Title 14—Aeronautics and Space--Volume 5

Appendix B to Part 36 Noise Levels for Transport Category and Jet Airplanes Under § 36.103

Sec.

B36.1 Noise Measurement and Evaluation.

B36.2 Noise Evaluation Metric.

B36.3 Reference Noise Measurement Points.

B36.4 Test Noise Measurement Points.

B36.5 Maximum Noise Levels.

B36.6 Trade-Offs.

B36.7 Noise Certification Reference Procedures and Conditions.

B36.8 Noise Certification Test Procedures.

Section B36.1 Noise measurement and evaluation

(a) The procedures of Appendix A of this part, or approved equivalent procedures, must be used to determine noise levels of an airplane. These noise levels must be used to show compliance with the requirements of this appendix.

(b) For Stage 4 airplanes, an acceptable alternative to paragraph (a) of this section for noise measurement and evaluation is Appendix 2 to ICAO Annex 16, Volume I, Amendment 7 (Incorporated by reference, see § 36.6).

(c) For Stage 5 airplanes, an acceptable alternative to paragraph (a) of this section for noise measurement and evaluation is Appendix 2 to ICAO Annex 16, Volume 1, Amendment 11-B (Incorporated by reference, see § 36.6).

Section B36.2 Noise Evaluation Metric

The noise evaluation metric is the effective perceived noise level expressed in EPNdB, as calculated using the procedures of appendix A of this part.

Section B36.3 Reference Noise Measurement Points

When tested using the procedures of this part, except as provided in section B36.6, an airplane may not exceed the noise levels specified in section B36.5 at the following points on level terrain:

(a) Lateral full-power reference noise measurement point:

(1) For jet airplanes: The point on a line parallel to and 1,476 feet (450 m) from the runway centerline, or extended centerline, where the noise level after lift-off is at a maximum during takeoff. For the purpose of showing compliance with Stage 1 or Stage 2 noise limits for an airplane powered by more than three jet engines, the distance from the runway centerline must be 0.35 nautical miles (648 m). For jet airplanes, when approved by the FAA, the maximum lateral noise at takeoff thrust may be assumed to occur at the point (or its approved equivalent) along the extended centerline of the runway where the airplane reaches 985 feet (300 meters) altitude above ground level. A height of 1427 feet (435 meters) may be assumed for Stage 1 or Stage 2 four engine airplanes. The altitude of the airplane as it passes the noise measurement points must be within + 328 to −164 feet (+100 to −50 meters) of the target altitude. For airplanes powered by other than jet engines, the altitude for maximum lateral noise must be determined experimentally.

(2) For propeller-driven airplanes: The point on the extended centerline of the runway above which the airplane, at full takeoff power, reaches a height of 2,133 feet (650 meters). For tests conducted before August 7, 2002, an applicant may use the measurement point specified in section B36.3(a)(1) as an alternative.

(b) Flyover reference noise measurement point: The point on the extended centerline of the runway that is 21,325 feet (6,500 m) from the start of the takeoff roll;

(c) Approach reference noise measurement point: The point on the extended centerline of the runway that is 6,562 feet (2,000 m) from the runway threshold. On level ground, this corresponds to a position that is 394 feet (120 m) vertically below the 3° descent path, which originates at a point on the runway 984 feet (300 m) beyond the threshold.

Section B36.4 Test noise measurement points.

(a) If the test noise measurement points are not located at the reference noise measurement points, any corrections for the difference in position are to be made using the same adjustment procedures as for the differences between test and reference flight paths.

(b) The applicant must use a sufficient number of lateral test noise measurement points to demonstrate to the FAA that the maximum noise level on the appropriate lateral line has been determined. For jet airplanes, simultaneous measurements must be made at one test noise measurement point at its symmetrical point on the other side of the runway. Propeller-driven airplanes have an inherent asymmetry in lateral noise. Therefore, simultaneous measurements must be made at each and every test noise measurement point at its symmetrical position on the opposite side of the runway. The measurement points are considered to be symmetrical if they are longitudinally within 33 feet (±10 meters) of each other.

Section B36.5 Maximum Noise Levels

Except as provided in section B36.6 of this appendix, maximum noise levels, when determined in accordance with the noise evaluation methods of appendix A of this part, may not exceed the following:

(a) For acoustical changes to Stage 1 airplanes, regardless of the number of engines, the noise levels prescribed under § 36.7(c) of this part.

(b) For any Stage 2 airplane regardless of the number of engines:

(1) Flyover: 108 EPNdB for maximum weight of 600,000 pounds or more; for each halving of maximum weight (from 600,000 pounds), reduce the limit by 5 EPNdB; the limit is 93 EPNdB for a maximum weight of 75,000 pounds or less.

(2) Lateral and approach: 108 EPNdB for maximum weight of 600,000 pounds or more; for each halving of maximum weight (from 600,000 pounds), reduce the limit by 2 EPNdB; the limit is 102 EPNdB for a maximum weight of 75,000 pounds or less.

(1) Flyover.

(i) For airplanes with more than 3 engines: 106 EPNdB for maximum weight of 850,000 pounds or more; for each halving of maximum weight (from 850,000 pounds), reduce the limit by 4 EPNdB; the limit is 89 EPNdB for a maximum weight of 44,673 pounds or less;

(ii) For airplanes with 3 engines: 104 EPNdB for maximum weight of 850,000 pounds or more; for each halving of maximum weight (from 850,000 pounds), reduce the limit by 4 EPNdB; the limit is 89 EPNdB for a maximum weight of 63,177 pounds or less; and

(iii) For airplanes with fewer than 3 engines: 101 EPNdB for maximum weight of 850,000 pounds or more; for each halving of maximum weight (from 850,000 pounds), reduce the limit by 4 EPNdB; the limit is 89 EPNdB for a maximum weight of 106,250 pounds or less.

(2) Lateral, regardless of the number of engines: 103 EPNdB for maximum weight of 882,000 pounds or more; for each halving of maximum weight (from 882,000 pounds), reduce the limit by 2.56 EPNdB; the limit is 94 EPNdB for a maximum weight of 77,200 pounds or less.

(3) Approach, regardless of the number of engines: 105 EPNdB for maximum weight of 617,300 pounds or more; for each halving of maximum weight (from 617,300 pounds), reduce the limit by 2.33 EPNdB; the limit is 98 EPNdB for a maximum weight of 77,200 pounds or less.

(d) For any Stage 4 airplane, the flyover, lateral, and approach maximum noise levels are prescribed in Chapter 4, Paragraph 4.4, Maximum Noise Levels, and Chapter 3, Paragraph 3.4, Maximum Noise Levels, of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 16, Environmental Protection, Volume I, Aircraft Noise, Third Edition, July 1993, Amendment 7, effective March 21, 2002. [Incorporated by reference, see § 36.6].

(e) For any Stage 5 airplane, the flyover, lateral, and approach maximum noise levels are prescribed in Chapter 14, Paragraph 14.4, Maximum Noise Levels of ICAO Annex 16, Volume I, Amendment 11-B (Incorporated by reference, see § 36.6).

Section B36.6 Trade-Offs

Except when prohibited by sections 36.7(c)(1) and 36.7(d)(1)(ii), if the maximum noise levels are exceeded at any one or two measurement points, the following conditions must be met:

(a) The sum of the exceedance(s) may not be greater than 3 EPNdB;

(b) Any exceedance at any single point may not be greater than 2 EPNdB, and

Section B36.7 Noise Certification Reference Procedures and Conditions

(a) General conditions:

(1) All reference procedures must meet the requirements of section 36.3 of this part.

(2) Calculations of airplane performance and flight path must be made using the reference procedures and must be approved by the FAA.

(3) Applicants must use the takeoff and approach reference procedures prescribed in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.

(4) [Reserved]

(5) The reference procedures must be determined for the following reference conditions. The reference atmosphere is homogeneous in terms of temperature and relative humidity when used for the calculation of atmospheric absorption coefficients.

(i) Sea level atmospheric pressure of 2116 pounds per square foot (psf) (1013.25 hPa);

(ii) Ambient sea-level air temperature of 77 °F (25 °C, i.e., ISA + 10 °C);

(iii) Relative humidity of 70 per cent;

(iv) Zero wind.

(v) In defining the reference takeoff flight path(s) for the takeoff and lateral noise measurements, the runway gradient is zero.

(b) Takeoff reference procedure:

The takeoff reference flight path is to be calculated using the following:

(1) Average engine takeoff thrust or power must be used from the start of takeoff to the point where at least the following height above runway level is reached. The takeoff thrust/power used must be the maximum available for normal operations given in the performance section of the airplane flight manual under the reference atmospheric conditions given in section B36.7(a)(5).

(i) For Stage 1 airplanes and for Stage 2 airplanes that do not have jet engines with a bypass ratio of 2 or more, the following apply:

(A): For airplanes with more than three jet engines—700 feet (214 meters).

(B): For all other airplanes—1,000 feet (305 meters).

(ii) For Stage 2 airplanes that have jet engines with a bypass ratio of 2 or more and for Stage 3 airplanes, the following apply:

(A): For airplanes with more than three engines—689 feet (210 meters).

(B): For airplanes with three engines—853 feet (260 meters).

(C): For airplanes with fewer than three engines—984 feet (300 meters).

(2) Upon reaching the height specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, airplane thrust or power must not be reduced below that required to maintain either of the following, whichever is greater:

(i) A climb gradient of 4 per cent; or

(ii) In the case of multi-engine airplanes, level flight with one engine inoperative.

(3) For the purpose of determining the lateral noise level, the reference flight path must be calculated using full takeoff power throughout the test run without a reduction in thrust or power. For tests conducted before August 7, 2002, a single reference flight path that includes thrust cutback in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, is an acceptable alternative in determining the lateral noise level.

(4) The takeoff reference speed is the all-engine operating takeoff climb speed selected by the applicant for use in normal operation; this speed must be at least V2 + 10kt (V2 + 19km/h) but may not be greater than V2 + 20kt (V2 + 37km/h). This speed must be attained as soon as practicable after lift-off and be maintained throughout the takeoff noise certification test. For Concorde airplanes, the test day speeds and the acoustic day reference speed are the minimum approved value of V2 + 35 knots, or the all-engines-operating speed at 35 feet, whichever speed is greater as determined under the regulations constituting the type certification basis of the airplane; this reference speed may not exceed 250 knots. For all airplanes, noise values measured at the test day speeds must be corrected to the acoustic day reference speed.

(5) The takeoff configuration selected by the applicant must be maintained constantly throughout the takeoff reference procedure, except that the landing gear may be retracted. Configuration means the center of gravity position, and the status of the airplane systems that can affect airplane performance or noise. Examples include, the position of lift augmentation devices, whether the APU is operating, and whether air bleeds and engine power take-offs are operating;

(6) The weight of the airplane at the brake release must be the maximum takeoff weight at which the noise certification is requested, which may result in an operating limitation as specified in § 36.1581(d); and

(7) The average engine is defined as the average of all the certification compliant engines used during the airplane flight tests, up to and during certification, when operating within the limitations and according to the procedures given in the Flight Manual. This will determine the relationship of thrust/power to control parameters (e.g., N1 or EPR). Noise measurements made during certification tests must be corrected using this relationship.

The approach reference flight path must be calculated using the following:

(1) The airplane is stabilized and following a 3° glide path;

(2) For subsonic airplanes, a steady approach speed of Vref + 10 kts (Vref + 19 km/h) with thrust and power stabilized must be established and maintained over the approach measuring point. Vref is the reference landing speed, which is defined as the speed of the airplane, in a specified landing configuration, at the point where it descends through the landing screen height in the determination of the landing distance for manual landings. For Concorde airplanes, a steady approach speed that is either the landing reference speed + 10 knots or the speed used in establishing the approved landing distance under the airworthiness regulations constituting the type certification basis of the airplane, whichever speed is greater. This speed must be established and maintained over the approach measuring point.

(3) The constant approach configuration used in the airworthiness certification tests, but with the landing gear down, must be maintained throughout the approach reference procedure;

(4) The weight of the airplane at touchdown must be the maximum landing weight permitted in the approach configuration defined in paragraph (c)(3) of this section at which noise certification is requested, except as provided in § 36.1581(d) of this part; and

(5) The most critical configuration must be used; this configuration is defined as that which produces the highest noise level with normal deployment of aerodynamic control surfaces including lift and drag producing devices, at the weight at which certification is requested. This configuration includes all those items listed in section A36.5.2.5 of appendix A of this part that contribute to the noisiest continuous state at the maximum landing weight in normal operation.

Section B36.8 Noise Certification Test Procedures

(a) All test procedures must be approved by the FAA.

(b) The test procedures and noise measurements must be conducted and processed in an approved manner to yield the noise evaluation metric EPNL, in units of EPNdB, as described in appendix A of this part.

(c) Acoustic data must be adjusted to the reference conditions specified in this appendix using the methods described in appendix A of this part. Adjustments for speed and thrust must be made as described in section A36.9 of this part.

(d) If the airplane's weight during the test is different from the weight at which noise certification is requested, the required EPNL adjustment may not exceed 2 EPNdB for each takeoff and 1 EPNdB for each approach. Data approved by the FAA must be used to determine the variation of EPNL with weight for both takeoff and approach test conditions. The necessary EPNL adjustment for variations in approach flight path from the reference flight path must not exceed 2 EPNdB.

(e) For approach, a steady glide path angle of 3° ±0.5° is acceptable.

(f) If equivalent test procedures different from the reference procedures are used, the test procedures and all methods for adjusting the results to the reference procedures must be approved by the FAA. The adjustments may not exceed 16 EPNdB on takeoff and 8 EPNdB on approach. If the adjustment is more than 8 EPNdB on takeoff, or more than 4 EPNdB on approach, the resulting numbers must be more than 2 EPNdB below the limit noise levels specified in section B36.5.

(g) During takeoff, lateral, and approach tests, the airplane variation in instantaneous indicated airspeed must be maintained within ±3% of the average airspeed between the 10 dB-down points. This airspeed is determined by the pilot's airspeed indicator. However, if the instantaneous indicated airspeed exceeds ±3 kt (±5.5 km/h) of the average airspeed over the 10 dB-down points, and is determined by the FAA representative on the flight deck to be due to atmospheric turbulence, then the flight so affected must be rejected for noise certification purposes.

Note:

Guidance material on the use of equivalent procedures is provided in the current advisory circular for this part.

[Amdt. 36-54, 67 FR 45235, July 8, 2002; Amdt. 36-24, 67 FR 63196, Oct. 10, 2002; 68 FR 1512, Jan. 10, 2003; Amdt. 36-26, 70 FR 38749, July 5, 2005; FAA Doc. No. FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. No. 36-31, 82 FR 46131, Oct. 4, 2017]

Appendix F to Part 36 Flyover Noise Requirements for Propeller-Driven Small Airplane and Propeller-Driven, Commuter Category Airplane Certification Tests Prior to December 22, 1988

part a—general

Sec.

F36.1 Scope.

part b—noise measurement

F36.101 General test conditions.

F36.103 Acoustical measurement system.

F36.105 Sensing, recording, and reproducing equipment.

F36.107 Noise measurement procedures.

F36.109 Data recording, reporting, and approval.

F36.111 Flight procedures.

part c—data correction

F36.201 Correction of data.

F36.203 Validity of results.

part d—noise limits

F36.301 Aircraft noise limits.

part a—general

Section F36.1 Scope. This appendix prescribes noise level limits and procedures for measuring and correcting noise data for the propeller driven small airplanes specified in §§ 36.1 and 36.501(b).

part b—noise measurement

Sec. F36.101 General test conditions.

(a) The test area must be relatively flat terrain having no excessive sound absorption characteristics such as those caused by thick, matted, or tall grass, by shrubs, or by wooded areas. No obstructions which significantly influence the sound field from the airplane may exist within a conical space above the measurement position, the cone being defined by an axis normal to the ground and by a half-angle 75 degrees from this axis.

(b) The tests must be carried out under the following conditions:

(1) There may be no precipitation.

(2) Relative humidity may not be higher than 90 percent or lower than 30 percent.

(3) Ambient temperature may not be above 86 degrees F. or below 41 degrees F. at 33′ above ground. If the measurement site is within 1 n.m. of an airport thermometer the airport reported temperature may be used.

(4) Reported wind may not be above 10 knots at 33′ above ground. If wind velocities of more than 4 knots are reported, the flight direction must be aligned to within ±15 degrees of wind direction and flights with tail wind and head wind must be made in equal numbers. If the measurement site is within 1 n.m. of an airport anemometer, the airport reported wind may be used.

(5) There may be no temperature inversion or anomalous wind conditions that would significantly alter the noise level of the airplane when the noise is recorded at the required measuring point.

(6) The flight test procedures, measuring equipment, and noise measurement procedures must be approved by the FAA.

(7) Sound pressure level data for noise evaluation purposes must be obtained with acoustical equipment that complies with section F36.103 of this appendix.

Sec. F36.103 Acoustical measurement system. The acoustical measurement system must consist of approved equipment equivalent to the following:

(a) A microphone system with frequency response compatible with measurement and analysis system accuracy as prescribed in section F36.105 of this appendix.

(b) Tripods or similar microphone mountings that minimize interference with the sound being measured.

(c) Recording and reproducing equipment characteristics, frequency response, and dynamic range compatible with the response and accuracy requirements of section F36.105 of this appendix.

(d) Acoustic calibrators using sine wave or broadband noise of known sound pressure level. If broadband noise is used, the signal must be described in terms of its average and maximum root-mean-square (rms) value for nonoverload signal level.

Sec. F36.105 Sensing, recording, and reproducing equipment.

(a) The noise produced by the airplane must be recorded. A magnetic tape recorder is acceptable.

(b) The characteristics of the system must comply with the recommendations in IEC 179 (incorporated by reference, see § 36.6).

(c) The response of the complete system to a sensibly plane progressive sinusoidal wave of constant amplitude must lie within the tolerance limits specified in IEC Publication No. 179, dated 1973, over the frequency range 45 to 11,200 Hz.

(d) If limitations of the dynamic range of the equipment make it necessary, high frequency pre-emphasis must be added to the recording channel with the converse de-emphasis on playback. The pre-emphasis must be applied such that the instantaneous recorded sound pressure level of the noise signal between 800 and 11,200 Hz does not vary more than 20 dB between the maximum and minimum one-third octave bands.

(e) If requested by the Administrator, the recorded noise signal must be read through an “A” filter with dynamic characteristics designated “slow,” as defined in IEC Publication No. 179, dated 1973. The output signal from the filter must be fed to a rectifying circuit with square law rectification, integrated with time constants for charge and discharge of about 1 second or 800 milliseconds.

(f) The equipment must be acoustically calibrated using facilities for acoustic freefield calibration and if analysis of the tape recording is requested by the Administrator, the analysis equipment shall be electronically calibrated by a method approved by the FAA.

(g) A windscreen must be employed with microphone during all measurements of aircraft noise when the wind speed is in excess of 6 knots.

Sec. F36.107 Noise measurement procedures.

(a) The microphones must be oriented in a known direction so that the maximum sound received arrives as nearly as possible in the direction for which the microphones are calibrated. The microphone sensing elements must be approximately 4′ above ground.

(b) Immediately prior to and after each test; a recorded acoustic calibration of the system must be made in the field with an acoustic calibrator for the two purposes of checking system sensitivity and providing an acoustic reference level for the analysis of the sound level data.

(c) The ambient noise, including both acoustical background and electrical noise of the measurement systems, must be recorded and determined in the test area with the system gain set at levels that will be used for aircraft noise measurements. If aircraft sound pressure levels do not exceed the background sound pressure levels by at least 10 dB(A), approved corrections for the contribution of background sound pressure level to the observed sound pressure level must be applied.

Sec. F36.109 Data recording, reporting, and approval.

(a) Data representing physical measurements or corrections to measured data must be recorded in permanent form and appended to the record except that corrections to measurements for normal equipment response deviations need not be reported. All other corrections must be approved. Estimates must be made of the individual errors inherent in each of the operations employed in obtaining the final data.

(b) Measured and corrected sound pressure levels obtained with equipment conforming to the specifications described in section F36.105 of this appendix must be reported.

(c) The type of equipment used for measurement and analysis of all acoustic, airplane performance, and meteorological data must be reported.

(d) The following atmospheric data, measured immediately before, after, or during each test at the observation points prescribed in section F36.101 of this appendix must be reported:

(1) Air temperature and relative humidity.

(2) Maximum, minimum, and average wind velocities.

(e) Comments on local topography, ground cover, and events that might interfere with sound recordings must be reported.

(f) The following airplane information must be reported:

(1) Type, model and serial numbers (if any) of airplanes, engines, and propellers.

(2) Any modifications or nonstandard equipment likely to affect the noise characteristics of the airplane.

(3) Maximum certificated takeoff weights.

(4) Airspeed in knots for each overflight of the measuring point.

(5) Engine performance in terms of revolutions per minute and other relevant parameters for each overflight.

(6) Aircraft height in feet determined by a calibrated altimeter in the aircraft, approved photographic techniques, or approved tracking facilities.

(g) Aircraft speed and position and engine performance parameters must be recorded at an approved sampling rate sufficient to ensure compliance with the test procedures and conditions of this appendix.

Sec. F36.111 Flight procedures.

(a) Tests to demonstrate compliance with the noise level requirements of this appendix must include at least six level flights over the measuring station at a height of 1,000′ ±30′ and ±10 degrees from the zenith when passing overhead.

(b) Each test over flight must be conducted:

(1) At not less than the highest power in the normal operating range provided in an Airplane Flight Manual, or in any combination of approved manual material, approved placard, or approved instrument markings; and

(2) At stabilized speed with propellers synchronized and with the airplane in cruise configuration, except that if the speed at the power setting prescribed in this paragraph would exceed the maximum speed authorized in level flight, accelerated flight is acceptable.

part c—data correction

Sec. F36.201 Correction of data.

(a) Noise data obtained when the temperature is outside the range of 68 degrees F. ±9 degrees F., or the relative humidity is below 40 percent, must be corrected to 77 degrees F. and 70 percent relative humidity by a method approved by the FAA.

(b) The performance correction prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section must be used. It must be determined by the method described in this appendix, and must be added algebraically to the measured value. It is limited to 5dB(A).

Where:

D50 = Takeoff distance to 50 feet at maximum certificated takeoff weight.

R/C = Certificated best rate of climb (fpm).

Vy = Speed for best rate of climb in the same units as rate of climb.

(d) When takeoff distance to 50′ is not listed as approved performance information, the figures of 2000 for single-engine airplanes and 1600′ for multi-engine airplanes must be used.

Sec. F36.203 Validity of results.

(a) The test results must produce an average dB(A) and its 90 percent confidence limits, the noise level being the arithmetic average of the corrected acoustical measurements for all valid test runs over the measuring point.

(b) The samples must be large enough to establish statistically a 90 pecent confidence limit not to exceed ±1.5 dB(A). No test result may be omitted from the averaging process, unless omission is approved by the FAA.

part d—noise limits

Sec. F36.301 Aircraft noise limits.

(a) Compliance with this section must be shown with noise data measured and corrected as prescribed in Parts B and C of this appendix.

(b) For airplanes for which application for a type certificate is made on or after October 10, 1973, the noise level must not exceed 68 dB(A) up to and including aircraft weights of 1,320 pounds (600 kg.). For weights greater than 1,320 pounds up to and including 3,630 pounds (1.650 kg.) the limit increases at the rate of 1 dB/165 pounds (1 dB/75 kg.) to 82 dB(A) at 3,630 pounds, after which it is constant at 82 dB(A). However, airplanes produced under type certificates covered by this paragraph must also meet paragraph (d) of this section for the original issuance of standard airworthiness certificates or restricted category airworthiness certificates if those airplanes have not had flight time before the date specified in that paragraph.

(c) For airplanes for which application for a type certificate is made on or after January 1, 1975, the noise levels may not exceed the noise limit curve prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, except that 80 dB(A) may not be exceeded.

(d) For airplanes for which application is made for a standard airworthiness certificate or for a restricted category airworthiness certificate, and that have not had any flight time before January 1, 1980, the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section apply, regardless of date of application, to the original issuance of the certificate for that airplane.

[Doc. No. 13243, 40 FR 1035, Jan. 6, 1975; 40 FR 6347, Feb. 11, 1975, as amended by Amdt. 36-6, 41 FR 56064, Dec. 23, 1976; Amdt. 36-6, 42 FR 4113, Jan. 24, 1977; Amdt. 36-9, 43 FR 8754, Mar. 2, 1978; Amdt. 36-13, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987; Amdt. 36-16, 53 FR 47400, Nov. 22, 1988; FAA Doc. No. FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. No. 36-31, 82 FR 46131, Oct. 4, 2017]

Appendix G to Part 36 Takeoff Noise Requirements for Propeller-Driven Small Airplane and Propeller-Driven, Commuter Category Airplane Certification Tests on or After December 22, 1988

part a—general

Sec.

G36.1 Scope.

part b—noise measurement

G36.101 General Test Conditions.

G36.103 Acoustical measurement system.

G36.105 Sensing, recording, and reproducing equipment.

G36.107 Noise measurement procedures.

G36.109 Data recording, reporting, and approval.

G36.111 Flight procedures.

part c—data corrections

G36.201 Corrections to Test Results.

G36.203 Validity of results.

part d—noise limits

G36.301 Aircraft Noise Limits.

part a—general

Section G36.1 Scope. This appendix prescribes limiting noise levels and procedures for measuring noise and adjusting these data to standard conditions, for propeller driven small airplanes and propeller-driven, commuter category airplanes specified in §§ 36.1 and 36.501(c).

part b—noise measurement

Sec. G36.101 General Test Conditions.

(b) The tests must be carried out under the following conditions:

(1) No precipitation;

(2) Ambient air temperature between 36 and 95 degrees F (2.2 and 35 degrees C);

(3) Relative humidity between 20 percent and 95 percent, inclusively;

(4) Wind speed may not exceed 10 knots (19 km/h) and cross wind may not exceed 5 knots (9 km/h), using a 30-second average;

(5) No temperature inversion or anomalous wind condition that would significantly alter the noise level of the airplane when the nose is recorded at the required measuring point, and

(6) The meteorological measurements must be made between 4 ft. (1.2 m) and 33 ft. (10 m) above ground level. If the measurement site is within 1 n.m. of an airport meteorological station, measurements from that station may be used.

(d) Sound pressure level data for noise evaluation purposes must be obtained with acoustical equipment that complies with section G36.103 of this appendix.

Sec. G36.103 Acoustical Measurement System.

The acoustical measurement system must consist of approved equipment with the following characteristics: (a) A microphone system with frequency response compatible with measurement and analysis system accuracy as prescribed in section G36.105 of this appendix.

(b) Tripods or similar microphone mountings that minimize interference with the sound being measured.

(c) Recording and reproducing equipment characteristics, frequency response, and dynamic range compatible with the response and accuracy requirements of section G36.105 of this appendix.

Sec. G36.105 Sensing, Recording, and Reproducing Equipment.

(a) The noise produced by the airplane must be recorded. A magnetic tape recorder, graphic level recorder, or sound level meter is acceptable when approved by the regional certificating authority.

(b) The characteristics of the complete system must comply with the requirements in IEC 651 and IEC 561 (incorporated by reference, see § 36.6). Sound level meters must comply with the requirements for Type 1 sound level meters as specified in IEC 651.

(c) The response of the complete system to a sensibly plane progressive sinusoidal wave of constant amplitude must be within the tolerance limits specified in IEC 651, over the frequency range 45 to 11,200 Hz.

(d) If equipment dynamic range limitations make it necessary, high frequency pre-emphasis must be added to the recording channel with the converse de-emphasis on playback. The pre-emphasis must be applied such that the instantaneous recorded sound pressure level of the noise signal between 800 and 11,200 Hz does not vary more than 20 dB between the maximum and minimum one-third octave bands.

(e) The output noise signal must be read through an “A” filter with dynamic characteristics designated “slow” as defined in IEC 651. A graphic recorder, sound level meter, or digital equipment may be used.

(f) The equipment must be acoustically calibrated using facilities for acoustic free-field calibration and if analysis of the tape recording is requested by the Administrator, the analysis equipment shall be electronically calibrated by a method approved by the FAA. Calibrations shall be performed, as appropriate, in accordance with paragraphs A36.3.8 and A36.3.9 of appendix A of this part.

(g) A windscreen must be employed with the microphone during all measurements of aircraft noise when the wind speed is in excess of 5 knots (9 km/hr).

Sec. G36.107 Noise Measurement Procedures.

(a) The microphone must be a pressure type, 12.7 mm in diameter, with a protective grid, mounted in an inverted position such that the microphone diaphragm is 7 mm above and parallel to a white-painted metal circular plate. This white-painted metal plate shall be 40 cm in diameter and at least 2.5 mm thick. The plate shall be placed horizontally and flush with the surrounding ground surface with no cavities below the plate. The microphone must be located three-quarters of the distance from the center to the back edge of the plate along a radius normal to the line of flight of the test airplane.

(b) Immediately prior to and after each test, a recorded acoustic calibration of the system must be made in the field with an acoustic calibrator for the purposes of checking system sensitivity and providing an acoustic reference level for the analysis of the sound level data. If a tape recorder or graphic level recorder is used, the frequency response of the electrical system must be determined at a level within 10 dB of the full-scale reading used during the test, utilizing pink or pseudorandom noise.

(c) The ambient noise, including both acoustic background and electrical systems noise, must be recorded and determined in the test area with the system gain set at levels which will be used for aircraft noise measurements. If aircraft sound pressure levels do not exceed the background sound pressure levels by at least 10 dB(A), a takeoff measurement point nearer to the start of the takeoff roll must be used and the results must be adjusted to the reference measurement point by an approved method.

Sec. G36.109 Data Recording, Reporting, and Approval.

(a) Data representing physical measurements and adjustments to measured data must be recorded in permanent form and appended to the record, except that corrections to measurements for normal equipment response deviations need not be reported. All other adjustments must be approved. Estimates must be made of the individual errors inherent in each of the operations employed in obtaining the final data.

(b) Measured and corrected sound pressure levels obtained with equipment conforming to the specifications in section G36.105 of this appendix must be reported.

(c) The type of equipment used for measurement and analysis of all acoustical, airplane performance, and meteorological data must be reported.

(d) The following atmospheric data, measured immediately before, after, or during each test at the observation points prescribed in section G36.101 of this appendix must be reported:

(1) Ambient temperature and relative humidity.

(2) Maximum and average wind speeds and directions for each run.

(e) Comments on local topography, ground cover, and events that might interfere with sound recordings must be reported.

(f) The aircraft position relative to the takeoff reference flight path must be determined by an approved method independent of normal flight instrumentation, such as radar tracking, theodolite triangulation, or photographic scaling techniques.

(g) The following airplane information must be reported:

(1) Type, model, and serial numbers (if any) of airplanes, engines, and propellers;

(2) Any modifications or nonstandard equipment likely to affect the noise characteristics of the airplane;

(3) Maximum certificated takeoff weight;

(4) For each test flight, airspeed and ambient temperature at the flyover altitude over the measuring site determined by properly calibrated instruments;

(5) For each test flight, engine performance parameters, such as manifold pressure or power, propeller speed (rpm) and other relevant parameters. Each parameter must be determined by properly calibrated instruments. For instance, propeller RPM must be validated by an independent device accurate to within ±1 percent, when the airplane is equipped with a mechanical tachometer.

(6) Airspeed, position, and performance data necessary to make the corrections required in section G36.201 of this appendix must be recorded by an approved method when the airplane is directly over the measuring site.

Sec. G36.111 Flight Procedures.

(a) The noise measurement point is on the extended centerline of the runway at a distance of 8200 ft (2500 m) from the start of takeoff roll. The aircraft must pass over the measurement point within ±10 degrees from the vertical and within 20% of the reference altitude. The flight test program shall be initiated at the maximum approved takeoff weight and the weight shall be adjusted back to this maximum weight after each hour of flight time. Each flight test must be conducted at the speed for the best rate of climb (Vy) ±5 knots (±9 km/hour) indicated airspeed. All test, measurement, and data correction procedures must be approved by the FAA.

(b) The takeoff reference flight path must be calculated for the following atmospheric conditions:

(1) Sea level atmospheric pressure of 1013.25 mb (013.25 hPa);

(2) Ambient air temperature of 59 °F (15 °C);

(3) Relative humidity of 70 percent; and

(4) Zero wind.

(1) First segment.

(i) Takeoff power must be used from the brake release point to the point at which the height of 50 ft (15m) above the runway is reached.

(ii) A constant takeoff configuration selected by the applicant must be maintained through this segment.

(iii) The maximum weight of the airplane at brake-release must be the maximum for which noise certification is requested.

(iv) The length of this first segment must correspond to the airworthiness approved value for a takeoff on a level paved runway (or the corresponding value for seaplanes).

(2) Second segment.

(i) The beginning of the second segment corresponds to the end of the first segment.

(ii) The airplane must be in the climb configuration with landing gear up, if retractable, and flap setting corresponding to normal climb position throughout this second segment.

(iii) The airplane speed must be the speed for the best rate of climb (Vy).

(iv) For airplanes equipped with fixed pitch propellers, takeoff power must be maintained throughout the second segment. For airplanes equipped with variable pitch or constant speed propellers, takeoff power and rpm must be maintained throughout the second segment. If airworthiness limitations do not allow the application of takeoff power and rpm up to the reference point, then takeoff power and rpm must be maintained for as long as is permitted by such limitations; thereafter, maximum continuous power and rpm must be maintained. Maximum time allowed at takeoff power under the airworthiness standards must be used in the second segment. The reference height must be calculated assuming climb gradients appropriate to each power setting used.

part c—data corrections

Sec. G36.201 Corrections to Test Results.

(a) These corrections account for the effects of:

(1) Differences in atmospheric absorption of sound between meteorological test conditions and reference conditions.

(2) Differences in the noise path length between the actual airplane flight path and the reference flight path.

(3) The change in the helical tip Mach number between test and reference conditions.

(4) The change in the engine power between test and reference conditions.

(b) Atmospheric absorption correction is required for noise data obtained when the test conditions are outside those specified in Figure G1. Noise data outside the applicable range must be corrected to 59 F and 70 percent relative humidity by an FAA approved method.

(1) At or below 0.70 and the test helical tip Mach number is within 0.014 of the reference helical tip Mach number.

(2) Above 0.70 and at or below 0.80 and the test helical tip Mach number is within 0.007 of the reference helical tip Mach number.

(3) Above 0.80 and the test helical tip Mach number is within 0.005 of the reference helical tip Mach number. For mechanical tachometers, if the helical tip Mach number is above 0.8 and the test helical tip Mach number is within 0.008 of the reference helical tip Mach number.

(d) When the test conditions are outside those specified, corrections must be applied by an approved procedure or by the following simplified procedure:

(1) Measured sound levels must be corrected from test day meteorological conditions to reference conditions by adding an increment equal to

Delta (M) = (HT α—0.7 HR)/1000

where HT is the height in feet under test conditions, HR is the height in feet under reference conditions when the aircraft is directly over the noise measurement point and α is the rate of absorption for the test day conditions at 500 Hz as specified in SAE ARP 866A, entitled “Standard Values of Atmospheric Absorption as a function of Temperature and Humidity for use in Evaluating Aircraft Flyover Noise” as incorporated by reference under § 36.6.

(2) Measured sound levels in decibels must be corrected for height by algebraically adding an increment equal to Delta (1). When test day conditions are within those specified in figure G1:

Delta (1) = 22 log (HT/HR)

where HT is the height of the test aircraft when directly over the noise measurement point and HR is the reference height.

When test day conditions are outside those specified in figure G1:

Delta (1) = 20 log (HT/HR)

(3) Measured sound levels in decibels must be corrected for helical tip Mach number by algebraically adding an increment equal to:

Delta (2) = k log (MR/MT)

where MT and MR are the test and reference helical tip Mach numbers, respectively. The constant “k” is equal to the slope of the line obtained for measured values of the sound level in dB(A) versus helical tip Mach number. The value of k may be determined from approved data. A nominal value of k = 150 may be used when MT is smaller than MR. No correction may be made using the nominal value of k when MT is larger than MR. The reference helical tip Mach number MR is the Mach number corresponding to the reference conditions (RPM, airspeed, temperature) above the measurement point.

(4) Measured sound levels in decibels must be corrected for engine power by algebraically adding an increment equal to

Delta (3) = K3 log (PR/PT)

where PR and PT are the test and reference engine powers respectively obtained from the manifold pressure/torque gauges and engine rpm. The value of K3 shall be determined from approved data from the test airplane. In the absence of flight test data and at the discretion of the Administrator, a value of K3 = 17 may be used.

Sec. G36.203 Validity of Results.

(a) The measuring point must be overflown at least six times. The test results must produce an average noise level (LAmax) value within a 90 percent confidence limit. The average noise level is the arithmetic average of the corrected acoustical measurements for all valid test runs over the measuring point.

(b) The samples must be large enough to establish statistically a 90 percent confidence limit not exceeding ±1.5 dB(A). No test results may be omitted from the averaging process unless omission is approved by the FAA.

part d—noise limits

Sec. G36.301 Aircraft noise limits.

(a) Compliance with this section must be shown with noise data measured and corrected as prescribed in Parts B and C of this appendix.

(b) For single-engine airplanes for which the original type certification application is received before February 3, 2006 and multi-engine airplanes, the noise level must not exceed 76 dB(A) up to and including aircraft weights of 1,320 pounds (600 kg). For aircraft weights greater than 1,320 pounds, the limit increases from that point with the logarithm of airplane weight at the rate of 9.83 dB (A) per doubling of weight, until the limit of 88 dB (A) is reached, after which the limit is constant up to and including 19,000 pounds (8,618 kg). Figure G2 shows noise level limits vs airplane weight.

(c) For single-engine airplanes for which the original type certification application is received on or after February 3, 2006, the noise level must not exceed 70dB(A) for aircraft having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 1,257 pounds (570 kg) or less. For aircraft weights greater than 1,257 pounds, the noise limit increases from that point with the logarithm of airplane weight at the rate of 10.75dB(A) per doubling of weight, until the limit of 85dB(A) is reached, after which the limit is constant up to and including 19,000 pounds (8,618 kg). Figure G2 depicts noise level limits for airplane weights for single-engine airplanes.

(Secs. 313(a), 603, and 611(b), Federal Aviation Act of 1958 as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1423, and 1431(b)); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655 (c)); Title I, National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.); E. O. 11514, March 5, 1970 and 14 CFR 11.45).

[Amdt. 36-16, 53 FR 47400, Nov. 22, 1988; 53 FR 50157, Dec. 13, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 36-22, 64 FR 55602, Oct. 13, 1999; Amdt. 36-54, 67 FR 45236, July 8, 2002; Amdt. 36-27, 70 FR 45504, Aug. 5, 2005; Amdt. 36-28, 71 FR 532, Jan. 4, 2006; FAA Doc. No. FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. No. 36-31, 82 FR 46131, Oct. 4, 2017]

Appendix H to Part 36 Noise Requirements For Helicopters Under Subpart H

part a—reference conditions

Sec.

H36.1 General.

H36.3 Reference Test Conditions.

H36.5 Symbols and Units.

part b—noise measurement under § 36.801

H36.101 Noise certification test and measurement conditions.

H36.103 Takeoff test conditions.

H36.105 Flyover test conditions.

H36.107 Approach test conditions.

H36.109 Measurement of helicopter noise received on the ground.

H36.111 Reporting and correcting measured data.

H36.113 Atmospheric attenuation of sound.

part c—noise evaluation and calculation under § 36.803

H36.201 Noise evaluation in EPNdB.

H36.203 Calculation of noise levels.

H36.205 Detailed data correction procedures.

part d—noise limits under § 36.805

H36.301 Noise measurement, evaluation, and calculation.

H36.303 [Reserved]

H36.305 Noise levels.

part a—reference conditions

Section H36.1 General. This appendix prescribes noise requirements for helicopters specified under § 36.1, including:

(a) The conditions under which helicopter noise certification tests under Part H must be conducted and the measurement procedures that must be used under § 36.801 to measure helicopter noise during each test;

(b) The procedures which must be used under § 36.803 to correct the measured data to the reference conditions and to calculate the noise evaluation quantity designated as Effective Perceived Noise Level (EPNL); and

Section H36.3 Reference Test Conditions.

(a) Meteorological conditions. Aircraft position, performance data and noise measurements must be corrected to the following noise certification reference atmospheric conditions which shall be assumed to exist from the surface to the aircraft altitude:

(1) Sea level pressure of 2,116 psf (1,013.25 hPa).

(2) Ambient temperature of 77 degrees F (25 degrees C).

(3) Relative humidity of 70 percent.

(4) Zero wind.

(b) Reference test site. The reference test site is flat and without line-of-sight obstructions across the flight path that encompasses the 10 dB down points.

(2) The reference flight path is defined as a straight line segment inclined from the starting point (1,640 feet (500 meters) from the center microphone location and 65 feet (20 meters) above ground level) at a constant climb angle β defined by the certificated best rate of climb and Vy for minimum engine performance. The constant climb angle β is derived from the manufacturer's data (approved by the FAA) to define the flight profile for the reference conditions. The constant climb angle β is drawn through Cr and continues, crossing over station A, to the position corresponding to the end of the type certification takeoff path represented by position Ir.

(d) Level flyover reference profile. The beginning of the level flyover reference profile is represented by helicopter position Dr (Figure H2). The helicopter approaches position Dr in level flight 492 feet above ground level as measured at Station A. Reference airspeed must be either 0.9VH; 0.9VNE; 0.45VH + 65 kts (0.45VH + 120km/h); or 0.45VNE + 65kts (0.45VNE + 120 km/h), whichever of the four speeds is least. The helicopter crosses directly overhead station A in level flight and proceeds to position Jr.

(e) For noise certification purposes, VH is defined as the airspeed in level flight obtained using the minimum specified engine torque corresponding to maximum continuous power available for sea level pressure of 2,116 psf (1,013.25 hPa) at 77 °F (25 °C) ambient conditions at the relevant maximum certificated weight. The value of VNE is the never-exceed airspeed. The values of VH and VNE that are used for noise certification must be listed in the approved Rotorcraft Flight Manual.

(f) Approach reference profile. (1) Figure H3 illustrates approach profile, including reference conditions.

(i) The beginning of the approach profile is represented by helicopter position E. The position of the helicopter is recorded for a sufficient distance (EK) to ensure recording of the entire interval during which the measured helicopter noise level is within 10 dB of Maximum Tone Corrected Perceived Noise Level (PNLTM). The reference flight path, ErKr represents a stable flight condition in terms of torque, rpm, indicated airspeed, and rate of descent resulting in a 6° approach angle.

(ii) The test approach profile is defined by the approach angle η passing directly over the station A at a height of AH, to position K, which terminates the approach noise certification profile. The test approach angle η must be between 5.5° and 6.5°.

(2) The helicopter approaches position H along a constant 6° approach slope throughout the 10 dB down time period. The helicopter crosses position E and proceeds along the approach slope crossing over station A until it reaches position K.

Section H36.5 Symbols and units. The following symbols and units as used in this appendix for helicopter noise certification have the following meanings.

Flight Profile Identification—Positions

Position | Description

A | Location of the noise measuring point at the flight-track noise measuring station vertically below the reference (takeoff, flyover, or approach) flight path.

C | Start of noise certification takeoff flight path.

Cr | Start of noise certification reference takeoff flight path.

D | Start of noise certification flyover flight path.

Dr | Start of noise certification reference flyover path.

E | Start of noise certification approach flight path.

Er | Start of noise certification reference approach flight path.

F | Position on takeoff flight path directly above noise measuring station A.

Fr | Position on reference takeoff path directly above noise measuring Station A.

G | Position on flyover flight path directly above noise measuring station A.

Gr | Position on reference flyover path directly above noise measuring Station A.

H | Position on approach flight path directly above noise measuring station A.

Hr | Position on reference path directly above noise measuring Station A.

I | End of noise type certification takeoff flight path.

Ir | End of noise type certification reference takeoff flight path.

J | End of noise type certification flyover flight path.

Jr | End of noise type certification reference flyover flight path.

K | End of noise certification approach type flight path.

Kr | End of noise type certification reference approach flight path.

L | Position on measured takeoff flight path corresponding to PNLTM at station A.

Lr | Position on reference takeoff flight path corresponding to PNLTM of station A.

M | Position on measured flyover flight path corresponding to PNLTM of station A.

Mr | Position on reference flyover flight path corresponding to PNLTM of station A.

N | Position on measured approach flight path corresponding to PNLTM at station A.

Nr | Position on reference approach flight path corresponding to PNLTM at station A.

S | Sideline noise measuring station (note: a subscript denotes the aircraft orientation relative to the direction of flight).

Flight Profile Distances

Distance | Unit | Meaning

AF | Feet | Takeoff Height. The vertical distance between helicopter and station A.

AG | Feet | Flyover Height. The vertical distance between the helicopter and station A.

AH | Feet | Approach Height. The vertical distance between the helicopter and station A.

AL | Feet | Measured Takeoff Noise Path. The distance from station A to the measured helicopter position L.

ALr | Feet | Reference Takeoff Noise Path. The distance from station A to the reference helicopter position Lr.

AM | Feet | Measured Flyover Noise Path. The distance from station A to the measured helicopter position M.

AMr | Feet | Reference Flyover Noise Path. The distance from station A to helicopter position Mr on the reference flyover flight path.

AN | Feet | Measured Approach Noise Path. The distance from station A to the measured helicopter noise position N.

ANr | Feet | Reference Approach Noise Path. The distance from station A to the reference helicopter position Nr.

CI | Feet | Takeoff Flight Path Distance. The distance from position C at which the helicopter establishes a constant climb angle on the takeoff flight path passing over station A and continuing to position I at which the position of the helicopter need no longer be recorded.

DJ | Feet | Flyover Flight Path Distance. The distance from position D at which the helicopter is established on the flyover flight path passing over station A and continuing to position J at which the position of the helicopter need no longer be recorded.

EK | Feet | Approach Flight Path Distance. The distance from position E at which the helicopter establishes a constant angle on the approach flight path passing over station A and continuing to position K at which the position of the helicopter need no longer be recorded.

part b—noise measurement under § 36.801

Section H36.101 Noise certification test and measurement conditions.

(a) General. This section prescribes the conditions under which aircraft noise certification tests must be conducted and the measurement procedures that must be used to measure helicopter noise during each test.

(b) Test site requirements. (1) Tests to show compliance with established helicopter noise certification levels must consist of a series of takeoffs, level flyovers, and approaches during which measurement must be taken at noise measuring stations located at the measuring points prescribed in this section.

(2) Each takeoff test, flyover test, and approach test includes simultaneous measurements at the flight-track noise measuring station vertically below the reference flight path and at two sideline noise measuring stations, one on each side of the reference flight track 492 feet (150m) from, and on a line perpendicular to, the flight track of the noise measuring station.

(3) The difference between the elevation of either sideline noise measuring station may not differ from the flight-track noise measuring station by more than 20 feet.

(4) Each noise measuring station must be surrounded by terrain having no excessive sound absorption characteristics, such as might be caused by thick, matted, or tall grass, shrubs, or wooded areas.

(5) During the period when the takeoff, flyover, or approach noise/time record indicates the noise measurement is within 10 dB of PNLTM, no obstruction that significantly influences the sound field from the aircraft may exist—

(i) For any flight-track or sideline noise measuring station, within a conical space above the measuring position (the point on the ground vertically below the microphone), the cone being defined by an axis normal to the ground and by half-angle 80° from this axis; and

(ii) For any sideline noise measuring station, above the line of sight between the microphone and the helicopter.

(6) If a takeoff or flyover test series is conducted at weights other than the maximum takeoff weight for which noise certification is requested, the following additional requirements apply:

(i) At least one takeoff test and one flyover test must be conducted at, or above, the maximum certification weight.

(ii) Each test weight must be within + 5 percent or −10 percent of the maximum certification weight.

(7) Each approach test must be conducted with the aircraft stabilized and following a 6.0 degree ±0.5 degree approach angle and must meet the requirements of section H36.107 of this part.

(8) If an approach test series is conducted at weights other than the maximum landing weight for which certification is requested, the following additional requirements apply:

(i) At least one approach test must be conducted at a weight at, or above, the maximum landing weight.

(ii) Each test weight must be between + 5 percent and −10 percent of the maximum certification weight.

(1) No rain or other precipitation.

(2) Ambient air temperature between 14 °F and 95 °F (−10 °C and 35 °C), inclusively, at a point 33 feet (10 meters) above the ground at the noise measuring station and at the aircraft. The temperature and relative humidity measured at a point 33 feet (10 meters) above the ground at the noise measuring station must be used to adjust for propagation path absorption.

(3) Relative humidity and ambient temperature at a point 33 feet (10 meters) above the ground at the noise measuring station and at the aircraft, is such that the sound attenuation in the one-third octave band centered at 8 kHz is not greater than 12 dB/100 meters and the relative humidity is between 20 percent and 95 percent, inclusively.

(4) Wind velocity as measured at 10 meters above ground does not exceed 10 knots (19 km/h) and the crosswind component does not exceed 5 knots (9 km/h). The wind shall be determined using a continuous thirty-second averaging period spanning the 10dB down time interval.

(5) No anomalous meteorological conditions (including turbulence) that will significantly affect the noise level of the aircraft when the noise is recorded at each noise measuring station.

(6) The wind velocity, temperature, and relative humidity measurements required under the appendix must be measured in the vicinity of noise measuring stations 10 meters above the ground. The location of the meteorological measurements must be approved by the FAA as representative of those atmospheric conditions existing near the surface over the geographical area which aircraft noise measurements are made. In some cases, a fixed meteorological station (such as those found at airports or other facilities) may meet this requirement.

(7) Temperature and relative humidity measurements must be obtained within 30 minutes of each noise test.

(d) Aircraft testing procedures. (1) The aircraft testing procedures and noise measurements must be conducted and processed in a manner that yields the noise evaluation measure designated as Effective Perceived Noise Level (EPNL) in units of EPNdB, as prescribed in Appendix A of this part.

(2) The helicopter height and lateral position relative to the reference flight track (which passes through the flight track noise measuring station) must be determined using an FAA-approved method. The equipment used to make the determination must be independent of normal flight instrumentation. Applicable independent systems are radar tracking, theodolite triangulation, laser trajectography, photo scaling, or differential global positioning system.

(3) The helicopter position along the flight path must be related to the noise recorded at the noise measuring stations by means of synchronized signals recorded at an approved sampling rate. The helicopter position must be recorded relative to the reference flight track during the entire time interval in which the recorded signal is within 10 dB of PNLTM. Measuring and sampling equipment must be approved by the FAA before testing.

(4) Aircraft performance data sufficient to make the corrections required under section H36.205 of this appendix must be recorded at an FAA-approved sampling rate using FAA-approved equipment.

Section H36.103 Takeoff test conditions.

(a) This section, in addition to the applicable requirements of sections H36.101 and H36.205(b) of this appendix, applies to all takeoff noise tests conducted under this appendix to show compliance with Part 36.

(b) A test series must consist of at least six flights over the flight-track noise measuring station (with simultaneous measurements at all three noise measuring stations) as follows:

(1) An airspeed of either Vy ±5 knots or the lowest approved speed ±5 knots for the climb after takeoff, whichever speed is greater, must be established and maintained throughout the 10 dB-down time interval.

(2) The horizontal portion of each test flight must be conducted at an altitude of 65 feet (20 meters) above the ground level at the flight-track noise measuring station.

(3) Upon reaching a point 1,640 feet (500 meters) from the noise measuring station, the helicopter must be stabilized at the maximum takeoff power that corresponds to minimum installed engine(s) specification power available for the reference ambient conditions or gearbox torque limit, whichever is lower.

(4) The helicopter must be maintained throughout the 10 dB-down time interval at the best rate of climb speed Vy ±5 knots, or the lowest approved speed for climb after takeoff, whichever is greater, for an ambient temperature of 25 °C at sea level.

(5) The average rotor speed must not vary from the maximum normal operating rotor RPM by more than ±1.0 percent during the 10 dB-down time interval.

(6) The helicopter must stay within ±10° or ±65 feet (±20 meters), whichever is greater, from the vertical above the reference track throughout the 10dB-down time interval.

(7) A constant takeoff configuration selected by the applicant must be maintained throughout the takeoff reference procedure with the landing gear position consistent with the airworthiness certification tests for establishing best rate-of-climb speed, Vy.

Section H36.105 Flyover test conditions.

(a) This section, in addition to the applicable requirements of sections H36.101 and H36.205(c) of this appendix, applies to all flyover noise tests conducted under this appendix to show compliance with Part 36.

(b) A test series consists of at least six flights. The number of level flights made with a headwind component must be equal to the number of level flights made with a tailwind component with simultaneous measurements at all three noise measuring stations—

(1) In level flight cruise configuration;

(2) At a height of 492 feet ±30 feet (150 ±9 meters) above the ground level at the flight-track noise measuring station; and

(3) The helicopter must fly within ±10° or ±65 feet (±20 meters), whichever is greater, from the vertical above the reference track throughout the 10 dB-down time interval.

(1) At a speed of 0.9VH; 0.9VNE; 0.45VH + 65 kts (0.45VH + 120 km/h); or 0.45VNE + 65 kts (0.45VNE + 120 km/h), whichever speed is least, to be maintained throughout the measured portion of the flyover;

(2) At average rotor speed, which must not vary from the maximum normal operating rotor RPM by more than ±1.0 percent during the 10 dB-down time interval.

(3) With the power stabilized during the period when the measured helicopter noise level is within 10 dB of PNLTM.

(d) The airspeed shall not vary from the reference airspeed by more than ±5 knots (9 km/hr).

Section H36.107 Approach test conditions.

(a) This section, in addition to the requirements of sections H36.101 and H36.205(d) of this appendix, applies to all approach tests conducted under this appendix to show compliance with Part 36.

(b) A test series must consist of at least six flights over the flight-track noise measuring station (with simultaneous measurements at the three noise measuring stations)—

(1) On an approach slope of 6° ±0.5°;

(2) At a height of 394 ±33 feet (120 ±10 meters)

(3) The helicopter must fly within ±10° or ±65 feet (±20 meters) lateral deviation tolerance, whichever is greater, from the vertical above the reference track throughout the 10 dB-down time interval;

(4) At stabilized airspeed equal to the certificated best rate of climb Vy, or the lowest approved speed for approach, whichever is greater, with power stabilized during the approach and over the flight path reference point, and continued to a normal touchdown; and

(5) At average rotor speed, which may not vary from the maximum normal operating rotor RPM by more than ±1.0 percent during the 10 dB-down time interval; and

(6) The constant approach configuration used in airworthiness certification tests, with the landing gear extended, must be maintained throughout the approach reference procedure.

Section H36.109 Measurement of Helicopter Noise Received on the Ground.

The measurement system and the measurement, calibration and general analysis procedures to be used are provided in Appendix A, section A36.3 of this part.

Section H36.111 Reporting and correcting measured data.

(a) General. Data representing physical measurements, and corrections to measured data, including corrections to measurements for equipment response deviations, must be recorded in permanent form and appended to the record. Each correction must be reported and is subject to FAA approval. An estimate must be made of each individual error inherent in each of the operations employed in obtaining the final data.

(b) Data reporting. (1) Measured and corrected sound pressure levels must be presented in one-third octave band levels obtained with equipment conforming to the standards prescribed in section H36.109 of this appendix.

(2) The type of equipment used for measurement and analysis of all acoustic, aircraft performance, and meteorological data must be reported.

(3) The atmospheric environmental data required to demonstrate compliance with this appendix, measured throughout the test period, must be reported.

(4) Conditions of local topography, ground cover, or events which may interfere with sound recording must be reported.

(5) The following aircraft information must be reported:

(i) Type, model, and serial numbers, if any, of aircraft engines and rotors.

(ii) Gross dimensions of aircraft and location of engines.

(iii) Aircraft gross weight for each test run.

(iv) Aircraft configuration, including landing gear positions.

(v) Airspeed in knots.

(vi) Helicopter engine performance as determined from aircraft instruments and manufacturer's data.

(vii) Aircraft flight path, above ground level in feet, determined by an FAA approved method which is independent of normal flight instrumentation, such as radar tracking, theodolite triangulation, laser trajectography, or photographic scaling techniques.

(6) Aircraft speed, and position, and engine performance parameters must be recorded at an approved sampling rate sufficient to correct to the noise certification reference test conditions prescribed in section H36.3 of this appendix. Lateral position relative to the reference flight-track must be reported.

(c) Data corrections. (1) Aircraft position, performance data and noise measurement must be corrected to the noise certification reference conditions as prescribed in sections H36.3 and H36.205 of this appendix.

(2) The measured flight path must be corrected by an amount equal to the difference between the applicant's predicted flight path for the certification reference conditions and the measured flight path at the test conditions. Necessary corrections relating to helicopter flight path or performance may be derived from FAA-approved data for the difference between measured and reference conditions, together with appropriate allowances for sound attenuation with distance. The Effective Perceived Noise Level (EPNL) correction may not exceed 2.0 EPNdB except for takeoff flight condition, where the correction may not exceed 4.0 EPNdB, of which the arithmetic sum of Δ1 (described in section H36.205(f)(1)) and the term −7.5 log (AL/ALr) from Δ2 term (described in section H36.205(g)(1)(i)) may not exceed 2.0 EPNdB, for any combination of the following:

(i) The helicopter not passing vertically above the measuring station.

(ii) Any difference between the reference flight track and the actual test flight track; and

(iii) Detailed correction requirements prescribed in section H36.205 of this appendix.

(3) Helicopter sound pressure levels within the 10 dB-down time interval must exceed the mean background sound pressure levels determined under section B36.3.9.11 by at least 3 dB in each one-third octave band, or must be corrected under an FAA-approved method.

(d) Validity of results. (1) The test results must produce three average EPNL values within the 90 percent confidence limits, each value consisting of the arithmetic average of the corrected noise measurements for all valid test runs at the takeoff, level flyovers, and approach conditions. The 90 percent confidence limit applies separately to takeoff, flyover, and approach.

(2) The minimum sample size acceptable for each takeoff, approach, and flyover certification measurements is six. The number of samples must be large enough to establish statistically for each of the three average noise certification levels a 90 percent confidence limit which does not exceed ±1.5 EPNdB. No test result may be omitted from the averaging process, unless otherwise specified by the FAA.

(3) To comply with this appendix, a minimum of six takeoffs, six approaches, and six level flyovers is required. To be counted toward this requirement, each flight event must be validly recorded at all three noise measuring stations.

(4) The approved values of VH and Vy used in calculating test and reference conditions and flight profiles must be reported along with measured and corrected sound pressure levels.

Section H36.113 Atmospheric attenuation of sound.

(a) The values of the one-third octave band spectra measured during helicopter noise certification tests under this appendix must conform, or be corrected, to the reference conditions prescribed in section H36.3(a). Each correction must account for any differences in the atmospheric attenuation of sound between the test-day conditions and the reference-day conditions along the sound propagation path between the aircraft and the microphone. Unless the meteorological conditions are within the test window prescribed in this appendix, the test data are not acceptable.

(b) Attenuation rates. The procedure for determining the atmospheric attenuation rates of sound with distance for each one-third octave bands must be determined in accordance with SAE ARP 866A (Incorporated by reference, see § 36.6). The atmospheric attenuation equations are provided in both the International and English systems of units in section A36.7 of appendix A to this part.

(i) The ambient atmospheric conditions of temperature and relative humidity do not conform to the reference conditions, 77 °F and 70%, respectively, or

(ii) The measured flight paths do not conform to the reference flight paths.

(iii) The temperature and relative humidity measured at 33 feet (10 meters) above the ground must be used to adjust for propagation path absorption.

(2) The mean attenuation rate over the complete sound propagation path from the aircraft to the microphone must be computed for each one-third octave band from 50 Hz to 10,000 Hz. These rates must be used in computing the corrections required in section H36.111(d) of this appendix.

part c—noise evaluation and calculation under § 36.803

Section H36.201 Noise Evaluation in EPNdB.

(a) Effective Perceived Noise Level (EPNL), in units of effective perceived noise decibels (EPNdB), shall be used for evaluating noise level values under § 36.803 of this part. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the procedures in appendix A of Part 36 must be used for computing EPNL. appendix A includes requirements governing determination of noise values, including calculations of:

(1) Perceived noise levels;

(2) Corrections for spectral irregularities;

(3) Tone corrections;

(4) Duration corrections;

(5) Effective perceived noise levels; and

(6) Mathematical formulation of noy tables.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of section A36.4.3.1(a), for helicopter noise certification, corrections for spectral irregularities shall start with the corrected sound pressure level in the 50 Hz one-third octave band.

Section H36.203 Calculation of noise levels.

(a) To demonstrate compliance with the noise level limits of section H36.305, the noise values measured simultaneously at the three noise measuring points must be arithmetically averaged to obtain a single EPNdB value for each flight.

(b) The calculated noise level for each noise test series, i.e., takeoff, flyover, or approach must be the numerical average of at least six separate flight EPNdB values. The 90 percent confidence limit for all valid test runs under section H36.111(d) of this appendix applies separately to the EPNdB values for each noise test series.

Section H36.205 Detailed data correction procedures.

(a) General. If the test conditions do not conform to those prescribed as noise certification reference conditions under section H36.305 of this appendix, the following correction procedure shall apply:

(1) If there is any difference between measured test and reference conditions, an appropriate correction must be made to the EPNL calculated from the measured noise data. Conditions that can result in a different value include:

(i) Atmospheric absorption of sound under measured test conditions that are different from the reference test conditions; or

(ii) Measured flight path that is different from the reference flight path.

(2) The following correction procedures may produce one or more possible correction values which must be added algebraically to the calculated EPNL to bring it to reference conditions:

(i) The flight profiles must be determined for both reference and test conditions. The procedures require noise and flight path recording with a synchronized time signal from which the test profile can be delineated, including the aircraft position for which PNLTM is observed at the noise measuring station. For takeoff, the flight profile corrected to reference conditions may be derived from FAA approved manufacturer's data.

(ii) The sound propagation paths to the microphone from the aircraft position corresponding to PNLTM must be determined for both the test and reference profiles. The SPL values in the spectrum of PNLTM must then be corrected for the effects of—

(A) Change in atmospheric sound absorption;

(B) Atmospheric sound absorption on the linear difference between the two sound path lengths; and

(C) Inverse square law on the difference in sound propagation path length. The corrected values of SPL must then be converted to a reference condition PNLTM value from which PNLTM must be subtracted. The resulting difference represents the correction which must be added algebraically to the EPNL calculated from the measured data.

(iii) As observed at the noise measuring station, the measured PNLTM distance is different from the reference PNLTM distance and therefore the ratio must be calculated and used to determine a noise duration correction factor. Effective perceived noise level, EPNL, is determined by the algebraic sum of the maximum tone corrected perceived noise level (PNLTM) and the duration correction factor.

(iv) For aircraft flyover, alternative source noise corrections require FAA approval and must be determined and adjusted to account for noise level changes caused by the differences between measured test conditions and reference conditions.

(b) Takeoff profiles. (1) Figure H1 illustrates a typical takeoff profile, including reference conditions.

(i) The reference takeoff flight path is described in section H36.3(c).

(ii) The test parameters are functions of the helicopter's performance and weight and the atmospheric conditions of temperature, pressure, wind velocity and direction.

(2) For the actual takeoff, the helicopter approaches position C in level flight at 65 feet (20 meters) above ground level at the flight track noise measuring station and at either Vy ±5 knots or the lowest approved speed for the climb after takeoff, whichever speed is greater.

(3) Figure H1 illustrates the significant geometrical relationships influencing sound propagation. Position L represents the helicopter location on the measured takeoff path from which PNLTM is observed at station A, and Lr is the corresponding position on the reference sound propagation path. Propagation paths AL and ALr both form the same angle θ (theta) relative to their respective flight paths.

(c) Level flyover profiles. (1) The noise type certification level flyover profile is shown in Figure H2. Airspeed must be stabilized within ±5 knots of the reference airspeed determined using the procedures in section H36.3(d). The number of level flights made with a headwind component must be equal to the number of level flights made with a tailwind component.

(2) Figure H2 illustrates comparative flyover profiles when test conditions do not conform to prescribed reference conditions. The position of the helicopter shall be recorded for a distance (DJ) sufficient to ensure recording of the entire interval during which the measured helicopter noise level is within 10 dB of PNLTM, as required. The flyover profile is defined by the height AG which is a function of the operating conditions controlled by the pilot. Position M represents the helicopter location on the measured flyover flight path for which PNLTM is observed at station A, and Mr is the corresponding position on the reference flight path.

(d) Approach profiles. (1) Figure H3 illustrates a typical approach profile, including reference conditions.

(2) The helicopter approaches position H along a 6° (±0.5°) average approach slope throughout the 10dB-down time interval. Deviation from the 6° average approach slope must be approved by the FAA before testing.

(3) Figure H3 illustrates portions of the measured and reference approach flight paths including the significant geometrical relationships influencing sound propagation. The measured approach path is represented by segment EK with an approach allowable angle θ. Reference positions, Er and Kr, define an idealized reference approach angle of 6°. Position N represents the helicopter location on the measured approach flight path for which PNLTM is observed at measuring station A, and Nr is the corresponding position on the reference approach flight path. The measured and reference noise propagation paths are AN and ANr, respectively, both of which form the same angle, θAPP, corresponding to PNLTM relative to their approach flight paths.

(e) Correction of noise at source during level flyover. (1) For level overflight, if any combination of the following three factors, airspeed deviations from reference, rotor speed deviations from reference, and temperature deviations from reference, results in a noise correlating parameter whose value deviates from the reference value of this parameter, then source noise adjustments must be determined from the manufacturer's data that is approved by the FAA.

(2) Off-reference tip Mach number adjustments must be based upon a sensitivity curve of PNLTM versus advancing blade tip Mach number, deduced from overflights performed at different airspeeds surrounding the reference airspeed. If the test aircraft is unable to attain the reference value, then an extrapolation of the sensitivity curve is permitted if data cover at least a range of 0.03 Mach units. The advancing blade tip Mach number must be computed using true airspeed, onboard outside air temperature, and rotor speed. A separate PNLTM versus advancing blade tip Mach number function must be derived for each of the three certification microphone locations, i.e., centerline, sideline left, and sideline right. Sideline left and right are defined relative to the direction of flight for each run. PNLTM adjustments are to be applied to each microphone datum using the appropriate PNLTM function.

(f) PNLT corrections. If the measured ambient atmospheric conditions of temperature and relative humidity differ from those prescribed as reference conditions under this appendix (77 degrees F and 70 percent, respectively), corrections to the EPNL values must be calculated from the measured data under paragraph (a) of this section as follows:

(1) Takeoff flight path. For the takeoff flight path shown in Figure H1, the spectrum of PNLTM observed at station A for the aircraft at position L is decomposed into its individual SPL(i) values.

(i) Step 1. A set of corrected values are then computed as follows:

SPL(i)r = SPL(i) + C[α(i) − α(i)o]AL + Cα(i)o (AL − ALr) + 20 log (AL/ALr)

where SPL(i) and SPL(i)r are the measured and corrected sound pressure levels, respectively, in the i-th one-third octave band. The first correction term adjusts for the effect of change in atmospheric sound absorption where α(i) and α(i)o are the sound attenuation coefficients for the test and reference atmospheric conditions, respectively, for the i-th one-third octave band, and AL is the measured takeoff sound propagation path. The conversion factor constant, C, is 0.001 for English System of Units and is 0.01 for International System of Units. The second correction term adjusts for the effects of atmospheric attenuation due to the difference in the sound propagation path length where ALr is the Reference takeoff sound propagation path. The third correction term, known as the “inverse square” law, adjusts for the effect of the difference in the sound propagation path lengths.

(ii) Step 2. The corrected values of the SPL(i)r are then converted to reference condition PNLT and a correction term calculated as follows:

Δ1 = PNLT − PNLTM

which represents the correction to be added algebraically to the EPNL calculated from the measured data.

(2) Level flyover flight path. (i) The procedure described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section for takeoff paths is also used for the level flyover paths, with the values of SPL(i)r relating to the flyover sound propagation paths shown in Figure H2 as follows:

SPL(i)r = SPL(i) + C[α(i) − α(i)o]AM + Cα(i)o (AM − AMr) + 20 log (AM/AMr)

where the lines AM and AMr are the measured and reference level flyover sound propagation paths, respectively.

(ii) The remainder of the procedure is the same for the flyover condition as that prescribed in the paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section regarding takeoff flight path.

(3) Approach flight path. (i) The procedure described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section for takeoff paths is also used for the approach paths, with the values of SPL(i)r relating to the approach sound propagation paths shown in Figure H3 as follows:

SPL(i)r = SPL(i) + C[α(i) − α(i)o]AN + Cα(i)o (AN − ANr) + 20 log (AN/ANr)

where the lines AN and ANr are the measured and reference approach sound propagation paths, respectively.

(ii) The remainder of the procedure is the same for the approach condition as that prescribed in the paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section regarding takeoff flight path.

(4) Sideline microphones. (i) The procedure prescribed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section for takeoff paths is also used for the propagation to the sideline locations, with the values of SPL(i)r relating as follows to the measured sideline sound propagation path shown in Figure H3 as follows:

SPL(i)r = SPL(i) + C[α(i) − α(i)o]SX + Cα(i)o (SX − SXr) + 20 log (SX/SXr)

where S is the sideline measuring station and, based upon the flight condition, the helicopter positions, X and Xr, correspond to:

X = L, and Xr = Lr for takeoff

X = M, and Xr = Mr for flyover

X = N, and Xr = Nr for approach

(ii) The remainder of the procedure is the same for the sideline paths as that prescribed in the paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section regarding takeoff flight paths.

(g) Duration corrections. (1) If the measured takeoff and approach flight paths do not conform to those prescribed as the corrected and reference flight paths, respectively, under section A36.5(d)(2) it will be necessary to apply duration corrections to the EPNL values calculated from the measured data. Such corrections must be calculated as follows:

(i) Takeoff flight path. For the takeoff path shown in Figure H1, the correction term is calculated using the formula—

Δ2 = −7.5 log (AL/ALr) + 10 log (V/Vr)

which represents the correction that must be added algebraically to the EPNL calculated from the measured data. The lengths AL and ALr are the measured and reference takeoff distances from the noise measuring station A to the measured and the reference takeoff paths, respectively. A negative sign indicates that, for the particular case of a duration correction, the EPNL calculated from the measured data must be reduced if the measured takeoff path is at greater altitude than the reference takeoff path.

(ii) Level flyover flight paths. For the level flyover flight path, the correction term is calculated using the formula—

Δ2 = −7.5 log (AM/AMr) + 10 log (V/Vr)

where AM is the measured flyover distance from the noise measuring station A to the measured flyover path, and AMr is the reference distance from station A to the reference flyover path.

(iii) Approach flight path. For the approach path shown in Figure H3, the correction term is calculated using the formula—

Δ2 = −7.5 log (AN/ANr) + 10 log (V/Vr)

where AN is the measured approach distance from the noise measuring station A to the measured approach path, and ANr is the reference distance from station A to the reference approach path.

(iv) Sideline microphones. For the sideline flight path, the correction term is calculated using the formula—

Δ2 = −7.5 log (SX/SXr) + 10 log (V/Vr)

where S is the sideline measuring station and based upon the flight condition, the helicopter positions, X and Xr, correspond to:

X = L, and Xr = Lr for takeoff

X = M, and Xr = Mr for flyover

X = N, and Xr = Nr for approach

(2) The adjustment procedure described in this section shall apply to the sideline microphones in the take-off, overflight, and approach cases. Although the noise emission is strongly dependent on the directivity pattern, variable from one helicopter type to another, the propagation angle θ shall be the same for test and reference flight paths. The elevation angle ψ shall not be constrained but must be determined and reported. The certification authority shall specify the acceptable limitations on ψ. Corrections to data obtained when these limits are exceeded shall be applied using FAA approved procedures.

part d—noise limits under § 36.805

Section H36.301 Noise measurement, evaluation, and calculation.

Compliance with this part of this appendix must be shown with noise levels measured, evaluated, and calculated as prescribed under Parts B and C of this appendix.

Section H36.303 [Reserved]

Section H36.305 Noise levels.

(a) Limits. For compliance with this appendix, the applicant must show by flight test that the calculated noise levels of the helicopter, at the measuring points described in section H36.305(a) of this appendix, do not exceed the following, (with appropriate interpolation between weights):

(1) Stage 1 noise limits for acoustical changes for helicopters are as follows:

(i) For takeoff, flyover, and approach calculated noise levels, the noise levels of each Stage 1 helicopter that exceed the Stage 2 noise limits plus 2 EPNdB may not, after a change in type design, exceed the noise levels created prior to the change in type design.

(ii) For takeoff, flyover, and approach calculated noise levels, the noise levels of each Stage 1 helicopter that do not exceed the Stage 2 noise limits plus 2 EPNdB may not, after the change in type design, exceed the Stage 2 noise limits plus 2 EPNdB.

(2) Stage 2 noise limits are as follows:

(i) For takeoff calculated noise levels—109 EPNdB for maximum takeoff weights of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, reduced by 3.01 EPNdB per halving of the weight down to 89 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant.

(ii) For flyover calculated noise levels—108 EPNdB for maximum weights of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, reduced by 3.01 EPNdB per halving of the weight down to 88 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant.

(iii) For approach calculated noise levels—110 EPNdB for maximum weights of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, reduced by 3.01 EPNdB per halving of the weight down to 90 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant.

(3) Stage 3 noise limits are as follows:

(i) For takeoff—For a helicopter having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, the noise limit is 106 EPNdB, which decreases linearly with the logarithm of the helicopter weight (mass) at a rate of 3.0 EPNdB per halving of the weight (mass) down to 86 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant.

(ii) For flyover—For a helicopter having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, the noise limit is 104 EPNdB, which decreases linearly with the logarithm of the helicopter weight (mass) at a rate of 3.0 EPNdB per halving of the weight (mass) down to 84 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant.

(iii) For approach—For a helicopter having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, the noise limit is 109 EPNdB, which decreases linearly with the logarithm of the helicopter weight (mass) at a rate of 3.0 EPNdB per halving of the weight (mass) down to 89 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant.

(b) Tradeoffs. Except to the extent limited under § 36.11(b) of this part, the noise limits prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section may be exceeded by one or two of the takeoff, flyover, or approach calculated noise levels determined under section H36.203 of this appendix if

(1) The sum of the exceedances is not greater than 4 EPNdB;

(2) No exceedance is greater than 3 EPNdB; and

(3) The exceedances are completely offset by reduction in the other required calculated noise levels.

[Amdt. 36-14, 53 FR 3541, Feb. 5, 1988; 53 FR 4099, Feb. 11, 1988; 53 FR 7728, Mar. 10, 1988, as amended by Amdt. 36-54, 67 FR 45237, July 8, 2002; Amdt. 36-25, 69 FR 31234, June 2, 2004; Amdt. 36-25, 69 FR 41573, July 9, 2004; Amdt. 36-30, 79 FR 12045, Mar. 4, 2014; FAA Doc. No. FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. No. 36-31, 82 FR 46131, Oct. 4, 2017]

Appendix J to Part 36 Alternative Noise Certification Procedure for Helicopters Under Subpart H Having a Maximum Certificated Takeoff Weight of Not More Than 7,000 Pounds

part a—reference conditions

Sec.

J36.1 General.

J36.3 Reference Test Conditions.

J36.5 [Reserved]

part b—noise measurement procedure under § 36.801

J36.101 Noise certification test and measurement conditions.

J36.103 [Reserved]

J36.105 Flyover test conditions.

J36.107 [Reserved]

J36.109 Measurement of helicopter noise received on the ground.

J36.111 Reporting requirements.

J36.113 [Reserved]

part c—noise evaluation and calculation under § 36.803

J36.201 Noise evaluation in SEL.

J36.203 Calculation of noise levels.

J36.205 Detailed data correction procedures.

part d—noise limits procedure under § 36.805

J36.301 Noise measurement, evaluation, and calculation.

J36.303 [Reserved]

J36.305 Noise limits.

part a—reference conditions

Section J36.1 General.

This appendix prescribes the alternative noise certification requirements identified under § 36.1 of this part and subpart H of this part for helicopters in the primary, normal, transport, and restricted categories having maximum certificated takeoff weight of not more than 7,000 pounds including:

(a) The conditions under which an alternative noise certification test under subpart H of this part must be conducted and the alternative measurement procedure that must be used under § 36.801 of this part to measure the helicopter noise during the test;

(b) The alternative procedures which must be used under § 36.803 of this part to correct the measured data to the reference conditions and to calculate the noise evaluation quantity designated as Sound Exposure Level (SEL); and

Section J36.3 Reference Test Conditions.

(a) Meteorological conditions. The following are the noise certification reference atmospheric conditions which shall be assumed to exist from the surface to the helicopter altitude:

(1) Sea level pressure of 2116 pounds per square foot (76 centimeters mercury);

(2) Ambient temperature of 77 degrees Fahrenheit (25 degrees Celsius);

(3) Relative humidity of 70 percent; and

(4) Zero wind.

(b) Reference test site. The reference test site is flat and without line-of-sight obstructions across the flight path that encompasses the 10 dB down points of the A-weighted time history.

(c) Level flyover reference profile. The reference flyover profile is a level flight, 492 feet (150 meters) above ground level as measured at the noise measuring station. The reference flyover profile has a linear flight track and passes directly over the noise monitoring station. Airspeed is stabilized at 0.9VH; 0.9VNE; 0.45VH + 65 kts (120 km/h); or 0.45VNE + 65 kts (120 km/h), whichever of the four airspeeds is least, and maintained throughout the measured portion of the flyover. Rotor speed is stabilized at the maximum normal operating RPM throughout the 10 dB-down time interval.

(1) For noise certification purposes, VH is defined as the airspeed in level flight obtained using the minimum specification engine power corresponding to maximum continuous power available for sea level pressure of 2,116 psf (1,013.25 hPa) at 77 °F (25 °C) ambient conditions at the relevant maximum certificated weight. The value of VH and VNE used for noise certification must be included in the Flight Manual.

(2) VNE is the never-exceed airspeed.

(d) The weight of the helicopter shall be the maximum takeoff weight at which noise certification is requested.

Section J36.5 [Reserved]

Part B—Noise Measurement Procedure Under § 36.801

Section J36.101 Noise certification test and measurement conditions.

(a) General. This section prescribes the conditions under which helicopter noise certification tests must be conducted and the measurement procedures that must be used to measure helicopter noise during each test.

(b) Test site requirements. (1) The noise measuring station must be surrounded by terrain having no excessive sound absorption characteristics, such as might be caused by thick, matted, or tall grass, shrubs, or wooded areas.

(2) During the period when the flyover noise measurement is within 10 dB of the maximum A-weighted sound level, no obstruction that significantly influences the sound field from the helicopter may exist within a conical space above the noise measuring position (the point on the ground vertically below the microphone), the cone is defined by an axis normal to the ground and by half-angle 80 degrees from this axis.

(1) No rain or other precipitation;

(2) Ambient air temperature between 36 degrees and 95 degrees Fahrenheit (2 degrees and 35 degrees Celsius), inclusively, and relative humidity between 20 percent and 95 percent inclusively, except that testing may not take place where combinations of temperature and relative humidity result in a rate of atmospheric attenuation greater than 10 dB per 100 meters (30.5 dB per 1000 ft) in the one-third octave band centered at 8 kiloHertz.

(3) Wind velocity that does not exceed 10 knots (19 km/h) and a crosswind component that does not exceed 5 knots (9 km/h). The wind shall be determined using a continuous averaging process of no greater than 30 seconds;

(4) Measurements of ambient temperature, relative humidity, wind speed, and wind direction must be made between 4 feet (1.2 meters) and 33 feet (10 meters) above the ground. Unless otherwise approved by the FAA, ambient temperature and relative humidity must be measured at the same height above the ground.

(5) No anomalous wind conditions (including turbulence) or other anomalous meteorological conditions that will significantly affect the noise level of the helicopter when the noise is recorded at the noise measuring station; and

(6) If the measurement site is within 6560 feet (2,000 meters) of a fixed meteorological station (such as those found at airports or other facilities) the weather measurements reported for temperature, relative humidity and wind velocity may be used, if approved by the FAA.

(d) Helicopter testing procedures. (1) The helicopter testing procedures and noise measurements must be conducted and processed in a manner which yields the noise evaluation measure designated Sound Exposure Level (SEL) as defined in section J36.109(b) of this appendix.

(2) The helicopter height relative to the noise measurement point sufficient to make corrections required under section J36.205 of this appendix must be determined by an FAA-approved method that is independent of normal flight instrumentation, such as radar tracking, theodolite triangulation, laser trajectography, or photographic scaling techniques.

(3) If an applicant demonstrates that the design characteristics of the helicopter would prevent flight from being conducted in accordance with the reference test conditions prescribed under section J36.3 of this appendix, then with FAA approval, the reference test conditions used under this appendix may vary from the standard reference test conditions, but only to the extent demanded by those design characteristics which make compliance with the reference test conditions impossible.

Section J36.103 [Reserved]

Section J36.105 Flyover test conditions.

(a) This section prescribes the flight test conditions and allowable random deviations for flyover noise tests conducted under this appendix.

(b) A test series must consist of at least six flights. The number of level flights made with a headwind component must be equal to the number of level flights made with a tailwind component over the noise measurement station:

(1) In level flight and in cruise configuration;

(2) At a height of 492 feet ±50 feet (150 ±15 meters) above the ground level at the noise measuring station; and

(3) Within ±10 degrees from the zenith.

(1) At the reference airspeed specified in section J36.3(c) of this appendix, with such airspeed adjusted as necessary to produce the same advancing blade tip Mach number as associated with the reference conditions;

(i) Advancing blade tip Mach number (MAT) is defined as the ratio of the arithmetic sum of blade tip rotational speed (VR) and the helicopter true air speed (VT) over the speed of sound (c) at 77 degrees Fahrenheit (1135.6 ft/sec or 346.13 m/sec) such that MAT = (VR + VT)/c; and

(ii) The airspeed shall not vary from the adjusted reference airspeed by more than ±3 knots (±5 km/hr) or an equivalent FAA-approved variation from the reference advancing blade tip Mach number. The adjusted reference airspeed shall be maintained throughout the measured portion of the flyover.

(2) At rotor speed stabilized at the power on maximum normal operating rotor RPM (±1 percent); and

(3) With the power stabilized during the period when the measured helicopter noise level is within 10 dB of the maximum A-weighted sound level (LAMAX).

(d) The helicopter test weight for each flyover test must be within plus 5 percent or minus 10 percent of the maximum takeoff weight for which certification under this part is requested.

(e) The requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section notwithstanding, flyovers at an FAA-approved lower height may be used and the results adjusted to the reference measurement point by an FAA-approved method if the ambient noise in the test area, measured in accordance with the requirements prescribed in section J36.109 of this appendix, is found to be within 15 dB(A) of the maximum A-weighted helicopter noise level (LAMAX) measured at the noise measurement station in accordance with section J36.109 of this appendix.

Section J36.107 [Reserved]

Section J36.109 Measurement of helicopter noise received on the ground.

(a) General. (1) The helicopter noise measured under this appendix for noise certification purposes must be obtained with FAA-approved acoustical equipment and measurement practices.

(2) Paragraph (b) of this section identifies and prescribes the specifications for the noise evaluation measurements required under this appendix. Paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section prescribe the required acoustical equipment specifications. Paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section prescribe the calibration and measurement procedures required under this appendix.

(b) Noise unit definition. (1) The value of sound exposure level (SEL, or as denoted by symbol, LAE), is defined as the level, in decibels, of the time integral of squared ‘A’-weighted sound pressure (PA) over a given time period or event, with reference to the square of the standard reference sound pressure (PO) of 20 micropascals and a reference duration of one second.

(2) This unit is defined by the expression:

Where TO is the reference integration time of one second and (t2-t1) is the integration time interval.

(3) The integral equation of paragraph (b)(2) of this section can also be expressed as:

Where LA(t) is the time varying A-weighted sound level.

(4) The integration time (t2-t1) in practice shall not be less than the time interval during which LA(t) first rises to within 10 dB(A) of its maximum value (LAMAX) and last falls below 10 dB(A) of its maximum value.

(5) The SEL may be approximated by the following expression:

LAE = LAMAX + <delta>A

where <delta>A is the duration allowance given by:

<delta>A = 10 log10 (T)

where T = (t2-t1)/2 and LAMAX is defined as the maximum level, in decibels, of the A-weighted sound pressure (slow response) with reference to the square of the standard reference sound pressure (P0).

(c) Measurement system. The acoustical measurement system must consist of FAA-approved equipment equivalent to the following:

(1) A microphone system with frequency response that is compatible with the measurement and analysis system accuracy prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section;

(2) Tripods or similar microphone mountings that minimize interference with the sound energy being measured;

(3) Recording and reproducing equipment with characteristics, frequency response, and dynamic range that are compatible with the response and accuracy requirements of paragraph (d) of this section; and

(4) The calibration and checking of measurement systems must use the procedures described in Section A36.3.9.

(d) Sensing, recording, and reproducing equipment. (1) The noise levels measured from helicopter flyovers under this appendix may be determined directly by an integrating sound level meter, or the A-weighted sound level time history may be written onto a graphic level recorder set at “slow” response from which the SEL value may be determined. With the approval of the FAA, the noise signal may be tape recorded for subsequent analysis.

(i) The SEL values from each flyover test may be directly determined from an integrating sound level meter complying with the standards of IEC 804 (Incorporated by reference, see § 36.6) for a Type 1 instrument set at “slow” response.

(ii) The acoustic signal from the helicopter, along with the calibration signals specified under paragraph (e) of this section and the background noise signal required under paragraph (f) of this section, may be recorded on a magnetic tape recorder for subsequent analysis for an integrating sound level meter identified in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section. The record/playback system (including the audio tape) of the tape recorder must conform to the requirements prescribed in section A36.3.6 of appendix A to this part. The tape recorder shall comply with the specifications of IEC 561 (Incorporated by reference, see § 36.6).

(iii) The characteristics of the complete system shall comply with the recommendations given in IEC 651 (Incorporated by reference, see § 36.6) with regard to the specifications concerning microphone, amplifier, and indicating instrument characteristics.

(iv) The response of the complete system to a sensibly plane progressive wave of constant amplitude shall lie within the tolerance limits specified in Table IV and Table V for Type 1 instruments in IEC 651 for weighting curve “A” over the frequency range of 45 Hz to 11500 Hz.

(2) [Reserved]

(v) A windscreen must be used with the microphone during each measurement of the helicopter flyover noise. Correction for any insertion loss produced by the windscreen, as a function of the frequency of the acoustic calibration required under paragraph (e) of this section, must be applied to the measured data and any correction applied must be reported.

(e) Calibrations. (1) If the helicopter acoustic signal is tape recorded for subsequent analysis, the measuring system and components of the recording system must be calibrated as prescribed under section A36.3.6 of appendix A of this part.

(2) If the helicopter acoustic signal is directly measured by an integrating sound level meter:

(i) The overall sensitivity of the measuring system shall be checked before and after the series of flyover tests and at intervals (not exceeding one-hour duration) during the flyover tests using an acoustic calibrator using sine wave noise generating a known sound pressure level at a known frequency.

(ii) The performance of equipment in the system will be considered satisfactory if, during each day's testing, the variation in the calibration value does not exceed 0.5 dB. The SEL data collected during the flyover tests shall be adjusted to account for any variation in the calibration value.

(iii) A performance calibration analysis of each piece of calibration equipment, including acoustic calibrators, reference microphones, and voltage insertion devices, must have been made during the six calendar months proceeding the beginning of the helicopter flyover series. Each calibration shall be traceable to the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

(f) Noise measurement procedures. (1) The microphone shall be of the pressure-sensitive capacitive type designed for nearly uniform grazing incidence response. The microphone shall be mounted with the center of the sensing element 4 feet (1.2 meters) above the local ground surface and shall be oriented for grazing incidence such that the sensing element, the diaphragm, is substantially in the plane defined by the nominal flight path of the helicopter and the noise measurement station.

(2) If a tape recorder is used, the frequency response of the electrical system must be determined at a level within 10 dB of the full-scale reading used during the test, utilizing pink or pseudorandom noise.

(3) The ambient noise, including both acoustical background and electrical noise of the measurement systems shall be determined in the test area and the system gain set at levels which will be used for helicopter noise measurements. If helicopter sound levels do not exceed the background sound levels by at least 15 dB(A), flyovers at an FAA-approved lower height may be used and the results adjusted to the reference measurement point by an FAA-approved method.

(4) If an integrating sound level meter is used to measure the helicopter noise, the instrument operator shall monitor the continuous A-weighted (slow response) noise levels throughout each flyover to ensure that the SEL integration process includes, at minimum, all of the noise signal between the maximum A-weighted sound level (LAMAX) and the 10 dB down points in the flyover time history. The instrument operator shall note the actual db(A) levels at the start and stop of the SEL integration interval and document these levels along with the value of LAMAX and the integration interval (in seconds) for inclusion in the noise data submitted as part of the reporting requirements under section J36.111(b) of this appendix.

Section J36.111 Reporting Requirements.

(b) Data reporting. After the completion of the test the following data must be included in the test report furnished to the FAA:

(1) Measured and corrected sound levels obtained with equipment conforming to the standards prescribed in section J36.109 of this appendix;

(2) The type of equipment used for measurement and analysis of all acoustic, aircraft performance and flight path, and meteorological data;

(3) The atmospheric environmental data required to demonstrate compliance with this appendix, measured throughout the test period;

(4) Conditions of local topography, ground cover, or events which may interfere with the sound recording;

(5) The following helicopter information:

(i) Type, model, and serial numbers, if any, of helicopter, engine(s) and rotor(s);

(ii) Gross dimensions of helicopter, location of engines, rotors, type of antitorque system, number of blades for each rotor, and reference operating conditions for each engine and rotor;

(iii) Any modifications of non-standard equipment likely to affect the noise characteristics of the helicopter;

(iv) Maximum takeoff weight for which certification under this appendix is requested;

(v) Aircraft configuration, including landing gear positions;

(vi) VH or VNE (whichever is less) and the adjusted reference airspeed;

(vii) Aircraft gross weight for each test run;

(viii) Indicated and true airspeed for each test run;

(ix) Ground speed, if measured, for each run;

(x) Helicopter engine performance as determined from aircraft instruments and manufacturer's data; and

(xi) Aircraft flight path above ground level, referenced to the elevation of the noise measurement station, in feet, determined by an FAA-approved method which is independent of normal flight instrumentation, such as radar tracking, theodolite triangulation, laser trajectography, or photoscaling techniques; and

(6) Helicopter position and performance data required to make the adjustments prescribed under section J36.205 of this appendix and to demonstrate compliance with the performance and position restrictions prescribed under section J36.105 of this appendix must be recorded at an FAA-approved sampling rate.

Section J36.113 [Reserved]

Part C—Noise Evaluation and Calculations Under § 36.803

Section J36.201 Noise Evaluation in SEL.

The noise evaluation measure shall be the sound exposure level (SEL) in units of dB(A) as prescribed under section J36.109(b) of this appendix. The SEL value for each flyover may be directly determined by use of an integrating sound level meter. Specifications for the integrating sound level meter and requirements governing the use of such instrumentation are prescribed under section J36.109 of this appendix.

Section J36.203 Calculation of Noise Levels.

(a) To demonstrate compliance with the noise level limits specified under section J36.305 of this appendix, the SEL noise levels from each valid flyover, corrected as necessary to reference conditions under section J36.205 of this appendix, must be arithmetically averaged to obtain a single SEL dB(A) mean value for the flyover series. No individual flyover run may be omitted from the averaging process, unless otherwise specified or approved by the FAA.

(b) The minimum sample size acceptable for the helicopter flyover certification measurements is six. The number of samples must be large enough to establish statistically a 90 percent confidence limit that does not exceed ±1.5 dB(A).

(c) All data used and calculations performed under this section, including the calculated 90 percent confidence limits, must be documented and provided under the reporting requirements of section J36.111 of this appendix.

Section J36.205 Detailed Data Correction Procedures.

(a) When certification test conditions measured under part B of this appendix differ from the reference test conditions prescribed under section J36.3 of this appendix, appropriate adjustments shall be made to the measured noise data in accordance with the methods set out in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. At minimum, appropriate adjustments shall be made for off-reference altitude and for the difference between reference airspeed and adjusted reference airspeed.

(b) The adjustment for off-reference altitude may be approximated from:

<delta>J1 = 12.5 log10(HT/492) dB;

where <delta>J1 is the quantity in decibels that must be algebraically added to the measured SEL noise level to correct for an off-reference flight path, HT is the height, in feet, of the test helicopter when directly over the noise measurement point, and the constant (12.5) accounts for the effects on spherical spreading and duration from the off-reference altitude.

<delta>J3 = 10 log10(VRA/VR) dB;

Where <delta>J3 is the quantity in decibels that must be algebraically added to the measured SEL noise level to correct for the influence of the adjustment of the reference airspeed on the duration of the measured flyover event as perceived at the noise measurement station, VR is the reference airspeed as prescribed under section J36.3.(c) of this appendix, and VRA is the adjusted reference airspeed as prescribed under section J36.105(c) of this appendix.

(d) No correction for source noise during the flyover other than the variation of source noise accounted for by the adjustment of the reference airspeed prescribed for under section J36.105(c) of this appendix need be applied.

(e) No correction for the difference between the reference ground speed and the actual ground speed need be applied.

(f) No correction for off-reference atmospheric attenuation need be applied.

(g) The SEL adjustments must be less than 2.0 dB(A) for differences between test and reference flight procedures prescribed under section J36.105 of this appendix unless a larger adjustment value is approved by the FAA.

(h) All data used and calculations performed under this section must be documented and provided under the reporting requirements specified under section J36.111 of this appendix.

Part D—Noise Limits Procedure Under § 36.805

Section J36.301 Noise Measurement, Evaluation, and Calculation.

Compliance with this part of this appendix must be shown with noise levels measured, evaluated, and calculated as prescribed under parts B and C of this appendix.

Section J36.303 [Reserved]

Section J36.305 Noise Limits.

For compliance with this appendix, the calculated noise levels of the helicopter, at the measuring point described in section J36.101 of this appendix, must be shown to not exceed the following (with appropriate interpolation between weights):

(a) For primary, normal, transport, and restricted category helicopters having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of not more than 7,000 pounds that are noise tested under this appendix:

(1) Stage 2 noise limit is constant at 82 decibels SEL for helicopters up to 1,737 pounds (787 kg) maximum certificated takeoff weight (mass) and increases linearly with the logarithm of the helicopter weight at a rate of 3.0 decibels SEL per the doubling of weight thereafter. The limit may be calculated by the equation:

LAE(limit) = 82 + 3.0 [log10(MTOW/1737)/log10(2)] dB,

where MTOW is the maximum takeoff weight, in pounds, for which certification under this appendix is requested.

(2) Stage 3 noise limit is constant at 82 decibels SEL for helicopters up to 3,125 pounds (1,417 kg) maximum certificated takeoff weight (mass) and increases linearly with the logarithm of the helicopter weight at a rate of 3.0 decibels SEL per the doubling of weight thereafter. The limit may be calculated using the equation:

LAE(limit) = 82 + 3.0 [log10(MTOW/3125)/log10(2)] dB,

where MTOW is the maximum takeoff weight, in pounds.

(b) The procedures required in this amendment shall be done in accordance with the International Electrotechnical Commission IEC Publication No. 804, entitled “Integrating-averaging Sound Level Meters,” First Edition, dated 1985. This incorporation by reference was approved by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies may be obtained from the Bureau Central de la Commission Electrotechnique Internationale, 1, rue de Varembe, Geneva, Switzerland or the American National Standard Institute, 1430 Broadway, New York City, New York 10018, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

[Doc. No. 26910, 57 FR 42855, Sept. 16, 1992, as amended by Amdt. 36-20, 57 FR 46243, Oct. 7, 1992; 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004; Amdt. 36-25, 69 FR 31234, June 2, 2004; Amdt. 36-30, 79 FR 12045, Mar. 4, 2014; FAA Doc. No. FAA-2015-3782, Amdt. No. 36-31, 82 FR 46131, Oct. 4, 2017]

Appendix K to Part 36 Noise Requirements for Tiltrotors Under Subpart K

K1 General

K2 Noise Evaluation Measure

K3 Noise Measurement Reference Points

K4 Noise Limits

K5 Trade-offs

K6 Noise Certification Reference Procedures

K7 Test Procedures

Section K1 General

This appendix prescribes noise limits and procedures for measuring noise and adjusting the data to standard conditions for tiltrotors as specified in § 36.1 of this part.

Section K2 Noise Evaluation Measure

The noise evaluation measure is the effective perceived noise level in EPNdB, to be calculated in accordance with section A36.4 of Appendix A to this part, except corrections for spectral irregularities must be determined using the 50 Hz sound pressure level found in section H36.201 of Appendix H to this part.

Section K3 Noise Measurement Reference Points

The following noise reference points must be used when demonstrating tiltrotor compliance with section K6 (Noise Certification Reference Procedures) and section K7 (Test Procedures) of this appendix:

(a) Takeoff reference noise measurement points—

As shown in Figure K1 below:

(1) The centerline noise measurement flight path reference point, designated A, is located on the ground vertically below the reference takeoff flight path. The measurement point is located 1,640 feet (500 m) in the horizontal direction of flight from the point Cr where transition to climbing flight is initiated, as described in section K6.2 of this appendix;

(2) Two sideline noise measurement points, designated as S(starboard) and S(port), are located on the ground perpendicular to and symmetrically stationed at 492 feet (150 m) on each side of the takeoff reference flight path. The measurement points bisect the centerline flight path reference point A.

(b) Flyover reference noise measurement points—

As shown in Figure K2 below:

(1) The centerline noise measurement flight path reference point, designated A, is located on the ground 492 feet (150 m) vertically below the reference flyover flight path. The measurement point is defined by the flyover reference procedure in section K6.3 of this appendix;

(2) Two sideline noise measurement points, designated as S(sideline), are located on the ground perpendicular to and symmetrically stationed at 492 feet (150 m) on each side of the flyover reference flight path. The measurement points bisect the centerline flight path reference point A.

As shown in Figure K3 below:

(1) The centerline noise measurement flight path reference point, designated A, is located on the ground 394 feet (120 m) vertically below the reference approach flight path. The measurement point is defined by the approach reference procedure in section K6.4 of this appendix. On level ground, the measurement point corresponds to a position 3,740 feet (1,140 m) from the intersection of the 6.0 degree approach path with the ground plane;

(2) Two sideline noise measurement points, designated as S(starboard) and S(port), are located on the ground perpendicular to and symmetrically stationed at 492 feet (150 m) on each side of the approach reference flight path. The measurement points bisect the centerline flight path reference point A.

Section K4 Noise Limits

For a tiltrotor, the maximum noise levels, as determined in accordance with the noise evaluation in EPNdB and calculation method described in section H36.201 of Appendix H of this part, must not exceed the noise limits as follows:

(a) At the takeoff flight path reference point: For a tiltrotor having a maximum certificated takeoff weight (mass) of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, in VTOL/Conversion mode, 109 EPNdB, decreasing linearly with the logarithm of the tiltrotor weight (mass) at a rate of 3.0 EPNdB per halving of weight (mass) down to 89 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant. Figure K4 illustrates the takeoff noise limit as a solid line.

(b) At the Flyover path reference point: For a tiltrotor having a maximum certificated takeoff weight (mass) of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, in VTOL/Conversion mode, 108 EPNdB, decreasing linearly with the logarithm of the tiltrotor weight (mass) at a rate of 3.0 EPNdB per halving of weight (mass) down to 88 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant. Figure K4 illustrates the flyover noise limit as a dashed line.

(c) At the approach flight path reference point: For a tiltrotor having a maximum certificated takeoff weight (mass) of 176,370 pounds (80,000 kg) or more, in VTOL/Conversion mode, 110 EPNdB, decreasing linearly with the logarithm of the tiltrotors weight (mass) at a rate of 3.0 EPNdB per halving of weight (mass) down to 90 EPNdB, after which the limit is constant. Figure K4 illustrates the approach noise limit as a dash-dot line.

Section K5 Trade-Offs

If the noise evaluation measurement exceeds the noise limits described in K4 of this appendix at one or two measurement points:

(a) The sum of excesses must not be greater than 4 EPNdB;

(b) The excess at any single point must not be greater than 3 EPNdB; and

Section K6 Noise Certification Reference Procedures

K6.1 General Conditions

(a)-(b) [Reserved]

(c) The takeoff, flyover and approach reference procedures must be established in accordance with sections K6.2, K6.3 and K6.4 of this appendix, except as specified in section K6.1(d) of this appendix.

(d) If the design characteristics of the tiltrotor prevent test flights from being conducted in accordance with section K6.2, K6.3 or K6.4 of this appendix, the applicant must revise the test procedures and resubmit the procedures for approval.

(e) The following reference atmospheric conditions must be used to establish the reference procedures:

(1) Sea level atmospheric pressure of 2,116 pounds per square foot (1,013.25 hPa);

(2) Ambient air temperature of 77 °Fahrenheit (25 °Celsius, i.e. ISA + 10 °C);

(3) Relative humidity of 70 percent; and

(4) Zero wind.

(f) For tests conducted in accordance with sections K6.2, K6.3, and K6.4 of this appendix, use the maximum normal operating RPM corresponding to the airworthiness limit imposed by the manufacturer. For configurations for which the rotor speed automatically links with the flight condition, use the maximum normal operating rotor speed corresponding with the reference flight condition. For configurations for which the rotor speed can change by pilot action, use the highest normal rotor speed specified in the flight manual limitation section for the reference conditions.

K6.2 Takeoff Reference Procedure. The takeoff reference flight procedure is as follows:

(a) A constant takeoff configuration must be maintained, including the nacelle angle selected by the applicant;

(b) The tiltrotor power must be stabilized at the maximum takeoff power corresponding to the minimum installed engine(s) specification power available for the reference ambient conditions or gearbox torque limit, whichever is lower. The tiltrotor power must also be stabilized along a path starting from a point located 1,640 feet (500 m) before the flight path reference point, at 65 ft (20 m) above ground level;

(c) The nacelle angle and the corresponding best rate of climb speed, or the lowest approved speed for the climb after takeoff, whichever is the greater, must be maintained throughout the takeoff reference procedure;

(d) The rotor speed must be stabilized at the maximum normal operating RPM certificated for takeoff;

(e) The weight (mass) of the tiltrotors must be the maximum takeoff weight (mass) as requested for noise certification; and

(f) The reference takeoff flight profile is a straight line segment inclined from the starting point 1,640 feet (500 m) before to the center noise measurement point and 65 ft (20 m) above ground level at an angle defined by best rate of climb and the speed corresponding to the selected nacelle angle and for minimum specification engine performance.

K6.3 Flyover Reference Procedure. The flyover reference flight procedure is as follows:

(a) The tiltrotor must be stabilized for level flight along the centerline flyover flight path and over the noise measurement reference point at an altitude of 492 ft (150 m) above ground level;

(b) A constant flyover configuration selected by the applicant must be maintained;

(d) In the VTOL/Conversion mode:

(1) The nacelle angle must be at the authorized fixed operation point that is closest to the shallow nacelle angle certificated for zero airspeed;

(2) The airspeed must be 0.9VCON and

(3) The rotor speed must be stabilized at the maximum normal operating RPM certificated for level flight.

K6.4 Approach Reference Procedure. The approach reference procedure is as follows:

(a) The tiltrotor must be stabilized to follow a 6.0 degree approach path;

(b) An approved airworthiness configuration in which maximum noise occurs must be maintained;

(1) An airspeed equal to the best rate of climb speed corresponding to the nacelle angle, or the lowest approved airspeed for the approach, whichever is greater, must be stabilized and maintained; and

(2) The tiltrotor power during the approach must be stabilized over the flight path reference point, and continue as if landing;

(d) The constant approach configuration used in airworthiness certification tests, with the landing gear extended, must be maintained; and

(e) The weight (mass) of the tiltrotor at landing must be the maximum landing weight (mass) as requested for noise certification.

Section K7 Test Procedures

K7.1 [Reserved]

K7.2 The test procedures and noise measurements must be conducted and processed to yield the noise evaluation measure designated in section K2 of this appendix.

K7.3 If either the test conditions or test procedures do not comply to the applicable noise certification reference conditions or procedures prescribed by this part, the applicant must apply the correction methods described in section H36.205 of Appendix H of this part to the acoustic test data measured.

K7.4 Adjustments for differences between test and reference flight procedures must not exceed:

(a) For takeoff: 4.0 EPNdB, of which the arithmetic sum of delta 1 and the term −7.5 log (QK/QrKr) from delta 2 must not in total exceed 2.0 EPNdB;

(b) For flyover or approach: 2.0 EPNdB.

K7.5 The average rotor RPM must not vary from the normal maximum operating RPM by more than ±1.0 percent throughout the 10 dB-down time interval.

K7.6 The tiltrotor airspeed must not vary from the reference airspeed appropriate to the flight demonstration by more than ±5 kts (±9 km/h) throughout the 10 dB-down time interval.

K7.7 The number of level flyovers made with a head wind component must be equal to the number of level flyovers made with a tail wind component.

K7.8 The tiltrotor must operate between ±10 degrees from the vertical or between ±65 feet (±20 m) lateral deviation tolerance, whichever is greater, above the reference track and throughout the 10 dB-down time interval.

K7.9 The tiltrotor altitude must not vary during each flyover by more than ±30 ft (±9 m) from the reference altitude throughout the 10 dB-down time interval.

K7.10 During the approach procedure, the tiltrotor must establish a stabilized constant speed approach and fly between approach angles of 5.5 degrees and 6.5 degrees throughout the 10 dB-down time interval.

K7.11 During all test procedures, the tiltrotor weight (mass) must not be less than 90 percent and not more than 105 percent of the maximum certificated weight (mass). For each of the test procedures, complete at least one test at or above this maximum certificated weight (mass).

K7.12 A tiltrotor capable of carrying external loads or external equipment must be noise certificated without such loads or equipment fitted

K7.13 The value of VCON used for noise certification must be included in the approved Flight Manual.

[78 FR 1139, Jan. 8, 2013]

PART 38 AIRPLANE FUEL EFFICIENCY CERTIFICATION

Authority: 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq., 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44702, 44704; 49 CFR 1.83(c)

Source: Docket No. FAA-2022-0241, Amdt. No. 21-107, 89 FR 12654, Feb. 16, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 38.1 Applicability.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, an airplane that is subject to the requirements of 40 CFR part 1030 may not exceed the fuel efficiency limits of this part when original type certification under this title is sought. This part applies to the following airplanes:

(1) A subsonic jet airplane that has—

(i) Either—

(A) A type-certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of 20 seats or more;

(B) A maximum takeoff mass (MTOM) greater than 5,700 kg; and

(ii) Or—

(A) A type-certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of 19 seats or fewer;

(B) A MTOM greater than 60,000 kg; and

(2) A subsonic jet airplane that has—

(i) A type-certificated maximum passenger seating capacity of 19 seats or fewer;

(ii) A MTOM greater than 5,700 kg, but not greater than 60,000 kg; and

(iii) An application for original type certification that is submitted on or after January 1, 2023.

(3) A propeller-driven airplane that has—

(i) A MTOM greater than 8,618 kg; and

(ii) An application for original type certification that is submitted on or after January 11, 2021.

(4) A subsonic jet airplane—

(i) That is a modified version of an airplane whose type design was not certificated under this part;

(ii) That has a MTOM greater than 5,700 kg;

(iii) For which an application by the type certificate holder for a type design change is submitted on or after January 1, 2023; and

(iv) For which the first certificate of airworthiness is issued with the modified type design.

(5) A propeller-driven airplane—

(i) That is a modified version of an airplane whose type design was not certificated under this part;

(ii) That has a MTOM greater than 8,618 kg;

(iii) For which an application by the type certificate holder for a type design change is submitted on or after January 1, 2023; and

(iv) For which the first certificate of airworthiness is issued with the modified type design.

(6) A subsonic jet airplane that has—

(i) A MTOM greater than 5,700 kg; and

(ii) Its first certificate of airworthiness issued on or after January 1, 2028.

(7) A propeller-driven airplane that has—

(i) A MTOM greater than 8,618 kg; and

(ii) Its first certificate of airworthiness issued on or after January 1, 2028.

(b) The requirements of this part apply to an airplane for which an application for a change in type design is submitted that includes a modification that meets the change criteria of § 38.19. A modified airplane may not exceed the applicable fuel efficiency limit of this part when certification under this chapter is sought. A modified airplane is subject to the same fuel efficiency limit of § 38.17 as the airplane was certificated to prior to modification.

(1) Subsonic jet airplanes having a MTOM at or below 5,700 kg.

(2) Propeller-driven airplanes having a MTOM at or below 8,618 kg.

(3) Amphibious airplanes.

(4) Airplanes initially designed, or modified and used, for specialized operations. These airplane designs may include characteristics or configurations necessary to conduct specialized operations that the FAA and the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) have determined may cause a significant increase in the fuel efficiency metric value.

(5) Airplanes designed with a reference geometric factor of zero.

(6) Airplanes designed for, or modified and used for, firefighting.

(7) Airplanes powered by reciprocating engines.

§ 38.3 Definitions.

For the purpose of showing compliance with this part, the following terms have the specified meanings:

Amphibious airplane means an airplane that is capable of takeoff and landing on both land and water. Such an airplane uses its hull or floats attached to the landing gear for takeoff and landing on water, and either extendable or fixed landing gear for takeoff and landing on land.

ICAO Annex 16, Volume III means Volume III of Annex 16 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

Maximum takeoff mass (MTOM) is the maximum certified takeoff mass, expressed in kilograms, for an airplane type design.

Performance model is an analytical tool (or a method) validated using corrected flight test data that can be used to determine the specific air range values for calculating the fuel efficiency metric value.

Reference geometric factor (RGF) is a non-dimensional number derived from a two-dimensional projection of the fuselage.

Specific air range (SAR) is the distance an airplane travels per unit of fuel consumed. Specific air range is expressed in kilometers per kilogram of fuel.

Subsonic means an airplane that has not been certificated under this title to exceed Mach 1 in normal operation.

Type certificated maximum passenger seating capacity means the maximum number of passenger seats that may be installed on an airplane as listed on its type certificate data sheet, regardless of the actual number of seats installed on an individual airplane.

§ 38.4 Compatibility with airworthiness requirements.

Unless otherwise approved by the FAA, an airplane used to demonstrate compliance with this part must meet all of the airworthiness requirements of this chapter required to establish the type certification basis of the airplane, for any condition under which compliance with this part is being demonstrated. Any procedure used to demonstrate compliance, and any flight crew information developed for demonstrating compliance with this part, must be consistent with the airworthiness requirements of this chapter that constitute the type certification basis of the airplane.

§ 38.5 Exemptions.

A petition for exemption from any requirement of this part must be submitted to the Administrator in accordance with and meet the requirements of part 11 of this chapter. The FAA will consult with the EPA on each exemption petition before taking action.

§ 38.7 Incorporation by reference.

The ICAO Doc 7488/3, Manual of the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (extended to 80 kilometres (262 500 feet)) (1993), referenced in sections A38.2.1.3.1, A38.5.2.2.1.9, and A38.5.2.2.1.10 of appendix A to this part, is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the FAA and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA at: Office of Rulemaking (ARM-1), 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20590 (telephone 202-267-9677). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations.html or email fr.inspection@nara.gov. The ICAO Doc 7488/3 is available for purchase from the ICAO Store at 999 Robert-Bourassa Boulevard Montréal (Quebec) Canada H3C 5H7, (https://store.icao.int/).

§ 38.9 Relationship to other regulations.

In accordance with certain provisions of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1970 (CAA) (42 U.S.C. 7571 et seq.), the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is authorized to set standards for aircraft engine emissions in the United States, while the FAA is authorized to ensure compliance with those standards under a delegation from the Secretary of Transportation (49 CFR 1.83). The fuel efficiency limits in § 38.17 are intended to be the same as that promulgated by the EPA in 40 CFR part 1030. Accordingly, if the EPA changes any regulation in 40 CFR part 1030 that corresponds with a regulation in this part, a certification applicant may request a waiver of those provisions as they appear in this part in order to comply with part 1030. In addition, unless otherwise specified in this part, all terminology and abbreviations in this part that are defined in 40 CFR part 1030 have the meaning specified in part 1030.

Subpart B Determining Fuel Efficiency for Subsonic Airplanes

§ 38.11 Fuel efficiency metric.

For each airplane subject to this part, or to determine whether a modification makes an airplane subject to this part under the change criteria of § 38.19, a fuel efficiency metric value must be calculated, using the following equation, rounded to three decimal places:

Where: The SAR is determined in accordance with § 38.13, and the RGF is determined in accordance with § 38.15. The fuel efficiency metric value is expressed in units of kilograms of fuel consumed per kilometer.

§ 38.13 Specific air range.

(a) For each airplane subject to this part, the SAR of an airplane must be determined by either:

(1) Direct flight test measurements; or

(2) Using a performance model that is:

(i) Validated by actual SAR flight test data; and

(ii) Approved by the FAA before any SAR calculations are submitted.

(b) For the airplane model, establish a 1/SAR value at each of the following reference airplane masses:

(1) High gross mass: 92 percent MTOM.

(2) Low gross mass: (0.45 * MTOM) + (0.63 * (MTOM^0.924)).

(3) Mid gross mass: simple arithmetic average of high gross mass and low gross mass.

(c) To obtain (1/SAR)avg as required to determine the fuel efficiency metric value described in § 38.11, calculate the average of the three 1/SAR values described in paragraph (b) of this section. Do not include auxiliary power units in any 1/SAR calculation.

(d) All determinations made under this section must be made in accordance with the procedures applicable to SAR as described in appendix A to this part.

§ 38.15 Reference geometric factor.

For each airplane subject to this part, determine the airplane's non-dimensional RGF for the fuselage size of each airplane model, calculated as follows:

(a) For an airplane with a single deck, determine the area of a surface (expressed in m^2) bounded by the maximum width of the fuselage outer mold line projected to a flat plane parallel with the main deck floor and the forward and aft pressure bulkheads except for the crew flight deck zone.

(b) For an airplane with more than one deck, determine the sum of the areas (expressed in m^2) as follows:

(1) The maximum width of the fuselage outer mold line, projected to a flat plane parallel with the main deck floor by the forward and aft pressure bulkheads except for any crew flight deck zone.

(2) The maximum width of the fuselage outer mold line at or above each other deck floor, projected to a flat plane parallel with the additional deck floor by the forward and aft pressure bulkheads except for any crew flight deck zone.

(d) All measurements and calculations used to determine the RGF of an airplane must be made in accordance with the procedures for determining RGF in section A38.3 of appendix A to this part.

§ 38.17 Fuel efficiency limits.

(a) The fuel efficiency limits in this section are expressed as maximum permitted fuel efficiency metric values, as calculated under § 38.11.

(b) The fuel efficiency metric value of an airplane subject to this part may not exceed the following, rounded to three decimal places:

§ 38.19 Change criteria.

(a) For an airplane that has been shown to comply with § 38.17, any subsequent version of that airplane must demonstrate compliance with § 38.17 if the subsequent version incorporates a modification that either increases:

(1) The maximum takeoff mass; or

(2) The fuel efficiency metric value by a percentage that is more than the following calculated thresholds.

(i) For airplanes with a MTOM greater than or equal to 5,700 kg, the threshold decreases linearly from 1.35 percent for an airplane with a MTOM of 5,700 kg to 0.75 percent for an airplane with a MTOM of 60,000 kg.

(ii) For airplanes with a MTOM greater than or equal to 60,000 kg, the threshold decreases linearly from 0.75 percent for an airplane with a MTOM of 60,000 kg to 0.70 percent for airplanes with a MTOM of 600,000 kg.

(iii) For airplanes with a MTOM greater than or equal to 600,000 kg, the threshold is 0.70 percent.

(b) For an airplane that has been shown to comply with § 38.17, and for any subsequent version of that airplane that incorporates modifications that do not increase the MTOM or the fuel efficiency metric value in excess of the levels shown in paragraph (a) of this section, the fuel efficiency metric value of the modified airplane may be reported to be the same as the value prior to modification.

(c) For an airplane that meets the criteria of § 38.1(a)(4) or (5), on or after January 1, 2023, and before January 1, 2028, the airplane must demonstrate compliance with § 38.17 if it incorporates any modification that increases the fuel efficiency metric value of the airplane prior to modification by more than 1.5 percent.

§ 38.21 Approval before compliance testing.

All procedures, weights, configurations, and other information or data that are used to establish a fuel efficiency level required by this part or in any appendix to this part (including any equivalent procedures) must be approved by the FAA prior to use in certification tests intended to demonstrate compliance with this part.

§ 38.23 Manual information and limitations.

(a) Information in manuals. The following information must be included in any FAA-approved section of a FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual or combination of approved manual material:

(1) Fuel efficiency level established as required by this part; and

(2) Maximum takeoff mass at which fuel efficiency level was established.

(b) Limitation. If the fuel efficiency of an airplane is established at a weight (mass) that is less than the maximum certificated takeoff weight (mass) used to establish the airworthiness of the airplane under this chapter, the lower weight (mass) becomes an operating limitation of the airplane and that limitation must be included in the limitations section of any FAA-approved manual.

Appendix A to Part 38 Determination of Airplane Fuel Efficiency Metric Value

A38.1 Introduction

A38.2 Reference specifications for SAR flight tests

A38.3 Determination of reference geometric factor (RGF)

A38.4 Certification test specifications

A38.5 Measurement of specific air range

A38.6 Submission of certification data to the FAA

A38.1 Introduction

A38.1.1 This appendix describes the processes and procedures for determining the fuel efficiency metric value for an airplane subject to this part.

A38.1.2 Methods for Determining Specific Air Range (SAR)

A38.1.2.1 SAR may be determined by either—

A38.1.2.1.1 Direct flight test measurement at the SAR test points, including any corrections of test data to reference specifications; or

A38.1.2.1.2 Use of a performance model.

A38.1.2.2 For any determination made under section A38.1.2.1.1 of this appendix, the SAR flight test data must have been acquired in accordance with the procedures defined in this appendix and approved by the FAA.

A38.1.2.3 For any determination made under section A38.1.2.1.2 of this appendix, the performance model must:

A38.1.2.3.1 Be verified that the model produces the values that are the same as FAA-approved SAR flight test data;

A38.1.2.3.2 Include a detailed description of any test and analysis method and any algorithm used so as to allow evaluation by the FAA; and

A38.1.2.3.3 Be approved by the FAA before use.

A38.2 Reference Specifications for SAR Flight Tests

A38.2.1 The following reference specifications must be established when determining SAR values for an airplane. No reference specification may exceed any airworthiness limit approved for the airplane under this chapter. See section A38.5 of this appendix for further information.

A38.2.1.1 Reference specifications at the airplane level:

A38.2.1.1.1 Airplane at the reference masses listed in § 38.13(b);

A38.2.1.1.2 A combination of altitude and airspeed selected by the applicant;

A38.2.1.1.3 Airplane in steady, unaccelerated, straight and level flight;

A38.2.1.1.4 Airplane in longitudinal and lateral trim;

A38.2.1.1.5 Airplane gravitational acceleration when travelling in the direction of true North in still air at the reference altitude and a geodetic latitude of 45.5 degrees, based on g0 (g0 is 9.80665 m/s 2, which is the standard acceleration due to gravity at sea level and a geodetic latitude of 45.5 degrees);

A38.2.1.1.6 A reference airplane center of gravity (CG) position selected by the applicant to be representative of the mid-CG point relevant to design cruise performance at each of the three reference airplane masses; and

A38.2.1.1.7 A wing structural loading condition defined by the applicant that is representative of operations conducted in accordance with the airplane's maximum payload capability.

A38.2.1.2 Reference specifications at the engine level:

A38.2.1.2.1 Electrical and mechanical power extraction and bleed flow relevant to design cruise performance, as selected by the applicant;

Note 1 to A38.2.1.2.1—Power extraction and bleed flow attributable to the use of optional equipment such as passenger entertainment systems need not be included.

A38.2.1.2.2 Engine stability bleeds operating according to the manufacturer's normal schedule for the engine; and

A38.2.1.2.3 Engines with at least 15 cycles or 50 engine flight hours.

A38.2.1.3 Other reference specifications:

A38.2.1.3.1 ICAO standard day atmosphere (Doc 7488/3, 3rd edition 1993, titled “Manual of the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (extended to 80 kilometres (262 500 feet))”) (incorporated by reference, see § 38.7); and

A38.2.1.3.2 Fuel lower heating value equal to 43.217 MJ/kg (18,−580 BTU/lb).

A38.2.2 If any test conditions are not the same as the reference specifications of this appendix, the test conditions must be corrected to the reference specifications as described in section A38.5 of this appendix.

A38.3 Determination of Reference Geometric Factor (RGF)

A38.3.1 This section provides additional information for determining the RGF, as required by § 38.15.

A38.3.2 The area that defines RGF includes all pressurized space on a single or multiple decks including aisles, assist spaces, passageways, stairwells and areas that can accommodate cargo or auxiliary fuel containers. It does not include permanent integrated fuel tanks within the cabin, or any unpressurized fairings, crew rest or work areas, or cargo areas that are not on the main or upper deck (e.g., `loft' or under floor areas). RGF does not include the flight deck crew zone.

A38.3.3 The aft boundary to be used for calculating RGF is the aft pressure bulkhead. The forward boundary is the forward pressure bulkhead, not including the flight deck crew zone.

A38.3.4 Areas that are accessible to both crew and passengers are not considered part of the flight deck crew zone. For an airplane that has a flight deck door, the aft boundary of the flight deck crew zone is the plane of the flight deck door. For an airplane that has no flight deck door or has optional interior configurations that include different locations of the flight deck door, the aft boundary is determined by the configuration that provides the smallest available flight deck crew zone. For airplanes certificated for single-pilot operation, the flight deck crew zone is measured as half the width of the flight deck.

A38.3.5 Figures A38-1 and A38-2 of this appendix provide a notional view of the RGF boundary conditions.

A38.4 Certification Test Specifications

A38.4.1 Certification Test Specifications. This section prescribes the specifications under which an applicant must conduct SAR certification tests.

A38.4.2 Flight Test Procedures

A38.4.2.1 Before a Test Flight. The test flight procedures must include the following elements and must be approved by the FAA before any test flight is conducted:

A38.4.2.1.1 Airplane conformity. The test airplane must conform to the critical configuration of the type design for which certification is sought.

A38.4.2.1.2 Airplane weight. The test airplane must be weighed. Any change in mass after the weighing and prior to the test flight must be accounted for.

A38.4.2.1.3 Fuel. The fuel used for each flight test must meet the specification defined in either ASTM D1655-15 (titled “Standard Specification for Aviation Turbine Fuels”), UK MoD Defense Standard 91-91, Issue 7, Amendment 3 (titled “Turbine Fuel, Kerosene Type, Jet A-1, NATO Code F-35; Join Services Designation; AVTUR”), or as approved by FAA.

A38.4.2.1.4 Fuel lower heating value. The lower heating value of the fuel used on a test flight must be determined from a sample of fuel used for the test flight. The lower heating value of the fuel sample must be used to correct measured data to reference specifications. The determination of lower heating value and the correction to reference specifications are subject to approval by the FAA.

A38.4.2.1.4.1 The fuel lower heating value may be determined in accordance with ASTM D4809-13 “Standard Test Method for Heat of Combustion of Liquid Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter (Precision Method)”, or as approved by the FAA.

A38.4.2.1.4.2 The fuel sample may be representative of the fuel used for each flight test and should not have errors or variations due to fuel being uplifted from multiple sources, fuel tank selection, or fuel layering in a tank.

A38.4.2.1.5 Fuel specific gravity and viscosity. When volumetric fuel flow meters are used, the specific gravity and viscosity of the fuel used on a test flight must be determined from a sample of fuel used for the test flight.

A38.4.2.1.5.1 The fuel specific gravity may be determined in accordance with ASTM D4052-11 “Standard Test Method for Density, Relative Density, and API Gravity of Liquids”, or as approved by FAA.

A38.4.2.1.5.2 The fuel kinematic viscosity may be determined in accordance with ASTM D445-15 (titled “Standard Test Method for Kinematic Viscosity of Transparent and Opaque Liquids (and Calculation of Dynamic Viscosity)”), or as approved by FAA.

A38.4.2.2 Flight Test Procedures and Test Condition Stability. An applicant must conduct each flight test in accordance with the flight test procedures and the stability conditions as follows:

A38.4.2.2.1 Flight Test Procedure. The following procedures must be maintained during each flight used to gather data for determining SAR values:

A38.4.2.2.1.1 To the extent that is practicable, the airplane is flown at constant pressure altitude and constant heading along isobars;

A38.4.2.2.1.2 The engine thrust/power setting is stable for unaccelerated level flight;

A38.4.2.2.1.3 The airplane is flown as close as practicable to the reference specifications to minimize the magnitude of any correction;

A38.4.2.2.1.4 Changes in trim or engine power/thrust settings, engine stability and handling bleeds, or electrical and mechanical power extraction (including bleed flow) are avoided or minimized as practicable; and

A38.4.2.2.1.5 There is no unnecessary movement of on-board personnel.

A38.4.2.2.2 Test Condition Stability. To obtain a valid SAR measurement, the following conditions must be maintained during each test flight, including the indicated tolerances for at least 1 minute while SAR data is acquired:

A38.4.2.2.2.1 Mach number within ±0.005;

A38.4.2.2.2.2 Ambient temperature within ±1 °C;

A38.4.2.2.2.3 Heading within ±3 degrees;

A38.4.2.2.2.4 Track within ±3 degrees;

A38.4.2.2.2.5 Drift angle less than 3 degrees;

A38.4.2.2.2.6 Ground speed within ±3.7 km/h (±2 kt);

A38.4.2.2.2.7 Difference in ground speed at the beginning of the SAR measurement from the ground speed at the end of the SAR measurement within ±2.8 km/h/min (±1.5 kt/min); and

A38.4.2.2.2.8 Pressure altitude within ±23 m (±75 ft).

A38.4.2.2.3 Alternatives to the stable test condition criteria of section A38.4.2.2.2 of this appendix may be used provided that stability is sufficiently demonstrated to the FAA.

A38.4.2.2.4 Data obtained at test points that do not meet the stability criteria of section A38.4.2.2.2 may be acceptable as an equivalent procedure, subject to FAA approval.

A38.4.2.2.5 SAR measurements at the test points must be separated by either:

A38.4.2.2.5.1 Two minutes; or

A38.4.2.2.5.2 An exceedance of one or more of the stability criteria limits described in A38.4.2.2.2.

A38.4.2.3 Verification of Airplane Mass at Test Conditions

A38.4.2.3.1 The procedure for determining the mass of the airplane at each test condition must be approved by the FAA.

A38.4.2.3.2 The mass of the airplane during a flight test is determined by subtracting the fuel used from the mass of the airplane at the start of the test flight. The accuracy of the determination of the fuel used must be verified by:

A38.4.2.3.2.1 Weighing the test airplane on calibrated scales before and after the SAR test flight;

A38.4.2.3.2.2 Weighing the test airplane before and after another test flight that included a cruise segment, provided that flight occurs within one week or 50 flight hours (at the option of the applicant) of the SAR test flight and using the same, unaltered fuel flow meters; or

A38.4.2.3.2.3 Other methods as approved by the FAA.

A38.5 Measurement of Specific Air Range

A38.5.1 Measurement System

A38.5.1.1 The following parameters must be recorded at a minimum sampling rate of 1 Hertz (cycle per second):

A38.5.1.1.1 Airspeed;

A38.5.1.1.2 Ground speed;

A38.5.1.1.3 True airspeed;

A38.5.1.1.4 Fuel flow;

A38.5.1.1.5 Engine power setting;

A38.5.1.1.6 Pressure altitude;

A38.5.1.1.7 Temperature;

A38.5.1.1.8 Heading;

A38.5.1.1.9 Track; and

A38.5.1.1.10 Fuel used (for the determination of gross mass and CG position).

A38.5.1.2 The following parameters must be recorded:

A38.5.1.2.1 Latitude;

A38.5.1.2.2 Engine bleed positions and power off-takes; and

A38.5.1.2.3 Power extraction (electrical and mechanical load).

A38.5.1.3 The value of each parameter used for the determination of SAR (except for ground speed) is the simple arithmetic average of the measured values for that parameter obtained throughout the stable test condition described in section A38.4.2.2.2 of this appendix.

A38.5.1.4 For ground speed, the value is the rate of change of ground speed during the SAR test measurement. The rate of change of ground speed during the SAR measurement must be used to evaluate and correct any acceleration or deceleration that might occur during the SAR measurement.

A38.5.1.5 Each measurement device must have sufficient resolution to determine that the stability of a parameter defined in section A38.4.2.2.2 of this appendix is maintained during SAR measurement.

A38.5.1.6 The SAR measurement system consists of the combined instruments and devices, and any associated procedures, used to acquire the following parameters necessary to determine SAR:

A38.5.1.6.1 Fuel flow;

A38.5.1.6.2 Mach number;

A38.5.1.6.3 Altitude;

A38.5.1.6.4 Airplane mass;

A38.5.1.6.5 Ground speed;

A38.5.1.6.6 Outside air temperature;

A38.5.1.6.7 Fuel lower heating value; and

A38.5.1.6.8 CG.

A38.5.1.7 The SAR value is affected by the accuracy of each element that comprises the SAR measurement system. The cumulative error associated with the SAR measurement system is defined as the root sum of squares (RSS) of the individual accuracies.

A38.5.1.8 If the absolute value of the cumulative error of the overall SAR measurement system is greater than 1.5 percent, a penalty equal to the amount that the RSS value exceeds 1.5 percent must be applied to the SAR value that has been corrected to reference specifications (see section A38.5.2 of this appendix). If the absolute value of the cumulative error of the overall SAR measurement system is less than or equal to 1.5 percent, no penalty will be applied.

A38.5.2 Calculation of Specific Air Range from Measured Data

A38.5.2.1 Calculating SAR. SAR must be calculated using the following equation:

SAR = TAS/Wf

Where:

TAS is the true airspeed and Wf is total airplane fuel flow.

A38.5.2.2 Correcting Measured SAR Values to Reference Specifications

A38.5.2.2.1 The measured SAR values must be corrected to the reference specifications listed in A38.2 of this appendix. Unless otherwise approved by the FAA, corrections to reference specifications must be applied for each of the following measured parameters:

A38.5.2.2.1.1 Acceleration/deceleration (energy). Drag determination is based on an assumption of steady, unaccelerated flight. Acceleration or deceleration occurring during a test condition affects the assessed drag level. The reference specification is in section A38.2.1.1.3 of this appendix.

A38.5.2.2.1.2 Aeroelastics. Wing aeroelasticity may cause a variation in drag as a function of airplane wing mass distribution. Airplane wing mass distribution will be affected by the fuel load distribution in the wings and the presence of any external stores. The reference specification is in section A38.2.1.1.7 of this appendix.

A38.5.2.2.1.3 Altitude. The altitude at which the airplane is flown affects the fuel flow. The reference specification is in section A38.2.1.1.2 of this appendix.

A38.5.2.2.1.4 Apparent gravity. Acceleration, caused by the local effect of gravity, and inertia, affect the test weight of the airplane. The apparent gravity at the test conditions varies with latitude, altitude, ground speed, and direction of motion relative to the Earth's axis. The reference gravitational acceleration is the gravitational acceleration for the airplane travelling in the direction of true North in still air at the reference altitude, a geodetic latitude of 45.5 degrees, and based on g0 (see section A38.2.1.1.5 of this appendix).

A38.5.2.2.1.5 CG position. The position of the airplane CG affects the drag due to longitudinal trim. The reference specification is in section A38.2.1.1.6 of this appendix.

A38.5.2.2.1.6 Electrical and mechanical power extraction and bleed flow. Electrical and mechanical power extraction, and bleed flow affect the fuel flow. The reference specifications are in sections A38.2.1.2.1 and A38.2.1.2.2 of this appendix.

A38.5.2.2.1.7 Engine deterioration level. The requirement in section A38.2.1.2.3 of this appendix addresses the minimum deterioration of an engine that is used to determine SAR. Since engine deterioration is rapid when an engine is new, when used for SAR determination:

A38.5.2.2.1.7.1 Subject to FAA approval, an engine having less deterioration than the reference deterioration level in section A38.2.1.2.3 of this appendix must correct the fuel flow to the reference deterioration using an approved method.

A38.5.2.2.1.7.2 An engine with greater deterioration than the reference deterioration level in section A38.2.1.2.3 of this appendix may be used, and no correction is permitted.

A38.5.2.2.1.8 Fuel lower heating value. The fuel lower heating value defines the energy content of the fuel. The lower heating value directly affects the fuel flow at a given test condition. The reference specification is in section A38.2.1.3.2 of this appendix.

A38.5.2.2.1.9 Reynolds number. The Reynolds number affects airplane drag. For a given test condition the Reynolds number is a function of the density and viscosity of air at the test altitude and temperature. The reference Reynolds number is derived from the density and viscosity of air from the ICAO standard atmosphere at the reference altitude (see sections A38.2.1.1.2 and A38.2.1.3.1 of this appendix, incorporated by reference see § 38.7).

A38.5.2.2.1.10 Temperature. The ambient temperature affects the fuel flow. The reference temperature is the standard day temperature from the ICAO standard atmosphere at the reference altitude (see section A38.2.1.3.1 of this appendix, incorporated by reference see § 38.7).

Note 2 to A38.5.2.2.1.10—Post-flight data analysis includes the correction of measured data for data acquisition hardware response characteristics (e.g., system latency, lag, offset, buffering, etc.).

A38.5.2.2.2 Correction methods are subject to the approval of the FAA.

A38.5.2.3 Using Specific Air Range to Determine the Fuel Efficiency Metric Value

A38.5.2.3.1 Calculate the SAR values for each of the three reference masses as described in § 38.13, including any corrections to reference specifications, as required under this part. The final SAR value for each reference mass is the simple arithmetic average of all valid test points at the appropriate gross mass, or derived from a validated performance model. No data acquired from a valid test point may be omitted unless approved by the FAA.

A38.5.2.3.2 When an FAA-approved performance model is used, extrapolations to aircraft masses other than those tested may be approved when such extrapolations are consistent with accepted airworthiness practices. Since a performance model must be based on data covering an adequate range of lift coefficient, Mach number, and thrust specific fuel consumption, no extrapolation of those parameters is permitted.

A38.5.3 Validity of Results

A38.5.3.1 A 90 percent confidence interval must be calculated for each of the SAR values at the three reference masses.

A38.5.3.2 If the 90 percent confidence interval of the SAR value at any of the three reference airplane masses—

A38.5.3.2.1 Is less than or equal to ±1.5 percent, the SAR value may be used.

A38.5.3.2.2 Exceeds ±1.5 percent, a penalty equal to the amount that the 90 percent confidence interval exceeds ±1.5 percent must be applied to the SAR value, as approved by the FAA.

A38.5.3.3 If clustered data is acquired separately for each of the three gross mass reference points, the minimum sample size acceptable for each of the three gross mass SAR values is six.

A38.5.3.4 If SAR data is collected over a range of masses, the minimum sample size is 12 and the 90 percent confidence interval is calculated for the mean regression line through the data.

A38.6 Submission of Certification Data to the FAA

The following information must be provided to the FAA in the certification reports for each airplane type and model for which fuel efficiency certification under this part is sought.

A38.6.1 General Information

A38.6.1.1 Designation of the airplane type and model:

A38.6.1.2 Configuration of the airplane, including CG range, number and type designation of engines and, if fitted, propellers, and any modifications or non-standard equipment expected to affect the fuel efficiency characteristics;

A38.6.1.3 MTOM used for certification under this part;

A38.6.1.4 All dimensions needed for calculation of RGF; and

A38.6.1.5 Serial number of each airplane used to establish fuel efficiency certification in accordance with this part.

A38.6.2 Reference Specifications. The reference specifications used to determine any SAR value as described in section A38.2 of this appendix.

A38.6.3 Test Data. The following measured test data, including any corrections for instrumentation characteristics, must be provided for each of the test measurement points used to calculate the SAR values for each of the reference masses defined in § 38.13(b):

A38.6.3.1 Airspeed, ground speed and true airspeed;

A38.6.3.2 Fuel flow;

A38.6.3.3 Pressure altitude;

A38.6.3.4 Static air temperature;

A38.6.3.5 Airplane gross mass and CG for each test point;

A38.6.3.6 Levels of electrical and mechanical power extraction and bleed flow;

A38.6.3.7 Engine performance;

A38.6.3.7.1 For jet airplanes, engine power setting; or

A38.6.3.7.2 For propeller-driven airplanes, shaft horsepower or engine torque, and propeller rotational speed;

A38.6.3.8 Fuel lower heating value;

A38.6.3.9 When volumetric fuel flow meters are used, fuel specific gravity and kinematic viscosity (see section A38.4.2.1.5. of this appendix);

A38.6.3.10 The cumulative error (RSS) of the overall measurement system (see section A38.5.1.7 of this appendix);

A38.6.3.11 Heading, track and latitude;

A38.6.3.12 Stability criteria (see section A38.4.2.2.2 of this appendix); and

A38.6.3.13 Description of the instruments and devices used to acquire the data needed for the determination of SAR, and the individual accuracies of the equipment relevant to their effect on SAR (see sections A38.5.1.6 and A38.5.1.7 of this appendix).

A38.6.4 Calculations and Corrections of SAR Test Data to Reference Specifications. The measured SAR test data, all corrections of the measured data to the reference specifications, and the SAR values calculated from the corrected data must be provided for each of the test measurement points.

A38.6.5 Calculated Values. The following values must be provided for each airplane used to establish fuel efficiency certification in accordance with this part:

A38.6.5.1 SAR (km/kg) for each reference airplane mass and the associated 90 percent confidence interval;

A38.6.5.2 Average of the 1/SAR values;

A38.6.5.3 RGF; and

A38.6.5.4 Fuel efficiency metric value.

PART 39 AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES

Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.

Source: Docket No. FAA-2000-8460, 67 FR 48003, July 22, 2002, unless otherwise noted.

§ 39.1 Purpose of this regulation.

The regulations in this part provide a legal framework for FAA's system of Airworthiness Directives.

§ 39.3 Definition of airworthiness directives.

FAA's airworthiness directives are legally enforceable rules that apply to the following products: aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, and appliances.

§ 39.5 When does FAA issue airworthiness directives?

FAA issues an airworthiness directive addressing a product when we find that:

(a) An unsafe condition exists in the product; and

(b) The condition is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.

§ 39.7 What is the legal effect of failing to comply with an airworthiness directive?

Anyone who operates a product that does not meet the requirements of an applicable airworthiness directive is in violation of this section.

§ 39.9 What if I operate an aircraft or use a product that does not meet the requirements of an airworthiness directive?

If the requirements of an airworthiness directive have not been met, you violate § 39.7 each time you operate the aircraft or use the product.

§ 39.11 What actions do airworthiness directives require?

Airworthiness directives specify inspections you must carry out, conditions and limitations you must comply with, and any actions you must take to resolve an unsafe condition.

§ 39.13 Are airworthiness directives part of the Code of Federal Regulations?

Yes, airworthiness directives are part of the Code of Federal Regulations, but they are not codified in the annual edition. FAA publishes airworthiness directives in full in the Federal Register as amendments to § 39.13.

Editorial Note:For a complete list of citations to airworthiness directives published in the Federal Register, consult the following publications: For airworthiness directives published in the Federal Register since 2001, see the entries for 14 CFR 39.13 in the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the “Finding Aids” section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov. For citations to prior amendments, see the entries for 14 CFR 39.13 in the separate publications List of CFR Sections Affected, 1973-1985, List of CFR Sections Affected, 1964-1972, and List of CFR Sections Affected, 1986-2000, and the entries for 14 CFR 507.10 in the List of Sections Affected, 1949-1963. See also the annual editions of the Federal Register Index for subject matter references and citations to FAA airworthiness directives.

§ 39.15 Does an airworthiness directive apply if the product has been changed?

Yes, an airworthiness directive applies to each product identified in the airworthiness directive, even if an individual product has been changed by modifying, altering, or repairing it in the area addressed by the airworthiness directive.

§ 39.17 What must I do if a change in a product affects my ability to accomplish the actions required in an airworthiness directive?

If a change in a product affects your ability to accomplish the actions required by the airworthiness directive in any way, you must request FAA approval of an alternative method of compliance. Unless you can show the change eliminated the unsafe condition, your request should include the specific actions that you propose to address the unsafe condition. Submit your request in the manner described in § 39.19.

§ 39.19 May I address the unsafe condition in a way other than that set out in the airworthiness directive?

Yes, anyone may propose to FAA an alternative method of compliance or a change in the compliance time, if the proposal provides an acceptable level of safety. Unless FAA authorizes otherwise, send your proposal to your principal inspector. Include the specific actions you are proposing to address the unsafe condition. The principal inspector may add comments and will send your request to the manager of the office identified in the airworthiness directive (manager). You may send a copy to the manager at the same time you send it to the principal inspector. If you do not have a principal inspector send your proposal directly to the manager. You may use the alternative you propose only if the manager approves it.

§ 39.21 Where can I get information about FAA-approved alternative methods of compliance?

Each airworthiness directive identifies the office responsible for approving alternative methods of compliance. That office can provide information about alternatives it has already approved.

§ 39.23 May I fly my aircraft to a repair facility to do the work required by an airworthiness directive?

Yes, the operations specifications giving some operators authority to operate include a provision that allow them to fly their aircraft to a repair facility to do the work required by an airworthiness directive. If you do not have this authority, the local Flight Standards District Office of FAA may issue you a special flight permit unless the airworthiness directive states otherwise. To ensure aviation safety, FAA may add special requirements for operating your aircraft to a place where the repairs or modifications can be accomplished. FAA may also decline to issue a special flight permit in particular cases if we determine you cannot move the aircraft safely.

§ 39.25 How do I get a special flight permit?

Apply to FAA for a special flight permit following the procedures in 14 CFR 21.199.

§ 39.27 What do I do if the airworthiness directive conflicts with the service document on which it is based?

In some cases an airworthiness directive incorporates by reference a manufacturer's service document. In these cases, the service document becomes part of the airworthiness directive. In some cases the directions in the service document may be modified by the airworthiness directive. If there is a conflict between the service document and the airworthiness directive, you must follow the requirements of the airworthiness directive.

PART 43 MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING, AND ALTERATION

Authority: 42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40105, 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303.

Source: Docket No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, unless otherwise noted.

Editorial Note: For miscellaneous technical amendments to this part 43, see Amdt. 43-3, 31 FR 3336, Mar. 3, 1966, and Amdt. 43-6, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966.

§ 43.1 Applicability.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section, this part prescribes rules governing the maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration of any—

(1) Aircraft having a U.S. airworthiness certificate;

(2) Foreign-registered civil aircraft used in common carriage or carriage of mail under the provisions of Part 121 or 135 of this chapter; and

(3) Airframe, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, and component parts of such aircraft.

(b) This part does not apply to—

(1) Any aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental airworthiness certificate, unless the FAA has previously issued a different kind of airworthiness certificate for that aircraft;

(2) Any aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under the provisions of § 21.191(i)(3) or (l) of this chapter, and the aircraft was previously issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under the provisions of § 21.190 of this chapter; or

(3) Any aircraft that is operated under part 107 of this chapter, except as described in § 107.140(d).

(c) This part applies to all life-limited parts that are removed from a type certificated product, segregated, or controlled as provided in § 43.10.

(d) This part applies to any aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category except:

(1) The repair or alteration form specified in §§ 43.5(b) and 43.9(d) is not required to be completed for products not produced under an FAA approval;

(2) Major repairs and major alterations for products not produced under an FAA approval are not required to be recorded in accordance with appendix B of this part; and

(3) The listing of major alterations and major repairs specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of appendix A of this part is not applicable to products not produced under an FAA approval.

(e) Additional applicability of maintenance provisions for powered-lift is set forth in part 194 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-38, 67 FR 2109, Jan. 15, 2002; Amdt. 43-39, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 43-44, 75 FR 5219, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 43-48, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Docket FAA-2018-1087, Amdt. 43-51, 86 FR 4381, Jan. 15, 2021; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. No. 43-62, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024; Amdt. 43-63, 90 FR 35211, July 24, 2025]

§ 43.2 Records of overhaul and rebuilding.

(a) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part as being overhauled unless—

(1) Using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator, it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected, repaired as necessary, and reassembled; and

(2) It has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Administrator, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance approval under part 21 of this chapter.

(b) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part as being rebuilt unless it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected, repaired as necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that either conform to new part tolerances and limits or to approved oversized or undersized dimensions.

[Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 43-43, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009]

§ 43.3 Persons authorized to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alterations.

(a) Except as provided in this section and § 43.17, no person may maintain, rebuild, alter, or perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part to which this part applies. Those items, the performance of which is a major alteration, a major repair, or preventive maintenance, are listed in appendix A.

(b) The holder of a mechanic certificate may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in Part 65 of this chapter.

(c) The holder of a repairman certificate may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in part 65 of this chapter.

(d) A person working under the supervision of a holder of a mechanic or repairman certificate may perform the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations that his supervisor is authorized to perform, if the supervisor personally observes the work being done to the extent necessary to ensure that it is being done properly and if the supervisor is readily available, in person, for consultation. However, this paragraph does not authorize the performance of any inspection required by Part 91 or Part 125 of this chapter or any inspection performed after a major repair or alteration.

(e) The holder of a repair station certificate may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in Part 145 of this chapter.

(f) The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate issued under Part 121 or 135, may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in Part 121 or 135.

(g) Except for holders of a sport pilot certificate, the holder of a pilot certificate issued under part 61 may perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft owned or operated by that pilot which is not used under part 121, 129, or 135 of this chapter. The holder of a sport pilot certificate may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft owned or operated by that pilot and issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category.

(h) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section, the Administrator may approve a certificate holder under Part 135 of this chapter, operating rotorcraft in a remote area, to allow a pilot to perform specific preventive maintenance items provided—

(1) The items of preventive maintenance are a result of a known or suspected mechanical difficulty or malfunction that occurred en route to or in a remote area;

(2) The pilot has satisfactorily completed an approved training program and is authorized in writing by the certificate holder for each item of preventive maintenance that the pilot is authorized to perform;

(3) There is no certificated mechanic available to perform preventive maintenance;

(4) The certificate holder has procedures to evaluate the accomplishment of a preventive maintenance item that requires a decision concerning the airworthiness of the rotorcraft; and

(5) The items of preventive maintenance authorized by this section are those listed in paragraph (c) of appendix A of this part.

(i) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (g) of this section, in accordance with an approval issued to the holder of a certificate issued under part 135 of this chapter, a pilot of an aircraft type-certificated for 9 or fewer passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, may perform the removal and reinstallation of approved aircraft cabin seats, approved cabin-mounted stretchers, and when no tools are required, approved cabin-mounted medical oxygen bottles, provided—

(1) The pilot has satisfactorily completed an approved training program and is authorized in writing by the certificate holder to perform each task; and

(2) The certificate holder has written procedures available to the pilot to evaluate the accomplishment of the task.

(j) A manufacturer may—

(1) Rebuild or alter any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance manufactured by him under a type or production certificate;

(2) Rebuild or alter any appliance or part of aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances manufactured by him under a Technical Standard Order Authorization, an FAA-Parts Manufacturer Approval, or Product and Process Specification issued by the Administrator; and

(3) Perform any inspection required by part 91 or part 125 of this chapter on aircraft it manufactured under a type certificate, or currently manufactures under a production certificate.

(k) Updates of databases in installed avionics meeting the conditions of this paragraph are not considered maintenance and may be performed by pilots provided:

(1) The database upload is:

(i) Initiated from the flight deck;

(ii) Performed without disassembling the avionics unit; and

(iii) Performed without the use of tools and/or special equipment.

(2) The pilot must comply with the certificate holder's procedures or the manufacturer's instructions.

(3) The holder of operating certificates must make available written procedures consistent with manufacturer's instructions to the pilot that describe how to:

(i) Perform the database update; and

(ii) Determine the status of the data upload.

[Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-4, 31 FR 5249, Apr. 1, 1966; Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-25, 51 FR 40702, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 43-36, 61 FR 19501, May 1, 1996; Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-39, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 43-43, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 43-45, 77 FR 71096, Nov. 29, 2012]

§ 43.5 Approval for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration.

No person may approve for return to service any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration unless—

(a) The maintenance record entry required by § 43.9 or § 43.11, as appropriate, has been made;

(b) The repair or alteration form authorized by or furnished by the Administrator has been executed in a manner prescribed by the Administrator; and

(c) If a repair or an alteration results in any change in the aircraft operating limitations or flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating limitations or flight data are appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed in § 91.9 of this chapter.

[Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]

§ 43.7 Persons authorized to approve aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, or component parts for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration.

(a) Except as provided in this section and § 43.17, no person, other than the Administrator, may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service after it has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration.

(b) The holder of a mechanic certificate or an inspection authorization may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service as provided in Part 65 of this chapter.

(c) The holder of a repair station certificate may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service as provided in Part 145 of this chapter.

(d) A manufacturer may approve for return to service any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part which that manufacturer has worked on under § 43.3(j). However, except for minor alterations, the work must have been done in accordance with technical data approved by the Administrator.

(e) The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate issued under Part 121 or 135, may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service as provided in Part 121 or 135 of this chapter, as applicable.

(f) A person holding at least a private pilot certificate may approve an aircraft for return to service after performing preventive maintenance under the provisions of § 43.3(g).

(g) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with a maintenance rating may approve an aircraft issued a special airworthiness certificate in light-sport category for return to service, as provided in part 65 of this chapter.

(h) The holder of at least a sport pilot certificate may approve an aircraft owned or operated by that pilot and issued a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category for return to service after performing preventive maintenance under the provisions of § 43.3(g).

[Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41084, Sept. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 43-36, 61 FR 19501, May 1, 1996; Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-39, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004]

§ 43.9 Content, form, and disposition of maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration records (except inspections performed in accordance with part 91, part 125, § 135.411(a)(1), and § 135.419 of this chapter).

(a) Maintenance record entries. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or alters an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information:

(1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Administrator) of work performed.

(2) The date of completion of the work performed.

(3) The name of the person performing the work if other than the person specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.

(4) If the work performed on the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part has been performed satisfactorily, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work. The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the work performed.

(b) Each holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate issued under Part 121 or 135, that is required by its approved operations specifications to provide for a continuous airworthiness maintenance program, shall make a record of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alteration, on aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, or component parts which it operates in accordance with the applicable provisions of Part 121 or 135 of this chapter, as appropriate.

(c) This section does not apply to persons performing inspections in accordance with Part 91, 125, § 135.411(a)(1), or § 135.419 of this chapter.

(d) In addition to the entry required by paragraph (a) of this section, major repairs and major alterations shall be entered on a form, and the form disposed of, in the manner prescribed in appendix B, by the person performing the work.

[Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41085, Sept. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-39, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004]

§ 43.10 Disposition of life-limited aircraft parts.

(a) Definitions used in this section. For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply.

Life-limited part means any part for which a mandatory replacement limit is specified in the type design, the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, or the maintenance manual.

Life status means the accumulated cycles, hours, or any other mandatory replacement limit of a life-limited part.

(b) Temporary removal of parts from type-certificated products. When a life-limited part is temporarily removed and reinstalled for the purpose of performing maintenance, no disposition under paragraph (c) of this section is required if—

(1) The life status of the part has not changed;

(2) The removal and reinstallation is performed on the same serial numbered product; and

(3) That product does not accumulate time in service while the part is removed.

(c) Disposition of parts removed from type-certificated products. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, after April 15, 2002 each person who removes a life-limited part from a type-certificated product must ensure that the part is controlled using one of the methods in this paragraph. The method must deter the installation of the part after it has reached its life limit. Acceptable methods include:

(1) Record keeping system. The part may be controlled using a record keeping system that substantiates the part number, serial number, and current life status of the part. Each time the part is removed from a type certificated product, the record must be updated with the current life status. This system may include electronic, paper, or other means of record keeping.

(2) Tag or record attached to part. A tag or other record may be attached to the part. The tag or record must include the part number, serial number, and current life status of the part. Each time the part is removed from a type certificated product, either a new tag or record must be created, or the existing tag or record must be updated with the current life status.

(3) Non-permanent marking. The part may be legibly marked using a non-permanent method showing its current life status. The life status must be updated each time the part is removed from a type certificated product, or if the mark is removed, another method in this section may be used. The mark must be accomplished in accordance with the instructions under § 45.16 of this chapter in order to maintain the integrity of the part.

(4) Permanent marking. The part may be legibly marked using a permanent method showing its current life status. The life status must be updated each time the part is removed from a type certificated product. Unless the part is permanently removed from use on type certificated products, this permanent mark must be accomplished in accordance with the instructions under § 45.16 of this chapter in order to maintain the integrity of the part.

(5) Segregation. The part may be segregated using methods that deter its installation on a type-certificated product. These methods must include, at least—

(i) Maintaining a record of the part number, serial number, and current life status, and

(ii) Ensuring the part is physically stored separately from parts that are currently eligible for installation.

(6) Mutilation. The part may be mutilated to deter its installation in a type certificated product. The mutilation must render the part beyond repair and incapable of being reworked to appear to be airworthy.

(7) Other methods. Any other method approved or accepted by the FAA.

(d) Transfer of life-limited parts. Each person who removes a life-limited part from a type certificated product and later sells or otherwise transfers that part must transfer with the part the mark, tag, or other record used to comply with this section, unless the part is mutilated before it is sold or transferred.

[Doc. No. FAA-2000-8017, 67 FR 2110, Jan. 15, 2002, as amended by Amdt. 43-38A, 79 FR 67055, Nov. 12, 2014]

§ 43.11 Content, form, and disposition of records for inspections conducted under parts 91 and 125 and §§ 135.411(a)(1) and 135.419 of this chapter.

(a) Maintenance record entries. The person approving or disapproving for return to service an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part after any inspection performed in accordance with part 91, 125, § 135.411(a)(1), or § 135.419 shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information:

(1) The type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection.

(2) The date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service.

(3) The signature, the certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component part, or portions thereof.

(4) Except for progressive inspections, if the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for return to service, the following or a similarly worded statement—“I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in airworthy condition.”

(5) Except for progressive inspections, if the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed maintenance, noncompliance with applicable specifications, airworthiness directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded statement—“I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator.”

(6) For progressive inspections, the following or a similarly worded statement—“I certify that in accordance with a progressive inspection program, a routine inspection of (identify whether aircraft or components) and a detailed inspection of (identify components) were performed and the (aircraft or components) are (approved or disapproved) for return to service.” If disapproved, the entry will further state “and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided to the aircraft owner or operator.”

(7) If an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in part 91, 125, or § 135.411(a)(1), the entry must identify the inspection program, that part of the inspection program accomplished, and contain a statement that the inspection was performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that particular program.

(b) Listing of discrepancies and placards. If the person performing any inspection required by part 91 or 125 or § 135.411(a)(1) of this chapter finds that the aircraft is unairworthy or does not meet the applicable type certificate data, airworthiness directives, or other approved data upon which its airworthiness depends, that persons must give the owner or lessee a signed and dated list of those discrepancies. For those items permitted to be inoperative under § 91.213(d)(2) of this chapter, that person shall place a placard, that meets the aircraft's airworthiness certification regulations, on each inoperative instrument and the cockpit control of each item of inoperative equipment, marking it “Inoperative,” and shall add the items to the signed and dated list of discrepancies given to the owner or lessee.

[Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41085, Sept. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 43-30, 53 FR 50195, Dec. 13, 1988; Amdt. 43-36, 61 FR 19501, May 1, 1996; 71 FR 44188, Aug. 4, 2006]

§ 43.12 [Reserved]

§ 43.13 Performance rules (general).

(a) Each person performing maintenance, alteration, or preventive maintenance on an aircraft, engine, propeller, or appliance shall use the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in the current manufacturer's maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer, or other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator, except as noted in § 43.16. That person shall use the tools, equipment, and test apparatus necessary to assure completion of the work in accordance with accepted industry practices. If special equipment or test apparatus is recommended by the manufacturer involved, that person must use that equipment or apparatus or its equivalent acceptable to the Administrator.

(b) Each person maintaining or altering, or performing preventive maintenance, shall do that work in such a manner and use materials of such a quality, that the condition of the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance worked on will be at least equal to its original or properly altered condition (with regard to aerodynamic function, structural strength, resistance to vibration and deterioration, and other qualities affecting airworthiness).

(c) Unless otherwise notified by the Administrator, the methods, techniques, and practices contained in the maintenance manual or the maintenance part of the manual of the holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate under part 121 or 135 of this chapter and operators under part 129 of this chapter holding operations specifications (that is required by its operating specifications to provide a continuous airworthiness maintenance and inspection program) constitute acceptable means of compliance with this section.

[Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-20, 45 FR 60182, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41085, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-28, 52 FR 20028, June 16, 1987; Amdt. 43-37, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 43-63, 90 FR 35211, July 24, 2025]

§ 43.15 Additional performance rules for inspections.

(a) General. Each person performing an inspection required by part 91, 125, or 135 of this chapter, shall—

(1) Perform the inspection so as to determine whether the aircraft, or portion(s) thereof under inspection, meets all applicable airworthiness requirements; and

(2) If the inspection is one provided for in part 125, 135, or § 91.409(e) of this chapter, perform the inspection in accordance with the instructions and procedures set forth in the inspection program for the aircraft being inspected.

(b) Rotorcraft. Each person performing an inspection required by Part 91 on a rotorcraft shall inspect the following systems in accordance with the maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness of the manufacturer concerned:

(1) The drive shafts or similar systems.

(2) The main rotor transmission gear box for obvious defects.

(3) The main rotor and center section (or the equivalent area).

(4) The auxiliary rotor on helicopters.

(c) Annual and 100-hour inspections. (1) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist while performing the inspection. The checklist may be of the person's own design, one provided by the manufacturer of the equipment being inspected or one obtained from another source. This checklist must include the scope and detail of the items contained in appendix D to this part and paragraph (b) of this section.

(2) Each person approving a reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations of—

(i) Power output (static and idle r.p.m.);

(ii) Magnetos;

(iii) Fuel and oil pressure; and

(iv) Cylinder and oil temperature.

(3) Each person approving a turbine-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual, 100-hour, or progressive inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations.

(d) Progressive inspection. (1) Each person performing a progressive inspection shall, at the start of a progressive inspection system, inspect the aircraft completely. After this initial inspection, routine and detailed inspections must be conducted as prescribed in the progressive inspection schedule. Routine inspections consist of visual examination or check of the appliances, the aircraft, and its components and systems, insofar as practicable without disassembly. Detailed inspections consist of a thorough examination of the appliances, the aircraft, and its components and systems, with such disassembly as is necessary. For the purposes of this subparagraph, the overhaul of a component or system is considered to be a detailed inspection.

(2) If the aircraft is away from the station where inspections are normally conducted, an appropriately rated mechanic, a certificated repair station, or the manufacturer of the aircraft may perform inspections in accordance with the procedures and using the forms of the person who would otherwise perform the inspection.

[Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41086, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-25, 51 FR 40702, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; 71 FR 44188, Aug. 4, 2006]

§ 43.16 Airworthiness limitations.

Each person performing an inspection or other maintenance specified in an Airworthiness Limitations section of a manufacturer's maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness shall perform the inspection or other maintenance in accordance with that section, or in accordance with operations specifications approved by the Administrator under part 121 or 135, or an inspection program approved under § 91.409(e).

[71 FR 44188, Aug. 4, 2006]

§ 43.17 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed on U.S. aeronautical products by certain Canadian persons.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

Aeronautical product means any civil aircraft or airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part to be installed thereon.

Canadian aeronautical product means any aeronautical product under airworthiness regulation by Transport Canada Civil Aviation.

U.S. aeronautical product means any aeronautical product under airworthiness regulation by the FAA.

(b) Applicability. This section does not apply to any U.S. aeronautical products maintained or altered under any bilateral agreement made between Canada and any country other than the United States.

(c) Authorized persons. (1) A person holding a valid Transport Canada Civil Aviation Maintenance Engineer license and appropriate ratings may, with respect to a U.S.-registered aircraft located in Canada, perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section and approve the affected aircraft for return to service in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.

(2) A Transport Canada Civil Aviation Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) holding appropriate ratings may, with respect to a U.S.-registered aircraft or other U.S. aeronautical products located in Canada, perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section and approve the affected products for return to service in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.

(d) Performance requirements. A person authorized in paragraph (c) of this section may perform maintenance (including any inspection required by Sec. 91.409 of this chapter, except an annual inspection), preventive maintenance, and alterations, provided—

(1) The person performing the work is authorized by Transport Canada Civil Aviation to perform the same type of work with respect to Canadian aeronautical products;

(2) The maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration is performed in accordance with a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement between the United States and Canada and associated Maintenance Implementation Procedures that provide a level of safety equivalent to that provided by the provisions of this chapter;

(3) The maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration is performed such that the affected product complies with the applicable requirements of part 36 of this chapter; and

(4) The maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration is recorded in accordance with a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement between the United States and Canada and associated Maintenance Implementation Procedures that provide a level of safety equivalent to that provided by the provisions of this chapter.

(e) Approval requirements. (1) To return an affected product to service, a person authorized in paragraph (c) of this section must approve (certify) maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed under this section, except that an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer may not approve a major repair or major alteration.

(2) An AMO whose system of quality control for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, alteration, and inspection of aeronautical products has been approved by Transport Canada Civil Aviation, or an authorized employee performing work for such an AMO, may approve (certify) a major repair or major alteration performed under this section if the work was performed in accordance with technical data approved by the FAA.

(f) No person may operate in air commerce an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance on which maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration has been performed under this section unless it has been approved for return to service by a person authorized in this section.

[Amdt. 43-33, 56 FR 57571, Nov. 12, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 43-40, 71 FR 40877, July 14, 2005]

Appendix A to Part 43 Major Alterations, Major Repairs, and Preventive Maintenance

(a) Major alterations—(1) Airframe major alterations. Alterations of the following parts and alterations of the following types, when not listed in the aircraft specifications issued by the FAA, are airframe major alterations:

(i) Wings.

(ii) Tail surfaces.

(iii) Fuselage.

(iv) Engine mounts.

(v) Control system.

(vi) Landing gear.

(vii) Hull or floats.

(viii) Elements of an airframe including spars, ribs, fittings, shock absorbers, bracing, cowling, fairings, and balance weights.

(ix) Hydraulic and electrical actuating system of components.

(x) Rotor blades.

(xi) Changes to the empty weight or empty balance which result in an increase in the maximum certificated weight or center of gravity limits of the aircraft.

(xii) Changes to the basic design of the fuel, oil, cooling, heating, cabin pressurization, electrical, hydraulic, de-icing, or exhaust systems.

(xiii) Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter and vibration characteristics.

(2) Powerplant major alterations. The following alterations of a powerplant when not listed in the engine specifications issued by the FAA, are powerplant major alterations.

(i) Conversion of an aircraft engine from one approved model to another, involving any changes in compression ratio, propeller reduction gear, impeller gear ratios or the substitution of major engine parts which requires extensive rework and testing of the engine.

(ii) Changes to the engine by replacing aircraft engine structural parts with parts not supplied by the original manufacturer or parts not specifically approved by the Administrator.

(iii) Installation of an accessory which is not approved for the engine.

(iv) Removal of accessories that are listed as required equipment on the aircraft or engine specification.

(v) Installation of structural parts other than the type of parts approved for the installation.

(vi) Conversions of any sort for the purpose of using fuel of a rating or grade other than that listed in the engine specifications.

(3) Propeller major alterations. The following alterations of a propeller when not authorized in the propeller specifications issued by the FAA are propeller major alterations:

(i) Changes in blade design.

(ii) Changes in hub design.

(iii) Changes in the governor or control design.

(iv) Installation of a propeller governor or feathering system.

(v) Installation of propeller de-icing system.

(vi) Installation of parts not approved for the propeller.

(4) Appliance major alterations. Alterations of the basic design not made in accordance with recommendations of the appliance manufacturer or in accordance with an FAA Airworthiness Directive are appliance major alterations. In addition, changes in the basic design of radio communication and navigation equipment approved under type certification or a Technical Standard Order that have an effect on frequency stability, noise level, sensitivity, selectivity, distortion, spurious radiation, AVC characteristics, or ability to meet environmental test conditions and other changes that have an effect on the performance of the equipment are also major alterations.

(b) Major repairs—(1) Airframe major repairs. Repairs to the following parts of an airframe and repairs of the following types, involving the strengthening, reinforcing, splicing, and manufacturing of primary structural members or their replacement, when replacement is by fabrication such as riveting or welding, are airframe major repairs.

(i) Box beams.

(ii) Monocoque or semimonocoque wings or control surfaces.

(iii) Wing stringers or chord members.

(iv) Spars.

(v) Spar flanges.

(vi) Members of truss-type beams.

(vii) Thin sheet webs of beams.

(viii) Keel and chine members of boat hulls or floats.

(ix) Corrugated sheet compression members which act as flange material of wings or tail surfaces.

(x) Wing main ribs and compression members.

(xi) Wing or tail surface brace struts.

(xii) Engine mounts.

(xiii) Fuselage longerons.

(xiv) Members of the side truss, horizontal truss, or bulkheads.

(xv) Main seat support braces and brackets.

(xvi) Landing gear brace struts.

(xvii) Axles.

(xviii) Wheels.

(xix) Skis, and ski pedestals.

(xx) Parts of the control system such as control columns, pedals, shafts, brackets, or horns.

(xxi) Repairs involving the substitution of material.

(xxii) The repair of damaged areas in metal or plywood stressed covering exceeding six inches in any direction.

(xxiii) The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

(xxiv) The splicing of skin sheets.

(xxv) The repair of three or more adjacent wing or control surface ribs or the leading edge of wings and control surfaces, between such adjacent ribs.

(xxvi) Repair of fabric covering involving an area greater than that required to repair two adjacent ribs.

(xxvii) Replacement of fabric on fabric covered parts such as wings, fuselages, stabilizers, and control surfaces.

(xxviii) Repairing, including rebottoming, of removable or integral fuel tanks and oil tanks.

(2) Powerplant major repairs. Repairs of the following parts of an engine and repairs of the following types, are powerplant major repairs:

(i) Separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating engine equipped with an integral supercharger.

(ii) Separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating engine equipped with other than spur-type propeller reduction gearing.

(iii) Special repairs to structural engine parts by welding, plating, metalizing, or other methods.

(3) Propeller major repairs. Repairs of the following types to a propeller are propeller major repairs:

(i) Any repairs to, or straightening of steel blades.

(ii) Repairing or machining of steel hubs.

(iii) Shortening of blades.

(iv) Retipping of wood propellers.

(v) Replacement of outer laminations on fixed pitch wood propellers.

(vi) Repairing elongated bolt holes in the hub of fixed pitch wood propellers.

(vii) Inlay work on wood blades.

(viii) Repairs to composition blades.

(ix) Replacement of tip fabric.

(x) Replacement of plastic covering.

(xi) Repair of propeller governors.

(xii) Overhaul of controllable pitch propellers.

(xiii) Repairs to deep dents, cuts, scars, nicks, etc., and straightening of aluminum blades.

(xiv) The repair or replacement of internal elements of blades.

(4) Appliance major repairs. Repairs of the following types to appliances are appliance major repairs:

(i) Calibration and repair of instruments.

(ii) Calibration of radio equipment.

(iii) Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory.

(iv) Complete disassembly of complex hydraulic power valves.

(v) Overhaul of pressure type carburetors, and pressure type fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps.

(c) Preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance is limited to the following work, provided it does not involve complex assembly operations:

(1) Removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires.

(2) Replacing elastic shock absorber cords on landing gear.

(3) Servicing landing gear shock struts by adding oil, air, or both.

(4) Servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and greasing.

(5) Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys.

(6) Lubrication not requiring disassembly other than removal of nonstructural items such as cover plates, cowlings, and fairings.

(7) Making simple fabric patches not requiring rib stitching or the removal of structural parts or control surfaces. In the case of balloons, the making of small fabric repairs to envelopes (as defined in, and in accordance with, the balloon manufacturers' instructions) not requiring load tape repair or replacement.

(8) Replenishing hydraulic fluid in the hydraulic reservoir.

(9) Refinishing decorative coating of fuselage, balloon baskets, wings tail group surfaces (excluding balanced control surfaces), fairings, cowlings, landing gear, cabin, or cockpit interior when removal or disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is not required.

(10) Applying preservative or protective material to components where no disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is involved and where such coating is not prohibited or is not contrary to good practices.

(11) Repairing upholstery and decorative furnishings of the cabin, cockpit, or balloon basket interior when the repairing does not require disassembly of any primary structure or operating system or interfere with an operating system or affect the primary structure of the aircraft.

(12) Making small simple repairs to fairings, nonstructural cover plates, cowlings, and small patches and reinforcements not changing the contour so as to interfere with proper air flow.

(13) Replacing side windows where that work does not interfere with the structure or any operating system such as controls, electrical equipment, etc.

(14) Replacing safety belts.

(15) Replacing seats or seat parts with replacement parts approved for the aircraft, not involving disassembly of any primary structure or operating system.

(16) Trouble shooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light wiring circuits.

(17) Replacing bulbs, reflectors, and lenses of position and landing lights.

(18) Replacing wheels and skis where no weight and balance computation is involved.

(19) Replacing any cowling not requiring removal of the propeller or disconnection of flight controls.

(20) Replacing or cleaning spark plugs and setting of spark plug gap clearance.

(21) Replacing any hose connection except hydraulic connections.

(22) Replacing prefabricated fuel lines.

(23) Cleaning or replacing fuel and oil strainers or filter elements.

(24) Replacing and servicing batteries.

(25) Cleaning of balloon burner pilot and main nozzles in accordance with the balloon manufacturer's instructions.

(26) Replacement or adjustment of nonstructural standard fasteners incidental to operations.

(27) The interchange of balloon baskets and burners on envelopes when the basket or burner is designated as interchangeable in the balloon type certificate data and the baskets and burners are specifically designed for quick removal and installation.

(28) The installations of anti-misfueling devices to reduce the diameter of fuel tank filler openings provided the specific device has been made a part of the aircraft type certificiate data by the aircraft manufacturer, the aircraft manufacturer has provided FAA-approved instructions for installation of the specific device, and installation does not involve the disassembly of the existing tank filler opening.

(29) Removing, checking, and replacing magnetic chip detectors.

(30) The inspection and maintenance tasks prescribed and specifically identified as preventive maintenance in a primary category aircraft type certificate or supplemental type certificate holder's approved special inspection and preventive maintenance program when accomplished on a primary category aircraft provided:

(i) They are performed by the holder of at least a private pilot certificate issued under part 61 of this chapter who is the registered owner (including co-owners) of the affected aircraft and who holds a certificate of competency for the affected aircraft (1) issued by the holder of the production certificate for that primary category aircraft that has a special training program approved under § 21.24 of this subchapter; or (2) issued by another entity that has a course approved by the Administrator; and

(ii) The inspections and maintenance tasks are performed in accordance with instructions contained by the special inspection and preventive maintenance program approved as part of the aircraft's type design or supplemental type design.

(31) Removing and replacing self-contained, front instrument panel-mounted navigation and communication devices that employ tray-mounted connectors that connect the unit when the unit is installed into the instrument panel, (excluding automatic flight control systems, transponders, and microwave frequency distance measuring equipment (DME)). The approved unit must be designed to be readily and repeatedly removed and replaced, and pertinent instructions must be provided. Prior to the unit's intended use, and operational check must be performed in accordance with the applicable sections of part 91 of this chapter.

(Secs. 313, 601 through 610, and 1102, Federal Aviation Act of 1958 as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421 through 1430 and 1502); (49 U.S.C. 106(g) (Revised Pub. L. 97-449, Jan. 21, 1983); and 14 CFR 11.45)

[Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-14, 37 FR 14291, June 19, 1972; Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41086, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-24, 49 FR 44602, Nov. 7, 1984; Amdt. 43-25, 51 FR 40703, Nov. 7, 1986; Amdt. 43-27, 52 FR 17277, May 6, 1987; Amdt. 43-34, 57 FR 41369, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 43-36, 61 FR 19501, May 1, 1996; Amdt. 43-45, 77 FR 71096, Nov. 29, 2012; Docket No. FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. No. 43-52, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022]

Appendix B to Part 43 Recording of Major Repairs and Major Alterations

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this appendix, each person performing a major repair or major alteration shall—

(1) Execute FAA Form 337 at least in duplicate;

(2) Give a signed copy of that form to the aircraft owner; and

(3) Forward a copy of that form to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, within 48 hours after the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance is approved for return to service.

(b) For major repairs made in accordance with a manual or specifications acceptable to the Administrator, a certificated repair station may, in place of the requirements of paragraph (a)—

(1) Use the customer's work order upon which the repair is recorded;

(2) Give the aircraft owner a signed copy of the work order and retain a duplicate copy for at least two years from the date of approval for return to service of the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance;

(3) Give the aircraft owner a maintenance release signed by an authorized representative of the repair station and incorporating the following information:

(i) Identity of the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller or appliance.

(ii) If an aircraft, the make, model, serial number, nationality and registration marks, and location of the repaired area.

(iii) If an airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, give the manufacturer's name, name of the part, model, and serial numbers (if any); and

(4) Include the following or a similarly worded statement—

“The aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance identified above was repaired and inspected in accordance with current Regulations of the Federal Aviation Agency and is approved for return to service.

Pertinent details of the repair are on file at this repair station under Order No. ___,

Date

Signed

For signature of authorized representative)

Repair station name) (Certificate No.)

____________.”

(Address)

(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this appendix, for a major repair or major alteration made by a person authorized in § 43.17, the person who performs the major repair or major alteration and the person authorized by § 43.17 to approve that work shall execute an FAA Form 337 at least in duplicate. A completed copy of that form shall be—

(1) Given to the aircraft owner; and

(2) Forwarded to the Federal Aviation Administration, Aircraft Registration Branch, Post Office Box 25504, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, within 48 hours after the work is inspected.

(d) For extended-range fuel tanks installed within the passenger compartment or a baggage compartment, the person who performs the work and the person authorized to approve the work by § 43.7 shall execute an FAA Form 337 in at least triplicate. A completed copy of that form shall be—

(1) Placed on board the aircraft as specified in § 91.417 of this chapter;

(2) Given to the aircraft owner; and

(3) Forwarded to the Federal Aviation Administration, Aircraft Registration Branch, , Post Office Box 25724, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, within 48 hours after the work is inspected.

(Secs. 101, 610, 72 Stat. 737, 780, 49 U.S.C. 1301, 1430)

[Doc. No. 1993, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 43-10, 33 FR 15989, Oct. 31, 1968; Amdt. 43-29, 52 FR 34101, Sept. 9, 1987; Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; 71 FR 58495, Oct. 4, 2006; Amdt. 43-41, 72 FR 53680, Sept. 20, 2007; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 43-50, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]

Appendix D to Part 43 Scope and Detail of Items (as Applicable to the Particular Aircraft) To Be Included in Annual and 100-Hour Inspections

(a) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that inspection, remove or open all necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairing, and cowling. He shall thoroughly clean the aircraft and aircraft engine.

(b) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the fuselage and hull group:

(1) Fabric and skin—for deterioration, distortion, other evidence of failure, and defective or insecure attachment of fittings.

(2) Systems and components—for improper installation, apparent defects, and unsatisfactory operation.

(3) Envelope, gas bags, ballast tanks, and related parts—for poor condition.

(c) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the cabin and cockpit group:

(1) Generally—for uncleanliness and loose equipment that might foul the controls.

(2) Seats and safety belts—for poor condition and apparent defects.

(3) Windows and windshields—for deterioration and breakage.

(4) Instruments—for poor condition, mounting, marking, and (where practicable) improper operation.

(5) Flight and engine controls—for improper installation and improper operation.

(6) Batteries—for improper installation and improper charge.

(7) All systems—for improper installation, poor general condition, apparent and obvious defects, and insecurity of attachment.

(d) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) components of the engine and nacelle group as follows:

(1) Engine section—for visual evidence of excessive oil, fuel, or hydraulic leaks, and sources of such leaks.

(2) Studs and nuts—for improper torquing and obvious defects.

(3) Internal engine—for cylinder compression and for metal particles or foreign matter on screens and sump drain plugs. If there is weak cylinder compression, for improper internal condition and improper internal tolerances.

(4) Engine mount—for cracks, looseness of mounting, and looseness of engine to mount.

(5) Flexible vibration dampeners—for poor condition and deterioration.

(6) Engine controls—for defects, improper travel, and improper safetying.

(7) Lines, hoses, and clamps—for leaks, improper condition and looseness.

(8) Exhaust stacks—for cracks, defects, and improper attachment.

(9) Accessories—for apparent defects in security of mounting.

(10) All systems—for improper installation, poor general condition, defects, and insecure attachment.

(11) Cowling—for cracks, and defects.

(e) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the landing gear group:

(1) All units—for poor condition and insecurity of attachment.

(2) Shock absorbing devices—for improper oleo fluid level.

(3) Linkages, trusses, and members—for undue or excessive wear fatigue, and distortion.

(4) Retracting and locking mechanism—for improper operation.

(5) Hydraulic lines—for leakage.

(6) Electrical system—for chafing and improper operation of switches.

(7) Wheels—for cracks, defects, and condition of bearings.

(8) Tires—for wear and cuts.

(9) Brakes—for improper adjustment.

(10) Floats and skis—for insecure attachment and obvious or apparent defects.

(f) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) all components of the wing and center section assembly for poor general condition, fabric or skin deterioration, distortion, evidence of failure, and insecurity of attachment.

(g) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) all components and systems that make up the complete empennage assembly for poor general condition, fabric or skin deterioration, distortion, evidence of failure, insecure attachment, improper component installation, and improper component operation.

(h) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the propeller group:

(1) Propeller assembly—for cracks, nicks, binds, and oil leakage.

(2) Bolts—for improper torquing and lack of safetying.

(3) Anti-icing devices—for improper operations and obvious defects.

(4) Control mechanisms—for improper operation, insecure mounting, and restricted travel.

(i) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) the following components of the radio group:

(1) Radio and electronic equipment—for improper installation and insecure mounting.

(2) Wiring and conduits—for improper routing, insecure mounting, and obvious defects.

(3) Bonding and shielding—for improper installation and poor condition.

(4) Antenna including trailing antenna—for poor condition, insecure mounting, and improper operation.

(j) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect (where applicable) each installed miscellaneous item that is not otherwise covered by this listing for improper installation and improper operation.

Appendix E to Part 43 Altimeter System Test and Inspection

Each person performing the altimeter system tests and inspections required by § 91.411 of this chapter must comply with the following:

(a) Static pressure system:

(1) Ensure freedom from entrapped moisture and restrictions.

(2) Perform a proof test to demonstrate the integrity of the static pressure system in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. For airplanes certificated under part 25 of this chapter, determine that leakage is within the tolerances established by § 25.1325.

(3) Determine that the static port heater, if installed, is operative.

(4) Ensure that no alterations or deformations of the airframe surface have been made that would affect the relationship between air pressure in the static pressure system and true ambient static air pressure for any flight condition.

(b) Altimeter:

(1) Test by an appropriately rated repair facility in accordance with the following subparagraphs. Unless otherwise specified, each test for performance may be conducted with the instrument subjected to vibration. When tests are conducted with the temperature substantially different from ambient temperature of approximately 25 degrees C., allowance shall be made for the variation from the specified condition.

(i) Scale error. With the barometric pressure scale at 29.92 inches of mercury, the altimeter shall be subjected successively to pressures corresponding to the altitude specified in Table I up to the maximum normally expected operating altitude of the airplane in which the altimeter is to be installed. The reduction in pressure shall be made at a rate not in excess of 20,000 feet per minute to within approximately 2,000 feet of the test point. The test point shall be approached at a rate compatible with the test equipment. The altimeter shall be kept at the pressure corresponding to each test point for at least 1 minute, but not more than 10 minutes, before a reading is taken. The error at all test points must not exceed the tolerances specified in Table I.

(ii) Hysteresis. The hysteresis test shall begin not more than 15 minutes after the altimeter's initial exposure to the pressure corresponding to the upper limit of the scale error test prescribed in subparagraph (i); and while the altimeter is at this pressure, the hysteresis test shall commence. Pressure shall be increased at a rate simulating a descent in altitude at the rate of 5,000 to 20,000 feet per minute until within 3,000 feet of the first test point (50 percent of maximum altitude). The test point shall then be approached at a rate of approximately 3,000 feet per minute. The altimeter shall be kept at this pressure for at least 5 minutes, but not more than 15 minutes, before the test reading is taken. After the reading has been taken, the pressure shall be increased further, in the same manner as before, until the pressure corresponding to the second test point (40 percent of maximum altitude) is reached. The altimeter shall be kept at this pressure for at least 1 minute, but not more than 10 minutes, before the test reading is taken. After the reading has been taken, the pressure shall be increased further, in the same manner as before, until atmospheric pressure is reached. The reading of the altimeter at either of the two test points shall not differ by more than the tolerance specified in Table II from the reading of the altimeter for the corresponding altitude recorded during the scale error test prescribed in paragraph (b)(i).

(iii) After effect. Not more than 5 minutes after the completion of the hysteresis test prescribed in paragraph (b)(ii), the reading of the altimeter (corrected for any change in atmospheric pressure) shall not differ from the original atmospheric pressure reading by more than the tolerance specified in Table II.

(iv) Friction. The altimeter shall be subjected to a steady rate of decrease of pressure approximating 750 feet per minute. At each altitude listed in Table III, the change in reading of the pointers after vibration shall not exceed the corresponding tolerance listed in Table III.

(v) Case leak. The leakage of the altimeter case, when the pressure within it corresponds to an altitude of 18,000 feet, shall not change the altimeter reading by more than the tolerance shown in Table II during an interval of 1 minute.

(vi) Barometric scale error. At constant atmospheric pressure, the barometric pressure scale shall be set at each of the pressures (falling within its range of adjustment) that are listed in Table IV, and shall cause the pointer to indicate the equivalent altitude difference shown in Table IV with a tolerance of 25 feet.

(2) Altimeters which are the air data computer type with associated computing systems, or which incorporate air data correction internally, may be tested in a manner and to specifications developed by the manufacturer which are acceptable to the Administrator.

(c) Automatic Pressure Altitude Reporting Equipment and ATC Transponder System Integration Test. The test must be conducted by an appropriately rated person under the conditions specified in paragraph (a). Measure the automatic pressure altitude at the output of the installed ATC transponder when interrogated on Mode C at a sufficient number of test points to ensure that the altitude reporting equipment, altimeters, and ATC transponders perform their intended functions as installed in the aircraft. The difference between the automatic reporting output and the altitude displayed at the altimeter shall not exceed 125 feet.

(d) Records: Comply with the provisions of § 43.9 of this chapter as to content, form, and disposition of the records. The person performing the altimeter tests shall record on the altimeter the date and maximum altitude to which the altimeter has been tested and the persons approving the airplane for return to service shall enter that data in the airplane log or other permanent record.

Table I

Altitude | Equivalent pressure (inches of mercury) | Tolerance ±(feet)

−1,000 | 31.018 | 20

0 | 29.921 | 20

500 | 29.385 | 20

1,000 | 28.856 | 20

1,500 | 28.335 | 25

2,000 | 27.821 | 30

3,000 | 26.817 | 30

4,000 | 25.842 | 35

6,000 | 23.978 | 40

8,000 | 22.225 | 60

10,000 | 20.577 | 80

12,000 | 19.029 | 90

14,000 | 17.577 | 100

16,000 | 16.216 | 110

18,000 | 14.942 | 120

20,000 | 13.750 | 130

22,000 | 12.636 | 140

25,000 | 11.104 | 155

30,000 | 8.885 | 180

35,000 | 7.041 | 205

40,000 | 5.538 | 230

45,000 | 4.355 | 255

50,000 | 3.425 | 280

Table II—Test Tolerances

Test | Tolerance (feet)

Case Leak Test | ±100

Hysteresis Test:

First Test Point (50 percent of maximum altitude) | 75

Second Test Point (40 percent of maximum altitude) | 75

After Effect Test | 30

Table III—Friction

Altitude (feet) | Tolerance (feet)

1,000 | ±70

2,000 | 70

3,000 | 70

5,000 | 70

10,000 | 80

15,000 | 90

20,000 | 100

25,000 | 120

30,000 | 140

35,000 | 160

40,000 | 180

50,000 | 250

Table IV—Pressure-Altitude Difference

Pressure (inches of Hg) | Altitude difference (feet)

28.10 | −1,727

28.50 | −1,340

29.00 | −863

29.50 | −392

29.92 | 0

30.50 | + 531

30.90 | + 893

30.99 | + 974

(Secs. 313, 314, and 601 through 610 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1355, and 1421 through 1430) and sec. 6(c), Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Amdt. 43-2, 30 FR 8262, June 29, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 43-7, 32 FR 7587, May 24, 1967; Amdt. 43-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978; Amdt. 43-23, 47 FR 41086, Sept. 16, 1982; Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; Doc. No. FAA-2015-1621, Amdt. 43-49, 81 FR 96700, Dec. 30, 2016]

Appendix F to Part 43 ATC Transponder Tests and Inspections

The ATC transponder tests required by § 91.413 of this chapter may be conducted using a bench check or portable test equipment and must meet the requirements prescribed in paragraphs (a) through (j) of this appendix. If portable test equipment with appropriate coupling to the aircraft antenna system is used, operate the test equipment for ATCRBS transponders at a nominal rate of 235 interrogations per second to avoid possible ATCRBS interference. Operate the test equipment at a nominal rate of 50 Mode S interrogations per second for Mode S. An additional 3 dB loss is allowed to compensate for antenna coupling errors during receiver sensitivity measurements conducted in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) when using portable test equipment.

(a) Radio Reply Frequency:

(1) For all classes of ATCRBS transponders, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±3 Megahertz (MHz).

(2) For classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±3 MHz.

(3) For classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders that incorporate the optional 1090 ±1 MHz reply frequency, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is correct.

(4) For classes 1A, 2A, 3A, and 4 Mode S transponders, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±1 MHz.

(b) Suppression: When Classes 1B and 2B ATCRBS Transponders, or Classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders are interrogated Mode 3/A at an interrogation rate between 230 and 1,000 interrogations per second; or when Classes 1A and 2A ATCRBS Transponders, or Classes 1B, 2A, 3A, and 4 Mode S transponders are interrogated at a rate between 230 and 1,200 Mode 3/A interrogations per second:

(1) Verify that the transponder does not respond to more than 1 percent of ATCRBS interrogations when the amplitude of P2 pulse is equal to the P1 pulse.

(2) Verify that the transponder replies to at least 90 percent of ATCRBS interrogations when the amplitude of the P2 pulse is 9 dB less than the P1 pulse. If the test is conducted with a radiated test signal, the interrogation rate shall be 235 ±5 interrogations per second unless a higher rate has been approved for the test equipment used at that location.

(1) Verify that for any class of ATCRBS Transponder, the receiver minimum triggering level (MTL) of the system is −73 ±4 dbm, or that for any class of Mode S transponder the receiver MTL for Mode S format (P6 type) interrogations is −74 ±3 dbm by use of a test set either:

(i) Connected to the antenna end of the transmission line;

(ii) Connected to the antenna terminal of the transponder with a correction for transmission line loss; or

(iii) Utilized radiated signal.

(2) Verify that the difference in Mode 3/A and Mode C receiver sensitivity does not exceed 1 db for either any class of ATCRBS transponder or any class of Mode S transponder.

(d) Radio Frequency (RF) Peak Output Power:

(1) Verify that the transponder RF output power is within specifications for the class of transponder. Use the same conditions as described in (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) above.

(i) For Class 1A and 2A ATCRBS transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 21.0 dbw (125 watts).

(ii) For Class 1B and 2B ATCRBS Transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 18.5 dbw (70 watts).

(iii) For Class 1A, 2A, 3A, and 4 and those Class 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders that include the optional high RF peak output power, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 21.0 dbw (125 watts).

(iv) For Classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 18.5 dbw (70 watts).

(v) For any class of ATCRBS or any class of Mode S transponders, verify that the maximum RF peak output power does not exceed 27.0 dbw (500 watts).

Note:

The tests in (e) through (j) apply only to Mode S transponders.

(e) Mode S Diversity Transmission Channel Isolation: For any class of Mode S transponder that incorporates diversity operation, verify that the RF peak output power transmitted from the selected antenna exceeds the power transmitted from the nonselected antenna by at least 20 db.

(f) Mode S Address: Interrogate the Mode S transponder and verify that it replies only to its assigned address. Use the correct address and at least two incorrect addresses. The interrogations should be made at a nominal rate of 50 interrogations per second.

(g) Mode S Formats: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with uplink formats (UF) for which it is equipped and verify that the replies are made in the correct format. Use the surveillance formats UF = 4 and 5. Verify that the altitude reported in the replies to UF = 4 are the same as that reported in a valid ATCRBS Mode C reply. Verify that the identity reported in the replies to UF = 5 are the same as that reported in a valid ATCRBS Mode 3/A reply. If the transponder is so equipped, use the communication formats UF = 20, 21, and 24.

(h) Mode S All-Call Interrogations: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with the Mode S-only all-call format UF = 11 and verify that the correct address and capability are reported in the replies (downlink format DF = 11).

(i) ATCRBS-Only All-Call Interrogation: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with the ATCRBS-only all-call interrogation (0.8 microsecond P4 pulse) and verify that no reply is generated.

(j) Squitter: Verify that the Mode S transponder generates a correct acquisition squitter approximately once per second.

(k) Records: Comply with the provisions of § 43.9 of this chapter as to content, form, and disposition of the records.

[Amdt. 43-26, 52 FR 3390, Feb. 3, 1987; 52 FR 6651, Mar. 4, 1987, as amended by Amdt. 43-31, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 43-53, 88 FR 71476, Oct. 17, 2023]

PART 45 IDENTIFICATION AND REGISTRATION MARKING

Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40103, 40113-40114, 44101-44105, 44107-44111, 44504, 44701, 44708-44709, 44711-44713, 44725, 45302-45303, 46104, 46304, 46306, 47122.

Source: Docket No. 2047, 29 FR 3223, Mar. 11, 1964, unless otherwise noted.

Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to part 45 appear at 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009.

Subpart A General

§ 45.1 Applicability.

This part prescribes the requirements for—

(a) Marking products and articles manufactured under—

(1) A type certificate;

(2) A production approval as defined under part 21 of this chapter; and

(3) The provisions of an agreement between the United States and another country or jurisdiction for the acceptance of products and articles; and

(b) Nationality and registration marking of aircraft registered in the United States in accordance with part 47.

[Doc. No. 2047, 29 FR 3223, Mar. 11, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 45-3, 32 FR 188, Jan. 10, 1967; Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009; Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396, Amdt. 45-30, 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015]

Subpart B Marking of Products and Articles

§ 45.10 Marking.

No person may mark a product or article in accordance with this subpart unless—

(a) That person produced the product or article —

(1) Under part 21, subpart F, G, K, or O of this chapter; or

(2) For export to the United States under the provisions of an agreement between the United States and another country or jurisdiction for the acceptance of products and articles; and

(b) That product or article conforms to its approved design, and is in a condition for safe operation; and, for a TSO article; that TSO article meets the applicable performance standards.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009]

§ 45.11 Marking of products.

(a) Aircraft. A manufacturer of aircraft covered under § 21.182 of this chapter must mark each aircraft by attaching a fireproof identification plate that—

(1) Includes the information specified in § 45.13 using an approved method of fireproof marking;

(2) Must be secured in such a manner that it will not likely be defaced or removed during normal service, or lost or destroyed in an accident; and

(3) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) through (h) of this section, must be secured to the aircraft fuselage exterior so that it is legible to a person on the ground, and must be either adjacent to and aft of the rear-most entrance door or on the fuselage surface near the tail surfaces.

(b) Aircraft engines. A manufacturer of an aircraft engine produced under a type certificate or production certificate must mark each engine by attaching a fireproof identification plate. Such plate—

(1) Must include the information specified in § 45.13 using an approved method of fireproof marking;

(2) Must be affixed to the engine at an accessible location; and

(3) Must be secured in such a manner that it will not likely be defaced or removed during normal service, or lost or destroyed in an accident.

(c) Propellers and propeller blades and hubs. Each person who produces a propeller, propeller blade, or propeller hub under a type certificate or production certificate must mark each product or part. Except for a fixed-pitch wooden propeller, the marking must be accomplished using an approved fireproof method. The marking must—

(1) Be placed on a non-critical surface;

(2) Contain the information specified in § 45.13;

(3) Not likely be defaced or removed during normal service; and

(4) Not likely be lost or destroyed in an accident.

(d) Manned free balloons. A manufacturer of manned free balloons must mark each balloon by attaching the identification plate described in paragraph (a) of this section. The plate must be secured to the balloon envelope and must be located, if practicable, where it is legible to the operator when the balloon is inflated. In addition, the basket and heater assembly must be permanently and legibly marked with the manufacturer's name, part number (or equivalent), and serial number (or equivalent).

(e) Aircraft manufactured before March 7, 1988. The owner or operator of an aircraft manufactured before March 7, 1988 must mark the aircraft by attaching the identification plate required by paragraph (a) of this section. The plate must be secured at an accessible exterior or interior location near an entrance, if the model designation and builder's serial number are also displayed on the exterior of the aircraft fuselage. The model designation and builder's serial number must be—

(1) Legible to a person on the ground,

(2) Located either adjacent to and aft of the rear-most entrance door or on the fuselage near the tail surfaces, and

(3) Displayed in such a manner that they are not likely to be defaced or removed during normal service.

(f) For powered parachutes and weight-shift-control aircraft, the identification plate required by paragraph (a) of this section must be secured to the exterior of the aircraft fuselage so that it is legible to a person on the ground.

(g) The identification plate described in paragraph (a) of this section may be secured to the aircraft at an accessible location near an entrance for—

(1) Aircraft produced for—

(i) Operations under part 121 of this chapter,

(ii) Commuter operations (as defined in § 110.2 of this chapter), or

(iii) Export.

(2) Aircraft operating under part 121 of this chapter and under an FAA-approved continuous airworthiness maintenance program; or

(3) Aircraft operating in commuter air carrier operations (as defined in § 110.2 of this chapter) under an FAA-approved continuous airworthiness maintenance program.

(h) Gliders. Paragraphs (a)(3) and (e) of this section do not apply to gliders.

[Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53394, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 45-27, 76 FR 7486, Feb. 10, 2011; Doc. No. FAA-2013-0933, Amdt. 21-98, 80 FR 59031, Oct. 1, 2015, as amended by Amdt. 21-98A, 80 FR 59031, Dec. 17, 2015]

§ 45.13 Identification data.

(a) The identification required by § 45.11 (a) through (c) must include the following information:

(1) Builder's name.

(2) Model designation.

(3) Builder's serial number.

(4) Type certificate number, if any.

(5) Production certificate number, if any.

(6) For aircraft engines, the established rating.

(7) On or after January 1, 1984, for aircraft engines specified in part 34 of this chapter, the date of manufacture as defined in § 34.1 of this chapter, and a designation, approved by the FAA, that indicates compliance with the applicable exhaust emission provisions of part 34 of this chapter and 40 CFR part 87. Approved designations include COMPLY, EXEMPT, and NON-US, as appropriate. After December 31, 2012, approved designations also include EXEMPT NEW, and EXCEPTED SPARE, as appropriate.

(i) The designation COMPLY indicates that the engine is in compliance with all of the applicable exhaust emissions provisions of part 34. For any engine with a rated thrust in excess of 26.7 kilonewtons (6000 pounds) which is not used or intended for use in commercial operations and which is in compliance with the applicable provisions of part 34, but does not comply with the hydrocarbon emissions standard of § 34.21(d), the statement “May not be used as a commercial aircraft engine” must be noted in the permanent powerplant record that accompanies the engine at the time of manufacture of the engine.

(ii) The designation EXEMPT indicates that the engine has been granted an exemption pursuant to the applicable provision of § 34.7 (a)(1), (a)(4), (b), (c), or (d), and an indication of the type of exemption and the reason for the grant must be noted in the permanent powerplant record that accompanies the engine from the time of manufacture of the engine.

(iii) The designation NON-US indicates that the engine has been granted an exemption pursuant to § 34.7(a)(1), and the notation “This aircraft may not be operated within the United States”, or an equivalent notation approved by the FAA, must be inserted in the aircraft logbook, or alternate equivalent document, at the time of installation of the engine.

(iv) The designation EXEMPT NEW indicates that the engine has been granted an exemption pursuant to the applicable provision of § 34.7(h) of this chapter; the designation must be noted in the permanent powerplant record that accompanies the engine from the time of its manufacture.

(v) The designation EXCEPTED SPARE indicates that the engine has been excepted pursuant to the applicable provision of § 34.9(b) of this chapter; the designation must be noted in the permanent powerplant record that accompanies the engine from the time of its manufacture.

(8) Any other information the FAA finds appropriate.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, no person may remove, change, or place identification information required by paragraph (a) of this section, on any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, propeller blade, or propeller hub, without the approval of the FAA.

(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no person may remove or install any identification plate required by § 45.11, without the approval of the FAA.

(d) Persons performing work under the provisions of Part 43 of this chapter may, in accordance with methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the FAA—

(1) Remove, change, or place the identification information required by paragraph (a) of this section on any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, propeller blade, or propeller hub; or

(2) Remove an identification plate required by § 45.11 when necessary during maintenance operations.

(e) No person may install an identification plate removed in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section on any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, propeller blade, or propeller hub other than the one from which it was removed.

[Amdt. 45-3, 32 FR 188, Jan. 10, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 45-10, 44 FR 45379, Aug. 2, 1979; Amdt. 45-12, 45 FR 60183, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt. 45-20, 55 FR 32861, Aug. 10, 1990; 55 FR 37287, Sept. 10, 1990; Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53395, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 45-28, 77 FR 76854, Dec. 31, 2012]

§ 45.15 Marking requirements for PMA articles, TSO articles, and Critical parts.

(a) PMA articles. The manufacturer of a PMA article must permanently and legibly mark—

(1) Each PMA article, with the PMA holder's name, trademark, symbol, or other FAA approved identification and part number; and

(2) The letters “FAA-PMA”.

(b) TSO articles. The manufacturer of a TSO article must permanently and legibly mark —

(1) Each TSO article with the TSO holder's name, trademark, symbol, or other FAA approved identification and part number; and

(2) Each TSO article, unless otherwise specified in the applicable TSO, with the TSO number and letter of designation, all markings specifically required by the applicable TSO, and the serial number or the date of manufacture of the article or both.

(c) Critical parts. Each person who manufactures a part for which a replacement time, inspection interval, or related procedure is specified in the Airworthiness Limitations section of a manufacturer's maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness must permanently and legibly mark that part with a serial number (or equivalent) unique to that part in addition to the other applicable requirements of this section.

(d) If the FAA finds a part or article is too small or otherwise impractical to mark with any of the information required by this part, the manufacturer must attach that information to the part or its container.

[Doc. No. FAA-2006-25877, 74 FR 53395, Oct. 16, 2009]

§ 45.16 Marking of life-limited parts.

When requested by a person required to comply with § 43.10 of this chapter, the holder of a type certificate or design approval for a life-limited part must provide marking instructions, or must state that the part cannot be practicably marked without compromising its integrity.

[Doc. No. FAA-200-8017, 67 FR 2110, Jan. 15, 2002, as amended by Amdt. 45-26, 74 FR 53395, Oct. 16, 2009]

Subpart C Nationality and Registration Marks

§ 45.21 General.

(a) Except as provided in § 45.22, no person may operate a U.S.-registered aircraft unless that aircraft displays nationality and registration marks in accordance with the requirements of this section and §§ 45.23 through 45.33.

(b) Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may place on any aircraft a design, mark, or symbol that modifies or confuses the nationality and registration marks.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, be painted on the aircraft or affixed by any other means insuring a similar degree of permanence;

(2) Have no ornamentation;

(3) Contrast in color with the background; and

(4) Be legible.

(d) The aircraft nationality and registration marks may be affixed to an aircraft with readily removable material if—

(1) It is intended for immediate delivery to a foreign purchaser;

(2) It is bearing a temporary registration number; or

(3) It is marked temporarily to meet the requirements of § 45.22(c)(1) or § 45.29(h) of this part, or both.

[Doc. No. 8093, Amdt. 45-5, 33 FR 450, Jan. 12, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 45-17, 52 FR 34102, Sept. 9, 1987]

§ 45.22 Exhibition, antique, and other aircraft: Special rules.

(a) When display of aircraft nationality and registration marks in accordance with §§ 45.21 and 45.23 through 45.33 would be inconsistent with exhibition of that aircraft, a U.S.-registered aircraft may be operated without displaying those marks anywhere on the aircraft if:

(1) It is operated for the purpose of exhibition, including a motion picture or television production, or an airshow;

(2) Except for practice and test fights necessary for exhibition purposes, it is operated only at the location of the exhibition, between the exhibition locations, and between those locations and the base of operations of the aircraft; and

(3) For each flight in the United States:

(i) It is operated with the prior approval of the responsible Flight Standards office, in the case of a flight within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for the takeoff airport, or within 4.4 nautical miles of that airport if it is within Class G airspace; or

(ii) It is operated under a flight plan filed under either § 91.153 or § 91.169 of this chapter describing the marks it displays, in the case of any other flight.

(b) A small U.S.-registered aircraft built at least 30 years ago or a U.S.-registered aircraft for which an experimental certificate has been issued under § 21.191(d) or 21.191(g) for operation as an exhibition aircraft or as an amateur-built aircraft and which has the same external configuration as an aircraft built at least 30 years ago may be operated without displaying marks in accordance with §§ 45.21 and 45.23 through 45.33 if:

(1) It displays in accordance with § 45.21(c) marks at least 2 inches high on each side of the fuselage or vertical tail surface consisting of the Roman capital letter “N” followed by:

(i) The U.S. registration number of the aircraft; or

(ii) The symbol appropriate to the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft (“C”, standard; “R”, restricted; “L”, limited; or “X”, experimental) followed by the U.S. registration number of the aircraft; and

(2) It displays no other mark that begins with the letter “N” anywhere on the aircraft, unless it is the same mark that is displayed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(1) In an ADIZ or DEWIZ described in Part 99 of this chapter unless it temporarily bears marks in accordance with §§ 45.21 and 45.23 through 45.33;

(2) In a foreign country unless that country consents to that operation; or

(3) In any operation conducted under Part 121, 133, 135, or 137 of this chapter.

(d) If, due to the configuration of an aircraft, it is impossible for a person to mark it in accordance with §§ 45.21 and 45.23 through 45.33, he may apply to the FAA for a different marking procedure.

[Doc. No. 8093, Amdt. 45-5, 33 FR 450, Jan. 12, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 45-13, 46 FR 48603, Oct. 1, 1981; Amdt. 45-19, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 45-18, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 45-21, 56 FR 65653, Dec. 17, 1991; Amdt. 45-22, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Doc. No. FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 45-31, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]

§ 45.23 Display of marks; general.

(a) Each operator of an aircraft must display on that aircraft marks consisting of the Roman capital letter “N” (denoting United States registration) followed by the registration number of the aircraft. Each suffix letter used in the marks displayed must also be a Roman capital letter.

(b) Except for unmanned aircraft, when marks include only the Roman capital letter “N” and the registration number is displayed on limited, restricted, experimental, or provisionally certificated aircraft, the operator must also display on that aircraft near each entrance to the cabin, cockpit, or pilot station, in letters not less than 2 inches nor more than 6 inches high, the words “limited,” “restricted,” “experimental,” or “provisional,” as applicable.

[Doc. No. 8093, Amdt. 45-5, 33 FR 450, Jan. 12, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 45-9, 42 FR 41102, Aug. 15, 1977; Amdt. 45-24, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 45-32, 90 FR 35211, July 24, 2025]

§ 45.25 Location of marks on fixed-wing aircraft.

(a) The operator of a fixed-wing aircraft must display the required marks on either the vertical tail surfaces or the sides of the fuselage, except as provided in § 45.29(f).

(b) The marks required by paragraph (a) of this section must be displayed as follows:

(1) If displayed on the vertical tail surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces of a single vertical tail or on the outer surfaces of a multivertical tail. However, on aircraft on which marks at least 3 inches high may be displayed in accordance with § 45.29(b)(1), the marks may be displayed vertically on the vertical tail surfaces.

(2) If displayed on the fuselage surfaces, horizontally on both sides of the fuselage between the trailing edge of the wing and the leading edge of the horizontal stabilizer. However, if engine pods or other appurtenances are located in this area and are an integral part of the fuselage side surfaces, the operator may place the marks on those pods or appurtenances.

[Amdt. 45-9, 42 FR 41102, Aug. 15, 1977]

§ 45.27 Location of marks; nonfixed-wing aircraft.

(a) Rotorcraft. Each operator of a rotorcraft must display on that rotorcraft horizontally on both surfaces of the cabin, fuselage, boom, or tail the marks required by § 45.23.

(b) Airships. Each operator of an airship must display on that airship the marks required by § 45.23, horizontally on—

(1) The upper surface of the right horizontal stabilizer and on the under surface of the left horizontal stabilizer with the top of the marks toward the leading edge of each stabilizer; and

(2) Each side of the bottom half of the vertical stabilizer.

(c) Spherical balloons. Each operator of a spherical balloon must display the marks required by § 45.23 in two places diametrically opposite and near the maximum horizontal circumference of that balloon.

(d) Nonspherical balloons. Each operator of a nonspherical balloon must display the marks required by § 45.23 on each side of the balloon near its maximum cross section and immediately above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket or cabin suspension cables.

(e) Powered parachutes and weight-shift-control aircraft. Each operator of a powered parachute or a weight-shift-control aircraft must display the marks required by §§ 45.23 and 45.29(b)(2) of this part. The marks must be displayed in two diametrically opposite positions on the fuselage, a structural member, or a component of the aircraft and must be visible from the side of the aircraft.

[Doc. No. 2047, 29 FR 3223, Mar. 11, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 45-15, 48 FR 11392, Mar. 17, 1983; Amdt. 45-24, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 45-25, 72 FR 52469, Sept. 14, 2007]

§ 45.29 Size of marks.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, each operator of an aircraft must display marks on the aircraft meeting the size requirements of this section.

(b) Height. Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this part, the nationality and registration marks must be of equal height and on—

(1) Fixed-wing aircraft, must be at least 12 inches high, except that:

(i) An aircraft displaying marks at least 2 inches high before November 1, 1981 and an aircraft manufactured after November 2, 1981, but before January 1, 1983, may display those marks until the aircraft is repainted or the marks are repainted, restored, or changed;

(ii) Marks at least 3 inches high may be displayed on a glider;

(iii) Marks at least 3 inches high may be displayed on an aircraft for which the FAA has issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191(d), (g), (i), (k), or (l) of this chapter to operate as an exhibition aircraft, an amateur-built aircraft, or a former or kit-built light-sport category aircraft when the maximum cruising speed of the aircraft does not exceed 180 knots CAS; and

(iv) Marks may be displayed on an exhibition, antique, or other aircraft in accordance with § 45.22.

(2) Airships, spherical balloons, nonspherical balloons, powered parachutes, and weight-shift-control aircraft must be at least 3 inches high; and

(3) Rotorcraft, must be at least 12 inches high, except that rotorcraft displaying before April 18, 1983, marks required by § 45.29(b)(3) in effect on April 17, 1983, and rotorcraft manufactured on or after April 18, 1983, but before December 31, 1983, may display those marks until the aircraft is repainted or the marks are repainted, restored, or changed.

(c) Width. Characters must be two-thirds as wide as they are high, except the number “1”, which must be one-sixth as wide as it is high, and the letters “M” and “W” which may be as wide as they are high.

(d) Thickness. Characters must be formed by solid lines one-sixth as thick as the character is high.

(e) Spacing. The space between each character may not be less than one-fourth of the character width.

(f) If either one of the surfaces authorized for displaying required marks under § 45.25 is large enough for display of marks meeting the size requirements of this section and the other is not, full size marks must be placed on the larger surface. If neither surface is large enough for full-size marks, marks as large as practicable must be displayed on the larger of the two surfaces. If no surface authorized to be marked by § 45.27 is large enough for full-size marks, marks as large as practicable must be placed on the largest of the authorized surfaces. However, powered parachutes and weight-shift-control aircraft must display marks at least 3 inches high.

(g) Uniformity. The marks required by this part for fixed-wing aircraft must have the same height, width, thickness, and spacing on both sides of the aircraft.

(h) After March 7, 1988, each operator of an aircraft penetrating an ADIZ or DEWIZ must display on that aircraft temporary or permanent nationality and registration marks at least 12 inches high.

[Doc. No. 2047, 29 FR 3223, Mar. 11, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 45-2, 31 FR 9863, July 21, 1966; Amdt. 45-9, 42 FR 41102, Aug. 15, 1977; Amdt. 45-13, 46 FR 48604, Oct. 1, 1981; Amdt. 45-15, 48 FR 11392, Mar. 17, 1983; Amdt. 45-17, 52 FR 34102, Sept. 9, 1987; 52 FR 36566, Sept. 30, 1987; Amdt. 45-24, 69 FR 44863, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 45-25, 72 FR 52469, Sept. 14, 2007; Amdt. 45-32, 90 FR 35211, July 24, 2025]

§ 45.31 Marking of export aircraft.

A person who manufactures an aircraft in the United States for delivery outside thereof may display on that aircraft any marks required by the State of registry of the aircraft. However, no person may operate an aircraft so marked within the United States, except for test and demonstration flights for a limited period of time, or while in necessary transit to the purchaser.

§ 45.33 Sale of aircraft; removal of marks.

When an aircraft that is registered in the United States is sold, the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration must remove, before its delivery to the purchaser, all United States marks from the aircraft, unless the purchaser is—

(a) A citizen of the United States;

(b) An individual citizen of a foreign country who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States; or

(c) When the aircraft is to be based and primarily used in the United States, a corporation (other than a corporation which is a citizen of the United States) lawfully organized and doing business under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.

[Amdt. 45-11, 44 FR 61938, Oct. 29, 1979]

PART 47 AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION

Authority: 4 U.S.T. 1830; Pub. L. 115-254, Pub. L. 108-297, 118 Stat. 1095 (49 U.S.C. 40101 note, 49 U.S.C. 44101 note); 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113-40114, 44101-44108, 44110-44113, 44701, 44703-44704, 44713, 45302, 46104, 46301.

Source: Docket No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, unless otherwise noted.

Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to part 47 appear at 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010.

Subpart A General

§ 47.1 Applicability.

This part prescribes the requirements for registering aircraft under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104. Subpart B applies to each applicant for, and holder of, a Certificate of Aircraft Registration. Subpart C applies to each applicant for, and holder of, a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate. This part applies to the issuance by the FAA of such certificates, whether by mail, electronic, or other means.

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5570, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.2 Definitions.

The following are definitions of terms used in this part:

Citizen of the United States or U.S. citizen means one of the following:

(1) An individual who is a citizen of the United States or one of its possessions.

(2) A partnership each of whose partners is an individual who is a citizen of the United States.

(3) A corporation or association organized under the laws of the United States or a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States, of which the president and at least two-thirds of the board of directors and other managing officers are citizens of the United States, which is under the actual control of citizens of the United States, and in which at least 75 percent of the voting interest is owned or controlled by persons that are citizens of the United States.

Registry means the FAA, Civil Aviation Registry, Aircraft Registration Branch.

Resident alien means an individual citizen of a foreign country lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States as an immigrant in conformity with the regulations of the Department of Homeland Security (8 CFR Chapter 1).

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. 47-30, 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015]

§ 47.3 Registration required.

(a) An aircraft may be registered under 49 U.S.C. 44103 only when the aircraft is not registered under the laws of a foreign country and is—

(1) Owned by a citizen of the United States;

(2) Owned by an individual citizen of a foreign country lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States;

(3) Owned by a corporation not a citizen of the United States when the corporation is organized and doing business under the laws of the United States or a State within the United States, and the aircraft is based and primarily used in the United States; or

(4) An aircraft of—

(i) The United States Government; or

(ii) A State, the District of Columbia, a territory or possession of the United States, or a political subdivision of a State, territory, or possession.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft that is eligible for registration under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104, unless the aircraft—

(1) Has been registered by its owner;

(2) Is carrying aboard the temporary authorization required by § 47.31(c); or

(3) Is an aircraft of the Armed Forces of the United States.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 244, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010; Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. 47-30, 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015]

§ 47.5 Applicants.

(a) A person who wishes to register an aircraft in the United States must submit an Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 under this part.

(b) An aircraft may be registered only by and in the legal name of its owner.

(c) 49 U.S.C. 44103(c) provides that registration is not evidence of ownership of aircraft in any proceeding in which ownership by a particular person is in issue. The FAA does not issue any certificate of ownership or endorse any information with respect to ownership on a Certificate of Aircraft Registration. The FAA issues a Certificate of Aircraft Registration to the person who appears to be the owner on the basis of the evidence of ownership submitted pursuant to § 47.11 with the Aircraft Registration Application, or recorded at the Registry.

(d) In this part, “owner” includes a buyer in possession, a bailee, or a lessee of an aircraft under a contract of conditional sale, and the assignee of that person.

[Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 244, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5570, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.7 United States citizens and resident aliens.

(a) U.S. citizens. An applicant for aircraft registration under this part who is a U.S. citizen must certify to this in the Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1.

(b) Resident aliens. An applicant for aircraft registration under 49 U.S.C. 44102 who is a resident alien must furnish a representation of permanent residence and the applicant's alien registration number issued by the Department of Homeland Security.

(c) Trustees. An applicant for aircraft registration under 49 U.S.C. 44102 that holds legal title to an aircraft in trust must comply with the following requirements:

(1) Each trustee must be either a U.S. citizen or a resident alien.

(2) The applicant must submit with the Aircraft Registration Application—

(i) A copy of each document legally affecting a relationship under the trust;

(ii) If each beneficiary under the trust, including each person whose security interest in the aircraft is incorporated in the trust, is either a U.S. citizen or a resident alien, an affidavit by the applicant to that effect; and

(iii) If any beneficiary under the trust, including any person whose security interest in the aircraft is incorporated in the trust, is not a U.S. citizen or resident alien, an affidavit from each trustee stating that the trustee is not aware of any reason, situation, or relationship (involving beneficiaries or other persons who are not U.S. citizens or resident aliens) as a result of which those persons together would have more than 25 percent of the aggregate power to influence or limit the exercise of the trustee's authority.

(3) If persons who are neither U.S. citizens nor resident aliens have the power to direct or remove a trustee, either directly or indirectly through the control of another person, the trust instrument must provide that those persons together may not have more than 25 percent of the aggregate power to direct or remove a trustee. Nothing in this paragraph prevents those persons from having more than 25 percent of the beneficial interest in the trust.

(d) Partnerships. A partnership may apply for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration under 49 U.S.C. 44102 only if each partner, whether a general or limited partner, is an individual who is a citizen of the United States. Nothing in this section makes ineligible for registration an aircraft that is not owned as a partnership asset but is co-owned by—

(1) Resident aliens; or

(2) One or more resident aliens and one or more U.S. citizens.

[Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 244, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010; Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. 47-30, 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5571, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.8 Voting trusts.

(a) If a voting trust is used to qualify a domestic corporation as a U.S. citizen, the corporate applicant must submit to the Registry—

(1) A true copy of the fully executed voting trust agreement, which must identify each voting interest of the applicant, and which must be binding upon each voting trustee, the applicant corporation, all foreign stockholders, and each other party to the transaction; and

(2) An affidavit executed by each person designated as voting trustee in the voting trust agreement, in which each affiant represents—

(i) That each voting trustee is a citizen of the United States within the meaning of 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(15).

(ii) That each voting trustee is not a past, present, or prospective director, officer, employee, attorney, or agent of any other party to the trust agreement;

(iii) That each voting trustee is not a present or prospective beneficiary, creditor, debtor, supplier or contractor of any other party to the trust agreement;

(iv) That each voting trustee is not aware of any reason, situation, or relationship under which any other party to the agreement might influence the exercise of the voting trustee's totally independent judgment under the voting trust agreement.

(b) Each voting trust agreement submitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must provide for the succession of a voting trustee in the event of death, disability, resignation, termination of citizenship, or any other event leading to the replacement of any voting trustee. Upon succession, the replacement voting trustee shall immediately submit to the Registry the affidavit required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(c) If the voting trust terminates or is modified, and the result is less than 75 percent control of the voting interest in the corporation by citizens of the United States, a loss of citizenship of the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration occurs, and § 47.41(a)(3) of this part applies.

(d) A voting trust agreement may not empower a trustee to act through a proxy.

[Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61939, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5571, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.9 Corporations not U.S. citizens.

(a) Each corporation applying for registration of an aircraft under 49 U.S.C. 44102 must submit to the Registry with the Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1—

(1) A certified copy of its certificate of incorporation;

(2) A certification that it is lawfully qualified to do business in one or more States;

(3) A certification that the aircraft will be based and primarily used in the United States; and

(4) The location where the records required by paragraph (e) of this section will be maintained.

(b) For the purposes of registration, an aircraft is based and primarily used in the United States if the flight hours accumulated within the United States amount to at least 60 percent of the total flight hours of the aircraft during the period consisting in the remainder of the registration month and the succeeding 6 calendar months and each 6 calendar month period thereafter.

(c) For the purpose of this section, only those flight hours accumulated during non-stop (except for stops in emergencies or for purposes of refueling) flight between two points in the United States, even if the aircraft is outside of the United States during part of the flight, are considered flight hours accumulated within the United States.

(d) In determining compliance with this section, any periods during which the aircraft is not validly registered in the United States are disregarded.

(e) The corporation that registers an aircraft pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44102 shall maintain, and make available for inspection by the FAA upon request, records containing the total flight hours in the United States of the aircraft for three calendar years after the year in which the flight hours were accumulated.

(f) The corporation that registers an aircraft pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 44102 shall send to the Registry, at the end of each period of time described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, either—

(1) A signed report containing—

(i) The total time in service of the airframe as provided in § 91.417(a)(2)(i), accumulated during that period; and

(ii) The total flight hours in the United States of the aircraft accumulated during that period; or

(2) A signed statement that the total flight hours of the aircraft, while registered in the United States during that period, have been exclusively within the United States.

[Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979, as amended by Amdt. 47-24, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010; Amdt. No. 47-34, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022; 88 FR 2813, Jan. 18, 2023]

§ 47.11 Evidence of ownership.

Except as provided in §§ 47.33 and 47.35, each person that submits an Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 under this part must also submit the required evidence of ownership, recordable under §§ 49.13 and 49.17 of this chapter, as follows:

(a) The buyer in possession, the bailee, or the lessee of an aircraft under a contract of conditional sale must submit the contract. The assignee under a contract of conditional sale must submit both the contract (unless it is already recorded at the Registry), and his assignment from the original buyer, bailee, lessee, or prior assignee.

(b) The repossessor of an aircraft must submit—

(1) A Certificate of Repossession of Encumbered Aircraft, FAA Form 8050-4, or its equivalent, signed by the applicant and stating that the aircraft was repossessed or otherwise seized under the security agreement involved and applicable local law;

(2) The security agreement (unless it is already recorded at the Registry), or a copy thereof certified as true under § 49.21 of this chapter; and

(3) When repossession was through foreclosure proceedings resulting in sale, a bill of sale signed by the sheriff, auctioneer, or other authorized person who conducted the sale, and stating that the sale was made under applicable local law.

(c) The buyer of an aircraft at a judicial sale, or at a sale to satisfy a lien or charge, must submit a bill of sale signed by the sheriff, auctioneer, or other authorized person who conducted the sale, and stating that the sale was made under applicable local law.

(d) The owner of an aircraft, the title to which has been in controversy and has been determined by a court, must submit a certified copy of the decision of the court.

(e) The executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased former owner of an aircraft must submit a certified copy of the letters testamentary or letters of administration appointing him executor or administrator. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration is issued to the applicant as executor or administrator.

(f) The buyer of an aircraft from the estate of a deceased former owner must submit both a bill of sale, signed for the estate by the executor or administrator, and a certified copy of the letters testamentary or letters of administration. When no executor or administrator has been or is to be appointed, the applicant must submit both a bill of sale, signed by the heir-at-law of the deceased former owner, and an affidavit of the heir-at-law stating that no application for appointment of an executor or administrator has been made, that so far as he can determine none will be made, and that he is the person entitled to, or having the right to dispose of, the aircraft under applicable local law.

(g) The guardian of another person's property that includes an aircraft must submit a certified copy of the order of the court appointing him guardian. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration is issued to the applicant as guardian.

(h) The trustee of property that includes an aircraft, as described in § 47.7(c), must submit either a certified copy of the order of the court appointing the trustee, or a complete and true copy of the instrument creating the trust. If there is more than one trustee, each trustee must sign the Aircraft Registration Application. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration is issued to a single applicant as trustee, or to several trustees jointly as co-trustees.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-23, 53 FR 1915, Jan. 25, 1988; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5571, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.13 Signatures and instruments made by representatives.

(a) Each person signing an Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, or a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, must sign in ink or by other means acceptable to the FAA. If signed in ink, the Aircraft Registration Application must also have the typed or legibly printed name of each signer in the signature block.

(b) When one or more persons doing business under a trade name submits an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, the application, document, or request must be signed by, or on behalf of, each person who shares title to the aircraft.

(c) When an agent submits an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, on behalf of the owner, that agent must—

(1) State the name of the owner on the application, document, or request;

(2) Sign as agent or attorney-in-fact on the application, document, or request; and

(3) Submit a signed power of attorney, or a true copy thereof certified under § 49.21 of this chapter, with the application, document, or request.

(d) When a corporation submits an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, it must—

(1) Have an authorized person sign, by means acceptable to the FAA, the application, document, or request;

(2) Show the title of the signer's office on the application, document, or request; and

(3) Submit a copy of the authorization from the board of directors to sign for the corporation, certified as true under § 49.21 of this chapter by a corporate officer or other person in a managerial position therein, with the application, document, or request, unless—

(i) The signer of the application, document, or request is a corporate officer or other person in a managerial position in the corporation and the title of his office is stated in connection with his signature; or

(ii) A valid authorization to sign is on file at the Registry.

(4) The provisions of paragraph (d)(3) of this section do not apply to an irrevocable deregistration and export request authorization when an irrevocable deregistration and export request authorization under the Cape Town Treaty is signed by a corporate officer and is filed with the Registry.

(e) When a partnership submits an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, it must—

(1) State the full name of the partnership on the application, document, or request;

(2) State the name of each general partner on the application, document, or request; and

(3) Have a general partner sign the application, document, or request.

(f) When co-owners, who are not engaged in business as partners, submit an Aircraft Registration Application, a document submitted as supporting evidence under this part, or a request for cancellation of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, each person who shares title to the aircraft under the arrangement must sign the application, document, or request.

(g) A power of attorney or other evidence of a person's authority to sign for another, submitted under this part, is valid for the purposes of this section, unless sooner revoked, until—

(1) Its expiration date stated therein; or

(2) If an expiration date is not stated therein, for not more than 3 years after the date—

(i) It is signed; or

(ii) The grantor (a corporate officer or other person in a managerial position therein, where the grantor is a corporation) certifies in writing that the authority to sign shown by the power of attorney or other evidence is still in effect.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-2, 31 FR 15349, Dec. 8, 1966; Amdt. 47-3, 32 FR 6554, Apr. 28, 1967; Amdt. 47-12, 36 FR 8661, May 11, 1971; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5571, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.14 Serial numbers for unmanned aircraft.

(a) The unmanned aircraft serial number provided as part of any application for aircraft registration of any standard remote identification unmanned aircraft must be the serial number issued by the manufacturer of the unmanned aircraft in accordance with the design and production requirements of part 89 of this chapter. The serial number provided in this application must not be listed on more than one Certificate of Aircraft Registration at the same time.

(b) The unmanned aircraft serial number provided as part of any application for registration of any unmanned aircraft with a remote identification broadcast module must be the serial number issued by the manufacturer of the remote identification broadcast module in accordance with the design and production requirements of part 89 of this chapter. The serial number provided in this application must not be listed on more than one Certificate of Aircraft Registration at the same time.

[Docket No. FAA-2019-1100, Amdt. 47-31, 86 FR 4503, Jan. 15, 2021]

§ 47.15 Registration number.

(a) Number required. An applicant for aircraft registration must place a U.S. registration number (registration mark) on the Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, and on any evidence submitted with the application. There is no charge for the assignment of numbers provided in this paragraph. This paragraph does not apply to an aircraft manufacturer who applies for a group of U.S. registration numbers under paragraph (c) of this section; a person who applies for a special registration number under paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section; or a holder of a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate who applies for a temporary registration number under § 47.16.

(1) Aircraft not previously registered anywhere. The applicant must obtain the U.S. registration number from the Registry by request in writing describing the aircraft by make, type, model, and serial number (or, if it is amateur-built, as provided in § 47.33(b)) and stating that the aircraft has not previously been registered anywhere. If the aircraft was brought into the United States from a foreign country, the applicant must submit evidence that the aircraft has never been registered in a foreign country.

(2) Aircraft last previously registered in the United States. Unless the applicant applies for a different number under paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section, the applicant must place the U.S. registration number that is already assigned to the aircraft on the Aircraft Registration Application, and the supporting evidence. If there is no number assigned, the applicant must obtain a U.S. registration number from the Registry by making a written request that describes the aircraft by make, model, and serial number.

(3) Aircraft last previously registered in a foreign country. Whether or not the foreign registration has ended, the applicant must obtain a U.S. registration number from the Registry for an aircraft last previously registered in a foreign country, by request in writing describing the aircraft by make, model, and serial number, accompanied by—

(i) Evidence of termination of foreign registration in accordance with § 47.37(b) or the applicant's affidavit showing that foreign registration has ended; or

(ii) If foreign registration has not ended, the applicant's affidavit stating that the number will not be placed on the aircraft until foreign registration has ended.

(4) Duration of a U.S. registration number assignment. Authority to use the registration number obtained under paragraph (a)(1), (2), or (3) of this section expires 90 days after the date it is issued unless the applicant submits an Aircraft Registration Application and complies with § 47.33 or § 47.37, as applicable, within that period of time. However, the applicant may obtain an extension of this 90-day period from the Registry if the applicant shows that the delay in complying with that section is due to circumstances beyond the applicant's control.

(b) A U.S. registration number may not exceed five symbols in addition to the prefix letter “N”. These symbols may be all numbers (N10000), one to four numbers and one suffix letter (N 1000A), or one to three numbers and two suffix letters (N 100AB). The letters “I” and “O” may not be used. The first zero in a number must always be preceded by at least one of the numbers 1 through 9.

(c) An aircraft manufacturer may apply to the Registry for enough U.S. registration numbers to supply estimated production for the next 18 months. There is no charge for this allocation of numbers.

(d) Any available, unassigned U.S. registration number may be assigned as a special registration number. An applicant who wants a special registration number or wants to change the registration number of his aircraft may apply for it to the Registry. The fee required by § 47.17 must accompany the application.

(e) [Reserved]

(f) The Registry authorizes a special registration number change on the Assignment of Special Registration Numbers, AC Form 8050-64. The authorization expires one year from the date the Registry issues an Assignment of Special Registration Numbers unless the special registration number is permanently placed on the aircraft. Within five days after the special registration number is placed on the aircraft, the owner must complete and sign the Assignment of Special Registration Numbers, state the date the number was placed on the aircraft, and return the original form to the Registry. The duplicate of the Assignment of Special Registration Numbers and the present Certificate of Aircraft Registration must be carried in the aircraft as temporary authority to operate it. This temporary authority is valid until the date the owner receives the revised Certificate of Aircraft Registration showing the new registration number, but in no case is it valid for more than 120 days from the date the number is placed on the aircraft.

(g) [Reserved]

(h) A special registration number may be reserved for no more than 1 year. If a person wishes to renew his reservation from year to year, he must apply to the Registry for renewal and submit the fee required by § 47.17 for a special registration number.

(i) When aircraft registration has ended, as described in § 47.41(a), the assignment of a registration number to an aircraft is no longer authorized for use except as provided in § 47.31(c) and will be cancelled:

(1) Following the expiration date shown on the Certificate of Aircraft Registration for any aircraft whose registration has not been renewed under § 47.40(c);

(2) Following the expiration date shown on the Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, for any aircraft registered under Subpart C of this part, when the certificate has not been renewed, and the owner has not applied for registration in accordance with § 47.31; or

(3) When ownership has transferred—

(i) Six months after first receipt of notice of aircraft sale or evidence of ownership from the last registered owner or successive owners, and an Aircraft Registration Application has not been received.

(ii) Six months after evidence of ownership authorized under § 47.67 has been submitted, and the applicant has not met the requirements of this part.

(iii) Twelve months after a new owner has submitted evidence of ownership and an Aircraft Registration Application under § 47.31, and the applicant or a successive applicant has not met the requirements of this part.

(j) At the time an assignment of registration number is cancelled, the number may be reserved for one year in the name of the last owner of record if a request has been submitted with the fee required by § 47.17. If the request for reservation and fee are not submitted prior to cancellation, the registration number is unavailable for assignment for a period of five years.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-1, 31 FR 13314, Oct. 14, 1966; Amdt. 47-5, 32 FR 13505, Sept. 27, 1967; Amdt. 47-7, 34 FR 2480, Feb. 21, 1969; Amdt. 47-13, 36 FR 16187, Aug. 20, 1971; Amdt. 47-15, 37 FR 21528, Oct. 12, 1972; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-17, 39 FR 1353, Jan. 8, 1974; Amdt. 47-22, 47 FR 12153, Mar. 22, 1982; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41980, July 20, 2010; Amdt. No. 47-33, 87 FR 71217, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5571, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.16 Temporary registration numbers.

(a) Temporary registration numbers are issued by the FAA to manufacturers, distributors, and dealers who are holders of Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates for temporary display on aircraft during flight allowed under Subpart C of this part.

(b) The holder of a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate may apply to the Registry for as many temporary registration numbers as are necessary for his business. The application must be in writing and include—

(1) Sufficient information to justify the need for the temporary registration numbers requested; and

(2) The number of each Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate held by the applicant.

There is no charge for these numbers.

(1) The numbers may be used and reused—

(i) Only in connection with the holder's Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate;

(ii) Within the limitations of § 47.69 where applicable, including the requirements of § 47.67; and

(iii) On aircraft not registered under Subpart B of this part or in a foreign country, and not displaying any other identification markings.

(2) A temporary registration number may not be used on more than one aircraft in flight at the same time.

(3) Temporary registration numbers may not be used to fly aircraft into the United States for the purpose of importation.

(d) The assignment of any temporary registration number to any person lapses upon the expiration of all of his Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates. When a temporary registration number is used on a flight outside the United States for delivery purposes, the holder shall record the assignment of that number to the aircraft and shall keep that record for at least 1 year after the removal of the number from that aircraft. Whenever the owner of an aircraft bearing a temporary registration number applies for an airworthiness certificate under Part 21 of this chapter he shall furnish that number in the application. The temporary registration number must be removed from the aircraft not later than the date on which either title or possession passes to another person.

[Amdt. 47-4, 32 FR 12556, Aug. 30, 1967, as amended by Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41981, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5571, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.17 Fees.

(a) The fees for applications under this part are as follows:

(1) Certificate of Aircraft Registration (each aircraft) | $5.00

(2) Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate | 10.00

(3) Additional Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate (issued to same dealer) | 2.00

(4) Special registration number (each number) | 10.00

(5) To change, reassign, or reserve a registration number | 10.00

(6) Replacement Certificate of Aircraft Registration | 2.00

(7) Renewal Certificate of Aircraft Registration | 5.00

(b) Each application must be accompanied by the proper fee, that may be paid by check or money order to the Federal Aviation Administration.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41981, July 20, 2010; Amdt. No. 47-33, 87 FR 71217, Nov. 22, 2022]

§ 47.19 Registry.

Each application, submission, request, notification, or other communication sent to the Administrator under this part must be delivered to the Registry by a means and in a form acceptable to the Administrator, to include electronic or digital forms and means compatible with systems of the Registry.

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2764, Amdt. No. 47-35, 90 FR 5576, Jan. 17, 2025]

Subpart B Certificates of Aircraft Registration

§ 47.31 Application.

(a) Each applicant for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration must submit the following to the Registry—

(1) An Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, signed by the applicant in the manner prescribed by § 47.13;

(2) The Aircraft Bill of Sale, AC Form 8050-2, or other evidence of ownership authorized by § 47.33, § 47.35, or § 47.37 (unless already recorded at the Registry); and

(3) The fee required by § 47.17.

(b) The FAA rejects an application when—

(1) Any form is not completed;

(2) The name and signature of the applicant are not the same throughout; or

(3) The applicant does not provide a legibly printed or typed name with the signature in the signature block.

(c) After compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant for registration of an aircraft last previously registered in the United States must carry the second copy of the Aircraft Registration Application in the aircraft as temporary authority to operate without registration.

(1) This temporary authority is valid for operation within the United States until the date the applicant receives the Certificate of Aircraft Registration or until the date the FAA denies the application, or as provided by paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(2) This temporary authority is not available in connection with any Aircraft Registration Application received when 12 months have passed since the receipt of the first application following transfer of ownership by the last registered owner.

(3) If there is no registration number assigned at the time application for registration is made, the second copy of the Aircraft Registration Application may not be used as temporary authority to operate the aircraft.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-6, 33 FR 11, Jan. 3, 1968; Amdt. 47-15, 37 FR 21528, Oct. 12, 1972; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-28, 73 FR 10667, Feb. 28, 2008; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41981, July 20, 2010; Amdt. No. 47-33, 87 FR 71217, Nov. 22, 2022; Amdt. No. 47-33A, 88 FR 2814, Jan. 18, 2023; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5571, Jan. 17, 2025; Docket No. FAA-2024-2764, Amdt. No. 47-35, 90 FR 5576, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.33 Aircraft not previously registered anywhere.

(a) A person who is the owner of an aircraft that has not been registered under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104, under other law of the United States, or under foreign law, may register it under this part if he—

(1) Complies with §§ 47.3, 47.7, 47.8, 47.9, 47.11, 47.13, 47.15, and 47.17, as applicable; and

(2) Submits with his Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, an Aircraft Bill of Sale, AC Form 8050-2, signed by the seller, an equivalent bill of sale, or other evidence of ownership authorized by § 47.11.

(b) If, for good reason, the applicant cannot produce the evidence of ownership required by paragraph (a) of this section, he must submit other evidence that is satisfactory to the FAA. This other evidence may be an affidavit stating why he cannot produce the required evidence, accompanied by whatever further evidence is available to prove the transaction.

(c) The owner of an amateur-built aircraft who applies for registration under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must describe the aircraft by class (airplane, rotorcraft, glider, or balloon), serial number, number of seats, type of engine installed, (reciprocating, turbopropeller, turbojet, or other), number of engines installed, and make, model, and serial number of each engine installed; and must state whether the aircraft is built for land or water operation. Also, he must submit as evidence of ownership an affidavit giving the U.S. registration number, and stating that the aircraft was built from parts and that he is the owner. If he built the aircraft from a kit, the applicant must also submit a bill of sale from the manufacturer of the kit.

(d) The owner, other than the holder of the type certificate, of an aircraft that he assembles from parts to conform to the approved type design, must describe the aircraft and engine in the manner required by paragraph (c) of this section, and also submit evidence of ownership satisfactory to the FAA, such as bills of sale, for all major components of the aircraft.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010]

§ 47.35 Aircraft last previously registered in the United States.

(a) A person who is the owner of an aircraft last previously registered under 49 U.S.C. Sections 44101-44104, or under other law of the United States, may register it under this part if he complies with §§ 47.3, 47.7, 47.8, 47.9, 47.11, 47.13, 47.15, and 47.17, as applicable and submits with his Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 an Aircraft Bill of Sale, AC Form 8050-2, signed by the seller or an equivalent conveyance, or other evidence of ownership authorized by § 47.11.

(1) If the applicant bought the aircraft from the last registered owner, the conveyance must be from that owner to the applicant.

(2) If the applicant did not buy the aircraft from the last registered owner, he must submit conveyances or other instruments showing consecutive transactions from the last registered owner through each intervening owner to the applicant.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; 73 FR 55722, Sept. 26, 2008; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010]

§ 47.37 Aircraft last previously registered in a foreign country.

(a) A person who is the owner of an aircraft last previously registered under the law of a foreign country may register it under this part if the owner—

(1) Complies with §§ 47.3, 47.7, 47.8, 47.9, 47.11, 47.13, 47.15, and 47.17, as applicable;

(2) Submits with his Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1 a bill of sale from the foreign seller or other evidence satisfactory to the FAA that he owns the aircraft; and

(3) Submits evidence satisfactory to the FAA that—

(i) If the country in which the aircraft was registered has not ratified the Convention on the International Recognition of Rights in Aircraft (4 U.S.T. 1830), (the Geneva Convention), or the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment, as modified by the Protocol to the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment on Matters Specific to Aircraft Equipment (the Cape Town Treaty), the foreign registration has ended or is invalid; or

(ii) If that country has ratified the Geneva Convention, but has not ratified the Cape Town Treaty, the foreign registration has ended or is invalid, and each holder of a recorded right against the aircraft has been satisfied or has consented to the transfer, or ownership in the country of export has been ended by a sale in execution under the terms of the Geneva Convention; or

(iii) If that country has ratified the Cape Town Treaty and the aircraft is subject to the Treaty, that the foreign registration has ended or is invalid, and that all interests ranking in priority have been discharged or that the holders of such interests have consented to the deregistration and export of the aircraft.

(iv) Nothing under (a)(3)(iii) affects rights established prior to the Treaty entering into force with respect to the country in which the aircraft was registered.

(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, satisfactory evidence of termination of the foreign registration may be—

(1) A statement, by the official having jurisdiction over the national aircraft registry of the foreign country, that the registration has ended or is invalid, and showing the official's name and title and describing the aircraft by make, model, and serial number; or

(2) A final judgment or decree of a court of competent jurisdiction of the foreign country, determining that, under the laws of that country, the registration has become invalid.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-26, 68 FR 10317, Mar. 4, 2003; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005]

§ 47.39 Effective date of registration.

An aircraft is registered on the date the Registry determines that the submissions meet the requirements of this part. The effective date of registration is shown as the date of issue on the Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2764, Amdt. No. 47-35, 90 FR 5576, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.40 Registration expiration and renewal.

(a) Initial Registration. A Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued in accordance with § 47.31 expires seven years after the last day of the month in which it is issued.

(b) Renewal. Each holder of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration containing an expiration date may apply for renewal of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration by submitting an Aircraft Registration Renewal Application, AC Form 8050-1B, and the fee required by § 47.17 during the six months preceding the expiration date for the Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

(c) Inaccurate Information. The Administrator may require the owner of a registered aircraft to submit a complete Aircraft Registration Application, AC Form 8050-1, and fee prior to the expiration date if the Administrator finds that the Certificate of Aircraft Registration contains inaccurate information.

[Amdt. 47-33, 87 FR 71218, Nov. 22, 2022, as amended by Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5571, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.41 Duration and return of Certificate.

(a) Each Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued by the FAA under this subpart is effective, unless registration has ended by reason of having been revoked, canceled, expired, or the ownership is transferred, until the date upon which one of the following events occurs:

(1) Subject to the Convention on the International Recognition of Rights in Aircraft when applicable, the aircraft is registered under the laws of a foreign country.

(2) The aircraft is totally destroyed or scrapped.

(3) The holder of the certificate loses his U.S. citizenship.

(4) 30 days have elapsed since the death of the holder of the certificate.

(5) The owner, if an individual who is not a citizen of the United States, loses status as a resident alien, unless that person becomes a citizen of the United States at the same time.

(6) If the owner is a corporation other than a corporation which is a citizen of the United States—

(i) The corporation ceases to be lawfully organized and doing business under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; or

(ii) A period described in § 47.9(b) ends and the aircraft was not based and primarily used in the United States during that period.

(7) If the trustee in whose name the aircraft is registered—

(i) Loses U.S. citizenship;

(ii) Loses status as a resident alien and does not become a citizen of the United States at the same time; or

(iii) In any manner ceases to act as trustee and is not immediately replaced by another who meets the requirements of § 47.7(c).

(b) The FAA must be given notice of, and the reason(s) for, any change in status of the registered aircraft or registered owner specified under paragraph (a) of this section. In the case of an electronically issued Certificate of Aircraft Registration, notice must be provided by email or other means acceptable to the Administrator, and, in the case of a certificate issued in paper form, the certificate, with the reverse side completed, must be returned to the Registry—

(1) Within 21 days in the case of registration under the laws of a foreign country, by the person who was the owner of the aircraft before foreign registration;

(2) Within 60 days after the death of the holder of the certificate, by the administrator or executor of his estate, or by his heir-at-law if no administrator or executor has been or is to be appointed; or

(3) Within 21 days of the termination of the registration, by the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration in all other cases mentioned in paragraph (a) of this section, except in the case of expired certificates, the holder must destroy the expired certificate, if in paper or printed form.

(4) If the certificate is not available for return, as directed in paragraph (b) of this section, a statement describing the aircraft and stating the reason the certificate is not available must be submitted to the Registry within the time required by paragraph (b) of this section.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-28, 73 FR 10667, Feb. 28, 2008; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.43 Invalid registration.

(a) The registration of an aircraft is invalid if, at the time it is made—

(1) The aircraft is registered in a foreign country;

(2) The applicant is not the owner;

(3) The applicant is not qualified to submit an application under this part; or

(4) The interest of the applicant in the aircraft was created by a transaction that was not entered into in good faith, but rather was made to avoid (with or without the owner's knowledge) compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104.

(b) If the registration of an aircraft is invalid under paragraph (a) of this section, the holder of the invalid Certificate of Aircraft Registration, if issued in paper form, must return it as soon as possible to the Registry.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-20, 44 FR 61940, Oct. 29, 1979; Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.45 Change of address.

Within 30 days after any change in a registered owner's mailing address, the registered owner must notify the Registry in writing of the change of address. If a post office box or mailing drop is used for mailing purposes, the registered owner also must provide that owner's physical address or location. Upon acceptance, the Registry will issue, without charge, a revised Certificate of Aircraft Registration reflecting the new mailing address. When a post office box or mailing drop is used for mailing purposes, and the registered owner's physical address or location changes, the registered owner must notify the Registry in writing of the new address or location within 30 days.

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.47 Cancellation of Certificate for export purpose.

(a) The holder of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration or the holder of an irrevocable deregistration and export request authorization recognized under the Cape Town Treaty and filed with the FAA who wishes to cancel the Certificate of Aircraft Registration for the purpose of export must submit to the Registry—

(1) A written request for cancellation of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration describing the aircraft by make, model, and serial number, and stating the U.S. registration number and the country to which the aircraft will be exported;

(2)(i) For an aircraft not subject to the Cape Town Treaty, evidence satisfactory to the FAA that each holder of a recorded right has been satisfied or has consented to the transfer; or

(ii) For an aircraft subject to the Cape Town Treaty, evidence satisfactory to the FAA that each holder of a recorded right established prior to the date the Treaty entered into force with respect to the United States has been satisfied or has consented to the transfer; and

(3) A written certification that all registered interests ranking in priority to that of the requestor have been discharged or that the holders of such interests have consented to the cancellation for export purposes.

(b) If the aircraft is subject to the Cape Town Treaty and an irrevocable deregistration and export request authorization has been filed with the Registry, the Registry will honor a request for cancellation only if an authorized party makes the request.

[Amdt. 47-27, 70 FR 245, Jan. 3, 2005, as amended by Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.49 Replacement of Certificate.

(a) If the original Certificate of Aircraft Registration is lost, stolen, or mutilated, the registered owner may submit to the Registry a written request that states the reason a replacement certificate is needed and the fee required by § 47.17. The Registry will send a replacement certificate to the registered owner by email or other electronic or digital means, or, if such means are unavailable, to the registered owner's mailing address or to another mailing address if requested in writing by the registered owner.

(b) The registered owner may request a temporary Certificate of Aircraft Registration pending receipt of a replacement certificate. The Registry issues a temporary Certificate of Aircraft Registration that must be carried in the aircraft until receipt of the replacement certificate.

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.51 [Reserved]

Subpart C Dealers' Aircraft Registration Certificate

§ 47.61 Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates.

(a) The FAA issues a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate to U.S. manufacturers and dealers to—

(1) Allow manufacturers to make any required flight tests of aircraft.

(2) Facilitate operating, demonstrating, and merchandising aircraft by the manufacturer or dealer without the burden of obtaining a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3, for each aircraft with each transfer of ownership, under subpart B of this part.

(b) A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate is an alternative for the Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued under subpart B of this part. A dealer may, under this subpart, obtain one or more Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificates in addition to his original certificate, and he may use a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate for any aircraft he owns.

(c) If a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate for an aircraft registered under this subpart expires in accordance with § 47.71, the aircraft owner must submit an application for aircraft registration in accordance with § 47.31 or the assignment of registration number will be canceled in accordance with § 47.15(i)(2).

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-9, 35 FR 802, Jan. 21, 1970; Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010; Amdt. 47-33, 87 FR 71218, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.63 Application.

A manufacturer or dealer that wishes to obtain a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate must submit—

(a) A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate Application, AC Form 8050-5; and

(b) The fee required by § 47.17.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-16, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41982, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.65 Eligibility.

To be eligible for a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, the applicant must have an established place of business in the United States, must be substantially engaged in manufacturing or selling aircraft, and must be a citizen of the United States, as defined by 49 U.S.C. 40102 (a)(15).

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.67 Evidence of ownership.

Before using a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate for operating the aircraft, the holder of the certificate (other than a manufacturer) must send to the Registry evidence of ownership under § 47.11. An Aircraft Bill of Sale, AC Form 8050-2, or its equivalent, may be used as evidence of ownership. There is no recording fee.

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.69 Limitations.

A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate is valid only in connection with use of aircraft—

(a) By the owner of the aircraft to whom it was issued, his agent or employee, or a prospective buyer, and in the case of a dealer other than a manufacturer, only after he has complied with § 47.67;

(b) Within the United States, except when used to deliver to a foreign purchaser an aircraft displaying a temporary registration number and carrying an airworthiness certificate on which that number is written;

(d) On a flight that is—

(1) For required flight testing of aircraft; or

(2) Necessary for, or incident to, sale of the aircraft.

However, a prospective buyer may operate an aircraft for demonstration purposes only while he is under the direct supervision of the holder of the Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate or his agent.

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966; 31 FR 5483, Apr. 7, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-4, 32 FR 12556, Aug. 30, 1967; Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41983, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 47.71 Duration of Certificate; change of status.

(a) A Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate expires 1 year after the date it is issued. Each additional certificate expires on the date the original certificate expires.

(b) The holder of a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate must immediately notify the Registry of any of the following—

(1) A change of name;

(2) A change of address;

(3) A change that affects status as a citizen of the United States; or

(4) The discontinuance of business.

[31 FR 4495, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 47-29, 75 FR 41983, July 20, 2010; Docket No. FAA-2024-2765, Amdt. No. 47-36, 90 FR 5572, Jan. 17, 2025]

PART 48 REGISTRATION AND MARKING REQUIREMENTS FOR SMALL UNMANNED AIRCRAFT

Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101, 40103, 40113-40114, 41703, 44101-44103, 44105-44106, 44110-44113, 44809(f), 45302, 45305, 46104, 46301, 46306.

Source: Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 48.1 Applicability.

(a) This part provides registration and identification requirements for small unmanned aircraft that are part of a small unmanned aircraft system as defined in § 1.1 of this chapter.

(b) Small unmanned aircraft eligible for registration in the United States must be registered and identified in accordance with either:

(1) The registration and identification requirements in this part; or

(2) The registration requirements in part 47 and the identification and registration marking requirements in subparts A and C of part 45.

(c) Small unmanned aircraft intended to be operated outside of the territorial airspace of the United States, or registered through a trust or voting trust, must be registered in accordance with subparts A and B of part 47 and satisfy the identification and registration marking requirements of subparts A and C of part 45.

§ 48.5 [Reserved]

§ 48.10 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:

Citizen of the United States or U.S. citizen means one of the following:

(1) An individual who is a citizen of the United States or one of its possessions.

(2) A partnership each of whose partners is an individual who is a citizen of the United States.

Registry means the FAA, Civil Aviation Registry, Aircraft Registration Branch.

§ 48.15 Requirement to register.

No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft that is eligible for registration under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44103 unless one of the following criteria has been satisfied:

(a) The owner has registered and marked the aircraft in accordance with this part;

(b) The aircraft is operated exclusively in compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44809 and weighs 0.55 pounds or less on takeoff, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft; or

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2019-1100; Amdt. No. 48-3; 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021]

§ 48.20 Eligibility for registration.

A small unmanned aircraft may be registered under 49 U.S.C. 44103 and under this part only when the aircraft is not registered under the laws of a foreign country and is—

(a) Owned by a U.S. citizen;

(b) Owned by an individual citizen of a foreign country lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States;

(c) Owned by a corporation not a citizen of the United States when the corporation is organized and doing business under the laws of the United States or a State within the United States, and the aircraft is based and primarily used in the United States; or

(d) An aircraft of—

(1) The United States Government; or

(2) A State, the District of Columbia, a territory or possession of the United States, or a political subdivision of a State, territory, or possession.

§ 48.25 Applicants.

(a) To register a small unmanned aircraft in the United States under this part, a person must provide the information required by § 48.110 to the Registry in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator. Upon submission of this information, the FAA issues a Certificate of Aircraft Registration to that person.

(b) A small unmanned aircraft must be registered by its owner using the legal name of its owner, unless the owner is less than 13 years of age. If the owner is less than 13 years of age, then the small unmanned aircraft must be registered by a person who is at least 13 years of age.

(c) In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 44103(c), registration is not evidence of aircraft ownership in any proceeding in which ownership of an unmanned aircraft by a particular person is in issue.

(d) In this part, “owner” includes a buyer in possession, a bailee, a lessee of a small unmanned aircraft under a contract of conditional sale, and the assignee of that person.

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2019-1100; Amdt. No. 48-3; 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021]

§ 48.30 Fees.

(a) The fee for issuing or renewing a Certificate of Aircraft Registration as described in § 48.100 is $5.00 per aircraft.

(b) The fee for issuing or renewing a Certificate of Aircraft Registration as described in § 48.105 is $5.00 per certificate.

(c) Each application for and renewal of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration must be accompanied by the fee described in paragraphs (a) and (b), as applicable, paid to the Federal Aviation Administration through the web-based aircraft registration system, or in another manner if prescribed by the Administrator.

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2019-1100; Amdt. No. 48-3; 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021]

Subpart B Certificates of Aircraft Registration for Small Unmanned Aircraft

§ 48.100 Registration: Small unmanned aircraft operated for any purpose other than exclusively limited recreational operations.

(a) Certificate of Aircraft Registration. A Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued in accordance with § 48.110 to a small unmanned aircraft used for any purpose other than operating exclusively in compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44809 constitutes registration for the small unmanned aircraft identified on the application.

(b) Effective date of registration. An aircraft is registered when the applicant receives a Certificate of Aircraft Registration for the specific aircraft. The effective date of registration is shown by the date of issue on the Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued for the aircraft.

(c) Registration renewal. A Certificate of Aircraft registration issued under this part expires 3 years after the date of issue unless it is renewed.

(1) The holder of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration must renew the Certificate by verifying, in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator, that the information provided in accordance with § 48.110 is accurate and if it is not, provide updated information. The verification may take place at any time within the six months preceding the month in which the Certificate of Aircraft registration expires.

(2) A certificate issued under this paragraph expires three years from the expiration date of the previous certificate.

(d) Other events affecting effectiveness of Certificate. Each Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued by the FAA under this subpart is effective, unless registration has ended by reason of having been revoked, canceled, expired, or the ownership is transferred, until the date upon which one of the following events occurs:

(1) Subject to the Convention on the International Recognition of Rights in Aircraft when applicable, the aircraft is registered under the laws of a foreign country.

(2) The small unmanned aircraft is totally destroyed or scrapped.

(3) The holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration loses U.S. citizenship.

(4) Thirty days have elapsed since the death of the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

(5) The owner, if an individual who is not a citizen of the United States, loses status as a resident alien, unless that person becomes a citizen of the United States at the same time.

(6) The owner is a corporation other than a corporation which is a citizen of the United States and one of the following events occurs:

(i) The corporation ceases to be lawfully organized and doing business under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; or

(ii) The aircraft was not operated exclusively within the United States during the period of registration under this part.

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015. Redesignated and amended by Doc. No. FAA-2019-1100; Amdt. No. 48-3, 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021]

§ 48.105 Registration: Small unmanned aircraft intended exclusively for limited recreational operations.

(a) Certificate of Aircraft Registration. A Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued in accordance with § 48.110 for small unmanned aircraft to be operated exclusively in compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44809 constitutes registration for all the small unmanned aircraft used exclusively for operations in compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44809 owned by the individual identified on the application.

(b) Effective date of registration. An aircraft is registered when the applicant receives a Certificate of Aircraft Registration. The effective date of registration is shown by the date of issue on the Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued under this part.

(c) Registration renewal. A Certificate of Aircraft registration issued under this part expires 3 years after the date of issue unless it is renewed.

(2) A certificate issued under this paragraph expires three years from the expiration date of the previous certificate.

(d) Other events affecting effectiveness of Certificate. Each Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued by the FAA under this part is effective, unless registration has ended by reason of having been revoked, canceled or expired, or until the date upon which one of the following events occurs:

(1) The holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration loses U.S. citizenship.

(2) Thirty days have elapsed since the death of the holder of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

(3) The owner, if an individual who is not a citizen of the United States, loses status as a resident alien, unless that person becomes a citizen of the United States at the same time.

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015. Redesignated and amended by Doc. No. FAA-2019-1100; Amdt. No. 48-3, 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021]

§ 48.110 Application.

(a) Required information. Each applicant for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued under this part must submit all of the following information to the Registry:

(1) Applicant's name and, for an applicant other than an individual, the name of the authorized representative applying for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

(2) Applicant's physical address and, for an applicant other than an individual, the physical address of the authorized representative. If the applicant or authorized representative cannot receive mail at a physical address, then provide a mailing address.

(3) Applicant's email address or, for applicants other than individuals, the email address of the authorized representative.

(4) Applicant's telephone number(s) and, for an applicant other than an individual, the telephone number(s) of the authorized representative.

(5) The aircraft manufacturer and model name.

(6) For any standard remote identification unmanned aircraft, the serial number issued by the manufacturer of the unmanned aircraft in accordance with the design and production requirements of part 89 of this chapter. The serial number provided in this application must not be listed on more than one Certificate of Aircraft Registration at the same time.

(7) For any unmanned aircraft equipped with a remote identification broadcast module, the serial number issued by the manufacturer of the remote identification broadcast module in accordance with the design and production requirements of part 89 of this chapter. An applicant may submit the serial number of more than one remote identification broadcast module as part of the application for aircraft registration under § 48.105. The serial number of a remote identification broadcast module provided in this application must not be listed on more than one Certificate of Aircraft Registration at the same time.

(8) Other information as required by the Administrator.

(b) Provision of information. The information identified in paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to the Registry through the web-based small unmanned aircraft registration system in a form and manner prescribed by the Administrator.

(c) Issuance of Certificate of Aircraft Registration. The FAA will issue a Certificate of Aircraft Registration upon completion of the application requirements provided in paragraph (a) of this section.

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015. Redesignated and amended by Doc. No. FAA-2019-1100; Amdt. No. 48-3, 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021]

§ 48.115 Requirement to maintain current information.

(a) The holder of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration must ensure that the information provided under § 48.110 remains accurate.

(b) The holder of a Certificate of Aircraft Registration must update the information using the web-based small unmanned aircraft registration system within 14 calendar days of the following:

(1) A change in the information provided under § 48.110.

(2) When aircraft registration requires cancellation for any reason including sale or transfer, destruction, or export.

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015. Redesignated and amended by Doc. No. FAA-2019-1100; Amdt. No. 48-3, 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021]

§ 48.120 Invalid registration.

The registration of a small unmanned aircraft is invalid if, at the time it is made—

(a) The aircraft is registered in a foreign country;

(b) The applicant is not the owner, except when the applicant registers on behalf of an owner who is under 13 years of age;

(d) The interest of the applicant in the aircraft was created by a transaction that was not entered into in good faith, but rather was made to avoid (with or without the owner's knowledge) compliance with 49 U.S.C. 44101-44103.

§ 48.125 Foreign civil aircraft.

Except for corporations eligible to register under § 48.20(c), the FAA will issue a recognition of ownership to persons required to comply with the provisions of this part pursuant to an authorization to operate issued under part 375 of this title. The recognition of ownership does not have the effect of U.S. aircraft registration.

Subpart C Aircraft Marking

§ 48.200 General.

(a) No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft registered in accordance with this part unless the aircraft displays a unique identifier in accordance with the requirements of § 48.205 of this subpart.

(b) A unique identifier is one of the following:

(1) The registration number issued to an individual or the registration number issued to the aircraft by the Registry upon completion of the registration process provided by this part; or

(2) If authorized by the Administrator, the small unmanned aircraft serial number provided with the application for Certificate of Aircraft Registration under § 48.110(a).

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015. Redesignated and amended by Doc. No. FAA-2019-1100; Amdt. No. 48-3, 86 FR 4504, Jan. 15, 2021]

§ 48.205 Display and location of unique identifier.

(a) The unique identifier must be maintained in a condition that is legible.

(b) The unique identifier must be affixed to the small unmanned aircraft by any means necessary to ensure that it will remain affixed for the duration of each operation.

[Doc. No. FAA-2015-7396; Amdt. No. 48-1; 80 FR 78645, Dec. 16, 2015, as amended by Doc. No. FAA-2018-1084, 84 FR 3673, Feb. 13, 2019]

PART 49 RECORDING OF AIRCRAFT TITLES AND SECURITY DOCUMENTS

Authority: 4 U.S.T. 1830; Pub. L. 108-297, 118 Stat. 1095 (49 U.S.C. 40101 note, 49 U.S.C. 44101 note); 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113-40114, 44101-44108, 44110-44113, 44701, 44704, 44713, 45302, 46104, 46301.

Source: Docket No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Applicability

§ 49.1 Applicability.

(a) This part applies to the recording of certain conveyances affecting title to, or any interest in—

(1) Any aircraft registered under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104;

(2) Any specifically identified aircraft engine of 550 or more rated takeoff horsepower, or the equivalent of that horsepower;

(3) Any specifically identified aircraft propeller able to absorb 750 or more rated takeoff shaft horsepower; and

(4) Any aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance maintained by or for an air carrier certificated under 49 U.S.C. 44705, for installation or use in an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller, or any spare part, maintained at a designated location or locations by or for such an air carrier.

(b) Subpart B of this part governs, where applicable by its terms, conveyances subject to this part.

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-10, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. No. 49-11, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

Subpart B General

§ 49.11 FAA Aircraft Registry.

To be eligible for recording, a conveyance must be delivered to the Registry by a means and in a form acceptable to the Administrator, to include electronic or digital forms and means compatible with systems of the Registry.

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2764, Amdt. No. 49-12, 90 FR 5576, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 49.13 Signatures and acknowledgements.

(a) Each signature on a conveyance must be signed in a manner acceptable to the Administrator.

(b) Paragraphs (b) through (f) of § 47.13 of this chapter apply to a conveyance made by, or on behalf of, one or more persons doing business under a trade name, or by an agent, corporation, partnership, coowner, or unincorporated association.

(c) No conveyance or other instrument need be acknowledged, as provided in 49 U.S.C. 44107(c), in order to be recorded under this part. The law of the place of delivery of the conveyance determines when a conveyance or other instrument must be acknowledged in order to be valid for the purposes of that place.

(d) A power of attorney or other evidence of a person's authority to sign for another, submitted under this part, is valid for the purposes of this section, unless sooner revoked, until—

(1) Its expiration date stated therein; or

(2) If an expiration date is not stated thereon, for not more than 3 years after the date—

(i) It is signed; or

[Doc. No. 7190, 31 FR 4499, Mar. 17, 1966, as amended by Amdt. 49-2, 31 FR 15349, Dec. 8, 1966; Amdt. 49-6, 36 FR 8661, May 11, 1971; Amdt. 49-10, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005; Amdt. No. 49-11, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 49.15 Fees for recording.

(a) The fees charged for recording conveyances under this part are as follows:

(1) Conveyance of aircraft—

For each aircraft listed therein | $5.00

(2) Conveyance, made for security purposes, of a specifically identified aircraft engine or propeller, or any assignment or amendment thereof, or supplement thereto, recorded under Subpart D—

For each engine or propeller | 5.00

(3) Conveyance, made for security purposes, of aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, or spare parts, maintained at a designated location or locations, or any assignment or amendment thereof, or supplement thereto, recorded under Subpart E—

For the group of items at each location | 5.00

(b) There is no fee for recording a bill of sale that accompanies an application for aircraft registration and the proper fee under Part 47 of this chapter.

(c) Each conveyance must be accompanied by the proper fee, that may be paid by check or money order to the Federal Aviation Administration.

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-1, 31 FR 4499, Mar. 17, 1966; Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]

§ 49.17 Conveyances recorded.

(a)(1) Each instrument recorded under this part is a “conveyance” within the following definition in 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(19):

“Conveyance” means an instrument, including a conditional sales contract, affecting title to, or an interest in, property.

(2) A notice of Federal tax lien is not recordable under this part, since it is required to be filed elsewhere by the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 6321, 6323; 26 CFR 301.6321-1, 301.6323-1).

(b) The kinds of conveyance recordable under this part include those used as evidence of ownership under § 47.11 of this chapter.

(c) The validity of any instrument, eligible for recording under this part, is governed by the laws of the State, possession, Puerto Rico, or District of Columbia, as the case may be, in which the instrument was delivered, regardless of the location or place of delivery of the property affected by the instrument. If the place where an instrument is intended to be delivered is stated in the instrument, it is presumed that the instrument was delivered at that place. The recording of a conveyance is not a decision of the FAA that the instrument does, in fact, affect title to, or an interest in, the aircraft or other property it covers.

(d) The following rules apply to conveyances executed for security purposes and assignments thereof:

(1) A security agreement must be signed by the debtor. If the debtor is not the registered owner of the aircraft, the security agreement must be accompanied by the debtor's Application for Aircraft Registration and evidence of ownership, as prescribed in Part 47 of this chapter, unless the debtor—

(i) Holds a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate and submits evidence of ownership as provided in § 47.67 of this chapter (if applicable);

(ii) Was the owner of the aircraft on the date the security agreement was signed, as shown by documents recorded at the FAA Aircraft Registry; or

(iii) Is the vendor, bailor, or lessor under a contract of conditional sale.

(2) The name of a cosigner may not appear in the security agreement as a debtor or owner. If a person other than the registered owner signs the security agreement, that person must show the capacity in which that person signs, such as “cosigner” or “guarantor”.

(3) An assignment of an interest in a security agreement must be signed by the assignor and, unless it is attached to and is a part of the originating agreement, must describe the agreement in sufficient detail to identify it, including its date, the names of the parties, the date of FAA recording, and the recorded conveyance number.

(4) An amendment of, or a supplement to, a conveyance executed for security purposes that has been recorded by the FAA must meet the requirements for recording the original conveyance and must describe the original conveyance in sufficient detail to identify it, including its date, the names of the parties, the date of FAA recording, and the recorded conveyance number.

(5) Immediately after a debt secured by a conveyance given for security purposes has been satisfied, or any of the encumbered aircraft have been released from the conveyance, the holder shall execute a release on AC Form 8050-41, Part II—Release, provided to him by the FAA when the conveyance was recorded by the FAA, or its equivalent, and shall send it to the FAA Aircraft Registry for recording. If the debt is secured by more than one aircraft and all of the collateral is released, the collateral need not be described in detail in the release. However, the original conveyance must be clearly described in enough detail to identify it, including its date, the names of the parties, the date of FAA recording, and the recorded conveyance number.

(6) A contract of conditional sale, as defined in 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(18), must be signed by all parties to the contract.

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-1, 31 FR 4499, Mar. 17, 1966; Amdt. 49-9, 53 FR 1915, Jan. 25, 1988; Amdt. 49-10, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005; Docket No. FAA-2024-2764, Amdt. No. 49-12, 90 FR 5577, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 49.19 Effective date of filing for recordation.

A conveyance is filed for recordation upon the date and at the time it is received by the FAA Aircraft Registry.

§ 49.21 True copy of original conveyance.

A person submitting a conveyance for recording may submit a true copy in lieu of the original, except where an original is specifically required. The true copy must be in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator, to which is attached a certificate, or other acceptable attestation, of the person submitting the conveyance stating that the copy has been compared with the original and that it is a true copy.

[Docket No. FAA-2024-2764, Amdt. No. 49-12, 90 FR 5577, Jan. 17, 2025]

Subpart C Aircraft Ownership and Encumbrances Against Aircraft

§ 49.31 Applicability.

This subpart applies to the recording of the following kinds of conveyances:

(a) A bill of sale, contract of conditional sale, assignment of an interest under a contract of conditional sale, mortgage, assignment of mortgage, lease, equipment trust, notice of tax lien or of other lien, or other instrument affecting title to, or any interest in, aircraft.

(b) A release, cancellation, discharge, or satisfaction of a conveyance named in paragraph (a) of this section.

§ 49.33 Eligibility for recording: general requirements.

A conveyance is eligible for recording under this subpart only if, in addition to the requirements of §§ 49.11, 49.13, and 49.17, the following requirements are met:

(a) It is in a form prescribed by, or acceptable to, the Administrator for that kind of conveyance;

(b) It describes the aircraft by make and model, manufacturer's serial number, and United States registration number, or other detail that makes identification possible;

(c) It is a true copy of an original document, certified under § 49.21, or an original document or a duplicate original document;

(d) It affects aircraft registered under 49 U.S.C. 44101-44104; and

(e) It is accompanied by the recording fee required by § 49.15, but there is no fee for recording a conveyance named in § 49.31(b).

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-1, 31 FR 4499, Mar. 17, 1966; Amdt. 49-10, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005; Docket No. FAA-2024-2764, Amdt. No. 49-12, 90 FR 5577, Jan. 17, 2025]

§ 49.35 Eligibility for recording: ownership requirements.

If the seller of an aircraft is not shown on the records of the FAA as the owner of the aircraft, a conveyance, including a contract of conditional sale, submitted for recording under this subpart must be accompanied by bills of sale or similar documents showing consecutive transfers from the last registered owner, through each intervening owner, to the seller.

§ 49.37 Claims for salvage or extraordinary expenses.

The right to a charge arising out of a claim for compensation for salvage of an aircraft or for extraordinary expenses indispensable for preserving the aircraft in operations terminated in a foreign country that is a party to the Convention on the International Recognition of Rights in Aircraft (4 U.S.T. 1830) may be noted on the FAA record by filing notice thereof with the FAA Aircraft Registry within three months after the date of termination of the salvage or preservation operations.

Subpart D Encumbrances Against Specifically Identified Aircraft Engines and Propellers

§ 49.41 Applicability.

This subpart applies to the recording of the following kinds of conveyances:

(a) Any lease, a notice of tax lien or other lien (except a notice of Federal tax lien referred to in § 49.17(a)), and any mortgage, equipment trust, contract of conditional sale, or other instrument executed for security purposes, which affects title to, or any interest in, any specifically identified aircraft engine of 550 or more rated takeoff horsepower, or the equivalent of that horsepower, or a specifically identified aircraft propeller capable of absorbing 750 or more rated takeoff shaft horsepower.

(b) An assignment or amendment of, or supplement to, an instrument named in paragraph (a) of this section.

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-5, 35 FR 802, Jan. 21, 1970; Amdt. 49-10, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005]

§ 49.43 Eligibility for recording: general requirements.

A conveyance is eligible for recording under this subpart only if, in addition to the requirements of §§ 49.11, 49.13, and 49.17, the following requirements are met:

(a) It affects and describes an aircraft engine or propeller to which this subpart applies, specifically identified by make, model, horsepower, and manufacturer's serial number; and

(b) It is accompanied by the recording fee required by § 49.15, but there is no fee for recording a conveyance named in § 49.41(c).

§ 49.45 Recording of releases, cancellations, discharges, and satisfactions: special requirements.

(a) A release, cancellation, discharge, or satisfaction of an encumbrance created by an instrument recorded under this subpart must be in a form equivalent to AC Form 8050-41 and contain a description of the encumbrance, the recording information furnished to the holder at the time of recording, and the collateral released.

(b) If more than one engine or propeller, or both, are listed in an instrument, recorded under this subpart, that created an encumbrance thereon and all of them are released, they need not be listed by serial number, but the release, cancellation, discharge, or satisfaction must state that all of the encumbered engines or propellers are released. The original recorded document must be clearly identified by the names of the parties, the date of FAA recording, and the document date.

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-7, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972]

Subpart E Encumbrances Against Air Carrier Aircraft Engines, Propellers, Appliances, and Spare Parts

§ 49.51 Applicability.

This subpart applies to the recording of the following kinds of conveyances:

(a) Any lease, a notice of tax lien or other lien (except a notice of Federal tax lien referred to in § 49.17 (a), and any mortgage, equipment trust, contract of conditional sale, or other instrument executed for security purposes, which affects title to, or any interest in, any aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance maintained by or on behalf of an air carrier certificated under 49 U.S.C. 44705 for installation or use in aircraft, aircraft engines, or propellers, or any spare parts, maintained at a designated location or locations by or on behalf of such an air carrier.

(b) An assignment or amendment of, or supplement to, an instrument named in paragraph (a) of this section.

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-5, 35 FR 802, Jan. 21, 1970; Amdt. 49-10, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005]

§ 49.53 Eligibility for recording: general requirements.

(a) A conveyance is eligible for recording under this subpart only if, in addition to the requirements of §§ 49.11, 49.13, and 49.17, the following requirements are met:

(1) It affects any aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or spare part, maintained by or on behalf of an air carrier certificated under 49 U.S.C. 44705;

(2) It contains or is accompanied by a statement by the air carrier certificated under that section;

(3) It specifically describes the location or locations of each aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or spare part covered by it; and

(4) It is accompanied by the recording fee required by § 49.15, but there is no fee for recording a conveyance named in § 49.51(c).

(b) The conveyance need only describe generally, by type, the engines, propellers, appliances, or spare parts covered by it.

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-5, 35 FR 802, Jan. 21, 1970; Amdt. 49-10, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005]

§ 49.55 Recording of releases, cancellations, discharges, and satisfactions: special requirements.

(a) A release, cancellation, discharge, or satisfaction of an encumbrance on all of the collateral listed in an instrument recorded under this subpart, or on all of the collateral at a particular location, must be in a form equivalent to AC Form 8050-41, signed by the holder of all of the collateral at the particular location, and contain a description of the encumbrance, the recording information furnished to the holder at the time of recording, and the location of the released collateral.

(b) If the encumbrance on collateral at all of the locations listed in an instrument recorded under this subpart is released, canceled, discharged, or satisfied, the locations need not be listed. However, the document must state that all of the collateral at all of the locations listed in the encumbrance has been so released, canceled, discharged, or satisfied. The original recorded document must be clearly identified by the names of the parties, the date of recording by the FAA, and the document number.

[Doc. No. 1996, 29 FR 6486, May 19, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 49-1, 31 FR 4499, Mar. 17, 1966; Amdt. 49-7, 37 FR 25487, Dec. 1, 1972]

Subpart F Transmission of Information to the International Registry

Source: Docket No. FAA-2004-19944, 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005, unless otherwise noted.

Effective Date Note: At 70 FR 246, Jan. 3, 2005, subpart F was added. This subpart contains information collection and recordkeeping requirements and will not become effective until approval has been given by the Office of Management and Budget.

§ 49.61 Applicability.

The FAA Civil Aviation Registry is designated under Section 3 of the Cape Town Treaty Implementation Act of 2004, as the entry point for authorizing the transmission of information to the International Registry affecting United States civil aircraft, aircraft assigned a U.S. registration number and engines with a rated shaft horsepower of 550 or the equivalent thereof. This subpart applies to the transmission of information to the International Registry; the filing of the Entry Point filing form, AC Form 8050-135; and the filing of documents eligible for recording under subparts C and D of part 49.

§ 49.63 Eligibility for Authorization for Transmission to the International Registry: general requirements.

(a) To send information to the International Registry with respect to a civil aircraft of the United States, an aircraft for which a U.S. identification number has been assigned, or an aircraft engine, a person requesting a unique authorization code from the FAA Aircraft Registry must comply with the following:

(1) File a completed AC Form 8050-135 with the FAA Aircraft Registry; and

(2) For civil aircraft of the United States, file with the FAA Aircraft Registry any documents representing the transaction that meet the requirements of subpart C of this part; or

(3) For aircraft engines, file with the FAA Aircraft Registry any documents representing the transaction that meet the requirements of subpart D of this part.

(b) Nothing in this section requires transmittal of information relating to aircraft engines to the International Registry through the FAA Aircraft Registry.

50-59 PARTS 50-59 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER I FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION (CONTINUED)

SUBCHAPTER D AIRMEN

PART 60 FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE INITIAL AND CONTINUING QUALIFICATION AND USE

Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, and 44701; Pub. L. 111-216, 124 Stat. 2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note).

Source: Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, unless otherwise noted.

§ 60.1 Applicability.

(a) This part prescribes the rules governing the initial and continuing qualification and use of all aircraft flight simulation training devices (FSTD) used for meeting training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements of this chapter for flight crewmember certification or qualification. Additional requirements for FSTD representing powered-lift are set forth in part 194 of this chapter.

(b) The rules of this part apply to each person using or applying to use an FSTD to meet any requirement of this chapter.

(c) The requirements of § 60.33 regarding falsification of applications, records, or reports also apply to each person who uses an FSTD for training, evaluation, or obtaining flight experience required for flight crewmember certification or qualification under this chapter.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-1275; Amdt. 60-8, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 60.2 Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities.

(a) The rules of this part that are directed to a sponsor of an FSTD also apply to any person who uses or causes the use of an FSTD when—

(1) That person knows that the FSTD does not have an FAA-approved sponsor; and

(2) The use of the FSTD by that person is nonetheless claimed for purposes of meeting any requirement of this chapter or that person knows or should have known that the person's acts or omissions would cause another person to mistakenly credit use of the FSTD for purposes of meeting any requirement of this chapter.

(b) A situation in which paragraph (a) of this section would not apply to a person would be when each of the following conditions are met:

(1) The person sold or leased the FSTD and merely represented to the purchaser or lessee that the FSTD is in a condition in which it should be able to obtain FAA approval and qualification under this part;

(2) The person does not falsely claim to be the FAA-approved sponsor for the FSTD;

(3) The person does not falsely make representations that someone else is the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD at a time when that other person is not the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD; and

(4) The person's acts or omissions do not cause another person to detrimentally rely on such acts or omissions for the mistaken conclusion that the FSTD is FAA-approved and qualified under this part at the time the FSTD is sold or leased.

§ 60.3 Definitions.

In addition to the definitions in part 1 of this chapter, other terms and definitions applicable to this part are found in appendix F of this part.

§ 60.4 Qualification Performance Standards.

The Qualification Performance Standards (QPS) are published in appendices to this part as follows:

(a) Appendix A contains the QPS for Airplane Flight Simulators.

(b) Appendix B contains the QPS for Airplane Flight Training Devices.

(d) Appendix D contains the QPS for Helicopter Flight Training Devices.

(e) Appendix E contains the QPS for Quality Management Systems for FSTDs.

(f) Appendix F contains the QPS for Definitions and Abbreviations for FSTDs.

§ 60.5 Quality management system.

(a) After May 30, 2010, no sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight experience to meet any requirement of this chapter unless the sponsor has established and follows a quality management system (QMS), currently approved by the responsible Flight Standards office, for the continuing surveillance and analysis of the sponsor's performance and effectiveness in providing a satisfactory FSTD for use on a regular basis as described in QPS appendix E of this part.

(b) The QMS program must provide a process for identifying deficiencies in the program and for documenting how the program will be changed to address these deficiencies.

(c) Whenever the responsible Flight Standards office finds that the QMS program does not adequately address the procedures necessary to meet the requirements of this part, the sponsor must, after notification by the responsible Flight Standards office, change the program so the procedures meet the requirements of this part. Each such change must be approved by the responsible Flight Standards office prior to implementation.

(d) Within 30 days after the sponsor receives a notice described in paragraph (c) of this section, the sponsor may file a petition with the Executive Director of Flight Standards Service (the Executive Director) for reconsideration of the responsible Flight Standards office finding. The sponsor must address its petition to the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591. The filing of such a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Executive Director. However, if the Executive Director finds that there is a situation that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in air commerce, he may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.7 Sponsor qualification requirements.

(a) A person is eligible to apply to be a sponsor of an FSTD if the following conditions are met:

(1) The person holds, or is an applicant for, a certificate under part 119, 141, or 142 of this chapter; or holds, or is an applicant for, an approved flight engineer course in accordance with part 63 of this chapter.

(2) The FSTD will be used, or will be offered for use, in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft being simulated as evidenced in a request for evaluation submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office.

(b) A person is a sponsor if the following conditions are met:

(1) The person is a certificate holder under part 119, 141, or 142 of this chapter or has an approved flight engineer course in accordance with part 63 of this chapter.

(2) The person has—

(i) Operations specifications authorizing the use of the specific aircraft or set of aircraft and has an FAA-approved training program under which at least one FSTD, simulating the aircraft or set of aircraft and for which the person is the sponsor, is used by the sponsor as described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section; or

(ii) Training specifications or an FAA-approved course of training under which at least one FSTD, simulating that aircraft or set of aircraft and for which the person is the sponsor, is used by the sponsor as described in paragraphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section.

(3) The person has a quality management system currently approved by the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.5.

(4) The responsible Flight Standards office has accepted the person as the sponsor of the FSTD and that acceptance has not been withdrawn by the FAA.

(5) At least one FSTD (as referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii) of this section) that is initially qualified on or after May 30, 2008, is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the initial/upgrade evaluation, and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter.

(6) At least one FSTD (as referenced in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii) of this section) that was qualified before May 30, 2008, is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office after May 30, 2008 and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter.

(c) If the use requirements of paragraphs (b)(2) and either (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section are not met, the person will forfeit the right to sponsor that FSTD and that person will not be eligible to apply to sponsor that FSTD for at least 12 calendar months following the expiration of the qualification status.

(d) In addition to the FSTD described in paragraph (b) of this section, an FSTD sponsor may sponsor any number of other FSTDs regardless of specific aircraft or set of aircraft provided either—

(1) During the preceding 12-month period, all of the other FSTDs are used within the sponsor's or another certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft simulated; or

(2) The sponsor obtains a written statement at least annually from a qualified pilot who has flown the aircraft or set of aircraft (as appropriate) during the preceding 12-month period stating that the subject FSTD's performance and handling qualities, within the normal operating envelope, represent the aircraft or set of aircraft described in the FAA Type Certificate and the type data sheet, if appropriate. The sponsor must retain the two most current written statements for review by the responsible Flight Standards office.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.9 Additional responsibilities of the sponsor.

(a) The sponsor must allow the responsible Flight Standards office upon request to inspect the FSTD as soon as practicable. This inspection may include all records and documents relating to the FSTD, to determine its compliance with this part.

(b) The sponsor must do the following for each FSTD:

(1) Establish a mechanism to receive written comments regarding the FSTD and its operation in accordance with the QPS appendix E of this part.

(2) Post in or adjacent to the FSTD the Statement of Qualification issued by the responsible Flight Standards office. An electronic copy of the Statement of Qualification that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.

(c) Each sponsor of an FSTD must identify to the responsible Flight Standards office by name, one individual to be the management representative (MR).

(1) One person may serve as an MR for more than one FSTD, but one FSTD must not have more than one person serving in this capacity.

(2) Each MR must be an employee of the sponsor with the responsibility and authority to—

(i) Monitor the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure that all matters regarding FSTD qualification are being carried out as provided for in this part;

(ii) Ensure that the QMS is properly established, implemented, and maintained by overseeing the structure (and modifying where necessary) of the QMS policies, practices, and procedures; and

(iii) Regularly brief sponsor's management on the status of the on-going FSTD qualification program and the effectiveness and efficiency of the QMS.

(3) The MR serves as the primary contact point for all matters between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office regarding the qualification of that FSTD as provided for in this part.

(4) The MR may delegate the duties described in paragraph (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section to an individual at each of the sponsor's locations.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.11 FSTD use.

No person may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight experience to meet any of the requirements under this chapter unless, in accordance with the QPS for the specific device, the FSTD meets all of the following:

(a) Has a single sponsor who is qualified under § 60.7. The sponsor may arrange with another person for services of document preparation and presentation, as well as FSTD inspection, maintenance, repair, and servicing; however, the sponsor remains responsible for ensuring that these functions are conducted in a manner and with a result of continually meeting the requirements of this part.

(b) Is qualified as described in the Statement of Qualification.

(c) Remains qualified, through satisfactory inspection, continuing qualification evaluations, appropriate maintenance, and use requirements in accordance with this part and the applicable QPS.

(d) Functions during day-to-day training, evaluation, or flight experience activities with the software and hardware that was evaluated as satisfactory by the responsible Flight Standards office and, if modified, modified only in accordance with the provisions of this part. However, this section does not apply to routine software or hardware changes that do not fall under the requirements of § 60.23.

(e) Is operated in accordance with the provisions and limitations of § 60.25.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.13 FSTD objective data requirements.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) and (c) of this section, for the purposes of validating FSTD performance and handling qualities during evaluation for qualification, the data made available to the responsible Flight Standards office (the validation data package) must include the aircraft manufacturer's flight test data and all relevant data developed after the type certificate was issued (e.g., data developed in response to an airworthiness directive) if such data results from a change in performance, handling qualities, functions, or other characteristics of the aircraft that must be considered for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or for meeting experience requirements of this chapter.

(b) The validation data package may contain flight test data from a source in addition to or independent of the aircraft manufacturer's data in support of an FSTD qualification, but only if this data is gathered and developed by that source in accordance with flight test methods, including a flight test plan, as described in the applicable QPS.

(c) The validation data package may also contain predicted data, engineering simulation data, data from pilot owner or pilot operating manuals, or data from public domain sources, provided this data is acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office. If found acceptable the data may then be used in particular applications for FSTD qualification.

(d) Data or other material or elements must be submitted in a form and manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

(e) The responsible Flight Standards office may require additional objective data, which may include flight testing if necessary, if the validation data package does not support FSTD qualification requirements as described in this part and the applicable QPS appendix.

(f) When an FSTD sponsor learns, or is advised by an aircraft manufacturer or other data provider, that an addition to, an amendment to, or a revision of data that may relate to FSTD performance or handling characteristics is available, the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office as described in the applicable QPS.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.14 Special equipment and personnel requirements for qualification of the FSTD.

When notified by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must make available all special equipment and qualified personnel needed to accomplish or assist in the accomplishment of tests during initial qualification, continuing qualification, or special evaluations.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.15 Initial qualification requirements.

(a) For each FSTD, the sponsor must submit a request to the responsible Flight Standards office to evaluate the FSTD for initial qualification at a specific level and simultaneously request the Training Program Approval Authority (TPAA) forward a concurring letter to the responsible Flight Standards office. The request must be submitted in the form and manner described in the applicable QPS.

(b) The management representative described in § 60.9(c) must sign a statement (electronic signature is acceptable for electronic transmissions) after confirming the following:

(1) The performance and handling qualities of the FSTD represent those of the aircraft or set of aircraft within the normal operating envelope. This determination must be made by a pilot(s) meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section after having flown all of the Operations Tasks listed in the applicable QPS appendix relevant to the qualification level of the FSTD. Exceptions, if any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request.

(2) The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the simulated aircraft systems) functionally represent those in the aircraft or set of aircraft. This determination must be made by the pilot(s) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or by a person(s) trained on simulator systems/sub-systems and trained on the operation of the simulated aircraft systems, after having exercised the operation of the FSTD and the pertinent functions available through the Instructor Operating Station(s). Exceptions, if any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request.

(3) The cockpit represents the configuration of the specific type; or aircraft make, model, and series aircraft being simulated, as appropriate. This determination must be made by the pilot(s) described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or by a person(s) trained on the configuration and operation of the aircraft simulated. Exceptions, if any, must be noted. The name of the person(s) making this determination must be available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request.

(c) Except for those FSTDs previously qualified and described in § 60.17, each FSTD evaluated for initial qualification must meet the standard that is in effect at the time of the evaluation. However—

(1) If the FAA publishes a change to the existing standard or publishes a new standard for the evaluation for initial qualification, a sponsor may request that the responsible Flight Standards office apply the standard that was in effect when an FSTD was ordered for delivery if the sponsor—

(i) Within 30 days of the publication of the change to the existing standard or publication of the new standard, notifies the responsible Flight Standards office that an FSTD has been ordered;

(ii) Within 90 days of the responsible Flight Standards office notification described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, requests that the standard in effect at the time the order was placed be used for the evaluation for initial qualification; and

(iii) The evaluation is conducted within 24 months following the publication of the change to the existing standard or publication of the new standard.

(2) This notification must include a description of the FSTD; the anticipated qualification level of the FSTD; the make, model, and series of aircraft simulated; and any other pertinent information.

(3) Any tests, tolerances, or other requirements that are current at the time of the evaluation may be used during the initial evaluation, at the request of the sponsor, if the sponsor provides acceptable updates to the required qualification test guide.

(4) The standards used for the evaluation for initial qualification will be used for all subsequent evaluations of the FSTD.

(5) An FSTD sponsor or FSTD manufacturer may submit a request to the Administrator for approval of a deviation from the QPS requirements as defined in Appendix A through Appendix D of this part.

(i) Requests for deviation must be submitted in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator and must provide sufficient justification that the deviation meets or exceeds the testing requirements and tolerances as specified in the part 60 QPS or will otherwise not adversely affect the fidelity and capability of the FSTDs evaluated and qualified under the deviation.

(ii) The Administrator may consider deviation from the minimum requirements tables, the objective testing tables, the functions and subjective testing tables, and other supporting tables and requirements in the part 60 QPS.

(iii) Deviations may be issued to an FSTD manufacturer for the initial qualification of multiple FSTDs, subject to terms and limitations as determined by Administrator. Approved deviations will become a part of the permanent qualification basis of the individual FSTD and will be noted in the FSTD's Statement of Qualification.

(iv) If the FAA publishes a change to the existing part 60 standards as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or issues an FSTD Directive as described in § 60.23(b), which conflicts with or supersedes an approved deviation, the Administrator may terminate or revise a grant of deviation authority issued under this paragraph.

(d) The pilot(s) who contributes to the confirmation statement required by paragraph (b) of this section must—

(1) Be designated by the sponsor; and

(2) Be qualified in—

(i) The aircraft or set of aircraft being simulated; or

(ii) For aircraft not yet issued a type certificate, or aircraft not previously operated by the sponsor or not having previous FAA-approved training programs conducted by the sponsor, an aircraft similar in size and configuration.

(e) The subjective tests that form the basis for the statements described in paragraph (b) of this section and the objective tests referenced in paragraph (f) of this section must be accomplished at the sponsor's training facility or other sponsor designated location where training will take place, except as provided for in the applicable QPS.

(f) The person seeking to qualify the FSTD must provide the responsible Flight Standards office access to the FSTD for the length of time necessary for the responsible Flight Standards office to complete the required evaluation of the FSTD for initial qualification, which includes the conduct and evaluation of objective and subjective tests, including general FSTD requirements, as described in the applicable QPS, to determine that the FSTD meets the standards in that QPS.

(g) When the FSTD passes an evaluation for initial qualification, the responsible Flight Standards office issues a Statement of Qualification that includes all of the following:

(1) Identification of the sponsor.

(2) Identification of the make, model, and series of the aircraft or set of aircraft being simulated.

(3) Identification of the configuration of the aircraft or set of aircraft being simulated (e.g., engine model or models, flight instruments, or navigation or other systems).

(4) A statement that the FSTD is qualified as either a full flight simulator or a flight training device.

(5) Identification of the qualification level of the FSTD.

(6) A statement that (with the exception of the noted exclusions for which the FSTD has not been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification is not sought) the qualification of the FSTD includes the tasks set out in the applicable QPS appendix relevant to the qualification level of the FSTD.

(7) A statement referencing any deviations that have been granted and included in the permanent qualification basis of the FSTD.

(h) After the responsible Flight Standards office completes the evaluation for initial qualification, the sponsor must update the Qualification Test Guide (QTG), with the results of the FAA-witnessed tests together with the results of all the objective tests described in the applicable QPS.

(i) Upon issuance of the Statement of Qualification the updated QTG becomes the Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG). The MQTG must be made available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18217, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.16 Additional qualifications for a currently qualified FSTD.

(a) A currently qualified FSTD is required to undergo an additional qualification process if a user intends to use the FSTD for meeting training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements of this chapter beyond the qualification issued for that FSTD. This process consists of the following:

(1) The sponsor:

(i) Must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office all modifications to the MQTG that are required to support the additional qualification.

(ii) Must describe to the responsible Flight Standards office all modifications to the FSTD that are required to support the additional qualification.

(iii) Must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a confirmation statement as described in § 60.15(c) that a pilot, designated by the sponsor in accordance with § 60.15(d), has subjectively evaluated the FSTD in those areas not previously evaluated.

(2) The FSTD must successfully pass an evaluation—

(i) Consisting of all the elements of an initial evaluation for qualification in those circumstances where the responsible Flight Standards office has determined that all the elements of an initial evaluation for qualification is necessary; or

(ii) Consisting of those elements of an initial evaluation for qualification designated as necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office.

(b) In making the determinations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors including the existing qualification of the FSTD, any modifications to the FSTD hardware or software that are involved, and any additions or modifications to the MQTG.

(c) The FSTD is qualified for the additional uses when the responsible Flight Standards office issues an amended Statement of Qualification in accordance with § 60.15(h).

(d) The sponsor may not modify the FSTD except as described in § 60.23.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.17 Previously qualified FSTDs.

(a) Unless otherwise specified by an FSTD Directive, further referenced in the applicable QPS, or as specified in paragraph (e) of this section, an FSTD qualified before May 31, 2016 will retain its qualification basis as long as it continues to meet the standards, including the objective test results recorded in the MQTG and subjective tests, under which it was originally evaluated, regardless of sponsor. The sponsor of such an FSTD must comply with the other applicable provisions of this part.

(b) For each FSTD qualified before May 30, 2008, no sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of such an FSTD after May 30, 2014 for flight crewmember training, evaluation or flight experience to meet any of the requirements of this chapter, unless that FSTD has been issued a Statement of Qualification, including the Configuration List and the List of Qualified Tasks in accordance with the procedures set out in the applicable QPS.

(i) Restored under § 60.27 in less than (2) years, then the qualification basis (in terms of objective tests and subjective tests) for the re-qualification will be those against which the FSTD was originally evaluated and qualified.

(ii) Not restored under § 60.27 for two (2) years or more, then the qualification basis (in terms of objective tests and subjective tests) for the re-qualification will be those standards in effect and current at the time of re-qualification application.

(d) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, any change in FSTD qualification level initiated on or after May 30, 2008 requires an evaluation for initial qualification in accordance with this part.

(e) A sponsor may request that an FSTD be permanently downgraded. In such a case, the responsible Flight Standards office may downgrade a qualified FSTD without requiring and without conducting an initial evaluation for the new qualification level. Subsequent continuing qualification evaluations will use the existing MQTG, modified as necessary to reflect the new qualification level.

(f) When the sponsor has appropriate validation data available and receives approval from the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor may adopt tests and associated tolerances described in the current qualification standards as the tests and tolerances applicable for the continuing qualification of a previously qualified FSTD. The updated test(s) and tolerance(s) must be made a permanent part of the MQTG.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006; Amdt. 60-2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.19 Inspection, continuing qualification evaluation, and maintenance requirements.

(a) Inspection. No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or flight experience to meet any of the requirements of this chapter unless the sponsor does the following:

(1) Accomplishes all appropriate objective tests each year as specified in the applicable QPS.

(2) Completes a functional preflight check within the preceding 24 hours.

(b) Continuing qualification evaluation. (1) This evaluation consists of objective tests, and subjective tests, including general FSTD requirements, as described in the applicable QPS or as may be amended by an FSTD Directive.

(2) The sponsor must contact the responsible Flight Standards office to schedule the FSTD for continuing qualification evaluations not later than 60 days before the evaluation is due.

(3) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office responsible Flight Standards office access to the objective test results in the MQTG and access to the FSTD for the length of time necessary for the responsible Flight Standards office to complete the required continuing qualification evaluations.

(4) The frequency of the responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing qualification evaluations for each FSTD will be established by the responsible Flight Standards office and specified in the Statement of Qualification.

(5) Continuing qualification evaluations conducted in the 3 calendar months before or after the calendar month in which these continuing qualification evaluations are required will be considered to have been conducted in the calendar month in which they were required.

(6) No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight experience for the flight crewmember to meet any requirement of this chapter unless the FSTD has passed a responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing qualification evaluation within the time frame specified in the Statement of Qualification or within the grace period as described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.

(c) Maintenance. The sponsor is responsible for continuing corrective and preventive maintenance on the FSTD to ensure that it continues to meet the requirements of this part and the applicable QPS appendix. No sponsor may use or allow the use of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or flight experience to meet any of the requirements of this chapter unless the sponsor does the following:

(1) Maintains a discrepancy log.

(2) Ensures that, when a discrepancy is discovered, the following requirements are met:

(i) A description of each discrepancy is entered in the log and remains in the log until the discrepancy is corrected as specified in § 60.25(b).

(ii) A description of the corrective action taken for each discrepancy, the identity of the individual taking the action, and the date that action is taken is entered in the log.

(iii) The discrepancy log is kept in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator and is kept in or adjacent to the FSTD. An electronic log that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.20 Logging FSTD discrepancies.

Each instructor, check airman, or representative of the Administrator conducting training, evaluation, or flight experience, and each person conducting the preflight inspection who discovers a discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components in the FSTD, must write or cause to be written a description of that discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end of the FSTD preflight or FSTD use session.

§ 60.21 Interim qualification of FSTDs for new aircraft types or models.

(a) A sponsor may apply for and the responsible Flight Standards office may issue an interim qualification level for an FSTD for a new type or model of aircraft, even though the aircraft manufacturer's aircraft data package is preliminary, if the sponsor provides the following to the satisfaction of the responsible Flight Standards office—

(1) The aircraft manufacturer's data, which consists of at least predicted data, validated by a limited set of flight test data;

(2) The aircraft manufacturer's description of the prediction methodology used to develop the predicted data; and

(3) The QTG test results.

(b) An FSTD that has been issued interim qualification is deemed to have been issued initial qualification unless the responsible Flight Standards office rescinds the qualification. Interim qualification terminates two years after its issuance, unless the responsible Flight Standards office determines that specific conditions warrant otherwise.

(c) Within twelve months of the release of the final aircraft data package by the aircraft manufacturer, but no later than two years after the issuance of the interim qualification status, the sponsor must apply for initial qualification in accordance with § 60.15 based on the final aircraft data package approved by the aircraft manufacturer, unless the responsible Flight Standards office determines that specific conditions warrant otherwise.

(d) An FSTD with interim qualification may be modified only in accordance with § 60.23.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.23 Modifications to FSTDs.

(a) Description of a modification. For the purposes of this part, an FSTD is said to have been modified when:

(1) Equipment or devices intended to simulate aircraft appliances are added to or removed from FSTD, which change the Statement of Qualification or the MQTG; or

(2) Changes are made to either software or hardware that are intended to impact flight or ground dynamics; changes are made that impact performance or handling characteristics of the FSTD (including motion, visual, control loading, or sound systems for those FSTD levels requiring sound tests and measurements); or changes are made to the MQTG. Changes to the MQTG which do not affect required objective testing results or validation data approved during the initial evaluation of the FSTD are not considered modifications under this section.

(b) FSTD Directive. When the FAA determines that FSTD modification is necessary for safety of flight reasons, the sponsor of each affected FSTD must ensure that the FSTD is modified according to the FSTD Directive regardless of the original qualification standards applicable to any specific FSTD.

(c) Using the modified FSTD. The sponsor may not use, or allow the use of, or offer the use of, the FSTD with the proposed modification for flight crewmember training or evaluation or for obtaining flight experience for the flight crewmember to meet any requirement of this chapter unless:

(1) The sponsor has notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of their intent to incorporate the proposed modification, and one of the following has occurred;

(i) Twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and the sponsor has not received any response from either the responsible Flight Standards office or the TPAA;

(ii) Twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and one has approved the proposed modification and the other has not responded;

(iii) Fewer than twenty-one days have passed since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and the responsible Flight Standards office and TPAA both approve the proposed modification;

(iv) The sponsor has successfully completed any evaluation the responsible Flight Standards office may require in accordance with the standards for an evaluation for initial qualification or any part thereof before the modified FSTD is placed in service.

(2) The notification is submitted with the content as, and in a form and manner as, specified in the applicable QPS.

(d) User notification. When a modification is made to an FSTD that affects the Statement of Qualification, the sponsor must post an addendum to the Statement of Qualification until such time as a permanent, updated statement is posted.

(e) MQTG update. The MQTG must be updated with current objective test results in accordance with § 60.15(h) and (i) and appropriate objective data in accordance with § 60.13, each time an FSTD is modified and an objective test or other MQTG section is affected by the modification. If an FSTD Directive is the cause of this update, the direction to make the modification and the record of the modification completion must be filed in the MQTG.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.25 Operation with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components.

(a) No person may knowingly use or allow the use of or misrepresent the capability of an FSTD for any maneuver, procedure, or task that is to be accomplished to meet training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements of this chapter for flight crewmember certification or qualification when there is a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component that is required to be present and correctly operate for the satisfactory completion of that maneuver, procedure, or task.

(b) Each MMI component as described in paragraph (a) of this section, or any MMI component installed and required to operate correctly to meet the current Statement of Qualification, must be repaired or replaced within 30 calendar days, unless otherwise required or authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office.

(c) A list of the current MMI components must be readily available in or adjacent to the FSTD for review by users of the device. Electronic access to this list via an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory. The discrepancy log may be used to satisfy this requirement provided each currently MMI component is listed in the discrepancy log.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.27 Automatic loss of qualification and procedures for restoration of qualification.

(a) An FSTD qualification is automatically lost when any of the following occurs:

(1) The FSTD is not used in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program in accordance with § 60.7(b)(5) or (b)(6) and the sponsor does not obtain and maintain the written statement as described in § 60.7(d)(2).

(2) The FSTD is not inspected in accordance with § 60.19.

(3) The FSTD is physically moved from one location and installed in a different location, regardless of distance.

(4) The MQTG is missing or otherwise not available and a replacement is not made within 30 days.

(b) If FSTD qualification is lost under paragraph (a) of this section, qualification is restored when either of the following provisions is met:

(1) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation:

(i) For initial qualification, in accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c) in those circumstances where the responsible Flight Standards office has determined that a full evaluation for initial qualification is necessary; or

(ii) For those elements of an evaluation for initial qualification, in accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c), as determined to be necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office.

(2) The responsible Flight Standards office advises the sponsor that an evaluation is not necessary.

(c) In making the determinations described in paragraph (b) of this section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors including the number of continuing qualification evaluations missed, the number of sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed, and the care that had been taken of the device since the last evaluation.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.29 Other losses of qualification and procedures for restoration of qualification.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, when the responsible Flight Standards office determines that the FSTD no longer meets qualification standards, the following procedure applies:

(1) The responsible Flight Standards office notifies the sponsor in writing that the FSTD no longer meets some or all of its qualification standards.

(2) The responsible Flight Standards office sets a reasonable period (but not less than 7 days) within which the sponsor may submit written information, views, and arguments on the FSTD qualification.

(3) After considering all material presented, the responsible Flight Standards office notifies the sponsor about the determination with regard to the qualification of the FSTD.

(4) When the responsible Flight Standards office notifies the sponsor that some or all of the FSTD is no longer qualified, the action described in the notification becomes effective not less than 30 days after the sponsor receives that notice unless—

(i) The responsible Flight Standards office finds under paragraph (c) of this section that there is an emergency requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce; or

(ii) The sponsor petitions the Executive Director of Flight Standards Service for reconsideration of the responsible Flight Standards office finding under paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) When a sponsor seeks reconsideration of a decision from the responsible Flight Standards office concerning the FSTD qualification, the following procedure applies:

(1) The sponsor must petition for reconsideration of that decision within 30 days of the date that the sponsor receives a notice that some or all of the FSTD is no longer qualified.

(2) The sponsor must address its petition to the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Ave., SW., Washington, DC 20591.

(3) A petition for reconsideration, if filed within the 30-day period, suspends the effectiveness of the determination by the responsible Flight Standards office that the FSTD is no longer qualified unless the responsible Flight Standards office has found, under paragraph (c) of this section, that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce.

(c) If the responsible Flight Standards office find that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air commerce that makes the procedures set out in this section impracticable or contrary to the public interest:

(1) The responsible Flight Standards office withdraws qualification of some or all of the FSTD and makes the withdrawal of qualification effective on the day the sponsor receives notice of it.

(2) In the notice to the sponsor, the responsible Flight Standards office articulates the reasons for its finding that an emergency exists requiring immediate action with respect to safety in air transportation or air commerce or that makes it impracticable or contrary to the public interest to stay the effectiveness of the finding.

(d) FSTD qualification lost under paragraph (a) or (c) of this section may be restored when either of the following provisions are met:

(1) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation for initial qualification, in accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c) in those circumstances where the responsible Flight Standards office has determined that a full evaluation for initial qualification is necessary; or

(2) The FSTD successfully passes an evaluation for those elements of an initial qualification evaluation, in accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c), as determined to be necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office.

(e) In making the determinations described in paragraph (d) of this section, the responsible Flight Standards office considers factors including the reason for the loss of qualification, any repairs or replacements that may have to have been completed, the number of continuing qualification evaluations missed, the number of sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed, and the care that had been taken of the device since the loss of qualification.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.31 Recordkeeping and reporting.

(a) The FSTD sponsor must maintain the following records for each FSTD it sponsors:

(1) The MQTG and each amendment thereto.

(2) A record of all FSTD modifications affected under § 60.23 since the issuance of the original Statement of Qualification.

(3) A copy of all of the following:

(i) Results of the qualification evaluations (initial and each upgrade) since the issuance of the original Statement of Qualification.

(ii) Results of the objective tests conducted in accordance with § 60.19(a) for a period of 2 years.

(iii) Results of the previous three continuing qualification evaluations, or the continuing qualification evaluations from the previous 2 years, whichever covers a longer period.

(iv) Comments obtained in accordance with § 60.9(b) for a period of at least 90 days.

(4) A record of all discrepancies entered in the discrepancy log over the previous 2 years, including the following:

(i) A list of the components or equipment that were or are missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative.

(ii) The action taken to correct the discrepancy.

(iii) The date the corrective action was taken.

(iv) The identity of the person determining that the discrepancy has been corrected.

(b) The records specified in this section must be maintained in plain language form or in coded form if the coded form provides for the preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 60.33 [Reserved]

§ 60.35 Specific full flight simulator compliance requirements.

(a) No device will be eligible for initial or upgrade qualification to a FFS at Level C or Level D under this part unless it includes the equipment and appliances installed and operating to the extent necessary for the issuance of an airman certificate or rating.

(b) No device will be eligible for initial or upgrade qualification to a FFS at Level A or Level B under this part unless it includes the equipment and appliances installed and operating to the extent necessary for the training, testing, and/or checking that comprise the simulation portion of the requirements for issuance of an airman certificate or rating.

§ 60.37 FSTD qualification on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA).

(a) The evaluation and qualification of an FSTD by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation for the sponsor of an FSTD located in that contracting State may be used as the basis for issuing a U.S. statement of qualification (see applicable QPS, attachment 4, figure 4) by the responsible Flight Standards office to the sponsor of that FSTD in accordance with—

(1) A BASA between the United States and the Contracting State that issued the original qualification; and

(2) A Simulator Implementation Procedure (SIP) established under the BASA.

(b) The SIP must contain any conditions and limitations on validation and issuance of such qualification by the U.S.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022]

Appendix A to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane Full Flight Simulators

Begin Information

This appendix establishes the standards for Airplane FFS evaluation and qualification. The Flight Standards Service is responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office, when conducting airplane FFS evaluations.

Table of Contents

1. Introduction.

2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2).

3. Definitions (§ 60.3).

4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4).

5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5).

6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7).

7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9).

8. FFS Use (§ 60.11).

9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13).

10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FFS (§ 60.14).

11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15).

12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (§ 60.16).

13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17).

14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19).

15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20).

16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21).

17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23).

18. Operations With Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25).

19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27).

20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29).

21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31).

22. [Reserved]

23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements (§ 60.35).

24. [Reserved]

25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37).

Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60—General Simulator Requirements.

Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60—FFS Objective Tests.

Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60—Simulator Subjective Evaluation.

Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—Sample Documents.

Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60—Simulator Qualification Requirements for Windshear Training Program Use.

Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60—FSTD Directives Applicable to Airplane Flight Simulators.

End Information

1. Introduction

Begin Information

a. This appendix contains background information as well as regulatory and informative material as described later in this section. To assist the reader in determining what areas are required and what areas are permissive, the text in this appendix is divided into two sections: “QPS Requirements” and “Information.” The QPS Requirements sections contain details regarding compliance with the part 60 rule language. These details are regulatory, but are found only in this appendix. The Information sections contain material that is advisory in nature, and designed to give the user general information about the regulation.

b. [Reserved]

c. The responsible Flight Standards office encourages the use of electronic media for all communication, including any record, report, request, test, or statement required by this appendix. The electronic media used must have adequate security provisions and be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

d. Related Reading References.

(1) 14 CFR part 60.

(2) 14 CFR part 61.

(3) 14 CFR part 63.

(4) 14 CFR part 119.

(5) 14 CFR part 121.

(6) 14 CFR part 125.

(7) 14 CFR part 135.

(8) 14 CFR part 141.

(9) 14 CFR part 142.

(10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III Landing Weather Minima.

(11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.

(12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member, Line Operational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line Operational Evaluation.

(13) AC 120-40, as amended, Airplane Simulator Qualification.

(14) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.

(15) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS).

(16) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.

(17) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.

(18) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.

(19) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.

(20) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting System.

(21) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems.

(22) International Air Transport Association document, “Flight Simulation Training Device Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended.

(23) AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes.

(24) AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes.

(25) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training Devices, as amended.

(26) Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training Device Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK.

(27) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument Ratings

(28) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.

(29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).

(30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as amended).

End Information

2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to § 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to persons who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities.

End Information

3. Definitions (§ 60.3)

Begin Information

See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and abbreviations from part 1 and part 60, including the appropriate appendices of part 60.

End Information

4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

End Information

5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5)

Begin Information

See Appendix E of this part for additional regulatory and informational material regarding Quality Management Systems.

End Information

6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7)

Begin Information

a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is to have a specific FFS, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated during the 12-month period described. The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as the sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period. No minimum number of hours or minimum FFS periods are required.

b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:

(1) Example One.

(a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FFS for its own use, in its own facility or elsewhere—this single FFS forms the basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FFS at least once in each 12-month period in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated. This 12-month period is established according to the following schedule:

(i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted in accordance with § 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;

(ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. The 12-month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.

(b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.

(c) The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as the sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period.

(2) Example Two.

(a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FFSs, in its facility or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FFS must be—

(i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1));

(ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month period is established in the same manner as in example one;

(iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot (after having flown the airplane, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during the preceding 12-month period), stating that the subject FFS's performance and handling qualities represent the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.

(b) No minimum number of hours of FFS use is required.

(3) Example Three.

(a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes “satellite” training centers in Chicago and Moscow.

(b) The satellite function means that the Chicago and Moscow centers must operate under the New York center's certificate (in accordance with all of the New York center's practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., instructor and/or technician training/checking requirements, record keeping, QMS program).

(c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved flight training programs for the FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) because—

(i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and each FFS in the Moscow center is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(1));

(ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown the airplane, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of each FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)).

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7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9)

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The phrase “as soon as practicable” in § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FFS.

End Information

8. FFS Use (§ 60.11)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.11, Simulator Use.

End Information

9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. Flight test data used to validate FFS performance and handling qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test program containing the following:

(1) A flight test plan consisting of:

(a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification and simulation programming and validation.

(b) For each maneuver or procedure—

(i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or engineer used.

(ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.

(iii) The initial flight conditions.

(iv) The airplane configuration, including weight and center of gravity.

(v) The data to be gathered.

(vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test conditions in the FFS.

(2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.

(3) An understanding of the accuracy of the data to be gathered using appropriate alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation that is traceable to a recognized standard as described in Attachment 2, Table A2E of this appendix.

(4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and techniques, as would be acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.

b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented as follows:

(1) In a format that supports the FFS validation process.

(2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and completely.

(3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix.

(4) With any necessary instructions or other details provided, such as yaw damper or throttle position.

(5) Without alteration, adjustments, or bias. Data may be corrected to address known data calibration errors provided that an explanation of the methods used to correct the errors appears in the QTG. The corrected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or otherwise manipulated to fit the desired presentation.

c. After completion of any additional flight test, a flight test report must be submitted in support of the validation data. The report must contain sufficient data and rationale to support qualification of the FFS at the level requested.

d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an addition to, an amendment to, or a revision of data that may relate to FFS performance or handling characteristics is available. The data referred to in this paragraph is data used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type certificate was issued. The sponsor must—

(1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of the existence of this data; and

(2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of—

(a) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FFS; or

(b) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FFS.

e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot tests” results in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snapshot.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and, if appropriate, with the person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS in order to facilitate the notification required by § 60.13(f).

g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the Qualification Test Guide (QTG), the sponsor should submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Airplanes) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other information, such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used or where flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document.

h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an FFS evaluation. It is for this reason that the responsible Flight Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FFS, and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests.

i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording systems, such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

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10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FFSs (§ 60.14)

Begin Information

a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. Examples of special equipment include spot photometers, flight control measurement devices, and sound analyzers. Examples of specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to install or use any special equipment when its use is required.

b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted after an FFS is moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a result of comments received from users of the FFS that raise questions about the continued qualification or use of the FFS.

End Information

11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the FFS must:

(1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this appendix;

(2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix; and

(3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix.

b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must include all of the following:

(1) A statement that the FFS meets all of the applicable provisions of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.

(2) Unless otherwise authorized through prior coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office, a confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the responsible Flight Standards office the statement described in § 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office via traditional or electronic means.

(3) A QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following:

(a) Objective data obtained from traditional aircraft testing or another approved source.

(b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FFS as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.

(d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification evaluations.

c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must provide the documented proof of compliance with the simulator objective tests in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix.

d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the sponsor's agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each objective test:

(1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions;

(2) Pertinent and complete instructions for the conduct of automatic and manual tests;

(3) A means of comparing the FFS test results to the objective data;

(4) Any other information as necessary, to assist in the evaluation of the test results;

(5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the FFS.

e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, must include the following:

(1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks (see Attachment 4, Figure A4C, of this appendix for a sample QTG cover page).

(2) [Reserved]

(3) An FFS information page that provides the information listed in this paragraph (see Attachment 4, Figure A4B, of this appendix for a sample FFS information page). For convertible FFSs, the sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FFS.

(a) The sponsor's FFS identification number or code.

(b) The airplane model and series being simulated.

(d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic coefficient data used to modify the basic model.

(e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.

(f) The flight control data revision number or reference.

(g) The flight management system identification and revision level.

(h) The FFS model and manufacturer.

(i) The date of FFS manufacture.

(j) The FFS computer identification.

(k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display type.

(l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of freedom.

(4) A Table of Contents.

(5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.

(6) A list of all relevant data references.

(7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions and units).

(8) Statements of Compliance and Capability (SOCs) with certain requirements.

(9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the objective tests.

(10) The following information for each objective test designated in Attachment 2, Table A2A, of this appendix as applicable to the qualification level sought:

(a) Name of the test.

(b) Objective of the test.

(d) Manual test procedures.

(e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).

(f) Method for evaluating FFS objective test results.

(g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the automatically conducted test(s).

(h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the manually conducted test(s).

(i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.

(j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).

(k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent data location must be provided).

(l) Simulator Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a product of the device being tested.

f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a separate FFS for each model and series airplane to which it will be converted and for the FAA qualification level sought. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models of an airplane type using a convertible FFS, the sponsor must submit a QTG for each airplane model, or a QTG for the first airplane model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional airplane model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations for each airplane model.

g. Form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the QTG:

(1) The sponsor's FFS test results must be recorded in a manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy comparison of the FFS test results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).

(2) FFS results must be labeled using terminology common to airplane parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.

(3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or resolution.

(4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix.

(5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FFS test results must be clearly marked with appropriate reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between the FFS and the airplane with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line printer are to be clearly identified for cross plotting on the airplane data. Over-plots must not obscure the reference data.

h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's training facility (or other sponsor designated location where training will take place). If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FFS performance. The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at the sponsor's designated training facility must be conducted after the FFS is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office.

i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FFS location.

j. All FFSs for which the initial qualification is conducted after May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FFS (reformatted or digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain the general FFS performance or demonstration results (reformatted or digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the original validation data used to validate FFS performance and handling qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office.

k. All other FFSs not covered in subparagraph “j” must have an electronic copy of the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person who is a user of the device (e.g., a qualified pilot or instructor pilot with flight time experience in that aircraft) and knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. However, other FFS evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with applicable agreements.

n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and each FFS must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, each FFS is subjected to the general simulator requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not necessarily be limited to the following:

(1) Airplane responses, including longitudinal and lateral-directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);

(2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated airplane's operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and landing as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);

(3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix);

(4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix);

(5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix);

(6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to the airplane simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix);

(7) FFS systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix); and

(8) Certain additional requirements, depending upon the qualification level sought, including equipment or circumstances that may become hazardous to the occupants. The sponsor may be subject to Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.

o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective and subjective tests, which includes an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative assessment of the FFS by a pilot from the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests performed during an evaluation when required.

(1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FFS performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this part.

(2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:

(a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to perform over a typical utilization period;

(b) Determining that the FFS satisfactorily simulates each required task;

(d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.

p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office for FFS validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances specified for FFS manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way in which the flight test was flown and the way the data was gathered and applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each test.

q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, each FFS is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the FFS for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FFS is not being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. However, if the FFS were being used, the evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FFS evaluator accompanying the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FFS along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FFS during the training, testing, or checking activities.

r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:

(1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the QTG may be amended.

(2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not support the level requested but do support a lower level, the responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FFS at that lower level. For example, if a Level D evaluation is requested and the FFS fails to meet sound test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level C.

s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight Standards office issues a Statement of Qualification (SOQ) to the sponsor. The responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FFS to the TPAA, who will approve the FFS for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FFS is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table A1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program.

t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure A4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.

u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2 of this appendix, FFS Objective Tests, Table A2A.

v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d).

w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FFS might not have been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include windshear training and circling approaches.

End Information

12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (§ 60.16)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS.

End Information

13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FFS from active status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures apply:

(1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that the FFS will be inactive;

(2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled during the inactive period;

(3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FFS from the list of qualified FSTDs on a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled;

(4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified status, it must be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity.

(5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service;

b. Simulators qualified prior to May 31, 2016, are not required to meet the general simulation requirements, the objective test requirements or the subjective test requirements of attachments 1, 2, and 3 of this appendix as long as the simulator continues to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original qualification basis.

c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or airport model beyond the minimum required for the FFS qualification level that is installed in and available for use in a qualified FFS must meet the requirements described in attachment 3 of this appendix.

d. Simulators qualified prior to May 31, 2016, may be updated. If an evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the simulator was originally qualified.

e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FFS may contract with FFS sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at a particular level for an airplane type and approved for use within an FAA-approved flight training program. Such FFSs are not required to undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in § 60.16.

f. Each FFS user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to use any FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program.

g. The intent of the requirement listed in § 60.17(b), for each FFS to have a SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FFS inventory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis for the FFS.

h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent change in qualification level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction is placed on an FFS because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.

i. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the evaluation criteria for an FFS that has been removed from active status. The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FFS were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been missed. The responsible Flight Standards office will also consider how the FFS was stored, whether parts were removed from the FFS and whether the FFS was disassembled.

j. The FFS will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require requalification under the standards in effect and current at the time of requalification.

End Information

14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content of each inspection must be developed by the sponsor and must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

b. The description of the functional preflight check must be contained in the sponsor's QMS.

c. Record “functional preflight” in the FFS discrepancy log book or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative.

d. During the continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FFS.

e. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct continuing qualification evaluations every 12 months unless:

(1) The responsible Flight Standards office becomes aware of discrepancies or performance problems with the device that warrants more frequent evaluations; or

(2) The sponsor implements a QMS that justifies less frequent evaluations. However, in no case shall the frequency of a continuing qualification evaluation exceed 36 months.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

f. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly inspection required in § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:

(1) Performance.

(2) Handling qualities.

(3) Motion system (where appropriate).

(4) Visual system (where appropriate).

(5) Sound system (where appropriate).

(6) Other FFS systems.

g. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. Examples of such tests include latencies, control dynamics, sounds and vibrations, motion, and/or some visual system tests.

h. The continuing qualification evaluations, described in § 60.19(b), will normally require 4 hours of FFS time. However, flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist of the following:

(1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation.

(2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of the FFS. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-third ( 1/3) of the allotted FFS time.

(3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to perform a representative sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds ( 2/3) of the allotted FFS time.

(4) An examination of the functions of the FFS may include the motion system, visual system, sound system, instructor operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the airplane systems. This examination is normally accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

End Information

15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.20. Logging FFS Discrepancies.

End Information

16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Models.

End Information

17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) must include a complete description of the planned modification, with a description of the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will have on the operation of the FFS and the results that are expected with the modification incorporated.

b. Prior to using the modified FFS:

(1) All the applicable objective tests completed with the modification incorporated, including any necessary updates to the MQTG (e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Directives) must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office; and

(2) The sponsor must provide the responsible Flight Standards office with a statement signed by the MR that the factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by the appropriate personnel as described in that section.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

FSTD Directives are considered modifications of an FFS. See Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all effective FSTD Directives applicable to Airplane FFSs.

End Information

18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25)

Begin Information

a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the current status of an FFS, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component(s).

b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, check airman, or representative of the administrator conducting training, testing, or checking to exercise reasonable and prudent judgment to determine if any MMI component is necessary for the satisfactory completion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or task.

c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend the deadline until the next business day.

d. In accordance with the authorization described in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FFS. Repairs having a larger impact on FFS capability to provide the required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority for repair or replacement.

End Information

19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27)

Begin Information

If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FFS will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FFS is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing required for requalification.

End Information

20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29)

Begin Information

End Information

21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (§ 60.31)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. FFS modifications can include hardware or software changes. For FFS modifications involving software programming changes, the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.

b. If a coded form for record keeping is used, it must provide for the preservation and retrieval of information with appropriate security or controls to prevent the inappropriate alteration of such records after the fact.

End QPS Requirements

22. [Reserved]

23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements (§ 60.35)

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.35, Specific FFS Compliance Requirements.

24. [Reserved]

25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37)

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.37, FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA).

End Information

Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60—General Simulator Requirements

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Requirements

a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “General Simulator Requirements” column in Table A1A of this appendix.

b. Table A1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of FFS. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed the requirements outlined in this section. However, all systems will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper operation.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

2. Discussion

a. This attachment describes the general simulator requirements for qualifying an airplane FFS. The sponsor should also consult the objective tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix to determine the complete requirements for a specific level simulator.

b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the following categories:

(1) General flight deck configuration.

(2) Simulator programming.

(3) Equipment operation.

(4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.

(5) Motion system.

(6) Visual system.

(7) Sound system.

c. Table A1A provides the standards for the General Simulator Requirements.

d. Table A1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to determine whether the FFS satisfactorily meets the requirements for flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks for which the simulator may be qualified.

e. Table A1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman must be able to control in the simulator.

f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial or continuing qualification evaluation.

End Information

Table A1B—Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | Subjective requirements In order to be qualified at the simulator qualification level indicated, the simulator must be able to perform at least the tasks associated with that level of qualification. | Simulator levels | Notes

A | B | C | D

1. Preflight Procedures

1.a. | Preflight Inspection (flight deck only) | X | X | X | X

1.b. | Engine Start | X | X | X | X

1.c. | Taxiing | R | X | X

1.d. | Pre-takeoff Checks | X | X | X | X

2. Takeoff and Departure Phase

2.a. | Normal and Crosswind Takeoff | R | X | X

2.b. | Instrument Takeoff | X | X | X | X

2.c. | Engine Failure During Takeoff | A | X | X | X

2.d. | Rejected Takeoff | X | X | X | X

2.e. | Departure Procedure | X | X | X | X

3. Inflight Maneuvers

3.a. | Steep Turns | X | X | X | X

3.b. High Angle of Attack Maneuvers

3.b.1 | Approaches to Stall | X | X | X | X

3.b.2 | Full Stall | X | X | Stall maneuvers at angles of attack above the activation of the stall warning system.

Required only for FSTDs qualified to conduct full stall training tasks as indicated on the Statement of Qualification.

3.c. | Engine Failure—Multiengine Airplane | X | X | X | X

3.d. | Engine Failure—Single-Engine Airplane | X | X | X | X

3.e. | Specific Flight Characteristics incorporated into the user's FAA approved flight training program | A | A | A | A

3.f. | Recovery From Unusual Attitudes | X | X | X | X | Within the normal flight envelope supported by applicable simulation validation data.

3.g. | Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT) | X | X | Upset recovery or unusual attitude training maneuvers within the FSTD's validation envelope that are intended to exceed pitch attitudes greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch attitudes greater than 10 degrees nose down, and bank angles greater than 45 degrees.

4. Instrument Procedures

4.a. | Standard Terminal Arrival/Flight Management System Arrivals Procedures | X | X | X | X

4.b. | Holding | X | X | X | X

4.c. | Precision Instrument

4.c.1. | All Engines Operating | X | X | X | X | e.g., Autopilot, Manual (Flt. Dir. Assisted), Manual (Raw Data).

4.c.2. | One Engine Inoperative | X | X | X | X | e.g., Manual (Flt. Dir. Assisted), Manual (Raw Data).

4.d. | Non-Precision Instrument Approach | X | X | X | X | e.g., NDB, VOR, VOR/DME, VOR/TAC, RNAV, LOC, LOC/BC, ADF, and SDF.

4.e. | Circling Approach | X | X | X | X | Specific authorization required.

4.f. | Missed Approach

4.f.1. | Normal | X | X | X | X

4.f.2. | One Engine Inoperative | X | X | X | X

5. Landings and Approaches to Landings

5.a. | Normal and Crosswind Approaches and Landings | R | X | X

5.b. | Landing From a Precision/Non-Precision Approach | R | X | X

5.c. | Approach and Landing with (Simulated) Engine Failure—Multiengine Airplane | R | X | X

5.d. | Landing From Circling Approach | R | X | X

5.e. | Rejected Landing | X | X | X | X

5.f. | Landing From a No Flap or a Nonstandard Flap Configuration Approach | R | X | X

6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures

6.a. | Engine (including shutdown and restart) | X | X | X | X

6.b. | Fuel System | X | X | X | X

6.c. | Electrical System | X | X | X | X

6.d. | Hydraulic System | X | X | X | X

6.e. | Environmental and Pressurization Systems | X | X | X | X

6.f. | Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems | X | X | X | X

6.g. | Navigation and Avionics Systems | X | X | X | X

6.h. | Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic Flight Instrument System, and Related Subsystems | X | X | X | X

6.i. | Flight Control Systems | X | X | X | X

6.j. | Anti-ice and Deice Systems | X | X | X | X

6.k. | Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment | X | X | X | X

7. Emergency Procedures

7.a. | Emergency Descent (Max. Rate) | X | X | X | X

7.b. | Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal | X | X | X | X

7.c. | Rapid Decompression | X | X | X | X

7.d. | Emergency Evacuation | X | X | X | X

8. Postflight Procedures

8.a. | After-Landing Procedures | X | X | X | X

8.b. | Parking and Securing | X | X | X | X

“A”—indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FSTD and is working properly.

“R”—indicates that the simulator may be qualified for this task for continuing qualification training.

“X”—indicates that the simulator must be able to perform this task for this level of qualification.

Table A1C—Table of Simulator System Tasks

QPS requirements | Information

A | B | C | D

1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate

1.a. | Power switch(es) | X | X | X | X

1.b. | Airplane conditions | X | X | X | X | e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading and Systems.

1.c. | Airports/Runways | X | X | X | X | e.g., Selection, Surface, Presets, Lighting controls.

1.d. | Environmental controls | X | X | X | X | e.g., Clouds, Visibility, RVR, Temp, Wind, Ice, Snow, Rain, and Windshear.

1.e. | Airplane system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion) | X | X | X | X

1.f. | Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning | X | X | X | X

2. Sound Controls

2.a. | On/off/adjustment | X | X | X | X

3. Motion/Control Loading System

3.a. | On/off/emergency stop | X | X | X | X

4. Observer Seats/Stations

4.a. | Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system | X | X | X | X

Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60—FFS Objective Tests

Table of Contents

Paragraph No. | Title

1. Introduction.

2. Test Requirements.

Table A2A, Objective Tests.

3. General.

4. Control Dynamics.

5. Ground Effect.

6. Motion System.

7. Sound System.

8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Airplanes.

9. Engineering Simulator—Validation Data.

10. [Reserved]

11. Validation Test Tolerances.

12. Validation Data Roadmap.

13. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data.

14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers).

15. Transport Delay Testing.

16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation Test Data Presentation.

17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level A and Level B Simulators Only.

Begin Information

1. Introduction

a. For the purposes of this attachment, the flight conditions specified in the Flight Conditions Column of Table A2A of this appendix, are defined as follows:

(1) Ground—on ground, independent of airplane configuration;

(2) Take-off—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position;

(3) First segment climb—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position (normally not above 50 ft AGL);

(4) Second segment climb—gear up with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position (normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL);

(5) Clean—flaps/slats retracted and gear up;

(6) Cruise—clean configuration at cruise altitude and airspeed;

(7) Approach—gear up or down with flaps/slats at any normal approach position as recommended by the airplane manufacturer; and

(8) Landing—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified landing position.

b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix A, Attachment 2, Table A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B, Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. However, each test required for FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs. Also, each test required for FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number (or series of numbers) is not required, the term “Reserved” is used in the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs.

c. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

d. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for the test.

End Information

Begin QPS Requirements

2. Test Requirements

a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed in Table A2A, FFS Objective Tests. Computer generated simulator test results must be provided for each test except where an alternative test is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the airplane being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine out missed approach for a single-engine airplane or a maneuver using reverse thrust for an airplane without reverse thrust capability). Each test result is compared against the validation data described in § 60.13 and in this appendix. Although use of a driver program designed to automatically accomplish the tests is encouraged for all simulators and required for Level C and Level D simulators, it must be possible to conduct each test manually while recording all appropriate parameters. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include simulator number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table A2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given.

b. Table A2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for simulator validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to simulator performance. When two tolerance values are given for a parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.

c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with an SOC. In Table A2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “Test Details” column.

d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making assessments for flight test data applications for simulator validity, such judgment must not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations or a “best fit” data selection. All relevant parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match simulator to airplane data throughout a time history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition being assessed.

e. It is not acceptable to program the FFS so that the mathematical modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless otherwise noted, simulator tests must represent airplane performance and handling qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. Simulator tests at extreme weight or CG conditions may be acceptable where required for concurrent aircraft certification testing. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices.

f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the airplane, sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight condition and airplane configuration changes. For example, to show that control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, airplane configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the airplane, but airspeed, altitude, control input, airplane configuration, and other appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish a match to the airplane, but landing gear position must also be provided. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters).

g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the simulator will be set up and operated for each test. Each simulator subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the simulator must be accomplished to assure that the total simulator system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be provided.

h. For previously qualified simulators, the tests and tolerances of this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has received responsible Flight Standards office approval.

i. Simulators are evaluated and qualified with an engine model simulating the airplane data supplier's flight test engine. For qualification of alternative engine models (either variations of the flight test engines or other manufacturer's engines) additional tests with the alternative engine models may be required. This attachment contains guidelines for alternative engines.

j. For testing Computer Controlled Aircraft (CCA) simulators, or other highly augmented airplane simulators, flight test data is required for the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal (NN) control states, as indicated in this attachment. Where test results are independent of control state, Normal or Non-normal control data may be used. All tests in Table A2A require test results in the Normal control state unless specifically noted otherwise in the Test Details section following the CCA designation. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine what tests are appropriate for airplane simulation data. When making this determination, the responsible Flight Standards office may require other levels of control state degradation for specific airplane tests. Where Non-normal control states are required, test data must be provided for one or more Non-normal control states, and must include the least augmented state. Where applicable, flight test data must record Normal and Non-normal states for:

(1) Pilot controller deflections or electronically generated inputs, including location of input; and

(2) Flight control surface positions unless test results are not affected by, or are independent of, surface positions.

k. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. FFSs for highly augmented airplanes will be validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is necessary. Requirements for testing will be mutually agreed to between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case basis.

l. Some tests will not be required for airplanes using airplane hardware in the simulator flight deck (e.g., “side stick controller”). These exceptions are noted in Section 2 “Handling Qualities” in Table A2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a statement that the airplane hardware meets the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards office review.

m. For objective test purposes, see Appendix F of this part for the definitions of “Near maximum,” “Light,” and “Medium” gross weight.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

n. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot tests” results in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition should exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot.

o. For references on basic operating weight, see AC 120-27, “Aircraft Weight and Balance;” and FAA-H-8083-1, “Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook.”

End Information

Begin Information

3. General

a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for test near the ground.

b. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

4. Control Dynamics

a. General. The characteristics of an airplane flight control system have a major effect on handling qualities. A significant consideration in pilot acceptability of an airplane is the “feel” provided through the flight controls. Considerable effort is expended on airplane feel system design so that pilots will be comfortable and will consider the airplane desirable to fly. In order for an FFS to be representative, it should “feel” like the airplane being simulated. Compliance with this requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the FFS to actual airplane measurements in the takeoff, cruise and landing configurations.

(1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of electromechanical systems. In any case, it is only possible to estimate the dynamic properties as a result of being able to estimate true inputs and responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data be collected since close matching of the FFS control loading system to the airplane system is essential. The required dynamic control tests are described in Table A2A of this attachment.

(2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, the QPS requires that control dynamics characteristics be measured and recorded directly from the flight controls (Handling Qualities—Table A2A). This procedure is usually accomplished by measuring the free response of the controls using a step or impulse input to excite the system. The procedure should be accomplished in the takeoff, cruise and landing flight conditions and configurations.

(3) For airplanes with irreversible control systems, measurements may be obtained on the ground if proper pitot-static inputs are provided to represent airspeeds typical of those encountered in flight. Likewise, it may be shown that for some airplanes, takeoff, cruise, and landing configurations have like effects. Thus, one may suffice for another. In either case, engineering validation or airplane manufacturer rationale should be submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating a configuration. For FFSs requiring static and dynamic tests at the controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and upgrade evaluations if the QTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternate approach (e.g., computer plots that were produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement). Repeat of the alternate method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test requirement.

b. Control Dynamics Evaluation. The dynamic properties of control systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping and a number of other classical measurements. In order to establish a consistent means of validating test results for FFS control loading, criteria are needed that will clearly define the measurement interpretation and the applied tolerances. Criteria are needed for underdamped, critically damped and overdamped systems. In the case of an underdamped system with very light damping, the system may be quantified in terms of frequency and damping. In critically damped or overdamped systems, the frequency and damping are not readily measured from a response time history. Therefore, the following suggested measurements may be used:

(1) For Level C and D simulators. Tests to verify that control feel dynamics represent the airplane should show that the dynamic damping cycles (free response of the controls) match those of the airplane within specified tolerances. The Flight Standards Service recognizes that several different testing methods may be used to verify the control feel dynamic response. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider the merits of testing methods based on reliability and consistency. One acceptable method of evaluating the response and the tolerance to be applied is described below for the underdamped and critically damped cases. A sponsor using this method to comply with the QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows:

(a) Underdamped response. Two measurements are required for the period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are non-uniform periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to the respective period of the airplane control system and, consequently, will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period. The damping tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an individual basis. Care should be taken when applying the tolerance to small overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 per cent of the total initial displacement should be considered. The residual band, labeled T(Ad) on Figure A2A is ±5 percent of the initial displacement amplitude Ad from the steady state value of the oscillation. Only oscillations outside the residual band are considered significant. When comparing FFS data to airplane data, the process should begin by overlaying or aligning the FFS and airplane steady state values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of the first zero crossing and individual periods of oscillation. The FFS should show the same number of significant overshoots to within one when compared against the airplane data. The procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure A2A.

(b) Critically damped and overdamped response. Due to the nature of critically damped and overdamped responses (no overshoots), the time to reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value should be the same as the airplane within ±10 percent. Figure A2B illustrates the procedure.

(c) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained.

(2) Tolerances.

(a) The following table summarizes the tolerances, T, for underdamped systems, and “n” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation. See Figure A2A of this attachment for an illustration of the referenced measurements.

T(P0) | ±10% of P0.

T(P1) | ±20% of P1.

T(P2) | ±30% of P2.

T(Pn) | ±10(n + 1)% of Pn.

T(An) | ±10% of A1.

T(Ad) | ±5% of Ad = residual band.

Significant overshoots, First overshoot and ±1 subsequent overshoots.

(b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and overdamped systems only. See Figure A2B for an illustration of the reference measurements:

T(P0) | ±10% of P0

End Information

Begin QPS Requirement

c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.

(1) An alternative means for validating control dynamics for aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and artificial feel systems is by the measurement of control force and rate of movement. For each axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must be forced to its maximum extreme position for the following distinct rates. These tests are conducted under normal flight and ground conditions.

(a) Static test—Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is achieved within 95 to 105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position.

(b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.

Note:

Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN).

(d) Tolerances

(i) Static test; see Table A2A, FFS Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3.

(ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10% on dynamic increment above static test.

End QPS Requirement

Begin Information

d. The FAA is open to alternative means such as the one described above. The alternatives should be justified and appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here may not apply to all manufacturers' systems and certainly not to aircraft with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its own merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted methods will have to be used.

5. Ground Effect

a. For an FFS to be used for take-off and landing (not applicable to Level A simulators in that the landing maneuver may not be credited in a Level A simulator) it should reproduce the aerodynamic changes that occur in ground effect. The parameters chosen for FFS validation should indicate these changes.

(1) A dedicated test should be provided that will validate the aerodynamic ground effect characteristics.

(2) The organization performing the flight tests may select appropriate test methods and procedures to validate ground effect. However, the flight tests should be performed with enough duration near the ground to sufficiently validate the ground-effect model.

b. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider the merits of testing methods based on reliability and consistency. Acceptable methods of validating ground effect are described below. If other methods are proposed, rationale should be provided to conclude that the tests performed validate the ground-effect model. A sponsor using the methods described below to comply with the QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows:

(1) Level fly-bys. The level fly-bys should be conducted at a minimum of three altitudes within the ground effect, including one at no more than 10% of the wingspan above the ground, one each at approximately 30% and 50% of the wingspan where height refers to main gear tire above the ground. In addition, one level-flight trim condition should be conducted out of ground effect (e.g., at 150% of wingspan).

(2) Shallow approach landing. The shallow approach landing should be performed at a glide slope of approximately one degree with negligible pilot activity until flare.

c. The lateral-directional characteristics are also altered by ground effect. For example, because of changes in lift, roll damping is affected. The change in roll damping will affect other dynamic modes usually evaluated for FFS validation. In fact, Dutch roll dynamics, spiral stability, and roll-rate for a given lateral control input are altered by ground effect. Steady heading sideslips will also be affected. These effects should be accounted for in the FFS modeling. Several tests such as crosswind landing, one engine inoperative landing, and engine failure on take-off serve to validate lateral-directional ground effect since portions of these tests are accomplished as the aircraft is descending through heights above the runway at which ground effect is an important factor.

6. Motion System

a. General.

(1) Pilots use continuous information signals to regulate the state of the airplane. In concert with the instruments and outside-world visual information, whole-body motion feedback is essential in assisting the pilot to control the airplane dynamics, particularly in the presence of external disturbances. The motion system should meet basic objective performance criteria, and should be subjectively tuned at the pilot's seat position to represent the linear and angular accelerations of the airplane during a prescribed minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. The response of the motion cueing system should also be repeatable.

(2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of Table A2A are intended to qualify the FFS motion cueing system from a mechanical performance standpoint. Additionally, the list of motion effects provides a representative sample of dynamic conditions that should be present in the flight simulator. An additional list of representative, training-critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1 (Performance tests), and Section 2 (Handling Qualities tests), in Table A2A, that should be recorded during initial qualification (but without tolerance) to indicate the flight simulator motion cueing performance signature have been identified (reference Section 3.e). These tests are intended to help improve the overall standard of FFS motion cueing.

b. Motion System Checks. The intent of test 3a, Frequency Response, and test 3b, Turn-Around Check, as described in the Table of Objective Tests, are to demonstrate the performance of the motion system hardware, and to check the integrity of the motion set-up with regard to calibration and wear. These tests are independent of the motion cueing software and should be considered robotic tests.

c. Motion System Repeatability. The intent of this test is to ensure that the motion system software and motion system hardware have not degraded or changed over time. This diagnostic test should be completed during continuing qualification checks in lieu of the robotic tests. This will allow an improved ability to determine changes in the software or determine degradation in the hardware. The following information delineates the methodology that should be used for this test.

(1) Input: The inputs should be such that rotational accelerations, rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the transfer from airplane center of gravity to pilot reference point with a minimum amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g, respectively, to provide adequate analysis of the output.

(2) Recommended output:

(a) Actual platform linear accelerations; the output will comprise accelerations due to both the linear and rotational motion acceleration;

(b) Motion actuators position.

d. Objective Motion Cueing Test—Frequency Domain

(1) Background. This test quantifies the response of the motion cueing system from the output of the flight model to the motion platform response. Other motion tests, such as the motion system frequency response, concentrate on the mechanical performance of the motion system hardware alone. The intent of this test is to provide quantitative frequency response records of the entire motion system for specified degree-of-freedom transfer relationships over a range of frequencies. This range should be representative of the manual control range for that particular aircraft type and the simulator as set up during qualification. The measurements of this test should include the combined influence of the motion cueing algorithm, the motion platform dynamics, and the transport delay associated with the motion cueing and control system implementation. Specified frequency responses describing the ability of the FSTD to reproduce aircraft translations and rotations, as well as the cross-coupling relations, are required as part of these measurements. When simulating forward aircraft acceleration, the simulator is accelerated momentarily in the forward direction to provide the onset cueing. This is considered the direct transfer relation. The simulator is simultaneously tilted nose-up due to the low-pass filter in order to generate a sustained specific force. The tilt associated with the generation of the sustained specific force, and the angular rates and angular accelerations associated with the initiation of the sustained specific force, are considered cross-coupling relations. The specific force is required for the perception of the aircraft sustained specific force, while the angular rates and accelerations do not occur in the aircraft and should be minimized.

(2) Frequency response test. This test requires the frequency response to be measured for the motion cueing system. Reference sinusoidal signals are inserted at the pilot reference position prior to the motion cueing computations. The response of the motion platform in the corresponding degree-of-freedom (the direct transfer relations), as well as the motions resulting from cross-coupling (the cross-coupling relations), are recorded. These are the tests that are important to pilot motion cueing and are general tests applicable to all types of airplanes.

(3) This test is only required to be run once for the initial qualification of the FSTD and will not be required for continuing qualification purposes. The FAA will accept test results provided by the FSTD manufacturer as part of a Statement of Compliance confirming that the objective motion cueing tests were used to assist in the tuning of the FSTD's motion cueing algorithms.

e. Motion Vibrations.

(1) Presentation of results. The characteristic motion vibrations may be used to verify that the flight simulator can reproduce the frequency content of the airplane when flown in specific conditions. The test results should be presented as a Power Spectral Density (PSD) plot with frequencies on the horizontal axis and amplitude on the vertical axis. The airplane data and flight simulator data should be presented in the same format with the same scaling. The algorithms used for generating the flight simulator data should be the same as those used for the airplane data. If they are not the same then the algorithms used for the flight simulator data should be proven to be sufficiently comparable. As a minimum, the results along the dominant axes should be presented and a rationale for not presenting the other axes should be provided.

(2) Interpretation of results. The overall trend of the PSD plot should be considered while focusing on the dominant frequencies. Less emphasis should be placed on the differences at the high frequency and low amplitude portions of the PSD plot. During the analysis, certain structural components of the flight simulator have resonant frequencies that are filtered and may not appear in the PSD plot. If filtering is required, the notch filter bandwidth should be limited to 1 Hz to ensure that the buffet feel is not adversely affected. In addition, a rationale should be provided to explain that the characteristic motion vibration is not being adversely affected by the filtering. The amplitude should match airplane data as described below. However, if the PSD plot was altered for subjective reasons, a rationale should be provided to justify the change. If the plot is on a logarithmic scale, it may be difficult to interpret the amplitude of the buffet in terms of acceleration. For example, a 1 × 10−3 g-rms 2/Hz would describe a heavy buffet and may be seen in the deep stall regime. Alternatively, a 1 × 10−6 g-rms 2/Hz buffet is almost not perceivable; but may represent a flap buffet at low speed. The previous two examples differ in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD plot this represents three decades (one decade is a change in order of magnitude of 10; and two decades is a change in order of magnitude of 100).

Note:

In the example, “g-rms 2 is the mathematical expression for “g's root mean squared.”

7. Sound System

a. General. The total sound environment in the airplane is very complex, and changes with atmospheric conditions, airplane configuration, airspeed, altitude, and power settings. Flight deck sounds are an important component of the flight deck operational environment and provide valuable information to the flight crew. These aural cues can either assist the crew (as an indication of an abnormal situation), or hinder the crew (as a distraction or nuisance). For effective training, the flight simulator should provide flight deck sounds that are perceptible to the pilot during normal and abnormal operations, and comparable to those of the airplane. The flight simulator operator should carefully evaluate background noises in the location where the device will be installed. To demonstrate compliance with the sound requirements, the objective or validation tests in this attachment were selected to provide a representative sample of normal static conditions typically experienced by a pilot.

b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with multiple propulsion configurations, any condition listed in Table A2A of this attachment should be presented for evaluation as part of the QTG if identified by the airplane manufacturer or other data supplier as significantly different due to a change in propulsion system (engine or propeller).

c. Data and Data Collection System.

(1) Information provided to the flight simulator manufacturer should be presented in the format suggested by the International Air Transport Association (IATA) “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended. This information should contain calibration and frequency response data.

(2) The system used to perform the tests listed in Table A2A should comply with the following standards:

(a) The specifications for octave, half octave, and third octave band filter sets may be found in American National Standards Institute (ANSI) S1.11-1986;

(b) Measurement microphones should be type WS2 or better, as described in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 1094-4-1995.

(3) Headsets. If headsets are used during normal operation of the airplane they should also be used during the flight simulator evaluation.

(4) Playback equipment. Playback equipment and recordings of the QTG conditions should be provided during initial evaluations.

(5) Background noise.

(a) Background noise is the noise in the flight simulator that is not associated with the airplane, but is caused by the flight simulator's cooling and hydraulic systems and extraneous noise from other locations in the building. Background noise can seriously impact the correct simulation of airplane sounds and should be kept below the airplane sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the simulation can be increased to compensate for the background noise. However, this approach is limited by the specified tolerances and by the subjective acceptability of the sound environment to the evaluation pilot.

(b) The acceptability of the background noise levels is dependent upon the normal sound levels in the airplane being represented. Background noise levels that fall below the lines defined by the following points, may be acceptable:

(i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz;

(ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz;

(iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz

(Note: These limits are for unweighted 1/3 octave band sound levels. Meeting these limits for background noise does not ensure an acceptable flight simulator. Airplane sounds that fall below this limit require careful review and may require lower limits on background noise.)

(6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in airplane recordings should be considered when applying the specified tolerances to ensure that the simulation is representative of the airplane. Examples of typical deficiencies are:

(a) Variation of data between tail numbers;

(b) Frequency response of microphones;

Table A2B—Example of Continuing Qualification Frequency Response Test Tolerance

Band center frequency | Initial results (dBSPL) | Continuing qualification results (dBSPL) | Absolute difference

50 | 75.0 | 73.8 | 1.2

63 | 75.9 | 75.6 | 0.3

80 | 77.1 | 76.5 | 0.6

100 | 78.0 | 78.3 | 0.3

125 | 81.9 | 81.3 | 0.6

160 | 79.8 | 80.1 | 0.3

200 | 83.1 | 84.9 | 1.8

250 | 78.6 | 78.9 | 0.3

315 | 79.5 | 78.3 | 1.2

400 | 80.1 | 79.5 | 0.6

500 | 80.7 | 79.8 | 0.9

630 | 81.9 | 80.4 | 1.5

800 | 73.2 | 74.1 | 0.9

1000 | 79.2 | 80.1 | 0.9

1250 | 80.7 | 82.8 | 2.1

1600 | 81.6 | 78.6 | 3.0

2000 | 76.2 | 74.4 | 1.8

2500 | 79.5 | 80.7 | 1.2

3150 | 80.1 | 77.1 | 3.0

4000 | 78.9 | 78.6 | 0.3

5000 | 80.1 | 77.1 | 3.0

6300 | 80.7 | 80.4 | 0.3

8000 | 84.3 | 85.5 | 1.2

10000 | 81.3 | 79.8 | 1.5

12500 | 80.7 | 80.1 | 0.6

16000 | 71.1 | 71.1 | 0.0

Average | 1.1

8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Airplanes

a. Typically, an airplane manufacturer's approved final data for performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics is not available until well after a new or derivative airplane has entered service. However, flight crew training and certification often begins several months prior to the entry of the first airplane into service. Consequently, it may be necessary to use preliminary data provided by the airplane manufacturer for interim qualification of flight simulators.

b. In these cases, the responsible Flight Standards office may accept certain partially validated preliminary airplane and systems data, and early release (“red label”) avionics data in order to permit the necessary program schedule for training, certification, and service introduction.

c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualification based on preliminary data should consult the responsible Flight Standards office to make special arrangements for using preliminary data for flight simulator qualification. The sponsor should also consult the airplane and flight simulator manufacturers to develop a data plan and flight simulator qualification plan.

d. The procedure to be followed to gain the responsible Flight Standards office acceptance of preliminary data will vary from case to case and between airplane manufacturers. Each airplane manufacturer's new airplane development and test program is designed to suit the needs of the particular project and may not contain the same events or sequence of events as another manufacturer's program, or even the same manufacturer's program for a different airplane. Therefore, there cannot be a prescribed invariable procedure for acceptance of preliminary data, but instead there should be a statement describing the final sequence of events, data sources, and validation procedures agreed by the simulator sponsor, the airplane manufacturer, the flight simulator manufacturer, and the responsible Flight Standards office.

Note:

A description of airplane manufacturer-provided data needed for flight simulator modeling and validation is to be found in the IATA Document “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended.

e. The preliminary data should be the manufacturer's best representation of the airplane, with assurance that the final data will not significantly deviate from the preliminary estimates. Data derived from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be validated against available sources including, at least, the following:

(1) Manufacturer's engineering report. The report should explain the predictive method used and illustrate past success of the method on similar projects. For example, the manufacturer could show the application of the method to an earlier airplane model or predict the characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final data for that model.

(2) Early flight test results. This data is often derived from airplane certification tests, and should be used to maximum advantage for early flight simulator validation. Certain critical tests that would normally be done early in the airplane certification program should be included to validate essential pilot training and certification maneuvers. These include cases where a pilot is expected to cope with an airplane failure mode or an engine failure. Flight test data that will be available early in the flight test program will depend on the airplane manufacturer's flight test program design and may not be the same in each case. The flight test program of the airplane manufacturer should include provisions for generation of very early flight test results for flight simulator validation.

f. The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The airplane manufacturer's final data should be available within 12 months after the airplane's first entry into service or as agreed by the responsible Flight Standards office, the simulator sponsor, and the airplane manufacturer. When applying for interim qualification using preliminary data, the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office should agree on the update program. This includes specifying that the final data update will be installed in the flight simulator within a period of 12 months following the final data release, unless special conditions exist and a different schedule is acceptable. The flight simulator performance and handling validation would then be based on data derived from flight tests or from other approved sources. Initial airplane systems data should be updated after engineering tests. Final airplane systems data should also be used for flight simulator programming and validation.

g. Flight simulator avionics should stay essentially in step with airplane avionics (hardware and software) updates. The permitted time lapse between airplane and flight simulator updates should be minimal. It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and pilot training and certification are affected. Differences in airplane and flight simulator avionics versions and the resulting effects on flight simulator qualification should be agreed between the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office. Consultation with the flight simulator manufacturer is desirable throughout the qualification process.

h. The following describes an example of the design data and sources that might be used in the development of an interim qualification plan.

(1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a mix of flight test and engineering simulation data. For data collected from specific airplane flight tests or other flights, the required design model or data changes necessary to support an acceptable Proof of Match (POM) should be generated by the airplane manufacturer.

(2) For proper validation of the two sets of data, the airplane manufacturer should compare their simulation model responses against the flight test data, when driven by the same control inputs and subjected to the same atmospheric conditions as recorded in the flight test. The model responses should result from a simulation where the following systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the design data released to the flight simulator manufacturer:

(a) Propulsion;

(b) Aerodynamics;

(d) Flight controls;

(e) Stability augmentation; and

(f) Brakes/landing gear.

i. A qualified test pilot should be used to assess handling qualities and performance evaluations for the qualification of flight simulators of new airplane types.

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9. Engineering Simulator—Validation Data

a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., validated with flight test results) is modified due to changes to the simulated airplane configuration, the airplane manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office if they propose to supply validation data from an “audited” engineering simulator/simulation to selectively supplement flight test data. The responsible Flight Standards office must be provided an opportunity to audit the engineering simulation or the engineering simulator used to generate the validation data. Validation data from an audited engineering simulation may be used for changes that are incremental in nature. Manufacturers or other data suppliers must be able to demonstrate that the predicted changes in aircraft performance are based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. This must include comparisons of predicted and flight test validated data.

b. Airplane manufacturers or other acceptable data suppliers seeking to use an engineering simulator for simulation validation data as an alternative to flight-test derived validation data, must contact the responsible Flight Standards office and provide the following:

(1) A description of the proposed aircraft changes, a description of the proposed simulation model changes, and the use of an integral configuration management process, including a description of the actual simulation model modifications that includes a step-by-step description leading from the original model(s) to the current model(s).

(2) A schedule for review by the responsible Flight Standards office of the proposed plan and the subsequent validation data to establish acceptability of the proposal.

(3) Validation data from an audited engineering simulator/simulation to supplement specific segments of the flight test data.

c. To be qualified to supply engineering simulator validation data, for aerodynamic, engine, flight control, or ground handling models, an airplane manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must:

(1) Be able to verify their ability able to:

(a) Develop and implement high fidelity simulation models; and

(b) Predict the handling and performance characteristics of an airplane with sufficient accuracy to avoid additional flight test activities for those handling and performance characteristics.

(2) Have an engineering simulator that:

(a) Is a physical entity, complete with a flight deck representative of the simulated class of airplane;

(b) Has controls sufficient for manual flight;

(d) Has fully flight-test validated simulation models as the original or baseline simulation models;

(e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual system;

(f) Has actual avionics boxes interchangeable with the equivalent software simulations to support validation of released software;

(g) Uses the same models as released to the training community (which are also used to produce stand-alone proof-of-match and checkout documents);

(h) Is used to support airplane development and certification; and

(i) Has been found to be a high fidelity representation of the airplane by the manufacturer's pilots (or other acceptable data supplier), certificate holders, and the responsible Flight Standards office.

(3) Use the engineering simulator/simulation to produce a representative set of integrated proof-of-match cases.

(4) Use a configuration control system covering hardware and software for the operating components of the engineering simulator/simulation.

(5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects of the change(s) are within the provisions of sub-paragraph “a” of this section, and confirm that additional flight test data are not required.

d. Additional Requirements for Validation Data

(1) When used to provide validation data, an engineering simulator must meet the simulator standards currently applicable to training simulators except for the data package.

(2) The data package used must be:

(a) Comprised of the engineering predictions derived from the airplane design, development, or certification process;

(b) Based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes for aerodynamics, engine operations, avionics operations, flight control applications, or ground handling;

(d) Applicable to the configuration of a production airplane, as opposed to a flight-test airplane.

(3) Where engineering simulator data are used as part of a QTG, an essential match must exist between the training simulator and the validation data.

(4) Training flight simulator(s) using these baseline and modified simulation models must be qualified to at least internationally recognized standards, such as contained in the ICAO Document 9625, the “Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators.”

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10. [Reserved]

11. Validation Test Tolerances

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a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances

(1) If engineering simulator data or other non-flight-test data are used as an allowable form of reference validation data for the objective tests listed in Table A2A of this attachment, the data provider must supply a well-documented mathematical model and testing procedure that enables a replication of the engineering simulation results within 40% of the corresponding flight test tolerances.

b. Background

(1) The tolerances listed in Table A2A of this attachment are designed to measure the quality of the match using flight-test data as a reference.

(2) Good engineering judgment should be applied to all tolerances in any test. A test is failed when the results clearly fall outside of the prescribed tolerance(s).

(3) Engineering simulator data are acceptable because the same simulation models used to produce the reference data are also used to test the flight training simulator (i.e., the two sets of results should be “essentially” similar).

(4) The results from the two sources may differ for the following reasons:

(a) Hardware (avionics units and flight controls);

(b) Iteration rates;

(d) Integration methods;

(e) Processor architecture;

(f) Digital drift, including:

(i) Interpolation methods;

(ii) Data handling differences; and

(iii) Auto-test trim tolerances.

(5) The tolerance limit between the reference data and the flight simulator results is generally 40 percent of the corresponding `flight-test' tolerances. However, there may be cases where the simulator models used are of higher fidelity, or the manner in which they are cascaded in the integrated testing loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than those supplied by the data provider. Under these circumstances, it is possible that an error greater than 40 percent may be generated. An error greater than 40 percent may be acceptable if simulator sponsor can provide an adequate explanation.

(6) Guidelines are needed for the application of tolerances to engineering-simulator-generated validation data because:

(a) Flight-test data are often not available due to technical reasons;

(b) Alternative technical solutions are being advanced; and

12. Validation Data Roadmap

a. Airplane manufacturers or other data suppliers should supply a validation data roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data package. A VDR document contains guidance material from the airplane validation data supplier recommending the best possible sources of data to be used as validation data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value when requesting interim qualification, qualification of simulators for airplanes certificated prior to 1992, and qualification of alternate engine or avionics fits. A sponsor seeking to have a device qualified in accordance with the standards contained in this QPS appendix should submit a VDR to the responsible Flight Standards office as early as possible in the planning stages. The responsible Flight Standards office is the final authority to approve the data to be used as validation material for the QTG.

b. The VDR should identify (in matrix format) sources of data for all required tests. It should also provide guidance regarding the validity of these data for a specific engine type, thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting airplane handling qualities and performance. The VDR should include rationale or explanation in cases where data or parameters are missing, engineering simulation data are to be used, flight test methods require explanation, or there is any deviation from data requirements. Additionally, the document should refer to other appropriate sources of validation data (e.g., sound and vibration data documents).

c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap (VDR) for airplanes, shown in Table A2C, depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying sources of validation data for an abbreviated list of tests. This document is merely a sample and does not provide actual data. A complete matrix should address all test conditions and provide actual data and data sources.

d. Two examples of rationale pages are presented in Appendix F of the IATA “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements.” These illustrate the type of airplane and avionics configuration information and descriptive engineering rationale used to describe data anomalies or provide an acceptable basis for using alternative data for QTG validation requirements.

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13. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data.

a. Background

(1) For a new airplane type, the majority of flight validation data are collected on the first airplane configuration with a “baseline” engine type. These data are then used to validate all flight simulators representing that airplane type.

(2) Additional flight test validation data may be needed for flight simulators representing an airplane with engines of a different type than the baseline, or for engines with thrust rating that is different from previously validated configurations.

(3) When a flight simulator with alternate engines is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against flight test validation data for selected cases where engine differences are expected to be significant.

b. Approval Guidelines For Validating Alternate Engine Applications

(1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing airplanes with alternate engine applications or with more than one engine type or thrust rating.

(2) Validation tests can be segmented into two groups, those that are dependent on engine type or thrust rating and those that are not.

(3) For tests that are independent of engine type or thrust rating, the QTG can be based on validation data from any engine application. Tests in this category should be designated as independent of engine type or thrust rating.

(4) For tests that are affected by engine type, the QTG should contain selected engine-specific flight test data sufficient to validate that particular airplane-engine configuration. These effects may be due to engine dynamic characteristics, thrust levels or engine-related airplane configuration changes. This category is primarily characterized by variations between different engine manufacturers' products, but also includes differences due to significant engine design changes from a previously flight-validated configuration within a single engine type. See Table A2D, Alternate Engine Validation Flight Tests in this section for a list of acceptable tests.

(5) Alternate engine validation data should be based on flight test data, except as noted in sub-paragraphs 13.c.(1) and (2), or where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineering simulator/simulation data). If certification of the flight characteristics of the airplane with a new thrust rating (regardless of percentage change) does require certification flight testing with a comprehensive stability and control flight instrumentation package, then the conditions described in Table A2D in this section should be obtained from flight testing and presented in the QTG. Flight test data, other than throttle calibration data, are not required if the new thrust rating is certified on the airplane without need for a comprehensive stability and control flight instrumentation package.

(6) As a supplement to the engine-specific flight tests listed in Table A2D and baseline engine-independent tests, additional engine-specific engineering validation data should be provided in the QTG, as appropriate, to facilitate running the entire QTG with the alternate engine configuration. The sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office should agree in advance on the specific validation tests to be supported by engineering simulation data.

(7) A matrix or VDR should be provided with the QTG indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test.

(8) The flight test conditions in Table A2D are appropriate and should be sufficient to validate implementation of alternate engines in a flight simulator.

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c. Test Requirements

(1) The QTG must contain selected engine-specific flight test data sufficient to validate the alternative thrust level when:

(a) the engine type is the same, but the thrust rating exceeds that of a previously flight-test validated configuration by five percent (5%) or more; or

(b) the engine type is the same, but the thrust rating is less than the lowest previously flight-test validated rating by fifteen percent (15%) or more. See Table A2D for a list of acceptable tests.

(2) Flight test data is not required if the thrust increase is greater than 5%, but flight tests have confirmed that the thrust increase does not change the airplane's flight characteristics.

(3) Throttle calibration data (i.e., commanded power setting parameter versus throttle position) must be provided to validate all alternate engine types and engine thrust ratings that are higher or lower than a previously validated engine. Data from a test airplane or engineering test bench with the correct engine controller (both hardware and software) are required.

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Table A2D—Alternative Engine Validation Flight Tests

Entry No. | Test description | Alternative engine type | Alternative thrust rating 2

1.b.1., 1.b.4. | Normal take-off/ground acceleration time and distance | X | X

1.b.2. | Vmcg, if performed for airplane certification | X | X

1.b.5. 1.b.8. | Engine-out take-off Dynamic engine failure after take-off. | Either test may be performed | X

1.b.7. | Rejected take-off if performed for airplane certification | X

1.d.1. | Cruise performance | X

1.f.1., 1.f.2. | Engine acceleration and deceleration | X | X

2.a.7. | Throttle calibration 1 | X | X

2.c.1. | Power change dynamics (acceleration) | X | X

2.d.1. | Vmca if performed for airplane certification | X | X

2.d.5. | Engine inoperative trim | X | X

2.e.1. | Normal landing | X

1 Must be provided for all changes in engine type or thrust rating; see paragraph 13.c.(3).

2 See paragraphs 13.c.(1) through 13.c.(3), for a definition of applicable thrust ratings.

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14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers)

a. Background

(1) For a new airplane type, the majority of flight validation data are collected on the first airplane configuration with a “baseline” flight-related avionics ship-set; (see subparagraph b.(2) of this section). These data are then used to validate all flight simulators representing that airplane type.

(2) Additional validation data may be required for flight simulators representing an airplane with avionics of a different hardware design than the baseline, or a different software revision than previously validated configurations.

(3) When a flight simulator with additional or alternate avionics configurations is to be qualified, the QTG should contain tests against validation data for selected cases where avionics differences are expected to be significant.

b. Approval Guidelines for Validating Alternate Avionics

(1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing airplanes with a revised avionics configuration, or more than one avionics configuration.

(2) The baseline validation data should be based on flight test data, except where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineering flight simulator data).

(3) The airplane avionics can be segmented into two groups, systems or components whose functional behavior contributes to the aircraft response presented in the QTG results, and systems that do not. The following avionics are examples of contributory systems for which hardware design changes or software revisions may lead to significant differences in the aircraft response relative to the baseline avionics configuration: Flight control computers and controllers for engines, autopilot, braking system, nosewheel steering system, and high lift system. Related avionics such as stall warning and augmentation systems should also be considered.

(4) The acceptability of validation data used in the QTG for an alternative avionics fit should be determined as follows:

(a) For changes to an avionics system or component that do not affect QTG validation test response, the QTG test can be based on validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration.

(b) For an avionics change to a contributory system, where a specific test is not affected by the change (e.g., the avionics change is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE) update or a modification in a different flight phase), the QTG test can be based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics configuration. The QTG should include authoritative justification (e.g., from the airplane manufacturer or system supplier) that this avionics change does not affect the test.

(c) For an avionics change to a contributory system, the QTG may be based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics configuration if no new functionality is added and the impact of the avionics change on the airplane response is small and based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. This should be supplemented with avionics-specific validation data from the airplane manufacturer's engineering simulation, generated with the revised avionics configuration. The QTG should also include an explanation of the nature of the change and its effect on the airplane response.

(d) For an avionics change to a contributory system that significantly affects some tests in the QTG or where new functionality is added, the QTG should be based on validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration and supplemental avionics-specific flight test data sufficient to validate the alternate avionics revision. Additional flight test validation data may not be needed if the avionics changes were certified without the need for testing with a comprehensive flight instrumentation package. The airplane manufacturer should coordinate flight simulator data requirements, in advance with the responsible Flight Standards office.

(5) A matrix or “roadmap” should be provided with the QTG indicating the appropriate validation data source for each test. The roadmap should include identification of the revision state of those contributory avionics systems that could affect specific test responses if changed.

15. Transport Delay Testing

a. This paragraph explains how to determine the introduced transport delay through the flight simulator system so that it does not exceed a specific time delay. The transport delay should be measured from control inputs through the interface, through each of the host computer modules and back through the interface to motion, flight instrument, and visual systems. The transport delay should not exceed the maximum allowable interval.

b. Four specific examples of transport delay are:

(1) Simulation of classic non-computer controlled aircraft;

(2) Simulation of computer controlled aircraft using real airplane black boxes;

(3) Simulation of computer controlled aircraft using software emulation of airplane boxes;

(4) Simulation using software avionics or re-hosted instruments.

c. Figure A2C illustrates the total transport delay for a non-computer-controlled airplane or the classic transport delay test. Since there are no airplane-induced delays for this case, the total transport delay is equivalent to the introduced delay.

d. Figure A2D illustrates the transport delay testing method using the real airplane controller system.

e. To obtain the induced transport delay for the motion, instrument and visual signal, the delay induced by the airplane controller should be subtracted from the total transport delay. This difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A.

f. Introduced transport delay is measured from the flight deck control input to the reaction of the instruments and motion and visual systems (See Figure A2C).

g. The control input may also be introduced after the airplane controller system and the introduced transport delay measured directly from the control input to the reaction of the instruments, and simulator motion and visual systems (See Figure A2D).

h. Figure A2E illustrates the transport delay testing method used on a flight simulator that uses a software emulated airplane controller system.

i. It is not possible to measure the introduced transport delay using the simulated airplane controller system architecture for the pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the signal should be measured directly from the pilot controller. The flight simulator manufacturer should measure the total transport delay and subtract the inherent delay of the actual airplane components because the real airplane controller system has an inherent delay provided by the airplane manufacturer. The flight simulator manufacturer should ensure that the introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A.

j. Special measurements for instrument signals for flight simulators using a real airplane instrument display system instead of a simulated or re-hosted display. For flight instrument systems, the total transport delay should be measured and the inherent delay of the actual airplane components subtracted to ensure that the introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A.

(1) Figure A2FA illustrates the transport delay procedure without airplane display simulation. The introduced delay consists of the delay between the control movement and the instrument change on the data bus.

(2) Figure A2FB illustrates the modified testing method required to measure introduced delay due to software avionics or re-hosted instruments. The total simulated instrument transport delay is measured and the airplane delay should be subtracted from this total. This difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A. The inherent delay of the airplane between the data bus and the displays is indicated in figure A2FA. The display manufacturer should provide this delay time.

k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded to conduct the transport delay calculations should be explained on a schematic block diagram. The flight simulator manufacturer should also provide an explanation of why each signal was selected and how they relate to the above descriptions.

l. Interpretation of results. Flight simulator results vary over time from test to test due to “sampling uncertainty.” All flight simulators run at a specific rate where all modules are executed sequentially in the host computer. The flight controls input can occur at any time in the iteration, but these data will not be processed before the start of the new iteration. For example, a flight simulator running at 60 Hz may have a difference of as much as 16.67 msec between test results. This does not mean that the test has failed. Instead, the difference is attributed to variations in input processing. In some conditions, the host simulator and the visual system do not run at the same iteration rate, so the output of the host computer to the visual system will not always be synchronized.

m. The transport delay test should account for both daylight and night modes of operation of the visual system. In both cases, the tolerances prescribed in Table A1A must be met and the motion response should occur before the end of the first video scan containing new information.

Begin Information

16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation Test Data Presentation

a. Background

(1) The MQTG is created during the initial evaluation of a flight simulator. This is the master document, as amended, to which flight simulator continuing qualification evaluation test results are compared.

(2) The currently accepted method of presenting continuing qualification evaluation test results is to provide flight simulator results over-plotted with reference data. Test results are carefully reviewed to determine if the test is within the specified tolerances. This can be a time consuming process, particularly when reference data exhibits rapid variations or an apparent anomaly requiring engineering judgment in the application of the tolerances. In these cases, the solution is to compare the results to the MQTG. The continuing qualification results are compared to the results in the MQTG for acceptance. The flight simulator operator and the responsible Flight Standards office should look for any change in the flight simulator performance since initial qualification.

b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test Results Presentation

(1) Flight simulator operators are encouraged to over-plot continuing qualification validation test results with MQTG flight simulator results recorded during the initial evaluation and as amended. Any change in a validation test will be readily apparent. In addition to plotting continuing qualification validation test and MQTG results, operators may elect to plot reference data as well.

(2) There are no suggested tolerances between flight simulator continuing qualification and MQTG validation test results. Investigation of any discrepancy between the MQTG and continuing qualification flight simulator performance is left to the discretion of the flight simulator operator and the responsible Flight Standards office.

(3) Differences between the two sets of results, other than variations attributable to repeatability issues that cannot be explained, should be investigated.

(4) The flight simulator should retain the ability to over-plot both automatic and manual validation test results with reference data.

End Information

Begin QPS Requirements

17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level A and Level B Simulators Only

a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation. However, a sponsor may choose to use one or more of the alternative sources, procedures, and instrumentation described in Table A2E.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

b. It has become standard practice for experienced simulator manufacturers to use modeling techniques to establish data bases for new simulator configurations while awaiting the availability of actual flight test data. The data generated from the aerodynamic modeling techniques is then compared to the flight test data when it becomes available. The results of such comparisons have become increasingly consistent, indicating that these techniques, applied with the appropriate experience, are dependable and accurate for the development of aerodynamic models for use in Level A and Level B simulators.

c. Based on this history of successful comparisons, the responsible Flight Standards office has concluded that those who are experienced in the development of aerodynamic models may use modeling techniques to alter the method for acquiring flight test data for Level A or Level B simulators.

d. The information in Table A2E (Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation) is presented to describe an acceptable alternative to data sources for simulator modeling and validation and an acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation traditionally used to gather such modeling and validation data.

(1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a data requirement are the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design Data, the Type Inspection Report (TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data.

(2) The sponsor should coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office prior to using alternative data sources in a flight test or data gathering effort.

e. The responsible Flight Standards office position regarding the use of these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based on the following presumptions:

(1) Data gathered through the alternative means does not require angle of attack (AOA) measurements or control surface position measurements for any flight test. However, AOA can be sufficiently derived if the flight test program ensures the collection of acceptable level, unaccelerated, trimmed flight data. All of the simulator time history tests that begin in level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, including the three basic trim tests and “fly-by” trims, can be a successful validation of angle of attack by comparison with flight test pitch angle. (Note: Due to the criticality of angle of attack in the development of the ground effects model, particularly critical for normal landings and landings involving cross-control input applicable to Level B simulators, stable “fly-by” trim data will be the acceptable norm for normal and cross-control input landing objective data for these applications.)

(2) The use of a rigorously defined and fully mature simulation controls system model that includes accurate gearing and cable stretch characteristics (where applicable), determined from actual aircraft measurements. Such a model does not require control surface position measurements in the flight test objective data in these limited applications.

f. The sponsor is urged to contact the responsible Flight Standards office for clarification of any issue regarding airplanes with reversible control systems. Table A2E is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft FFSs.

g. Utilization of these alternate data sources, procedures, and instrumentation (Table A2E) does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level A or Level B FFSs.

h. The term “inertial measurement system” is used in the following table to include the use of a functional global positioning system (GPS).

i. Synchronized video for the use of alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation should have:

(1) Sufficient resolution to allow magnification of the display to make appropriate measurement and comparisons; and

(2) Sufficient size and incremental marking to allow similar measurement and comparison. The detail provided by the video should provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to measure the necessary parameter(s) to at least 1/2 of the tolerance authorized for the specific test being conducted and allow an integration of the parameter(s) in question to obtain a rate of change.

End Information

Table A2E—Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation

QPS REQUIREMENTS The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix A are not used. | Information

Table of objective tests | Sim level | Alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation | Notes

Test entry number and title | A | B

1.a.1. Performance. Taxi. Minimum Radius turn | X | X | TIR, AFM, or Design data may be used

1.a.2. Performance. Taxi Rate of Turn vs. Nosewheel Steering Angle | X | Data may be acquired by using a constant tiller position, measured with a protractor or full rudder pedal application for steady state turn, and synchronized video of heading indicator. If less than full rudder pedal is used, pedal position must be recorded. | A single procedure may not be adequate for all airplane steering systems, therefore appropriate measurement procedures must be devised and proposed for the responsible Flight Standards office concurrence.

1.b.1. Performance. Takeoff. Ground Acceleration Time and Distance | X | X | Preliminary certification data may be used. Data may be acquired by using a stop watch, calibrated airspeed, and runway markers during a takeoff with power set before brake release. Power settings may be hand recorded. If an inertial measurement system is installed, speed and distance may be derived from acceleration measurements

1.b.2. Performance. Takeoff. Minimum Control Speed—ground (Vmcg) using aerodynamic controls only (per applicable airworthiness standard) or low speed, engine inoperative ground control characteristics | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls | Rapid throttle reductions at speeds near Vmcg may be used while recording appropriate parameters. The nosewheel must be free to caster, or equivalently freed of sideforce generation.

1.b.3. Performance. Takeoff. Minimum Unstick Speed (Vmu) or equivalent test to demonstrate early rotation takeoff characteristics | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.b.4. Performance. Takeoff. Normal Takeoff | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. AOA can be calculated from pitch attitude and flight path

1.b.5. Performance. Takeoff. Critical Engine Failure during Takeoff | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls | Record airplane dynamic response to engine failure and control inputs required to correct flight path.

1.b.6. Performance. Takeoff. Crosswind Takeoff | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls | The “1:7 law” to 100 feet (30 meters) is an acceptable wind profile.

1.b.7. Performance. Takeoff. Rejected Takeoff | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and distance (e.g., runway markers). A stop watch is required.

1.c. 1. Performance. Climb. Normal Climb all engines operating. | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and engine power throughout the climb range

1.c.2. Performance. Climb. One engine Inoperative Climb | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and engine power throughout the climb range

1.c.4. Performance. Climb. One Engine Inoperative Approach Climb (if operations in icing conditions are authorized) | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and engine power throughout the climb range

1.d.1. Cruise/Descent. Level flight acceleration. | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and elapsed time

1.d.2. Cruise/Descent. Level flight deceleration. | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and elapsed time

1.d.4. Cruise/Descent. Idle descent | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and elapsed time

1.d.5. Cruise/Descent. Emergency Descent | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position, engine parameters, and elapsed time

1.e.1. Performance. Stopping. Deceleration time and distance, using manual application of wheel brakes and no reverse thrust on a dry runway | X | X | Data may be acquired during landing tests using a stop watch, runway markers, and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position and the pertinent parameters of engine power

1.e.2. Performance. Ground. Deceleration Time and Distance, using reverse thrust and no wheel brakes | X | X | Data may be acquired during landing tests using a stop watch, runway markers, and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, thrust lever position and pertinent parameters of engine power

1.f.1. Performance. Engines. Acceleration | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine instruments and throttle position

1.f.2. Performance. Engines. Deceleration | X | X | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine instruments and throttle position

2.a.1.a.Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Pitch Controller Position vs. Force and Surface Position Calibration | X | X | Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant column positions (encompassing significant column position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same column position data points. | For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.

2.a.2.a. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Roll Controller Position vs. Force and Surface Position Calibration | X | X | Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant wheel positions (encompassing significant wheel position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same wheel position data points. | For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.

2.a.3.a.Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Rudder Pedal Position vs. Force and Surface Position Calibration | X | X | Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant rudder pedal positions (encompassing significant rudder pedal position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same rudder pedal position data points. | For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.

2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Nosewheel Steering Controller Force and Position | X | X | Breakout data may be acquired with a hand held force gauge. The remainder of the force to the stops may be calculated if the force gauge and a protractor are used to measure force after breakout for at least 25% of the total displacement capability

2.a.5. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Rudder Pedal Steering Calibration | X | X | Data may be acquired through the use of force pads on the rudder pedals and a pedal position measurement device, together with design data for nosewheel position

2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Pitch Trim Indicator vs. Surface Position Calibration | X | X | Data may be acquired through calculations

2.a.7. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Pitch trim rate | X | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of pitch trim indication and elapsed time through range of trim indication

2.a.8. Handling Qualities. Static Control tests. Alignment of Flight deck Throttle Lever Angle vs. Selected engine parameter | X | X | Data may be acquired through the use of a temporary throttle quadrant scale to document throttle position. Use a synchronized video to record steady state instrument readings or hand-record steady state engine performance readings

2.a.9. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Brake pedal position vs. force and brake system pressure calibration | X | X | Use of design or predicted data is acceptable. Data may be acquired by measuring deflection at “zero” and “maximum” and calculating deflections between the extremes using the airplane design data curve

2.c.1. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Power change dynamics | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and throttle position

2.c.2. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Flap/slat change dynamics | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and flap/slat position

2.c.3. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Spoiler/speedbrake change dynamics | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and spoiler/speedbrake position

2.c.4. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Gear change dynamics | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and gear position

2.c.5. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal trim | X | X | Data may be acquired through use of an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of flight deck controls position (previously calibrated to show related surface position) and the engine instrument readings

2.c.6. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal maneuvering stability (stick force/g) | X | X | Data may be acquired through the use of an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments; a temporary, high resolution bank angle scale affixed to the attitude indicator; and a wheel and column force measurement indication

2.c.7. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal static stability | X | X | Data may be acquired through the use of a synchronized video of airplane flight instruments and a hand held force gauge

2.c.8. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Stall characteristics | X | X | Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a stop watch and calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand-record the flight conditions and airplane configuration | Airspeeds may be cross checked with those in the TIR and AFM.

2.c.9. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Phugoid dynamics | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.c.10. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Short period dynamics | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.d.1. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Minimum control speed, air (Vmca or Vmci), per applicable airworthiness standard or Low speed engine inoperative handling characteristics in the air | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.d.2. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Roll response (rate) | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls | May be combined with step input of flight deck roll controller test, 2.d.3.

2.d.3. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Roll response to flight deck roll controller step input | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls

2.d.4. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Spiral stability | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments; force/position measurements of flight deck controls; and a stop watch

2.d.5. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Engine inoperative trim | X | X | Data may be hand recorded in-flight using high resolution scales affixed to trim controls that have been calibrated on the ground using protractors on the control/trim surfaces with winds less than 5 kts.OR Data may be acquired during second segment climb (with proper pilot control input for an engine-out condition) by using a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls | Trimming during second segment climb is not a certification task and should not be conducted until a safe altitude is reached.

2.d.6. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Rudder response | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of rudder pedals

2.d.7. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Dutch roll, (yaw damper OFF) | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.d.8. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Steady state sideslip | X | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls Ground track and wind corrected heading may be used for sideslip angle.

2.e.1. Handling qualities. Landings. Normal landing | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.e.3. Handling qualities. Landings. Crosswind landing | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.e.4. Handling qualities. Landings. One engine inoperative landing | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip

2.e.5. Handling qualities. Landings. Autopilot landing (if applicable) | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls.Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip

2.e.6. Handling qualities. Landings. All engines operating, autopilot, go around | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip

2.e.7. Handling qualities. Landings. One engine inoperative go around | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip

2.e.8. Handling qualities. Landings. Directional control (rudder effectiveness with symmetric thrust) | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip

2.e.9. Handling qualities. Landings. Directional control (rudder effectiveness with asymmetric reverse thrust) | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Normal and lateral accelerations may be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip

2.f. Handling qualities. Ground effect. Test to demonstrate ground effect | X | Data may be acquired by using calibrated airplane instruments, an inertial measurement system, and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck controls

End Information

Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60—Simulator Subjective Evaluation

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Requirements

a. Except for special use airport models, described as Class III, all airport models required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the requirements set out in Tables A3B or A3C of this attachment, as appropriate.

b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate with respect to the visual presentation of the airport model of this fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation aid installation and performance and other criteria (including obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must reference and account for information in the terminal instrument procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be clearly marked “for training purposes only.”

c. When the simulator is being used by an instructor or evaluator for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter, only airport models classified as Class I, Class II, or Class III may be used by the instructor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/definitions of these classifications are found in Appendix F of this part.

d. When a person sponsors an FFS maintained by a person other than a U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FFS originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including the airport models that may be used by instructors or evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter.

e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport visual models are required to appear on the SOQ, and the method used for keeping instructors and evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the sponsor, but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA.

f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office (described in paragraph 1.g. of this section), an update to that airport model must be made in accordance with the following time limits:

(1) For a new airport runway, a runway extension, a new airport taxiway, a taxiway extension, or a runway/taxiway closure—within 90 days of the opening for use of the new airport runway, runway extension, new airport taxiway, or taxiway extension; or within 90 days of the closure of the runway or taxiway.

(2) For a new or modified approach light system—within 45 days of the activation of the new or modified approach light system.

(3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180 days of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.

g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must provide a written extension request to the responsible Flight Standards office stating the reason for the update delay and a proposed completion date, or explain why the update is not necessary (i.e., why the identified airport change will not have an impact on flight training, testing, or checking). A copy of this request or objection must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. The responsible Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM. If there is an objection, after consultation with the appropriate POI/TCPM regarding the training, testing, or checking impact, the responsible Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

2. Discussion

a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the capability of the simulator to perform over a typical utilization period; determining that the simulator accurately simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the simulator controls, instruments, and systems. The items listed in the following Tables are for simulator evaluation purposes only. They may not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of simulator, as described on the SOQ, or as approved by the TPAA.

b. The tests in Table A3A, Operations Tasks, in this attachment, address pilot functions, including maneuvers and procedures (called flight tasks), and are divided by flight phases. The performance of these tasks by the responsible Flight Standards office includes an operational examination of the visual system and special effects. There are flight tasks included to address some features of advanced technology airplanes and innovative training programs. For example, “high angle-of-attack maneuvering” is included to provide a required alternative to “approach to stalls” for airplanes employing flight envelope protection functions.

c. The tests in Table A3A, Operations Tasks, and Table A3G, Instructor Operating Station of this attachment, address the overall function and control of the simulator including the various simulated environmental conditions; simulated airplane system operations (normal, abnormal, and emergency); visual system displays; and special effects necessary to meet flight crew training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements.

d. All simulated airplane systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed during the evaluation of flight tasks or events within that flight phase. Simulated airplane systems are listed separately under “Any Flight Phase” to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation.

e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory circling approach will be qualified for the circling approach maneuver and may be approved for such use by the TPAA in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program. To be considered satisfactory, the circling approach will be flown at maximum gross weight for landing, with minimum visibility for the airplane approach category, and must allow proper alignment with a landing runway at least 90° different from the instrument approach course while allowing the pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the airport in sight throughout the maneuver (reference—14 CFR 91.175(e)).

f. At the request of the TPAA, the responsible Flight Standards office may assess a device to determine if it is capable of simulating certain training activities in a sponsor's training program, such as a portion of a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the qualification level of the simulator. However, if the responsible Flight Standards office determines that the simulator does not accurately simulate that training activity, the simulator would not be approved for that training activity.

g. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in which this particular media element is used. The analysis should describe the ability of the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate environment in which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The analysis should also include the specific media element, such as the airport model.

h. The TPAA may accept Class III airport models without individual observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable description of the process for determining the acceptability of a specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. Examples of situations that may warrant Class_III model designation by the TPAA include the following:

(a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility operations, including SMGCS operations.

(b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or checking) using—

(i) A specific model that has been geographically “moved” to a different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another airport.

(ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.

(iii) A model generated with an “off-board” or an “on-board” model development tool (by providing proper latitude/longitude reference; correct runway or landing area orientation, length, width, marking, and lighting information; and appropriate adjacent taxiway location) to generate a facsimile of a real world airport or landing area.

i. Previously qualified simulators with certain early generation Computer Generated Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by the capability of the Image Generator or the display system used. These systems are:

(1) Early CGI visual systems that are excepted from the requirement of including runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking requirements are:

(a) Link NVS and DNVS.

(b) Novoview 2500 and 6000.

(d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.

(2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted from the requirement of including runway numbers unless the runways are used for LOFT training sessions. These LOFT airport models require runway numbers but only for the specific runway end (one direction) used in the LOFT session. The systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are:

(a) FlightSafety VITAL IV.

(b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.

(3) The following list of previously qualified CGI and display systems are incapable of generating blue lights. These systems are not required to have accurate taxi-way edge lighting:

(a) Redifusion SP1.

(b) FlightSafety Vital IV.

(d) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color).

End Information

Table A3C—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Additional airport models beyond minimum required for qualification—Class II airport models | Simulator level

A | B | C | D

This table specifies the minimum airport model content and functionality necessary to add airport models to a simulator's model library, beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level, without the necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Airport model management. The following is the minimum airport model management requirements for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.

1.a. | The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights on the “in-use” runway must be replicated | X | X | X | X

2. Visual feature recognition. The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D. Distances are measured from runway threshold to an airplane aligned with the runway on an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions that recreate the minimum distances for visibility. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.

2.a. | Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and runway edge white lights from 5 sm (8 km) from the runway threshold | X | X | X | X

2.b. | Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) from the runway threshold | X | X

2.c. | Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) from the runway threshold | X | X

2.d. | Runway centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km) from the runway threshold | X | X | X | X

2.e. | Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km) from the runway threshold | X | X | X | X

2.f. | Runway markings within range of landing lights for night scenes and as required by the surface resolution requirements on day scenes | X | X | X | X

2.g. | For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner | X | X | X | X

3. Airport model content. The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an airport model and identifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D. The detail must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that airport models contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently qualified visual system. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end will be required for each “in-use” runway.

3.a. | The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway:

3.a.1. | Threshold markings | X | X | X | X

3.a.2. | Runway numbers | X | X | X | X

3.a.3. | Touchdown zone markings | X | X | X | X

3.a.4. | Fixed distance markings | X | X | X | X

3.a.5. | Edge markings | X | X | X | X

3.a.6. | Centerline stripes | X | X | X | X

3.b. | The lighting for each “in-use” runway

3.b.1. | Threshold lights | X | X | X | X

3.b.2. | Edge lights | X | X | X | X

3.b.3. | End lights | X | X | X | X

3.b.4. | Centerline lights | X | X | X | X

3.b.5. | Touchdown zone lights, if appropriate | X | X | X | X

3.b.6. | Leadoff lights, if appropriate | X | X | X | X

3.b.7. | Appropriate visual landing aid(s) for that runway | X | X | X | X

3.b.8. | Appropriate approach lighting system for that runway | X | X | X | X

3.c. | The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway:

3.c.1. | Edge | X | X | X | X

3.c.2. | Centerline | X | X | X | X

3.c.3. | Runway hold lines | X | X | X | X

3.c.4. | ILS critical area markings | X | X | X | X

3.d. | The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway:

3.d.1. | Edge | X | X

3.d.2. | Centerline | X | X | X | X

3.d.3. | Runway hold and ILS critical area lights | X | X | X | X

4. Required model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation The following are the minimum model correlation tests that must be conducted for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.

4.a. | The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway | X | X | X | X

4.b. | Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not cause distracting or unrealistic effects | X | X | X | X

5. Correlation with airplane and associated equipment. The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.

5.a. | Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming | X | X | X | X

5.b. | Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes | X | X | X | X

5.c. | Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings | X | X | X

5.d. | Visual effects for each visible, own-ship, airplane external light(s) | X | X | X

6. Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.

6.a. | Surfaces and textural cues must be free of apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing) | X | X

6.b. | Correct color and realistic textural cues | X | X

6.c. | Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking | X | X | X | X

7. Instructor controls of the following: The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.

7.a. | Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters | X | X | X | X

7.b. | Airport selection | X | X | X | X

7.c. | Airport lighting including variable intensity | X | X | X | X

7.d. | Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic | X | X

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

8. Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is provided must be correct within the capabilities of the system X X X X

End Information

Table A3E—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements

Entry No. | Sound system | Simulator level

A | B | C | D

The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile with motion system ON.

1. Precipitation X X

2. Rain removal equipment. X X

3. Significant airplane noises perceptible to the pilot during normal operations X X

4. Abnormal operations for which there are associated sound cues including, engine malfunctions, landing gear/tire malfunctions, tail and engine pod strike and pressurization malfunction X X

5. Sound of a crash when the flight simulator is landed in excess of limitations X X

Table A3G—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements

Entry No. | Special effects | Simulator level

A | B | C | D

Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the airplane and/or the system is installed on the specific simulator.

1. Simulator Power Switch(es) X X X X

2. Airplane conditions

2.a. | Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation | X | X | X | X

2.b. | Airplane systems status | X | X | X | X

2.c. | Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power, push back) | X | X | X | X

3. Airports

3.a. | Number and selection | X | X | X | X

3.b. | Runway selection | X | X | X | X

3.c. | Runway surface condition (e.g., rough, smooth, icy, wet) | X | X

3.d. | Preset positions (e.g., ramp, gate, #1 for takeoff, takeoff position, over FAF) | X | X | X | X

3.e. | Lighting controls | X | X | X | X

4. Environmental controls

4.a | Visibility (statute miles (kilometers)) | X | X | X | X

4.b. | Runway visual range (in feet (meters)) | X | X | X | X

4.c. | Temperature | X | X | X | X

4.d. | Climate conditions (e.g., ice, snow, rain) | X | X | X | X

4.e. | Wind speed and direction | X | X | X | X

4.f. | Windshear | X | X

4.g. | Clouds (base and tops) | X | X | X | X

5. Airplane system malfunctions (Inserting and deleting malfunctions into the simulator) X X X X

6. Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning

6.a. | Problem (all) freeze/release | X | X | X | X

6.b. | Position (geographic) freeze/release | X | X | X | X

6.c. | Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases) | X | X | X | X

6.d. | Ground speed control | X | X | X | X

7. Remote IOS X X X X

8. Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment X X X X

9. Motion/Control Loading System

9.a. | On/off/emergency stop | X | X | X | X

10. Observer Seats/Stations. Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system X X X X

Begin Information

1. Introduction

a. The following is an example test schedule for an Initial/Upgrade evaluation that covers the majority of the requirements set out in the Functions and Subjective test requirements. It is not intended that the schedule be followed line by line, rather, the example should be used as a guide for preparing a schedule that is tailored to the airplane, sponsor, and training task.

b. Functions and subjective tests should be planned. This information has been organized as a reference document with the considerations, methods, and evaluation notes for each individual aspect of the simulator task presented as an individual item. In this way the evaluator can design his or her own test plan, using the appropriate sections to provide guidance on method and evaluation criteria. Two aspects should be present in any test plan structure:

(1) An evaluation of the simulator to determine that it replicates the aircraft and performs reliably for an uninterrupted period equivalent to the length of a typical training session.

(2) The simulator should be capable of operating reliably after the use of training device functions such as repositions or malfunctions.

c. A detailed understanding of the training task will naturally lead to a list of objectives that the simulator should meet. This list will form the basis of the test plan. Additionally, once the test plan has been formulated, the initial conditions and the evaluation criteria should be established. The evaluator should consider all factors that may have an influence on the characteristics observed during particular training tasks in order to make the test plan successful.

2. Events

a. Initial Conditions

(1) Airport.

(2) QNH.

(3) Temperature.

(4) Wind/Crosswind.

(5) Zero Fuel Weight /Fuel/Gross Weight /Center of Gravity.

b. Initial Checks

(1) Documentation of Simulator.

(a) Simulator Acceptance Test Manuals.

(b) Simulator Approval Test Guide.

(d) Daily Functional Pre-flight Check.

(2) Documentation of User/Carrier Flight Logs.

(a) Simulator Operating/Instructor Manual.

(b) Difference List (Aircraft/Simulator).

(d) Performance Data for Different Fields.

(e) Crew Training Manual.

(f) Normal/Abnormal/Emergency Checklists.

(3) Simulator External Checks.

(a) Appearance and Cleanliness.

(b) Stairway/Access Bridge.

(d) “Motion On”/“Flight in Progress” Lights.

(4) Simulator Internal Checks.

(a) Cleaning/Disinfecting Towels (for cleaning oxygen masks).

(b) Flight deck Layout (compare with difference list).

(5) Equipment.

(a) Quick Donning Oxygen Masks.

(b) Head Sets.

(d) Sun Visors.

(e) Escape Rope.

(f) Chart Holders.

(g) Flashlights.

(h) Fire Extinguisher (inspection date).

(i) Crash Axe.

(j) Gear Pins.

c. Power Supply and APU Start Checks

(1) Batteries and Static Inverter.

(2) APU Start with Battery.

(3) APU Shutdown using Fire Handle.

(4) External Power Connection.

(5) APU Start with External Power.

(6) Abnormal APU Start/Operation.

d. Flight deck Checks

(1) Flight deck Preparation Checks.

(2) FMC Programming.

(3) Communications and Navigational Aids Checks.

e. Engine Start

(1) Before Start Checks.

(2) Battery start with Ground Air Supply Unit.

(3) Engine Crossbleed Start.

(4) Normal Engine Start.

(5) Abnormal Engine Starts.

(6) Engine Idle Readings.

(7) After Start Checks.

f. Taxi Checks

(1) Pushback/Powerback.

(2) Taxi Checks.

(3) Ground Handling Check:

(a) Power required to initiate ground roll.

(b) Thrust response.

(d) Nosewheel Scuffing.

(e) Perform 180 degree turns.

(f) Brakes Response and Differential Braking using Normal, Alternate and Emergency.

(g) Brake Systems.

(h) Eye height and fore/aft position.

(4) Runway Roughness.

g. Visual Scene—Ground Assessment. Select 3 different airport models and perform the following checks with Day, Dusk and Night selected, as appropriate:

(1) Visual Controls.

(a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls.

(b) Flight deck “Daylight” ambient lighting.

(d) Runway Light Controls.

(e) Taxiway Light Controls.

(2) Airport Model Content.

(a) Ramp area for buildings, gates, airbridges, maintenance ground equipment, parked aircraft.

(b) Daylight shadows, night time light pools.

(c) Taxiways for correct markings, taxiway/runway, marker boards, CAT I and II/III hold points, taxiway shape/grass areas, taxiway light (positions and colors).

(d) Runways for correct markings, lead-off lights, boards, runway slope, runway light positions, and colors, directionality of runway lights.

(e) Airport environment for correct terrain and significant features.

(f) Visual scene quantization (aliasing), color, and occulting levels.

(3) Ground Traffic Selection.

(4) Environment Effects.

(a) Low cloud scene.

(i) Rain:

(A) Runway surface scene.

(B) Windshield wiper—operation and sound.

(ii) Hail:

(A) Runway surface scene.

(B) Windshield wiper—operation and sound.

(b) Lightning/thunder.

(d) Fog.

h. Takeoff. Select one or several of the following test cases:

(1) T/O Configuration Warnings.

(2) Engine Takeoff Readings.

(3) Rejected Takeoff (Dry/Wet/Icy Runway) and check the following:

(a) Autobrake function.

(b) Anti-skid operation.

(d) Record stopping distance (use runway plot or runway lights remaining).

Continue taxiing along the runway while applying brakes and check the following:

(e) Center line lights alternating red/white for 2000 feet/600 meters.

(f) Center line lights all red for 1000 feet/300 meters.

(g) Runway end, red stop bars.

(h) Braking fade effect.

(i) Brake temperature indications.

(4) Engine Failure between VI and V2.

(5) Normal Takeoff:

(a) During ground roll check the following:

(i) Runway rumble.

(ii) Acceleration cues.

(iii) Groundspeed effects.

(iv) Engine sounds.

(v) Nosewheel and rudder pedal steering.

(b) During and after rotation, check the following:

(i) Rotation characteristics.

(ii) Column force during rotation.

(iii) Gear uplock sounds/bumps.

(iv) Effect of slat/flap retraction during climbout.

(6) Crosswind Takeoff (check the following):

(a) Tendency to turn into or out of the wind.

(b) Tendency to lift upwind wing as airspeed increases.

(7) Windshear during Takeoff (check the following):

(a) Controllable during windshear encounter.

(b) Performance adequate when using correct techniques.

(d) Motion cues satisfactory (particularly turbulence).

(8) Normal Takeoff with Control Malfunction.

(9) Low Visibility T/O (check the following):

(a) Visual cues.

(b) Flying by reference to instruments.

i. Climb Performance. Select one or several of the following test cases:

(1) Normal Climb—Climb while maintaining recommended speed profile and note fuel, distance and time.

(2) Single Engine Climb—Trim aircraft in a zero wheel climb at V2.

Note:

Up to 5° bank towards the operating engine(s) is permissible. Climb for 3 minutes and note fuel, distance, and time. Increase speed toward en route climb speed and retract flaps. Climb for 3 minutes and note fuel, distance, and time.

j. Systems Operation During Climb.

Check normal operation and malfunctions as appropriate for the following systems:

(1) Air conditioning/Pressurization/Ventilation.

(2) Autoflight.

(3) Communications.

(4) Electrical.

(5) Fuel.

(6) Icing Systems.

(7) Indicating and Recording Systems.

(8) Navigation/FMS.

(9) Pneumatics.

k. Cruise Checks. Select one or several of the following test cases:

(1) Cruise Performance.

(2) High Speed/High Altitude Handling (check the following):

(a) Overspeed warning.

(b) High Speed buffet.

(d) Envelope limiting functions on Computer Controlled Aircraft.

Reduce airspeed to below level flight buffet onset speed, start a turn, and check the following:

(e) High Speed buffet increases with G loading.

Reduce throttles to idle and start descent, deploy the speedbrake, and check the following:

(f) Speedbrake indications.

(g) Symmetrical deployment.

(h) Airframe buffet.

(i) Aircraft response hands off.

(3) Yaw Damper Operation. Switch off yaw dampers and autopilot. Initiate a Dutch roll and check the following:

(a) Aircraft dynamics.

(b) Simulator motion effects.

Switch on yaw dampers, re-initiate a Dutch roll and check the following:

(4) APU Operation.

(5) Engine Gravity Feed.

(6) Engine Shutdown and Driftdown Check: FMC operation Aircraft performance.

(7) Engine Relight.

l. Descent. Select one of the following test cases:

(1) Normal Descent. Descend while maintaining recommended speed profile and note fuel, distance and time.

(2) Cabin Depressurization/Emergency Descent.

m. Medium Altitude Checks. Select one or several of the following test cases:

(1) High Angle of Attack/Stall. Trim the aircraft at 1.4 Vs, establish 1 kt/sec 2 deceleration rate, and check the following—

(a) System displays/operation satisfactory.

(b) Handling characteristics satisfactory.

(d) Buffet characteristics and onset speed.

(e) Envelope limiting functions on Computer Controlled Aircraft.

Recover to straight and level flight and check the following:

(f) Handling characteristics satisfactory.

(2) Turning Flight. Roll aircraft to left, establish a 30° to 45° bank angle, and check the following:

(a) Stick force required, satisfactory.

(b) Wheel requirement to maintain bank angle.

(d) Time to turn 180°.

Roll aircraft from 45° bank one way to 45° bank the opposite direction while maintaining altitude and airspeed—check the following:

(e) Controllability during maneuver.

(3) Degraded flight controls.

(4) Holding Procedure (check the following:)

(a) FMC operation.

(b) Autopilot auto thrust performance.

(5) Storm Selection (check the following:)

(a) Weather radar controls.

(b) Weather radar operation.

(Fly through storm center, and check the following:)

(d) Aircraft enters cloud.

(e) Aircraft encounters representative turbulence.

(f) Rain/hail sound effects evident.

As aircraft leaves storm area, check the following:

(g) Storm effects disappear.

(6) TCAS (check the following:)

(a) Traffic appears on visual display.

(b) Traffic appears on TCAS display(s).

As conflicting traffic approaches, take relevant avoiding action, and check the following:

n. Approach and Landing. Select one or several of the following test cases while monitoring flight control and hydraulic systems for normal operation and with malfunctions selected:

(1) Flaps/Gear Normal Operation. Check the following:

(a) Time for extension/retraction.

(b) Buffet characteristics.

(2) Normal Visual Approach and Landing.

Fly a normal visual approach and landing—check the following:

(a) Aircraft handling.

(b) Spoiler operation.

(d) Directional control on the ground.

(e) Touchdown cues for main and nosewheel.

(f) Visual cues.

(g) Motion cues.

(h) Sound cues.

(i) Brake and anti-skid operation.

(3) Flaps/Gear Abnormal Operation or with hydraulic malfunctions.

(4) Abnormal Wing Flaps/Slats Landing.

(5) Manual Landing with Control Malfunction.

(a) Aircraft handling.

(b) Radio aids and instruments.

(d) Motion cues.

(e) Sound cues.

(6) Non-precision Approach—All Engines Operating.

(a) Aircraft handling.

(b) Radio Aids and instruments.

(d) Motion cues.

(e) Sound cues.

(7) Circling Approach.

(a) Aircraft handling.

(d) Airport model content and cues.

(e) Motion cues.

(f) Sound cues.

(8) Non-precision Approach—One Engine Inoperative.

(a) Aircraft handling.

(b) Radio Aids and instruments.

(d) Motion cues.

(e) Sound cues.

(9) One Engine Inoperative Go-around.

(a) Aircraft handling.

(b) Radio Aids and instruments.

(d) Motion cues.

(e) Sound cues.

(10) CAT I Approach and Landing with raw-data ILS.

(a) Aircraft handling.

(b) Radio Aids and instruments.

(d) Motion cues.

(e) Sound cues.

(11) CAT I Approach and Landing with Limiting Crosswind.

(a) Aircraft handling.

(b) Radio Aids and instruments.

(d) Motion cues.

(e) Sound cues.

(12) CAT I Approach with Windshear. Check the following:

(a) Controllable during windshear encounter.

(b) Performance adequate when using correct techniques.

(d) Motion cues (particularly turbulence).

(13) CAT II Approach and Automatic Go-Around.

(14) CAT III Approach and Landing—System Malfunctions.

(15) CAT III Approach and Landing—1 Engine Inoperative.

(16) GPWS evaluation.

o. Visual Scene—In-Flight Assessment.

Select three (3) different visual models and perform the following checks with “day,” “dusk,” and “night” (as appropriate) selected. Reposition the aircraft at or below 2000 feet within 10 nm of the airfield. Fly the aircraft around the airport environment and assess control of the visual system and evaluate the Airport model content as described below:

(1) Visual Controls.

(a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls.

(b) Environment Light Controls.

(d) Taxiway Light Controls.

(e) Approach Light Controls.

(2) Airport model Content.

(a) Airport environment for correct terrain and significant features.

(b) Runways for correct markings, runway slope, directionality of runway lights.

Reposition the aircraft to a long, final approach for an “ILS runway.” Select flight freeze when the aircraft is 5-statute miles (sm)/8-kilometers (km) out and on the glide slope. Check the following:

(3) Airport model content.

(a) Airfield features.

(b) Approach lights.

(d) Runway definition.

(e) Runway edge lights and VASI lights.

(f) Strobe lights.

Release flight freeze. Continue flying the approach with NP engaged. Select flight freeze when aircraft is 3 sm/5 km out and on the glide slope. Check the following:

(4) Airport model Content.

(a) Runway centerline light.

(b) Taxiway definition and lights.

Release flight freeze and continue flying the approach with A/P engaged. Select flight freeze when aircraft is 2 sm/3 km out and on the glide slope. Check the following:

(5) Airport model content.

(a) Runway threshold lights.

(b) Touchdown zone lights.

At 200 ft radio altitude and still on glide slope, select Flight Freeze. Check the following:

(6) Airport model content.

(a) Runway markings.

Set the weather to Category I conditions and check the following:

(7) Airport model content.

(a) Visual ground segment.

Set the weather to Category II conditions, release Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze at 100 feet radio altitude, and check the following:

(8) Airport model content.

(a) Visual ground segment.

Select night/dusk (twilight) conditions and check the following:

(9) Airport model content.

(a) Runway markings visible within landing light lobes.

Set the weather to Category III conditions, release Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze at 50 feet radio altitude and check the following:

(10) Airport model content.

(a) Visual ground segment.

Set WX to a typical “missed approach? weather condition, release Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze at 15 feet radio altitude, and check the following:

(11) Airport model content.

(a) Visual ground segment.

When on the ground, stop the aircraft. Set 0 feet RVR, ensure strobe/beacon tights are switched on and check the following:

(12) Airport model content.

(a) Visual effect of strobe and beacon.

Reposition to final approach, set weather to “Clear,” continue approach for an automatic landing, and check the following:

(13) Airport model content.

(a) Visual cues during flare to assess sink rate.

(b) Visual cues during flare to assess Depth perception.

After Landing Operations.

(1) After Landing Checks.

(2) Taxi back to gate. Check the following:

(a) Visual model satisfactory.

(b) Parking brake operation satisfactory.

(3) Shutdown Checks.

q. Crash Function.

(1) Gear-up Crash.

(2) Excessive rate of descent Crash.

(3) Excessive bank angle Crash.

Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—Figure A4D—Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page

INFORMATION

Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—Figure A4E—Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate

INFORMATION

Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—Figure A4H [Reserved]

Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60—Simulator Qualification Requirements for Windshear Training Program Use

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Applicability

This attachment applies to all simulators, regardless of qualification level, that are used to satisfy the training requirements of an FAA-approved low-altitude windshear flight training program, or any FAA-approved training program that addresses windshear encounters.

2. Statement of Compliance and Capability (SOC)

a. The sponsor must submit an SOC confirming that the aerodynamic model is based on flight test data supplied by the airplane manufacturer or other approved data provider. The SOC must also confirm that any change to environmental wind parameters, including variances in those parameters for windshear conditions, once inserted for computation, result in the correct simulated performance. This statement must also include examples of environmental wind parameters currently evaluated in the simulator (such as crosswind takeoffs, crosswind approaches, and crosswind landings).

b. For simulators without windshear warning, caution, or guidance hardware in the original equipment, the SOC must also state that the simulation of the added hardware and/or software, including associated flight deck displays and annunciations, replicates the system(s) installed in the airplane. The statement must be accompanied by a block diagram depicting the input and output signal flow, and comparing the signal flow to the equipment installed in the airplane.

3. Models

The windshear models installed in the simulator software used for the qualification evaluation must do the following:

a. Provide cues necessary for recognizing windshear onset and potential performance degradation requiring a pilot to initiate recovery procedures. The cues must include all of the following, as appropriate for the portion of the flight envelope:

(1) Rapid airspeed change of at least ±15 knots (kts).

(2) Stagnation of airspeed during the takeoff roll.

(3) Rapid vertical speed change of at least ±500 feet per minute (fpm).

(4) Rapid pitch change of at least ±5°.

b. Be adjustable in intensity (or other parameter to achieve an intensity effect) to at least two (2) levels so that upon encountering the windshear the pilot may identify its presence and apply the recommended procedures for escape from such a windshear.

(1) If the intensity is lesser, the performance capability of the simulated airplane in the windshear permits the pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath; and

(2) If the intensity is greater, the performance capability of the simulated airplane in the windshear does not permit the pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash). Note: The means used to accomplish the “nonsurvivable” scenario of paragraph 3.b.(2) of this attachment, that involve operational elements of the simulated airplane, must reflect the dispatch limitations of the airplane.

c. Be available for use in the FAA-approved windshear flight training program.

4. Demonstrations

a. The sponsor must identify one survivable takeoff windshear training model and one survivable approach windshear training model. The wind components of the survivable models must be presented in graphical format so that all components of the windshear are shown, including initiation point, variance in magnitude, and time or distance correlations. The simulator must be operated at the same gross weight, airplane configuration, and initial airspeed during the takeoff demonstration (through calm air and through the first selected survivable windshear), and at the same gross weight, airplane configuration, and initial airspeed during the approach demonstration (through calm air and through the second selected survivable windshear).

b. In each of these four situations, at an “initiation point” (i.e., where windshear onset is or should be recognized), the recommended procedures for windshear recovery are applied and the results are recorded as specified in paragraph 5 of this attachment.

c. These recordings are made without inserting programmed random turbulence. Turbulence that results from the windshear model is to be expected, and no attempt may be made to neutralize turbulence from this source.

d. The definition of the models and the results of the demonstrations of all four?(4) cases described in paragraph 4.a of this attachment, must be made a part of the MQTG.

5. Recording Parameters

a. In each of the four MQTG cases, an electronic recording (time history) must be made of the following parameters:

(1) Indicated or calibrated airspeed.

(2) Indicated vertical speed.

(3) Pitch attitude.

(4) Indicated or radio altitude.

(5) Angle of attack.

(6) Elevator position.

(7) Engine data (thrust, N1, or throttle position).

(8) Wind magnitudes (simple windshear model assumed).

b. These recordings must be initiated at least 10 seconds prior to the initiation point, and continued until recovery is complete or ground contact is made.

6. Equipment Installation and Operation

All windshear warning, caution, or guidance hardware installed in the simulator must operate as it operates in the airplane. For example, if a rapidly changing wind speed and/or direction would have caused a windshear warning in the airplane, the simulator must respond equivalently without instructor/evaluator intervention.

7. Qualification Test Guide

a. All QTG material must be forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office.

b. A simulator windshear evaluation will be scheduled in accordance with normal procedures. Continuing qualification evaluation schedules will be used to the maximum extent possible.

c. During the on-site evaluation, the evaluator will ask the operator to run the performance tests and record the results. The results of these on-site tests will be compared to those results previously approved and placed in the QTG or MQTG, as appropriate.

d. QTGs for new (or MQTGs for upgraded) simulators must contain or reference the information described in paragraphs 2, 3, 4, and 5 of this attachment.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

8. Subjective Evaluation

The responsible Flight Standards office will fly the simulator in at least two of the available windshear scenarios to subjectively evaluate simulator performance as it encounters the programmed windshear conditions.

a. One scenario will include parameters that enable the pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath.

b. One scenario will include parameters that will not enable the pilot to maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash).

c. Other scenarios may be examined at the responsible Flight Standards office's discretion.

9. Qualification Basis

The addition of windshear programming to a simulator in order to comply with the qualification for required windshear training does not change the original qualification basis of the simulator.

10. Demonstration Repeatability

For the purposes of demonstration repeatability, it is recommended that the simulator be flown by means of the simulator's autodrive function (for those simulators that have autodrive capability) during the demonstrations.

End Information

Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60—FSTD Directives Applicable to Airplane Flight Simulators

Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive

FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all Full Flight Simulators (FFS), regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification date (original or upgrade), having Class II or Class III airport models available.

Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.

Action: This is a retroactive requirement to have all Class II or Class III airport models meet current requirements.

Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b in Appendices A and C of this part, this FSTD Directive requires each certificate holder to ensure that by May 30, 2009, except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, each airport model used by the certificate holder's instructors or evaluators for training, checking, or testing under this chapter in an FFS, meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion of this requirement will not require a report, and the method used for keeping instructors and evaluators apprised of the airport models that meet Class II or Class III requirements on any given simulator is at the option of the certificate holder whose employees are using the FFS, but the method used must be available for review by the TPAA for that certificate holder.

Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective on May 30, 2008.

Specific Requirements:

1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:

a. Sponsored by a person holding or applying for an FAA operating certificate under Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or applying for an FAA-approved training program under Part 63, Appendix C, for flight engineers, and

b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a specific FSTD level.

2. FFSs also require the installation of a visual system that is capable of providing an out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport models. However, historically these airport models were not routinely evaluated or required to meet any standardized criteria. This has led to qualified simulators containing airport models being used to meet FAA-approved training, testing, or checking requirements with potentially incorrect or inappropriate visual references.

3. To prevent this from occurring in the future, by May 30, 2009, except for the airport model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the designated level, each certificate holder must assure that each airport model used for training, testing, or checking under this chapter in a qualified FFS meets the definition of a Class II or Class III airport model as defined in Appendix F of this part.

4. These references describe the requirements for visual scene management and the minimum distances from which runway or landing area features must be visible for all levels of simulator. The airport model must provide, for each “in-use runway” or “in-use landing area,” runway or landing area surface and markings, runway or landing area lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and taxiway lighting. Additional requirements include correlation of the v airport models with other aspects of the airport environment, correlation of the aircraft and associated equipment, scene quality assessment features, and the control of these models the instructor must be able to exercise.

5. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.

6. The details in these models must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material. However, this FSTD DIRECTIVE 1 does not require that airport models contain details that are beyond the initially designed capability of the visual system, as currently qualified. The recognized limitations to visual systems are as follows:

a. Visual systems not required to have runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking requirements are:

(1) Link NVS and DNVS.

(2) Novoview 2500 and 6000.

(3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but not beyond.

(4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.

b. Visual systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are:

(1) FlightSafety VITAL IV.

(2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.

(3) Link-Miles Image II.

c. Visual systems not required to have accurate taxiway edge lighting are:

(1) Redifusion SP1.

(2) FlightSafety Vital IV.

(3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT

(4) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color).

7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in the MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, Appendices A through D for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart.

Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive

FSTD Directive 2. Applicable to all airplane Full Flight Simulators (FFS), regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification date (original or upgrade), used to conduct full stall training, upset recovery training, airborne icing training, and other flight training tasks as described in this Directive.

Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.

Action: This is a retroactive requirement for any FSTD being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credit in an FAA approved flight training program for the specific training maneuvers as defined in this Directive.

Summary: Notwithstanding the authorization listed in paragraph 13b in Appendix A of this Part, this FSTD Directive requires that each FSTD sponsor conduct additional subjective and objective testing, conduct required modifications, and apply for additional FSTD qualification under § 60.16 to support continued qualification of the following flight training tasks where training, testing, or checking credit is being sought in a selected FSTD being used in an FAA approved flight training program:

a. Recognition of and Recovery from a Full Stall

b. Upset Prevention and Recovery

c. Engine and Airframe Icing

d. Takeoff and Landing with Gusting Crosswinds

e. Recovery from a Bounced Landing

The FSTD sponsor may elect to apply for additional qualification for any, all, or none of the above defined training tasks for a particular FSTD. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD used to conduct the above training tasks must be evaluated and issued additional qualification by the responsible Flight Standards office as defined in this Directive.

Dates: FSTD Directive No. 2 becomes effective on May 31, 2016.

Specific Requirements

1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:

b. Evaluated and issued a Statement of Qualification (SOQ) for a specific FSTD level.

2. The evaluation criteria contained in this Directive is intended to address specific training tasks that require additional evaluation to ensure adequate FSTD fidelity.

3. The requirements described in this Directive define additional qualification criteria for specific training tasks that are applicable only to those FSTDs that will be utilized to obtain training, testing, or checking credit in an FAA approved flight training program. In order to obtain additional qualification for the tasks described in this Directive, FSTD sponsors must request additional qualification in accordance with § 60.16 and the requirements of this Directive. FSTDs that are found to meet the requirements of this Directive will have their Statement of Qualification (SOQ) amended to reflect the additional training tasks that the FSTD has been qualified to conduct. The additional qualification requirements as defined in this Directive are divided into the following training tasks:

a. Section I—Additional Qualification Requirements for Full Stall Training Tasks

b. Section II—Additional Qualification Requirements for Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Tasks

c. Section III—Additional Qualification Requirements for Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks

d. Section IV—Additional Qualification Requirements for Takeoff and Landing in Gusting Crosswinds

e. Section V—Additional Qualification Requirements for Bounced Landing Recovery Training Tasks

4. A copy of this Directive (along with all required Statements of Compliance and objective test results) must be filed in the MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, Appendix A for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart.

Section I—Evaluation Requirements for Full Stall Training Tasks

1. This section applies to previously qualified Level C and Level D FSTDs being used to obtain credit for stall training maneuvers beyond the first indication of a stall (such as stall warning system activation, stick shaker, etc.) in an FAA approved training program.

2. The evaluation requirements in this Directive are intended to validate FSTD fidelity at angles of attack sufficient to identify the stall, to demonstrate aircraft performance degradation in the stall, and to demonstrate recovery techniques from a fully stalled flight condition.

3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to obtain credit for full stall training maneuvers in an FAA approved training program must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this Part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.m. (High Angle of Attack Modeling)

b. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 3.f. (Stick Pusher System) [where applicable]

c. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 2.a.10 (Stick Pusher Force Calibration) [where applicable]

d. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 2.c.8.a (Stall Characteristics)

e. Table A2A, Objective Testing Requirements, Test 3.f.5 (Characteristic Motion Vibrations—Stall Buffet) [See paragraph 4 of this section for applicability on previously qualified FSTDs]

f. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, Test 5.b.1.b. (High Angle of Attack Maneuvers)

g. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks (High Angle of Attack Model Evaluation)

4. For FSTDs initially qualified before May 31, 2016, including FSTDs that are initially qualified under the grace period conditions as defined in § 60.15(c):

a. Objective testing for stall characteristics (Table A2A, test 2.c.8.a.) will only be required for the (wings level) second segment climb and approach or landing flight conditions. In lieu of objective testing for the high altitude cruise and turning flight stall conditions, these maneuvers may be subjectively evaluated by a qualified subject matter expert (SME) pilot and addressed in the required statement of compliance.

b. Where existing flight test validation data in the FSTD's Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG) is missing required parameters or is otherwise unsuitable to fully meet the objective testing requirements of this Directive, the FAA may accept alternate sources of validation, including subjective validation by an SME pilot with direct experience in the stall characteristics of the aircraft.

c. Objective testing for characteristic motion vibrations (Stall buffet—Table A2A, test 3.f.5) is not required where the FSTD's stall buffets have been subjectively evaluated by an SME pilot. For previously qualified Level D FSTDs that currently have objective stall buffet tests in their approved MQTG, the results of these existing tests must be provided to the FAA with the updated stall and stall buffet models in place.

d. As described in Attachment 7 of this Appendix, the FAA may accept a statement of compliance from the data provider which confirms the stall characteristics have been subjectively evaluated by an SME pilot on an engineering simulator or development simulator that is acceptable to the FAA. Where this evaluation takes place on an engineering or development simulator, additional objective “proof-of-match” testing for all flight conditions as described in tests 2.c.8.a. and 3.f.5.will be required to verify the implementation of the stall model and stall buffets on the training FSTD.

5. Where qualification is being sought to conduct full stall training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive.

b. Statements of Compliance (High Angle of Attack Modeling/Stick Pusher System)—See Table A1A, Section 2.m., 3.f., and Attachment 7

c. Statement of Compliance (SME Pilot Evaluation)—See Table A1A, Section 2.m. and Attachment 7

d. Copies of the required objective test results as described above in sections 3.c., 3.d., and 3.e.

6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as interim qualification for full stall training tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

Section II—Evaluation Requirements for Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Tasks

1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits for upset prevention and recovery training tasks (UPRT) as defined in Appendix A, Table A1A, Section 2.n. of this part. Additionally, FSTDs being used for unusual attitude training maneuvers that are intended to exceed the parameters of an aircraft upset must also be evaluated and qualified for UPRT under this section. These parameters include pitch attitudes greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch attitudes greater than 10 degrees nose down, and bank angles greater than 45 degrees.

2. The requirements contained in this section are intended to define minimum standards for evaluating an FSTD for use in upset prevention and recovery training maneuvers that may exceed an aircraft's normal flight envelope. These standards include the evaluation of qualified training maneuvers against the FSTD's validation envelope and providing the instructor with minimum feedback tools for the purpose of determining if a training maneuver is conducted within FSTD validation limits and the aircraft's operating limits.

3. This Directive contains additional subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs. Where aerodynamic modeling data or validation data is not available or insufficient to meet the requirements of this Directive, the responsible Flight Standards office may limit additional qualification to certain upset prevention and recovery maneuvers where adequate data exists.

4. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credit for upset prevention and recovery training tasks in an FAA approved flight training program must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.n. (Upset Prevention and Recovery)

b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing, Test 5.b.3. (Upset Prevention and Recovery Maneuvers)

c. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks (Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Maneuver Evaluation)

5. Where qualification is being sought to conduct upset prevention and recovery training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive.

b. Statement of Compliance (FSTD Validation Envelope)—See Table A1A, Section 2.n. and Attachment 7

c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in § 60.16(a)(1)(iii).

6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as an interim qualification for upset prevention and recovery training tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

Section III—Evaluation Requirements for Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks

1. This section applies to previously qualified Level C and Level D FSTDs being used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in maneuvers that demonstrate the effects of engine and airframe ice accretion.

2. The requirements in this section are intended to supersede and improve upon existing Level C and Level D FSTD evaluation requirements on the effects of engine and airframe icing. The requirements define a minimum level of fidelity required to adequately simulate the aircraft specific aerodynamic characteristics of an in-flight encounter with engine and airframe ice accretion as necessary to accomplish training objectives.

3. This Directive contains additional subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs. Where aerodynamic modeling data is not available or insufficient to meet the requirements of this Directive, the responsible Flight Standards office may limit qualified engine and airframe icing maneuvers where sufficient aerodynamic modeling data exists.

4. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being used to conduct training tasks that demonstrate the effects of engine and airframe icing must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.j. (Engine and Airframe Icing)

b. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks (Engine and Airframe Icing Evaluation; Paragraphs 1, 2, and 3). Objective demonstration tests of engine and airframe icing effects (Attachment 2, Table A2A, test 2.i. of this Appendix) are not required for previously qualified FSTDs.

5. Where continued qualification is being sought to conduct engine and airframe icing training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive;

b. Statement of Compliance (Ice Accretion Model)—See Table A1A, Section 2.j., and Attachment 7; and

c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in § 60.16(a)(1)(iii).

6. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as an interim update to the FSTD's Statement of Qualification (SOQ) until such time that a permanent change is made to the SOQ at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

Section IV—Evaluation Requirements for Takeoff and Landing in Gusting Crosswind

1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs that will be used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in takeoff and landing tasks in gusting crosswinds as part of an FAA approved training program. The requirements of this Directive are applicable only to those Level B and higher FSTDs that are qualified to conduct takeoff and landing training tasks.

2. The requirements in this section introduce new minimum simulator requirements for gusting crosswinds during takeoff and landing training tasks as well as additional subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs.

3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD that is used to conduct gusting crosswind takeoff and landing training tasks must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.d.3. (Ground Handling Characteristics);

b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 3.a.3 (Takeoff, Crosswind—Maximum Demonstrated and Gusting Crosswind); and

c. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 8.d. (Approach and landing with crosswind—Maximum Demonstrated and Gusting Crosswind).

4. Where qualification is being sought to conduct gusting crosswind training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive.

b. Statement of Compliance (Gusting Crosswind Profiles)—See Table A1A, Section 2.d.3.

c. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in § 60.16(a)(1)(iii).

5. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as an interim qualification for gusting crosswind training tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

Section V—Evaluation Requirements for Bounced Landing Recovery Training Tasks

1. This section applies to previously qualified FSTDs that will be used to obtain training, testing, or checking credits in bounced landing recovery as part of an FAA approved training program. The requirements of this Directive are applicable only to those Level B and higher FSTDs that are qualified to conduct takeoff and landing training tasks.

2. The evaluation requirements in this section are intended to introduce new evaluation requirements for bounced landing recovery training tasks and contains additional subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements of previously qualified FSTDs.

3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD that is used to conduct bounced landing training tasks must be evaluated and issued additional qualification in accordance with this Directive and the following sections of Appendix A of this Part:

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section 2.d.2. (Ground Reaction Characteristics)

b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Testing Requirements, test 9.e. (Missed Approach—Bounced Landing)

4. Where qualification is being sought to conduct bounced landing training tasks in accordance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the required evaluations and modifications as prescribed in this Directive and report compliance to the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.23 using the standardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At a minimum, this form must be accompanied with the following information:

a. A description of any modifications to the FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary to meet the requirements of this Directive; and

b. A confirmation statement that the modified FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a qualified pilot as described in § 60.16(a)(1)(iii).

5. The responsible Flight Standards office will review each submission to determine if the requirements of this Directive have been met and respond to the FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Additional responsible Flight Standards office conducted FSTD evaluations may be required before the modified FSTD is placed into service. This response, along with any noted restrictions, will serve as an interim qualification for bounced landing recovery training tasks until such time that a permanent change is made to the Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD's next scheduled evaluation.

Attachment 7 to Appendix A to Part 60—Additional Simulator Qualification Requirements for Stall, Upset Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and Airframe Icing Training Tasks

Begin QPS Requirements

A. High Angle of Attack Model Evaluation (Table A1A, Section 2.m.)

1. Applicability: This attachment applies to all simulators that are used to satisfy training requirements for stall maneuvers that are conducted at angles of attack beyond the activation of the stall warning system. This attachment is not applicable for those FSTDs that are only qualified for approach to stall maneuvers where recovery is initiated at the first indication of the stall. The material in this section is intended to supplement the general requirements, objective testing requirements, and subjective testing requirements contained within Tables A1A, A2A, and A3A, respectively.

2. General Requirements: The requirements for high angle of attack modeling are intended to evaluate the recognition cues and performance and handling qualities of a developing stall through the stall identification angle-of-attack and recovery. Strict time-history-based evaluations against flight test data may not adequately validate the aerodynamic model in an unsteady and potentially unstable flight regime, such as stalled flight. As a result, the objective testing requirements defined in Table A2A do not prescribe strict tolerances on any parameter at angles of attack beyond the stall identification angle of attack. In lieu of mandating such objective tolerances, a Statement of Compliance (SOC) will be required to define the source data and methods used to develop the stall aerodynamic model.

3. Fidelity Requirements: The requirements defined for the evaluation of full stall training maneuvers are intended to provide the following levels of fidelity:

a. Airplane type specific recognition cues of the first indication of the stall (such as the stall warning system or aerodynamic stall buffet);

b. Airplane type specific recognition cues of an impending aerodynamic stall; and

c. Recognition cues and handling qualities from the stall break through recovery that are sufficiently exemplar of the airplane being simulated to allow successful completion of the stall recovery training tasks.

For the purposes of stall maneuver evaluation, the term “exemplar” is defined as a level of fidelity that is type specific of the simulated airplane to the extent that the training objectives can be satisfactorily accomplished.

4. Statement of Compliance (Aerodynamic Model): At a minimum, the following must be addressed in the SOC:

a. Source Data and Modeling Methods: The SOC must identify the sources of data used to develop the aerodynamic model. These data sources may be from the airplane original equipment manufacturer (OEM), the original FSTD manufacturer/data provider, or other data provider acceptable to the FAA. Of particular interest is a mapping of test points in the form of alpha/beta envelope plot for a minimum of flaps up and flaps down aircraft configurations. For the flight test data, a list of the types of maneuvers used to define the aerodynamic model for angle of attack ranges greater than the first indication of stall must be provided per flap setting. In cases where it is impractical to develop and validate a stall model with flight-test data (e.g., due to safety concerns involving the collection of flight test data past a certain angle of attack), the data provider is expected to make a reasonable attempt to develop a stall model through the required angle of attack range using analytical methods and empirical data (e.g., wind-tunnel data);

b. Validity Range: The FSTD sponsor must declare the range of angle of attack and sideslip where the aerodynamic model remains valid for training. For stall recovery training tasks, satisfactory aerodynamic model fidelity must be shown through at least 10 degrees beyond the stall identification angle of attack. For the purposes of determining this validity range, the stall identification angle of attack is defined as the angle of attack where the pilot is given a clear and distinctive indication to cease any further increase in angle of attack where one or more of the following characteristics occur:

i. No further increase in pitch occurs when the pitch control is held at the full aft stop for 2 seconds, leading to an inability to arrest descent rate;

ii. An uncommanded nose down pitch that cannot be readily arrested, which may be accompanied by an uncommanded rolling motion;

iii. Buffeting of a magnitude and severity that is a strong and effective deterrent to further increase in angle of attack; and

iv. Activation of a stick pusher.

The model validity range must also be capable of simulating the airplane dynamics as a result of a pilot initially resisting the stick pusher in training. For aircraft equipped with a stall envelope protection system, the model validity range must extend to 10 degrees of angle of attack beyond the stall identification angle of attack with the protection systems disabled or otherwise degraded (such as a degraded flight control mode as a result of a pitot/static system failure).

c. Model Characteristics: Within the declared range of model validity, the SOC must address, and the aerodynamic model must incorporate, the following stall characteristics where applicable by aircraft type:

i. Degradation in static/dynamic lateral-directional stability;

ii. Degradation in control response (pitch, roll, yaw);

iii. Uncommanded roll acceleration or roll-off requiring significant control deflection to counter;

iv. Apparent randomness or non-repeatability;

v. Changes in pitch stability;

vi. Stall hysteresis;

vii. Mach effects;

viii. Stall buffet; and

ix. Angle of attack rate effects.

An overview of the methodology used to address these features must be provided.

5. Statement of Compliance (Subject Matter Expert Pilot Evaluation): The sponsor must provide an SOC that confirms the FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a subject matter expert (SME) pilot who is knowledgeable of the aircraft's stall characteristics. In order to qualify as an acceptable SME to evaluate the FSTD's stall characteristics, the SME must meet the following requirements:

a. Has held a type rating/qualification in the aircraft being simulated;

b. Has direct experience in conducting stall maneuvers in an aircraft that shares the same type rating as the make, model, and series of the simulated aircraft. This stall experience must include hands on manipulation of the controls at angles of attack sufficient to identify the stall (e.g., deterrent buffet, stick pusher activation, etc.) through recovery to stable flight;

c. Where the SME's stall experience is on an airplane of a different make, model, and series within the same type rating, differences in aircraft specific stall recognition cues and handling characteristics must be addressed using available documentation. This documentation may include aircraft operating manuals, aircraft manufacturer flight test reports, or other documentation that describes the stall characteristics of the aircraft; and

d. Must be familiar with the intended stall training maneuvers to be conducted in the FSTD (e.g., general aircraft configurations, stall entry methods, etc.) and the cues necessary to accomplish the required training objectives. The purpose of this requirement is to ensure that the stall model has been sufficiently evaluated in those general aircraft configurations and stall entry methods that will likely be conducted in training.

This SOC will only be required once at the time the FSTD is initially qualified for stall training tasks as long as the FSTD's stall model remains unmodified from what was originally evaluated and qualified. Where an FSTD shares common aerodynamic and flight control models with that of an engineering simulator or development simulator that is acceptable to the FAA, the FAA will accept an SOC from the data provider that confirms the stall characteristics have been subjectively assessed by an SME pilot on the engineering or development simulator.

An FSTD sponsor may submit a request to the Administrator for approval of a deviation from the SME pilot experience requirements in this paragraph. This request for deviation must include the following information:

a. An assessment of pilot availability that demonstrates that a suitably qualified pilot meeting the experience requirements of this section cannot be practically located; and

b. Alternative methods to subjectively evaluate the FSTD's capability to provide the stall recognition cues and handling characteristics needed to accomplish the training objectives.

B. Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT) Maneuver Evaluation (Table A1A, Section 2.n.)

1. Applicability: This attachment applies to all simulators that are used to satisfy training requirements for upset prevention and recovery training (UPRT) maneuvers. For the purposes of this attachment (as defined in the Airplane Upset Recovery Training Aid), an aircraft upset is generally defined as an airplane unintentionally exceeding the following parameters normally experienced in line operations or training:

a. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up;

b. Pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down;

c. Bank angles greater than 45 degrees; and

d. Within the above parameters, but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions.

FSTDs that will be used to conduct training maneuvers where the FSTD is either repositioned into an aircraft upset condition or an artificial stimulus (such as weather phenomena or system failures) is applied that is intended to result in a flightcrew entering an aircraft upset condition must be evaluated and qualified in accordance with this section.

2. General Requirements: The general requirement for UPRT qualification in Table A1A defines three basic elements required for qualifying an FSTD for UPRT maneuvers:

a. FSTD Training Envelope: Valid UPRT should be conducted within the high and moderate confidence regions of the FSTD validation envelope as defined in paragraph 3 below.

b. Instructor Feedback: Provides the instructor/evaluator with a minimum set of feedback tools to properly evaluate the trainee's performance in accomplishing an upset recovery training task.

c. Upset Scenarios: Where dynamic upset scenarios or aircraft system malfunctions are used to stimulate the FSTD into an aircraft upset condition, specific guidance must be available to the instructor on the IOS that describes how the upset scenario is driven along with any malfunction or degradation in FSTD functionality that is required to stimulate the upset.

3. FSTD Validation Envelope: For the purposes of this attachment, the term “flight envelope” refers to the entire domain in which the FSTD is capable of being flown with a degree of confidence that the FSTD responds similarly to the airplane. This envelope can be further divided into three subdivisions (see Appendix 3-D of the Airplane Upset Recovery Training Aid):

a. Flight test validated region: This is the region of the flight envelope which has been validated with flight test data, typically by comparing the performance of the FSTD against the flight test data through tests incorporated in the QTG and other flight test data utilized to further extend the model beyond the minimum requirements. Within this region, there is high confidence that the simulator responds similarly to the aircraft. Note that this region is not strictly limited to what has been tested in the QTG; as long as the aerodynamics mathematical model has been conformed to the flight test results, that portion of the mathematical model can be considered to be within the flight test validated region.

b. Wind tunnel and/or analytical region: This is the region of the flight envelope for which the FSTD has not been compared to flight test data, but for which there has been wind tunnel testing or the use of other reliable predictive methods (typically by the aircraft manufacturer) to define the aerodynamic model. Any extensions to the aerodynamic model that have been evaluated in accordance with the definition of an exemplar stall model (as described in the stall maneuver evaluation section) must be clearly indicated. Within this region, there is moderate confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft.

c. Extrapolated: This is the region extrapolated beyond the flight test validated and wind tunnel/analytical regions. The extrapolation may be a linear extrapolation, a holding of the last value before the extrapolation began, or some other set of values. Whether this extrapolated data is provided by the aircraft or simulator manufacturer, it is a “best guess” only. Within this region, there is low confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft. Brief excursions into this region may still retain a moderate confidence level in FSTD fidelity; however, the instructor should be aware that the FSTD's response may deviate from the actual aircraft.

4. Instructor Feedback Mechanism: For the instructor/evaluator to provide feedback to the student during UPRT maneuver training, additional information must be accessible that indicates the fidelity of the simulation, the magnitude of trainee's flight control inputs, and aircraft operational limits that could potentially affect the successful completion of the maneuver(s). At a minimum, the following must be available to the instructor/evaluator:

a. FSTD Validation Envelope: The FSTD must employ a method to display the FSTD's expected fidelity with respect to the FSTD validation envelope. This may be displayed as an angle of attack vs sideslip (alpha/beta) envelope cross-plot on the Instructor Operating System (IOS) or other alternate method to clearly convey the FSTD's fidelity level during the maneuver. The cross-plot or other alternative method must display the relevant validity regions for flaps up and flaps down at a minimum. This validation envelope must be derived by the aerodynamic data provider or derived using information and data sources provided by the original aerodynamic data provider.

b. Flight Control Inputs: The FSTD must employ a method for the instructor/evaluator to assess the trainee's flight control inputs during the upset recovery maneuver. Additional parameters, such as cockpit control forces (forces applied by the pilot to the controls) and the flight control law mode for fly-by-wire aircraft, must be portrayed in this feedback mechanism as well. For passive sidesticks, whose displacement is the flight control input, the force applied by the pilot to the controls does not need to be displayed. This tool must include a time history or other equivalent method of recording flight control positions.

c. Aircraft Operational Limits: The FSTD must employ a method to provide the instructor/evaluator with real-time information concerning the aircraft operating limits. The simulated aircraft's parameters must be displayed dynamically in real-time and also provided in a time history or equivalent format. At a minimum, the following parameters must be available to the instructor:

i. Airspeed and airspeed limits, including the stall speed and maximum operating limit airspeed (Vmo/Mmo);

ii. Load factor and operational load factor limits; and

iii. Angle of attack and the stall identification angle of attack. See section A, paragraph 4.b. of this attachment for additional information concerning the definition of the stall identification angle of attack. This parameter may be displayed in conjunction with the FSTD validation envelope.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

An example FSTD “alpha/beta” envelope display and IOS feedback mechanism are shown below in Figure 1 and Figure 2. The following examples are provided as guidance material on one possible method to display the required UPRT feedback parameters on an IOS display. FSTD sponsors may develop other methods and feedback mechanisms that provide the required parameters and support the training program objectives.

End Information

Begin QPS Requirements

C. Engine and Airframe Icing Evaluation (Table A1A, Section 2.j.)

1. Applicability: This section applies to all FSTDs that are used to satisfy training requirements for engine and airframe icing. New general requirements and objective requirements for simulator qualification have been developed to define aircraft specific icing models that support training objectives for the recognition and recovery from an in-flight ice accretion event.

2. General Requirements: The qualification of engine and airframe icing consists of the following elements that must be considered when developing ice accretion models for use in training:

a. Ice accretion models must be developed to account for training the specific skills required for recognition of ice accumulation and execution of the required response.

b. Ice accretion models must be developed in a manner to contain aircraft specific recognition cues as determined with aircraft OEM supplied data or other suitable analytical methods.

c. At least one qualified ice accretion model must be objectively tested to demonstrate that the model has been implemented correctly and generates the correct cues as necessary for training.

3. Statement of Compliance: The SOC as described in Table A1A, Section 2.j. must contain the following information to support FSTD qualification of aircraft specific ice accretion models:

a. A description of expected aircraft specific recognition cues and degradation effects due to a typical in-flight icing encounter. Typical cues may include loss of lift, decrease in stall angle of attack, changes in pitching moment, decrease in control effectiveness, and changes in control forces in addition to any overall increase in drag. This description must be based upon relevant source data, such as aircraft OEM supplied data, accident/incident data, or other acceptable data sources. Where a particular airframe has demonstrated vulnerabilities to a specific type of ice accretion (due to accident/incident history) which requires specific training (such as supercooled large-droplet icing or tailplane icing), ice accretion models must be developed that address the training requirements.

b. A description of the data sources utilized to develop the qualified ice accretion models. Acceptable data sources may be, but are not limited to, flight test data, aircraft certification data, aircraft OEM engineering simulation data, or other analytical methods based upon established engineering principles.

4. Objective Demonstration Testing: The purpose of the objective demonstration test is to demonstrate that the ice accretion models as described in the Statement of Compliance have been implemented correctly and demonstrate the proper cues and effects as defined in the approved data sources. At least one ice accretion model must be selected for testing and included in the Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG). Two tests are required to demonstrate engine and airframe icing effects. One test will demonstrate the FSTDs baseline performance without icing, and the second test will demonstrate the aerodynamic effects of ice accretion relative to the baseline test.

a. Recorded Parameters: In each of the two required MQTG cases, a time history recording must be made of the following parameters:

i. Altitude;

ii. Airspeed;

iii. Normal Acceleration;

iv. Engine Power/settings;

v. Angle of Attack/Pitch attitude;

vi. Bank Angle;

vii. Flight control inputs;

viii. Stall warning and stall buffet onset; and

ix. Other parameters as necessary to demonstrate the effects of ice accretions.

b. Demonstration maneuver: The FSTD sponsor must select an ice accretion model as identified in the SOC for testing. The selected maneuver must demonstrate the effects of ice accretion at high angles of attack from a trimmed condition through approach to stall and “full” stall as compared to a baseline (no ice buildup) test. The ice accretion models must demonstrate the cues necessary to recognize the onset of ice accretion on the airframe, lifting surfaces, and engines and provide representative degradation in performance and handling qualities to the extent that a recovery can be executed. Typical recognition cues that may be present depending upon the simulated aircraft include:

i. Decrease in stall angle of attack;

ii. Increase in stall speed;

iii. Increase in stall buffet threshold of perception speed;

iv. Changes in pitching moment;

v. Changes in stall buffet characteristics;

vi. Changes in control effectiveness or control forces; and

vii. Engine effects (power variation, vibration, etc.);

The demonstration test may be conducted by initializing and maintaining a fixed amount of ice accretion throughout the maneuver in order to consistently evaluate the aerodynamic effects.

End QPS Requirements

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18218, 18219, 18240, 18283, 18300, and 18303, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 32016 and 32066, May 20, 2016; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018, Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75711, Dec. 9, 2022; Amdt. No. 60-9, 90 FR 42525, Sept. 3, 2025]

Appendix B to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane Flight Training Devices

Begin Information

This appendix establishes the standards for Airplane FTD evaluation and qualification at Level 4, Level 5, Level 6, or Level 7. The Flight Standards Service, is responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office when conducting airplane FTD evaluations.

Table of Contents

1. Introduction

2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2).

3. Definitions (§ 60.3).

4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4).

5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5).

6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7).

7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9).

8. FTD Use (§ 60.11).

9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13).

10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FTD (§ 60.14).

11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15).

12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16).

13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17).

14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19).

15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20).

16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21).

17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23).

18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25).

19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27).

20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29).

21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31).

22. [Reserved]

23. [Reserved]

24. Levels of FTD.

25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37).

Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60—General FTD Requirements.

Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests.

Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective Evaluation.

Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Sample Documents.

End Information

1. Introduction

Begin Information

b. [Reserved]

d. Related Reading References.

(1) 14 CFR part 60.

(2) 14 CFR part 61.

(3) 14 CFR part 63.

(4) 14 CFR part 119.

(5) 14 CFR part 121.

(6) 14 CFR part 125.

(7) 14 CFR part 135.

(8) 14 CFR part 141.

(9) 14 CFR part 142.

(10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III Landing Weather Minima.

(11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.

(12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line Operational Evaluation.

(13) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.

(14) AC 120-45, as amended, Airplane Flight Training Device Qualification.

(14) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS).

(15) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.

(16) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.

(17) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.

(18) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.

(19) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting System.

(20) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems.

(21) International Air Transport Association document, “Flight Simulation Training Device Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended.

(22) AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes.

(23) AC 23-8A, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes.

(24) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training Devices, as amended.

(25) Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training Device Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK.

(26) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.

(27) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.

(28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).

(29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as amended).

End Information

2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to § 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to person who are not sponsors and who are engaged in certain unauthorized activities.

3. Definitions (§ 60.3)

See appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and abbreviations from part 1, part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60.

4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4)

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5)

Additional regulatory material and informational material regarding Quality Management Systems for FTDs may be found in appendix E of this part.

End Information

6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements. (§ 60.7).

Begin Information

a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is to have a specific FTD, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated during the 12-month period described. The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FTD periods required.

b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:

(1) Example One.

(a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FTD for its own use, in its own facility or elsewhere— this single FTD forms the basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FTD at least once in each 12-month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated. This 12-month period is established according to the following schedule:

(i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May 30, 2008, the 12-month period begins on the date of the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted in accordance with § 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for each subsequent 12-month period;

(ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.

(b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.

(c) The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed period.

(2) Example Two.

(a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FTDs, in its facility or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FTD must be—

(i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or

(iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after having flown the airplane, not the subject FTD or another FTD, during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FTD's performance and handling qualities represent the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.

(b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.

(3) Example Three.

(a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes “satellite” training centers in Chicago and Moscow.

(c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the certificate holder does not have and use FAA-approved flight training programs for the FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) because—

(i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and each FTD in the Moscow center is used at least once each 12-month period by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or

(ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown the airplane, not the subject FTD or another FTD during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of each FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the airplane (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)).

End Information

7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9)

Begin Information

The phrase “as soon as practicable” in § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FTD.

8. FTD Use (§ 60.11)

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.11, FTD use.

End Information

9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. Flight test data used to validate FTD performance and handling qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test program containing the following:

(1) A flight test plan consisting of:

(a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification and simulation programming and validation.

(b) For each maneuver or procedure—

(i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or engineer used.

(ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.

(iii) The initial flight conditions.

(iv) The airplane configuration, including weight and center of gravity.

(v) The data to be gathered.

(vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test conditions in the FTD.

(2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.

(4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.

b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:

(1) In a format that supports the FTD validation process;

(2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and completely;

(3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table B2A, Appendix B;

(4) With any necessary guidance information provided; and

d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an addition to or a revision of the flight related data or airplane systems related data is available if this data is used to program and operate a qualified FTD. The data referred to in this sub-section are those data that are used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type certification is issued. The sponsor must—

(1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of the existence of this data; and

(2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of—

(i) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FTD; or

(ii) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FTD.

e. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test results” in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the person having supplied the aircraft data package for the FTD in order to facilitate the notification described in this paragraph.

g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Appendix A, Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Airplanes) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other information such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used, or where flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document.

h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an FTD evaluation. It is for this reason that the responsible Flight Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FTD and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests.

i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

End Information

10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FTD (§ 60.14).

Begin Information

a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. Examples of special equipment include flight control measurement devices, accelerometers, or oscilloscopes. Examples of specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to install or use any special equipment when its use is required.

b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted after: An FTD is moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a result of comments received from users of the FTD that raise questions about the continued qualification or use of the FTD.

End Information

11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15).

Begin QPS Requirement

a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the FTD must:

(1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this appendix;

(2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix (Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests); and

(3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix.

b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must include all of the following:

(1) A statement that the FTD meets all of the applicable provisions of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.

(3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following:

(a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another approved source.

(b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FTD as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.

(d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification evaluations.

c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of this section, must provide the documented proof of compliance with the FTD objective tests in Attachment 2, Table B2A of this appendix.

d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by the sponsor, or the sponsor?s agent on behalf of the sponsor, to the responsible Flight Standards office for review and approval, and must include, for each objective test:

(1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions;

(2) Pertinent and complete instructions for conducting automatic and manual tests;

(3) A means of comparing the FTD test results to the objective data;

(4) Any other information as necessary to assist in the evaluation of the test results;

(5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the FTD.

e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, must include the following:

(1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks (see Attachment 4, Figure B4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover page).

(2) [Reserved]

(3) An FTD information page that provides the information listed in this paragraph, if applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure B4B, of this appendix, for a sample FTD information page). For convertible FTDs, the sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FTD.

(a) The sponsor's FTD identification number or code.

(b) The airplane model and series being simulated.

(d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic coefficient data used to modify the basic model.

(e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.

(f) The flight control data revision number or reference.

(g) The flight management system identification and revision level.

(h) The FTD model and manufacturer.

(i) The date of FTD manufacture.

(j) The FTD computer identification.

(k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display type.

(l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of freedom.

(4) A Table of Contents.

(5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.

(6) List of all relevant data references.

(7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions and units).

(8) Statements of compliance and capability (SOCs) with certain requirements.

(9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the objective tests.

(10) The following information for each objective test designated in Attachment 2 of this appendix, as applicable to the qualification level sought:

(a) Name of the test.

(b) Objective of the test.

(d) Manual test procedures.

(e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).

(f) Method for evaluating FTD objective test results.

(g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the automatic test(s).

(h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the manual test(s).

(i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.

(j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).

(k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent data location must be provided).

(l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a product of the device being tested.

f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a separate FTD for each model and series airplane to which it will be converted and for the FAA qualification level sought. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models of an airplane type using a convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide a QTG for each airplane model, or a QTG for the first airplane model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional airplane model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations for each airplane model.

g. The form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the QTG must include the following:

(1) The sponsor's FTD test results must be recorded in a manner acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that allows easy comparison of the FTD test results to the validation data (e.g., use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer, cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).

(2) FTD results must be labeled using terminology common to airplane parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.

(3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or resolution.

(4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table B2A of this appendix.

(5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FTD test results must be clearly marked with appropriate reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between FTD and airplane with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line printer are to be clearly identified for cross-plotting on the airplane data. Over-plots may not obscure the reference data.

h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's training facility (or other sponsor designated location where training will take place). If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FTD performance. The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at the sponsor's designated training facility must be conducted after the FTD is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office.

i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FTD location.

j. All FTDs for which the initial qualification is conducted after May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FTD (reformatted or digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain the general FTD performance or demonstration results (reformatted or digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the original validation data used to validate FTD performance and handling qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office.

k. All other FTDs (not covered in subparagraph “j”) must have an electronic copy of the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the copy of the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor must also provide a person knowledgeable about the operation of the aircraft and the operation of the FTD.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F will be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. However, other FTD evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with applicable agreements.

n. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration, and each FTD must be evaluated as completely as possible. To ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, each FTD is subjected to the general FTD requirements in Attachment 1 of this appendix, the objective tests listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The evaluations described herein will include, but not necessarily be limited to the following:

(1) Airplane responses, including longitudinal and lateral-directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);

(2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated airplane's operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing, as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);

(3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix);

(4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix);

(5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix);

(6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to the airplane simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix);

(7) FTD systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix); and

o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective and subjective tests, which includes an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative assessment of the FTD by a pilot from the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests performed during an evaluation when required.

(1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FTD performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this part.

(2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:

(a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period;

(b) Determining that the FTD satisfactorily simulates each required task;

(d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.

p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office for FTD validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances specified for FTD manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each test.

q. In addition to the scheduled continuing qualification evaluation, each FTD is subject to evaluations conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office at any time without prior notification to the sponsor. Such evaluations would be accomplished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring exclusive use of the FTD for the conduct of objective and subjective tests and an examination of functions) if the FTD is not being used for flight crewmember training, testing, or checking. However, if the FTD were being used, the evaluation would be conducted in a non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive evaluation will be conducted by the FTD evaluator accompanying the check airman, instructor, Aircrew Program Designee (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FTD along with the student(s) and observing the operation of the FTD during the training, testing, or checking activities.

r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:

(1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the QTG may be amended.

(2) If it is determined that the results of an objective test do not support the qualification level requested but do support a lower level, the responsible Flight Standards office may qualify the FTD at a lower level. For example, if a Level 6 evaluation is requested, but the FTD fails to meet the spiral stability test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level 5.

s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight Standards office issues an SOQ to the sponsor, the responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FTD to the TPAA, who will approve the FTD for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table B1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program.

t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, Figure B4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation, of this appendix.

u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FTD Objective Tests, Table B2A, of this appendix.

v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d).

w. Examples of the exclusions for which the FTD might not have been subjectively tested by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office and for which qualification might not be sought or granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include engine out maneuvers or circling approaches.

12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16).

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FTD.

End Information

13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17).

Begin QPS Requirements

a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FTD from active status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures apply:

(1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that the FTD will be inactive;

(2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled during the inactive period;

(3) The responsible Flight Standards office will remove the FTD from the list of qualified FTDs on a mutually established date not later than the date on which the first missed continuing qualification evaluation would have been scheduled;

(4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified status, it must be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation content and the time required to accomplish the evaluation is based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity.

(5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service;

b. FTDs qualified prior to May 31, 2016, and replacement FTD systems, are not required to meet the general FTD requirements, the objective test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of Attachments 1, 2, and 3 of this appendix as long as the FTD continues to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original qualification basis.

c. [Reserved]

d. FTDs qualified prior to May 31, 2016, may be updated. If an evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the FTD was originally qualified.

e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FTD may contract with FTD sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at a particular level for an airplane type and approved for use within an FAA-approved flight training program. Such FTDs are not required to undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in § 60.16.

f. Each FTD user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to use any FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program.

g. The intent of the requirement listed in § 60.17(b), for each FTD to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FTD inventory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis for the FTD.

h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent change in qualification level and will necessitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to reflect the revised qualification level, as appropriate. If a temporary restriction is placed on an FTD because of a missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative component or on-going repairs, the restriction is not a permanent change in qualification level. Instead, the restriction is temporary and is removed when the reason for the restriction has been resolved.

i. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine the evaluation criteria for an FTD that has been removed from active status for a prolonged period. The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FTD were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been missed. The responsible Flight Standards office will also consider how the FTD was stored, whether parts were removed from the FTD and whether the FTD was disassembled.

j. The FTD will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require re-qualification under the standards in effect and current at the time of requalification.

End Information

14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification, Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19).

Begin QPS Requirement

a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections throughout the year. The objective test sequence and content of each inspection in this sequence must be developed by the sponsor and must be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

b. The description of the functional preflight check must be contained in the sponsor's QMS.

c. Record “functional preflight” in the FTD discrepancy log book or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

e. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly inspection required in § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:

(1) Performance.

(2) Handling qualities.

(3) Motion system (where appropriate).

(4) Visual system (where appropriate).

(5) Sound system (where appropriate).

(6) Other FTD systems.

f. If the evaluator plans to accomplish specific tests during a normal continuing qualification evaluation that requires the use of special equipment or technicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in advance of the evaluation as practical; but not less than 72 hours. Examples of such tests include latencies, control sweeps, or motion or visual system tests.

g. The continuing qualification evaluations described in § 60.19(b) will normally require 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexibility is necessary to address abnormal situations or situations involving aircraft with additional levels of complexity (e.g., computer controlled aircraft). The sponsor should anticipate that some tests may require additional time. The continuing qualification evaluations will consist of the following:

(1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation.

(2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 objective tests from the MQTG that provide an adequate opportunity to evaluate the performance of the FTD. The tests chosen will be performed either automatically or manually and should be able to be conducted within approximately one-third (1/3) of the allotted FTD time.

(3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to perform a representative sampling of the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appendix. This portion of the evaluation should take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of the allotted FTD time.

(4) An examination of the functions of the FTD may include the motion system, visual system, sound system as applicable, instructor operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the airplane systems. This examination is normally accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

h. The requirement established in § 60.19(b)(4) regarding the frequency of responsible Flight Standards office-conducted continuing qualification evaluations for each FTD is typically 12 months. However, the establishment and satisfactory implementation of an approved QMS for a sponsor will provide a basis for adjusting the frequency of evaluations to exceed 12-month intervals.

15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20)

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.20. Logging FTD Discrepancies.

16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21)

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Models.

End Information

17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) must include a complete description of the planned modification, with a description of the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will have on the operation of the FTD and the results that are expected with the modification incorporated.

b. Prior to using the modified FTD:

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

c. FSTD Directives are considered modification of an FTD. See Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD Directives.

End Information

18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25)

Begin Information

a. The sponsor's responsibility with respect to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fairly and accurately advises the user of the current status of an FTD, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) component(s).

c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend the deadline until the next business day.

d. In accordance with the authorization described in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FTD. Repairs having a larger impact on the FTD's ability to provide the required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority for repair or replacement.

End Information

19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27)

Begin Information

If the sponsor provides a plan for how the FTD will be maintained during its out-of-service period (e.g., periodic exercise of mechanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; control of the environmental factors in which the FTD is to be maintained) there is a greater likelihood that the responsible Flight Standards office will be able to determine the amount of testing that required for requalification.

End Information

20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29)

Begin Information

End Information

21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (§ 60.31)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. FTD modifications can include hardware or software changes. For FTD modifications involving software programming changes, the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must consist of the name of the aircraft system software, aerodynamic model, or engine model change, the date of the change, a summary of the change, and the reason for the change.

End QPS Requirements

22. [Reserved]

23. [Reserved]

24. Levels of FTD.

Begin Information

a. The following is a general description of each level of FTD. Detailed standards and tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this appendix.

(1) Level 4. A device that may have an open airplane-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck and at least one operating system. Air/ground logic is required (no aerodynamic programming required). All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. All controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation (not capable of manual manipulation of the flight controls) or may physically replicate the aircraft in control operation.

(2) Level 5. A device that may have an open airplane-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck; generic aerodynamic programming; at least one operating system; and control loading that is representative of the simulated airplane only at an approach speed and configuration. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. Primary and secondary flight controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, flaps, spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, landing gear, nosewheel steering, trim, brakes) must be physical controls. All other controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation.

(3) Level 6. A device that has an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck; airplane-specific aerodynamic programming; all applicable airplane systems operating; control loading that is representative of the simulated airplane throughout its ground and flight envelope; and significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the aircraft in control operation.

End Information

(4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all applicable airplane systems operating and control loading that is representative of the simulated airplane throughout its ground and flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the aircraft in control operation. It also has a visual system that provides an out-of-the-flight deck view, providing cross-flight deck viewing (for both pilots simultaneously) of a field-of-view of at least 180° horizontally and 40° vertically.

25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.37, FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA).

End Information

Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60—General FTD REQUIREMENTS

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Requirements

a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “General FTD Requirements” column in Table B1A of this appendix.

b. Table B1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of FTD. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed the requirements outlined in this section. In any event, all systems will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper operation.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

2. Discussion

a. This attachment describes the general requirements for qualifying Level 4 through Level 6 FTDs. The sponsor should also consult the objectives tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix to determine the complete requirements for a specific level FTD.

b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the following categories:

(1) General Flight deck Configuration.

(2) Programming.

(3) Equipment Operation.

(4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.

(5) Motion System.

(6) Visual System.

(7) Sound System.

c. Table B1A provides the standards for the General FTD Requirements.

d. Table B1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to determine whether the FTD satisfactorily meets the requirements for flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks for which the simulator may be qualified.

e. Table B1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman must be able to control in the simulator.

f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial or continuing qualification evaluation.

End Information

Table B1C—Table of FTD System Tasks QPS requirements

QPS Requirements | Information

Entry No. | Subjective Requirements In order to be qualified at the FTD qualification level indicated, the FTD must be able to perform at least the tasks associated with that level of qualification. | FTD level | Notes

4 | 5 | 6

1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS).

1.a. | Power switch(es) | X | X | X

1.b. | Airplane conditions | A | X | X | e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading, Systems, Ground Crew.

1.c. | Airports/Runways | X | X | X | e.g., Selection and Presets; Surface and Lighting controls if equipped with a visual system.

1.d. | Environmental controls | X | X | X | e.g., Temp, Wind.

1.e. | Airplane system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion) | A | X | X

1.f. | Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning | X | X | X

1.g. | Sound Controls. (On/off/adjustment) | X | X | X

1.h. | Motion/Control Loading System, as appropriate. On/off/emergency stop | A | A | A

2. Observer Seats/Stations.

2.a. | Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system | X | X | X

Note 1: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure, although not required to be present, may be examined if the appropriate system is in the FTD and is working properly.

Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests

Begin Information

1. Discussion

a. For the purposes of this attachment, the flight conditions specified in the Flight Conditions Column of Table B2A, are defined as follows:

(1) Ground—on ground, independent of airplane configuration;

(2) Take-off—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position;

(3) First segment climb—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position (normally not above 50 ft AGL);

(4) Second segment climb—gear up with flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position (normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL);

(5) Clean—flaps/slats retracted and gear up;

(6) Cruise—clean configuration at cruise altitude and airspeed;

(7) Approach—gear up or down with flaps/slats at any normal approach position as recommended by the airplane manufacturer; and

(8) Landing—gear down with flaps/slats in any certified landing position.

c. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and FAA AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

e. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective tests and therefore, Level 4 is not addressed in the following table.

End Information

Begin QPS Requirements

2. Test Requirements

a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed in Table B2A Objective Tests. Computer generated FTD test results must be provided for each test except where an alternate test is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the airplane being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine out missed approach for a single-engine airplane; a maneuver using reverse thrust for an airplane without reverse thrust capability). Each test result is compared against the validation data described in § 60.13, and in Appendix B. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include FTD number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table B2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given.

b. Table B2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for FTD validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to FTD performance. When two tolerance values are given for a parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.

c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with a SOC. In Table B2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “Test Details” column.

d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making assessments for flight test data applications for FTD validity, such judgment may not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations or a “best fit” data section. All relevant parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match FTD to airplane data throughout a time history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition being assessed.

e. It is not acceptable to program the FTD so that the mathematical modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless otherwise noted, FTD tests must represent airplane performance and handling qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. FTD tests at extreme weight or CG conditions may be acceptable where required for concurrent aircraft certification testing. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices.

g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must clearly describe how the FTD will be set up and operated for each test. Each FTD subsystem may be tested independently, but overall integrated testing of the FTD must be accomplished to assure that the total FTD system meets the prescribed standards. A manual test procedure with explicit and detailed steps for completing each test must also be provided.

h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests and tolerances of this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standards office and has received responsible Flight Standards office approval.

i. FTDs are evaluated and qualified with an engine model simulating the airplane data supplier's flight test engine. For qualification of alternative engine models (either variations of the flight test engines or other manufacturer's engines) additional tests with the alternative engine models may be required. This attachment contains guidelines for alternative engines.

j. Testing Computer Controlled Aircraft (CCA) simulators, or other highly augmented airplane simulators, flight test data is required for the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal (NN) control states, as indicated in this attachment. Where test results are independent of control state, Normal or Non-normal control data may be used. All tests in Table B2A require test results in the Normal control state unless specifically noted otherwise in the Test Details section following the CCA designation. The responsible Flight Standards office will determine what tests are appropriate for airplane simulation data. When making this determination, the responsible Flight Standards office may require other levels of control state degradation for specific airplane tests. Where Non-normal control states are required, test data must be provided for one or more Non-normal control states, and must include the least augmented state. Where applicable, flight test data must record Normal and Non-normal states for:

(1) Pilot controller deflections or electronically generated inputs, including location of input; and

(2) Flight control surface positions unless test results are not affected by, or are independent of, surface positions.

k. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. FTDs for highly augmented airplanes will be validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is necessary. Requirements for testing will be mutually agreed to between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case basis.

l. Some tests will not be required for airplanes using airplane hardware in the FTD flight deck (e.g., “side stick controller”). These exceptions are noted in Section 2 “Handling Qualities” in Table B2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a statement that the airplane hardware meets the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards office review.

m. For objective test purposes, see Appendix F of this part for the definitions of “Near maximum,” “Light,” and “Medium” gross weight.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

n. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test results” in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot.

o. Refer to AC 120-27, “Aircraft Weight and Balance” and FAA-H-8083-1, “Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook” for more information.

End Information

Begin Information

3. For additional information on the following topics, please refer to Appendix A, Attachment 2, and the indicated paragraph within that attachment

• Control Dynamics, paragraph 4.

• Motion System, paragraph 6.

• Sound System, paragraph 7.

• Engineering Simulator Validation Data, paragraph 9.

• Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph 11.

• Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12.

• Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data, paragraph 13.

• Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics, paragraph 14.

• Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15.

• Continuing Qualification Evaluation Validation Data Presentation, paragraph 16.

End Information

4. Alternative Objective Data for FTD Level 5

Begin QPS Requirements

a. This paragraph (including the following tables) is relevant only to FTD Level 5. It is provided because this level is required to simulate the performance and handling characteristics of a set of airplanes with similar characteristics, such as normal airspeed/altitude operating envelope and the same number and type of propulsion systems (engines).

b. Tables B2B through B2E reflect FTD performance standards that are acceptable to the FAA. A sponsor must demonstrate that a device performs within these parameters, as applicable. If a device does not meet the established performance parameters for some or for all of the applicable tests listed in Tables B2B through B2E, the sponsor may use FAA accepted flight test data for comparison purposes for those tests.

c. Sponsors using the data from Tables B2B through B2E must comply with the following:

(1) Submit a complete QTG, including results from all of the objective tests appropriate for the level of qualification sought as set out in Table B2A. The QTG must highlight those results that demonstrate the performance of the FTD is within the allowable performance ranges indicated in Tables B2B through B2E, as appropriate.

(2) The QTG test results must include all relevant information concerning the conditions under which the test was conducted; e.g., gross weight, center of gravity, airspeed, power setting, altitude (climbing, descending, or level), temperature, configuration, and any other parameter that impacts the conduct of the test.

(3) The test results become the validation data against which the initial and all subsequent continuing qualification evaluations are compared. These subsequent evaluations will use the tolerances listed in Table B2A.

(4) Subjective testing of the device must be performed to determine that the device performs and handles like an airplane within the appropriate set of airplanes.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

d. The reader is encouraged to consult the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and AC 25-7, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8A, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, as amended, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

End Information

End QPS Requirements

Begin QPS Requirements

5. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level 6 FTD Only

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

b. It has become standard practice for experienced FTD manufacturers to use such techniques as a means of establishing data bases for new FTD configurations while awaiting the availability of actual flight test data; and then comparing this new data with the newly available flight test data. The results of such comparisons have, as reported by some recognized and experienced simulation experts, become increasingly consistent and indicate that these techniques, applied with appropriate experience, are becoming dependably accurate for the development of aerodynamic models for use in Level 6 FTDs.

c. In reviewing this history, the responsible Flight Standards office has concluded that, with proper care, those who are experienced in the development of aerodynamic models for FTD application can successfully use these modeling techniques to acceptably alter the method by which flight test data may be acquired and, when applied to Level 6 FTDs, does not compromise the quality of that simulation.

d. The information in the table that follows (Table of Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Information: Level 6 FTD Only) is presented to describe an acceptable alternative to data sources for Level 6 FTD modeling and validation, and an acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation found in the flight test methods traditionally accepted for gathering modeling and validation data.

(2) The responsible Flight Standards office recommends that use of the alternative instrumentation noted in Table B2F be coordinated with the responsible Flight Standards office prior to employment in a flight test or data gathering effort.

e. The responsible Flight Standards office position regarding the use of these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based on three primary preconditions and presumptions regarding the objective data and FTD aerodynamic program modeling.

(1) Data gathered through the alternative means does not require angle of attack (AOA) measurements or control surface position measurements for any flight test. AOA can be sufficiently derived if the flight test program insures the collection of acceptable level, unaccelerated, trimmed flight data. Angle of attack may be validated by conducting the three basic “fly-by” trim tests. The FTD time history tests should begin in level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, and the results should be compared with the flight test pitch angle.

(2) A simulation controls system model should be rigorously defined and fully mature. It should also include accurate gearing and cable stretch characteristics (where applicable) that are determined from actual aircraft measurements. Such a model does not require control surface position measurements in the flight test objective data for Level 6 FTD applications.

f. Table B2F is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft FTDs.

g. Utilization of these alternate data sources, procedures, and instrumentation does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level 6 FTDs.

h. The term “inertial measurement system” allows the use of a functional global positioning system (GPS).

End Information

Table B2F—Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation Level 6 FTD

QPS Requirements The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix B are not used. | Information

Objective test reference number and title | Alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation | Notes

1.b.1. Performance. Takeoff. Ground acceleration time. | Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand-record the flight conditions and airplane configuration | This test is required only if RTO is sought.

1.b.7. Performance. Takeoff. Rejected takeoff. | Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand-record the flight conditions and airplane configuration | This test is required only if RTO is sought.

1.c.1. Performance. Climb. Normal climb all engines operating. | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments and engine power throughout the climb range

1.f.1. Performance. Engines. Acceleration | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine instruments and throttle position

1.f.2. Performance. Engines. Deceleration | Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine instruments and throttle position

2.a.1.a. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Pitch controller position vs. force and surface position calibration | Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant column positions (encompassing significant column position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same column position data points. | For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.

2.a.2.a. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Wheel position vs. force and surface position calibration. | Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant wheel positions (encompassing significant wheel position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same wheel position data points. | For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.

2.a.3.a. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Rudder pedal position vs. force and surface position calibration. | Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant rudder pedal positions (encompassing significant rudder pedal position data points), acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same rudder pedal position data points. | For airplanes with reversible control systems, surface position data acquisition should be accomplished with winds less than 5 kts.

2.a.4. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Nosewheel steering force. | Breakout data may be acquired with a hand held force gauge. The remainder of the force to the stops may be calculated if the force gauge and a protractor are used to measure force after breakout for at least 25% of the total displacement capability

2.a.5. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Rudder pedal steering calibration. | Data may be acquired through the use of force pads on the rudder pedals and a pedal position measurement device, together with design data for nosewheel position

2.a.6. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Pitch trim indicator vs. surface position calibration. | Data may be acquired through calculations

2.a.8. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Alignment of power lever angle vs. selected engine parameter (e.g., EPR, N1, Torque, Manifold pressure). | Data may be acquired through the use of a temporary throttle quadrant scale to document throttle position. Use a synchronized video to record steady state instrument readings or hand-record steady state engine performance readings

2.a.9. Handling qualities. Static control tests. Brake pedal position vs. force. | Use of design or predicted data is acceptable. Data may be acquired by measuring deflection at “zero” and at “maximum.”

2.c.1. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Power change force. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments, throttle position, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls | Power change dynamics test is acceptable using the same data acquisition methodology.

2.c.2. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Flap/slat change force. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, flap/slat position, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls | Flap/slat change dynamics test is acceptable using the same data acquisition methodology.

2.c.4. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Gear change force. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments, gear position, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls | Gear change dynamics test is acceptable using the same data acquisition methodology.

2.c.5. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal trim. | Data may be acquired through use of an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of flight deck controls position (previously calibrated to show related surface position) and engine instrument readings

2.c.6. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal maneuvering stability (stick force/g). | Data may be acquired through the use of an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments; a temporary, high resolution bank angle scale affixed to the attitude indicator; and a wheel and column force measurement indication

2.c.7. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Longitudinal static stability | Data may be acquired through the use of a synchronized video of the airplane flight instruments and a hand held force gauge

2.c.8. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Stall Warning (activation of stall warning device). | Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand-record the flight conditions and airplane configuration | Airspeeds may be cross checked with those in the TIR and AFM.

2.c.9.a. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Phugoid dynamics. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.c.10. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Short period dynamics. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.c.11. Handling qualities. Longitudinal control tests. Gear and flap/slat operating times. | May use design data, production flight test schedule, or maintenance specification, together with an SOC

2.d.2. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Roll response (rate). | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls

2.d.3. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. (a) Roll overshoot. OR (b) Roll response to flight deck roll controller step input. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls

2.d.4. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Spiral stability. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments; the force/position measurements of flight deck controls; and a stop watch

2.d.6.a. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Rudder response. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments; the force/position measurements of rudder pedals

2.d.7. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Dutch roll, (yaw damper OFF). | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.d.8. Handling qualities. Lateral directional tests. Steady state sideslip. | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective Evaluation

Begin Information

1. Discussion

a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period. The items listed in the Table of Functions and Subjective Tests are used to determine whether the FTD competently simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems. The tasks do not limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of FTD as described on the SOQ or as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are subject to examination.

b. All simulated airplane systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Simulated airplane systems are listed separately under “Any Flight Phase” to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation.

c. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the FTD for a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include a portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario) or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the qualification of the FTD.

End Information

Table B3A—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 6 FTD

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks

Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane system or systems simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.

1. Preflight

Accomplish a functions check of all installed switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at all crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and determine that the flight deck (or flight deck area) design and functions replicate the appropriate airplane.

2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)

2.a. | Engine start:

2.a.1. | Normal start.

2.a.2. | Alternative procedures start.

2.a.3. | Abnormal procedures start/shut down.

2.b. | Pushback/Powerback (powerback requires visual system).

3. Takeoff (requires appropriate visual system as set out in Table B1A, item 6; Appendix B, Attachment 1.)

3.a. | Instrument takeoff:

3.a.1. | Engine checks (e.g., engine parameter relationships, propeller/mixture controls).

3.a.2. | Acceleration characteristics.

3.a.3. | Nosewheel/rudder steering.

3.a.4. | Landing gear, wing flap, leading edge device operation.

3.b. | Rejected takeoff:

3.b.1. | Deceleration characteristics.

3.b.2. | Brakes/engine reverser/ground spoiler operation.

3.b.3. | Nosewheel/rudder steering.

4. In-Flight Operations

4.a. | Normal climb.

4.b. | Cruise:

4.b.1. | Demonstration of performance characteristics (speed vs. power).

4.b.2. | Normal turns.

4.b.3. | Demonstration of high altitude handling.

4.b.4. | Demonstration of high airspeed handling/overspeed warning.

4.b.5. | Demonstration of Mach effects on control and trim.

4.b.6. | Steep turns.

4.b.7. | In-Flight engine shutdown (procedures only).

4.b.8. | In-Flight engine restart (procedures only).

4.b.9. | Specific flight characteristics.

4.b.10. | Response to loss of flight control power.

4.b.11. | Response to other flight control system failure modes.

4.b.12. | Operations during icing conditions.

4.b.13. | Effects of airframe/engine icing.

4.c. | Other flight phase:

4.c.1. | Approach to stalls in the following configurations:

4.c.1.a. | Cruise.

4.c.1.b. | Takeoff or approach.

4.c.1.c. | Landing.

4.c.2. | High angle of attack maneuvers in the following configurations:

4.c.2.a. | Cruise.

4.c.2.b. | Takeoff or approach.

4.c.2.c. | Landing.

4.c.3. | Slow flight.

4.c.4. | Holding.

5. Approaches

5.a. | Non-precision Instrument Approaches:

5.a.1. | With use of autopilot and autothrottle, as applicable.

5.a.2. | Without use of autopilot and autothrottle, as applicable.

5.a.3. | With 10 knot tail wind.

5.a.4. | With 10 knot crosswind.

5.b. | Precision Instrument Approaches:

5.b.1. | With use of autopilot, autothrottle, and autoland, as applicable.

5.b.2. | Without use of autopilot, autothrottle, and autoland, as applicable.

5.b.3. | With 10 knot tail wind.

5.b.4. | With 10 knot crosswind.

6. Missed Approach

6.a. | Manually controlled.

6.b. | Automatically controlled (if applicable).

7. Any Flight Phase, as appropriate

7.a. | Normal system operation (installed systems).

7.b. | Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).

7.c. | Flap operation.

7.d. | Landing gear operation.

7.e. | Engine Shutdown and Parking.

7.e.1. | Systems operation.

7.e.2. | Parking brake operation.

8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate. Functions in this section are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the airplane and/or installed on the specific FTD involved

8.a. | Power Switch(es).

8.b. | Airplane conditions.

8.b.1. | Gross weight, center of gravity, and fuel loading and allocation.

8.b.2. | Airplane systems status.

8.b.3. | Ground crew functions (e.g., external power, push back).

8.c. | Airports.

8.c.1. | Selection.

8.c.2. | Runway selection.

8.c.3. | Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).

8.d. | Environmental controls.

8.d.1. | Temperature.

8.d.2. | Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).

8.d.3. | Wind speed and direction.

8.e. | Airplane system malfunctions.

8.e.1. | Insertion/deletion.

8.e.2. | Problem clear.

8.f. | Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.

8.f.1. | Problem (all) freeze/release.

8.f.2. | Position (geographic) freeze/release.

8.f.3. | Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).

8.f.4. | Ground speed control.

8.f.5. | Remote IOS, if installed.

9. Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment

10. Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.

11. Observer Stations.

11.a. | Position.

11.b. | Adjustments.

End QPS Requirements

Table B3B—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 5 FTD

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane system or systems simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.

1. Preflight

2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)

2.a. | Engine start (if installed):

2.a.1. | Normal start.

2.a.2. | Alternative procedures start.

2.a.3. | Abnormal/Emergency procedures start/shut down.

3. In-Flight Operations

3.a. | Normal climb.

3.b. | Cruise:

3.b.1. | Performance characteristics (speed vs. power).

3.b.2. | Normal turns.

3.c. | Normal descent.

4. Approaches

4.a. | Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as applicable for the systems installed).

5. Any Flight Phase

5.a. | Normal system operation (Installed systems).

5.b. | Abnormal/Emergency system operation (Installed systems).

5.c. | Flap operation.

5.d. | Landing gear operation

5.e. | Engine Shutdown and Parking (if installed).

5.e.1. | Systems operation.

5.e.2. | Parking brake operation.

6. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)

6.a. | Power Switch(es).

6.b. | Preset positions—ground, air.

6.c. | Airplane system malfunctions (Installed systems).

6.c.1. | Insertion/deletion.

6.c.2. | Problem clear.

Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Sample Documents

Begin Information

Table of Contents

Title of Sample

Figure B4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation

Figure B4B Attachment: FTD Information Form

Figure B4C Sample Letter of Compliance

Figure B4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page

Figure B4E Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate

Figure B4F Sample Statement of Qualification—Configuration List

Figure B4G Sample Statement of Qualification—List of Qualified Tasks

Figure B4H [Reserved]

Figure B4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FTD Directives

Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Figure B4A—Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Figure B4C—Sample Letter of Compliance

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Figure B4D—Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60— Figure B4E—Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—Figure B4H [Reserved]

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2014-0391, Amdt. 60-4, 81 FR 18306, 18307, 18327, and 18376, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 32087, 32110, 32111, and 32165, May 20, 2016; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75771, Dec. 9, 2022; Amdt. No. 60-9, 90 FR 42525, Sept. 3, 2025]

Appendix C to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for Helicopter Full Flight Simulators

Begin Information

This appendix establishes the standards for Helicopter FFS evaluation and qualification. The Flight Standards Service is responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office when conducting helicopter FFS evaluations.

Table of Contents

1. Introduction.

2. Applicability (§ 60.1) and (§ 60.2).

3. Definitions (§ 60.3).

4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4).

5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5).

6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7).

7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9).

8. FFS Use (§ 60.11).

9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13).

10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FFS (§ 60.14).

11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15).

12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (§ 60.16).

13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17).

14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19).

15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20).

16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21).

17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23).

18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25).

19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27).

20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29).

21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31).

22. [Reserved]

23. [Reserved]

24. [Reserved]

25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37).

Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60—General Simulator Requirements.

Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60—FFS Objective Tests.

Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60—Simulator Subjective Evaluation.

Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Sample Documents.

Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60—FSTD Directives Applicable to Helicopter FFSs

End Information

1. Introduction

Begin Information

b. [Reserved]

d. Related Reading References.

(1) 14 CFR part 60.

(2) 14 CFR part 61.

(3) 14 CFR part 63.

(4) 14 CFR part 119.

(5) 14 CFR part 121.

(6) 14 CFR part 125.

(7) 14 CFR part 135.

(8) 14 CFR part 141.

(9) 14 CFR part 142.

(10) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line Operational Evaluation.

(11) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS).

(12) AC 120-63, as amended, Helicopter Simulator Qualification.

(13) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.

(14) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.

(15) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.

(16) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.

(17) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting System.

(18) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems

(19) AC 150/5390-2, as amended, Heliport Design

(20) International Air Transport Association document, “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended.

(21) AC 29-2, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Rotorcraft.

(22) AC 27-1, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Normal Category Rotorcraft.

(23) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended.

(24) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK.

(25) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.

(26) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.

(27) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, titled Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).

(28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as amended).

End Information

2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2)

Begin Information

End Information

3. Definitions (§ 60.3)

Begin Information

See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and abbreviations from part 1 and part 60, including the appropriate appendices of part 60.

End Information

4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

End Information

5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5)

Begin Information

See Appendix E of this part for additional regulatory and informational material regarding Quality Management Systems.

End Information

6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7)

Begin Information

a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is to have a specific FFS, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated during the 12-month period described. The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FFS periods required.

b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:

(1) Example One.

(a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FFS for its own use, in its own facility or elsewhere—this single FFS forms the basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FFS at least once in each 12-month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated. This 12-month period is established according to the following schedule:

(ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.

(b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.

(c) The identification of the specific FFS may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least once during the prescribed period.

(2) Example Two.

(a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FFSs, in its facility or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FFS must be—

(i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or

(ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder in that other certificate holder's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)). This 12-month period is established in the same manner as in example one; or

(iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after having flown the helicopter, not the subject FFS or another FFS, during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FFS's performance and handling qualities represent the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.

(b) There is no minimum number of hours of FFS use required.

(3) Example Three.

(a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes “satellite” training centers in Chicago and Moscow.

(ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown the helicopter, not the subject FFS or another FFS during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of each FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)).

End Information

7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9).

Begin Information

The phrase “as soon as practicable” in § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FFS.

End Information

8. FFS Use (§ 60.11)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.11, FFS Use.

End Information

9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. Flight test data used to validate FFS performance and handling qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test program containing the following:

(1) A flight test plan consisting of:

(a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification and simulation programming and validation

(b) For each maneuver or procedure—

(i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or engineer used.

(ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.

(iii) The initial flight conditions.

(iv) The helicopter configuration, including weight and center of gravity.

(v) The data to be gathered.

(vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test conditions in the FFS.

(2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.

b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:

(1) In a format that supports the FFS validation process;

(2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and completely;

(3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix.

(4) With any necessary instructions or other details provided, such as Stability Augmentation System (SAS) or throttle position; and

(1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of the existence of this data; and

(2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of—

(a) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FFS; or

(b) The reason for not incorporating this data into the FFS.

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f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and, if appropriate, with the person who supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS in order to facilitate the notification required by § 60.13(f).

g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Table C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Helicopters) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other information, such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used or where flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document.

i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

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10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FFS (§ 60.14)

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11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15)

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a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the FFS must:

(1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this appendix;

(2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix; and

(3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix.

b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must include all of the following:

(1) A statement that the FFS meets all of the applicable provisions of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.

(2) A confirmation that the sponsor will forward to the responsible Flight Standards office the statement described in § 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no later than 5 business days prior to the scheduled evaluation and may be forwarded to the responsible Flight Standards office via traditional or electronic means.

(3) A QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following:

(a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another approved source.

(b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FFS as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.

(d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification evaluations.

c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, must provide the documented proof of compliance with the simulator objective tests in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix.

(1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions.

(2) Pertinent and complete instructions for the conduct of automatic and manual tests.

(3) A means of comparing the FFS test results to the objective data.

(4) Any other information as necessary, to assist in the evaluation of the test results.

(5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the FFS.

e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, must include the following:

(1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks (see Attachment 4, Figure C4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover page).

(2) A continuing qualification evaluation schedule requirements page. This page will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office to establish and record the frequency with which continuing qualification evaluations must be conducted and any subsequent changes that may be determined by the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.19. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure C4G, for a sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements page.

(3) An FFS information page that provides the information listed in this paragraph (see Attachment 4, Figure C4B, of this appendix for a sample FFS information page). For convertible FFSs, the sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FFS.

(a) The sponsor's FFS identification number or code.

(b) The helicopter model and series being simulated.

(d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic coefficient data used to modify the basic model.

(e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.

(f) The flight control data revision number or reference.

(g) The flight management system identification and revision level.

(h) The FFS model and manufacturer.

(i) The date of FFS manufacture.

(j) The FFS computer identification.

(k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display type.

(l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of freedom.

(4) A Table of Contents.

(5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.

(6) List of all relevant data references.

(7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions and units).

(8) Statements of compliance and capability (SOCs) with certain requirements.

(9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the objective tests.

(10) The following information for each objective test designated in Attachment 2 of this appendix, Table C2A, as applicable to the qualification level sought:

(a) Name of the test.

(b) Objective of the test.

(d) Manual test procedures.

(e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).

(f) Method for evaluating FFS objective test results.

(g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the automatically conducted test(s).

(h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the manually conducted test(s).

(i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.

(j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).

(k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent data location must be provided).

(l) Simulator Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a product of the device being tested.

f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a separate FFS for each model and series helicopter to which it will be converted and for the FAA qualification level sought. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models of a helicopter type using a convertible FFS, the sponsor must submit a QTG for each helicopter model, or a QTG for the first helicopter model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional helicopter model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations for each helicopter model.

g. Form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the QTG:

(2) FFS results must be labeled using terminology common to helicopter parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.

(3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or resolution.

(4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix.

(5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FFS test results must be clearly marked with appropriate reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between the FFS and the helicopter with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line printer are to be clearly identified for cross plotting on the helicopter data. Over-plots must not obscure the reference data.

h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FFS performance. The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FFS is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office.

i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FFS location.

j. All FFSs for which the initial qualification is conducted after May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all objective data obtained from helicopter testing, or another approved source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FFS (reformatted or digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain the general FFS performance or demonstration results (reformatted or digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the original validation data used to validate FFS performance and handling qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office.

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(1) Helicopter responses, including longitudinal and lateral-directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).

(2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated helicopter's operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and landing as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).

(3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix).

(4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix).

(5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix).

(6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to the helicopter simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix).

(7) FFS systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix).

(1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FFS performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this part.

(2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:

(a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to perform over a typical utilization period;

(b) Determining that the FFS satisfactorily simulates each required task;

(d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.

p. The tolerances for the test parameters listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix reflect the range of tolerances acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office for FFS validation and are not to be confused with design tolerances specified for FFS manufacture. In making decisions regarding tests and test results, the responsible Flight Standards office relies on the use of operational and engineering judgment in the application of data (including consideration of the way in which the flight test was flown and way the data was gathered and applied), data presentations, and the applicable tolerances for each test.

r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:

(1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the QTG may be amended.

s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight Standards office issues a certificate of qualification (COQ) to the sponsor. The responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FFS to the TPAA, who will approve the FFS for use in a flight training program. The COQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FFS is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table C1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program.

t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, of this appendix, Figure C4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.

u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FFS Objective Tests, Table C2A of this appendix.

v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d).

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12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS (§ 60.16)

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FFS.

13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FFS from active status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures apply:

(1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that the FFS will be inactive.

(2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled during the inactive period.

(5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service.

b. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, are not required to meet the general simulation requirements, the objective test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of attachments 1, 2, and 3, of this appendix as long as the simulator continues to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original qualification basis.

d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, 2008, may be updated. If an evaluation is deemed appropriate or necessary by the responsible Flight Standards office after such an update, the evaluation will not require an evaluation to standards beyond those against which the simulator was originally qualified.

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e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FFS may contract with FFS sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at a particular level for a helicopter type and approved for use within an FAA-approved flight training program. Such FFSs are not required to undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in § 60.16.

f. Each FFS user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to use any FFS in an FAA-approved flight training program.

g. The intent of the requirement listed in § 60.17(b), for each FFS to have an SOQ within 6 years, is to have the availability of that statement (including the configuration list and the limitations to authorizations) to provide a complete picture of the FFS inventory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of the statement will not require any additional evaluation or require any adjustment to the evaluation basis for the FFS.

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14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19)

Begin QPS Requirements

b. The description of the functional preflight check must be contained in the sponsor's QMS.

c. Record “functional preflight” in the FFS discrepancy log book or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative.

e. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct continuing qualification evaluations every 12 months unless:

(1) The responsible Flight Standards office becomes aware of discrepancies or performance problems with the device that warrants more frequent evaluations; or

(2) The sponsor implements a QMS that justifies less frequent evaluations. However, in no case shall the frequency of a continuing qualification evaluation exceed 36 months.

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f. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly inspection required in § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:

(1) Performance.

(2) Handling qualities.

(3) Motion system (where appropriate).

(4) Visual system (where appropriate).

(5) Sound system (where appropriate).

(6) Other FFS systems.

(1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation.

(4) An examination of the functions of the FFS may include the motion system, visual system, sound system, instructor operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the simulated helicopter systems. This examination is normally accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

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15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20)

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No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.20. Logging FFS Discrepancies.

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16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21)

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No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualification of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or Models.

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17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23)

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b. Prior to using the modified FFS:

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(3) FSTD Directives are considered modifications of an FFS. See Attachment 4 of this appendix for a sample index of effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all effective FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter FFSs.

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18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25)

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c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend the deadline until the next business day.

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19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27)

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20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29)

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21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31)

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22. [Reserved]

23. [Reserved]

24. [Reserved]

25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37)

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.37, FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA).

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Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60—GENERAL SIMULATOR REQUIREMENTS

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Requirements

a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported with an SOC as defined in Appendix F of this part, which may include objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “General Simulator Requirements” column in Table C1A of this appendix.

b. Table C1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of FFS. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed the requirements outlined in this section. However, all systems will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper operation.

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2. Discussion

a. This attachment describes the general simulator requirements for qualifying a helicopter FFS. The sponsor should also consult the objective tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix to determine the complete requirements for a specific level simulator.

b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the following categories:

(1) General flight deck configuration.

(2) Simulator programming.

(3) Equipment operation.

(4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/evaluator functions.

(5) Motion system.

(6) Visual system.

(7) Sound system.

c. Table C1A provides the standards for the General Simulator Requirements.

d. Table C1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to determine whether the FFS satisfactorily meets the requirements for flight crew training, testing, and experience, and provides the tasks for which the simulator may be qualified.

e. Table C1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman must be able to control in the simulator.

f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial or continuing qualification evaluation.

g. Table C1A addresses only Levels B, C, and D helicopter simulators because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.

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Table C1A—Minimum Simulator Requirements

Entry No. | QPS requirements | Simulator levels | Information

General simulator requirements | B | C | D | Notes

1. General Flight Deck Configuration

1.a. | The simulator must have a flight deck that is a replica of the helicopter being simulated The simulator must have controls, equipment, observable flight deck indicators, circuit breakers, and bulkheads properly located, functionally accurate and replicating the helicopter. The direction of movement of controls and switches must be identical to that in the helicopter. Pilot seats must afford the capability for the occupant to be able to achieve the design “eye position” established for the helicopter being simulated. Equipment for the operation of the flight deck windows must be included, but the actual windows need not be operable. Fire axes, extinguishers, and spare light bulbs must be available in the FFS but may be relocated to a suitable location as near as practical to the original position. Fire axes, landing gear pins, and any similar purpose instruments need only be represented in silhouette | X | X | X | For simulator purposes, the flight deck consists of all that space forward of a cross section of the fuselage at the most extreme aft setting of the pilots' seats including additional, required flight crewmember duty stations and those required bulkheads aft of the pilot seats. For clarification, bulkheads containing only items such as landing gear pin storage compartments, fire axes and extinguishers, spare light bulbs, and aircraft documents pouches are not considered essential and may be omitted.

1.b. | Those circuit breakers that affect procedures or result in observable flight deck indications must be properly located and functionally accurate | X | X | X

2. Programming

2.a. | A flight dynamics model that accounts for various combinations of air speed and power normally encountered in flight must correspond to actual flight conditions, including the effect of change in helicopter attitude, aerodynamic and propulsive forces and moments, altitude, temperature, mass, center of gravity location, and configuration An SOC is required | X | X | X

2.b. | The simulator must have the computer capacity, accuracy, resolution, and dynamic response needed to meet the qualification level sought An SOC is required | X | X | X

2.c. | Ground handling (where appropriate) and aerodynamic programming must include the following:

2.c.1. | Ground effect Level B does not require hover programming An SOC is required | X | X | X | Applicable areas include flare and touch down from a running landing as well as for in-ground-effect (IGE) hover. A reasonable simulation of ground effect includes modeling of lift, drag, pitching moment, trim, and power while in ground effect.

2.c.2. | Ground reaction Level B does not require hover programming An SOC is required | X | X | X | Reaction of the helicopter upon contact with the landing surface during landing (e.g., strut deflection, tire or skid friction, side forces) may differ with changes in gross weight, airspeed, rate of descent on touchdown, and slide slip.

2.d. | The simulator must provide for manual and automatic testing of simulator hardware and software programming to determine compliance with simulator objective tests as prescribed in Attachment 2 of this appendix An SOC is required | X | X | This may include an automated system, which could be used for conducting at least a portion of the QTG tests. Automatic “flagging” of out-of-tolerance situations is encouraged.

2.e. | The relative responses of the motion system, visual system, and flight deck instruments must be measured by latency tests or transport delay tests. Motion onset must occur before the end of the scan of that video field. Instrument response may not occur prior to motion onset. Test results must be within the following limits: | The intent is to verify that the simulator provides instrument, motion, and visual cues that are like the helicopter responses within the stated time delays. It is preferable motion onset occur before the start of the visual scene change (the start of the scan of the first video field containing different information). For helicopter response, acceleration in the appropriate corresponding rotational axis is preferred.

2.e.1. | Response must be within 150 milliseconds of the helicopter response | X

2.e.2. | Response must be within 100 milliseconds of the helicopter response | X | X

2.f. | The simulator must simulate brake and tire failure dynamics (including antiskid failure, if appropriate) An SOC is required. | X | X | The simulator should represent the motion (in the appropriate axes) and the directional control characteristics of the helicopter when experiencing simulated brake or tire failures.

2.g. | The aerodynamic modeling in the simulator must include: (1) Ground effect, (2) Effects of airframe and rotor icing (if applicable), (3) Aerodynamic interference effects between the rotor wake and fuselage, (4) Influence of the rotor on control and stabilization systems, (5) Representations of settling with power, and (6) Retreating blade stall. An SOC is required. | X | X | See Attachment 2 of this appendix for further information on ground effect.

2.h. | The simulator must provide for realistic mass properties, including gross weight, center of gravity, and moments of inertia as a function of payload and fuel loading An SOC is required. | X | X | X

3. Equipment Operation

3.a. | All relevant instrument indications involved in the simulation of the helicopter must automatically respond to control movement or external disturbances to the simulated helicopter; e.g., turbulence or windshear. Numerical values must be presented in the appropriate units | X | X | X

3.b. | Communications, navigation, caution, and warning equipment must be installed and operate within the tolerances applicable for the helicopter being simulated | X | X | X | See Attachment 3 of this appendix for further information regarding long-range navigation equipment.

3.c. | Simulated helicopter systems must operate as the helicopter systems operate under normal, abnormal, and emergency operating conditions on the ground and in flight | X | X | X

3.d. | The simulator must provide pilot controls with control forces and control travel that correspond to the simulated helicopter. The simulator must also react in the same manner as the helicopter under the same flight conditions | X | X | X

3.e. | Simulator control feel dynamics must replicate the helicopter simulated. This must be determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the simulator to helicopter measurements. For initial and upgrade evaluations, the control dynamic characteristics must be measured and recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must be accomplished in takeoff, cruise, and landing conditions and configurations | X | X

4. Instructor/Evaluator Facilities

4.a. | In addition to the flight crewmember stations, the simulator must have at least two suitable seats for the instructor/check airman and FAA inspector. These seats must provide adequate vision to the pilot's panel and forward windows. All seats other than flight crew seats need not represent those found in the helicopter but must be adequately secured to the floor and equipped with similar positive restraint devices | X | X | X | The responsible Flight Standards office will consider alternatives to this standard for additional seats based on unique flight deck configurations.

4.b. | The simulator must have controls that enable the instructor/evaluator to control all required system variables and insert all abnormal or emergency conditions into the simulated helicopter systems as described in the sponsor's FAA-approved training program, or as described in the relevant operating manual as appropriate | X | X | X

4.c. | The simulator must have instructor controls for all environmental effects expected to be available at the IOS; e.g., clouds, visibility, icing, precipitation, temperature, storm cells, and wind speed and direction | X | X | X

4.d. | The simulator must provide the instructor or evaluator the ability to present ground and air hazards | X | X | For example, another aircraft crossing the active runway and converging airborne traffic.

4.e. | The simulator must provide the instructor or evaluator the ability to present the effect of re-circulating dust, water vapor, or snow conditions that develop as a result of rotor downwash | X | X | This is a selectable condition that is not required for all operations on or near the surface.

5. Motion System

5.a. | The simulator must have motion (force) cues perceptible to the pilot that are representative of the motion in a helicopter | X | X | X | For example, touchdown cues should be a function of the rate of descent (RoD) of the simulated helicopter.

5.b. | The simulator must have a motion (force cueing) system with a minimum of three degrees of freedom (at least pitch, roll, and heave) An SOC is required. | X

5.c. | The simulator must have a motion (force cueing) system that produces cues at least equivalent to those of a six-degrees-of-freedom, synergistic platform motion system (i.e., pitch, roll, yaw, heave, sway, and surge) An SOC is required. | X | X

5.d. | The simulator must provide for the recording of the motion system response time An SOC is required. | X | X | X

5.e. | The simulator must provide motion effects programming to include the following:

(1) Runway rumble, oleo deflections, effects of ground speed, uneven runway, characteristics. | X | X | X

(2) Buffets due to transverse flow effects.

(3) Buffet during extension and retraction of landing gear.

(4) Buffet due to retreating blade stall.

(5) Buffet due to vortex ring (settling with power).

(6) Representative cues resulting from touchdown.

(7) High speed rotor vibrations.

(8) Tire failure dynamics | X | X

(9) Engine malfunction and engine damage

(10) Airframe ground strike

(11) Motion vibrations that result from atmospheric disturbances | X | For air turbulence, general purpose disturbance models are acceptable if, when used, they produce test results that approximate demonstrable flight test data.

5.f. | The simulator must provide characteristic motion vibrations that result from operation of the helicopter (for example, retreating blade stall, extended landing gear, settling with power) in so far as vibration marks an event or helicopter state, which can be sensed in the flight deck | X | The simulator should be programmed and instrumented in such a manner that the characteristic buffet modes can be measured and compared to helicopter data.

6. Visual System Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained.

6.a. | The simulator must have a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view | X | X | X

6.b. | The simulator must provide a continuous field-of-view of at least 75° horizontally and 30° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An SOC must explain the geometry of the installation An SOC is required. | X

6.c. | The simulator must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An SOC must explain the geometry of the installation. Capability for a field-of-view in excess of the minimum is not required for qualification at Level C. However, where specific tasks require extended fields of view beyond the 146º by 36º (e.g., to accommodate the use of “chin windows” where the accommodation is either integral with or separate from the primary visual system display), then the extended fields of view must be provided. When considering the installation and use of augmented fields of view, the sponsor must meet with the NSPM to determine the training, testing, checking, and experience tasks for which the augmented field-of-view capability may be required An SOC is required. | X | Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may be considered with respect to the specific helicopter flight deck cut-off angle. The sponsor may request the responsible Flight Standards office to evaluate the FFS for specific authorization(s) for the following: (1) Specific areas within the database needing higher resolution to support landings, take-offs and ground cushion exercises and training away from a heliport, including elevated heliport, helidecks and confined areas. (2) For cross-country flights, sufficient scene details to allow for ground to map navigation over a sector length equal to 30 minutes at an average cruise speed. (3) For offshore airborne radar approaches (ARA), harmonized visual/radar representations of installations.

6.d. | The simulator must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 176° horizontally and 56° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An SOC must explain the geometry of the installation. Capability for a field-of-view in excess of the minimum is not required for qualification at Level D. However, where specific tasks require extended fields of view beyond the 176º by 56º (e.g., to accommodate the use of “chin windows” where the accommodation is either integral with or separate from the primary visual system display), then the extended fields of view must be provided. When considering the installation and use of augmented fields of view, the sponsor must meet with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine the training, testing, checking, and experience tasks for which the augmented field-of-view capability may be required An SOC is required. | X | Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may be considered with respect to the specific helicopter flight deck cut-off angle. The sponsor may request the responsible Flight Standards office to evaluate the FFS for specific authorization(s) for the following: (1) Specific areas within the database needing higher resolution to support landings, take-offs and ground cushion exercises and training away from a heliport, including elevated heliport, helidecks and confined areas. (2) For cross-country flights, sufficient scene details to allow for ground to map navigation over a sector length equal to 30 minutes at an average cruise speed. (3) For offshore airborne radar approaches (ARA), harmonized visual/radar representations of installations.

6.e. | The visual system must be free from optical discontinuities and artifacts that create non-realistic cues | X | X | X | Nonrealistic cues might include image “swimming” and image “roll-off,” that may lead a pilot to make incorrect assessments of speed, acceleration and/or situational awareness.

6.f. | The simulator must have operational landing lights for night scenes.Where used, dusk (or twilight) scenes require operational landing lights. | X | X | X

6.g. | The simulator must have instructor controls for the following: (1) Visibility in statute miles (kilometers) and runway visual range (RVR) in ft. (meters). (2) Airport or landing area selection (3) Airport or landing area lighting | X | X | X

6.h. | Each airport scene displayed must include the following: (1) Airport runways and taxiways (2) Runway definition (a) Runway surface and markings (b) Lighting for the runway in use, including runway threshold, edge, centerline, touchdown zone, VASI (or PAPI), and approach lighting of appropriate colors, as appropriate (c) Taxiway lights | X | X | X

6.i. | The simulator must provide visual system compatibility with dynamic response programming | X | X | X

6.j. | The simulator must show that the segment of the ground visible from the simulator flight deck is the same as from the helicopter flight deck (within established tolerances) when at the correct airspeed and altitude above the touchdown zone | X | X | X | This will show the modeling accuracy of the scene with respect to a predetermined position from the end of the runway “in use.”

6.k. | The simulator must provide visual cues necessary to assess rate of change of height, height AGL, and translational displacement and rates during takeoffs and landings | X

6.l. | The simulator must provide visual cues necessary to assess rate of change of height, height AGL, as well as translational displacement and rates during takeoff, low altitude/low airspeed maneuvering, hover, and landing | X | X

6.m. | The simulator must provide for accurate portrayal of the visual environment relating to the simulator attitude | X | X | X | Visual attitude vs. simulator attitude is a comparison of pitch and roll of the horizon as displayed in the visual scene compared to the display on the attitude indicator.

6.n | The simulator must provide for quick confirmation of visual system color, RVR, focus, and intensity An SOC is required. | X | X

6.o. | The simulator must be capable of producing at least 10 levels of occulting | X | X

6.p. | Night Visual Scenes. The simulator must provide night visual scenes with sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a visual landing. Night scenes, as a minimum, must provide presentations of sufficient surfaces with appropriate textural cues that include self-illuminated objects such as road networks, ramp lighting, and airport signage, to conduct a visual approach, a landing, and airport movement (taxi). Scenes must include a definable horizon and typical terrain characteristics such as fields, roads and bodies of water and surfaces illuminated by helicopter landing lights | X | X | X

6.q. | Dusk (Twilight) Visual Scenes. The simulator must provide dusk (or twilight) visual scenes with sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a visual landing. Dusk (or twilight) scenes, as a minimum, must provide full color presentations of reduced ambient intensity, sufficient surfaces with appropriate textural cues that include self-illuminated objects such as road networks, ramp lighting and airport signage, to conduct a visual approach, landing and airport movement (taxi). Scenes must include a definable horizon and typical terrain characteristics such as fields, roads and bodies of water and surfaces illuminated by representative aircraft lighting (e.g., landing lights). If provided, directional horizon lighting must have correct orientation and be consistent with surface shading effects. Total scene content must be comparable in detail to that produced by 10,000 visible textured surfaces and 15,000 visible lights with sufficient system capacity to display 16 simultaneously moving objects An SOC is required. | X | X

6.r. | Daylight Visual Scenes. The simulator must have daylight visual scenes with sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a visual landing. No ambient lighting may “washout” the displayed visual scene. Total scene content must be comparable in detail to that produced by 10,000 visible textured surfaces and 6,000 visible lights with sufficient system capacity to display 16 simultaneously moving objects. The visual display must be free of apparent and distracting quantization and other distracting visual effects while the simulator is in motion An SOC is required. | X | X

6.s | The simulator must provide operational visual scenes that portray physical relationships known to cause landing illusions to pilots | X | X | For example: short runways, landing approaches over water, uphill or downhill runways, rising terrain on the approach path, unique topographic features.

6.t. | The simulator must provide special weather representations of light, medium, and heavy precipitation near a thunderstorm on takeoff and during approach and landing. Representations need only be presented at and below an altitude of 2,000 ft. (610 m) above the airport surface and within 10 miles (16 km) of the airport | X | X

6.u. | The simulator must present visual scenes of wet and snow-covered runways, including runway lighting reflections for wet conditions, and partially obscured lights for snow conditions | X | X | The responsible Flight Standards office will consider suitable alternative effects.

6.v. | The simulator must present realistic color and directionality of all airport lighting | X | X

7. Sound System

7.a. | The simulator must provide flight deck sounds that result from pilot actions that correspond to those that occur in the helicopter | X | X | X

7.b. | Volume control, if installed, must have an indication of the sound level setting | X | X | X

7.c. | The simulator must accurately simulate the sound of precipitation, windshield wipers, and other significant helicopter noises perceptible to the pilot during normal and abnormal operations, and include the sound of a crash (when the simulator is landed in an unusual attitude or in excess of the structural gear limitations); normal engine sounds; and the sounds of gear extension and retraction An SOC is required. | X | X

7.d. | The simulator must provide realistic amplitude and frequency of flight deck noises and sounds. Simulator performance must be recorded, compared to amplitude and frequency of the same sounds recorded in the helicopter, and made a part of the QTG | X

Table C1B—Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | Subjective requirements The simulator must be able to perform the tasks associated with that level of qualification. | Simulator levels | Notes

B | C | D

1. Preflight Procedures

1.a. | Preflight Inspection (Flight deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment | X | X | X

1.b. | APU/Engine start and run-up

1.b.1. | Normal start procedures | X | X | X

1.b.2. | Alternate start procedures | X | X | X

1.b.3. | Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung start) | X | X | X

1.c. | Taxiing—Ground | X | X | X

1.d. | Taxiing—Hover | X | X | X

1.e. | Pre-takeoff Checks | X | X | X

2. Takeoff and Departure Phase

2.a. | Normal takeoff

2.a.1. | From ground | X | X | X

2.a.2. | From hover | X | X

2.a.3. | Running | X | X | X

2.b. | Instrument | X | X | X

2.c. | Powerplant Failure During Takeoff | X | X | X

2.d. | Rejected Takeoff | X | X | X

2.e. | Instrument Departure | X | X | X

3. Climb

3.a. | Normal | X | X | X

3.b. | Obstacle clearance | X | X | X

3.c. | Vertical | X | X | X

3.d. | One engine inoperative | X | X | X

4. In-flight Maneuvers

4.a. | Turns (timed, normal, steep) | X | X | X

4.b. | Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters | X | X | X

4.c. | Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Helicopters | X | X | X

4.d. | Recovery From Unusual Attitudes | X | X | X

4.e. | Settling with Power | X | X | X

4.f. | Specific Flight Characteristics incorporated into the user's FAA approved flight training program | A | A | A

5. Instrument Procedures

5.a. | Instrument Arrival | X | X | X

5.b. | Holding | X | X | X

5.c. | Precision Instrument Approach

5.c.1. | Normal—All engines operating | X | X | X

5.c.2. | Manually controlled—One or more engines inoperative | X | X | X

5.d. | Non-precision Instrument Approach | X | X | X

5.e. | Missed Approach

5.e.1. | All engines operating | X | X | X

5.e.2. | One or more engines inoperative | X | X | X

5.e.3. | Stability augmentation system failure | X | X | X

6. Landings and Approaches to Landings

6.a. | Visual Approaches (normal, steep, shallow) | X | X | X

6.b. | Landings

6.b.1. | Normal/crosswind

6.b.1.a. | Running | X | X | X

6.b.1.b. | From Hover | X | X

6.b.2. | One or more engines inoperative | X | X | X

6.b.3. | Rejected Landing | X | X | X

7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures

7.a. | Powerplant | X | X | X

7.b. | Fuel System | X | X | X

7.c. | Electrical System | X | X | X

7.d. | Hydraulic System | X | X | X

7.e. | Environmental System(s) | X | X | X

7.f. | Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems | X | X | X

7.g. | Navigation and Aviation Systems | X | X | X

7.h. | Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic Flight Instrument System, and Related Subsystems | X | X | X

7.i. | Flight Control Systems | X | X | X

7.j. | Anti-ice and Deice Systems | X | X | X

7.k. | Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment | X | X | X

7.l. | Special Missions tasks (e.g., Night Vision goggles, Forward Looking Infrared System, External Loads and as listed on the SOQ) | A | A | X

8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)

8.a. | Emergency Descent | X | X | X

8.b. | Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal | X | X | X

8.c. | Emergency Evacuation | X | X | X

8.d. | Ditching | X | X | X

8.e. | Autorotative Landing | X | X | X

8.f. | Retreating blade stall recovery | X | X | X

8.g. | Mast bumping | X | X | X

8.h. | Loss of tail rotor effectiveness | X | X | X

8.i. | Vortex recovery | X | X | X

9. Postflight Procedures

9.a | After-Landing Procedures | X | X | X

9.b. | Parking and Securing

9.b.1. | Rotor brake operation | X | X | X

9.b.2. | Abnormal/emergency procedures | X | X | X

Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly

Table C1C—Table of Tasks vs. Simulator Level

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | Subjective requirements The simulator must be able to perform the tasks associated with that level of qualification. | Simulator levels | Notes

B | C | D

1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate

1.a. | Power switch(es) | X | X | X

1.b. | Helicopter conditions | X | X | X | e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading, Systems, Ground Crew.

1.c. | Airports/Heliports/Helicopter Landing Areas | X | X | X | e.g., Selection, Surface, Presets, Lighting controls

1.d. | Environmental controls. | X | X | X | e.g., Clouds, Visibility, RVR, Temp, Wind, Ice, Snow, Rain, and Windshear.

1.e. | Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion) | X | X | X

1.f. | Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning | X | X | X

2. Sound Controls.

2.a. | On/off/adjustment | X | X | X

3. Motion/Control Loading System

3.a. | On/off/emergency stop | X | X | X

4. Observer Seats/Stations

4.a. | Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system | X | X | X

Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60—FFS Objective Tests

Begin Information

Table of Contents

Paragraph No. | Title

1. Introduction.

2. Test Requirements.

Table C2A, Objective Tests.

3. General.

4. Control Dynamics.

5. [Reserved]

6. Motion System.

7. Sound System.

8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Helicopters.

9. Engineering Simulator—Validation Data.

10. [Reserved]

11. Validation Test Tolerances.

12. Validation Data Roadmap.

13. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines Data.

14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers).

15. Transport Delay Testing.

16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation Test Data Presentation.

17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level A and Level B Simulators Only.

1. Introduction

a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector (magnitude and direction) should be clearly noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for the test.

b. The responsible Flight Standards office will not evaluate any simulator unless the required SOC indicates that the motion system is designed and manufactured to safely operate within the simulator's maximum excursion, acceleration, and velocity capabilities (see Motion System in the following table).

c. Table C2A addresses helicopter simulators at Levels B, C, and D because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.

End Information

Begin QPS Requirements

2. Test Requirements

a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed in Table of C2A, FFS Objective Tests. Computer-generated simulator test results must be provided for each test except where an alternative test is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the helicopter being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine out missed approach for a single-engine helicopter, or a hover test for a Level B simulator). Each test result is compared against the validation data described in § 60.13 and in this appendix. Although use of a driver program designed to automatically accomplish the tests is encouraged for all simulators and required for Level C and Level D simulators, each test must be able to be accomplished manually while recording all appropriate parameters. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include simulator number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table C2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given.

b. Table C2A sets out the test results required, including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for simulator validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical modeling and acquisition/development of reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to simulator performance. When two tolerance values are given for a parameter, the less restrictive value may be used unless otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.

c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with an SOC. In Table C2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “Test Details” column.

d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making assessments for flight test data applications for simulator validity, such judgment may not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations or a “best fit” data selection. All relevant parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match simulator to helicopter data throughout a time history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition being assessed.

e. The FFS may not be programmed so that the mathematical modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted otherwise, simulator tests must represent helicopter performance and handling qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. If a test is supported by helicopter data at one extreme weight or CG, another test supported by helicopter data at mid-conditions or as close as possible to the other extreme must be included. Certain tests that are relevant only at one extreme CG or weight condition need not be repeated at the other extreme. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices.

f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the helicopter, sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight condition and helicopter configuration changes. For example, to show that control force is within ±0.5 pound (0.22 daN) in a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, helicopter configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the helicopter, but airspeed, altitude, control input, helicopter configuration, and other appropriate data must also be given. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters).

i. Motion System Tests:

(a) The minimum excursions, accelerations, and velocities for pitch, roll, and yaw must be measurable about a single, common reference point and must be achieved by driving one degree of freedom at a time.

(b) The minimum excursions, accelerations, and velocities for heave, sway, and surge may be measured about different, identifiable reference points and must be achieved by driving one degree of freedom at a time.

j. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. FFSs for highly augmented helicopters will be validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is necessary. For those performance and static handling qualities tests where the primary concern is control position in the unaugmented configuration, unaugmented data are not required if the design of the system precludes any affect on control position. In those instances where the unaugmented helicopter response is divergent and non-repeatable, it may not be feasible to meet the specified tolerances. Alternative requirements for testing will be mutually agreed upon by the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case basis.

k. Some tests will not be required for helicopters using helicopter hardware in the simulator flight deck (e.g., “helicopter modular controller”). These exceptions are noted in Table C2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a statement that the helicopter hardware meets the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards office review.

l. In cases where light-class helicopters are being simulated, prior coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office on acceptable weight ranges is required. The terms “light”, “medium”, and “near maximum”, as defined in Appendix F of this part, may not be appropriate for the simulation of light-class helicopters.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

m. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test results” in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot”. The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot.

n. For references on basic operating weight, see AC 120-27, Aircraft Weight and Balance; and FAA-H-8083-1, Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook.

End Information

Table C2A—Full Flight Simulator (FFS) Objective Tests

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | Title | B | C | D

1. Performance

1.a. | Engine Assessment

1.a.1. | Start Operations

1.a.1.a | Engine start and acceleration (transient) | Light Off Time—±10% or ±1 sec., Torque—±5%, Rotor Speed—±3%, Fuel Flow—±10%, Gas Generator Speed—±5%, Power Turbine Speed—±5%, Gas Turbine Temp.—±30 °C | Ground with the Rotor Brake Used and Not Used, if applicable. | Record each engine start from the initiation of the start sequence to steady state idle and from steady state idle to operating RPM. | X | X | X

1.a.1.b. | Steady State Idle and Operating RPM conditions | Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Fuel Flow—±5%, Gas Generator Speed—±2%, Power Turbine Speed—±2%, Turbine Gas Temp.—±20 °C | Ground | Record both steady state idle and operating RPM conditions. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X | X

1.a.2. | Power Turbine Speed Trim | ±10% of total change of power turbine speed, or ±0.5% change of rotor speed. | Ground | Record engine response to trim system actuation in both directions. | X | X | X

1.a.3. | Engine and Rotor Speed Governing | Torque—±5%, Rotor Speed—1.5% | Climb and descent | Record results using a step input to the collective. May be conducted concurrently with climb and descent performance tests. | X | X | X

1.b. | Surface Operations

1.b.1. | Minimum Radius Turn | ±3 ft. (0.9m) or 20% of helicopter turn radius. | Ground | If brakes are used, brake pedal position and brake system pressure must be matched to the helicopter flight test value. | X | X | X

1.b.2. | Rate of Turn vs. Pedal Deflection, Brake Application, or Nosewheel Angle, as applicable | ±10% or ±2°/sec. Turn Rate. | Ground Takeoff | If brakes are used, brake pedal position and brake system pressure must be matched to the helicopter flight test value. | X | X | X

1.b.3. | Taxi | Pitch Angle—±1.5°, Torque—±3%, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5% | Ground | Record results for control position and pitch attitude during ground taxi for a specific ground speed, wind speed and direction, and density altitude. | X | X | X

1.b.4. | Brake Effectiveness | ±10% of time and distance. | Ground | X | X | X

1.c. | Takeoff When the speed range for the following tests is less than 40 knots, the applicable airspeed tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.

1.c.1. | All Engines | Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10% | Ground/Takeoff and Initial Segment of Climb. | Record results of takeoff flight path as appropriate to helicopter model simulated (running takeoff for Level B, takeoff from a hover for Level C and D). For Level B, the criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift. Results must be recorded from the initiation of the takeoff to at least 200 ft (61m) AGL. | X | X | X

1.c.2. | One Engine Inoperative continued takeoff. | Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10% Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10% | Ground/Takeoff; and Initial Segment of Climb. | Record takeoff flight path as appropriate to helicopter model simulated. Results must be recorded from the initiation of the takeoff to at least 200 ft (61m) AGL. | X | X | X | Because several kinds of takeoff procedures can be performed, the specific type of takeoff profile should be recorded to ensure the proper takeoff profile comparison test is used.

1.c.3. | One Engine inoperative, rejected take off. | Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Roll angle—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%, Distance—±7.5% or ±30m (100ft). | Ground, Takeoff | Time history from the take off point to touch down. Test conditions near limiting performance. | X | X

1.d. | Hover

Performance | Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%. | In Ground Effect (IGE); and Out of Ground Effect (OGE). | Record results for light and heavy gross weights. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X

1.e. | Vertical Climb

1.f. | Level Flight

Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions. | Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Angle—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%. | Cruise (Augmentation On and Off). | Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations with varying trim speeds throughout the airspeed envelope. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X | X | This test validates performance at speeds above maximum endurance airspeed.

1.g. | Climb

Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions. | Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (6.1m/sec) or ±10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Angle—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%. | All engines operating; One engine inoperative; Augmentation System(s) On and Off. | Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations. The data presented must be for normal climb power conditions. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X | X

1.h. | Descent

1.h.1. | Descent Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions. | Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Angle—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%. | At or near 1,000 fpm (5 m/sec) rate of descent (RoD) at normal approach speed. Augmentation System(s) On and Off. | Results must be recorded for two gross weight and CG combinations. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X | X

1.h.2. | Autorotation Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions. | Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Angle—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm or 10%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%. | Steady descents. Augmentation System(s) On and Off. | Record results for two gross weight conditions. Data must be recorded for normal operating RPM. (Rotor speed tolerance applies only if collective control position is full down.) Data must be recorded for speeds from 50 kts, ±5 kts, through at least maximum glide distance airspeed, or maximum allowable autorotation airspeed, whichever is slower. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X | X

1.i. | Autorotation

Entry | Rotor Speed—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±2°, Roll Attitude—±3°, Yaw Attitude—±5°, Airspeed—±5 kts., Vertical Velocity—±200 fpm (1.00 m/sec) or 10%. | Cruise or Climb | Record results of a rapid throttle reduction to idle. If the cruise condition is selected, comparison must be made for the maximum range airspeed. If the climb condition is selected, comparison must be made for the maximum rate of climb airspeed at or near maximum continuous power. | X | X

1.j. | Landing When the speed range for tests 1.j.1., 1.j.2., or 1.j.3. is less than 40 knots, the applicable airspeed tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.

1.j.1. | All Engines | Airspeed—±3 kts., Altitude—±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%. | Approach | Record results of the approach and landing profile as appropriate to the helicopter model simulated (running landing for Level B, or approach to a hover for Level C and D). For Level B, the criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift. | X | X | X

1.j.2. | One Engine Inoperative. | Airspeed—±3 kts., Altitude—±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%. | Approach | Record results for both Category A and Category B approaches and landing as appropriate to helicopter model simulated. For Level B, the criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift. | X | X | X

1.j.3. | Balked Landing | Airspeed—±3 kts, Altitude—±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%. | Approach | Record the results for the maneuver initiated from a stabilized approach at the landing decision point (LDP). | X | X | X

1.j.4. | Autorotational Landing | Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±3%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±2º, Bank Attitude—±2º, Heading—±5º, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10% | Landing | Record the results of an autorotational deceleration and landing from a stabilized autorotational descent, to touch down If flight test data containing all required parameters for a complete power-off landing is not available from the aircraft manufacturer for this test and other qualified flight test personnel are not available to acquire this data, the sponsor may coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine if it is appropriate to accept alternative testing means | X | X | Alternative approaches for acquiring this data may be acceptable, depending on the aircraft as well as the personnel and the data recording, reduction, and interpretation facilities to be used, are: (1) a simulated autorotational flare and reduction of rate of descent (ROD) at altitude; or (2) a power-on termination following an autorotational approach and flare.

2. Handling Qualities

2.a. | Control System Mechanical Characteristics

For simulators requiring Static or Dynamic tests at the controls (i.e., cyclic, collective, and pedal), special test fixtures will not be required during initial or upgrade evaluations if the sponsor's QTG/MQTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternative approach, such as computer plots produced concurrently showing satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the alternative method during the initial or upgrade evaluation satisfies this test requirement. For initial and upgrade evaluations, the control dynamic characteristics must be measured at and recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must be accomplished in hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation | Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for clarification of any issue regarding helicopters with reversible controls or where the required validation data is not attainable.

2.a.1. | Cyclic | Breakout—±0.25 lbs. (0.112 daN) or 25%; Force—±1.0 lb. (0.224 daN) or 10%. | Ground; Static conditions with the hydraulic system (if applicable) pressurized; supplemental hydraulic pressurization system may be used. Trim On and Off. Friction Off Augmentation (if applicable) On and Off. | Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep to the stops. (This test does not apply if aircraft hardware modular controllers are used.) | X | X | X | Flight Test Data for this test does not require the rotor to be engaged/turning. The phrase “if applicable” regarding stability augmentation systems means if an augmentation system is available and if this system may be operational on the ground under static conditions as described here.

2.a.2. | Collective/Pedals | Breakout—±0.5 lb. (0.224 daN) or 25%; Force—±1.0 lb. (0.224 daN) or 10%. | Ground; Static conditions with the hydraulic system (if applicable) pressurized; supplemental hydraulic pressurization system may be used. Trim On and Off. Friction Off. Augmentation (if applicable) On and Off. | Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep to the stops. | X | X | X | Flight Test Data for this test does not require the rotor to be engaged/turning. The phrase “if applicable” regarding stability augmentation system means if a stability augmentation system is available and if this system may be operational on the ground under static conditions as described here.

2.a.3. | Brake Pedal Force vs. Position. | ±5 lbs. (2.224 daN) or 10%. | Ground; Static conditions. | X | X | X

2.a.4. | Trim System Rate (all applicable systems) | Rate—±10%. | Ground; Static conditions. Trim On, Friction Off. | The tolerance applies to the recorded value of the trim rate. | X | X | X

2.a.5. | Control Dynamics (all axes) | ±10% of time for first zero crossing and ±10 (N + 1)% of period thereafter, ±10% of amplitude of first overshoot, 20% of amplitude of 2nd and subsequent overshoots greater than 5% of initial displacement, ±1 overshoot. | Hover/Cruise, Trim On, Friction Off. | Results must be recorded for a normal control displacement in both directions in each axis. | X | X | Typically, control displacement of 25% to 50% is necessary for proper excitation. Control Dynamics for irreversible control systems may be evaluated in a ground/static condition. Additional information on control dynamics is found later in this attachment. “N” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation.

2.a.6. | Control System Freeplay | ±0.10 inches (±2.5 mm). | Ground; Static conditions; with the hydraulic system (if applicable) pressurized; supplemental hydraulic pressurization system may be used. | Record and compare results for all controls. | X | X | X | Flight Test Data for this test does not require the rotor to be engaged/turning.

2.b. | Low Airspeed Handling Qualities

2.b.1. | Trimmed Flight Control Positions. | Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%. Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%. | Translational Flight IGE—Sideward, rearward, and forward flight. Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for several airspeed increments to the translational airspeed limits and for 45 kts. forward airspeed. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X

2.b.2. | Critical Azimuth | Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5%. | Stationary Hover. Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for three relative wind directions (including the most critical case) in the critical quadrant. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X

2.b.3. | Control Response

2.b.3.a. | Longitudinal | Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Pitch Attitude Change—±10% or 1.5°. | Hover Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. | X | X | This is a “short time” test conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight, to provide better visual reference.

2.b.3.b. | Lateral | Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec., Roll Attitude Change—±10% or ±3°. | Hover Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. | X | X | This is a “short time” test conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight, to provide better visual reference.

2.b.3.c. | Directional | Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Heading Change—±10% or ±2°. | Hover Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. | X | X | This is a “short time” test conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight, to provide better visual reference.

2.b.3.d. | Vertical | Normal Acceleration—±0.1 g. | Hover Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. | X | X

2.c. | Longitudinal Handling Qualities

2.c.1. | Control Response | Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Pitch Attitude Change—±10% or ±1.5°. | Cruise Augmentation On and Off. | Results must be recorded for two cruise airspeeds to include minimum power required speed. Record data for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. | X | X | X

2.c.2. | Static Stability | Longitudinal Control Position: ±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitudinal Control Force : ±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or ±10%. | Cruise or Climb. Autorotation. Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for a minimum of two speeds on each side of the trim speed. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X | X

2.c.3. | Dynamic Stability

2.c.3.a. | Long-Term Response. | ±10% of calculated period, ±10% of time to 1/2 or double amplitude, or ±0.02 of damping ratio.For non-periodic responses, the time history must be matched within ±3° pitch; and ±5 kts airspeed over a 20 sec period following release of the controls. | Cruise Augmentation On and Off. | For periodic responses, record results for three full cycles (6 overshoots after input completed) or that sufficient to determine time to 1/2 or double amplitude, whichever is less. The test may be terminated prior to 20 sec. if the test pilot determines that the results are becoming uncontrollably divergent. | X | X | X | The response may be unrepeatable throughout the stated time for certain helicopters. In these cases, the test should show at least that a divergence is identifiable. For example: Displacing the cyclic for a given time normally excites this test or until a given pitch attitude is achieved and then return the cyclic to the original position. For non-periodic responses, results should show the same convergent or divergent character as the flight test data.

2.c.3.b. | Short-Term Response. | ±1.5° Pitch or ±2°/sec. Pitch Rate. ±0.1 g Normal Acceleration. | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for at least two airspeeds. | X | X | X | A control doublet inserted at the natural frequency of the aircraft normally excites this test. However, while input doublets are preferred over pulse inputs for Augmentation-Off tests, for Augmentation-On tests, when the short-term response exhibits 1st-order or deadbeat characteristics, longitudinal pulse inputs may produce a more coherent response.

2.c.4. | Maneuvering Stability. | Longitudinal Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitudinal Control Forces—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or ±10%. | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for at least two airspeeds at 30°-45° roll angle. The force may be shown as a cross plot for irreversible systems. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X | X

2.d. | Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities

2.d.1. | Control Response

2.d.1.a | Lateral | Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec., Roll Attitude Change—±10% or ±3°. | Cruise Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for at least two airspeeds, including the speed at or near the minimum power required airspeed. Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases | X | X | X

2.d.1.b. | Directional | Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Yaw Attitude Change—±10% or ±2°. | Cruise Augmentation On and Off. | Record data for at least two airspeeds, including the speed at or near the minimum power required airspeed. Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. | X | X | X

2.d.2. | Directional Static Stability. | Lateral Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Lateral Control Force—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or 10%, Roll Attitude—±1.5, Directional Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Directional Control Force—±1 lb. (0.448 daN) or 10%, Longitudinal Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm), Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10%. | Cruise; or Climb (may use Descent instead of Climb if desired), Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for at least two sideslip angles on either side of the trim point. The force may be shown as a cross plot for irreversible systems. May be a series of snapshot tests. | X | X | X | This is a steady heading sideslip test at a fixed collective position.

2.d.3. | Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability

2.d.3.a. | Lateral-Directional Oscillations. | ±0.5 sec. or ±10% of period, ±10% of time to 1/2 or double amplitude or ±0.02 of damping ratio, ±20% or ±1 sec of time difference between peaks of bank and sideslip. For non-periodic responses, the time history must be matched within ±10 knots Airspeed; ±5°/s Roll Rate or ±5° Roll Attitude; ±4°/s Yaw Rate or ±4° Yaw Angle over a 20 sec period roll angle following release of the controls. | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off. | Record results for at least two airspeeds. The test must be initiated with a cyclic or a pedal doublet input. Record results for six full cycles (12 overshoots after input completed) or that sufficient to determine time to 1/2 or double amplitude, whichever is less. The test may be terminated prior to 20 sec if the test pilot determines that the results are becoming uncontrollably divergent. | X | X | X

2.d.3.b. | Spiral Stability. | ±2° or ±10% roll angle. | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off. | Record the results of a release from pedal only or cyclic only turns for 20 sec. Results must be recorded from turns in both directions. Terminate check at zero roll angle or when the test pilot determines that the attitude is becoming uncontrollably divergent. | X | X | X

2.d.3.c. | Adverse/Proverse Yaw. | Correct Trend, ±2° transient sideslip angle. | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off. | Record the time history of initial entry into cyclic only turns, using only a moderate rate for cyclic input. Results must be recorded for turns in both directions. | X | X | X

3. Motion System

3.a. | Frequency response

Based on Simulator Capability. | N/A | Required as part of the MQTG. The test must demonstrate frequency response of the motion system as specified by the applicant for flight simulator qualification. | X | X | X

3.b. | Leg Balance

Leg Balance | Based on Simulator Capability. | N/A | Required as part of the MQTG. The test must demonstrate motion system leg balance as specified by the applicant for flight simulator qualification. | X | X | X

3.c. | Turn Around

Turn Around | Based on Simulator Capability. | N/A | Required as part of the MQTG. The test must demonstrate a smooth turn-around (shift to opposite direction of movement) of the motion system as specified by the applicant for flight simulator qualification. | X | X | X

3.d. | Motion system repeatability

With the same input signal, the test results must be repeatable to within ±0.05g actual platform linear acceleration in each axis. | Accomplished in both the “ground” mode and in the “flight” mode of the motion system operation. | Required as part of the MQTG. The test is accomplished by injecting a motion signal to generate movement of the platform. The input must be such that the rotational accelerations, rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the transfer from helicopter center of gravity to the pilot reference point with a minimum amplitude of 5°/sec/sec, 10°/sec and 0.3g, respectively. | X | X | X | See Paragraph 6.c. in this attachment for additional information. Note: if there is no difference in the model for “ground” and “flight” operation of the motion system, this should be described in an SOC and will not require tests in both modes.

3.e. | Motion cueing performance signature

Required as part of MQTG. These tests must be run with the motion buffet mode disabled. | See paragraph 6.d., of this attachment, Motion cueing performance signature.

3.e.1. | Takeoff (all engines). | As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification. | Ground | Pitch attitude due to initial climb must dominate over cab tilt due to longitudinal acceleration. | X | X | X | Associated to test number 1.c.1.

3.e.2. | Hover performance (IGE and OGE). | As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification. | Ground | X | X | Associated to test number 1.d.

3.e.3. | Autorotation (entry). | As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification. | Flight | X | X | Associated to test number 1.i.

3.e.4. | Landing (all engines). | As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification. | Flight | X | X | X | Associated to test number 1.j.1.

3.e.5. | Autorotation (landing). | As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification. | Flight | X | X | Associated to test number 1.j.4.

3.e.6. | Control Response

3.e.6.a. | Longitudinal | As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification. | Flight | X | X | X | Associated to test number 2.c.1.

3.e.6.b. | Lateral. | As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification. | Ground | X | X | X | Associated to test number 2.d.1.a.

3.e.6.c. | Directional | As specified by the sponsor for flight simulator qualification. | X | X | X | Associated to test number 2.d.1.c.

3.f. | Characteristic Motion (Vibration) Cues—For all of the following tests, the simulator test results must exhibit the overall appearance and trends of the helicopter data, with at least three (3) of the predominant frequency “spikes” being present within ±2 Hz. | Characteristic motion cues may be separate from the “main” motion system.

3.f.1. | Vibrations—to include 1/Rev and n/Rev vibrations (where “n” is the number of main rotor blades). | + 3db to −6db or ±10% of nominal vibration level in flight cruise and correct trend (see comment). | (a) On ground (idle); (b) In flight | Characteristic vibrations include those that result from operation of the helicopter (for example, high airspeed, retreating blade stall, extended landing gear, vortex ring or settling with power) in so far as vibration marks an event or helicopter state, which can be sensed in the flight deck. [See Table C1A, table entries 5.e. and 5.f.] | X | Correct trend refers to a comparison of vibration amplitudes between different maneuvers; e.g., if the 1/rev vibration amplitude in the helicopter is higher during steady state turns than in level flight this increasing trend should be demonstrated in the simulator. Additional examples of vibrations may include: (a) Low & High speed transition to and from hover; (b) Level flight; (c) Climb and descent (including vertical climb; (d) Auto-rotation; (e) Steady Turns.

3.f.2. | Buffet—Test against recorded results for characteristic buffet motion that can be sensed in the flight deck. | + 3db to −6db or ±10% of nominal vibration level in flight cruise and correct trend (see comment). | On ground and in flight. | Characteristic buffets include those that result from operation of the helicopter (for example, high airspeed, retreating blade stall, extended landing gear, vortex ring or settling with power) in so far as a buffet marks an event or helicopter state, which can be sensed in the flight deck. [See Table C1A, table entries 5.e. and 5.f.] | X | The recorded test results for characteristic buffets should allow the checking of relative amplitude for different frequencies. For atmospheric disturbance, general purpose models are acceptable which approximate demonstrable flight test data.

4. Visual System

4.a. | Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual System Response Time Test. This test is also sufficient for motion system response timing and flight deck instrument response timing.)

4.a.1. | Latency

150 ms (or less) after helicopter response. | Takeoff, climb, and descent. | One test is required in each axis (pitch, roll and yaw) for each of the three conditions (take-off, cruise, and approach or landing). | X

100 ms (or less) after helicopter response. | Climb, cruise, descent, and hover. | One test is required in each axis (pitch, roll and yaw) for each of the three conditions (take-off, cruise, and approach or landing). | X | X

4.a.2. | Transport Delay

If Transport Delay is the chosen method to demonstrate relative responses, the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office will use the latency values to ensure proper simulator response when reviewing those existing tests where latency can be identified (e.g., short period, roll response, rudder response).

4.b. | Field-of-view

4.b.1. | Continuous field-of-view. | The simulator must provide a continuous field-of-view of at least 75° horizontally and 30° vertically per pilot seat or the number of degrees necessary to meet the visual ground segment requirement, whichever is greater. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. Wide-angle systems providing cross-flight deck viewing (for both pilots simultaneously) must provide a minimum field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically. Any geometric error between the Image Generator eye point and the pilot eye point must be 8° or less. | N/A | An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. | X | Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Field-of-view may be measured using a visual test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a matrix of black and white 5° squares.

4.b.2. | Continuous field-of-view. | The simulator must provide a continuous field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically or the number of degrees necessary to meet the visual ground segment requirement, whichever is greater. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Any geometric error between the Image Generator eye point and the pilot eye point must be 8° or less. | N/A | An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. Horizontal field-of-view of at least 146° (including not less than 73° measured either side of the center of the design eye point). Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. Vertical field-of-view of at least 36° measured from the pilot's and co-pilot's eye point. | X | Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Field-of-view may be measured using a visual test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a matrix of black and white 5° squares.

4.b.3. | Continuous field-of-view. | Continuous field-of-view of at least 176° horizontal and 56° vertical field-of-view for each pilot simultaneously. Any geometric error between the Image Generator eye point and the pilot eye point must be 8° or less. | N/A | An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Horizontal field-of-view must be at least 176° (including not less than 88° either side of the center of the design eye point). Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. Vertical field-of-view must not be less than a total of 56° measured from the pilot's and co-pilot's eye point | X | The horizontal field-of-view is traditionally described as a 180° field-of-view. However, the field-of-view is technically no less than 176°. Field-of-view may be measured using a visual test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a matrix of black and white 5° squares.

4.c. | Surface contrast ratio. | Not less than 5:1. | N/A | The ratio is calculated by dividing the brightness level of the center, bright square (providing at least 2 foot-lamberts or 7 cd/m 2) by the brightness level of any adjacent dark square. | X | Measurements may be made using a 1° spot photometer and a raster drawn test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a test pattern of black and white squares, 5 per square, with a white square in the center of each channel. During contrast ratio testing, simulator aft-cab and flight deck ambient light levels should be zero.

4.d. | Highlight brightness. | Not less than six (6) foot-lamberts (20 cd/m 2). | N/A | Measure the brightness of the center, white square while superimposing a highlight on that white square. The use of calligraphic capabilities to enhance the raster brightness is acceptable; however, measuring light points is not acceptable. | X | Measurements may be made using a 1° spot photometer and a raster drawn test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a test pattern of black and white squares, 5 per square, with a white square in the center of each channel.

4.e. | Surface resolution. | Not greater than two (2) arc minutes. | N/A | An SOC is required and must include the appropriate calculations and an explanation of those calculations. Level B requires surface resolution not greater than three (3) arc minutes. | X | X | When the eye is positioned on a 3° glide slope at the slant range distances indicated with white runway markings on a black runway surface, the eye will subtend two (2) arc minutes: (1) A slant range of 6,876 ft with stripes 150 ft long and 16 ft wide, spaced 4 ft apart. (2) For Configuration A, a slant range of 5,157 feet with stripes 150 ft long and 12 ft wide, spaced 3 ft apart. (3) For Configuration B, a slant range of 9,884 feet, with stripes 150 ft long and 5.75 ft wide, spaced 5.75 ft apart.

4.f. | Light point size | Not greater than five (5) arc minutes. | N/A | An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations and an explanation of those calculations. | X | X | Light point size may be measured using a test pattern consisting of a centrally located single row of light points reduced in length until modulation is just discernible in each visual channel. A row of 48 lights will form a 4° angle or less.

4.g. | Light point contrast ratio. | A 1° spot photometer may be used to measure a square of at least 1° filled with light points (where light point modulation is just discernible) and compare the results to the measured adjacent background. During contrast ratio testing, simulator aft-cab and flight deck ambient light levels should be zero.

4.g.1. | Not less than 10:1 | N/A | An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations. | X

4.g.2. | Not less than 25:1 | N/A | An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations. | X | X

4.h. | Visual ground segment

The visible segment in the simulator must be ±20% of the segment computed to be visible from the helicopter flight deck. This tolerance may be applied at the far end of the displayed segment. However, lights and ground objects computed to be visible from the helicopter flight deck at the near end of the visible segment must be visible in the simulator. | Landing configuration, with the aircraft trimmed for the appropriate airspeed, where the MLG are at 100 ft (30 m) above the plane of the touchdown zone, on the electronic glide slope with an RVR value set at 1,200 ft (350 m). | The QTG must contain appropriate calculations and a drawing showing the data used to establish the helicopter location and the segment of the ground that is visible considering design eye point, the helicopter attitude, flight deck cut-off angle, and a visibility of 1200 ft (350 m) RVR. Simulator performance must be measured against the QTG calculations. The data submitted must include at least the following: | X | X | X | Pre-positioning for this test is encouraged, and may be achieved via manual or autopilot control to the desired position.

(1) Static helicopter dimensions as follows: (i) Horizontal and vertical distance from main landing gear (MLG) to glideslope reception antenna. (ii) Horizontal and vertical distance from MLG to pilot's eyepoint. (iii) Static flight deck cutoff angle. (2) Approach data as follows: (i) Identification of runway. (ii) Horizontal distance from runway threshold to glideslope intercept with runway. (iii) Glideslope angle. (iv) Helicopter pitch angle on approach. (3) Helicopter data for manual testing: (i) Gross weight. (ii) Helicopter configuration. (iii) Approach airspeed. If non-homogenous fog is used to obscure visibility, the vertical variation in horizontal visibility must be described and be included in the slant range visibility calculation used in the computations.

5. Sound system

The sponsor will not be required to repeat the helicopter tests (i.e., tests 5.a.1. through 5.a.8. (or 5.b.1. through 5.b.9.) and 5.c., as appropriate) during continuing qualification evaluations if frequency response and background noise test results are within tolerance when compared to the initial qualification evaluation results, and the sponsor shows that no software changes have occurred that will affect the helicopter test results. If the frequency response test method is chosen and fails, the sponsor may elect to fix the frequency response problem and repeat the test or the sponsor may elect to repeat the helicopter tests. If the helicopter tests are repeated during continuing qualification evaluations, the results may be compared against initial qualification evaluation results or helicopter master data. All tests in this section must be presented using an unweighted 1/3-octave band format from band 17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz). A minimum 20 second average must be taken at the location corresponding to the helicopter data set. The helicopter and flight simulator results must be produced using comparable data analysis techniques.

5.a. | Basic requirements

5.a.3. | Hover | ±5 dB per 1/3 octave band. | Hover | X

5.b. | Special cases

±5 dB per 1/3 octave band. | As appropriate | X | These special cases are identified as particularly significant during critical phases of flight and ground operations for a specific helicopter type or model.

5.c. | Background noise

±3 dB per 1/3 octave band. | As appropriate | Results of the background noise at initial qualification must be included in the MQTG. Measurements must be made with the simulation running, the sound muted, and a “dead” flight deck. | X | The simulated sound will be evaluated to ensure that the background noise does not interfere with training, testing, or checking.

5.d. | Frequency response

±5 dB on three (3) consecutive bands when compared to initial evaluation; and ±2 dB when comparing the average of the absolute differences between initial and continuing qualification evaluation. | Applicable only to Continuing Qualification Evaluations. If frequency response plots are provided for each channel at the initial evaluation, these plots may be repeated at the continuing qualification evaluation with the following tolerances applied: (a) The continuing qualification 1/3 octave band amplitudes must not exceed ±5 dB for three consecutive bands when compared to initial results. (b) The average of the sum of the absolute differences between initial and continuing qualification results must not exceed 2 dB (refer to table C2C in Appendix C). | X | Measurements are compared to those taken during initial qualification evaluation.

Begin Information

3. General

b. The reader is encouraged to review the Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volumes I and II, published by the Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, and FAA AC 25-7, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Airplanes, and AC 23-8, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, for references and examples regarding flight testing requirements and techniques.

4. Control Dynamics

a. General. The characteristics of a helicopter flight control system have a major effect on the handling qualities. A significant consideration in pilot acceptability of a helicopter is the “feel” provided through the flight controls. Considerable effort is expended on helicopter feel system design so that pilots will be comfortable and will consider the helicopter desirable to fly. In order for an FFS to be representative, it should “feel” like the helicopter being simulated. Compliance with this requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the FFS to actual helicopter measurements in the hover and cruise configurations.

(1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of electromechanical systems. In any case, it is only possible to estimate the dynamic properties as a result of only being able to estimate true inputs and responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data be collected since close matching of the FFS control loading system to the helicopter system is essential. The required dynamic control tests are described in Table C2A of this attachment.

(2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, the QPS requires that control dynamics characteristics be measured and recorded directly from the flight controls (Handling Qualities—Table C2A). This procedure is usually accomplished by measuring the free response of the controls using a step or impulse input to excite the system. The procedure should be accomplished in the hover and cruise flight conditions and configurations.

(3) For helicopters with irreversible control systems, measurements may be obtained on the ground if proper pitot-static inputs are provided to represent airspeeds typical of those encountered in flight. Likewise, it may be shown that for some helicopters, hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation have like effects. Thus, one may suffice for another. If either or both considerations apply, engineering validation or helicopter manufacturer rationale should be submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating a configuration. For FFSs requiring static and dynamic tests at the controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and upgrade evaluations if the QTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternate approach (e.g., computer plots that were produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement). Repeat of the alternate method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test requirement.

b. Control Dynamics Evaluations. The dynamic properties of control systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping, and a number of other classical measurements. In order to establish a consistent means of validating test results for FFS control loading, criteria are needed that will clearly define the measurement interpretation and the applied tolerances. Criteria are needed for underdamped, critically damped and overdamped systems. In the case of an underdamped system with very light damping, the system may be quantified in terms of frequency and damping. In critically damped or overdamped systems, the frequency and damping are not readily measured from a response time history. Therefore, the following suggested measurements may be used:

(1) For Levels C and D simulators. Tests to verify that control feel dynamics represent the helicopter should show that the dynamic damping cycles (free response of the controls) match those of the helicopter within specified tolerances. The responsible Flight Standards office recognizes that several different testing methods may be used to verify the control feel dynamic response. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider the merits of testing methods based on reliability and consistency. One acceptable method of evaluating the response and the tolerance to be applied is described below for the underdamped and critically damped cases. A sponsor using this method to comply with the QPS requirements should perform the tests as follows:

(a) Underdamped Response. Two measurements are required for the period, the time to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is present) and the subsequent frequency of oscillation. It is necessary to measure cycles on an individual basis in case there are non-uniform periods in the response. Each period will be independently compared to the respective period of the helicopter control system and, consequently, will enjoy the full tolerance specified for that period. The damping tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an individual basis. Care should be taken when applying the tolerance to small overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 percent of the total initial displacement should be considered significant. The residual band, labeled T(Ad) on Figure C2A is ±5 percent of the initial displacement amplitude Ad from the steady state value of the oscillation. Only oscillations outside the residual band are considered significant. When comparing FFS data to helicopter data, the process should begin by overlaying or aligning the FFS and helicopter steady state values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of the first zero crossing, and individual periods of oscillation. The FFS should show the same number of significant overshoots to within one when compared against the helicopter data. The procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure C2A.

(b) Critically damped and Overdamped Response. Due to the nature of critically damped and overdamped responses (no overshoots), the time to reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value should be the same as the helicopter within ±10 percent. The simulator response must be critically damped also. Figure C2B illustrates the procedure.

(2) Tolerances.

(a) The following summarizes the tolerances, “T” for underdamped systems, and “n” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation. See Figure C2A of this attachment for an illustration of the referenced measurements.

T(P0) | ±10% of P0

T(P1) | ±20% of P1

T(P2) | ±30% of P2

T(Pn) | ±10(n + 1)% of Pn

T(An) | ±10% of A1, ±20% of Subsequent Peaks

T(Ad) | ±5% of Ad = residual band

Significant overshoots. First overshoot and ±1 subsequent overshoots

(b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and overdamped systems only. See Figure C2B for an illustration of the reference measurements:

T(P0) | ±10% of P0

End Information

Begin QPS Requirement

c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.

(a) Static test—Slowly move the control so that a full sweep is achieved within 95-105 seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement of the controller from neutral to the stop, usually aft or right stop, then to the opposite stop, then to the neutral position.

(b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.

Note:

Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN).

(d) Tolerances

(i) Static test—see Table C2A, FFS Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3.

(ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10% on dynamic increment above static test.

End QPS Requirement

Begin Information

d. The FAA is open to alternative means that are justified and appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here may not apply to all manufacturers systems and certainly not to aircraft with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its own merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted methods will have to be used.

End Information

5. [Reserved]

Begin Information

6. Motion System.

a. General.

(1) Pilots use continuous information signals to regulate the state of the helicopter. In concert with the instruments and outside-world visual information, whole-body motion feedback is essential in assisting the pilot to control the helicopter dynamics, particularly in the presence of external disturbances. The motion system should meet basic objective performance criteria, and be subjectively tuned at the pilot's seat position to represent the linear and angular accelerations of the helicopter during a prescribed minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. The response of the motion cueing system should be repeatable.

(2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of Table C2A are intended to qualify the FFS motion cueing system from a mechanical performance standpoint. Additionally, the list of motion effects provides a representative sample of dynamic conditions that should be present in the flight simulator. An additional list of representative, training-critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1, (Performance tests) and Section 2, (Handling Qualities tests) in Table C2A, that should be recorded during initial qualification (but without tolerance) to indicate the flight simulator motion cueing performance signature have been identified (reference Section 3.e). These tests are intended to help improve the overall standard of FFS motion cueing.

b. Motion System Checks. The intent of test 3a, Frequency Response, test 3b, Leg Balance, and test 3c, Turn-Around Check, as described in the Table of Objective Tests, is to demonstrate the performance of the motion system hardware, and to check the integrity of the motion set-up with regard to calibration and wear. These tests are independent of the motion cueing software and should be considered robotic tests.

(1) Input: The inputs should be such that rotational accelerations, rotational rates, and linear accelerations are inserted before the transfer from helicopter center of gravity to pilot reference point with a minimum amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g, respectively, to provide adequate analysis of the output.

(2) Recommended output:

(a) Actual platform linear accelerations; the output will comprise accelerations due to both the linear and rotational motion acceleration;

(b) Motion actuators position.

d. Motion Cueing Performance Signature.

(1) Background. The intent of this test is to provide quantitative time history records of motion system response to a selected set of automated QTG maneuvers during initial qualification. It is not intended to be a comparison of the motion platform accelerations against the flight test recorded accelerations (i.e., not to be compared against helicopter cueing). If there is a modification to the initially qualified motion software or motion hardware (e.g., motion washout filter, simulator payload change greater than 10%) then a new baseline may need to be established.

(2) Test Selection. The conditions identified in Section 3.e. in Table C2A are those maneuvers where motion cueing is the most discernible. They are general tests applicable to all types of helicopters and should be completed for motion cueing performance signature at any time acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office prior to or during the initial qualification evaluation, and the results included in the MQTG.

(3) Priority. Motion system should be designed with the intent of placing greater importance on those maneuvers that directly influence pilot perception and control of the helicopter motions. For the maneuvers identified in section 3.e. in Table C2A, the flight simulator motion cueing system should have a high tilt co-ordination gain, high rotational gain, and high correlation with respect to the helicopter simulation model.

(4) Data Recording. The minimum list of parameters provided should allow for the determination of the flight simulator's motion cueing performance signature for the initial qualification evaluation. The following parameters are recommended as being acceptable to perform such a function:

(a) Flight model acceleration and rotational rate commands at the pilot reference point;

(b) Motion actuators position;

(d) Actual platform acceleration at pilot reference point.

e. Motion Vibrations.

(1) Presentation of results. The characteristic motion vibrations may be used to verify that the flight simulator can reproduce the frequency content of the helicopter when flown in specific conditions. The test results should be presented as a Power Spectral Density (PSD) plot with frequencies on the horizontal axis and amplitude on the vertical axis. The helicopter data and flight simulator data should be presented in the same format with the same scaling. The algorithms used for generating the flight simulator data should be the same as those used for the helicopter data. If they are not the same then the algorithms used for the flight simulator data should be proven to be sufficiently comparable. As a minimum the results along the dominant axes should be presented and a rationale for not presenting the other axes should be provided.

(2) Interpretation of results. The overall trend of the PSD plot should be considered while focusing on the dominant frequencies. Less emphasis should be placed on the differences at the high frequency and low amplitude portions of the PSD plot. During the analysis, certain structural components of the flight simulator have resonant frequencies that are filtered and may not appear in the PSD plot. If filtering is required, the notch filter bandwidth should be limited to 1 Hz to ensure that the buffet feel is not adversely affected. In addition, a rationale should be provided to explain that the characteristic motion vibration is not being adversely affected by the filtering. The amplitude should match helicopter data as described below. However, if the PSD plot was altered for subjective reasons, a rationale should be provided to justify the change. If the plot is on a logarithmic scale it may be difficult to interpret the amplitude of the buffet in terms of acceleration. For example, a 1 × 10−3 g-rms 2/Hz would describe a heavy buffet and may be seen in the deep stall regime. Alternatively, a 1 × 10−6 g-rms 2/Hz buffet is almost imperceptable, but may represent a flap buffet at low speed. The previous two examples differ in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD plot this represents three decades (one decade is a change in order of magnitude of 10, and two decades is a change in order of magnitude of 100).

Note:

In the example, “g-rms 2” is the mathematical expression for “g's root mean squared.”

f. Table C2B, Motion System Recommendations for Level C and Level D Helicopter Simulators, contains a description of the parameters that should be present in simulator motion systems to provide adequate onset motion cues to helicopter pilots. The information provided covers the six axes of motion (pitch, roll, yaw, vertical, lateral, and longitudinal) and addresses displacement, velocity, and acceleration. Also included is information about the parameters for initial rotational and linear acceleration. The parameters listed in this table apply only to Level C and Level D simulators, and are presented here as recommended targets for motion system capability. They are not requirements.

Table C2B—Motion System Recommendations for Level C and Level D Helicopter Simulators

a. Motion System Envelope

a.1. | Pitch

a.1.a. | Displacement | ±25°

a.1.b. | Velocity | ±20°/sec

a.1.c. | Acceleration | ±100°/sec 2

a.2. | Roll

a.2.a. | Displacement | ±25°

a.2.b. | Velocity | ±20°/sec

a.2.c. | Acceleration | ±100°/sec 2

a.3. | Yaw

a.3.a. | Displacement | ±25°

a.3.b. | Velocity— | ±20°/sec

a.3.c. | Acceleration | ±100°/sec 2

a.4. | Vertical

a.4.a. | Displacement | ±34 in.

a.4.b. | Velocity | ±24 in.

a.4.c. | Acceleration | ±0.8 g.

a.5. | Lateral

a.5.a. | Displacement | ±45 in.

a.5.b. | Velocity | ±28 in/sec.

a.5.c. | Acceleration | ±0.6 g.

a.6. | Longitudinal

a.6.a. | Displacement | ±34 in.

a.6.b. | Velocity | ±28 in/sec.

a.6.c. | Acceleration | ±0.6 g.

a.7. | Initial Rotational Acceleration Ratio.

All axes 300°/ sec 2/sec

a.8. | Initial Linear Acceleration Ratio.

a.8.a. | Vertical | ±6g/sec

a.8.b. | Lateral | ±3g/sec

a.8.c. | Longitudinal | ±3g/sec

7. Sound System

a. General. The total sound environment in the helicopter is very complex, and changes with atmospheric conditions, helicopter configuration, airspeed, altitude, and power settings. Flight deck sounds are an important component of the flight deck operational environment and provide valuable information to the flight crew. These aural cues can either assist the crew (as an indication of an abnormal situation), or hinder the crew (as a distraction or nuisance). For effective training, the flight simulator should provide flight deck sounds that are perceptible to the pilot during normal and abnormal operations, and that are comparable to those of the helicopter. The flight simulator operator should carefully evaluate background noises in the location where the device will be installed. To demonstrate compliance with the sound requirements, the objective or validation tests in this attachment were selected to provide a representative sample of normal static conditions typically experienced by a pilot.

b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with multiple propulsion configurations, any condition listed in Table C2A in this attachment should be presented for evaluation as part of the QTG if identified by the helicopter manufacturer or other data supplier as significantly different due to a change in propulsion system (engine or propeller).

c. Data and Data Collection System.

(1) Information provided to the flight simulator manufacturer should comply be presented in the format suggested by the “International Air Transport Association (IATA) Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended. This information should contain calibration and frequency response data.

(2) The system used to perform the tests listed in Table C2A should comply with the following standards:

(a) The specifications for octave, half octave, and third octave band filter sets may be found in American National Standards Institute (ANSI) S1.11-1986.

(b) Measurement microphones should be type WS2 or better, as described in International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 1094-4-1995.

(3) Headsets. If headsets are used during normal operation of the helicopter they should also be used during the flight simulator evaluation.

(4) Playback equipment. Playback equipment and recordings of the QTG conditions should be provided during initial evaluations.

(5) Background noise.

(a) Background noise is the noise in the flight simulator that is not associated with the helicopter, but is caused by the flight simulator's cooling and hydraulic systems and extraneous noise from other locations in the building. Background noise can seriously impact the correct simulation of helicopter sounds, and should be kept below the helicopter sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the simulation can be increased to compensate for the background noise. However, this approach is limited by the specified tolerances and by the subjective acceptability of the sound environment to the evaluation pilot.

(b) The acceptability of the background noise levels is dependent upon the normal sound levels in the helicopter being represented. Background noise levels that fall below the lines defined by the following points, may be acceptable:

(i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz;

(ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz;

(iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz.

(Note: These limits are for unweighted 1/3 octave band sound levels. Meeting these limits for background noise does not ensure an acceptable flight simulator. Helicopter sounds that fall below this limit require careful review and may require lower limits on background noise.)

(6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in helicopter recordings should be considered when applying the specified tolerances to ensure that the simulation is representative of the helicopter. Examples of typical deficiencies are:

(a) Variation of data between tail numbers.

(b) Frequency response of microphones.

Table C2C—Example of Continuing Qualification Frequency Response Test Tolerance

Band center frequency | Initial results (dBSPL) | Continuing qualification results (dBSPL) | Absolute difference

50 | 75.0 | 73.8 | 1.2

63 | 75.9 | 75.6 | 0.3

80 | 77.1 | 76.5 | 0.6

100 | 78.0 | 78.3 | 0.3

125 | 81.9 | 81.3 | 0.6

160 | 79.8 | 80.1 | 0.3

200 | 83.1 | 84.9 | 1.8

250 | 78.6 | 78.9 | 0.3

315 | 79.5 | 78.3 | 1.2

400 | 80.1 | 79.5 | 0.9

500 | 80.7 | 79.8 | 0.9

630 | 81.9 | 80.4 | 1.5

800 | 73.2 | 74.1 | 0.9

1000 | 79.2 | 80.1 | 0.9

1250 | 80.7 | 82.8 | 2.1

1600 | 81.6 | 78.6 | 3.0

2000 | 76.2 | 74.4 | 1.8

2500 | 79.5 | 80.7 | 1.2

3150 | 80.1 | 77.1 | 3.0

4000 | 78.9 | 78.6 | 0.3

5000 | 80.1 | 77.1 | 3.0

6300 | 80.7 | 80.4 | 0.3

8000 | 84.3 | 85.5 | 1.2

10000 | 81.3 | 79.8 | 1.5

12500 | 80.7 | 80.1 | 0.6

16000 | 71.1 | 71.1 | 0.0

Average | 1.1

8. Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Helicopters

a. Typically, a helicopter manufacturer's approved final data for performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics is not available until well after a new or derivative helicopter has entered service. However, flight crew training and certification often begins several months prior to the entry of the first helicopter into service. Consequently, it may be necessary to use preliminary data provided by the helicopter manufacturer for interim qualification of flight simulators.

b. In these cases, the responsible Flight Standards office may accept certain partially validated preliminary helicopter and systems data, and early release (“red label”) avionics data in order to permit the necessary program schedule for training, certification, and service introduction.

c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualification based on preliminary data should consult the responsible Flight Standards office to make special arrangements for using preliminary data for flight simulator qualification. The sponsor should also consult the helicopter and flight simulator manufacturers to develop a data plan and flight simulator qualification plan.

d. The procedure to be followed to gain the responsible Flight Standards office acceptance of preliminary data will vary from case to case and between helicopter manufacturers. Each helicopter manufacturer's new helicopter development and test program is designed to suit the needs of the particular project and may not contain the same events or sequence of events asanother manufacturer's program or even the same manufacturer's program for a different helicopter. Therefore, there cannot be a prescribed invariable procedure for acceptance of preliminary data; instead there should be a statement describing the final sequence of events, data sources, and validation procedures agreed by the simulator sponsor, the helicopter manufacturer, the flight simulator manufacturer, and the responsible Flight Standards office.

Note:

A description of helicopter manufacturer-provided data needed for flight simulator modeling and validation is to be found in the “Royal Aeronautical Society Data Package Requirements for Design and Performance Evaluation of Rotary Wing Synthetic Training Devices.”

e. The preliminary data should be the manufacturer's best representation of the helicopter, with assurance that the final data will not deviate significantly from the preliminary estimates. Data derived from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be validated by available sources including, at least, the following:

(1) Manufacturer's engineering report. The report should explain the predictive method used and illustrate past success of the method on similar projects. For example, the manufacturer could show the application of the method to an earlier helicopter model or predict the characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final data for that model.

(2) Early flight test results. This data is often derived from helicopter certification tests and should be used to maximum advantage for early flight simulator validation. Certain critical tests that would normally be done early in the helicopter certification program should be included to validate essential pilot training and certification maneuvers. These tests include cases where a pilot is expected to cope with a helicopter failure mode or an engine failure. The early data available will depend on the helicopter manufacturer's flight test program design and may not be the same in each case. The flight test program of the helicopter manufacturer should include provisions for generation of very early flight tests results for flight simulator validation.

f. The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The helicopter manufacturer's final data should be available within 12 months after the helicopter first entry into service or as agreed by the responsible Flight Standards office, the simulator sponsor, and the helicopter manufacturer. When applying for interim qualification using preliminary data, the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office should agree on the update program. This includes specifying that the final data update will be installed in the flight simulator within a period of 12 months following the final data release, unless special conditions exist and a different schedule is acceptable. The flight simulator performance and handling validation would then be based on data derived from flight tests. Initial helicopter systems data should be updated after engineering tests. Final helicopter systems data should also be used for flight simulator programming and validation.

g. Flight simulator avionics should stay essentially in step with helicopter avionics (hardware and software) updates. The permitted time lapse between helicopter and flight simulator updates should be minimal. It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and pilot training and certification are affected. Differences in helicopter and flight simulator avionics versions and the resulting effects on flight simulator qualification should be agreed between the simulator sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office. Consultation with the flight simulator manufacturer is desirable throughout the qualification process.

h. The following describes an example of the design data and sources that might be used in the development of an interim qualification plan.

(1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a mix of flight test and engineering simulation data. For data collected from specific helicopter flight tests or other flights the required design model or data changes necessary to support an acceptable Proof of Match (POM) should be generated by the helicopter manufacturer.

(2) For proper validation of the two sets of data, the helicopter manufacturer should compare their simulation model responses against the flight test data, when driven by the same control inputs and subjected to the same atmospheric conditions as recorded in the flight test. The model responses should result from a simulation where the following systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the design data released to the flight simulator manufacturer:

(a) Propulsion.

(b) Aerodynamics.

(d) Flight controls.

(e) Stability augmentation.

(f) Brakes/landing gear.

i. A qualified test pilot should be used to assess handling qualities and performance evaluations for the qualification of flight simulators of new helicopter types.

End Information

Begin QPS Requirement

9. Engineering Simulator—Validation Data

a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., validated with flight test results) is modified due to changes to the simulated helicopter configuration, the helicopter manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office to supply validation data from an “audited” engineering simulator/simulation to selectively supplement flight test data. The responsible Flight Standards office must be provided an opportunity to audit the use of the engineering simulation or the engineering simulator during the acquisition of the data that will be used as validation data. Audited data may be used for changes that are incremental in nature. Manufacturers or other data suppliers must be able to demonstrate that the predicted changes in helicopter performance are based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. This must include comparisons of predicted and flight test validated data.

b. Helicopter manufacturers or other acceptable data suppliers seeking to use an engineering simulator for simulation validation data as an alternative to flight-test derived validation data, must contact the responsible Flight Standards office and provide the following:

(1) A description of the proposed aircraft changes, a description of the proposed simulation model changes, and the use of an integral configuration management process, including an audit of the actual simulation model modifications that includes a step-by-step description leading from the original model(s) to the current model(s).

(2) A schedule for review by the responsible Flight Standards office of the proposed plan and the subsequent validation data to establish acceptability of the proposal.

(3) Validation data from an audited engineering simulator/simulation to supplement specific segments of the flight test data.

c. To be qualified to supply engineering simulator validation data, for aerodynamic, engine, flight control, or ground handling models, a helicopter manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier must:

(1) Be able to verify their ability to:

(a) Develop and implement high fidelity simulation models; and

(b) Predict the handling and performance characteristics of a helicopter with sufficient accuracy to avoid additional flight test activities for those handling and performance characteristics.

(2) Have an engineering simulator that:

(a) Is a physical entity, complete with a flight deck representative of the simulated class of helicopter;

(b) Has controls sufficient for manual flight;

(d) Had fully flight-test validated simulation models as the original or baseline simulation models;

(e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual system;

(f) Has actual avionics boxes interchangeable with the equivalent software simulations to support validation of released software;

(g) Uses the same models as released to the training community (which are also used to produce stand-alone proof-of-match and checkout documents);

(h) Is used to support helicopter development and certification; and

(i) Has been found to be a high fidelity representation of the helicopter by the manufacturer's pilots (or other acceptable data supplier), certificate holders, and the responsible Flight Standards office.

(3) Use the engineering simulator to produce a representative set of integrated proof-of-match cases.

(4) Use a configuration control system covering hardware and software for the operating components of the engineering simulator.

(5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects of the change(s) are within the provisions of sub-paragraph “a” of this section, and confirm that additional flight test data are not required.

d. Additional Requirements for Validation Data

(1) When used to provide validation data, an engineering simulator must meet the simulator standards currently applicable to training simulators except for the data package.

(2) The data package used must be:

(a) Comprised of the engineering predictions derived from the helicopter design, development, or certification process;

(d) Applicable to the configuration of a production helicopter, as opposed to a flight-test helicopter.

(3) Where engineering simulator data are used as part of a QTG, an essential match must exist between the training simulator and the validation data.

End QPS Requirement

10. [Reserved]

11. Validation Test Tolerances

Begin Information

a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances. If engineering simulator data or other non-flight-test data are used as an allowable form of reference validation data for the objective tests listed in Table C2A of this attachment, the data provider must supply a well-documented mathematical model and testing procedure that enables a replication of the engineering simulation results within 20% of the corresponding flight test tolerances.

b. Background

(1) The tolerances listed in Table C2A of this attachment are designed to measure the quality of the match using flight-test data as a reference.

(2) Good engineering judgment should be applied to all tolerances in any test. A test is failed when the results fall outside of the prescribed tolerance(s).

(4) The results from the two sources may differ for the following reasons:

(a) Hardware (avionics units and flight controls);

(b) Iteration rates;

(d) Integration methods;

(e) Processor architecture;

(f) Digital drift, including:

(i) Interpolation methods;

(ii) Data handling differences;

(iii) Auto-test trim tolerances.

(5) The tolerance limit between the reference data and the flight simulator results is generally 20% of the corresponding “flight-test” tolerances. However, there may be cases where the simulator models used are of higher fidelity, or the manner in which they are cascaded in the integrated testing loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than those supplied by the data provider. Under these circumstances, it is possible that an error greater than 20% may be generated. An error greater than 20% may be acceptable if the simulator sponsor can provide an adequate explanation.

(6) Guidelines are needed for the application of tolerances to engineering-simulator-generated validation data because:

(a) Flight-test data are often not available due to sound technical reasons;

(b) Alternative technical solutions are being advanced; and

12. Validation Data Roadmap

a. Helicopter manufacturers or other data suppliers should supply a validation data roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data package. A VDR document contains guidance material from the helicopter validation data supplier recommending the best possible sources of data to be used as validation data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value when requesting interim qualification, qualification of simulators for helicopters certificated prior to 1992, and qualification of alternate engine or avionics fits. A sponsor seeking to have a device qualified in accordance with the standards contained in this QPS appendix should submit a VDR to the responsible Flight Standards office as early as possible in the planning stages. The NSPM is the final authority to approve the data to be used as validation material for the QTG. The responsible Flight Standards office and the Joint Aviation Authorities' Synthetic Training Devices Advisory Board have committed to maintain a list of agreed VDRs.

b. The VDR should identify (in matrix format) sources of data for all required tests. It should also provide guidance regarding the validity of these data for a specific engine type, thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting helicopter handling qualities and performance. The VDR should include rationale or explanation in cases where data or parameters are missing, engineering simulation data are to be used, flight test methods require explanation, or where there is any deviation from data requirements. Additionally, the document should refer to other appropriate sources of validation data (e.g., sound and vibration data documents).

c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap (VDR) for helicopters, shown in Table C2D, depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying sources of validation data for an abbreviated list of tests. This sample document uses fixed wing parameters instead of helicopter values. It is merely a sample and does not provide actual data. A complete matrix should address all test conditions for helicopter application and provide actual data and data sources.

d. Two examples of rationale pages are presented in Appendix F of IATA Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements document. These illustrate the type of helicopter and avionics configuration information and descriptive engineering rationale used to describe data anomalies or provide an acceptable basis for using alternative data for QTG validation requirements.

End Information

Begin Information

13. [Reserved]

14. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics (Flight-Related Computers and Controllers)

a. Background

(1) For a new helicopter type, the majority of flight validation data are collected on the first helicopter configuration with a “baseline” flight-related avionics ship-set; (see subparagraph b.(2) of this section). These data are then used to validate all flight simulators representing that helicopter type.

(2) Additional validation data may be needed for flight simulators representing a helicopter with avionics of a different hardware design than the baseline, or a different software revision than that of previously validated configurations.

b. Approval Guidelines For Validating Alternate Avionics

(1) The following guidelines apply to flight simulators representing helicopters with a revised avionics configuration, or more than one avionics configuration.

(2) The baseline validation data should be based on flight test data, except where other data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineering flight simulator data).

(3) The helicopter avionics can be segmented into two groups, systems or components whose functional behavior contributes to the aircraft response presented in the QTG results, and systems that do not. The following avionics are examples of contributory systems for which hardware design changes or software revisions may lead to significant differences in the aircraft response relative to the baseline avionics configuration: Flight control computers and controllers for engines, autopilot, braking system, and nosewheel steering system, if applicable. Related avionics such as augmentation systems should also be considered.

(4) The acceptability of validation data used in the QTG for an alternative avionics fit should be determined as follows:

(a) For changes to an avionics system or component that do not affect QTG validation test response, the QTG test can be based on validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration.

(b) For an avionics change to a contributory system, where a specific test is not affected by the change (e.g., the avionics change is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE) update or a modification in a different flight phase), the QTG test can be based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics configuration. The QTG should include authoritative justification (e.g., from the helicopter manufacturer or system supplier) that this avionics change does not affect the test.

(c) For an avionics change to a contributory system, the QTG may be based on validation data from the previously-validated avionics configuration if no new functionality is added and the impact of the avionics change on the helicopter response is based on acceptable aeronautical principles with proven success history and valid outcomes. This should be supplemented with avionics-specific validation data from the helicopter manufacturer's engineering simulation, generated with the revised avionics configuration. The QTG should include an explanation of the nature of the change and its effect on the helicopter response.

(d) For an avionics change to a contributory system that significantly affects some tests in the QTG, or where new functionality is added, the QTG should be based on validation data from the previously validated avionics configuration and supplemental avionics-specific flight test data sufficient to validate the alternate avionics revision. Additional flight test validation data may not be needed if the avionics changes were certified without the need for testing with a comprehensive flight instrumentation package. The helicopter manufacturer should coordinate flight simulator data requirements in advance with the responsible Flight Standards office.

15. Transport Delay Testing

a. This paragraph describes how to determine the introduced transport delay through the flight simulator system so that it does not exceed a specific time delay. The transport delay should be measured from control inputs through the interface, through each of the host computer modules and back through the interface to motion, flight instrument, and visual systems. The transport delay should not exceed the maximum allowable interval.

b. Four specific examples of transport delay are:

(1) Simulation of classic non-computer controlled aircraft;

(2) Simulation of Computer Controlled Aircraft using real helicopter black boxes;

(3) Simulation of Computer Controlled Aircraft using software emulation of helicopter boxes;

(4) Simulation using software avionics or rehosted instruments.

c. Figure C2C illustrates the total transport delay for a non-computer-controlled helicopter or the classic transport delay test. Since there are no helicopter-induced delays for this case, the total transport delay is equivalent to the introduced delay.

d. Figure C2D illustrates the transport delay testing method using the real helicopter controller system.

e. To obtain the induced transport delay for the motion, instrument and visual signal, the delay induced by the helicopter controller should be subtracted from the total transport delay. This difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A.

f. Introduced transport delay is measured from the flight deck control input to the reaction of the instruments and motion and visual systems (See Figure C2C).

g. The control input may also be introduced after the helicopter controller system input and the introduced transport delay may be measured directly from the control input to the reaction of the instruments, and simulator motion and visual systems (See Figure C2D).

h. Figure C2E illustrates the transport delay testing method used on a flight simulator that uses a software emulated helicopter controller system.

i. It is not possible to measure the introduced transport delay using the simulated helicopter controller system architecture for the pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the signal should be measured directly from the pilot controller. The flight simulator manufacturer should measure the total transport delay and subtract the inherent delay of the actual helicopter components because the real helicopter controller system has an inherent delay provided by the helicopter manufacturer. The flight simulator manufacturer should ensure that the introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A.

j. Special measurements for instrument signals for flight simulators using a real helicopter instrument display system instead of a simulated or re-hosted display. For flight instrument systems, the total transport delay should be measured and the inherent delay of the actual helicopter components subtracted to ensure that the introduced delay does not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A.

(1) Figure C2FA illustrates the transport delay procedure without helicopter display simulation. The introduced delay consists of the delay between the control movement and the instrument change on the data bus.

(2) Figure C2FB illustrates the modified testing method required to measure introduced delay due to software avionics or re-hosted instruments. The total simulated instrument transport delay is measured and the helicopter delay should be subtracted from this total. This difference represents the introduced delay and should not exceed the standards prescribed in Table C1A. The inherent delay of the helicopter between the data bus and the displays is indicated in figure C2FA. The display manufacturer should provide this delay time.

l. Interpretation of results. Flight simulator results vary over time from test to test due to “sampling uncertainty.” All flight simulators run at a specific rate where all modules are executed sequentially in the host computer. The flight controls input can occur at any time in the iteration, but these data will not be processed before the start of the new iteration. For example, a flight simulator running at 60 Hz may have a difference of as much as 16.67 msec between results. This does not mean that the test has failed. Instead, the difference is attributed to variation in input processing. In some conditions, the host simulator and the visual system do not run at the same iteration rate, so the output of the host computer to the visual system will not always be synchronized.

m. The transport delay test should account for both daylight and night modes of operation of the visual system. In both cases, the tolerances prescribed in Table C1A should be met and the motion response should occur before the end of the first video scan containing new information.

16. Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation Test Data Presentation

a. Background

b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test Results Presentation

(3) Differences between the two sets of results, other than variations attributable to repeatability issues that cannot be explained should be investigated.

(4) The flight simulator should retain the ability to over-plot both automatic and manual validation test results with reference data.

End Information

Begin QPS Requirements

17. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation: Level B Simulators Only

a. Sponsors are not required to use the alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation. However, any sponsor choosing to use alternative sources must comply with the requirements in Table C2E.

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Begin Information

b. It has become standard practice for experienced simulator manufacturers to use such techniques as a means of establishing data bases for new simulator configurations while awaiting the availability of actual flight test data. The data generated from the aerodynamic modeling techniques is then compared to the flight test data when it becomes available. The results of such comparisons have become increasingly consistent, indicating that these techniques, applied with appropriate experience, are dependable and accurate for the development of aerodynamic models for use in Level B simulators.

c. Based on this history of successful comparisons, the responsible Flight Standards office has concluded that those who are experienced in the development of aerodynamic models for simulator application can successfully use these modeling techniques to alter the method for acquiring flight test data for Level B simulators.

d. The information in Table C2E (Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Information) is presented to describe an acceptable alternative to data sources for simulator modeling and validation and an acceptable alternative to the procedures and instrumentation traditionally used to gather such modeling and validation data.

(1) Alternative data sources that may be used for part or all of a data requirement are the Helicopter Maintenance Manual, the Rotorcraft Flight Manual (RFM), Helicopter Design Data, the Type Inspection Report (TIR), Certification Data or acceptable supplemental flight test data.

(2) The sponsor should coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office prior to using alternative data sources in a flight test or data gathering effort.

e. The responsible Flight Standards office position on the use of these alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation is based on the use of a rigorously defined and fully mature simulation controls system model that includes accurate gearing and cable stretch characteristics (where applicable), determined from actual aircraft measurements. The model does not require control surface position measurements in the flight test objective data in these limited applications.

f. Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, including the inclinometer; the force/position measurements of flight deck controls; and a clear visual directional reference for a known magnetic bearing (e.g., a runway centerline). Ground track and wind corrected heading may be used for sideslip angle.

g. The sponsor is urged to contact the responsible Flight Standards office for clarification of any issue regarding helicopters with reversible control systems. This table is not applicable to Computer Controlled Aircraft flight simulators.

h. Use of these alternate data sources, procedures, and instrumentation does not relieve the sponsor from compliance with the balance of the information contained in this document relative to Level B FFSs.

i. The term “inertial measurement system” is used in table C2E includes the use of a functional global positioning system (GPS).

j. Synchronized video for the use of alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation should have:

(1) sufficient resolution to allow magnification of the display to make appropriate measurement and comparisons; and

(2) sufficient size and incremental marking to allow similar measurement and comparison. The detail provided by the video should provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to measure the necessary parameter(s) to at least 1/2 of the tolerance authorized for the specific test being conducted and allow an integration of the parameter(s) in question to obtain a rate of change.

End Information

Table C2E—Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation

[The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix C are not used]

QPS requirements | Information

Table of objective tests | Level By only | Alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation | Notes

Test entry number and title

1.a.1.a. Performance. Engine Start and Accelerations | X | Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all engine instruments, start buttons, means for fuel introduction and means for moving from “idle” to “flight.” A stopwatch is necessary

1.a.1.b. Performance. Steady State Idle and Operating RPM Conditions | X | Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all engine instruments, and include the status of the means for moving from “idle” to “flight.”

1.a.2. Performance. Power Turbine Speed Trim | X | Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all engine instruments. Speed trim actuator position may be hand recorded

1.a.3. Performance. Engine and Rotor Speed Governing | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.b.1. Performance. On Surface Taxi. Minimum Radius Turn | X | TIR, AFM, or Design data may be used

1.b.2. Performance. On Surface Taxi Rate of Turn vs. Nosewheel Steering Angle | X | Data may be acquired by using a constant tiller position (measured with a protractor), or full pedal application for steady state turn, and synchronized video of heading indicator. If less than full pedal is used, pedal position must be recorded. | A single procedure may not be adequate for all rotorcraft steering systems. Appropriate measurement procedures must be devised and proposed for responsible Flight Standards office concurrence.

1.b.3. Performance. Taxi | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.b.4. Performance. Brake | X | Data may be acquired using a stopwatch and a means for measuring distance such as runway distance markers conforming with runway distance marker standards

1.c.1. Performance. Running Takeoff | X | Preliminary certification data may be used. Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Collective, cyclic, and pedal position time history must be recorded from the start of collective movement through to normal climb. Indicated torque settings may be hand recorded at the moment of lift-off and in a steady normal climb

1.c.2. Performance. One Engine Inoperative (OEI), continued takeoff | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. Collective, cyclic, and pedal position time history must be recorded from the start of collective movement through to normal OEI climb. Indicated torque settings may be hand recorded at the moment of lift-off and in a steady normal OEI climb

1.f. Performance. Level Flight. Trimmed Flight Control Positions | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.g. Performance. Normal Climb. Trimmed Flight Control Positions | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.h.1. Descent Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.h.2. Autorotation Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.j.1. Performance. Running Landing All Engines | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.j.2. Performance. Running Landing One Engine Inoperative | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

1.j.3. Performance. Balked Landing | X | Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. The synchronized video must record the time of the “balk landing” decision

2.a.1. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Cyclic Controller Position vs. Force | X | Control positions can be obtained using continuous control position recordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against control position in each of the control axes

2.a.2. Handling Qualities. Static Control Checks. Collective/Pedals vs. Force | X | Control positions can be obtained using continuous control position recordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against control position in each of the control axes

2.a.3. Handling Qualities. Brake Pedal Force vs. Position | X | Brake pedal positions can be obtained using continuous position recordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against brake pedal position

2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Trim System Rate (all applicable systems) | X | Control positions can be obtained using continuous control position recordings plotted against time to provide rate in each applicable system

2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Control System Freeplay | X | Data may be acquired by direct measurement

2.c.1. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Control Response | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.c.2. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Static Stability | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.c.3.a. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Dynamic Stability, Long Term Response | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.c.3.b. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Dynamic Stability, Short Term Response | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.c.4. Longitudinal Handling Qualities. Maneuvering stability | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.d.1.a. Lateral Handling Qualities. Control Response | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

2.d.1.b Directional Handling Qualities. Control Response. | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated helicopter instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck directional controls

2.d.2. Handling Qualities. Directional Static Stability | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of calibrated helicopter instruments and force/position measurements of flight deck directional controls

2.d.3.a. Handling Qualities. Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability Lateral-Directional Oscillations | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, the force/position measurements of flight deck controls, and a stop watch

2.d.3.b. Handling Qualities. Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability Spiral Stability | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, the force/position measurements of flight deck controls, and a stop watch

2.d.3.c. Handling Qualities. Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability. Adverse/Proverse Yaw | X | Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments, the force/position measurements of flight deck controls

Begin Information

18. Visual Display Systems.

a. Basic principles of a FFS collimated display:

(1) The essential feature of a collimated display is that light rays coming from a given point in a picture are parallel. There are two main implications of the parallel rays:

(a) The viewer's eyes focus at infinity and have zero convergence, providing a cue that the object is distant; and

(b) The angle to any given point in the picture does not change when viewed from a different position so the object behaves geometrically as though it were located at a significant distance from the viewer. These cues are self-consistent, and are appropriate for any object that has been modeled as being at a significant distance from the viewer.

(2) In an ideal situation the rays are perfectly parallel, but most implementations provide only an approximation to the ideal. Typically, an FFS display provides an image located not closer than about 20-33 ft (6-10 m) from the viewer, with the distance varying over the field-of-view. A schematic representation of a collimated display is provided in Figure C2A.

(3) Collimated displays are well suited to many simulation applications as the area of interest is relatively distant from the observer so the angles to objects should remain independent of viewing position. Consider the view of the runway seen by the flight crew lined up on an approach. In the real world, the runway is distant and the light rays from the runway to the eyes are parallel. The runway appears to be straight ahead to both crew members. This situation is well simulated by a collimated display and is presented in Figure C2B. Note that the distance to the runway has been shortened for clarity. If drawn to scale, the runway would be farther away and the rays from the two seats would be closer to being parallel.

(4) While the horizontal field-of-view of a collimated display can be extended to approximately 210°-220°, the vertical field-of-view has been limited to about 40°-45°. These limitations result from tradeoffs in optical quality and interference between the display components and flight deck structures, but were sufficient to meet FFS regulatory approval for Helicopter FFSs. However, recent designs have been introduced with vertical fields of view of up to 60° for helicopter applications.

b. Basic principles of a FFS dome (or non-collimated) display:

(1) The situation in a dome display is shown in Figure C2C. As the angles can be correct for only one eye point at a time, the visual system in the figure has been aligned for the right seat eye point position. The runway appears to be straight ahead of the aircraft for this viewer. For the left seat viewer, however, the runway appears to be somewhat to the right of the aircraft. As the aircraft is still moving towards the runway, the perceived velocity vector will be directed towards the runway and this will be interpreted as the aircraft having some yaw offset.

(2) The situation is substantially different for near field objects encountered in helicopter operations close to the ground. In those cases, objects that should be interpreted as being close to the viewer will be misinterpreted as being distant in a collimated display. The errors can actually be reduced in a dome display.

(3) The field-of-view possible with a dome display can be larger than that of a collimated display. Depending on the configuration, a field-of-view of 240° by 90° is possible and can be exceeded.

c. Additional display considerations

(1) While the situations described above are for discrete viewing positions, the same arguments can be extended to moving eye points produced by the viewer's head movement. In the real world, the parallax effects resulting from head movement provide distance cues. The effect is particularly strong for relative movement of flight deck structure in the near field and modeled objects in the distance. Collimated displays will provide accurate parallax cues for distant objects, but increasingly inaccurate cues for near field objects. The situation is reversed for dome displays.

(2) Stereopsis cues resulting from the different images presented to each eye for objects relatively close to the viewer also provide depth cues. Again, the collimated and dome displays provide more or less accurate cues depending on the modeled distance of the objects being viewed.

d. Training implications

(1) In view of the basic principles described above, it is clear that neither display approach provides a completely accurate image for all possible object distances. The sponsor should consider the training role of the FFS when configuring the display system to make the optimum choice. Factors that should be considered include relative importance of training tasks at low altitudes, the role of the two crew members in the flying tasks, and the field-of-view required for specific training tasks.

Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60—Simulator Subjective Evaluation

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Requirements

a. Except for special use airport models, all airport models required by this part must be representations of real-world, operational airports or representations of fictional airports and must meet the requirements set out in Tables C3B or C3C of this attachment, as appropriate.

b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate with respect to the visual presentation and airport model of this fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation aid installation and performance and other criteria (including obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must reference and account for information in the terminal instrument procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be clearly marked “for training purposes only.”

d. When a person sponsors an FFS maintained by a person other than a U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FFS originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including the visual scenes and airport models that may be used by instructors or evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter.

f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office (described in paragraph 1.g., of this section), an update to that airport model must be made in accordance with the following time limits:

(2) For a new or modified approach light system—within 45 days of the activation of the new or modified approach light system.

(3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180 days of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.

g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the time limit for an update to a visual scene or airport model or has an objection to what must be updated in the specific airport model requirement, the sponsor must provide a written extension request to the responsible Flight Standards office stating the reason for the update delay and a proposed completion date or provide an explanation for the objection, explaining why the identified airport change will not have an impact on flight training, testing, or checking. A copy of this request or objection must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. The responsible Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM; however, if there is an objection, after consultation with the appropriate POI/TCPM regarding the training, testing, or checking impact, the responsible Flight Standards office will send the official response to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

2. Discussion

a. The subjective tests provide a basis for evaluating the capability of the simulator to perform over a typical utilization period; determining that the simulator competently simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the simulator controls, instruments, and systems. The items listed in the following Tables are for simulator evaluation purposes only. They may not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of simulator as described on the SOQ or as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are subject to an examination.

b. The tests in Table C3A, Operations Tasks, in this attachment address pilot functions, including maneuvers and procedures (called flight tasks), and are divided by flight phases. The performance of these tasks by the responsible Flight Standards office includes an operational examination of the visual system and special effects. There are flight tasks included to address some features of advanced technology helicopters and innovative training programs.

c. The tests in Table C3A, Operations Tasks, and Table C3G, Instructor Operating Station, in this attachment address the overall function and control of the simulator including the various simulated environmental conditions; simulated helicopter system operation (normal, abnormal, and emergency); visual system displays; and special effects necessary to meet flight crew training, evaluation, or flight experience requirements.

d. All simulated helicopter systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed during the evaluation of flight tasks or events within that flight phase. Simulated helicopter systems are listed separately under “Any Flight Phase” to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation.

e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory circling approach will be qualified for the circling approach maneuver and may be approved for such use by the TPAA in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program. To be considered satisfactory, the circling approach will be flown at maximum gross weight for landing, with minimum visibility for the helicopter approach category, and must allow proper alignment with a landing runway at least 90° different from the instrument approach course while allowing the pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the airport in sight throughout the maneuver (reference—14 CFR 91.175(e)).

f. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the simulator for a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include a portion of a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an evaluation would not affect the qualification of the simulator.

g. This appendix addresses helicopter simulators at Levels B, C, and D because there are no Level A Helicopter simulators.

h. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models on a limited basis when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in which this particular media element is used. The analysis should describe the ability of the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate environment in which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The analysis should also include the specific media element, such as the visual scene or airport model.

i. The TPAA may accept Class III airport models without individual observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable description of the process for determining the acceptability of a specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model. Examples of situations that may warrant Class III model designation by the TPAA include the following:

(a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility operations, including SMGCS operations.

(b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or checking) using—

(i) A specific model that has been geographically “moved” to a different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another airport.

(ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.

j. Previously qualified simulators with certain early generation Computer Generated Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by the capability of the Image Generator or the display system used. These systems are:

(1) Early CGI visual systems that are exempt from the necessity of including runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking requirements are:

(a) Link NVS and DNVS.

(b) Novoview 2500 and 6000.

(d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.

(2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted from the necessity of including runway numbers unless the runway is used for LOFT training sessions. These LOFT airport models require runway numbers, but only for the specific runway end (one direction) used in the LOFT session. The systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are:

(a) FlightSafety VITAL IV.

(b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.

(3) The following list of previously qualified CGI and display systems are incapable of generating blue lights. These systems are not required to have accurate taxi-way edge lighting are:

(a) Redifusion SP1 and SP1T.

(b) FlightSafety Vital IV.

(d) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color).

End Information

Table C3A—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks | Simulator level

B | C | D

Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or the level of simulator qualification involved. Items not installed or not functional on the simulator and, therefore, not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.

1. Preparation for Flight

1.a. | Flight deck check: Switches, indicators, systems, and equipment | X | X | X

2. APU/Engine start and run-up

2.a. | Normal start procedures | X | X | X

2.b. | Alternate start procedures | X | X | X

2.c. | Abnormal starts and shutdowns (e.g., hot start, hung start) | X | X | X

2.d. | Rotor engagement | X | X | X

2.e. | System checks | X | X | X

3. Taxiing—Ground

3.a | Power required to taxi | X | X | X

3.b. | Brake effectiveness | X | X | X

3.c. | Ground handling | X | X | X

3.d. | Water handling (if applicable) | X | X

3.e. | Abnormal/emergency procedures:

3.e.1. | Brake system failure | X | X | X

3.e.2. | Ground resonance | X | X

3.e.3. | Dynamic rollover | X | X

3.e.4. | Deployment of emergency floats/water landing | X | X

3.e.5. | Others listed on the SOQ | A | X | X

4. Taxiing—Hover

4.a. | Takeoff to a hover | X | X | X

4.b. | Instrument response:

4.b.1. | Engine instruments | X | X | X

4.b.2. | Flight instruments | X | X | X

4.b.3. | Hovering turns | X | X | X

4.c. | Hover power checks:

4.c.1. | In ground effect (IGE) | X | X | X

4.c.2. | Out of ground effect (OGE) | X | X | X

4.d. | Crosswind/tailwind hover | X | X | X

4.e. | Translating tendency | X | X | X

4.f. | External load operations:

4.f.1. | Hookup | X | X

4.f.2. | Release | X | X

4.f.3. | Winch operations | X | X

4.g. | Abnormal/emergency procedures:

4.g.1. | Engine failure | X | X | X

4.g.2. | Fuel governing system failure | X | X | X

4.g.3. | Settling with power (OGE) | X | X | X

4.g.4. | Hovering autorotation | X | X

4.g.5. | Stability augmentation system failure | X | X | X

4.g.6. | Directional control malfunction | X | X | X

4.g.7. | Loss of tail rotor effectiveness (LTE) | X | X

4.g.8. | Others listed on the SOQ | A | X | X

4.h. | Pre-takeoff checks | X | X | X

5. Takeoff/Translational Flight

5.a. | Forward (up to effective translational lift) | X | X

5.b. | Sideward (up to limiting airspeed) | X | X

5.c. | Rearward (up to limiting airspeed) | X | X

6. Takeoff and Departure Phase

6.a. | Normal | X | X | X

6.a.1. | From ground | X | X | X

6.a.2. | From hover | X | X | X

6.a.2.a. | Cat A | X | X | X

6.a.2.b. | Cat B | X | X | X

6.a.3. | Running | X | X | X

6.a.4. | Crosswind/tailwind | X | X | X

6.a.5. | Maximum performance | X | X | X

6.a.6. | Instrument | X | X | X

6.a.7. | Takeoff from a confined area | X | X | X

6.a.8. | Takeoff from a pinnacle/platform | X | X | X

6.a.9. | Takeoff from a slope | X | X | X

6.a.10. | External load operations | X | X

6.b. | Abnormal/emergency procedures: | X | X | X

6.b.1. | Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP) | X | X | X

6.b.1.a. | Cat A | X | X

6.b.1.b. | Cat B | X | X

6.c. | Rejected takeoff

6.c.1. | Land | X | X | X

6.c.2. | Water (if appropriate) | X | X | X

6.d. | Instrument departure | X | X | X

6.e. | Others as listed on the SOQ | A | X | X

7. Climb

7.a. | Normal | X | X | X

7.b. | Obstacle clearance | X | X | X

7.c. | Vertical | X | X

7.d. | One engine inoperative | X | X | X

7.e. | Others as listed on the SOQ | A | X | X

8. Cruise

8.a | Performance | X | X | X

8.b. | Flying qualities | X | X | X

8.c. | Turns | X | X | X

8.c.1. | Timed | X | X | X

8.c.2. | Normal | X | X | X

8.c.3. | Steep | X | X | X

8.d. | Accelerations and decelerations | X | X | X

8.e. | High speed vibrations | X | X | X

8.f. | External Load Operations (see entry 4.f. of this table) | X | X

8.g. | Abnormal/emergency procedures | X | X | X

8.g.1. | Engine fire | X | X | X

8.g.2 | Engine failure | X | X | X

8.g.3. | Inflight engine shutdown and restart | X | X | X

8.g.4. | Fuel governing system failures | X | X | X

8.g.5. | Directional control malfunction | X | X | X

8.g.6. | Hydraulic failure | X | X | X

8.g.7. | Stability system failure | X | X | X

8.g.8. | Rotor vibrations | X | X | X

8.g.9. | Recovery from unusual attitudes | X | X | X

9. Descent

9.a. | Normal | X | X | X

9.b. | Maximum rate | X | X | X

9.c. | Autorotative

9.c.1. | Straight-in | X | X | X

9.c.2. | With turn | X | X | X

9.d. | External Load | X | X

10. Approach

10.a. | Non-precision | X | X | X

10.a.1. | All engines operating | X | X | X

10.a.2. | One or more engines inoperative | X | X | X

10.a.3. | Approach procedures: | X | X | X

10.a.3.a. | NDB | X | X | X

10.a.3.b. | VOR, RNAV, TACAN | X | X | X

10.a.3.c. | ASR | X | X | X

10.a.3.d. | Circling | X | X | X

10.a.3.e. | Helicopter only | X | X | X

10.a.4. | Missed approach | X | X | X

10.a.4.a. | All engines operating | X | X | X

10.a.4.b. | One or more engines inoperative | X | X | X

10.b. | Precision | X | X | X

10.b.1. | All engines operating | X | X | X

10.b.2. | Manually controlled—one or more engines inoperative | X | X | X

10.b.3. | Approach procedures: | X | X | X

10.b.3.a. | PAR | X | X | X

10.b.3.b. | MLS | X | X | X

10.b.3.c. | ILS | X | X | X

10.b.3.c. | (1) Manual (raw data) | X | X | X

10.b.3.c. | (2) Flight director only | X | X | X

10.b.3.c. | (3) Autopilot * only | X | X | X

10.b.3.c. | (4) Cat I | X | X | X

10.b.3.c. | (5) Cat II | X | X | X

10.b.4. | Missed approach:

10.b.4.a. | All engines operating | X | X | X

10.b.4.b. | One or more engines inoperative | X | X | X

10.b.4.c. | Stability system failure | X | X | X

10.c. | Others as listed on the SOQ | A | X | X

11. Landings and Approaches to Landings

11.a. | Visual Approaches:

11.a.1. | Normal | X | X | X

11.a.2. | Steep | X | X | X

11.a.3. | Shallow | X | X | X

11.a.4. | Crosswind | X | X | X

11.a.5. | Category A profile | X | X

11.a.6. | Category B profile | X | X

11.a.7. | External Load | X | X

11.b. | Abnormal/emergency procedures:

11.b.1. | Directional control failure | X | X | X

11.b.2. | Hydraulics failure | X | X | X

11.b.3. | Fuel governing failure | X | X | X

11.b.4. | Autorotation | X | X | X

11.b.5. | Stability system failure | X | X | X

11.b.6. | Others listed on the SOQ | A | X | X

11c. Landings:

11.c.1. | Normal:

11.c.1.a. | Running | X | X | X

11.c.1.b. | From Hover | X | X | X

11.c.2. | Pinnacle/platform | X | X | X

11.c.3. | Confined area | X | X | X

11.c.4. | Slope | X | X

11.c.5. | Crosswind | X | X | X

11.c.6. | Tailwind | X | X | X

11.c.7. | Rejected Landing | X | X | X

11.c.8. | Abnormal/emergency procedures:

11.c.8.a. | From autorotation | X | X

11.c.8.b. | One or more engines inoperative | X | X | X

11.c.8.c. | Directional control failure | X | X | X

11.c.8.d. | Hydraulics failure | X | X | X

11.c.8.e. | Stability augmentation system failure | X | X | X

11.c.9. | Other (listed on the SOQ) | A | X | X

12. Any Flight Phase

12.a.1. | Air conditioning | X | X | X

12.a.2. | Anti-icing/deicing | X | X | X

12.a.3. | Auxiliary power-plant | X | X | X

12.a.4. | Communications | X | X | X

12.a.5. | Electrical | X | X | X

12.a.6. | Fire detection and suppression | X | X | X

12.a.7. | Stabilizer | X | X | X

12.a.8. | Flight controls | X | X | X

12.a.9. | Fuel and oil | X | X | X

12.a.10. | Hydraulic | X | X | X

12.a.11. | Landing gear | X | X | X

12.a.12. | Oxygen | X | X | X

12.a.13. | Pneumatic | X | X | X

12.a.14. | Powerplant | X | X | X

12.a.15. | Flight control computers | X | X | X

12.a.16. | Stability and control augmentation | X | X | X

12.b. | Flight management and guidance system:

12.b.1. | Airborne radar | X | X | X

12.b.2. | Automatic landing aids | X | X | X

12.b.3. | Autopilot | X | X | X

12.b.4. | Collision avoidance system | X | X | X

12.b.5. | Flight data displays | X | X | X

12.b.6. | Flight management computers | X | X | X

12.b.7. | Heads-up displays | X | X | X

12.b.8. | Navigation systems | X | X | X

12.c. | Airborne procedures:

12.c.1. | Holding | X | X | X

12.c.2. | Air hazard avoidance | X | X | X

12.c.3. | Retreating blade stall recovery | X | X | X

12.c.4. | Mast bumping | X | X | X

12.c.5 | Loss of directional control | X | X | X

12.c.6. | Loss of tail rotor effectiveness | X | X

12.c.7. | Other (listed on the SOQ) | A | X | X

13. Engine Shutdown and Parking

13.a. | Engine and systems operation | X | X | X

13.b. | Parking brake operation | X | X | X

13.c. | Rotor brake operation | X | X | X

13.d. | Abnormal/emergency procedures | X | X | X

* “Autopilot” means attitude retention mode of operation.

Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly.

Table C3B—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Visual requirements for qualification at the stated level class I airport or landing area models | Simulator level

B | C | D

This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and functionality to qualify a simulator at the indicated level. This table applies only to the airport scenes required for simulator qualification; i.e., two helicopter landing area models for Level B simulators; four helicopter landing area models for Level C and Level D simulators.

1. Functional test content requirements

The following is the minimum airport/landing area model content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and provides suitable visual cues to allow completion of all functions and subjective tests described in this attachment for simulators at Level B.

1.a. | A minimum of one (1) representative airport and one (1) representative helicopter landing area model. The airport and the helicopter landing area may be contained within the same model. If but if this option is selected, the approach path to the airport runway(s) and the approach path to the helicopter landing area must be different. The model(s) used to meet the following requirements may be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world airport or helicopter landing area, but each must be acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ | X

1.b. | The fidelity of the visual scene must be sufficient for the aircrew to visually identify the airport and/or helicopter landing area; determine the position of the simulated helicopter within the visual scene; successfully accomplish take-offs, approaches, and landings; and maneuver around the airport on the ground, or hover taxi, as necessary | X

1.c. | Runways:

1.c.1. | Visible runway number | X

1.c.2. | Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter) | X

1.c.3. | Runway surface and markings | X

1.c.4. | Lighting for the runway in use including runway edge and centerline | X

1.c.5. | Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI or PAPI) and approach lighting of appropriate colors | X

1.c.6. | Representative taxiway lights | X

1.d. | Other helicopter landing area:

1.d.1. | Standard heliport designation (“H”) marking, properly sized and oriented | X

1.d.2. | Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO), as appropriate | X

1.d.3. | Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate | X

1.d.4. | Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the runway or helicopter landing area to another part of the landing facility | X

2. Functional test content requirements for Level C and Level D simulators

The following is the minimum airport/landing area model content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and provide suitable visual cues to allow completion of all functions and subjective tests described in this attachment for simulators at Level C and Level D. Not all of the elements described in this section must be found in a single airport/landing area scene. However, all of the elements described in this section must be found throughout a combination of the four (4) airport/landing area models described in entry 2.a. The representations of the hazards (as described in 2.d.) must be “hard objects” that interact as such if contacted by the simulated helicopter. Additionally, surfaces on which the helicopter lands must be “hard surfaces.” The model(s) used to meet the following requirements must be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world airport or helicopter landing area, and each must be acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ.

2.a. | There must be at least the following airport/helicopter landing areas.

2.a.1. | At least one (1) representative airport | X | X

2.a.2. | At least three representative non-airport landing areas, as follows:

2.a.2.a | At least one (1) representative helicopter landing area situated on a substantially elevated surface with respect to the surrounding structures or terrain (e.g., building top, offshore oil rig) | X | X

2.a.2.b. | At least one (1) helicopter landing area that meets the definition of a “confined landing area” | X | X

2.a.2.c. | At least one (1) helicopter landing area on a sloped surface where the slope is at least 2 1/2° | X | X

2.b. | For each of the airport/helicopter landing areas described in 2.a., the simulator must be able to provide at least the following: | X | X

2.b.1. | A night and twilight (dusk) environment. | X | X

2.b.2. | A daylight environment | X

2.c. | Non-airport helicopter landing areas must have the following:

2.c.1. | Representative buildings, structures, and lighting within appropriate distances | X | X

2.c.2. | Representative moving and static clutter (e.g., other aircraft, power carts, tugs, fuel trucks) | X | X

2.c.3. | Representative depiction of terrain and obstacles as well as significant and identifiable natural and cultural features, within 25 NM of the reference landing area | X | X

2.c.4. | Standard heliport designation (“H”) marking, properly sized and oriented | X | X

2.c.5. | Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO), as appropriate | X | X

2.c.6. | Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate | X | X

2.c.7. | Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the area to another part of the landing facility, if appropriate | X | X

2.c.8. | Representative markings, lighting, and signage, including a windsock that gives appropriate wind cues | X | X

2.c.9. | Appropriate markings, lighting, and signage necessary for position identification, and to allow movement from the landing area to another part of the landing facility | X | X

2.c.10. | Representative moving and static ground traffic (e.g., vehicular and aircraft), including the ability to present surface hazards (e.g., conflicting traffic, vehicular or aircraft, on or approaching the landing area) | X | X

2.c.11. | Portrayal of landing surface contaminants, including lighting reflections when wet and partially obscured lights when snow is present, or suitable alternative effects | X | X

2.d. | All of the following three (3) hazards must be presented in a combination of the three (3) non-airport landing areas (described in entry 2.a.2. of this table) and each of these non-airport landing areas must have at least one of the following hazards:

2.d.1. | Other airborne traffic | X | X

2.d.2. | Buildings, trees, or other vertical obstructions in the immediate landing area | X | X

2.d.3. | Suspended wires in the immediate landing area | X | X

2.e. | Airport applications. Each airport must have the following:

2.e.1. | At least one runway designated as “in-use”, appropriately marked and capable of being lighted fully | X | X

2.e.2. | Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with helicopter systems (e.g., HGS, GPS, altimeter). Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, may not cause distracting or unrealistic effects, including pilot eye-point height variation | X | X | X

2.e.3. | Appropriate approach lighting systems and airfield lighting for a VFR circuit and landing, non-precision approaches and landings, and precision approaches and landings, as appropriate. | X | X

2.e.4. | Representative taxiway lights | X

3. Airport or landing area model management

The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements

3.a. | Runway and helicopter landing area approach lighting must fade into view in accordance with the environmental conditions set in the simulator | X | X | X

3.b. | The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or FATO lights must be replicated | X | X | X

4. Visual feature recognition.

The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to a helicopter aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing

4.a. | For runways: Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and runway edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the runway threshold | X | X | X

4.b. | For runways: Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km) | X | X | X

4.c. | For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of the threshold | X

4.d. | For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold | X | X

4.e. | For runways: Runway threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km) | X | X | X

4.f. | For runways and helicopter landing areas: Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight scenes and the surface resolution test on daylight scenes, as required | X | X | X

4.g. | For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner | X | X | X

4.h. | For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km) | X | X | X

4.i. | For helicopter landing areas: Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm (750 m) | X

4.j. | Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area | X

5. Airport or helicopter landing area model content

The following prescribes the minimum requirements for an airport/helicopter landing area model and identifies other aspects of the environment that must correspond with that model for simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. If all runways or landing areas in a visual model used to meet the requirements of this attachment are not designated as “in use,” then the “in use” runways/landing areas must be listed on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R). Models of airports or helicopter landing areas with more than one runway or landing area must have all significant runways or landing areas not “in-use” visually depicted for airport runway/landing area recognition purposes. The use of white or off-white light strings that identify the runway or landing area for twilight and night scenes are acceptable for this requirement; and rectangular surface depictions are acceptable for daylight scenes. A visual system's capabilities must be balanced between providing visual models with an accurate representation of the airport and a realistic representation of the surrounding environment. Each runway or helicopter landing area designated as an “in-use” runway or area must include the following detail that is developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that such models contain details that are beyond the design capability of the currently qualified visual system. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each “in-use” runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.

5.a. | The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

5.a.1. | For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes | X | X | X

5.a.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Markings for standard heliport identification (“H”) and TOFL, FATO, and safety areas | X | X | X

5.b. | The lighting for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

5.b.1. | For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway | X | X | X

5.b.2. | For helicopter landing areas: landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting | X | X | X

5.c. | The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

5.c.1. | For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s) | X | X | X

5.c.2. | For helicopter landing areas: taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons | X | X | X

5.d. | The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

5.d.1. | For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas | X | X | X

5.d.2. | For helicopter landing areas: taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons | X | X | X

5.d.3. | For airports: taxiway lighting of correct color | X

5.e. | Airport signage associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

5.e.1. | For airports: Signs for runway distance remaining, intersecting runway with taxiway, and intersecting taxiway with taxiway | X | X | X

5.e.2. | For helicopter landing areas: as appropriate for the model used | X | X | X

5.f. | Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport or helicopter landing environment simulation:

5.f.1. | The airport or helicopter landing area model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area | X | X | X

5.f.2. | The simulation of runway or helicopter landing area contaminants must be correlated with the displayed runway surface and lighting where applicable | X | X

6. Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment

The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D

6.a. | Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming | X | X | X

6.b. | Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings | X | X | X

6.c. | Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes | X | X | X

6.d. | The visual scene must correlate with integrated helicopter systems (e.g., terrain, traffic and weather avoidance systems and Head-up Guidance System (HGS)) | X | X

6.e. | Representative visual effects for each visible, own-ship, helicopter external light(s)—taxi and landing light lobes (including independent operation, if appropriate) | X | X | X

6.f. | The effect of rain removal devices | X | X

7. Scene quality The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D.

7.a. | Surfaces and textural cues must be free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing) | X | X

7.b. | System capable of portraying full color realistic textural cues | X | X

7.c. | The system light points must be free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking | X | X | X

7.d. | Demonstration of occulting through each channel of the system in an operational scene | X | X | X

7.e. | Demonstration of a minimum of ten levels of occulting through each channel of the system in an operational scene | X | X

7.f. | System capable of providing focus effects that simulate rain. | X | X

7.g. | System capable of providing focus effects that simulate light point perspective growth | X | X

7.h. | Runway light controls capable of six discrete light steps (0-5) | X | X | X

8. Environmental effects.

The following are the minimum environmental effects that must be available in simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D.

8.a. | The displayed scene corresponding to the appropriate surface contaminants and include appropriate lighting reflections for wet, partially obscured lights for snow, or alternative effects | X

8.b. | Special weather representations which include:

8.b.1. | The sound, motion and visual effects of light, medium and heavy precipitation near a thunderstorm on take-off, approach, and landings at and below an altitude of 2,000 ft (600 m) above the surface and within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area | X

8.b.2. | One airport or helicopter landing area with a snow scene to include terrain snow and snow-covered surfaces | X

8.c. | In-cloud effects such as variable cloud density, speed cues and ambient changes | X | X

8.d. | The effect of multiple cloud layers representing few, scattered, broken and overcast conditions giving partial or complete obstruction of the ground scene | X | X

8.e. | Visibility and RVR measured in terms of distance. Visibility/RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m) above the airport or helicopter landing area and at two heights below 2,000 ft with at least 500 ft of separation between the measurements. The measurements must be taken within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area | X | X | X

8.f. | Patchy fog giving the effect of variable RVR | X

8.g. | Effects of fog on airport lighting such as halos and defocus | X | X

8.h. | Effect of own-ship lighting in reduced visibility, such as reflected glare, including landing lights, strobes, and beacons | X | X

8.i. | Wind cues to provide the effect of blowing snow or sand across a dry runway or taxiway selectable from the instructor station | X

8.j. | “White-out” or “Brown-out” effects due to rotor downwash beginning at a distance above the ground equal to the rotor diameter | X

9. Instructor control of the following:

The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in Level B, Level C, and Level D simulators, as indicated.

9.a. | Environmental effects, e.g. cloud base, cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/ kilometers and RVR in feet/meters | X | X | X

9.b. | Airport or helicopter landing area selection | X | X | X

9.c. | Airport or helicopter landing area lighting, including variable intensity | X | X | X

9.d. | Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic | X | X

End QPS Requirement

Begin Information

10. An example of being able to “combine two airport models to achieve two “in-use” runways: One runway designated as the “in-use” runway in the first model of the airport, and the second runway designated as the “in-use” runway in the second model of the same airport. For example, the clearance is for the ILS approach to Runway 27, Circle to Land on Runway 18 right. Two airport visual models might be used: the first with Runway 27 designated as the “in use” runway for the approach to runway 27, and the second with Runway 18 Right designated as the “in use” runway. When the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway 27, the instructor may change to the second airport visual model in which runway 18 Right is designated as the “in use” runway, and the pilot would make a visual approach and landing. This process is acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary interruption due to the visual model change is not distracting to the pilot.

11. Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is provided should be correct within reasonable limits.

End Information

Table C3C—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Visual scene content additional airport or landing area models beyond minimum required for qualification Class II airport or landing area models | Simulator level

B | C | D

This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area visual model content and functionality necessary to add visual models to a simulator's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.

1. Airport or landing area model management

The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements for simulators at Levels B, C, and D.

1.a. | The installation and direction of the following lights must be replicated for the “in-use” surface:

1.a.1. | For “in-use” runways: Strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights | X | X | X

1.a.2. | For “in-use” helicopter landing areas: ground level TLOF perimeter lights, elevated TLOF perimeter lights (if applicable), Optional TLOF lights (if applicable), ground FATO perimeter lights, elevated TLOF lights (if applicable), landing direction lights | X | X | X

2. Visual feature recognition

The following are the minimum distances at which runway or landing area features must be visible for simulators at Levels B, C, and D. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to an aircraft aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on a 3° glide-slope from the aircraft to the touchdown point, in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.

2.a. | For Runways:

2.a.1. | Strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold | X | X | X

2.a.2. | Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km) | X | X | X

2.a.3. | Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of the threshold | X

2.a.4. | Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold | X | X

2.a.5. | Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km) | X | X | X

2.a.6. | Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution test on daylight scenes | X | X | X

2.a.7. | For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner | X | X | X

2.b. | For Helicopter landing areas:

2.b.1. | Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km) | X | X | X

2.b.2. | Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm (750 m) | X | X

2.b.3. | Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area | X | X

2.b.4. | Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution test on daylight scenes | X | X | X

3. Airport or Helicopter landing area model content

The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an airport visual model and identifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model for simulators at Level B, C, and D. The detail must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that airport or helicopter landing area models contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently qualified visual system. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each “in-use” runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.

3.a. | The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

3.a.1. | For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes | X | X | X

3.a.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Standard heliport marking (“H”), TOFL, FATO, and safety areas | X | X | X

3.b. | The lighting for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

3.b.1. | For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway | X | X | X

3.b.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting | X | X | X

3.c. | The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

3.c.1. | For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s) | X | X | X

3.c.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons | X | X | X

3.d. | The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

3.d.1. | For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas | X | X | X

3.d.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons | X | X | X

3.d.3. | For airports: Taxiway lighting of correct color | X

4. Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation

The following are the minimum visual model correlation tests that must be conducted for Level B, Level C, and Level D simulators, as indicated.

4.a. | The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway | X | X | X

4.b. | Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not cause distracting or unrealistic effects | X | X | X

5. Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment

The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for simulators at Level B, C, and D.

5.a. | Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming | X | X | X

5.b. | Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes | X | X | X

5.c. | Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings | X | X | X

6. Scene quality

The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Level B, C, and D.

6.a. | Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking | X | X | X

6.b. | Surfaces and textural cues free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing) | X | X

6.c. | Correct color and realistic textural cues | X

7. Instructor controls of the following:

The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in Level B, Level C, and Level D simulators, as indicated.

7.a. | Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters | X | X | X

7.b. | Airport/Heliport selection | X | X | X

7.c. | Airport lighting including variable intensity | X | X | X

7.d. | Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic | X | X

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

8. Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway or helicopter landing area, but the detail that is provided must be correct within the capabilities of the system X X X

End Information

Table C3D—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | Motion system (and special aerodynamic model) effects | Simulator level | Notes

B | C | D

This table specifies motion effects that are required to indicate the threshold at which a flight crewmember must be able to recognize an event or situation. Where applicable, flight simulator pitch, side loading and directional control characteristics must be representative of the helicopter.

1 | Runway rumble, oleo deflection, ground speed, uneven runway, runway and taxiway centerline light characteristics: Procedure: After the helicopter has been pre-set to the takeoff position and then released, taxi at various speeds with a smooth runway and note the general characteristics of the simulated runway rumble effects of oleo deflections. Repeat the maneuver with a runway roughness of 50%, then with maximum roughness. Note the associated motion vibrations affected by ground speed and runway roughness | X | X | X | If time permits, different gross weights can also be selected as this may also affect the associated vibrations depending on helicopter type. The associated motion effects for the above tests should also include an assessment of the effects of rolling over centerline lights, surface discontinuities of uneven runways, and various taxiway characteristics.

2 | Friction Drag from Skid-type Landing Gear: Procedure: Perform a running takeoff or a running landing and note an increase in a fuselage vibration (as opposed to rotor vibration) due to the friction of dragging the skid along the surface. This vibration will lessen as the ground speed decreases | X | X

3. Rotor Out-of-Track and/or Out-of-Balance condition: Procedure: Select the malfunction or condition from the IOS. Start the engine(s) normally and check for an abnormal vibration for an Out-of-Track condition and check for an abnormal vibration for an Out-of-Balance condition X X X Does not require becoming airborne. The abnormal vibration for Out-of-Track and Out-of-Balance conditions should be recognized in the frequency range of the inverse of the period for each; i.e., 1/P for vertical vibration, and 1/P for lateral vibration.

4. Bumps associated with the landing gear: Procedure: Perform a normal take-off paying special attention to the bumps that could be perceptible due to maximum oleo extension after lift-off X X X When the landing gear is extended or retracted, motion bumps can be felt when the gear locks into position.

5. Buffet during extension and retraction of landing gear: Procedure: Operate the landing gear. Check that the motion cues of the buffet experienced represent the actual helicopter X X X

6. Failure of Dynamic Vibration Absorber or similar system as appropriate for the helicopter (e.g., droop stop or static stop): Procedure: May be accomplished any time the rotor is engaged. Select the appropriate failure at the IOS, note an appropriate increase in vibration and check that the vibration intensity and frequency increases with an increase in RPM and an increase in collective application X X X

7. Tail Rotor Drive Failure: Procedure: With the engine(s) running and the rotor engaged—select the malfunction and note the immediate increase of medium frequency vibration X X X The tail rotor operates in the medium frequency range, normally estimated by multiplying the tail rotor gear box ratio by the main rotor RPM. The failure can be recognized by an increase in the vibrations in this frequency range.

8. Touchdown cues for main and nose gear: Procedure: Conduct several normal approaches with various rates of descent. Check that the motion cues for the touchdown bumps for each descent rate are representative of the actual helicopter X X X

9. Tire failure dynamics: Procedure: Simulate a single tire failure and a multiple tire failure X X The pilot may notice some yawing with a multiple tire failure selected on the same side. This should require the use of the pedal to maintain control of the helicopter. Dependent on helicopter type, a single tire failure may not be noticed by the pilot and may not cause any special motion effect. Sound or vibration may be associated with the actual tire losing pressure.

10. Engine malfunction and engine damage: Procedure: The characteristics of an engine malfunction as prescribed in the malfunction definition document for the particular flight simulator must describe the special motion effects felt by the pilot. Note the associated engine instruments varying according to the nature of the malfunction and note the replication of the effects of the airframe vibration X X X

11. Tail boom strikes: Procedure: Tail-strikes can be checked by over-rotation of the helicopter at a quick stop or autorotation to the ground X X X The motion effect should be felt as a noticeable nose down pitching moment.

12. Vortex Ring State (Settling with Power): Procedure: Specific procedures may differ between helicopters and may be prescribed by the Helicopter Manufacturer or other subject matter expert. However, the following information is provided for illustrative purposes * * * To enter the maneuver, reduce power below hover power. Hold altitude with aft cyclic until the airspeed approaches 20 knots. Then allow the sink rate to increase to 300 feet per minute or more as the attitude is adjusted to obtain an airspeed of less than 10 knots X X When the aircraft begins to shudder, the application of additional up collective increases the vibration and sink rate. One recovery method is to decrease collective to enter vertical autorotation and/or use cyclic inputs to gain horizontal airspeed and exit from vortex ring state.

13. Retreating Blade Stall: Procedure: Specific procedures may differ between helicopters and may be prescribed by the Helicopter Manufacturer or other subject matter expert. However, the following information is provided for illustrative purposes: To enter the maneuver, increase forward airspeed; the effect will be recognized through the development of a low frequency vibration, pitching up of the nose, and a roll in the direction of the retreating blade. High weight, low rotor RPM, high density altitude, turbulence or steep, abrupt turns are all conducive to retreating blade stall at high forward airspeeds X X Correct recovery from retreating blade stall requires the collective to be lowered first, which reduces blade angles and the angle of attack. Aft cyclic can then be used to slow the helicopter.

14. Translational Lift Effects: Procedure: From a stabilized in-ground-effect (IGE) Hover begin a forward acceleration. When passing through the effective translational lift range, the noticeable effect will be a possible nose pitch-up in some helicopters, an increase in the rate of climb, and a temporary increase in vibration level (in some cases this vibration may be pronounced). This effect is experienced again upon deceleration through the appropriate speed range. During deceleration, the pitch and rate of climb will have the reverse effect, but there will be a similar, temporary increase in vibration level X X X

Table C3E—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements

Entry number | Sound system | Simulator level

B | C | D

The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile, motion system ON.

1. Precipitation. X X

2. Rain removal equipment. X X

3. Helicopter noises used by the pilot for normal helicopter operation. X X

4. Abnormal operations for which there are associated sound cues, including engine malfunctions, landing gear or tire malfunctions, tail boom X X

5. Sound of a crash when the flight simulator is landed in excess of limitations X X

Table C3F—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements

Entry number | Special effects | Simulator level

B | C | D

This table specifies the minimum special effects necessary for the specified simulator level.

1. Braking Dynamics: Representations of the dynamics of brake failure (flight simulator pitch, side-loading, and directional control characteristics representative of the helicopter), including antiskid and decreased brake efficiency due to high brake temperatures (based on helicopter related data), sufficient to enable pilot identification of the problem and implementation of appropriate procedures X X

2. Effects of Airframe and Engine Icing: Required only for those helicopters authorized for operations in known icing conditions Procedure: With the simulator airborne, in a clean configuration, nominal altitude and cruise airspeed, autopilot on and auto-throttles off, engine and airfoil anti-ice/de-ice systems deactivated; activate icing conditions at a rate that allows monitoring of simulator and systems response Icing recognition will include an increase in gross weight, airspeed decay, change in simulator pitch attitude, change in engine performance indications (other than due to airspeed changes), and change in data from pitot/static system, or rotor out-of-track/balance. Activate heating, anti-ice, or de-ice systems independently. Recognition will include proper effects of these systems, eventually returning the simulated helicopter to normal flight X X

Table C3G—Functions and Subjective Tests

QPS Requirements

Entry number | Instructor Operating Station (IOS) | Simulator level

B | C | D

Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the helicopter or the system is installed on the specific simulator.

1. Simulator Power Switch(es) X X X

2. Helicopter conditions.

2.a. | Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation | X | X | X

2.b. | Helicopter systems status | X | X | X

2.c. | Ground crew functions | X | X | X

3. Airports/Heliports.

3.a. | Number and selection | X | X | X

3.b. | Runway or landing area selection | X | X | X

3.c. | Landing surface conditions (rough, smooth, icy, wet, dry, snow) | X | X | X

3.d. | Preset positions | X | X | X

3.e. | Lighting controls | X | X | X

4. Environmental controls.

4.a | Visibility (statute miles/kilometers) | X | X | X

4.b. | Runway visual range (in feet/meters) | X | X | X

4.c. | Temperature | X | X | X

4.d. | Climate conditions | X | X | X

4.e. | Wind speed and direction | X | X | X

5. Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion). X X X

6. Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.

6.a. | Problem (all) freeze/release | X | X | X

6.b. | Position (geographic) freeze/release | X | X | X

6.c. | Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases) | X | X | X

6.d. | Ground speed control | X | X | X

7. Remote IOS. X X X

8. Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment X X X

9. Motion/Control Loading System.

9.a. | On/off/emergency stop | X | X | X

10. Observer Seats/Stations. Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system X X X

Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—SAMPLE DOCUMENTS

Table of Contents

Title of Sample

Figure C4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.

Figure C4B Attachment: FFS Information Form

Figure A4C Sample Letter of Compliance

Figure C4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page

Figure C4E Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate

Figure C4F Sample Statement of Qualification—Configuration List

Figure C4G Sample Statement of Qualification—List of Qualified Tasks

Figure C4H [Reserved]

Figure C4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FFS Directives

Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4A—Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4C—Sample Letter of Compliance

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4D—Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4E—Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—Figure C4H [Reserved]

Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60—FSTD DIRECTIVES APPLICABLE TO HELICOPTER FFSs

Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) Directive

FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all FFSs, regardless of the original qualification basis and qualification date (original or upgrade), having Class II or Class III airport models available.

Agency: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT

Action: This is a retroactive requirement to have all Class II or Class III airport models meet current requirements.

Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective on May 30, 2008.

Specific Requirements:

1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:

b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a specific FSTD level.

4. These references describe the requirements for visual scene management and the minimum distances from which runway or landing area features must be visible for all levels of simulator. The visual scene or airport model must provide, for each “in-use runway” or “in-use landing area,” runway or landing area surface and markings, runway or landing area lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and taxiway lighting. Additional requirements include correlation of the visual scenes or airport models with other aspects of the airport environment, correlation of the aircraft and associated equipment, scene quality assessment features, and the extent to which the instructor is able to exercise control of these scenes or models.

5. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.

6. The details in these scenes or models must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or be developed in accordance with published regulatory material. However, FSTD Directive 1 does not require that airport models contain details that are beyond the initially designed capability of the visual system, as currently qualified. The recognized limitations to visual systems are as follows:

a. Visual systems not required to have runway numbers as a part of the specific runway marking requirements are:

(1) Link NVS and DNVS.

(2) Novoview 2500 and 6000.

(3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and including, VITAL III, but not beyond.

(4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.

b. Visual systems required to display runway numbers only for LOFT scenes are:

(1) FlightSafety VITAL IV.

(2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.

(3) Link-Miles Image II.

c. Visual systems not required to have accurate taxiway edge lighting are:

(1) Redifusion SP1.

(2) FlightSafety Vital IV.

(3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT

(4) XKD displays (even though the XKD image generator is capable of generating blue colored lights, the display cannot accommodate that color).

7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in the MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive Section, and its inclusion must be annotated on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart. See Attachment 4, Appendices A through D of this part for a sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 60-5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75822, Dec. 9, 2022; Amdt. No. 60-9, 90 FR 42525, Sept. 3, 2025]

Editorial Note:At 87 FR 75822, Dec. 9, 2022, appendix C to part 60 was amended in part in the introductory “Begin Information” text, by removing the word “NSPM” and adding in its place the words “Flight Standards Service” in the first sentence; however, this amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.

Appendix D to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for Helicopter Flight Training Devices

Begin Information

This appendix establishes the standards for Helicopter Flight Training Device (FTD) evaluation and qualification at Level 4, Level 5, Level 6, or Level 7. The Flight Standards Service is responsible for the development, application, and implementation of the standards contained within this appendix. The procedures and criteria specified in this appendix will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office when conducting helicopter FTD evaluations.

Table of Contents

1. Introduction.

2. Applicability (§§ 60.1, 60.2).

3. Definitions (§ 60.3).

4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4).

5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5).

6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7).

7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9).

8. FTD Use (§ 60.11).

9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13).

10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FTD (§ 60.14).

11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15).

12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16).

13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17).

14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19).

15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20).

16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21).

17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23).

18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25).

19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27).

20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29).

21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (§ 60.31).

22. [Reserved]

23. [Reserved]

24. Levels of FTD.

25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37).

Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60—General FTD Requirements.

Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests.

Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective Evaluation.

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Sample Documents.

End Information

1. Introduction

Begin Information

b. [Reserved]

d. Related Reading References.

(1) 14 CFR part 60.

(2) 14 CFR part 61.

(3) 14 CFR part 63.

(4) 14 CFR part 119.

(5) 14 CFR part 121.

(6) 14 CFR part 125.

(7) 14 CFR part 135.

(8) 14 CFR part 141.

(9) 14 CFR part 142.

(10) AC 120-28, as amended, Criteria for Approval of Category III Landing Weather Minima.

(11) AC 120-29, as amended, Criteria for Approving Category I and Category II Landing Minima for part 121 operators.

(12) AC 120-35, as amended, Flightcrew Member Line Operational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight Training, Special Purpose Operational Training, Line Operational Evaluation.

(13) AC 120-41, as amended, Criteria for Operational Approval of Airborne Wind Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Systems.

(14) AC 120-57, as amended, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS).

(15) AC 120-63, as amended, Helicopter Simulator Qualification.

(16) AC 150/5300-13, as amended, Airport Design.

(17) AC 150/5340-1, as amended, Standards for Airport Markings.

(18) AC 150/5340-4, as amended, Installation Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown Zone Lighting Systems.

(19) AC 150/5390-2, as amended, Heliport Design.

(20) AC 150/5340-19, as amended, Taxiway Centerline Lighting System.

(21) AC 150/5340-24, as amended, Runway and Taxiway Edge Lighting System.

(22) AC 150/5345-28, as amended, Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems.

(23) International Air Transport Association document, “Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data Requirements,” as amended.

(24) AC 29-2, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Transport Category Rotorcraft.

(25) AC 27-1, as amended, Flight Test Guide for Certification of Normal Category Rotorcraft.

(26) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators, as amended.

(27) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Volume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK.

(28) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.

(29) The FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/atpubs.

(30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document number 436, Guidelines For Electronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).

(31) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) document 610, Guidance for Design and Integration of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simulators (as amended).

End Information

2. Applicability (§ 60.1 and 60.2)

Begin Information

End Information

3. Definitions (§ 60.3)

Begin Information

See Appendix F of this part for a list of definitions and abbreviations from part 1, part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60.

End Information

4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.4)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Performance Standards.

End Information

5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5)

Begin Information

Additional regulatory material and informational material regarding Quality Management Systems for FTDs may be found in Appendix E of this part.

End Information

6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements (§ 60.7)

Begin Information

a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is to have a specific FTD, identified by the sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated during the 12-month period described. The identification of the specific FTD may change from one 12-month period to the next 12-month period as long as that sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least once during the prescribed period. There is no minimum number of hours or minimum FTD periods required.

b. The following examples describe acceptable operational practices:

(1) Example One.

(a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, specific FTD for its own use, in its own facility or elsewhere—this single FTD forms the basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses that FTD at least once in each 12-month period in that sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated. This 12-month period is established according to the following schedule:

(ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation is complete, the first continuing qualification evaluation will be conducted within 6 months. The 12 month continuing qualification evaluation cycle begins on that date and continues for each subsequent 12-month period.

(b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.

(2) Example Two.

(a) A sponsor sponsors an additional number of FTDs, in its facility or elsewhere. Each additionally sponsored FTD must be—

(i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the helicopter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)); or

(iii) Provided a statement each year from a qualified pilot, (after having flown the helicopter not the subject FTD or another FTD, during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the subject FTD's performance and handling qualities represent the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is provided at least once in each 12-month period established in the same manner as in example one.

(b) There is no minimum number of hours of FTD use required.

(3) Example Three.

(a) A sponsor in New York (in this example, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes “satellite” training centers in Chicago and Moscow.

(ii) A statement is obtained from a qualified pilot (having flown the helicopter, not the subject FTD or another FTD during the preceding 12-month period) stating that the performance and handling qualities of each FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers represents the helicopter (as described in § 60.7(d)(2)).

End Information

7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor (§ 60.9)

Begin Information

The phrase “as soon as practicable” in § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily disrupting or delaying beyond a reasonable time the training, evaluation, or experience being conducted in the FTD.

End Information

8. FTD Use (§ 60.11).

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.11, FTD Use.

End Information

9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. Flight test data used to validate FTD performance and handling qualities must have been gathered in accordance with a flight test program containing the following:

(1) A flight test plan consisting of:

(a) The maneuvers and procedures required for aircraft certification and simulation programming and validation.

(b) For each maneuver or procedure—

(i) The procedures and control input the flight test pilot and/or engineer used.

(ii) The atmospheric and environmental conditions.

(iii) The initial flight conditions.

(iv) The helicopter configuration, including weight and center of gravity.

(v) The data to be gathered.

(vi) All other information necessary to recreate the flight test conditions in the FTD.

(2) Appropriately qualified flight test personnel.

(3) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisition equipment or system(s), including appropriate data reduction and analysis methods and techniques, acceptable to the FAA's Aircraft Certification Service.

b. The data, regardless of source, must be presented:

(1) In a format that supports the FTD validation process;

(2) In a manner that is clearly readable and annotated correctly and completely;

(3) With resolution sufficient to determine compliance with the tolerances set forth in Attachment 2, Table D2A Appendix D;

(4) With any necessary guidance information provided; and

d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office when it becomes aware that an addition to or a revision of the flight related data or helicopter systems related data is available if this data is used to program and operate a qualified FTD. The data referred to in this sub-section is data used to validate the performance, handling qualities, or other characteristics of the aircraft, including data related to any relevant changes occurring after the type certification is issued. The sponsor must—

(1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of the existence of this data; and

(a) Within 45 calendar days, notify the responsible Flight Standards office of—

(b) The schedule to incorporate this data into the FTD; or

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

g. It is the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office that for new aircraft entering service, at a point well in advance of preparation of the QTG, the sponsor should submit to the responsible Flight Standards office for approval, a descriptive document (see Appendix C of this part, Table C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for Helicopters) containing the plan for acquiring the validation data, including data sources. This document should clearly identify sources of data for all required tests, a description of the validity of these data for a specific engine type and thrust rating configuration, and the revision levels of all avionics affecting the performance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this document should provide other information such as the rationale or explanation for cases where data or data parameters are missing, instances where engineering simulation data are used, or where flight test methods require further explanations. It should also provide a brief narrative describing the cause and effect of any deviation from data requirements. The aircraft manufacturer may provide this document.

h. There is no requirement for any flight test data supplier to submit a flight test plan or program prior to gathering flight test data. However, the responsible Flight Standards office notes that inexperienced data gatherers often provide data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, or lacking adequate justification for selection. Other problems include inadequate information regarding initial conditions or test maneuvers. The responsible Flight Standards office has been forced to refuse these data submissions as validation data for an FTD evaluation. For this reason the responsible Flight Standards office recommends that any data supplier not previously experienced in this area review the data necessary for programming and for validating the performance of the FTD and discuss the flight test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with the responsible Flight Standards office well in advance of commencing the flight tests.

i. The responsible Flight Standards office will consider, on a case-by-case basis, whether to approve supplemental validation data derived from flight data recording systems such as a Quick Access Recorder or Flight Data Recorder.

End Information

10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for Qualification of the FTD (§ 60.14).

Begin Information

a. In the event that the responsible Flight Standards office determines that special equipment or specifically qualified persons will be required to conduct an evaluation, the responsible Flight Standards office will make every attempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in advance of the evaluation. Examples of special equipment include flight control measurement devices, accelerometers, or oscilloscopes. Examples of specially qualified personnel include individuals specifically qualified to install or use any special equipment when its use is required.

b. Examples of a special evaluation include an evaluation conducted after an FTD is moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a result of comments received from users of the FTD that raise questions about the continued qualification or use of the FTD.

End Information

11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements (§ 60.15).

Begin QPS Requirement

a. In order to be qualified at a particular qualification level, the FTD must:

(1) Meet the general requirements listed in Attachment 1 of this appendix.

(2) Meet the objective testing requirements listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix (Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests).

(3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix.

b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must include all of the following:

(1) A statement that the FTD meets all of the applicable provisions of this part and all applicable provisions of the QPS.

(3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office, that includes all of the following:

(a) Objective data obtained from aircraft testing or another approved source.

(b) Correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FTD as prescribed in the appropriate QPS.

(d) A description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for initial qualification and the continuing qualification evaluations.

c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of this section must provide the documented proof of compliance with the FTD objective tests in Attachment 2, Table D2A of this appendix.

(1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions.

(2) Pertinent and complete instructions for conducting automatic and manual tests.

(3) A means of comparing the FTD test results to the objective data.

(4) Any other information as necessary to assist in the evaluation of the test results.

(5) Other information appropriate to the qualification level of the FTD.

e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, must include the following:

(1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and FAA approval signature blocks (see Attachment 4, Figure D4C, of this appendix, for a sample QTG cover page).

(2) A continuing qualification evaluation requirements page. This page will be used by the responsible Flight Standards office to establish and record the frequency with which continuing qualification evaluations must be conducted and any subsequent changes that may be determined by the responsible Flight Standards office in accordance with § 60.19. See Attachment 4, Figure D4G, of this appendix for a sample Continuing Qualification Evaluation Requirements page.

(3) An FTD information page that provides the information listed in this paragraph, if applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure D4B, of this appendix, for a sample FTD information page). For convertible FTDs, the sponsor must submit a separate page for each configuration of the FTD.

(a) The sponsor's FTD identification number or code.

(b) The helicopter model and series being simulated.

(d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model and the aerodynamic coefficient data used to modify the basic model.

(e) The engine model(s) and its data revision number or reference.

(f) The flight control data revision number or reference.

(g) The flight management system identification and revision level.

(h) The FTD model and manufacturer.

(i) The date of FTD manufacture.

(j) The FTD computer identification.

(k) The visual system model and manufacturer, including display type.

(l) The motion system type and manufacturer, including degrees of freedom.

(4) A Table of Contents.

(5) A log of revisions and a list of effective pages.

(6) List of all relevant data references.

(7) A glossary of terms and symbols used (including sign conventions and units).

(8) Statements of Compliance and Capability (SOC) with certain requirements.

(9) Recording procedures or equipment required to accomplish the objective tests.

(10) The following information for each objective test designated in Attachment 2 of this appendix, as applicable to the qualification level sought:

(a) Name of the test.

(b) Objective of the test.

(d) Manual test procedures.

(e) Automatic test procedures (if applicable).

(f) Method for evaluating FTD objective test results.

(g) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the automatic test(s).

(h) List of all relevant parameters driven or constrained during the manual test(s).

(i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.

(j) Source of Validation Data (document and page number).

(k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located in a separate binder, a cross reference for the identification and page number for pertinent data location must be provided).

(l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect the date completed and must be clearly labeled as a product of the device being tested.

f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a separate FTD for each model and series helicopter to which it will be converted and for the FAA qualification level sought. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct an evaluation for each configuration. If a sponsor seeks qualification for two or more models of a helicopter type using a convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide a QTG for each helicopter model, or a QTG for the first helicopter model and a supplement to that QTG for each additional helicopter model. The responsible Flight Standards office will conduct evaluations for each helicopter model.

g. The form and manner of presentation of objective test results in the QTG must include the following:

(2) FTD results must be labeled using terminology common to helicopter parameters as opposed to computer software identifications.

(3) Validation data documents included in a QTG may be photographically reduced only if such reduction will not alter the graphic scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpretation or resolution.

(4) Scaling on graphical presentations must provide the resolution necessary to evaluate the parameters shown in Attachment 2, Table D2A of this appendix.

(5) Tests involving time histories, data sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FTD test results must be clearly marked with appropriate reference points to ensure an accurate comparison between FTD and helicopter with respect to time. Time histories recorded via a line printer are to be clearly identified for cross-plotting on the helicopter data. Over-plots may not obscure the reference data.

h. The sponsor may elect to complete the QTG objective and subjective tests at the manufacturer's facility or at the sponsor's training facility. If the tests are conducted at the manufacturer's facility, the sponsor must repeat at least one-third of the tests at the sponsor's training facility in order to substantiate FTD performance. The QTG must be clearly annotated to indicate when and where each test was accomplished. Tests conducted at the manufacturer's facility and at the sponsor's training facility must be conducted after the FTD is assembled with systems and sub-systems functional and operating in an interactive manner. The test results must be submitted to the responsible Flight Standards office.

i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the MQTG at the FTD location.

j. All FTDs for which the initial qualification is conducted after May 30, 2014, must have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including all objective data obtained from helicopter testing, or another approved source (reformatted or digitized), together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FTD (reformatted or digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The eMQTG must also contain the general FTD performance or demonstration results (reformatted or digitized) prescribed in this appendix, and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the initial qualification evaluation and the continuing qualification evaluations. The eMQTG must include the original validation data used to validate FTD performance and handling qualities in either the original digitized format from the data supplier or an electronic scan of the original time-history plots that were provided by the data supplier. A copy of the eMQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office.

k. All other FTDs (not covered in subparagraph “j”) must have an electronic copy of the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An electronic copy of the MQTG must be provided to the responsible Flight Standards office. This may be provided by an electronic scan presented in a Portable Document File (PDF), or similar format acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

End QPS Requirements

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m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F of this part will be evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office. However, other FTD evaluations may be conducted on a case-by-case basis as the Administrator deems appropriate, but only in accordance with applicable agreements.

(1) Helicopter responses, including longitudinal and lateral-directional control responses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).

(2) Performance in authorized portions of the simulated helicopter's operating envelope, to include tasks evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office in the areas of surface operations, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing, as well as abnormal and emergency operations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix).

(3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix).

(4) Flight deck configuration (see Attachment 1 of this appendix).

(5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor station functions checks (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 3 of this appendix).

(6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as appropriate) as compared to the helicopter simulated (see attachment 1 and attachment 3 of this appendix).

(7) FTD systems and sub-systems, including force cueing (motion), visual, and aural (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attachment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix).

o. The responsible Flight Standards office administers the objective and subjective tests, which include an examination of functions. The tests include a qualitative assessment of the FTD by a pilot from the responsible Flight Standards office. The evaluation team leader may assign other qualified personnel to assist in accomplishing the functions examination and/or the objective and subjective tests performed during an evaluation when required.

(1) Objective tests provide a basis for measuring and evaluating FTD performance and determining compliance with the requirements of this part.

(2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:

(a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period;

(b) Determining that the FTD satisfactorily simulates each required task;

(d) Demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this part.

r. Problems with objective test results are handled as follows:

(1) If a problem with an objective test result is detected by the evaluation team during an evaluation, the test may be repeated or the QTG may be amended.

s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, the responsible Flight Standards office issues an SOQ to the sponsor. The responsible Flight Standards office recommends the FTD to the TPAA, who will approve the FTD for use in a flight training program. The SOQ will be issued at the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or continuing qualification evaluation and will list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, referencing the tasks described in Table D1B in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is the sponsor's responsibility to obtain TPAA approval prior to using the FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program.

t. Under normal circumstances, the responsible Flight Standards office establishes a date for the initial or upgrade evaluation within ten (10) working days after determining that a complete QTG is acceptable. Unusual circumstances may warrant establishing an evaluation date before this determination is made. A sponsor may schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 months in advance. However, there may be a delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and completing the evaluation if the sponsor is unable to meet the scheduled date. See Attachment 4, of this appendix, Figure D4A, Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation.

u. The numbering system used for objective test results in the QTG should closely follow the numbering system set out in Attachment 2, FTD Objective Tests, Table D2A of this appendix.

v. Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for additional information regarding the preferred qualifications of pilots used to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d).

End Information

12. Additional Qualifications for Currently Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.16, Additional Qualifications for a Currently Qualified FTD.

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13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. In instances where a sponsor plans to remove an FTD from active status for a period of less than two years, the following procedures apply:

(1) The responsible Flight Standards office must be notified in writing and the notification must include an estimate of the period that the FTD will be inactive.

(2) Continuing Qualification evaluations will not be scheduled during the inactive period.

(5) The sponsor must notify the responsible Flight Standards office of any changes to the original scheduled time out of service.

b. FTDs and replacement FTD systems qualified prior to May 30, 2008, are not required to meet the general FTD requirements, the objective test requirements, and the subjective test requirements of Attachments 1, 2, and 3, respectively, of this appendix as long as the FTD continues to meet the test requirements contained in the MQTG developed under the original qualification basis.

c. After (1 year after date of publication of the final rule in the Federal Register) each visual scene and airport model installed in and available for use in a qualified FTD must meet the requirements described in Attachment 3 of this appendix.

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e. Other certificate holders or persons desiring to use an FTD may contract with FTD sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at a particular level for a helicopter type and approved for use within an FAA-approved flight training program. Such FTDs are not required to undergo an additional qualification process, except as described in § 60.16.

f. Each FTD user must obtain approval from the appropriate TPAA to use any FTD in an FAA-approved flight training program.

i. It is not the intent of the responsible Flight Standards office to discourage the improvement of existing simulation (e.g., the “updating” of a control loading system, or the replacement of the IOS with a more capable unit) by requiring the “updated” device to meet the qualification standards current at the time of the update. Depending on the extent of the update, the responsible Flight Standards officemay require that the updated device be evaluated and may require that an evaluation include all or a portion of the elements of an initial evaluation. However, the standards against which the device would be evaluated are those that are found in the MQTG for that device.

j. The responsible Flight Standards officewill determine the evaluation criteria for an FTD that has been removed from active status for a prolonged period. The criteria will be based on the number of continuing qualification evaluations and quarterly inspections missed during the period of inactivity. For example, if the FTD were out of service for a 1 year period, it would be necessary to complete the entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations would have been missed. The responsible Flight Standards officewill also consider how the FTD was stored, whether parts were removed from the FTD and whether the FTD was disassembled.

k. The FTD will normally be requalified using the FAA-approved MQTG and the criteria that was in effect prior to its removal from qualification. However, inactive periods of 2 years or more will require re-qualification under the standards in effect and current at the time of requalification.

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14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification, Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements (§ 60.19)

Begin QPS Requirement

b. The description of the functional preflight check must be contained in the sponsor's QMS.

c. Record “functional preflight” in the FTD discrepancy log book or other acceptable location, including any item found to be missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative.

End QPS Requirements

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e. The sponsor's test sequence and the content of each quarterly inspection required in § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a mix from the objective test requirement areas listed as follows:

(1) Performance.

(2) Handling qualities.

(3) Motion system (where appropriate).

(4) Visual system (where appropriate).

(5) Sound system (where appropriate).

(6) Other FTD systems.

(1) Review of the results of the quarterly inspections conducted by the sponsor since the last scheduled continuing qualification evaluation.

(4) An examination of the functions of the FTD may include the motion system, visual system, sound system as applicable, instructor operating station, and the normal functions and simulated malfunctions of the simulated helicopter systems. This examination is normally accomplished simultaneously with the subjective evaluation requirements.

End Information

15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.20. Logging FTD Discrepancies.

End Information

16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualification of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or Models.

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17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23)

Begin QPS Requirements

a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) must include a complete description of the planned modification, with a description of the operational and engineering effect the proposed modification will have on the operation of the FTD and the results that are expected with the modification incorporated.

b. Prior to using the modified FTD:

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Begin Information

c. FSTD Directives are considered modification of an FTD. See Attachment 4 of this appendix, Figure D4I for a sample index of effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this appendix for a list of all effective FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter FTDs.

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18. Operation with Missing, Malfunctioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25)

Begin Information

c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day period described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend the deadline until the next business day.

d. In accordance with the authorization described in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop a discrepancy prioritizing system to accomplish repairs based on the level of impact on the capability of the FTD. Repairs having a larger impact on the FTD's ability to provide the required training, evaluation, or flight experience will have a higher priority for repair or replacement.

End Information

19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.27)

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End Information

20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for Restoration of Qualification (§ 60.29)

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End Information

21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31)

Begin QPS Requirements

End Information

22. [Reserved]

23. [Reserved]

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24. Levels of FTD

Begin Information

a. The following is a general description of each level of FTD. Detailed standards and tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this appendix.

(1) Level 4. A Level 4 device is one that may have an open helicopter-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck and at least one operating system. Air/ground logic is required (no aerodynamic programming required). All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. All controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation (not capable of manual manipulation of the flight controls) or may physically replicate the aircraft in control operation.

(2) Level 5. A Level 5 device is one that may have an open helicopter-specific flight deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck and a generic aerodynamic program with at least one operating system and control loading representative of the simulated helicopter. The control loading need only represent the helicopter at an approach speed and configuration. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft. Primary and secondary flight controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, flaps, spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, landing gear, nosewheel steering, trim, brakes) must be physical controls. All other controls, switches, and knobs may be touch sensitive activation.

(3) Level 6. A Level 6 device is one that has an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all applicable helicopter systems operating and control loading that is representative of the simulated helicopter throughout its ground and flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the aircraft in control operation.

(4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck and aerodynamic program with all applicable helicopter systems operating and control loading that is representative of the simulated helicopter throughout its ground and flight envelope and significant sound representation. All displays may be flat/LCD panel representations or actual representations of displays in the aircraft, but all controls, switches, and knobs must physically replicate the aircraft in control operation. It also has a visual system that provides an out-of-the-flight deck view, providing cross-flight deck viewing (for both pilots simultaneously) of a field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically as well as a vibration cueing system for characteristic helicopter vibrations noted at the pilot station(s).

End Information

25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) (§ 60.37)

Begin Information

No additional regulatory or informational material applies to § 60.37, FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA).

End Information

Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60—GENERAL FTD REQUIREMENTS

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Requirements

a. Certain requirements included in this appendix must be supported with an SOC as defined in Appendix F, which may include objective and subjective tests. The requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “General FTD Requirements” column in Table D1A of this appendix.

b. Table D1A describes the requirements for the indicated level of FTD. Many devices include operational systems or functions that exceed the requirements outlined in this section. In any event, all systems will be tested and evaluated in accordance with this appendix to ensure proper operation.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

2. Discussion

a. This attachment describes the general requirements for qualifying Level 4 through Level 7 FTDs. The sponsor should also consult the objectives tests in Attachment 2 of this appendix and the examination of functions and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix to determine the complete requirements for a specific level FTD.

b. The material contained in this attachment is divided into the following categories:

(1) General Flight Deck Configuration.

(2) Programming.

(3) Equipment Operation.

(4) Equipment and Facilities for Instructor/Evaluator Functions.

(5) Motion System.

(6) Visual System.

(7) Sound System.

c. Table D1A provides the standards for the General FTD Requirements.

d. Table D1B provides the tasks that the sponsor will examine to determine whether the FTD satisfactorily meets the requirements for flight crew training, testing, and experience.

e. Table D1C provides the functions that an instructor/check airman must be able to control in the simulator.

f. It is not required that all of the tasks that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the initial or continuing qualification evaluation.

End Information

Table D1A—Minimum FTD Requirements

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | General FTD requirements | FTD level | Notes

4 | 5 | 6 | 7

1. General Flight Deck Configuration.

1.a. | The FTD must have a flight deck that is a replica of the helicopter, or set of helicopters simulated with controls, equipment, observable flight deck indicators, circuit breakers, and bulkheads properly located, functionally accurate and replicating the helicopter or set of helicopters. The direction of movement of controls and switches must be identical to that in the helicopter or set of helicopters. Crewmember seats must afford the capability for the occupant to be able to achieve the design “eye position.” Equipment for the operation of the flight deck windows must be included, but the actual windows need not be operable. Those circuit breakers that affect procedures or result in observable flight deck indications must be properly located and functionally accurate. Fire axes, extinguishers, landing gear pins, and spare light bulbs must be available, and may be represented in silhouette, in the flight simulator. This equipment must be present as near as practical to the original position | X | X | For FTD purposes, the flight deck consists of all that space forward of a cross section of the flight deck at the most extreme aft setting of the pilots' seats including additional, required crewmember duty stations and those required bulkheads aft of the pilot seats. Bulkheads containing only items such as landing gear pin storage compartments, fire axes and extinguishers, spare light bulbs, and aircraft documents pouches are not considered essential and may be omitted. If omitted, these items, or the silhouettes of these items, may be placed on the wall of the simulator, or in any other location as near as practical to the original position of these items.

1.b. | The FTD must have equipment (i.e., instruments, panels, systems, circuit breakers, and controls) simulated sufficiently for the authorized training/checking events to be accomplished. The installed equipment, must be located in a spatially correct configuration, and may be in a flight deck or an open flight deck area. Those circuit breakers that affect procedures or result in observable flight deck indications must be properly located and functionally accurate. Additional equipment required for the authorized training and checking events must be available in the FTD but may be located in a suitable location as near as practical to the spatially correct position. Actuation of this equipment must replicate the appropriate function in the helicopter. Fire axes, landing gear pins, and any similar purpose instruments need only be represented in silhouette | X | X

2. Programming.

2.a. | The FTD must provide the proper effect of aerodynamic changes for the combinations of drag and thrust normally encountered in flight. This must include the effect of change in helicopter attitude, thrust, drag, altitude, temperature, and configuration. Levels 6 and 7 additionally require the effects of changes in gross weight and center of gravity.Level 5 requires only generic aerodynamic programming. An SOC is required | X | X | X

2.b. | The FTD must have the computer (analog or digital) capability (i.e., capacity, accuracy, resolution, and dynamic response) needed to meet the qualification level sought. An SOC is required | X | X | X | X

2.c. | Relative responses of the flight deck instruments must be measured by latency tests or transport delay tests, and may not exceed 150 milliseconds. The instruments must respond to abrupt input at the pilot's position within the allotted time, but not before the time that the helicopter or set of helicopters respond under the same conditions • Latency: The FTD instrument and, if applicable, the motion system and the visual system response must not be prior to that time when the helicopter responds and may respond up to 150 milliseconds after that time under the same conditions • Transport Delay: As an alternative to the Latency requirement, a transport delay objective test may be used to demonstrate that the FTD system does not exceed the specified limit. The sponsor must measure all the delay encountered by a step signal migrating from the pilot's control through all the simulation software modules in the correct order, using a handshaking protocol, finally through the normal output interfaces to the instrument display and, if applicable, the motion system, and the visual system | X | X | X | The intent is to verify that the FTD provides instrument cues that are, within the stated time delays, like the helicopter responses. For helicopter response, acceleration in the appropriate, corresponding rotational axis is preferred.

3. Equipment Operation.

3.a. | All relevant instrument indications involved in the simulation of the helicopter must automatically respond to control movement or external disturbances to the simulated helicopter or set of helicopters; e.g., turbulence or winds | A | X | X | X

3.b. | Navigation equipment must be installed and operate within the tolerances applicable for the helicopter or set of helicopters. Levels 6 and 7 must also include communication equipment (inter-phone and air/ground) like that in the helicopter. Level 5 only needs that navigation equipment necessary to fly an instrument approach | A | X | X | X

3.c. | Installed systems must simulate the applicable helicopter system operation both on the ground and in flight. At least one helicopter system must be represented. Systems must be operative to the extent that applicable normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures included in the sponsor's training programs can be accomplished. Levels 6 and 7 must simulate all applicable helicopter flight, navigation, and systems operation. Level 5 must have functional flight and navigational controls, displays, and instrumentation | A | X | X | X

3.d. | The lighting environment for panels and instruments must be sufficient for the operation being conducted | X | X | X | X | Back-lighted panels and instruments may be installed but are not required.

3.e. | The FTD must provide control forces and control travel that correspond to the replicated helicopter or set of helicopters. Control forces must react in the same manner as in the helicopter or set of helicopters under the same flight conditions | X | X

3.f. | The FTD must provide control forces and control travel of sufficient precision to manually fly an instrument approach. The control forces must react in the same manner as in the helicopter or set of helicopters under the same flight conditions | X

4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities.

4.a. | In addition to the flight crewmember stations, suitable seating arrangements for an instructor/check airman and FAA Inspector must be available. These seats must provide adequate view of crewmember's panel(s) | X | X | X | X | These seats need not be a replica of an aircraft seat and may be as simple as an office chair placed in an appropriate position.

4.b. | The FTD must have instructor controls that permit activation of normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions, as appropriate. Once activated, proper system operation must result from system management by the crew and not require input from the instructor controls. | X | X | X | X

5. Motion System

5.a. | A motion system may be installed in an FTD. If installed, the motion system operation must not be distracting. If a motion system is installed and additional training, testing, or checking credits are being sought, sensory cues must also be integrated. The motion system must respond to abrupt input at the pilot's position within the allotted time, but not before the time when the helicopter responds under the same conditions. The motion system must be measured by latency tests or transport delay tests and may not exceed 150 milliseconds. Instrument response must not occur prior to motion onset | X | X | X | X

5.b. | The FTD must have at least a vibration cueing system for characteristic helicopter vibrations noted at the pilot station(s) | X | May be accomplished by a “seat shaker” or a bass speaker sufficient to provide the necessary cueing.

6. Visual System

6.a. | The FTD may have a visual system, if desired, although it is not required. If a visual system is installed, it must meet the following criteria:

6.a.1. | The visual system must respond to abrupt input at the pilot's position. An SOC is required | X | X | X

6.a.2. | The visual system must be at least a single channel, non-collimated display. An SOC is required | X | X | X

6.a.3. | The visual system must provide at least a field-of-view of 18° vertical/24° horizontal for the pilot flying. An SOC is required | X | X | X

6.a.4. | The visual system must provide for a maximum parallax of 10° per pilot. An SOC is required | X | X | X

6.a.5. | The visual scene content may not be distracting. An SOC is required | X | X | X

6.a.6. | The minimum distance from the pilot's eye position to the surface of a direct view display may not be less than the distance to any front panel instrument. An SOC is required | X | X | X

6.a.7. | The visual system must provide for a minimum resolution of 5 arc-minutes for both computed and displayed pixel size. An SOC is required | X | X | X

6.b. | If a visual system is installed and additional training, testing, or checking credits are being sought on the basis of having a visual system, a visual system meeting the standards set out for at least a Level A FFS (see Appendix A of this part) will be required. A “direct-view,” non-collimated visual system (with the other requirements for a Level A visual system met) may be considered satisfactory for those installations where the visual system design “eye point” is appropriately adjusted for each pilot's position such that the parallax error is at or less than 10° simultaneously for each pilot. An SOC is required | X | X | X

6.c. | The FTD must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally and 36° vertically for both pilot seats, simultaneously. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half ( 1/2) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. Capability for a field-of-view in excess of these minima is not required for qualification at Level 7. However, where specific tasks require extended fields of view beyond the 146° by 36° (e.g., to accommodate the use of “chin windows” where the accommodation is either integral with or separate from the primary visual system display), then such extended fields of view must be provided. An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. | X | Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may be considered with respect to the specific helicopter flight deck cut-off angle. When considering the installation/use of augmented fields of view, as described here, it will be the responsibility of the sponsor to meet with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine the training, testing, checking, or experience tasks for which the augmented field-of-view capability may be critical to that approval.

7. Sound System

7.a. | The FTD must simulate significant flight deck sounds resulting from pilot actions that correspond to those heard in the helicopter | X | X

Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate helicopter system or control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.

Table D1B—Minimum FTD Requirements

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | Subjective requirements The FTD must be able to perform the tasks associated with the level of qualification sought. | FTD level | Notes

4 | 5 | 6 | 7

1. Preflight Procedures

1.a. | Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment | A | A | X | X

1.b. | APU/Engine start and run-up

1.b.1. | Normal start procedures | A | A | X | X

1.b.2. | Alternate start procedures | A | A | X | X

1.b.3. | Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung start) | A | A | X | X

1.c. | Taxiing—Ground | X

1.d. | Taxiing—Hover | X

1.e. | Pre-takeoff Checks | A | A | X | X

2. Takeoff and Departure Phase

2.a. | Normal takeoff

2.a.1. | From ground | X

2.a.2. | From hover | X

2.a.3 | Running | X

2.b. | Instrument | X | X

2.c. | Powerplant Failure During Takeoff | X | X

2.d. | Rejected Takeoff | X

2.e. | Instrument Departure | X | X

3. Climb

3.a. | Normal | X | X

3.b. | Obstacle clearance | X

3.c. | Vertical | X | X

3.d. | One engine inoperative | X | X

4. In-flight Maneuvers

4.a. | Turns (timed, normal, steep) | X | X | X

4.b. | Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters | X | X

4.c. | Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Helicopters | X | X

4.d. | Recovery From Unusual Attitudes | X

4.e. | Settling with Power | X

5. Instrument Procedures

5.a. | Instrument Arrival | X | X

5.b. | Holding | X | X

5.c. | Precision Instrument Approach

5.c.1. | Normal—All engines operating | X | X | X

5.c.2. | Manually controlled—One or more engines inoperative | X | X

5.d. | Non-precision Instrument Approach | X | X | X

5.e. | Missed Approach.

5.e.1. | All engines operating | X | X

5.e.2. | One or more engines inoperative | X | X

5.e.3. | Stability augmentation system failure | X | X

6. Landings and Approaches to Landings

6.a. | Visual Approaches (normal, steep, shallow) | X | X | X

6.b. | Landings.

6.b.1. | Normal/crosswind.

6.b.1.a. | Running | X

6.b.1.b. | From Hover | X

6.b.2. | One or more engines inoperative | X

6.b.3. | Rejected Landing | X

7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures

7.a. | Powerplant | A | A | X | X

7.b. | Fuel System | A | A | X | X

7.c. | Electrical System | A | A | X | X

7.d. | Hydraulic System | A | A | X | X

7.e. | Environmental System(s) | A | A | X | X

7.f. | Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems | A | A | X | X

7.g. | Navigation and Aviation Systems | A | A | X | X

7.h. | Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic Flight Instrument System, and Related Subsystems | A | A | X | X

7.i. | Flight Control Systems | A | A | X | X

7.j. | Anti-ice and Deice Systems | A | A | X | X

7.k. | Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment | A | A | X | X

7.l. | Special Missions tasks (e.g., Night Vision goggles, Forward Looking Infrared System, External Loads and as listed on the SOQ.) | X

8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)

8.a. | Emergency Descent | X | X

8.b. | Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal | X | X

8.c. | Emergency Evacuation | X | X

8.d. | Ditching | X

8.e. | Autorotative Landing | X

8.f. | Retreating blade stall recovery | X

8.g. | Mast bumping | X

8.h. | Loss of tail rotor effectiveness | X | X

9. Postflight Procedures

9.a. | After-Landing Procedures | A | A | X | X

9.b. | Parking and Securing

9.b.1. | Rotor brake operation | A | A | X | X

9.b.2. | Abnormal/emergency procedures | A | A | X | X

Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.

Table D1C—Table of FTD System Tasks

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | Subjective requirements In order to be qualified at the FTD qualification level indicated, the FTD must be able to perform at least the tasks associate with that level of qualification. | FTD level | Notes

4 | 5 | 6 | 7

1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)

1.a. | Power switch(es) | A | X | X | X

1.b. | Helicopter conditions | A | A | X | X | e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading, Systems, Ground. Crew.

1.c. | Airports/Heliports/Helicopter Landing Areas | A | X | X | X | e.g., Selection, Surface, Presets, Lighting controls.

1.d. | Environmental controls | A | X | X | X | e.g., Temp and Wind.

1.e. | Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion) | A | A | X | X

1.f. | Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning (as appropriate) | A | X | X | X

1.g. | Sound Controls. (On/off/adjustment) | X | X | X

1.h. | Motion/Control Loading System, as appropriate. On/off/emergency stop | A | X | X

2. Observer Seats/Stations

2.a. | Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system | A | X | X | X

Note: An “A” in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate simulator system or control is in the FTD and is working properly.

Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests

Begin Information

1. Discussion

a. If relevant winds are present in the objective data, the wind vector (magnitude and direction) should be noted as part of the data presentation, expressed in conventional terminology, and related to the runway being used for the test.

b. The format for numbering the objective tests in Appendix C of this part, Attachment 2, Table C2A, and the objective tests in Appendix D of this part, Attachment 2, Table D2A, is identical. However, each test required for FFSs is not necessarily required for FTDs, and each test required for FTDs is not necessarily required for FFSs. When a test number (or series of numbers) is not required, the term “Reserved” is used in the table at that location. Following this numbering format provides a degree of commonality between the two tables and substantially reduces the potential for confusion when referring to objective test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs.

c. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective tests and is not addressed in the following table.

End Information

Begin QPS Requirements

2. Test Requirements

a. The ground and flight tests required for qualification are listed in Table D2A Objective Evaluation Tests. Computer generated FTD test results must be provided for each test except where an alternate test is specifically authorized by the responsible Flight Standards office. If a flight condition or operating condition is required for the test but does not apply to the helicopter being simulated or to the qualification level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., engine out climb capability for a single-engine helicopter). Each test result is compared against the validation data described in § 60.13, and in Appendix B of this part. The results must be produced on an appropriate recording device acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office and must include FTD number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent variables portrayed in comparison to the validation data. Time histories are required unless otherwise indicated in Table D2A. All results must be labeled using the tolerances and units given.

b. Table D2A in this attachment sets out the test results required, including the parameters, tolerances, and flight conditions for FTD validation. Tolerances are provided for the listed tests because mathematical modeling and acquisition and development of reference data are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the following tables are applied to FTD performance. When two tolerance values are given for a parameter, the less restrictive may be used unless otherwise indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance percentage applies to the maximum value of that parameter within its normal operating range as measured from the neutral or zero position unless otherwise indicated.

c. Certain tests included in this attachment must be supported with an SOC. In Table D2A, requirements for SOCs are indicated in the “Test Details” column.

d. When operational or engineering judgment is used in making assessments for flight test data applications for FTD validity, such judgment must not be limited to a single parameter. For example, data that exhibit rapid variations of the measured parameters may require interpolations or a “best fit” data section. All relevant parameters related to a given maneuver or flight condition must be provided to allow overall interpretation. When it is difficult or impossible to match FTD to helicopter data throughout a time history, differences must be justified by providing a comparison of other related variables for the condition being assessed.

e. The FTD may not be programmed so that the mathematical modeling is correct only at the validation test points. Unless noted otherwise, tests must represent helicopter performance and handling qualities at operating weights and centers of gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. If a test is supported by aircraft data at one extreme weight or CG, another test supported by aircraft data at mid-conditions or as close as possible to the other extreme is necessary. Certain tests that are relevant only at one extreme CG or weight condition need not be repeated at the other extreme. The results of the tests for Level 6 are expected to be indicative of the device's performance and handling qualities throughout all of the following:

(1) The helicopter weight and CG envelope.

(2) The operational envelope.

(3) Varying atmospheric ambient and environmental conditions—including the extremes authorized for the respective helicopter or set of helicopters.

f. When comparing the parameters listed to those of the helicopter, sufficient data must also be provided to verify the correct flight condition and helicopter configuration changes. For example, to show that control force is within the parameters for a static stability test, data to show the correct airspeed, power, thrust or torque, helicopter configuration, altitude, and other appropriate datum identification parameters must also be given. If comparing short period dynamics, normal acceleration may be used to establish a match to the helicopter, but airspeed, altitude, control input, helicopter configuration, and other appropriate data must also be given. If comparing landing gear change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may be used to establish a match to the helicopter, but landing gear position must also be provided. All airspeed values must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated). In addition, the same variables must be used for comparison (e.g., compare inches to inches rather than inches to centimeters).

h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests and tolerances of this attachment may be used in subsequent continuing qualification evaluations for any given test if the sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to the responsible Flight Standard office and has received responsible Flight Standards office approval.

i. Tests of handling qualities must include validation of augmentation devices. FTDs for highly augmented helicopters will be validated both in the unaugmented configuration (or failure state with the maximum permitted degradation in handling qualities) and the augmented configuration. Where various levels of handling qualities result from failure states, validation of the effect of the failure is necessary. For those performance and static handling qualities tests where the primary concern is control position in the unaugmented configuration, unaugmented data are not required if the design of the system precludes any affect on control position. In those instances where the unaugmented helicopter response is divergent and non-repeatable, it may not be feasible to meet the specified tolerances. Alternative requirements for testing will be mutually agreed upon by the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office on a case-by-case basis.

j. Some tests will not be required for helicopters using helicopter hardware in the FTD flight deck (e.g., “helicopter modular controller”). These exceptions are noted in Section 2 “Handling Qualities” in Table D2A of this attachment. However, in these cases, the sponsor must provide a statement that the helicopter hardware meets the appropriate manufacturer's specifications and the sponsor must have supporting information to that fact available for responsible Flight Standards office review.

k. In cases where light-class helicopters are being simulated, prior coordination with the responsible Flight Standards office on acceptable weight ranges is required. The terms “light,” “medium,” and “near maximum,” may not be appropriate for the simulation of light-class helicopters.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

l. In those cases where the objective test results authorize a “snapshot test” or a “series of snapshot test” results in lieu of a time-history result, the sponsor or other data provider must ensure that a steady state condition exists at the instant of time captured by the “snapshot.” The steady state condition must exist from 4 seconds prior to, through 1 second following, the instant of time captured by the snap shot.

m. Refer to AC 120-27, Aircraft Weight and Balance; and FAA-H-8083-1, Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, for more information.

End Information

Table D2A—Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests

QPS requirements | Information

Entry No. | Title | 5 | 6 | 7

1. Performance

1.a. | Engine Assessment.

1.a.1. | Start Operations.

1.a.1.a. | Engine start and acceleration (transient) | Light Off Time—±10% or ±1 sec. Torque—±5% Rotor Speed—±3% Fuel Flow—±10% Gas Generator Speed—±5% Power Turbine Speed—±5% Gas Turbine Temp—±30 °C | Ground with the Rotor Brake Used and Not Used | Record each engine start from the initiation of the start sequence to steady state idle and from steady state idle to operating RPM | X | X

1.a.1.b. | Steady State Idle and Operating RPM conditions | Torque—±3% Rotor Speed—±1.5% Fuel Flow—±5% Gas Generator Speed—±2% Power Turbine Speed—±2% Turbine Gas Temp—±20 °C | Ground | Record both steady state idle and operating RPM conditions. May be a series of snapshot tests | X | X | X

1.a.2. | Power Turbine Speed Trim | ±10% of total change of power turbine speed; or ±0.5% change of rotor speed | Ground | Record engine response to trim system actuation in both directions | X | X

1.a.3. | Engine and Rotor Speed Governing | Torque—±5% Rotor Speed—±1.5% | Climb Descent | Record results using a step input to the collective. May be conducted concurrently with climb and descent performance tests | X | X

1.b. | Reserved.

1.c. | Takeoff.

1.c.1. | All Engines | Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1 m) Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50 m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10% | Ground/Takeoff and Initial Segment of Climb | Record results of takeoff flight path (running takeoff and takeoff from a hover). The criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift. Results must be recorded from the initiation of the takeoff to at least 200 ft (61 m) AGL | X

1.c.2. through 1.c.3 | Reserved.

1.d. | Hover.

Performance | Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Longitudinal Control Position—±5%, Lateral Control Position—±5%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5% | In Ground Effect (IGE); and Out of Ground Effect (OGE) | Record results for light and heavy gross weights. May be a series of snapshot tests | X

1.e. | Vertical Climb.

Performance | Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50 m/sec) or ±10%, Directional Control Position—±5%, Collective Control Position—±5% | From OGE Hover | Record results for light and heavy gross weights. May be a series of snapshot tests | X

1.f. | Level Flight.

Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions | Torque—±3% Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Longitudinal Control Position—±5% Lateral Control position—±5% Directional Control Position—±5% Collective Control Position—±5% | Cruise (Augmentation On and Off) | Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations with varying trim speeds throughout the airspeed envelope. May be a series of snapshot tests | X | X | X | This test validates performance at speeds above maximum endurance airspeed.

1.g. | Climb.

Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions | Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (61 m/sec) or ±10% Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Longitudinal Control Position—±5% Lateral Control Position—±5% Directional Control Position—±5% Collective Control Position—±5% | All engines operating One engine inoperative Augmentation System(s) On and Off | Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations. The data presented must be for normal climb power conditions. May be a series of snapshot tests | X | X | X

1.h. | Descent.

1.h.1. | Descent Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions | Torque—±3% Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Longitudinal Control Position—±5% Lateral Control Position—±5% Directional Control Position—±5% Collective Control Position—±5% | At or near 1,000 fpm (5 m/sec) rate of descent (RoD) at normal approach speed Augmentation System(s) On and Off | Record results for two gross weight and CG combinations. May be a series of snapshot tests | X | X | X

1.h.2. | Autorotation Performance and Trimmed Flight Control Positions | Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Longitudinal Control Position—±5% Lateral Control Position—±5% Directional Control Position—±5% Collective Control Position—±5% | Steady descents. Augmentation System(s) On and Off | Record results for two gross weight conditions. Data must be recorded for normal operating RPM. (Rotor speed tolerance applies only if collective control position is full down.) Data must be recorded for speeds from 50 kts, ±5 kts through at least maximum glide distance airspeed. May be a series of snapshot tests | X | X | X

1.i. | Autorotation.

Entry | Rotor Speed—±3% Pitch Attitude ±2° Roll Attitude—±3° Yaw Attitude—±5° Airspeed—±5 kts. Vertical Velocity—±200 fpm (1.00 m/sec) or 10% | Cruise; or Climb | Record results of a rapid throttle reduction to idle. If accomplished in cruise, results must be for the maximum range airspeed. If accomplished in climb, results must be for the maximum rate of climb airspeed at or near maximum continuous power | X | X

1.j. | Landing.

1.j.1. | All Engines | Airspeed—±3 kts, Altitude—±20 ft (6.1 m) Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, Heading—±2°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10% | Approach | Record results of the approach and landing profile (running landing or approach to a hover). The criteria apply only to those segments at airspeeds above effective translational lift. Record the results from 200 ft AGL (61 m) to the landing or to where the hover is established prior to landing | X

1.j.2. through 1.j.3 | Reserved.

1.j.4. | Autorotational Landing. | Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed—±3%, Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50 m/sec) or 10%, Pitch Attitude—±2°, Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading—±5°, Longitudinal Control Position—±10%, Lateral Control Position—±10%, Directional Control Position—±10%, Collective Control Position—±10%. | Landing. | Record the results of an autorotational deceleration and landing from a stabilized autorotational descent, to touch down. | X | If flight test data containing all required parameters for a complete power-off landing is not available from the aircraft manufacturer for this test, and other qualified flight test personnel are not available to acquire this data, the sponsor must coordinate with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine if it would be appropriate to accept alternative testing means. Alternative approaches to this data acquisition that may be acceptable are: (1) a simulated autorotational flare and reduction of rate of descent (ROD) at altitude; or (2) a power-on termination following an autorotational approach and flare.

2. Handling Qualities

2.a. | Control System Mechanical Characteristics. | Contact the responsible Flight Standards office for clarification of any issue regarding helicopters with reversible controls.

2.a.1. | Cyclic | Breakout—±0.25 lbs (0.112 daN) or 25%. Force—±1.0 lb (0.224 daN) or 10% | Ground; Static conditions. Trim On and Off. Friction Off. Augmentation On and Off | Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep to the stops. (This test does not apply if aircraft hardware modular controllers are used.) | X | X | X

2.a.2. | Collective and Pedals | Breakout—±0.5 lb (0.224 daN) or 25%. Force—±1.0 lb (0.224 daN) or 10% | Ground; Static conditions. Trim On and Off. Friction Off. Augmentation On and Off | Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep to the stops | X | X | X

2.a.3. | Brake Pedal Force vs. Position | ±5 lbs (2.224 daN) or 10% | Ground; Static conditions | X | X | X

2.a.4. | Trim System Rate (all applicable systems) | Rate—±10% | Ground; Static conditions. Trim On. Friction Off | The tolerance applies to the recorded value of the trim rate | X | X | X

2.a.5. | Control Dynamics (all axes) | ±10% of time for first zero crossing and ±10 (N + 1)% of period thereafter. ±10% of amplitude of first overshoot. ±20% of amplitude of 2nd and subsequent overshoots greater than 5% of initial displacement. ±1 overshoot | Hover/Cruise Trim On Friction Off | Results must be recorded for a normal control displacement in both directions in each axis, using 25% to 50% of full throw | X | X | Control Dynamics for irreversible control systems may be evaluated in a ground/static condition. Refer to paragraph 3 of this attachment for additional information. “N” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation.

2.a.6. | Freeplay | ±0.10 in. (±2.5 mm) | Ground; Static conditions | Record and compare results for all controls | X | X | X

2.b. | Low Airspeed Handling Qualities.

2.b.1. | Trimmed Flight Control Positions | Torque ±3% Pitch Attitude ±1.5° Bank Attitude ±2° Longitudinal Control Position ±5% Lateral Control Position ±5% Directional Control Position ±5% Collective Control Position ±5% | Translational Flight IGE—Sideward, rearward, and forward flight. Augmentation On and Off | Record results for several airspeed increments to the translational airspeed limits and for 45 kts. forward airspeed. May be a series of snapshot tests | X

2.b.2. | Critical Azimuth | Torque ±3% Pitch Attitude ±1.5°, Bank Attitude ±2°, Longitudinal Control Position ±5%, Lateral Control Position ±5%, Directional Control Position ±5%, Collective Control Position ±5% | Stationary Hover. Augmentation On and Off | Record results for three relative wind directions (including the most critical case) in the critical quadrant. May be a series of snapshot tests | X

2.b.3. | Control Response.

2.b.3.a. | Longitudinal | Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Pitch Attitude Change—±10% or 1.5° | Hover. Augmentation On and Off | Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. This test must be conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight | X | This is a “short time” test.

2.b.3.b. | Lateral | Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec. Roll Attitude Change—±10% or ±3° | Hover Augmentation On and Off | Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases | X | This is a “short time” test conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight, to provide better visual reference.

2.b.3.c. | Directional | Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Heading Change—±10% or ±2° | Hover Augmentation On and Off | Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases. This test must be conducted in a hover, in ground effect, without entering translational flight | X | This is a “short time” test.

2.c. | Longitudinal Handling Qualities.

2.c.1. | Control Response | Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Pitch Attitude Change—±10% or ±1.5° | Cruise Augmentation On and Off | Results must be recorded for two cruise airspeeds to include minimum power required speed. Record data for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases | X | X | X

2.c.2. | Static Stability | Longitudinal Control Position: ±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitudinal Control Force: ±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or ±10% | Cruise or Climb. Autorotation. Augmentation On and Off | Record results for a minimum of two speeds on each side of the trim speed. May be a series of snapshot tests | X | X | X

2.c.3. | Dynamic Stability.

2.c.3.a. | Long Term Response | ±10% of calculated period. ±10% of time to 1/2 or double amplitude, or ±0.02 of damping ratio. For non-periodic responses, the time history must be matched within ±3° pitch; and ±5 kts airspeed over a 20 sec period following release of the controls | Cruise Augmentation On and Off | Record results for three full cycles (6 overshoots after input completed) or that sufficient to determine time to 1/2 or double amplitude, whichever is less. For non-periodic responses, the test may be terminated prior to 20 sec if the test pilot determines that the results are becoming uncontrollably divergent. Displace the cyclic for one second or less to excite the test. The result will be either convergent or divergent and must be recorded. If this method fails to excite the test, displace the cyclic to the predetermined maximum desired pitch attitude and return to the original position. If this method is used, record the results | X | X | X | The response for certain helicopters may be unrepeatable throughout the stated time. In these cases, the test should show at least that a divergence is identifiable. For example: Displacing the cyclic for a given time normally excites this test or until a given pitch attitude is achieved and then return the cyclic to the original position. For non-periodic responses, results should show the same convergent or divergent character as the flight test data.

2.c.3.b. | Short Term Response | ±1.5° Pitch or ±2°/sec. Pitch Rate. ±0.1 g Normal Acceleration | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off | Record results for at least two airspeeds | X | X | A control doublet inserted at the natural frequency of the aircraft normally excites this test. However, while input doublets are preferred over pulse inputs for Augmentation-Off tests, for Augmentation-On cases, when the short term response exhibits 1st-order or deadbeat characteristics, longitudinal pulse inputs may produce a more coherent response.

2.c.4. | Maneuvering Stability | Longitudinal Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitudinal Control Forces—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or ±10% | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off | Record results for at least two airspeeds at 30°-45° bank angle. The force may be shown as a cross plot for irreversible systems. May be a series of snapshot tests | X | X

2.d. | Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities.

2.d.1. | Control Response.

2.d.1.a. | Lateral | Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec. Roll Attitude Change—±10% or ±3° | Cruise Augmentation On and Offd | Record results for at least two airspeeds, including the speed at or near the minimum power required airspeed. Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases | X | X | X

2.d.1.b. | Directional | Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Yaw Attitude Change—±10% or ±2° | Cruise Augmentation On and Off | Record data for at least two Airspeeds, including the speed at or near the minimum power required airspeed. Record results for a step control input. The Off-axis response must show correct trend for unaugmented cases | X | X | X

2.d.2. | Directional Static Stability | Lateral Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Lateral Control Force—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or 10%. Roll Attitude—±1.5 Directional Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Directional Control Force—±1 lb. (0.448 daN) or 10%. Longitudinal Control Position—±10% of change from trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm). Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/sec) or 10% | Cruise; or Climb (may use Descent instead of Climb if desired) Augmentation On and Off | Record results for at least two sideslip angles on either side of the trim point. The force may be shown as a cross plot for irreversible systems. May be a series of snapshot tests | X | X | X | This is a steady heading sideslip test at a fixed collective position.

2.d.3. | Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability.

2.d.3.a. | Lateral-Directional Oscillations | ±0.5 sec. or ±10% of period. ±10% of time to 1/2 or double amplitude or ±0.02 of damping ratio. ±20% or ±1 sec of time difference between peaks of bank and sideslip. For non-periodic responses, the time history must be matched within ±10 knots Airspeed; ±5°/s Roll Rate or ±5° Roll Attitude; ±4°/s Yaw Rate or ±4° Yaw Angle over a 20 sec period roll angle following release of the controls | Cruise or Climb Augmentation On and Off | Record results for at least two airspeeds. The test must be initiated with a cyclic or a pedal doublet input. Record results for six full cycles (12 overshoots after input completed) or that sufficient to determine time to 1/2 or double amplitude, whichever is less. The test may be terminated prior to 20 sec if the test pilot determines that the results are becoming uncontrollably divergent | X | X | X

2.d.3.b. | Spiral Stability | ±2° or ±10% roll angle | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off | Record the results of a release from pedal only or cyclic only turns for 20 sec. Results must be recorded from turns in both directions. Terminate check at zero roll angle or when the test pilot determines that the attitude is becoming uncontrollably divergent | X | X | X

2.d.3.c. | Adverse/Proverse Yaw | Correct Trend, ±2° transient sideslip angle | Cruise or Climb. Augmentation On and Off | Record the time history of initial entry into cyclic only turns, using only a moderate rate for cyclic input. Results must be recorded for turns in both directions | X | X | X

3. Reserved

4. Visual System

4.a. | Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual System Response Time Test. This test is also sufficient for flight deck instrument response timing.)

4.a.1. | Latency.

150 ms (or less) after helicopter response | Takeoff, climb, and descent | One test is required in each axis (pitch, roll and yaw) for each of the three conditions (take-off, cruise, and approach or landing) | X

4.a.2. | Transport Delay.

150 ms (or less) after controller movement | N/A | A separate test is required in each axis (pitch, roll, and yaw) | X

4.b. | Field-of-view.

4.b.1. | Reserved.

4.b.2. | Continuous visual field-of-view | Minimum continuous field-of-view providing 146° horizontal and 36° vertical field-of-view for each pilot simultaneously and any geometric error between the Image Generator eye point and the pilot eye point is 8° or less | N/A | An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation. Horizontal field-of-view must not be less than a total of 146° (including not less than 73° measured either side of the center of the design eye point). Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained. Vertical field-of-view: Not less than a total of 36° measured from the pilot's and co-pilot's eye point | X | Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage.

4.b.3. | Reserved.

4.c. | Surface contrast ratio | Not less than 5:1 | N/A | The ratio is calculated by dividing the brightness level of the center, bright square (providing at least 2 foot-lamberts or 7 cd/m 2) by the brightness level of any adjacent dark square | X | Measurements may be made using a 1° spot photometer and a raster drawn test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a test pattern of black and white squares, 5 per square, with a white square in the center of each channel. During contrast ratio testing, simulator aft-cab and flight deck ambient light levels should be zero.

4.d. | Highlight brightness | Not less than three (3) foot-lamberts (10 cd/m 2) | N/A | Measure the brightness of the center white square while superimposing a highlight on that white square. The use of calligraphic capabilities to enhance the raster brightness is acceptable, but measuring light points is not acceptable | X | Measurements may be made using a 1° spot photometer and a raster drawn test pattern filling the entire visual scene (all channels) with a test pattern of black and white squares, 5 per square, with a white square in the center of each channel.

4.e. | Surface resolution | Not greater than two (2) arc minutes | N/A | An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations | X | When the eye is positioned on a 3° glide slope at the slant range distances indicated with white runway markings on a black runway surface, the eye will subtend two (2) arc minutes: (1) A slant range of 6,876 ft with stripes 150 ft long and 16 ft wide, spaced 4 ft apart. (2) For Configuration A; a slant range of 5,157 feet with stripes 150 ft long and 12 ft wide, spaced 3 ft apart. (3) For Configuration B; a slant range of 9,884 feet, with stripes 150 ft long and 5.75 ft wide, spaced 5.75 ft apart.

4.f. | Light point size | Not greater than five (5) arc-minutes | N/A | An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations | X | Light point size may be measured using a test pattern consisting of a centrally located single row of light points reduced in length until modulation is just discernible in each visual channel. A row of 48 lights will form a 4° angle or less.

4.g. | Light point contrast ratio | A 1° spot photometer may be used to measure a square of at least 1° filled with light points (where light point modulation is just discernible) and compare the results to the measured adjacent background. During contrast ratio testing, simulator aft-cab and flight deck ambient light levels should be zero.

4.g.1. | Reserved.

4.g.2. | Not less than 25:1 | N/A | An SOC is required and must include the relevant calculations | X

4.h. | Visual ground segment.

The visible segment in the simulator must be within 20% of the segment computed to be visible from the helicopter flight deck. The tolerance(s) may be applied at either end or at both ends of the displayed segment. However, lights and ground objects computed to be visible from the helicopter flight deck at the near end of the visible segment must be visible in the simulator | Landing configuration, trimmed for appropriate airspeed, at 100 ft (30m) above the touchdown zone, on glide slope with an RVR value set at 1,200 ft (350m) | The QTG must contain relevant calculations and a drawing showing the data used to establish the helicopter location and the segment of the ground that is visible considering design eyepoint, helicopter attitude, flight deck cut-off angle, and a visibility of 1200 ft (350 m) RVR. Simulator performance must be measured against the QTG calculations. The data submitted must include at least the following: (1) Static helicopter dimensions as follows: (i) Horizontal and vertical distance from main landing gear (MLG) to glideslope reception antenna. (ii) Horizontal and vertical distance from MLG to pilot's eyepoint. (iii) Static flight deck cutoff angle. (2) Approach data as follows: (i) Identification of runway. (ii) Horizontal distance from runway threshold to glideslope intercept with runway. (iii) Glideslope angle. (iv) Helicopter pitch angle on approach. (3) Helicopter data for manual testing: (i) Gross weight. (ii) Helicopter configuration. (iii) Approach airspeed. If non-homogenous fog is used to obscure visibility, the vertical variation in horizontal visibility must be described and be included in the slant range visibility calculation used in the computations | X | Pre-position for this test is encouraged, but may be achieved via manual or autopilot control to the desired position.

5. Reserved

EDITORIAL NOTE:At 87 FR 75832, December 9, 2022, appendix D to part 60 was amended in attachment 2, in table D2A, by revising entries for 1.j.4. and 2.a.; however, the amendment could not be incorporated because the revised entry was photographed.

Begin Information

3. Control Dynamics

a. The characteristics of a helicopter flight control system have a major effect on the handling qualities. A significant consideration in pilot acceptability of a helicopter is the “feel” provided through the flight deck controls. Considerable effort is expended on helicopter feel system design in order to deliver a system with which pilots will be comfortable and consider the helicopter desirable to fly. In order for an FTD to be representative, it too must present the pilot with the proper feel; that of the respective helicopter. Compliance with this requirement is determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the FFS to actual helicopter measurements in the hover and cruise configurations.

(1) Recordings such as free response to an impulse or step function are classically used to estimate the dynamic properties of electromechanical systems. It is only possible to estimate the dynamic properties as a result of only being able to estimate true inputs and responses. Therefore, it is imperative that the best possible data be collected since close matching of the FTD control loading system to the helicopter systems is essential. Control feel dynamic tests are described in the Table of Objective Tests in this appendix. Where accomplished, the free response is measured after a step or pulse input is used to excite the system.

(2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, it is required that control dynamic characteristics be measured at and recorded directly from the flight deck controls. This procedure is usually accomplished by measuring the free response of the controls using a step or pulse input to excite the system. The procedure must be accomplished in hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation. For helicopters with irreversible control systems, measurements may be obtained on the ground. The procedure should be accomplished in the hover and cruise flight conditions and configurations. Proper pitot-static inputs (if appropriate) must be provided to represent airspeeds typical of those encountered in flight.

(3) It may be shown that for some helicopters, climb, cruise, and autorotation have like effects. Thus, some tests for one may suffice for some tests for another. If either or both considerations apply, engineering validation or helicopter manufacturer rationale must be submitted as justification for ground tests or for eliminating a configuration. For FTDs requiring static and dynamic tests at the controls, special test fixtures will not be required during initial and upgrade evaluations if the sponsor's QTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternative approach, such as computer plots which were produced concurrently and show satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the alternative method during the initial evaluation satisfies this test requirement.

b. Control Dynamics Evaluations. The dynamic properties of control systems are often stated in terms of frequency, damping, and a number of other classical measurements which can be found in texts on control systems. In order to establish a consistent means of validating test results for FTD control loading, criteria are needed that will clearly define the interpretation of the measurements and the tolerances to be applied. Criteria are needed for both the underdamped system and the overdamped system, including the critically damped case. In the case of an underdamped system with very light damping, the system may be quantified in terms of frequency and damping. In critically damped or overdamped systems, the frequency and damping is not readily measured from a response time history. Therefore, some other measurement must be used.

(1) Tests to verify that control feel dynamics represent the helicopter must show that the dynamic damping cycles (free response of the control) match that of the helicopter within specified tolerances. The method of evaluating the response and the tolerance to be applied are described below for the underdamped and critically damped cases.

(b) The damping tolerance will be applied to overshoots on an individual basis. Care must be taken when applying the tolerance to small overshoots since the significance of such overshoots becomes questionable. Only those overshoots larger than 5 percent of the total initial displacement will be considered significant. The residual band, labeled T(Ad) on Figure 1 of this attachment is ±5 percent of the initial displacement amplitude, Ad, from the steady state value of the oscillation. Oscillations within the residual band are considered insignificant. When comparing simulator data to helicopter data, the process would begin by overlaying or aligning the simulator and helicopter steady state values and then comparing amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the time of the first zero crossing, and individual periods of oscillation. To be satisfactory, the simulator must show the same number of significant overshoots to within one when compared against the helicopter data. The procedure for evaluating the response is illustrated in Figure 1 of this attachment.

(c) Critically Damped and Overdamped Response. Due to the nature of critically damped responses (no overshoots), the time to reach 90 percent of the steady state (neutral point) value must be the same as the helicopter within ±10 percent. The simulator response must be critically damped also. Figure 2 of this attachment illustrates the procedure.

(d) Special considerations. Control systems that exhibit characteristics other than classical overdamped or underdamped responses should meet specified tolerances. In addition, special consideration should be given to ensure that significant trends are maintained.

(2) Tolerances.

(a) The following summarizes the tolerances, “T” for underdamped systems, and “n” is the sequential period of a full cycle of oscillation. See Figure D2A of this attachment for an illustration of the referenced measurements.

T(P0) ±10% of P0

T(P1) ±20% of P1

T(P2) ±30% of P2

T(Pn) ±10(n + 1)% of Pn

T(An) ±10% of A1

T(Ad) ±5% of Ad = residual band

Significant overshoots First overshoot and ±1 subsequent overshoots

(b) The following tolerance applies to critically damped and overdamped systems only. See Figure D2B for an illustration of the reference measurements:

T(P0) ±10% of P0

c. Alternative method for control dynamics evaluation.

(b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full sweep within 8-12 seconds.

Note:

Dynamic sweeps may be limited to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN).

(d) Tolerances.

(i) Static test; see Table D2A, Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3.

(ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10% on dynamic increment above static test.

End QPS Requirement

Begin Information

d. The FAA is open to alternative means that are justified and appropriate to the application. For example, the method described here may not apply to all manufacturers' systems and certainly not to aircraft with reversible control systems. Each case is considered on its own merit on an ad hoc basis. If the FAA finds that alternative methods do not result in satisfactory performance, more conventionally accepted methods will have to be used.

4. For Additional Information on the Following Topics, Please Refer to Appendix C of This Part, Attachment 2, and the Indicated Paragraph Within That Attachment

• Additional Information About Flight Simulator Qualification for New or Derivative Helicopters, paragraph 8.

• Engineering Simulator Validation Data, paragraph 9.

• Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph 11.

• Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12.

• Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics, paragraph 13.

• Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15.

• Continuing Qualification Evaluation Validation Data Presentation, paragraph 16.

End Information

Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60—FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) SUBJECTIVE EVALUATION

Begin QPS Requirements

1. Requirements

b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor must ensure that navigational aids and all appropriate maps, charts, and other navigational reference material for the fictional airports (and surrounding areas as necessary) are compatible, complete, and accurate with respect to the visual presentation and the airport model of this fictional airport. An SOC must be submitted that addresses navigation aid installation and performance and other criteria (including obstruction clearance protection) for all instrument approaches to the fictional airports that are available in the simulator. The SOC must reference and account for information in the terminal instrument procedures manual and the construction and availability of the required maps, charts, and other navigational material. This material must be clearly marked “for training purposes only.”

d. When a person sponsors an FTD maintained by a person other than a U.S. certificate holder, the sponsor is accountable for that FTD originally meeting, and continuing to meet, the criteria under which it was originally qualified and the appropriate Part 60 criteria, including the visual scenes and airport models that may be used by instructors or evaluators for purposes of training, checking, or testing under this chapter.

f. When an airport model represents a real world airport and a permanent change is made to that real world airport (e.g., a new runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting system, a runway closure) without a written extension grant from the responsible Flight Standards office (described in paragraph 1.g., of this section), an update to that airport model must be made in accordance with the following time limits:

(2) For a new or modified approach light system—within 45 days of the activation of the new or modified approach light system.

(3) For other facility or structural changes on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180 days of the opening of the new or changed facility or structure.

h. Examples of situations that may warrant Class_III model designation by the TPAA include the following:

(a) Training, testing, or checking on very low visibility operations, including SMGCS operations.

(b) Instrument operations training (including instrument takeoff, departure, arrival, approach, and missed approach training, testing, or checking) using—

(i) A specific model that has been geographically “moved” to a different location and aligned with an instrument procedure for another airport.

(ii) A model that does not match changes made at the real-world airport (or landing area for helicopters) being modeled.

These airport models may be accepted by the TPAA without individual observation provided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an acceptable description of the process for determining the acceptability of a specific airport model, outlines the conditions under which such an airport model may be used, and adequately describes what restrictions will be applied to each resulting airport or landing area model.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

2. Discussion

a. The subjective tests and the examination of functions provide a basis for evaluating the capability of the FTD to perform over a typical utilization period; determining that the FTD satisfactorily meets the appropriate training/testing/checking objectives and competently simulates each required maneuver, procedure, or task; and verifying correct operation of the FTD controls, instruments, and systems. The items in the list of operations tasks are for FTD evaluation purposes only. They must not be used to limit or exceed the authorizations for use of a given level of FTD as found in the Practical Test Standards or as approved by the TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs are subject to an examination of function.

b. The List of Operations Tasks in Table D3A addressing pilot functions and maneuvers is divided by flight phases. All simulated helicopter systems functions will be assessed for normal and, where appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations associated with a flight phase will be assessed during the evaluation of maneuvers or events within that flight phase.

c. Systems to be evaluated are listed separately under “Any Flight Phase” to ensure appropriate attention to systems checks. Operational navigation systems (including inertial navigation systems, global positioning systems, or other long-range systems) and the associated electronic display systems will be evaluated if installed. The pilot will include in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the system operation and any system limitation.

d. At the request of the TPAA, the Pilot may assess the FTD for a special aspect of a sponsor's training program during the functions and subjective portion of an evaluation. Such an assessment may include a portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario) or special emphasis items in the sponsor's training program. Unless directly related to a requirement for the qualification level, the results of such an evaluation would not necessarily affect the qualification of the FTD.

e. The FAA intends to allow the use of Class III airport models on a limited basis when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or other regulatory authority) an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) necessary for competent performance of the tasks in which this particular media element is used. The analysis should describe the ability of the FTD/visual media to provide an adequate environment in which the required SKAs are satisfactorily performed and learned. The analysis should also include the specific media element, such as the visual scene or airport model. Additional sources of information on the conduct of task and capability analysis may be found on the FAA's Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) Web site at: http://www.faa.gov/education_research/training/aqp.

End Information

Table D3A—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 7 FTD

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks

Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or a Level 7 FTD. Items not installed, not functional on the FTD, and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.

1. Preflight Procedures

1.a. | Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.

1.b. | APU/Engine start and run-up.

1.b.1. | Normal start procedures.

1.b.2. | Alternate start procedures.

1.b.3. | Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung start).

1.b.4. | Rotor engagement.

1.b.5. | System checks.

1.c. | Taxiing—Ground.

1.c.1. | Power required to taxi.

1.c.2. | Brake effectiveness.

1.c.3. | Ground handling.

1.c.4. | Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:

1.c.4.a. | Brake system failure.

1.c.4.b. | Ground resonance.

1.c.4.c. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

1.d. | Taxiing—Hover.

1.d.1. | Takeoff to a hover.

1.d.2. | Instrument response.

1.d.2.a. | Engine instruments.

1.d.2.a. | Flight instruments.

1.d.3. | Hovering turns.

1.d.4. | Hover power checks.

1.d.4.a. | In ground effect (IGE).

1.d.4.b. | Out of ground effect (OGE).

1.d.5. | Crosswind/tailwind hover.

1.d.6. | Abnormal/emergency procedures:

1.d.6.a. | Engine failure.

1.d.6.b. | Fuel governing system failure.

1.d.6.c. | Settling with power (OGE).

1.d.6.d. | Stability augmentation system failure.

1.d.6.e. | Directional control malfunction (including Loss of Tail Rotor Effectiveness, LTE).

1.d.6.f. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

1.e. | Pre-takeoff Checks.

2. Takeoff and Departure Phase

2.a. | Normal and Crosswind Takeoff.

2.a.1. | From ground.

2.a.2. | From hover.

2.a.3. | Running.

2.a.4. | Crosswind/tailwind.

2.a.5. | Maximum performance.

2.b. | Instrument.

2.c. | Powerplant Failure During Takeoff.

2.c.1. | Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP).

2.d. | Rejected Takeoff.

2.e. | Instrument Departure.

2.f. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

3. Climb

3.a. | Normal.

3.b. | Obstacle clearance.

3.c. | Vertical.

3.d. | One engine inoperative.

3.e. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

4. Inflight Maneuvers

4.a. | Performance.

4.b. | Flying qualities.

4.c. | Turns.

4.c.1. | Timed.

4.c.2. | Normal.

4.c.3. | Steep.

4.d. | Accelerations and decelerations.

4.e. | High-speed vibrations.

4.f. | Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:

4.f.1. | Engine fire.

4.f.2. | Engine failure.

4.f.2.a. | Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters.

4.f.2.b. | Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Helicopters.

4.f.3. | Inflight engine shutdown (and restart, if applicable).

4.f.4. | Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC malfunction).

4.f.5. | Directional control malfunction.

4.f.6. | Hydraulic failure.

4.f.7. | Stability augmentation system failure.

4.f.8. | Rotor vibrations.

4.f.9. | Recovery From Unusual Attitudes.

4.f.10. | Settling with Power.

4.g. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

5. Instrument Procedures

5.a. | Instrument Arrival.

5.b. | Holding.

5.c. | Precision Instrument Approach.

5.c.1. | Normal—All engines operating.

5.c.2. | Manually controlled—One or more engines inoperative.

5.c.3. | Approach procedures:

5.c.3.a. | PAR.

5.c.3.b. | GPS.

5.c.3.c. | ILS.

5.c.3.c.1. | Manual (raw data).

5.c.3.c.2. | Autopilot * only.

5.c.3.c.3. | Flight director only.

5.c.3.c.4. | Autopilot * and flight director (if appropriate) coupled.

5.c.3.d. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

5.d. | Non-precision Instrument Approach.

5.d.1. | Normal—All engines operating.

5.d.2. | One or more engines inoperative.

5.d.3. | Approach procedures:

5.d.3.a. | NDB.

5.d.3.b. | VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.

5.d.3.c. | ASR.

5.d.3.d. | Circling.

5.d.3.e. | Helicopter only.

5.d.3.f. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

5.e. | Missed Approach.

5.e.1. | All engines operating.

5.e.2. | One or more engines inoperative.

5.e.3. | Stability augmentation system failure.

5.e.4. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

6. Landings and Approaches to Landings

6.a. | Visual Approaches.

6.a.1. | Normal.

6.a.2. | Steep.

6.a.3. | Shallow.

6.a.4. | Crosswind.

6.b. | Landings.

6.b.1. | Normal.

6.b.1.a. | Running.

6.b.1.b. | From Hover.

6.b.2. | Crosswind.

6.b.3. | Tailwind.

6.b.4. | One or more engines inoperative.

6.b.5. | Rejected Landing.

6.b.6. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)

7.a. | Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as applicable).

7.a.1. | Anti-icing/deicing systems.

7.a.2. | Auxiliary powerplant.

7.a.3. | Communications.

7.a.4. | Electrical system.

7.a.5. | Environmental system.

7.a.6. | Fire detection and suppression.

7.a.7. | Flight control system.

7.a.8. | Fuel system.

7.a.9. | Engine oil system.

7.a.10. | Hydraulic system.

7.a.11. | Landing gear.

7.a.12. | Oxygen.

7.a.13. | Pneumatic.

7.a.14. | Powerplant.

7.a.15. | Flight control computers.

7.a.16. | Fly-by-wire controls.

7.a.17. | Stabilizer.

7.a.18. | Stability augmentation and control augmentation system(s).

7.a.19. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

7.b. | Flight management and guidance system (as applicable).

7.b.1. | Airborne radar.

7.b.2. | Automatic landing aids.

7.b.3. | Autopilot.*

7.b.4. | Collision avoidance system.

7.b.5. | Flight data displays.

7.b.6. | Flight management computers.

7.b.7. | Head-up displays.

7.b.8. | Navigation systems.

7.b.9. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

8. Emergency Procedures (as applicable)

8.a. | Autorotative Landing.

8.b. | Air hazard avoidance.

8.c. | Ditching.

8.d. | Emergency evacuation.

8.e. | Inflight fire and smoke removal.

8.f. | Retreating blade stall recovery.

8.g. | Mast bumping.

8.h. | Loss of tail rotor effectiveness.

8.i. | Other (listed on the SOQ).

9. Postflight Procedures

9.a. | After-Landing Procedures.

9.b. | Parking and Securing.

9.b.1. | Engine and systems operation.

9.b.2. | Parking brake operation.

9.b.3. | Rotor brake operation.

9.b.4. | Abnormal/emergency procedures.

10. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate

10.a. | Power Switch(es).

10.b. | Helicopter conditions.

10.b.1. | Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation, etc.

10.b.2. | Helicopter systems status.

10.b.3. | Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).

10.c. | Airports.

10.c.1. | Selection.

10.c.2. | Runway selection.

10.c.3. | Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over final approach fix).

10.d. | Environmental controls.

10.d.1. | Temperature.

10.d.2. | Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).

10.d.3. | Wind speed and direction.

10.e. | Helicopter system malfunctions.

10.e.1. | Insertion/deletion.

10.e.2. | Problem clear.

10.f. | Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.

10.f.1. | Problem (all) freeze/release.

10.f.2. | Position (geographic) freeze/release.

10.f.3. | Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).

10.f.4. | Ground speed control.

10.g. | Sound Controls.

10.g.1. | On/off/adjustment.

10.h. | Control Loading System (as applicable).

10.h.1. | On/off/emergency stop.

10.i. | Observer Stations.

10.i.1. | Position.

10.i.2. | Adjustments.

* “Autopilot” means attitude retention mode of operation.

Table D3B—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Airport or Landing Area Content Requirements for Qualification at Level 7 FTD

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks

This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and functionality to qualify an FTD at the indicated level. This table applies only to the airport/helicopter landing area scenes required for FTD qualification.

1. Functional test content requirements for Level 7 FTDs. The following is the minimum airport/landing area model content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and provides suitable visual cues to allow completion of all functions and subjective tests described in this attachment for Level 7 FTDs.

1.a. | A minimum of one (1) representative airport and one (1) representative helicopter landing area model. The airport and the helicopter landing area may be contained within the same visual model. If this option is selected, the approach path to the airport runway(s) and the approach path to the helicopter landing area must be different. The model(s) used to meet the following requirements may be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world airport or helicopter landing area, but each must be acceptable to the sponsor's TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ.

1.b. | Fidelity of the Visual Scene. The fidelity of the visual scene must be sufficient for the aircrew to visually identify the airport and/or helicopter landing area; determine the position of the simulated helicopter within the visual scene; successfully accomplish take-offs, approaches, and landings; and maneuver around the airport and/or helicopter landing area on the ground, or hover taxi, as necessary.

1.b.1. | For each of the airport/helicopter landing areas described in 1.a., the FTD visual system must be able to provide at least the following:

1.b.1.a. | A night and twilight (dusk) environment.

1.b.1.b. | A daylight environment.

1.c. | Runways:

1.c.1. | Visible runway number.

1.c.2. | Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter).

1.c.3. | Runway surface and markings.

1.c.4. | Lighting for the runway in use including runway edge and centerline.

1.c.5. | Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI or PAPI) and approach lighting of appropriate colors.

1.c.6 | Taxiway lights.

1.d. | Helicopter landing area.

1.d.1. | Standard heliport designation (“H”) marking, properly sized and oriented.

1.d.2. | Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO), as appropriate.

1.d.3. | Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate.

1.d.4. | Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the runway or helicopter landing area to another part of the landing facility.

2. Visual scene management. The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements for a Level 7 FTD.

2.a. | Runway and helicopter landing area approach lighting must fade into view appropriately in accordance with the environmental conditions set in the FTD.

2.b. | The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or FATO lights must be replicated.

3. Visual feature recognition. The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to a helicopter aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.

3.a. | For runways: Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.

3.b. | For runways: Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km).

3.c. | For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.

3.d. | For runways: Runway threshold lights and touchdown zone from 2 sm (3 km).

3.e. | For runways and helicopter landing areas: Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight scenes and the surface resolution test on daylight scenes, as required.

3.f. | For circling approaches: The runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner.

3.g. | For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km).

3.h. | For helicopter landing areas: Flush mounted FATO lights, TLOF lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm (750 m).

4. Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model Content. The following prescribes the minimum requirements for an airport/helicopter landing area visual model and identifies other aspects of the environment that must correspond with that model for a Level 7 FTD. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. If all runways or landing areas in a visual model used to meet the requirements of this attachment are not designated as “in use,” then the “in use” runways/landing areas must be listed on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L, 22R). Models of airports or helicopter landing areas with more than one runway or landing area must have all significant runways or landing areas not “in-use” visually depicted for airport/runway/landing area recognition purposes. The use of white or off white light strings that identify the runway or landing area for twilight and night scenes are acceptable for this requirement; and rectangular surface depictions are acceptable for daylight scenes. A visual system's capabilities must be balanced between providing visual models with an accurate representation of the airport and a realistic representation of the surrounding environment. Each runway or helicopter landing area designated as an “in-use” runway or area must include the following detail that is developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that such models contain details that are beyond the design capability of the currently qualified visual system. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each “in-use” runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.

4.a. | The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

4.a.1. | For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes.

4.a.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Markings for standard heliport identification (“H”) and TLOF, FATO, and safety areas.

4.b. | The lighting for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

4.b.1. | For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway.

4.b.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TLOF, windsock lighting.

4.c. | The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

4.c.1. | For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).

4.c.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.

4.d. | The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

4.d.1. | For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas.

4.d.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.

4.d.3. | For airports: Taxiway lighting of correct color.

4.e. | Airport signage associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

4.e.1. | For airports: Signs for runway distance remaining, intersecting runway with taxiway, and intersecting taxiway with taxiway.

4.e.2. | For helicopter landing areas: As appropriate for the model used.

4.f. | Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport or helicopter landing environment simulation:

4.f.1. | The airport or helicopter landing area model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area.

4.f.2. | The simulation of runway or helicopter landing area contaminants must be correlated with the displayed runway surface and lighting, if applicable.

5. Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment. The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for a Level 7 FTD.

5.a. | Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming.

5.b. | Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings.

5.c. | Accurate portrayal of environment relating to FTD attitudes.

5.d. | The visual scene must correlate with integrated helicopter systems, where installed (e.g., terrain, traffic and weather avoidance systems and Head-up Guidance System (HGS)).

5.e. | Representative visual effects for each visible, own-ship, helicopter external light(s)—taxi and landing light lobes (including independent operation, if appropriate).

5.f. | The effect of rain removal devices.

6. Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for a Level 7 FTD.

6.a. | System light points must be free from distracting jitter, smearing and streaking.

6.b. | Demonstration of occulting through each channel of the system in an operational scene.

6.c. | Six discrete light step controls (0-5).

7. Special weather representations, which include visibility and RVR, measured in terms of distance. Visibility/RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m) above the airport or helicopter landing area and at two heights below 2,000 ft with at least 500 ft of separation between the measurements. The measurements must be taken within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area.

7.a. | Effects of fog on airport lighting such as halos and defocus.

7.b. | Effect of own-ship lighting in reduced visibility, such as reflected glare, including landing lights, strobes, and beacons.

8. Instructor control of the following: The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in a Level 7 FTD.

8.a. | Environmental effects: E.g., cloud base, cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.

8.b. | Airport or helicopter landing area selection.

8.c. | Airport or helicopter landing area lighting, including variable intensity.

8.d. | Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic.

End QPS Requirement

Begin Information

9. An example of being able to combine two airport models to achieve two “in-use” runways: One runway designated as the “in-use” runway in the first model of the airport, and the second runway designated as the “in-use” runway in the second model of the same airport. For example, the clearance is for the ILS approach to Runway 27, Circle to Land on Runway 18 right. Two airport visual models might be used: The first with Runway 27 designated as the “in use” runway for the approach to runway 27, and the second with Runway 18 Right designated as the “in use” runway. When the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway 27, the instructor may change to the second airport visual model in which runway 18 Right is designated as the “in use” runway, and the pilot would make a visual approach and landing. This process is acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary interruption due to the visual model change is not distracting to the pilot.

10. Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is provided should be correct within reasonable limits.

End Information

Table D3C—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 7 FTD Visual Requirements Additional Visual Models Beyond Minimum Required for Qualification Class II Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Models

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks

This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area visual model content and functionality necessary to add visual models to an FTD's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.

1. Visual scene management. The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements.

1.a. | The installation and direction of the following lights must be replicated for the “in-use” surface:

1.a.1. | For “in-use” runways: Strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights.

1.a.2. | For “in-use” helicopter landing areas: Ground level TLOF perimeter lights, elevated TLOF perimeter lights (if applicable), Optional TLOF lights (if applicable), ground FATO perimeter lights, elevated TLOF lights (if applicable), landing direction lights.

2. Visual feature recognition. The following are the minimum distances at which runway or landing area features must be visible. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to an aircraft aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on a 3° glide-slope from the aircraft to the touchdown point, in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.

2.a. | For Runways.

2.a.1. | Strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.

2.a.2. | Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km).

2.a.3. | Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.

2.a.4. | Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km).

2.a.5. | Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution test on daylight scenes.

2.a.6. | For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-distracting manner.

2.b. | For Helicopter landing areas.

2.b.1. | Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 2 sm (3 km).

2.b.2. | Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock from 1 sm (1500 m).

2.b.3. | Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area.

2.b.4. | Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution test on daylight scenes.

3. Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model Content. The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an airport visual model and identifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model. The detail must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that airport or helicopter landing area models contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently qualified visual system. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. Only one “primary” taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each “in-use” runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.

3.a. | The surface and markings for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

3.a.1. | For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes.

3.a.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Standard heliport marking (“H”), TOFL, FATO, and safety areas.

3.b. | The lighting for each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

3.b.1. | For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway.

3.b.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting.

3.c. | The taxiway surface and markings associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

3.c.1. | For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).

3.c.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.

3.d. | The taxiway lighting associated with each “in-use” runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:

3.d.1. | For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas.

3.d.2. | For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.

4. Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation. The following are the minimum visual model correlation tests that must be conducted for Level 7 FTD.

4.a. | The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the “in-use” runway.

4.b. | Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not cause distracting or unrealistic effects.

5. Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment. The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made.

5.a. | Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming.

5.b. | Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes.

5.c. | Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings.

6. Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted.

6.a. | Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking.

6.b. | Surfaces and textural cues free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing).

7. Instructor controls of the following. The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available.

7.a. | Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.

7.b. | Airport/Heliport selection.

7.c. | Airport/Heliport lighting including variable intensity.

7.d. | Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

8. Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway or helicopter landing area, but the detail that is provided must be correct within the capabilities of the system.

End Information

Table D3D—Table of Functions And Subjective Tests Level 6 FTD

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks

Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for a Level 6 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.

1. Preflight Procedures

1.a. | Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.

1.b. | APU/Engine start and run-up.

1.b.1. | Normal start procedures.

1.b.2. | Alternate start procedures.

1.b.3. | Abnormal starts and shutdowns.

1.b.4. | Rotor engagement.

1.b.5 | System checks.

2. Takeoff and Departure Phase

2.a. | Instrument.

2.b. | Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP).

3. Climb

3.a. | Normal.

3.b. | One engine inoperative.

4. Inflight Maneuvers

4.a. | Performance.

4.b. | Flying qualities.

4.c. | Turns.

4.c.1. | Timed.

4.c.2. | Normal.

4.c.3. | Steep.

4.d. | Accelerations and decelerations.

4.e. | Abnormal/emergency procedures:

4.e.1. | Engine fire.

4.e.2. | Engine failure.

4.e.3. | In-flight engine shutdown (and restart, if applicable).

4.e.4. | Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC malfunction).

4.e.5. | Directional control malfunction (restricted to the extent that the maneuver may not terminate in a landing).

4.e.6. | Hydraulic failure.

4.e.7. | Stability augmentation system failure.

5. Instrument Procedures

5.a. | Holding.

5.b. | Precision Instrument Approach.

5.b.1. | All engines operating.

5.b.2. | One or more engines inoperative.

5.b.3. | Approach procedures:

5.b.4. | PAR.

5.b.5. | ILS.

5.b.6. | Manual (raw data).

5.b.7. | Flight director only.

5.b.8. | Autopilot* and flight director (if appropriate) coupled.

5.c. | Non-precision Instrument Approach.

5.c. | Normal—All engines operating.

5.c. | One or more engines inoperative.

5.c. | Approach procedures:

5.c.1. | NDB.

5.c.2. | VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.

5.c.3. | ASR.

5.c.4. | Helicopter only.

5.d. | Missed Approach.

5.d.1. | All engines operating.

5.d.2. | One or more engines inoperative.

5.d.3. | Stability augmentation system failure.

6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)

6.a. | Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as applicable).

6.a.1. | Anti-icing/deicing systems.

6.a.2. | Auxiliary power-plant.

6.a.3. | Communications.

6.a.4. | Electrical system.

6.a.5. | Environmental system.

6.a.6. | Fire detection and suppression.

6.a.7. | Flight control system.

6.a.8. | Fuel system.

6.a.9. | Engine oil system.

6.a.10. | Hydraulic system.

6.a.11 | Landing gear.

6.a.12. | Oxygen.

6.a.13. | Pneumatic.

6.a.14. | Powerplant.

6.a.15. | Flight control computers.

6.a.16. | Stability augmentation and control augmentation system(s).

6.b. | Flight management and guidance system (as applicable).

6.b.1. | Airborne radar.

6.b.2. | Automatic landing aids.

6.b.3. | Autopilot.*

6.b.4. | Collision avoidance system.

6.b.5. | Flight data displays.

6.b.6. | Flight management computers.

6.b.7. | Navigation systems.

7. Postflight Procedures

7.a. | Parking and Securing.

7.b. | Engine and systems operation.

7.c. | Parking brake operation.

7.d. | Rotor brake operation.

7.e. | Abnormal/emergency procedures.

8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate

8.a. | Power Switch(es).

8.b.1. | Helicopter conditions.

8.b.2. | Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation, etc.

8.b.3. | Helicopter systems status.

8.b.4. | Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).

8.c. | Airports and landing areas.

8.c.1. | Number and selection.

8.c.2. | Runway or landing area selection.

8.c.3. | Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).

8.c.4. | Lighting controls.

8.d. | Environmental controls.

8.d.1 | Temperature.

8.d.2. | Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).

8.d.3. | Wind speed and direction.

8.e. | Helicopter system malfunctions.

8.e.1. | Insertion/deletion.

8.e.2. | Problem clear.

8.f. | Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.

8.f.1. | Problem (all) freeze/release.

8.f.2. | Position (geographic) freeze/release.

8.f.3. | Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).

8.f.4. | Ground speed control.

8.g. | Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment.

8.h. | Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.

8.i. | Observer Stations.

8.i.1. | Position.

8.i.2. | Adjustments.

* “Autopilot” means attitude retention mode of operation.

Table D3E—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 5 FTD

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks

Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for a Level 5 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.

1. Preflight Procedures

1.a. | Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.

1.b. | APU/Engine start and run-up.

1.b.1. | Normal start procedures.

1.b.2. | Alternate start procedures.

1.b.3. | Abnormal starts and shutdowns.

2. Climb

2.a. | Normal.

3. Inflight Maneuvers

3.a. | Performance.

3.b. | Turns, Normal.

4. Instrument Procedures

4.a. | Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as applicable for the systems installed).

5. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)

5.a. | Normal system operation (installed systems).

5.b. | Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).

6. Postflight Procedures

6.a. | Parking and Securing.

6.b. | Engine and systems operation.

6.c. | Parking brake operation.

6.d. | Rotor brake operation.

6.e. | Abnormal/emergency procedures.

7. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate

7.a. | Power Switch(es).

7.b. | Preset positions (ground; air)

7.c. | Helicopter system malfunctions.

7.c.1. | Insertion/deletion.

7.c.2. | Problem clear.

7.d. | Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.

7.e. | Observer Stations.

7.e.1. | Position.

7.e.2. | Adjustments.

Table D3F—Table of Functions and Subjective Tests Level 4 FTD

QPS requirements

Entry No. | Operations tasks

Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List or for a Level 4 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.

1. Preflight Procedures

1.a. | Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.

1.b. | APU/Engine start and run-up.

1.b.1. | Normal start procedures.

1.b.2. | Alternate start procedures.

1.b.3. | Abnormal starts and shutdowns.

2. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)

2.a. | Normal system operation (installed systems).

2.b. | Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).

3. Postflight Procedures

3.a. | Parking and Securing.

3.b. | Engine and systems operation.

3.c. | Parking brake operation.

4. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate

4.a. | Power Switch(es).

4.b. | Preset positions (ground; air)

4.c. | Helicopter system malfunctions.

4.c.1. | Insertion/deletion.

4.c.2. | Problem clear.

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Sample Documents

Table of Contents

Figure D4A Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation

Figure D4B Attachment: FTD Information Form

Figure D4C Sample Letter of Compliance

Figure D4D Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page

Figure D4E Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate

Figure D4F Sample Statement of Qualification—Configuration List

Figure D4G Sample Statement of Qualification—List of Qualified Tasks

Figure D4H [Reserved]

Figure D4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective FTD Directives

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4A—Sample Letter, Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4C—Sample Letter of Compliance

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4D—Sample Qualification Test Guide Cover Page

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4E—Sample Statement of Qualification—Certificate

Information

Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—Figure D4H [Reserved]

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75832, Dec. 9, 2022; Amdt. No. 60-9, 90 FR 42525, Sept. 3, 2025]

Appendix E to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for Quality Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices

Begin QPS Requirements

a. Not later than May 30, 2010, each current sponsor of an FSTD must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a proposed Quality Management System (QMS) program as described in this appendix. The responsible Flight Standards office will notify the sponsor of the acceptability of the program, including any required adjustments. Within 6 months of the notification of acceptability, the sponsor must implement the program, conduct internal audits, make required program adjustments as a result of any internal audit, and schedule the responsible Flight Standards office initial audit.

b. First-time FSTD sponsors must submit to the responsible Flight Standards office the proposed QMS program no later than 120 days before the initial FSTD evaluation. The responsible Flight Standards office will notify the sponsor of the acceptability of the program, including any required adjustments. Within 6 months of the notification of acceptability, the sponsor must implement the program, conduct internal audits, make required program adjustments as a result of any internal audit, and schedule the responsible Flight Standards office initial audit.

c. The Director of Operations for a Part 119 certificate holder, the Chief Instructor for a Part 141 certificate holder, or the equivalent for a Part 142 or Flight Engineer School sponsor must designate a Management Representative (MR) who has the authority to establish and modify the sponsor's policies, practices, and procedures regarding the QMS program for the recurring qualification and the daily use of each FSTD.

d. The minimum content required for an acceptable QMS is found in Table E1. The policies, processes, or procedures described in this table must be maintained in a Quality Manual and will serve as the basis for the following:

(1) The sponsor-conducted initial and recurring periodic assessments;

(2) The responsible Flight Standards office-conducted initial and recurring periodic assessments; and

(3) The continuing surveillance and analysis by the responsible Flight Standards office of the sponsor's performance and effectiveness in providing a satisfactory FSTD for use on a regular basis.

e. The sponsor must conduct assessments of its QMS program in segments. The segments will be established by the responsible Flight Standards office at the initial assessment, and the interval for the segment assessments will be every 6 months. The intervals for the segment assessments may be extended beyond 6 months as the QMS program matures, but will not be extended beyond 12 months. The entire QMS program must be assessed every 24 months.

f. The periodic assessments conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office will be conducted at intervals not less than once every 24 months, and include a comprehensive review of the QMS program. These reviews will be conducted more frequently if warranted.

End QPS Requirements

Begin Information

g. An example of a segment assessment—At the initial QMS assessment, the responsible Flight Standards office will divide the QMS program into segments (e.g., 6 separate segments). There must be an assessment of a certain number of segments every 6 months (i.e., segments 1 and 2 at the end of the first 6 month period; segments 3 and 4 at the end of the second 6 month period (or one year); and segments 5 and 6 at the end of the third 6 month period (or 18 months). As the program matures, the interval between assessments may be extended to 12 months (e.g., segments 1, 2, and 3 at the end of the first year; and segments 4, 5, and 6 at the end of the second year). In both cases, the entire QMS program is assessed at least every 24 months.

h. The following materials are presented to assist sponsors in preparing for an responsible Flight Standards office evaluation of the QMS program. The sample documents include:

(1) The desk assessment tool for initial evaluation of the required elements of a QMS program.

(2) The on-site assessment tool for initial and continuing evaluation of the required elements of a QMS program.

(3) An Element Assessment Table that describes the circumstances that exist to warrant a finding of “non-compliance,” or “non-conformity”; “partial compliance,” or “partial conformity”; and “acceptable compliance,” or “acceptable conformity.”

(4) A sample Continuation Sheet for additional comments that may be added by the sponsor or the responsible Flight Standards office during a QMS evaluation.

(5) A sample Sponsor Checklist to assist the sponsor in verifying the elements that comprise the required QMS program.

(6) A table showing the essential functions, processes, and procedures that relate to the required QMS components and a cross-reference to each represented task.

i. Additional Information.

(1) In addition to specifically designated QMS evaluations, the responsible Flight Standards office will evaluate the sponsor's QMS program as part of regularly scheduled FSTD continuing qualification evaluations and no-notice FSTD evaluations, focusing in part on the effectiveness and viability of the QMS program and its contribution to the overall capability of the FSTD to meet the requirements of this part.

(2) The sponsor or MR may delegate duties associated with maintaining the qualification of the FSTD (e.g., corrective and preventive maintenance, scheduling and conducting tests or inspections, functional preflight checks) but retain the responsibility and authority for the day-to-day qualification of the FSTD. One person may serve as the sponsor or MR for more than one FSTD, but one FSTD may not have more than one sponsor or MR.

(3) A QMS program may be applicable to more than one certificate holder (e.g., part 119 and part 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) and an MR may work for more than one certificate holder (e.g., part 119 and part 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) as long as the sponsor's QMS program requirements and the MR requirements are met for each certificate holder.

j. The FAA does not mandate a specific QMS program format, but an acceptable QMS program should contain the following:

(1) A Quality Policy. This is a formal written Quality Policy Statement that is a commitment by the sponsor outlining what the Quality System will achieve.

(2) A MR who has overall authority for monitoring the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure that all FSTD qualification issues are resolved as required by this part. The MR should ensure that the QMS program is properly implemented and maintained, and should:

(a) Brief the sponsor's management on the qualification processes;

(b) Serve as the primary contact point for all matters between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office regarding the qualification of the assigned FSTDs; and

(3) The system and processes outlined in the QMS should enable the sponsor to monitor compliance with all applicable regulations and ensure correct maintenance and performance of the FSTD in accordance with part 60.

(4) A QMS program and a statement acknowledging completion of a periodic review by the MR should include the following:

(a) A maintenance facility that provides suitable FSTD hardware and software tests and maintenance capability.

(b) A recording system in the form of a technical log in which defects, deferred defects, and development projects are listed, assigned and reviewed within a specified time period.

(c) Routine maintenance of the FSTD and performance of the QTG tests with adequate staffing to cover FSTD operating periods.

(d) A planned internal assessment schedule and a periodic review should be used to verify that corrective action was complete and effective. The assessor should have adequate knowledge of FSTDs and should be acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

(5) The MR should receive Quality System training and brief other personnel on the procedures.

End Information

Table E1—FSTD Quality Management System

Entry No. | QPS Requirement | Information (Reference)

E1.1. | A QMS manual that prescribes the policies, processes, or procedures outlined in this table | § 60.5(a).

E1.2. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will identify deficiencies in the QMS | § 60.5(b).

E1.3. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document how the QMS program will be changed to address deficiencies | § 60.5(b).

E1.4. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will address proposed program changes (for programs that do not meet the minimum requirements as notified by the responsible Flight Standards office) to the responsible Flight Standards office and receive approval prior to their implementation | § 60.5(c).

E1.5. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document that at least one FSTD is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the initial or upgrade evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter | § 60. 7(b)(5).

E1.6. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document that at least one FSTD is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter | § 60.7(b)(6).

E1.7. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will obtain an annual written statement from a qualified pilot (who has flown the subject aircraft or set of aircraft during the preceding 12-month period) that the performance and handling qualities of the subject FSTD represents the subject aircraft or set of aircraft (within the normal operating envelope). Required only if the subject FSTD is not used in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the preceding 12-month period | § 60.5(b)(7) and § 60.7(d)(2).

E1.8. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how independent feedback (from persons recently completing training, evaluation, or obtaining flight experience; instructors and check airmen using the FSTD for training, evaluation or flight experience sessions; and FSTD technicians and maintenance personnel) will be received and addressed by the sponsor regarding the FSTD and its operation | § 60.9(b)(1).

E1.9. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how and where the FSTD SOQ will be posted, or accessed by an appropriate terminal or display, in or adjacent to the FSTD | § 60.9(b)(2).

E1.10. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor's management representative (MR) is selected and identified by name to the responsible Flight Standards office | § 60.9(c) and Appendix E, paragraph(d).

E1.11. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying the MR authority and responsibility for the following: | § 60.9(c)(2), (3), and (4).

E1.11.a. | Monitoring the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure all matters regarding FSTD qualification are completed as required by this part

E1.11.b. | Ensuring that the QMS is properly maintained by overseeing the QMS policies, practices, or procedures and modifying as necessary

E1.11.c. | Regularly briefing sponsor's management on the status of the on-going FSTD qualification program and the effectiveness and efficiency of the QMS

E1.11.d. | Serving as the primary contact point for all matters between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office regarding the qualification of assigned FSTDs

E1.11.e. | Delegating the MR assigned duties to an individual at each of the sponsor's locations, as appropriate

E1.12. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will: | § 60.13; QPS Appendices A, B, C, and D.

E1.12.a. | Ensure that the data made available to the responsible Flight Standards office (the validation data package) includes the aircraft manufacturer's flight test data (or other data approved by the responsible Flight Standards office) and all relevant data developed after the type certificate was issued (e.g., data developed in response to an airworthiness directive) if the data results from a change in performance, handling qualities, functions, or other characteristics of the aircraft that must be considered for flight crewmember training, evaluation, or experience requirements

E1.12.b. | Notify the responsible Flight Standards office within 10 working days of becoming aware that an addition to or a revision of the flight related data or airplane systems related data is available if this data is used to program or operate a qualified FSTD

E1.12.c. | Maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the person who supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS for the purposes of receiving notification of data package changes

E1.13. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will make available all special equipment and qualified personnel needed to conduct tests during initial, continuing qualification, or special evaluations | § 60.14.

E1.14. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a request to evaluate the FSTD for initial qualification at a specific level and simultaneously request the TPAA forward a concurring letter to the responsible Flight Standards office; including how the MR will use qualified personnel to confirm the following: | § 60.15(a)-(d); § 60.15(b); § 60.15(b)(i); § 60.15(b)(ii); § 60.15(b)(iii).

E1.14.a. | That the performance and handling qualities of the FSTD represent those of the aircraft or set of aircraft within the normal operating envelope

E1.14.b. | The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the simulated aircraft systems) functionally represent those in the aircraft or set of aircraft

E1.14.c. | The flight deck represents the configuration of the specific type or aircraft make, model, and series aircraft being simulated, as appropriate

E1.15. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the subjective and objective tests are completed at the sponsor's training facility for an initial evaluation | § 60.15(e).

E1.16. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will update the QTG with the results of the FAA-witnessed tests and demonstrations together with the results of the objective tests and demonstrations after the responsible Flight Standards office completes the evaluation for initial qualification | § 60.15(h).

E1.17. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will make the MQTG available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request | § 60.15(i).

E1.18. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will apply to the responsible Flight Standards office for additional qualification(s) to the SOQ | § 60.16(a); § 60.16(a)(1)(i); and § 60.16(a)(1)(ii).

E1.19. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor completes all required Attachment 2 objective tests each year in a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections as specified in the appropriate QPS | § 60.19(a)(1) QPS Appendices A, B, C, or D.

E1.20. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor completes and records a functional preflight check of the FSTD within the preceding 24 hours of FSTD use, including a description of the functional preflight | § 60.19(a)(2) QPS Appendices A, B, C, or D.

E1.21. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor schedules continuing qualification evaluations with the responsible Flight Standards office | § 60.19(b)(2).

E1.22. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor ensures that the FSTD has received a continuing qualification evaluation at the interval described in the MQTG | § 60.19(b)(5)-(6).

E1.23. | A policy, process, or procedure describing how discrepancies are recorded in the FSTD discrepancy log, including | § 60.19(c); § 60.19(c)(2)(i); § 60.19(c)(2)(ii).

E1.23.a. | A description of how the discrepancies are entered and maintained in the log until corrected

E1.23.b. | A description of the corrective action taken for each discrepancy, the identity of the individual taking the action, and the date that action is taken

E1.24. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the discrepancy log is kept in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator and kept in or adjacent to the FSTD. (An electronic log that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.) | § 60.19(c)(2)(iii).

E1.25. | A policy, process, or procedure that requires each instructor, check airman, or representative of the Administrator conducting training, evaluation, or flight experience, and each person conducting the preflight inspection, who discovers a discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components in the FSTD, to write or cause to be written a description of that discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end of the FSTD preflight or FSTD use session | § 60.20.

E1.26. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will apply for initial qualification based on the final aircraft data package approved by the aircraft manufacturer if operating an FSTD based on an interim qualification | § 60.21(c).

E1.27. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor determines whether an FSTD change qualifies as a modification as defined in § 60.23 | § 60.23(a)(1)-(2).

E1.28. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will ensure the FSTD is modified in accordance with any FSTD Directive regardless of the original qualification basis | § 60.23(b).

E1.29. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office and TPAA of their intent to use a modified FSTD and to ensure that the modified FSTD will not be used prior to: | § 60.23(c)(1)(i),(ii), and (iv).

E1.29.a. | Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and the sponsor has not received any response from either the responsible Flight Standards office or the TPAA; or

E1.29.b. | Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and the TPAA of the proposed modification and one has approved the proposed modification and the other has not responded; or

E1.29.c. | The FSTD successfully completing any evaluation the responsible Flight Standards office may require in accordance with the standards for an evaluation for initial qualification or any part thereof before the modified FSTD is placed in service

E1.30 | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how, after an FSTD modification is approved by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor will: | § 60.23(d)-(e).

E1.30.a. | Post an addendum to the SOQ until as the responsible Flight Standards office issues a permanent, updated SOQ

E1.30.b. | Update the MQTG with current objective test results and appropriate objective data for each affected objective test or other MQTG section affected by the modification

E1.30.c. | File in the MQTG the requirement from the responsible Flight Standards office to make the modification and the record of the modification completion

E1.31. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will track the length of time a component has been missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI), including: | § 60.25(b)-(c), and QPS Appendices A, B, C, or D.

E1.31.a. | How the sponsor will post a list of MMI components in or adjacent to the FSTD

E1.31.b. | How the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced within 30 days.*

E1.32. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office and how the sponsor will seek requalification of the FSTD if the FSTD is moved and reinstalled in a different location | § 60.27(a)(3).

E1.33. | A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will maintain control of the following: (The sponsor must specify how these records are maintained in plain language form or in coded form; but if the coded form is used, the sponsor must specify how the preservation and retrieval of information will be conducted.) | § 60.31.

E1.33.a. | The MQTG and each amendment

E1.33.b. | A record of all FSTD modifications required by this part since the issuance of the original SOQ

E1.33.c. | Results of the qualification evaluations (initial and each upgrade) since the issuance of the original SOQ

E1.33.d. | Results of the objective tests conducted in accordance with this part for a period of 2 years

E1.33.e. | Results of the previous three continuing qualification evaluations, or the continuing qualification evaluations from the previous 2 years, whichever covers a longer period.

E1.33.f. | Comments obtained in accordance with § 60.9(b);

E1.33.g. | A record of all discrepancies entered in the discrepancy log over the previous 2 years, including the following:

E1.33.g.1. | A list of the components or equipment that were or are missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative

E1.33.g.2. | The action taken to correct the discrepancy

E1.33.g.3. | The date the corrective action was taken

E1.33.g.4. | The identity of the person determining that the discrepancy has been corrected.

* Note: If the sponsor has an approved discrepancy prioritization system, this item is satisfied by describing how discrepancies are prioritized, what actions are taken, and how the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced within the specified timeframe.

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75842, Dec. 9, 2022]

Appendix F to Part 60 Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight Simulation Training Devices

Begin Information

1. Some of the definitions presented below are repeated from the definitions found in 14 CFR part 1, as indicated parenthetically

End Information

Begin QPS Requirements

2. Definitions

1st Segment—the portion of the takeoff profile from liftoff to gear retraction.

2nd Segment—the portion of the takeoff profile from after gear retraction to initial flap/slat retraction.

3rd Segment—the portion of the takeoff profile after flap/slat retraction is complete.

Aircraft Data Package—a combination of the various types of data used to design, program, manufacture, modify, and test the FSTD.

Airspeed—calibrated airspeed unless otherwise specified and expressed in terms of nautical miles per hour (knots).

Airport Model—

Class I. Whether modeling real world or fictional airports (or landing areas for helicopters), these airport models (or landing areas for helicopters) are those that meet the requirements of Table A3B or C3B, found in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as appropriate, are evaluated by the responsible Flight Standards office, and are listed on the SOQ.

Class II. Whether modeling real world or fictional airports (or landing areas for helicopters), these airport models (or landing areas for helicopters) are those models that are in excess of those used for simulator qualification at a specified level. The FSTD sponsor is responsible for determining that these models meet the requirements set out in Table A3C or C3C, found in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as appropriate.

Class III. This is a special class of airport model (or landing area for helicopters), used for specific purposes, and includes models that may be incomplete or inaccurate when viewed without restriction, but when appropriate limits are applied (e.g., “valid for use only in visibility conditions less than 1/2 statute mile or RVR2400 feet,” “valid for use only for approaches to Runway 22L and 22R”), those features that may be incomplete or inaccurate may not be able to be recognized as such by the crewmember being trained, tested, or checked. Class III airport models used for training, testing, or checking activities under this Chapter requires the certificate holder to submit to the TPAA an appropriate analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abilities necessary for competent performance of the task(s) in which this particular model is to be used, and requires TPAA acceptance of each Class III model.

Altitude—pressure altitude (meters or feet) unless specified otherwise.

Angle of Attack—the angle between the airplane longitudinal axis and the relative wind vector projected onto the airplane plane of symmetry.

Automatic Testing—FSTD testing where all stimuli are under computer control.

Bank—the airplane attitude with respect to or around the longitudinal axis, or roll angle (degrees).

Breakout—the force required at the pilot's primary controls to achieve initial movement of the control position.

Certificate Holder—a person issued a certificate under parts 119, 141, or 142 of this chapter or a person holding an approved course of training for flight engineers in accordance with part 63 of this chapter.

Closed Loop Testing—a test method where the input stimuli are generated by controllers that drive the FSTD to follow a pre-defined target response.

Computer Controlled Aircraft—an aircraft where all pilot inputs to the control surfaces are transferred and augmented by computers.

Confined Area (helicopter operations)—an area where the flight of the helicopter is limited in some direction by terrain or the presence of natural or man-made obstructions (e.g., a clearing in the woods, a city street, or a road bordered by trees or power lines are regarded as confined areas).

Control Sweep—movement of the appropriate pilot controller from neutral to an extreme limit in one direction (Forward, Aft, Right, or Left), a continuous movement back through neutral to the opposite extreme position, and then a return to the neutral position.

Convertible FSTD—an FSTD in which hardware and software can be changed so that the FSTD becomes a replica of a different model, usually of the same type aircraft. The same FSTD platform, flight deck shell, motion system, visual system, computers, and peripheral equipment can be used in more than one simulation.

Critical Engine Parameter—the parameter that is the most accurate measure of propulsive force.

Deadband—the amount of movement of the input for a system for which there is no reaction in the output or state of the system observed.

Distance—the length of space between two points, expressed in terms of nautical miles unless otherwise specified.

Discrepancy—as used in this part, an aspect of the FSTD that is not correct with respect to the aircraft being simulated. This includes missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components that are required to be present and operate correctly for training, evaluation, and experience functions to be creditable. It also includes errors in the documentation used to support the FSTD (e.g., MQTG errors, information missing from the MQTG, or required statements from appropriately qualified personnel).

Downgrade—a permanent change in the qualification level of an FSTD to a lower level.

Driven—a test method where the input stimulus or variable is positioned by automatic means, usually a computer input.

Electronic Copy of the MQTG—an electronic copy of the MQTG provided by an electronic scan presented in a format, acceptable to the responsible Flight Standards office.

Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide—an electronic version of the MQTG (eMQTG), where all objective data obtained from airplane testing, or another approved source, together with correlating objective test results obtained from the performance of the FSTD and a description of the equipment necessary to perform the evaluation for the initial and the continuing qualification evaluations is stored, archived, or presented in either reformatted or digitized electronic format.

Engine—as used in this part, the appliance or structure that supplies propulsive force for movement of the aircraft: i.e., The turbine engine for turbine powered aircraft; the turbine engine and propeller assembly for turbo-propeller powered aircraft; and the reciprocating engine and propeller assembly for reciprocating engine powered aircraft. For purposes of this part, engine failure is the failure of either the engine or propeller assembly to provide thrust higher than idle power thrust due to a failure of either the engine or the propeller assembly.

Evaluation—with respect to an individual, the checking, testing, or review associated with flight crewmember qualification, training, and certification under parts 61, 63, 121, or 135 of this chapter. With respect to an FSTD, the qualification activities for the device (e.g., the objective and subjective tests, the inspections, or the continuing qualification evaluations) associated with the requirements of this part.

Fictional Airport—a visual model of an airport that is a collection of “non-real world” terrain, instrument approach procedures, navigation aids, maps, and visual modeling detail sufficient to enable completion of an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate or Type Rating.

Flight Experience—recency of flight experience for landing credit purposes.

Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD)—a full flight simulator (FFS) or a flight training device (FTD). (Part 1)

Flight Test Data—(a subset of objective data) aircraft data collected by the aircraft manufacturer or other acceptable data supplier during an aircraft flight test program.

Flight Training Device (FTD)—a replica of aircraft instruments, equipment, panels, and controls in an open flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft flight deck replica. It includes the equipment and computer programs necessary to represent aircraft (or set of aircraft) operations in ground and flight conditions having the full range of capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in part 60 of this chapter and the qualification performance standard (QPS) for a specific FTD qualification level. (Part 1)

Free Response—the response of the FSTD after completion of a control input or disturbance.

Frozen—a test condition where one or more variables are held constant with time.

FSTD Approval—the extent to which an FSTD may be used by a certificate holder as authorized by the FAA.

FSTD Directive—a document issued by the FAA to an FSTD sponsor requiring a modification to the FSTD due to a safety-of-flight issue and amending the qualification basis for the FSTD.

FSTD Latency—the additional time for the FSTD to respond to input that is beyond the response time of the aircraft.

FSTD Performance—the overall performance of the FSTD, including aircraft performance (e.g., thrust/drag relationships, climb, range) and flight and ground handling.

Full Flight Simulator (FFS)—a replica of a specific type, make, model, or series aircraft. It includes the equipment and computer programs necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view, a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in part 60 of this chapter and the QPS for a specific FFS qualification level. (Part 1)

Gate Clutter—the static and moving ground traffic (e.g., other airplanes; tugs; power or baggage carts; fueling, catering, or cargo trucks; pedestrians) presented to pose a potential conflict with the simulated aircraft during ground operations around the point where the simulated airplane is to be parked between flights

Generic Airport Model—a Class III visual model that combines correct navigation aids for a real world airport with a visual model that does not depict that same airport.

Grandfathering—as used in this part, the practice of assigning a qualification basis for an FSTD based on the period of time during which a published set of standards governed the requirements for the initial and continuing qualification of FSTDs. Each FSTD manufactured during this specified period of time is “grandfathered” or held to the standards that were in effect during that time period. The grandfathered standards remain applicable to each FSTD manufactured during the stated time period regardless of any subsequent modification to those standards and regardless of the sponsor, as long as the FSTD remains qualified or is maintained in a non-qualified status in accordance with the specific requirements and time periods prescribed in this part.

Gross Weight—For objective test purposes:

Basic Operating Weight (BOW)—the empty weight of the aircraft plus the weight of the following: Normal oil quantity; lavatory servicing fluid; potable water; required crewmembers and their baggage; and emergency equipment.

Light Gross Weight—a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider that is not more than 120% of the BOW of the aircraft being simulated or the minimum practical operating weight of the test aircraft.

Medium Gross Weight—a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider that is within 10% of the average of the numerical values of the BOW and the maximum certificated gross weight.

Near Maximum Gross Weight—a weight chosen by the sponsor or data provider that is not less than the BOW of the aircraft being simulated plus 80% of the difference between the maximum certificated gross weight (either takeoff weight or landing weight, as appropriate for the test) and the BOW.

Ground Effect—the change in aerodynamic characteristics due to of the change in the airflow past the aircraft caused by the proximity of the earth's surface to the airplane.

Hands Off—a test maneuver conducted without pilot control inputs.

Hands On—a test maneuver conducted with pilot control inputs as required.

Heave—FSTD movement with respect to or along the vertical axis.

Height—the height above ground level (or AGL) expressed in meters or feet.

“In Use” Runway—as used in this part, the runway that is currently selected, able to be used for takeoffs and landings, and has the surface lighting and markings required by this part. Also known as the “active” runway.

Integrated Testing—testing of the FSTD so that all aircraft system models are active and contribute appropriately to the results. With integrated testing, none of the models used are substituted with models or other algorithms intended for testing only.

Irreversible Control System—a control system where movement of the control surface will not backdrive the pilot's control on the flight deck.

Locked—a test condition where one or more variables are held constant with time.

Manual Testing—FSTD testing conducted without computer inputs except for initial setup, and all modules of the simulation are active.

Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG)—the FAA-approved Qualification Test Guide with the addition of the FAA-witnessed test results, applicable to each individual FSTD.

Medium—the normal operational weight for a given flight segment.

Near Limiting Performance—the performance level the operating engine must be required to achieve to have sufficient power to land a helicopter after experiencing a single engine failure during takeoff of a multiengine helicopter. The operating engine must be required to operate within at least 5 percent of the maximum RPM or temperature limits of the gas turbine or power turbine, or operate within at least 5 percent of the maximum drive train torque limits. Near limiting performance is based on the existing combination of density altitude, temperature, and helicopter gross weight.

Nominal—the normal operating configuration, atmospheric conditions, and flight parameters for the specified flight segment.

Non-Normal Control—a term used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft. It is the state where one or more of the intended control, augmentation, or protection functions are not fully working. Note: Specific terms such as ALTERNATE, DIRECT, SECONDARY, or BACKUP may be used to define an actual level of degradation.

Normal Control—a term used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft. It is the state where the intended control, augmentation, and protection functions are fully working.

Objective Data—quantitative data, acceptable to the NSPM, used to evaluate the FSTD.

Objective Test—a quantitative measurement and evaluation of FSTD performance.

Pitch—the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the lateral axis expressed in degrees.

Power Lever Angle (PLA)—the angle of the pilot's primary engine control lever(s) on the flight deck. This may also be referred to as THROTTLE or POWER LEVER.

Predicted Data—estimations or extrapolations of existing flight test data or data from other simulation models using engineering analyses, engineering simulations, design data, or wind tunnel data.

Protection Functions—systems functions designed to protect an airplane from exceeding its flight maneuver limitations.

Pulse Input—a step input to a control followed by an immediate return to the initial position.

Qualification Level—the categorization of an FSTD established by the NSPM based on the FSTDs demonstrated technical and operational capabilities as prescribed in this part.

Qualification Performance Standard (QPS)—the collection of procedures and criteria used when conducting objective and subjective tests, to establish FSTD qualification levels. The QPS are published in the appendices to this part, as follows: Appendix A, for Airplane Simulators; Appendix B, for Airplane Flight Training Devices; Appendix C, for Helicopter Simulators; Appendix D, for Helicopter Flight Training Devices; Appendix E, for Quality Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices; and Appendix F, for Definitions and Abbreviations for Flight Simulation Training Devices.

Qualification Test Guide (QTG)—the primary reference document used for evaluating an aircraft FSTD. It contains test results, statements of compliance and capability, the configuration of the aircraft simulated, and other information for the evaluator to assess the FSTD against the applicable regulatory criteria.

Quality Management System (QMS)—a flight simulation quality-systems that can be used for external quality-assurance purposes. It is designed to identify the processes needed, determine the sequence and interaction of the processes, determine criteria and methods required to ensure the effective operation and control of the processes, ensure the availability of information necessary to support the operation and monitoring of the processes, measure, monitor, and analyze the processes, and implement the actions necessary to achieve planned results.

Real-World Airport—as used in this part in reference to airport visual models, a computer generated visual depiction of an existing airport.

Representative—when used as an adjective in this part, typical, demonstrative, or characteristic of, the feature being described. For example, “representative sampling of tests” means a sub-set of the complete set of all tests such that the sample includes one or more of the tests in each of the major categories, the results of which provide the evaluator with an overall understanding of the performance and handling characteristics of the FSTD.

Reversible Control System—a control system in which movement of the control surface will backdrive the pilot's control on the flight deck.

Roll—the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the longitudinal axis expressed in degrees.

Set of Aircraft—aircraft that share similar handling and operating characteristics, similar operating envelopes, and have the same number and type of engines or powerplants.

Sideslip Angle—the angle between the relative wind vector and the airplane plane of symmetry. (Note: this definition replaces the current definition of “sideslip.”)

Simulation Quality Management System (SQMS)—the elements of a quality management system for FSTD continuing qualification.

Snapshot—a presentation of one or more variables at a given instant of time.

Special Evaluation—an evaluation of the FSTD for purposes other than initial, upgrade, or continuing qualification. Circumstances that may require a special evaluation include movement of the FSTD to a different location, or an update to FSTD software or hardware that might affect performance or flying qualities.

Sponsor—a certificate holder who seeks or maintains FSTD qualification and is responsible for the prescribed actions as prescribed in this part and the QPS for the appropriate FSTD and qualification level.

Statement of Compliance and Capability (SOC)—a declaration that a specific requirement has been met and explaining how the requirement was met (e.g., gear modeling approach, coefficient of friction sources). The SOC must also describe the capability of the FSTD to meet the requirement, including references to sources of information for showing compliance, rationale to explain how the referenced material is used, mathematical equations and parameter values used, and conclusions reached.

Step Input—an abrupt control input held at a constant value.

Subjective Test—a qualitative assessment of the performance and operation of the FSTD.

Surge—FSTD movement with respect to or along the longitudinal axis.

Sway—FSTD movement with respect to or along the lateral axis.

Tf—Total time of the flare maneuver.

Ti—Total time from initial throttle movement until a 10% response of a critical engine parameter.

Tt—Total time from initial throttle movement to an increase of 90% of go around power or a decrease of 90% from maximum take-off power.

Time History—a presentation of the change of a variable with respect to time.

Training Program Approval Authority (TPAA)—a person authorized by the Administrator to approve the aircraft flight training program in which the FSTD will be used.

Training Restriction—a temporary condition where an FSTD with missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) components may continue to be used at the qualification level indicated on its SOQ, but restricted from completing the tasks for which the correct function of the MMI component is required.

Transport Delay or “Throughput”—the total FSTD system processing time required for an input signal from a pilot primary flight control until motion system, visual system, or instrument response. It is the overall time delay incurred from signal input to output response. It does not include the characteristic delay of the airplane simulated.

Update—an improvement to or modernization of the quality or the accuracy of the FSTD without affecting the qualification level of the FSTD.

Upgrade—the improvement or enhancement of an FSTD for the purpose of achieving a higher qualification level.

Validation Data—objective data used to determine if the FSTD performance is within the tolerances prescribed in the QPS.

Validation Test—an objective test where FSTD parameters are compared to the relevant validation data to ensure that the FSTD performance is within the tolerances prescribed in the QPS.

Visual Data Base—a display that may include one or more airport models.

Visual System Response Time—the interval from a control input to the completion of the visual display scan of the first video field containing the resulting different information.

Yaw—the airplane attitude with respect to, or around, the vertical axis expressed in degrees.

3. Abbreviations

AFM Airplane Flight Manual.

AGL Above Ground Level (meters or feet).

AOA Angle of Attack (degrees).

APD Aircrew Program Designee.

CCA Computer Controlled Aircraft.

cd/m2 candela/meter 2, 3.4263 candela/m 2 = 1 ft-Lambert.

CFR Code of Federal Regulations.

cm(s) centimeter, centimeters.

daN decaNewtons, one (1) decaNewton = 2.27 pounds.

deg(s) degree, degrees.

DOF Degrees-of-freedom.

eMQTG Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide.

EPR Engine Pressure Ratio.

FAA Federal Aviation Administration (U.S.).

FATO Final Approach and Take Off area

fpm feet per minute.

ft foot/feet, 1 foot = 0.304801 meters.

ft-Lambert foot-Lambert, 1 ft-Lambert = 3.4263 candela/m 2.

g Acceleration due to Gravity (meters or feet/sec 2); 1g = 9.81 m/sec 2 or 32.2 feet/sec 2.

G/S Glideslope.

IATA International Airline Transport Association.

ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization.

IGE In ground effect.

ILS Instrument Landing System.

IOS Instructor Operating Station.

IQTG International Qualification Test Guide.

km Kilometers; 1 km = 0.62137 Statute Miles.

kPa KiloPascal (Kilo Newton/Meters2). 1 psi = 6.89476 kPa.

kts Knots calibrated airspeed unless otherwise specified, 1 knot = 0.5148 m/sec or 1.689 ft/sec.

lb(s) pound(s), one (1) pound = 0.44 decaNewton.

LDP Landing decision point.

MQTG Master Qualification Test Guide

M,m Meters, 1 Meter = 3.28083 feet.

Min(s) Minute, minutes.

MLG Main Landing Gear.

Mpa MegaPascals (1 psi = 6894.76 pascals).

ms millisecond(s).

N NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft.

nm Nautical Mile(s) 1 Nautical Mile = 6,080 feet.

NN NON-NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to Computer Controlled Aircraft.

N1 Low Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of maximum.

N2 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of maximum.

N3 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per minute, expressed in percent of maximum.

NWA Nosewheel Angle (degrees).

OGE Out of ground effect.

PAPI Precision Approach Path Indicator System.

Pf Impact or Feel Pressure, often expressed as “q.”

PLA Power Lever Angle.

PLF Power for Level Flight.

psi pounds per square inch.

QPS Qualification Performance Standard.

QTG Qualification Test Guide.

RAE Royal Aerospace Establishment.

R/C Rate of Climb (meters/sec or feet/min).

R/D Rate of Descent (meters/sec or feet/min).

REIL Runway End Identifier Lights.

RVR Runway Visual Range (meters or feet).

s second(s).

sec(s) second, seconds.

sm Statute Mile(s) 1 Statute Mile = 5,280 feet.

SMGCS Surface Movement Guidance and Control System.

SOC Statement of Compliance and Capability.

SOQ Statement of Qualification.

TIR Type Inspection Report.

TLOF Touchdown and Loft Off area.

T/O Takeoff.

VASI Visual Approach Slope Indicator System.

VGS Visual Ground Segment.

V1 Decision speed.

V2 Takeoff safety speed.

Vmc Minimum Control Speed.

Vmca Minimum Control Speed in the air.

Vmcg Minimum Control Speed on the ground.

Vmcl Minimum Control Speed—Landing.

Vmu The speed at which the last main landing gear leaves the ground.

VR Rotate Speed.

VS Stall Speed or minimum speed in the stall.

WAT Weight, Altitude, Temperature.

End QPS Requirements

[Docket FAA-2002-12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 60-7, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022]

PART 61 CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND INSTRUCTORS

Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 44729, 44903, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.

Source: Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, unless otherwise noted.

Editorial Note: Nomenclature changes to part 61 appear by FAA-2023-1275; Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024.

Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 73—Robinson Helicopter Company, Robinson R-22/R-44 Special Training and Experience Requirements

Sections

1. Applicability.

2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and flight review.

3. Expiration date.

1. Applicability. Under the procedures prescribed in this section, this Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to all persons who seek to manipulate the controls, act as pilot in command, provide ground training or flight training, or conduct a flight review in a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter. The requirements stated in this SFAR are in addition to the current requirements of this part.

2. Required training, aeronautical experience, endorsements, and flight review.

(a) Ground Training.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph 2(a)(2) of this SFAR, no person may manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter-for the purpose of flight unless the ground training specified in paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR is completed and the person's logbook has been endorsed by a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR.

(2) A person who holds a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating on that person's pilot certificate and meets the experience requirements of paragraph 2(b)(1) or paragraph 2(b)(2) of this SFAR may not manipulate the controls of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter for the purpose of flight unless the ground training specified in paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR is completed and the person's logbook has been endorsed by a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR.

(3) Ground training must be conducted by a flight instructor who has been authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR and consists of the following general subject areas:

(i) Energy management;

(ii) Mast bumping;

(iii) Low rotor revolutions per minute (RPM) and rotor stall;

(iv) Low G conditions, effects, and proper recovery procedures; and

(v) Rotor RPM decay.

(4) The general subject areas identified in paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR are intended to cover both Robinson model R-22 and R-44 helicopters.

(5) A person who can show satisfactory completion of the manufacturer's safety course may obtain an endorsement from an FAA aviation safety inspector in lieu of completing the ground training required by paragraphs 2(a)(1) and (2) of this SFAR.

(b) Aeronautical Experience.

(1) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 unless that person:

(i) Has logged at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson model R-22 helicopter; or

(ii) Has logged at least 10 hours of flight training in the Robinson model R-22 helicopter and has received an endorsement from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR that the individual has been given the training required by this paragraph 2(b)(1)(ii) and is proficient to act as pilot in command of an R-22. The flight training must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures:

(A) Training in autorotation procedures and energy management, including utilizing a combination of flight control inputs and maneuvering to prevent overshooting or undershooting the selected landing area from an entry altitude that permits safe recovery;

(B) Autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing maximum glide configuration;

(D) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery.

(iii) Pilots who do not meet the experience requirement of paragraph 2(b)(1)(i) of this SFAR may not act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 helicopter beginning 12 calendar months after the date of the endorsement identified in paragraph 2(b)(1)(ii) of this SFAR until those pilots have:

(A) Completed a flight review of the ground training subject areas identified by paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(1)(ii) of this SFAR in an R-22; and

(B) Obtained an endorsement for that flight review from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR.

(2) No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-44 helicopter unless that person—

(i) Has logged at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson model R-44 helicopter. The pilot in command may credit up to 25 flight hours in the Robinson model R-22 helicopter toward the 50-hour requirement in the Robinson model R-44 helicopter; or

(ii) Has logged at least 10 hours of flight training in a Robinson helicopter, at least 5 hours of which must have been accomplished in the Robinson model R-44 helicopter, and has received an endorsement from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR that the individual has been given the training required by this paragraph 2(b)(2)(ii) and is proficient to act as pilot in command of an R-44. The flight training must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures—

(B) Autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing minimum rate of descent configuration and maximum glide configuration;

(D) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery.

(iii) Pilots who do not meet the experience requirement of paragraph 2(b)(2)(i) of this SFAR may not act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-44 helicopter beginning 12 calendar months after the date of the endorsement identified in paragraph 2(b)(2)(ii) of this SFAR until those pilots have:

(A) Completed a flight review of the ground training subject areas identified by paragraph 2(a)(3) and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(2)(ii) of this SFAR in an R-44; and

(B) Obtained an endorsement for that flight review from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR.

(3) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must have logged at least 20 hours of flight training in a Robinson model R-22 helicopter from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR prior to operating it in solo flight. In addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR that training has been given in those maneuvers and procedures, and the instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson model R-22 helicopter. This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The flight training must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures:

(i) Training in autorotation procedures and energy management, including utilizing a combination of flight control inputs and maneuvering to prevent overshooting or undershooting the selected landing area from an entry altitude that permits safe recovery;

(ii) Autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing maximum glide configuration;

(iii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor; and

(iv) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery.

(4) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must have logged at least 20 hours of flight training in a Robinson model R-44 helicopter from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR prior to operating it in solo flight. In addition, the person must obtain an endorsement from a flight instructor authorized under paragraph 2(b)(5)(iv) of this SFAR that training has been given in those maneuvers and procedures and the instructor has found the applicant proficient to solo a Robinson model R-44 helicopter. This endorsement is valid for a period of 90 days. The flight training must include at least the following abnormal and emergency procedures:

(ii) Autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing minimum rate of descent configuration and maximum glide configuration;

(iii) Engine rotor RPM control without the use of the governor, and

(iv) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery.

(5) No flight instructor may provide training or conduct a flight review in a Robinson R-22 or R-44 unless that instructor—

(i) Completes the ground training in paragraph 2(a) of this SFAR.

(ii) For the Robinson model R-22 helicopter, has logged at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50 flight hours of which were in the Robinson model R-22 helicopter, or for the Robinson model R-44 helicopter, logged at least 200 flight hours in helicopters, 50 flight hours of which were in Robinson helicopters. Up to 25 flight hours of Robinson model R-22 helicopter flight time may be credited toward the 50-hour requirement.

(iii) Has completed flight training in a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter, or both, on the following abnormal and emergency procedures—

(B) For the Robinson model R-22 helicopter, autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing maximum glide configuration. For the Robinson model R-44 helicopter, autorotations at an entry altitude that permits safe maneuvering and recovery utilizing maximum glide configuration and minimum rate of descent configuration;

(D) Low rotor RPM recognition and recovery.

(iv) Has been authorized by endorsement from an FAA aviation safety inspector or authorized designated examiner that the instructor has completed the appropriate training, meets the experience requirements, and has satisfactorily demonstrated an ability to provide training on the general subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR, and the flight training identified in paragraph 2(b)(5)(iii) of this SFAR.

(1) No flight review completed to satisfy § 61.56 by an individual after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a Robinson model R-22 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of an R-22 unless that flight review was taken in an R-22.

(2) No flight review completed to satisfy § 61.56 by an individual after becoming eligible to function as pilot in command in a Robinson model R-44 helicopter shall be valid for the operation of an R-44 unless that flight review was taken in the R-44.

(3) The flight review will include a review of the ground training subject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR and flight training in abnormal and emergency procedures in the Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter, as appropriate, identified in paragraph 2(b) of this SFAR.

(d) Currency Requirements. No person may act as pilot in command of a Robinson model R-22 or R-44 helicopter carrying passengers unless the pilot in command has met the recency of flight experience requirements of § 61.57 in an R-22 or R-44, as appropriate.

3. Expiration date. This SFAR expires August 22, 2029, unless sooner revised or rescinded.

[Docket FAA-2023-2083, Amdt. 61-154, 89 FR 59608, July 23, 2024]

Subpart A General

§ 61.1 Applicability and definitions.

(a) Except as provided in parts 107 and 194 of this chapter, this part prescribes:

(1) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor certificates and ratings; the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of those certificates and ratings.

(2) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor authorizations; the conditions under which those authorizations are necessary; and the privileges and limitations of those authorizations.

(3) The requirements for issuing pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor certificates and ratings for persons who have taken courses approved by the Administrator under other parts of this chapter.

(b) For the purpose of this part:

Accredited has the same meaning as defined by the Department of Education in 34 CFR 600.2.

Aeronautical experience means pilot time obtained in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device for meeting the appropriate training and flight time requirements for an airman certificate, rating, flight review, or recency of flight experience requirements of this part.

Authorized instructor means—

(i) A person who holds a ground instructor certificate issued under part 61 of this chapter and is in compliance with § 61.217, when conducting ground training in accordance with the privileges and limitations of his or her ground instructor certificate;

(ii) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under part 61 of this chapter and is in compliance with § 61.197, when conducting ground training or flight training in accordance with the privileges and limitations of his or her flight instructor certificate; or

(iii) A person authorized by the Administrator to provide ground training or flight training under part 61, 121, 135, or 142 of this chapter when conducting ground training or flight training in accordance with that authority.

Aviation training device means a training device, other than a full flight simulator or flight training device, that has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Administrator.

Complex airplane means an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, including airplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control; or, in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable pitch propeller, including seaplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control.

Cross-country time means—

(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (ii) through (vii) of this definition, time acquired during flight—

(A) Conducted by a person who holds a pilot certificate;

(B) Conducted in an aircraft;

(D) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point.

(ii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements (except for a rotorcraft category rating), for a private pilot certificate (except for a powered parachute category rating), a commercial pilot certificate, or an instrument rating, or for the purpose of exercising recreational pilot privileges (except in a rotorcraft) under § 61.101 (c), time acquired during a flight—

(A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;

(B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point.

(iii) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate (except for powered parachute privileges), time acquired during a flight conducted in an appropriate aircraft that—

(A) Includes a point of landing at least a straight line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(B) Involves, as applicable, the use of dead reckoning; pilotage; electronic navigation aids; radio aids; or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point.

(iv) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for a sport pilot certificate with powered parachute privileges or a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute category rating, time acquired during a flight conducted in an appropriate aircraft that—

(A) Includes a point of landing at least a straight line distance of more than 15 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(B) Involves, as applicable, the use of dead reckoning; pilotage; electronic navigation aids; radio aids; or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point.

(v) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for any pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category rating or an instrument-helicopter rating, or for the purpose of exercising recreational pilot privileges, in a rotorcraft, under § 61.101(c), time acquired during a flight—

(A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;

(B) That includes a point of landing that was at least a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems to navigate to the landing point.

(vi) For the purpose of meeting the aeronautical experience requirements for an airline transport pilot certificate (except with a rotorcraft category rating), time acquired during a flight—

(A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;

(B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.

(vii) For a military pilot who qualifies for a commercial pilot certificate (except with a rotorcraft category rating) under § 61.73 of this part, time acquired during a flight—

(A) Conducted in an appropriate aircraft;

(B) That is at least a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(C) That involves the use of dead reckoning, pilotage, electronic navigation aids, radio aids, or other navigation systems.

Examiner means any person who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct a pilot proficiency test or a practical test for an airman certificate or rating issued under this part, or a person who is authorized to conduct a knowledge test under this part.

Flight training means that training, other than ground training, received from an authorized instructor in flight in an aircraft.

Ground training means that training, other than flight training, received from an authorized instructor.

Institution of higher education has the same meaning as defined by the Department of Education in 34 CFR 600.4.

Instrument approach means an approach procedure defined in part 97 of this chapter.

Instrument training means that time in which instrument training is received from an authorized instructor under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

Knowledge test means a test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman certificate or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer.

Nationally recognized accrediting agency has the same meaning as defined by the Department of Education in 34 CFR 600.2.

Night vision goggles means an appliance worn by a pilot that enhances the pilot's ability to maintain visual surface reference at night.

Night vision goggle operation means the portion of a flight that occurs during the time period from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise where the pilot maintains visual surface reference using night vision goggles in an aircraft that is approved for such an operation.

Passenger means any person on board an aircraft other than a crewmember, FAA personnel, manufacturer personnel required for type certification, or a person receiving or providing flight training, checking, or testing as authorized by this part.

Pilot time means that time in which a person—

(i) Serves as a required pilot flight crewmember;

(ii) Receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device;

(iii) Gives training as an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device; or

(iv) Serves as second in command in operations conducted in accordance with § 135.99(c) of this chapter when a second pilot is not required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted, provided the requirements in § 61.159(c) are satisfied.

Practical test means a test on the areas of operations for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and demonstrate maneuvers in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device.

Set of aircraft means aircraft that share similar performance characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating envelopes, similar handling characteristics, and the same number and type of propulsion systems.

Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate means a person who has received an endorsement—

(i) To exercise student pilot privileges from a certificated flight instructor with a sport pilot rating; or

(ii) That includes a limitation for the operation of an aircraft specified in § 61.89(c) issued by a certificated flight instructor with other than a sport pilot rating.

Technically advanced airplane (TAA) means an airplane equipped with an electronically advanced avionics system.

Training time means training received—

(i) In flight from an authorized instructor;

(ii) On the ground from an authorized instructor; or

(iii) In a flight simulator or flight training device from an authorized instructor.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40893, July 30, 1997 as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42372, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80339, Oct. 2, 2024; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.2 Exercise of Privilege.

(a) Validity. No person may:

(1) Exercise privileges of a certificate, rating, endorsement, or authorization issued under this part if the certificate, rating or authorization is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired.

(2) Exercise privileges of a flight instructor certificate if that flight instructor certificate is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired.

(3) Exercise privileges of a foreign pilot certificate to operate an aircraft of foreign registry under § 61.3(b) if the certificate is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired.

(4) Exercise privileges of a pilot certificate issued under § 61.75, or an authorization issued under § 61.77, if the foreign pilot certificate relied upon for the issuance of the U.S. pilot certificate or authorization is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired.

(5) Exercise privileges of a medical certificate issued under part 67 to meet any requirements of part 61 if the medical certificate is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired according to the duration standards set forth in § 61.23(d).

(6) Use an official government issued driver's license to meet any requirements of part 61 related to holding that driver's license, if the driver's license is surrendered, suspended, revoked or expired.

(b) Currency. No person may:

(1) Exercise privileges of an airman certificate, rating, endorsement, or authorization issued under this part unless that person meets the appropriate airman recent experience and medical requirements of this part, specific to the operation or activity.

(2) Exercise privileges of a foreign pilot license within the United States to conduct an operation described in § 61.3(b), unless that person meets the appropriate airman recent experience and medical requirements of the country that issued the license, specific to the operation.

[Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80049, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.3 Requirement for certificates, ratings, privileges, and authorizations.

(a) Required pilot certificate for operating a civil aircraft of the United States. No person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of the United States, unless that person:

(1) Has in the person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization—

(i) A pilot certificate issued under this part and in accordance with § 61.19;

(ii) A special purpose pilot authorization issued under § 61.77;

(iii) A temporary certificate issued under § 61.17;

(iv) A document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges issued by the Airmen Certification Branch under § 61.29(e);

(v) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121 or 135 of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that certificate holder under an approved certificate verification plan;

(vi) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for a fractional ownership program manager authorized to conduct operations under part 91, subpart K, of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that program manager under an approved certificate verification plan; or

(vii) When operating an aircraft within a foreign country, a pilot license issued by that country may be used.

(2) Has a photo identification that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. The photo identification must be a:

(i) Driver's license issued by a State, the District of Columbia, or territory or possession of the United States;

(ii) Government identification card issued by the Federal government, a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory or possession of the United States;

(iii) U.S. Armed Forces' identification card;

(iv) Official passport;

(v) Credential that authorizes unescorted access to a security identification display area at an airport regulated under 49 CFR part 1542; or

(vi) Other form of identification that the Administrator finds acceptable.

(b) Required pilot certificate for operating a foreign-registered aircraft within the United States. No person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within the United States, unless—

(1) That person's pilot certificate or document issued under § 61.29(e) is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate; and

(2) Has been issued in accordance with this part, or has been issued or validated by the country in which the aircraft is registered.

(c) Medical certificate. (1) A person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft only if that person holds the appropriate medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable to the FAA, that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides certain exceptions to the requirement to hold a medical certificate.

(2) A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person—

(i) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating, a balloon class rating, or glider or balloon privileges;

(ii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a sport pilot certificate with other than glider or balloon privileges and holds a U.S. driver's license;

(iii) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control aircraft category rating or a powered parachute category rating and holds a U.S. driver's license;

(iv) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges;

(v) Is exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with other than glider or balloon privileges and holds a U.S. driver's license. A person who has applied for or held a medical certificate may exercise the privileges of a sport pilot certificate using a U.S. driver's license only if that person—

(A) Has been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent application; and

(B) Has not had his or her most recently issued medical certificate suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn.

(vi) Is holding a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating and that person—

(A) Is exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate in a balloon; or

(B) Is providing flight training in a balloon in accordance with § 61.133(a)(2)(ii);

(vii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider, as appropriate;

(viii) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate, provided the person is not acting as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember;

(ix) Is exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate;

(x) Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot license issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical qualification for that license;

(xi) Is operating an aircraft with a U.S. pilot certificate, issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license, issued under § 61.75, and holds a medical certificate issued by the foreign country that issued the foreign pilot license, which is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that airman certificate;

(xii) Is a pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces, has an up-to-date U.S. military medical examination, and holds military pilot flight status;

(xiii) Is exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private pilot certificate for operations conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's license;

(xiv) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as pilot in command or a required flightcrew member for operations conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. driver's license; or

(xv) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate or higher while acting as pilot in command on a special medical flight test authorized under part 67 of this chapter.

(d) Flight instructor certificate. (1) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under this part must have that certificate, or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator, in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that flight instructor certificate.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, no person other than the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part with the appropriate rating on that certificate may—

(i) Give training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-country flight;

(ii) Endorse an applicant for a—

(A) Pilot certificate or rating issued under this part;

(B) Flight instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; or

(iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show training given; or

(iv) Endorse a logbook for solo operating privileges.

(3) A flight instructor certificate issued under this part is not necessary—

(i) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft;

(ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;

(iii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the training is given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved part 142 training program;

(iv) Under paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(2)(ii)(C), and (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a ground instructor certificate in accordance with the privileges of the certificate; or

(v) Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by an authorized flight instructor under § 61.41 of this part.

(e) Instrument rating. No person may act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR flight unless that person holds:

(1) The appropriate aircraft category, class, type (if a class or type rating is required), and instrument rating on that person's pilot certificate for any airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift being flown;

(2) An airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft being flown;

(3) For a glider, a pilot certificate with a glider category rating and an airplane instrument rating; or

(4) For an airship, a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating and airship class rating.

(f) Category II pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting Category II operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:

(1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category II operations unless that person—

(i) Holds a Category II pilot authorization for that category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or

(ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that aircraft in Category II operations.

(2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category II operations unless that person—

(i) Holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings (if a class rating is required) for that aircraft and an instrument rating for that category aircraft;

(ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class ratings (if a class rating is required) for that aircraft; or

(iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of that aircraft during Category II operations.

(g) Category III pilot authorization. Except for a pilot conducting Category III operations under part 121 or part 135, a person may not:

(1) Act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft during Category III operations unless that person—

(i) Holds a Category III pilot authorization for that category or class of aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if applicable; or

(ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as pilot in command of that aircraft in Category III operations.

(2) Act as second in command of a civil aircraft during Category III operations unless that person—

(i) Holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings (if a class rating is required) for that aircraft and an instrument rating for that category aircraft;

(ii) Holds an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class ratings (if a class rating is required) for that aircraft; or

(iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of foreign registry, is authorized by the country of registry to act as second in command of that aircraft during Category III operations.

(h) Category A aircraft pilot authorization. The Administrator may issue a certificate of authorization for a Category II or Category III operation to the pilot of a small aircraft that is a Category A aircraft, as identified in § 97.3(b)(1) of this chapter if:

(1) The Administrator determines that the Category II or Category III operation can be performed safely by that pilot under the terms of the certificate of authorization; and

(2) The Category II or Category III operation does not involve the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire.

(i) Ground instructor certificate. (1) Each person who holds a ground instructor certificate issued under this part must have that certificate or a temporary document issued under § 61.29(e) in that person's physical possession or immediately accessible when exercising the privileges of that certificate.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(3) of this section, no person other than the holder of a ground instructor certificate, issued under this part or part 143, with the appropriate rating on that certificate may—

(i) Give ground training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-country flight;

(ii) Endorse an applicant for a knowledge test required for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating issued under this part; or

(iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show ground training given.

(3) A ground instructor certificate issued under this part is not necessary—

(i) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a flight instructor certificate issued under this part in accordance with the privileges of that certificate;

(ii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate in a lighter-than-air aircraft;

(iii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by the holder of an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is given, provided the training is given in accordance with the privileges of the certificate and conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program approved under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter;

(iv) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this section, if the training is given by a person who is qualified in accordance with subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved part 142 training program; or

(v) Under paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this section, if the training is given by an authorized flight instructor under § 61.41 of this part.

(j) Age limitation for certain operations. (1) Age limitation. No person who holds a pilot certificate issued under this part may serve as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry in the following operations if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday or, in the case of operations with more than one pilot, his or her 65th birthday:

(i) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in turbojet-powered airplanes;

(ii) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat;

(iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or

(iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.

(2) Definitions. (i) “International air service,” as used in this paragraph (j), means scheduled air service performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country.

(ii) “International air transportation,” as used in this paragraph (j), means air transportation performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one country.

(k) Special purpose pilot authorization. Any person that is required to hold a special purpose pilot authorization, issued in accordance with § 61.77 of this part, must have that authorization and the person's foreign pilot license in that person's physical possession or have it readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that authorization.

(l) Inspection of certificate. Each person who holds an airman certificate, temporary document in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(v) or (vi) of this section, medical certificate, documents establishing alternative medical qualification under part 68 of this chapter, authorization, or license required by this part must present it and their photo identification as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for inspection upon a request from:

(1) The Administrator;

(2) An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board;

(3) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer; or

(4) An authorized representative of the Transportation Security Administration.

(m) For a person who possesses a sport pilot certificate. No person may exercise sport pilot privileges under § 61.313 unless that person receives a qualifying logbook endorsement under § 61.317 or § 61.321 of this part for the appropriate category and class privilege. The requirement in this paragraph (m) does not apply to a person who already holds the appropriate category and class rating on their pilot certificate.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40894, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-111, 67 FR 65861, Oct. 28, 2002; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53644, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013; Amdt. 61-134, 80 FR 33400, June 12, 2015; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3164, Jan. 11, 2017; Amdt. 60-6, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024; FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35211, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.4 Qualification and approval of flight simulators and flight training devices.

(a) Except as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, each flight simulator and flight training device used for training, and for which an airman is to receive credit to satisfy any training, testing, or checking requirement under this chapter, must be qualified and approved by the Administrator for—

(1) The training, testing, and checking for which it is used;

(2) Each particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function performed; and

(3) The representation of the specific category and class of aircraft, type of aircraft, particular variation within the type of aircraft, or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices.

(b) Any device used for flight training, testing, or checking that has been determined to be acceptable to or approved by the Administrator prior to August 1, 1996, which can be shown to function as originally designed, is considered to be a flight training device, provided it is used for the same purposes for which it was originally accepted or approved and only to the extent of such acceptance or approval.

(c) The Administrator may approve a device other than a flight simulator or flight training device for specific purposes.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997]

§ 61.5 Certificates and ratings issued under this part.

(a) The following certificates are issued under this part to an applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the certificate sought:

(1) Pilot certificates—

(i) Student pilot.

(ii) Sport pilot.

(iii) Recreational pilot.

(iv) Private pilot.

(v) Commercial pilot.

(vi) Airline transport pilot.

(2) Flight instructor certificates.

(3) Ground instructor certificates.

(b) The following ratings are placed on a pilot certificate (other than student pilot) when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought:

(1) Aircraft category ratings—

(i) Airplane.

(ii) Rotorcraft.

(iii) Glider.

(iv) Lighter-than-air.

(v) Powered-lift.

(vi) Powered parachute.

(vii) Weight-shift-control aircraft.

(2) Airplane class ratings—

(i) Single-engine land.

(ii) Multiengine land.

(iii) Single-engine sea.

(iv) Multiengine sea.

(3) Rotorcraft class ratings—

(i) Helicopter.

(ii) Gyroplane.

(4) Lighter-than-air class ratings—

(i) Airship.

(ii) Balloon.

(5) Weight-shift-control aircraft class ratings—

(i) Weight-shift-control aircraft land.

(ii) Weight-shift-control aircraft sea.

(6) Powered parachute class ratings—

(i) Powered parachute land.

(ii) Powered parachute sea.

(7) Aircraft type ratings—

(i) Large aircraft other than lighter-than-air.

(ii) Turbojet-powered airplanes.

(iii) Powered-lift.

(iv) Other aircraft type ratings specified by the Administrator through the aircraft type certification procedures.

(8) Instrument ratings (on private and commercial pilot certificates only)—

(i) Instrument—Airplane.

(ii) Instrument—Helicopter.

(iii) Instrument—Powered-lift.

(9) Second-in-command pilot type rating for aircraft that is certificated for operations with a minimum crew of at least two pilots.

(c) The following ratings are placed on a flight instructor certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought:

(1) Aircraft category ratings—

(i) Airplane.

(ii) Rotorcraft.

(iii) Glider.

(iv) Powered-lift.

(2) Airplane class ratings—

(i) Single-engine.

(ii) Multiengine.

(3) Rotorcraft class ratings—

(i) Helicopter.

(ii) Gyroplane.

(4) Instrument ratings—

(i) Instrument—Airplane.

(ii) Instrument—Helicopter.

(iii) Instrument—Powered-lift.

(5) Sport pilot rating.

(d) The following ratings are placed on a ground instructor certificate when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the rating sought:

(1) Basic.

(2) Advanced.

(3) Instrument.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-113, 70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005; Docket FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.7 Obsolete certificates and ratings.

(a) The holder of a free-balloon pilot certificate issued before November 1, 1973, may not exercise the privileges of that certificate.

(b) The holder of a pilot certificate that bears any of the following category ratings without an associated class rating may not exercise the privileges of that category rating:

(1) Rotorcraft.

(2) Lighter-than-air.

(3) Helicopter.

(4) Autogyro.

§ 61.8 Inapplicability of unmanned aircraft operations.

Any action conducted pursuant to part 107 of this chapter cannot be used to meet the requirements of this part.

[FAA-2020-1067, Amdt. 61-148, 85 FR 79825, Dec. 11, 2020]

§ 61.9 Inapplicability of simplified flight controls aircraft experience credit.

Notwithstanding the requirements specified in § 61.51(c), any pilot time acquired while operating an airplane or helicopter with a simplified flight controls designation may not be used to satisfy the following aeronautical experience requirements for a private, commercial, or airline transport pilot certificate, except for private pilot applicants who present an aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation to conduct the practical test—

(a) The solo flight time requirements in § 61.109(a)(5) or (c)(4);

(b) The PIC flight time requirements in § 61.129(a)(2)(i) and (c)(2)(i);

(d) The PIC flight time requirements in § 61.161(a)(3).

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35211, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.11 Expired pilot certificates and re-issuance.

(a) No person who holds an expired pilot certificate or rating may act as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft of the same category or class that is listed on that expired pilot certificate or rating.

(b) The following pilot certificates and ratings have expired and will not be reissued:

(1) An airline transport pilot certificate issued before May 1, 1949, or an airline transport pilot certificate that contains a horsepower limitation.

(2) A private or commercial pilot certificate issued before July 1, 1945.

(3) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon rating issued before July 1, 1945.

(c) An airline transport pilot certificate that was issued after April 30, 1949, and that bears an expiration date but does not contain a horsepower limitation, may have that airline transport pilot certificate re-issued without an expiration date.

(d) A private or commercial pilot certificate that was issued after June 30, 1945, and that bears an expiration date, may have that pilot certificate reissued without an expiration date.

(e) A pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air or free-balloon rating that was issued after June 30, 1945, and that bears an expiration date, may have that pilot certificate reissued without an expiration date.

[Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.13 Issuance of airman certificates, ratings, and authorizations.

(a) Application. (1) An applicant for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization under this part must make that application on a form and in a manner acceptable to the Administrator.

(2) An applicant must show evidence that the appropriate fee prescribed in appendix A to part 187 of this chapter has been paid when that person applies for airmen certification services administered outside the United States.

(3) An applicant who is neither a citizen of the United States nor a resident alien of the United States may be refused issuance of any U.S. airman certificate, rating or authorization by the Administrator.

(4) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, an applicant who satisfactorily accomplishes the training and certification requirements for the certificate, rating, or authorization sought is entitled to receive that airman certificate, rating, or authorization.

(b) Limitations. (1) An applicant who cannot comply with certain areas of operation required on the practical test because of physical limitations may be issued an airman certificate, rating, or authorization with the appropriate limitation placed on the applicant's airman certificate provided the—

(i) Applicant is able to meet all other certification requirements for the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought;

(ii) Physical limitation has been recorded with the FAA on the applicant's medical records; and

(iii) Administrator determines that the applicant's inability to perform the particular area of operation will not adversely affect safety.

(2) A limitation placed on a person's airman certificate may be removed, provided that person demonstrates for an examiner satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation appropriate to the airman certificate, rating, or authorization sought.

(c) Additional requirements for Category II and Category III pilot authorizations. (1) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization is issued by a letter of authorization as part of an applicant's instrument rating or airline transport pilot certificate.

(2) Upon original issue, the authorization contains the following limitations:

(i) For Category II operations, the limitation is 1,600 feet RVR and a 150-foot decision height; and

(ii) For Category III operations, each initial limitation is specified in the authorization document.

(3) The limitations on a Category II or Category III pilot authorization may be removed as follows:

(i) In the case of Category II limitations, a limitation is removed when the holder shows that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, the holder has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-foot decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

(ii) In the case of Category III limitations, a limitation is removed as specified in the authorization.

(4) To meet the experience requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, and for the practical test required by this part for a Category II or a Category III pilot authorization, a flight simulator or flight training device may be used if it is approved by the Administrator for such use.

(d) Application during suspension or revocation. (1) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been suspended may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization during the period of suspension.

(2) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a person whose pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate has been revoked may not apply for any certificate, rating, or authorization for 1 year after the date of revocation.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-116, 72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 2007; Amdt. 61-132, 78 FR 77572, Dec. 24, 2013]

§ 61.14 Incorporation by Reference.

Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA, Training and Certification Group, 202-267-1100, ACSPTSinquiries@faa.gov. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations or email fr.inspection@nara.gov. The material may be obtained from the Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington DC 20591, 866-835-5322, www.faa.gov/training_testing.

(a) Practical Test Standards. (1) FAA-S-8081-3B, Recreational Pilot Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category and Rotorcraft Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(2) FAA-S-8081-7C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(3) FAA-S-8081-8C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(4) FAA-S-8081-9E, Flight Instructor Instrument Practical Test Standards for Airplane Rating and Helicopter Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(5) FAA-S-8081-15B, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(6) FAA-S-8081-16C, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(7) FAA-S-8081-17A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(8) FAA-S-8081-18A, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(9) FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.58; appendix A to this part.

(10) FAA-S-8081-22A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(11) FAA-S-8081-23B, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(12) FAA-S-8081-29B, Sport Pilot and Flight Instructors with a Sport Pilot Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane, and Glider Category, June 2026; IBR approved for §§ 61.43, 61.321; 61.419; appendix A to this part.

(13) FAA-S-8081-30B, Sport Pilot and Flight Instructors with a Sport Pilot Rating Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, June 2026; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.321; and 61.419; appendix A to this part.

(14) FAA-S-8081-31B, Sport Pilot and Flight Instructors with a Sport Pilot Rating Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category, June 2026; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.321; 61.419; appendix A to this part.

(15) FAA-S-8081-32A Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(b) Airman Certification Standards. (1) FAA-S-ACS-2, Commercial Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(2) FAA-S-ACS-3, Instrument Rating—Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.57; appendix A to this part.

(3) FAA-S-ACS-6C, Private Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(4) FAA-S-ACS-7B, Commercial Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(5) FAA-S-ACS-8C, Instrument Rating—Airplane Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.57; appendix A to this part.

(6) FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.58; appendix A to this part.

(7) FAA-S-ACS-13, Private Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(8) FAA-S-ACS-14, Instrument Rating—Helicopter Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.57; appendix A to this part.

(9) FAA-S-ACS-15, Private Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(10) FAA-S-ACS-16, Commercial Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(11) FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.58; appendix A to this part.

(12) FAA-S-ACS-25, Flight Instructor for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(13) FAA-S-ACS-26, Sport Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, July 2025, IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.321; appendix A to this part.

(14) FAA-S-ACS-27, Flight Instructor for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(15) FAA-S-ACS-28, Flight Instructor—Instrument Rating Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(16) FAA-S-ACS-29, Flight Instructor for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 61.43; appendix A to this part.

(17) FAA-S-ACS-31, Flight Instructor with a Sport Pilot Rating for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, July 2025, IBR approved for §§ 61.43; 61.419; appendix A to this part.

[Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22516, Apr. 1, 2024, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35211, July 24, 2025; Docket FAA-2025-3519, Amdt. 61-161, 91 FR 58020, Sept. 14, 2026]

§ 61.15 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

(a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for:

(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or

(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.

(b) Committing an act prohibited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for:

(1) Denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or

(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.

(1) A conviction after November 29, 1990, for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug;

(2) The cancellation, suspension, or revocation of a license to operate a motor vehicle after November 29, 1990, for a cause related to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug; or

(3) The denial after November 29, 1990, of an application for a license to operate a motor vehicle for a cause related to the operation of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by alcohol or a drug, while impaired by alcohol or a drug, or while under the influence of alcohol or a drug.

(d) Except for a motor vehicle action that results from the same incident or arises out of the same factual circumstances, a motor vehicle action occurring within 3 years of a previous motor vehicle action is grounds for:

(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the last motor vehicle action; or

(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.

(e) Each person holding a certificate issued under this part shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), P.O. Box 25810, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. The report must include:

(1) The person's name, address, date of birth, and airman certificate number;

(2) The type of violation that resulted in the conviction or the administrative action;

(3) The date of the conviction or administrative action;

(4) The State that holds the record of conviction or administrative action; and

(5) A statement of whether the motor vehicle action resulted from the same incident or arose out of the same factual circumstances related to a previously reported motor vehicle action.

(f) Failure to comply with paragraph (e) of this section is grounds for:

(1) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of the motor vehicle action; or

(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.

§ 61.16 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.

A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in accordance with § 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results requested by the Administrator in accordance with § 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, is grounds for:

(a) Denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or

(b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this part.

§ 61.17 Temporary certificate.

(a) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating is issued for up to 120 days, at which time a permanent certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator finds qualified under this part.

(b) A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate or rating expires:

(1) On the expiration date shown on the certificate;

(2) Upon receipt of the permanent certificate; or

(3) Upon receipt of a notice that the certificate or rating sought is denied or revoked.

§ 61.18 [Reserved]

§ 61.19 Duration of pilot and instructor certificates and privileges.

(a) General. (1) The holder of a certificate with an expiration date may not, after that date, exercise the privileges of that certificate.

(2) Except for a certificate issued with an expiration date, a certificate issued under this part is valid unless it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.

(b) Paper student pilot certificate. A student pilot certificate issued under this part prior to April 1, 2016 expires:

(1) For student pilots who have not reached their 40th birthday, 60 calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(2) For student pilots who have reached their 40th birthday, 24 calendar months after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(3) For student pilots seeking a glider rating, balloon rating, or a sport pilot certificate, 60 calendar months after the month of the date issued, regardless of the person's age.

(c) Pilot certificates. (1) A pilot certificate (including a student pilot certificate issued after April 1, 2016) issued under this part is issued without an expiration date.

(2) The holder of a pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while that person's foreign pilot license is effective.

(d) Flight instructor certificate. (1) A flight instructor certificate issued under this part on or after December 1, 2024, is issued without an expiration date.

(2) A flight instructor certificate issued before December 1, 2024, expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued, renewed, or reinstated, as appropriate.

(e) Ground instructor certificate. A ground instructor certificate is issued without an expiration date.

(f) Return of certificates. The holder of any airman certificate that is issued under this part, and that has been suspended or revoked, must return that certificate to the FAA when requested to do so by the Administrator.

(g) Duration of pilot certificates. Except for a temporary certificate issued under § 61.17 or a student pilot certificate issued under paragraph (b) of this section, the holder of a paper pilot certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2010.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-118, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53644, Oct. 20, 2009; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80049, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.21 Duration of a Category II and a Category III pilot authorization (for other than part 121 and part 135 use).

(a) A Category II pilot authorization or a Category III pilot authorization expires at the end of the sixth calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed.

(b) Upon passing a practical test for a Category II or Category III pilot authorization, the authorization may be renewed for each type of aircraft for which the authorization is held.

(c) A Category II or Category III pilot authorization for a specific type aircraft for which an authorization is held will not be renewed beyond 12 calendar months from the month the practical test was accomplished in that type aircraft.

(d) If the holder of a Category II or Category III pilot authorization passes the practical test for a renewal in the month before the authorization expires, the holder is considered to have passed it during the month the authorization expired.

§ 61.23 Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.

(a) Operations requiring a medical certificate. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a person—

(1) Must hold a first-class medical certificate:

(i) When exercising the pilot-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate;

(ii) When exercising the second-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 of this chapter that requires three or more pilots; or

(iii) When serving as a required pilot flightcrew member in an operation conducted under part 121 of this chapter if the pilot has reached his or her 60th birthday.

(2) Must hold at least a second class medical certificate when exercising:

(i) Second-in-command privileges of an airline transport pilot certificate in part 121 of this chapter (other than operations specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section);

(ii) Privileges of a commercial pilot certificate in an aircraft other than a balloon or glider; or

(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon class rating for compensation or hire; or

(3) Must hold at least a third-class medical certificate—

(i) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, or student pilot certificate, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i);

(ii) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flightcrew member, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i);

(iii) When taking a practical test in an aircraft for a recreational pilot, private pilot, commercial pilot, or airline transport pilot certificate, or for a flight instructor certificate, except when operating under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or

(iv) When performing the duties as an Examiner in an aircraft when administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization, except when meeting the requirements to operate under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i).

(b) Operations not requiring a medical certificate. A person is not required to hold a medical certificate—

(1) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking—

(i) A sport pilot certificate with glider or balloon privileges; or

(ii) A pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon class rating;

(2) When exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate with privileges in a glider or balloon;

(3) When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate with a glider category rating in a glider;

(4) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot certificate with a balloon class rating in a balloon;

(5) When exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon class rating in a balloon if the person is providing flight training in accordance with § 61.133(a)(2)(ii);

(6) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with—

(i) A sport pilot rating in a glider or balloon; or

(ii) A glider category rating;

(7) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate if the person is not acting as pilot in command or serving as a required pilot flight crewmember;

(8) When exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate;

(9) When serving as an Examiner or check airman and administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization conducted in a glider, balloon, flight simulator, or flight training device;

(10) When taking a practical test or a proficiency check for a certificate, rating, authorization or operating privilege conducted in a glider, balloon, flight simulator, or flight training device;

(11) When a military pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces can show evidence of an up-to-date medical examination authorizing pilot flight status issued by the U.S. Armed Forces and—

(i) The flight does not require higher than a third-class medical certificate; and

(ii) The flight conducted is a domestic flight operation within U.S. airspace; or

(12) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate or higher while acting as pilot in command on a special medical flight test authorized under part 67 of this chapter.

(c) Operations requiring either a medical certificate or U.S. driver's license. (1) A person must hold and possess either a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or a U.S. driver's license when—

(i) Exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking sport pilot privileges in an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 other than a glider or balloon;

(ii) Exercising the privileges of a sport pilot certificate in an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 other than a glider or balloon;

(iii) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating while acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flight crewmember of an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 other than a glider or balloon;

(iv) Serving as an Examiner and administering a practical test for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate in an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 other than a glider or balloon;

(v) Exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private pilot certificate if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i);

(vi) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), and (b)(6) of this section, exercising the privileges of sport pilot certificate at night under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i);

(vii) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flight crewmember if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or

(viii) Serving as an Examiner and administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i).

(2) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) while exercising sport pilot privileges must—

(i) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order applying to the operation of a motor vehicle;

(ii) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate);

(iii) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical certificate (if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn; and

(iv) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would make that person unable to operate an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 in a safe manner.

(3) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) while operating under the conditions and limitations of § 61.113(i) must meet the following requirements—

(i) The person must—

(A) Comply with all medical requirements or restrictions associated with his or her U.S. driver's license;

(B) At any point after July 14, 2006, have held a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter;

(C) Complete the medical education course set forth in § 68.3 of this chapter during the 24 calendar months before acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flightcrew member in an operation conducted under § 61.113(i) and retain a certification of course completion in accordance with § 68.3(b)(1) of this chapter;

(D) Receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician during the 48 calendar months before acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flightcrew member of an operation conducted under § 61.113(i) and that medical examination is conducted in accordance with the requirements in part 68 of this chapter; and

(E) If the individual has been diagnosed with any medical condition that may impact the ability of the individual to fly, be under the care and treatment of a State-licensed physician when acting as pilot in command or serving as a required flightcrew member of an operation conducted under § 61.113(i).

(ii) The most recently issued medical certificate—

(A) May include an authorization for special issuance;

(B) May be expired; and

(iii) The most recently issued Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate cannot have been withdrawn; and

(iv) The most recent application for an airman medical certificate submitted to the FAA cannot have been completed and denied.

(d) Duration of a medical certificate. Use the following table to determine duration for each class of medical certificate:

If you hold | And on the date of examination for your most recent medical certificate you were | And you are conducting an operation requiring | Then your medical certificate expires, for that operation, at the end of the last day of the

(1) A first-class medical certificate | (i) Under age 40 | an airline transport pilot certificate for pilot-in-command privileges, or for second-in-command privileges in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 requiring three or more pilots | 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(ii) Age 40 or older | an airline transport pilot certificate for pilot-in-command privileges, for second-in-command privileges in a flag or supplemental operation in part 121 requiring three or more pilots, or for a pilot flightcrew member in part 121 operations who has reached his or her 60th birthday. | 6th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(iii) Any age | a commercial pilot certificate (other than a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating when conducting flight training), a flight engineer certificate, or an air traffic control tower operator certificate | 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(iv) Under age 40 | a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification) | 60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(v) Age 40 or older | a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification) | 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(2) A second-class medical certificate | (i) Any age | an airline transport pilot certificate for second-in-command privileges (other than the operations specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section), a commercial pilot certificate (other than a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating when conducting flight training), a flight engineer certificate, or an air traffic control tower operator certificate | 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(ii) Under age 40 | a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification) | 60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(iii) Age 40 or older | a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification) | 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(3) A third-class medical certificate | (i) Under age 40 | a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification) | 60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(ii) Age 40 or older | a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification) | 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 43064, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 48125, Aug. 18, 2008; Amdt. 61-123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-129, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011; Amdt. 61-129A, 77 FR 61721, Oct. 11, 2012; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42372, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3164, Jan. 11, 2017; Docket FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71236, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket FAA-2021-1040; Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71237, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket FAA-2024-2580, Amdt. 61-158, 89 FR 90577, Nov. 18, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35212, 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.25 Change of name.

(a) An application to change the name on a certificate issued under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's:

(1) Airman certificate; and

(2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the name change.

(b) The documents in paragraph (a) of this section will be returned to the applicant after inspection.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.27 Voluntary surrender or exchange of certificate.

(a) The holder of a certificate issued under this part may voluntarily surrender it for:

(1) Cancellation;

(2) Issuance of a lower grade certificate; or

(3) Another certificate with specific ratings deleted.

(b) Any request made under paragraph (a) of this section must include the following signed statement or its equivalent: “This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of certificate or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance.”

§ 61.29 Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate or knowledge test report.

(a) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate issued under this part must be made:

(1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Airmen Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or

(2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator including a request online to Airmen Services at http://www.faa.gov, and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee.

(b) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed medical certificate must be made:

(1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, FAA, Aerospace Medical Certification Division, P.O. Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or

(2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee.

(d) The letter requesting replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report must state:

(1) The name of the person;

(2) The permanent mailing address (including ZIP code), or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the person's current residential address;

(3) The certificate holder's date and place of birth; and

(4) Any information regarding the—

(i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the airman certificate and ratings, if appropriate;

(ii) Class of medical certificate, the place and date of the medical exam, name of the Airman Medical Examiner (AME), and the circumstances concerning the loss of the original medical certificate, as appropriate; and

(iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if appropriate.

(e) A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain, in a form or manner approved by the Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, and the:

(1) Document may be carried as an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for up to 60 days pending the person's receipt of a duplicate under paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked.

(2) Request for such a document must include the date on which a duplicate certificate or knowledge test report was previously requested.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-121, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013]

§ 61.31 Type rating requirements, additional training, and authorization requirements.

(a) Type ratings required. A person who acts as a pilot in command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft:

(1) Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air).

(2) Turbojet-powered airplanes.

(3) Powered-lift.

(4) Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures.

(b) Authorization in lieu of a type rating. A person may be authorized to operate without a type rating for up to 60 days an aircraft requiring a type rating, provided—

(1) The Administrator has authorized the flight or series of flights;

(2) The Administrator has determined that an equivalent level of safety can be achieved through the operating limitations on the authorization;

(3) The person shows that compliance with paragraph (a) of this section is impracticable for the flight or series of flights; and

(4) The flight—

(i) Involves only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or practical test for a pilot certificate or rating;

(ii) Is within the United States;

(iii) Does not involve operations for compensation or hire unless the compensation or hire involves payment for the use of the aircraft for training or taking a practical test; and

(iv) Involves only the carriage of flight crewmembers considered essential for the flight.

(5) If the flight or series of flights cannot be accomplished within the time limit of the authorization, the Administrator may authorize an additional period of up to 60 days to accomplish the flight or series of flights.

(c) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on the carriage of persons, or operating for compensation or hire. Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire. That person also may not act as pilot in command of that aircraft for compensation or hire.

(d) Aircraft category, class, and type ratings: Limitations on operating an aircraft as the pilot in command. To serve as the pilot in command of an aircraft, a person must—

(1) Hold the appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown; or

(2) Have received training required by this part that is appropriate to the pilot certification level, aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, and have received an endorsement for solo flight in that aircraft from an authorized instructor.

(e) Additional training required for operating complex airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, unless the person has—

(i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and

(ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a complex airplane.

(2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section is not required if—

(i) The person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane prior to August 4, 1997; or

(ii) The person has received ground and flight training under an approved training program and has satisfactorily completed a competency check under § 135.293 of this chapter in a complex airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane which must be documented in the pilot's logbook or training record.

(f) Additional training required for operating high-performance airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), unless the person has—

(i) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and

(ii) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane.

(2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section is not required if—

(i) The person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997; or

(ii) The person has received ground and flight training under an approved training program and has satisfactorily completed a competency check under § 135.293 of this chapter in a high performance airplane, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high performance airplane which must be documented in the pilot's logbook or training record.

(g) Additional training required for operating pressurized aircraft capable of operating at high altitudes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft (an aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL), unless that person has received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who certifies the person has satisfactorily accomplished the ground training. The ground training must include at least the following subjects:

(i) High-altitude aerodynamics and meteorology;

(ii) Respiration;

(iii) Effects, symptoms, and causes of hypoxia and any other high-altitude sickness;

(iv) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen;

(v) Effects of prolonged usage of supplemental oxygen;

(vi) Causes and effects of gas expansion and gas bubble formation;

(vii) Preventive measures for eliminating gas expansion, gas bubble formation, and high-altitude sickness;

(viii) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression; and

(ix) Any other physiological aspects of high-altitude flight.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft unless that person has received and logged training from an authorized instructor in a pressurized aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a pressurized aircraft. The flight training must include at least the following subjects:

(i) Normal cruise flight operations while operating above 25,000 feet MSL;

(ii) Proper emergency procedures for simulated rapid decompression without actually depressurizing the aircraft; and

(iii) Emergency descent procedures.

(3) The training and endorsement required by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this section are not required if that person can document satisfactory accomplishment of any of the following in a pressurized aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft:

(i) Serving as pilot in command before April 15, 1991;

(ii) Completing a pilot proficiency check for a pilot certificate or rating before April 15, 1991;

(iii) Completing an official pilot-in-command check conducted by the military services of the United States; or

(iv) Completing a pilot-in-command proficiency check under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter conducted by the Administrator or by an approved pilot check airman.

(h) Additional aircraft type-specific training. No person may serve as pilot in command of an aircraft that the Administrator has determined requires aircraft type-specific training unless that person has—

(1) Received and logged type-specific training in the aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of that type of aircraft; and

(2) Received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who has found the person proficient in the operation of the aircraft and its systems.

(i) Additional training required for operating tailwheel airplanes. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in the person's logbook from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel airplane. The flight training must include at least the following maneuvers and procedures:

(i) Normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings;

(ii) Wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against such landings); and

(iii) Go-around procedures.

(2) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section is not required if the person logged pilot-in-command time in a tailwheel airplane before April 15, 1991.

(j) Additional training required for operating a glider. (1) No person may act as pilot in command of a glider—

(i) Using ground-tow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on ground-tow procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in ground-tow procedures and operations;

(ii) Using aerotow procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in aerotow procedures and operations; or

(iii) Using self-launch procedures, unless that person has satisfactorily accomplished ground and flight training on self-launch procedures and operations, and has received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies in that pilot's logbook that the pilot has been found proficient in self-launch procedures and operations.

(2) The holder of a glider rating issued prior to August 4, 1997, is considered to be in compliance with the training and logbook endorsement requirements of this paragraph for the specific operating privilege for which the holder is already qualified.

(k) Additional training required for night vision goggle operations. (1) Except as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft using night vision goggles only if that person receives and logs ground training from an authorized instructor and obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies the person completed the ground training. The ground training must include the following subjects:

(i) Applicable portions of this chapter that relate to night vision goggle limitations and flight operations;

(ii) Aeromedical factors related to the use of night vision goggles, including how to protect night vision, how the eyes adapt to night, self-imposed stresses that affect night vision, effects of lighting on night vision, cues used to estimate distance and depth perception at night, and visual illusions;

(iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operations of night vision goggle equipment;

(iv) Night vision goggle performance and scene interpretation; and

(v) Night vision goggle operation flight planning, including night terrain interpretation and factors affecting terrain interpretation.

(2) Except as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft using night vision goggles only if that person receives and logs flight training from an authorized instructor and obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the use of night vision goggles. The flight training must include the following tasks:

(i) Preflight and use of internal and external aircraft lighting systems for night vision goggle operations;

(ii) Preflight preparation of night vision goggles for night vision goggle operations;

(iii) Proper piloting techniques when using night vision goggles during the takeoff, climb, enroute, descent, and landing phases of flight; and

(iv) Normal, abnormal, and emergency flight operations using night vision goggles.

(3) The requirements under paragraphs (k)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply if a person can document satisfactory completion of any of the following pilot proficiency checks using night vision goggles in an aircraft:

(i) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations conducted by the U.S. Armed Forces.

(ii) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations under part 135 of this chapter conducted by an Examiner or Check Airman.

(iii) A pilot proficiency check on night vision goggle operations conducted by a night vision goggle manufacturer or authorized instructor, when the pilot—

(A) Is employed by a Federal, State, county, or municipal law enforcement agency; and

(B) Has logged at least 20 hours as pilot in command in night vision goggle operations.

(l) Additional aircraft model-specific flight training. No person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation unless that person has—

(1) Received and logged model-specific flight training from an authorized instructor in that aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of that model-specific aircraft with the simplified flight controls designation; and

(2) Received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who has found the person proficient in the safe operation of that model-specific aircraft and the associated simplified flight controls.

(m) Exceptions. (1) This section does not require a pilot to hold category and class ratings for an aircraft that is not identified by category or class under § 61.5(b).

(2) The rating limitations of this section do not apply to—

(i) An applicant when taking a practical test given by an examiner;

(ii) The holder of a student pilot certificate;

(iii) The holder of a pilot certificate when operating an aircraft under the authority of—

(A) A provisional type certificate; or

(B) An experimental certificate, unless the operation involves carrying a passenger;

(iv) The holder of a pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating when operating a balloon;

(v) The holder of a recreational pilot certificate operating under the provisions of § 61.101(h); or

(vi) The holder of a sport pilot certificate when operating an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; FAA-2023-1275; Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35212, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.33 Tests: General procedure.

Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons designated by the Administrator.

§ 61.35 Knowledge test: Prerequisites and passing grades.

(a) An applicant for a knowledge test must have:

(1) Received an endorsement, if required by this part, from an authorized instructor certifying that the applicant accomplished the appropriate ground-training or a home-study course required by this part for the certificate or rating sought and is prepared for the knowledge test;

(2) For the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating, a graduation certificate for the airline transport pilot certification training program specified in § 61.156; and

(3) Proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant's—

(i) Photograph;

(ii) Signature;

(iii) Date of birth, which shows:

(A) For issuance of certificates other than the ATP certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating, the applicant meets or will meet the age requirements of this part for the certificate sought before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and

(B) For issuance of an ATP certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating obtained under the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 or § 61.160, the applicant is at least 18 years of age at the time of the knowledge test;

(iv) If the permanent mailing address is a post office box number, then the applicant must provide a current residential address.

(b) The Administrator shall specify the minimum passing grade for the knowledge test.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42373, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]

§ 61.37 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

(a) An applicant for a knowledge test may not:

(1) Copy or intentionally remove any knowledge test;

(2) Give to another applicant or receive from another applicant any part or copy of a knowledge test;

(3) Give assistance on, or receive assistance on, a knowledge test during the period that test is being given;

(4) Take any part of a knowledge test on behalf of another person;

(5) Be represented by, or represent, another person for a knowledge test;

(6) Use any material or aid during the period that the test is being given, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Administrator; and

(7) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph.

(b) An applicant who the Administrator finds has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is prohibited, for 1 year after the date of committing that act, from:

(1) Applying for any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under this chapter; and

(2) Applying for and taking any test under this chapter.

(c) Any certificate or rating held by an applicant may be suspended or revoked if the Administrator finds that person has committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.

§ 61.39 Prerequisites for practical tests.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), (e), and (f) of this section, to be eligible for a practical test for a certificate or rating issued under this part, an applicant must:

(1) Pass the required knowledge test:

(i) Within the 24-calendar-month period preceding the month the applicant completes the practical test, if a knowledge test is required; or

(ii) Within the 60-calendar month period preceding the month the applicant completes the practical test for those applicants who complete the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156 and pass the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate with a multiengine class rating after July 31, 2014;

(2) Present the knowledge test report at the time of application for the practical test, if a knowledge test is required;

(3) Have satisfactorily accomplished the required training and obtained the aeronautical experience prescribed by this part for the certificate or rating sought, and:

(i) If applying for the practical test with flight time accomplished under § 61.159(c), present a copy of the records required by § 135.63(a)(4)(vi) and (x) of this chapter; or

(ii) If applying for a practical test for the issuance of an initial category and class rating (if a class rating is required) at the private, commercial, or airline transport pilot certificate level in an aircraft that requires a type rating or a flight simulator or flight training device that represents an aircraft that requires a type rating, meet the eligibility requirements for the type rating or already hold the type rating on their pilot certificate;

(4) Hold at least a third-class medical certificate, if a medical certificate is required;

(5) Meet the prescribed age requirement of this part for the issuance of the certificate or rating sought;

(6) Have an endorsement, if required by this part, in the applicant's logbook or training record that has been signed by an authorized instructor who certifies that the applicant—

(i) Has received and logged training time within 2 calendar months preceding the month of application in preparation for the practical test;

(ii) Is prepared for the required practical test; and

(iii) Has demonstrated satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas in which the applicant was deficient on the airman knowledge test; and

(7) Have a completed and signed application form.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, an applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating may take the practical test with an expired knowledge test only if the applicant passed the knowledge test after July 31, 2014, and is employed:

(1) As a flightcrew member by a part 119 certificate holder conducting operations under parts 125 or 135 of this chapter at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved pilot-in-command training or checking program; or

(2) As a flightcrew member by a part 119 certificate holder conducting operations under part 121 of this chapter at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved initial training program; or

(3) By the U.S. Armed Forces as a flightcrew member in U.S. military air transport operations at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily completed the pilot in command aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the pilot certificate and rating sought.

(c) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, an applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate with a rating other than those ratings set forth in paragraph (b) of this section may take the practical test for that certificate or rating with an expired knowledge test report, provided that the applicant is employed:

(2) By the U.S. Armed Forces as a flightcrew member in U.S. military air transport operations at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily completed the pilot in command aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the pilot certificate and rating sought.

(d) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, to be eligible for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating, an applicant must:

(1) If the applicant passed the knowledge test after July 31, 2014, present the graduation certificate for the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156, at the time of application for the practical test;

(2) If applying for the practical test under the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.160(a), the applicant must present the documents required by that section to substantiate eligibility; and

(3) If applying for the practical test under the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.160(b), (c), or (d), the applicant must present an official transcript and certifying document from an institution of higher education that holds a letter of authorization from the Administrator under § 61.169.

(e) An applicant for an airman certificate or rating issued under this part 61 may take a practical test with an expired knowledge test if the applicant meets the requirements specified in § 61.40.

(f) A person is not required to comply with the provisions of paragraph (a)(6) of this section if that person:

(1) Holds a foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation that authorizes at least the privileges of the pilot certificate sought;

(2) Is only applying for a type rating; or

(3) Is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate or an additional rating to an airline transport pilot certificate in an aircraft that does not require an aircraft type rating practical test.

(g) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or rating are not completed on the same date, then all the remaining increments of the test must be completed within 2 calendar months after the month the applicant began the test.

(h) If all increments of the practical test for a certificate or rating are not completed within 2 calendar months after the month the applicant began the test, the applicant must retake the entire practical test.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42373, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30726, June 27, 2018; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80049, Oct. 1, 2024; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.40 Relief for U.S. Military and civilian personnel who are assigned outside the United States in support of U.S. Armed Forces operations.

(a) Relief. A person who satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section may use the following documents to demonstrate eligibility to renew a flight instructor certificate, establish recent flight instructor experience, take a practical test, or renew an inspection authorization, as appropriate:

(1) For flight instructor certificates issued before December 1, 2024, an expired flight instructor certificate to show eligibility for renewal of a flight instructor certificate under § 61.197;

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, for flight instructor certificates issued after December 1, 2024, a record demonstrating the last recent experience event accomplished under § 61.197 to show eligibility to reestablish recent experience under § 61.197;

(3) For persons who were issued a flight instructor certificate after December 1, 2024, and who served in a U.S. military or civilian capacity outside the United States in support of a U.S. Armed Forces operation for some period of time during the 24 calendar months following the issuance of the person's flight instructor certificate, a flight instructor certificate demonstrating the date of issuance to show eligibility to establish recent experience under § 61.197;

(4) An expired written test report to show eligibility under this part to take a practical test;

(5) An expired written test report to show eligibility to take a practical test required under part 63 of this chapter; and

(6) An expired written test report to show eligibility to take a practical test required under part 65 of this chapter or an expired inspection authorization to show eligibility for renewal under § 65.93.

(b) Eligibility. A person is eligible for the relief specified in paragraph (a) of this section if that person meets the following requirements:

(1) The person must have served in a U.S. military or civilian capacity outside the United States in support of a U.S. Armed Forces operation during some period of time beginning on or after September 11, 2001;

(2) One of the following occurred while the person served in an operation as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or within 6 calendar months after returning to the United States—

(i) The person's flight instructor certificate issued before December 1, 2024, airman written test report, or inspection authorization expired; or

(ii) For flight instructor certificates issued after December 1, 2024, the person has not met the flight instructor recent experience requirements within the preceding 24 calendar months in accordance with § 61.197; and

(3) The person complies with § 61.197 or § 65.93 of this chapter, as appropriate, or completes the appropriate practical test within 6 calendar months after returning to the United States.

(c) Required documents. To exercise the relief specified in paragraph (a) of this section, a person must complete and sign an application appropriate to the relief sought and send the application to the appropriate Flight Standards office. The person must include with the application one of the following documents, which must show the date of assignment outside the United States and the date of return to the United States:

(1) An official U.S. Government notification of personnel action, or equivalent document, showing the person was a civilian on official duty for the U.S. Government outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces operation some time on or after September 11, 2001;

(2) Military orders validating the person was assigned to duty outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces operation some time on or after September 11, 2001; or

(3) A letter from the person's military commander or civilian supervisor providing the dates during which the person served outside the United States and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces operation some time on or after September 11, 2001.

[Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80050, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.41 Flight training received from flight instructors not certificated by the FAA.

(a) A person may credit flight training toward the requirements of a pilot certificate or rating issued under this part, if that person received the training from:

(1) A flight instructor of an Armed Force in a program for training military pilots of either—

(i) The United States; or

(ii) A foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

(2) A flight instructor who is authorized to give such training by the licensing authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, and the flight training is given outside the United States.

(b) A flight instructor described in paragraph (a) of this section is only authorized to give endorsements to show training given.

§ 61.43 Practical tests: General procedures.

(a) Completion of the practical test for a certificate or rating consists of—

(1) Performing the tasks specified in the areas of operation contained in the applicable Airman Certification Standards or Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part for the airman certificate or rating sought;

(2) Demonstrating mastery of the aircraft by performing each task required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section successfully;

(3) Demonstrating proficiency and competency of the tasks required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section within the approved standards; and

(4) Demonstrating sound judgment.

(b) The pilot flight crew complement required during the practical test is based on one of the following requirements that applies to the aircraft being used on the practical test:

(1) If the aircraft's FAA-approved flight manual requires the pilot flight crew complement be a single pilot, then the applicant must demonstrate single pilot proficiency on the practical test.

(2) If the aircraft's type certification data sheet requires the pilot flight crew complement be a single pilot, then the applicant must demonstrate single pilot proficiency on the practical test.

(3) If the FAA Flight Standardization Board report, FAA-approved aircraft flight manual, or aircraft type certification data sheet allows the pilot flight crew complement to be either a single pilot, or a pilot and a copilot, then the applicant may demonstrate single pilot proficiency or have a copilot on the practical test. If the applicant performs the practical test with a copilot, the limitation of “Second in Command Required” will be placed on the applicant's pilot certificate. The limitation may be removed if the applicant passes the practical test by demonstrating single-pilot proficiency in the aircraft in which single-pilot privileges are sought.

(d) An applicant is not eligible for a certificate or rating sought until all the areas of operation are passed.

(e) The examiner or the applicant may discontinue a practical test at any time:

(1) When the applicant fails one or more of the areas of operation; or

(2) Due to inclement weather conditions, aircraft airworthiness, or any other safety-of-flight concern.

(f) If a practical test is discontinued, the applicant is entitled credit for those areas of operation that were passed, but only if the applicant:

(1) Passes the remainder of the practical test within the 60-day period after the date the practical test was discontinued;

(2) Presents to the examiner for the retest the original notice of disapproval form or the letter of discontinuance form, as appropriate;

(3) Satisfactorily accomplishes any additional training needed and obtains the appropriate instructor endorsements, if additional training is required; and

(4) Presents to the examiner for the retest a properly completed and signed application.

(g) A practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate with category and class rating (if a class rating is required) in an aircraft that requires a type rating or in a flight simulation training device that represents an aircraft that requires a type rating includes the same tasks and maneuvers as a practical test for a type rating.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22517, Apr. 1, 2024; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.45 Practical tests: Required aircraft and equipment.

(a) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the practical test in a flight simulator or a flight training device, an applicant for a certificate or rating issued under this part must furnish:

(1) An aircraft of U.S. registry for each required test that—

(i) Is of the category, class, and type (if a class or type rating is required) for which the applicant is applying for a certificate or rating; and

(ii) Has a standard airworthiness certificate or special airworthiness certificate in the limited, primary, or light-sport category.

(2) At the discretion of the examiner who administers the practical test, the applicant may furnish—

(i) An aircraft that has an airworthiness certificate other than a standard airworthiness certificate or special airworthiness certificate in the limited, primary, or light-sport category, but that otherwise meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section;

(ii) An aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a class or type rating is required) of foreign registry that is properly certificated by the country of registry; or

(iii) A military aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if aircraft class and type are appropriate, for which the applicant is applying for a certificate or rating, and provided—

(A) The aircraft is under the direct operational control of the U.S. Armed Forces;

(B) The aircraft is airworthy under the maintenance standards of the U.S. Armed Forces; and

(C) The applicant has a letter from his or her commanding officer authorizing the use of the aircraft for the practical test.

(b) Required equipment (other than controls). (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an aircraft used for a practical test must have—

(i) The equipment for each area of operation required for the practical test;

(ii) No prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any of the areas of operation required for the practical test;

(iii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, at least two pilot stations with adequate visibility for each person to operate the aircraft safely; and

(iv) Cockpit and outside visibility adequate to evaluate the performance of the applicant when an additional jump seat is provided for the examiner.

(2) An applicant for a certificate or rating may use an aircraft with operating characteristics that preclude the applicant from performing all of the tasks required for the practical test. However, the applicant's certificate or rating, as appropriate, will be issued with an appropriate limitation.

(c) Required controls. Except for lighter-than-air aircraft, and a glider without an engine, an aircraft used for a practical test must have engine power controls and flight controls that are easily reached and operable in a conventional manner by both pilots, unless the Examiner determines that the practical test can be conducted safely in the aircraft without the controls easily reached by the Examiner.

(d) Simulated instrument flight equipment. An applicant for a practical test that involves maneuvering an aircraft solely by reference to instruments must furnish:

(1) Equipment on board the aircraft that permits the applicant to pass the areas of operation that apply to the rating sought; and

(2) A device that prevents the applicant from having visual reference outside the aircraft, but does not prevent the examiner from having visual reference outside the aircraft, and is otherwise acceptable to the Administrator.

(e) Aircraft with single controls. A practical test may be conducted in an aircraft having a single set of controls, provided the:

(1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test;

(2) Test does not involve a demonstration of instrument skills; and

(3) Proficiency of the applicant can be observed by an examiner who is in a position to observe the applicant.

(f) Conduct of a sport pilot practical test in an aircraft with a single seat. A practical test for a sport pilot certificate may be conducted in an aircraft having a single seat provided that the—

(1) Examiner agrees to conduct the test;

(2) Examiner is in a position to observe the operation of the aircraft and evaluate the proficiency of the applicant; and

(3) Pilot certificate of an applicant successfully passing the test is issued with a limitation “No passenger carriage and flight in a single-seat aircraft only.”

(g) Aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation. An applicant for a pilot certificate, rating, or privilege may use an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation for a practical test if—

(1) The examiner agrees to conduct the test;

(2) The examiner holds the appropriate category and class rating or privilege, the simplified flight controls model-specific aircraft endorsement, and an appropriate FAA designation to conduct the test;

(3) The examiner is able to assume control of the aircraft at any time, except if paragraph (f) of this section applies; and

(4) Upon successful completion of the practical test, the applicant is issued one of the following:

(i) A pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and specific make and model limitation in which the pilot is authorized to act as pilot in command; or

(ii) A sport pilot certificate with a logbook endorsement for the category and class of aircraft and a model specific limitation in which the pilot is authorized to act as pilot in command.

(h) Simplified flight controls limitation. A person who receives a category and class rating or privilege with a simplified flight controls limitation may operate only the specified make and model of aircraft set forth by the limitation unless the person satisfies the following requirements, as applicable:

(1) If seeking to operate another make and model of aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation in the same category and class, the person must receive training and an endorsement in accordance with § 61.31(l).

(2) Except as provided in § 61.321(a), if seeking to operate a different category and class of aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation as an initial applicant for that category and class rating or any aircraft without a simplified flight controls designation, the person must successfully complete a practical test for that category and class of aircraft.

§ 61.47 Status and responsibilities of an examiner who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct practical tests.

(a) An examiner represents the Administrator for the purpose of conducting practical tests for certificates and ratings issued under this part and to observe an applicant's ability to perform the areas of operation on the practical test.

(b) The examiner is not the pilot in command of the aircraft during the practical test unless the examiner agrees to act in that capacity for the flight or for a portion of the flight by prior arrangement with:

(1) The applicant; or

(2) A person who would otherwise act as pilot in command of the flight or for a portion of the flight.

(c) Notwithstanding the type of aircraft used during the practical test, the applicant and the examiner (and any other occupants authorized to be on board by the examiner) are not subject to the requirements or limitations for the carriage of passengers that are specified in this chapter.

(d) An examiner may not conduct a practical test for the issuance of an initial category and class rating (if a class rating is required) at the private, commercial, or airline transport pilot certificate level in an aircraft that requires a type rating or a flight simulator or flight training device that represents an aircraft that requires a type rating unless:

(1) The applicant meets the eligibility requirements for a type rating in that aircraft or already holds that type rating on their certificate; and

(2) The practical test contains the tasks and maneuvers for a type rating specified in the areas of operation at the airline transport pilot certification level.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997, as amended by FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.49 Retesting after failure.

(a) An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that test may reapply for the test only after the applicant has received:

(1) The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has determined that the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and

(2) An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant the additional training.

(b) An applicant for a flight instructor certificate with an airplane category rating or, for a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, who has failed the practical test due to deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery must:

(1) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section before being retested;

(2) Bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate aircraft category for the rating sought and is certificated for spins; and

(3) Demonstrate satisfactory instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery to an examiner during the retest.

§ 61.51 Pilot logbooks.

Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 80050, Oct. 1, 2024.

(a) Training time and aeronautical experience. Each person must document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the Administrator:

(1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review of this part.

(2) The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements of this part.

(b) Logbook entries. For the purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, each person must enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged:

(1) General—

(i) Date.

(ii) Total flight time or lesson time.

(iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for lessons in a full flight simulator or flight training device, the location where the lesson occurred.

(iv) Type and identification of aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, as appropriate.

(v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by § 91.109 of this chapter.

(2) Type of pilot experience or training—

(i) Solo.

(ii) Pilot in command.

(iii) Second in command.

(iv) Flight and ground training received from an authorized instructor.

(v) Training received in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device from an authorized instructor.

(3) Conditions of flight—

(i) Day or night.

(ii) Actual instrument.

(iii) Simulated instrument conditions in flight, a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device.

(iv) Use of night vision goggles in an aircraft in flight, in a full flight simulator, or in a flight training device.

(1) Apply for a certificate or rating issued under this part or a privilege authorized under this part; or

(2) Satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of this part.

(d) Logging of solo flight time. Except for a student pilot performing the duties of pilot in command of an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember, a pilot may log as solo flight time only that flight time when the pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft.

(e) Logging pilot-in-command flight time. (1) A sport, recreational, private, commercial, or airline transport pilot may log pilot in command flight time for flights-

(i) Except when logging flight time under § 61.159(c), when the pilot is the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated, or has sport pilot privileges for that category and class of aircraft, if the aircraft class rating is appropriate;

(ii) When the pilot is the sole occupant in the aircraft;

(iii) When the pilot, except for a holder of a sport or recreational pilot certificate, acts as pilot in command of an aircraft for which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted; or

(iv) When the pilot performs the duties of pilot in command while under the supervision of a qualified pilot in command provided—

(A) The pilot performing the duties of pilot in command holds a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate and aircraft rating that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft being flown, if a class rating is appropriate;

(B) The pilot performing the duties of pilot in command is undergoing an approved pilot in command training program that includes ground and flight training on the following areas of operation—

(1) Preflight preparation;

(2) Preflight procedures;

(3) Takeoff and departure;

(4) In-flight maneuvers;

(5) Instrument procedures;

(6) Landings and approaches to landings;

(7) Normal and abnormal procedures;

(8) Emergency procedures; and

(9) Postflight procedures;

(1) A commercial pilot certificate and flight instructor certificate, and aircraft rating that is appropriate to the category, class, and type of aircraft being flown, if a class or type rating is required; or

(2) An airline transport pilot certificate and aircraft rating that is appropriate to the category, class, and type of aircraft being flown, if a class or type rating is required; and

(D) The supervising pilot in command logs the pilot in command training in the pilot's logbook, certifies the pilot in command training in the pilot's logbook and attests to that certification with his or her signature, and flight instructor certificate number.

(2) If rated to act as pilot in command of the aircraft, an airline transport pilot may log all flight time while acting as pilot in command of an operation requiring an airline transport pilot certificate.

(3) A certificated flight instructor may log pilot in command flight time for all flight time while serving as the authorized instructor in an operation if the instructor is rated to act as pilot in command of that aircraft.

(4) A student pilot may log pilot-in-command time only when the student pilot—

(i) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft or is performing the duties of pilot of command of an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember;

(ii) Has a solo flight endorsement as required under § 61.87 of this part; and

(iii) Is undergoing training for a pilot certificate or rating.

(5) A commercial pilot or airline transport pilot may log all flight time while acting as pilot in command of an operation in accordance with § 135.99(c) of this chapter if the flight is conducted in accordance with an approved second-in-command professional development program that meets the requirements of § 135.99(c) of this chapter.

(f) Logging second-in-command flight time. A person may log second-in-command time only for that flight time during which that person:

(1) Is qualified in accordance with the second-in-command requirements of § 61.55, and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft's type certificate;

(2) Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if a class or instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted; or

(3) Serves as second-in-command in operations conducted in accordance with § 135.99(c) of this chapter when a second pilot is not required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted, provided the requirements in § 61.159(c) are satisfied; or

(4) Is designated by a government entity as second-in-command when operating in accordance with paragraph (j)(4) of this section, provided the aircraft used is a large aircraft or turbo-jet powered airplane or holds or originally held a type certificate that requires a second pilot provided that:

(i) Second-in-command time logged under this paragraph (f)(4) may not be used to meet the aeronautical experience requirements for the private or commercial pilot certificates or an instrument rating; and

(ii) An applicant for an airline transport pilot certificate who logs second in command time under this paragraph (f)(4) in an aircraft that is not type certificated for two pilots issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation if the applicant does not meet the ICAO requirements contained in Annex 1 “Personnel Licensing” to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under this paragraph (f)(4)(ii) when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the ICAO requirements and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 or § 61.161, as applicable.

(g) Logging instrument time. (1) A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

(2) An authorized instructor may log instrument time when conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions.

(3) For the purposes of logging instrument time to meet the recent instrument experience requirements of § 61.57(c) of this part, the following information must be recorded in the person's logbook—

(i) The location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; and

(ii) The name of the safety pilot, if required.

(4) A person may use time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience for a pilot certificate or rating provided an authorized instructor is present to observe that time and signs the person's logbook or training record to verify the time and the content of the training session.

(5) A person may use time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for satisfying instrument recency experience requirements provided a logbook or training record is maintained to specify the training device, time, and the content.

(h) Logging training time. (1) A person may log training time when that person receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device.

(2) The training time must be logged in a logbook and must:

(i) Be endorsed in a legible manner by the authorized instructor; and

(ii) Include a description of the training given, the length of the training lesson, and the authorized instructor's signature, certificate number, and certificate expiration date or recent experience end date, consistent with the requirements of § 61.197.

(i) Presentation of required documents. (1) Persons must present their pilot certificate, medical certificate, logbook, or any other record required by this part for inspection upon a reasonable request by—

(i) The Administrator;

(ii) An authorized representative from the National Transportation Safety Board; or

(iii) Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

(2) A student pilot must carry the following items in the aircraft on all solo cross-country flights as evidence of the required authorized instructor clearances and endorsements—

(i) Pilot logbook;

(ii) Student pilot certificate; and

(iii) Any other record required by this section.

(3) A sport pilot must carry his or her logbook or other evidence of required authorized instructor endorsements on all flights.

(4) A recreational pilot must carry his or her logbook with the required authorized instructor endorsements on all solo flights—

(i) That exceed 50 nautical miles from the airport at which training was received;

(ii) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control;

(iii) Conducted between sunset and sunrise; or

(iv) In an aircraft for which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating.

(5) A flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must carry his or her logbook or other evidence of required authorized instructor endorsements on all flights when providing flight training.

(j) Aircraft requirements for logging flight time. For a person to log flight time, the time must be acquired in an aircraft that is identified as an aircraft under § 61.5(b), and is—

(1) An aircraft of U.S. registry with either a standard or special airworthiness certificate;

(2) An aircraft of foreign registry with an airworthiness certificate that is approved by the aviation authority of a foreign country that is a Member State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation Organization;

(3) A military aircraft under the direct operational control of the U.S. Armed Forces; or

(4) An aircraft used to conduct a public aircraft operation under 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(41) and 40125.

(k) Logging night vision goggle time. (1) A person may log night vision goggle time only for the time the person uses night vision goggles as the primary visual reference of the surface and operates:

(i) An aircraft during a night vision goggle operation; or

(ii) A full flight simulator or flight training device with the lighting system adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

(2) An authorized instructor may log night vision goggle time when that person conducts training using night vision goggles as the primary visual reference of the surface and operates:

(i) An aircraft during a night goggle operation; or

(ii) A full flight simulator or flight training device with the lighting system adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

(3) To log night vision goggle time to meet the recent night vision goggle experience requirements under § 61.57(f), a person must log the information required under § 61.51(b).

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30277, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80050, Oct. 1, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80339, Oct. 2, 2024; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.52 Use of aeronautical experience obtained in ultralight vehicles.

(a) Before January 31, 2012, a person may use aeronautical experience obtained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the requirements for the following certificates and ratings issued under this part:

(1) A sport pilot certificate.

(2) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;

(3) A private pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control or powered parachute category rating.

(b) Before January 31, 2012, a person may use aeronautical experience obtained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the provisions of § 61.69.

(c) A person using aeronautical experience obtained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating specified in paragraph (a) of this section or the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section must—

(1) Have been a registered ultralight pilot with an FAA-recognized ultralight organization when that aeronautical experience was obtained;

(2) Document and log that aeronautical experience in accordance with the provisions for logging aeronautical experience specified by an FAA-recognized ultralight organization and in accordance with the provisions for logging pilot time in aircraft as specified in § 61.51;

(3) Obtain the aeronautical experience in a category and class of vehicle corresponding to the rating or privilege sought; and

(4) Provide the FAA with a certified copy of his or her ultralight pilot records from an FAA-recognized ultralight organization, that —

(i) Document that he or she is a registered ultralight pilot with that FAA-recognized ultralight organization; and

(ii) Indicate that he or she is recognized to operate the category and class of aircraft for which sport pilot privileges are sought.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010]

§ 61.53 Prohibition on operations during medical deficiency.

(a) Operations that require a medical certificate. Except as provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, no person who holds a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter may act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, while that person:

(1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation; or

(2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the person being unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation.

(b) Operations that do not require a medical certificate. For operations provided for in § 61.23(b) of this part, a person shall not act as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, while that person knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to operate the aircraft in a safe manner.

(c) Operations requiring a medical certificate or a U.S. driver's license. For operations provided for in § 61.23(c), a person must meet the provisions of—

(1) Paragraph (a) of this section if that person holds a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter and does not hold a U.S. driver's license.

(2) Paragraph (b) of this section if that person holds a U.S. driver's license.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.55 Second-in-command qualifications.

(a) A person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations requiring a second-in-command pilot flight crewmember only if that person meets the following requirements:

(1) Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating;

(2) Holds an instrument rating or privilege that applies to the aircraft being flown if the flight is under IFR;

(3) Holds at least a pilot type rating for the aircraft being flown unless the flight will be conducted as domestic flight operations within the United States airspace; and

(4) If serving as second-in-command of a powered-lift, satisfies the requirements specified in § 194.209 of this chapter.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may serve as a second-in-command of an aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or in operations requiring a second-in-command unless that person has within the previous 12 calendar months:

(1) Become familiar with the following information for the specific type aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested—

(i) Operational procedures applicable to the powerplant, equipment, and systems.

(ii) Performance specifications and limitations.

(iii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures.

(iv) Flight manual.

(v) Placards and markings.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, performed and logged pilot time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator that represents the type of aircraft for which second-in-command privileges are requested, which includes—

(i) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the flight controls;

(ii) Engine-out procedures and maneuvering with an engine out while executing the duties of pilot in command; and

(iii) Crew resource management training.

(c) If a person complies with the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which compliance with this section is required, then that person is considered to have accomplished the training and practice in the month it is due.

(d) A person may receive a second-in-command pilot type rating for an aircraft after satisfactorily completing the second-in-command familiarization training requirements under paragraph (b) of this section in that type of aircraft provided the training was completed within the 12 calendar months before the month of application for the SIC pilot type rating. The person must comply with the following application and pilot certification procedures:

(1) The person who provided the training must sign the applicant's logbook or training record after each lesson in accordance with § 61.51(h)(2) of this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official within the organization to sign the applicant's training records or logbook and make the required endorsement. The qualified management official must hold the position of Chief Pilot, Director of Training, Director of Operations, or another comparable management position within the organization that provided the training and must be in a position to verify the applicant's training records and that the training was given.

(2) The trainer or qualified management official must make an endorsement in the applicant's logbook that states “[Applicant's Name and Pilot Certificate Number] has demonstrated the skill and knowledge required for the safe operation of the [Type of Aircraft], relevant to the duties and responsibilities of a second in command.”

(3) If the applicant's flight experience and/or training records are in an electronic form, the applicant must present a paper copy of those records containing the signature of the trainer or qualified management official to a Flight Standards office or Examiner.

(4) The applicant must complete and sign an Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1, and present the application to a Flight Standards office or to an Examiner.

(5) The person who provided the ground and flight training to the applicant must sign the “Instructor's Recommendation” section of the Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1. In lieu of the trainer, it is permissible for a qualified management official within the organization to sign the applicant's FAA Form 8710-1.

(6) The applicant must appear in person at a Flight Standards office or to an Examiner with his or her logbook/training records and with the completed and signed FAA Form 8710-1.

(7) There is no practical test required for the issuance of the “SIC Privileges Only” pilot type rating.

(e) A person may receive a second-in-command pilot type rating for the type of aircraft after satisfactorily completing an approved second-in-command training program, proficiency check, or competency check under subpart K of part 91, part 125, or part 135, as appropriate, in that type of aircraft provided the training was completed within the 12 calendar months before the month of application for the SIC pilot type rating. The person must comply with the following application and pilot certification procedures:

(3) If the applicant's flight experience and/or training records are in an electronic form, the applicant must provide a paper copy of those records containing the signature of the trainer or qualified management official to a Flight Standards office, an Examiner, or an Aircrew Program Designee.

(4) The applicant must complete and sign an Airman Certificate and/or Rating Application, FAA Form 8710-1, and present the application to a Flight Standards office or to an Examiner or to an authorized Aircrew Program Designee.

(6) The applicant must appear in person at a Flight Standards office or to an Examiner or to an authorized Aircrew Program Designee with his or her logbook/training records and with the completed and signed FAA Form 8710-1.

(7) There is no practical test required for the issuance of the “SIC Privileges Only” pilot type rating.

(f) The familiarization training requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not apply to a person who is:

(1) Designated and qualified as pilot in command under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of aircraft;

(2) Designated as the second in command under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that specific type of aircraft;

(3) Designated as the second in command in that specific type of aircraft for the purpose of receiving flight training required by this section, and no passengers or cargo are carried on the aircraft; or

(4) Designated as a safety pilot for purposes required by § 91.109 of this chapter.

(g) The holder of a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class rating is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, provided the pilot:

(1) Is conducting a ferry flight, aircraft flight test, or evaluation flight of an aircraft's equipment; and

(2) Is not carrying any person or property on board the aircraft, other than necessary for conduct of the flight.

(h) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, a person may serve as second in command in that specific type aircraft, provided:

(1) The flight is conducted under day VFR or day IFR; and

(2) No person or property is carried on board the aircraft, other than necessary for conduct of the flight.

(i) The training under paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section and the training, proficiency check, and competency check under paragraph (e) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator that is used in accordance with an approved training course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter or under subpart K of part 91, part 121 or part 135 of this chapter.

(j) When an applicant for an initial second-in-command qualification for a particular type of aircraft receives all the training in a flight simulator, that applicant must satisfactorily complete one takeoff and one landing in an aircraft of the same type for which the qualification is sought. This requirement does not apply to an applicant who completes a proficiency check under part 121 or competency check under subpart K, part 91, part 125, or part 135 for the particular type of aircraft.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-113, 70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005; Amdt. 61-109, 70 FR 61890, Oct. 27, 2005; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92484, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.56 Flight review.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section, a flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training. The review must include:

(1) A review of the current general operating and flight rules of part 91 of this chapter; and

(2) A review of those maneuvers and procedures that, at the discretion of the person giving the review, are necessary for the pilot to demonstrate the safe exercise of the privileges of the pilot certificate.

(b) Glider pilots may substitute a minimum of three instructional flights in a glider, each of which includes a flight to traffic pattern altitude, in lieu of the 1 hour of flight training required in paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (g) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has—

(1) Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor and

(2) A logbook endorsed from an authorized instructor who gave the review certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review.

(d) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, passed any of the following need not accomplish the flight review required by this section:

(1) A pilot proficiency check or practical test conducted by an examiner, an approved pilot check airman, or a U.S. Armed Force, for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege.

(2) A practical test conducted by an examiner for one of the following:

(i) The issuance of a flight instructor certificate,

(ii) An additional rating on a flight instructor certificate,

(iii) To meet the recent experience requirements for a flight instructor certificate in accordance with § 61.197(b)(1); or

(iv) The reinstatement of flight instructor privileges in accordance with § 61.199(b)(2).

(e) A person who has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, satisfactorily accomplished one or more phases of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency program need not accomplish the flight review required by this section.

(f) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate need not accomplish the one hour of ground training specified in paragraph (a) of this section if that person has, within the period specified in paragraph (c) of this section, met one of the following requirements—

(1) Satisfactorily completed the recent experience requirements for a flight instructor certificate under § 61.197; or

(2) Reinstated the person's flight instructor privileges by satisfactorily completing an approved flight instructor refresher course in accordance with § 61.199(a)(1).

(g) A student pilot need not accomplish the flight review required by this section provided the student pilot is undergoing training for a certificate and has a current solo flight endorsement as required under § 61.87 of this part.

(h) The requirements of this section may be accomplished in combination with the requirements of § 61.57 and other applicable recent experience requirements at the discretion of the authorized instructor conducting the flight review.

(i) A flight simulator or flight training device may be used to meet the flight review requirements of this section subject to the following conditions:

(1) The flight simulator or flight training device must be used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(2) Unless the flight review is undertaken in a flight simulator that is approved for landings, the applicant must meet the takeoff and landing requirements of § 61.57(a) or § 61.57(b) of this part.

(3) The flight simulator or flight training device used must represent an aircraft or set of aircraft for which the pilot is rated.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80050, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in command.

(a) General experience. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or of an aircraft certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember unless that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, and—

(i) The person acted as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; and

(ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a class or type rating is required), and, if the aircraft to be flown is an airplane with a tailwheel, the takeoffs and landings must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tailwheel.

(2) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft under day VFR or day IFR, provided no persons or property are carried on board the aircraft, other than those necessary for the conduct of the flight.

(3) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is—

(i) Approved by the Administrator for landings; and

(ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(b) Night takeoff and landing experience. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, and—

(i) That person acted as sole manipulator of the flight controls; and

(ii) The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a class or type rating is required).

(2) The takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be accomplished in a full flight simulator that is—

(i) Approved by the Administrator for takeoffs and landings, if the visual system is adjusted to represent the period described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and

(ii) Used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(c) Instrument experience. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command under IFR or weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR only if:

(1) Use of an airplane, powered-lift, helicopter, or airship for maintaining instrument experience. Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performed and logged at least the following tasks and iterations in an airplane, powered-lift, helicopter, or airship, as appropriate, for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained in actual weather conditions, or under simulated conditions using a view-limiting device that involves having performed the following—

(i) Six instrument approaches.

(ii) Holding procedures and tasks.

(iii) Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems.

(2) Use of a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for maintaining instrument experience. A pilot may accomplish the requirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A person may complete the instrument experience in any combination of an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device.

(3) Maintaining instrument recent experience in a glider.

(i) Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person must have performed and logged at least the following instrument currency tasks, iterations, and flight time, and the instrument currency must have been performed in actual weather conditions or under simulated weather conditions—

(A) One hour of instrument flight time in a glider or in a single engine airplane using a view-limiting device while performing interception and tracking courses through the use of navigation electronic systems.

(B) Two hours of instrument flight time in a glider or a single engine airplane with the use of a view-limiting device while performing straight glides, turns to specific headings, steep turns, flight at various airspeeds, navigation, and slow flight and stalls.

(ii) Before a pilot is allowed to carry a passenger in a glider under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR, that pilot must—

(A) Have logged and performed 2 hours of instrument flight time in a glider within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight.

(B) Use a view-limiting-device while practicing performance maneuvers, performance airspeeds, navigation, slow flight, and stalls.

(d) Instrument proficiency check. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a person who has failed to meet the instrument experience requirements of paragraph (c) of this section for more than six calendar months may reestablish instrument currency only by completing an instrument proficiency check. The instrument proficiency check must include the areas of operation contained in the applicable Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part as appropriate to the rating held.

(2) The instrument proficiency check must be—

(i) In an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category;

(ii) For other than a glider, in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of the aircraft category; or

(iii) For a glider, in a single-engine airplane or a glider.

(3) The instrument proficiency check must be given by—

(i) An examiner;

(ii) A person authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct instrument flight tests, provided the person being tested is a member of the U.S. Armed Forces;

(iii) A company check pilot who is authorized to conduct instrument flight tests under part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter or subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, and provided that both the check pilot and the pilot being tested are employees of that operator or fractional ownership program manager, as applicable;

(iv) An authorized instructor; or

(v) A person approved by the Administrator to conduct instrument practical tests.

(e) Exceptions. (1) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 125 when the pilot is engaged in a flight operation for that certificate holder if the pilot in command is in compliance with §§ 125.281 and 125.285 of this chapter.

(2) This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121 when the pilot is engaged in a flight operation under part 91 or 121 for that certificate holder if the pilot in command complies with §§ 121.436 and 121.439 of this chapter.

(3) This section does not apply to a pilot in command who is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 135 when the pilot is engaged in a flight operation under parts 91 or 135 for that certificate holder if the pilot in command is in compliance with §§ 135.243 and 135.247 of this chapter.

(4) Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to a pilot in command of a turbine-powered airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, provided that pilot has complied with the requirements of paragraph (e)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section:

(i) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and:

(A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experience as a pilot;

(B) In each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, that pilot must have accomplished and logged the daytime takeoff and landing recent flight experience of paragraph (a) of this section, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls;

(C) Within the preceding 90 days prior to the operation of that airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, the pilot must have accomplished and logged at least 15 hours of flight time in the type of airplane that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative; and

(D) That pilot has accomplished and logged at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls, in a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The pilot must have performed the takeoffs and landings during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise within the preceding 6 months prior to the month of the flight.

(ii) The pilot in command must hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class, and type rating for each airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks to operate under this alternative, and:

(A) That pilot must have logged at least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experience as a pilot;

(D) Within the preceding 12 months prior to the month of the flight, the pilot must have completed a training program that is approved under part 142 of this chapter. The approved training program must have required and the pilot must have performed, at least 6 takeoffs and 6 landings to a full stop as the sole manipulator of the controls in a full flight simulator that is representative of a turbine-powered airplane that requires more than one pilot crewmember. The full flight simulator's visual system must have been adjusted to represent the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

(5) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to a person receiving flight training from an authorized instructor, provided:

(i) The flight training is limited to the purpose of meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section;

(ii) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the person receiving flight training meets all other requirements to act as pilot in command of the aircraft; and

(iii) The authorized instructor and the person receiving flight training are the sole occupants of the aircraft.

(6) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to the examiner or the applicant during a practical test required by this part.

(f) Night vision goggle operating experience. (1) A person may act as pilot in command in a night vision goggle operation with passengers on board only if, within 2 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performs and logs the following tasks as the sole manipulator of the controls on a flight during a night vision goggle operation—

(i) Three takeoffs and three landings, with each takeoff and landing including a climbout, cruise, descent, and approach phase of flight (only required if the pilot wants to use night vision goggles during the takeoff and landing phases of the flight).

(ii) Three hovering tasks (only required if the pilot wants to use night vision goggles when operating helicopters or powered-lifts during the hovering phase of flight).

(iii) Three area departure and area arrival tasks.

(iv) Three tasks of transitioning from aided night flight (aided night flight means that the pilot uses night vision goggles to maintain visual surface reference) to unaided night flight (unaided night flight means that the pilot does not use night vision goggles) and back to aided night flight.

(v) Three night vision goggle operations, or when operating helicopters or powered-lifts, six night vision goggle operations.

(2) A person may act as pilot in command using night vision goggles only if, within the 4 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performs and logs the tasks listed in paragraph (f)(1)(i) through (v) of this section as the sole manipulator of the controls during a night vision goggle operation.

(g) Night vision goggle proficiency check. A person must either meet the night vision goggle experience requirements of paragraphs (f)(1) or (f)(2) of this section or pass a night vision goggle proficiency check to act as pilot in command using night vision goggles. The proficiency check must be performed in the category of aircraft that is appropriate to the night vision goggle operation for which the person is seeking the night vision goggle privilege or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of that category of aircraft. The check must consist of the tasks listed in § 61.31(k), and the check must be performed by:

(1) An Examiner who is qualified to perform night vision goggle operations in that same aircraft category and class (if a class rating is required);

(2) A person who is authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to perform night vision goggle proficiency checks, provided the person being administered the check is also a member of the U.S. Armed Forces;

(3) A company check pilot who is authorized to perform night vision goggle proficiency checks under parts 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter, provided that both the check pilot and the pilot being tested are employees of that operator;

(4) An authorized flight instructor who is qualified to perform night vision goggle operations in that same aircraft category and class (if a class rating is required);

(5) A person who is qualified as pilot in command for night vision goggle operations in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section; or

(6) A person approved by the FAA to perform night vision goggle proficiency checks.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997]

Editorial Note:For Federal Register citations affecting § 61.57, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.

§ 61.58 Pilot-in-command proficiency check: Operation of an aircraft that requires more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, to serve as pilot in command of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered, a person must—

(1) Within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered; and

(2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which that person will serve as pilot in command, that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered.

(b) This section does not apply to persons conducting operations under subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, 133, 135, or 137 of this chapter, or persons maintaining continuing qualification under an Advanced Qualification program approved under subpart Y of part 121 of this chapter.

(c) The pilot-in-command proficiency check given in accordance with the provisions of subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section.

(d) The pilot-in-command proficiency check required by paragraph (a) of this section may be accomplished by satisfactory completion of one of the following:

(1) A pilot-in-command proficiency check conducted by a person authorized by the Administrator, consisting of the areas of operation contained in the applicable Airman Certification Standards or Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14); as listed in appendix A of this part appropriate to the rating held, in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet powered;

(2) The practical test required for a type rating, in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered;

(3) The initial or periodic practical test required for the issuance of a pilot examiner or check airman designation, in an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered;

(4) A pilot proficiency check administered by a U.S. Armed Force that qualifies the military pilot for pilot-in-command designation with instrument privileges, and was performed in a military aircraft that the military requires to be operated by more than one pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-powered;

(5) For a pilot authorized by the Administrator to operate an experimental turbojet-powered aircraft that possesses, by original design or through modification, more than a single seat, the required proficiency check for all of the experimental turbojet-powered aircraft for which the pilot holds an authorization may be accomplished by completing any one of the following:

(i) A single proficiency check, conducted by an examiner authorized by the Administrator, in any one of the experimental turbojet-powered aircraft for which the airman holds an authorization to operate if conducted within the prior 12 months;

(ii) A single proficiency check, conducted by an examiner authorized by the Administrator, in any experimental turbojet-powered aircraft (e.g., if a pilot acquires a new authorization to operate an additional experimental turbojet-powered aircraft, the check for that new authorization will meet the intent), if conducted within the prior 12 months;

(iii) Current qualification under an Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) under subpart Y of part 121 of this chapter;

(iv) Any proficiency check conducted under subpart K of part 91, part 121, or part 135 of this chapter within the prior 12 months if conducted in a turbojet-powered aircraft; or

(v) Any other § 61.58 proficiency check conducted within the prior 12 months if conducted in a turbojet-powered aircraft.

(e) The pilot of a multi-seat experimental turbojet-powered aircraft who has not received a proficiency check within the prior 12 months in accordance with this section may continue to operate such aircraft in accordance with the pilot's authorizations. However, the pilot is prohibited from carriage of any persons in any experimental turbojet-powered aircraft with the exception of those individuals authorized by the Administrator to conduct training, conduct flight checks, or perform pilot certification functions in such aircraft, and only during flights specifically related to training, flight checks, or certification in such aircraft.

(f) This section will not apply to a pilot authorized by the Administrator to serve as pilot in command in experimental turbojet-powered aircraft that possesses, by original design, a single seat, when operating such single-seat aircraft.

(g) A check or test described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section may be accomplished in a flight simulator under part 142 of this chapter, subject to the following:

(1) Except as provided for in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, if an otherwise qualified and approved flight simulator used for a pilot-in-command proficiency check is not qualified and approved for a specific required maneuver—

(i) The training center must annotate, in the applicant's training record, the maneuver or maneuvers omitted; and

(ii) Prior to acting as pilot in command, the pilot must demonstrate proficiency in each omitted maneuver in an aircraft or flight simulator qualified and approved for each omitted maneuver.

(2) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section is not qualified and approved for circling approaches—

(i) The applicant's record must include the statement, “Proficiency in circling approaches not demonstrated”; and

(ii) The applicant may not perform circling approaches as pilot in command when weather conditions are less than the basic VFR conditions described in § 91.155 of this chapter, until proficiency in circling approaches has been successfully demonstrated in a flight simulator qualified and approved for circling approaches or in an aircraft to a person authorized by the Administrator to conduct the check required by this section.

(3) If the flight simulator used pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section is not qualified and approved for landings, the applicant must—

(i) Hold a type rating in the airplane represented by the simulator; and

(ii) Have completed within the preceding 90 days at least three takeoffs and three landings (one to a full stop) as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in the type airplane for which the pilot-in-command proficiency check is sought.

(h) For the purpose of meeting the pilot-in-command proficiency check requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a person may act as pilot in command of a flight under day VFR conditions or day IFR conditions if no person or property is carried, other than as necessary to demonstrate compliance with this part.

(i) If a pilot takes the pilot-in-command proficiency check required by this section in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the pilot is considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when the next pilot-in-command proficiency check is due.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 40899, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-112, 70 FR 54814, Sept. 16, 2005; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54106, Aug. 31, 2011; 76 FR 63184, Oct. 12, 2011; Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 61-151, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022; Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22517, Apr. 1, 2024]

§ 61.59 [Reserved]

§ 61.60 Change of address.

The holder of a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the holder has notified in writing the FAA, Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the new permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the holder's current residential address.

Subpart B Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations

§ 61.61 Applicability.

This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of additional aircraft ratings after a pilot certificate is issued, issuance of a type rating concurrently with a pilot certificate, and the requirements for and limitations of pilot authorizations issued by the Administrator.

[Docket FAA-2006-26661, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011]

§ 61.63 Additional aircraft ratings (other than for ratings at the airline transport pilot certification level).

(a) General. For an additional aircraft rating on a pilot certificate, other than for an airline transport pilot certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this section appropriate to the additional aircraft rating sought.

(b) Additional aircraft category rating. A person who applies to add a category rating to a pilot certificate:

(1) Must complete the training and have the applicable aeronautical experience.

(2) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor attesting that the person was found competent in the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the appropriate areas of operation.

(3) Must pass the practical test.

(4) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, weight-shift-control aircraft, powered parachute, or airship rating at that pilot certificate level.

(1) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor attesting that the person was found competent in the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the appropriate areas of operation.

(2) Must pass the practical test.

(3) Need not meet the specified training time requirements prescribed by this part that apply to the pilot certificate for the aircraft class rating sought; unless, the person only holds a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating and is seeking an airship class rating, then that person must receive the specified training time requirements and possess the appropriate aeronautical experience.

(d) Additional aircraft type rating. Except as provided under paragraph (d)(6) of this section, a person who applies for an aircraft type rating or an aircraft type rating to be completed concurrently with an aircraft category or class rating—

(1) Must hold or concurrently obtain an appropriate instrument rating, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section.

(2) Must have a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor attesting that the person is competent in the appropriate aeronautical knowledge areas and proficient in the appropriate areas of operation at the airline transport pilot certification level.

(3) Must pass the practical test at the airline transport pilot certification level.

(4) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section.

(5) Need not take an additional knowledge test if the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating on the pilot certificate.

(6) In the case of a pilot employee of a part 121 or part 135 certificate holder or of a fractional ownership program manager under subpart K of part 91 of this chapter, the pilot must—

(i) Meet the appropriate requirements under paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(3), and (d)(4) of this section; and

(ii) Receive a flight training record endorsement from the certificate holder attesting that the person completed the certificate holder's approved ground and flight training program.

(e) Aircraft not capable of instrument maneuvers and procedures. (1) An applicant for a type rating or a type rating in addition to an aircraft category and/or class rating who provides an aircraft that is not capable of the instrument maneuvers and procedures required on the practical test:

(i) May apply for the type rating, but the rating will be limited to “VFR only.”

(ii) May have the “VFR only” limitation removed for that aircraft type after the applicant:

(A) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft in actual or simulated instrument conditions;

(B) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft on the appropriate instrument maneuvers and procedures in § 61.157; or

(2) When an instrument rating is issued to a person who holds one or more type ratings, the amended pilot certificate must bear the “VFR only” limitation for each aircraft type rating that the person did not demonstrate instrument competency.

(f) Multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant for a type rating, at other than the ATP certification level, in a multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in the multi-seat version of that airplane, or the practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test and there is no multi-seat version of that multiengine airplane.

(g) Single engine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant for a type rating, at other than the ATP certification level, in a single engine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in the multi-seat version of that single engine airplane, or the practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test and there is no multi-seat version of that single engine airplane.

(h) [Reserved]

(i) Waiver authority. An Examiner who conducts a practical test may waive any task for which the FAA has provided waiver authority.

[Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42552, Aug. 21, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.64 Use of a flight simulator and flight training device.

(a) Use of a flight simulator or flight training device. If an applicant for a certificate or rating uses a flight simulator or flight training device for training or any portion of the practical test, the flight simulator and flight training device—

(1) Must represent the category, class, and type (if a class or type rating is applicable) for the rating sought; and

(2) Must be qualified and approved by the Administrator and used in accordance with an approved course of training under part 141 or part 142 of this chapter; or under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, provided the applicant is a pilot employee of that air carrier operator.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if an airplane is not used during the practical test for a type rating for a turbojet airplane (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and the applicant must—

(1) Hold a type rating in a turbojet airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, and that type rating may not contain a supervised operating experience limitation;

(2) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different turbojet airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought;

(3) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command in a turbojet airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought;

(4) Have 500 hours of flight time in the same type of airplane for which the type rating is sought; or

(5) Have logged at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours were in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought.

(c) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if an airplane is not used during the practical test for a type rating for a turbo-propeller airplane (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and the applicant must—

(1) Hold a type rating in a turbo-propeller airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought, and that type rating may not contain a supervised operating experience limitation;

(2) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different turbo-propeller airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought;

(3) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command in a turbo-propeller airplane of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought;

(4) Have 500 hours of flight time in the same type of airplane for which the type rating is sought; or

(5) Have logged at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours were in turbine-powered airplanes of the same class of airplane for which the type rating is sought.

(d) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if a helicopter is not used during the practical test for a type rating in a helicopter (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and the applicant must meet one of the following requirements—

(1) Hold a type rating in a helicopter and that type rating may not contain the supervised operating experience limitation;

(2) Have been appointed by the U.S. Armed Forces as pilot in command of a helicopter;

(3) Have 500 hours of flight time in the type of helicopter; or

(4) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in two different types of helicopters.

(e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if a powered-lift is not used during the practical test for a type rating in a powered-lift (except for preflight inspection), an applicant must accomplish the entire practical test in a Level C or higher flight simulator and have 500 hours of flight time in the type of powered-lift for which the rating is sought.

(f) If the applicant does not meet one of the experience requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (5), paragraphs (c)(1) through (5), paragraphs (d)(1) through (4), or paragraph (e) of this section, as appropriate to the type rating sought, then—

(1) The applicant must complete the following tasks on the practical test in an aircraft appropriate to category, class, and type for the rating sought: Preflight inspection, normal takeoff, normal instrument landing system approach, missed approach, and normal landing; or

(2) The applicant's pilot certificate will be issued with a limitation that states: “The [name of the additional type rating] is subject to pilot in command limitations,” and the applicant is restricted from serving as pilot in command in an aircraft of that type.

(g) The limitation described under paragraph (f)(2) of this section may be removed from the pilot certificate if the applicant complies with the following—

(1) Performs 25 hours of flight time in an aircraft of the appropriate category, class (if a class rating is required), and type for which the limitation applies under the direct observation of the pilot in command who holds a category, class (if a class rating is required), and type rating, without limitations, for the aircraft;

(2) Logs each flight and the pilot in command who observed the flight attests in writing to each flight;

(3) Obtains the flight time while performing the duties of pilot in command; and

(4) Presents evidence of the supervised operating experience to any Examiner or Flight Standards office to have the limitation removed.

[Docket FAA-2006-26661, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.65 Instrument rating requirements.

(a) General. A person who applies for an instrument rating must:

(1) Hold at least a current private pilot certificate, or be concurrently applying for a private pilot certificate, with an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift rating appropriate to the instrument rating sought;

(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet any of these requirements due to a medical condition, the Administrator may place such operating limitations on the applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft;

(3) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or accomplish a home-study course of training on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the instrument rating sought;

(4) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required knowledge test;

(5) Receive and log training on the areas of operation of paragraph (c) of this section from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, or flight training device that represents an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the instrument rating sought;

(6) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required practical test;

(7) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section; however, an applicant is not required to take another knowledge test when that person already holds an instrument rating; and

(8) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation in paragraph (c) of this section in—

(i) An airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the rating sought; or

(ii) A full flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate to the rating sought and for the specific maneuver or instrument approach procedure performed. If an approved flight training device is used for the practical test, the instrument approach procedures conducted in that flight training device are limited to one precision and one nonprecision approach, provided the flight training device is approved for the procedure performed.

(b) Aeronautical knowledge. A person who applies for an instrument rating must have received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor or accomplished a home-study course on the following aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating sought:

(1) Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that apply to flight operations under IFR;

(2) Appropriate information that applies to flight operations under IFR in the “Aeronautical Information Manual;”

(3) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight operations;

(4) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems;

(5) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts;

(6) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts and the elements of forecasting weather trends based on that information and personal observation of weather conditions;

(7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight rules and conditions;

(8) Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear avoidance;

(9) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and

(10) Crew resource management, including crew communication and coordination.

(c) Flight proficiency. A person who applies for an instrument rating must receive and log training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, that includes the following areas of operation:

(1) Preflight preparation;

(2) Preflight procedures;

(3) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;

(4) Flight by reference to instruments;

(5) Navigation systems;

(6) Instrument approach procedures;

(7) Emergency operations; and

(8) Postflight procedures.

(d) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-airplane rating. A person who applies for an instrument-airplane rating must have logged:

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of cross-country time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must have been in an airplane; and

(2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an instrument-airplane rating, and the instrument time includes:

(i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that is appropriate to the instrument-airplane rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; and

(ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, including one cross country flight in an airplane with an authorized instructor, that is performed under instrument flight rules, when a flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, and that involves—

(A) A flight of 250 nautical miles along airways or by directed routing from an air traffic control facility;

(B) An instrument approach at each airport; and

(e) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-helicopter rating. A person who applies for an instrument-helicopter rating must have logged:

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of cross-country time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must have been in a helicopter; and

(2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas of operation listed under paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 hours must have been with an authorized instructor who holds an instrument-helicopter rating, and the instrument time includes:

(i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in a helicopter that is appropriate to the instrument-helicopter rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; and

(ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, including one cross country flight in a helicopter with an authorized instructor that is performed under instrument flight rules and a flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, and involves—

(A) A flight of 100 nautical miles along airways or by directed routing from an air traffic control facility;

(B) An instrument approach at each airport; and

(f) Aeronautical experience for the instrument-powered-lift rating. A person who applies for an instrument-powered-lift rating must have logged:

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, 50 hours of cross-country time as pilot in command, of which 10 hours must have been in a powered-lift; and

(2) Forty hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the areas of operation listed under paragraph (c) of this section, of which 15 hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an instrument-powered-lift rating, and the instrument time includes:

(i) Three hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in a powered-lift that is appropriate to the instrument-powered-lift rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; and

(ii) Instrument flight training on cross country flight procedures, including one cross country flight in a powered-lift with an authorized instructor that is performed under instrument flight rules, when a flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, that involves—

(A) A flight of 250 nautical miles along airways or by directed routing from an air traffic control facility;

(B) An instrument approach at each airport; and

(g) An applicant for a combined private pilot certificate with an instrument rating may satisfy the cross-country time requirements of this section by crediting:

(1) For an instrument-airplane rating or an instrument-powered-lift rating, up to 45 hours of cross-country time performing the duties of pilot in command with an authorized instructor; or

(2) For an instrument-helicopter rating, up to 47 hours of cross-country time performing the duties of pilot in command with an authorized instructor.

(h) Use of full flight simulators or flight training devices. If the instrument time was provided by an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device—

(1) A maximum of 30 hours may be performed in that full flight simulator or flight training device if the instrument time was completed in accordance with part 142 of this chapter; or

(2) A maximum of 20 hours may be performed in that full flight simulator or flight training device if the instrument time was not completed in accordance with part 142 of this chapter.

(i) Use of an aviation training device. A maximum of 10 hours of instrument time received in a basic aviation training device or a maximum of 20 hours of instrument time received in an advanced aviation training device may be credited for the instrument time requirements of this section if—

(1) The device is approved and authorized by the FAA;

(2) An authorized instructor provides the instrument time in the device; and

(3) The FAA approved the instrument training and instrument tasks performed in the device.

(j) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, a person may not credit more than 20 total hours of instrument time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, aviation training device, or a combination towards the instrument time requirements of this section.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42554, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-127, 76 FR 19267, Apr. 7, 2011; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54106, Aug. 31, 2011; Docket FAA-2015-1846, Amdt. 61-136, 81 FR 21460, Apr. 12, 2016; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.66 Enhanced Flight Vision System Pilot Requirements.

(a) Ground training. (1) Except as provided under paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft or act as pilot in command of an aircraft during an EFVS operation conducted under § 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter, or serve as a required pilot flightcrew member during an EFVS operation conducted under § 91.176(a) of this chapter, unless that person—

(i) Receives and logs ground training under a training program approved by the Administrator; and

(ii) Obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized training provider certifying the person satisfactorily completed the ground training appropriate to the category of aircraft for which the person is seeking the EFVS privilege.

(2) The ground training must include the following subjects:

(i) Those portions of this chapter that relate to EFVS flight operations and limitations, including the Airplane Flight Manual or Rotorcraft Flight Manual limitations;

(ii) EFVS sensor imagery, required aircraft flight information, and flight symbology;

(iii) EFVS display, controls, modes, features, symbology, annunciations, and associated systems and components;

(iv) EFVS sensor performance, sensor limitations, scene interpretation, visual anomalies, and other visual effects;

(v) Preflight planning and operational considerations associated with using EFVS during taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent and landing phases of flight, including the use of EFVS for instrument approaches, operating below DA/DH or MDA, executing missed approaches, landing, rollout, and balked landings;

(vi) Weather associated with low visibility conditions and its effect on EFVS performance;

(vii) Normal, abnormal, emergency, and crew coordination procedures when using EFVS; and

(viii) Interpretation of approach and runway lighting systems and their display characteristics when using an EFVS.

(b) Flight training. (1) Except as provided under paragraph (h) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft or act as pilot in command of an aircraft during an EFVS operation under § 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter unless that person—

(i) Receives and logs flight training for the EFVS operation under a training program approved by the Administrator; and

(ii) Obtains a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized training provider certifying the person is proficient in the use of EFVS in the category of aircraft in which the training was provided for the EFVS operation to be conducted.

(2) Flight training must include the following tasks:

(i) Preflight and inflight preparation of EFVS equipment for EFVS operations, including EFVS setup and use of display, controls, modes and associated systems, and adjustments for brightness and contrast under day and night conditions;

(ii) Proper piloting techniques associated with using EFVS during taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, landing, and rollout, including missed approaches and balked landings;

(iii) Proper piloting techniques for the use of EFVS during instrument approaches, to include operations below DA/DH or MDA as applicable to the EFVS operations to be conducted, under both day and night conditions;

(iv) Determining enhanced flight visibility;

(v) Identifying required visual references appropriate to EFVS operations;

(vi) Transitioning from EFVS sensor imagery to natural vision acquisition of required visual references and the runway environment;

(vii) Using EFVS sensor imagery, required aircraft flight information, and flight symbology to touchdown and rollout, if the person receiving training will conduct EFVS operations under § 91.176(a) of this chapter; and

(viii) Normal, abnormal, emergency, and crew coordination procedures when using an EFVS.

(c) Supplementary EFVS training. A person qualified to conduct an EFVS operation under § 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter who seeks to conduct an additional EFVS operation for which that person has not received training must—

(1) Receive and log the ground and flight training required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, under a training program approved by the Administrator, appropriate to the additional EFVS operation to be conducted; and

(2) Obtain a logbook or training record endorsement from the authorized training provider certifying the person is proficient in the use of EFVS in the category of aircraft in which the training was provided for the EFVS operation to be conducted.

(d) Recent flight experience: EFVS. Except as provided in paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section, no person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft during an EFVS operation or act as pilot in command of an aircraft during an EFVS operation unless, within 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performs and logs six instrument approaches as the sole manipulator of the controls using an EFVS under any weather conditions in the category of aircraft for which the person seeks the EFVS privilege. The instrument approaches may be performed in day or night conditions; and

(1) One approach must terminate in a full stop landing; and

(2) For persons authorized to exercise the privileges of § 91.176(a), the full stop landing must be conducted using the EFVS.

(e) EFVS refresher training. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, a person who has failed to meet the recent flight experience requirements of paragraph (d) of this section for more than six calendar months may reestablish EFVS currency only by satisfactorily completing an approved EFVS refresher course in the category of aircraft for which the person seeks the EFVS privilege. The EFVS refresher course must consist of the subjects and tasks listed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2) of this section applicable to the EFVS operations to be conducted.

(2) The EFVS refresher course must be conducted by an authorized training provider whose instructor meets the training requirements of this section and, if conducting EFVS operations in an aircraft, the recent flight experience requirements of this section.

(f) Military pilots and former military pilots in the U.S. Armed Forces. (1) The training requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section applicable to EFVS operations conducted under § 91.176(a) of this chapter do not apply to a military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces if that person documents satisfactory completion of ground and flight training in EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout by the U.S. Armed Forces.

(2) The training requirements in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section applicable to EFVS operations conducted under § 91.176(b) of this chapter do not apply to a military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces if that person documents satisfactory completion of ground and flight training in EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation by the U.S. Armed Forces.

(3) A military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces may satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of paragraph (d) of this section if he or she documents satisfactory completion of an EFVS proficiency check in the U.S. Armed Forces within 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, the check was conducted by a person authorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to administer the check, and the person receiving the check was a member of the U.S. Armed Forces at the time the check was administered.

(g) Use of full flight simulators. A level C or higher full flight simulator (FFS) equipped with an EFVS may be used to meet the flight training, recent flight experience, and refresher training requirements of this section. The FFS must be evaluated and qualified for EFVS operations by the Administrator, and must be:

(1) Qualified and maintained in accordance with part 60 of this chapter, or a previously qualified device, as permitted in accordance with § 60.17 of this chapter;

(2) Approved by the Administrator for the tasks and maneuvers to be conducted; and

(3) Equipped with a daylight visual display if being used to meet the flight training requirements of this section.

(h) Exceptions. (1) A person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft during an EFVS operation without meeting the requirements of this section in the following circumstances:

(i) When receiving flight training to meet the requirements of this section under an approved training program, provided the instructor meets the requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in the category of aircraft for which the training is being conducted.

(ii) During an EFVS operation performed in the course of satisfying the recent flight experience requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, provided another individual is serving as pilot in command of the aircraft during the EFVS operation and that individual meets the requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in the category of aircraft in which the flight is being conducted.

(iii) During an EFVS operation performed in the course of completing EFVS refresher training in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, provided the instructor providing the refresher training meets the requirements in this section to perform the EFVS operation in the category of aircraft for which the training is being conducted.

(2) The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply if a person is conducting a flight or series of flights in an aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate under § 21.191 of this chapter for the purpose of research and development or showing compliance with regulations, provided the person has knowledge of the subjects specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and has experience with the tasks specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section applicable to the EFVS operations to be conducted.

(3) The requirements specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section do not apply to a pilot who:

(i) Is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121, 125, or 135 when the pilot is conducting an EFVS operation for that certificate holder under part 91, 121, 125, or 135, as applicable, provided the pilot conducts the operation in accordance with the certificate holder's operations specifications for EFVS operations;

(ii) Is employed by a person who holds a letter of deviation authority issued under § 125.3 of this chapter when the pilot is conducting an EFVS operation for that person under part 125, provided the pilot is conducting the operation in accordance with that person's letter of authorization for EFVS operations; or

(iii) Is employed by a fractional ownership program manager to conduct operations under part 91 subpart K when the pilot is conducting an EFVS operation for that program manager under part 91, provided the pilot is conducting the operation in accordance with the program manager's management specifications for EFVS operations.

(4) The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply if a person is conducting EFVS operations under § 91.176(b) of this chapter and that person documents that prior to March 13, 2018, that person satisfactorily completed ground and flight training on EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation.

[Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 61-139, 81 FR 90170, Dec. 13, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2013-0485, Amdt. 61-139, 81 FR 90172, Dec. 13, 2016]

§ 61.67 Category II pilot authorization requirements.

(a) General. A person who applies for a Category II pilot authorization must hold:

(1) At least a private or commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate;

(2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and

(3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought.

(b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category II pilot authorization must have at least—

(1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command.

(2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument conditions that may include not more than—

(i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in a flight simulator or flight training device; or

(ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(3) 250 hours of cross-country time as pilot in command.

(i) Issuance or renewal of a Category II pilot authorization; and

(ii) The addition of another type aircraft to the applicant's Category II pilot authorization.

(2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under this section, an applicant must—

(i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; and

(ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test, then that person must—

(A) Meet the requirements of § 61.57(c); and

(B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the approaches must have been conducted without the use of an approach coupler.

(3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section—

(i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions;

(ii) Must be conducted to the decision height for the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted;

(iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category II operations;

(iv) Must be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category II operations only if conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device; and

(v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that—

(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and

(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.

(d) Practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an oral increment and a flight increment.

(1) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:

(i) Required landing distance;

(ii) Recognition of the decision height;

(iii) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or fixed attitude guidance displays;

(iv) Use and limitations of RVR;

(v) Use of visual clues, their availability or limitations, and altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings;

(vi) Procedures and techniques related to transition from nonvisual to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR;

(vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear;

(viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway lighting system;

(ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system, auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto throttle system (if equipped), and other required Category II equipment;

(x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category II approaches, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does not require a second in command; and

(xi) Instrument and equipment failure warning systems.

(2) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight increment of the practical test:

(i) The flight increment must be conducted in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought or in a flight simulator that—

(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and

(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS approaches to 100 feet AGL including at least one landing and one missed approach.

(iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be made with the use of an approved flight control guidance system, except if an approved auto approach coupler is installed, at least one approach must be hand flown using flight director commands.

(iv) If a multiengine airplane with the performance capability to execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one missed approach with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle marker.

(v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training device is used for the practical test, the applicant must execute a missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, failed.

(vi) For an authorization for an aircraft that requires a type rating, the practical test must be performed in coordination with a second in command who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the authorization is sought.

(vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during a practical test.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997, as amended by FAA-2023-1275; Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.68 Category III pilot authorization requirements.

(a) General. A person who applies for a Category III pilot authorization must hold:

(1) At least a private pilot certificate or commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot certificate;

(2) A type rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought if that aircraft requires a type rating; and

(3) A category and class rating for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought.

(b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category III pilot authorization must have at least—

(1) 50 hours of night flight time as pilot in command.

(2) 75 hours of instrument flight time during actual or simulated instrument conditions that may include not more than—

(i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in a flight simulator or flight training device; or

(ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted by an appropriately rated training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(3) 250 hours of cross-country time as pilot in command.

(i) Issuance or renewal of a Category III pilot authorization; and

(ii) The addition of another type of aircraft to the applicant's Category III pilot authorization.

(2) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under this section, an applicant must—

(i) Meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; and

(ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorization during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test, then that person must—

(A) Meet the requirements of § 61.57(c); and

(3) The approaches specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section—

(i) Must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions;

(ii) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height for the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted;

(iii) Need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category III operations;

(iv) Must be conducted to the alert height or decision height, as applicable, authorized for Category III operations only if conducted in a flight simulator or flight training device; and

(v) Must be accomplished in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in a flight simulator that—

(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorization is sought; and

(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(4) The flight time acquired in meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.

(d) Practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an oral increment and a flight increment.

(1) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an applicant must demonstrate knowledge of the following:

(i) Required landing distance;

(ii) Determination and recognition of the alert height or decision height, as applicable, including use of a radar altimeter;

(iii) Recognition of and proper reaction to significant failures encountered prior to and after reaching the alert height or decision height, as applicable;

(iv) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or fixed attitude guidance displays and expected height loss as they relate to manual go-around or automatic go-around, and initiation altitude, as applicable;

(v) Use and limitations of RVR, including determination of controlling RVR and required transmissometers;

(vi) Use, availability, or limitations of visual cues and the altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings including—

(A) Unexpected deterioration of conditions to less than minimum RVR during approach, flare, and rollout;

(B) Demonstration of expected visual references with weather at minimum conditions;

(D) Procedures and techniques for making a transition from instrument reference flight to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR.

(vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear;

(viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway lighting system;

(ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system auto approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto throttle system (if equipped), and other Category III equipment;

(x) Assigned duties of the second in command during Category III operations, unless the aircraft for which authorization is sought does not require a second in command;

(xi) Recognition of the limits of acceptable aircraft position and flight path tracking during approach, flare, and, if applicable, rollout; and

(xii) Recognition of, and reaction to, airborne or ground system faults or abnormalities, particularly after passing alert height or decision height, as applicable.

(2) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight increment of the practical test—

(i) The flight increment may be conducted in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorization is sought, or in a flight simulator that—

(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and

(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(ii) The flight increment must consist of at least two ILS approaches to 100 feet AGL, including one landing and one missed approach initiated from a very low altitude that may result in a touchdown during the go-around maneuver;

(iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment must be made with the approved automatic landing system or an equivalent landing system approved by the Administrator;

(iv) If a multiengine aircraft with the performance capability to execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the practical test, the flight increment must include the performance of one missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle or outer marker;

(v) If a multiengine flight simulator or multiengine flight training device is used, a missed approach must be executed with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, failed;

(vii) Oral questioning may be conducted at any time during the practical test;

(viii) Subject to the limitations of this paragraph, for Category IIIb operations predicated on the use of a fail-passive rollout control system, at least one manual rollout using visual reference or a combination of visual and instrument references must be executed. The maneuver required by this paragraph shall be initiated by a fail-passive disconnect of the rollout control system—

(A) After main gear touchdown;

(B) Prior to nose gear touchdown;

(C) In conditions representative of the most adverse lateral touchdown displacement allowing a safe landing on the runway; and

(D) In weather conditions anticipated in Category IIIb operations.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997, as amended by FAA-2023-1275; Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.69 Glider and unpowered ultralight vehicle towing: Experience and training requirements.

(a) No person may act as pilot in command for towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle unless that person—

(1) Holds a private, commercial or airline transport pilot certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft;

(2) Has logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle;

(3) Has a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person has received ground and flight training in gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles and is proficient in—

(i) The techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders or unpowered ultralight vehicles, including airspeed limitations;

(ii) Emergency procedures;

(iii) Signals used; and

(iv) Maximum angles of bank.

(4) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has logged at least three flights as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, or has simulated towing flight procedures in an aircraft while accompanied by a pilot who meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.

(5) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has received a logbook endorsement from the pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, certifying that the person has accomplished at least 3 flights in an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, or while simulating towing flight procedures; and

(6) Within 24 calendar months before the flight has—

(i) Made at least three actual or simulated tows of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle while accompanied by a qualified pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or

(ii) Made at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle towed by an aircraft.

(b) Any person who, before May 17, 1967, has made and logged 10 or more flights as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle in accordance with a certificate of waiver need not comply with paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section.

(c) The pilot, described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, who endorses the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges must have—

(1) Met the requirements of this section prior to endorsing the logbook of the person seeking towing privileges; and

(2) Logged at least 10 flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle.

(d) If the pilot described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section holds only a private pilot certificate, then that pilot must have—

(1) Logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in airplanes, or 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in a combination of powered and other-than-powered aircraft; and

(2) Performed and logged at least three flights within the 12 calendar months preceding the month that pilot accompanies or endorses the logbook of a person seeking towing privileges—

(i) In an aircraft while towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle accompanied by another pilot who meets the requirements of this section; or

(ii) As pilot in command of a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle being towed by another aircraft.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42555, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.71 Graduates of an approved training program other than under this part: Special rules.

(a) A person who graduates from an approved training program under part 141 or part 142 of this chapter is considered to have met the applicable aeronautical experience, aeronautical knowledge, and areas of operation requirements of this part if that person presents the graduation certificate and passes the required practical test within the 60-day period after the date of graduation.

(b) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate, type rating, or both under this part, and will be considered to have met the applicable requirements under § 61.157, except for the airline transport pilot certification training program required by § 61.156, for that certificate and rating, if that person has:

(1) Satisfactorily accomplished an approved training curriculum and a proficiency check for that airplane type that includes all the tasks and maneuvers required by §§ 121.424 and 121.441 of this chapter to serve as pilot in command in operations conducted under part 121 of this chapter; and

(2) Applied for an airline transport pilot certificate, type rating, or both within the 60-day period from the date the person satisfactorily accomplished the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) for that airplane type.

(c) A person who holds a foreign pilot license and is applying for an equivalent U.S. pilot certificate on the basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement and associated Implementation Procedures for Licensing may be considered to have met the applicable aeronautical experience, aeronautical knowledge, and areas of operation requirements of this part.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-128, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-144, 85 FR 10920, Feb. 25, 2020]

§ 61.73 Military pilots or former military pilots: Special rules.

(a) General. Except for a person who has been removed from flying status for lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action involving aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former military pilot who meets the requirements of this section may apply, on the basis of his or her military pilot qualifications, for:

(1) A commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category and class rating.

(2) An instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft rating.

(3) A type rating.

(b) Military pilots and former military pilots in the U.S. Armed Forces. A person who qualifies as a military pilot or former military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces may apply for a pilot certificate and ratings under paragraph (a) of this section if that person—

(1) Presents evidentiary documents described under paragraphs (h)(1), (2), and (3) of this section that show the person's status in the U.S. Armed Forces.

(2) Has passed the military competency aeronautical knowledge test on the appropriate parts of this chapter for commercial pilot privileges and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident reporting rules.

(3) Presents official U.S. military records that show compliance with one of the following requirements—

(i) Before the date of the application, passing an official U.S. military pilot and instrument proficiency check in a military aircraft of the kind of aircraft category, class, and type, if class or type of aircraft is applicable, for the ratings sought; or

(ii) Before the date of application, logging 10 hours of pilot time as a military pilot in a U.S. military aircraft in the kind of aircraft category, class, and type, if a class rating or type rating is applicable, for the aircraft rating sought.

(c) A military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. A person who is a military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation and is assigned to pilot duties in the U.S. Armed Forces, for purposes other than receiving flight training, may apply for a commercial pilot certificate and ratings under paragraph (a) of this section, provided that person—

(1) Presents evidentiary documents described under paragraph (h)(4) of this section that show the person is a military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, and is assigned to pilot duties in the U.S. Armed Forces, for purposes other than receiving flight training.

(3) Presents official U.S. military records that show compliance with one of the following requirements:

(i) Before the date of the application, passed an official U.S. military pilot and instrument proficiency check in a military aircraft of the kind of aircraft category, class, or type, if class or type of aircraft is applicable, for the ratings; or

(ii) Before the date of the application, logged 10 hours of pilot time as a military pilot in a U.S. military aircraft of the kind of category, class, and type of aircraft, if a class rating or type rating is applicable, for the aircraft rating.

(d) Instrument rating. A person who is qualified as a U.S. military pilot or former military pilot may apply for an instrument rating to be added to a pilot certificate if that person—

(1) Has passed an instrument proficiency check in the U.S. Armed Forces in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought; and

(2) Has an official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is instrument pilot qualified by the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct instrument flying on Federal airways in that aircraft category and class for the instrument rating sought.

(e) Aircraft type rating. An aircraft type rating may only be issued for a type of aircraft that has a comparable civilian type designation by the Administrator.

(f) Aircraft type rating placed on an airline transport pilot certificate. A person who is a military pilot or former military pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces and requests an aircraft type rating to be placed on an existing U.S. airline transport pilot certificate may be issued the rating at the airline transport pilot certification level, provided that person:

(1) Holds a category and class rating for that type of aircraft at the airline transport pilot certification level; and

(2) Has passed an official U.S. military pilot check and instrument proficiency check in that type of aircraft.

(g) Flight instructor certificate and ratings. A person who can show official U.S. military documentation of being a U.S. military instructor pilot or U.S. military pilot examiner, or a former instructor pilot or pilot examiner may apply for and be issued a flight instructor certificate with the appropriate ratings if that person:

(1) Holds a commercial or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate aircraft category and class rating, if a class rating is appropriate, for the flight instructor rating sought;

(2) Holds an instrument rating, or has instrument privileges, on the pilot certificate that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and

(3) Presents the following documents:

(i) A knowledge test report that shows the person passed a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed under § 61.185(a) appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought and the knowledge test was passed within the preceding 24 calendar months prior to the month of application. If the U.S. military instructor pilot or pilot examiner already holds a flight instructor certificate, holding of a flight instructor certificate suffices for the knowledge test report.

(ii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the person is or was qualified as a U.S. Armed Forces military instructor pilot or pilot examiner for the flight instructor rating sought.

(iii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the person completed a U.S. Armed Forces' instructor pilot or pilot examiner training course and received an aircraft rating qualification as a military instructor pilot or pilot examiner that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought.

(iv) An official U.S. Armed Forces record or order that shows the person passed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot examiner proficiency check in an aircraft as a military instructor pilot or pilot examiner that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought.

(h) Documents for qualifying for a pilot certificate and rating. The following documents are required for a person to apply for a pilot certificate and rating:

(1) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is or was a military pilot.

(2) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person graduated from a U.S. Armed Forces undergraduate pilot training school and received a rating qualification as a military pilot.

(3) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the pilot passed a pilot proficiency check and instrument proficiency check in an aircraft as a military pilot.

(4) If a person is a military pilot in the Armed Forces from a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation and is applying for a pilot certificate and rating, that person must present the following:

(i) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is a military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces;

(ii) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person is assigned as a military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces for purposes other than receiving flight training;

(iii) An official record that shows the person graduated from a military undergraduate pilot training school from the Armed Forces from a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation or from the U.S. Armed Forces, and received a qualification as a military pilot; and

(iv) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows that the person passed a pilot proficiency check and instrument proficiency check in an aircraft as a military pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces.

[Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42555, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.75 Private pilot certificate issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license.

(a) General. A person who holds a foreign pilot license at the private pilot level or higher that was issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may apply for and be issued a U.S. private pilot certificate with the appropriate ratings if the foreign pilot license meets the requirements of this section.

(b) Certificate issued. A U.S. private pilot certificate issued under this section must specify the person's foreign license number and country of issuance. A person who holds a foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may be issued a U.S. private pilot certificate based on the foreign pilot license without any further showing of proficiency, provided the applicant:

(1) Meets the requirements of this section;

(2) Holds a foreign pilot license, at the private pilot license level or higher, that does not contain a limitation stating that the applicant has not met all of the standards of ICAO for that license;

(3) Does not hold a U.S. pilot certificate other than a U.S. student pilot certificate;

(4) Holds a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or a medical license issued by the country that issued the person's foreign pilot license; and

(5) Is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(c) Aircraft ratings issued. Aircraft ratings listed on a person's foreign pilot license, in addition to any issued after testing under the provisions of this part, may be placed on that person's U.S. pilot certificate for private pilot privileges only.

(d) Instrument ratings issued. A person who holds an instrument rating on the foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation may be issued an instrument rating on a U.S. pilot certificate provided:

(1) The person's foreign pilot license authorizes instrument privileges;

(2) Within 24 months preceding the month in which the person applies for the instrument rating, the person passes the appropriate knowledge test; and

(3) The person is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(e) Operating privileges and limitations. A person who receives a U.S. private pilot certificate that has been issued under the provisions of this section:

(1) May act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft of the United States in accordance with the pilot privileges authorized by this part and the limitations placed on that U.S. pilot certificate;

(2) Is limited to the privileges placed on the certificate by the Administrator;

(3) Is subject to the limitations and restrictions on the person's U.S. certificate and foreign pilot license when exercising the privileges of that U.S. pilot certificate in an aircraft of U.S. registry operating within or outside the United States; and

(f) Limitation on licenses used as the basis for a U.S. certificate. A person may use only one foreign pilot license as a basis for the issuance of a U.S. pilot certificate. The foreign pilot license and medical certification used as a basis for issuing a U.S. pilot certificate under this section must be written in English or accompanied by an English transcription that has been signed by an official or representative of the foreign aviation authority that issued the foreign pilot license.

(g) Limitation placed on a U.S. pilot certificate. A U.S. pilot certificate issued under this section can only be exercised when the pilot has the foreign pilot license, upon which the issuance of the U.S. pilot certificate was based, in the holder's possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42556, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.77 Special purpose pilot authorization: Operation of a civil aircraft of the United States and leased by a non-U.S. citizen.

(a) General. The holder of a foreign pilot license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation who meets the requirements of this section may be issued a special purpose pilot authorization by the Administrator for the purpose of performing pilot duties—

(1) On a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is leased to a person who is not a citizen of the United States, and

(2) For carrying persons or property for compensation or hire for operations in—

(i) Scheduled international air services in turbojet-powered airplanes of U.S. registry;

(ii) Scheduled international air services in airplanes of U.S. registry having a configuration of more than nine passenger seats, excluding crewmember seats;

(iii) Nonscheduled international air transportation in airplanes of U.S. registry having a configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding crewmember seats; or

(iv) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation, in airplanes of U.S. registry having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.

(b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance or renewal of a special purpose pilot authorization, an applicant must present the following to a Flight Standards office:

(1) A foreign pilot license issued by the aeronautical authority of a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation that contains the appropriate aircraft category, class, type rating, if appropriate, and instrument rating for the aircraft to be flown;

(2) A certification by the lessee of the aircraft—

(i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;

(ii) Specifying the aircraft type on which the applicant will perform pilot duties; and

(iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight instruction that qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be assigned on the aircraft.

(3) Documentation showing when the applicant will reach the age of 65 years (an official copy of the applicant's birth certificate or other official documentation);

(4) Documentation the applicant meets the medical standards for the issuance of the foreign pilot license from the aeronautical authority of that contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation; and

(5) A statement that the applicant does not already hold a special purpose pilot authorization; however, if the applicant already holds a special purpose pilot authorization, then that special purpose pilot authorization must be surrendered to either the Flight Standards office that issued it, or the Flight Standards office processing the application for the authorization, prior to being issued another special purpose pilot authorization.

(1) May exercise the privileges prescribed on the special purpose pilot authorization; and

(2) Must comply with the limitations specified in this section and any additional limitations specified on the special purpose pilot authorization.

(d) General limitations. A special purpose pilot authorization may be used only—

(1) For flights between foreign countries or for flights in foreign air commerce within the time period allotted on the authorization.

(2) If the foreign pilot license required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and the special purpose pilot authorization issued under this section are in the holder's physical possession or immediately accessible in the aircraft.

(3) While the holder is employed by the person to whom the aircraft described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section is leased.

(4) While the holder is performing pilot duties on the U.S.-registered aircraft described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(5) If the holder has only one special purpose pilot authorization as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.

(e) Age limitation. No person who holds a special purpose pilot authorization issued under this part may serve as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. registry in the following operations if the person has reached his or her 60th birthday or, in the case of operations with more than one pilot, his or her 65th birthday:

(1) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in turbojet-powered airplanes;

(2) Scheduled international air services carrying passengers in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than nine passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat;

(3) Nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire in airplanes having a passenger-seat configuration of more than 30 passenger seats, excluding each crewmember seat; or

(4) Scheduled international air services, or nonscheduled international air transportation for compensation or hire, in airplanes having a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.

(f) Definitions. (1) International air service, as used in paragraph (e) of this section, means scheduled air service performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the service passes through the air space over the territory of more than one country.

(2) International air transportation, as used in paragraph (e) of this section, means air transportation performed in airplanes for the public transport of passengers, mail, or cargo, in which service passes through the air space over the territory of more than one country.

(g) Expiration date. Each special purpose pilot authorization issued under this section expires—

(1) 60 calendar months from the month it was issued, unless sooner suspended or revoked;

(2) When the lease agreement for the aircraft expires or the lessee terminates the employment of the person who holds the special purpose pilot authorization;

(3) Whenever the person's foreign pilot license has been suspended, revoked, or is no longer valid; or

(4) When the person no longer meets the medical standards for the issuance of the foreign pilot license.

(h) Renewal. A person exercising the privileges of a special purpose pilot authorization may apply for a 60-calendar-month extension of that authorization, provided the person—

(1) Continues to meet the requirements of this section; and

(2) Surrenders the expired special purpose pilot authorization upon receipt of the new authorization.

(i) Surrender. The holder of a special purpose pilot authorization must surrender the authorization to the Administrator within 7 days after the date the authorization terminates.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-134, 80 FR 33401, June 12, 2015; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]

Subpart C Student Pilots

§ 61.81 Applicability.

This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of student pilot certificates, the conditions under which those certificates are necessary, and the general operating rules and limitations for the holders of those certificates.

§ 61.83 Eligibility requirements for student pilots.

To be eligible for a student pilot certificate, an applicant must:

(a) Be at least 16 years of age for other than the operation of a glider or balloon.

(b) Be at least 14 years of age for the operation of a glider or balloon.

(c) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.

§ 61.85 Application.

An applicant for a student pilot certificate:

(a) Must make that application in a form acceptable to the Administrator; and

(b) Must submit the application to a Flight Standards office, a designated pilot examiner, an airman certification representative associated with a pilot school, a flight instructor, or other person authorized by the Administrator.

[Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 61-141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]

§ 61.87 Solo requirements for student pilots.

(a) General. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student has met the requirements of this section. The term “solo flight” as used in this subpart means that flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft or that flight time during which the student performs the duties of a pilot in command of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one pilot flight crewmember.

(b) Aeronautical knowledge. A student pilot must demonstrate satisfactory aeronautical knowledge on a knowledge test that meets the requirements of this paragraph:

(1) The test must address the student pilot's knowledge of—

(i) Applicable sections of parts 61 and 91 of this chapter;

(ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the solo flight will be performed; and

(iii) Flight characteristics and operational limitations for the make and model of aircraft to be flown.

(2) The student's authorized instructor must—

(i) Administer the test; and

(ii) At the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers with the student before authorizing that student to conduct a solo flight.

(1) Received and logged flight training for the maneuvers and procedures of this section that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and

(2) Demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorized instructor, on the maneuvers and procedures required by this section in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft to be flown.

(d) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a single-engine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a single-engine airplane rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;

(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;

(5) Climbs and climbing turns;

(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;

(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;

(8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations;

(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;

(10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall;

(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;

(12) Ground reference maneuvers;

(13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions;

(14) Slips to a landing; and

(15) Go-arounds.

(e) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a multiengine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a multiengine airplane rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;

(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;

(5) Climbs and climbing turns;

(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;

(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;

(8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations;

(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;

(10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall;

(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;

(12) Ground reference maneuvers;

(13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions; and

(14) Go-arounds.

(f) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a helicopter. A student pilot who is receiving training for a helicopter rating must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;

(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;

(5) Climbs and climbing turns;

(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;

(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;

(8) Descents with and without turns;

(9) Flight at various airspeeds;

(10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;

(11) Ground reference maneuvers;

(12) Approaches to the landing area;

(13) Hovering and hovering turns;

(14) Go-arounds;

(15) Simulated emergency procedures, including autorotational descents with a power recovery and power recovery to a hover;

(16) Rapid decelerations; and

(17) Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for multiengine helicopters.

(g) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a gyroplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for a gyroplane rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;

(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;

(5) Climbs and climbing turns;

(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;

(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;

(8) Descents with and without turns;

(9) Flight at various airspeeds;

(10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;

(11) Ground reference maneuvers;

(12) Approaches to the landing area;

(13) High rates of descent with power on and with simulated power off, and recovery from those flight configurations;

(14) Go-arounds; and

(15) Simulated emergency procedures, including simulated power-off landings and simulated power failure during departures.

(h) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a powered-lift. A student pilot who is receiving training for a powered-lift rating must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;

(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;

(5) Climbs and climbing turns;

(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;

(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;

(8) Descents with and without turns;

(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;

(10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall;

(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;

(12) Ground reference maneuvers;

(13) Approaches to a landing with simulated engine malfunctions;

(14) Go-arounds;

(15) Approaches to the landing area;

(16) Hovering and hovering turns; and

(17) For multiengine powered-lifts, simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings.

(i) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a glider. A student pilot who is receiving training for a glider rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning, preparation, aircraft systems, and, if appropriate, powerplant operations;

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups, if applicable;

(3) Launches, including normal and crosswind;

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions, if applicable;

(5) Airport traffic patterns, including entry procedures;

(6) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;

(7) Descents with and without turns using high and low drag configurations;

(8) Flight at various airspeeds;

(9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;

(10) Ground reference maneuvers, if applicable;

(11) Inspection of towline rigging and review of signals and release procedures, if applicable;

(12) Aerotow, ground tow, or self-launch procedures;

(13) Procedures for disassembly and assembly of the glider;

(14) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery;

(15) Straight glides, turns, and spirals;

(16) Landings, including normal and crosswind;

(17) Slips to a landing;

(18) Procedures and techniques for thermalling; and

(19) Emergency operations, including towline break procedures.

(j) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in an airship. A student pilot who is receiving training for an airship rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems;

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups;

(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind;

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions;

(5) Climbs and climbing turns;

(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures;

(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance;

(8) Descents with and without turns;

(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight;

(10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;

(11) Ground reference maneuvers;

(12) Rigging, ballasting, and controlling pressure in the ballonets, and superheating; and

(13) Landings with positive and with negative static trim.

(k) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a balloon. A student pilot who is receiving training in a balloon must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Layout and assembly procedures;

(2) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, and aircraft systems;

(3) Ascents and descents;

(4) Landing and recovery procedures;

(5) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions;

(6) Operation of hot air or gas source, ballast, valves, vents, and rip panels, as appropriate;

(7) Use of deflation valves or rip panels for simulating an emergency;

(8) The effects of wind on climb and approach angles; and

(9) Obstruction detection and avoidance techniques.

(l) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a powered parachute. A student pilot who is receiving training for a powered parachute rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, preflight assembly and rigging, aircraft systems, and powerplant operations.

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups.

(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions.

(5) Climbs, and climbing turns in both directions.

(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures.

(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance.

(8) Descents, and descending turns in both directions.

(9) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.

(10) Ground reference maneuvers.

(11) Straight glides, and gliding turns in both directions.

(12) Go-arounds.

(13) Approaches to landing areas with a simulated engine malfunction.

(14) Procedures for canopy packing and aircraft disassembly.

(m) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training in a weight-shift-control aircraft. A student pilot who is receiving training for a weight-shift-control aircraft rating or privileges must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and preparation, preflight assembly and rigging, aircraft systems, and powerplant operations.

(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups.

(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.

(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions.

(5) Climbs, and climbing turns in both directions.

(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures.

(7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence avoidance.

(8) Descents, and descending turns in both directions.

(9) Flight at various airspeeds from maximum cruise to slow flight.

(10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.

(11) Ground reference maneuvers.

(12) Stall entry, stall, and stall recovery.

(13) Straight glides, and gliding turns in both directions.

(14) Go-arounds.

(15) Approaches to landing areas with a simulated engine malfunction.

(16) Procedures for disassembly.

(n) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo flight. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received an endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown by an authorized instructor who gave the training within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight.

(o) Limitations on student pilots operating an aircraft in solo flight at night. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night unless that student pilot has received:

(1) Flight training at night on night flying procedures that includes takeoffs, approaches, landings, and go-arounds at night at the airport where the solo flight will be conducted;

(2) Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport where the solo flight will be conducted; and

(3) An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown for night solo flight by an authorized instructor who gave the training within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight.

(p) Limitations on flight instructors authorizing solo flight. No instructor may authorize a student pilot to perform a solo flight unless that instructor has—

(1) Given that student pilot training in the make and model of aircraft or a similar make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be flown;

(2) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the maneuvers and procedures prescribed in this section;

(3) Determined the student pilot is proficient in the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and

(4) Endorsed the student pilot's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown, and that endorsement remains current for solo flight privileges, provided an authorized instructor updates the student's logbook every 90 days thereafter.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]

§ 61.89 General limitations.

(a) A student pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft:

(1) That is carrying a passenger;

(2) That is carrying property for compensation or hire;

(3) For compensation or hire;

(4) In furtherance of a business;

(5) On an international flight, except that a student pilot may make solo training flights from Haines, Gustavus, or Juneau, Alaska, to White Horse, Yukon, Canada, and return over the province of British Columbia;

(6) With a flight or surface visibility of less than 3 statute miles during daylight hours or 5 statute miles at night;

(7) When the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the surface; or

(8) In a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot's logbook by an authorized instructor.

(b) A student pilot may not act as a required pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or regulations under which the flight is conducted, except when receiving flight training from an authorized instructor on board an airship, and no person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft.

(c) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must comply with the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and may not act as pilot in command—

(1) Of an aircraft other than an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316;

(2) At night;

(3) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher;

(4) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower without having received the ground and flight training specified in § 61.94 and an endorsement from an authorized instructor;

(5) Of an aircraft without having received the applicable ground training, flight training, and instructor endorsements specified in § 61.327 (a) and (b).

(d) The holder of a student pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the student pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is conducted consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section conflict with § 61.113(i), a student pilot must comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.91 [Reserved]

§ 61.93 Solo cross-country flight requirements.

(a) General. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a student pilot must meet the requirements of this section before—

(i) Conducting a solo cross-country flight, or any flight greater than 25 nautical miles from the airport from where the flight originated.

(ii) Making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the airport of origination.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges must:

(i) Have received flight training from an instructor authorized to provide flight training on the maneuvers and procedures of this section that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought;

(ii) Have demonstrated cross-country proficiency on the appropriate maneuvers and procedures of this section to an authorized instructor;

(iii) Have satisfactorily accomplished the pre-solo flight maneuvers and procedures required by § 61.87 of this part in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought; and

(iv) Comply with any limitations included in the authorized instructor's endorsement that are required by paragraph (c) of this section.

(3) A student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges must have received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-country maneuvers and procedures listed in this section that are appropriate to the aircraft to be flown.

(b) Authorization to perform certain solo flights and cross-country flights. A student pilot must obtain an endorsement from an authorized instructor to make solo flights from the airport where the student pilot normally receives training to another location. A student pilot who receives this endorsement must comply with the requirements of this paragraph.

(1) Solo flights may be made to another airport that is within 25 nautical miles from the airport where the student pilot normally receives training, provided—

(i) An authorized instructor has given the student pilot flight training at the other airport, and that training includes flight in both directions over the route, entering and exiting the traffic pattern, and takeoffs and landings at the other airport;

(ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training endorses the student pilot's logbook authorizing the flight;

(iii) The student pilot has a solo flight endorsement in accordance with § 61.87 of this part;

(iv) The authorized instructor has determined that the student pilot is proficient to make the flight; and

(v) The purpose of the flight is to practice takeoffs and landings at that other airport.

(2) Repeated specific solo cross-country flights may be made to another airport that is within 50 nautical miles of the airport from which the flight originated, provided—

(i) The authorized instructor has given the student flight training in both directions over the route, including entering and exiting the traffic patterns, takeoffs, and landings at the airports to be used;

(ii) The authorized instructor who gave the training has endorsed the student's logbook certifying that the student is proficient to make such flights;

(iii) The student has a solo flight endorsement in accordance with § 61.87 of this part; and

(iv) The student has a solo cross country flight endorsement in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; however, for repeated solo cross country flights to another airport within 50 nautical miles from which the flight originated, separate endorsements are not required to be made for each flight.

(c) Endorsements for solo cross-country flights. Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a student pilot must have the endorsements prescribed in this paragraph for each cross-country flight:

(1) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorsement from the authorized instructor who conducted the training that is placed in that person's logbook for the specific category of aircraft to be flown.

(2) A student pilot must have a solo cross-country endorsement from an authorized instructor that is placed in that person's logbook for the specific make and model of aircraft to be flown.

(3) For each cross-country flight, the authorized instructor who reviews the cross-country planning must make an endorsement in the person's logbook after reviewing that person's cross-country planning, as specified in paragraph (d) of this section. The endorsement must—

(i) Specify the make and model of aircraft to be flown;

(ii) State that the student's preflight planning and preparation is correct and that the student is prepared to make the flight safely under the known conditions; and

(iii) State that any limitations required by the student's authorized instructor are met.

(d) Limitations on authorized instructors to permit solo cross-country flights. An authorized instructor may not permit a student pilot to conduct a solo cross-country flight unless that instructor has:

(1) Determined that the student's cross-country planning is correct for the flight;

(2) Reviewed the current and forecast weather conditions and has determined that the flight can be completed under VFR;

(3) Determined that the student is proficient to conduct the flight safely;

(4) Determined that the student has the appropriate solo cross-country endorsement for the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and

(5) Determined that the student's solo flight endorsement is current for the make and model aircraft to be flown.

(e) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a single-engine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a single-engine airplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;

(4) Emergency procedures;

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;

(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communication, except that a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate must only receive and log flight training on the use of radios installed in the aircraft to be flown;

(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings;

(11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and

(12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives. For student pilots seeking a sport pilot certificate, the provisions of this paragraph only apply when receiving training for cross-country flight in an airplane that has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS.

(f) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a multiengine airplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;

(4) Emergency procedures;

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;

(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;

(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field, soft-field, and crosswind takeoffs, approaches, and landings;

(11) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and

(12) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.

(g) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a helicopter. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a helicopter must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;

(4) Emergency procedures;

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;

(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; and

(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures.

(h) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a gyroplane. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a gyroplane must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;

(4) Emergency procedures;

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;

(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures, including short-field and soft-field takeoffs, approaches, and landings.

(i) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a powered-lift. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight training in a powered-lift must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;

(4) Emergency procedures;

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;

(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications;

(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures that include high-altitude, steep, and shallow takeoffs, approaches, and landings; and

(11) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.

(j) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a glider. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a glider must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;

(4) Emergency procedures;

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;

(9) Landings accomplished without the use of the altimeter from at least 2,000 feet above the surface; and

(10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for cross-country soaring, ascending and descending flight, and altitude control.

(k) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in an airship. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in an airship must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;

(4) Emergency procedures;

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach;

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance;

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown;

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications;

(10) Control of air pressure with regard to ascending and descending flight and altitude control;

(11) Control of the airship solely by reference to flight instruments, except for a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate; and

(12) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions conducive for the direction of cross-country flight.

(l) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a powered parachute. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a powered parachute must receive and log flight training in the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass, as appropriate.

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight.

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognizing critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight.

(4) Emergency procedures.

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach.

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance.

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown.

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications.

(9) If equipped for flight with navigation radios, the use of radios for VFR navigation.

(10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for the cross-country flight.

(11) Takeoff, approach and landing procedures.

(m) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in a weight-shift-control aircraft. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight in a weight-shift-control aircraft must receive and log flight training for the following maneuvers and procedures:

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass, as appropriate.

(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight.

(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognizing critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight.

(4) Emergency procedures.

(5) Traffic pattern procedures that include area departure, area arrival, entry into the traffic pattern, and approach.

(6) Procedures and operating practices for collision avoidance, wake turbulence precautions, and windshear avoidance.

(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the cross-country flight will be flown.

(8) Procedures for operating the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft to be flown, including recognition and use of the proper operational procedures and indications.

(9) If equipped for flight using navigation radios, the use of radios for VFR navigation.

(10) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favorable for the cross-country flight.

(11) Takeoff, approach and landing procedures, including crosswind approaches and landings.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]

§ 61.94 Student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate: Operations at airports within, and in airspace located within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or at airports with an operational control tower in other airspace.

(a) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate who wants to obtain privileges to operate in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in the following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation:

(1) The use of radios, communications, navigation systems and facilities, and radar services.

(2) Operations at airports with an operating control tower, to include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an operating control tower.

(3) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control clearances.

(4) Ground and flight training for the specific Class B, C, or D airspace for which the solo flight is authorized, if applicable, within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that airspace. The flight training must be received in the specific airspace area for which solo flight is authorized.

(5) Ground and flight training for the specific airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace for which the solo flight is authorized, if applicable, within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight at that airport. The flight and ground training must be received at the specific airport for which solo flight is authorized.

(b) The authorized instructor who provides the training specified in paragraph (a) of this section must provide a logbook endorsement that certifies the student has received that training and is proficient to conduct solo flight in that specific airspace or at that specific airport and in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in this section.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004]

§ 61.95 Operations in Class B airspace and at airports located within Class B airspace.

(a) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace unless:

(1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on that Class B airspace area, and the flight training was received in the specific Class B airspace area for which solo flight is authorized;

(2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by the authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight in that Class B airspace area; and

(3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight training, and has been found proficient to conduct solo flight in that specific Class B airspace area.

(b) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight to, from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace pursuant to § 91.131(b) of this chapter unless:

(1) The student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an instructor authorized to provide training to operate at that airport, and the flight and ground training has been received at the specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized;

(2) The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed by an authorized instructor who gave the student pilot flight training, and the endorsement is dated within the 90-day period preceding the date of the flight at that airport; and

(3) The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight training, and has been found proficient to conduct solo flight operations at that specific airport.

(c) This section does not apply to a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate or a recreational pilot certificate.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]

Subpart D Recreational Pilots

§ 61.96 Applicability and eligibility requirements: General.

(a) This subpart prescribes the requirement for the issuance of recreational pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.

(b) To be eligible for a recreational pilot certificate, a person who applies for that certificate must:

(1) Be at least 17 years of age;

(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft;

(3) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who—

(i) Conducted the training or reviewed the applicant's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.97(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required knowledge test.

(4) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.97(b) of this part;

(5) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who—

(i) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(ii) Certified that the applicant is prepared for the required practical test.

(6) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.99 of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;

(7) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98(b) that apply to the aircraft category and class rating;

(8) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating; and

(9) Hold either a student pilot certificate or sport pilot certificate.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.97 Aeronautical knowledge.

(a) General. A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to recreational pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;

(2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board;

(3) Use of the applicable portions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and FAA advisory circulars;

(4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(5) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;

(6) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;

(7) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;

(8) Weight and balance computations;

(9) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;

(10) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques, if applying for an airplane single-engine rating;

(11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and

(12) Preflight action that includes—

(i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and

(ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]

§ 61.98 Flight proficiency.

(a) General. A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) Areas of operation. (1) For a single-engine airplane rating: (i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Slow flight and stalls;

(ix) Emergency operations; and

(x) Postflight procedures.

(2) For a helicopter rating: (i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and heliport operations;

(iv) Hovering maneuvers;

(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(vi) Performance maneuvers;

(vii) Ground reference maneuvers;

(viii) Navigation;

(ix) Emergency operations; and

(x) Postflight procedures.

(3) For a gyroplane rating: (i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;

(ix) Emergency operations; and

(x) Postflight procedures.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]

§ 61.99 Aeronautical experience.

(a) A person who applies for a recreational pilot certificate must receive and log at least 30 hours of flight time that includes at least—

(1) 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98 that consists of at least:

(i) Except as provided in § 61.100, 2 hours of flight training en route to an airport that is located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains, which includes at least three takeoffs and three landings at the airport located more than 25 nautical miles from the airport where the applicant normally trains; and

(ii) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in the aircraft for the rating sought in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(2) Three hours of solo flying in the aircraft for the rating sought, on the areas of operation listed in § 61.98 that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) The holder of a sport pilot certificate may credit flight training received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating toward the aeronautical experience requirements of this section if the following conditions are met:

(1) The flight training was accomplished in the same category and class of aircraft for which the rating is sought;

(2) The flight instructor with a sport pilot rating was authorized to provide the flight training; and

(3) The flight training included training on areas of operation that are required for both a sport pilot certificate and a recreational pilot certificate.

[Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30277, June 27, 2018

§ 61.100 Pilots based on small islands.

(a) An applicant located on an island from which the flight training required in § 61.99(a)(1) of this part cannot be accomplished without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section. However, if other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show completion of a dual flight between two airports, which must include three landings at the other airport.

(b) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) of this section and meets all requirements for the issuance of a recreational pilot certificate, except the requirements of § 61.99(a)(1) of this part, will be issued a pilot certificate with an endorsement containing the following limitation, “Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).” The limitation may be subsequently amended to include another island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section for another island.

(c) Upon meeting the requirements of § 61.99(a)(1) of this part, the applicant may have the limitation(s) in paragraph (b) of this section removed.

§ 61.101 Recreational pilot privileges and limitations.

(a) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may:

(1) Carry no more than one passenger; and

(2) Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees.

(b) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has—

(1) Received ground and flight training for takeoff, departure, arrival, and landing procedures at the departure airport;

(2) Received ground and flight training for the area, terrain, and aids to navigation that are in the vicinity of the departure airport;

(3) Been found proficient to operate the aircraft at the departure airport and the area within 50 nautical miles from that airport; and

(4) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried in the person's possession in the aircraft, that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.

(c) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has—

(1) Received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply to the aircraft rating held;

(2) Been found proficient in cross-country flying; and

(3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried on the person's possession in the aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found proficient in the cross-country training requirements of subpart E of this part that apply to the aircraft rating held.

(d) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, provided that person has—

(1) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation, as appropriate to the aircraft rating held:

(i) The use of radios, communications, navigation system and facilities, and radar services.

(ii) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern at an airport with an operating control tower.

(iii) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control clearances;

(2) Been found proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and

(3) Received from an authorized instructor a logbook endorsement, which is carried on the person's possession or readily accessible in the aircraft, that certifies the person has received and been found proficient in those aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

(e) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (i) of this section, a recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft—

(1) That is certificated—

(i) For more than four occupants;

(ii) With more than one powerplant;

(iii) With a powerplant of more than 180 horsepower, except aircraft certificated in the rotorcraft category; or

(iv) With retractable landing gear;

(2) That is classified as a multiengine airplane, powered-lift, glider, airship, balloon, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft;

(3) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or hire;

(4) For compensation or hire;

(5) In furtherance of a business;

(6) Between sunset and sunrise;

(7) In Class A, B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower;

(8) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher;

(9) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute miles;

(10) Without visual reference to the surface;

(11) On a flight outside the United States, unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted;

(12) To demonstrate that aircraft in flight as an aircraft salesperson to a prospective buyer;

(13) That is used in a passenger-carrying airlift and sponsored by a charitable organization; and

(14) That is towing any object.

(f) A recreational pilot may not act as a pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted, except when:

(1) Receiving flight training from a person authorized to provide flight training on board an airship; and

(2) No person other than a required flight crewmember is carried on the aircraft.

(g) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate, has logged fewer than 400 flight hours, and has not logged pilot-in-command time in an aircraft within the 180 days preceding the flight shall not act as pilot in command of an aircraft until the pilot receives flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor, and the instructor certifies that the person is proficient to act as pilot in command of the aircraft. This requirement can be met in combination with the requirements of §§ 61.56 and 61.57 of this part, at the discretion of the authorized instructor.

(h) A recreational pilot certificate issued under this subpart carries the notation, “Holder does not meet ICAO requirements.”

(i) For the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or ratings while under the supervision of an authorized instructor, a recreational pilot may fly as the sole occupant of an aircraft:

(1) For which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating;

(2) Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control; or

(3) Between sunset and sunrise, provided the flight or surface visibility is at least 5 statute miles.

(j) In order to fly solo as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, the recreational pilot must meet the appropriate aeronautical knowledge and flight training requirements of § 61.87 for that aircraft. When operating an aircraft under the conditions specified in paragraph (i) of this section, the recreational pilot shall carry the logbook that has been endorsed for each flight by an authorized instructor who:

(1) Has given the recreational pilot training in the make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be made;

(2) Has found that the recreational pilot has met the applicable requirements of § 61.87; and

(3) Has found that the recreational pilot is competent to make solo flights in accordance with the logbook endorsement.

(k) A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is conducted consistent with this section and the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the requirements of this section conflict with § 61.113(i), a recreational pilot must comply with this section.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017]

Subpart E Private Pilots

§ 61.102 Applicability.

This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of private pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.

§ 61.103 Eligibility requirements: General.

To be eligible for a private pilot certificate, a person must:

(a) Be at least 17 years of age for a rating in other than a glider or balloon.

(b) Be at least 16 years of age for a rating in a glider or balloon.

(d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:

(1) Conducted the training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.105(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and

(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test.

(e) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.105(b) of this part.

(f) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:

(1) Conducted the training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and

(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test.

(g) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought before applying for the practical test.

(h) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft rating sought.

(i) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(j) Hold a U.S. student pilot certificate, sport pilot certificate, or recreational pilot certificate.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.105 Aeronautical knowledge.

(a) General. A person who is applying for a private pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to private pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;

(2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board;

(3) Use of the applicable portions of the “Aeronautical Information Manual” and FAA advisory circulars;

(4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead reckoning, and navigation systems;

(5) Radio communication procedures;

(6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;

(7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;

(8) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;

(9) Weight and balance computations;

(10) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;

(11) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques for the airplane and glider category ratings;

(12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and

(13) Preflight action that includes—

(i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and

(ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]

§ 61.107 Flight proficiency.

(a) General. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Slow flight and stalls;

(ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;

(x) Emergency operations;

(xi) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and

(xii) Postflight procedures.

(2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Slow flight and stalls;

(ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;

(x) Emergency operations;

(xi) Multiengine operations;

(xii) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and

(xiii) Postflight procedures.

(3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and heliport operations;

(iv) Hovering maneuvers;

(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(vi) Performance maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Emergency operations;

(ix) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and

(x) Postflight procedures.

(4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;

(ix) Emergency operations;

(x) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and

(xi) Postflight procedures.

(5) For a powered-lift category rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and heliport operations;

(iv) Hovering maneuvers;

(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(vi) Performance maneuvers;

(vii) Ground reference maneuvers;

(viii) Navigation;

(ix) Slow flight and stalls;

(x) Basic instrument maneuvers;

(xi) Emergency operations;

(xii) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and

(xiii) Postflight procedures.

(6) For a glider category rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and gliderport operations;

(iv) Launches and landings;

(v) Performance speeds;

(vi) Soaring techniques;

(vii) Performance maneuvers;

(viii) Navigation;

(ix) Slow flight and stalls;

(x) Emergency operations; and

(xi) Postflight procedures.

(7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Emergency operations; and

(ix) Postflight procedures.

(8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport operations;

(iv) Launches and landings;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Navigation;

(vii) Emergency operations; and

(viii) Postflight procedures.

(9) For a powered parachute category rating—

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations, as applicable;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110;

(ix) Emergency operations; and

(x) Post-flight procedures.

(10) For a weight-shift-control aircraft category rating—

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations, as applicable;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Slow flight and stalls;

(ix) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110;

(x) Emergency operations; and

(xi) Post-flight procedures.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]

§ 61.109 Aeronautical experience.

(a) For an airplane single-engine rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(1) of this part, and the training must include at least—

(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a single-engine airplane;

(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a single-engine airplane that includes—

(i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and

(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.

(3) 3 hours of flight training in a single-engine airplane on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;

(4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(5) 10 hours of solo flight time in a single-engine airplane, consisting of at least—

(i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;

(ii) One solo cross country flight of 150 nautical miles total distance, with full-stop landings at three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(b) For an airplane multiengine rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(2) of this part, and the training must include at least—

(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane;

(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a multiengine airplane that includes—

(i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and

(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.

(3) 3 hours of flight training in a multiengine airplane on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;

(4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a multiengine airplane in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an airplane consisting of at least—

(i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;

(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(c) For a helicopter rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(3) of this part, and the training must include at least—

(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a helicopter;

(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a helicopter that includes—

(i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total distance; and

(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.

(3) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a helicopter in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a helicopter, consisting of at least—

(i) 3 hours cross-country time;

(ii) One solo cross country flight of 100 nautical miles total distance, with landings at three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(d) For a gyroplane rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(4) of this part, and the training must include at least—

(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a gyroplane;

(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a gyroplane that includes—

(i) One cross-country flight of over 50 nautical miles total distance; and

(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.

(3) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a gyroplane in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane, consisting of at least—

(i) 3 hours of cross-country time;

(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(5) of this part, and the training must include at least—

(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a powered-lift;

(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a powered-lift that includes—

(i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and

(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.

(3) 3 hours of flight training in a powered-lift on the control and maneuvering of a powered-lift solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;

(4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a powered-lift in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(5) 10 hours of solo flight time in a powered-lift consisting of at least—

(i) 5 hours cross-country time;

(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(f) For a glider category rating. (1) If the applicant for a private pilot certificate with a glider category rating has not logged at least 40 hours of flight time as a pilot in a heavier-than-air aircraft, the applicant must log at least 10 hours of flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight time must include at least—

(i) 20 flights in a glider in the areas of operations listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor in a glider in preparation for the practical test that must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(ii) 2 hours of solo flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, with not less than 10 launches and landings being performed.

(2) If the applicant has logged at least 40 hours of flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft, the applicant must log at least 3 hours of flight time in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight time must include at least—

(i) 10 solo flights in a glider in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part; and

(ii) 3 training flights with an authorized instructor in a glider in preparation for the practical test that must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(g) For an airship rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class rating must log at least:

(1) 25 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(7) of this part, which consists of at least:

(i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in an airship;

(ii) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight training in an airship that includes:

(A) A cross-country flight of over 25 nautical miles total distance; and

(B) Five takeoffs and five landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.

(2) 3 hours of flight training in an airship on the control and maneuvering of an airship solely by reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;

(3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in an airship in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(4) 5 hours performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an authorized instructor.

(h) For a balloon rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and balloon class rating must log at least 10 hours of flight training that includes at least six training flights with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(8) of this part, that includes—

(1) Gas balloon. If the training is being performed in a gas balloon, at least two flights of 2 hours each that consists of—

(i) At least one training flight with an authorized instructor in a gas balloon in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;

(ii) At least one flight performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor; and

(iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site.

(2) Balloon with an airborne heater. If the training is being performed in a balloon with an airborne heater, at least—

(i) At least two training flights of 1 hour each with an authorized instructor in a balloon with an airborne heater in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;

(ii) One solo flight in a balloon with an airborne heater; and

(iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above the launch site.

(i) For a powered parachute rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute category rating must log at least 25 hours of flight time in a powered parachute that includes at least 10 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor, including 30 takeoffs and landings, and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107 (b)(9) and the training must include at least—

(1) One hour of cross-country flight training in a powered parachute that includes a 1-hour cross-country flight with a landing at an airport at least 25 nautical miles from the airport of departure;

(2) Except as provided in § 61.110, 3 hours of night flight training in a powered parachute that includes 10 takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;

(3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a powered parachute in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;

(4) Three hours of solo flight time in a powered parachute, consisting of at least—

(i) One solo cross-country flight with a landing at an airport at least 25 nautical miles from the departure airport; and

(ii) Twenty solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in a traffic pattern) at an airport; and

(5) Three takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) in an aircraft at an airport with an operating control tower.

(j) For a weight-shift-control aircraft rating. A person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a weight-shift-control rating must log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(10) and the training must include at least—

(1) Three hours of cross-country flight training in a weight-shift-control aircraft;

(2) Except as provided in § 61.110, 3 hours of night flight training in a weight-shift-control aircraft that includes—

(i) One cross-country flight of over 75 nautical miles total distance that includes a point of landing that is a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) Ten takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport;

(3) Three hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a weight-shift-control aircraft in preparation for the practical test, which must have been performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;

(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a weight-shift-control aircraft, consisting of at least—

(i) Five hours of solo cross-country time; and

(ii) One solo cross-country flight over 100 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations; and

(5) Three takeoffs and landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) in an aircraft at an airport with an operating control tower.

(k) Permitted credit for use of a full flight simulator or flight training device. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (k)(2) of this section, a maximum of 2.5 hours of training in a full flight simulator or flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be credited toward the flight training time required by this section, if received from an authorized instructor.

(2) A maximum of 5 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought, may be credited toward the flight training time required by this section if the training is accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Administrator, an applicant for a private pilot certificate with an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift rating, who has satisfactorily completed an approved private pilot course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter, need only have a total of 35 hours of aeronautical experience to meet the requirements of this section.

(l) Permitted credit for flight training received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating. The holder of a sport pilot certificate may credit flight training received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating toward the aeronautical experience requirements of this section if the following conditions are met:

(1) The flight training was accomplished in the same category and class of aircraft for which the rating is sought;

(2) The flight instructor with a sport pilot rating was authorized to provide the flight training; and

(3) The flight training included either—

(i) Training on areas of operation that are required for both a sport pilot certificate and a private pilot certificate; or

(ii) For airplanes with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS, training on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to the flight instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives, provided the training was received from a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating who holds an endorsement required by § 61.412(c).

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53645, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 2018; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.110 Night flying exceptions.

(a) Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a person is not required to comply with the night flight training requirements of this subpart if the person receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska.

(b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements of this section:

(1) May be issued a pilot certificate with a limitation “Night flying prohibited”; and

(2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the certificate will become invalid for use until the person complies with the appropriate night training requirements of this subpart. The person may have the “Night flying prohibited” limitation removed if the person—

(i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart; and

(ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart.

(c) A person who does not meet the night flying requirements in § 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2) may be issued a private pilot certificate with the limitation “Night flying prohibited.” This limitation may be removed by an examiner if the holder complies with the requirements of § 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2), as appropriate.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]

§ 61.111 Cross-country flights: Pilots based on small islands.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an applicant located on an island from which the cross-country flight training required in § 61.109 of this part cannot be accomplished without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section.

(b) If other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant must show completion of two round-trip solo flights between those two airports that are farthest apart, including a landing at each airport on both flights.

(c) An applicant who complies with paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this section, and meets all requirements for the issuance of a private pilot certificate, except the cross-country training requirements of § 61.109 of this part, will be issued a pilot certificate with an endorsement containing the following limitation, “Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island).” The limitation may be subsequently amended to include another island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section for another island.

(d) Upon meeting the cross-country training requirements of § 61.109 of this part, the applicant may have the limitation in paragraph (c) of this section removed.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997]

§ 61.113 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in command.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section, no person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft.

(b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if:

(1) The flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and

(2) The aircraft does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.

(c) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

(d) A private pilot may act as pilot in command of a charitable, nonprofit, or community event flight described in § 91.146, if the sponsor and pilot comply with the requirements of § 91.146.

(e) A private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of:

(1) A local, State, or Federal agency; or

(2) An organization that conducts search and location operations.

(f) A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer.

(g) A private pilot who meets the requirements of § 61.69 may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle.

(h) A private pilot may act as pilot in command for the purpose of conducting a production flight test in an aircraft intended for certification in the light-sport category under § 21.190 of this chapter, provided that—

(1) The aircraft is a powered parachute or a weight-shift-control aircraft;

(2) The person has at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the category and class of aircraft flown; and

(3) The person is familiar with the processes and procedures applicable to the conduct of production flight testing, to include operations conducted under a special flight permit and any associated operating limitations.

(i) A private pilot may act as pilot in command or serve as a required flightcrew member of an aircraft without holding a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter provided the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver's license, meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), and complies with this section and all of the following conditions and limitations:

(1) The aircraft is authorized to carry not more than 7 occupants, has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 12,500 pounds, is operated with no more than 6 passengers on board, and is not a transport category rotorcraft certified to airworthiness standards under part 29 of this chapter; and

(2) The flight, including each portion of the flight, is not carried out—

(i) At an altitude that is more than 18,000 feet above mean sea level;

(ii) Outside the United States unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted; or

(iii) At an indicated airspeed exceeding 250 knots; and

(3) The pilot has available in his or her logbook—

(i) The completed medical examination checklist required under § 68.7 of this chapter; and

(ii) The certificate of course completion required under § 61.23(c)(3).

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-115, 72 FR 6910, Feb. 13, 2007; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2016-9157, Amdt. 61-140, 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017; Docket FAA-2021-1040, Amdt. 61-152, 87 FR 71237, Nov. 22, 2022; Docket FAA-2024-2580; Amdt. 61-158, 89 FR 90577, Nov. 18, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.115 Balloon rating: Limitations.

(a) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater:

(1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an airborne heater; and

(2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.

(b) If a person who applies for a private pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon:

(1) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privilege of that certificate to a gas balloon; and

(2) The limitation may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

§ 61.117 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Second in command of aircraft requiring more than one pilot.

Except as provided in § 61.113 of this part, no private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as second in command of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one pilot, nor may that pilot act as second in command of such an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997]

§§ 61.118-61.120 [Reserved]

Subpart F Commercial Pilots

§ 61.121 Applicability.

This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of commercial pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.

§ 61.123 Eligibility requirements: General.

To be eligible for a commercial pilot certificate, a person must:

(a) Be at least 18 years of age;

(b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(1) Conducted the required ground training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.125 of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test that applies to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(d) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.125 of this part;

(e) Receive the required training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who:

(1) Conducted the training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(2) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test.

(f) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;

(g) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;

(h) Hold at least a private pilot certificate issued under this part or meet the requirements of § 61.73; and

(i) Comply with the sections of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

§ 61.125 Aeronautical knowledge.

(a) General. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor, or complete a home-study course, on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to commercial pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;

(2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board;

(3) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight;

(4) Meteorology to include recognition of critical weather situations, windshear recognition and avoidance, and the use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;

(5) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft;

(6) Weight and balance computations;

(7) Use of performance charts;

(8) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance limitations;

(9) Use of aeronautical charts and a magnetic compass for pilotage and dead reckoning;

(10) Use of air navigation facilities;

(11) Aeronautical decision making and judgment;

(12) Principles and functions of aircraft systems;

(13) Maneuvers, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to the aircraft;

(14) Night and high-altitude operations;

(15) Procedures for operating within the National Airspace System; and

(16) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air ratings.

§ 61.127 Flight proficiency.

(a) General. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Slow flight and stalls;

(ix) Emergency operations;

(x) High-altitude operations; and

(xi) Postflight procedures.

(2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Navigation;

(vii) Slow flight and stalls;

(viii) Emergency operations;

(ix) Multiengine operations;

(x) High-altitude operations; and

(xi) Postflight procedures.

(3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and heliport operations;

(iv) Hovering maneuvers;

(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(vi) Performance maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Emergency operations;

(ix) Special operations; and

(x) Postflight procedures.

(4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport operations;

(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(v) Performance maneuvers;

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;

(ix) Emergency operations; and

(x) Postflight procedures.

(5) For a powered-lift category rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and heliport operations;

(iv) Hovering maneuvers;

(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(vi) Performance maneuvers;

(vii) Navigation;

(viii) Slow flight and stalls;

(ix) Emergency operations;

(x) High-altitude operations;

(xi) Special operations; and

(xii) Postflight procedures.

(6) For a glider category rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and gliderport operations;

(iv) Launches and landings;

(v) Performance speeds;

(vi) Soaring techniques;

(vii) Performance maneuvers;

(viii) Navigation;

(ix) Slow flight and stalls;

(x) Emergency operations; and

(xi) Postflight procedures.

(7) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subjects;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport operations;

(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(viii) Performance maneuvers;

(ix) Navigation;

(x) Emergency operations; and

(xi) Postflight procedures.

(8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subjects;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport operations;

(vii) Launches and landings;

(viii) Performance maneuvers;

(ix) Navigation;

(x) Emergency operations; and

(xi) Postflight procedures.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.129 Aeronautical experience.

(a) For an airplane single-engine rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:

(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in airplanes.

(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—

(i) 50 hours in airplanes; and

(ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours must be in airplanes.

(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(1) of this part that includes at least—

(i) Ten hours of instrument training using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. Five hours of the 10 hours required on instrument training must be in a single engine airplane;

(ii) 10 hours of training in a complex airplane, a turbine-powered airplane, or a technically advanced airplane (TAA) that meets the requirements of paragraph (j) of this section, or any combination thereof. The airplane must be appropriate to land or sea for the rating sought;

(iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a single engine airplane in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;

(iv) One 2-hour cross country flight in a single engine airplane in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(v) Three hours in a single-engine airplane with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a single engine airplane or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a single engine airplane with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (a)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed under § 61.127(b)(1) that include—

(i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(b) For an airplane multiengine rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:

(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in airplanes.

(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—

(i) 50 hours in airplanes; and

(ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which at least 10 hours must be in airplanes.

(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2) of this part that includes at least—

(ii) 10 hours of training in a multiengine complex or turbine-powered airplane; or for an applicant seeking a multiengine seaplane rating, 10 hours of training in a multiengine seaplane that has flaps and a controllable pitch propeller, including seaplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control;

(iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a multiengine airplane in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;

(iv) One 2-hour cross country flight in a multiengine airplane in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(v) Three hours in a multiengine airplane with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a multiengine airplane or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a multiengine airplane with an authorized instructor (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2) of this part that includes at least—

(i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii, the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(c) For a helicopter rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must log at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:

(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in helicopters.

(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—

(i) 35 hours in helicopters; and

(ii) 10 hours in cross-country flight in helicopters.

(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(3) of this part that includes at least—

(i) Five hours on the control and maneuvering of a helicopter solely by reference to instruments using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device;

(ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a helicopter in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;

(iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a helicopter in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(iv) Three hours in a helicopter with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a helicopter or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a helicopter with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (c)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed under § 61.127(b)(3) that includes—

(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).

(d) For a gyroplane rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and gyroplane class rating must log at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot (of which 5 hours may have been accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a gyroplane) that consists of at least:

(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 25 hours must be in gyroplanes.

(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—

(i) 10 hours in gyroplanes; and

(ii) 3 hours in cross-country flight in gyroplanes.

(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(4) of this part that includes at least—

(i) 2.5 hours on the control and maneuvering of a gyroplane solely by reference to instruments using a view-limiting device including attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems. This aeronautical experience may be performed in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or an aviation training device;

(ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a gyroplane in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;

(iii) Two hours of flight training during nighttime conditions in a gyroplane at an airport, that includes 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern); and

(iv) Three hours in a gyroplane with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a gyroplane or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a gyroplane with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (d)(2) of this section), on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(4) that includes—

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).

(e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this section, a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must log at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot that consists of at least:

(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours must be in a powered-lift.

(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command flight time, which includes at least—

(i) 50 hours in a powered-lift; and

(ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of which 10 hours must be in a powered-lift.

(3) 20 hours of training on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) of this part that includes at least—

(ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a powered-lift in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;

(iii) One 2-hour cross country flight in a powered-lift in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(iv) 3 hours in a powered-lift with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a powered-lift or 10 hours of flight time performing the duties of pilot in command in a powered-lift with an authorized instructor on board (either of which may be credited towards the flight time requirement under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) that includes—

(i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total distance with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point. However, if this requirement is being met in Hawaii the longest segment need only have a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(f) For a glider rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a glider category rating must log at least—

(1) 25 hours of flight time as a pilot in a glider and that flight time must include at least 100 flights in a glider as pilot in command, including at least—

(i) Three hours of flight training in a glider with an authorized instructor or 10 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part, including at least 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(ii) 2 hours of solo flight that include not less than 10 solo flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part; or

(2) 200 hours of flight time as a pilot in heavier-than-air aircraft and at least 20 flights in a glider as pilot in command, including at least—

(i) Three hours of flight training in a glider or 10 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part including at least 3 training flights in a glider with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test; and

(ii) 5 solo flights in a glider on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this part.

(g) For an airship rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and airship class rating must log at least 200 hours of flight time as a pilot, which includes at least the following hours:

(1) 50 hours in airships.

(2) Thirty hours of pilot in command flight time in airships or performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an authorized instructor aboard, which consists of—

(i) 10 hours of cross-country time in airships; and

(ii) 10 hours of night flight time in airships.

(3) Forty hours of instrument time to include—

(i) Instrument training using a view-limiting device for attitude instrument flying, partial panel skills, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, and intercepting and tracking navigational systems; and

(ii) Twenty hours of instrument flight time, of which 10 hours must be in flight in airships.

(4) 20 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at least—

(i) Three hours in an airship with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;

(ii) One hour cross country flight in an airship in daytime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the point of departure; and

(iii) One hour cross country flight in an airship in nighttime conditions that consists of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the point of departure.

(5) 10 hours of flight training performing the duties of pilot in command with an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes at least—

(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).

(h) For a balloon rating. A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category and a balloon class rating must log at least 35 hours of flight time as a pilot, which includes at least the following requirements:

(1) 20 hours in balloons;

(2) 10 flights in balloons;

(3) Two flights in balloons as the pilot in command; and

(4) 10 hours of flight training that includes at least 10 training flights with an authorized instructor in balloons on the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(8) of this part, which consists of at least—

(i) For a gas balloon—

(A) Two training flights of 2 hours each in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;

(B) 2 flights performing the duties of pilot in command in a gas balloon with an authorized instructor on the appropriate areas of operation; and

(ii) For a balloon with an airborne heater—

(A) Two training flights of 1 hour each in a balloon with an airborne heater with an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;

(B) Two solo flights in a balloon with an airborne heater on the appropriate areas of operation; and

(i) Permitted credit for use of a flight simulator or flight training device. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, an applicant who has not accomplished the training required by this section in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter may:

(i) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements for an airplane or powered-lift rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents that class of airplane or powered-lift category and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; and

(ii) Credit a maximum of 25 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought.

(2) An applicant who has accomplished the training required by this section in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter may:

(i) Credit a maximum of 100 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for an airplane and powered-lift rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents that class of airplane or powered-lift category and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; and

(ii) Credit a maximum of 50 hours toward the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section for a helicopter rating, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained from an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents a helicopter and type, if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought.

(3) Except when fewer hours are approved by the FAA, an applicant for the commercial pilot certificate with the airplane or powered-lift rating who has completed 190 hours of aeronautical experience is considered to have met the total aeronautical experience requirements of this section, provided the applicant satisfactorily completed an approved commercial pilot course under part 142 of this chapter and the approved course was appropriate to the commercial pilot certificate and aircraft rating sought.

(j) Technically advanced airplane. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, a technically advanced airplane must be equipped with an electronically advanced avionics system that includes the following installed components:

(1) An electronic Primary Flight Display (PFD) that includes, at a minimum, an airspeed indicator, turn coordinator, attitude indicator, heading indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator;

(2) An electronic Multifunction Display (MFD) that includes, at a minimum, a moving map using Global Positioning System (GPS) navigation with the aircraft position displayed;

(3) A two axis autopilot integrated with the navigation and heading guidance system; and

(4) The display elements described in paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section must be continuously visible.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-101, 62 FR 16892, Apr. 8, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53645, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 2018; FAA-2023-1275; Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.131 Exceptions to the night flying requirements.

(b) A person who receives flight training in and resides in the State of Alaska but does not meet the night flight training requirements of this section:

(1) May be issued a pilot certificate with the limitation “night flying prohibited.”

(2) Must comply with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart within the 12-calendar-month period after the issuance of the pilot certificate. At the end of that period, the certificate will become invalid for use until the person complies with the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart. The person may have the “night flying prohibited” limitation removed if the person—

(i) Accomplishes the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart; and

(ii) Presents to an examiner a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor that verifies accomplishment of the appropriate night flight training requirements of this subpart.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997]

§ 61.133 Commercial pilot privileges and limitations.

(a) Privileges—(1) General. A person who holds a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft—

(i) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation; and

(ii) For compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation.

(2) Commercial pilots with lighter-than-air category ratings. A person with a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category rating may—

(i) For an airship—(A) Give flight and ground training in an airship for the issuance of a certificate or rating;

(B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with an airship rating;

(D) Act as pilot in command of an airship under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight; and

(E) Give flight and ground training and endorsements that are required for a flight review, an operating privilege or recency-of-experience requirements of this part.

(ii) For a balloon—(A) Give flight and ground training in a balloon for the issuance of a certificate or rating;

(B) Give an endorsement for a pilot certificate with a balloon rating;

(D) Give ground and flight training and endorsements that are required for a flight review, an operating privilege, or recency-of-experience requirements of this part.

(b) Limitations. (1) A person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category or powered-lift category rating and does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class will be issued a commercial pilot certificate that contains the limitation, “The carriage of passengers for hire in (airplanes) (powered-lifts) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited.” The limitation may be removed when the person satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements listed in § 61.65 of this part for an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft listed on the person's commercial pilot certificate.

(2) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater—

(i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a balloon with an airborne heater.

(ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.

(3) If a person who applies for a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon—

(i) The pilot certificate will contain a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that certificate to a gas balloon.

(ii) The limitation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section may be removed when the person obtains the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receives a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]

§§ 61.135-61.141 [Reserved]

Subpart G Airline Transport Pilots

§ 61.151 Applicability.

This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of airline transport pilot certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the general operating rules for persons who hold those certificates and ratings.

§ 61.153 Eligibility requirements: General.

To be eligible for an airline transport pilot certificate, a person must:

(a) Meet the following age requirements:

(1) For an airline transport pilot certificate obtained under the aeronautical experience requirements of §§ 61.159, 61.161, or 61.163, be at least 23 years of age; or

(2) For an airline transport pilot certificate obtained under the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.160, be at least 21 years of age.

(d) Meet at least one of the following requirements:

(1) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating issued under this part;

(2) Meet the military experience requirements under § 61.73 of this part to qualify for a commercial pilot certificate, and an instrument rating if the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of an Armed Force of the United States; or

(3) Holds either a foreign airline transport pilot license with instrument privileges, or a foreign commercial pilot license with an instrument rating, that—

(i) Was issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation; and

(ii) Contains no geographical limitations.

(e) For an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating, receive a graduation certificate from an authorized training provider certifying completion of the airline transport pilot certification training program specified in § 61.156 before applying for the knowledge test required by paragraph (g) of this section;

(f) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;

(g) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;

(h) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation listed in § 61.157(e) of this part that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(i) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42559, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]

§ 61.155 Aeronautical knowledge.

(a) General. The knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate is based on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (c) of this section that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) Aircraft type rating. A person who is applying for an additional aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate is not required to pass a knowledge test if that person's airline transport pilot certificate lists the aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the type rating sought.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;

(2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;

(3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use;

(4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols;

(5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the National Airspace System;

(6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance;

(7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the National Airspace System;

(8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures;

(9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft performance;

(10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;

(11) Human factors;

(12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment;

(13) Crew resource management to include crew communication and coordination; and

(14) For an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate obtained concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating, the content of the airline transport pilot certification training program in § 61.156.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016; Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]

§ 61.156 Training requirements: Airplane category—multiengine class or multiengine airplane type rating concurrently with an airline transport pilot certificate.

A person who applies for the knowledge test for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating must present a graduation certificate from an authorized training provider under part 121, 135, 141, or 142 of this chapter certifying the applicant has completed the following training in a course approved by the Administrator.

(a) Academic training. The applicant for the knowledge test must receive at least 30 hours of classroom instruction that includes the following:

(1) At least 8 hours of instruction on aerodynamics including high altitude operations;

(2) At least 2 hours of instruction on meteorology, including adverse weather phenomena and weather detection systems; and

(3) At least 14 hours of instruction on air carrier operations, including the following areas:

(i) Physiology;

(ii) Communications;

(iii) Checklist philosophy;

(iv) Operational control;

(v) Minimum equipment list/configuration deviation list;

(vi) Ground operations;

(vii) Turbine engines;

(viii) Transport category aircraft performance;

(ix) Automation, navigation, and flight path warning systems.

(4) At least 6 hours of instruction on leadership, professional development, crew resource management, and safety culture.

(b) FSTD training. The applicant for the knowledge test must receive at least 10 hours of training in a flight simulation training device qualified under part 60 of this chapter that represents a multiengine turbine airplane. The training must include the following:

(1) At least 6 hours of training in a Level C or higher full flight simulator qualified under part 60 of this chapter that represents a multiengine turbine airplane with a maximum takeoff weight of 40,000 pounds or greater. The training must include the following areas:

(i) Low energy states/stalls;

(ii) Upset recovery techniques; and

(iii) Adverse weather conditions, including icing, thunderstorms, and crosswinds with gusts.

(2) The remaining FSTD training may be completed in a Level 4 or higher flight simulation training device. The training must include the following areas:

(i) Navigation including flight management systems; and

(ii) Automation including autoflight.

(c) Deviation authority. The Administrator may issue deviation authority from the weight requirement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section upon a determination that the objectives of the training can be met in an alternative device.

[Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021]

§ 61.157 Flight proficiency.

(a) General. (1) The practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate is given for—

(i) An airplane category and single engine class rating.

(ii) An airplane category and multiengine class rating.

(iii) A rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating.

(iv) A powered-lift category rating.

(v) An aircraft type rating.

(2) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot practical test must meet—

(i) The eligibility requirements of § 61.153; and

(ii) The aeronautical knowledge and aeronautical experience requirements of this subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) Aircraft type rating. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a person who applies for an aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate or applies for a type rating to be concurrently completed with an airline transport pilot certificate:

(1) Must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation under this section that apply to the aircraft type rating;

(2) Must receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor that certifies the applicant completed the training on the areas of operation listed under paragraph (e) of this section that apply to the aircraft type rating; and

(3) Must perform the practical test in actual or simulated instrument conditions, except as provided under paragraph (g) of this section.

(c) Exceptions. A person who applies for an aircraft type rating to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate or an aircraft type rating concurrently with an airline transport pilot certificate, and who is an employee of a certificate holder operating under part 121 or part 135 of this chapter, does not need to comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if the applicant presents a training record that shows completion of that certificate holder's approved training program for the aircraft type rating.

(d) Upgrading type ratings. Any type rating(s) and limitations on a pilot certificate of an applicant who completes an airline transport pilot practical test will be included at the airline transport pilot certification level, provided the applicant passes the practical test in the same category and class of aircraft for which the applicant holds the type rating(s).

(e) Areas of Operation. A practical test will include normal and abnormal procedures, as applicable, within the areas of operation for practical tests for an airplane category and powered-lift category rating. (1) For an airplane category—single engine class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Takeoffs and Landings;

(iv) In-flight maneuvers;

(v) Stall Prevention;

(vi) Instrument procedures;

(vii) Emergency operations; and

(viii) Postflight procedures.

(2) For an airplane category—multiengine class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Takeoffs and Landings;

(iv) In-flight maneuvers;

(v) Stall Prevention.

(vi) Instrument procedures;

(vii) Emergency operations; and

(viii) Postflight procedures.

(3) For a powered-lift category rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Takeoffs and Departure phase;

(iv) In-flight maneuvers;

(v) Instrument procedures;

(vi) Landings and approaches to landings;

(vii) Emergency operations; and

(viii) Postflight procedures.

(4) For a rotorcraft category—helicopter class rating:

(i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Takeoff and departure phase;

(iv) In-flight maneuvers;

(v) Instrument procedures;

(vi) Landings and approaches to landings;

(vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;

(viii) Emergency procedures; and

(ix) Postflight procedures.

(f) Proficiency and competency checks conducted under part 121, part 135, or subpart K of part 91. (1) Successful completion of any of the following checks satisfies the flight proficiency requirements of this section for the issuance of an airline transport pilot certificate and/or the appropriate aircraft rating:

(i) A proficiency check under § 121.441 of this chapter.

(ii) Both a competency check under § 135.293(a)(2) and § 135.293(b) of this chapter and pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under § 135.297 of this chapter.

(iii) Both a competency check under § 91.1065 of this chapter and a pilot-in-command instrument proficiency check under § 91.1069 of this chapter.

(2) The checks specified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be conducted by one of the following:

(i) An FAA Aviation Safety Inspector.

(ii) An Aircrew Program Designee who is authorized to perform proficiency and/or competency checks for the air carrier whose approved training program has been satisfactorily completed by the pilot applicant.

(iii) A Training Center Evaluator with appropriate certification authority who is also authorized to perform the portions of the competency and/or proficiency checks required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section for the air carrier whose approved training program has been satisfactorily completed by the pilot applicant.

(g) Aircraft not capable of instrument maneuvers and procedures. An applicant may add a type rating to an airline transport pilot certificate with an aircraft that is not capable of the instrument maneuvers and procedures required on the practical test under the following circumstances—

(1) The rating is limited to “VFR only.”

(2) The type rating is added to an airline transport pilot certificate that has instrument privileges in that category and class of aircraft.

(3) The “VFR only” limitation may be removed for that aircraft type after the applicant:

(i) Passes a practical test in that type of aircraft on the appropriate instrument maneuvers and procedures in § 61.157; or

(ii) Becomes qualified in § 61.73(d) for that type of aircraft.

(h) Multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant for a type rating, at the ATP certification level, in a multiengine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in the multi-seat version of that airplane. The practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test in the case where there is no multi-seat version of that multiengine airplane.

(i) Single engine airplane with a single-pilot station. An applicant for a type rating, at the ATP certification level, in a single engine airplane with a single-pilot station must perform the practical test in the multi-seat version of that single engine airplane. The practical test may be performed in the single-seat version of that airplane if the Examiner is in a position to observe the applicant during the practical test in the case where there is no multi-seat version of that single engine airplane.

(j) Waiver authority. An Examiner who conducts a practical test may waive any task for which the FAA has provided waiver authority.

[Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42560, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-124A, 74 FR 53647, Oct. 20, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22517, Apr. 1, 2024]

§ 61.158 [Reserved]

§ 61.159 Aeronautical experience: Airplane category rating.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category and class rating must have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:

(1) 500 hours of cross-country time.

(2) 100 hours of night flight time.

(3) 50 hours of flight time in the class of airplane for the rating sought. A maximum of 25 hours of training in a full flight simulator representing the class of airplane for the rating sought may be credited toward the flight time requirement of this paragraph if the training was accomplished as part of an approved training course in parts 121, 135, 141, or 142 of this chapter. A flight training device or aviation training device may not be used to satisfy this requirement.

(4) 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated instrument conditions, subject to the following:

(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a full flight simulator or flight training device.

(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a full flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(iii) Training in a full flight simulator or flight training device must be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device, representing an airplane.

(5) 250 hours of flight time in an airplane as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of pilot in command while under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, subject to the following:

(i) The flight time requirement must include at least—

(A) 100 hours of cross-country time; and

(B) 25 hours of night flight time.

(ii) Except for a person who has been removed from flying status for lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action involving aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former U.S. military pilot who meets the requirements of § 61.73(b)(1), or a military pilot in the Armed Forces of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation who meets the requirements of § 61.73(c)(1), may credit flight time in a powered-lift aircraft operated in horizontal flight toward the flight time requirement.

(6) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this section or § 61.160 may be obtained in a full flight simulator or flight training device provided the device represents an airplane and the aeronautical experience was accomplished as part of an approved training course in parts 121, 135, 141, or 142 of this chapter.

(b) A person who has performed at least 20 night takeoffs and landings to a full stop may substitute each additional night takeoff and landing to a full stop for 1 hour of night flight time to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; however, not more than 25 hours of night flight time may be credited in this manner.

(c) A commercial pilot may log second-in-command pilot time toward the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and the aeronautical experience requirements in § 61.160, provided the pilot is employed by a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 135 of this chapter and the second-in-command pilot time is obtained in operations conducted for the certificate holder under part 91 or 135 of this chapter when a second pilot is not required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted, and the following requirements are met—

(1) The experience must be accomplished as part of a second-in-command professional development program approved by the Administrator under § 135.99 of this chapter;

(2) The flight operation must be conducted in accordance with the certificate holder's operations specification for the second-in-command professional development program;

(3) The pilot in command of the operation must certify in the pilot's logbook that the second-in-command pilot time was accomplished under this section; and

(4) The pilot time may not be logged as pilot-in-command time even when the pilot is the sole manipulator of the controls and may not be used to meet the aeronautical experience requirements in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.

(d) A commercial pilot may log the following flight engineer flight time toward the 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this section and the total time as a pilot required by § 61.160:

(1) Flight-engineer time, provided the time—

(i) Is acquired in an airplane required to have a flight engineer by the airplane's flight manual or type certificate;

(ii) Is acquired while engaged in operations under part 121 of this chapter for which a flight engineer is required;

(iii) Is acquired while the person is participating in a pilot training program approved under part 121 of this chapter; and

(iv) Does not exceed more than 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 hours.

(2) Flight-engineer time, provided the flight time—

(i) Is acquired as a U.S. Armed Forces' flight engineer crewmember in an airplane that requires a flight engineer crewmember by the flight manual;

(ii) Is acquired while the person is participating in a flight engineer crewmember training program for the U.S. Armed Forces; and

(iii) Does not exceed 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 hours.

(e) An applicant who credits time under paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section and § 61.51(f)(4) is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

(f) An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under paragraph (e) of this section when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the ICAO requirements under paragraph (e) of this section and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of this section.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-109, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013; Admt. 61-130A, 78 FR 44874, July 25, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 2018; Amdt. 61-150, 87 FR 57590, Sept. 21, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.160 Aeronautical experience—airplane category restricted privileges.

(a) Except for a person who has been removed from flying status for lack of proficiency or because of a disciplinary action involving aircraft operations, a U.S. military pilot or former U.S. military pilot may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a minimum of 750 hours of total time as a pilot if the pilot presents:

(1) An official Form DD-214 (Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty) indicating that the person was honorably discharged from the U.S. Armed Forces or an official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the pilot is currently serving in the U.S. Armed Forces; and

(2) An official U.S. Armed Forces record that shows the person graduated from a U.S. Armed Forces undergraduate pilot training school and received a rating qualification as a military pilot.

(b) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a minimum of 1,000 hours of total time as a pilot if the person:

(1) Holds a Bachelor's degree with an aviation major from an institution of higher education, as defined in § 61.1, that has been issued a letter of authorization by the Administrator under § 61.169;

(2) Completes 60 semester credit hours of aviation and aviation-related coursework that has been recognized by the Administrator as coursework designed to improve and enhance the knowledge and skills of a person seeking a career as a professional pilot;

(3) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and instrument rating if:

(i) The required ground training was completed as part of an approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education; and

(ii) The required flight training was completed as part of an approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education or at a part 141 pilot school that has a training agreement under § 141.26 of this chapter with the institution of higher education; and

(4) Presents official transcripts or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator from the institution of higher education certifying that the graduate has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section.

(c) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a minimum of 1,250 hours of total time as a pilot if the person:

(1) Holds an Associate's degree with an aviation major from an institution of higher education, as defined in § 61.1, that has been issued a letter of authorization by the Administrator under § 61.169;

(2) Completes at least 30 semester credit hours of aviation and aviation-related coursework that has been recognized by the Administrator as coursework designed to improve and enhance the knowledge and skills of a person seeking a career as a professional pilot;

(3) Holds a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category and instrument rating if:

(i) The required ground training was completed as part of an approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education; and

(ii) The required flight training was completed as part of an approved part 141 curriculum at the institution of higher education or at a part 141 pilot school that has a written training agreement under § 141.26 of this chapter with the institution of higher education; and

(d) A graduate of an institution of higher education who completes fewer than 60 semester credit hours but at least 30 credit hours and otherwise satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating with a minimum of 1,250 hours of total time as a pilot.

(e) A person who applies for an airline transport pilot certificate under the total flight times listed in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section must otherwise meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159, except that the person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with 200 hours of cross-country time.

(f) A person may apply for an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating or an airline transport pilot certificate concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating if the person has 1,500 hours total time as a pilot, 200 hours of cross-country time, and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159.

(g) An airline transport pilot certificate obtained under this section is subject to the pilot in command limitations set forth in § 61.167(b) and must contain the following limitation, “Restricted in accordance with 14 CFR 61.167.” The pilot is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the limitation specified in this paragraph when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 and the age requirement of § 61.153(a)(1).

(h) An applicant who meets the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this section is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation, “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation if the applicant does not meet the ICAO requirements contained in Annex 1 “Personnel Licensing” to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under this paragraph when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the ICAO requirements and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159.

[Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 61-149, 86 FR 62087, Nov. 9, 2021; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.161 Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating.

(a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, must have at least 1,200 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:

(1) 500 hours of cross-country time;

(2) 100 hours of night flight time, of which 15 hours are in helicopters;

(3) 200 hours of flight time in helicopters, which includes at least 75 hours as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof; and

(4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions, of which at least 50 hours are obtained in flight with at least 25 hours in helicopters as a pilot in command, or as second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof.

(b) Training in a full flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section, subject to the following:

(1) Training in a full flight simulator or a flight training device must be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device that represents a rotorcraft.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, an applicant may receive credit for not more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a full flight simulator and flight training device.

(3) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a full flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the aeronautical experience is accomplished in an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(c) Flight time logged under § 61.159(c) may be counted toward the 1,200 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this section and the flight time requirements of paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (4) of this section, except for the specific helicopter flight time requirements.

(d) An applicant who credits time under paragraph (c) of this section and § 61.51(f)(4) is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

(e) An applicant is entitled to an airline transport pilot certificate without the ICAO limitation specified under paragraph (d) of this section when the applicant presents satisfactory evidence of having met the ICAO requirements under paragraph (d) of this section and otherwise meets the aeronautical experience requirements of this section.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.163 Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift category rating.

(a) A person who is applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating must have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least:

(1) 500 hours of cross-country time;

(2) 100 hours of night flight time;

(3) 250 hours in a powered-lift as a pilot in command, or as a second in command performing the duties of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command, or any combination thereof, which includes at least—

(i) 100 hours of cross-country time; and

(ii) 25 hours of night flight time.

(4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument conditions, subject to the following:

(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an applicant may not receive credit for more than a total of 25 hours of simulated instrument time in a flight simulator or flight training device.

(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of training in a flight simulator or flight training device may be credited toward the instrument flight time requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(iii) Training in a flight simulator or flight training device must be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a powered-lift.

(b) Not more than 100 hours of the total aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may be obtained in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents a powered-lift, provided the aeronautical experience was obtained in an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(c) Flight time logged under § 61.159(c) may be counted toward the 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this section and the flight time requirements of paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (4) of this section.

(d) An applicant who credits time under paragraph (c) of this section is issued an airline transport pilot certificate with the limitation “Holder does not meet the pilot in command aeronautical experience requirements of ICAO,” as prescribed under Article 39 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, 92485, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.165 Additional aircraft category and class ratings.

(a) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating. A person applying for an airline transport certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating who holds an airline transport pilot certificate with another aircraft category rating must:

(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part;

(2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part;

(3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;

(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.161 of this part; and

(5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(4) of this part.

(b) Airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating. A person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating who holds an airline transport pilot certificate with another aircraft category rating must:

(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part;

(2) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part;

(3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;

(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 of this part; and

(5) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(1) of this part.

(c) Airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating. A person applying for an airline transport certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating who holds an airline transport certificate with another aircraft category rating must:

(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part;

(2) Successfully complete the airline transport pilot certification training program specified in § 61.156;

(3) Pass a knowledge test for an airplane category multiengine class rating or type rating on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c);

(4) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;

(5) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 or § 61.160; and

(6) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(2) of this part.

(d) Powered-lift category. A person applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with a powered-lift category rating who holds an airline transport certificate with another aircraft category rating must:

(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153 of this part;

(2) Pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) of this part;

(3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;

(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.163 of this part; and

(5) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(3) of this part.

(e) Additional class rating within the same aircraft category. Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a person applying for an airline transport pilot certificate with an additional class rating who holds an airline transport certificate in the same aircraft category must—

(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153, except paragraph (g) of that section;

(2) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b) of this part, if applicable;

(3) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of subpart G of this part; and

(4) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e) appropriate to the aircraft rating sought.

(f) Adding a multiengine class rating to an airline transport pilot certificate with a single engine class rating. A person applying to add a multiengine class rating, or a multiengine class rating concurrently with a multiengine airplane type rating, to an airline transport pilot certificate with an airplane category single engine class rating must—

(1) Meet the eligibility requirements of § 61.153;

(2) Pass a required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c), as applicable to multiengine airplanes;

(3) Comply with the requirements in § 61.157(b), if applicable;

(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159; and

(5) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(2).

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-130, 78 FR 42376, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.167 Airline transport pilot privileges and limitations.

(a) Privileges. (1) A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate is entitled to the same privileges as a person who holds a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating.

(2) A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate and has met the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159, 61.161, or 61.163, and the age requirements of § 61.153(a)(1) may instruct—

(i) Other pilots in air transportation service in aircraft of the category, class, and type, as applicable, for which the airline transport pilot is rated and endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom training has been given;

(ii) In flight simulators, and flight training devices representing the aircraft referenced in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, when instructing under the provisions of this section and endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom training has been given;

(iii) Only as provided in this section, except that an airline transport pilot who also holds a flight instructor certificate can exercise the instructor privileges under subpart H of this part for which he or she is rated; and

(iv) In an aircraft, only if the aircraft has functioning dual controls, when instructing under the provisions of this section.

(3) Excluding briefings and debriefings, an airline transport pilot may not instruct in aircraft, flight simulators, and flight training devices under this section—

(i) For more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period; or

(ii) For more than 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

(4) An airline transport pilot may not instruct in Category II or Category III operations unless he or she has been trained and successfully tested under Category II or Category III operations, as applicable.

(b) Limitations. A person who holds an airline transport pilot certificate and has not satisfied the age requirement of § 61.153(a)(1) and the aeronautical experience requirements of § 61.159 may not:

(1) Act as pilot in command in operations conducted under part 121, § 91.1053(a)(2)(i), or § 135.243(a)(1) of this chapter, or

(2) Serve as second in command in flag or supplemental operations in part 121 of this chapter requiring three or more pilots.

[Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42376, July 15, 2013, as amended by Amdt. 61-130B, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61-130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016; FAA-2023-1275, Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92485, Nov. 21, 2024]

§ 61.169 Letters of authorization for institutions of higher education.

(a) An institution of higher education that is accredited, as defined in § 61.1, may apply for a letter of authorization for the purpose of certifying its graduates for an airline transport pilot certificate under the academic and aeronautical experience requirements in § 61.160. The application must be in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator.

(b) An institution of higher education must comply with the provisions of the letter of authorization and may not certify a graduate unless it determines that the graduate has satisfied the requirements of § 61.160, as appropriate.

(c) The Administrator may rescind or amend a letter of authorization if the Administrator determines that the institution of higher education is not complying or is unable to comply with the provisions of the letter of authorization.

[Docket FAA-2010-0100, 78 FR 42377, July 15, 2013]

§§ 61.170-69.171 [Reserved]

Subpart H Flight Instructors Other than Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating

§ 61.181 Applicability.

This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of flight instructor certificates and ratings (except for flight instructor certificates with a sport pilot rating), the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations on those certificates and ratings.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004]

§ 61.183 Eligibility requirements.

To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate or rating a person must:

(a) Be at least 18 years of age;

(1) An aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and

(2) An instrument rating, or privileges on that person's pilot certificate that are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought, if applying for—

(i) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and single-engine class rating;

(ii) A flight instructor certificate with an airplane category and multiengine class rating;

(iii) A flight instructor certificate with a powered-lift rating; or

(iv) A flight instructor certificate with an instrument rating.

(d) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on the fundamentals of instructing listed in § 61.185 of this part appropriate to the required knowledge test;

(e) Pass a knowledge test on the areas listed in § 61.185(a)(1) of this part, unless the applicant:

(1) Holds a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate issued under this part;

(2) Holds a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or

(3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.

(f) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.185(a)(2) and (a)(3) of this part that are appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought;

(g) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in § 61.187(b) of this part, appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought;

(h) Pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought in an:

(1) Aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the aircraft rating sought; or

(2) Flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with a course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(i) Accomplish the following for a flight instructor certificate with an airplane or a glider rating:

(1) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor indicating that the applicant is competent and possesses instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures after providing the applicant with flight training in those training areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for spins; and

(2) Demonstrate instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures. However, upon presentation of the endorsement specified in paragraph (i)(1) of this section an examiner may accept that endorsement as satisfactory evidence of instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures for the practical test, provided that the practical test is not a retest as a result of the applicant failing the previous test for deficiencies in the knowledge or skill of stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery instructional procedures. If the retest is a result of deficiencies in the ability of an applicant to demonstrate knowledge or skill of stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery instructional procedures, the examiner must test the person on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery instructional procedures in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for spins;

(j) Log at least 15 hours as pilot in command in the category and class of aircraft that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and

(k) Comply with the appropriate sections of this part that apply to the flight instructor rating sought.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.185 Aeronautical knowledge.

(a) A person who is applying for a flight instructor certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on:

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the fundamentals of instructing, including:

(i) The learning process;

(ii) Elements of effective teaching;

(iii) Student evaluation and testing;

(iv) Course development;

(v) Lesson planning; and

(vi) Classroom training techniques.

(2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a recreational, private, and commercial pilot certificate applicable to the aircraft category for which flight instructor privileges are sought; and

(3) The aeronautical knowledge areas for the instrument rating applicable to the category for which instrument flight instructor privileges are sought.

(b) The following applicants do not need to comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section:

(1) The holder of a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate issued under this part;

(2) The holder of a current teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or

(3) A person employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]

§ 61.187 Flight proficiency.

(a) General. A person who is applying for a flight instructor certificate must receive and log flight and ground training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation listed in this section that apply to the flight instructor rating sought. The applicant's logbook must contain an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is proficient to pass a practical test on those areas of operation.

(b) Areas of operation. (1) For an airplane category rating with a single-engine class rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport and seaplane base operations;

(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(viii) Fundamentals of flight;

(ix) Performance maneuvers;

(x) Ground reference maneuvers;

(xi) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;

(xii) Basic instrument maneuvers;

(xiii) Emergency operations; and

(xiv) Postflight procedures.

(2) For an airplane category rating with a multiengine class rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport and seaplane base operations;

(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(viii) Fundamentals of flight;

(ix) Performance maneuvers;

(x) Ground reference maneuvers;

(xi) Slow flight and stalls;

(xii) Basic instrument maneuvers;

(xiii) Emergency operations;

(xiv) Multiengine operations; and

(xv) Postflight procedures.

(3) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport and heliport operations;

(vii) Hovering maneuvers;

(viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(ix) Fundamentals of flight;

(x) Performance maneuvers;

(xi) Emergency operations;

(xii) Special operations; and

(xiii) Postflight procedures.

(4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport operations;

(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(viii) Fundamentals of flight;

(ix) Performance maneuvers;

(x) Flight at slow airspeeds;

(xi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(xii) Emergency operations; and

(xiii) Postflight procedures.

(5) For a powered-lift category rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport and heliport operations;

(vii) Hovering maneuvers;

(viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(ix) Fundamentals of flight;

(x) Performance maneuvers;

(xi) Ground reference maneuvers;

(xii) Slow flight and stalls;

(xiii) Basic instrument maneuvers;

(xiv) Emergency operations;

(xv) Special operations; and

(xvi) Postflight procedures.

(6) For a glider category rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport and gliderport operations;

(vii) Launches and landings;

(viii) Fundamentals of flight;

(ix) Performance speeds;

(x) Soaring techniques;

(xi) Performance maneuvers;

(xii) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;

(xiii) Emergency operations; and

(xiv) Postflight procedures.

(7) For an instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft category and class rating:

(i) Fundamentals of instructing;

(ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation;

(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight;

(v) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;

(vi) Flight by reference to instruments;

(vii) Navigation aids;

(viii) Instrument approach procedures;

(ix) Emergency operations; and

(x) Postflight procedures.

(1) In an aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought; or

(2) In a flight simulator or flight training device representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with an approved course at a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.189 Flight instructor records.

(a) A flight instructor must sign the logbook of each person to whom that instructor has given flight training or ground training.

(b) A flight instructor must maintain a record in a logbook or a separate document that contains the following:

(1) The name of each person whose logbook that instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and

(2) The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a knowledge test or practical test, and the record shall also indicate the kind of test, the date, and the results.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016]

§ 61.191 Additional flight instructor ratings.

(a) A person who applies for an additional flight instructor rating on a flight instructor certificate must meet the eligibility requirements listed in § 61.183 of this part that apply to the flight instructor rating sought.

(b) A person who applies for an additional rating on a flight instructor certificate is not required to pass the knowledge test on the areas listed in § 61.185(a)(1) of this part.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]

§ 61.193 Flight instructor privileges.

(a) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is authorized within the limitations of that person's flight instructor certificate and ratings to conduct ground training, flight training, certain checking events, and to issue endorsements related to:

(1) A student pilot certificate;

(2) A pilot certificate;

(3) A flight instructor certificate;

(4) A ground instructor certificate;

(5) An aircraft rating;

(6) An instrument rating;

(7) A flight review, operating privilege, or recency of experience requirement of this part, or training to maintain or improve the skills of a certificated pilot;

(8) A practical test; and

(9) A knowledge test.

(b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is authorized, in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator, to:

(1) Accept an application for a student pilot certificate or, for an applicant who holds a pilot certificate (other than a student pilot certificate) issued under part 61 of this chapter and meets the flight review requirements specified in § 61.56, a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating;

(2) Verify the identity of the applicant; and

(3) Verify that an applicant for a student pilot certificate meets the eligibility requirements in § 61.83 or an applicant for a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating meets the eligibility requirements in § 107.61 of this chapter.

(c) The privileges authorized in this section do not permit a person who holds a flight instructor certificate to conduct operations that would otherwise require an air carrier or operating certificate or specific authorization from the Administrator.

[Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 61-137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Docket FAA-2023-1351, Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024]

§ 61.195 Flight instructor limitations and qualifications.

A person who holds a flight instructor certificate is subject to the following limitations:

(a) Hours of training. In any 24-consecutive-hour period, a flight instructor may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training.

(b) Aircraft ratings. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a flight instructor may not conduct flight training in any aircraft unless the flight instructor:

(1) Holds a flight instructor certificate with the applicable category and class rating;

(2) Holds a pilot certificate with the applicable category and class rating; and

(3) Meets the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section, if applicable.

(c) Instrument rating. A flight instructor may conduct instrument training for the issuance of an instrument rating, a type rating not limited to VFR, or the instrument training required for commercial pilot and airline transport pilot certificates if the following requirements are met:

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the flight instructor must hold an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft used for the instrument training on his or her flight instructor certificate, and—

(i) Meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; or

(ii) Hold a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft in which the instrument training is conducted provided the pilot receiving instrument training holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft in which the instrument training is being conducted.

(2) If the flight instructor is conducting the instrument training in a multiengine airplane, the flight instructor must hold an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft used for the instrument training on his or her flight instructor certificate and meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.

(d) Limitations on endorsements. A flight instructor may not endorse a:

(1) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight privileges, unless that flight instructor has—

(i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight privileges required by this part; and

(ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in the student's logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight.

(2) Student pilot's logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless that flight instructor has determined the student's flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight;

(3) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight in a Class B airspace area or at an airport within Class B airspace unless that flight instructor has—

(i) Given that student ground and flight training in that Class B airspace or at that airport; and

(ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the aircraft safely.

(4) Logbook of a recreational pilot, unless that flight instructor has—

(i) Given that pilot the ground and flight training required by this part; and

(ii) Determined that the recreational pilot is proficient to operate the aircraft safely.

(5) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless that instructor has conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements of § 61.56(a) of this part; or

(6) Logbook of a pilot for an instrument proficiency check, unless that instructor has tested that pilot in accordance with the requirements of § 61.57(d) of this part.

(e) Training in an aircraft that requires a type rating. A flight instructor may not give flight instruction, including instrument training, in an aircraft that requires the pilot in command to hold a type rating unless the flight instructor holds a type rating for that aircraft on his or her pilot certificate.

(f) Training received in a multiengine airplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift. A flight instructor may not give training required for the issuance of a certificate or rating in a multiengine airplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift unless that flight instructor has at least 5 flight hours of pilot-in-command time in the specific make and model of multiengine airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift, as appropriate.

(g) Position in aircraft and required pilot stations for providing flight training. (1) A flight instructor must perform all training from in an aircraft that complies with the requirements of § 91.109 of this chapter.

(2) A flight instructor who provides flight training for a pilot certificate or rating issued under this part must provide that flight training in an aircraft that meets the following requirements—

(i) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the same category, class, and type, if appropriate, that applies to the pilot certificate or rating sought.

(ii) For single-place aircraft, the pre-solo flight training must have been provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of the same category, class, and type, if appropriate.

(h) Qualifications to provide ground or flight training to initial flight instructor applicants—(1) Ground training. The ground training provided to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must be given by an authorized instructor who—

(i) Holds a ground or flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating, has held that certificate for at least 24 calendar months, and has given at least 40 hours of ground training; or

(ii) Holds a ground or flight instructor certificate with the appropriate rating, and has given at least 100 hours of ground training in an FAA-approved course.

(2) Flight training. A flight instructor who provides flight training to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate must meet the eligibility requirements prescribed in § 61.183; hold the appropriate flight instructor certificate and rating; meet the requirements of the part under which the flight training is provided; and meet one of the following requirements—

(i) Have held a flight instructor certificate for at least 24 calendar months; and

(A) For training in preparation for an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift rating, have given at least 200 hours of flight training as a flight instructor; or

(B) For training in preparation for a glider rating, have given at least 80 hours of flight training as a flight instructor;

(ii) Have trained and endorsed, during the preceding 24 calendar months, at least five applicants for a practical test for a pilot certificate or rating, and at least 80 percent of all applicants endorsed in that period passed that test on their first attempt; or

(iii) After completing the flight training requirements in paragraph (h)(2)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, as appropriate, have graduated from an FAA-approved flight instructor enhanced qualification training program that satisfies the requirements specified in paragraph (h)(3) of this section.

(3) Flight instructor enhanced qualification training program. A flight instructor enhanced qualification training program must be approved and conducted under part 141 or 142 of this chapter, and meet the following requirements-

(i) The ground training must include at least 25 hours of instruction that includes the following subjects:

(A) Flight instructor responsibilities, functions, lesson planning, and risk management, including how to instruct an initial flight instructor applicant on these subjects.

(B) Teaching methods, procedures, and techniques applicable to instructing an initial flight instructor applicant.

(C) Methods of proper evaluation of an initial flight instructor applicant to detect improper and insufficient transfer of instructional knowledge, training, and performance of the initial flight instructor applicant.

(D) Corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training progress.

(ii) The flight training must include at least 10 hours of training that includes the following areas:

(A) Scenario-based training to develop the flight instructor's ability to instruct an initial flight instructor applicant how to satisfactorily perform the procedures and maneuvers while giving effective flight training.

(B) Instructional knowledge and proficiency to teach an initial flight instructor applicant in abnormal and emergency procedures, which must include stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures, if applicable to the category and class of aircraft used in the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program.

(C) Risk management and potential results of improper, untimely, or non-execution of safety measures critical to flight training.

(D) Methods of proper evaluation of an initial flight instructor applicant to detect improper and insufficient transfer of instructional knowledge, training, and performance of the initial flight instructor applicant.

(E) Corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory training progress.

(F) Methods to detect personal characteristics of an initial flight instructor applicant that could adversely affect safety.

(iii) Each flight instructor enrolled in the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program must satisfactorily complete an end-of-course written test specific to the ground training subjects in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section and an end-of-course instructional proficiency flight test specific to the flight training areas in paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section.

(iv) A full flight simulator or flight training device may be used to meet the flight training requirements of paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section. The FFS or FTD must be—

(A) Qualified and maintained in accordance with part 60 of this chapter, or a previously qualified device as permitted in accordance with § 60.17 of this chapter;

(B) Approved by the Administrator pursuant to § 61.4(a); and

(v) A maximum of 5 hours of training received in an advanced aviation training device may be used to meet the flight training requirements of paragraph (h)(3)(ii) of this section for part 141 flight instructor enhanced qualification training programs. The advanced aviation training device must be-

(A) Approved by the Administrator pursuant to § 61.4(c); and

(B) Used in accordance with part 141 of this chapter.

(vi) No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any person serve, as an instructor of the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program unless the instructor holds a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate and meets one of the following qualifications:

(A) Serves as a chief instructor or assistant chief instructor in a part 141 pilot school;

(B) Serves as a training center program manager or assistant training center program manager of a part 142 training center; or

(vii) A part 141 pilot school or part 142 training center must issue a graduation certificate to each flight instructor who successfully completes the flight instructor enhanced qualification training program.

(i) Prohibition against self-endorsements. A flight instructor shall not make any self-endorsement for a certificate, rating, flight review, authorization, operating privilege, practical test, or knowledge test that is required by this part.

(j) Additional qualifications required to give training in Category II or Category III operations. A flight instructor may not give training in Category II or Category III operations unless the flight instructor has been trained and tested in Category II or Category III operations, pursuant to § 61.67 or § 61.68 of this part, as applicable.

(k) Training for night vision goggle operations. A flight instructor may not conduct training for night vision goggle operations unless the flight instructor:

(1) Has a pilot and flight instructor certificate with the applicable category and class rating for the training;

(2) If appropriate, has a type rating on his or her pilot certificate for the aircraft;

(3) Is pilot in command qualified for night vision goggle operations, in accordance with § 61.31(k);

(4) Has logged 100 night vision goggle operations as the sole manipulator of the controls;

(5) Has logged 20 night vision goggle operations as the sole manipulator of the controls in the category and class, and type of aircraft, if aircraft class and type is appropriate, that the training will be given in;

(6) Is qualified to act as pilot in command in night vision goggle operations under § 61.57(f) or (g); and

(7) Has a logbook endorsement from an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector or a person who is authorized by the FAA to provide that logbook endorsement that states the flight instructor is authorized to perform the night vision goggle pilot in command qualification and recent flight experience requirements under § 61.31(k) and § 61.57(f) and (g).

(l) Training on control and maneuvering an aircraft solely by reference to the instruments. A flight instructor may conduct flight training on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the flight instruments, provided the flight instructor—

(1) Holds a flight instructor certificate with the applicable category and class rating; or

(2) Holds an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft used for the training on his or her flight instructor certificate, and holds a commercial pilot certificate or airline transport pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft in which the training is conducted provided the pilot receiving the training holds a pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft in which the training is being conducted.

(m) Training in an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation. A flight instructor may not conduct instruction in a simplified flight control designation aircraft unless they hold the appropriate category and class rating prior to adding the make and model endorsement required by § 61.31(l).

(n) Initial cadre training in an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation. (1) For purposes of this paragraph (n), instructor pilot means a pilot employed or used by a manufacturer of an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation to conduct operations of that aircraft for the purpose of providing crew training.

(2) A flight instructor may conduct flight training in an aircraft with a simplified flight controls designation without satisfying the training and endorsement requirements under § 61.31(l), provided the flight instructor—

(i) Holds a flight instructor certificate with the appropriate aircraft category and class, (if a class is required);

(ii) Has received and logged model-specific training in that aircraft from an instructor pilot for the manufacturer of the aircraft; and

(iii) Has received a logbook or training record endorsement from the instructor pilot certifying that the flight instructor is proficient in the safe operation of that model-specific aircraft and the associated simplified flight controls.

(3) Notwithstanding the requirements in § 61.3(d)(2)(ii), an instructor pilot may provide the training and endorsement specified in paragraph (n)(2) of this section in lieu of an authorized instructor.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30729, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80051, Oct. 1, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35212, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.197 Recent experience requirements for flight instructor certification.

(a) A person may exercise the privileges of the person's flight instructor certificate only if, within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person has satisfied one of the recent experience requirements specified in paragraph (b) of this section. The 24 calendar month period during which the flight instructor must establish recent experience shall start from one of the following—

(1) The month the FAA issued the flight instructor certificate;

(2) The month the recent experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are accomplished; or

(3) The last month of the flight instructor's current recent experience period provided the recent experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are accomplished within the 3 calendar months preceding the last month of the certificate holder's current recent experience period.

(b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate may establish recent experience by satisfying one of the following requirements—

(1) Passing a practical test for—

(i) One of the ratings listed on the flight instructor certificate; or

(ii) An additional flight instructor rating; or

(2) Satisfactorily completing one of the following recent experience requirements, and submitting documentation of such in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator—

(i) During the preceding 24 calendar months, the flight instructor has endorsed at least 5 applicants for a practical test for a certificate or rating and at least 80 percent of all applicants endorsed passed that test on the first attempt.

(ii) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, the flight instructor has served as a company check pilot, chief flight instructor, company check airman, or flight instructor in a part 121 or 135 operation, or in a position involving the regular evaluation of pilots.

(iii) Within the preceding 3 calendar months, the person has successfully completed an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or a combination of both.

(iv) Within the preceding 24 calendar months from the month of application, the flight instructor passed an official U.S. Armed Forces military instructor pilot or pilot examiner proficiency check in an aircraft for which the military instructor already holds a rating or in an aircraft for an additional rating.

(v) Within the preceding 24 calendar months from the month of application, the flight instructor has served as a flight instructor in an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency program, provided the flight instructor meets the following requirements—

(A) Holds a flight instructor certificate and meets the appropriate flight instructor recent experience requirements of this part;

(B) Has satisfactorily completed at least one phase of an FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency program in the preceding 12 calendar months; and

(C) Has conducted at least 15 flight activities recognized under the FAA-sponsored pilot proficiency program, during which the flight instructor evaluated at least 5 different pilots and has made the necessary endorsements in the logbooks of each pilot for each activity.

(c) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a person who fails to establish recent experience in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section during the 24 calendar month period specified in paragraph (a) of this section may not exercise flight instructor privileges until those privileges are reinstated in accordance with § 61.199.

(d) The practical test required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be accomplished in a full flight simulator or flight training device if the test is accomplished pursuant to an approved course conducted by a training center certificated under part 142 of this chapter.

(e) A person who holds an unexpired flight instructor certificate issued before December 1, 2024, may renew that certificate by establishing recent experience in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section prior to the month of expiration on that person's flight instructor certificate. Except as provided in § 61.40, if that person fails to establish recent experience prior to the expiration of that person's flight instructor certificate, that person may not exercise flight instructor privileges until those privileges are reinstated in accordance with § 61.199.

(f) A person who qualifies for the relief prescribed in § 61.40 may establish recent experience in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, provided the requirements of § 61.40 are met.

[Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80051, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.199 Reinstatement of flight instructor privileges.

(a) Flight instructor privileges. The holder of a flight instructor certificate who has not complied with the flight instructor recent experience requirements of § 61.197 may reinstate their flight instructor privileges by filing a completed and signed application with the FAA and satisfactorily completing one of the following reinstatement requirements:

(1) If 3 calendar months or less have passed since the last month of the flight instructor's recent experience period, the flight instructor may successfully complete an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or a combination of both, or satisfy one of the requirements specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(2) If more than 3 calendar months have passed since the last month of the flight instructor's recent experience period, the flight instructor must satisfactorily complete one of the following:

(i) A flight instructor certification practical test, as prescribed by § 61.183(h), for one of the ratings held on the flight instructor certificate; or

(ii) A flight instructor certification practical test for an additional rating.

(3) For military instructor pilots and pilot examiners, provide a record showing that, within the preceding 6 calendar months from the date of application for reinstatement, the person—

(i) Passed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot examiner proficiency check; or

(ii) Completed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot examiner training course and received an additional aircraft qualification as a military instructor pilot or pilot examiner that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought.

(b) Flight instructor ratings. (1) A flight instructor rating or a limited flight instructor rating on a pilot certificate is no longer valid and may not be exchanged for a similar rating or a flight instructor certificate.

(2) The holder of a flight instructor rating or a limited flight instructor rating on a pilot certificate may be issued a flight instructor certificate with the current ratings, but only if the person passes the required knowledge and practical test prescribed in this subpart for the issuance of the current flight instructor certificate and rating.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80052, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.201 [Reserved]

Subpart I Ground Instructors

§ 61.211 Applicability.

This subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of ground instructor certificates and ratings, the conditions under which those certificates and ratings are necessary, and the limitations upon those certificates and ratings.

§ 61.213 Eligibility requirements.

(a) To be eligible for a ground instructor certificate or rating a person must:

(1) Be at least 18 years of age;

(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet one of these requirements due to medical reasons, then the Administrator may place such operating limitations on that applicant's ground instructor certificate as are necessary;

(3) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, pass a knowledge test on the fundamentals of instructing to include—

(i) The learning process;

(ii) Elements of effective teaching;

(iii) Student evaluation and testing;

(iv) Course development;

(v) Lesson planning; and

(vi) Classroom training techniques.

(4) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas in—

(i) For a basic ground instructor rating §§ 61.97, 61.105, and 61.309;

(ii) For an advanced ground instructor rating §§ 61.97, 61.105, 61.125, 61.155, and 61.309; and

(iii) For an instrument ground instructor rating, § 61.65.

(b) The knowledge test specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is not required if the applicant:

(1) Holds a ground instructor certificate or flight instructor certificate issued under this part;

(2) Holds a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality that authorizes the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or

(3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.215 Ground instructor privileges.

(a) A person who holds a basic ground instructor rating is authorized to provide—

(1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, private pilot certificate, or associated ratings under this part;

(2) Ground training required for a sport pilot, recreational pilot, and private pilot flight review; and

(3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of a sport pilot certificate, recreational pilot certificate, or private pilot certificate under this part.

(b) A person who holds an advanced ground instructor rating is authorized to provide:

(1) Ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of any certificate or rating under this part except for the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an instrument rating.

(2) The ground training required for any flight review except for the training required for an instrument rating.

(3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of any certificate or rating under this part except for an instrument rating.

(1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of an instrument rating under this part;

(2) Ground training required for an instrument proficiency check; and

(3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of an instrument rating under this part.

(d) A person who holds a ground instructor certificate is authorized, within the limitations of the ratings on the ground instructor certificate, to endorse the logbook or other training record of a person to whom the holder has provided the training or recommendation specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.

(e) Ground training provided to an initial applicant for a flight instructor certificate may only be provided by an authorized instructor in accordance with § 61.195(h)(1).

[Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 61-110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80052, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.217 Recent experience requirements.

The holder of a ground instructor certificate may not perform the duties of a ground instructor unless the person can show that one of the following occurred during the preceding 12 calendar months:

(a) Employment or activity as a ground instructor giving pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor training;

(b) Employment or activity as a flight instructor giving pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor ground or flight training;

(c) Completion of an approved flight instructor refresher course and receipt of a graduation certificate for that course; or

(d) An endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person has demonstrated knowledge in the subject areas prescribed under § 61.213(a)(3) and (a)(4), as appropriate.

[Docket FAA-2006-26661, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]

Subpart J Sport Pilots

Source: Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, unless otherwise noted.

§ 61.301 What is the purpose of this subpart and to whom does it apply?

(a) This subpart prescribes the following requirements that apply to a sport pilot certificate:

(1) Eligibility.

(2) Aeronautical knowledge.

(3) Flight proficiency.

(4) Aeronautical experience.

(5) Endorsements.

(6) Privileges and limits.

(b) Other provisions of this part apply to the logging of flight time and testing.

(c) This subpart applies to applicants for, and holders of, sport pilot certificates. It also applies to holders of recreational pilot certificates and higher, as provided in § 61.303.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]

§ 61.303 If I want to operate an aircraft that satisfies the limitations identified in § 61.316, what operating limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart must I comply with?

(a) Use the following table to determine what operating limits and endorsement requirements in this subpart, if any, apply to you when you operate an aircraft that satisfies the limitations identified in § 61.316. The medical certificate specified in this table must be in compliance with § 61.2 in regard to currency and validity. If you hold a recreational pilot certificate, but not a medical certificate, you must comply with cross country requirements in § 61.101(c), even if your flight does not exceed 50 nautical miles from your departure airport. You must also comply with requirements in other subparts of this part that apply to your certificate and the operation you conduct. In the following table, when the word “aircraft” is used, it refers to aircraft that satisfy the limitations identified in § 61.316.

If you hold . . . | And you hold . . . | Then you may operate . . . | And . . .

(1) A medical certificate | (i) A sport pilot certificate, | Any aircraft for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class, | You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.

(ii) At least a recreational pilot certificate with a category and class rating, | Any aircraft in that category and class, | You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, nor do you have to comply with the limitations in § 61.315.

(iii) At least a recreational pilot certificate but not a rating for the category and class of the aircraft you operate, | That aircraft, only if you hold the endorsements required for § 61.321 for its category and class, | You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).

(2) Only a U.S. driver's license | (i) A sport pilot certificate, | Any aircraft for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class, | You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.

(ii) At least a recreational pilot certificate with a category and class rating, | Any aircraft in that category and class, | You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, but you must comply with the limitations in § 61.315.

(iii) At least a recreational pilot certificate but not a rating for the category and class of aircraft you operate, | That aircraft, only if you hold the endorsements required in § 61.321 for its category and class, | You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).

(3) Neither a medical certificate nor a U.S. driver's license | (i) A sport pilot certificate, | Any glider or balloon for which you hold the endorsements required for its category and class, | You must hold any other endorsements required by this subpart, and comply with the limitations in § 61.315.

(ii) At least a private pilot certificate with a category and class rating for glider or balloon, | Any glider or balloon in that category and class | You do not have to hold any of the endorsements required by this subpart, nor do you have to comply with the limitations in § 61.315.

(iii) At least a private pilot certificate but not a rating for glider or balloon, | Any glider or balloon, only if you hold the endorsements required in § 61.321 for its category and class. | You must comply with the limitations in § 61.315, except § 61.315(c)(14) and, if a private pilot or higher, § 61.315(c)(7).

(b) A person using a U.S. driver's license to meet the requirements of this paragraph must—

(1) Comply with each restriction and limitation imposed by that person's U.S. driver's license and any judicial or administrative order applying to the operation of a motor vehicle;

(2) Have been found eligible for the issuance of at least a third-class airman medical certificate at the time of his or her most recent application (if the person has applied for a medical certificate);

(3) Not have had his or her most recently issued medical certificate (if the person has held a medical certificate) suspended or revoked or most recent Authorization for a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate withdrawn; and

(4) Not know or have reason to know of any medical condition that would make that person unable to operate an aircraft in a safe manner.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35212, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.305 What are the age and language requirements for a sport pilot certificate?

To be eligible for a sport pilot certificate you must:

(a) Be at least 17 years old (or 16 years old if you are applying to operate a glider or balloon).

(b) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. If you cannot read, speak, write, and understand English because of medical reasons, the FAA may place limits on your certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of an aircraft.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35213, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.307 What tests do I have to take to obtain a sport pilot certificate?

To obtain a sport pilot certificate, you must pass the following tests:

(a) Knowledge test. You must pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.309. Before you may take the knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you or reviewed and evaluated your home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.309 certifying you are prepared for the test.

(b) Practical test. You must pass a practical test on the applicable areas of operation listed in §§ 61.309 and 61.311. Before you may take the practical test for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in §§ 61.309 and 61.311 in preparation for the practical test. This endorsement certifies that you meet the applicable aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements and are prepared for the practical test.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35213, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.309 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate?

To apply for a sport pilot certificate you must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the following aeronautical knowledge areas:

(a) Applicable regulations of this chapter that relate to sport pilot privileges, limits, and flight operations.

(b) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board.

(d) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead reckoning, and navigation systems, as appropriate.

(e) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts.

(f) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence.

(g) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance.

(h) Weight and balance computations.

(i) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems.

(j) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques, as applicable.

(k) Aeronautical decision making and risk management.

(l) Preflight actions that include—

(1) How to get information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and

(2) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or if you encounter delays.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]

§ 61.311 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a sport pilot certificate?

To apply for a sport pilot certificate, you must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following areas of operation, as appropriate, for airplane single-engine land or sea, glider, gyroplane, helicopter, airship, balloon, powered parachute land or sea, weight-shift-control aircraft land or sea privileges:

(a) Preflight preparation.

(b) Preflight procedures.

(d) Hovering maneuvers (applicable only to helicopters).

(e) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds.

(f) Performance maneuvers and, for gliders, performance speeds.

(g) Ground reference maneuvers (not applicable to gliders, helicopters, and balloons).

(h) Soaring techniques (applicable only to gliders).

(i) Navigation.

(j) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft, helicopters, and powered parachutes).

(k) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air aircraft, gyroplanes, helicopters, and powered parachutes).

(l) Emergency operations.

(m) Post-flight procedures.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35213, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.313 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a sport pilot certificate?

(a) Aeronautical experience. Use the following table to determine the aeronautical experience you must have to apply for a sport pilot certificate:

If you are applying for a sport pilot certificate with . . . | Then you must log at least . . . | Which must include at least . . .

(1) Airplane category and single-engine land or sea class privileges, | 20 hours of flight time, including at least 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a single-engine airplane and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, | (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training; (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 75 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(2) Glider category privileges, and you have not logged at least 20 hours of flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft, | 10 hours of flight time in a glider, including 10 flights in a glider receiving flight training from an authorized instructor and at least 2 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, | (i) Five solo launches and landings; and (ii) at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(3) Glider category privileges, and you have logged at least 20 hours of flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft, | 3 hours of flight time in a glider, including five flights in a glider while receiving flight training from an authorized instructor and at least 1 hour of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, | (i) Three solo launches and landings; and (ii) at least 3 training flights with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(4) Rotorcraft category and gyroplane class privileges, | 20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a gyroplane and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, | (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training; (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(5) Lighter-than-air category and airship class privileges, | 20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in an airship and at least 3 hours performing the duties of pilot in command in an airship with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, | (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training; (ii) Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) One cross-country flight of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(6) Lighter-than-air category and balloon class privileges, | 7 hours of flight time in a balloon, including three flights with an authorized instructor and one flight performing the duties of pilot in command in a balloon with an authorized instructor in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, | (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training; and (ii) 1 hour of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(7) Powered parachute category land or sea class privileges, | 12 hours of flight time in a powered parachute, including 10 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a powered parachute, and at least 2 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, | (i) 1 hour of cross-country flight training; (ii) 20 takeoffs and landings to a full stop in a powered parachute with each landing involving flight in the traffic pattern at an airport; (iii) 10 solo takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iv) One solo flight with a landing at a different airport and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 10 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations; and (v) 1 hour of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(8) Weight-shift-control aircraft category land or sea class privileges, | 20 hours of flight time, including 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a weight-shift-control aircraft and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, | (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training; (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between takeoff and landing locations; and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(9) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class, only if that helicopter is certificated under § 21.190 and obtains the simplified flight controls designation, | 30 hours of helicopter flight time, including at least 15 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in a helicopter, and at least 5 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.311, as appropriate, | (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training; (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport; (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 50 nautical miles total distance, with a full-stop landing at a minimum of two points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor on those areas of operation specified in § 61.311 in preparation for the practical test within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test.

(b) Flight simulation training device and aviation training device credit. (1) Sport pilot applicants can use up to 2.5 hours of training credit in a qualified flight simulation training device and aviation training device representing the appropriate category and class of aircraft to meet the experience requirements of this part.

(2) The training must be provided by an authorized instructor who possesses the appropriate aircraft rating or privilege sought by the applicant.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35213, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.315 What are the privileges and limits of my sport pilot certificate?

(a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate you may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that meets the provisions of § 61.316, except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) You may share the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees. You must pay at least half the operating expenses of the flight.

(1) That is carrying a passenger or property for compensation or hire.

(2) For compensation or hire.

(3) In furtherance of a business.

(4) While carrying more than one passenger.

(5) At night, except as provided in § 61.329.

(6) In Class A airspace.

(7) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower unless you have met the requirements specified in § 61.325.

(8) Outside the United States, unless you have prior authorization from the country in which you seek to operate. Your sport pilot certificate carries the limit “Holder does not meet ICAO requirements.”

(9) To demonstrate the aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer if you are an aircraft salesperson.

(10) In a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization.

(11) At an altitude of more than 10,000 feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher.

(12) When the flight or surface visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

(13) Without visual reference to the surface.

(14) If the aircraft:

(i) Has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS, unless you have met the requirements of § 61.327(b).

(ii) Has a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS, unless you have met the requirements of § 61.327(a) or have logged flight time as pilot in command of an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS before April 2, 2010.

(15) Contrary to any operating limitation placed on the airworthiness certificate of the aircraft being flown.

(16) Contrary to any limit on your pilot certificate or airman medical certificate, or any other limit or endorsement from an authorized instructor.

(17) Contrary to any restriction or limitation on your U.S. driver's license or any restriction or limitation imposed by judicial or administrative order when using your driver's license to satisfy a requirement of this part.

(18) While towing any object.

(19) As a pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the type certificate of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted.

(20) If the aircraft—

(i) Has retractable landing gear, unless you have met the requirements of § 61.331(a); or

(ii) Is an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller, unless you have met the requirements of § 61.331(b).

(21) That requires a pilot to hold a type rating in accordance with § 61.31(a).

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35215, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.316 What are the performance limits and design requirements for the aircraft that a sport pilot may operate?

(a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate, you may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that, since its original certification, meets the following requirements:

(1) A maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the use of lift-enhancing devices (VS1) of not more than 45 knots CAS, except for airplanes, which must have a VS1 speed of not more than 59 knots CAS at the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity.

(2) A maximum seating capacity of two persons, except for airplanes, which may have a maximum seating capacity of four persons.

(3) A non-pressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin.

(4) For gyroplanes, a fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system.

(5) For powered aircraft other than balloons or airships, the loss of partial power would not adversely affect directional control of the aircraft and the aircraft design must allow the pilot the capability of establishing a controlled descent in the event of a partial or total powerplant failure.

(6) For helicopters, they must be certificated with the simplified flight controls designation.

(7) For gliders, fixed or retractable landing gear.

(8) For powered-aircraft other than a glider, fixed landing gear except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.

(9) For powered-aircraft other than a glider, a fixed, ground-adjustable, or an automated controllable pitch propeller except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) If you hold a sport pilot certificate, you may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that has retractable landing gear or an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller if you have met the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.331.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35215, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.317 Is my sport pilot certificate issued with aircraft category and class ratings?

Your sport pilot certificate does not list aircraft category and class ratings. When you successfully pass the practical test for a sport pilot certificate, regardless of the aircraft privileges you seek, the FAA will issue you a sport pilot certificate without any category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook endorsement for the category and class of aircraft in which you are authorized to act as pilot in command.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.319 [Reserved]

§ 61.321 How do I obtain privileges to operate an additional category or class of aircraft?

(a) If you hold a sport pilot or higher grade certificate and seek to operate an additional category or class of aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 under this subpart, other than an airplane single-engine land or sea or a rotorcraft-helicopter, you must—

(1) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas specified in § 61.309 and areas of operation specified in § 61.311. The endorsement certifies you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements for the additional aircraft privilege you seek;

(2) Successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized instructor, other than the instructor who trained you, consisting of the tasks in the appropriate areas of operation contained in the applicable Practical Test Standards or Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part for the additional sport pilot privilege you seek;

(3) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and

(4) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section certifying you are proficient in the applicable areas of operation and aeronautical knowledge areas, and that you are authorized for the additional category and class aircraft privilege.

(b) If you hold a sport pilot or higher grade certificate and seek to operate an airplane single-engine land or sea or a rotorcraft-helicopter meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316, you must successfully accomplish a practical test for that category and class privilege as specified in § 61.307(b).

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35215, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.323 [Reserved]

§ 61.325 How do I obtain privileges to operate an aircraft at an airport within, or in airspace within, Class B, C, and D airspace, or in other airspace with an airport having an operational control tower?

If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek privileges to operate an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 in Class B, C, or D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, you must receive and log ground and flight training. The authorized instructor who provides this training must provide a logbook endorsement that certifies you are proficient in the following aeronautical knowledge areas and areas of operation:

(a) The use of radios, communications, navigation system/facilities, and radar services.

(b) Operations at airports with an operating control tower to include three takeoffs and landings to a full stop, with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an operating control tower.

(c) Applicable flight rules of part 91 of this chapter for operations in Class B, C, and D airspace and air traffic control clearances.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.327 Are there specific endorsement requirements to operate an aircraft based on VH?

(a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, if you hold a sport pilot certificate and you seek to operate an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 that is an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS you must—

(1) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that has a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS; and

(2) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided the training specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section certifying that you are proficient in the operation of aircraft that is an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS.

(b) If you hold a sport pilot certificate and you seek to operate an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316 that has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS you must—

(1) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft that has a VH greater than 87 knots CAS; and

(2) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided the training specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section certifying that you are proficient in the operation of aircraft with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS.

(c) The training and endorsements required by paragraph (a) of this section are not required if you have logged flight time as pilot in command of an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS prior to April 2, 2010.

[Docket FAA-2007-29015, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.329 How do I obtain privileges to operate an aircraft at night?

You may act as pilot in command with a sport pilot certificate during night operations if you:

(a) Receive 3 hours of night flight training in the specific category and class from an authorized instructor that includes—

(1) Conduct at least one cross-country flight during the flight training under paragraph (a) of this section at night, with a landing at an airport of at least 25 nautical miles from the departure airport, except for powered parachutes; and

(2) Accomplish at least 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop at night;

(b) Either hold a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter or meet the conditions of § 61.113(i) and the operation is conducted consistent with this section. Where the requirements of § 61.316 conflict with § 61.113(i), a sport pilot must comply with § 61.316; and

(c) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that you meet the training requirements in paragraph (a) of this section and are proficient in the operation of the aircraft at night in the category and class which the sport pilot seeks privileges.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35215, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.331 How do I obtain privileges to operate an aircraft with retractable landing gear or an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller?

(a) If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek privileges to operate an aircraft with retractable landing gear, you must either—

(1) Satisfy the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.31(e), or

(2) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft that has retractable landing gear and receive an endorsement from the instructor certifying that you are proficient to operate the aircraft.

(b) If you hold a sport pilot certificate and seek privileges to operate an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller, you must either—

(1) Satisfy the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.31(e), or

(2) Receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that has a manual controllable pitch propeller and receive an endorsement from the instructor certifying that you are proficient to operate the airplane.

(c) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (a) of this section is not required for pilots seeking to operate aircraft intended for operation on water with retractable landing gear if the person logged pilot-in-command time in such an aircraft before October 22, 2025.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35215, July 24, 2025]

Subpart K Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating

Source: Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, unless otherwise noted.

§ 61.401 What is the purpose of this subpart?

(a) This part prescribes the following requirements that apply to a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating:

(1) Eligibility.

(2) Aeronautical knowledge.

(3) Flight proficiency.

(4) Endorsements.

(5) Privileges and limits.

(b) Other provisions of this part apply to the logging of flight time and testing.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010]

§ 61.403 What are the age, language, and pilot certificate requirements for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

To be eligible for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating you must:

(a) Be at least 18 years old.

(c) Hold at least a sport pilot certificate with category and class ratings or privileges, as applicable, that are appropriate to the flight instructor privileges sought.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.405 What tests do I have to take to obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

To obtain a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating you must pass the following tests:

(a) Knowledge test. Before you take a knowledge test, you must receive a logbook endorsement certifying you are prepared for the test from an authorized instructor who trained you or evaluated your home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § 61.407. You must pass knowledge tests on—

(1) The fundamentals of instructing listed in § 61.407(a), unless you meet the requirements of § 61.407(c); and

(2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a sport pilot certificate applicable to the aircraft category and class for which flight instructor privileges are sought.

(b) Practical test. (1) Before you take the practical test, you must—

(i) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who provided you with flight training on the areas of operation specified in § 61.409 that apply to the category and class of aircraft privileges you seek. This endorsement certifies you meet the applicable aeronautical knowledge and experience requirements and are prepared for the practical test;

(ii) If you are seeking privileges to provide instruction in an airplane or glider, receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor indicating that you are competent and possess instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures after you have received flight training in those training areas in an airplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certificated for spins;

(2) You must pass a practical test—

(i) On the areas of operation listed in § 61.409 that are appropriate to the category and class of aircraft privileges you seek;

(ii) In an aircraft representative of the category and class of aircraft for the privileges you seek;

(iii) In which you demonstrate that you are able to teach stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures if you are seeking privileges to provide instruction in an airplane or glider. If you have not failed a practical test based on deficiencies in your ability to demonstrate knowledge or skill in these areas and you provide the endorsement required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, an examiner may accept the endorsement instead of the demonstration required by this paragraph. If you are taking a test because you previously failed a test based on not meeting the requirements of this paragraph, you must pass a practical test on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery instructional competency and proficiency in the applicable category and class of aircraft that is certificated for spins.

§ 61.407 What aeronautical knowledge must I have to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

(a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section you must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the fundamentals of instruction that includes:

(1) The learning process.

(2) Elements of effective teaching.

(3) Student evaluation and testing.

(4) Course development.

(5) Lesson planning.

(6) Classroom training techniques.

(b) You must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to a sport pilot certificate for the aircraft category and class in which you seek flight instructor privileges.

(1) Hold a flight instructor certificate or ground instructor certificate issued under this part;

(2) Hold a teacher's certificate issued by a State, county, city, or municipality; or

(3) Are employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]

§ 61.409 What flight proficiency requirements must I meet to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

You must receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the following areas of operation for the aircraft category and class in which you seek flight instructor privileges:

(a) Technical subject areas.

(b) Preflight preparation.

(d) Preflight procedures.

(e) Airport, heliport, seaplane base, and gliderport operations, as applicable.

(f) Hovering maneuvers (applicable only to helicopters).

(g) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, and go-arounds.

(h) Fundamentals of flight.

(i) Performance maneuvers and, for gliders, performance speeds.

(j) Ground reference maneuvers (except for gliders, helicopters, and lighter-than-air).

(k) Soaring techniques (gliders only).

(l) Slow flight (not applicable to lighter-than-air, helicopters, and powered parachutes).

(m) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-than-air, powered parachutes, helicopters, and gyroplanes).

(n) Spins (applicable to airplanes and gliders).

(o) Emergency operations.

(p) Tumble entry and avoidance techniques (applicable to weight-shift-control aircraft).

(q) Special operations (helicopter only).

(r) Post-flight procedures.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35216, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.411 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

Use the following table to determine the experience you must have for each aircraft category and class:

If you are applying for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating for . . . | Then you must log at least . . . | Which must include at least . . .

(a) Airplane category and single-engine class privileges, | (1) 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, | (i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a single-engine airplane, (iii) 25 hours of cross-country time, (iv) 10 hours of cross-country time in a single-engine airplane, and

(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a single-engine airplane that is an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316.

(b) Glider category privileges, | (1) 25 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a glider, 100 flights in a glider, and 15 flights as pilot in command in a glider that is an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316, or (2) 100 hours in heavier-than-air aircraft, 20 flights in a glider, and 15 flights as pilot in command in a glider that is a light-sport aircraft

(c) Rotorcraft category and gyroplane class privileges, | (1) 125 hours of flight time as a pilot, | (i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a gyroplane,

(iii) 10 hours of cross-country time,

(iv) 3 hours of cross-country time in a gyroplane, and

(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a gyroplane that is an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316.

(d) Lighter-than-air category and airship class privileges, | (1) 100 hours of flight time as a pilot, | (i) 40 hours of flight time in an airship, (ii) 20 hours of pilot in command time in an airship,

(iii) 10 hours of cross-country time,

(iv) 5 hours of cross-country time in an airship, and

(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in an airship that is an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316.

(e) Lighter-than-air category and balloon class privileges, | (1) 35 hours of flight time as pilot-in-command, | (i) 20 hours of flight time in a balloon, (ii) 10 flights in a balloon, and

(iii) 5 flights as pilot in command in a balloon that is an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316.

(f) Weight-shift-control aircraft category privileges, | (1) 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, | (i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a weight-shift-control aircraft,

(iii) 25 hours of cross-country time,

(iv) 10 hours of cross-country time in a weight-shift-control aircraft, and

(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a weight-shift-control aircraft that is an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316.

(g) Powered-parachute category privileges, | (1) 100 hours of flight time as a pilot, | (i) 75 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a powered parachute,

(iii) 15 hours of cross-country time,

(iv) 5 hours of cross-country time in a powered parachute, and

(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a powered parachute that is an aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316.

(h) Rotorcraft category and helicopter class, only if that helicopter is certificated under § 21.190 and obtains the simplified flight controls designation, | (1) 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, | (i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command in powered aircraft; (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a helicopter; (iii) 25 hours of cross-country flight time; (iv) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in a helicopter; and (v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command in a helicopter.

(2) [Reserved]

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by FAA-2023-1275; Amdt. 61-157, 89 FR 92483, Nov. 21, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35216, 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.412 Do I need additional training to provide instruction on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the instruments in an aircraft based on VH?

To provide flight training under § 61.93(e)(12) on control and maneuvering an airplane solely by reference to the flight instruments for the purpose of issuing a solo cross-country endorsement under § 61.93(c)(1) to a student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate, a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating must:

(a) Hold an endorsement required by § 61.327(b);

(b) Receive and log a minimum of 1 hour of ground training and 3 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS or in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device that replicates an airplane with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS; and

(c) Receive a one-time endorsement in his or her logbook from an instructor authorized under subpart H of this part who certifies that the person is proficient in providing training on control and maneuvering solely by reference to the flight instruments in an airplane with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS. This flight training must include straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio navigation aids, and ATC directives.

[Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]

§ 61.413 What are the privileges of my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

(a) If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you are authorized, within the limits of your certificate and rating, to conduct ground training, flight training, certain checking events, and to issue endorsements related to:

(1) A student pilot seeking a sport pilot certificate;

(2) A sport pilot certificate;

(3) A flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;

(4) A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating;

(5) Sport pilot privileges;

(6) A flight review or operating privilege for a sport pilot, or training to maintain or improve the skills of a sport pilot;

(7) A practical test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating;

(8) A knowledge test for a sport pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating; and

(9) A proficiency check for an additional category or class privilege for a sport pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.

(b) A person who holds a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating is authorized, in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator, to:

(2) Verify the identity of the applicant; and

(3) Verify that an applicant for a student pilot certificate meets the eligibility requirements in § 61.83.

(c) The privileges authorized in this section do not permit a person who holds a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating to conduct operations that would otherwise require an air carrier or operating certificate or specific authorization from the Administrator.

(d) Notwithstanding § 61.315(c)(2) and (3), a person who holds a flight instructor certificate issued under this subpart K of this part may receive compensation for providing flight training in accordance with this subpart.

[Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket FAA-2015-0150, Amdt. 61-137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016; Docket FAA-2023-1351; Amdt. 61-156, 89 FR 80340, Oct. 2, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35216, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.415 What are the limits of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you may only provide flight training in a light-sport aircraft and are subject to the following limits:

(a) You may not provide ground or flight training in any aircraft for which you do not hold:

(1) A sport pilot certificate with applicable category and class privileges or a pilot certificate with the applicable category and class rating; and

(2) Applicable category and class privileges for your flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.

(b) You may not provide ground or flight training for a private pilot certificate with a powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft rating unless you hold:

(1) At least a private pilot certificate with the applicable category and class rating; and

(2) Applicable category and class privileges for your flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.

(d) You may not endorse a:

(1) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight privileges, unless you have—

(i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight privileges required by this part; and

(ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in the student's logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the flight.

(2) Student pilot's logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless you have determined the student's flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that you consider necessary for the safety of the flight.

(3) Student pilot's logbook for solo flight in Class B, C, and D airspace areas, at an airport within Class B, C, or D airspace and to from, through or on an airport having an operational control tower, unless you have—

(i) Given that student ground and flight training in that airspace or at that airport; and

(ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the aircraft safely.

(4) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless you have conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements of § 61.56.

(e) You may not provide training to operate an aircraft in Class B, C, and D airspace, at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower, unless you have the endorsement specified in § 61.325, or are otherwise authorized to conduct operations in this airspace and at these airports.

(f) You may not provide training in an aircraft that is an airplane with a VH less than or equal to 87 knots CAS unless you have the endorsement specified in § 61.327 (a), or are otherwise authorized to operate that light-sport aircraft.

(g) You may not provide training in an aircraft with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS unless you have the endorsement specified in § 61.327 (b), or are otherwise authorized to operate that light-sport aircraft.

(h) You may not provide training on the control and maneuvering of an aircraft solely by reference to the instruments in a light sport airplane with a Vh greater than 87 knots CAS unless you meet the requirements in § 61.412.

(i) You must perform all training in an aircraft that complies with the requirements of § 91.109 of this chapter.

(j) If you provide flight training for a certificate, rating or privilege, you must provide that flight training in an aircraft that meets the following:

(1) The aircraft must have at least two pilot stations and be of the same category and class appropriate to the certificate, rating or privilege sought.

(2) For single place aircraft, pre-solo flight training must be provided in an aircraft that has two pilot stations and is of the same category and class appropriate to the certificate, rating, or privilege sought.

(k) You cannot carry more than one person.

(l) You may not provide training in an airplane with a manual controllable pitch propeller or an aircraft with a retractable landing gear unless you have received training and an instructor endorsement validating proficiency in the safe operation of these types of aircraft.

(m) You may not provide training in an aircraft that has the simplified flight controls designation unless you have received the model-specific flight training and an endorsement from an authorized instructor validating proficiency in the safe operation of these aircraft.

(n) You may not provide training in an aircraft at night unless you have completed the night experience and instructor endorsement requirements listed in § 61.329 for the category and class you seek to provide training in.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016; Amdt. 61-142, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35216, 35218, July 24, 2025]

Editorial Note:At 90 FR 35216, July 24, 2025, and corrected at 90 FR 40042, Aug. 18, 2025, § 61.415 was amended in part by adding an introductory paragraph; however, the paragraph could not be added because it already exists.

§ 61.417 Will my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating list aircraft category and class ratings?

Your flight instructor certificate does not list aircraft category and class ratings. When you successfully pass the practical test for a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, regardless of the aircraft privileges you seek, the FAA will issue you a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating without any category and class ratings. The FAA will provide you with a logbook endorsement for the category and class of aircraft you are authorized to provide training in.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.419 How do I obtain privileges to provide training in an additional category or class of aircraft?

If you hold a flight instructor certificate issued under subpart H of this part or a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating and seek privileges to provide training under subpart K in an additional category or class of aircraft meeting the performance limits and design requirements of § 61.316, you must—

(a) Receive a logbook endorsement from the authorized instructor who trained you on the applicable areas of operation specified in § 61.409 certifying you have met the aeronautical knowledge and flight proficiency requirements for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege you seek;

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, successfully complete a proficiency check from an authorized instructor, other than the instructor who trained you, consisting of the tasks in the appropriate areas of operation contained in the applicable Practical Test Standards or Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) as listed in appendix A of this part for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege you seek;

(c) Complete an application for those privileges on a form and in a manner acceptable to the FAA and present this application to the authorized instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section; and

(d) Receive a logbook endorsement from the instructor who conducted the proficiency check specified in paragraph (b) of this section certifying you are proficient in the areas of operation and authorized for the additional category and class flight instructor privilege.

(e) If you are seeking to add an airplane single-engine land or sea or a rotorcraft-helicopter with simplified flight controls designation privilege to your flight instructor certificate, successfully accomplish a practical test for that category and class privilege as specified in § 61.405.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 61-153, 89 FR 22518, Apr. 1, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35216, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.421 May I give myself an endorsement?

No. If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you may not give yourself an endorsement for any certificate, privilege, rating, flight review, authorization, practical test, knowledge test, or proficiency check required by this part.

§ 61.423 What are the recordkeeping requirements for a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating?

(a) As a flight instructor with a sport pilot rating you must:

(1) Sign the logbook of each person to whom you have given flight training or ground training.

(2) Keep a record of the name, date, and type of endorsement for:

(i) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed for solo flight privileges.

(ii) Each person for whom you have provided an endorsement for a knowledge test, practical test, or proficiency check, and the record must indicate the kind of test or check, and the results.

(iii) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed as proficient to operate—

(A) An additional category or class of aircraft;

(B) In Class B, C, and D airspace; at an airport located in Class B, C, or D airspace; and to, from, through, or at an airport having an operational control tower;

(D) An aircraft with a VH greater than 87 knots CAS.

(iv) Each person whose logbook you have endorsed as proficient to provide flight training in an additional category or class of aircraft.

(b) Within 10 days after providing an endorsement for a person to operate or provide training in an additional category and class of aircraft you must—

(1) Complete, sign, and submit to the FAA the application presented to you to obtain those privileges; and

(2) Retain a copy of the form.

(c) You must keep the records listed in this section for 3 years. You may keep these records in a logbook or a separate document.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61-125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30, 2010; Docket FAA-2010-1127, Amdt. 61-135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 61.425 How do I establish recent experience for my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

(a) If you hold a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating issued after December 1, 2024, you must establish recent experience in accordance with § 61.197.

(b) If you hold an unexpired flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating issued before December 1, 2024, you must renew your certificate by establishing recent experience in accordance with § 61.197 prior to the month of expiration on your flight instructor certificate. If you fail to establish recent experience prior to the expiration of your flight instructor certificate, you may not exercise flight instructor privileges until you reinstate those privileges in accordance with § 61.427.

[Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80052, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.427 How do I reinstate my flight instructor privileges if I fail to establish recent experience for my flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating?

If you fail to establish recent experience for your flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you must reinstate your flight instructor privileges by satisfactorily completing one of the following reinstatement requirements:

(a) If 3 calendar months or less have passed since the last month of your recent experience period, you must successfully complete an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or a combination of both, or satisfy the requirements specified in paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) If more than 3 calendar months have passed since the last month of the flight instructor's recent experience period, you must pass a practical test as prescribed in § 61.405(b) or § 61.183(h) for one of the ratings listed on your flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating. The FAA will reinstate any privilege authorized by that flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating.

[Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 61-155, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 61.429 May I exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor certificate with another rating?

If you hold a flight instructor certificate, a commercial pilot certificate with an airship rating, or a commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating issued under this part, and you seek to exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate with a sport pilot rating, you may do so without any further showing of proficiency, subject to the following limits:

(a) You are limited to the aircraft category and class ratings listed on your flight instructor certificate, commercial pilot certificate with an airship rating, or commercial pilot certificate with a balloon rating, as appropriate, when exercising your flight instructor privileges and the privileges specified in § 61.413.

(b) You must comply with the limits specified in § 61.415 and the recordkeeping requirements of § 61.423.

(c) If you want to exercise the privileges of your flight instructor certificate in a category or class of aircraft for which you are not currently rated, you must meet all applicable requirements to provide training in an additional category or class of aircraft specified in § 61.419.

(d) If you want to exercise the privileges of your flight instructor certificate in a model-specific aircraft that has a simplified flight controls designation, you must meet the training and endorsement requirements specified in § 61.31(l) prior to providing any flight training in that aircraft.

[Docket FAA-2001-11133, 69 FR 44875, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61-124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61-125, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35217, July 24, 2025]

Appendix A to Part 61 Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards

If you are seeking this certificate, rating, and/or privilege . . . | Then this ACS/PTS (incorporated by reference, see § 61.14) is applicable:

Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating | FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating | FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.

Airline Transport Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category | FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Commercial Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating | FAA-S-ACS-7B, Commercial Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Commercial Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating | FAA-S-ACS-16, Commercial Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Commercial Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating | FAA-S-8081-16C, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.

Commercial Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category | FAA-S-ACS-2, Commercial Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Commercial Pilot Certificate; Glider Category | FAA-S-8081-23B, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.

Commercial Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Rating, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Rating | FAA-S-8081-18A, Commercial Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023.

Private Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Multiengine Sea Rating | FAA-S-ACS-6C, Private Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Private Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating | FAA-S-ACS-15, Private Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Private Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating | FAA-S-8081-15B, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.

Private Pilot Certificate; Powered-Lift Category | FAA-S-ACS-13, Private Pilot for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Private Pilot Certificate; Glider Category | FAA-S-8081-22A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.

Private Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Rating, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Rating | FAA-S-8081-17A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, November 2023.

Private Pilot Certificate; Powered Parachute Category—Land Rating, Powered Parachute Category—Sea Rating, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Land Rating, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Sea Rating | FAA-S-8081-32A, Private Pilot Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Category, November 2023.

Recreational Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Rating, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Rating, Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating | FAA-S-8081-3B, Recreational Pilot Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category and Rotorcraft Category, November 2023.

Sport Pilot Certificate; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Land Privileges, Airplane Category—Single-Engine Sea Privileges, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Privileges, Glider Category | FAA-S-8081-29B, Sport Pilot and Flight Instructors with a Sport Pilot Rating Practical Test Standards for Airplane Category, Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane, and Glider Category, June 2026.

Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Airplane Category—Single-Engine Privileges, Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Privileges, Glider Category

Sport Pilot Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Privilege—Simplified Flight Controls | FAA-S-ACS-26, Sport Pilot for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, July 2025.

Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Rotorcraft Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls | FAA-S-ACS-31, Flight Instructor with a Sport Pilot Rating for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter—Simplified Flight Controls Privilege Airman Certification Standards, July 2025.

Sport Pilot Certificate; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Privileges, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Privileges | FAA-S-8081-30B, Sport Pilot and Flight Instructors with a Sport Pilot Rating Practical Test Standards for Lighter-Than-Air Category, June 2026.

Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Lighter-Than-Air Category—Airship Privileges, Lighter-Than-Air Category—Balloon Privileges

Sport Pilot Certificate; Powered Parachute Category—Land Privileges, Powered Parachute Category—Sea Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Land Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category—Sea Privileges | FAA-S-8081-31B, Sport Pilot and Flight Instructors with a Sport Pilot Rating Practical Test Standards for Powered Parachute Category and Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category, June 2026.

Flight Instructor Certificate with a Sport Pilot Rating; Powered Parachute Category Privileges, Weight-Shift-Control Aircraft Category Privileges

Instrument Rating—Airplane Instrument Proficiency Check—Airplane | FAA-S-ACS-8C, Instrument Rating—Airplane Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Instrument Rating—Helicopter Instrument Proficiency Check—Helicopter | FAA-S-ACS-14, Instrument Rating—Helicopter Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Instrument Rating—Powered-Lift Instrument Proficiency Check—Powered-Lift | FAA-S-ACS-3, Instrument Rating—Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Flight Instructor Certificate; Airplane Category—Single Engine Rating Airplane Category—Multiengine Rating | FAA-S-ACS-25, Flight Instructor for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Flight Instructor Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Helicopter Rating | FAA-S-ACS-29, Flight Instructor for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Flight Instructor Certificate; Rotorcraft Category—Gyroplane Rating | FAA-S-8081-7C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Gyroplane Rating, November 2023.

Flight Instructor Certificate; Powered-lift Category | FAA-S-ACS-27, Flight Instructor for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Flight Instructor Certificate; Glider Category | FAA-S-8081-8C, Flight Instructor Practical Test Standards for Glider Category, November 2023.

Flight Instructor Certificate; Instrument—Airplane Rating, Instrument—Helicopter Rating | FAA-S-8081-9E, Flight Instructor Instrument Practical Test Standards for Airplane Rating and Helicopter Rating, November 2023.

Flight Instructor Certificate; Instrument—Powered-Lift Rating | FAA-S-ACS-28, Flight Instructor—Instrument Rating Powered-Lift Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Aircraft Type Rating—Airplane | FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Aircraft Type Rating—Helicopter | FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.

Aircraft Type Rating—Powered-Lift | FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Airplane | FAA-S-ACS-11A, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards; November 2023.

Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Helicopter | FAA-S-8081-20A, Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Type Rating Practical Test Standards for Rotorcraft Category Helicopter Rating, November 2023.

Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check—Powered-Lift | FAA-S-ACS-17, Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Powered-Lift Category Airman Certification Standards, November 2023.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 61-159, 90 FR 35217, July 24, 2025, as amended by Docket FAA-2025-3519, Amdt. 61-161, 91 FR 58020, 91 FR 58020, Sept. 14, 2026]

PART 63 CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS OTHER THAN PILOTS

Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.

Subpart A General

Source: Docket 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted.

§ 63.1 Applicability.

This part prescribes the requirements for issuing flight engineer and flight navigator certificates and the general operating rules for holders of those certificates.

§ 63.2 Certification of foreign flight crewmembers other than pilots.

A person who is neither a United States citizen nor a resident alien is issued a certificate under this part (other than under § 63.23 or § 63.42) outside the United States only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed for the operation of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft.

(Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))

[Docket 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 18, 1982]

§ 63.3 Certificates and ratings required.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry unless that person has in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft:

(1) A current flight engineer certificate with appropriate ratings issued to that person under this part;

(2) A document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges issued by the Airman Certification Branch under § 63.16(f); or

(3) When engaged in a flight operation within the United States for a part 119 certificate holder authorized to conduct operations under part 121 of this chapter, a temporary document provided by that certificate holder under an approved certificate verification plan.

(b) A person may act as a flight engineer of an aircraft only if that person holds a current second-class (or higher) medical certificate issued to that person under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable to the FAA, that is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

(c) When the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current flight engineer certificate issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for that certificate, may be used. Also, in the case of a flight engineer certificate issued under § 63.42, evidence of current medical qualification accepted for the issue of that certificate is used in place of a medical certificate.

(d) No person may act as a flight navigator of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry unless that person has in his or her physical possession a current flight navigator certificate issued to him or her under this part and a second-class (or higher) medical certificate issued to him or her under part 67 of this chapter within the preceding 12 months. However, when the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current flight navigator certificate issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated, with evidence of current medical qualification for that certificate, may be used.

(e) Each person who holds a flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, medical certificate, or temporary document in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

[Amdt. 63-41, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]

§ 63.11 Application and issue.

(a) An application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, or for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who applies for airmen certification services to be administered outside the United States for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this chapter has been paid.

(b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled to an appropriate certificate and appropriate class ratings.

(c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose flight engineer certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension.

(d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise, a person whose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate is revoked may not apply for the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of revocation.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-3, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965; Amdt. 63-7, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 63-22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 63-35, 72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 2007]

§ 63.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

(a) A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marihuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for—

(1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or

(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.

(b) The commission of an act prohibited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for—

(1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or

(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.

[Docket 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]

§ 63.12a Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish test results.

A refusal to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer in accordance with § 91.11(c) of this chapter, or a refusal to furnish or authorize the release of the test results when requested by the Administrator in accordance with § 91.17 (c) or (d) of this chapter, is grounds for—

(a) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or

(b) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.

[Docket 21956, 51 FR 1229, Jan. 9, 1986, as amended by Amdt. 63-27, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]

§ 63.12b [Reserved]

§ 63.13 Temporary certificate.

A certificate effective for a period of not more than 120 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate for which he applied.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978]

§ 63.14 [Reserved]

§ 63.15 Duration of certificates.

(a) Except as provided in § 63.23 and paragraph (b) of this section, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.

(b) A flight engineer certificate (with any amendment thereto) issued under § 63.42 expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which the certificate was issued or renewed. However, the holder may exercise the privileges of that certificate only while the foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is effective.

(c) Any certificate issued under this part ceases to be effective if it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. The holder of any certificate issued under this part that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator.

(d) Except for temporary certificate issued under § 63.13, the holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of that certificate after March 31, 2013.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transportation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))

[Docket 8846, 33 FR 18613, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 63-36, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008]

§ 63.15a [Reserved]

§ 63.16 Change of name; replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.

(a) An application for a change of name on a certificate issued under this part must be accompanied by the applicant's current certificate and the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the change. The documents are returned to the applicant after inspection.

(b) A request for a replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate issued under this part must be made:

(1) By letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125 and must be accompanied by a check or money order for the appropriate fee payable to the FAA; or

(2) In any other form and manner approved by the Administrator including a request to Airman Services at http://www.faa.gov, and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee.

(2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee.

(d) A request for the replacement of a lost or destroyed knowledge test report must be made:

(2) In any other manner and form approved by the Administrator and must be accompanied by acceptable form of payment for the appropriate fee.

(e) The letter requesting replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report must state:

(1) The name of the person;

(2) The permanent mailing address (including ZIP code), or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number, then the person's current residential address;

(3) The certificate holder's date and place of birth; and

(4) Any information regarding the—

(i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the airman certificate and ratings, if appropriate;

(iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if appropriate.

(f) A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain in a form or manner approved by the Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, and the—

(1) Document may be carried as an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for a period not to exceed 60 days pending the person's receiving a duplicate under paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked.

(2) Request for such a document must include the date on which a duplicate certificate or knowledge test report was previously requested.

[Amdt. 63-41, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]

§ 63.17 Tests: General procedure.

(a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator.

(b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent.

§ 63.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

(a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may—

(1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part;

(2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of that test;

(3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, any person during the period that test is being given.

(4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person;

(5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being given; or

(6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph.

(b) No person who commits an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating under this chapter for a period of 1 year after the date of that act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person.

[Docket 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]

§ 63.19 Operations during physical deficiency.

No person may serve as a flight engineer or flight navigator during a period of known physical deficiency, or increase in physical deficiency, that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements for his current medical certificate.

§ 63.20 [Reserved]

§ 63.21 Change of address.

Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, in writing, of his new address.

[Docket 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]

§ 63.23 Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates: Operation of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased by a person not a U.S. citizen.

(a) General. The holder of a current foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization issued by a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, who meets the requirements of this section, may hold a special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, as appropriate, authorizing the holder to perform flight engineer or flight navigator duties on a civil airplane of U.S. registry, leased to a person not a citizen of the United States, carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. Special purpose flight engineer and flight navigator certificates are issued under this section only for airplane types that can have a maximum passenger seating configuration, excluding any flight crewmember seat, of more than 30 seats or a maximum payload capacity (as defined in § 135.2(e) of this chapter) of more than 7,500 pounds.

(b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance, or renewal, of a certificate under this section, an applicant must present the following to the Administrator:

(1) A current foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization issued by the aeronautical authority of a foreign contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation or a facsimile acceptable to the Administrator. The certificate or license must authorize the applicant to perform the flight engineer or flight navigator duties to be authorized by a certificate issued under this section on the same airplane type as the leased airplane.

(2) A current certification by the lessee of the airplane—

(i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;

(ii) Specifying the airplane type on which the applicant will perform flight engineer or flight navigator duties; and

(iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight instruction which qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be assigned on the airplane.

(3) Documentation showing that the applicant currently meets the medical standards for the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, except that a U.S. medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those standards unless the State which issued the applicant's foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization accepts a U.S. medical certificate as evidence of medical fitness for a flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization.

(c) Privileges. The holder of a special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate issued under this section may exercise the same privileges as those shown on the certificate, license, or authorization specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, subject to the limitations specified in this section.

(d) Limitations. Each certificate issued under this section is subject to the following limitations:

(1) It is valid only—

(i) For flights between foreign countries and for flights in foreign air commerce;

(ii) While it and the certificate, license, or authorization required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section are in the certificate holder's personal possession and are current;

(iii) While the certificate holder is employed by the person to whom the airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section is leased;

(iv) While the certificate holder is performing flight engineer or flight navigator duties on the U.S.-registered civil airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and

(v) While the medical documentation required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section is in the certificate holder's personal possession and is currently valid.

(2) Each certificate issued under this section contains the following:

(i) The name of the person to whom the U.S.-registered civil airplane is leased.

(ii) The type of airplane.

(iii) The limitation: “Issued under, and subject to, § 63.23 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.”

(iv) The limitation: “Subject to the privileges and limitations shown on the holder's foreign flight (engineer or navigator) certificate, license, or authorization.”

(3) Any additional limitations placed on the certificate which the Administrator considers necessary.

(e) Termination. Each special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate issued under this section terminates—

(1) When the lease agreement for the airplane described in the certification required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section terminates;

(2) When the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator certificate, license, or authorization, or the medical documentation required by paragraph (b) of this section is suspended, revoked, or no longer valid; or

(3) After 24 months after the month in which the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate was issued.

(f) Surrender of certificate. The certificate holder shall surrender the special purpose flight engineer or flight navigator certificate to the Administrator within 7 days after the date it terminates.

(g) Renewal. The certificate holder may have the certificate renewed by complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section at the time of application for renewal.

(Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))

[Docket 19300, 45 FR 5672, Jan. 24, 1980]

Subpart B Flight Engineers

Authority: Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958; 49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, 1422.

Source: Docket 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, unless otherwise noted.

§ 63.31 Eligibility requirements; general.

To be eligible for a flight engineer certificate, a person must—

(a) Be at least 21 years of age;

(b) Be able to read, speak, and understand the English language, or have an appropriate limitation placed on his flight engineer certificate;

(c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies, or other evidence of medical qualification accepted for the issue of a flight engineer certificate under § 63.42; and

(d) Comply with the requirements of this subpart that apply to the rating he seeks.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Docket 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-9, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968]

§ 63.33 Aircraft ratings.

(a) The aircraft class ratings to be placed on flight engineer certificates are—

(1) Reciprocating engine powered;

(2) Turbopropeller powered; and

(3) Turbojet powered.

(b) To be eligible for an additional aircraft class rating after his flight engineer certificate with a class rating is issued to him, an applicant must pass the written test that is appropriate to the class of airplane for which an additional rating is sought, and—

(1) Pass the flight test for that class of aircraft; or

(2) Satisfactorily complete an approved flight engineer training program that is appropriate to the additional class rating sought.

§ 63.35 Knowledge requirements.

(a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate must pass a written test on the following:

(1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a flight engineer.

(2) The theory of flight and aerodynamics.

(3) Basic meteorology with respect to engine operations.

(4) Center of gravity computations.

(b) An applicant for the original or additional issue of a flight engineer class rating must pass a written test for that airplane class on the following:

(1) Preflight.

(2) Airplane equipment.

(3) Airplane systems.

(4) Airplane loading.

(5) Airplane procedures and engine operations with respect to limitations.

(6) Normal operating procedures.

(7) Emergency procedures.

(8) Mathematical computation of engine operations and fuel consumption.

(c) Before taking the written tests prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, an applicant for a flight engineer certificate must present satisfactory evidence of having completed one of the experience requirements of § 63.37. However, the applicant may take the written tests before acquiring the flight training required by § 63.37.

(d) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating must have passed the written tests required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which the flight is taken. However, this limitation does not apply to an applicant for a flight engineer certificate or rating if—

(1) The applicant—

(i) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in which the applicant passed the written test, is employed as a flight crewmember or mechanic by a U.S. air carrier or commercial operator operating either under part 121 or as a commuter air carrier under part 135 (as defined in part 298 of this title) and is employed by such a certificate holder at the time of the flight test;

(ii) If employed as a flight crewmember, has completed initial training, and, if appropriate, transition or upgrade training; and

(iii) Meets the recurrent training requirements of the applicable part or, for mechanics, meets the recency of experience requirements of part 65 of this chapter;

(2) Within the period ending 24 calendar months after the month in which the applicant passed the written test, the applicant participated in a flight engineer or maintenance training program of a U.S. scheduled military air transportation service and is currently participating in that program; or

(3) An applicant is eligible to take a practical test for a flight engineer certificate or rating under this part with an expired written test report in accordance with § 61.40 of this chapter.

(e) An air carrier or commercial operator with an approved training program under part 121 of this chapter may, when authorized by the Administrator, provide as part of that program a written test that it may administer to satisfy the test required for an additional rating under paragraph (b) of this section.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313(a), 601 through 605 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421 through 1425); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); and 14 CFR 11.49)

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975; Docket 63-21, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 63-47, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 63.37 Aeronautical experience requirements.

(a) Except as otherwise specified therein, the flight time used to satisfy the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this section must have been obtained on an airplane—

(1) On which a flight engineer is required by this chapter; or

(2) That has at least three engines that are rated at least 800 horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine-powered engines.

(b) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class rating must present, for the class rating sought, satisfactory evidence of one of the following:

(1) At least 3 years of diversified practical experience in aircraft and aircraft engine maintenance (of which at least 1 year was in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each, or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

(2) Graduation from at least a 2-year specialized aeronautical training course in maintaining aircraft and aircraft engines (of which at least 6 calendar months were in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

(3) A degree in aeronautical, electrical, or mechanical engineering from a recognized college, university, or engineering school; at least 6 calendar months of practical experience in maintaining multiengine aircraft with engines rated at least 800 horsepower each, or the equivalent in turbine engine powered aircraft; and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

(4) At least a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

(5) At least 200 hours of flight time in a transport category airplane (or in a military airplane with at least two engines and at least equivalent weight and horsepower) as pilot in command or second in command performing the functions of a pilot in command under the supervision of a pilot in command.

(6) At least 100 hours of flight time as a flight engineer.

(7) Within the 90-day period before he applies, successful completion of an approved flight engineer ground and flight course of instruction as provided in appendix C of this part.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Docket 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-5, 31 FR 9047, July 1, 1966; Amdt. 63-17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975]

§ 63.39 Skill requirements.

(a) An applicant for a flight engineer certificate with a class rating must pass a practical test in the class of airplane for which a rating is sought. To pass the practical test for a flight engineer certificate, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the areas of operation specified in the Flight Engineer Practical Test Standards for Reciprocating Engine, Turbopropeller, and Turbojet Powered Aircraft (incorporated by reference, see paragraph (c) of this section). The test may only be given in an airplane specified in § 63.37(a).

(b) The applicant must—

(1) Show that the applicant can satisfactorily perform preflight inspection, servicing, starting, pretakeoff, and postlanding procedures;

(2) In flight, show that the applicant can satisfactorily perform the normal duties and procedures relating to the airplane, airplane engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems, and appliances; and

(3) In flight, in an airplane simulator, or in an approved flight engineer training device, show that the applicant can satisfactorily perform emergency duties and procedures and recognize and take appropriate action for malfunctions of the airplane, engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems and appliances.

(c) FAA-S-8081-21A, Flight Engineer Practical Test Standards for Reciprocating Engine, Turbopropeller, and Turbojet Powered Aircraft, November 2023, is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA, Training and Certification Group, 202-267-1100, ACSPTSinquiries@faa.gov, www.faa.gov/training_testing. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations or email fr.inspection@nara.gov. The material may be obtained from FAA, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, 866-835-5322, www.faa.gov/training_testing.

[Docket FAA-2022-1463; Amdt. 63-46, 89 FR 22519, Apr. 1, 2024]

§ 63.41 Retesting after failure.

An applicant for a flight engineer certificate who fails a written test or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting—

(a) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or

(b) After he has received additional practice or instruction (flight, synthetic trainer, or ground training, or any combination thereof) that is necessary, in the opinion of the Administrator or the applicant's instructor (if the Administrator has authorized him to determine the additional instruction necessary) to prepare the applicant for retesting.

§ 63.42 Flight engineer certificate issued on basis of a foreign flight engineer license.

(a) Certificates issued. The holder of a current foreign flight engineer license issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, who meets the requirements of this section, may have a flight engineer certificate issued to him for the operation of civil aircraft of U.S. registry. Each flight engineer certificate issued under this section specifies the number and State of issuance of the foreign flight engineer license on which it is based. If the holder of the certificate cannot read, speak, or understand the English language, the Administrator may place any limitation on the certificate that he considers necessary for safety.

(b) Medical standards and certification. An applicant must submit evidence that he currently meets the medical standards for the foreign flight engineer license on which the application for a certificate under this section is based. A current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter will be excepted as evidence that the applicant meets those standards. However, a medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter is not evidence that the applicant meets those standards outside the United States unless the State that issued the applicant's foreign flight engineer license also accepts that medical certificate as evidence of the applicant's physical fitness for his foreign flight engineer license.

(c) Ratings issued. Aircraft class ratings listed on the applicant's foreign flight engineer license, in addition to any issued to him after testing under the provisions of this part, are placed on the applicant's flight engineer certificate. An applicant without an aircraft class rating on his foreign flight engineer license may be issued a class rating if he shows that he currently meets the requirements for exercising the privileges of his foreign flight engineer license on that class of aircraft.

(d) Privileges and limitations. The holder of a flight engineer certificate issued under this section may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry subject to the limitations of this part and any additional limitations placed on his certificate by the Administrator. He is subject to these limitations while he is acting as a flight engineer of the aircraft within or outside the United States. However, he may not act as flight engineer or in any other capacity as a required flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.

(e) Renewal of certificate and ratings. The holder of a certificate issued under this section may have that certificate and the ratings placed thereon renewed if, at the time of application for renewal, the foreign flight engineer license on which that certificate is based is in effect. Application for the renewal of the certificate and ratings thereon must be made before the expiration of the certificate.

(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)

[Docket 8846, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968, as amended by Amdt. 63-20, 45 FR 5673, Jan. 24, 1980]

§ 63.43 Flight engineer courses.

An applicant for approval of a flight engineer course must submit a letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit three copies of each course outline, a description of the facilities and equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. An air carrier or commercial operator with an approved flight engineer training course under part 121 of this chapter may apply for approval of a training course under this part by letter without submitting the additional information required by this paragraph. Minimum requirements for obtaining approval of a flight engineer course are set forth in appendix C of this part.

Subpart C Flight Navigators

Authority: Secs. 313(a), 314, 601, and 607; 49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1355, 1421, and 1427.

Source: Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted.

§ 63.51 Eligibility requirements; general.

To be eligible for a flight navigator certificate, a person must—

(a) Be at least 21 years of age;

(b) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language;

(c) Hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date he applies; and

(d) Comply with §§ 63.53, 63.55, and 63.57.

§ 63.53 Knowledge requirements.

(a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a written test on—

(1) The regulations of this chapter that apply to the duties of a flight navigator;

(2) The fundamentals of flight navigation, including flight planning and cruise control;

(3) Practical meteorology, including analysis of weather maps, weather reports, and weather forecasts; and weather sequence abbreviations, symbols, and nomenclature;

(4) The types of air navigation facilities and procedures in general use;

(5) Calibrating and using air navigation instruments;

(6) Navigation by dead reckoning;

(7) Navigation by celestial means;

(8) Navigation by radio aids;

(9) Pilotage and map reading; and

(10) Interpretation of navigation aid identification signals.

(b) A report of the test is mailed to the applicant. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a passing grade is evidence, for a period of 24 calendar months after the test, that the applicant has complied with this section.

(c) An applicant is eligible to take a practical test for a flight navigator certificate under this part with an expired written test report in accordance with § 61.40 of this chapter.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 63-47, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 63.55 Experience requirements.

(a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must be a graduate of a flight navigator course approved by the Administrator or present satisfactory documentary evidence of—

(1) Satisfactory determination of his position in flight at least 25 times by night by celestial observations and at least 25 times by day by celestial observations in conjunction with other aids; and

(2) At least 200 hours of satisfactory flight navigation including celestial and radio navigation and dead reckoning.

A pilot who has logged 500 hours of cross-country flight time, of which at least 100 hours were at night, may be credited with not more than 100 hours for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(b) Flight time used exclusively for practicing long-range navigation methods, with emphasis on celestial navigation and dead reckoning, is considered to be satisfactory navigation experience for the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section. It must be substantiated by a logbook, by records of an armed force or a certificated air carrier, or by a letter signed by a certificated flight navigator and attached to the application.

§ 63.57 Skill requirements.

(a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate must pass a practical test in navigating aircraft by—

(1) Dead reckoning;

(2) Celestial means; and

(3) Radio aids to navigation.

(b) An applicant must pass the written test prescribed by § 63.53 before taking the test under this section. However, if a delay in taking the test under this section would inconvenience the applicant or an air carrier, he may take it before he receives the result of the written test, or after he has failed the written test.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, 1978]

§ 63.59 Retesting after failure.

(a) An applicant for a flight navigator certificate who fails a written or practical test for that certificate may apply for retesting—

(1) After 30 days after the date he failed that test; or

(2) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a signed statement from a certificated flight navigator, certificated ground instructor, or any other qualified person approved by the Administrator, certifying that that person has given the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that person considers the applicant ready for retesting.

(b) A statement from a certificated flight navigator, or from an operations official of an approved navigator course, is acceptable, for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for the written test and for the flight test. A statement from a person approved by the Administrator is acceptable for the written tests. A statement from a supervising or check navigator with the United States Armed Forces is acceptable for the written test and for the practical test.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-19, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]

§ 63.61 Flight navigator courses.

An applicant for approval of a flight navigator course must submit a letter to the Administrator requesting approval, and must also submit three copies of the course outline, a description of his facilities and equipment, and a list of the instructors and their qualifications. Requirements for the course are set forth in appendix B to this part.

0 Appendix A to Part 63 Test Requirements for Flight Navigator Certificate

(a) Demonstration of skill. An applicant will be required to pass practical tests on the prescribed subjects. These tests may be given by FAA inspectors and designated flight navigator examiners.

(b) The examination. The practical examination consists of a ground test and a flight test as itemized on the examination check sheet. Each item must be completed satisfactorily in order for the applicant to obtain a passing grade. Items 5, 6, 7 of the ground test may be completed orally, and items 17, 22, 23, 34, 36, 37, 38, and 39 of the flight test may be completed by an oral examination when a lack of ground facilities or navigation equipment makes such procedure necessary. In these cases a notation to that effect shall be made in the “Remarks” space on the check sheet.

(c) Examination procedure. (1) An applicant will provide an aircraft in which celestial observations can be taken in all directions. Minimum equipment shall include a table for plotting, a drift meter or absolute altimeter, an instrument for taking visual bearings, and a radio direction finder.

(2) More than one flight may be used to complete the flight test and any type of flight pattern may be used. The test will be conducted chiefly over water whenever practicable, and without regard to radio range legs or radials. If the test is conducted chiefly over land, a chart should be used which shows very little or no topographical and aeronautical data. The total flight time will cover a period of at least four hours. Only one applicant may be examined at one time, and no applicant may perform other than navigator duties during the examination.

(3) When the test is conducted with an aircraft belonging to an air carrier, the navigation procedures should conform with those set forth in the carrier's operations manual. Items of the flight test which are not performed during the routine navigation of the flight will be completed by oral examination after the flight or at times during flight which the applicant indicates may be used for tests on those items. Since in-flight weather conditions, the reliability of the weather forecast, and the stability of the aircraft will have considerable effect on an applicant's performance, good judgment must be used by the agent or examiner in evaluating the tests.

(d) Ground test. For the ground test, in the order of the numbered items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:

(1) Identify without a star identifier, at least six navigational stars and all planets available for navigation at the time of the examination and explain the method of identification.

(2) Identify two additional stars with a star identifier or sky diagrams and explain identification procedure.

(3) Precompute a time-altitude curve for a period of about 20 minutes and take 10 single observations of a celestial body which is rising or setting rapidly. The intervals between observations should be at least one minute. Mark each observation on the graph to show accuracy. All observations, after corrections, shall plot within 8 minutes of arc from the time-altitude curve, and the average error shall not exceed 5 minutes of arc.

(4) Take and plot one 3-star fix and 3 LOP's of the sun. Plotted fix or an average of LOP's must fall within 5 miles of the actual position of the observer.

(5) Demonstrate or explain the compensation and swinging of a liquid-type magnetic compass.

(6) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning one type of drift meter.

(7) Demonstrate or explain a method of aligning an astro-compass or periscopic sextant.

(e) Flight test. For the flight test, in the order of the numbered items on the examination check sheet, an applicant will be required to:

(1) Demonstrate his ability to read weather symbols and interpret synoptic surface and upper air weather maps with particular emphasis being placed on winds.

(2) Prepare a flight plan by zones from the forecast winds or pressure data of an upper air chart and the operator's data.

(3) Compute from the operator's data the predicted fuel consumption for each zone of the flight, including the alternate.

(4) Determine the point-of-no-return for the flight with all engines running and the equitime point with one engine inoperative. Graphical methods which are part of the company's operations manual may be used for these computations.

(5) Prepare a cruise control (howgozit) chart from the operator's data.

(6) Enter actual fuel consumed on the cruise control chart and interpret the variations of the actual curve from the predicted curve.

(7) Check the presence on board and operating condition of all navigation equipment. Normally a check list will be used. This check will include a time tick or chronometer comparison. Any lack of thoroughness during this check will justify this item being graded unsatisfactory.

(8) Locate emergency equipment, such as, the nearest fire extinguisher, life preserver, life rafts, exits, axe, first aid kits, etc.

(9) Recite the navigator's duties and stations during emergencies for the type of aircraft used for the test.

(10) Demonstrate the proper use of a flux gate compass or gyrosyn compass (when available), with special emphasis on the caging methods and the location of switches, circuit breakers, and fuses. If these compasses are not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination will be given.

(11) Be accurate and use good judgment when setting and altering headings. Erroneous application of variation, deviation, or drift correction, or incorrect measurement of course on the chart will be graded as unsatisfactory.

(12) Demonstrate or explain the use of characteristics of various chart projections used in long-range air navigation, including the plotting of courses and bearings, and the measuring of distances.

(13) Demonstrate ability to identify designated landmarks by the use of a sectional or WAC chart.

(14) Use a computer with facility and accuracy for the computation of winds, drift correction and drift angles, ground speeds, ETA's, fuel loads, etc.

(15) Determine track, ground speed, and wind by the double drift method. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination on the use of the drift meter and a double drift problem shall be completed.

(16) Determine ground speed and wind by the timing method with a drift meter. When a drift meter is not part of the aircraft's equipment, an oral examination on the procedure and a problem shall be completed.

(17) Demonstrate the use of air plot for determining wind between fixes and for plotting pressure lines of position when using pressure and absolute altimeter comparisons.

(18) Give ETA's to well defined check points at least once each hour after the second hour of flight. The average error shall not be more than 5 percent of the intervening time intervals, and the maximum error of any one ETA shall not be more than 10 percent.

(19) Demonstrate knowledge and use of D/F equipment and radio facility information. Grading on this item will be based largely on the applicant's selection of those radio aids which will be of most value to his navigation, the manner with which he uses equipment, including filter box controls, and the precision with which he reads bearings. The aircraft's compass heading and all compass corrections must be considered for each bearing.

(20) Use care in tuning to radio stations to insure maximum reception of signal and check for interference signals. Receiver will be checked to ascertain that antenna and BFO (Voice-CW) switches are in correct positions.

(21) Identify at least three radio stations using International Morse code only for identification. The agent or examiner will tune in these stations so that the applicant will have no knowledge of the direction, distance, or frequency of the stations.

(22) Take at least one radio bearing by manual use of the loop. The agent or examiner will check the applicant's bearing by taking a manual bearing on the same station immediately after the applicant.

(23) Show the use of good judgment in evaluating radio bearings, and explain why certain bearings may be of doubtful value.

(24) Determine and apply correctly the correction required to be made to radio bearings before plotting them on a Mercator chart, and demonstrate the ability to plot bearings accurately on charts of the Mercator and Lambert conformal projections.

(25) Compute the compass heading, ETA, and fuel remaining if it is assumed that the flight would be diverted to an alternate airport at a time specified by the agent or examiner.

(26)-(28) [Reserved]

(29) Demonstrate the ability to properly operate and read an absolute altimeter.

(30) Determine the “D” factors for a series of compared readings of an absolute altimeter and a pressure altimeter.

(31) Determine drift angle or lateral displacement from the true headingline by application of Bellamy's formula or a variation thereof.

(32) Interpret the altimeter comparison data with respect to the pressure system found at flight level. From this data evaluate the accuracy of the prognostic weather map used for flight planning and apply this analysis to the navigation of the flight.

(33) Interpret single LOP's for most probable position, and show how a series of single LOP's of the same body may be used to indicate the probable track and ground speed. Also, show how a series of single LOP's (celestial or radio) from the same celestial body or radio station may be used to determine position when the change of azimuth or bearing is 30° or more between observations.

(34) Select one of the celestial LOP's used during the flight and explain how to make a single line of position approach to a point selected by the agent or examiner, giving headings, times, and ETA's.

(35) Demonstrate the proper use of an astro-compass or periscopic sextant for taking bearings.

(36) Determine compass deviation as soon as possible after reaching cruising altitude and whenever there is a change of compass heading of 15° or more.

(37) Take celestial fixes at hourly intervals when conditions permit. The accuracy of these fixes shall be checked by means of a radio or visual fix whenever practicable. After allowing for the probable error of a radio or visual fix, a celestial fix under favorable conditions should plot within 10 miles of the actual position.

(38) Select celestial bodies for observation, when possible, whose azimuths will differ by approximately 120° for a 3-body fix and will differ by approximately 90° for a 2-body fix. The altitudes of the selected bodies should be between 25° and 75° whenever practicable.

(39) Have POMAR and any other required reports ready for transmission at time of schedule, and be able to inform the pilot in command promptly with regard to the aircraft's position and progress in comparison with the flight plan.

(40) Keep a log with sufficient legible entries to provide a record from which the flight could be retraced.

(41) Note significant weather changes which might influence the drift or ground speed of the aircraft, such as, temperature, “D” factors, frontal conditions, turbulence, etc.

(42) Determine the wind between fixes as a regular practice.

(43) Estimate the time required and average ground speed during a letdown, under conditions specified by the pilot in command.

(44) Work with sufficient speed to determine the aircraft's position hourly by celestial means and also make all other observations and records pertinent to the navigation. The applicant should be able to take the observation, compute, and plot a celestial LOP within a time limit of 8 minutes; observe the absolute and pressure altimeters and compute the drift or lateral displacement within a time limit of 3 minutes.

(45) Be accurate in reading instruments and making computations. Errors which are made and corrected without affecting the navigation will be disregarded unless they cause considerable loss of time.

An uncorrected error in computation (including reading instruments and books) which will affect the reported position more than 25 miles, the heading more than 3°, or any ETA more than 15 minutes will cause this item to be graded unsatisfactory.

(46) Be alert to changing weather or other conditions during flight which might affect the navigation. An applicant should not fail to take celestial observations just prior to encountering a broken or overcast sky condition; and he should not fail to take a bearing on a radio station, which operates at scheduled intervals and which would be a valuable aid to the navigation.

(47) Show a logical choice and sequence in using the various navigation methods according to time and accuracy, and check the positions determined by one method against positions determined by other methods.

(48) Use a logical sequence in performing the various duties of a navigator and plan work according to a schedule. The more important duties should not be neglected for others of less importance.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Docket FAA-2017-0733, Amdt. 63-39, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017]

Appendix B to Part 63 Flight Navigator Training Course Requirements

(a) Training course outline—(1) Format. The ground course outline and the flight course outline shall be combined in one looseleaf binder and shall include a table of contents, divided into two parts—ground course and flight course. Each part of the table of contents must contain a list of the major subjects, together with hours allotted to each subject and the total classroom and flight hours.

(2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not mandatory that a course outline have the subject headings arranged exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any arrangement of general headings and subheadings will be satisfactory provided all the subject material listed here is included and the acceptable minimum number of hours is assigned to each subject. Each general subject shall be broken down into detail showing items to be covered.

(ii) If any agency desires to include additional subjects in the ground training curriculum, such as international law, flight hygiene, or others which are not required, the hours allotted these additional subjects may not be included in the minimum classroom hours.

(iii) The following subjects with classroom hours are considered the minimum coverage for a ground training course for flight navigators:

Subject | Classroom hours

Federal Aviation Administration | 5

To include Parts 63, 91, and 121 of this chapter.

Meteorology | 40

To include:

Basic weather principles.

Temperature.

Pressure.

Winds.

Moisture in the atmosphere.

Stability.

Clouds.

Hazards.

Air masses.

Front weather.

Fog.

Thunderstorms.

Icing.

World weather and climate.

Weather maps and weather reports.

Forecasting.

International Morse code:

Ability to receive code groups of letters and numerals at a speed of eight words per minute

Navigation instruments (exclusive of radio and radar) | 20

To include:

Compasses.

Pressure altimeters.

Airspeed indicators.

Driftmeters.

Bearing indicators.

Aircraft octants.

Instrument calibration and alignment.

Charts and pilotage | 15

To include:

Chart projections.

Chart symbols.

Principles of pilotage.

Dead reckoning | 30

To include:

Air plot.

Ground plot.

Calculation of ETA.

Vector analysis.

Use of computer.

Search.

Absolute altimeter with:

Applications | 15

To include:

Principles of construction.

Operating instructions.

Use of Bellamy's formula.

Flight planning with single drift correction.

Radio and long-range navigational aids | 35

To include:

Principles of radio transmission and reception

Radio aids to navigation

Government publications

Airborne D/F equipment

Errors of radio bearings

Quadrantal correction

Plotting radio bearings

ICAO Q code for direction finding

Celestial navigation | 150

To include:

The solar system.

The celestial sphere.

The astronomical triangle.

Theory of lines of position.

Use of the Air Almanac.

Time and its applications.

Navigation tables.

Precomputation.

Celestial line of position approach.

Star identification.

Corrections to celestial observations.

Flight planning and cruise control | 25

To include:

The flight plan.

Fuel consumption charts.

Methods of cruise control.

Flight progress chart.

Point-of-no-return.

Equitime point.

Long-range flight problems | 15

Total (exclusive of final examinations) | 350

(3) Flight course outline. (i) A minimum of 150 hours of supervised flight training shall be given, of which at least 50 hours of flight training must be given at night, and celestial navigation must be used during flights which total at least 125 hours.

(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of the required flight training may be obtained in acceptable types of synthetic flight navigator training devices.

(iii) Flights should be at least four hours in length and should be conducted off civil airways. Some training on long-range flights is desirable, but is not required. There is no limit to the number of students that may be trained on one flight, but at least one astrodrome or one periscopic sextant mounting must be provided for each group of four students.

(iv) Training must be given in dead reckoning, pilotage, radio navigation, celestial navigation, and the use of the absolute altimeter.

(b) Equipment. (1) Classroom equipment shall include one table at least 24″ × 32″ in dimensions for each student.

(2) Aircraft suitable for the flight training must be available to the approved course operator to insure that the flight training may be completed without undue delay.

The approved course operator may contract or obtain written agreements with aircraft operators for the use of suitable aircraft. A copy of the contract or written agreement with an aircraft operator shall be attached to each of the three copies of the course outline submitted for approval. In all cases, the approved course operator is responsible for the nature and quality of instruction given during flight.

(c) Instructors. (1) Sufficient classroom instructors must be available to prevent an excessive ratio of students to instructors. Any ratio in excess of 20 to 1 will be considered unsatisfactory.

(2) At least one ground instructor must hold a valid flight navigator certificate, and be utilized to coordinate instruction of ground school subjects.

(3) Each instructor who conducts flight training must hold a valid flight navigator certificate.

(d) Revision of training course. (1) Requests for revisions to course outlines, facilities, and equipment shall follow procedures for original approval of the course. Revisions should be submitted in such form that an entire page or pages of the approved outline can be removed and replaced by the revisions.

(2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, provided the minimum requirement of paragraph (e) of this section is maintained.

(e) Credit for previous training and experience. (1) Credit may be granted by an operator to students for previous training and experience which is provable and comparable to portions of the approved curriculum. When granting such credit, the approved course operator should be fully cognizant of the fact that he is responsible for the proficiency of his graduates in accordance with subdivision (i) of paragraph (3) of this section.

(2) Where advanced credit is allowed, the operator shall evaluate the student's previous training and experience in accordance with the normal practices of accredited technical schools. Before credit is given for any ground school subject or portion thereof, the student must pass an appropriate examination given by the operator. The results of the examination, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited shall be incorporated as a part of the student's records.

(3) Credit up to a maximum of 50 hours toward the flight training requirement may be given to pilots who have logged at least 500 hours while a member of a flight crew which required a certificated flight navigator or the Armed Forces equivalent. A similar credit may also be given to a licensed deck officer of the Maritime Service who has served as such for at least one year on ocean-going vessels. One-half of the flight time credited under the terms of this paragraph may be applied toward the 50 hours of flight training required at night.

(f) Students records and reports. Approval of a course shall not be continued in effect unless the course operator keeps an accurate record of each student, including a chronological log of all instruction, subjects covered and course examinations and grades, and unless he prepares and transmits to the responsible Flight Standards office not later than January 31 of each year, a report containing the following information for the previous calendar year:

(1) The names of all students graduated, together with their school grades for ground and flight subjects.

(2) The names of all students failed or dropped, together with their school grades and reasons for dropping.

(g) Quality of instruction. Approval of a course shall not be continued in effect unless at least 80 percent of the students who apply within 90 days after graduation are able to qualify on the first attempt for certification as flight navigators.

(h) Statement of graduation. Each student who successfully completes an approved flight navigator course shall be given a statement of graduation.

(i) Inspections. Approved course operations will be inspected by authorized representatives of the Administrator as often as deemed necessary to insure that instruction is maintained at the required standards, but the period between inspections shall not exceed 12 months.

(j) Change of ownership, name, or location—(1) Change of ownership. Approval of a flight navigator course shall not be continued in effect after the course has changed ownership. The new owner must obtain a new approval by following the procedure prescribed for original approval.

(2) Change in name. An approved course changed in name but not changed in ownership shall remain valid if the change is reported by the approved course operator to the responsible Flight Standards office. A letter of approval under the new name will be issued by the responsible Flight Standards office.

(3) Change in location. An approved course shall remain in effect even though the approved course operator changes location if the change is reported without delay by the operator to the responsible Flight Standards office, which will inspect the facilities to be used. If they are found to be adequate, a letter of approval showing the new location will be issued by the responsible Flight Standards office.

(k) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of the requirements set forth in this section for the approval or operation of an approved flight navigator course shall be considered sufficient reason for cancellation of the approval.

(2) If an operator should desire voluntary cancellation of his approved course, he should submit the effective letter of approval and a written request for cancellation to the Administrator through the responsible Flight Standards office.

(l) Duration. The authority to operate an approved flight navigator course shall expire 24 months after the last day of the month of issuance.

(m) Renewal. Application for renewal of authority to operate an approved flight navigator course may be made by letter to the responsible Flight Standards office at any time within 60 days before to the expiration date. Renewal of approval will depend upon the course operator meeting the current conditions for approval and having a satisfactory record as an operator.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 63-6, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966; Amdt. 63-28, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; Docket FAA-2017-0733, Amdt. 63-39, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 63-40, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]

Appendix C to Part 63 Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements

(a) Training course outline—(1) Format. The ground course outline and the flight course outline are independent. Each must be contained in a looseleaf binder to include a table of contents. If an applicant desires approval of both a ground school course and a flight school course, they must be combined in one looseleaf binder that includes a separate table of contents for each course. Separate course outlines are required for each type of airplane.

(2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not mandatory that the subject headings be arranged exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any arrangement of subjects is satisfactory if all the subject material listed here is included and at least the minimum programmed hours are assigned to each subject. Each general subject must be broken down into detail showing the items to be covered.

(ii) If any course operator desires to include additional subjects in the ground course curriculum, such as international law, flight hygiene, or others that are not required, the hours allotted these additional subjects may not be included in the minimum programmed classroom hours.

(iii) The following subjects and classroom hours are the minimum programmed coverage for the initial approval of a ground training course for flight engineers. Subsequent to initial approval of a ground training course an applicant may apply to the Administrator for a reduction in the programmed hours. Approval of a reduction in the approved programmed hours is based on improved training effectiveness due to improvements in methods, training aids, quality of instruction, or any combination thereof.

Subject | Classroom hours

Federal Aviation Regulations | 10

To include the regulations of this chapter that apply to flight engineers

Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics | 10

Airplane Familiarization | 90

To include as appropriate:

Specifications.

Construction features.

Flight controls.

Hydraulic systems.

Pneumatic systems.

Electrical systems.

Anti-icing and de-icing systems.

Pressurization and air-conditioning systems.

Vacuum systems.

Pilot static systems.

Instrument systems.

Fuel and oil systems.

Emergency equipment.

Engine Familiarization | 45

To include as appropriate:

Specifications.

Construction features.

Lubrication.

Ignition.

Carburetor and induction, supercharging and fuel control systems

Accessories.

Propellers.

Instrumentation.

Emergency equipment.

Normal Operations (Ground and Flight) | 50

To include as appropriate:

Servicing methods and procedures.

Operation of all the airplane systems.

Operation of all the engine systems.

Loading and center of gravity computations.

Cruise control (normal, long range, maximum endurance)

Power and fuel computation.

Meteorology as applicable to engine operation

Emergency Operations | 80

To include as appropriate:

Landing gear, brakes, flaps, speed brakes, and leading edge devices

Pressurization and air-conditioning.

Portable fire extinguishers.

Fuselage fire and smoke control.

Loss of electrical power.

Engine fire control.

Engine shut-down and restart.

Oxygen.

Total (exclusive of final tests) | 235

The above subjects, except Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics, and Regulations must apply to the same type of airplane in which the student flight engineer is to receive flight training.

(3) Flight Course Outline. (i) The flight training curriculum must include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in an airplane specified in § 63.37(a). The flight time required for the practical test may not be credited as part of the required flight instruction.

(ii) All of the flight training must be given in the same type airplane.

(iii) As appropriate to the airplane type, the following subjects must be taught in the flight training course:

Subject

normal duties, procedures and operations

To include as appropriate:

Airplane preflight.

Engine starting, power checks, pretakeoff, postlanding and shut-down procedures.

Power control.

Temperature control.

Engine operation analysis.

Operation of all systems.

Fuel management.

Logbook entries.

Pressurization and air conditioning.

recognition and correction of in-flight malfunctions

To include:

Analysis of abnormal engine operation.

Analysis of abnormal operation of all systems.

Corrective action.

emergency operations in flight

To include as appropriate:

Engine fire control.

Fuselage fire control.

Smoke control.

Loss of power or pressure in each system.

Engine overspeed.

Fuel dumping.

Landing gear, spoilers, speed brakes, and flap extension and retraction.

Engine shut-down and restart.

Use of oxygen.

(iv) If the Administrator finds a simulator or flight engineer training device to accurately reproduce the design, function, and control characteristics, as pertaining to the duties and responsibilities of a flight engineer on the type of airplane to be flown, the flight training time may be reduced by a ratio of 1 hour of flight time to 2 hours of airplane simulator time, or 3 hours of flight engineer training device time, as the case may be, subject to the following limitations:

(a) Except as provided in subdivision (b) of this paragraph, the required flight instruction time in an airplane may not be less than 5 hours.

(b) As to a flight engineer student holding at least a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating, airplane simulator or a combination of airplane simulator and flight engineer training device time may be submitted for up to all 10 hours of the required flight instruction time in an airplane. However, not more than 15 hours of flight engineer training device time may be substituted for flight instruction time.

(v) To obtain credit for flight training time, airplane simulator time, or flight engineer training device time, the student must occupy the flight engineer station and operate the controls.

(b) Classroom equipment. Classroom equipment should consist of systems and procedural training devices, satisfactory to the Administrator, that duplicate the operation of the systems of the airplane in which the student is to receive his flight training.

(c) Contracts or agreements. (1) An approved flight engineer course operator may contract with other persons to obtain suitable airplanes, airplane simulators, or other training devices or equipment.

(2) An operator who is approved to conduct both the flight engineer ground course and the flight engineer flight course may contract with others to conduct one course or the other in its entirety but may not contract with others to conduct both courses for the same airplane type.

(3) An operator who has approval to conduct a flight engineer ground course or flight course for a type of airplane, but not both courses, may not contract with another person to conduct that course in whole or in part.

(4) An operator who contracts with another to conduct a flight engineer course may not authorize or permit the course to be conducted in whole or in part by a third person.

(5) In all cases, the course operator who is approved to operate the course is responsible for the nature and quality of the instruction given.

(6) A copy of each contract authorized under this paragraph must be attached to each of the 3 copies of the course outline submitted for approval.

(d) Instructors. (1) Only certificated flight engineers may give the flight instruction required by this appendix in an airplane, simulator, or flight engineer training device.

(2) There must be a sufficient number of qualified instructors available to prevent an excess ratio of students to instructors.

(e) Revisions. (1) Requests for revisions of the course outlines, facilities or equipment must follow the procedures for original approval of the course. Revisions must be submitted in such form that an entire page or pages of the approved outline can be removed and replaced by the revisions.

(2) The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, if the requirements of paragraph (d) of this appendix are maintained.

(f) Ground school credits. (1) Credit may be granted a student in the ground school course by the course operator for comparable previous training or experience that the student can show by written evidence: however, the course operator must still meet the quality of instruction as described in paragraph (h) of this appendix.

(2) Before credit for previous training or experience may be given, the student must pass a test given by the course operator on the subject for which the credit is to be given. The course operator shall incorporate results of the test, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited as part of the student's records.

(g) Records and reports. (1) The course operator must maintain, for at least two years after a student graduates, fails, or drops from a course, a record of the student's training, including a chronological log of the subject course, attendance examinations, and grades.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of this section, the course operator must submit to the Administrator, not later than January 31 of each year, a report for the previous calendar year's training, to include:

(i) Name, enrollment and graduation date of each student;

(ii) Ground school hours and grades of each student;

(iii) Flight, airplane simulator, flight engineer training device hours, and grades of each student; and

(iv) Names of students failed or dropped, together with their school grades and reasons for dropping.

(3) Upon request, the Administrator may waive the reporting requirements of paragraph (2) of this section for an approved flight engineer course that is part of an approved training course under subpart N of part 121 of this chapter.

(h) Quality of instruction. (1) Approval of a ground course is discontinued whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA written test on the first attempt.

(2) Approval of a flight course is discontinued whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA practical test on the first attempt.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section, approval of a ground or flight course may be continued when the Administrator finds—

(i) That the failure rate was based on less than a representative number of students; or

(ii) That the course operator has taken satisfactory means to improve the effectiveness of the training.

(i) Time limitation. Each student must apply for the written test and the flight test within 90 days after completing the ground school course.

(j) Statement of course completion. (1) The course operator shall give to each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer ground school training course, and passes the FAA written test, a statement of successful completion of the course that indicates the date of training, the type of airplane on which the ground course training was based, and the number of hours received in the ground school course.

(2) The course operator shall give each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer flight course, and passed the FAA practical test, a statement of successful completion of the flight course that indicates the dates of the training, the type of airplane used in the flight course, and the number of hours received in the flight course.

(3) A course operator who is approved to conduct both the ground course and the flight course may include both courses in a single statement of course completion if the provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section are included.

(4) The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to an air carrier or commercial operator with an approved training course under part 121 of this chapter providing the student receives a flight engineer certificate upon completion of that course.

(k) Inspections. Each course operator shall allow the Administrator at any time or place, to make any inspection necessary to ensure that the quality and effectiveness of the instruction are maintained at the required standards.

(l) Change of ownership, name, or location. (1) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course is discontinued if the ownership of the course changes. The new owner must obtain a new approval by following the procedure prescribed for original approval.

(2) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course does not terminate upon a change in the name of the course that is reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a new letter of approval, using the new name, upon receipt of notice within that time.

(3) Approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course does not terminate upon a change in location of the course that is reported to the Administrator within 30 days. The Administrator issues a new letter of approval, showing the new location, upon receipt of notice within that time, if he finds the new facilities to be adequate.

(m) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to meet or maintain any of the requirements of this appendix for the approval of a flight engineer ground course or flight course is reason for cancellation of the approval.

(2) If a course operator desires to voluntarily terminate the course, he should notify the Administrator in writing and return the last letter of approval.

(n) Duration. Except for a course operated as part of an approved training course under subpart N of part 121 of this chapter, the approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course terminates 24 months after the last day of the month of issue.

(o) Renewal. (1) Renewal of approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course is conditioned upon the course operator's meeting the requirements of this appendix.

(2) Application for renewal may be made to the Administrator at any time after 60 days before the termination date.

(p) Course operator approvals. An applicant for approval of a flight engineer ground course, or flight course, or both, must meet all of the requirements of this appendix concerning application, approval, and continuing approval of that course or courses.

(q) Practical test eligibility. An applicant for a flight engineer certificate and class rating under the provisions of § 63.37(b)(6) is not eligible to take the practical test unless he has successfully completed an approved flight engineer ground school course in the same type of airplane for which he has completed an approved flight engineer flight course.

[Docket 6458, 30 FR 14560, Nov. 23, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 63-15, 37 FR 9758, May 17, 1972]

PART 65 CERTIFICATION: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS

Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.

Source: Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted.

Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 103—Process for Requesting Waiver of Mandatory Separation Age for a Federal Aviation Administration Air Traffic Control Specialist In Flight Service Stations, Enroute or Terminal Facilities, and the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center

1. To whom does this SFAR apply? This Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) applies to you if you are an air traffic control specialist (ATCS) employed by the FAA in flight service stations, enroute facilities, terminal facilities, or at the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center who wishes to obtain a waiver of the mandatory separation age as provided by 5 U.S.C. section 8335(a).

2. When must I file for a waiver? No earlier than the beginning of the twelfth month before, but no later than the beginning of the sixth month before, the month in which you turn 56, your official chain-of-command must receive your written request asking for a waiver of mandatory separation.

3. What if I do not file a request before six months before the month in which I turn 56? If your official chain-of-command does not receive your written request for a waiver of mandatory separation before the beginning of the sixth month before the month in which you turn 56, your request will be denied.

4. How will the FAA determine if my request meets the filing time requirements of this SFAR?

a. We consider your request to be filed in a timely manner under this SFAR if your official chain-of-command receives it or it is postmarked:

i. After 12 a.m. on the first day of the twelfth month before the month in which you turn 56; and

ii. Before 12 a.m. of the first day of the sixth month before the month in which you turn 56.

b. If you file your request by mail and the postmark is not legible, we will consider it to comply with paragraph a.2 of this section if we receive it by 12 p.m. of the fifth day of the sixth month before the month in which you turn 56.

c. If the last day of the time period specified in paragraph a.2 or paragraph b falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, we will consider the time period to end at 12 p.m. of the next business day.

5. Where must I file my request for waiver and what must it include?

a. You must file your request for waiver of mandatory separation in writing with the Air Traffic Manager in flight service stations, enroute facilities, terminal facilities, or the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control System Command Center in which you are employed.

b. Your request for waiver must include all of the following:

i. Your name.

ii. Your current facility.

iii. Your starting date at the facility.

iv. A list of positions at the facility that you are certified in and how many hours it took to achieve certification at the facility.

v. Your area of specialty at the facility.

vi. Your shift schedule.

vii. [Reserved]

viii. A list of all facilities where you have worked as a certified professional controller (CPC) including facility level and dates at each facility;

ix. Evidence of your exceptional skills and experience as a controller; and

x. Your signature.

6. How will my waiver request be reviewed?

a. Upon receipt of your request for waiver, the Air Traffic Manager of your facility will make a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve or deny your request. If the manager recommends approval of your request, he or she will certify in writing the accuracy of the information you provided as evidence of your exceptional skills and experience as a controller.

b. The Air Traffic Manager will then forward the written recommendation with a copy of your request to the senior executive manager in the Air Traffic Manager's regional chain-of-command.

c. The senior executive manager in the regional chain-of-command will make a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve or deny your request. If the senior executive manager recommends approval of your request, he or she will certify in writing the accuracy of the information you have provided as evidence of exceptional skills and experience.

d. The senior executive manager in the regional chain-of-command will then forward his or her recommendation with a copy of your request to the appropriate Vice President at FAA Headquarters. Depending on the facility in which you are employed, the request will be forwarded to either the Vice President for Flight Services, the Vice President for Enroute and Oceanic Services, the Vice President for Terminal Services or the Vice President for Systems Operations. For example, if you work at a flight service station at the time that you request a waiver, the request will be forwarded to the Vice President for Flight Services.

e. The appropriate Vice President will review your request and make a written recommendation that the Administrator either approve or deny your request, which will be forwarded to the Administrator.

f. The Administrator will issue the final decision on your request.

7. If I am granted a waiver, when will it expire?

a. Waivers will be granted for a period of one year.

b. No later than 90-days prior to expiration of a waiver, you may request that the waiver be extended using the same process identified in section 6.

c. If you timely request an extension of the waiver and it is denied, you will receive a 60-day advance notice of your separation date simultaneously with notification of the denial.

d. If you do not request an extension of the waiver granted, you will receive a 60-day advance notice of your separation date.

e. Action to separate you from your covered position becomes effective on the last day of the month in which the 60-day notice expires.

8. Under what circumstances may my waiver be terminated?

a. The FAA/DOT may terminate your waiver under the following circumstances:

i. The needs of the FAA; or

ii. If you are identified as a primary contributor to an operational error/deviation or runway incursion.

b. If the waiver is terminated for either of the reasons identified in paragraph 1 of this section, the air traffic control specialist will receive a 60-day advance notice.

c. Action to separate you from your covered position becomes effective on the last day of the month in which the 60-day notice expires.

9. Appeal of denial or termination of waiver request: The denial or termination of a waiver of mandatory separation request is neither appealable nor grievable.

[Docket FAA-2004-17334, 70 FR 1636, Jan. 7, 2005, as amended by Amdt. 65-55, 76 FR 12, Jan. 3, 2011]

Subpart A General

§ 65.1 Applicability.

This part prescribes the requirements for issuing the following certificates and associated ratings and the general operating rules for the holders of those certificates and ratings:

(a) Air-traffic control-tower operators.

(b) Aircraft dispatchers.

(d) Repairmen.

(e) Parachute riggers.

§ 65.3 Certification of foreign airmen other than flight crewmembers.

A person who is neither a U.S. citizen nor a resident alien is issued a certificate under subpart D of this part, outside the United States, only when the Administrator finds that the certificate is needed for the operation or continued airworthiness of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft.

[Docket 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982]

§ 65.11 Application and issue.

(a) Application for a certificate and appropriate class rating, or for an additional rating, under this part must be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator. Each person who applies for airmen certification services to be administered outside the United States or for any certificate or rating issued under this part must show evidence that the fee prescribed in appendix A of part 187 of this chapter has been paid.

(b) Except for FAA Credential holders with tower ratings, an applicant who meets the requirements of this part is entitled to an appropriate certificate and rating.

(c) Unless authorized by the Administrator, a person whose air traffic control tower operator, mechanic, or parachute rigger certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension.

(d) Unless the order of revocation provides otherwise—

(1) A person whose air traffic control tower operator, aircraft dispatcher, or parachute rigger certificate is revoked may not apply for the same kind of certificate for 1 year after the date of revocation; and

(2) A person whose mechanic or repairman certificate is revoked may not apply for either of those kinds of certificates for 1 year after the date of revocation.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; Amdt. 65-28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt. 65-49, 72 FR 18559, Apr. 12, 2007; Amdt. 65-56, 79 FR 74611, Dec. 16, 2014]

§ 65.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.

(1) Denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or

(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.

(b) The commission of an act prohibited by § 91.19(a) of this chapter is grounds for—

(1) Denial of an application for a certificate or rating issued under this part for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that act; or

(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under this part.

[Docket 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as amended by Amdt. 65-34, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, 1989]

§ 65.13 Temporary certificate.

A certificate and ratings effective for a period of not more than 120 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate and ratings for which he applied.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-23, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]

§ 65.14 [Reserved]

§ 65.15 Duration of certificates.

(a) Except for repairman certificates issued in accordance with § 65.101, a certificate or rating issued under this part is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.

(b) Unless it is sooner surrendered, suspended, or revoked, a repairman certificate issued in accordance with § 65.101 is effective until the holder is relieved from the duties for which the holder was employed and certificated.

(c) The holder of a certificate issued under this part that is suspended, revoked, or no longer effective shall return it to the Administrator.

(d) Except for temporary certificates issued under § 65.13, the holder of a paper certificate issued under this part may not exercise the privileges of that certificate.

[Docket 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982, as amended by Amdt. 65-51, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 65-66, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 65.16 Change of name: Replacement of lost or destroyed certificate.

(b) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. The letter must—

(1) Contain the name in which the certificate was issued, the permanent mailing address (including zip code), social security number (if any), and date and place of birth of the certificate holder, and any available information regarding the grade, number, and date of issue of the certificate, and the ratings on it; and

(2) Be accompanied by a check or money order for $2, payable to the Federal Aviation Administration.

(c) An application for a replacement of a lost or destroyed medical certificate is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Aerospace Medical Certification Division, Post Office Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, accompanied by a check or money order for $2.00.

(d) A person whose certificate issued under this part or medical certificate, or both, has been lost may obtain a telegram from the FAA confirming that it was issued. The telegram may be carried as a certificate for a period not to exceed 60 days pending his receiving a duplicate certificate under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, unless he has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked. The request for such a telegram may be made by prepaid telegram, stating the date upon which a duplicate certificate was requested, or including the request for a duplicate and a money order for the necessary amount. The request for a telegraphic certificate should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, as appropriate. However, a request for both at the same time should be sent to the office prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.

[Docket 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970; Amdt. 65-17, 36 FR 2865, Feb. 11, 1971; Amdt. 65-52, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008]

§ 65.17 Tests: General procedure.

(a) Tests prescribed by or under this part are given at times and places, and by persons, designated by the Administrator.

(b) The minimum passing grade for each test is 70 percent.

§ 65.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unauthorized conduct.

(a) Except as authorized by the Administrator, no person may—

(1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a written test under this part;

(2) Give to another, or receive from another, any part or copy of that test;

(3) Give help on that test to, or receive help on that test from, any person during the period that test is being given;

(4) Take any part of that test in behalf of another person;

(5) Use any material or aid during the period that test is being given; or

(6) Intentionally cause, assist, or participate in any act prohibited by this paragraph.

[Docket 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]

§ 65.19 Retesting after failure.

An applicant for a written, oral, or practical test for a certificate and rating, or for an additional rating under this part, may apply for retesting—

(a) After 30 days after the date the applicant failed the test; or

(b) Before the 30 days have expired if the applicant presents a signed statement from an airman holding the certificate and rating sought by the applicant, certifying that the airman has given the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed and that the airman considers the applicant ready for retesting.

[Docket 16383, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978]

§ 65.20 [Reserved]

§ 65.21 Change of address.

[Docket 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]

§ 65.23 Incorporation by reference.

Certain material is incorporated by reference into this part with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. This material is available for inspection at the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact FAA, Training and Certification Group, 202-267-1100, ACSPTSinquiries@faa.gov. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, email fr.inspection@nara.gov, or go to www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations. The material may be obtained from the source in the following paragraph of this section.

(a) Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, 866-835-5322, www.faa.gov/training_testing.

(1) FAA-S-8081-10E, Aircraft Dispatcher Practical Test Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for § 65.59.

(2) FAA-S-8081-25C, Parachute Rigger Practical Test Standards, November 2023; IBR approved for §§ 65.115, 65.119, and 65.123.

(3) FAA-S-ACS-1, Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards, November 1, 2021; IBR approved for §§ 65.75, 65.79, and 65.107.

(b) [Reserved]

[Docket FAA-2021-0237; Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463; Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 65-66, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

Subpart B Air Traffic Control Tower Operators

Source: Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, unless otherwise noted.

§ 65.31 Required credentials, certificates, and ratings or qualifications.

No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at an air traffic control tower in connection with civil aircraft unless he or she—

(a) Holds an FAA Credential with a tower rating or an air traffic control tower operator certificate issued under this subpart;

(b) Holds a facility rating for that control tower issued under this subpart, or has qualified for the operating position at which he or she acts and is under the supervision of the holder of a facility rating for that control tower; and

(c) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the Coast Guard, holds at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter.

[Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987; Amdt. 65-56, 79 FR 74611, Dec. 16, 2014]

§ 65.33 Eligibility requirements: General.

To be eligible for an air traffic control tower operator certificate a person must—

(a) Be at least 18 years of age;

(b) Be of good moral character;

(c) Be able to read, write, and understand the English language and speak it without accent or impediment of speech that would interfere with two-way radio conversation;

(d) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy or the Coast Guard, hold at least a second-class medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter within the 12 months before the date application is made; and

(e) Comply with § 65.35.

[Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-25, 45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, 1980; Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987]

§ 65.35 Knowledge requirements.

Each applicant for an air traffic control tower operator certificate must pass a written test on—

(a) The flight rules in part 91 of this chapter:

(b) Airport traffic control procedures, and this subpart:

(d) Communications operating procedures;

(e) Flight assistance service;

(f) Air navigation, and aids to air navigation; and

(g) Aviation weather.

§ 65.37 Skill requirements: Operating positions.

No person may act as an air traffic control tower operator at any operating position unless he has passed a practical test on—

(a) Control tower equipment and its use;

(b) Weather reporting procedures and use of reports;

(d) Use of operational forms;

(e) Performance of noncontrol operational duties; and

(f) Each of the following procedures that is applicable to that operating position and is required by the person performing the examination:

(1) The airport, including rules, equipment, runways, taxiways, and obstructions.

(2) The terrain features, visual checkpoints, and obstructions within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for the airport.

(3) Traffic patterns and associated procedures for use of preferential runways and noise abatement.

(4) Operational agreements.

(5) The center, alternate airports, and those airways, routes, reporting points, and air navigation aids used for terminal air traffic control.

(6) Search and rescue procedures.

(7) Terminal air traffic control procedures and phraseology.

(8) Holding procedures, prescribed instrument approach, and departure procedures.

(9) Radar alignment and technical operation.

(10) The application of the prescribed radar and nonradar separation standard, as appropriate.

[Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1991, as amended by Amdt. 65-36, 56 FR 65653, Dec. 17, 1991]

§ 65.39 Practical experience requirements: Facility rating.

Each applicant for a facility rating at any air traffic control tower must have satisfactorily served—

(a) As an air traffic control tower operator at that control tower without a facility rating for at least 6 months; or

(b) As an air traffic control tower operator with a facility rating at a different control tower for at least 6 months before the date he applies for the rating.

However, an applicant who is a member of an Armed Force of the United States meets the requirements of this section if he has satisfactorily served as an air traffic control tower operator for at least 6 months.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-19, 36 FR 21280, Nov. 5, 1971]

§ 65.41 Skill requirements: Facility ratings.

Each applicant for a facility rating at an air traffic control tower must have passed a practical test on each item listed in § 65.37 of this part that is applicable to each operating position at the control tower at which the rating is sought.

§ 65.43 [Reserved]

§ 65.45 Performance of duties.

(a) An air traffic control tower operator shall perform his duties in accordance with the limitations on his certificate and the procedures and practices prescribed in air traffic control manuals of the FAA, to provide for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic.

(b) An operator with a facility rating may control traffic at any operating position at the control tower at which he holds a facility rating. However, he may not issue an air traffic clearance for IFR flight without authorization from the appropriate facility exercising IFR control at that location.

(c) An operator who does not hold a facility rating for a particular control tower may act at each operating position for which he has qualified, under the supervision of an operator holding a facility rating for that control tower.

[Docket 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 65-16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]

§§ 65.46-65.46b [Reserved]

§ 65.47 Maximum hours.

Except in an emergency, a certificated air traffic control tower operator must be relieved of all duties for at least 24 consecutive hours at least once during each 7 consecutive days. Such an operator may not serve or be required to serve—

(a) For more than 10 consecutive hours; or

(b) For more than 10 hours during a period of 24 consecutive hours, unless he has had a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the end of the 10 hours of duty.

§ 65.49 General operating rules.

(a) Except for a person employed by the FAA or employed by, or on active duty with, the Department of the Air Force, Army, or Navy, or the Coast Guard, no person may act as an air traffic control tower operator under a certificate issued to him or her under this part unless he or she has in his or her personal possession an appropriate current medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter.

(b) Each person holding an air traffic control tower operator certificate shall keep it readily available when performing duties in an air traffic control tower, and shall present that certificate or his medical certificate or both for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

(c) A certificated air traffic control tower operator who does not hold a facility rating for a particular control tower may not act at any operating position at the control tower concerned unless there is maintained at that control tower, readily available to persons named in paragraph (b) of this section, a current record of the operating positions at which he has qualified.

(d) An air traffic control tower operator may not perform duties under his certificate during any period of known physical deficiency that would make him unable to meet the physical requirements for his current medical certificate. However, if the deficiency is temporary, he may perform duties that are not affected by it whenever another certificated and qualified operator is present and on duty.

(e) A certificated air traffic control tower operator may not control air traffic with equipment that the Administrator has found to be inadequate.

(f) The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate, or an applicant for one, shall, upon the reasonable request of the Administrator, cooperate fully in any test that is made of him.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-31, 52 FR 17519, May 8, 1987]

§ 65.50 Currency requirements.

The holder of an air traffic control tower operator certificate may not perform any duties under that certificate unless—

(a) He has served for at least three of the preceding 6 months as an air traffic control tower operator at the control tower to which his facility rating applies, or at the operating positions for which he has qualified; or

(b) He has shown that he meets the requirements for his certificate and facility rating at the control tower concerned, or for operating at positions for which he has previously qualified.

Subpart C Aircraft Dispatchers

Source: Docket FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68923, Dec. 8, 1999, unless otherwise noted.

§ 65.51 Certificate required.

(a) No person may act as an aircraft dispatcher (exercising responsibility with the pilot in command in the operational control of a flight) in connection with any civil aircraft in air commerce unless that person has in his or her personal possession an aircraft dispatcher certificate issued under this subpart.

(b) Each person who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

§ 65.53 Eligibility requirements: General.

(a) To be eligible to take the aircraft dispatcher knowledge test, a person must be at least 21 years of age.

(b) To be eligible for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, a person must—

(1) Be at least 23 years of age;

(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language;

(3) Pass the required knowledge test prescribed by § 65.55 of this part;

(4) Pass the required practical test prescribed by § 65.59 of this part; and

(5) Comply with the requirements of § 65.57 of this part.

§ 65.55 Knowledge requirements.

(a) A person who applies for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a knowledge test on the following aeronautical knowledge areas:

(1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to airline transport pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;

(2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;

(3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use;

(4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, and symbols;

(5) National Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the National Airspace System;

(6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance;

(7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the National Airspace System;

(8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to enroute operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures;

(9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft performance;

(10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft's flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;

(11) Human factors;

(12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and

(13) Crew resource management, including crew communication and coordination.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the applicant must present documentary evidence satisfactory to the Administrator of having passed an aircraft dispatcher knowledge test within the preceding 24 calendar months.

(c) An applicant is eligible to take a practical test for an aircraft dispatcher certificate under this part with an expired written test report in accordance with § 61.40 of this chapter.

[Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 65-65, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 65.57 Experience or training requirements.

An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present documentary evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that he or she has the experience prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section or has accomplished the training described in paragraph (b) of this section as follows:

(a) A total of at least 2 years experience in the 3 years before the date of application, in any one or in any combination of the following areas:

(1) In military aircraft operations as a—

(i) Pilot;

(ii) Flight navigator; or

(iii) Meteorologist.

(2) In aircraft operations conducted under part 121 of this chapter as—

(i) An assistant in dispatching air carrier aircraft, under the direct supervision of a dispatcher certificated under this subpart;

(ii) A pilot;

(iii) A flight engineer; or

(iv) A meteorologist.

(3) In aircraft operations as—

(i) An Air Traffic Controller; or

(ii) A Flight Service Specialist.

(4) In aircraft operations, performing other duties that the Administrator finds provide equivalent experience.

(b) A statement of graduation issued or revalidated in accordance with § 65.70(b) of this part, showing that the person has successfully completed an approved aircraft dispatcher course.

§ 65.59 Skill requirements.

An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate must pass a practical test given by the Administrator, with respect to any one type of large aircraft used in air carrier operations. To pass the practical test for an aircraft dispatcher certificate, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the areas of operation specified in the Aircraft Dispatcher Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23).

[Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024]

§ 65.61 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Content and minimum hours.

(a) An approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must:

(1) Provide instruction in the areas of knowledge and topics listed in appendix A of this part;

(2) Include a minimum of 200 hours of instruction.

(b) An applicant for approval of an aircraft dispatcher course must submit an outline that describes the major topics and subtopics to be covered and the number of hours proposed for each.

(c) Additional subject headings for an aircraft dispatcher certification course may also be included, however the hours proposed for any subjects not listed in appendix A of this part must be in addition to the minimum 200 course hours required in paragraph (a) of this section.

(d) For the purpose of completing an approved course, a student may substitute previous experience or training for a portion of the minimum 200 hours of training. The course operator determines the number of hours of credit based on an evaluation of the experience or training to determine if it is comparable to portions of the approved course curriculum. The credit allowed, including the total hours and the basis for it, must be placed in the student's record required by § 65.70(a) of this part.

§ 65.63 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Application, duration, and other general requirements.

(a) Application. Application for original approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course or the renewal of approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course under this part must be:

(1) Made in writing to the Administrator;

(2) Accompanied by two copies of the course outline required under § 65.61(b) of this part, for which approval is sought;

(3) Accompanied by a description of the equipment and facilities to be used; and

(4) Accompanied by a list of the instructors and their qualifications.

(b) Duration. Unless withdrawn or canceled, an approval of an aircraft dispatcher certification course of study expires:

(1) On the last day of the 24th month from the month the approval was issued; or

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, on the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs.

(c) Renewal. Application for renewal of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must be made within 30 days preceding the month the approval expires, provided the course operator meets the following requirements:

(1) At least 80 percent of the graduates from that aircraft dispatcher certification course, who applied for the practical test required by § 65.59 of this part, passed the practical test on their first attempt; and

(2) The aircraft dispatcher certification course continues to meet the requirements of this subpart for course approval.

(d) Course revisions. Requests for approval of a revision of the course outline, facilities, or equipment must be in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. Proposed revisions of the course outline or the description of facilities and equipment must be submitted in a format that will allow an entire page or pages of the approved outline or description to be removed and replaced by any approved revision. The list of instructors may be revised at any time without request for approval, provided the minimum requirements of § 65.67 of this part are maintained and the Administrator is notified in writing.

(e) Withdrawal or cancellation of approval. Failure to continue to meet the requirements of this subpart for the approval or operation of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course is grounds for withdrawal of approval of the course. A course operator may request cancellation of course approval by a letter to the Administrator. The operator must forward any records to the FAA as requested by the Administrator.

(f) Change in ownership. A change in ownership of a part 65, appendix A-approved course does not terminate that aircraft dispatcher certification course approval if, within 10 days after the date that any change in ownership of the school occurs:

(1) Application is made for an appropriate amendment to the approval; and

(2) No change in the facilities, personnel, or approved aircraft dispatcher certification course is involved.

(g) Change in name or location. A change in name or location of an approved aircraft dispatcher certification course does not invalidate the approval if, within 10 days after the date that any change in name or location occurs, the course operator of the part 65, appendix A-approved course notifies the Administrator, in writing, of the change.

§ 65.65 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Training facilities.

An applicant for approval of authority to operate an aircraft dispatcher course of study must have facilities, equipment, and materials adequate to provide each student the theoretical and practical aspects of aircraft dispatching. Each room, training booth, or other space used for instructional purposes must be temperature controlled, lighted, and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation, and health codes. In addition, the training facility must be so located that the students in that facility are not distracted by the instruction conducted in other rooms.

§ 65.67 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Personnel.

(a) Each applicant for an aircraft dispatcher certification course must meet the following personnel requirements:

(1) Each applicant must have adequate personnel, including one instructor who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate and is available to coordinate all training course instruction.

(2) Each applicant must not exceed a ratio of 25 students for one instructor.

(b) The instructor who teaches the practical dispatch applications area of the appendix A course must hold an aircraft dispatchers certificate

§ 65.70 Aircraft dispatcher certification courses: Records.

(a) The operator of an aircraft dispatcher course must maintain a record for each student, including a chronological log of all instructors, subjects covered, and course examinations and results. The record must be retained for at least 3 years after graduation. The course operator also must prepare, for its records, and transmit to the Administrator not later than January 31 of each year, a report containing the following information for the previous year:

(1) The names of all students who graduated, together with the results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses.

(2) The names of all the students who failed or withdrew, together with the results of their aircraft dispatcher certification courses or the reasons for their withdrawal.

(b) Each student who successfully completes the approved aircraft dispatcher certification course must be given a written statement of graduation, which is valid for 90 days. After 90 days, the course operator may revalidate the graduation certificate for an additional 90 days if the course operator determines that the student remains proficient in the subject areas listed in appendix A of this part.

Subpart D Mechanics

§ 65.71 Eligibility requirements: General.

(a) To be eligible for a mechanic certificate and associated ratings, a person must—

(1) Be at least 18 years of age;

(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or in the case of an applicant who does not meet this requirement and who is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. air carrier, have his certificate endorsed “Valid only outside the United States”;

(3) Have passed all of the prescribed tests within a period of 24 months; and

(4) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the rating the applicant seeks.

(b) A certificated mechanic who applies for an additional rating must meet the requirements of § 65.77 and, within a period of 24 calendar months, pass the tests prescribed by §§ 65.75 and 65.79 for the additional rating sought, except as provided in § 65.75(d).

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-6, 31 FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 65-65, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 65.73 Ratings.

(a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:

(1) Airframe.

(2) Powerplant.

(b) A mechanic certificate with an aircraft or aircraft engine rating, or both, that was issued before, and was valid on, June 15, 1952, is equal to a mechanic certificate with an airframe or powerplant rating, or both, as the case may be, and may be exchanged for such a corresponding certificate and rating or ratings.

§ 65.75 Knowledge requirements.

(a) Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must, after meeting the applicable experience requirements of § 65.77, pass a written test, appropriate to the rating sought, which includes the aeronautical knowledge subject areas contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought.

(b) The applicant must pass each section of the test before applying for the oral and practical tests prescribed by § 65.79. A report of the written test is sent to the applicant.

(c) An applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating may take the mechanic general written test prior to meeting the applicable experience requirements of § 65.77, provided the applicant presents an authenticated document from a certificated aviation maintenance technician school that demonstrates satisfactory completion of the general portion of the school's curriculum and specifies the completion date.

(d) An applicant is eligible to take a practical test for a mechanic certificate or rating under this part with an expired written test report in accordance with § 61.40 of this chapter.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-1, 27 FR 10410, Oct. 25, 1962; Docket FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31414, May 24, 2022; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 65-65, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 65.77 Experience requirements.

Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must present either—

(a) An authenticated document from a certificated aviation maintenance technician school in accordance with § 147.21 of this chapter; or

(b) Documentary evidence, satisfactory to the Administrator, of—

(1) At least 18 months of practical experience with the procedures, practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes or powerplants, appropriate to the rating sought; or

(2) At least 30 months of practical experience concurrently performing the duties appropriate to both the airframe and powerplant ratings.

[Docket FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022]

§ 65.79 Skill requirements.

Each applicant for a mechanic certificate or rating must pass an oral test and a practical test, as appropriate to the rating sought, by demonstrating satisfactory understanding of the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airmen Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), as appropriate to the rating sought.

[Docket FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022]

§ 65.80 Certificated aviation maintenance technician school students.

Whenever an aviation maintenance technician school certificated under part 147 of this chapter shows to the Administrator that any of its students has made satisfactory progress at the school and is prepared to take the oral and practical tests prescribed by § 65.79, that student may take those tests during the final subjects of the student's training in the curriculum required under part 147, before the student meets the applicable experience requirements of § 65.77 and before the student passes each section of the written test prescribed by § 65.75.

[Docket FAA-2021-0237, Amdt. 65-63, 87 FR 31415, May 24, 2022]

§ 65.81 General privileges and limitations.

(a) A certificated mechanic may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance or alteration of an aircraft or appliance, or a part thereof, for which that person is rated (but excluding major repairs to, and major alterations of, propellers, and any repair to, or alteration of, instruments), and may perform additional duties in accordance with §§ 65.85, 65.87, and 65.95. However, a certificated mechanic may not supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of, or approve for return to service, any aircraft or appliance, or part thereof, for which that person is rated unless that person has satisfactorily performed the work concerned at an earlier date. If that person has not so performed that work at an earlier date, that person may show the ability to do it by performing it to the satisfaction of the Administrator or under the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific operation concerned.

(b) A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of that person's certificate and rating unless that person understands the current instructions of the manufacturer, and the maintenance manuals, for the specific operation concerned.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 65-66, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 65.83 Recent experience requirements.

A certificated mechanic may not exercise the privileges of his certificate and rating unless, within the preceding 24 months—

(a) The Administrator has found that he is able to do that work; or

(b) He has, for at least 6 months—

(1) Served as a mechanic under his certificate and rating;

(2) Technically supervised other mechanics;

(3) Supervised, in an executive capacity, the maintenance or alteration of aircraft; or

(4) Been engaged in any combination of paragraph (b) (1), (2), or (3) of this section.

§ 65.85 Airframe rating; additional privileges.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may approve for return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, after that person has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, a certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and approve for return to service.

(b) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating can approve for return to service an airframe, or any related part or appliance, of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category after performing and inspecting a major repair or major alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA approval provided the major repair or major alteration was authorized by, and performed in accordance with instructions developed by, the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. No. 65-66, 90 FR 35218, July 24, 2025]

§ 65.87 Powerplant rating; additional privileges.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may approve for return to service a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, after that person has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance or alteration (excluding major repairs and major alterations). In addition, a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may perform the 100-hour inspection required by part 91 of this chapter on a powerplant or propeller, or any part thereof, and approve for return to service.

(b) A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating can approve for return to service a powerplant or propeller, or any related part or appliance, of an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category after performing and inspecting a major repair or major alteration for products that are not produced under an FAA approval, provided the major repair or major alteration was authorized by, and performed in accordance with instructions developed by, the manufacturer or a person acceptable to the FAA.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. No. 65-66, 90 FR 35219, July 24, 2025]

§ 65.89 Display of certificate.

Each person who holds a mechanic certificate shall keep it within the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

[Docket 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]

§ 65.91 Inspection authorization.

(a) An application for an inspection authorization is made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator.

(b) An applicant who meets the requirements of this section is entitled to an inspection authorization.

(1) Hold a currently effective mechanic certificate with both an airframe rating and a powerplant rating, each of which is currently effective and has been in effect for a total of at least 3 years;

(2) Have been actively engaged, for at least the 2-year period before the date he applies, in maintaining aircraft certificated and maintained in accordance with this chapter;

(3) Have a fixed base of operations at which he may be located in person or by telephone during a normal working week but it need not be the place where he will exercise his inspection authority;

(4) Have available to him the equipment, facilities, and inspection data necessary to properly inspect airframes, powerplants, propellers, or any related part or appliance; and

(5) Pass a written test on his ability to inspect according to safety standards for returning aircraft to service after major repairs and major alterations and annual and progressive inspections performed under part 43 of this chapter.

An applicant who fails the test prescribed in paragraph (c)(5) of this section may not apply for retesting until at least 90 days after the date he failed the test.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-22, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977; Amdt. 65-30, 50 FR 15700, Apr. 19, 1985]

§ 65.92 Inspection authorization: Duration.

(a) Each inspection authorization expires on March 31 of each odd-numbered year. However, the holder may exercise the privileges of that authorization only while he holds a currently effective mechanic certificate with both a currently effective airframe rating and a currently effective powerplant rating.

(b) An inspection authorization ceases to be effective whenever any of the following occurs:

(1) The authorization is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.

(2) The holder no longer has a fixed base of operation.

(3) The holder no longer has the equipment, facilities, and inspection data required by § 65.91(c) (3) and (4) for issuance of his authorization.

(c) The holder of an inspection authorization that is suspended or revoked shall, upon the Administrator's request, return it to the Administrator.

[Docket 12537, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by Amdt. 65-50, 72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, 2007]

§ 65.93 Inspection authorization: Renewal.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, to be eligible for renewal of an inspection authorization for a 2-year period an applicant must present evidence during the month of March of each odd-numbered year, at the responsible Flight Standards office, that the applicant still meets the requirements of § 65.91(c)(1) through (4). In addition, during the time the applicant held the inspection authorization, the applicant must show completion of one of the activities in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section by March 31 of the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period, and completion of one of the five activities during the second year of the 2-year period:

(1) Performed at least one annual inspection for each 90 days that the applicant held the current authority; or

(2) Performed at least two major repairs or major alterations for each 90 days that the applicant held the current authority; or

(3) Performed or supervised and approved at least one progressive inspection in accordance with standards prescribed by the Administrator; or

(4) Attended and successfully completed a refresher course, acceptable to the Administrator, of not less than 8 hours of instruction; or

(5) Passed an oral test by an FAA inspector to determine that the applicant's knowledge of applicable regulations and standards is current.

(b) The holder of an inspection authorization that has been in effect:

(1) for less than 90 days before the expiration date need not comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section.

(2) for less than 90 days before March 31 of an even-numbered year need not comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period.

(c) An inspection authorization holder who does not complete one of the activities set forth in § 65.93(a) (1) through (5) of this section by March 31 of the first year of the 2-year inspection authorization period may not exercise inspection authorization privileges after March 31 of the first year. The inspection authorization holder may resume exercising inspection authorization privileges after passing an oral test from an FAA inspector to determine that the applicant's knowledge of the applicable regulations and standards is current. An inspection authorization holder who passes this oral test is deemed to have completed the requirements of § 65.93(a) (1) through (5) by March 31 of the first year.

(d) A person who qualifies for the relief prescribed in § 61.40 of this chapter is eligible to renew an expired inspection authorization under this section, provided the requirements of § 61.40 of this chapter are met.

[Docket FAA-2007-27108, 72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, 2007, as amended by Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 65-57A, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018; Docket FAA-2023-0825, Amdt. 65-65, 89 FR 80053, Oct. 1, 2024]

§ 65.95 Inspection authorization: Privileges and limitations.

(a) The holder of an inspection authorization may—

(1) Inspect and approve for return to service any aircraft or related part or appliance (except any aircraft maintained in accordance with a continuous airworthiness program under part 121 of this chapter) after a major repair or major alteration to it in accordance with part 43 [New] of this chapter, if the work was done in accordance with technical data approved by the Administrator; and

(2) Perform an annual, or perform or supervise a progressive inspection according to §§ 43.13 and 43.15 of this chapter.

(b) When he exercises the privileges of an inspection authorization the holder shall keep it available for inspection by the aircraft owner, the mechanic submitting the aircraft, repair, or alteration for approval (if any), and shall present it upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

(c) If the holder of an inspection authorization changes his fixed base of operation, he may not exercise the privileges of the authorization until he has notified the responsible Flight Standards office or International Field Office for the area in which the new base is located, in writing, of the change.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-2, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, 1964; Amdt. 65-4, 30 FR 3638, Mar. 14, 1965; Amdt. 65-5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-35, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 65-41, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Docket FAA-2018-0119, Amdt. 65-57A, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]

Subpart E Repairmen

§ 65.101 Eligibility requirements: General.

(a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate a person must—

(1) Be at least 18 years of age;

(2) Be specially qualified to perform maintenance on aircraft or components thereof, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;

(3) Be employed for a specific job requiring those special qualifications by a certificated repair station, or by a certificated commercial operator or certificated air carrier, that is required by its operating certificate or approved operations specifications to provide a continuous airworthiness maintenance program according to its maintenance manuals;

(4) Be recommended for certification by his employer, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, as able to satisfactorily maintain aircraft or components, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;

(5) Have either—

(i) At least 18 months of practical experience in the procedures, practices, inspection methods, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in the maintenance duties of the specific job for which the person is to be employed and certificated; or

(ii) Completed formal training that is acceptable to the Administrator and is specifically designed to qualify the applicant for the job on which the applicant is to be employed; and

(6) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or, in the case of an applicant who does not meet this requirement and who is employed outside the United States by a certificated repair station, a certificated U.S. commercial operator, or a certificated U.S. air carrier, described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, have this certificate endorsed “Valid only outside the United States.”

(b) This section does not apply to the issuance of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) under § 65.104 or to a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) under § 65.107.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-11, 32 FR 13506, Sept. 27, 1967; Amdt. 65-24, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979; Amdt. 65-27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004; 72 FR 7739, Feb. 20, 2007]

§ 65.103 Repairman certificate: Privileges and limitations.

(a) A certificated repairman may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of aircraft or aircraft components appropriate to the job for which the repairman was employed and certificated, but only in connection with duties for the certificate holder by whom the repairman was employed and recommended.

(b) A certificated repairman may not perform or supervise duties under the repairman certificate unless the repairman understands the current instructions of the certificate holder by whom the repairman is employed and the manufacturer's instructions for continued airworthiness relating to the specific operations concerned.

(c) This section does not apply to the holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) issued in accordance with § 65.104 or to the holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) issued in accordance with § 65.107, while that repairman is performing work under that certificate.

[Docket 18241, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980, as amended by Amdt. 65-45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004; Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 65-66, 90 FR 35219, July 24, 2025]

§ 65.104 Repairman certificate—experimental aircraft builder—Eligibility, privileges and limitations.

(a) To be eligible for a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder), an individual must—

(1) Be at least 18 years of age;

(2) Be the primary builder of the aircraft to which the privileges of the certificate are applicable;

(3) Show to the satisfaction of the Administrator that the individual has the requisite skill to determine whether the aircraft is in a condition for safe operations; and

(4) Be a citizen of the United States or an individual citizen of a foreign country who has lawfully been admitted for permanent residence in the United States.

(b) The holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) may perform condition inspections on the aircraft constructed by the holder in accordance with the operating limitations of that aircraft.

(c) Section 65.103 does not apply to the holder of a repairman certificate (experimental aircraft builder) while performing under that certificate.

[Docket 18739, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979]

§ 65.105 Display of certificate.

Each person who holds a repairman certificate shall keep it within the immediate area where he normally exercises the privileges of the certificate and shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

[Docket 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as amended by Docket 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967]

§ 65.107 Repairman certificate (light-sport): Eligibility and training courses.

(a) Ratings. The following ratings may be issued on a repairman certificate (light-sport) under this section:

(1) Inspection rating.

(2) Maintenance rating.

(b) Eligibility requirements: General. To be eligible for a repairman certificate (light-sport), a person must:

(1) Be at least 18 years old;

(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand English;

(3) Complete a training course pursuant to paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable to the rating sought;

(4) Pass a written test administered by the training course provider that covers the contents of the course pursuant to paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, as applicable to the rating sought; and

(5) Present documentary evidence of completion of the FAA-accepted training course required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section and passage of the written test required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, to the Administrator.

(c) Inspection rating training course. To obtain an inspection rating on a repairman certificate (light-sport), a person must complete a 16-hour training course accepted by the Administrator on inspecting the category, and class as applicable, of experimental aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating.

(d) Maintenance rating training course. To obtain a maintenance rating on a repairman certificate (light-sport), a person must complete a training course accepted by the Administrator that includes content on, at a minimum, the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements for each subject contained in the Aviation Mechanic General, Airframe, and Powerplant Airman Certification Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), that are appropriate to the category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the person intends to exercise the privileges of the rating.

(e) Training course providers. Training course providers must:

(1) Deliver the training course described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section using facilities, equipment, and materials appropriate to the training course content taught;

(2) Use instructors that are appropriately qualified to teach the course content; and

(3) After a student completes the training course as required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section and passes the written test as required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, provide a certificate of completion to the student indicating the:

(i) Name of the training provider;

(ii) FAA course acceptance number;

(iii) Rating applicable to the training course;

(iv) Aircraft category, and class as applicable, the training was based on; and

(v) Date of training completion.

(f) Certificate issuance and equivalency. (1) A repairman certificate (light-sport) will be issued with category privileges, and may be issued with class limitations within the category sought pursuant to the completed training required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section.

(2) A repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) that was issued before and was valid on October 22, 2025 is equivalent to a repairman certificate (light-sport) with the same ratings.

(3) Aircraft class privileges issued on a repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) before and valid on October 22, 2025 are equivalent to aircraft category privileges, except as provided in paragraph (f)(4) of this section.

(4) A repairman certificate (light-sport aircraft) with an inspection rating and gyroplane class privileges issued before and valid on October 22, 2025 is equivalent to a repairman (light-sport) certificate with an inspection rating and rotorcraft category privileges limited to the gyroplane class.

(g) Delayed compliance. Inspection and maintenance rating training courses designed for glider class privileges and accepted prior to October 22, 2025 may not be offered by a training course provider after July 24, 2026.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 65-66, 90 FR 35219, July 24, 2025]

§ 65.109 Repairman certificate (light-sport): Privileges and limitations.

(a) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) with an inspection rating may perform the annual condition inspection on an aircraft:

(1) That is owned by the holder;

(2) That has an experimental airworthiness certificate issued in accordance with § 21.191(g), (i), (k), or (l) of this chapter; and

(3) That is in the same category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the holder has completed the training course specified in § 65.107(c).

(b) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) with a maintenance rating may—

(1) Approve for return to service an aircraft that has a special airworthiness certificate in the light-sport category under § 21.190 of this chapter, or any part thereof, after performing or inspecting maintenance (to include the annual condition inspection and the 100-hour inspection required by § 91.327 of this chapter), preventive maintenance, or an alteration (excluding a major repair or a major alteration on a product produced under an FAA approval);

(2) Perform the annual condition inspection on an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate issued in accordance with § 21.191(g), (i), (k), or (l) of this chapter; and

(3) Only perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and an alteration on an aircraft that is in the same category, and class as applicable, of aircraft for which the holder has completed the training specified in § 65.107(d). Before performing a major repair, the holder must complete additional training acceptable to the FAA and appropriate to the repair performed.

(c) The holder of a repairman certificate (light-sport) with a maintenance rating may not approve for return to service any aircraft or part thereof unless that person has previously performed the work concerned satisfactorily. If that person has not previously performed that work, the person may show the ability to do the work by performing it to the satisfaction of the FAA, or by performing it under the direct supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic, or a certificated repairman, who has had previous experience in the specific operation concerned. The repairman may not exercise the privileges of the certificate unless the repairman understands the current instructions of the manufacturer and the maintenance manuals for the specific operation concerned.

[Docket FAA-2023-1377, Amdt. 65-66, 90 FR 35220, July 24, 2025]

Subpart F Parachute Riggers

§ 65.111 Certificate required.

(a) No person may pack, maintain, or alter any personnel-carrying parachute intended for emergency use in connection with civil aircraft of the United States (including the reserve parachute of a dual parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping) unless that person holds an appropriate current certificate and type rating issued under this subpart and complies with §§ 65.127 through 65.133.

(b) No person may pack any main parachute of a dual-parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping in connection with civil aircraft of the United States unless that person—

(1) Has an appropriate current certificate issued under this subpart;

(2) Is under the supervision of a current certificated parachute rigger;

(3) Is the person making the next parachute jump with that parachute in accordance with § 105.43(a) of this chapter; or

(4) Is the parachutist in command making the next parachute jump with that parachute in a tandem parachute operation conducted under § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.

(c) No person may maintain or alter any main parachute of a dual-parachute system to be used for intentional parachute jumping in connection with civil aircraft of the United States unless that person—

(1) Has an appropriate current certificate issued under this subpart; or

(2) Is under the supervision of a current certificated parachute rigger;

(d) Each person who holds a parachute rigger certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

(e) The following parachute rigger certificates are issued under this part:

(1) Senior parachute rigger.

(2) Master parachute rigger.

(f) Sections 65.127 through 65.133 do not apply to parachutes packed, maintained, or altered for the use of the armed forces.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001; Amdt. 65-54, 75 FR 31285, June 3, 2010]

§ 65.113 Eligibility requirements: General.

(a) To be eligible for a parachute rigger certificate, a person must—

(1) Be at least 18 years of age;

(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language, or, in the case of a citizen of Puerto Rico, or a person who is employed outside of the United States by a U.S. air carrier, and who does not meet this requirement, be issued a certificate that is valid only in Puerto Rico or while he is employed outside of the United States by that air carrier, as the case may be; and

(3) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the certificate and type rating he seeks.

(b) Except for a master parachute rigger certificate, a parachute rigger certificate that was issued before, and was valid on, October 31, 1962, is equal to a senior parachute rigger certificate, and may be exchanged for such a corresponding certificate.

§ 65.115 Senior parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements.

Except as provided in § 65.117, an applicant for a senior parachute rigger certificate must—

(a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that the applicant has packed at least 20 parachutes of each type for which the applicant seeks a rating, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that type or a person holding an appropriate military rating;

(b) Pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common use, on—

(1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance;

(2) The manufacturer's instructions;

(3) The regulations of this subpart; and

(c) Pass an oral and practical test showing the applicant's ability to pack and maintain at least one type of parachute in common use, appropriate to the type rating the applicant seeks. To pass the oral and practical test for a senior parachute rigger certificate, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the areas of operation applicable to a senior parachute rigger specified in the Parachute Rigger Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), appropriate to the type rating sought.

[Docket 10468, 37 FR 13251, July 6, 1972, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024]

§ 65.117 Military riggers or former military riggers: Special certification rule.

In place of the procedure in § 65.115, an applicant for a senior parachute rigger certificate is entitled to it if he passes a written test on the regulations of this subpart and presents satisfactory documentary evidence that he—

(a) Is a member or civilian employee of an Armed Force of the United States, is a civilian employee of a regular armed force of a foreign country, or has, within the 12 months before he applies, been honorably discharged or released from any status covered by this paragraph;

(b) Is serving, or has served within the 12 months before he applies, as a parachute rigger for such an Armed Force; and

§ 65.119 Master parachute rigger certificate: Experience, knowledge, and skill requirements.

An applicant for a master parachute rigger certificate must meet the following requirements:

(a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that the applicant has had at least 3 years of experience as a parachute rigger and has satisfactorily packed at least 100 parachutes of each of two types in common use, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions—

(1) While a certificated and appropriately rated senior parachute rigger; or

(2) While under the supervision of a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger or a person holding appropriate military ratings.

(3) An applicant may combine experience specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section to meet the requirements of this paragraph (a).

(b) If the applicant is not the holder of a senior parachute rigger certificate, pass a written test, with respect to parachutes in common use, on—

(1) Their construction, packing, and maintenance;

(2) The manufacturer's instructions; and

(3) The regulations of this subpart.

(c) Pass an oral and practical test showing the applicant's ability to pack and maintain two types of parachutes in common use, appropriate to the type ratings the applicant seeks. To pass the oral and practical test for a master parachute rigger certificate, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the areas of operation applicable to a master parachute rigger specified in the Parachute Rigger Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), as appropriate to the type rating sought.

[Docket 10468, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024; Amdt. 65-64A, 89 FR 29252, Apr. 22, 2024]

§ 65.121 Type ratings.

(a) The following type ratings are issued under this subpart:

(1) Seat.

(2) Back.

(3) Chest.

(4) Lap.

(b) The holder of a senior parachute rigger certificate who qualifies for a master parachute rigger certificate is entitled to have placed on his master parachute rigger certificate the ratings that were on his senior parachute rigger certificate.

§ 65.123 Additional type ratings: Requirements.

A certificated parachute rigger who applies for an additional type rating must—

(a) Present evidence satisfactory to the Administrator that the applicant has packed at least 20 parachutes of the type for which the applicant seeks a rating, in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and under the supervision of a certificated parachute rigger holding a rating for that type or a person holding an appropriate military rating; and

(b) Pass a practical test, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, showing the applicant's ability to pack and maintain the type of parachute, appropriate to the type rating sought. To pass the practical test for an additional type rating, the applicant must satisfactorily demonstrate the objectives in the area of operation specified in the Parachute Rigger Practical Test Standards (incorporated by reference, see § 65.23), applicable to the type rating sought.

[Docket FAA-2022-1463, Amdt. 65-64, 89 FR 22520, Apr. 1, 2024]

§ 65.125 Certificates: Privileges.

(a) A certificated senior parachute rigger may—

(1) Pack or maintain (except for major repair) any type of parachute for which he is rated; and

(2) Supervise other persons in packing any type of parachute for which that person is rated in accordance with § 105.43(a) or § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.

(b) A certificated master parachute rigger may—

(1) Pack, maintain, or alter any type of parachute for which he is rated; and

(2) Supervise other persons in packing, maintaining, or altering any type of parachute for which the certificated parachute rigger is rated in accordance with § 105.43(a) or § 105.45(b)(1) of this chapter.

(c) A certificated parachute rigger need not comply with §§ 65.127 through 65.133 (relating to facilities, equipment, performance standards, records, recent experience, and seal) in packing, maintaining, or altering (if authorized) the main parachute of a dual parachute pack to be used for intentional jumping.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-20, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972; Amdt. 65-42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001]

§ 65.127 Facilities and equipment.

No certificated parachute rigger may exercise the privileges of his certificate unless he has at least the following facilities and equipment available to him:

(a) A smooth top table at least three feet wide by 40 feet long.

(b) Suitable housing that is adequately heated, lighted, and ventilated for drying and airing parachutes.

(d) Adequate housing facilities to perform his duties and to protect his tools and equipment.

[Docket 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as amended by Amdt. 65-27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982]

§ 65.129 Performance standards.

No certificated parachute rigger may—

(a) Pack, maintain, or alter any parachute unless he is rated for that type;

(b) Pack a parachute that is not safe for emergency use;

(d) Alter a parachute in a manner that is not specifically authorized by the Administrator or the manufacturer;

(e) Pack, maintain, or alter a parachute in any manner that deviates from procedures approved by the Administrator or the manufacturer of the parachute; or

(f) Exercise the privileges of his certificate and type rating unless he understands the current manufacturer's instructions for the operation involved and has—

(1) Performed duties under his certificate for at least 90 days within the preceding 12 months; or

(2) Shown the Administrator that he is able to perform those duties.

§ 65.131 Records.

(a) Each certificated parachute rigger shall keep a record of the packing, maintenance, and alteration of parachutes performed or supervised by him. He shall keep in that record, with respect to each parachute worked on, a statement of—

(1) Its type and make;

(2) Its serial number;

(3) The name and address of its owner;

(4) The kind and extent of the work performed;

(5) The date when and place where the work was performed; and

(6) The results of any drop tests made with it.

(b) Each person who makes a record under paragraph (a) of this section shall keep it for at least 2 years after the date it is made.

(c) Each certificated parachute rigger who packs a parachute shall write, on the parachute packing record attached to the parachute, the date and place of the packing and a notation of any defects he finds on inspection. He shall sign that record with his name and the number of his certificate.

§ 65.133 Seal.

Each certificated parachute rigger must have a seal with an identifying mark prescribed by the Administrator, and a seal press. After packing a parachute he shall seal the pack with his seal in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation for that type of parachute.

0 Appendix A to Part 65 Aircraft Dispatcher Courses

Overview

This appendix sets forth the areas of knowledge necessary to perform dispatcher functions. The items listed below indicate the minimum set of topics that must be covered in a training course for aircraft dispatcher certification. The order of coverage is at the discretion of the approved school.

I. Regulations

A. Subpart C of this part;

B. Parts 1, 25, 61, 71, 91, 121, 139, and 175, of this chapter;

C. 49 CFR part 830;

D. General Operating Manual.

II. Meteorology

A. Basic Weather Studies

(1) The earth's motion and its effects on weather.

(2) Analysis of the following regional weather types, characteristics, and structures, or combinations thereof:

(a) Maritime.

(b) Continental.

(d) Tropical.

(3) Analysis of the following local weather types, characteristics, and structures or combinations thereof:

(a) Coastal.

(b) Mountainous.

(d) Plains.

(4) The following characteristics of the atmosphere:

(a) Layers.

(b) Composition.

(d) Ozone.

(5) Pressure:

(a) Units of Measure.

(b) Weather Systems Characteristics.

(d) Altimeters.

(e) Pressure Gradient Force.

(f) Pressure Pattern Flying Weather.

(6) Wind:

(a) Major Wind Systems and Coriolis Force.

(b) Jetstreams and their Characteristics.

(7) States of Matter:

(a) Solids, Liquid, and Gases.

(b) Causes of change of state.

(8) Clouds:

(a) Composition, Formation, and Dissipation.

(b) Types and Associated Precipitation.

(9) Fog:

(a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.

(b) Types.

(10) Ice:

(a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.

(b) Types.

(11) Stability/Instability:

(a) Temperature Lapse Rate, Convection.

(b) Adiabatic Processes.

(d) Divergence.

(e) Convergence.

(12) Turbulence:

(a) Jetstream Associated.

(b) Pressure Pattern Recognition.

(d) Mountain Waves.

(e) Thunderstorms.

(f) Clear Air Turbulence.

(13) Airmasses:

(a) Classification and Characteristics.

(b) Source Regions.

(14) Fronts:

(a) Structure and Characteristics, Both Vertical and Horizontal.

(b) Frontal Types.

(15) Theory of Storm Systems:

(a) Thunderstorms.

(b) Tornadoes.

(d) Microbursts.

(e) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation.

B. Weather, Analysis, and Forecasts

(1) Observations:

(a) Surface Observations.

(i) Observations made by certified weather observer.

(ii) Automated Weather Observations.

(b) Terminal Forecasts.

(i) Pilot Reports.

(ii) Area Forecasts.

(iii) Sigmets, Airmets.

(iv) Center Weather Advisories.

(d) Weather Imagery.

(i) Surface Analysis.

(ii) Weather Depiction.

(iii) Significant Weather Prognosis.

(iv) Winds and Temperature Aloft.

(v) Tropopause Chart.

(vi) Composite Moisture Stability Chart.

(vii) Surface Weather Prognostic Chart.

(viii) Radar Meteorology.

(ix) Satellite Meteorology.

(x) Other charts as applicable.

(e) Meteorological Information Data Collection Systems.

(2) Data Collection, Analysis, and Forecast Facilities.

(3) Service Outlets Providing Aviation Weather Products.

C. Weather Related Aircraft Hazards

(1) Crosswinds and Gusts.

(2) Contaminated Runways.

(3) Restrictions to Surface Visibility.

(4) Turbulence and Windshear.

(5) Icing.

(6) Thunderstorms and Microburst.

(7) Volcanic Ash.

III. Navigation

A. Study of the Earth

(1) Time reference and location (0 Longitude, UTC).

(2) Definitions.

(3) Projections.

(4) Charts.

B. Chart Reading, Application, and Use.

C. National Airspace Plan.

D. Navigation Systems.

E. Airborne Navigation Instruments.

F. Instrument Approach Procedures.

(1) Transition Procedures.

(2) Precision Approach Procedures.

(3) Non-precision Approach Procedures.

(4) Minimums and the relationship to weather.

G. Special Navigation and Operations.

(1) North Atlantic.

(2) Pacific.

(3) Global Differences.

IV. AIRCRAFT

A. Aircraft Flight Manual.

B. Systems Overview.

(1) Flight controls.

(2) Hydraulics.

(3) Electrical.

(4) Air Conditioning and Pressurization.

(5) Ice and Rain protection.

(6) Avionics, Communication, and Navigation.

(7) Powerplants and Auxiliary Power Units.

(8) Emergency and Abnormal Procedures.

(9) Fuel Systems and Sources.

C. Minimum Equipment List/Configuration Deviation List (MEL/CDL) and Applications.

D. Performance.

(1) Aircraft in general.

(2) Principles of flight:

(a) Group one aircraft.

(b) Group two aircraft.

(3) Aircraft Limitations.

(4) Weight and Balance.

(5) Flight instrument errors.

(6) Aircraft performance:

(a) Take-off performance.

(b) En route performance.

V. Communications

A. Regulatory requirements.

B. Communication Protocol.

C. Voice and Data Communications.

D. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMS).

E. Aeronautical Publications.

F. Abnormal Procedures.

VI. Air Traffic Control

A. Responsibilities.

B. Facilities and Equipment.

C. Airspace classification and route structure.

D. Flight Plans.

(1) Domestic.

(2) International.

E. Separation Minimums.

F. Priority Handling.

G. Holding Procedures.

H. Traffic Management.

VII. Emergency and Abnormal Procedures

A. Security measures on the ground.

B. Security measures in the air.

C. FAA responsibility and services.

D. Collection and dissemination of information on overdue or missing aircraft.

E. Means of declaring an emergency.

F. Responsibility for declaring an emergency.

G. Required reporting of an emergency.

H. NTSB reporting requirements.

VIII. Practical Dispatch Applications

A. Human Factors.

(1) Decisionmaking:

(a) Situation Assessment.

(b) Generation and Evaluation of Alternatives.

(i) Tradeoffs and Prioritization.

(ii) Contingency Planning.

(2) Human Error:

(a) Causes.

(i) Individual and Organizational Factors.

(ii) Technology-Induced Error.

(b) Prevention.

(3) Teamwork:

(a) Communication and Information Exchange.

(b) Cooperative and Distributed Problem-Solving.

(i) Air Traffic Control (ATC) activities and workload.

(ii) Flightcrew activities and workload.

(iii) Maintenance activities and workload.

(iv) Operations Control Staff activities and workload.

B. Applied Dispatching.

(1) Briefing techniques, Dispatcher, Pilot.

(2) Preflight:

(a) Safety.

(b) Weather Analysis.

(i) Satellite imagery.

(ii) Upper and lower altitude charts.

(iii) Significant en route reports and forecasts.

(iv) Surface charts.

(v) Surface observations.

(vi) Terminal forecasts and orientation to Enhanced Weather Information System (EWINS).

(d) Crew.

(i) Qualifications.

(ii) Limitations.

(e) Aircraft.

(i) Systems.

(ii) Navigation instruments and avionics systems.

(iii) Flight instruments.

(iv) Operations manuals and MEL/CDL.

(v) Performance and limitations.

(f) Flight Planning.

(i) Route of flight.

1. Standard Instrument Departures and Standard Terminal Arrival Routes.

2. En route charts.

3. Operational altitude.

4. Departure and arrival charts.

(ii) Minimum departure fuel.

1. Climb.

2. Cruise.

3. Descent.

(g) Weight and balance.

(h) Economics of flight overview (Performance, Fuel Tankering).

(i) Decision to operate the flight.

(j) ATC flight plan filing.

(k) Flight documentation.

(i) Flight plan.

(ii) Dispatch release.

(3) Authorize flight departure with concurrence of pilot in command.

(4) In-flight operational control:

(a) Current situational awareness.

(b) Information exchange.

(5) Post-Flight:

(a) Arrival verification.

(b) Weather debrief.

[Docket FAA-1998-4553, 64 FR 68925, Dec. 8, 1999, as amended by Docket FAA-2016-6142, Amdt. 65-58, 83 FR 30281, June 27, 2018]

PART 67 MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION

Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45303.

Source: Docket 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 67.1 Applicability.

This part prescribes the medical standards and certification procedures for issuing medical certificates for airmen and for remaining eligible for a medical certificate.

§ 67.3 Issue.

A person who meets the medical standards prescribed in this part, based on medical examination and evaluation of the person's history and condition, is entitled to an appropriate medical certificate.

[Docket FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008]

§ 67.4 Application.

An applicant for first-, second- and third-class medical certification must:

(a) Apply on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Administrator;

(b) Be examined by an aviation medical examiner designated in accordance with part 183 of this chapter. An applicant may obtain a list of aviation medical examiners from the FAA Office of Aerospace Medicine homepage on the FAA Web site, from any FAA Regional Flight Surgeon, or by contacting the Manager of the Aerospace Medical Education Division, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125.

(c) Show proof of age and identity by presenting a government-issued photo identification (such as a valid U.S. driver's license, identification card issued by a driver's license authority, military identification, or passport). If an applicant does not have government-issued identification, he or she may use non-photo, government-issued identification (such as a birth certificate or voter registration card) in conjunction with photo identification (such as a work identification card or a student identification card).

[Docket FAA-2007-27812, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA-2022-1355, Amdt. 67-22, 87 FR 75845, Dec. 9, 2022]

§ 67.7 Access to the National Driver Register.

At the time of application for a certificate issued under this part, each person who applies for a medical certificate shall execute an express consent form authorizing the Administrator to request the chief driver licensing official of any state designated by the Administrator to transmit information contained in the National Driver Register about the person to the Administrator. The Administrator shall make information received from the National Driver Register, if any, available on request to the person for review and written comment.

Subpart B First-Class Airman Medical Certificate

§ 67.101 Eligibility.

To be eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, and to remain eligible for a first-class airman medical certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this subpart.

§ 67.103 Eye.

Eye standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

(a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or better in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If corrective lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) are necessary for 20/20 vision, the person may be eligible only on the condition that corrective lenses are worn while exercising the privileges of an airman certificate.

(b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses. If age 50 or older, near vision of 20/40 or better, Snellen equivalent, at both 16 inches and 32 inches in each eye separately, with or without corrective lenses.

(d) Normal fields of vision.

(e) No acute or chronic pathological condition of either eye or adnexa that interferes with the proper function of an eye, that may reasonably be expected to progress to that degree, or that may reasonably be expected to be aggravated by flying.

(f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to prevent a break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be expected to occur in performing airman duties. Tests for the factors named in this paragraph are not required except for persons found to have more than 1 prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism diopters of esophoria, or 6 prism diopters of exophoria. If any of these values are exceeded, the Federal Air Surgeon may require the person to be examined by a qualified eye specialist to determine if there is bifoveal fixation and an adequate vergence-phoria relationship. However, if otherwise eligible, the person is issued a medical certificate pending the results of the examination.

§ 67.105 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.

Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

(a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests:

(1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.

(2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.

(3) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of worst acceptable thresholds, using the calibration standards of the American National Standards Institute, 1969 (11 West 42d Street, New York, NY 10036):

Frequency (Hz) | 500 Hz | 1000 Hz | 2000 Hz | 3000 Hz

Better ear (Db) | 35 | 30 | 30 | 40

Poorer ear (Db) | 35 | 50 | 50 | 60

(b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that—

(1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or

(2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere with, clear and effective speech communication.

(c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.

§ 67.107 Mental.

Mental standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:

(1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts.

(2) A psychosis. As used in this section, “psychosis” refers to a mental disorder in which:

(i) The individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or

(ii) The individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganized behavior, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.

(3) A bipolar disorder.

(4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical evidence, satisfactory to the Federal Air Surgeon, of recovery, including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less than the preceding 2 years. As used in this section—

(i) “Substance” includes: Alcohol; other sedatives and hypnotics; anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; inhalants; and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals; and

(ii) “Substance dependence” means a condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by—

(A) Increased tolerance;

(B) Manifestation of withdrawal symptoms;

(D) Continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning.

(b) No substance abuse within the preceding 2 years defined as:

(1) Use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous;

(2) A verified positive drug test result, an alcohol test result of 0.04 or greater alcohol concentration, or a refusal to submit to a drug or alcohol test required by the U.S. Department of Transportation or an agency of the U.S. Department of Transportation; or

(3) Misuse of a substance that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the substance involved, finds—

(i) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or

(ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

(c) No other personality disorder, neurosis, or other mental condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—

(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or

(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

[Docket 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 67-19, 71 FR 35764, June 21, 2006]

§ 67.109 Neurologic.

Neurologic standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:

(1) Epilepsy;

(2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or

(3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause.

(b) No other seizure disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or neurologic condition that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—

(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or

(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

§ 67.111 Cardiovascular.

Cardiovascular standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following:

(1) Myocardial infarction;

(2) Angina pectoris;

(3) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has been symptomatic or clinically significant;

(4) Cardiac valve replacement;

(5) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or

(6) Heart replacement;

(b) A person applying for first-class medical certification must demonstrate an absence of myocardial infarction and other clinically significant abnormality on electrocardiographic examination:

(1) At the first application after reaching the 35th birthday; and

(2) On an annual basis after reaching the 40th birthday.

(c) An electrocardiogram will satisfy a requirement of paragraph (b) of this section if it is dated no earlier than 60 days before the date of the application it is to accompany and was performed and transmitted according to acceptable standards and techniques.

§ 67.113 General medical condition.

The general medical standards for a first-class airman medical certificate are:

(a) No established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for control.

(b) No other organic, functional, or structural disease, defect, or limitation that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the condition involved, finds—

(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or

(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

(c) No medication or other treatment that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on the case history and appropriate, qualified medical judgment relating to the medication or other treatment involved, finds—

(1) Makes the person unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or

(2) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the person unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

§ 67.115 Discretionary issuance.

A person who does not meet the provisions of §§ 67.103 through 67.113 may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under § 67.401.

Subpart C Second-Class Airman Medical Certificate

§ 67.201 Eligibility.

To be eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, and to remain eligible for a second-class airman medical certificate, a person must meet the requirements of this subpart.

§ 67.203 Eye.

Eye standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:

(d) Normal fields of vision.

§ 67.205 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.

Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are:

(a) The person shall demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests:

(1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 6 feet from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner.

(2) Demonstrate an acceptable understanding of speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment.

Frequency (Hz) | 500 Hz | 1000 Hz | 2000 Hz | 3000 Hz

Better ear (Db) | 35 | 30 | 30 | 40

Poorer ear (Db) | 35 | 50 | 50 | 60

(b) No disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx, or larynx that—

(1) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or

(2) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere with, clear and effective speech communication.

(c) No disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.

§ 67.207 Mental.

Mental standards for a second-class airman medical certificate are: