the Board and that full cooperation is provided to the Commission in the course of appeals, including, granting the Commission routine access to personnel records of the Board when required in connection with an investigation.
(7) Publicize to all employees and post at all times the names, business telephone numbers and business addresses of the EEO Counselors (unless the counseling function is centralized, in which case only the telephone number and address need be publicized and posted), a notice of the time limits and necessity of contacting a Counselor before filing a complaint and the telephone numbers and addresses of the EEO Programs Director, EEO Officer(s) and the Special Emphasis Program Managers/Coordinators.
(c) The EEO Programs Director shall be responsible for:
(1) Advising the Board of Governors with respect to the preparation of national and regional equal employment opportunity plans, procedures, regulations, reports and other matters pertaining to the policy in § 268.101 and the Board's program;
(2) Evaluating from time to time the sufficiency of the total Board program for equal employment opportunity and reporting to the Board of Governors with recommendations as to any improvement or correction needed, including remedial or disciplinary action with respect to managerial, supervisory or other employees who have failed in their responsibilities;
(3) When authorized by the Board of Governors, making changes in programs and procedures designed to eliminate discriminatory practices and to improve the Board's program for equal employment opportunity;
(4) Providing for counseling of aggrieved individuals and for the receipt and processing of individual and class complaints of discrimination; and
(5) Assuring that individual complaints are fairly and thoroughly investigated and that final action is taken in a timely manner in accordance with this part.
(d) Directives, instructions, forms and other Commission materials referenced in this part may be obtained in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR 1610.7.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.103 Complaints of discrimination covered by this part.
(a) Individual and class complaints of employment discrimination and retaliation prohibited by title VII (discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex and national origin), the ADEA (discrimination on the basis of age when the aggrieved person is at least 40 years of age), the Rehabilitation Act (discrimination on the basis of disability), the Equal Pay Act (sex-based wage discrimination), or GINA (discrimination on the basis of genetic information) shall be processed in accordance with this part. Complaints alleging retaliation prohibited by the statutes listed in this paragraph (a) are considered to be complaints of discrimination for purposes of this part.
(b) This part applies to all Board employees and applicants for employment at the Board, and to all employment policies or practices affecting Board employees or applicants for employment.
(c) This part does not apply to Equal Pay Act complaints of employees whose services are performed within a foreign country or certain United States territories as provided in 29 U.S.C. 213(f).
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.104 Pre-complaint processing.
(a) Aggrieved persons who believe they have been discriminated against on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information must consult a Counselor prior to filing a complaint in order to try to informally resolve the matter.
(1) An aggrieved person must initiate contact with a Counselor within 45 days of the date of the matter alleged to be discriminatory or, in the case of a personnel action, within 45 days of the effective date of the action.
(2) The Board or the Commission shall extend the 45-day time limit in paragraph (a)(1) of this section when the individual shows that he or she was not notified of the time limits and was not otherwise aware of them, that he or she did not know and reasonably should not have known that the discriminatory matter or personnel action occurred, that despite due diligence he or she was prevented by circumstances beyond his or her control from contacting the counselor within the time limits, or for other reasons considered sufficient by the Board or the Commission.
(b)(1) At the initial counseling session, Counselors must advise individuals in writing of their rights and responsibilities, including the right to request a hearing or an immediate final decision after an investigation by the Board in accordance with § 268.107(f), election rights pursuant to § 268.302, the right to file a notice of intent to sue pursuant to § 268.201(a) and a lawsuit under the ADEA instead of an administrative complaint of age discrimination under this part, the duty to mitigate damages, administrative and court time frames, and that only the claims raised in precomplaint counseling (or issues or claims like or related to issues or claims raised in pre-complaint counseling) may be alleged in a subsequent complaint filed with the Board. Counselors must advise individuals of their duty to keep the Board and the Commission informed of their current address and to serve copies of appeal papers on the Board. The notice required by paragraphs (d) or (e) of this section shall include a notice of the right to file a class complaint. If the aggrieved person informs the Counselor that he or she wishes to file a class complaint, the Counselor shall explain the class complaint procedures and the responsibilities of a class agent.
(2) Counselors shall advise aggrieved persons that, where the Board agrees to offer ADR in the particular case, they may choose between participation in the alternative dispute resolution program and the counseling activities provided for in paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) Counselors shall conduct counseling activities in accordance with instructions contained in Commission Management Directives. When advised that a complaint has been filed by an aggrieved person, the Counselor shall submit a written report within 15 days to the EEO Programs Director and the aggrieved person concerning the issues discussed and actions taken during counseling.
(d) Unless the aggrieved person agrees to a longer counseling period under paragraph (e) of this section, or the aggrieved person chooses an alternative dispute resolution procedure in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Counselor shall conduct the final interview with the aggrieved person within 30 days of the date the aggrieved person contacted the Board's Office of Diversity and Inclusion to request counseling. If the matter has not been resolved, the aggrieved person shall be informed in writing by the Counselor, not later than the thirtieth day after contacting the Counselor, of the right to file a discrimination complaint with the Board. This notice shall inform the complainant of the right to file a discrimination complaint within 15 days of receipt of the notice, of the appropriate official with whom to file a complaint and of the complainant's duty to assure that the Programs Director is informed immediately if the complainant retains counsel or a representative.
(e) Prior to the end of the 30-day period, the aggrieved person may agree in writing with the Board to postpone the final interview and extend the counseling period for an additional period of no more than 60 days. If the matter has not been resolved before the conclusion of the agreed extension, the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section shall be issued.
(f) Where the aggrieved person chooses to participate in an alternative dispute resolution procedure in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the pre-complaint processing period shall be 90 days. If the claim has not been resolved before the 90th day, the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section shall be issued.
(g) The Counselor shall not attempt in any way to restrain the aggrieved person from filing a complaint. The Counselor shall not reveal the identity of an aggrieved person who consulted the Counselor, except when authorized to do so by the aggrieved person, or until the Board has received a discrimination complaint under this part from that person involving the same matter.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.105 Individual complaints.
(a) A complaint must be filed with the agency that allegedly discriminated against the complainant.
(b) A complaint must be filed within 15 days of receipt of the notice required by § 268.104 (d), (e) or (f).
(c) A complaint must contain a signed statement from the person claiming to be aggrieved or that person's attorney. This statement must be sufficiently precise to identify the aggrieved individual and the Board and to describe generally the action(s) or practice(s) that form the basis of the complaint. The complaint must also contain a telephone number and address where the complainant or the representative can be contacted.
(d) A complainant may amend a complaint at any time prior to the conclusion of the investigation to include issues or claims like or related to those raised in the complaint. After requesting a hearing, a complainant may file a motion with the administrative judge to amend a complaint to include issues or claims like or related to those raised in the complaint.
(e) The Board shall acknowledge receipt of a complaint or an amendment to a complaint in writing and inform the complainant of the date on which the complaint or amendment was filed. The Board shall advise the complainant in the acknowledgment of the EEOC office and its address where a request for a hearing shall be sent. Such acknowledgment shall also advise the complainant that:
(1) The complainant has the right to appeal the final action on or dismissal of a complaint; and
(2) The Board is required to conduct an impartial and appropriate investigation of the complaint within 180 days of the filing of the complaint unless the parties agree in writing to extend the time period. When a complaint has been amended, the Board shall complete its investigation within the earlier of 180 days after the last amendment to the complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, except that the complainant may request a hearing from an administrative judge on the consolidated complaints any time after 180 days from the date of the first filed complaint.
§ 268.106 Dismissals of complaints.
(a) Prior to a request for a hearing in a case, the Board shall dismiss an entire complaint:
(1) That fails to state a claim under § 268.103 or § 268.105(a), or states the same claim that is pending before or has been decided by the Board or the Commission;
(2) That fails to comply with the applicable time limits contained in §§ 268.104, 268.105 and 268.204(c), unless the Board extends the time limits in accordance with § 268.604(c), or that raises a matter that has not been brought to the attention of a Counselor and is not like or related to a matter that has been brought to the attention of a Counselor;
(3) That is the basis of a pending civil action in a United States District Court in which the complainant is a party provided that at least 180 days have passed since the filing of the administrative complaint, or that was the basis of a civil action decided by a United States District Court in which the complainant was a party;
(4) [Reserved]
(5) That is moot or alleges that a proposal to take a personnel action, or other preliminary step to taking a personnel action, is discriminatory, unless the complaint alleges that the proposal or preliminary step is retaliatory;
(6) Where the complainant cannot be located, provided that reasonable efforts have been made to locate the complainant and the complainant has not responded within 15 days to a notice of proposed dismissal sent to his or her last known address;
(7) Where the Board has provided the complainant with a written request to provide relevant information or otherwise proceed with the complaint, and the complainant has failed to respond to the request within 15 days of its receipt or the complainant's response does not address the Board's request, provided that the request included a notice of the proposed dismissal. Instead of dismissing for failure to cooperate, the complaint may be adjudicated if sufficient information for that purpose is available;
(8) That alleges dissatisfaction with the processing of a previously filed complaint; or
(9) Where the Board, strictly applying the criteria set forth in Commission decisions, finds that the complaint is part of a clear pattern of misuse of the EEO process for a purpose other than the prevention and elimination of employment discrimination. A clear pattern of misuse of the EEO process requires:
(i) Evidence of multiple complaint filings; and
(ii) Allegations that are similar or identical, lack specificity or involve matters previously resolved; or
(iii) Evidence of circumventing other administrative processes, retaliating against the Board's in-house administrative processes or overburdening the EEO complaint system.
(b) Where the Board believes that some but not all of the claims in a complaint should be dismissed for the reasons contained in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section, the Board shall notify the complainant in writing of its determination, the rationale for that determination and that those claims will not be investigated, and shall place a copy of the notice in the investigative file. A determination under this paragraph is reviewable by an administrative judge if a hearing is requested on the remainder of the complaint, but is not appealable until final action is taken on the remainder of the complaint.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.107 Investigation of complaints.
(a) The investigation of complaints filed against the Board shall be conducted by the Board.
(b) In accordance with instructions contained in Commission Management Directives, the Board shall develop an impartial and appropriate factual record upon which to make findings on the claims raised by the written complaint. An appropriate factual record is one that allows a reasonable fact finder to draw conclusions as to whether discrimination occurred. The Board may use an exchange of letters or memoranda, interrogatories, investigations, fact-finding conferences or any other fact-finding methods that efficiently and thoroughly address the matters at issue. The Board may incorporate alternative dispute resolution techniques into its investigative efforts in order to promote early resolution of complaints.
(c) The procedures in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section apply to the investigation of complaints:
(1) The complainant, the Board, and any employee of the Board shall produce such documentary and testimonial evidence as the investigator deems necessary.
(2) Investigators are authorized to administer oaths. Statements of witnesses shall be made under oath or affirmation or, alternatively, by written statement under penalty of perjury.
(3) When the complainant, or the Board or its employees fail without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to requests for documents, records, comparative data, statistics, affidavits or the attendance of witness(es), the investigator may note in the investigative record that the decisionmaker should, or the Commission on appeal may, in appropriate circumstances:
(i) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information, or the testimony of the requested witness, would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information;
(ii) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party;
(iii) Exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information or witness;
(iv) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or
(v) Take such other actions as it deems appropriate.
(d) Any investigation will be conducted by investigators with appropriate security clearances.
(e)(1) The Board shall complete its investigation within 180 days of the date of filing of an individual complaint or within the time period contained in an order from the Office of Federal Operations on an appeal from a dismissal pursuant to § 268.106. By written agreement within those time periods, the complainant and the Board may voluntarily extend the time period for not more than an additional 90 days. The Board may unilaterally extend the time period or any period of extension for not more than 30 days where it must sanitize a complaint file that may contain information classified pursuant to Executive Order No. 12356, or successor orders, as secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, provided the Board notifies the complainant of the extension.
(2) Confidential supervisory information, as defined in 12 CFR 261.2(c), and other confidential information of the Board may be included in the investigative file by the investigator, the EEO Programs Director, or another appropriate officer of the Board, where such information is relevant to the complaint. Neither the complainant nor the complainant's personal representative may make further disclosure of such information, however, except in compliance with the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information, 12 CFR part 261, and where applicable, the Board's Rules Regarding Access to Personal Information under the Privacy Act of 1974, 12 CFR part 261a. Any party or individual, including an investigator, who requires access to FOMC information must agree to abide by the Program for Security of FOMC Information before being granted access to such information.
(f) Within 180 days from the filing of the complaint, or where a complaint was amended, within the earlier of 180 days after the last amendment to the complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, within the time period contained in an order from the Office of Federal Operations on an appeal from a dismissal, or within any period of extension provided for in paragraph (e) of this section, the Board shall provide the complainant with a copy of the investigative file, and shall notify the complainant that, within 30 days of receipt of the investigative file, the complainant has the right to request a hearing and decision from an administrative judge or may request an immediate final decision pursuant to § 268.109(b) from the Board.
(g) If the Board does not send the notice required in paragraph (f) of this section within the applicable time limits, it shall, within those same time limits, issue a written notice to the complainant informing the complainant that it has been unable to complete its investigation within the time limits required by paragraph (f) and estimating a date by which the investigation will be completed. Further, the notice must explain that if the complainant does not want to wait until the agency completes the investigation, he or she may request a hearing in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section, or file a civil action in an appropriate United States District Court in accordance with § 268.406(b). Such notice shall contain information about the hearing procedures.
(h) Where the complainant has received the notice required in paragraph (f) of this section or at any time after 180 days have elapsed from the filing of the complaint, the complainant may request a hearing by submitting a written request for a hearing directly to the EEOC office indicated in the Board's acknowledgment letter. The complainant shall send a copy of the request for a hearing to the Board's EEO Programs Office. Within 15 days of receipt of the request for a hearing, the Board's EEO Programs Office shall provide a copy of the complaint file to EEOC and, if not previously provided, to the complainant.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.108 Hearings.
(a) When a complainant requests a hearing, the Commission shall appoint an administrative judge to conduct a hearing in accordance with this section. Upon appointment, the administrative judge shall assume full responsibility for the adjudication of the complaint, including overseeing the development of the record. Any hearing will be conducted by an administrative judge or hearing examiner with appropriate security clearances.
(b) Dismissals. Administrative judges may dismiss complaints pursuant to § 268.106, on their own initiative, after notice to the parties, or upon the Board's motion to dismiss a complaint.
(c) Offer of resolution. (1) Any time after the filing of the written complaint but not later than the date an administrative judge is appointed to conduct a hearing, the Board may make an offer of resolution to a complainant who is represented by an attorney.
(2) Any time after the parties have received notice that an administrative judge has been appointed to conduct a hearing, but not later than 30 days prior to the hearing, the Board may make an offer of resolution to the complainant, whether represented by an attorney or not.
(3) The offer of resolution shall be in writing and shall include a notice explaining the possible consequences of failing to accept the offer. The Board's offer, to be effective, must include attorney's fees and costs and must specify any non-monetary relief. With regard to monetary relief, the Board may make a lump sum offer covering all forms of monetary liability, or it may itemize the amounts and types of monetary relief being offered. The complainant shall have 30 days from receipt of the offer of resolution to accept it. If the complainant fails to accept an offer of resolution and the relief awarded in the administrative judge's decision, the Board's final decision, or the Commission's decision on appeal is not more favorable than the offer, then, except where the interest of justice would not be served, the complainant shall not receive payment from the Board of attorney's fees or costs incurred after the expiration of the 30-day acceptance period. An acceptance of an offer must be in writing and will be timely if postmarked or received within the 30-day period. Where a complainant fails to accept an offer of resolution, the Board may make other offers of resolution and either party may seek to negotiate a settlement of the complaint at any time.
(d) Discovery. The administrative judge shall notify the parties of the right to seek discovery prior to the hearing and may issue such discovery orders as are appropriate. Unless the parties agree in writing concerning the methods and scope of discovery, the party seeking discovery shall request authorization from the administrative judge prior to commencing discovery. Both parties are entitled to reasonable development of evidence on matters relevant to the issues raised in the complaint, but the administrative judge may limit the quantity and timing of discovery. Evidence may be developed through interrogatories, depositions, and requests for admissions, stipulations or production of documents. It shall be grounds for objection to producing evidence that the information sought by either party is irrelevant, overburdensome, repetitious, or privileged.
(e) Conduct of hearing. The Board shall provide for the attendance at a hearing of all employees approved as witnesses by an administrative judge. Attendance at hearings will be limited to persons determined by the administrative judge to have direct knowledge relating to the complaint. Hearings are part of the investigative process and are thus closed to the public. The administrative judge shall have the power to regulate the conduct of a hearing, limit the number of witnesses where testimony would be repetitious, and exclude any person from the hearing for contumacious conduct or misbehavior that obstructs the hearing. The administrative judge shall receive into evidence information or documents relevant to the complaint. Rules of evidence shall not be applied strictly, but the administrative judge shall exclude irrelevant or repetitious evidence. The administrative judge or the Commission may refer to the Disciplinary Committee of the appropriate Bar Association any attorney or, upon reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard, suspend or disqualify from representing complainants or agencies in EEOC hearings any representative who refuses to follow the orders of an administrative judge, or who otherwise engages in improper conduct.
(f) Procedures. (1) The complainant, the Board and any employee of the Board shall produce such documentary and testimonial evidence as the administrative judge deems necessary. The administrative judge shall serve all orders to produce evidence on both parties.
(2) Administrative judges are authorized to administer oaths. Statements of witnesses shall be made under oath or affirmation or, alternatively, by written statement under penalty of perjury.
(3) When the complainant, or the Board, or its employees fail without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to an order of an administrative judge, or requests for the investigative file, for documents, records, comparative data, statistics, affidavits, or the attendance of witness(es), the administrative judge shall, in appropriate circumstances:
(i) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information, or the testimony of the requested witness, would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information;
(ii) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party;
(iii) Exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information or witness;
(iv) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or
(v) Take such other actions as appropriate.
(g) Summary judgement. (1) If a party believes that some or all material facts are not in genuine dispute and there is no genuine issue as to credibility, the party may, at least 15 days prior to the date of the hearing or at such earlier time as required by the administrative judge, file a statement with the administrative judge prior to the hearing setting forth the fact or facts and referring to the parts of the record relied on to support the statement. The statement must demonstrate that there is no genuine issue as to any such material fact. The party shall serve the statement on the opposing party.
(2) The opposing party may file an opposition within 15 days of receipt of the statement in paragraph (g)(1) of this section. The opposition may refer to the record in the case to rebut the statement that a fact is not in dispute or may file an affidavit stating that the party cannot, for reasons stated, present facts to oppose the request. After considering the submissions, the administrative judge may order that discovery be permitted on the fact or facts involved, limit the hearing to the issues remaining in dispute, issue a decision without a hearing or make such other ruling as is appropriate.
(3) If the administrative judge determines upon his or her own initiative that some or all facts are not in genuine dispute, he or she may, after giving notice to the parties and providing them an opportunity to respond in writing within 15 calendar days, issue an order limiting the scope of the hearing or issue a decision without holding a hearing.
(h) Record of hearing. The hearing shall be recorded and the Board shall arrange and pay for verbatim transcripts. All documents submitted to, and accepted by, the administrative judge at the hearing shall be made part of the record of the hearing. If the Board submits a document that is accepted, it shall furnish a copy of the document to the complainant. If the complainant submits a document that is accepted, the administrative judge shall make the document available to the Board's representative for reproduction.
(i) Decisions by administrative judges. Unless the administrative judge makes a written determination that good cause exists for extending the time for issuing a decision, an administrative judge shall issue a decision on the complaint, and shall order appropriate remedies and relief where discrimination is found, within 180 days of receipt by the administrative judge of the complaint file from the Board. The administrative judge shall send copies of the hearing record, including the transcript, and the decision to the parties. If the Board does not issue a final order within 40 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision in accordance with § 268.109(a), then the decision of the administrative judge shall become the final action of the Board.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27030, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.109 Final action by the Board.
(a) Final action by the Board following a decision by an administrative judge. When an EEOC administrative judge has issued a decision under §§ 268.108(b), (g), or (i), the Board shall take final action on the complaint by issuing a final order within 40 days of receipt of the hearing file and the administrative judge's decision. The final order shall notify the complainant whether or not the Board will fully implement the decision of the administrative judge and shall contain notice of the complainant's right to appeal to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the right to file a civil action in federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. If the final order does not fully implement the decision of the administrative judge, then the Board shall simultaneously file an appeal in accordance with § 268.403 and append a copy of its appeal to the final order. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final order.
(b) Final action by the Board in all other circumstances. When the Board dismisses an entire complaint under § 268.106, receives a request for an immediate final decision or does not receive a reply to the notice issued under § 268.107(f), the Board shall take final action by issuing a final decision. The final decision shall consist of findings by the Board on the merits of each issue in the complaint, or, as appropriate, the rationale for dismissing any claims in the complaint and, when discrimination is found, appropriate remedies and relief in accordance with subpart F of this part. The Board shall issue the final decision within 60 days of receiving notification that a complainant has requested an immediate decision from the Board, or within 60 days of the end of the 30-day period for the complainant to request a hearing or an immediate final decision where the complainant has not requested either a hearing or a decision. The final action shall contain notice of the right to appeal the final action to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the right to file a civil action in federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final action. The Board may issue a final decision within 30 days after receiving a decision of the Commission pursuant to § 268.405(c) of this part.
Subpart C Provisions Applicable to Particular Complaints
§ 268.201 Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
(a) As an alternative to filing a complaint under this part, an aggrieved individual may file a civil action in a United States district court under the ADEA against the agency after giving the Commission not less than 30 days' notice of the intent to file such an action. Such notice must be filed in writing with EEOC, at P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013, or by personal delivery or facsimile within 180 days of the occurrence of the alleged unlawful practice.
(b) The Commission may exempt a position from the provisions of the ADEA if the Commission establishes a maximum age requirement for the position on the basis of a determination that age is a bona fide occupational qualification necessary to the performance of the duties of the position.
(c) When an individual has filed an administrative complaint alleging age discrimination, administrative remedies will be considered to be exhausted for purposes of filing a civil action:
(1) 180 days after the filing of an individual complaint if the Board has not taken final action and the individual has not filed an appeal or 180 days after the filing of a class complaint if the Board has not issued a final decision;
(2) After final action on an individual or class complaint if the individual has not filed an appeal; or
(3) After the issuance of a final decision by the Commission on an appeal or 180 days after the filing of an appeal, if the Commission has not issued a final decision.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27030, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.202 Equal Pay Act.
Complaints alleging violations of the Equal Pay Act shall be processed under this part.
§ 268.203 Rehabilitation Act.
(a) Definitions. The following definitions apply for purposes of this section:
(1) The term ADA means title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12101 through 12117), title V of the Americans with Disabilities Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12201 through 12213), as it applies to employment, and the regulations of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission implementing titles I and V of the ADA at 29 CFR part 1630.
(2) The term disability means disability as defined under 29 CFR 1630.2(g) through (l).
(3) The term hiring authority that takes disability into account means a hiring authority established under written Board policy that permits the Board to consider disability status during the hiring process.
(4) The term personal assistance service provider means an employee or independent contractor whose primary job functions include provision of personal assistance services.
(5) The term personal assistance services means assistance with performing activities of daily living that an individual would typically perform if he or she did not have a disability, and that is not otherwise required as a reasonable accommodation, including, for example, assistance with removing and putting on clothing, eating, and using the restroom.
(6) The term Plan means an affirmative action plan for the hiring, placement, and advancement of individuals with disabilities.
(7) [Reserved]
(8) The term Section 501 means section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 791).
(9) The term targeted disability means a developmental disability, such as cerebral palsy or autism spectrum disorder; a traumatic brain injury; deafness or serious difficulty hearing, benefiting from, for example, American Sign Language, communication access real-time translation (CART), hearing aids, a cochlear implant and/or other supports; blindness or serious difficulty seeing even when wearing glasses; missing extremities (such as an arm, leg, hand and/or foot); a significant mobility impairment benefiting from, for example, the utilization of a wheelchair; partial or complete paralysis; epilepsy or other seizure disorders; an intellectual disability (formerly described as mental retardation); a significant psychiatric disorder such as bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), or major depression; dwarfism; or a significant disfigurement such as significant disfigurements caused by burns, wounds, accidents, or congenital disorders.
(10) The term undue hardship has the meaning set forth in 29 CFR part 1630.
(b) Nondiscrimination. The Board shall not discriminate on the basis of disability in regard to the hiring, advancement or discharge of employees, employee compensation, job training, or other terms, conditions, and privileges of employment. The standards used to determine whether Section 501 has been violated in a complaint alleging employment discrimination under this part shall be the standards applied under the ADA.
(c) Model employer. The Board shall be a model employer of individuals with disabilities. The Board shall give full consideration to the hiring, advancement, and retention of qualified individuals with disabilities in its workforce. The Board shall also take affirmative action to promote the recruitment, hiring, and advancement of qualified individuals with disabilities, with the goal of eliminating under-representation of individuals with disabilities in the Board's workforce.
(d) Affirmative action plan. The Board shall adopt and implement a Plan that provides sufficient assurances, procedures, and commitments to provide adequate hiring, placement, and advancement opportunities for individuals with disabilities at all levels of Board employment. The Board's Plan must meet the following criteria:
(1) Disability hiring and advancement program—(i) Recruitment. The Plan shall require the Board to take specific steps to ensure that a broad range of individuals with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, will be aware of and be encouraged to apply for job vacancies when eligible. Such steps shall include, at a minimum—
(A) Use of programs and resources that identify job applicants with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, who are eligible to be appointed under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, examples of which could include programs that provide the qualifications necessary for particular positions within the Board to individuals with disabilities, databases of individuals with disabilities who previously applied to the Board but were not hired for the positions they applied for, and training and internship programs that lead directly to employment for individuals with disabilities; and
(B) Establishment and maintenance of contacts (which may include formal agreements) with organizations that specialize in providing assistance to individuals with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, in securing and maintaining employment, such as American Job Centers, State Vocational Rehabilitation Agencies, the Veterans' Vocational Rehabilitation and Employment Program, Centers for Independent Living, and Employment Network service providers.
(ii) Application process. The Plan shall ensure that the Board has designated sufficient staff to handle any disability-related issues that arise during the application and selection processes, and shall require the Board to provide such individuals with sufficient training, support, and other resources to carry out their responsibilities under this section. Such responsibilities shall include, at a minimum—
(A) Ensuring that disability-related questions from members of the public regarding the agency's application and selection processes are answered promptly and correctly, including questions about reasonable accommodations needed by job applicants during the application and selection processes and questions about how individuals may apply for appointment under hiring authorities that take disability into account;
(B) Processing requests for reasonable accommodations needed by job applicants during the application and placement processes, and ensuring that the Board provides such accommodations when required to do so under the standards set forth in 29 CFR part 1630;
(C) Accepting applications for appointment under hiring authorities that take disability into account, if permitted under written Board policy;
(D) If an individual has applied for appointment to a particular position under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, determining whether the individual is eligible for appointment under such authority, and, if so, forwarding the individual's application to the relevant hiring officials with an explanation of how and when the individual may be appointed, consistent with all applicable laws; and
(E) Overseeing any other Board programs designed to increase hiring of individuals with disabilities.
(iii) Advancement program. The Plan shall require the Board to take specific steps to ensure that current employees with disabilities have sufficient opportunities for advancement. Such steps may include, for example—
(A) Efforts to ensure that employees with disabilities are informed of and have opportunities to enroll in relevant training, including management training when eligible;
(B) Development or maintenance of a mentoring program for employees with disabilities; and
(C) Administration of exit interviews that include questions on how the Board could improve the recruitment, hiring, inclusion, and advancement of individuals with disabilities.
(2) Disability anti-harassment policy. The Plan shall require the Board to state specifically in its anti-harassment policy that harassment based on disability is prohibited, and to include in its training materials examples of the types of conduct that would constitute disability-based harassment.
(3) Reasonable accommodation—(i) Procedures. The Plan shall require the Board to adopt, post on its public website, and make available to all job applicants and employees in written and accessible formats, reasonable accommodation procedures that are easy to understand and that, at a minimum—
(A) Explain relevant terms such as “reasonable accommodation,” “disability,” “interactive process,” “qualified,” and “undue hardship,” consistent with applicable statutory and regulatory definitions, using examples where appropriate;
(B) Explain that reassignment to a vacant position for which an employee is qualified, and not just permission to compete for such position, is a reasonable accommodation, and that the Board must consider providing reassignment to a vacant position as a reasonable accommodation when it determines that no other reasonable accommodation will permit an employee with a disability to perform the essential functions of his or her current position;
(C) Notify supervisors and other relevant Board employees how and where they are to conduct searches for available vacancies when considering reassignment as a reasonable accommodation;
(D) Explain that an individual may request a reasonable accommodation orally or in writing at any time, need not fill out any specific form in order for the interactive process to begin, and need not have a particular accommodation in mind before making a request, and that the request may be made to a supervisor or manager in the individual's chain of command, the office designated by the Board to oversee the reasonable accommodation process, any Board employee connected with the application process, or any other individual designated by the Board to accept such requests;
(E) Include any forms the Board uses in connection with a reasonable accommodation request as attachments, and indicate that such forms are available in alternative formats that are accessible to people with disabilities;
(F) Describe the Board's process for determining whether to provide a reasonable accommodation, including the interactive process, and provide contact information for the individual or program office from whom requesters will receive a final decision;
(G) Provide guidance to supervisors on how to recognize requests for reasonable accommodation;
(H) Require that decision makers communicate, early in the interactive process and periodically throughout the process, with individuals who have requested a reasonable accommodation;
(I) Explain when the Board may require an individual who requests a reasonable accommodation to provide medical information that is sufficient to explain the nature of the individual's disability, his or her need for reasonable accommodation, and how the requested accommodation, if any, will assist the individual to apply for a job, perform the essential functions of a job, or enjoy the benefits and privileges of the workplace;
(J) Explain the Board's right to request relevant supplemental medical information if the information submitted by the requester is insufficient for the purposes specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(I) of this section;
(K) Explain the Board's right to have medical information reviewed by a medical expert of the Board's choosing at the Board's expense;
(L) Explain the Board's obligation to keep medical information confidential, in accordance with applicable laws and regulations, and the limited circumstances under which such information may be disclosed;
(M) Designate the maximum amount of time the Board has, absent extenuating circumstances, to either provide a requested accommodation or deny the request, and explain that the time limit begins to run when the accommodation is first requested;
(N) Explain that the Board will not be expected to adhere to its usual timelines if an individual's health professional fails to provide needed documentation in a timely manner;
(O) Explain that, where a particular reasonable accommodation can be provided in less than the maximum amount of time permitted under paragraph (d)(3)(i)(M) of this section, failure to provide the accommodation in a prompt manner may result in a violation of the Rehabilitation Act;
(P) Provide for expedited processing of requests for reasonable accommodations that are needed sooner than the maximum allowable time frame permitted under paragraph (d)(3)(i)(M) of this section;
(Q) Explain that, when all the facts and circumstances known to the Board make it reasonably likely that an individual will be entitled to a reasonable accommodation, but the accommodation cannot be provided immediately, the Board shall provide an interim accommodation that allows the individual to perform some or all of the essential functions of his or her job, if it is possible to do so without imposing undue hardship on the Board;
(R) Inform applicants and employees how they may track the processing of requests for reasonable accommodation;
(S) Explain that, where there is a delay in either processing a request for or providing a reasonable accommodation, the Board must notify the individual of the reason for the delay, including any extenuating circumstances that justify the delay;
(T) Explain that individuals who have been denied reasonable accommodations have the right to file complaints pursuant to 12 CFR 268.105;
(U) Encourage the use of voluntary informal dispute resolution processes that individuals may use to obtain prompt reconsideration of denied requests for reasonable accommodation;
(V) Provide that the Board shall give the requester a notice consistent with the requirements of paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section at the time a request for reasonable accommodation is denied; and
(W) Provide information on how to access additional information regarding reasonable accommodation, including, at a minimum, Commission guidance and technical assistance documents.
(ii) Cost of accommodations. The Plan shall require the Board to take specific steps to ensure that requests for reasonable accommodation are not denied for reasons of cost, and that individuals with disabilities are not excluded from employment due to the anticipated cost of a reasonable accommodation, if the resources available to the Board as a whole, excluding those designated by statute for a specific purpose that does not include reasonable accommodation, would enable it to provide an effective reasonable accommodation without undue hardship. Such steps shall be reasonably designed to, at a minimum—
(A) Ensure that anyone who is authorized to grant or deny requests for reasonable accommodation or to make hiring decisions is aware that, pursuant to the regulations implementing the undue hardship defense at 29 CFR part 1630, all resources available to the agency as a whole, excluding those designated by statute for a specific purpose that does not include reasonable accommodation, are considered when determining whether a denial of reasonable accommodation based on cost is lawful; and
(B) Ensure that anyone authorized to grant or deny requests for reasonable accommodation or to make hiring decisions is aware of, and knows how to arrange for the use of, Board resources available to provide the accommodation, including any centralized fund the Board may have for that purpose.
(iii) Notification of basis for denial. The Plan shall require the Board to provide a job applicant or employee who is denied a reasonable accommodation with a written notice at the time of the denial, in an accessible format when requested, that—
(A) Explains the reasons for the denial and notifies the job applicant or employee of any available internal appeal or informal dispute resolution processes;
(B) Informs the job applicant or employee of the right to challenge the denial by filing a complaint of discrimination under this part;
(C) Provides instructions on how to file such a complaint; and
(D) Explains that, pursuant to 12 CFR 268.105, the right to file a complaint will be lost unless the job applicant or employee initiates contact with an EEO Counselor within 45 days of the denial, regardless of whether the applicant or employee participates in an informal dispute resolution process.
(4) Accessibility of facilities and technology—(i) Notice of rights. The Plan shall require the Board to adopt, post on its public website, and make available to all employees in written and accessible formats, a notice that—
(A) Explains their rights under Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 794d, concerning the accessibility of agency technology, and the Architectural Barriers Act, 42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157, concerning the accessibility of agency building and facilities;
(B) Provides contact information for a Board employee who is responsible for ensuring the physical accessibility of the Board's facilities under the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, and a Board employee who is responsible for ensuring that the electronic and information technology purchased, maintained, or used by the agency is readily accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities, as required by Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973; and
(C) Provides instructions on how to file complaints alleging violations of the accessibility requirements of the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968 and Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
(ii) Assistance with filing complaints at other agencies. If the Board's investigation of a complaint filed under Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 or the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968 shows that a different entity is responsible for the alleged violation, the Plan shall require the Board to inform the individual who filed the complaint where he or she may file a complaint against the other entity, if possible.
(5) Personal assistance services allowing employees to participate in the workplace—(i) Obligation to provide personal assistance services. The Plan shall require the Board to provide an employee with, in addition to professional services required as a reasonable accommodation under the standards set forth in 29 CFR part 1630, personal assistance services during work hours and job-related travel if—
(A) The employee requires such services because of a targeted disability;
(B) Provision of such services would, together with any reasonable accommodations required under the standards set forth in 29 CFR part 1630, enable the employee to perform the essential functions of his or her position; and
(C) Provision of such services would not impose undue hardship on the Board.
(ii) Service providers. The Plan shall state that personal assistance services required under paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section must be performed by a personal assistance service provider. The Plan may permit the Board to require personal assistance service providers to provide personal assistance services to more than one individual. The Plan may also permit the Board to require personal assistance service providers to perform tasks unrelated to personal assistance services, but only to the extent that doing so does not result in failure to provide personal assistance services required under paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section in a timely manner.
(iii) No adverse action. The Plan shall prohibit the Board from taking adverse actions against job applicants or employees based on their need for, or perceived need for, personal assistance services.
(iv) Selection of personal assistance service providers. The Plan shall require the Board, when selecting someone who will provide personal assistance services to a single individual, to give primary consideration to the individual's preferences to the extent permitted by law.
(v) Written procedures. The Plan shall require the Board to adopt, post on its public website, and make available to all job applicants and employees in written and accessible formats, procedures for processing requests for personal assistance services. The Board may satisfy the requirement in this paragraph (d)(5)(v) by stating, in the procedures required under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, that the process for requesting personal assistance services, the process for determining whether such services are required, and the Board's right to deny such requests when provision of the services would pose an undue hardship, are the same as for reasonable accommodations.
(6) Utilization analysis—(i) Current utilization. The Plan shall require the Board to perform a workforce analysis annually to determine the percentage of its employees at each grade and salary level who have disabilities, and the percentage of its employees at each grade and salary level who have targeted disabilities.
(ii) Source of data. For purposes of the analysis required under paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section an employee may be classified as an individual with a disability or an individual with a targeted disability on the basis of—
(A) The individual's self-identification as an individual with a disability or an individual with a targeted disability on a form, including but not limited to the Office of Personnel Management's Standard Form 256, which states that the information collected will be kept confidential and used only for statistical purposes, and that completion of the form is voluntary;
(B) Records relating to the individual's appointment under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, if applicable; and
(C) Records relating to the individual's requests for reasonable accommodation, if any.
(iii) Data accuracy. The Plan shall require the Board to take steps to ensure that data collected pursuant to paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section are accurate.
(7) Goals—(i) Adoption. The Plan shall commit the Board to the goal of ensuring that—
(A) No less than 12% of employees who have salaries equal to or greater than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with disabilities;
(B) No less than 12% of employees who have salaries less than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with disabilities;
(C) No less than 2% of employees who have salaries equal to or greater than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with targeted disabilities; and
(D) No less than 2% of employees who have salaries less than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with targeted disabilities.
(ii) Progression toward goals. The Plan shall require the Board to take specific steps that are reasonably designed to gradually increase the number of persons with disabilities or targeted disabilities employed at the Board until it meets the goals established pursuant to paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section. Examples of such steps include, but are not limited to—
(A) Increased use of hiring authorities that take disability into account to hire or promote individuals with disabilities or targeted disabilities, as applicable;
(B) To the extent permitted by applicable laws, consideration of disability or targeted disability status as a positive factor in hiring, promotion, or assignment decisions;
(C) Disability-related training and education campaigns for all employees in the Board;
(D) Additional outreach or recruitment efforts;
(E) Increased efforts to hire and retain individuals who require supported employment because of a disability, who have retained the services of a job coach at their own expense or at the expense of a third party, and who may be given permission to use the job coach during work hours as a reasonable accommodation without imposing undue hardship on the Board; and
(F) Adoption of training, mentoring, or internship programs for individuals with disabilities.
(8) Recordkeeping. The Plan shall require the Board to keep records that it may use to determine whether it is complying with the nondiscrimination and affirmative action requirements imposed under Section 501, and to make such records available to the Commission upon the Commission's request, including, at a minimum, records of—
(i) The number of job applications received from individuals with disabilities, and the number of individuals with disabilities who were hired by the Board;
(ii) The number of job applications received from individuals with targeted disabilities, and the number of individuals with targeted disabilities who were hired by the Board;
(iii) All rescissions of conditional job offers, demotions, and terminations taken against applicants or employees as a result of medical examinations or inquiries;
(iv) All Board employees hired under special hiring authority for person with certain disabilities, and each such employee's date of hire, entering grade level, probationary status, and current grade level;
(v) The number of employees appointed under special hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities who successfully completed the Board's Provisional Employment period and the number of such employees who were terminate prior to the end of their Provisional Employment period; and
(vi) Details about each request for reasonable accommodation including, at a minimum—
(A) The specific reasonable accommodation requested, if any;
(B) The job sought by the requesting applicant or held by the requesting employee;
(C) Whether the accommodation was needed to apply for a job, perform the essential functions of a job, or enjoy the benefits and privileges of employment;
(D) Whether the request was granted (which may include an accommodation different from the one requested) or denied;
(E) The identity of the deciding official;
(F) If denied, the basis for such denial; and
(G) The number of days taken to process the request.
(e) Reporting—(1) Submission to the Commission. On an annual basis the Board shall submit to the Commission at such time and in such manner as the Commission deems appropriate—
(i) A copy of its current Plan;
(ii) The results of the two most recent workforce analyses performed pursuant to paragraph (d)(6) of this section showing the percentage of employees with disabilities and employees with targeted disabilities in each of the designated pay groups;
(iii) The number of individuals appointed to positions within the Board under special hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities during the previous year, and the total number of employees whose employment at the Board began by appointment under special hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities; and
(iv) A list of changes made to the Plan since the prior submission, if any, and an explanation of why those changes were made.
(2) Availability to the public. The Board shall make the information submitted to the Commission pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section available to the public by, at a minimum, posting a copy of the submission on its public website and providing a means by which members of the public may request copies of the submission in accessible formats.
[84 FR 27030, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.204 Class complaints.
(a) Definitions—(1) Class is a group of Board employees, former employees or applicants for employment who, it is alleged, have been or are being adversely affected by a Board personnel management policy or practice that discriminates against the group on the basis of their race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age or disability.
(2) Class complaint is a written complaint of discrimination filed on behalf of a class by the agent of the class alleging that:
(i) The class is so numerous that a consolidated complaint of the members of the class is impractical;
(ii) There are questions of fact common to the class;
(iii) The claims of the agent of the class are typical of the claims of the class;
(iv) The agent of the class, or, if represented, the representative, will fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class.
(3) An agent of the class is a class member who acts for the class during the processing of the class complaint.
(b) Pre-complaint processing. An employee or applicant who wishes to file a class complaint must seek counseling and be counseled in accordance with § 268.104. A complainant may move for class certification at any reasonable point in the process when it becomes apparent that there are class implications to the claim raised in an individual complaint. If a complainant moves for class certification after completing the counseling process contained in § 268.104, no additional counseling is required. The administrative judge shall deny class certification when the complainant has unduly delayed in moving for certification.
(c) Filing and presentation of a class complaint. (1) A class complaint must be signed by the agent or representative and must identify the policy or practice adversely affecting the class as well as the specific action or matter affecting the class agent.
(2) The complaint must be filed with the Board not later than 15 days after the agent's receipt of the notice of right to file a class complaint.
(3) The complaint shall be processed promptly; the parties shall cooperate and shall proceed at all times without undue delay.
(d) Acceptance or dismissal. (1) Within 30 days of the Board's receipt of a complaint, the Board shall: Designate an agency representative who shall not be one of the individuals referenced in § 268.102(b)(4), and forward the complaint, along with a copy of the Counselor's report and any other information pertaining to timeliness or other relevant circumstances related to the complaint, to the Commission. The Commission shall assign the complaint to an administrative judge or complaints examiner with a proper security clearance when necessary. The administrative judge may require the complainant or the Board to submit additional information relevant to the complaint.
(2) The administrative judge may dismiss the complaint, or any portion, for any of the reasons listed in § 268.106 or because it does not meet the prerequisites of a class complaint under § 268.204(a)(2).
(3) If an allegation is not included in the Counselor's report, the administrative judge shall afford the agent 15 days to state whether the matter was discussed with the Counselor and, if not, explain why it was not discussed. If the explanation is not satisfactory, the administrative judge shall dismiss the allegation. If the explanation is satisfactory, the administrative judge shall refer the allegation to the Board for further counseling of the agent. After counseling, the allegation shall be consolidated with the class complaint.
(4) If an allegation lacks specificity and detail, the administrative judge shall afford the agent 15 days to provide specific and detailed information. The administrative judge shall dismiss the complaint if the agent fails to provide such information within the specified time period. If the information provided contains new allegations outside the scope of the complaint, the administrative judge shall advise the agent how to proceed on an individual or class basis concerning these allegations.
(5) The administrative judge shall extend the time limits for filing a complaint and for consulting with a Counselor in accordance with the time limit extension provisions contained in §§ 268.104(a)(2) and 268.604.
(6) When appropriate, the administrative judge may decide that a class be divided into subclasses and that each subclass be treated as a class, and the provisions of this section then shall be construed and applied accordingly.
(7) The administrative judge shall transmit his or her decision to accept or dismiss a complaint to the Board and the agent. The Board shall take final action by issuing a final order within 40 days of receipt of the hearing record and administrative judge's decision. The final order shall notify the agent whether or not the Board will implement the decision of the administrative judge. If the final order does not implement the decision of the administrative judge, the Board shall simultaneously appeal the administrative judge's decision in accordance with § 268.403 and append a copy of the appeal to the final order. A dismissal of a class complaint shall inform the agent either that the complaint is being filed on that date as an individual complaint of discrimination and will be processed under subpart B or that the complaint is also dismissed as an individual complaint in accordance with § 268.106. In addition, it shall inform the agent of the right to appeal the dismissal of the class complaint to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission or to file a civil action and shall include EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition.
(e) Notification. (1) Within 15 days of receiving notice that the administrative judge has accepted a class complaint or a reasonable time frame specified by the administrative judge, the Board shall use reasonable means, such as delivery, mailing to last known address or distribution, to notify all class members of the acceptance of the class complaint.
(2) Such notice shall contain:
(i) An identification of the Board as the named agency, its location, and the date of acceptance of the complaint;
(ii) A description of the issues accepted as part of the class complaint;
(iii) An explanation of the binding nature of the final decision or resolution of the class complaint on class members; and
(iv) The name, address and telephone number of the class representative.
(f) Obtaining evidence concerning the complaint. (1) The administrative judge shall notify the agent and the Board's representative of the time period that will be allowed both parties to prepare their cases. This time period will include at least 60 days and may be extended by the administrative judge upon the request of either party. Both parties are entitled to reasonable development of evidence on matters relevant to the issues raised in the complaint. Evidence may be developed through interrogatories, depositions, and requests for admissions, stipulations or production of documents. It shall be grounds for objection to producing evidence that the information sought by either party is irrelevant, overburdensome, repetitious, or privileged.
(2) If mutual cooperation fails, either party may request the administrative judge to rule on a request to develop evidence. If a party fails without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to a request made or approved by the administrative judge for documents, records, comparative data, statistics or affidavits, and the information is solely in the control of one party, such failure may, in appropriate circumstances, cause the administrative judge:
(i) To draw an adverse inference that the requested information would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information;
(ii) To consider the matters to which the requested information pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party;
(iii) To exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information;
(iv) To recommend that a decision be entered in favor of the opposing party; or
(v) To take such other actions as the administrative judge deems appropriate.
(3) During the period for development of evidence, the administrative judge may, in his or her discretion, direct that an investigation of facts relevant to the class complaint or any portion be conducted by an agency certified by the Commission.
(4) Both parties shall furnish to the administrative judge copies of all materials that they wish to be examined and such other material as may be requested.
(g) Opportunity for resolution of the complaint. (1) The administrative judge shall furnish the agent and the Board's representative a copy of all materials obtained concerning the complaint and provide opportunity for the agent to discuss the materials with the Board's representative and attempt resolution of the complaint.
(2) The complaint may be resolved by agreement of the Board and the agent at any time pursuant to the notice and approval procedure contained in paragraph (g)(4) of this section.
(3) If the complaint is resolved, the terms of the resolution shall be reduced to writing and signed by the agent and the Board.
(4) Notice of the resolution shall be given to all class members in the same manner as notification of the acceptance of the class complaint and to the administrative judge. It shall state the relief, if any, to be granted by the Board and the name and address of the EEOC administrative judge assigned to the case. It shall state that within 30 days of the date of the notice of resolution, any member of the class may petition the administrative judge to vacate the resolution because it benefits only the class agent, or is otherwise not fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole. The administrative judge shall review the notice of resolution and consider any petitions to vacate filed. If the administrative judge finds that the proposed resolution is not fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole, the administrative judge shall issue a decision vacating the agreement and may replace the original class agent with a petitioner or some other class member who is eligible to be the class agent during further processing of the class complaint. The decision shall inform the former class agent or the petitioner of the right to appeal the decision to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and include EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition. If the administrative judge finds that the resolution is fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole, the resolution shall bind all members of the class.
(h) Hearing. On expiration of the period allowed for preparation of the case, the administrative judge shall set a date for hearing. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with 12 CFR 268.108(a) through (f).
(i) Decisions. The administrative judge shall transmit to the agency and class agent a decision on the complaint, including findings, systemic relief for the class and any individual relief, where appropriate, with regard to the personnel action or matter that gave rise to the complaint. If the administrative judge finds no class relief appropriate, he or she shall determine if a finding of individual discrimination is warranted and if so, shall order appropriate relief.
(j) Board final action. (1) Within 60 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision on the complaint, the Board shall take final action by issuing a final order. The final order shall notify the class agent whether or not the Board will fully implement the decision of the administrative judge and shall contain notice of the class agent's right to appeal to the Commission, the right to file a civil action in Federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit, and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. If the final order does not fully implement the decision of the administrative judge, then the Board shall simultaneously file an appeal in accordance with § 268.403 and append a copy of the appeal to the final order. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final order.
(2) If the Board does not issue a final order within 60 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision, then the decision of the administrative judge shall become the final action of the Board.
(3) A final order on a class complaint shall, subject to subpart E of this part, be binding on all members of the class and the Board.
(k) Notification of final action. The Board shall notify class members of the final action and the relief awarded, if any, through the same media employed to give notice of the existence of the class complaint. The notice, where appropriate, shall include information concerning the rights of class members to seek individual relief, and of the procedures to be followed. Notice shall be given by the Board within 10 days of the transmittal of the final action to the agent.
(l) Relief for individual class members. (1) When discrimination is found, the Board must eliminate or modify the employment policy or practice out of which the complaint arose and provide individual relief, including an award of attorney's fees and costs, to the agent in accordance with § 268.501.
(2) When class-wide discrimination is not found, but it is found that the class agent is a victim of discrimination, § 268.501 shall apply. The Board shall also, within 60 days of the issuance of the final decision finding no class-wide discrimination, issue the acknowledgment of receipt of an individual complaint as required by § 268.105(d) and process in accordance with the provisions of subpart B of this part, each individual complaint that was subsumed into the class complaint.
(3) When discrimination is found in the final decision and a class member believes that he or she is entitled to individual relief, the class member may file a written claim with the Board or the Board's EEO Programs Director within 30 days of receipt of notification by the Board of its final decision. Administrative judges shall retain jurisdiction over the complaint in order to resolve any disputed claims by class members. The claim must include a specific detailed showing that the claimant is a class member who was affected by the discriminatory policy or practice, and that this discriminatory action took place within the period of time for which class-wide discrimination was found in the final order. Where a finding of discrimination against a class has been made, there shall be a presumption of discrimination as to each member of the class. The Board must show by clear and convincing evidence that any class member is not entitled to relief. The administrative judge may hold a hearing or otherwise supplement the record on a claim filed by a class member. The Board or the Commission may find class-wide discrimination and order remedial action for any policy or practice in existence within 45 days of the agent's initial contact with the Counselor. Relief otherwise consistent with this Part may be ordered for the time the policy or practice was in effect. The Board shall issue a final decision on each such claim within 90 days of filing. Such decision must include a notice of the right to file an appeal or a civil action in accordance with subpart E of this part and the applicable time limits.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.205 [Reserved]
Subpart D Related Processes
§ 268.301 Negotiated grievance procedure.
When an employee of the Board, which is not an agency subject to 5 U.S.C. 7121(d), is covered by a negotiated grievance procedure, allegations of discrimination shall be processed as complaints under this part, except that the time limits for processing the complaint contained in § 268.105 and for appeal to the Commission contained in § 268.402 may be held in abeyance during processing of a grievance covering the same matter as the complaint if the Board notifies the complainant in writing that the complaint will be held in abeyance pursuant to this section.
§ 268.302 [Reserved]
Subpart E Appeals to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
§ 268.401 Appeals to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
(a) A complainant may appeal the Board's final action or dismissal of a complaint.
(b) The Board may appeal as provided in § 268.109(a).
(c) A class agent or the Board may appeal an administrative judge's decision accepting or dismissing all or part of a class complaint; a class agent may appeal the Board's final action or the Board may appeal an administrative judge's decision on a class complaint; a class member may appeal a final decision on a claim for individual relief under a class complaint; and a class member, a class agent or the Board may appeal a final decision on a petition pursuant to § 268.204(g)(4).
(d) A complainant, agent of the class or individual class claimant may appeal to the Commission the Board's alleged noncompliance with a settlement agreement or final decision in accordance with § 268.504.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.402 Time for appeals to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
(a) Appeals described in § 268.401(a) and (c) must be filed within 30 days of receipt of the dismissal, final action or decision. Appeals described in § 268.401(b) must be filed within 40 days of receipt of the hearing file and decision. Where a complainant has notified the Board's EEO Programs Director of alleged noncompliance with a settlement agreement in accordance with § 268.504, the complainant may file an appeal 35 days after service of the allegations of noncompliance, but no later than 30 days after receipt of the Board's determination.
(b) If the complainant is represented by an attorney of record, then the 30-day time period provided in paragraph (a) of this section within which to appeal shall be calculated from the receipt of the required document by the attorney. In all other instances, the time within which to appeal shall be calculated from the receipt of the required document by the complainant.
§ 268.403 How to appeal.
(a) The complainant, the Board, agent or individual class claimant (hereinafter appellant) must file an appeal with the Director, Office of Federal Operations, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, at P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013, or electronically, or by personal delivery or facsimile. The appellant should use EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition, and should indicate what is being appealed.
(b) The appellant shall furnish a copy of the appeal to the opposing party at the same time it is filed with the Commission. In or attached to the appeal to the Commission, the appellant must certify the date and method by which service was made on the opposing party.
(c) If an appellant does not file an appeal within the time limits of this subpart, the appeal shall be dismissed by the Commission as untimely.
(d) Any statement or brief on behalf of a complainant in support of the appeal must be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations within 30 days of filing the notice of appeal. Any statement or brief on behalf of the Board in support of its appeal must be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations within 20 days filing the notice of appeal. The Office of Federal Operations will accept statements or briefs in support of an appeal by facsimile transmittal, provided they are no more than 10 pages long.
(e) The Board must submit the complaint file to the Office of Federal Operations within 30 days of initial notification that the complainant has filed an appeal or within 30 days of submission of an appeal by the Board.
(f) Any statement or brief in opposition to an appeal must be submitted to the Commission and served on the opposing party within 30 days of receipt of the statement or brief supporting the appeal, or, if no statement or brief supporting the appeal is filed, within 60 days of receipt of the appeal. The Office of Federal Operations will accept statements or briefs in opposition to an appeal by facsimile provided they are no more than 10 pages long.
(g) The Board will submit appeals, complaint files, and other filings to the Commission's Office of Federal Operations in a digital format acceptable to the Commission, absent a showing of good cause why the Board cannot submit digital records. Appellants are encouraged, but not required, to submit digital appeals and supporting documentation to the Commission's Office of Federal Operations in a format acceptable to the Commission.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.404 Appellate Procedure.
(a) On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations shall review the complaint file and all written statements and briefs from either party. The Commission may supplement the record by an exchange of letters or memoranda, investigation, remand to the Board or other procedures.
(b) If the Office of Federal Operations requests information from one or both of the parties to supplement the record, each party providing information shall send a copy of the information to the other party.
(c) When either party to an appeal fails without good cause shown to comply with the requirements of this section or to respond fully and in timely fashion to requests for information, the Office of Federal Operations shall, in appropriate circumstances:
(1) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information;
(2) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party;
(3) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or
(4) Take such other actions as appropriate.
§ 268.405 Decisions on appeals.
(a) The Office of Federal Operations, on behalf of the Commission, shall issue a written decision setting forth its reasons for the decision. The Commission shall dismiss appeals in accordance with §§ 268.106, 268.403(c) and 268.408. The decision shall be based on the preponderance of the evidence. The decision on an appeal from the Board's final action shall be based on a de novo review, except that the review of the factual findings in a decision by an administrative judge issued pursuant to § 268.108(i) shall be based on a substantial evidence standard of review. If the decision contains a finding of discrimination, appropriate remedy(ies) shall be included and, where appropriate, the entitlement to interest, attorney's fees or costs shall be indicated. The decision shall reflect the date of its issuance, inform the complainant of his or her civil action rights, and be transmitted to the complainant and the Board by first class mail.
(b) The Office of Federal Operations, on behalf of the Commission, shall issue decisions on appeals of decisions to accept or dismiss a class complaint issued pursuant to § 268.204(d)(7) within 90 days of receipt of the appeal.
(c) A decision issued under paragraph (a) of this section is final within the meaning of § 268.406 unless the Board issues a final decision under paragraph (d) of this section or unless a timely request for reconsideration is filed by a party to the case. A party may request reconsideration within 30 days of receipt of a decision of the Commission, which the Commission in its discretion may grant, if the party demonstrates that:
(1) The appellate decision involved a clearly erroneous interpretation of material fact or law; or
(2) The decision will have a substantial impact on the policies, practices, or operations of the Board.
(d) The Board, within 30 days of receiving a decision of the Commission, may issue a final decision based upon that decision, which shall be final within the meaning of § 268.406.
[84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.406 Civil action: title VII, Age Discrimination in Employment Act and Rehabilitation Act.
A complainant who has filed an individual complaint, an agent who has filed a class complaint or a claimant who has filed a claim for individual relief pursuant to a class complaint is authorized under title VII, the ADEA and the Rehabilitation Act to file a civil action in an appropriate United States District Court:
(a) Within 90 days of receipt of the final action on an individual or class complaint if no appeal has been filed;
(b) After 180 days from the date of filing an individual or class complaint if an appeal has not been filed and final action has not been taken;
(c) Within 90 days of receipt of the Commission's final decision on an appeal; or
(d) After 180 days from the date of filing an appeal with the Commission if there has been no final decision by the Commission.
§ 268.407 Civil action: Equal Pay Act.
A complainant is authorized under section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 216(b)) to file a civil action in a court of competent jurisdiction within two years or, if the violation is willful, three years of the date of the alleged violation of the Equal Pay Act regardless of whether he or she pursued any administrative complaint processing. Recovery of back wages is limited to two years prior to the date of filing suit, or to three years if the violation is deemed willful; liquidated damages in an equal amount may also be awarded. The filing of a complaint or appeal under this part shall not toll the time for filing a civil action.
§ 268.408 Effect of filing a civil action.
Filing a civil action under §§ 268.406 or 268.407 shall terminate Commission processing of the appeal. If private suit is filed subsequent to the filing of an appeal, the parties are requested to notify the Commission in writing.
Subpart F Remedies and Enforcement
§ 268.501 Remedies and relief.
(a) When the Board, or the Commission, in an individual case of discrimination, finds that an applicant or an employee has been discriminated against, the Board shall provide full relief which shall include the following elements in appropriate circumstances:
(1) Notification to all employees of the Board in the affected facility of their right to be free of unlawful discrimination and assurance that the particular types of discrimination found will not recur;
(2) Commitment that corrective, curative or preventive action will be taken, or measures adopted, to ensure that violations of the law similar to those found unlawful will not recur;
(3) An unconditional offer to each identified victim of discrimination of placement in the position the person would have occupied but for the discrimination suffered by that person, or a substantially equivalent position;
(4) Payment to each identified victim of discrimination on a make whole basis for any loss of earnings the person may have suffered as a result of the discrimination; and
(5) Commitment that the Board shall cease from engaging in the specific unlawful employment practice found in the case.
(b) Relief for an applicant. (1)(i) When the Board, or the Commission, finds that an applicant for employment has been discriminated against, the Board shall offer the applicant the position that the applicant would have occupied absent discrimination or, if justified by the circumstances, a substantially equivalent position unless clear and convincing evidence indicates that the applicant would not have been selected even absent the discrimination. The offer shall be made in writing. The individual shall have 15 days from receipt of the offer within which to accept or decline the offer. Failure to accept the offer within the 15-day period will be considered a declination of the offer, unless the individual can show that circumstances beyond his or her control prevented a response within the time limit.
(ii) If the offer is accepted, appointment shall be retroactive to the date the applicant would have been hired. Back pay, computed in the manner prescribed in 5 CFR 550.805, shall be awarded from the date the individual would have entered on duty until the date the individual actually enters on duty unless clear and convincing evidence indicates that the applicant would not have been selected even absent discrimination. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation where sovereign immunity has been waived. The individual shall be deemed to have performed service for the Board during this period for all purposes except for meeting service requirements for completion of a required probationary or trial period.
(iii) If the offer of employment is declined, the Board shall award the individual a sum equal to the back pay he or she would have received, computed in the manner prescribed in 5 CFR 550.805, from the date he or she would have been appointed until the date the offer was declined, subject to the limitation of paragraph (b)(3) of this section. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation. The Board shall inform the applicant, in its offer of employment, of the right to this award in the event the offer is declined.
(2) When the Board, or the Commission, finds that discrimination existed at the time the applicant was considered for employment but also finds by clear and convincing evidence that the applicant would not have been hired even absent discrimination, the Board shall nevertheless take all steps necessary to eliminate the discriminatory practice and ensure it does not recur.
(3) Back pay under this paragraph (b) for complaints under title VII or the Rehabilitation Act may not extend from a date earlier than two years prior to the date on which the complaint was initially filed by the applicant.
(c) Relief for an employee. When the Board, or the Commission, finds that an employee of the Board was discriminated against, the Board shall provide relief, which shall include, but need not be limited to, one or more of the following actions:
(1) Nondiscriminatory placement, with back pay computed in the manner prescribed in 5 CFR 550.805, unless clear and convincing evidence contained in the record demonstrates that the personnel action would have been taken even absent the discrimination. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation where sovereign immunity has been waived. The back pay liability under title VII or the Rehabilitation Act is limited to two years prior to the date the discrimination complaint was filed.
(2) If clear and convincing evidence indicates that, although discrimination existed at the time the personnel action was taken, the personnel action would have been taken even absent discrimination, the Board shall nevertheless eliminate any discriminatory practice and ensure it does not recur.
(3) Cancellation of an unwarranted personnel action and restoration of the employee.
(4) Expunction from the Board's records of any adverse materials relating to the discriminatory employment practice.
(5) Full opportunity to participate in the employee benefit denied (e.g., training, preferential work assignments, overtime scheduling).
(d) The Board has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the complainant has failed to mitigate his or her damages.
(e) Attorney's fees or costs—(1) Awards of attorney's fees or costs. The provisions of this paragraph relating to the award of attorney's fees or costs shall apply to allegations of discrimination prohibited by title VII and the Rehabilitation Act. In a decision or final action, the Board, administrative judge, or Commission may award the applicant or employee or reasonable attorney's fees (including expert witness fees) and other costs incurred in the processing of the complaint.
(i) A finding of discrimination raises a presumption of entitlement to an award of attorney's fees.
(ii) Any award of attorney's fees or costs shall be paid by the Board.
(iii) Attorney's fees are allowable only for the services of members of the Bar and law clerks, paralegals or law students under the supervision of members of the Bar, except that no award is allowable for the services of any employee of the Federal Government.
(iv) Attorney's fees shall be paid for services performed by an attorney after the filing of a written complaint, provided that the attorney provides reasonable notice of representation to the Board, administrative judge or Commission, except that fees are allowable for a reasonable period of time prior to the notification of representation for any services performed in reaching a determination to represent the complainant. The Board is not required to pay attorney's fees for services performed during the pre-complaint process, except that fees are allowable when the Commission affirms on appeal an administrative judge's decision finding discrimination after the Board takes final action by not implementing an administrative judge's decision. Written submissions to the Board that are signed by the representative shall be deemed to constitute notice of representation.
(2) Amount of awards. (i) When the Board, administrative judge or the Commission determines an entitlement to attorney's fees or costs, the complainant's attorney shall submit a verified statement of attorney's fees (including expert witness fees) and other costs, as appropriate, to the Board or administrative judge within 30 days of receipt of the decision and shall submit a copy of the statement to the Board. A statement of attorney's fees and costs shall be accompanied by an affidavit executed by the attorney of record itemizing the attorney's charges for legal services. The Board may respond to a statement of attorney's fees and costs within 30 days of its receipt. The verified statement, accompanying affidavit and any Board response shall be made a part of the complaint file.
(ii)(A) The Board or administrative judge shall issue a decision determining the amount of attorney's fees or costs due within 60 days of receipt of the statement and affidavit. The decision shall include a notice of right to appeal to the EEOC along with EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition and shall include the specific reasons for determining the amount of the award.
(B) The amount of attorney's fees shall be calculated using the following standards: The starting point shall be the number of hours reasonably expended multiplied by a reasonable hourly rate. There is a strong presumption that this amount represents the reasonable fee. In limited circumstances, this amount may be reduced or increased in consideration of the degree of success, quality of representation, and long delay caused by the Board.
(C) The costs that may be awarded are those authorized by 28 U.S.C. 1920 to include: Fees of the reporter for all or any of the stenographic transcript necessarily obtained for use in the case; fees and disbursements for printing and witnesses; and fees for exemplification and copies necessarily obtained for use in the case.
(iii) Witness fees shall be awarded in accordance with the provisions of 28 U.S.C. 1821, except that no award shall be made for a Federal employee who is in a duty status when made available as a witness.
§ 268.502 Compliance with final Commission decisions.
(a) Relief ordered in a final Commission decision, if accepted pursuant to § 268.405(c) as a final decision, or not acted upon the Board within the time periods of § 268.405(c), is mandatory and binding on the Board except as provided in this section. Failure to implement ordered relief shall be subject to judicial enforcement as specified in § 268.503(f).
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, when the Board requests reconsideration and the case involves removal, separation, or a suspension continuing beyond the date of the request for reconsideration, and when the decision orders retroactive restoration, the Board shall comply with the decision to the extent of the temporary or conditional restoration of the employee to duty status in the position specified by the Commission, pending the outcome of the Board's request for reconsideration.
(1) Service under the temporary or conditional restoration provisions of this paragraph (b) shall be credited toward the completion of a probationary or trial period or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure, if the Commission upholds its decision after reconsideration.
(2) When the Board requests reconsideration, it may delay the payment of any amounts ordered to be paid to the complainant until after the request for reconsideration is resolved. If the Board delays payment of any amount pending the outcome of the request to reconsider and the resolution of the request (including under § 268.405(d)) requires the Board to make the payment, then the Board shall pay interest from the date of the original appellate decision until payment is made.
(3) The Board shall notify the Commission and the employee in writing at the same time it requests reconsideration that the relief it provides is temporary or conditional and, if applicable, that it will delay the payment of any amounts owed but will pay interest as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Failure of the Board to provide notification will result in the dismissal of the Board's request.
(c) When no request for reconsideration or final decision under § 268.405(d) is filed or when a request for reconsideration is denied, the Board shall provide the relief ordered and there is no further right to delay implementation of the ordered relief. The relief shall be provided in full not later than 120 days after receipt of the final decision unless otherwise ordered in the decision.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.503 Enforcement of final EEOC decisions.
(a) Petition for enforcement. A complainant may petition the Commission for enforcement of a decision issued under the Commission's appellate jurisdiction. The petition shall be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations. The petition shall specifically set forth the reasons that lead the complainant to believe that the Board is not complying with the decision.
(b) Compliance. On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations shall take all necessary action to ascertain whether the Board is implementing the decision of the Commission. If the Board is found not to be in compliance with the decision, efforts shall be undertaken to obtain compliance.
(c) Clarification. On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations may, on its own motion or in response to a petition for enforcement or in connection with a timely request for reconsideration, issue a clarification of a prior decision. A clarification cannot change the result of a prior decision or enlarge or diminish the relief ordered but may further explain the meaning or intent of the prior decision.
(d) Referral to the Commission. Where the Director, Office of Federal Operations, is unable to obtain satisfactory compliance with the final decision, the Director shall submit appropriate findings and recommendations for enforcement to the Commission, or, as directed by the Commission, refer the matter to another appropriate agency.
(e) Commission notice to show cause. The Commission may issue a notice to the Chairman of the Board to show cause why there is noncompliance. Such notice may request the Chairman of the Board or a representative to appear before the Commission or to respond to the notice in writing with adequate evidence of compliance or with compelling reasons for noncompliance.
(f) Notification to complainant of completion of administrative efforts. Where the Commission has determined that the Board is not complying with a prior decision, or where the Board has failed or refused to submit any required report of compliance, the Commission shall notify the complainant the right to file a civil action for enforcement of the decision pursuant to title VII, the ADEA, the Equal Pay Act or the Rehabilitation Act and to seek judicial review of the Board's refusal to implement the ordered relief pursuant to the Administrative Procedures Act, 5 U.S.C. 701 et seq., and the mandamus statute, 28 U.S.C. 1361, or to commence de novo proceedings pursuant to the appropriate statutes.
§ 268.504 Compliance with settlement agreements and final actions.
(a) Any settlement agreement knowingly and voluntarily agreed to by the parties, reached at any stage of the complaint process, shall be binding on both parties. Final action that has not been the subject of an appeal or a civil action shall be binding on the Board. If the complainant believes that the Board has failed to comply with the terms of a settlement agreement or decision, the complainant shall notify the Board's EEO Programs Director, in writing, of the alleged noncompliance within 30 days of when the complainant knew or should have known of the alleged noncompliance. The complainant may request that the terms of the settlement agreement be specifically implemented or, alternatively, that the complaint be reinstated for further processing from the point processing ceased.
(b) The Board shall resolve the matter and respond to the complainant, in writing. If the Board has not responded to the complainant, in writing, or if the complainant is not satisfied with the Board's attempt to resolve the matter, the complainant may appeal to the Commission for a determination as to whether the Board has complied with the terms of the settlement agreement or decision. The complainant may file such an appeal 35 days after he or she has served the Board with the allegations of noncompliance, but must file an appeal within 30 days of his or her receipt of the Board's determination. The complainant must serve a copy of the appeal on the Board and the Board may submit a response to the Commission within 30 days of receiving notice of the appeal.
(c) Prior to rendering its determination, the Commission may request that the parties submit whatever additional information or documentation it deems necessary or may direct that an investigation or hearing on the matter be conducted. If the Commission determines that the Board is not in compliance with a decision or a settlement agreement, and the noncompliance is not attributable to acts or conduct of the complainant, it may order such compliance with the decision or settlement agreement, or, alternatively, for a settlement agreement, it may order that the complaint be reinstated for further processing from the point processing ceased. Allegations that subsequent acts of discrimination violate a settlement agreement shall be processed as separate complaints under § 268.105 or § 268.204, as appropriate, rather than under this section.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27035, June 11, 2019]
§ 268.505 Interim relief.
(a)(1) When the Board appeals and the case involves removal, separation, or suspension continuing beyond the date of the appeal, and when the administrative judge orders retroactive restoration, the Board shall comply with the decision to the extent of the temporary or conditional restoration of the employee to duty status in the position specified in the decision, pending the outcome of the Board appeal. The employee may decline the offer of interim relief.
(2) Service under the temporary or conditional restoration provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be credited toward the completion of a probationary or trial period, eligibility for a within-grade increase, or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure, if the Commission upholds the decision on appeal. Such service shall not be credited toward the completion of any applicable probationary or trial period or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure if the Commission reverses the decision on appeal.
(3) When the Board appeals, it may delay the payment of any amount, other than prospective pay and benefits, ordered to be paid to the complainant until after the appeal is resolved. If the Board delays payment of any amount pending the outcome of the appeal and the resolution of the appeal requires the Board to make the payment, then the Board shall pay interest from the date of the original decision until payment is made.
(4) The Board shall notify the Commission and the employee in writing at the same time it appeals that the relief it provides is temporary or conditional and, if applicable, that it will delay the payment of any amounts owed but will pay interest as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Failure of the Board to provide notification will result in the dismissal of the Board's appeal.
(5) The Board may, by notice to the complainant, decline to return the complainant to his or her place of employment if it determines that the return or presence of the complainant will be unduly disruptive to the work environment. However, prospective pay and benefits must be provided. The determination not to return the complainant to his or her place of employment is not reviewable. A grant of interim relief does not insulate a complainant from subsequent disciplinary or adverse action.
(b) If the Board files an appeal and has not provided required interim relief, the complainant may request dismissal of the Board's appeal. Any such request must be filed with the Office of Federal Operations within 25 days of the date of service of the Board's appeal. A copy of the request must be served on the Board at the same time it is filed with EEOC. The Board may respond with evidence and argument to the complainant's request to dismiss within 15 days of the date of service of the request.
Subpart G Matters of General Applicability
§ 268.601 EEO group statistics.
(a) The Board shall establish a system to collect and maintain accurate employment information on the race, national origin, sex and disability(ies) of its employees.
(b) Data on race, national origin and sex shall be collected by voluntary self-identification. If an employee does not voluntarily provide the requested information, the Board shall advise the employee of the importance of the data and of the Board's obligation to report it. If the employee still refuses to provide the information, the Board must make a visual identification and inform the employee of the data it will be reporting. If the Board believes that information provided by an employee is inaccurate, the Board shall advise the employee about the solely statistical purpose for which the data is being collected, the need for accuracy, the Board's recognition of the sensitivity of the information and the existence of procedures to prevent its unauthorized disclosure. If, thereafter, the employee declines to change the apparently inaccurate self identification, the Board must accept it.
(c) Subject to applicable law, the information collected under paragraph (b) of this section shall be disclosed only in the form of gross statistics. The Board shall not collect or maintain any information on the race, national origin or sex of individual employees except in accordance with applicable law and when an automated data processing system is used in accordance with standards and requirements prescribed by the Commission to insure individual privacy and the separation of that information from personnel records.
(d) The Board's system is subject to the following controls:
(1) Only those categories of race and national origin prescribed by the Commission may be used;
(2) Only the specific procedures for the collection and maintenance of data that are prescribed or approved by the Commission may be used.
(e) The Board may use the data only in studies and analyses which contribute affirmatively to achieving the objectives of the Board's equal employment opportunity program. The Board shall not establish a quota for the employment of persons on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
(f) Data on disabilities shall also be collected by voluntary self-identification. If an employee does not voluntarily provide the requested information, the Board shall advise the employee of the importance of the data and of the Board's obligation to report it. If an employee who has been appointed pursuant to a special Board program for hiring individuals with a disability still refuses to provide the requested information, the Board must identify the employee's disability based upon the records supporting the appointment. If any other employee still refuses to provide the requested information or provides information that the Board believes to be inaccurate, the Board should report the employee's disability status as unknown.
(g) The Board shall report to the Commission on employment by race, national origin, sex and disability in the form and at such times as the Board and Commission shall agree.
§ 268.602 Reports to the Commission.
(a) The Board shall report to the Commission information concerning pre-complaint counseling and the status, processing, and disposition of complaints under this part at such times and in such manner as the Board and Commission shall agree.
(b) The Board shall advise the Commission whenever it is served with a Federal court complaint based upon a complaint that is pending on appeal at the Commission.
(c) The Board shall submit annually for the review and approval of the Commission written equal employment opportunity plans of action. Plans shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Commission and shall include, but not be limited to:
(1) Provision for the establishment of training and education programs designed to provide maximum opportunity for employees to advance so as to perform at their highest potential;
(2) Description of the qualifications, in terms of training and experience relating to equal employment opportunity, of the principal and operating officials concerned with administration of the Board's equal employment opportunity program; and
(3) Description of the allocation of personnel and resources proposed by the Board to carry out its equal employment opportunity program.
§ 268.603 Voluntary settlement attempts.
The Board shall make reasonable efforts to voluntarily settle complaints of discrimination as early as possible in, and throughout, the administrative processing of complaints, including the pre-complaint counseling stage. Any settlement reached shall be in writing and signed by both parties and shall identify the claims resolved.
§ 268.604 Filing and computation of time.
(a) All time periods in this part that are stated in terms of days are calendar days unless otherwise stated.
(b) A document shall be deemed timely if it is received or postmarked before the expiration of the applicable filing period, or, in the absence of a legible postmark, if it is received by mail within five days of the expiration of the applicable filing period.
(c) The time limits in this part are subject to waiver, estoppel and equitable tolling.
(d) The first day counted shall be the day after the event from which the time period begins to run and the last day of the period shall be included, unless it falls on a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday, in which case the period shall be extended to include the next business day.
§ 268.605 Representation and official time.
(a) At any stage in the processing of a complaint, including the counseling stage under § 268.104, the complainant shall have the right to be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative of complainant's choice.
(b) If the complainant is an employee of the Board, he or she shall have a reasonable amount of official time, if otherwise on duty, to prepare the complaint and to respond to Board and EEOC requests for information. If the complainant is an employee of the Board and he designates another employee of the Board as his or her representative, the representative shall have a reasonable amount of official time, if otherwise on duty, to prepare the complaint and respond to Board and EEOC requests for information. The Board is not obligated to change work schedules, incur overtime wages, or pay travel expenses to facilitate the choice of a specific representative or to allow the complainant and representative to confer. The complainant and the representative, if employed by the Board and otherwise in a pay status, shall be on official time, regardless of their tour of duty, when their presence is authorized or required by the Board or the Commission during the investigation, informal adjustment, or hearing on the complaint.
(c) In cases where the representation of a complainant or the Board would conflict with the official or collateral duties of the representative, the Commission or the Board may, after giving the representative an opportunity to respond, disqualify the representative.
(d) Unless the complainant states otherwise in writing, after the Board has received written notice of the name, address and telephone number of a representative for the complainant, all official correspondence shall be with the representative with copies to the complainant. When the complainant designates an attorney as representative, service of all official correspondence shall be made on the attorney and the complainant, but time frames for receipt of material shall be computed from the time of receipt by the attorney. The complainant must serve all official correspondence on the designated representative of the Board.
(e) The complainant shall at all times be responsible for proceeding with the complaint whether or not he or she has designated a representative.
(f) Witnesses who are Board employees shall be in a duty status when their presence is authorized or required by Commission or Board officials in connection with a complaint.
§ 268.606 Joint processing and consolidation of complaints.
Complaints of discrimination filed by two or more complainants consisting of substantially similar allegations of discrimination or relating to the same matter may be consolidated by the Board or the Commission for joint processing after appropriate notification to the parties. Two or more complaints of discrimination filed by the same complainant shall be consolidated by the Board for joint processing after appropriate notification to the complainant. When a complaint has been consolidated with one or more earlier filed complaints, the Board shall complete its investigation within the earlier of 180 days after the filing of the last complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, except that the complainant may request a hearing from an administrative judge on the consolidated complaints any time after 180 days from the date of the first filed complaint. Administrative judges or the Commission may, in their discretion, consolidate two or more complaints of discrimination filed by the same complainant.
§ 268.607 Delegation of authority.
The Board of Governors may delegate authority under this part, to one or more designees.
Subpart H Prohibition Against Discrimination in Board Programs and Activities Because of Physical or Mental Disability
§ 268.701 Purpose and application.
(a) Purpose. The purpose of this subpart H is to prohibit discrimination on the basis of a disability in programs or activities conducted by the Board.
(b) Application. (1) This subpart H applies to all programs and activities conducted by the Board. Such programs and activities include:
(i) Holding open meetings of the Board or other meetings or public hearings at the Board's office in Washington, DC;
(ii) Responding to inquiries, filing complaints, or applying for employment at the Board's office;
(iii) Making available the Board's library facilities; and
(iv) Any other lawful interaction with the Board or its staff in any official matter with people who are not employees of the Board.
(2) This subpart H does not apply to Federal Reserve Banks or to financial institutions or other companies supervised or regulated by the Board.
§ 268.702 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
(a) Auxiliary aids means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the Board. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
(b) Complete complaint means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the Board's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the Board of the nature and date of the alleged violation. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
(c) Facility means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
(d) Person with a disability means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase:
(1) Physical or mental impairment includes—
(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one of more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term physical or mental impairment includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism.
(2) Major life activities includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
(3) Has a record of such an impairment means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
(4) Is regarded as having an impairment means—
(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the Board as constituting such a limitation;
(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section but is treated by Board as having such an impairment.
(e) Qualified person with a disability means—
(1) With respect to any Board program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a person with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the Board can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; or
(2) With respect to any other program or activity, a person with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity.
(3) Qualified individual with a disability is defined for purposes of employment in § 268.203 of this part, which is made applicable to this subpart by § 268.705.
§ 268.703 Notice.
The Board shall make available to employees, applicants for employment, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons information regarding the provisions of this subpart and its applicability to the programs and activities conducted by the Board, and make this information available to them in such manner as the Board finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by this subpart.
§ 268.704 General prohibitions against discrimination.
(a) No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of a disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination in any program or activity conducted by the Board.
(b)(1) The Board, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of a disability:
(i) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that provided to others;
(ii) Afford a qualified individual with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
(iii) Provide a qualified individual with a disability with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with a disability or to any class of individuals with a disability than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with a disability with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
(v) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with a disability in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
(2) The Board may not deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
(3) The Board may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration, the purpose or effect of which would:
(i) Subject qualified individuals with a disability to discrimination on the basis of a disability; or
(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with a disability.
(4) The Board may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would:
(i) Exclude individuals with a disability from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Board; or
(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives or a program or activity with respect to individuals with a disability.
(5) The Board, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with a disability to discrimination on the basis of a disability.
(6) The Board may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with a disability to discrimination on the basis of a disability, nor may the Board establish requirements for the programs and activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with a disability to discrimination on the basis of a disability. However, the programs and activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the Board are not, themselves, covered by this subpart.
(c) The exclusion of individuals who do not have a disability from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Board order to individuals with a disability or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with a disability from a program limited by Federal statute or Board order to a different class of individuals with a disability is not prohibited by this subpart.
(d) The Board shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with a disability.
§ 268.705 Employment.
No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of a disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the Board. The definitions, requirements and procedures of § 268.203 of this part shall apply to discrimination in employment in federally conducted programs or activities.
§ 268.706 Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.
Except as otherwise provided in § 268.707 of this subpart, no qualified individual with a disability shall, because the Board's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with a disability, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Board.
§ 268.707 Program accessibility: Existing facilities.
(a) General. The Board shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability. This paragraph (a) does not:
(1) Necessarily require the Board to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability; or
(2) Require the Board to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where the Board believes that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the Board has the burden of proving that compliance with this paragraph (a) would result in such alterations or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alterations or burdens shall be made by the Board of Governors or their designee after considering all Board resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Board shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with a disability receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
(b) Methods. The Board may comply with the requirements of this subpart H through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to individuals with a disability, home visits, delivery of service at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability. The Board is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the Board shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with a disability in the most integrated setting appropriate.
(c) Time period for compliance. The Board shall comply with any obligations established under this section as expeditiously as possible.
§ 268.708 Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.
Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Board shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability.
§ 268.709 Communications.
(a) The Board shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
(1) The Board shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with a disability an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the Board.
(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the Board shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with a disability.
(ii) The Board need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
(2) Where the Board communicates with employees and others by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used.
(b) The Board shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
(c) The Board shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
(d) This section does not require the Board to take any action that would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where the Board believes that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the Board has the burden of proving that compliance with section 268.709 would result in such alterations or burdens. The determination that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Board of Governors or their designee after considering all Board resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Board shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with a disability receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
§ 268.710 Compliance procedures.
(a) Applicability. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section, rather than subpart B and § 268.203 of this part, applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of a disability in programs or activities conducted by the Board.
(b) Employment complaints. The Board shall process complaints alleging discrimination in employment on the basis of a disability in accordance with subparts A through G of this part.
(c) Responsible official. The Office of Diversity and Inclusion Programs Director (“Programs Director”) shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section.
(d) Filing the complaint—(1) Who may file. Any person who believes that he or she has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this subpart may, personally or by his or her authorized representative, file a complaint of discrimination with the Programs Director.
(2) Confidentiality. The Programs Director shall not reveal the identity of any person submitting a complaint, except when authorized to do so in writing by the complainant, and except to the extent necessary to carry out the purposes of this subpart , including the conduct of any investigation, hearing, or proceeding under this subpart.
(3) When to file. Complaints shall be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The Programs Director may extend this time limit for good cause shown. For the purpose of determining when a complaint is timely filed under this paragraph (d), a complaint mailed to the Board shall be deemed filed on the date it is postmarked. Any other complaint shall be deemed filed on the date it is received by the Board.
(4) How to file. Complaints may be delivered or mailed to the Administrative Governor, the Chief Operating Officer, the Programs Director, the Federal Women's Program Manager, the Hispanic Employment Program Coordinator, or the People with Disabilities Program Coordinator. Complaints should be sent to the Programs Director, Office of Diversity and Inclusion, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th and C Street NW, Washington, DC 20551. If any Board official other than the Programs Director receives a complaint, he or she shall forward the complaint to the Programs Director.
(e) Acceptance of complaint. (1) The Programs Director shall accept a complete complaint that is filed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and over which the Board has jurisdiction. The Programs Director shall notify the complainant of receipt and acceptance of the complaint.
(2) If the Programs Director receives a complaint that is not complete, he or she shall notify the complainant, within 30 days of receipt of the incomplete complaint, that additional information is needed. If the complainant fails to complete the complaint within 30 days of receipt of this notice, the Programs Director shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice.
(3) If the Programs Director receives a complaint over which the Board does not have jurisdiction, the Programs Director shall notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
(f) Investigation/conciliation. (1) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint, the Programs Director shall complete the investigation of the complaint, attempt informal resolution of the complaint, and if no informal resolution is achieved, the Programs Director shall forward the investigative report to the Chief Operating Officer.
(2) The Programs Director may request Board employees to cooperate in the investigation and attempted resolution of complaints. Employees who are requested by the Programs Director to participate in any investigation under this section shall do so as part of their official duties and during the course of regular duty hours.
(3) The Programs Director shall furnish the complainant with a copy of the investigative report promptly after completion of the investigation and provide the complainant with an opportunity for informal resolution of the complaint.
(4) If a complaint is resolved informally, the terms of the agreement shall be reduced to writing and made a part of the complaint file, with a copy of the agreement provided to the complainant. The written agreement may include a finding on the issue of discrimination and shall describe any corrective action to which the complainant has agreed.
(g) Letter of findings. (1) If an informal resolution of the complaint is not reached, the Programs Director shall transmit the complaint file to the Chief Operating Officer. The Chief Operating Officer shall, within 180 days of the receipt of the complete complaint by the Programs Director, notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, containing:
(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
(ii) A description of a remedy for each violation found;
(iii) A notice of right of the complainant to appeal the letter of findings under paragraph (k) of this section; and
(iv) A notice of right of the complainant to request a hearing.
(2) If the complainant does not file a notice of appeal or does not request a hearing within the times prescribed in paragraph (h)(1) and (j)(1) of this section, the Programs Director shall certify that the letter of findings under this paragraph (g) is the final decision of the Board at the expiration of those times.
(h) Filing an appeal. (1) Notice of appeal, with or without a request for hearing, shall be filed by the complainant with the Programs Director within 30 days of receipt from the Chief Operating Officer of the letter of findings required by paragraph (g) of this section.
(2) If the complainant does not request a hearing, the Programs Director shall notify the Board of Governors of the appeal by the complainant and that a decision must be made under paragraph (k) of this section.
(i) Acceptance of appeal. The Programs Director shall accept and process any timely appeal. A complainant may appeal to the Administrative Governor from a decision by the Programs Director that an appeal is untimely. This appeal shall be filed within 15 calendar days of receipt of the decision from the Programs Director.
(j) Hearing. (1) Notice of a request for a hearing, with or without a request for an appeal, shall be filed by the complainant with the Programs Director within 30 days of receipt from the Chief Operating Officer of the letter of findings required by paragraph (g) of this section. Upon a timely request for a hearing, the Programs Director shall request that the Board of Governors, or its designee, appoint an administrative law judge to conduct the hearing. The administrative law judge shall issue a notice to the complainant and the Board specifying the date, time, and place of the scheduled hearing. The hearing shall be commenced no earlier than 15 calendar days after the notice is issued and no later than 60 days after the request for a hearing is filed, unless all parties agree to a different date.
(2) The hearing, decision, and any administrative review thereof shall be conducted in conformity with 5 U.S.C. 554-557. The administrative law judge shall have the duty to conduct a fair hearing, to take all necessary actions to avoid delay, and to maintain order. He or she shall have all powers necessary to these ends, including (but not limited to) the power to:
(i) Arrange and change the dates, times, and places of hearings and prehearing conferences and to issue notice thereof;
(ii) Hold conferences to settle, simplify, or determine the issues in a hearing, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the hearing;
(iii) Require parties to state their positions in writing with respect to the various issues in the hearing and to exchange such statements with all other parties;
(iv) Examine witnesses and direct witnesses to testify;
(v) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence;
(vi) Rule on procedural items pending before him or her; and
(vii) Take any action permitted to the administrative law judge as authorized by this subpart G or by the provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557).
(3) Technical rules of evidence shall not apply to hearings conducted pursuant to this paragraph (j), but rules or principles designed to assure production of credible evidence and to subject testimony to cross-examination shall be applied by the administrative law judge wherever reasonably necessary. The administrative law judge may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence. All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by the parties, and opportunity shall be given to refute facts and arguments advanced on either side of the issues. A transcript shall be made of the oral evidence except to the extent the substance thereof is stipulated for the record. All decisions shall be based upon the hearing record.
(4) The costs and expenses for the conduct of a hearing shall be allocated as follows:
(i) Employees of the Board shall, upon the request of the administrative law judge, be made available to participate in the hearing and shall be on official duty status for this purpose. They shall not receive witness fees.
(ii) Employees of other Federal agencies called to testify at a hearing, at the request of the administrative law judge and with the approval of the employing agency, shall be on official duty status during any absence from normal duties caused by their testimony, and shall not receive witness fees.
(iii) The fees and expenses of other persons called to testify at a hearing shall be paid by the party requesting their appearance.
(iv) The administrative law judge may require the Board to pay travel expenses necessary for the complainant to attend the hearing.
(v) The Board shall pay the required expenses and charges for the administrative law judge and court reporter.
(vi) All other expenses shall be paid by the parties incurring them.
(5) The administrative law judge shall submit in writing recommended findings of fact, conclusions of law, and remedies to the complainant and the Programs Director within 30 days, after the receipt of the hearing transcripts, or within 30 days after the conclusion of the hearing if no transcripts are made. This time limit may be extended with the permission of the Programs Director.
(6) Within 15 calendar days after receipt of the recommended decision of the administrative law judge, the complainant may file exceptions to the recommended decision with the Programs Director. On behalf of the Board, the Programs Director may, within 15 calendar days after receipt of the recommended decision of the administrative law judge, take exception to the recommended decision of the administrative law judge and shall notify the complainant in writing of the Board's exception. Thereafter, the complainant shall have 10 calendar days to file reply exceptions with the Programs Director. The Programs Director shall retain copies of the exceptions and replies to the Board's exception for consideration by the Board. After the expiration of the time to reply, the recommended decision shall be ripe for a decision under paragraph (k) of this section.
(k) Decision. (1) The Programs Director shall notify the Board of Governors when a complaint is ripe for decision under this paragraph (k). At the request of any member of the Board of Governors made within 3 business days of such notice, the Board of Governors shall make the decision on the complaint. If no such request is made, the Administrative Governor, or the Chief Operating Officer if he or she is delegated the authority to do so, shall make the decision on the complaint. The decision shall be made based on information in the investigative record and, if a hearing is held, on the hearing record. The decision shall be made within 60 days of the receipt by the Programs Director of the notice of appeal and investigative record pursuant to paragraph (h)(1) of this section or 60 days following the end of the period for filing reply exceptions set forth in paragraph (j)(6) of this section, whichever is applicable. If the decision-maker under this paragraph (k) determines that additional information is needed from any party, the decision-maker shall request the information and provide the other party or parties an opportunity to respond to that information. The decision-maker shall have 60 days from receipt of the additional information to render the decision on the appeal. The decision-maker shall transmit the decision by letter to all parties. The decision shall set forth the findings, any remedial actions required, and the reasons for the decision. If the decision is based on a hearing record, the decision-maker shall consider the recommended decision of the administrative law judge and render a final decision based on the entire record. The decision-maker may also remand the hearing record to the administrative law judge for a fuller development of the record.
(2) The Board shall take any action required under the terms of the decision promptly. The decision-maker may require periodic compliance reports specifying:
(i) The manner in which compliance with the provisions of the decision has been achieved;
(ii) The reasons any action required by the final Board decision has not been taken; and
(iii) The steps being taken to ensure full compliance.
(3) The decision-maker may retain responsibility for resolving disputes that arise between parties over interpretation of the final Board decision, or for specific adjudicatory decisions arising out of implementation.
[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27035, June 11, 2019]
PART 269 POLICY ON LABOR RELATIONS FOR THE FEDERAL RESERVE BANKS
Authority: Sec. 11, 38 Stat. 261; 12 U.S.C. 248.
Source: 48 FR 32331, July 15, 1983, unless otherwise noted.
§ 269.1 Definition of a labor organization.
When used in this part, the term labor organization means any lawful organization of any kind, or any employee representation group, which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with any Federal Reserve Bank concerning grievances, personnel policies and practices, or other matters affecting the working conditions of its employees, but the term shall not include any organization:
(a) Which asserts the right to strike against the government of the United States, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or any Federal Reserve Bank, or to assist or participate in any such strike, or which imposes a duty or obligation to conduct, assist or participate in any such strike; or
(b) Which fails to agree to refrain from seeking or accepting support from any organization which employs coercive tactics affecting any Federal Reserve Bank's operations; or
(c) Which advocates the overthrow of the constitutional form of the government of the United States; or
(d) Which discriminates with regard to the terms or conditions of membership because of race, color, sex, creed, age or national origin.
§ 269.2 Membership in a labor organization.
(a) Any employee of a Federal Reserve Bank (hereinafter referred to as “Bank”) is free to join and assist any existing labor organization or to participate in the formation of a new labor organization, or to refrain from any such activities except that officers and their administrative or confidential assistants, managers and other supervisory personnel, secretaries to all such persons and all employees engaged in Bank personnel work shall not be represented by any labor organization.
(b) The rights described in paragraph (a) of this section for employees do not extend to participation in the management of a labor organization, or acting as a representative of any such organization, where such participation or activity would conflict with law or the duties of an employee.
(c) Notwithstanding anything stated in paragraph (a) of this section, professional employees of a Bank shall not be represented by a labor organization which represents other employees of the Bank unless a majority of the professional employees eligible to vote specifically elect to be represented by such labor organization. However, the professional employees of a Bank may, if they so choose, be represented by a separate labor organization of their own, or by no labor organization at all.
(d) Notwithstanding anything stated in paragraph (a) of this section, the guards of a Bank shall not be members of a labor organization which represents other categories of employees of the Bank. However, the guards of a Bank may, if they so choose, be represented by a separate labor organization of their own, or by no labor organization at all.
§ 269.3 Recognition of a labor organization and its relationship to a Federal Reserve Bank.
(a) Any labor organization shall be recognized as the exclusive bargaining representative of the employees in an appropriate unit of a Bank when that organization has been selected by the employees in said unit pursuant to the procedure set forth in § 269.5. A unit may be established in a Bank on any basis which will ensure a clear and identifiable community of interest among the employees concerned, and will promote effective relationships and the efficiency of the Bank's operations, but no unit shall be established solely on the basis of the extent to which a labor organization or employees in the proposed unit may have sought organization.
(b) When a labor organization has been recognized as the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate unit, it shall be entitled to act for and to negotiate agreements in good faith covering all employees in the unit, and it shall be responsible for representing the interests of all such employees without discrimination and without regard to whether they are members of that labor organization or not, provided that nothing in this Policy shall prevent an employee from adjusting his or her grievance without the intervention of the recognized labor organization. The labor organization shall be given notice of the adjustment and a reasonable opportunity to object on the sole ground that it is in conflict with the terms of the collective bargaining agreement.
(c) A Bank, through appropriate officials, shall have the obligation to meet at reasonable times with representatives of a recognized labor organization to negotiate, in good faith, with respect to personnel policies and practices affecting working conditions for employees, provided that they do not involve matters in any of the following areas:
(1) The purposes and functions of the Bank; the compensation of and hours worked by employees; any classification system used to evaluate positions; the budget of the Bank; the retirement system; any insurance or other benefit plans; internal security operations; maintenance of the efficiency of Bank operations including the determination of work methods; the right to contract out; the determination as to manpower requirements; use of technology and organization of work; and action to meet emergency situations;
(2) Management rights as to the direction of employees, including hiring, promotion, transfer, classification, assignment, layoffs, retention, suspension, demotion, discipline and discharge, provided that on matters involving the procedures to be followed by a Bank for the exercise of its rights under this subparagraph, a Bank shall, upon request, discuss such procedures with a recognized labor organization, but shall not be required to negotiate for an agreement as to them;
(3) All Bank matters specifically governed by applicable laws or regulations.
The obligation under this paragraph to negotiate with regard to certain matters shall include the execution of a written contract incorporating any agreement reached, but does not compel either a Bank or a labor organization to agree to a particular proposal or to make any concession during such negotiations.
(d) At the time it requests an election to be held, any labor organization seeking recognition shall submit to a Bank a roster of its officers and representatives, a copy of its constitution and bylaws, and a statement of its objectives.
(e) Subject to the provisions of § 269.8, the exclusive recognition of a labor organization shall not preclude any employee, regardless of labor organization membership, from bringing matters of personal concern not governed by a collective bargaining agreement to the attention of appropriate officers, managers or supervisory personnel in accordance with applicable law, rule, regulation, or established Bank policy, or from choosing his or her own representative in such matters.
§ 269.4 Determination of appropriate bargaining unit.
(a) If a labor organization asserts in writing to a Bank that it holds cards requesting a representation election signed by at least thirty percent (30%) of the employees in a unit which that organization considers to be an appropriate bargaining unit, the labor organization and the Bank shall each designate a representative who together shall request the American Arbitration Association (hereinafter referred to as “Association”) to submit to them from its National Panel of Professional Labor Arbitrators a list of seven (7) impartial, qualified professional arbitrators. The two designated representatives shall meet promptly and, by alternately striking names from the list, arrive at the remaining person who, together with the two representatives, shall constitute a Special Tribunal to rule on the labor organization's request for an election. The impartial arbitrator shall always act as the Chairperson of any Special Tribunal duly constituted under this section.
(b) In the absence of an agreement between the labor organization and the Bank on the appropriate unit, the Tribunal shall investigate the facts, hold hearings if necessary, and issue a decision as to the appropriateness of the unit for the purposes of conducting a representation election for exclusive recognition and as to related issues submitted for consideration. The expenses for this proceeding, including the fees of the association and of the arbitrator, shall be borne equally by the labor organization and the Bank. If either the Bank or the labor organization should disagree with the Special Tribunal's decision, the party in disagreement may appeal within thirty (30) calendar days to the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel referred to in § 269.11, and the decision of the System Panel shall be final and binding on the parties.
(c) If there is any dispute as to whether a labor organization holds cards signed by at least thirty percent (30%) of the employees in a unit claimed by a labor organization as appropriate or subsequently determined by the Special Tribunal as appropriate, the dispute shall be resolved by the Chairperson of the Special Tribunal, acting as a single impartial arbitrator. The expenses of such procedure, including the impartial arbitrator's fee, shall be borne equally by the labor organization and the Bank. The decision of the Chairperson of the Special Tribunal shall be final and binding and shall not be subject to appeal to the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel.
§ 269.5 Elections.
(a) Once there has been a final determination of the existence of an appropriate bargaining unit under the procedure in § 269.4, and a showing by a labor organization that it has cards signed by at least thirty percent (30%) of the employees in such unit requesting a representation election, an election shall be ordered by the Special Tribunal. A labor organization shall be recognized as the exclusive bargaining representative of the unit if it is selected by a majority of the employees in the unit actually voting.
(b) The election shall be held under the auspices of the Association and shall be subject to its election rules and regulations. However, if there should be any conflict between such rules and regulations and the provisions of this Policy, the latter shall prevail. The fees charged by the Association for its election service shall be borne equally by the labor organization and the Bank.
(c) An election to determine whether a labor organization should continue as the exclusive bargaining representative of a particular unit shall be held when requested by a petition or other bona fide showing by at least thirty percent (30%) of the employees of that unit. Any dispute as to whether thirty percent (30%) of the employees requested such an election shall be resolved by the same procedure as that set forth in § 269.4(b). The election shall be held under the auspices of the Association in the same manner described in paragraph (b) of this section. The recognition of a labor organization as the exclusive bargaining representative of a unit shall be revoked if a majority of the employees in the unit who actually vote signify approval of such revocation.
(d) Only one election may be held in any unit in a twelve (12) month period to determine whether a labor organization should become, or continue to be recognized as, the exclusive representative of the employees in that unit.
(e) Upon receipt of a request for an election from a labor organization under § 269.4(a), it shall be incumbent on the Bank, labor organization and all others to refrain from any conduct, action or policy that interferes with or restrains employees from making a fair and free choice in selecting or rejecting a bargaining representative consistent with the right of the Bank, labor organization or employees to exercise privileges of free speech in the expression of any views, argument or opinion, or the dissemination thereof, whether in oral, written, printed, graphic or visual form.
(f) The Special Tribunal shall hear and decide any post-election objections of a Bank or labor organization filed with it claiming that a violation of paragraph (e) of this section has improperly affected the outcome of the election. Such objections must be filed with the Special Tribunal no later than five (5) business days after the date of election. In the event of such violation by a Bank, labor organization or other individuals or organizations which the Special Tribunal finds sufficient to have prejudiced the outcome of an election, appropriate remedial action shall be taken in the form of setting aside the election results and ordering a new election, provided, however, that an appeal from the order of the Special Tribunal may be taken within thirty (30) calendar days to the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel by either the affected Bank or labor organization. The ruling of the System Panel shall be final and binding. Neither the Special Tribunal nor the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel shall have the authority to direct a Bank to recognize a labor organization as the exclusive collective bargaining representative without a valid election being held in which a majority of the employees actually voting have so designated such labor organization.
(g) The Special Tribunal and the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel will adhere to any rules and regulations promulgated by the Board of Governors for the administration of the provisions of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
§ 269.6 Unfair labor practices.
(a) It shall be an unfair labor practice for a Bank to: (1) Interfere with, restrain, or coerce employees in the exercise of the rights guaranteed in § 269.2(a); (2) dominate or interfere with the formation or administration of any labor organization, or to contribute financial or other support to it; (3) encourage or discourage membership in any labor organization by discrimination in regard to hire or tenure of employment or any term or condition of employment; (4) refuse to bargain collectively with the representatives of its employees subject to the provisions of § 269.3 (b) and (c).
(b) It shall be an unfair labor practice for a labor organization, its agents or representatives to: (1) Restrain or coerce employees in the exercise of the rights guaranteed in § 269.2(a); (2) cause or attempt to cause a Bank to Discriminate against an employee in violation of paragraph (a)(3) of this section; (3) refuse to bargain collectively with a Bank, provided the labor organization is the exclusive representative of a unit of employees.
(c) Notwithstanding anything previously stated in this section, the expression of any view, argument or opinion, or the dissemination thereof, whether in oral, written, printed, graphic or visual form, shall not constitute or be evidence of an unfair labor practice, if such expression contains no threat of reprisal or force, or promise of benefit.
(d) The Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel will adhere to the rules and regulations promulgated by the Board of Governors for the prevention and remedy of the unfair labor practices listed herein.
§ 269.7 Approval of agreement and required contents.
Any agreement entered into with a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in a unit must be approved by the President of the Bank or a designated officer representative. All agreements with labor organizations shall also be subject to the requirement that the administration of all matters covered by the agreement shall be governed by the provisions of applicable laws and Federal Reserve System rules and regulations, and the agreement shall at all times be applied subject to such laws and regulations.
§ 269.8 Grievance procedures.
(a) Subject to the provisions of § 269.3(b), an agreement entered into with a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in a unit may contain a grievance procedure, applicable only to employees in such unit and which shall be the exclusive means for a labor organization and/or an employee to obtain resolution of a grievance arising under such agreement.
(b) Grievance procedures established by a labor agreement may also include provisions for arbitration of unresolved grievances by a tripartite panel under the Voluntary Labor Arbitration Rules of the Association with the impartial arbitrator selected by the Bank and labor organization representatives on the arbitration panel to be the Chairperson. In such event, arbitration shall extend only to grievances which involve the interpretation and application of specific provisions of a labor agreement and not to any other matters or to changes in or proposed changes in the agreement. Arbitration may only be invoked by labor organization on behalf of individual employees with their concurrence.
§ 269.9 Mediation of negotiation impasses.
In the event of an impasse in negotiations between the parties for a collective bargaining agreement, either the labor organization or the Bank may request the appointment of a qualified neutral person as a mediator to assist the parties in attempting to resolve the impasse. The parties will meet promptly with the mediator, and all matters discussed, as well as any documents submitted, shall not be publicly divulged for any reason. The cost of the mediator shall be borne equally by the parties.
§ 269.10 Time for internal labor organization business, consultations and negotiations.
Solicitation of memberships, dues or other internal labor organization business shall be conducted during the nonduty hours of the employees concerned. Officially requested or approved consultation between management executives and representatives of a labor organization shall, whenever practicable, be conducted on official time, but the President or a duly authorized officer of a Bank may require that negotiations with a labor organization be conducted during the nonduty hours of the Bank.
§ 269.11 Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel.
There shall be established a Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel, which shall consist of three members: one member of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, who shall be Chairperson of the Panel, and two public members. Each member shall be selected by the Board of Governors; provided, however, that the public members shall not have any present or past affiliation with the Federal Reserve System. Initially, one of the two public members shall be appointed for a term of two years, and the other for a term of three years. Thereafter, each public member shall be appointed for a term of three years, except that in the case of an unexpired term of a former member, the successor shall be appointed to fill such unexpired term. Upon the expiration of their term of office, public members may continue to serve until their successors are appointed and have qualified. A public member may be removed by the Board only upon notice and hearing, and only for neglect of duty or malfeasance in office. The Panel shall be responsible for the duties assigned to it as set forth in this Policy.
§ 269.12 Amendment.
This policy may be amended upon appropriate legal notice to all Federal Reserve Banks and labor organizations recognized, or seeking recognition, at any such Bank under this Policy. In no instance shall an amendment be applied retroactively.
PART 269a DEFINITIONS
Authority: Sec. 11, 38 Stat. 261 (12 U.S.C. 248).
Source: 35 FR 8919, June 10, 1970, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 48 FR 32334, July 15, 1983.
§ 269a.1 Party.
The term Party means any person, employee, group of employees, labor organization, or bank as defined in § 269.2 of this chapter (a) filing a charge, petition, application, or rquest pursuant to these rules and regulations, (b) named as a party in a charge, complaint, petition, application, or request, or (c) whose intervention has been permitted or directed by the investigator, the hearing officer, or the panel, as the case may be, but nothing shall be construed to prevent the panel, or any officer designated by it, from limiting any party's participation in the proceedings to the extent of his interest as determined by the investigator, hearing officer, or panel.
§ 269a.2 Party in interest.
The term party in interest means any person, employee, group of employees, labor organization, or bank that will be or is directly affected by the resolution of any charge, complaint, petition, application, or request presented to or being considered by the panel or its designated officers. Any (a) labor organization (not a charging party nor a charged party) attempting to organize the employees of a bank or that is or was recently a party to a collective bargaining agreement with a bank named as a party in a charge, complaint, petition, application, or a request, or (b) bank (not a charging party nor a charged party) that acts as the employer of any person named in a charge, complaint, petition, or request shall be deemed to be also a party in interest and shall be entitled to notification and service of all relevant procedures and documents.
§ 269a.3 Intervenor.
The term intervenor means the party in a proceeding whose intervention has been permitted or directed by the panel or its designated officer.
§ 269a.4 Investigator.
The term investigator means the officer designated by the panel to investigate and determine whether or not a complainant has established a prima facie case, as defined in § 269b.210 of this subchapter.
[35 FR 8919, June 10, 1970. Redesignated at 48 FR 32334, July 15, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 2530, Jan. 18, 2000]
§ 269a.5 Hearing officer.
The term hearing officer means the officer designated by the panel to conduct hearings pursuant to § 269b.420 et seq. of this subchapter and whose duties and power are enumerated in § 269b.442 of this subchapter.
[35 FR 8919, June 10, 1970. Redesignated at 48 FR 32334, July 15, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 2530, Jan. 18, 2000]
PART 269b CHARGES OF UNFAIR LABOR PRACTICES
Authority: Sec. 11, 38 Stat. 261 (12 U.S.C. 248).
Source: 35 FR 8920, June 10, 1970, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 48 FR 32334, July 15, 1983.
3 Charges of Violations of § 269.6 (of the Policy)
§ 269b.110 Charges.
A charge that any bank or labor organization, or agents or representatives of a bank or labor organization, has engaged in or is engaging in any act prohibited under § 269.6 of the policy or has failed to take any action required by § 269.6 of the policy may be filed by any party in interest, or its representative, within 60 days after the alleged violations or within 60 days after the charging party has become or should have become aware of the alleged violation.
§ 269b.111 Filing of charges.
Any charge pursuant to § 269b.110 shall be in writing and signed. An original and three copies of such charge, together with one copy for each charged party named, shall be transmitted to the Secretary of the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20551. Within 5 days after receipt of a properly filed charge that meets the formal requirements set forth in § 269b.112, the Secretary will cause a copy of such charge to be served on each party against whom the charge is made and upon all other potential parties in interest.
§ 269b.112 Contents of the charge.
A charge shall contain the following:
(a) The full name, address, and telephone number of the person, bank, or labor organization making the charge (hereinafter referred to as the charging party) and of the person signing the charge who shall state also his relation to or his capacity with the complainant. Where discrimination is alleged, all known discriminatees shall be named;
(b) The name, address, and telephone number of the bank or labor organization against whom the charge is made (hereinafter referred to as the respondent) and of any parties in interest;
(c) A clear and concise statement of the facts constituting the alleged unfair labor practice, including the time and place of occurrence of the particular acts, and a statement of the portion or portions of the policy alleged to have been violated. A charge shall not incorporate by reference affidavits or other documents submitted in support of the charge;
(d) A statement of the relief sought;
(e) A statement of any other remedies invoked for the redress of the alleged violations of the policy and the results, if any, of their invocation. If the issue in such charge is subject to an established grievance procedure, the complainant must irrevocably elect, prior to the completion of the first applicable step of the grievance procedure, whether he will invoke the grievance procedure or whether he will invoke the unfair labor practice procedures of the panel. A charge which is withdrawn or rejected by the panel as defective prior to the institution of any formal proceedings by the panel shall not prejudice the filing of a grievance on the same matter, unless the parties otherwise so provide;
(f) A declaration by the person signing the charge, that its contents are true and correct to the best of his knowledge and belief, such declaration to be subject to applicable provisions of the Federal Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 1001).
§ 269b.113 Withdrawal or settlement.
A charge may be withdrawn or settlement of the matter may be reached without consent of the panel at any time. In connection with any such settlement the parties in interest shall prepare and sign a settlement agreement which shall record that the settlement is mutually satisfactory, shall stipulate any occurrences which constituted unfair labor practices and shall set forth the terms of the settlement.
§ 269b.120 Answer to a charge.
The respondent shall file an answer to the charge with the Secretary of the panel within 15 days after service of the charge. Upon application and for good cause shown, the panel may extend the time within which the answer shall be filed. One copy of the answer shall be served on each party with proof of service furnished to the Secretary, and the original, which shall be signed, and four copies shall be filed with the Secretary.
§ 269b.121 Contents of answer.
The answer shall contain:
(a) A specific admission or denial, and where appropriate, explanation thereof; or if the respondent is without knowledge of the allegation, he shall so state and such statement shall operate as a denial. Admissions or denials may be to all or part of an allegation but shall be responsive to the substance of the allegation;
(b) A specified, detailed statement of any affirmative defense;
(c) A clear and concise statement of the facts and matters of law relied upon constituting the grounds of defense.
Any allegation of the charge not denied in the answer may be deemed admitted and may be so found by the panel.
4 Preliminary Investigation
§ 269b.210 Referral to National Center for Dispute Settlement.
(a) Within 5 days after the answer to the charge has been or should have been filed, the panel may refer the matter, accompanied by a general or particularized request, to the National Center for Dispute Settlement of the American Arbitration Association (hereinafter referred to as the Center) to make an investigation and to determine whether the charging party has established a prima facie case.
(b) For the purposes of this part, a prima facie case means a case where allegations of an unfair labor practice that have been presented give reasonable cause to believe that such practice may have occurred, but where evidentiary proceedings are necessary for determination of whether the allegations are substantiated.
(c) The Center may use its own personnel or may hire individuals on a contract basis to conduct such investigations. The panel may consolidate or sever proceedings conducted pursuant to this part.
(d) Any party may request the Center or other appointing authority to withdraw appointment of the investigator within 3 days after designation on the basis of previously demonstrated personal bias, conflict of interest, or prejudice. Such a request shall set forth in detail the matter alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification. Denial of a request by the Center or other appointing authority shall be substantiated in writing and transmitted to the requesting party, and shall be submitted to the panel together with the complete report of the investigator required in § 269b.240(b).
§ 269b.220 Priority; acceleration of proceedings.
(a) A charge of “refusal to bargain” or a charge that, if sustained, would require the setting aside of an election or the conduct of a new election shall be given priority.
(b) The parties, individually or jointly, may petition the panel at any time to invoke immediately the formal hearing procedures set forth in § 269b.410. They may also petition the panel to entertain the matter itself without prior investigation and/or without the formal hearing procedure set forth in § 269b.410. The panel is empowered also on its own motion to so accelerate disposition of the case.
(c) Before accelerating a case the panel may utilize whatever proceedings it may deem appropriate and timely to allow parties in interest to comment on the proposed course of action.
§ 269b.230 Assessment of costs; posting of bond.
(a) The panel shall normally bear the costs of an investigation conducted pursuant to § 269b.210, but the panel may require that the charging party, the respondent, and/or other parties in interest or intervenors, or several of them, shall bear a portion or all of the costs therefor. With respect to each case where an investigation is directed by the panel, the charging party may, in the discretion of the panel, be required to file a cost bond, or equivalent security, of $500, unless the panel fixes a different amount.
(b) Among the circumstances that may be the basis for payment of costs by other than the panel are cases where a clearly spurious charge has been filed or where the filing of a charge was necessary to redress the respondent's flagrant misconduct.
(c) The bond or equivalent security shall be to secure the payment of the costs of the investigation as may be assessed by the panel. In those cases where the panel does not assess such costs, the bond posted and the cost thereof shall be reimbursed to the charging party. The panel may require also the posting of a cost bond by the respondent or other party to the proceeding, who shall be entitled to reimbursement of the cost of the bond in the event that no costs of investigation are assessed upon such party by the panel.
(d) Notification of the panel's decision that a bond shall be required shall be effected by registered mail, such notice to advise of the amount of the bond required and the period by which it shall be posted.
(e) Absent good cause shown, failure of a party to file timely such cost bond or equivalent security may be ground for dismissal or other administrative sanctions deemed appropriate by the Panel.
§ 269b.240 The investigation.
(a) The purpose of the investigation is (1) to ascertain, analyze, and apply the relevant facts in order to determine whether or not formal proceedings are warranted and (2) to assist, by mediation and other appropriate means, the parties to reach a mutually satisfactory resolution of the issues as an alternative to the hearing process. In so doing, the investigator is not limited to the allegations set forth in the charge and may advise the charging party to amend his charge. In addition, he should adduce facts pertaining to the remedy as well as to the alleged violation. Investigation should also adduce facts pertaining to the jurisdiction of the panel and the timeliness of the charge. If the charge is untimely on its face, no investigation shall be required except to determine whether or not attending circumstances warrant waiving the time requirements, set forth in § 269b.110. The investigator may request the appearance of parties and witnesses, may cause, the production of relevant document, and may take or cause depositions to be taken.
(b) When the investigation has been completed, the Center shall issue a written determination whether the charging party has established a prima facie case, whether the charge was timely filed, and whether the charge is within the jurisdiction of the panel, and reasons therefor. This determination shall be served upon the panel and all parties. The panel shall receive also the complete report of the investigator.
5 Appeal From the Center's Determination
§ 269b.310 Appeal rights.
Where the investigator has found that a prima facie case does not exist, a party, including an intervenor but excluding the respondent or other parties having the same interest as the respondent, within 5 days after receiving the Center's determination may petition the panel to set aside the determination and to cause formal proceedings, set forth in § 269b.410, to be invoked. The panel may grant such petition only on grounds that the Center or its agents were arbitrary, capricious, or acted contrary to law or the policy, or that the investigator's determination is clearly erroneous. The filing requirements for such a petition shall be the same as that for the filing of a charge, as set forth in § 269b.111.
§ 269b.320 Proceedings before the panel.
The panel shall issue its decision within 15 days after the receipt of the petition provided for in § 269b.310 or by the end of that period shall announce that it will require briefs by the parties. Such announcement shall specify the requirements as to contents of the briefs, and the time for submission, which shall vary to meet the circumstances of the matter appealed. The panel, at such time, may also require oral argument or the production of evidence or may so order oral argument and/or the production of evidence after examination of the briefs. The panel shall issue its final decision within 20 days after briefs have been filed, evidence has been produced, or oral argument has been conducted.
6 Formal Proceedings
§ 269b.410 Notice of hearing.
If formal proceedings are found to be needed under the above procedures, and if no satisfactory settlement has been reached within 5 days after finding that a prima facie case exists, the Secretary of the panel, unless there is cause for granting an extension of time, shall issue and cause to be served upon the parties a notice of hearing. The panel shall appoint, pursuant to § 269b.420, a hearing officer to hold a hearing and issue a report to the panel containing findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations including, where appropriate, remedial action to be taken and notices to be posted. The Secretary shall furnish to the hearing officer the investigator's report and all other relevant information in the panel's possession.
§ 269b.420 Designation of hearing officer.
(a) The panel, absent special circumstances, shall employ the center to select the hearing officer to conduct the hearing at a site most convenient to the parties and witnesses. The individual who performed the investigation, pursuant to § 269b.210, shall be barred from acting as a hearing officer on the same matter, unless all parties in interest agree to his participation. The selection of the hearing officer, to the extent practicable, shall be done with the concurrence of the parties.
(b) Any party may request the hearing officer, at any time following his designation and before the filing of his decision, to withdraw on grounds of previously demonstrated personal bias, conflict of interest, or prejudice by filing with him promptly upon the discovery of the alleged facts a timely affidavit setting forth in detail the matters alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification. If, in the opinion of the hearing officer, such affidavit is filed with due diligence and is sufficient on its face, he shall forthwith disqualify himself and withdraw from the proceeding. If he does not so withdraw, he shall so rule upon the record, stating the grounds for his ruling and proceed with the hearing, or, if the hearing has closed, he shall proceed with the issuance of his decision, and his ruling shall be subject to the same review by the panel that is given to the rest of his decision.
(c) The costs of conducting the hearing and of the hearing officer shall be borne by the panel. Witness fees and expenses shall be paid by the party at whose instance the witnesses appear.
§ 269b.430 Contents of notice of hearing.
The notice of hearing shall include:
(a) A copy of the charge;
(b) A statement of the time of the hearing which shall be not less than 10 days after service of the notice of hearing, except in extraordinary circumstances. All charges involving a “refusal to bargain” allegation and all charges, if sustained, that would require the setting aside of an election, or the conducting of a new election shall be given first priority;
(c) A statement of the place and nature of hearing;
(d) A statement of the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;
(e) A reference to the particular section of the policy and rules and regulations of this chapter involved;
(f) A copy of the determination, if any, made causing the invocation of these formal proceedings.
§ 269b.440 Conduct of hearing.
(a) Hearing shall be public unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer or the panel. An official reporter shall make the only official transcript of such proceedings.
(b) Copies of the official transcript will not be provided to the parties, but may be purchased by arrangement with the official reporter or with such costs as the panel may otherwise assess, or may be examined in the offices of the panel and/or the hearing officer subject to such conditions as the panel may prescribe.
(c) A charging party in asserting that an unfair labor practice has been committed within the meaning of the policy, shall have the burden of proving the allegations of the charge, or the amended charge, by a preponderance of the evidence.
(d) The parties shall not be bound by the technical rules of evidence, but the hearing officer, may, in his discretion, exclude any evidence or offer of proof if he finds that its probative value is substantially outweighed by the risk that its admission will either necessitate undue consumption of time or create substantial danger of undue prejudice or confusion.
§ 269b.441 Rights of parties.
(a) Any party shall have the right to appear at such hearing in person, by counsel, or by other representative, to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts, and to introduce into the record documentary or other relevant evidence, except that the participation of any party shall be limited to the extent permitted by the hearing officer. Five copies of such documentary evidence shall be submitted unless the hearing officer permits a reduced number for good cause shown.
(b) Any party shall be entitled, upon request, to a reasonable period at the close of the hearing for oral argument, which shall be included in the stenographic report of the hearing.
(c) Any party shall be entitled to file a brief to the hearing officer within 10 days after the close of the hearing, but no reply brief may be filed except upon special permission of the hearing officer. A party filing a brief must file the original and one copy with the hearing officer along with proof of service of a copy of such brief to all parties. Requests for extension of time to file briefs must be made to the hearing officer who must receive the request at least 3 days prior to the expiration of time fixed for filing of briefs and notice of the request shall be served simultaneously on all other parties, and proof of service shall be furnished. If a request for extension of time is based on the need for a copy of the transcript prior to filing a brief, such request must be made to the hearing officer before the hearing is closed and must be ruled on prior to the close of the hearing.
§ 269b.442 Duties and powers of the hearing officer.
The hearing officer shall inquire fully into the facts as to whether the respondent has engaged or is engaging in an unfair labor practice as set forth in the charge or the amended charge. The hearing officer shall have authority, with respect to cases assigned to him, between the time he is designated and transfer of the case to the panel, subject to the rules and regulations in this subchapter, to:
(a) Grant requests for attendance of witnesses and production of documents;
(b) Rule upon petitions to quash requests made pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section;
(c) Call, examine, and cross-examine parties and witnesses as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts and to introduce into the record documentary or other evidence;
(d) Rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence;
(e) Take or cause depositions to be taken whenever the ends of justice would be served thereby;
(f) Limit lines of questioning or testimony which are repetitive, cumulative, or irrelevant;
(g) Regulate the course of the hearing and, if appropriate or necessary, exclude persons or counsel from the hearing for contemptuous conduct and strike all related testimony of witnesses refusing to answer any proper question;
(h) Hold such prehearing conferences as may be necessary to expedite proceedings and hold such other conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties or upon his own motion;
(i) Dispose of procedural requests, motions, or similar matters which shall be made part of the record of the proceeding, including motions referred to the hearing officer by the panel, and motions to amend pleadings, also to recommend dismissal of cases or portions thereof, and to order hearings reopened or, upon motion, consolidated prior to issuance of the hearing officer's report and recommendations;
(j) Request the parties at any time during the hearing to state their respective positions concerning any issue in the case or theory in support thereof;
(k) Require the parties, if necessary, to file written briefs in support of their positions;
(l) Take any other action necessary under the foregoing and authorized by the rules and regulations in this subchapter.
In the event the hearing officer designated to conduct the hearing becomes unavailable, the panel may designate another hearing officer for the purpose of further hearing or issuance of a report and recommendation on the record as made, or both.
§ 269b.443 Motions before or after a hearing.
All motions (including motions for intervention), other than those made during a hearing, shall be made in writing to the Secretary of the panel, shall briefly state the relief sought, shall set forth the grounds for such motion, and shall be accompanied 3 days thereafter by proof of service on all parties. Answering statements, if any, must be served on all parties and the original thereof, together with two copies and statement of service, shall be filed with the Secretary within 5 days after service of the moving papers, unless the Secretary directs otherwise. Motions may be referred to the hearing officer whose ruling shall be made upon the record or the motion may be stayed until such time as the panel reviews the hearing officer's report and recommendations.
§ 269b.444 Objection to conduct of hearing; other motions during hearing.
Any objection with respect to the conduct of the hearing, including any objection to the introduction of evidence, or any other motion during the course of the hearing, including a request to allow intervention, may be stated orally or in writing accompanied by a short statement of the grounds for such objection, and included in the record. No such objection shall be deemed waived by further participation in the hearing and such objection shall not stay the conduct of the hearing. Automatic exceptions will be allowed to all adverse rulings and shall be considered by the panel upon its review of the hearing officer's report and recommendations, if exception to the ruling is included in a statement of exceptions submitted to the panel after the close of the hearing, subject to the requirements of § 269b.520.
§ 269b.450 Submission of hearing officer's report to the panel.
After the close of the hearing, and the receipt of briefs, if any, the hearing officer shall prepare a report and recommendations, containing findings of fact, conclusions of law, including judgments as to the credibility of witnesses where appropriate, and the reasons or basis therefor, and recommendations as to the disposition of the case, and, where appropriate, including the remedial action and notices to be posted. After he has caused his report and recommendations to be served promptly on all parties to the proceeding, he shall transfer the case to the panel including his report and recommendations and the complete record. Such submission shall be made within 20 days after the close of the hearing and the receipt of briefs, if any, unless otherwise extended by the panel. The record shall include the charge, notice of hearing, service sheet, motions, rulings, orders, official transcript of the hearing, stipulations, objections, depositions, documentary evidence, exhibits, and any briefs or other documents submitted to the parties.
7 Panel Review of Hearing Officer's Report and Recommended Decision
§ 269b.510 Review by panel.
The panel shall review the report and recommendations of each hearing officer, the record of the hearing, and such other documents as enumerated in § 269b.450, whether or not any party files an appeal, unless the parties file with the panel a settlement agreement within 10 days after service of the hearing officer's report upon them. In the course of such review, the panel may require oral argument or written briefs on any relevant issue within such time limits as the panel may prescribe, and may reopen the record in any case and receive further evidence.
§ 269b.520 Exceptions to hearing officer's report.
(a) Any party may file with the panel exceptions to the hearing officer's report and recommendations, and any ruling contained therein, if made within 10 days after service of the report and recommendations. The Panel may, for good cause shown, extend the time for filing such exceptions upon written request, with copies served simultaneously on the other parties, received not later than 3 days before the date exceptions are due. Requests for oral argument will not be considered unless filed with exceptions.
(b) Any exception to a ruling, finding, conclusion, or recommendation which is not specifically urged shall be deemed to have been waived, although the panel may on its own motion rule upon any matter in the report and recommendations.
(c) Any exception which fails to comply with the following requirements may be disregarded:
(1) The exceptions shall set forth specifically the questions of procedure, fact, law, or policy to which exceptions are taken;
(2) The exceptions shall identify the part of the hearing officer's report to which objection is made;
(3) The exceptions shall designate by precise citation of page the portions of the record relied on, shall state the grounds for the exceptions, and shall include the citation of authorities unless set forth in a supporting brief.
(d) Any brief in support of exceptions shall contain no matter not included within the scope of the exceptions and shall contain in the order indicated, the following:
(1) A concise statement of the case containing all that is material to the consideration of the questions presented;
(2) A specification of the questions involved and to be argued;
(3) The argument, presenting clearly the points of fact and law relied on in support of the position taken on each question, with specific page reference to the transcript and the legal or other material relied on.
(e) Answering briefs to the exceptions, and cross-exceptions and supporting briefs will not be permitted without special leave of the panel. Requests for oral argument will not be considered unless accompanying such petition for special leave.
(f) Five copies of exceptions and briefs must be filed with the panel along with a statement of service of copies of the exceptions and supporting briefs upon all parties.
§ 269b.530 Briefs in support of the hearing officer's report.
Any party may file a brief in support of the hearing officer's report and recommendations subject to the same time limits and rules pertaining to filing exceptions and briefs in support thereof, as set forth in § 269b.520.
§ 269b.540 Action by the panel.
After considering the hearing officer's report and recommendations, the record, any other documents, any exceptions filed, and any oral argument permitted, the panel shall issue its written decision. Upon finding that the respondent is engaging in or has engaged in an unfair labor practice, the panel shall order the respondent to cease and desist from such conduct and may require the respondent to take such affirmative corrective action as the panel deems appropriate to effectuate the Policy. Such action by the panel may include, but shall not be limited to, orders to provide back pay, provide reinstatement, set aside an election, bargain, and award recognition. Upon finding no violation of the policy, the panel shall dismiss the case. The panel's decision and order setting forth the remedial action, if any, required shall be conspicuously posted by the parties.
8 Compliance
§ 269b.610 Procedures.
Where remedial action is ordered or provided for in a settlement agreement, a report to the panel that such action has been taken and that compliance with the decision and orders of the panel has been effected shall be submitted within the period of time specified in the panel's decision. The panel is empowered to utilize whatever administrative procedures it deems necessary to ascertain compliance.
§ 269b.620 Action by panel.
In any case where it is found, after a hearing, that the respondent has failed to comply with the final decision and order of the panel, the panel shall be empowered to take whatever action may be appropriate and shall expect the full cooperation of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in obtaining such compliance. Among the actions that may be taken by the panel against a noncomplying respondent labor organization, after a show cause hearing, may be suspension of that labor organization's checkoff privileges or recognition as exclusive bargaining representative for such period of time as determined by the panel.
9 General Rules
§ 269b.710 Rules to be liberally construed.
(a) Whenever the panel finds that unusual circumstances or good cause exist and that strict compliance with the terms of the rules and regulations in this subchapter will work an injustice or unfairness, it shall construe the rules and regulations in this subchapter liberally to prevent injustices and to effectuate the purposes of the policy.
(b) When an act is required or allowed to be done at or within a specified time, the panel may at any time, in its discretion, order the period altered where it shall be manifest that strict adherence will work surprise or injustice or interfere with the proper effectuation of the policy.
§ 269b.720 Computation of time for filing papers.
In computing any period of time prescribed by or allowed by the panel, the day of the act, event, or default after which the designated period of time begins to run, shall not be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or the applicable local legal holiday in which event the period shall run until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. When the period of time prescribed, or allowed, is seven days or less, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays shall be excluded from the computations. When the rules and regulations in this subchapter require the filing of any paper, such document must be received by the panel or the officer or agent designated by it to receive such matter before the close of business of the last day of the time limit, if any, for such filing or extension of the time that may have been granted.
§ 269b.730 Number of copies; form.
Except as otherwise provided in the regulations in this subchapter, any documents or papers shall be filed with four copies in addition to the original. All matters filed shall be printed, typed, or otherwise legibly duplicated; carbon copies of typewritten matter will be accepted if they are clearly legible.
§ 269b.731 Signature.
The original of each document filed shall be signed by the party or by an attorney or representative of record for the party, or by an officer of the party and shall contain the address and telephone number of the person signing it.
§ 269b.740 Service of pleading and other paper; statement of service.
(a) Method of service. Notices of hearings, decisions, orders, and other papers may be served personally or by registered or certified mail or by telegraph.
(b) Upon whom served. Unless otherwise provided in the rules and regulations in this subchapter, all papers except complaints, petitions, and papers relating to requests for appearance or production of documents, shall be served upon all counsel of record and upon parties not represented by counsel or by their agents designated by them or by law and upon the panel, or its designated officers or agents, where appropriate. Service upon such counsel or representative shall constitute service upon the party, but a copy also shall be transmitted to the party.
(c) Proof of service. The party or person serving the papers or process shall submit simultaneously to the panel or its designated representative, or the individual conducting the proceeding, a written statement of such service. Failure to file a statement of service shall not affect the validity of the service. Proof of service, except where otherwise provided, shall be required only if subsequent to the receipt of a statement of service a question is raised with respect to proper service.
§ 269b.750 Requests for appearance of witnesses and production of documents.
Parties may request appearance of witnesses and production of documents by filing application therefor, depending upon the stage of the proceedings at which the request is made, with the officer conducting the investigation or hearing, or with the panel. Such application shall name and identify the witnesses or documents sought and shall briefly state the need for such appearance or production. The officer with whom such request is filed shall rule upon each such request and the record of the proceeding shall contain a record of that ruling and the basis therefor. The record shall also contain a statement of reasons for any request for the appearance of witnesses or production of documents initiated by a presiding officer.