Title 26—Internal Revenue--Volume 22

CHAPTER I INTERNAL REVENUE SERVICE, DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY (CONTINUED)

SUBCHAPTER D MISCELLANEOUS EXCISE TAXES

PART 40 EXCISE TAX PROCEDURAL REGULATIONS

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805. Section 40.6011(a)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6011(a). Section 40.6011(a)-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6011(a). Section 40.6060-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6060(a). Section 40.6071(a)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6071(a). Section 40.6091-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6091. Section 40.6101-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6101. Section 40.6109-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a). Section 40.6109-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a). Section 40.6302(a)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6302 (a) and (h). Section 40.6302(c)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6302(a) and (h). Section 40.6302(c)-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6302(a). Section 40.6302(c)-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6302(a). Section 40.6695-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6695(b).

Source: T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48177, Oct. 22, 1992, unless otherwise noted.

§ 40.0-1 Introduction.

(a) In general. The regulations in this part are designated the Excise Tax Procedural Regulations. The regulations in this part set forth administrative provisions relating to the excise taxes imposed by chapters 31 through 34, 36, 38, 39, 49, and 50A of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) (except for the chapter 32 tax imposed by section 4181 (firearms tax) and the chapter 36 taxes imposed by sections 4461 (harbor maintenance tax) and 4481 (heavy vehicle use tax)), and to floor stocks taxes imposed on articles subject to any of these taxes. Chapter 31 relates to retail excise taxes; chapter 32 to manufacturers' excise taxes; chapter 33 to taxes imposed on communications services and air transportation services; chapter 34 to taxes imposed on certain insurance policies; chapter 36 to taxes imposed on transportation by water; chapter 38 to environmental taxes; chapter 39 to taxes imposed on registration-required obligations; chapter 49 to taxes imposed on indoor tanning services; and chapter 50A to taxes imposed on the sale of designated drugs. References in this part to taxes also include references to the fees imposed by sections 4375 and 4376 of the Code. See parts 43, 46 through 49, and 52 of this chapter for regulations related to the imposition of tax.

(b) References to forms. Any reference to a form in this part is also a reference to any other form designated for the same use by the Commissioner after October 22, 1992.

(c) Definition of semimonthly period. The term “semimonthly period” means the first 15 days of a calendar month (the “first semimonthly period”) or the portion of a calendar month following the 15th day of the month (the “second semimonthly period”).

(d) Person. For purposes of this part, each business unit that has, or is required to have, a separate employer identification number is treated as a separate person. Thus, business units (for example, a parent corporation and a subsidiary corporation, a partner and the partner's partnership, or the various members of a consolidated group), each of which has, or is required to have, a different employer identification number, are separate persons.

(e) Applicability dates—(1) Paragraph (a). Paragraph (a) of this section applies to returns required to be filed under § 40.6011(a)-1 for calendar quarters beginning on or after October 1, 2023. For rules that apply before October 1, 2023, see 26 CFR part 40, revised as of April 1, 2024.

(2) Paragraphs (b) and (c). Paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section apply to returns for calendar quarters beginning after March 31, 2013. For rules that apply before March 31, 2013, see 26 CFR part 40, revised as of April 1, 2012.

(3) Paragraph (d). Paragraph (d) of this section applies to returns for calendar quarters beginning on or after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before January 19, 2021, see 26 CFR part 40, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48177, Oct. 22, 1992; 58 FR 6575, Jan. 29, 1993, as amended by T.D. 8887, 65 FR 36326, June 8, 2000; T.D. 8963, 66 FR 41776, Aug. 9, 2001; T.D. 9486, 75 FR 33686, June 15, 2010; T.D. 9602, 77 FR 72728, Dec. 6, 2012; T.D. 9621, 78 FR 34876, June 11, 2013; T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5001, Jan. 19, 2021; T.D. 10003, 89 FR 55510, July 5, 2024]

§ 40.6011(a)-1 Returns.

(a) In general—(1) Return required. The return of any tax to which this part 40 applies must be made on Form 720, Quarterly Federal Excise Tax Return, according to the instructions applicable to the form. The requirement for filing a return under this part 40 applies separately to each tax listed by IRS Number on Form 720. Except as provided in this paragraph (a)(1), an entry must be made on the line for the IRS Number in order to file a return of the tax corresponding to that number. The entry on an IRS Number line of the word “none,” “zero,” or comparable entry clearly indicating a denial of liability constitutes a return of that tax. The entry of the word “none” across the return or in the summary portion, provided it clearly indicates a denial of liability for all taxes, constitutes a return of all taxes listed on Form 720.

(2) Period covered by return—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, the return must be made for a period of one calendar quarter. A return must be filed for the first calendar quarter in which liability for tax is incurred (or in which tax must be collected and paid over) and for each subsequent calendar quarter, whether or not liability is incurred (or tax must be collected and paid over) during that subsequent quarter, until a final return under § 40.6011(a)-2 is filed. In the case of one-time filings (as defined in § 40.6011(a)-2(b)) and returns of floor stocks taxes under § 40.6011(a)-2(c), a first return is also a final return.

(ii) First return. A person's return is a first return if the person was not required under this part 40 to file a return (other than a final return) for the preceding period.

(iii) Floor stocks tax return. A return reporting liability for a floor stocks tax described in § 40.0-1(a) is a return for the calendar quarter in which the tax payment is due and not the calendar quarter in which the liability for tax is incurred.

(3) Person required to file the return. Except in the case of a tax required to be collected and paid over, the person incurring liability for tax must file the return. In the case of a tax required to be collected and paid over, the person required to collect the tax (and not the person incurring liability) must file the return.

(b) Monthly and semimonthly returns—(1) In general. If the district director determines that any person that is required under this section to file returns has failed to comply in a timely manner with the requirements of this part 40 relating to returns, payments, and deposits of tax, that person will be required, if so notified in writing by the district director, to make a return for a monthly or semimonthly period (as defined in § 40.0-1(c)). Each person so notified by the district director must make a return for the calendar month or semimonthly period in which the notice is received and for each calendar month or semimonthly period thereafter until the person has filed a final return or until the person is notified by the district director to resume making quarterly returns.

(2) Certain persons liable for tax on taxable fuel. The district director may require a person to make a return of tax for a monthly or semimonthly period in the manner prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the person—

(i) Is a bonded registrant (as defined in § 48.4101-1(b) of this chapter) at any time during the period;

(ii) Has been registered under section 4101 for less than one year at the beginning of the period;

(iii) Meets the acceptable risk test of § 48.4101-1(f)(3) of this chapter by reason of § 48.4101-1(f)(3)(i)(B) of this chapter at any time during the period;

(iv) Has failed to comply with the applicable provisions of § 48.4101-1(h) of this chapter (relating to the terms and conditions of registration);

(v) Is liable for tax under § 48.4082-4(a) of this chapter (relating to the back-up tax on diesel fuel and kerosene) at any time during the period; or

(vi) Is liable for tax under section 4081 (relating to the tax on taxable fuel) at any time during the period and is not registered under section 4101 at that time.

(c) Fees on health insurance policies and self-insured health plans—(1) In general. A return that reports liability imposed by section 4375 or 4376 is a return for policies or plans with policy or plan years ending in the previous calendar year, and, for issuers that determine the average number of lives covered under a policy for purposes of section 4375 using the member months method under § 46.4375-1(c)(2)(v) or the state form method under § 46.4375-1(c)(2)(vi) of this chapter, the return is for all policies in effect during the previous calendar year. The second sentence of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section (relating to filing quarterly returns regardless of whether liability is incurred) does not apply to a person that files a Form 720, “Quarterly Federal Excise Tax Return,” only to report liability imposed by section 4375 or 4376.

(2) Applicability date. This paragraph (c) applies to returns that report liability imposed by section 4375 or 4376.

(d) Tax on the sale of designated drugs. A return that reports liability imposed by section 5000D of the Internal Revenue Code must be made for a period of one calendar quarter. A return must be filed for each calendar quarter in which liability for the tax imposed by section 5000D is incurred. There is no requirement that a return be filed for a calendar quarter in which there is no liability imposed by section 5000D.

(e) Applicability dates—(1) Paragraph (a)(2)(i). Paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section applies to returns filed for calendar quarters beginning on or after October 1, 2023. For rules that apply before October 1, 2023, see 26 CFR part 40, revised as of April 1, 2024.

(2) Paragraph (c). See paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(3) Paragraph (d). Paragraph (d) of this section applies to returns filed for calendar quarters beginning on and after October 1, 2023.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48177, Oct. 22, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10452, Mar. 14, 1996; 61 FR 58005, Nov. 12, 1996; T.D. 8748, 63 FR 25, Jan. 2, 1998; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17153, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 8887, 65 FR 36326, June 8, 2000; T.D. 8963, 66 FR 41776, Aug. 9, 2001; T.D. 9602, 77 FR 72728, Dec. 6, 2012; T.D. 10003, 89 FR 55511, July 5, 2024]

§ 40.6011(a)-2 Final returns.

(a) In general—(1) Permanent cessation of operations. Any person that is required under § 40.6011(a)-1 to make returns and that permanently ceases all operations with respect to which liability for tax was incurred (or with respect to which tax had to be collected and paid over) must make a final return in accordance with the instructions applicable to the form on which the return is made. A person does not make a final return if only a temporary or partial cessation of such operations occurs and must continue to file returns as required under § 40.6011(a)-1.

(2) Change in law without cessation of operations. Any person that is required under § 40.6011(a)-1 to make returns must make a final return in accordance with the instructions applicable to the form on which the return is made if, by reason of a change in law, that person is no longer liable for any tax (or, in the case of a collected tax, is no longer responsible for collecting and paying over any tax). For example, if the tax on a product is changed from a retail tax to a manufacturers tax, a retailer formerly liable for the tax but now buying the product tax-paid from its supplier must make a final return (assuming that the retailer has no other tax liability reportable on the return).

(b) Special rule for one-time filings—(1) In general. A first return is also a final return if it is a one-time filing. A return is a one-time filing if the person reporting tax does not engage in any activity with respect to which tax is reportable on the return in the course of a trade or business.

(2) Deposits not required. See § 40.6302(c)-1(e)(2) for a rule providing that no deposit of taxes reported on a one-time filing is required.

(c) Special rule for floor stocks taxes. A first return reporting only floor stocks taxes under this part 40 is also a final return.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48177, Oct. 22, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8685, 61 FR 58005, Nov. 12, 1996; T.D. 8963, 66 FR 41776, Aug. 9, 2001]

§ 40.6060-1 Reporting requirements for tax return preparers.

(a) In general. A person that employs one or more tax return preparers to prepare a return or claim for refund of any tax to which this part 40 applies other than for the person, at any time during a return period, shall satisfy the recordkeeping and inspection requirements in the manner stated in § 1.6060-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78454, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5105, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 40.6071(a)-1 Time for filing returns.

(a) Quarterly returns. Each quarterly return required under § 40.6011(a)-1(a)(2) must be filed by the last day of the first calendar month following the quarter for which it is made.

(b) Monthly and semimonthly returns—(1) Monthly returns. Each monthly return required under § 40.6011(a)-1(b) must be filed by the fifteenth day of the month following the month for which it is made.

(2) Semimonthly returns. Each semimonthly return required under § 40.6011(a)-1(b) must be filed by the last day of the semimonthly period (as defined in § 40.0-1(c)) following the semimonthly period for which it is made.

(c) Fees on health insurance policies and self-insured health plans—(1) Specified health insurance policies. A return that reports liability for the fee imposed by section 4375 must be filed by July 31 of the calendar year immediately following the last day of the policy year. For issuers that determine the average number of lives covered under the policy for section 4375 using the member months method under § 46.4375-1(c)(2)(v) or the state form method under § 46.4375-1(c)(2)(vi), the return must be filed by July 31 of the immediately following calendar year. Thus, for example, a return that reports liability for the fee imposed by section 4375 for the year ending on December 31, 2012, must be filed by July 31, 2013.

(2) Applicable self-insured health plans. A return that reports liability for the fee imposed by section 4376 for a plan year must be filed by July 31 of the calendar year immediately following the last day of the plan year. Thus, for example, a return that reports liability for the fee imposed by section 4376 for the plan year ending on January 31, 2013, must be filed by July 31, 2014.

(d) Effective/Applicability date. Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section apply to returns for calendar quarters beginning on or after October 1, 2001, and paragraph (c) of this section applies to returns that report liability imposed by section 4375 or 4376.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48177, Oct. 22, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8963, 66 FR 41776, Aug. 9, 2001; T.D. 9602, 77 FR 72728, Dec. 6, 2012]

§ 40.6091-1 Place for filing returns.

(a) Quarterly returns. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, returns must be filed in accordance with the instructions applicable to the form on which the return is made.

(b) Hand-carried returns—(1) Persons other than corporations. Returns of persons other than corporations that are filed by hand carrying must be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive hand-carried returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office that serves the principal place of business or legal residence of the person.

(2) Corporations. Returns of corporations that are filed by hand carrying must be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive hand-carried returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office that serves the principal place of business or principal office or agency of the corporation.

(c) Monthly and semimonthly returns. Monthly and semimonthly returns required under § 40.6011(a)-1(b) must be filed in accordance with the forms and instructions, or other published guidance.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48177, Oct. 22, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8968, 66 FR 41776, Aug. 9, 2001; T.D. 9158, 69 FR 55744, Sept. 16, 2004; T.D. 9602, 77 FR 72728, Dec. 6, 2012]

§ 40.6101-1 Period covered by returns.

See § 40.6011(a)-1(a)(2) for the rules relating to the period covered by the return.

[T.D. 8963, 66 FR 41776, Aug. 9, 2001]

§ 40.6107-1 Tax return preparer must furnish copy of return to taxpayer and must retain a copy or record.

(a) In general. A person who is a signing tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of any tax to which this part 40 applies shall furnish a completed copy of the return or claim for refund to the taxpayer and retain a completed copy or record in the manner stated in § 1.6107-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable for returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78454, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5105, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 40.6109-1 Tax return preparers furnishing identifying numbers for returns or claims for refund.

(a) In general. Each return or claim for refund of any tax to which this part 40 applies prepared by one or more signing tax return preparers must include the identifying number of the preparer required by § 1.6695-1(b) of this chapter to sign the return or claim for refund in the manner stated in § 1.6109-2 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78454, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5105, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 40.6151(a)-1 Time and place for paying tax shown on return.

Except as provided by statute, the tax must be paid at the time prescribed in § 40.6071(a)-1 for filing the return, and at the place prescribed in § 40.6091-1 for filing the return.

[T.D. 8968, 66 FR 41776, Aug. 9, 2001]

§ 40.6302(a)-1 Voluntary payments of excise taxes by electronic funds transfer.

Any person may voluntarily remit by electronic funds transfer any payment of tax to which this part 40 applies. Such payment must be made in accordance with procedures prescribed by the Commissioner.

[T.D. 8828, 64 FR 37677, July 13, 1999]

§ 40.6302(c)-1 Deposits.

(a) In general—(1) Semimonthly deposits required. Except as provided by statute, or by paragraph (e) of this section, each person required under § 40.6011(a)-1(a)(2) to file a quarterly return must make a deposit of tax for each semimonthly period (as defined in § 40.0-1(c)) in which tax liability is incurred.

(2) Treatment of taxes imposed by chapter 33. For purposes of this part 40, tax imposed by chapter 33 (relating to communications and air transportation) is treated as a tax liability incurred during the semimonthly period—

(i) In which that tax is collected; or

(ii) In the case of the alternative method, in which that tax is considered as collected.

(3) Definition of net tax liability. Net tax liability means the tax liability for the specified period plus or minus any adjustments allowable in accordance with the instructions applicable to the form on which the return is made.

(4) Computation of net tax liability for a semimonthly period. The net tax liability for a semimonthly period may be computed by—

(i) Determining the net tax liability incurred during the semimonthly period; or

(ii) Dividing by two the net tax liability incurred during the calendar month that includes that semimonthly period, provided that this method of computation is used for all semimonthly periods in the calendar quarter.

(b) Amount of deposit—(1) In general. The deposit of tax for each semimonthly period must be not less than 95 percent of the amount of net tax liability incurred during the semimonthly period.

(2) Safe harbor rules—(i) Applicability. The safe harbor rules of this paragraph (b)(2) are applied separately to taxes deposited under the alternative method provided in § 40.6302(c)-3 (alternative method taxes) and to the other taxes for which deposits are required under this section (regular method taxes).

(ii) Regular method taxes. Any person that made a return of tax reporting regular method taxes for the second preceding calendar quarter (the look-back quarter) is considered to have complied with the requirement of this part 40 for deposit of regular method taxes for the current calendar quarter if—

(A) The deposit of regular method taxes for each semimonthly period in the current calendar quarter is not less than 1/6 of the net tax liability for regular method taxes reported for the look-back quarter;

(B) Each deposit is made on time;

(C) The amount of any underpayment of regular method taxes is paid by the due date of the return; and

(D) The person's liability does not include any regular method tax that was not imposed at all times during the look-back quarter or a tax on a chemical not subject to tax at all times during the look-back quarter.

(iii) Alternative method taxes. Any person that made a return of tax reporting alternative method taxes for the look-back quarter is considered to have complied with the requirement of this part 40 for deposit of alternative method taxes for the current calendar quarter if—

(A) The deposit of alternative method taxes for each semimonthly period in the current calendar quarter is not less than 1/6 of the net tax liability for alternative method taxes reported for the look-back quarter;

(B) Each deposit is made on time;

(C) The amount of any underpayment of alternative method taxes is paid by the due date of the return; and

(D) The person's liability does not include any alternative method tax that was not imposed at all times during the look-back quarter and the month preceding the look-back quarter.

(iv) Modification for tax rate increase. The safe harbor rules of this paragraph (b)(2) do not apply to regular method taxes or alternative method taxes for the first and second calendar quarters beginning on or after the effective date of an increase in the rate of any tax to which this part 40 applies unless the deposit of those taxes for each semimonthly period in the calendar quarter is not less than 1/6 of the tax liability the person would have had with respect to those taxes for the look-back quarter if the increased rate of tax had been in effect for the look-back quarter.

(v) Failure to comply with deposit requirements. If a person fails to make deposits as required under this part 40, the IRS may withdraw the person's right to use the safe harbor rules of this paragraph (b)(2).

(c) Time to deposit—(1) In general. The deposit of tax for any semimonthly period must be made by the 14th day of the following semimonthly period unless such day is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday in the District of Columbia in which case the immediately preceding day which is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday in the District of Columbia is treated as the 14th day. Thus, generally, the deposit of tax for the first semimonthly period in a month is due by the 29th day of that month and the deposit of tax for the second semimonthly period in a month is due by the 14th day of the following month.

(2) Exceptions. See § 40.6302(c)-2 for the special rules for September. See § 40.6302(c)-3 for the special rules for deposits under the alternative method.

(d) Deposits required by electronic funds transfer. All deposits required by this part must be made by electronic funds transfer, as that term is defined in § 31.6302-1(h)(4) of this chapter.

(e) Exceptions—(1) Taxes excluded. No deposit is required in the case of the taxes imposed by—

(i) Section 4042 (relating to fuel used on inland waterways);

(ii) Section 4161 (relating to sport fishing equipment and bows and arrow components);

(iii) Section 4682(h) (relating to floor stocks tax on ozone-depleting chemicals);

(iv) Sections 4375 and 4376 (relating to fees on health insurance policies and self-insured insurance plans);

(v) Section 5000B (relating to indoor tanning services); and

(vi) Section 5000D (relating to the sale of designated drugs).

(2) One-time filings. No deposit is required in the case of any taxes reportable on a one-time filing (as defined in § 40.6011(a)-2(b)).

(3) De minimis exception. For any calendar quarter, no deposit is required if the net tax liability for the quarter does not exceed $2,500.

(f) Applicability dates—(1) Paragraphs (a) through (d). Paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section apply to deposits and payments made after March 31, 2013. For rules that apply before March 31, 2013, see 26 CFR part 40, revised as of April 1, 2013.

(2) Paragraph (e). Paragraph (e) of this section applies to calendar quarters beginning on or after October 1, 2023. For rules that apply before October 1, 2023, see 26 CFR part 40, revised as of April 1, 2024.

[T.D. 8963, 66 FR 41776, Aug. 9, 2001, as amended by T.D. 9486, 75 FR 33686, June 15, 2010; T.D. 9507, 75 FR 75903, Dec. 7, 2010; T.D. 9602, 77 FR 72728, Dec. 6, 2012; T.D. 9621, 78 FR 34846, June 11, 2013; T.D. 10003, 89 FR 55511, July 5, 2024]

§ 40.6302(c)-2 Special rules for September.

(a) In general—(1) Separate deposits required for the second semimonthly period. In the case of deposits of taxes not deposited under the alternative method (regular method taxes) for the second semimonthly period in September, separate deposits are required for the period September 16th through 26th and for the period September 27th through 30th.

(2) Amount of deposit—(i) In general. The deposits of regular method taxes for the period September 16th through 26th and the period September 27th through 30th must be not less than 95 percent of the net tax liability for regular method taxes incurred during the respective periods. The net tax liability for regular method taxes incurred during these periods may be computed by—

(A) Determining the amount of net tax liability for regular method taxes reasonably expected to be incurred during the second semimonthly period in September;

(B) Treating 11/15 of the amount determined under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section as the net tax liability for regular method taxes incurred during the period September 16th through 26th; and

(C) Treating the remainder of the amount determined under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section (adjusted to reflect the amount of net tax liability for regular method taxes actually incurred through the end of September) as the net tax liability for regular method taxes incurred during the period September 27th through 30th.

(ii) Safe harbor rules. The safe harbor rules in § 40.6302(c)-1(b)(2) do not apply for the third calendar quarter unless—

(A) The deposit of taxes for the period September 16th through 26th is not less than 11/90 of the net tax liability for regular method taxes reported for the look-back quarter; and

(B) The total deposit of taxes for the second semimonthly period in September is not less than 1/6 of the net tax liability for regular method taxes reported for the look-back quarter.

(3) Time to deposit. (i) The deposit required for the period beginning September 16th must be made by September 29th unless—

(A) September 29th is a Saturday, in which case the deposit must be made by September 28th; or

(B) September 29th is a Sunday, in which case the deposit must be made by September 30th.

(ii) The deposit required for the period ending September 30th must be made at the time prescribed in § 40.6302(c)-1(c).

(b) Persons not required to use electronic funds transfer. The rules of this section are applied with the following modifications in the case of a person not required to deposit taxes by electronic funds transfer.

(1) Periods. The deposit periods for the separate deposits required under paragraph (a) of this section are September 16th through 25th and September 26th through 30th.

(2) Amount of deposit. In computing the amount of deposit required under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the applicable fraction is 10/15. In computing the amount of deposit required under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, the applicable fraction is 10/90.

(3) Time to deposit. In the case of the deposit required under paragraph (a) of this section for the period beginning September 16th, the deposit must be made by September 28th unless—

(i) September 28th is a Saturday, in which case the deposit must be made by September 27th; or

(ii) September 28th is a Sunday, in which case the deposit must be made by September 29th.

(c) Effective date. This section is applicable with respect to deposits that relate to calendar quarters beginning on or after October 1, 2001, except that paragraph (b) of this section does not apply after December 31, 2010.

[T.D. 8963, 66 FR 41777, Aug. 9, 2001, as amended by T.D. 9507, 75 FR 75904, Dec. 7, 2010]

§ 40.6302(c)-3 Deposits under chapter 33.

(a) Overview. This section sets forth an alternative method for computing the amount of deposits of taxes imposed by chapter 33, and provides rules relating to the time for making a deposit and the amount of tax to be reported on the return of tax for each quarter by persons using the alternative method. The safe harbor rules for computing deposits of tax using the alternative method and the general rules relating to deposits are set forth in § 40.6302(c)-1 and apply unless inconsistent with the rules set forth below.

(b) Alternative method for computing deposits—(1) In general—(i) Alternative method. Any person required to collect and pay over any tax imposed by chapter 33 may compute the amount of that tax to be deposited on the basis of amounts considered as collected (the “alternative method”) instead of on the basis of actual collections of tax.

(ii) Using more than one method to compute deposits. A person may compute deposits of tax imposed by one or more sections of chapter 33 using the alternative method provided by this section and compute deposits of taxes imposed by other sections of chapter 33 on the basis of amounts actually collected using the rule of § 40.6302(c)-1(c)(1). For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(ii), the taxes imposed by section 4261(a) and (b) are treated as taxes imposed by the same section.

(2) Applicability—(i) In general. A person may use the alternative method with respect to a tax only if the person—

(A) Separately accounts for the tax in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section; and

(B) Makes a return of the tax on the basis of the amount of the tax that is considered as collected.

(ii) Separate account. The account required under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section (the separate account)—

(A) Must reflect for each month all items of tax that are included in amounts billed or tickets sold to customers during the month;

(B) May not reflect an item of adjustment for any month during a quarter if the adjustment results from a refusal to pay or inability to collect the tax and the uncollected tax has not been reported under § 49.4291-1 of this chapter on or before the due date of the return for that quarter; and

(C) Must reflect for each month items of adjustment (including bad debts and errors) relating to the tax for prior months within the period of limitations on credits or refunds.

(iii) Change of method. The method of computing deposits of tax imposed by a section of chapter 33 (as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section) may be changed only at the beginning of a calendar quarter. Before a person changes the method used to compute the amount of tax to be deposited and reported for a calendar quarter, the person must notify the Commissioner so that proper adjustments may be made in order to properly reflect that person's collections of excise tax.

(3) Period during which tax is considered as collected. For purposes of this section, the tax included in amounts billed or tickets sold during a semimonthly period (as defined in § 40.0-1(c)) is considered as collected during the first seven days of the second following semimonthly period. Thus, the tax included in amounts billed or tickets sold during the first semimonthly period of a calendar month is considered as collected during the period of the 1st day through the 7th day of the following month; the tax included in amounts billed or tickets sold during the second semimonthly period of a calendar month is considered as collected during the period of the 16th day through the 22nd day of the following month.

(4) When amounts are billed. For purposes of this section, an amount is billed on the earlier of the date the amount is received or the date a bill for the amount is rendered.

(c) Time to deposit. Under the alternative method, the deposit of tax for any semimonthly period must be made by the third business day after the seventh day of that semimonthly period. For purposes of this paragraph (c), a “business day” is any calendar day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. The term legal holiday means a legal holiday in the District of Columbia as defined in section 7503. Thus, for example, the deposit for the semimonthly period beginning on January 1, 2011 (relating to amounts billed between December 1st and December 15, 2010) is due by January 12, 2011, three business days after January 7, the seventh day of the semimonthly period. The deposit for the semimonthly period beginning on October 1, 2011 (relating to amounts billed between September 1st and September 15, 2011), is due by October 13, 2011, due to the October 10, 2011, Columbus Day holiday.

(d) Computation of net amount of tax that is considered as collected during a semimonthly period. The net amount of tax that is considered as collected during the semimonthly period must be either the net amount of tax reflected in the separate account for the corresponding semimonthly period of the preceding month or one-half the net amount of tax reflected in the separate account for the preceding month.

(e) Reporting of tax. If a tax is deposited under the alternative method for a calendar quarter, the return of tax for the quarter must report the net amount of the tax that is considered as collected during the quarter and not the amount of the tax that is actually collected during the quarter. The amount to be reported for each month is the net amount of tax reflected in the separate account for the preceding month. For example, amounts billed in December, January, and February are considered as collected during January, February, and March, and are reported as the collections of tax for January, February, and March (the first calendar quarter). Thus, the net amount of tax reflected in the separate accounts for December, January, and February is the amount reported as collections for the first quarter.

(f) Special rules for September—(1) Deposits required. In the case of alternative method taxes charged (that is, included in amounts billed or tickets sold) during the first semimonthly period in September, separate deposits are required for the taxes charged during the period September 1st-11th and the period September 12th-15th.

(2) Time to deposit—(i) In general. The deposit required for alternative method taxes charged during the period beginning September 1st must be made by September 29. The deposit required for alternative method taxes charged during the period ending September 15th must be made at the time prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section for making deposits for the first semimonthly period in October.

(ii) Due date on Saturday or Sunday. A deposit that would otherwise be due on September 29 must be made by September 28 if September 29 is a Saturday and by September 30 if September 29 is a Sunday.

(3) Amount of deposit. The deposits of alternative method taxes required for the period September 1st-11th and the period September 12th-15th must be not less than the amount of alternative method taxes charged during the respective periods. The amount of alternative method taxes charged during these periods may be computed by—

(i) Determining the net amount of alternative method taxes reflected in the separate account for the first semimonthly period in September (or one-half of the net amount of alternative method taxes reasonably expected to be reflected in the separate account for the month of September);

(ii) Treating 11/15 of that amount as the amount of taxes charged during the period September 1st-11th; and

(iii) Treating the remainder of the amount determined under paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section (adjusted, if that amount is based on reasonable expectations, to reflect actual taxes charged through the end of September) as the amount charged during the period September 12th-15th.

(4) Safe harbor rule based on look-back quarter liability. The safe harbor rule of § 40.6302(c)-1(b)(2) does not apply for the fourth calendar quarter unless—

(i) The deposit for alternative method taxes charged during the period September 1st-11th is not less than 11/90 of the net tax liability reported for alternative method taxes for the look-back quarter; and

(ii) The total deposit for alternative method taxes charged during the first semimonthly period in September is not less than 1/6 of the net tax liability reported for alternative method taxes for the look-back quarter.

(5) Persons not required to use electronic funds transfer. In the case of a person that is not required to deposit excise taxes by electronic funds transfer (a non-EFT depositor), the rules of this paragraph (f) apply with the following modifications:

(i) The taxes for which separate deposits must be made are the taxes charged during the periods September 1st-10th and September 11th-15th.

(ii) The deposit required for taxes charged during the period beginning September 1st must be made by September 28. A deposit that would otherwise be due on September 28 must be made by September 27 if September 28 is a Saturday and by September 29 if September 28 is a Sunday.

(iii) The generally applicable fractions and percentage are modified to reflect the different deposit periods in accordance with the following table:

Generally applicable fractions and percentage | Modifications for non-EFT depositors

11/15 | 10/15.

11/90 | 10/90.

69.67 percent | 63.33 percent.

(g) Effective date. This section is applicable with respect to deposits and returns that relate to taxes that are considered as collected in calendar quarters beginning on or after October 1, 2001, except that paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section is applicable October 1, 2004, and except that paragraph (f)(5) of this section does not apply after December 31, 2010.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48177, Oct. 22, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8685, 61 FR 58006, Nov. 12, 1996; 63 FR 15292, Mar. 31, 1998; T.D. 8963, 66 FR 41778, Aug. 9, 2001; T.D. 9051, 68 FR 15941, Apr. 2, 2003; T.D. 9149, 69 FR 48394, Aug. 10, 2004; T.D. 9221, 70 FR 49869, Aug. 25, 2005; T.D. 9507, 75 FR 75904, Dec. 7, 2010; 76 FR 709, Jan. 6, 2011]

§ 40.6694-1 Section 6694 penalties applicable to tax return preparer.

(a) In general. For general definitions regarding section 6694 penalties applicable to preparers of returns or claims for refund of any tax to which this part 40 applies, see § 1.6694-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78454, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5106, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 40.6694-2 Penalties for understatement due to an unreasonable position.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of any tax to which this part 40 applies shall be subject to penalties under section 6694(a) in the manner stated in § 1.6694-2 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5106, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 40.6694-3 Penalty for understatement due to willful, reckless, or intentional conduct.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of any tax to which this part 40 applies shall be subject to penalties under section 6694(b) in the manner stated in § 1.6694-3 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5106, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 40.6694-4 Extension of period of collection when tax return preparer pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and certain other procedural matters.

(a) In general. For rules relating to the extension of period of collection when a tax return preparer who prepared return or claim for refund of excise tax of any tax to which this part 40 applies pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and procedural matters relating to the investigation, assessment and collection of the penalties under section 6694(a) and (b), the rules under § 1.6694-4 of this chapter will apply.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 40.6695-1 Other assessable penalties with respect to the preparation of tax returns for other persons.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of any tax to which this part 40 applies shall be subject to penalties for failure to furnish a copy to the taxpayer under section 6695(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code), failure to sign the return under section 6695(b) of the Code, failure to furnish an identification number under section 6695(c) of the Code, failure to retain a copy or list under section 6695(d) of the Code, failure to file a correct information return under section 6695(e) of the Code, and negotiation of a check under section 6695(f) of the Code, in the manner stated in § 6695-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable for returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5106, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 40.6696-1 Claims for credit or refund by tax return preparers.

(a) In general. The rules under § 1.6696-1 of this chapter will apply for claims for credit or refund by a tax return preparer who prepared a return or claim for refund of any tax to which this part 40 applies.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5106, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 40.7701-1 Tax return preparer.

(a) In general. For the definition of a tax return preparer, see § 301.7701-15 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008]

PART 41 EXCISE TAX ON USE OF CERTAIN HIGHWAY MOTOR VEHICLES

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805. Section 41.4482(b)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4482(b). Section 41.4483-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4483(a). Section 41.4483-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4483(c). Section 41.4483-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4483(d). Section 41.6001-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6001. Section 41.6001-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6001. Section 41.6001-3 also issued under sec. 507, Public Law 100-17 (101 Stat. 260). Section 41.6011(a)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6011(a). Section 41.6060-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6060(a). Section 41.6071(a)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6071 (a). Section 41.6091-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6091(a). Section 41.6101-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6101. Section 41.6109-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a). Section 41.6109-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a). Section 41.6151(a)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6151(a). Section 41.6695-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6695(b)

Source: T.D. 6216, 21 FR 9645, Dec. 6, 1956; 25 FR 14021, Dec. 31, 1960, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Introduction
§ 41.0-1 Introduction.

The regulations in this part are designated “Highway Use Tax Regulations.” The regulations in this part relate to the tax on the use of certain highway vehicles imposed by section 4481 and to certain associated administrative provisions.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17153, Mar. 31, 2000]

Subpart B Tax on Use of Certain Highway Motor Vehicles
§ 41.4481-1 Imposition and computation of tax.

(a) In general. Tax is imposed on the use during a taxable period of any registered highway motor vehicle that (together with the semitrailers and trailers customarily used in connection with highway motor vehicles of the same type as such highway motor vehicle) has a taxable gross weight of at least 55,000 pounds.

(b) Rate of tax. For the rate of tax generally, see section 4481(a). For the rate of tax for certain vehicles used in logging, see section 4483(e). For a special rule for the taxable period in which the tax terminates, see section 4482(d).

(c) Computation of tax—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), the tax on the use of a particular highway motor vehicle for a taxable period is computed as follows:

(i) For vehicles with a taxable gross weight of at least 55,000 pounds, but not over 75,000 pounds, add to $100 an amount equal to $22 for each 1,000 pounds (or fraction thereof) in excess of 55,000 pounds; and

(ii) For vehicles with a taxable gross weight over 75,000 pounds, the tax is $550.

(2) Certain prorated taxable periods. If the first taxable use of a particular highway motor vehicle is made after the first month of the taxable period, the tax on the use of such vehicle for such taxable period is computed by multiplying the amount of tax that would be due for a full taxable period as computed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, by a fraction. Such fraction shall have as its numerator the number of months in the taxable period beginning with the month of first taxable use and as its denominator the number of months in the entire taxable period. For purposes of determining the fraction, any part of a month is counted as a full month. (See example (2) of paragraph (e) of this section.)

(3) Increase in taxable gross weight during the taxable period. If the taxable gross weight of a vehicle increases during the month in which the vehicle is first used in a taxable period, the tax for the vehicle for the taxable period is computed on the basis of the increased weight. If the taxable gross weight of a vehicle increases after the month in which the vehicle was first used in a taxable period, the additional tax liability, if any, that results from the increased weight is calculated according to the following formula:

where: T1 = Tax imposed for a full taxable period (or partial taxable period as determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section) at the vehicle's previously reported taxable gross weight. T2 = Tax imposed for the same taxable period as used in T1 at the vehicle's increased taxable gross weight. P = The number of months in the taxable period during which the vehicle's taxable gross weight was as previously reported for such taxable period. This number does not include the month in which the vehicle's taxable gross weight increased. R = The number of months remaining in the taxable period including the month in which the vehicle's taxable gross weight was increased.

If tax was imposed for a partial taxable period as determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the additional tax is determined by substituting the number of months in such partial taxable period for “12” in the above formula.

(4) Prorated taxable period for sold, destroyed, or stolen vehicles—(i) In general. The tax on a taxpayer's use of a highway vehicle for a taxable period is determined under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section if—

(A) The vehicle is destroyed or stolen before the first day of the last month in the taxable period and is not later used by the taxpayer during the period; or

(B) The taxpayer sells the vehicle before the first day of the last month in the taxable period and does not later use the vehicle during the period.

(ii) Computation of tax. If the tax on a taxpayer's use of a highway vehicle for a taxable period is determined under this paragraph (c)(4)(ii), the tax is computed by multiplying the amount of tax that would be due for a full taxable period, as computed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, by a fraction. The fraction has as its numerator the number of months in the period from the first day of the month in the period in which the first taxable use of the highway motor vehicle occurs to and including the last day of the month in which the highway motor vehicle was sold, destroyed, or stolen, and as its denominator the number of months in the entire taxable period. (See paragraph (d) Example (3)(i) of this section.)

(iii) Overpayment. If a taxpayer's liability for the tax on the use of a highway vehicle for a taxable period is determined under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, any tax the taxpayer paid under section 4481(a) on the use of the vehicle for such period in excess of the tax calculated under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section is an overpayment of tax.

(iv) Definition of destroyed vehicle. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4), a highway motor vehicle is destroyed if the vehicle is damaged due to an accident or other casualty to such an extent that it is not economical to rebuild.

(v) Form and content of claim. A claim for refund of an overpayment described in paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section must be made on Form 8849, “Claim for Refund of Excise Taxes” (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form. A claim for a credit must be made on Form 2290, “Heavy Highway Vehicle Use Tax Return” (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form. A claim for refund or credit for any vehicle must include—

(A) The vehicle identification number and taxable gross weight of the vehicle;

(B) The date of the sale, destruction, or theft of the vehicle; and

(C) If the vehicle was sold, the name and address of the purchaser of the vehicle.

(vi) Tax on buyer's use of second-hand vehicles. If a vehicle is sold during the taxable period and a credit or refund of the tax imposed by section 4481 is allowable upon the sale under paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section, tax is imposed on the use of the vehicle after the sale and before the end of the taxable period. (See paragraph (c)(4)(vii) of this section for the rules regarding the computation of tax after the sale and before the end of the taxable period.)

(vii) Computation of tax on second-hand vehicles. The tax under paragraph (c)(4)(vi) of this section on the use of a vehicle after a sale upon which a credit or refund is allowable is computed by multiplying the amount of tax that would be due for a full taxable period as computed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section by a fraction. The fraction has as its numerator the number of months in the period from the first day of the month in which the first taxable use of the vehicle after the sale occurs (the first day of the month after such month if the first taxable use after the sale occurs in the month of the sale) through the end of the taxable period, and as its denominator the number of months in the entire taxable period. (See paragraph (d) Example (3)(ii) of this section.)

(5) Decrease in taxable gross weight, discontinued use, or converted use. The computation of the tax is not affected, and no right to a credit or refund of any tax paid under section 4481 arises, if in any taxable period—

(i) The taxable gross weight of a highway motor vehicle is decreased;

(ii) The use of a highway motor vehicle is discontinued (for reasons other than sale, destruction, or theft as described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section); or

(iii) The highway motor vehicle is converted to a use that is exempt from the tax imposed by section 4481(a).

(d) Examples. The application of §§ 41.4481-1, 41.4481-2, and 41.4482(c)-1(c) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).In the taxable period beginning July 1, 1984, the first taxable use of a particular highway motor vehicle, a bus, having a taxable gross weight of 56,000 pounds, occurs on July 10, 1984, at which time the vehicle is registered in the name of X. A tax of $122 ($100 + $22) is imposed on X for the use of such vehicle for such taxable period.

Example (2).On July 1, 1984, X has registered in his name a highway motor vehicle having a taxable gross weight of 60,000 pounds. The vehicle is in “dead storage” until August 10, 1984, at which time X starts using the vehicle on the public highways in carrying on his trucking business. On August 10, 1984, the vehicle is still registered in X's name. Since the first taxable use of this highway motor vehicle during the taxable period occurred on August 10, 1984, X is required to pay a tax of $192.50 ([$100 + (5 × $22)] × 11/12) for such taxable period.

Example (3). (i) In July, X uses a vehicle that is registered in X's name and has a taxable gross weight of 70,000 pounds. The vehicle is not a logging vehicle. X pays the $430 of tax imposed by section 4481 for the taxable period. On September 2 of the same calendar year, X sells the vehicle to Y. X's tax is calculated under paragraph (c)(4)(ii) by multiplying the amount of tax that would be due for a full taxable period by a fraction that has as its numerator the number of months in the period from the first day of the month in which X's first taxable use of the highway motor vehicle occurs to and including the last day of the month in which the vehicle was sold, and as its denominator the number of months in the entire taxable period. Thus, X's tax for the period is $107.50 (3/12 of $430), and X may claim a credit or refund of $322.50 ($430.00−$107.50) in accordance with § 41.4481-1(c)(4)(v) after X sells the vehicle.

(ii) On September 23, Y uses the vehicle. Y is liable for tax on the use of the vehicle during the taxable period ending June 30 of the following calendar year. Y's tax is calculated under paragraph (c)(4)(vii) by multiplying the amount of tax that would be due for a full taxable period by a fraction that has as its numerator the number of months in the period from the first day of the month in which Y's first taxable use of the vehicle after the sale occurs (the first day of the month after such month if the first taxable use after the sale occurs in the month of the sale) through the end of the taxable period, and as its denominator the number of months in the entire taxable period. Y's first use of the vehicle occurs in the month of the sale. Accordingly, Y's tax is based on the number of months in the period from the first day of October (the month following the month of the first taxable use) through the end of June, and Y owes a section 4481 tax of $322.50 (9/12 of $430) for the taxable period.

Example (4).Assume the same facts as in Example (3)(i), except that on September 2, X sells the vehicle to Dealer, a dealer in highway motor vehicles. X may claim a credit or refund of $322.50. Dealer operates the vehicle exclusively for the purpose of demonstration, which is not a “use” of the vehicle under § 41.4482(c)-1(c). On May 2 of the following calendar year, Dealer sells the vehicle to Y. Dealer does not owe a section 4481 tax and may not claim a refund. Y's first taxable use of the vehicle occurs on May 3. Y's first taxable use of the vehicle does not occur in the month of a sale upon which a credit or refund is allowable. Accordingly, Y's tax is calculated under paragraph (c)(2) by multiplying the amount of tax that would be due for a full taxable period by a fraction which has as its numerator the number of months in the taxable period beginning with the month of first taxable use and as its denominator the number of months in the entire taxable period. The numerator is the number of months in the period from the first day of May (the month of Y's first taxable use after the sale) through the end of June, and Y owes a section 4481 tax of $71.67 (2/12 of $430) for the taxable period.

(e) Effective/applicability date. This section applies on and after July 1, 2015. For rules applicable before that date, see 26 CFR 41.4481-1 (revised as of April 1, 2014).

[T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21246, May 23, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8159, 52 FR 33584, Sept. 4, 1987; T.D. 8177, 53 FR 6626, Mar. 2, 1988; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17153, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9698, 79 FR 64314, Oct. 29, 2014]

§ 41.4481-2 Persons liable for tax.

(a) In general. (1)(i) A person is liable for the tax imposed by section 4481 with respect to the use of a highway motor vehicle in a taxable period if the vehicle is registered in the person's name—

(A) At the time of the first use of the vehicle in the taxable period;

(B) In the case of a vehicle under a suspension of tax described in § 41.4483-3(a), at the time the use on the public highways during the taxable period exceeds 5,000 miles (7,500 miles for agricultural vehicles);

(C) At the time that an increase in the taxable gross weight of the vehicle results in an additional tax liability (as computed under § 41.4481-1(c)(3)) if the increase occurs after the month in which the vehicle was first used in the taxable period; or

(D) At the time of any use during the taxable period that is after the first use during the period, but only to the extent that the tax has not previously been paid.

(ii) In any case in which more than one person is liable for the tax for a taxable period, the liability of all persons is satisfied to the extent that the tax is paid by any person liable for the tax.

(2) If a vehicle is sold during the taxable period and a credit or refund is allowable upon the sale under § 41.4481-1(c)(4)(iii), paragraph (a)(1) of this section is applied with the following modifications:

(i) For purposes of determining the person liable for the tax determined under § 41.4481-1(c)(4)(ii), each reference to a taxable period in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is treated as a reference to the period that begins on the first day of the taxable period in which the vehicle is sold and ends on the date of sale.

(ii) For purposes of determining the person liable for the tax determined under § 41.4481-1(c)(4)(vi), each reference to a taxable period in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is treated as a reference to the period that begins on the date of the sale and ends on the last day of the taxable period in which the vehicle is sold.

(3) The application of paragraph (a) of this section may be illustrated by Examples (3) and (4) in § 41.4481-1(d).

(b) Evidence of prior use of second-hand vehicle. Every person who, at any time in the taxable period, acquires and has registered in his name a secondhand highway motor vehicle shall obtain and keep as a part of his records evidence, which he believes to be true, showing whether there was or was not a taxable use of such vehicle at any time in such taxable period prior to the time when the vehicle was registered in his name. Such person shall also obtain and keep as evidence a statement from the transferor as to whether there was in effect, at the time the vehicle was acquired, a suspension under § 41.4483-3(a) of the tax imposed by section 4481(a). The evidence may take the form of a written statement, signed and dated by the person from whom the vehicle was acquired, showing whether there was or was not a prior taxable use of the vehicle and whether there was a suspension of tax in the taxable period. If the vehicle is acquired from a dealer in highway motor vehicles, the statement may be obtained from such dealer or from the person from whom the dealer acquired such vehicle. If evidence is not obtained showing whether there was or was not a prior taxable use of such vehicle and whether there was a suspension of tax in the taxable period, such person shall keep as a part of his records a written statement of the reason why he was unable to obtain such evidence. For provisions relating to penalties for aiding and abetting an understatement of tax liability, see section 6701 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) Effective/applicability date. This section applies on and after July 1, 2015. For rules applicable before that date, see 26 CFR 41.4481-2 (revised as of April 1, 2014).

[T.D. 6743, 29 FR 7930, June 23, 1964, as amended by T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21247, May 23, 1985; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17153, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9698, 79 FR 64316, Oct. 29, 2014]

§ 41.4481-3 Registration.

(a) For purposes of the regulations in this part, the term “registered” when used in reference to a highway motor vehicle means—

(1) Registered under the law of any State or Territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or contiguous foreign country, or

(2) Required to be registered under the law of any State or Territory of the United States or contiguous foreign country in which such highway motor vehicle is operated or situated or, in case the vehicle is operated or situated in the District of Columbia, under the law of the District of Columbia.

Any highway motor vehicle which is operated under a dealer's tag, license, or permit is considered to be registered in the name of such dealer. A highway motor vehicle is not considered to be registered solely by reason of the fact that there has been issued a special permit for operation of the vehicle at particular times and under specified conditions.

(b) Any highway motor vehicle which, at any time in the taxable period, is registered both in the name of the owner of the vehicle and in the name of any other person, is considered, for purposes of the regulations in this part, to be registered, at such time, solely in the name of the owner of the vehicle.

[T.D. 6216, 21 FR 9645, Dec. 6, 1956, as amended by T.D. 6743, 29 FR 7931, June 23, 1964; T.D. 8159, 52 FR 33584, Sept. 4, 1987]

§ 41.4482(a)-1 Definition of highway motor vehicle.

(a) Highway motor vehicle. The term “highway motor vehicle” means any vehicle that is both:

(1) A vehicle propelled by means of its own motor, whether such motor is powered by gasoline, diesel fuel, special motor fuels, electricity, or otherwise, and

(2) A “highway vehicle” as defined in § 48.4061(a)-1(d) of this chapter.

(b) Treatment of certain excluded vehicles. Although trailers and semitrailers used in combination with highway trucks or truck-tractors are not vehicles the use of which is subject to the tax imposed by section 4481(a), trailers and semitrailers customarily used in combination with highway trucks or truck-tractors are taken into account in determining the taxable gross weight of the highway motor vehicle under § 41.4482(b)-1, which is the base of the tax.

[T.D. 7461, 42 FR 2671, Jan. 13, 1977, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17153, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 41.4482(b)-1 Definition of taxable gross weight.

(a) Actual unloaded weight—(1) In general. Actual unloaded weight means the empty (or tare) weight of the truck, truck-tractor, or bus, fully equipped for service.

(2) Trucks and truck-tractors. A truck or truck-tractor fully equipped for service includes the body (whether or not designed and adapted primarily for transporting cargo, as for example, concrete mixers); all accessories; all equipment attached to or carried on such truck or truck-tractor for use in connection with the movement of the vehicle by means of its own motor or for use in the maintenance of the vehicle; and a full complement of lubricants, fuel, and water. It does not include the driver, any equipment (not including the body) attached to or carried on the vehicle for use in handling, protecting, or preserving cargo, or any special equipment (such as an air compressor, crane, specialized oilfield machinery, etc.) mounted on the vehicle for use on construction jobs, in oilfield operations, etc.

(3) Buses. A bus fully equipped for service includes the body; all accessories; all equipment attached to or carried on such bus for use in connection with the movement of the vehicle by means of its own motor, for use in the maintenance of the vehicle, or for the accommodation of passengers or others (such as air conditioning equipment and sanitation facilities, etc.); and a full complement of lubricants, fuel, and water. It does not include the driver.

(b) Determination of taxable gross weight—(1) In general. The taxable gross weight of a highway motor vehicle is the sum of the actual unloaded weight of the vehicle fully equipped for service, the actual unloaded weight of any semitrailers or trailers fully equipped for service customarily used in combination with the vehicle, and the weight of the maximum load customarily carried on the vehicle and on any semitrailers or trailers customarily used in combination with the vehicle. In the case of a highway motor vehicle that is registered in at least one State that requires a declaration of gross weight to be stated as a specific amount for any purpose (including proportional or prorate registration or the payment of any other fees or taxes), the taxable gross weight of such vehicle must be no less than the highest gross weight declaration (or combined gross weight declaration in the case of a tractor-trailer or truck-trailer combination) made by the registrant in any State with respect to such vehicle. If a highway motor vehicle is registered in at least one State that requires vehicles to register on the basis of gross weight and such vehicle is not registered in any State that requires a declaration of gross weight to be stated as a specific amount by the registrant, the taxable gross weight of such vehicle must fall within the highest gross weight category of such State for which such vehicle is registered during the taxable period. Declarations of weight made in order to obtain special temporary travel permits which allow a vehicle to, (i) operate in a State in which the vehicle is not registered or prorated, (ii) operate at more than a State's maximum statutory weight limit, or (iii) operate at more than the weight that the vehicle is registered in a State, shall not be considered in determining the taxable gross weight of a vehicle.

(2) Buses. For purposes of the tax imposed by section 4481(a), the taxable gross weight of a bus shall be the sum of the weights referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section except that “the weight of the maximum load customarily carried” on a bus shall be equal to 150 pounds times the number of units of seating capacity provided for passengers and driver.

(c) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).A is the owner of a truck-tractor. On January 1, 1985, A registers the truck-tractor in three states—X, Y, and Z. For purposes of registering the vehicle in State X, A declares the gross operating weight of his truck-tractor to be 60,000 pounds. The declaration of the gross weight of the vehicle at 50,000 pounds places A's truck-tractor in the State X registration category of 55,000 to 62,000 pounds gross weight. Thus, the registered weight of A's vehicle in State X is 62,000 pounds. At the same time as A registers the vehicle in State X, A also proportionally registers the vehicle under the IRP in State Y. A uses the same declared gross weight of 60,000 pounds for purposes of the State Y proportional registration. Registration in State Y at this declared gross weight places A's truck-tractor in the State Y gross weight registration category of 58,000 to 68,000 pounds. Finally, A registers the truck-tractor in State Z. Registration of vehicles in State Z is based on the unladen weight of the vehicle. During the taxable period beginning on July 1, 1985, A's truck-tractor is not registered in any other state. For the taxable period beginning on July 1, 1985, A must declare a taxable gross weight of no less than 60,000 pounds for purposes of the tax imposed by section 4481(a) because that is the highest declared gross weight for state registration or other purposes. Should A declare to any State agency a higher gross operating weight with respect to the truck-tractor during the same taxable period (except for a special temporary permit), A would then be liable for additional tax as determined under paragraph (c)(3) of § 41.4481-1.

Example (2).Assume the same facts as in example (1), except that on one occasion during the taxable period, A was issued a special 2-day permit to use his truck-tractor in State Y to haul a load which would give A's unit a total gross weight of 80,000 pounds. A may still declare the taxable gross weight of his unit to be no less than 60,000 pounds because special permits to haul heavier loads on a temporary basis are not considered in determining the taxable gross weight of a vehicle.

Example (3).C owns and has registered in his name 2 trucks which are identical in all respects and which are used to carry the same type of load. The first vehicle is registered only in State X at a registered weight of 73,000 pounds based on a declared gross weight of 70,000 pounds. The second vehicle is registered only in State Y at a registered weight of 68,000 pounds based on a declared gross weight of 65,000 pounds. No other declarations of gross weight are made with respect to either vehicle. For purposes of the Federal heavy vehicle use tax, the taxable gross weight of the vehicle registered in State X may be declared at no less than 70,000 pounds and the taxable gross weight of the vehicle registered in State Y may be declared at no less than 65,000 pounds even though the vehicles are identical.

[T.D. 6216, 21 FR 9645, Dec. 6, 1956, as amended by T.D. 6743, 29 FR 7931, June 23, 1964; T.D. 7011, 34 FR 7448, May 8, 1969; T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21247, May 23, 1985; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17153, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 41.4482(c)-1 Definition of State, taxable period, use, and customarily used.

(a) State. State includes any State, any political subdivision of a State, the District of Columbia, and, to the extent provided by section 7871, any Indian tribal government.

(b) Taxable period. For the definition of taxable period, see section 4482(c).

(c) Use. The term “use”, as used in the regulations in this part with reference to a highway motor vehicle, means the use of the highway motor vehicle on the public highways in the United States, that is, operation of the vehicle, by means of its own motor, on any roadway (whether a Federal highway, State highway, city street, or otherwise) in the United States which is not a private roadway. Thus, for purposes of the tax, there is no use of a highway motor vehicle while the vehicle is in “dead storage”. The term “use” does not include operation of a new highway motor vehicle on a public highway in the United States if such operation is merely for the purpose of transporting the vehicle from the point of manufacture or assembly to the consumer, whether direct or with intermediate deliveries to such points as are involved in the distribution process. For example, operation of a new vehicle for the purpose of delivering it from the factory to a branch establishment of the manufacturer, or from the factory or branch establishment to a dealer, distributor, or consumer, does not constitute use of the vehicle within the meaning of the regulations in this part; likewise, the further operation of the vehicle by a dealer or distributor for the purpose of delivering the vehicle to a consumer does not constitute use of the vehicle. Similarly, the operation of a secondhand highway motor vehicle by a dealer or distributor for the purpose of delivering the vehicle to a purchaser does not constitute use of the vehicle within the meaning of the regulations in this part. Furthermore, the term “use” does not include operation of a new or secondhand highway motor vehicle, if such operation is exclusively for the purpose of demonstration of the vehicle by a dealer in, or distributor of, new or secondhand highway motor vehicles. Operation of a highway motor vehicle on a private roadway, or other private property, does not constitute use of the vehicle within the meaning of the regulations in this part.

(d) Customarily used. A semitrailer or trailer is treated as customarily used in connection with a highway motor vehicle if the vehicle is equipped to tow the semitrailer or trailer.

[T.D. 7409, 41 FR 9877, Mar. 8, 1976, as amended by T.D. 7505, 42 FR 42856, Aug. 25, 1977; T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21248, May 23, 1985; T.D. 8159, 52 FR 33584, Sept. 4, 1987; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17154, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 41.4483-1 State exemption.

Use of a highway motor vehicle by a State is exempt from the tax imposed by section 4481. For this purpose, the term use by a State means the operation by a State on the public highways in the United States of any highway motor vehicle, whether or not such highway motor vehicle is owned by the State.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17154, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 41.4483-2 Exemption for certain transit-type buses.

(a) In general. Use in any taxable period, or part thereof, of any bus of the transit type by any person who is engaged in the operation of a transit system is exempt from the tax, if such person meets the 60-percent passenger fare revenue test provided for in paragraph (e) of this section, for the applicable period prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section as the test period for such person for such system for such taxable period, or part thereof.

(b) Buses of the transit type. The term “transit type”, when used in the regulations in this part with reference to a bus, means the type of bus which is designed for the mass transportation of persons within an urban area, as distinguished from the intercity-type bus. A transit-type bus is ordinarily distinguishable from an intercity-type bus by comparison of seats, doors, and baggage facilities. The transit-type bus usually has straight-back seats of the bench type, while the intercity-type bus generally has seats which either can be reclined or are in fact permanently fixed in a reclining position. The transit-type bus is more likely to have an accordion or folding-type door at the front of the bus, and often has a second door in the middle or at the rear for passengers to leave the bus, as opposed to the emergency-type rear door which may or may not be included in the intercity-type bus. The typical transit-type bus does not have facilities for storing baggage whereas the typical intercity-type bus has facilities for storing baggage in a compartment underneath the floor of the bus or in overhead racks, or both. Other characteristics which may be taken into account in distinguishing a transit-type bus from an intercity-type bus include gear ratios, acceleration and maximum speed, and aisle space for standees. The transit-type bus ordinarily has a lower gear ratio to provide for quick starts and because, in general, buses of this type are operated at low speeds. The intercity-type bus ordinarily has a higher gear ratio and can be operated at much higher speeds. The transit-type bus usually has wider aisles, with overhead straps or bars to accommodate standees.

(c) Test period. (1) In the case of any person who is engaged in the operation of a transit system at any time in the calendar quarter immediately preceding July 1 of any taxable period, the test period for such system for such taxable period shall be such calendar quarter. However, if passenger fare revenue from scheduled service described in paragraph (e) of this section was derived on less than 30 days during such calendar quarter from operation of such system, the test period for such system for such taxable period shall be the last preceding test period for such system. If such system has no preceding test period, then the test period for such system for such taxable period shall be the calendar quarter beginning with July 1 of such taxable period.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph, in the case of any person who commences operation of a transit system at any time on or after July 1 of any taxable period the test period for such system for that part of such taxable period beginning with the first day on which such operation was commenced shall be the calendar quarter in which falls such first day. However, if passenger fare revenue from scheduled service described in paragraph (e) of this section was derived on less than 30 days during such calendar quarter from operation of such system, the test period for such system for such taxable period shall be the following calendar quarter.

(3) In the case of any person who commences operation of a transit system at any time in the last calendar quarter to which the tax imposed by section 4481 applies, such last calendar quarter shall be the test period for such transit system regardless of the number of days in which passenger fare revenue is derived in such calendar quarter.

(d) Transit system. The term “transit system”, as used in the regulations in this part, means any system for furnishing scheduled common carrier public passenger land transportation service along regular routes.

(e) 60-percent passenger fare revenue test. For purposes of this section, a person engaged in the operation of a transit system meets the 60-percent passenger fare revenue test, for the applicable test period prescribed in this section, if:

(1) During such test period such person derived passenger fare revenue from the operation of such system, and

(2) At least 60 percent of the total of such passenger fare revenue derived by such person during such test period was attributable to (i) amounts paid for transportation which do not exceed 60 cents, (ii) amounts paid for commutation or season tickets for single trips of less than 30 miles, or (iii) amounts paid for commutation tickets for one month or less. In determining the total of such passenger fare revenue, revenue from sources such as charter fees, rentals of property, advertising receipts, etc., is not taken into account.

(f) Examples. Application of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).The X Transit Company is engaged in the operation of a transit system in the city of A and surrounding area throughout April, May, and June of 1984 and the taxable period beginning July 1, 1984. It derives passenger fare revenue from the operation of such system for 15 days in April and for the entire months of May and June of 1984. On July 1, 1984, the Company is using 60 buses of the transit type and 40 buses of the intercity type. Each of 20 of the transit-type buses and each of 10 of the intercity-type buses has a taxable gross weight of less than 55,000 pounds. (No tax is imposed on the use of either a transit-type bus or an intercity-type bus having a taxable gross weight of less than 55,000 pounds. See § 41.4481-1.) Use of the 10 intercity-type buses is subject to the tax for the taxable period beginning with July 1, 1984, since the exemption, if any, applies only to transit-type buses. Use of the 20 transit-type buses is not subject to the tax for such taxable period if at least 60 percent of the total passenger fare revenue derived by the X Transit Company during April, May, and June of 1984 (the test period prescribed in paragraph (c) (1) of this section) from operation of such system was from fares attributable to (i) amounts paid for transportation which do not exceed 60 cents, (ii) amounts paid for commutation or season tickets for single trips of less than 30 miles, or (iii) amounts paid for commutation tickets for one month or less. If the X Transit Company does not meet the 60-percent passenger fare revenue test for April, May, and June of 1984, the tax attaches for the taxable period beginning with July 1, 1984, with respect to the use of each of the 20 transit-type buses having a taxable gross weight of more than less than 55,000 pounds.

Example (2).Assume the same facts as those stated in Example (1), except that the X Transit Company commences operation of the transit system on July 15, 1984, and derives passenger fare revenue from operation of the system throughout the following August and September. In such case, the test period is July, August, and September of 1984, and if the test is met for this period, no tax is imposed on the use by the Company of any bus of the transit type in the period July 15, 1984, through June 30, 1985.

Example (3).Assume the same facts as those stated in Example (1), except that the X Transit Company commences operation of the transit system on April 15, 1985, and derives passenger fare revenue from operation of the system throughout the following May and June. In such case the test period is April, May, and June of 1985, and if the test is met for this period, no tax is imposed on the use by the Company of any bus of the transit type in the period April 15 through June of 1985, or in the taxable period beginning on July 1, 1985.

[T.D. 6216, 21 FR 9645, Dec. 6, 1956, as amended by T.D. 6743, 29 FR 7931, June 23, 1964; T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21248, May 23, 1985; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17154, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 41.4483-3 Exemption for trucks used for 5,000 or fewer miles and agricultural vehicles used for 7,500 or fewer miles on public highways.

(a) Suspension of tax—(1) In general. Liability for the tax imposed by section 4481(a) is suspended during a taxable period if it is reasonable to expect that the vehicle will be used for 5,000 or fewer miles on public highways during such taxable period and the owner furnishes in the time and manner required the information required under paragraph (a)(2) of this section. See paragraph (g) of this section regarding special rules for agricultural vehicles. See § 41.4482(c)-1(c) for the meaning of “use” on the public highways.

(2) Information to be supplied in support of suspension of tax. The owner of a highway motor vehicle who reasonably expects that the vehicle will be used for 5,000 or fewer miles on public highways during a taxable period shall furnish on the first Form 2290 filed during the taxable period for such motor vehicle, such information as is required by the Form in order to support the suspension of tax under paragraph (a) of this section.

(b) Cessation of suspension from tax. If a highway motor vehicle on which the tax under section 4481(a) is suspended for a particular taxable period under paragraph (a)(1) of this section is used for more than 5,000 miles on public highways during such taxable period, the owner of the vehicle is liable for the tax for the entire taxable period in accordance with section 4481(a).

(c) Exemption. If at the end of any taxable period during which the tax under section 4481(a) on a highway motor vehicle was suspended under paragraph (a)(1) of this section the vehicle has not been used for more than 5,000 miles on public highways, the vehicle shall be exempt from the tax for that taxable period. The owner of the vehicle shall verify that the vehicle was used for less than 5,000 miles in such ended taxable period on the first Form 2290 filed for the next taxable period.

(d) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).A is the owner of 6 highway motor vehicles, each of which has a taxable gross weight in excess of 55,000 pounds. None of these 6 vehicles are agricultural vehicles. The vehicles are placed in use during July 1984. Because of the nature of his business, A reports on the first Form 2290 filed after June 30, 1984, that he reasonably expects that none of the vehicles will be used for more than 5,000 miles on public highways. Accordingly, the tax imposed by section 4481(a) is suspended for A's 6 vehicles for the taxable priod July 1, 1984, through June 30, 1985.

Example (2).Assume the same facts as in example (1) except that during the month of February 1985, the use of one of A's vehicles exceeds 5,000 miles on public highways. A is liable for the full tax for the taxable period July 1, 1984, through June 30, 1985, for that vehicle at the rate set forth in § 41.4481-1(b), and must so report on a Form 2290 filed on or before March 31, 1985, the last day of the month following the month in which the use exceeds 5,000 miles.

(e) Credit or refund of tax for highway motor vehicle used 5,000 or fewer miles. (1) If a highway motor vehicle on which the tax imposed by section 4481(a) has been paid for a given taxable period is used for 5,000 or fewer miles on public highways during such taxable period, the person who paid the tax may file a claim for refund of an overpayment of the tax at the end of the taxable period. Claims for refunds of tax made under this paragraph (e) shall be filed in the same manner as claims for refunds filed under § 41.4481-1(d). Refunds of tax made under this paragraph (e) shall be without interest.

(2) Any person entitled to claim a refund of tax under paragraph (e)(1) of this section may, in lieu of claiming a refund of such tax, claim credit for such tax on the first Form 2290 filed for the next taxable period.

(f) Relief from liability for tax under certain circumstances. If the tax imposed by section 4481(a) on a highway motor vehicle is suspended for any taxable period under paragraph (a) of this section and the vehicle is transferred while the suspension is in effect, the transferor will not be liable for any tax on such vehicle for such taxable period if such transferor furnishes a statement to the transferee on which is included the transferor's name, address and taxpayer identification number, the vehicle identification number, the date of transfer of the vehicle, the number of miles the vehicle has been used on the public highways during the taxable period, the odometer reading at the time of the transfer, and the name, address and taxpayer identification number of the transferee. The suspension from tax under paragraph (a) continues until the vehicle is used on the public highways for more than 5,000 miles during the taxable period (including use by the transferor for the portion of the taxable period prior to the transfer). If the transferor has furnished the statement required in this paragraph (f), the transferee and not the transferor is liable for the entire tax under section 4481(a) for the taxable period in which the transfer was made. If the transferor has not furnished such statement to the transferee, then the transferor is also liable for the tax on the use of such vehicle for such taxable period (determined in the case of a transfer described in § 41.4481-1(c)(4)(i) under § 41.4481-1(c)(4)(ii)) to the extent that the tax has not been previously paid. See paragraph (b) of this section relating to cessation of suspension from tax and § 41.6011(a)-1(a)(3) for a requirement that certain transferees described in this paragraph (f) must file a return.

(g) Special rule for agricultural vehicles—(1) In general. In applying the provisions of this section to an agricultural vehicle, “7,500” shall be substituted for “5,000” each place it appears in paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section.

(2) Meaning of terms—(i) Agriculture vehicle. An agricultural vehicle is any highway motor vehicle—

(A) Used (or expected to be used) primarily for farming purposes, and

(B) Registered (under the laws of the State or States in which such vehicle is required to be registered) as a highway motor vehicle used for farming purposes.

A highway motor vehicle is used primarily for farming purposes if more than one-half of such vehicle's use (determined on the basis of mileage) during the taxable period is for farming purposes. Further, the highway motor vehicle must be registered (under the laws of the State or States where such vehicle is required to be registered) as a highway motor vehicle used for farming purposes for the entire taxable period in order to qualify as an agricultural vehicle. See § 41.4482(a)-(1) for the definition of “highway motor vehicle”. A vehicle will be considered to be registered under the laws of the State as a highway motor vehicle used for farming purposes if such vehicle is so registered under a State statute or legally valid regulations. In addition, no special tag or license plate identifying a vehicle as being used for farming purposes is required.

(ii) Farming purposes. For purposes of this section, “farming purposes” means the transporting of any farm commodity to or from a farm, or the use directly in agricultural production.

(iii) Farm commodity. A “farm commodity” is any agricultural or horticultural commodity, feed, seed, fertilizer, livestock, bees, poultry, fur-bearing animals, or wildlife. A farm commodity does not include a commodity which has been changed by a processing operation from its raw or natural state. For example, juice which has been extracted from fruits or vegetables is not a farm commodity for purposes of this paragraph (g).

(iv) Farm. The term “farm” includes stock (including feed yards for fattening cattle), dairy, poultry, fruit, fur-bearing animal, and truck farms, plantations, ranches, nurseries, ranges, orchards, and such greenhouses and other similar structures as are used primarily for the raising of any agricultural or horticultural commodity. Greenhouses and other similar structures used primarily for purposes other than the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities (for example, display, storage, or fabrication of wreaths, corsages, and bouquets) do not constitute “farms”.

(v) Agricultural production—(A) In general. A highway motor vehicle is considered to be used directly in agricultural production only if it is used as indicated in the following paragraphs.

(B) Use of a highway motor vehicle in connection with cultivating, raising, and harvesting. A highway motor vehicle is considered to be used directly in agricultural production if such vehicle is used in connection with cultivating the soil, or raising or harvesting any agricultural or horticultural commodity, including the raising, shearing, feeding, caring for, training and management of livestock, bees, poultry, and fur-bearing animals and wildlife. A highway motor vehicle which is used in connection with operations such as canning, freezing, packaging, or other processing operations will not be considered to be used directly in agricultural production.

(C) Use of a highway motor vehicle in connection with planting, cultivation, caring for, cutting, etc., of trees. A highway motor vehicle is used directly for agricultural production if it is used in connection with planting, cultivating, caring for, or cutting of trees, or in connection with the preparation (other than milling) of trees for market; but only if such operations are incidental to farming operations. These farming operations include felling trees and cutting them into logs or firewood, but do not include sawing logs into lumber, chipping, or other milling operations. The operations specified in this paragraph (g)(2)(v)(C) will be considered “incidental to farming operations” only if they are of a minor nature in comparison with the total farming operations involved. Therefore, a treefarmer or timbergrower may not claim that a highway motor vehicle used in that trade or business is used directly in agricultural production.

(D) Use of a highway motor vehicle in connection with the operation, management, conservation, improvement, or maintenance of a farm. A highway motor vehicle is used directly for agricultural production if it is used in connection with the operation, management, conservation, improvement, or maintenance of a farm and its tools and equipment. Examples of these operations include clearing land, repairing fences and farm buildings, building terraces or irrigation ditches, cleaning tools or farm machinery, painting, and other activities which contribute in any way to the conduct of a farm as such, as distinguished from any other enterprise in which the owner of the highway motor vehicle may be engaged.

(3) Mileage on farm not counted toward 7,500 mile limit. For purposes of this section, the number of miles which a highway motor vehicle is driven on a farm and not on the public highways shall not be taken into account when determining whether the vehicle's mileage is in excess of 7,500 miles. Accurate records should be kept by taxpayers of the number of miles that a highway motor vehicle is operated on a farm.

(h) Owner. For purposes of this section the term “owner” means, with respect to any highway motor vehicle, the person described in section 4481(b).

(i) Effective/applicability date. This section applies on and after July 1, 2015. For rules applicable before that date, see 26 CFR 41.4483-3 (revised as of April 1, 2014).

[T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21248, May 23, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17154, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9698, 79 FR 64316, Oct. 29, 2014]

§ 41.4483-4 Application of exemptions.

Any exemption from the tax on the use of a highway motor vehicle has application only with respect to the use of such highway motor vehicle and not with respect to the highway motor vehicle as such. Furthermore, such exemption is subject to those provisions of paragraph (c) of § 41.4481-1 relating to proration of the tax and to the effect of an exempt use of a highway motor vehicle after a taxable use has been made. Thus, if a taxable use is made of a highway motor vehicle at any time in a taxable period, the tax is imposed on the use of such vehicle for such taxable period, computed from the first day of the month in which such taxable use occurred, even though at some time in the same taxable period, before or after such taxable use occurred, the use of the vehicle may have been, or may be, exempt. For example, if a highway motor vehicle is operated exclusively by a State in the period July 1 through September 10 of a taxable period, use of such vehicle in such period is exempt from the tax. However, if a taxable use of the vehicle is made on September 11 of such taxable period, the tax imposed on the use of such vehicle for such taxable period is computed from September 1. On the other hand, if a taxable use of the vehicle is made at any time in July of the taxable period, the tax imposed on the use of such vehicle for such taxable period is computed from July 1, even though the vehicle may be operated exclusively by a State in every other month of such period.

[T.D. 6743, 29 FR 7931, June 23, 1964. Redesignated by T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21248, May 23, 1985]

§ 41.4483-6 Reduction in tax for trucks used in logging.

(a) In general. The tax imposed by section 4481 shall be reduced by 25 percent in the case of a truck used in logging.

(b) Truck used in logging. The term “truck used in logging” means any highway motor vehicle which—

(1) Is used exclusively during the taxable period for the transportation, to and from a point located on a forested site, of products harvested from such forested site, and

(2) Is registered (under the laws of the State or States in which such vehicle is required to be registered) as a highway motor vehicle used exclusively in the transportation of harvested forest products.

Products harvested from the forested site may include timber which has been processed for commercial use by sawing into lumber, chipping or other milling operations if such processing occurs prior to transportation from the forested site. A vehicle will be considered to be registered under the laws of a state as a highway motor vehicle used exclusively in the transportation of harvested forest products if such vehicle is so registered under a state statute or legally valid regulations. In addition, no special tag or license plate identifying a vehicle as being used in the transportation of harvested forest products is required.

[T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21250, May 23, 1985]

Subpart C Administrative Provisions of Special Application to Tax On Use of Certain Highway Motor Vehicles
§ 41.6001-1 Records.

(a) Records to be kept. Every person in whose name a highway motor vehicle having a taxable gross weight of at least 55,000 pounds is registered or required to be registered at any time during the taxable period shall keep records sufficient to enable the Commissioner to determine whether such person is liable for the tax and, if so, the amount thereof. See § 41.4482(b)-1 for the definition of taxable gross weight. Such records shall show with respect to each such vehicle:

(1) A description of the vehicle (including serial number or manufacturer's number) in sufficient detail to permit positive identification of the vehicle.

(2) The weight of the loads carried by the vehicle in such form as is required under the laws of any State in which the vehicle is registered or required to be registered, in order to permit verification of such vehicle's taxable gross weight.

(3) The date on which such person acquired such vehicle and the name and address of the person from whom the vehicle was acquired.

(4) The first month of each taxable period in which occurred a taxable use of each such vehicle while the vehicle was registered in the name of such person; information showing whether such vehicle was operated, while registered in the name of such person, in any prior month in such taxable period; and if such vehicle was so operated, evidence establishing that such operation was not a taxable use.

(5) The date of sale or other transfer to another of any such vehicle, together with the name and address of the person to whom transferred.

(6) In the case of any such vehicle disposed of otherwise than by sale or other transfer (including disposition by theft or destruction), the date and method of disposition of the vehicle.

(7) In the case of a secondhand highway motor vehicle acquired at any time in the taxable period, evidence showing whether there was a prior taxable use in such taxable period of the highway motor vehicle (see paragraph (b) of § 41.4481-2) or whether there was a suspension of tax in effect (see § 41.4483-3).

(8) A copy of each return, schedule, statement, or other document filed, pursuant to the regulations in this part or in accordance with the instructions applicable to any form prescribed thereunder, by the person required to keep such records.

(b) Transit systems. Every person engaged in the operation of a transit system who claims exemption from tax with respect to a transit-type bus shall keep records sufficient to show, with respect to each taxable period, whether it meets the 60-percent passenger fare revenue test (see paragraph (e) of § 41.4483-2) for the period prescribed as the test period (see paragraph (c) of § 41.4483-2) for such system for such taxable period.

(c) Exemption for vehicles used 5,000 miles or less. The owner of a highway motor vehicle who reasonably expects the vehicle to be exempt from the tax under section 4481(a) by reason of § 41.4483-3(c) for a given taxable period shall keep records which indicate the reason that the use of the vehicle is not expected to exceed 5,000 miles on public highways.

(d) Records of claimants. Any person claiming refund, credit, or abatement of the tax, interest, additional amount, addition to the tax, or assessable penalty, shall keep a complete and detailed record with respect to the claim.

(e) Place and period for keeping records. (1) All records required by the regulations in this part shall be kept, by the person required to keep them, at a convenient and safe location within the United States which is accessible to internal revenue officers. Such records shall at all times be available for inspection by such officers. If such person has a principal place of business in the United States, the records shall be kept at such place of business.

(2) Records required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be maintained for a period of at least 3 years after the date the tax becomes due or the date the tax is paid, whichever is the later. Records required by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section shall be maintained for a period of at least 3 years after the end of the taxable period for which such exemption applies. Records required by paragraph (d) of this section (including any record required by paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this section which relates to a claim) shall be maintained for a period of at least 3 years after the date the claim is filed.

[T.D. 6216, 21 FR 9645, Dec. 6, 1956, as amended by T.D. 6743, 29 FR 7932, June 23, 1964; T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21250, May 23, 1985; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17154, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9698, 79 FR 64316, Oct. 29, 2014]

§ 41.6001-2 Proof of payment for State registration purposes.

(a) In general. This section sets forth the circumstances under which a State must require proof of payment of the tax imposed by section 4481(a), and the required manner in which such proof of payment is to be received by the State as a condition of issuing a registration for a highway motor vehicle. A State must either comply with the provisions of this section or, in the alternative, comply with such other rules regarding the satisfaction of this proof of payment requirement as may be prescribed by the Commissioner (by Revenue Procedure or otherwise), in order to avoid a reduction of Federal-aid highway funds apportioned under 23 U.S.C. 104(b)(4). For purposes of this section, the rules of section 7502 and § 301.7502-1 of this chapter (relating to timely mailing treated as timely filing) determine when an application for registration is considered to be received by a State.

(b) Proof of payment required—(1) In general.— A State to which an application is made to register a highway motor vehicle must receive from the registrant proof of payment of the tax imposed by section 4481(a) (or proof of suspension of such tax under § 41.4483-3) unless otherwise provided in this paragraph (b)(1), or paragraph (b)(2) or (5) of this section. See paragraph (c) of this section for the meaning of “proof of payment”. Such proof of payment must be received by the State before the State issues a registration for such vehicle unless the State is using a system of registration provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. The term “proof of payment”, when used in this section, shall be considered to refer in appropriate cases to proof of suspension of the tax imposed by section 4481(a). Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, any proof of payment presented to a State must relate to tax paid (or suspended under § 41.4483-3) for the taxable period which includes the date that the State receives the application for registration. A “base state” must be presented proof of payment when issuing an “apportioned plate” under the International Registration Plan (IRP) (or similar agreement) for a highway motor vehicle, but no proof of payment of the tax imposed by section 4481(a) is required to be presented to the other states for which the vehicle is proportionally registered and which are listed on the IRP cab card issued by the base state. Further, a State is not required to receive proof of payment in order to issue special temporary travel permits which allow a vehicle to, (i) operate in a State in which the vehicle is not registered (including proportional or prorate registration), (ii) operate at more than the State's maximum statutory weight limit, or (iii) operate at more than the weight that the vehicle is registered in a State. Further, a State may register a highway motor vehicle without proof of payment if the person registering the vehicle presents the original or a photocopy of a bill of sale (or other document evidencing transfer) indicating that the vehicle was purchased by the owner either as a new or used vehicle during the preceding 60 days before the date that the State receives the application for registration of such vehicle.

(2) States required to receive proof of payment with respect to vehicles subject to tax—(i) Registration in States that register vehicles on the basis of gross weight. A State that registers vehicles on the basis of gross weight must require proof of payment with respect to any highway motor vehicle that has a declared gross weight in that State of 55,000 pounds or more. If no declaration of a specific gross weight is made with respect to a highway motor vehicle registered on the basis of gross weight, then the State must require proof of payment with respect to such vehicle if the minimum weight of the registered weight category for such vehicle is 55,000 pounds or more. No such proof of payment is required for any vehicle that does not have a declared gross weight in that State of 55,000 pounds or more.

(ii) Registration in States that register vehicles other than on the basis of gross weight. A State that registers vehicles other than on the basis of gross weight must require proof of payment in order to register a highway motor vehicle unless the State receives a written statement stating that during the taxable period which includes the date on which the State receives the application for registration, such vehicle had a taxable gross weight of less than 55,000 pounds. The written statement must state the number of vehicles being registered that have a taxable gross weight of less than 55,000 pounds and must be signed by the person registering the vehicles. A State may register a highway motor vehicle without receiving either proof of payment or a written statement as described above if such vehicle has an unladen weight of 8,000 pounds or less. However, the State must require proof of payment when issuing a “base plate” registration for a vehicle if a gross weight declaration of 55,000 pounds or more is made to the State with respect to such vehicle in order to proportionally register the vehicle in another State under the IRP.

(iii) State may require additional proof. Nothing contained in this section shall prohibit a State from refusing to register a highway motor vehicle without additional proof that the vehicle is not subject to tax under section 4481(a) even though the person registering the vehicle submits a written statement declaring that the taxable gross weight of such vehicle is less than 55,000 pounds.

(3) Suspension registration system. A State may issue a registration with respect to any or all highway motor vehicles subject to tax under section 4481(a) without receiving proof of payment if such vehicles are registered under a “suspension” registration system. Registration of a vehicle subject to tax under a suspension system must be on the condition that, (i) the State receive proof of payment with respect to such vehicle no later than 4 months (or any lesser time to be determined by the State) after the beginning of the vehicle's registration period, and (ii) the State's system provides for the automatic suspension (e.g. through the use of computer-generated notices) of such vehicle's registration if no proof of payment is received within the required time. Following such a suspension of registration, the State must not allow the vehicle to be registered until valid proof of payment is received. A State may either register all vehicles subject to tax under section 4481(a) in the manner described in this paragraph (b)(3) or adopt this manner of registration only in situations which the State deems appropriate. A State that registers vehicles other than on the basis of gross weight may also register vehicles not subject to tax under a suspension registration system for purposes of receiving the written statement described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii).

(4) Registration during certain months. In the case of a highway motor vehicle subject to tax under section 4481(a) for which a State receives an application for registration during the months of July, August or September, proof of payment for the immediately preceding taxable period may be used to verify payment of the tax imposed by section 4481(a).

(5) Registration in a State several times during the taxable period. A State is required to receive proof of payment with respect to a highway motor vehicle subject to tax under section 4481(a) only once during a taxable period. Thus, in the case of a State that allows a highway motor vehicle to be registered on a quarterly basis, rather than annually, proof of payment will be required to be presented to the State only once during the taxable period. The State may designate any one of the four quarterly registration periods as the time for submitting proof of payment.

(6) Proof of payment records. See 23 CFR part 669 for a description of the supporting documentation and records that will be required by the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) in order to allow the FHWA to verify that the State is in compliance with the rules of this section.

(c) Proof of payment—(1) In general. The proof of payment required in paragraph (b) of this section consists of a receipted Schedule 1 (Form 2290 “Heavy Highway Vehicle Use Tax Return”) that is returned by the Internal Revenue Service, by mail or electronically, to a taxpayer that files a return of tax under section 4481(a), meets the requirements of § 41.6011(a)-1, and pays the amount of tax due with such return. A photocopy of such receipted Schedule 1 also serves as proof of payment. Such Schedule 1 serves as proof of suspension of such tax under § 41.4483-3 for the number of vehicles entered in that part of the Schedule 1 designated for vehicles for which tax has been suspended. The vehicle identification number of the vehicle being registered must appear on the Schedule 1 (or an attached page) in order for the Schedule 1 to be a valid proof of payment for such vehicle.

(2) Acceptable substitute for receipted Schedule 1. For purposes of this section, a State must accept as proof of payment a photocopy of the Form 2290 (with the Schedule 1 attached) that was filed with the Internal Revenue Service for the vehicle being registered with sufficient documentation of payment of tax due at the time the Form 2290 was filed (such as a photocopy of both sides of a cancelled check). This substitute proof of payment may be used to register a vehicle when, for example, the receipted Schedule 1 has been lost, or when at the time required for registration of a vehicle, a receipted Schedule 1 has not been received by a taxpayer who has filed a Form 2290 with respect to such vehicle.

(d) Examples. The application of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).A applies to register a 3-axle single unit truck in State R, a member of the International Registration Plan, on November 1, 1985. State R registers vehicles based on unladen weight. At the same time, A applies for a proportional registration under the IRP to use the truck in State S. State S does not register vehicles on the basis of unladen weight. For purposes of the proportional registration in State S, A declares the gross weight of his truck at 50,000 pounds. A does not register the truck in any other states. A's truck has a taxable gross weight, as determined under § 41.4482(b)-1, of less than 55,000 pounds and therefore is not subject to tax under section 4481(a). A submits a written statement along with his application for registration in State R. The written statement states that A's vehicle has a taxable gross weight of less than 55,000 pounds and is signed by A. State R may register A's truck and issue a proportional registration for A to use his truck in State S without receiving proof of payment.

Example (2).Assume the same facts as in example (1) except that A applies for proportional registration under the IRP in State S and declares the truck to have a gross weight of 60,000 pounds. The taxable gross weight of A's truck, as determined under § 41.4482(b)-1 is 60,000 pounds. State R may not register A's truck unless it receives proof of payment within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section.

Example (3).On October 10, 1985, C applies to register 9 vehicles in State U and declares the gross weight of each vehicle to be 70,000 pounds. C has not applied for registration in any other states. At the time of applying for registration, C presents a photocopy of a receipted Schedule 1 (Form 2290) that shows a total of 9 vehicles which are subject to tax under section 4481(a) and for which tax is not suspended under § 41.4483-3(a). The vehicle identification numbers of the vehicles that C is seeking to register must be listed on the Schedule 1 in order for State U to register the vehicles.

(e) Effective/applicability date. Paragraph (c) of this section applies to registrations of highway motor vehicles pursuant to applications that are received by a State on or after July 1, 2015. The rules of section 7502 and § 301.7502-1 of this chapter (relating to timely mailing treated as timely filing) determine when an application for registration is considered to be received by a State. For rules applicable to applications before that date, see 26 CFR 41.6001-2 (revised as of April 1, 2014).

[T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21251, May 23, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17154, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9537, 76 FR 43122, July 20, 2011; T.D. 9698, 79 FR 64316, Oct. 29, 2014]

§ 41.6001-3 Proof of payment for entry into the United States.

(a) In general. (1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, proof of payment of the tax imposed by section 4481(a) must be presented to United States Customs officials with respect to any highway motor vehicle subject to the tax imposed by section 4481(a) that has a base for registration purposes in a contiguous foreign country upon entry of such vehicle into the United States during any taxable period to which this section applies. Such proof of payment must relate to tax paid (or suspended under § 41.4483-3) for the taxable period that includes the date of entry into the United States. See paragraph (c) of this section for the definition of the term “proof of payment.”

(2) No proof of payment is required upon entry of a highway motor vehicle described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section into the United States if, as of the date of such entry, the period of time for filing a return of the tax imposed on such vehicle by section 4481(a) for the taxable period that includes the date of such entry has not expired and a written declaration is presented to United States Customs officials. Such declaration must state that, as of the date of such entry, the period of time for filing a return of the tax imposed on such vehicle by section 4481(a) for the taxable period that includes the date of such entry has not expired. The written declaration must include (i) the name, address, and taxpayer identification number of the person liable under § 41.4481-2 for the tax imposed on such vehicle; (ii) the vehicle identification number of such vehicle; (iii) the date on which such vehicle was first used on the public highways in the United States during the taxable period (or a statement that the current entry is the first use on the public highways in the United States during the taxable period); (iv) an acknowledgment by the person liable for the tax imposed on such vehicle that the willful use of the declaration to evade or defeat the tax otherwise applicable under section 4481(a) will subject such person to a fine or imprisonment or both; and (v) the signature of the person liable for the tax imposed on such vehicle. A copy of the written declaration shall be retained in the records of the person liable for the tax imposed on such vehicle under the rules of § 41.6001-1. See § 41.6071(a)-1 for rules regarding the time for filing a return of the tax imposed by section 4481(a).

(b) Failure to provide proof of payment. If, upon attempting to enter the United States, the operator of a highway motor vehicle described in paragraph (a) of this section is unable to present proof of payment of the tax imposed by section 4481(a), or documentation described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, with respect to such vehicle, then such vehicle may be denied entry into the United States.

(c) Proof of payment—(1) In general. For purposes of this section, the proof of payment required in paragraph (a) of this section shall consist of a receipted Schedule 1 (Form 2290) that is returned by the Internal Revenue Service to a taxpayer that files a return of tax under section 4481(a) and pays the amount of tax (or installment thereof) due with such return. A photocopy of such receipted Schedule 1 shall also serve as proof of payment. Such proof of payment shall also serve as proof or suspension of the tax under § 41.4483-3 for the number of vehicles entered in that part of the Schedule 1 designated for vehicles for which tax has been suspended. The vehicle identification number of any vehicle for which a return is being filed, whether tax is being paid with respect to such vehicle or tax is suspended on such vehicle, must appear on the Schedule 1 (or an attached page) in order for the Schedule 1 to be a valid proof of payment for such vehicle.

(2) Acceptable substitute for receipted Schedule 1. For purposes of this section, a photocopy of the Form 2290 (with the Schedule 1 attached) that is filed with the Internal Revenue Service for a vehicle being entered into the United States with sufficient documentation of payment of tax due at the time the Form 2290 is filed (such as a photocopy of both sides of a cancelled check) shall be accepted as proof of payment. No documentation of payment of tax is required with the substitute proof of payment if at the time the Form 2290 is filed the tax imposed by section 4481(a) is suspended under § 41.4483-3 with respect to the vehicle entering the United States. This substitute proof of payment may be used to enter a vehicle into the United States when, for example, the receipted Schedule 1 has been lost, or if the taxpayer that filed a Form 2290 with respect to such vehicle has not received a receipted Schedule 1 at the time such vehicle enters the United States.

(d) Taxable periods to which this section applies. This section shall apply to any taxable period beginning on or after July 1, 1987.

[T.D. 8159, 52 FR 33585, Sept. 4, 1987, as amended by T.D. 8177, 53 FR 6626, Mar. 2, 1988]

§ 41.6011(a)-1 Returns.

(a) In general. (1) A person that is liable for tax under § 41.4481-2(a)(1)(i)(A), (B), or (C) must file a return for the taxable period with respect to the tax imposed by section 4481.

(2) A person that is liable for tax under § 41.4481-2(a)(1)(i)(D) must file a return for a taxable period with respect to the tax imposed by section 4481 if the Commissioner notifies the person that the tax for the taxable period has not been paid in full.

(3) A transferee of a vehicle that receives a statement described in the first sentence of § 41.4483-3(f) must file a return with the statement attached.

(4) A person that is liable for tax under § 41.4481-2(a)(1)(i)(A), (B), (C), or (D), after taking into account the modification required under § 41.4481-2(a)(2), is treated as liable for tax by the same provision of § 41.4481-2(a)(1)(i) for purposes of this section and must file a return.

(b) Form 2290. The return required under paragraph (a) of this section is Form 2290, “Heavy Highway Vehicle Use Tax Return,” or such other return as the Commissioner may prescribe. The return is made in accordance with the instructions applicable to the form.

(c) Required use of electronic filing—(1) In general. A person that files any return reporting 25 or more vehicles must file the return electronically, as prescribed by the Commissioner. For this purpose, the number of vehicles reported on a return is the total number of vehicles for which tax is reported and does not include vehicles for which a suspension of tax is claimed.

(2) Examples. The application of this paragraph (c) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A has 100 vehicles registered in its name, all of which have a taxable gross weight in excess of 55,000 pounds. Seventy-five of the vehicles are in use on July 1. Twenty-five are in dead storage as described in § 41.4482(c)-1(c). The vehicles in dead storage are not in use and they are not listed on the Schedule 1. A files Form 2290 electronically for the 75 vehicles in use on July 1 and receives a receipted Schedule 1. On August 23 of the same calendar year, A uses the remaining 25 vehicles. A does not file Form 2290 electronically but uses a paper Form 2290. A has failed to meet the requirements of section 4481(e) for the remaining 25 vehicles.

Example 2.Assume the same facts as in Example 1 except that on August 23, A uses 15 of the vehicles that were not used in July. The remaining 10 vehicles are not used in August. A does not file Form 2290 electronically but uses a paper Form 2290. A has correctly filed a return as required by section 4481(e).

(d) Effective/applicability date. Paragraphs (a)(4) and (c) of this section apply to returns filed on and after July 1, 2015. For rules applicable before that date, see 26 CFR 41.6011(a)-1 (revised as of April 1, 2014).

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17154, Mar. 31, 2000, as amended by T.D. 9698, 79 FR 64317, Oct. 29, 2014]

§ 41.6060-1 Reporting requirements for tax return preparers.

(a) In general. A person that employs one or more tax return preparers to prepare a return or claim for refund of excise tax under section 4481, other than for the person, at any time during a return period, shall satisfy the record keeping and inspection requirements in the manner stated in § 1.6060-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable for returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 41.6071(a)-1 Time for filing returns.

(a) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a return described in § 41.6011(a)-1 must be filed by the last day of the month following the month in which—

(1) A person becomes liable for tax under § 41.4481-2(a)(1)(i)(A), (B), or (C);

(2) A person that is liable for tax under § 41.4481-2(a)(1)(i)(D) is notified by the Commissioner that the tax has not been paid in full; or

(3) A transferee described in § 41.4483-3(f) acquires the vehicle.

(b) Certain transit-type buses. In the case of any bus of the transit type, the first taxable use of which in any taxable period occurs prior to the close of the test period (see paragraph (c) of § 41.4483-2) with reference to which liability for the tax on the use of such transit-type bus for such taxable period is determined, the person in whose name the bus is registered at the time of such use shall, after such test period and on or before the last day of the following month make a return of such tax for such taxable period on the use of such transit-type bus.

(c) Effect of sale during taxable period. A person that is liable for tax under § 41.4481-2(a)(1)(i)(A), (B), (C), or (D) after taking into account the modification required under § 41.4481-2(a)(2) is treated as liable for tax under the same provision of § 41.4481-2(a)(1)(i) for purposes of this section.

(d) Effective/applicability date. Paragraph (c) of this section applies on and after July 1, 2015. For rules applicable before that date, see 26 CFR 41.6071(a)-1 (revised as of April 1, 2014).

[T.D. 6216, 21 FR 9645, Dec. 6, 1956, as amended by T.D. 6743, 29 FR 7932, June 23, 1964; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17155, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9537, 76 FR 43123, July 20, 2011; T.D. 9698, 79 FR 64317, Oct. 29, 2014]

§ 41.6091-1 Place for filing returns.

(a) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, returns must be filed in accordance with the instructions applicable to the form on which the return is made.

(b) Hand-carried returns—(1) Persons other than corporations. Returns of persons other than corporations that are filed by hand carrying must be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive hand-carried returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office that serves the principal place of business or legal residence of the person.

(2) Corporations. Returns of corporations that are filed by hand carrying must be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive hand-carried returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office that servesthe principal place of business or principal office or agency of the corporation.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17155, Mar. 31, 2000, as amended by T.D. 9156, 69 FR 55746, Sept. 16, 2004]

§ 41.6101-1 Period covered by returns.

Each return is for a taxable period as defined in section 4482.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17155, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 41.6107-1 Tax return preparer must furnish copy of return to taxpayer and must retain a copy or record.

(a) In general. A person who is a signing tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of excise tax under section 4481 shall furnish a completed copy of the return or claim for refund to the taxpayer and retain a completed copy or record in the manner stated in § 1.6107-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable for returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 41.6109-1 Identifying numbers.

Every person required under § 41.6011(a)-1 to make a return must provide the identifying number required by the instructions to the form on which the return is made.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17155, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 41.6109-2 Tax return preparers furnishing identifying numbers for returns or claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

(a) In general. Each excise tax return or claim for refund under section 4481 prepared by one or more signing tax return preparers must include the identifying number of the preparer required by § 1.6695-1(b) of this chapter to sign the return or claim for refund in the manner stated in § 1.6109-2 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable for returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 41.6151(a)-1 Time and place for paying tax.

(a) In general. The tax must be paid at the time prescribed in § 41.6071(a)-1 for filing the return and at the place prescribed in § 41.6091-1 for filing the return.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section applies on and after July 1, 2015. For rules applicable before that date, see 26 CFR 41.6151(a)-1 and 41.6151(a)-1T (revised as of April 1, 2014).

[T.D. 9698, 79 FR 64317, Oct. 29, 2014]

§ 41.6694-1 Section 6694 penalties applicable to tax return preparer.

(a) In general. For general definitions regarding section 6694 penalties applicable to preparers of tax returns or claims for refund, see § 1.6694-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78455, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 41.6694-2 Penalties for understatement due to an unreasonable position.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of excise tax under section 4481 shall be subject to penalties under section 6694(a) in the manner stated in § 1.6694-2 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 41.6694-3 Penalty for understatement due to willful, reckless, or intentional conduct.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of excise tax under section 4481 shall be subject to penalties under section 6694(b) in the manner stated in § 1.6694-3 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 41.6694-4 Extension of period of collection when preparer pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and certain other procedural matters.

(a) In general. For rules relating to the extension of period of collection when a tax return preparer who prepared a return or claim for refund for excise tax under section 4481 pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability, and procedural matters relating to the investigation, assessment and collection of the penalties under section 6694(a) and (b), the rules under § 1.6694-4 of this chapter will apply.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 41.6695-1 Other assessable penalties with respect to the preparation of tax returns for other persons.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of excise tax under section 4481 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) shall be subject to penalties for failure to furnish a copy to the taxpayer under section 6695(a) of the Code, failure to sign a return under section 6695(b) of the Code, failure to furnish an identification number under section 6695(c) of the Code, failure to retain a copy or list under section 6695(d) of the Code, failure to file a correct information return under section 6695(e) of the Code, and negotiation of a check under section 6695(f) of the Code, in the manner stated in § 6695-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5106, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 41.6696-1 Claims for credit or refund by tax return preparers.

(a) In general. For rules for claims for credit or refund by a tax return preparer who prepared a return or claim for refund for excise tax under section 4481, the rules under § 1.6696-1 of this chapter will apply.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 41.7701-1 Tax return preparer.

(a) In general. For the definition of a tax return preparer, see § 301.7701-15 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

PART 43 EXCISE TAX ON TRANSPORTATION BY WATER

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805.

Source: T.D. 8314, 55 FR 41520, Oct. 12, 1990, unless otherwise noted.

§ 43.0-1 Introduction.

The regulations in this part 43 are designated “Excise Tax on Transportation by Water.” The regulations relate to the taxes on transportation by water imposed by section 4471 of the Internal Revenue Code. See part 40 of this chapter for regulations relating to returns, payments, and deposits of taxes imposed by section 4471.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48185, Oct. 22, 1992]

§ 43.4471-1 Imposition of tax.

(a) In general. Section 4471 imposes a tax of $3 per passenger on a covered voyage as is defined in section 4472.

(b) By whom paid. The tax is imposed on the person providing the covered voyage (the operator of the vessel).

[T.D. 8314, 55 FR 41520, Oct. 12, 1990. Redesignated by T.D. 8422, 57 FR 33636, July 30, 1992]

§ 43.4472-1 Definitions.

(a) In general. For definitions of the terms “covered voyage” and “passenger vessel,” see sections 4472 (1) and (2).

(b) Voyage. For purposes of this section, “voyage” means a journey of a vessel that includes the outward and homeward trips or passages. The voyage commences when the vessel begins to load passengers and continues during the entire ensuing period until the vessel has made one outward and one homeward passage (including intermediate passages, if made). A voyage may be a covered voyage with respect to a passenger even if the passenger does not make both an outward and homeward passage or if the point of first embarkation or disembarkation by the passenger in the United States is an intermediate stop of the vessel.

(c) Over 1 or more nights. A voyage is considered to extend over 1 or more nights if it extends for more than 24 hours.

(d) Engaged in gambling. A passenger is engaged in gambling aboard a vessel if that person is participating as a player in any policy game or other lottery, or any other game of chance, for money or other thing of value, provided that the policy game, other lottery, or game of chance is conducted, sponsored, or operated by the owner or operator of the vessel, as either principal or agent, or by an employee, agent, or franchisee of the owner or operator of the vessel. A passenger is not engaged in gambling aboard a vessel if the passenger participates with other passengers in a casual, “friendly” game of chance that is not conducted, sponsored, or operated by the owner or operator of the vessel or by an employee, agent, or franchisee of the owner or operator.

(e) Territorial waters. For purposes of sections 4471 and 4472, the territorial waters of the United States are those waters within the international boundary line between the United States and any contiguous foreign country or within 3 nautical miles (3.45 statute miles) from low tide on the coastline. No inference is intended as to the extent of the territorial limits for other tax purposes.

(f) Passenger. For purposes of sections 4471 and 4472, “passenger” means an individual carried on the vessel except—

(1) The Master; or

(2) A crew member or other individual engaged in the business of the vessel or its owners. A person is engaged in the business of the vessel or its owners if the person is an employee of the vessel or her owners or has a duty, contractual or otherwise, to perform on the vessel on behalf of the vessel or its owners. For example, a person engaged as an entertainer, instructor, or lecturer for the benefit of the passengers is not a passenger, but a person on a promotional trip such as a travel agent or contest winner is a passenger even though the vessel or its owners may derive some future benefit from the promotion.

[T.D. 8422, 57 FR 33636, July 30, 1992; 57 FR 45713, Oct. 5, 1992]

PART 44 TAXES ON WAGERING; EFFECTIVE JANUARY 1, 1955

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805. Section 44.6060-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6060(a); Section 44.6109-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a). Section 44.6109-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a); Section 44.6695-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6695(g).

Source: T.D. 6370, 24 FR 2614, Apr. 4, 1959, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Introduction
§ 44.0-1 Introduction.

(a) In general. The regulations in this part are designated “Wagering Tax Regulations.” The regulations relate to the taxes imposed by Chapter 35 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, to certain general provisions of Chapter 40 of such Code, and to certain related administrative provisions of Subtitle F of such Code. Chapter 35 imposes an excise tax on wagers and a special tax to be paid by each person liable for the tax imposed on wagers and by each person engaged in receiving wagers for or on behalf of any person liable for the tax imposed on wagers. References in these regulations to the “Internal Revenue Code” or the “Code” are references to the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, unless otherwise indicated. References to a section or other provision of law are references to a section or other provision of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, unless otherwise indicated.

(b) Division of regulations. The regulations in this part are divided into five subparts. Subpart A contains provisions relating to the arrangement and numbering of the sections of the regulations in this part, general definitions and use of terms, scope of the regulations, and the extent to which the regulations in this part supersede prior regulations relating to the taxes imposed by Chapter 35 of the Internal Revenue Code. Subpart B relates to the tax on wagers. Subpart C relates to the special tax. Subpart D relates to certain miscellaneous and general provisions having application to taxes imposed by Chapter 35. Subpart E relates to selected provisions of subtitle F of the Code (Procedure and Administration) which have special application to the taxes imposed by Chapter 35 of the Code.

(c) Arrangement and numbering. Each section of the regulations in this part (other than subpart A) is designated by a number composed of the part number followed by a decimal point (44.); the section of the Internal Revenue Code which it interprets; a hyphen (-); and a number identifying the section. By use of these designations one can ascertain the sections of the regulations relating to a provision of the Code. For example, the regulations pertaining to section 4401 of the Code are designated §§ 41.4401-1, 41.4401-2, and 41.4401-3.

[T.D. 6370, 24 FR 2614, Apr. 4, 1959, as amended by T.D. 7665, 45 FR 6090, Jan. 25, 1980]

§ 44.0-2 General definitions and use of terms.

As used in the regulations in this part, unless otherwise expressly indicated:

(a) The terms defined in the provisions of law contained in the regulations in this part shall have the meanings so assigned to them.

(b) The Internal Revenue Code of 1954 means the Act approved August 16, 1954 (68A Stat.), entitled “An Act To revise the internal revenue laws of the United States”, as amended.

(c) District director means district director of internal revenue.

(d) The cross references in the regulations in this part to other portions of the regulations, when the word “see” is used, are made only for convenience and shall be given no legal effect.

§ 44.0-3 Scope of regulations.

The regulations in this part apply to wagering activity on and after January 1, 1955.

§ 44.0-4 Extent to which the regulations in this part supersede prior regulations.

The regulations in this part, with respect to the subject matter within the scope thereof, supersede Regulations 132, 26 CFR (1939) Part 325.

Subpart B Tax on Wagers
§ 44.4401-1 Imposition of tax.

(a) In general. Section 4401 imposes a tax on all wagers, as defined in section 4421. See section 4421 and § 44.4421-1 for definition of the term “wager.”

(b) Rate of tax; amount of wager—(1) Rate of tax. The tax is imposed at the rate of 10 percent of the amount of any taxable wager.

(2) Amount of wager. (i) The amount of the wager is the amount risked by the bettor, including any charge or fee incident to the placing of the wager as provided in subdivision (iv) of this subparagraph, rather than the amount which he stands to win. Thus, if a bettor bets $5 against a bookmaker's $7 with respect to the outcome of a prize fight, the amount of the wager subject to tax is $5.

(ii) In the case of a “parlay” wager (i.e., a single wager made by a bettor on the outcome of a series of events, usually horse races), the amount of the taxable wager is the amount initially wagered by the bettor irrespective of whether the parlay is successful. In the case of an “if” wager, the amount of the taxable wager is the total of all amounts wagered on each selection of the bettor. For example, A makes a $10 wager on horse R with the understanding that if horse R wins, $5 is to be wagered on horse S and $5 on horse T. If horse R wins, the taxable wager is $20. If horse R loses, the taxable wager is $10. In determining the amount of a taxable wager involving the features of, or a combination of, “parlay” and “if” bets, such as wagers sometimes referred to as a “whipsaw” or an “if and reverse” bet, the rules set forth above relating to “parlay” and “if” bets are to be followed. For example, assume B wagers $10 on horse R with the understanding that if horse R wins, $5 is to be placed as a parlay wager on horses S and T. In such a case, if horse R loses, the taxable wager is $10; if horse R wins, there are two taxable wagers amounting in the aggregate to $15.

(iii) In the case of punchboards with prizes of merchandise, cash, or free plays listed thereon, the amount of the taxable wager is the amount risked by the bettor for all chances taken by him, including the chances taken by the bettor in lieu of the acceptance of an equivalent amount in cash or merchandise.

(iv) In determining the amount of any wager subject to tax there shall be included any charge or fee incident to the placing of the wager. For example, in the case of a wager with respect to a horse race, any amount paid to a bookmaker for the purpose of guaranteeing the bettor a pay-off based on actual track odds is to be included as a part of the wager. Similarly, in the case of a lottery, any amount paid to the operator thereof by the bettor for the privilege of making a contribution to the pool or bank is also to be included in the amount of the wager. However, the amount of the wager subject to tax shall not include the amount of the tax where it is established by actual records of the taxpayer that such amount of tax was collected from the bettor as a separate charge.

§ 44.4401-2 Person liable for tax.

(a) In general. (1) Every person engaged in the business of accepting wagers with respect to a sports event or a contest is liable for the tax on any such wager accepted by him. Every person who operates a wagering pool or lottery conducted for profit is liable for the tax with respect to any wager or contribution placed in such pool or lottery. To be liable for the tax, it is not necessary that the person engaged in the business of accepting wagers or operating a wagering pool or lottery physically receive the wager or contribution. Any wager or contribution received by an agent or employee on behalf of such person shall be considered to have been accepted by and placed with such person.

(2) Any person required to register under section 4412 by reason of having received wagers for or on behalf of another person, but who fails to register the name and place of residence of such other person (hereinafter in this subparagraph referred to as principal), shall be liable for the tax on all wagers received by him during the period in which he has failed to so register the name and place of residence of such principal. Subsequent compliance with section 4412 by the person receiving wagers for another does not relieve him of his liability and duty to pay such tax, nor will the fact that such person incurs liability with respect to the tax on such wagers, relieve his principal of liability for the tax imposed under section 4401 with respect to such wagers. Accordingly, both the person receiving the wagers and his principal shall be liable for the tax on such wagers until the tax is paid. Payment of the tax on such wagers shall not relieve the person receiving wagers of any penalty for failure to register as required by section 4412. This subparagraph has application only to wagers received after September 2, 1958.

(b) In business of accepting wagers. A person is engaged in the business of accepting wagers if he makes it a practice to accept wagers with respect to which he assumes the risk of profit or loss depending upon the outcome of the event or the contest with respect to which the wager is accepted. It is not intended that to be engaged in the business of accepting wagers a person must be either so engaged to the exclusion of all other activities or even primarily so engaged. Thus, for example, an individual may be primarily engaged in business as a salesman, and also for the purpose of the tax be engaged in the business of accepting wagers.

(c) Lay-offs. If a person engaged in the business of accepting wagers or conducting a lottery or betting pool for profits lays off all or part of the wagers placed with him with another person engaged in the business of accepting wagers or conducting a betting pool or lottery for profit, he shall, notwithstanding such lay-off, be liable for the tax on the wagers or contributions initially accepted by him. See § 44.6419-2 for credit and refund provisions applicable with respect to laid-off wagers.

§ 44.4401-3 When tax attaches.

The tax attaches when (a) a person engaged in the business of accepting wagers with respect to a sports event or a contest, or (b) a person who operates a wagering pool or lottery for profit, accepts a wager or contribution from a bettor. In the case of a wager on credit, the tax attaches whether or not the amount of the wager is actually collected from the bettor. However, if an amount equivalent to the amount of the wager is paid to the bettor prior to the close of the calendar month in which such wager was accepted, either because of the cancellation of the event upon which the wager was placed, or because the wager was cancelled or rescinded by mutual agreement, the wager need not be reported on the taxpayer's return for such month. Where such cancellation or rescission takes place in a month subsequent to the month in which the wager was accepted, credit or refund of the tax paid with respect to such wager may be made subject to the provisions of § 44.6419-1.

§ 44.4402-1 Exemptions.

(a) Parimutuel wagering enterprises. Section 4402 provides that no tax shall be imposed by section 4401 on any wager placed with, or on any wager placed in a wagering pool conducted by, a parimutuel wagering enterprise licensed under State law.

(b) Wagering machines—(1) In general. Section 4402 provides that no tax shall be imposed by section 4401 on any wager placed in a coin-operated device (as defined in section 4462 as in effect for years beginning before July 1, 1980), or on any amount paid, in lieu of inserting a coin, token, or similar object, to operate a device described in section 4462(a)(2) (as so in effect). These devices include:

(i) So-called “slot” machines that operate by means of the insertion of a coin, token, or similar object and that, by application of the element of chance, may deliver, or entitle the person playing or operating the machine to receive cash, premiums, merchandise, or tokens; and

(ii) Machines that are similar to machines described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section and are operated without the insertion of a coin, token, or similar object.

(2) Examples. The following devices and machines are examples of the devices referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section:

(i) A machine that is operated by means of the insertion of a coin, token, or similar object and that, even though it does not dispense cash or tokens, has the features and characteristics of a gaming device whether or not evidence exists as to actual payoffs.

(ii) A so-called crane machine, claw, digger, or rotary merchandising type device that is operated by the insertion of a coin and adjustment of a control lever for the purpose or removing from the machine, by gripping, pushing, or other manipulation articles such as figurines, lighters, etc., in the machine.

(iii) A pinball machine equipped with a pushbutton for releasing free plays and a meter for recording the plays so released, or equipped with provisions for multiple coin insertion for increasing the odds.

(iv) Pinball machines in connection with which free plays are redeemed in cash, tokens, or merchandise, or prizes are offered to any person for the attainment of designated scores.

(v) A coin-operated machine that displays a poker hand or delivers a ticket with a poker hand symbolized on it that entitles the player to a prize if the poker hand displayed by the machine or symbolized on the ticket constitutes a winning hand.

[T.D. 8328, 56 FR 188, Jan. 3, 1991; Redesignated and amended by T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992]

§ 44.4403-1 Daily record.

Every person liable for tax under section 4401 shall keep such records as will clearly show as to each day's operations:

(a) The gross amount of all wagers accepted;

(b) The gross amount of each class or type of wager accepted on each separate event, contest, or other wagering medium. For example, in the case of wagers accepted on a horse race, the daily record shall show separately the gross amount of each class or type of wagers (straight bets, parlays, “if” bets, etc.) accepted on each horse in the race. Similarly, in the case of the numbers game, the daily record shall show the gross amount of each class or type of wager accepted on each number.

For additional provisions relating to records, see section 6001 and § 44.6001-1.

§ 44.4404-1 Territorial extent.

(a) In general. The tax imposed by section 4401 applies to wagers (1) accepted in the United States, or (2) placed by a person who is in the United States (i) with a person who is a citizen or resident of the United States, or (ii) in a wagering pool or lottery conducted by a person who is a citizen or resident of the United States. All wagers made within the United States are taxable irrespective of the citizenship or place of residence of the parties to the wager. Thus, the tax applies to wagers placed within the United States, even though the person for whom or on whose behalf the wagers are received is located in a foreign country and is not a citizen or resident of the United States. Likewise, a wager accepted outside the United States by a citizen or resident of the United States is taxable if the person making such wager is within the United States at the time the wager is made.

(b) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of paragraph (a) of this section:

Example 1.A syndicate which maintains its headquarters in a foreign country has representatives in the United States who receive wagers in the United States for or on behalf of such syndicate. For the purposes of section 4404, such wagers are considered as accepted within the United States, the syndicate is considered to be in the business of accepting wagers within the United States, and such wagers are subject to the tax. This is true regardless of the nationality or residence of the members of the syndicate.

Example 2.A Canadian citizen employed in Detroit, Michigan, telephones a horse race bet to a bookmaker who is a United States citizen with his place of business located in Windsor, Canada. The wager is taxable since it is made by a person within the United States with a person who is a United States citizen.

Example 3.A United States citizen while visiting Tijuana, Mexico, makes a wager on the outcome of a horse race with a bookmaker who is also a United States citizen located and doing business in Tijuana. The wager is not taxable since both parties to the wager, though United States citizens, were outside the United States at the time the wager was made.

Subpart C Occupational Tax
§ 44.4411-1 Imposition of tax.

(a) In general. A special tax of $50 per year is required to be paid by each person:

(1) Who is liable for the tax imposed by section 4401, or

(2) Who is engaged in receiving wagers for or on behalf of any person who is liable for the tax imposed by section 4401.

(b) Examples. The application of paragraph (a) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A, who is engaged in the business of accepting horse race bets, employs ten persons to receive on his behalf wagers which are transmitted by telephone. A also employs a secretary and a bookkeeper. A and each of the ten persons who receives wagers by telephone on behalf of A are liable for the special tax. The secretary and bookkeeper are not liable for the special tax unless they also receive wagers for A.

Example 2.B operates a numbers game and has an arrangement with ten persons, who are employed in various capacities, such as bootblacks, elevator operators, news dealers, etc., to receive wagers from the public on his behalf. B also employs C to collect from the ten persons referred to, the wagers received by them on B's behalf and to deliver such wagers to B. C performs no other services for B. B and the ten persons who receive wagers on his behalf are liable for the special tax. C is not liable for the special tax since he is not engaged in receiving wagers for B.

(c) Cross references. For provisions relating to the payment of the special tax (computation, manner of payment, etc.), see Subpart D of this part.

§ 44.4412-1 Registration.

(a) In general. Every person required to pay the special tax imposed by section 4411 shall register and file a return on Form 11-C. For provisions relating to the general requirement for filing a return, see § 44.6011(a)-1.

(b) Information to be reported on Form 11-C. (1) Every person required to make a return on Form 11-C shall report thereon his full name and place of residence. A person doing business under an alias, style, or trade name shall give his true name, followed by his alias, style, or trade name. In the case of a partnership, association, firm, or company, other than a corporation, the style or trade name shall be given, also the true name of each member and his place of residence. In the case of a corporation, the true name and title of each officer and his place of residence shall be shown.

(2) Each person engaged in the business of accepting wagers on his own account shall report on Form 11-C the name and address of each place where such business will be conducted and the name, address, and number appearing on the special (occupational) stamp of each agent or employee who may receive wagers on his behalf. Thereafter, a return shall be filed on Form 11-C, marked “Supplemental”, each time an additional employee or agent is engaged to receive wagers. Such supplemental return shall be filed not later than 10 days after the date such additional employee or agent is engaged to receive wagers and shall show the name, address, and number appearing on the special (occupational) stamp of each such agent or employee. As to a change of address, see § 44.4905-2.

(3) Each agent or employee who receives wagers for or on behalf of a person engaged in the business of accepting wagers on his own account shall report on Form 11-C the name and residence address of each person (i.e., individual, partnership, corporation, etc.) on whose behalf wagers are to be received. Thereafter, the agent or employee shall file a return on Form 11-C, marked “Supplemental”, each time he is engaged or employed to receive wagers for a person or persons other than the person or persons previously reported on Form 11-C. Such supplemental return shall be filed not later than 10 days after the date he is engaged to receive wagers and shall show the name, business address, or, if none, the residence address of the person or persons by whom he is engaged to receive wagers. As to a change of address, see § 44.4905-2.

(c) Time and place for filing Form 11-C. For provisions relating to the time for filing Form 11-C (other than Form 11-C marked “Supplemental”), see section 6071 and § 44.6071-1. For provisions relating to the place for filing Form 11-C, see section 6091 and § 44.6091-1.

§ 44.4413-1 Certain provisions made applicable.

For regulations under sections 4901, 4902, 4904, 4905, and 4906, as extended and made applicable to the special tax imposed by section 4411 and to the persons upon whom such tax is imposed, see Subpart D of this part.

Subpart D Miscellaneous and General Provisions Applicable to Taxes on Wagering
3 Miscellaneous Provisions
§ 44.4421-1 Definitions.

(a) Wager. The term “wager” means:

(1) Any wager placed with a person engaged in the business of accepting wagers upon the outcome of a sports event or a contest;

(2) Any wager placed in a wagering pool with respect to a sports event or a contest, if such pool is conducted for profit; and

(3) Any wager placed in a lottery conducted for profit.

(b) Lottery—(1) In general. The term “lottery” includes the numbers game, policy, and similar types of wagering. In general, a lottery conducted for profit includes any scheme or method for the distribution of prizes among persons who have paid or promised a consideration for a chance to win such prizes, usually as determined by the numbers or symbols on tickets as drawn from a lottery wheel or other receptacle, or by the outcome of an event: Provided, Such lottery is conducted for profit. The term also includes enterprises commonly known as “policy” or “numbers” and similar types of wagering where the player selects a number, or a combination of numbers, and pays or agrees to pay a certain amount in consideration of which the operator of the lottery, policy, or numbers game agrees to pay a prize or fixed sum of money if the selected number or combination of numbers appear or are published in a manner understood by the parties. For example, the winning number or combination of numbers may appear or be published as a series of numbers in the payoff prices of a series of horse races at a certain race track, or in the United States Treasury balance reports, or the reports of a stock or commodity exchange. This description is not intended to be restrictive; hence, the substitution of letters or other symbols for numbers or a different arrangement for determining the winning number or combination of numbers, does not alter the fundamental nature of a game which otherwise would be considered a lottery. The operation of a punch board or a similar gaming device for profit is also considered to be the operation of a lottery.

(2) Certain games excluded—(i) Cards, dice, etc. Section 4421 specifically excludes from the term “lottery” any game of a type in which usually (a) the wagers are placed, (b) the winners are determined, and (c) the distribution of prizes or other property is made, in the presence of all persons placing wagers in such game. Thus, for example, no tax would be payable with respect to wagers made in a bingo or keno game since such a game is usually conducted under circumstances in which the wagers are placed, the winners are determined, and the distribution of prizes is made in the presence of all persons participating in the game. For the same reason, no tax would apply in the case of card games, dice games, or games involving wheels of chance, such as roulette wheels and gambling wheels of a type used at carnivals and public fairs.

(ii) Drawings conducted by an organization exempt from tax under section 501 or 521. Section 4421 specifically excludes from the term “lottery” any drawing conducted by an organization exempt from tax under section 501 or 521 if no part of the net proceeds derived from such drawing inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual. For provisions relating to exemption from income tax under section 501 or 521, see the Income Tax Regulations (Part 1 of this chapter).

(c) Other terms used—(1) Wagering pool. A wagering pool conducted for profit includes any scheme or method for the distribution of prizes to one or more winning bettors based upon the outcome of a sports event or a contest, or a combination or series of such events or contests, provided such wagering pool is managed and conducted for the purpose of making a profit.

(2) Sports event. A sports event includes every type of sports event, whether amateur, scholastic, or professional, such as horse racing, auto racing, dog racing, boxing and wrestling matches and exhibitions, baseball, football, and basketball games, tennis and golf matches, track meets, etc.

(3) Contest. A contest includes any type of contest involving speed, skill, endurance, popularity, politics, strength, appearances, etc., such as a general or primary election, the outcome of a nominating convention, a dance marathon, a log-rolling, wood-chopping, weight-lifting, corn-husking, beauty contest, etc.

(4) Conducted for profit. A wagering pool or lottery may be conducted for profit even though a direct profit will not inure from the operation thereof. A wagering pool or lottery operated with the expectancy of a profit in the form of increased sales, increased attendance, or other indirect benefits is conducted for profit for purposes of the wagering tax.

§ 44.4422-1 Doing business in violation of Federal or State law.

Payment of any special tax within the scope of the regulations in this part in nowise authorizes the carrying on of any business in violation of a law of the United States or the law of any State. The special tax stamp is not a license or permit and affords no protection from prosecution for violation of any Federal or State law. See also section 4906.

4 General Provisions Relating to Occupational Taxes
§ 44.4901-1 Payment of special tax.

(a) Condition precedent to carrying on business. No persons shall engage in the business of accepting wagers subject to the tax imposed by section 4401 until he has filed a return on Form 11-C and paid the special tax imposed by section 4411. Likewise, no person shall engage in receiving wagers for or on behalf of any person engaged in the business of accepting wagers until he has filed a return on Form 11-C and paid the special tax imposed by section 4411. For provisions relating to the tax imposed by section 4401 and the special tax imposed by section 4411, see Subparts B and C of this part, respectively.

(b) Computation of special tax. (1) Section 4411 imposes a special tax of $50 per year which is required to be paid by each person who is liable for the tax imposed by section 4401 (tax on wagers) or who is engaged in receiving wagers for or on behalf of any person who is liable for the tax imposed by section 4401. A person engaged both in accepting wagers on his own account and in receiving wagers for or on behalf of some other person is required to purchase but one special tax stamp.

(2) The tax year begins July 1 and ends June 30 of the following calendar year. Persons commencing business between August 1 and June 30 (both dates inclusive) shall pay a proportionate part of the annual tax. “Commencing business” means the initial acceptance by a person of a wager subject to the tax imposed by section 4401 or the initial receiving of a taxable wager by an agent or employee for or on behalf of some other person. Persons in business for only a portion of a month are liable for tax for the full month, i.e., a person first becoming subject to the special tax on, for example, the 20th day of a month, is liable for tax for the entire month.

(c) Tax payment evidenced by special tax stamp. (1) Upon receipt of a return on Form 11-C, together with remittance of the full amount of tax due, the district director will issue a special tax stamp as evidence of payment of the special tax.

(2) District directors will distinctly write or print on the stamp before it is delivered or mailed to the taxpayer the following information: (i) The taxpayer's registered name, and (ii) the business or office address of the taxpayer if he has one; if not, the residence address. Special tax stamps will be transmitted by ordinary mail, unless it is requested that they be transmitted by registered mail in which case additional cost to cover registry fee shall be remitted with the return.

(3) District directors and their collection officers are forbidden to issue receipts in lieu of stamps representing the payment of special taxes.

(d) Cross references. For provisions relating to registration and information required to be reported on Form 11-C, see § 44.4412-1. For other provisions relating to Form 11-C, see §§ 44.6011(a)-1 (relating to returns), 44.6071-1 (time for filing returns and other documents), and 44.6091-1 (place for filing returns or other documents).

§ 44.4902-1 Partnership liability.

Any number of persons doing business in copartnership shall be required to pay but one special tax. The district director may issue a special tax stamp to a copartnership in a firm or trade name, provided the names and addresses of all members of the partnership are disclosed on Form 11-C.

§ 44.4905-1 Change of ownership.

(a) Changes through death. Whenever any person who has paid the special tax imposed by section 4411 dies, the surviving spouse or child, or executor or administrator, or other legal representative, may carry on such business for the remainder of the term for which such special tax has been paid without any additional payment, subject to the conditions hereinafter stated. If the surviving spouse or child, or executor or administrator, or other legal representative of the deceased taxpayer continues the business, such person shall within 30 days after the date of the death of the taxpayer execute a return on Form 11-C. Such return shall show the name of the deceased taxpayer, together with all other data required to be reported on Form 11-C (see § 44.4412-1), and the stamp issued to such taxpayer shall be submitted with the return for proper notation by the district director.

(b) Changes from other causes. A receiver or trustee in bankruptcy may continue the business under the stamp issued to the taxpayer at the place and for the period for which the special tax was paid. An assignee for the benefit of creditors may continue business under his assignor's special tax stamp without incurring additional special tax liability. In such cases the change shall be registered with the district director in a manner similar to that required by paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Changes in firm. When one or more members of a firm partnership withdraw, the business may be continued by the remaining partner or partners under the same special tax stamp for the remainder of the period for which the stamp was issued to the old firm. The change shall, however, be registered in the same manner as required in paragraph (a) of this section. If new partners are taken into a firm the new firm so constituted may not carry on business under the special tax stamp of the old firm. The new firm shall make a return on Form 11-C and pay the special tax imposed by section 4411 reckoned from the first day of the month in which it began business, even though the name of such firm be the same as that of the old. If the members of a partnership, which has paid the special tax, form a corporation to continue the business a new special tax stamp must be obtained in the name of the corporation.

(d) Change in corporation. If a corporation changes its name, no additional tax is due, provided the change in name is registered with the district director in the manner required by paragraph (a) of this section. An increase in the capital stock of a corporation does not create a new special tax liability if the laws of the State under which it is incorporated permit such increase without the formation of a new corporation. A stockholder in a corporation, who after its dissolution continues the business, incurs liability for the special tax imposed by section 4411 unless he already has a special tax stamp obtained in respect of activities conducted as a sole proprietor.

§ 44.4905-2 Change of address.

(a) Procedure by taxpayer—(1) After June 30, 1963. Whenever, after June 30, 1963, a taxpayer changes his business or residence address to a location other than that specified in his last return on Form 11-C, he shall register the change with the district director from whom the special tax stamp was purchased by filing a new return, Form 11-C, designated “Supplemental Return”, setting forth the new address and the date of change. He shall so register the change of address before:

(i) He engages in any wagering activity at the new address, or

(ii) The termination of a 30-day period which begins on the day after the date of such change,

whichever occurs first. The taxpayer's special tax stamp shall accompany the supplemental return for proper notation by the district director. As to liability in case of failure to register a change of address, see § 44.4905-3.

(2) Before July 1, 1963. Whenever, before July 1, 1963, a taxpayer changes his business or residence address to a location other than that specified in his last return of Form 11-C, he shall, within 30 days after the date of such change, register the change with the district director from whom the special tax stamp was purchased by filing a new return, Form 11-C, designated “Supplemental Return”, setting forth the new address and the date of change. The taxpayer's special tax stamp shall accompany the supplemental return for proper notation by the district director. As to liability in case of failure to register a change of address, see § 44.4905-3.

(b) Procedure by district director; removal within district. When registration of a change of address within the same district is made by a taxpayer in the manner specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the district director, if necessary, will enter on his records the new address and the date of change. If the information disclosed on the supplemental return is such as to require a change on the face of the special tax stamp, the district director will make the proper change and return the stamp to the taxpayer.

(c) Procedure by district director; removal to another district. In case of removal of the taxpayer's office or principal place of business (or residence address, if he has no office or principal place of business) to another district, the district director, after noting the transfer on his records, shall transmit the special tax stamp to the district director for the district to which such office or business was removed. The latter will make an entry on his records, as in the case of an original registration in his district, correct the address on the stamp, if necessary, and note also thereon his name, title, date, and district, and then forward the stamp to the taxpayer.

[T.D. 6656, 28 FR 5720, June 12, 1963, as amended by T.D. 7087, 36 FR 505, Jan. 14, 1971]

§ 44.4905-3 Liability for failure to register change or removal.

Any person succeeding to and carrying on a business for which the special tax imposed by section 4411 has been paid, and any taxpayer changing his residence address or his place of business, without registering such change as provided in §§ 44.4905-1 and 44.4905-2 shall be liable to an additional tax, and to the penalty prescribed in section 6651 for failure to make a return. (For regulations under section 6651, see the Regulations on Procedure and Administration (Part 301 of this chapter).)

§ 44.4906-1 Cross reference.

For provisions relating to the applicability of Federal and State laws, see section 4422 and § 44.4422-1.

Subpart E Administrative Provisions of Special Application to the Taxes on Wagering
§ 44.6001-1 Record requirements.

(a) In general. (1) In addition to all other records required pursuant to § 44.4403-1, every person required to pay tax under section 4401 shall keep such records as will clearly show as to each day's operation:

(i) Separately, the gross amount of wagers:

(a) Accepted directly by the taxpayer or at any registered place of business of the taxpayer (other than laid-off wagers),

(b) Accepted for his account by agents at any place other than a registered place of business of the taxpayer (other than laid-off wagers), and

(c) Accepted as laid-off wagers from persons subject to the tax on wagers;

(ii) With respect to wagers laid off with others, the name, address, and registration number of each person with whom the laid-off wagers were placed, and the gross amount laid off with each such person, showing separately the gross amount of laid-off wagers with respect to each event, contest, or other wagering medium, as, for example, the gross amount laid off on each horse in a race; and

(iii) The gross amount of tax collected from or charged to bettors as a separate item.

(2) If a taxpayer has any agents or employees receiving wagers on his behalf, he shall maintain a separate record showing the name and address of each agent or employee, the period of employment, and the number of the special tax stamp issued to each such agent or employee.

(3) A duplicate copy of each return required by § 44.6011(a)-1 shall be retained as part of the taxpayer's records.

(b) Records of agent or employee. Every person who is engaged in receiving for or on behalf of another person (at any place other than a registered place of business of such other person) wagers of a type subject to the tax imposed by section 4401 shall keep a record showing for each day (1) the gross amount of such wagers received by him, (2) the amount, if any, retained as a commission or as compensation for receiving such wagers, and (3) the amount turned over to the person on whose behalf the wagers were received, and the name and address of such person.

(c) Record of claimants. Any person claiming a credit or refund shall keep a complete and detailed record of each overpayment and of each laid-off wager for which credit is taken or refund is claimed, including a copy of the certificate required under paragraph (d) of § 44.6419-2.

(d) Place for keeping records. Every person required to pay the tax imposed by section 4401 shall keep or cause to be kept, at his office or principal place of business, or, if he has no office or principal place of business, at his residence or some other convenient or safe location, all such records as are required pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section and section 4403 and § 44.4403-1.

(e) Period for retaining records. All records required by the regulations in this part shall at all times be available for inspection by internal revenue officers. Records required by § 44.4403-1 and by paragraph (a) of this section shall be maintained for a period of at least three years from the date the tax became due. Records required by paragraph (b) of this section shall be maintained for a period of at least three years from the date the wager was received. Records required by paragraph (c) of this section shall be maintained for a period of at least three years from the date any credit is taken or refund is claimed.

[T.D. 6370, 24 FR 2614, Apr. 4, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6568, 26 FR 7545, Aug. 15, 1961]

§ 44.6011(a)-1 Returns.

(a) In general. Every person required to pay the tax on wagers imposed by section 4401 of the Code shall make for each month, from the daily records required by §§ 44.4403-1 and 44.6001-1, a return on Form 730 in accordance with the instructions and regulations applicable thereto. A return shall be made for each month whether or not liability has been incurred for that month. If the taxpayer ceases operations which make him liable for the tax, the last return shall be marked “Final Return”.

(b) Return on Form 11-C. Every person required to pay the special tax imposed by section 4411 shall make a return on Form 11-C in accordance with the instructions and regulations applicable thereto.

§ 44.6060-1 Reporting requirements for tax return preparers.

(a) In general. A person that employs one or more tax return preparers to prepare a return or claim for refund of tax on wagers under sections 4401 or 4411, other than for the person, at any time during a return period, shall satisfy the record keeping and inspection requirements in the manner stated in § 1.6060-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 44.6071-1 Time for filing return.

(a) Return on Form 730. Each return required to be made on Form 730 pursuant to § 44.6011(a)-1 shall be filed on or before the last day of the first calendar month following the period for which it is made. For provisions relating to the time for filing a return when the prescribed due date falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday, see the provisions of the Regulations on Procedure and Administration (part 301 of this chapter) under section 7503.

(b) Return on Form 11C. (1) The first return required to be made on Form 11-C shall be filed to cover the period beginning with the first day of the calendar month in which a person engages (or expects to engage) in activities which make him liable for the special tax imposed by section 4411 and ending with the following June 30. Thereafter, each return required to be made on Form 11-C shall be filed on or before July 1 to cover a 1-year period (beginning July 1 and ending June 30 of the following calendar year) during which taxable activity continues.

(2) For additional provisions relating to the return on Form 11-C, see § 44.4412-1 and §§ 44.4901-1 to 44.4905-3, inclusive.

§ 44.6091-1 Place for filing returns.

(a) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a return on Form 730 or Form 11-C shall be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office that serves the legal residence or principal place of business of the person making the return.

(b) Returns of individuals outside the United States. The returns on Form 730 and Form 11-C of individuals (whether citizens of the United States, citizens of possessions of the United States, or aliens) outside the United States having no legal residence or principal place of business in the United States shall be filed with the Internal Revenue Service Center, Cincinnati, Ohio 45999, or as otherwise directed in the applicable forms and instructions.

(c) Returns filed with service centers. Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, whenever instructions applicable to returns filed on Form 730 of Form 11-C provide that the returns be filed with a service center, the returns shall be so filed in accordance with the instructions.

(d) Hand-carried returns. Returns which are filed by hand carrying shall be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive hand-carried returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office as provided in paragraph (a) of this section. See § 301.6091-1(c) of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Admininstration) for provisions relating to the definition of hand carried.

[T.D. 6370, 24 FR 2614, Apr. 4, 1959, as amended by T.D. 7630, 44 FR 40498, July 11, 1979; T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48185, Oct. 22, 1992; T.D. 9156, 69 FR 55746, Sept. 16, 2004]

§ 44.6107-1 Tax return preparer must furnish copy of return to taxpayer and must retain a copy or record.

(a) In general. A person who is a signing tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of tax on wagers under sections 4401 or 4411 shall furnish a completed copy of the return or claim for refund to the taxpayer, and retain a completed copy or record in the manner stated in § 1.6107-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable for returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 44.6109-1 Tax return preparers furnishing identifying numbers for returns or claims for refund.

(a) In general. Each tax return or claim for refund of tax under sections 4401 or 4411 prepared by one or more signing tax return preparers must include the identifying number of the preparer required by § 1.6695-1(b) of this chapter to sign the return or claim for refund in the manner stated in § 1.6109-2 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable for returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 44.6151-1 Time and place for paying taxes.

The taxes imposed by sections 4401 and 4411 shall, without assessment or notice and demand, be paid to the internal revenue officer with whom the returns are required to be filed at the time fixed for filing returns. For provisions relating to the time for filing returns, see section 6071 and § 44.6071-1. For provisions relating to the place for filing returns, see section 6091 and § 44.6091-1.

§ 44.6419-1 Credit or refund generally.

(a) Overpayment of wagering tax; in general. If a person overpays the tax imposed under section 4401, he may either file a claim for refund on Form 843 or take credit for such overpayment against the tax due on a subsequent monthly return. A complete statement of the facts involving the overpayment shall be attached either to the claim or to the return on which the credit is claimed. Every claim for refund shall be supported by evidence showing the name and address of the taxpayer, the date of payment of the tax, and the amount of such tax. A credit taken on a return shall be supported by evidence of the same character.

(b) Statement supporting credit or refund. No credit or refund shall be allowed whether in pursuance of a court decision or otherwise unless the taxpayer files a statement explaining satisfactorily the reason for claiming the credit or refund and establishing (1) that he has not collected (whether as a separate charge or otherwise) the amount of the tax from the person who placed the wager on which the tax was imposed, or (2) that he has either repaid the amount of the tax to the person who placed the wager or has secured the written consent of such person to the allowance of the credit or refund. In the latter case, the written consent of the person who placed the wager shall accompany the statement filed with the credit or refund claim. The statement supporting the credit or refund claim shall also show whether any previous claim for credit or refund covering the amount involved, or any part thereof, has been filed. If the overpayment of tax relates to a laid-off wager accepted by the taxpayer, no credit or refund shall be allowed or made unless the taxpayer complies with the provisions of the first sentence of this paragraph, not only as to the person who placed the laid-off wager, but also with respect to the person who placed the original wager.

(c) Limitation on credit or refund. No claim for credit or refund of a tax shall be allowed unless presented within the period of limitations prescribed in section 6511. (For regulations under section 6511, see the Regulations on Procedure and Administration (part 301 of this chapter).)

§ 44.6419-2 Credit or refund on wagers laid off by taxpayer.

(a) Laid-off wagers; in general. If a taxpayer accepts a wager and lays off all or a part thereof with another person who is liable for tax under section 4401 with respect to such laid-off wager, a credit may be allowed to such taxpayer in the amount of the tax due with respect to the amount of the wager so laid off, provided there is attached to the return for the month during which the wager was accepted and laid off by him the certificate prescribed in paragraph (d) of this section.

(b) Claim for refund. If a taxpayer has paid the tax with respect to a wager laid off by him, he may file a claim for refund of such tax on Form 843 or take a credit for the tax paid by him against the tax shown to be due on any subsequent monthly return. If a refund is claimed, Form 843 shall be completed in accordance with the instructions thereon and, in addition, there shall be attached to such form a statement setting forth the reason for claiming the refund, the month in which such tax was paid, the date of payment, and whether any previous claim for refund covering the amount involved or any part thereof has been filed. There shall also be attached to the Form 843 the certificate prescribed below. In the case of a credit, the statement and certificate shall be attached to the monthly return on which the credit is claimed.

(c) Credit or refund not allowed. No credit or refund will be allowed under this section if the wager is laid off with a person or organization not liable for tax under section 4401 with respect to such laid-off wager. No interest shall be allowed on any amount of tax credited or refunded under this section.

(d) Certificate required. The certificate prescribed for use in support of a credit or refund with respect to a laid-off wager shall be in the following form:

Certificate (In support of credit or refund with respect to laid-off wagers under section 6419(b) of the Internal Revenue Code.)

I hereby certify that I, or the __________ (Corporation, partnership, or syndicate) of which I am an officer or member, doing business at ________________________, (Address) registered with the District Director of Internal Revenue at ____________________, ____________________ under Registration No. ________ as a person accepting wagers within the meaning of section 4401 of the Internal Revenue Code, accepted laid-off wagers, in the amounts and on the dates indicated below, from __________________, (Name) ________________, (Address) during the month of ________________, 19____.

Date | Amount of laid-off wager | Subject of laid-off wager (Identify horse and track, particular contest, or contestant, etc.)

(Attach supplemental sheets for additional entries, if necessary.)

The undersigned further certifies that he, or the corporation, partnership, or syndicate of which he is a member will make return of and account for the tax, under section 4401 of the Internal Revenue Code, with respect to the laid-off wagers so accepted.

It is understood by the undersigned that this certificate is given for the purpose of enabling the person from whom the laid-off wagers were accepted to claim credit with respect to the tax due on such laid-off wagers or to claim credit or refund of the tax, if any, paid on such laid-off wagers.

It is further understood that the fraudulent use of this certificate will subject the undersigned and all guilty parties to a fine of not more than $10,000 or to imprisonment for not more than five years, or both, together with costs of prosecution.

(Signed) (Date) (Title) (Owner, President Partner, Member, etc.)

§ 44.6694-1 Section 6694 penalties applicable to tax return preparer.

(a) In general. For general definitions regarding section 6694 penalties applicable to preparers of wagering tax returns or claims for refund under sections 4401 or 4411, see § 1.6694-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 44.6694-2 Penalties for understatement due to an unreasonable position.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of tax on wagers under sections 4401 or 4411 shall be subject to penalties under section 6694(a) in the manner stated in § 1.6694-2 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78456, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 44.6694-3 Penalty for understatement due to willful, reckless, or intentional conduct.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of tax on wagers under sections 4401 or 4411 shall be subject to penalties under section 6694(b) in the manner stated in § 1.6694-3 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 44.6694-4 Extension of period of collection when preparer pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and certain other procedural matters.

(a) In general. For rules relating to the extension of period of collection when a tax return preparer who prepared a return or claim for refund for tax on wagers under sections 4401 or 4411 pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and procedural matters relating to the investigation, assessment and collection of the penalties under section 6694(a) and (b), the rules under § 1.6694-4 of this chapter will apply.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 44.6695-1 Other assessable penalties with respect to the preparation of tax returns for other persons.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of tax on wagers under sections 4401 or 4411 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) shall be subject to penalties for failure to furnish a copy to the taxpayer under section 6695(a) of the Code, failure to sign the return under section 6695(b) of the Code, failure to furnish an identification number under section 6695(c) of the Code, failure to retain a copy or list under section 6695(d) of the Code, failure to file a correct information return under section 6695(e) of the Code, and negotiation of a check under section 6695(f) of the Code, in the manner stated in § 6695-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008; 74 FR 5106, Jan. 29, 2009]

§ 44.6696-1 Claims for credit or refund by tax return preparers.

(a) In general. For rules for claims for credit or refund by a tax return preparer who prepared a return or claim for refund for tax on wagers under sections 4401 or 4411, the rules under § 1.6696-1 of this chapter will apply.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 44.7262-1 Failure to pay special tax.

Any person liable for the special tax who does any act which makes him liable for such tax, without having paid the tax, is, besides being liable for the tax, subject to a fine of not less than $1,000 and not more than $5,000.

§ 44.7701-1 Tax return preparer.

(a) In general. For the definition of a tax return preparer, see § 301.7701-15 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

PART 46 EXCISE TAX ON CERTAIN INSURANCE POLICIES, SELF-INSURED HEALTH PLANS, AND OBLIGATIONS NOT IN REGISTERED FORM

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805.

Source: T.D. 8497, 25 FR 6461, May 6, 1960, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Introduction
§ 46.0-1 Introduction.

The regulations in this part 46 relate to the taxes on certain insurance policies and self-insured health plans imposed by chapter 34 of the Internal Revenue Code and the tax on the issuer of registration-required obligations not issued in registered form imposed by chapter 39 of the Internal Revenue Code. See part 40 of this chapter for regulations relating to returns, payments, and deposits of taxes imposed by chapters 34 and 39.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48185, Oct. 22, 1992, as amended by T.D. 9602, 77 FR 72728, Dec. 6, 2012]

Subpart B Tax on Policies Issued by Foreign Insurers
§ 46.4371-1 Applicability of subpart.

The provisions of this subpart apply only to premiums paid on or after January 1, 1966. See subpart H, part 47 of this chapter for provisions relating to premiums paid or charged before January 1, 1966. If any portion of the tax imposed by section 4371 was paid on the basis of the premium charged before January 1, 1966, in accordance with the provisions of § 47.4371-2 of this chapter (documentary stamp tax), then, to the extent that such portion was paid by stamp, no further tax is due under the provisions of this subpart.

§ 46.4371-2 Imposition of tax on policies issued by foreign insurers; scope of tax.

(a) Certain insurance policies, and indemnity, fidelity, or surety bonds. Section 4371(1) imposes a tax upon each policy of insurance (other than those referred to in paragraph (b) of this section), upon each indemnity, fidelity, or surety bond, or upon each certificate, binder, covering note, receipt, memorandum, cablegram, letter, or other instrument by whatever name called, whereby a contract of insurance or an obligation in the nature of an indemnity, fidelity, or surety bond is made, continued, or renewed, if issued:

(1) By a nonresident alien individual, a foreign partnership, or a foreign corporation, as insurer (unless the policy or other instrument is signed or countersigned by an officer or agent of the insurer in a State, Territory, or the District of Columbia in which the insurer is authorized to do business); and either

(2) To or for, or in the name of, a domestic corporation, domestic partnership, or an individual resident of the United States, against or with respect to hazards, risks, losses, or liabilities wholly or partly within the United States; or

(3) To or for, or in the name of, a foreign corporation, foreign partnership, or nonresident individual, engaged in a trade or business within the United States with respect to hazards, risks, or liabilities wholly within the United States.

For definition of the term “indemnity bond,” see section 4372(c).

(b) Life insurance, sickness, and accident policies, and annuity contracts. Unless the insurer is subject to tax under section 819, section 4371(2) imposes a tax upon each policy of insurance or annuity contract, or upon each certificate, binder, covering note, receipt, memorandum, cablegram, letter, or other instrument by whatever name called, whereby a contract of insurance or an annuity contract is made, continued, or renewed, if issued:

(1) By a nonresident alien individual, a foreign partnership, or a foreign corporation, as insurer (unless the policy or other instrument is signed or countersigned by an officer or agent of the insurer in a State, Territory, or the District of Columbia in which such insurer is authorized to do business); and

(2) To any person with respect to the life or hazards to the person of a citizen or resident of the United States.

(c) Reinsurance. Section 4371(3) imposes a tax upon each policy of reinsurance, certificate, binder, covering note, receipt, memorandum, cablegram, letter, or other instrument by whatever name called, whereby a contract of reinsurance is made, continued, or renewed, if issued:

(1) By a nonresident alien individual, a foreign partnership, or a foreign corporation, as reinsurer (unless the policy or other instrument is signed or countersigned by an officer or agent of the reinsurer in a State, Territory, or the District of Columbia in which such reinsurer is authorized to do business); and

(2) To any person against, or with respect to, any of the hazards, risks, losses, or liabilities covered by contracts of the type described in section 4371 (1) or (2).

(d) Exempt indemnity bonds. The tax imposed by section 4371 does not apply to any indemnity bond described in section 4373(2).

§ 46.4371-3 Rate and computation of tax.

(a) Rate of tax. (1) The tax under section 4371(1) is imposed at the rate of 4 cents on each dollar, or fractional part thereof, of the premium payment.

(2) The tax under section 4371 (2) and (3) is imposed at the rate of 1 cent on each dollar, or fractional part thereof, of the premium payment.

(b) Meaning of premium payment. For purposes of this subpart, the term “premium payment” means the consideration paid for assuming and carrying the risk or obligation, and includes any additional assessment or charge paid under the contract, whether payable in one sum or installments.

§ 46.4371-4 Records required with respect to foreign insurance policies.

(a) Each person required under the provisions of § 46.4374-1 to remit the tax imposed by section 4371 shall keep or cause to be kept accurate records of all policies or other instruments subject to such tax upon which premiums have been paid. Such records must identify each such policy or other instrument in such a manner as to clearly establish the following: (1) The gross premium paid; (2) whether such policy or other instrument is (i) a policy of casualty insurance or an indemnity bond subject to tax under section 4371(1), (ii) a policy of life, sickness, or accident insurance or an annuity contract subject to tax under section 4371(2), or (iii) a policy of reinsurance subject to tax under section 4371(3); (3) the identity of the insured (as defined in section 4372(d)); (4) the identity of the foreign insurer or reinsurer (as defined in section 4372(a)); and (5) the total premium charged and, if the premium is to be paid in installments, the amount and anniversary date of each such installment.

(b) The records required under the provisions of this section must be kept on file at the place of business or at some other convenient location, for a period of at least 3 years from the date any part of the tax became due or the date any part of the tax is paid, whichever is later, in such manner as to be readily accessible to authorized internal revenue officers or employees. The person having control or possession of a policy or other instrument subject to tax under section 4371 shall retain such policy or other instrument for at least 3 years from the date any part of the tax with respect to such policy was paid.

[T.D. 7023, 35 FR 1012, Jan. 24, 1970. Redesignated by T.D. 8328, 56 FR 189, Jan. 3, 1991, as amended by T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992]

§ 46.4374-1 Liability for tax.

(a) In general. Any person who makes, signs, issues, or sells any of the documents and instruments subject to the tax, or for whose use or benefit the same are made, signed, issued, or sold, shall be liable for the tax imposed by section 4371. For purposes of this section, in the case of a reinsurance policy that is subject to the tax imposed by section 4371(3), other than assumption reinsurance, the insured person on the underlying insurance policy, the risk of which is covered in whole or in part by such reinsurance policy, shall not constitute a person for whose use or benefit the reinsurance policy is made, signed, issued, or sold.

(b) When liability for tax attaches. The liability for the tax imposed by section 4371 shall attach at the time the premium payment is transferred to the foreign insurer or reinsurer (including transfers to any bank, trust fund, or similar recipient, designated by the foreign insurer or reinsurer), or to any nonresident agent, solicitor, or broker. A person required to pay tax under this section may remit such tax before the time the tax attaches if he keeps records consistent with such practice.

(c) Payment of tax. The tax imposed by section 4371 shall be paid on the basis of a return by the person who makes payment of the premium to a foreign insurer or reinsurer or to any nonresident agent, solicitor, or broker. If the tax is not paid by the person who paid the premium, the tax imposed by section 4371 shall be paid on the basis of a return by any person who makes, signs, issues, or sells any of the documents or instruments subject to the tax imposed by section 4371, or for whose use or benefit such document or instrument is made, signed, issued, or sold.

(d) Penalty for failure to pay tax. Any person who fails to comply with the requirements of this section with intent to evade the tax shall, in addition to other penalties provided therefor, pay a fine of double the amount of tax. (See section 7270.)

(e) Effective date. This section is applicable for premiums paid on or after November 27, 2002.

[T.D. 9024, 67 FR 70846, Nov. 27, 2002]

Subpart C Fees on Insured and Self-insured Health Plans

Source: T.D. 9602, 77 FR 72728, Dec. 6, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 46.4375-1 Fee on issuers of specified health insurance policies.

(a) In general. An issuer of a specified health insurance policy is liable for a fee imposed by section 4375 for policy years ending on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2019. Paragraph (b) of this section provides definitions that apply for purposes of section 4375 and this section. Paragraph (c) of this section provides rules for calculating the fee under section 4375. Paragraph (d) of this section provides the applicability date. For rules relating to filing the required return and paying the fee, see §§ 40.6011(a)-1 and 40.6071(a)-1 of this chapter.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply for purposes of section 4375 and this section. See also § 46.4377-1 for additional definitions.

(1) Specified health insurance policy—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and § 46.4377-1, specified health insurance policy means any accident and health insurance policy (including a policy under a group health plan) issued with respect to individuals residing in the United States (as defined in § 46.4377-1(a)(2)), including prepaid health coverage arrangements described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Specified health insurance policy also includes any policy that provides accident and health coverage to an active employee, former employee, or qualifying beneficiary, as continuation coverage required under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (COBRA) or similar continuation coverage under other Federal law or state law.

(ii) Exceptions. The term specified health insurance policy does not include—

(A) Any insurance policy if substantially all of its coverage is of excepted benefits described in section 9832(c);

(B) Any group policy issued to an employer where the facts and circumstances show that the group policy was designed and issued specifically to cover primarily employees who are working and residing outside of the United States (as defined in § 46.4377-1(a)(3));

(C) Any stop loss or indemnity reinsurance policy; or

(D) Any insurance policy to the extent it provides an employee assistance program, disease management program, or wellness program if the program does not provide significant benefits in the nature of medical care or treatment.

(iii) Stop loss policy. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, stop loss policy means an insurance policy in which—

(A) The insurer that issues the policy to a person establishing or maintaining a self-insured health plan becomes liable for all, or an agreed upon portion of, losses that person incurs in covering the applicable lives in excess of a specified amount; and

(B) The person establishing or maintaining the self-insured health plan retains its liability to, and its contractual relationship with, the applicable lives covered.

(iv) Indemnity reinsurance policy. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, indemnity reinsurance policy means an agreement between two or more insurance companies under which—

(A) The reinsuring company agrees to accept and to indemnify the issuing company for all or part of the risk of loss under policies specified in the agreement; and

(B) The issuing company retains its liability to, and its contractual relationship with, the applicable lives covered.

(2) Prepaid health coverage arrangement. The term prepaid health coverage arrangement means an arrangement under which fixed payments or premiums are received as consideration for a person's agreement to provide or arrange for the provision of accident and health coverage to individuals residing in the United States, regardless of how such coverage is provided or arranged to be provided. For example, any hospital or medical service policy or certificate, hospital or medical service plan contract, or health maintenance organization contract is a specified health insurance policy.

(c) Calculation of fee—(1) In general. The amount of the fee for a policy for a policy year is equal to the product of the average number of lives covered under the policy for the policy year (determined in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section) and the applicable dollar amount (determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section). For purposes of computing the fee under this paragraph (c), in the case of an issuer that determines the average number of lives covered for all policies in effect during a calendar year using the member months method under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section or the state form method under paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section, the applicable dollar amount with respect to such issuer's policies for such calendar year is the applicable dollar amount for policy years ending on December 31 of such calendar year (determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section), except that the applicable dollar amount with respect to such an issuer's policies for calendar year 2019 is the applicable dollar amount for policy years ending on September 30, 2019. For more information, see the examples in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(B), (c)(2)(iv)(B), (c)(2)(v)(B), and (c)(2)(vi)(B) of this section.

(2) Determination of the average number of lives covered under a policy—(i) In general. To determine the average number of lives covered under a specified health insurance policy during a policy year, an issuer must use one of the following methods—

(A) The actual count method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section);

(B) The snapshot method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section);

(C) The member months method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section); or

(D) The state form method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section).

(ii) Consistency requirements. An issuer must use the same method of calculating the average number of lives covered under a policy consistently for the duration of the year. In addition, for all policies for which a liability is reported on a Form 720, “Quarterly Federal Excise Tax Return,” for a particular year, the issuer must use the same method of computing lives covered. An issuer that determines the average number of lives covered by using the actual count method described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section or the snapshot method described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section may change its method of computing the average lives covered to the snapshot method or actual count method, respectively, provided that the issuer uses the same method for computing the average lives covered for all policies for which a liability is reported on the Form 720 for that year. For example, an issuer with a policy having a policy year that ends on June 30, Policy A, may determine the average number of lives covered under Policy A for July 1, 2013, to June 30, 2014, using the actual count method if the issuer uses the actual count method for all policies for which a liability will be reported on the Form 720 due by July 31, 2015 (the due date for return that will include the liability for the July 2013 to June 2014 policy year for Policy A). The issuer may change its method for determining the average number of lives covered under Policy A to the snapshot method for the July 1, 2014, to June 30, 2015, policy year, provided that the snapshot method is used for all policies for which a liability will be reported on the Form 720 due by July 31, 2016 (the due date for return that will include the liability for the July 2014 to June 2015 policy year for Policy A). An issuer that determines the average number of lives covered by using the member months method under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section or the state form method under paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section must use the same method for calculating lives covered for all policy years for which the fee applies.

(iii) Actual count method—(A) Calculation method. An issuer may determine the average number of lives covered under a policy for a policy year by adding the total number of lives covered for each day of the policy year and dividing that total by the number of days in the policy year.

(B) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section:

Example.Insurance Company A issues three policies that are in effect during 2014, Group Health Insurance Policy A, which has a policy year from December 1 to November 30, Group Health Insurance Policy B, which has a policy year from March 1 to February 28, and Group Health Insurance Policy C, which has a policy year from January 1 to December 31. To calculate the average number of lives covered for 2014, Insurance Company A must calculate the average number of lives covered for each of its three policies for the policy year that ends in 2014. Insurance Company A chooses to use the actual count method under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section to determine average lives covered for policies having a policy year that ends in 2014. Insurance Company A calculates the sum of lives covered under Policy A for each day of the policy year ending November 30, 2014, as 3,285,000. The average number of lives covered under Policy A for the policy year ending November 30, 2014, is 3,285,000 divided by 365, or 9,000. Insurance Company A calculates the sum of lives covered under Policy B for each day of the policy year ending February 28, 2014, as 547,500. The average number of lives covered under Policy B for the policy year ending on February 28, 2014, is 547,500 divided by 365, or 1,500. Insurance Company A calculates the sum of lives covered under Policy C for each day of the policy year ending December 31, 2014, as 4,380,000. The average number of lives covered under Policy C for the policy year ending December 31, 2014, is 4,380,000 divided by 365, or 12,000. To calculate the section 4375 fee under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for calendar year 2014, Insurance Company A must first determine the applicable dollar amount for each policy under paragraph (c)(4) of this section and multiply that amount by the average number of lives covered for that policy. Insurance Company A then adds the total fees for all three policies to determine the total fee under section 4375 that it must pay for calendar year 2014.

(iv) Snapshot method—(A) Calculation method. An issuer may determine the average number of lives covered under a policy for a policy year by adding the totals of lives covered on a date during the first, second, or third month of each quarter (or more dates in each quarter if an equal number of dates is used for each quarter), and dividing that total by the number of dates on which a count is made. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A), each date used for the second, third and fourth quarters must be within three days of the date in that quarter that corresponds to the date used for the first quarter, and all dates used must be within the same policy year. If an issuer uses multiple dates for the first quarter, the issuer must use dates in the second, third, and fourth quarters that correspond to each of the dates used for the first quarter or are within three days of such corresponding dates, and all dates used must be within the same policy year. The 30th and 31st day of a month are treated as the last day of the month for purposes of determining the corresponding date for any month that has fewer than 31 days (for example, if either March 30 or March 31 is used as a counting date for a calendar year policy, June 30 is the corresponding date for the second quarter).

(B) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section:

Example. (i) Insurance Company B issues three policies with 12-month policy years that end in 2014, Group Health Insurance Policy A, which has a policy year from December 1 to November 30, Group Health Insurance Policy B, which has a policy year from March 1 to February 28, and Group Health Insurance Policy C, which has a policy year from January 1 to December 31. To calculate the average number of lives covered for 2014, Insurance Company B must calculate the average number of lives covered for each of its three policies for the policy year that ends in 2014. Insurance Company B chooses to determine the average lives covered using the snapshot method for all policies that have a policy year that ends in 2014 and chooses to count lives covered on a single date of the first month of each quarter of the policy years. Thus, for Policy A, Insurance Company B must count lives covered on a single date falling in each of December 2013, March 2014, June 2014 and September 2014; for Policy B, Insurance Company B must count lives covered on a single date falling in each of March 2014, June 2014, September 2014 and December 2014; and for Policy C, Insurance Company B must count lives covered on a single date falling in each of January 2014, April 2014, July 2014 and October 2014. In addition, the date for each of the second, third, and fourth quarters must fall within three days of the date in such quarter that corresponds to the date used for the first quarter, and must fall within the same policy year.

(ii) On December 6, 2013, Policy A covers 8,900 lives, on March 7, 2014, 9,100 lives, on June 6, 2014, 9,050 lives, and on September 5, 2014, 9,050 lives. Insurance Company B treats the average number of lives covered under Policy A for the policy year ending November 30, 2014, as 36,100 (8,900 + 9,100 + 9,050 + 9,050) divided by 4, or 9,025.

(iii) On March 4, 2013, Policy B covers 1,500 lives, on June 7, 2013, 1,350 lives, on September 6, 2013, 1,400 lives, and on December 6, 2013, 1,550 lives. Insurance Company B treats the average number of lives covered under Policy B for the policy year ending February 28, 2014, as 5,800 (1,500 + 1,350 + 1,400 + 1,550) divided by 4, or 1,450.

(iv) On January 6, 2014, Policy C covers 12,500 lives, on April 4, 2014, 12,250 lives, on July 7, 2014, 12,000 lives, and on October 3, 2014, 11,250 lives. Insurance Company B treats the average number of lives covered under Policy C for the policy year ending December 31, 2014, as 47,750 (12,500 + 12,250 + 12,000 + 11,250) divided by 4, or 12,000.

(v) To calculate the section 4375 fee under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for calendar year 2014, Insurance Company B must first determine the applicable dollar amount for each policy under paragraph (c)(4) of this section and multiply that amount by the number of average lives covered for that policy. Insurance Company B then adds the total fees for all three policies to determine the total fee under section 4375 that it must pay for calendar year 2014.

(v) Member months method—(A) Calculation method. An issuer may determine the average number of lives covered under all policies in effect for a calendar year based on the member months (an amount that equals the sum of the totals of lives covered on pre-specified days in each month of the reporting period) reported on the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) Supplemental Health Care Exhibit filed for that calendar year. Under this method, the average number of lives covered under the policies in effect for the calendar year equals the member months divided by 12.

(B) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(v)(A) of this section:

Example.Insurance Company C chooses to determine the average number of lives covered for all years to which the section 4375 fee applies using the member months method of paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A) of this section. Insurance Company C reports 12,000,000 as its member months on the NAIC Supplemental Health Care Exhibit filed for calendar year 2013. Under the member months method, Insurance Company C calculates the average number of lives covered for all its specified health insurance policies in force during calendar year 2013 by dividing 12,000,000 (member months) by 12 (number of months in the reporting period), which equals 1,000,000. To determine the section 4375 fee it must pay for calendar year 2013, Insurance Company C multiplies 1,000,000 by the applicable dollar amount that is in effect at the end of the calendar year under paragraph (c)(4) of this section.

(vi) State form method—(A) Calculation method. An issuer that is not required to file NAIC annual financial statements may determine the number of lives covered under all policies in effect for the calendar year using a form that is filed with the issuer's state of domicile and a method similar to that described in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section, if the form reports the number of lives covered in the same manner as member months are reported on the NAIC Supplemental Health Care Exhibit.

(B) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(vi)(A) of this section:

Example.Insurance Company D is not required to file the NAIC Supplemental Health Care Exhibit, but files a form with its state of domicile. Insurance Company D chooses to determine the average number of lives covered for all years to which the section 4375 fee applies using the state form method of paragraph (c)(2)(vi)(A) of this section. The state form reports the number of lives covered in the same manner as member months is reported on the NAIC Supplemental Health Care Exhibit. For calendar year 2013, Insurance Company D reports 12,000,000 as its equivalent member months on the state form. Under the state form method, Insurance Company D calculates the average number of lives covered for all of its specified health insurance policies in force during calendar year 2013 by dividing 12,000,000 (equivalent member months) by 12 (number of months in the reporting period), which equals 1,000,000. To determine the section 4375 fee it must pay for calendar year 2013, Insurance Company D multiplies 1,000,000 by the applicable dollar amount that is in effect at the end of the calendar year under paragraph (c)(4) of this section.

(3) Special rules for the first year and the last year the fee is in effect—(i) Calculation of the average number of lives covered under the policy for the first year the fee is in effect. For issuers that determine the average number of lives covered using data reported on the 2012 NAIC Supplemental Health Care Exhibit or a permitted state form that covers the 2012 calendar year, the average number of lives covered under all policies in effect for the 2012 calendar year equals the average number of lives covered for that year (as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(v) or (vi) of this section) multiplied by 1/4. The resulting number is deemed to be the average number of lives covered for policies with policy years ending on or after October 1, 2012, and before January 1, 2013. For policy years beginning before May 14, 2012, and ending on or after October 1, 2012, issuers that determine the average number of lives covered using the actual count method under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section may calculate the average number of lives covered using data from the period beginning May 14, 2012, through the end of the policy year. For policy years beginning before May 14, 2012, and ending on or after October 1, 2012, issuers that determine the average number of lives covered using the snapshot method under paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section may calculate the average number of lives covered using dates from the quarters remaining in the policy year starting on or after May 14, 2012. If an abbreviated year is used, the issuer will divide the number of lives covered by the number of days from May 14, 2012, through the end of the policy year (for the actual count method) or the number of days on which a count was made (for the snapshot method).

(ii) Calculation of the average number of lives covered under the policy for the last year the fee is in effect. For issuers that determine the average number of lives covered using data reported on the 2019 NAIC Supplemental Health Care Exhibit or a permitted state form that covers the 2019 calendar year, the average number of lives covered for all policies in effect during the 2019 calendar year equals the average number of lives covered for that year (as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(v) or (vi) of this section) multiplied by 3/4. The resulting number is deemed to be the average number of lives covered for policies with policy years ending on or after January 1, 2019, and before October 1, 2019.

(iii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of paragraph (c)(3) of this section:

Example 1.Insurance Company E issues Group Health Insurance Policy C, which has a policy year that ends on November 30, 2012. Insurance Company E determines the average number of lives covered under a policy by using the actual count method. Under that method, for that policy year, Insurance Company E calculates the sum of lives covered under Policy C for each day between May 14, 2012, and November 30, 2012, as 10,000. The average number of lives covered under Policy C for that policy year is 10,000 divided by the number of days from May 14, 2012, through November 30, 2012. Alternatively, Insurance Company E could have counted the number of lives covered for the entire policy year and divided the sum by 365.

Example 2.Insurance Company F reports 12,000,000 as its member months on its NAIC Supplemental Health Care Exhibit filed for calendar year 2012. Under the member months method, Insurance Company F calculates the average number of lives covered for 2012 by dividing 12,000,000 (member months) by 12 (number of months in the reporting period), and then multiplying the result (1,000,000) by 1/4, which equals 250,000. Accordingly, the average number of lives covered for policies with policy years ending on or after October 1, 2012, and before January 1, 2013, is 250,000.

(4) Applicable dollar amount. For policy years ending on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2013, the applicable dollar amount is $1. For policy years ending on or after October 1, 2013, and before October 1, 2014, the applicable dollar amount is $2. For any policy year ending in any Federal fiscal year beginning on or after October 1, 2014, the applicable dollar amount is the sum of—

(i) The applicable dollar amount for the policy year ending in the previous Federal fiscal year; plus

(ii) The amount equal to the product of—

(A) The applicable dollar amount for the policy year ending in the previous Federal fiscal year; and

(B) The percentage increase in the projected per capita amount of the National Health Expenditures most recently released by the Department of Health and Human Services before the beginning of the Federal fiscal year.

(d) Effective/Applicability date. This section applies for policies with policy years ending on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2019.

§ 46.4376-1 Fee on sponsors of self-insured health plans.

(a) In general—(1) General rule. A plan sponsor of an applicable self-insured health plan is liable for a fee imposed by section 4376 for plans with plan years ending on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2019. Paragraph (b) of this section provides the definitions that apply for purposes of section 4376 and this section. Paragraph (c) of this section provides the requirements for calculating the fee imposed by section 4376. Paragraph (d) of this section provides the applicability date. For rules relating to filing the required return and paying the fee, see §§ 40.6011(a)-1 and 40.6071(a)-1.

(2) [Reserved]

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply for purposes of section 4376 and this section. See § 46.4377-1 for additional definitions.

(1) Applicable self-insured health plan—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and § 46.4377-1, applicable self-insured health plan means a plan that provides for accident and health coverage (within the meaning of § 46.4377-1(a)) if any portion of the coverage is provided other than through an insurance policy and the plan is established or maintained—

(A) By one or more employers for the benefit of their employees or former employees;

(B) By one or more employee organizations for the benefit of their members or former members;

(C) Jointly by one or more employers and one or more employee organizations for the benefit of employees or former employees;

(D) By a voluntary employees' beneficiary association, as described in section 501(c)(9);

(E) By an organization described in section 501(c)(6); or

(F) By a multiple employer welfare arrangement (as defined in section 3(40) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA)), a rural electric cooperative (as defined in section 3(40)(B)(iv) of ERISA), or a rural cooperative association (as defined in section 3(40)(B)(v) of ERISA).

(ii) Exceptions. The term applicable self-insured health plan does not include any of the following:

(A) A plan that provides benefits substantially all of which are excepted benefits, as defined in section 9832(c). For example, a health flexible spending arrangement (health FSA) (as described in section 106(c)(2)) that satisfies the requirements to be treated as an excepted benefit under section 9832(c) and § 54.9831-1(c)(3)(v) of this chapter is not an applicable self-insured health plan. A health FSA that is not treated as an excepted benefit under section 9832(c) and § 54.9831-1(c)(3)(v) is an applicable self-insured health plan.

(B) An employee assistance program, disease management program, or wellness program if the program does not provide significant benefits in the nature of medical care or treatment.

(C) A plan that, as demonstrated by the facts and circumstances surrounding the adoption and operation of the plan, was designed specifically to cover primarily employees who are working and residing outside the United States (as defined in § 46.4377-1(a)(3)).

(iii) Multiple self-insured arrangements established or maintained by the same plan sponsor. For purposes of section 4376, two or more arrangements established or maintained by the same plan sponsor that provide for accident and health coverage (within the meaning of § 46.4377-1(a)) other than through an insurance policy and that have the same plan year may be treated as a single applicable self-insured health plan for purposes of calculating the fee imposed by section 4376. For example, if a plan sponsor establishes or maintains a self-insured arrangement providing major medical benefits, and a separate self-insured arrangement with the same plan year providing prescription drug benefits, the two arrangements may be treated as one applicable self-insured health plan so that the same life covered under each arrangement would count as only one covered life under the plan for purposes of calculating the fee. Similarly, if a plan sponsor provides a Health Reimbursement Arrangement (HRA) and another applicable self-insured health plan that provides major medical coverage, the HRA and the major medical plan may be treated as one applicable self-insured health plan if the HRA and the self-insured plan have the same plan year.

(iv) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principle of this paragraph (b)(1):

Example 1. (i) Plan Sponsor D sponsors and maintains three separate plans to provide certain benefits to its employees—Plan 501, Plan 502, and Plan 503.

(ii) Plan 501 is a calendar year plan that provides accident and health benefits, other than through insurance (that is, on a self-insured basis), to employees of Plan Sponsor D. Plan 502 is a calendar year HRA that can be used to pay for qualified accident and medical expenses for employees of Plan Sponsor D and their eligible dependents. Plan 503 provides dental and vision benefits for employees of Plan Sponsor D and eligible dependents, other than through insurance (that is, on a self-insured basis).

(iii) Because Plan 501 and Plan 502 provide accident and health coverage (within the meaning of § 46.4377-1(a)) and are maintained by Plan Sponsor D for the benefit of its employees, Plans 501 and 502 are applicable self-insured health plans that are subject to the fee imposed by section 4376. Because dental and vision benefits are excepted benefits, as defined in section 9832(c), Plan 503 is not an applicable self-insured health plan subject to the section 4376 fee. Under the special rule set forth in § 46.4376-2(b)(1)(iii), Plan Sponsor D may treat Plans 501 and 502 (both self-insured plans with a calendar year plan year) as a single plan for purposes of calculating the fee imposed by section 4376.

Example 2.Same facts as Example 1, except Plan 503 is not a Plan that provides dental and vision benefits, but rather a plan that provides accident and health coverage solely to employees who are working and residing outside the United States and does not provide any benefits to employees who are not working and residing outside the United States. Plan 503 is designed specifically to provide coverage to employees working and residing outside the United States because it limits coverage to these employees. Therefore, in accordance with the exception described in § 46.4376-1(b)(1)(ii)(C), Plan 503 is not an applicable self-insured health plan.

(2) Plan sponsor—(i) In general. The term plan sponsor means—

(A) The employer, in the case of an applicable self-insured health plan established or maintained by a single employer;

(B) The employee organization, in the case of an applicable self-insured health plan established or maintained by an employee organization;

(C) The joint board of trustees, in the case of a multiemployer plan (as defined in section 414(f));

(D) The committee, in the case of a multiple employer welfare arrangement (as defined in section 3(40) of ERISA);

(E) The cooperative or association that establishes or maintains an applicable self-insured health plan established or maintained by a rural electric cooperative (as defined in section 3(40)(B)(iv) of ERISA) or rural cooperative association (as defined in section 3(40)(B)(v) of ERISA);

(F) The trustee, in the case of an applicable self-insured health plan established or maintained by a voluntary employees' beneficiary association (meaning that the voluntary employees' beneficiary association is not merely serving as a funding vehicle for a plan that is established or maintained by an employer or other person); or

(G) In the case of an applicable self-insured health plan the plan sponsor of which is not described in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (F) of this section, the person identified by the terms of the document under which the plan is operated as the plan sponsor, or the person designated by the terms of the document under which the plan is operated as the plan sponsor for section 4376 purposes, provided that designation is made in writing, and that person has consented to the designation in writing, by no later than the date by which the return paying the fee under section 4376 for that plan year is required to be filed, after which date that designation for that plan year may not be changed or revoked, and provided further that a person may be designated as the plan sponsor only if the person is one of the persons establishing or maintaining the plan (for example, one of the employers that establishes or maintains the plan with one or more other employers or employee organizations).

(H) In the case of an applicable self-insured health plan the sponsor of which is not described in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) through (F) of this section, and for which no identification or designation of a plan sponsor has been made pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(G) of this section, each employer that establishes or maintains the plan (with respect to employees of that employer), each employee organization that establishes or maintains the plan (with respect to members of that employee organization), and each board of trustees, cooperative, or association that establishes or maintains the plan, meaning that each plan sponsor must file a separate Form 720, “Quarterly Federal Excise Tax Return,” reflecting its separate liability under section 4376.

(ii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of paragraph (b)(2) of this section:

Example 1. (i) Corporation XYZ is a holding company with no employees that owns all the issued and outstanding shares of Employer X, Employer Y, and Employer Z. Employer X, Employer Y, and Employer Z have established the XYZ Group Health Plan to provide accident and health coverage, provided other than through an insurance policy, for the benefit of their employees. The XYZ Group Health Plan has a calendar year plan year. In addition, there is no plan sponsor identified or designated in the plan document.

(ii) Because the XYZ Group Health Plan provides accident and health coverage other than through an insurance policy, and is established by one or more employers for the benefit of their employees, the XYZ Group Health Plan is an applicable self-insured health plan under section 4376(c)(2)(A) and paragraph (b)(1)(i)(A) of this section. Because a plan sponsor is not identified or designated in the governing plan document, the plan sponsor, for purposes of section 4376, is determined under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(H) of this section as each employer that establishes or maintains the plan (Employer X, Employer Y, and Employer Z), each with respect to its employees covered under the plan. Accordingly, Employer X, Employer Y, and Employer Z each must file a Form 720 reflecting their separate liabilities under section 4376, calculated based on lives covered that are employees of that employer (or spouses, dependents, or other beneficiaries of employees of that employer) and the applicable dollar amount in effect for the plan year.

Example 2.The same facts as Example 1, except that the governing plan document designates Employer X as the plan sponsor of the XYZ Group Health Plan for purposes of the fee under section 4376 and Employer X consents to this designation no later than the due date for paying the fee under section 4376. Accordingly, the plan sponsor for purposes of section 4376 is determined under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(G) of this section as Employer X. Employer X must file a Form 720 reflecting liabilities under section 4376, calculated based upon lives covered that are employees of Employer X, Employer Y, or Employer Z, or spouses, dependents, or other beneficiaries of employees of those employers and the applicable dollar amount in effect for the plan year.

(c) Calculation of fee—(1) In general. The amount of the fee for a plan year is equal to the product of the average number of lives covered under the plan for the plan year (determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section) and the applicable dollar amount (determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section).

(2) Determination of the average number of lives covered under the plan—(i) In general. To determine the average number of lives covered under an applicable self-insured health plan during a plan year, a plan sponsor must use one of the following methods—

(A) The actual count method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section);

(B) The snapshot method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section); or

(C) The Form 5500 method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section).

(ii) Consistency within plan year. A plan sponsor must use the same method of calculating the average number of lives covered under the plan consistently for the duration of the plan year. However, a plan sponsor may use a different method from one plan year to the next.

(iii) Actual count method—(A) In general. A plan sponsor may determine the average number of lives covered under a plan for a plan year by adding the totals of lives covered for each day of the plan year and dividing that total by the number of days in the plan year.

(B) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section:

Example.Employer A is the plan sponsor of the Employer A Self-Insured Health Plan, which has a calendar year plan year. Employer A calculates the sum of lives covered under the plan for each day of the plan year ending December 31, 2013 as 3,285,000. The average number of lives covered under the plan for the plan year ending December 31, 2013, is 3,285,000 divided by 365, or 9,000. To calculate the section 4376 fee for the plan under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the plan year ending December 31, 2013, Employer A must determine the applicable dollar amount under paragraph (c)(3) of this section and multiply that amount by 9,000.

(iv) Snapshot method—(A) In general. A plan sponsor may determine the average number of lives covered under an applicable self-insured health plan for a plan year by adding the totals of lives covered on a date during the first, second, or third month of each quarter of the plan year (or more dates in each quarter if an equal number of dates is used in each quarter), and dividing that total by the number of dates on which a count was made. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iv), each date used for the second, third and fourth quarter must be within three days of the date in that quarter that corresponds to the date used for the first quarter, and all dates used must fall within the same plan year. If a plan sponsor uses multiple dates for the first quarter, the plan sponsor must use dates in the second, third, and fourth quarters that correspond to each of the dates used for the first quarter or are within three days of such corresponding dates, and all dates used must fall within the same plan year. The 30th and 31st day of a month are treated as the last day of the month for purposes of determining the corresponding date for any month that has fewer than 31 days (for example, if either March 30 or March 31 is used for a calendar year plan, June 30 is the corresponding date for the second quarter). For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iv), the number of lives covered on a designated date may be determined using either the snapshot factor method described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section or the snapshot count method described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.

(B) Snapshot factor method. Under the snapshot factor method, the number of lives covered on a date is equal to the sum of—

(i) The number of participants with self-only coverage on that date; plus

(ii) The number of participants with coverage other than self-only coverage on the date multiplied by 2.35.

(C) Snapshot count method. Under the snapshot count method, the number of lives covered on a date equals the actual number of lives covered on the designated date.

(D) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(iv) of this section:

Example 1. (i) Employer B is the plan sponsor of the Employer B Self-Insured Health Plan, which has a calendar year plan year. Employer B uses the snapshot method to determine the average number of lives covered under the plan and uses the snapshot count method to determine the number of lives covered on a day in the first month of each calendar quarter of the plan year.

(ii) On January 4, 2013, the Employer B Self-Insured Health Plan covers 2,000 lives, on April 5, 2013, 2,100 lives, on July 5, 2013, 2,050 lives, and on October 4, 2013, 2,050 lives. Under the snapshot method, Employer B must determine the average number of lives covered under the Employer B Self-Insured Health Plan for the plan year ending December 31, 2013, as 8,200 (2,000 + 2,100 + 2,050 + 2,050) divided by 4, or 2,050. To calculate the section 4376 fee under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the plan year ending December 31, 2013, Employer B must determine the applicable dollar amount under paragraph (c)(3) of this section and multiply that amount by 2,050.

Example 2. (i) Same facts as Example 1, except that for the 2014 plan year Employer B determines the number of lives covered that are not covered by self-only coverage using the snapshot factor method (that is, based on the number of participants with coverage other than self-only coverage multiplied by 2.35 (the factor set forth in (c)(2)(iv) of this section)).

(ii) On January 10, 2014, Employer B Self-Insured Health Plan provides self-only coverage to 600 employees and other than self-only coverage to 800 employees. On April 11, 2014, Employer B Self-Insured Health Plan provides self-only coverage to 608 employees and other than self-only coverage to 800 employees. On July 11, 2014 and October 10, 2014, Employer B Self-Insured Health Plan provides self-only coverage to 610 employees and other than self-only coverage to 809 employees.

(iii) Under the snapshot factor method, Employer B must determine the average number of lives covered under the Employer B Self-Insured Health Plan for the plan year ending December 31, 2014 as 9,988 [(600 + (800 × 2.35)) + (608 + (800 × 2.35)) + (610 + (809 × 2.35)) + (610 + (809 × 2.35))] divided by 4, or 2,497. To calculate the section 4376 fee under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the plan year ending December 31, 2014, Employer B must determine the applicable dollar amount under paragraph (c)(3) of this section and multiply that amount by 2,497.

(v) Form 5500 method—(A) Calculation method. A plan sponsor may determine the average number of lives covered under a plan for a plan year based on the number of participants reported on the Form 5500, “Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan,” or the Form 5500-SF, “Short Form Annual Return/Report of Small Employee Benefit Plan,” that is filed for the applicable self-insured health plan for that plan year, provided that the Form 5500 or Form 5500-SF is filed no later than the due date for the fee imposed by section 4376 for that plan year. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(v), the average number of lives covered under the plan for the plan year for a plan offering only self-only coverage equals the sum of the total participants covered at the beginning and the end of the plan year, as reported on the Form 5500 or Form 5500-SF for the applicable self-insured health plan, divided by 2. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(v), the average number of lives covered under the plan for the plan year for a plan offering self-only coverage and coverage other than self-only coverage equals the sum of total participants covered at the beginning and the end of the plan year, as reported on the Form 5500 or Form 5500-SF filed for the applicable self-insured health plan.

(B) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2)(v)(A) of this section:

Example 1.Employer C is the plan sponsor of the Employer C Self-Insured Health Plan, which has a calendar year plan year ending on December 31, 2013. Employer C is required to file a Form 5500 for the plan for the 2013 plan year by July 31, 2014. However, on July 30, 2014, Employer C obtains an automatic 2 1/2 month extension for filing the 2013 Form 5500. Employer C files the 2013 Form 5500 on September 30, 2014 (that is, before the October 15 extended due date). Employer C is not eligible to use the Form 5500 method to determine the average number of lives covered under Plan C for the plan year ending on December 31, 2013, because the 2013 Form 5500 was not filed by the original due date (that is, by July 31, 2014) for the return that reports liability for the fee imposed by section 4376 for the 2013 plan year.

Example 2.Same facts as Example 1, except that the Employer C Self-Insured Health Plan has a fiscal year plan year ending on July 31, 2013, and offers only self-only coverage. Employer C files a Form 5500 for the Employer C Self-Insured Health Plan for the plan year ending July 31, 2013 (the 2012 Form 5500), on the extended due date for filing the 2012 Form 5500 (May 15, 2014). Employer C is eligible to use the Form 5500 method to determine the average number of lives covered under Plan C for the plan year ending on July 31, 2013, because the 2012 Form 5500 had been filed by the due date for the return that reports liability for the fee imposed by section 4376 for that plan year (July 31, 2014).

Example 3.Same facts as Example 2, provided further that the Employer C Self-Insured Health Plan 2012 Form 5500 reports 4,000 plan participants on the first day of the plan year and 4,200 plan participants on the last day of the 2012 plan year. For purposes of calculating the fee under section 4376 using the Form 5500 method, Employer C must treat the number of lives covered for the plan year ending July 31, 2013, as equal to the sum of 4,000 and 4,200 or 8,200, divided by 2, or 4,100. To calculate the section 4376 fee under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the plan year ending July 31, 2013, Employer C must determine the applicable dollar amount under paragraph (c)(3) of this section and multiply that amount by 4,100.

Example 4.Same facts as Example 3, except that the Employer C Self-Insured Health plan offers self-only coverage and family coverage. For purposes of calculating the fee under section 4376 using the Form 5500 method, Employer C must treat the number of lives covered for the plan year ending July 31, 2013, as equal to the sum of 4,000 and 4,200, or 8,200. To calculate the section 4376 fee under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the plan year ending July 31, 2013, Employer C must determine the applicable dollar amount under paragraph (c)(3) of this section and multiply that amount by 8,200.

(vi) Special rule for health FSAs and HRAs. For purposes of this section, if a plan sponsor does not establish or maintain an applicable self-insured health plan other than a health flexible spending arrangement (health FSA) (as described in section 106(c)(2)) or a health reimbursement arrangement (as described in Notice 2002-45 (2002-2 CB 93)) (HRA), the plan sponsor may treat each participant's health FSA or HRA as covering a single life (and therefore the plan sponsor is not required to include as lives covered any spouse, dependent, or other beneficiary of the individual participant in the health FSA or HRA, as applicable). If a health FSA or HRA that is an applicable self-insured health plan has the same plan sponsor and plan year as another applicable self-insured health plan other than a health FSA or HRA, the two arrangements may be treated as a single plan under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. However, the special counting rule in this paragraph applies only for purposes of the health FSA or HRA and, therefore, applies only for purposes of the participants in the health FSA or HRA that do not participate in the other applicable self-insured health plan. The participants in the health FSA or HRA that participate in the other applicable self-insured health plan will be counted in accordance with the method applied for counting lives covered under that other plan as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. See § 601.601(d)(2) of this chapter.

(vii) Special rule for lives covered solely by the fully-insured options under an applicable self-insured health plan—(A) In general. If an applicable self-insured health plan provides accident and health coverage through fully-insured options and self-insured options, the plan sponsor is permitted to disregard the lives that are covered solely under the fully-insured options in determining the lives covered taken into account for the actual count method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section), the snapshot method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section), and the Form 5500 method (described in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section).

(B) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of paragraph (c)(2)(vii) of this section:

Example. (i) Employer C is the plan sponsor of the Employer C Health Plan (Plan P). The Plan offers self-only or family health and accident coverage under fully-insured or self-insured options. On June 28, 2015, Employer C files a Form 5500 for Plan P for the plan year ending December 31, 2014 indicating: (1) a total of 4,000 plan participants on the first day of the 2014 plan year; and (2) a total of 4,200 plan participants on the last day of the plan year. Employer C determines that there were 3,000 plan participants (and their families, as applicable) covered under the fully-insured option offered under the plan on the first day of the 2014 plan year, and 2,900 plan participants (and their families, as applicable) covered under the fully-insured option on the last day of the 2014 plan year. Employer C uses the Form 5500 method to calculate the number of lives covered for the 2014 plan year.

(ii) Pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(vii) of this section, Employer C determines the number of lives covered for the 2014 plan year as: the sum of 1,000 (4,000 total participants on the first day of the plan year—3,000 participants covered by the specified health insurance policy on the first day of the plan year) and 1,300 (4,200 total participants—2,900 participants covered by the specified health insurance policy on the first day of the plan year), or 2,300. To calculate the section 4376 fee under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the 2014 plan year, Employer C must determine the applicable dollar amount under paragraph (c)(3) of this section and multiply that amount by 2,300.

(viii) Special rule for the first year the fee is in effect. Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, for a plan year beginning before July 11, 2012, and ending on or after October 1, 2012, a plan sponsor may determine the average number of lives covered under the plan for the plan year using any reasonable method.

(3) Applicable dollar amount. For a plan year ending on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2013, the applicable dollar amount is $1. For a plan year ending on or after October 1, 2013, and before October 1, 2014, the applicable dollar amount is $2. For any plan year ending in any Federal fiscal year beginning on or after October 1, 2014, the applicable dollar amount is equal to the sum of—

(i) The applicable dollar amount for the plan year ending in the previous Federal fiscal year; plus

(ii) The amount equal to the product of—

(A) The applicable dollar amount for the plan year ending in the previous Federal fiscal year; and

(B) The percentage increase in the projected per capita amount of the National Health Expenditures most recently released by the Department of Health and Human Services before the beginning of the Federal fiscal year.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principle of paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

Example 1. (Calendar year plan). (i) Plan Sponsor C maintains Plan X which has a calendar year plan year; the plan continues in operation for the entire calendar years 2012 through 2019. Plan X is an applicable self-insured health plan, within the meaning of § 46.4376-1(b)(1), and Plan Sponsor C is liable for the fee imposed by section 4376, determined in accordance with these regulations, beginning with the 2012 plan year—the plan year beginning January 1, 2012, and ending December 31, 2012—and ending with the 2018 plan year—the plan year beginning January 1, 2018, and ending December 31, 2018. In accordance with § 40.6071(a)-1(c) of this chapter:

(ii) The first Form 720 that must be filed to report and pay the fee imposed by section 4376 for Plan X covers the 2012 plan year (January 1, 2012, through December 31, 2012) and must be filed no later than July 31, 2013, and the fee reported on this form must be calculated by multiplying the average number lives by $1 (the applicable dollar amount in effect for plans with plan years beginning on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2013); and

(ii) The last Form 720 that must be filed to report and pay the fee imposed by section 4376 for Plan X covers the 2018 plan year (January 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018) and must be filed no later than July 31, 2019, and the fee reported on this form must be calculated using the applicable dollar amount in effect for plan years ending on or after October 1, 2018, and before October 1, 2019.

Example 2. (Fiscal year plan). (i) Plan Sponsor B maintains Plan W, which has a fiscal year plan year ending on July 31; the plan continues in operation for the entire fiscal year plan years from August 1, 2012, through July 31, 2019. Plan W is an applicable self-insured health plan, within the meaning of § 46.4376-1(b)(1), and Plan Sponsor B is liable for the fee imposed by section 4376, determined in accordance with these regulations, beginning with the 2012 plan year—the plan year beginning on August 1, 2012, and ending on July 31, 2013—and ending with the 2018 plan year—plan year beginning on August 1, 2018, and ending July 31, 2019. In accordance with § 40.6071(a)-1(c) of this chapter:

(ii) The first Form 720 that must be filed to report and pay the fee imposed by section 4376 for Plan X covers the 2012 plan year (August 1, 2012, through July 31, 2013) and must be filed no later than July 31, 2014, and the fee reported on this form must be calculated by multiplying the average number lives by $1 (the applicable dollar amount in effect for plans with plans years beginning on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2013); and

(iii) The last Form 720 that must be filed to report and pay the fee imposed by section 4376 for Plan X covers the 2018 plan year (August 1, 2018, through July 31, 2019) and must be filed no later than July 31, 2020, and the fee must be calculated using the applicable dollar amount in effect for plan years ending on or after October 1, 2018, and before October 1, 2019.

(d) Effective/Applicability date. This section applies for plan years that end on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2019.

§ 46.4377-1 Definitions and special rules.

(a) Definitions. The following definitions apply for purposes of sections 4375 and 4376 and §§ 46.4375-1 and 46.4376-1.

(1) Accident and health coverage. The term accident and health coverage means any coverage that, if provided by an insurance policy, would cause such policy to be a specified health insurance policy (as defined in section 4375(c) and § 46.4375-1(b)(1)). Accident and health coverage also includes coverage for an active employee, a former employee, or a qualifying beneficiary that is continuation coverage required under the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (COBRA) or similar continuation coverage under other federal law or under state law.

(2) Individual residing in the United States—(i) The term individual residing in the United States means an individual with a place of abode in the United States.

(ii) Determination of place of abode. For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, an issuer or a plan sponsor may rely on the most recent address on file with the issuer or plan sponsor and may treat the primary insured and the primary insured's spouse, dependents, or other beneficiaries covered by the policy as having the same place of abode. For this purpose, the primary insured is the individual covered by the policy whose eligibility for coverage was not due to that individual's status as the spouse, dependent, or other beneficiary of another covered individual.

(3) United States. The term United States includes American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, and any other possession of the United States.

(4) Federal fiscal year. The term Federal fiscal year means the year beginning on October 1 and ending on the following September 30.

(b) Treatment of exempt governmental programs—(1) In general. The fees imposed by sections 4375 and 4376 do not apply to any covered life under an exempt governmental program as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(2) Exempt governmental program. For purposes of this section, exempt governmental program means any—

(i) Insurance program established under title XVIII of the Social Security Act;

(ii) Medical assistance program established by title XIX or XXI of the Social Security Act;

(iii) Program established by Federal law for providing medical care (other than through insurance policies) to individuals (or their spouses and dependents) by reason of such individuals being (or having been) members of the Armed Forces of the United States; and

(iv) Program established by Federal law for providing medical care (other than through insurance policies) to members of Indian tribes (as defined in section 4(d) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act).

(c) Effective/Applicability date. This section applies to all policy and plan years that end on or after October 1, 2012, and before October 1, 2019.

Subpart D Excise Tax on Obligations Not in Registered Form
§ 46.4701-1 Tax on issuer of registration-required obligation not in registered form.

(a) In general. Section 4701 imposes a tax (determined under paragraph (c) of this section) on any person (referred to as the issuer) who issues an obligation that—

(1) Is a registration-required obligation, and

(2) Is not issued in registered form.

(b) Definitions—(1) Person. The term “person” includes all governmental entities.

(2) Obligation. The term “obligation” includes bonds debentures, notes, certificates and other evidences of indebtedness regardless of how denominated.

(3) Registration-required obligation. The term “registration-required obligation” has the same meaning as when used in section 163(f) (and the regulations thereunder) which relates to the denial of a deduction for interest on certain obligations not in registered form. However, the term “registration-required obligation” does not include any obligation which would otherwise be exempt from Federal income tax under section 103(a) or any other provision of law.

(4) Registered form. The term “registered form” has the same meaning as when used in section 103(j) (and the regulations thereunder) which relates to obligations which must be in registered form to be tax-exempt.

(5) Issuer. Except as provided in § 1.163-5T(d) (relating to pass-through certificates) and § 1.163-5T(e) (relating to REMICs), the “issuer” is the person whose interest deduction would be disallowed solely by reason of section 163(f)(1).

(6) Date of Issuance. (i) For obligations intended to be offered to the public, the term “date of issuance” means the date the obligation is first sold to the public at the issue price.

(ii) For an obligation which is privately placed, the term “date of issuance” is the date the obligation is first sold by the issuer.

(7) Issue price. See section 1273 (b) and the regulations thereunder for the definition of “issue price”.

(c) Rate and computation of tax. The tax under section 4701(a) is imposed in an amount equal to the product of—

(1) 1 percent of the principal amount of the obligation, multiplied by

(2) The number of calendar years (or portions thereof) during the period beginning on the date of issuance of the obligation and ending on the date of maturity.

For purposes of this paragraph, the term “principal amount” for a discounted obligation is the issue price, and for all other obligations, including obligations sold at a premium, the term “principal amount” is the stated redemption price at maturity.

(d) Payment of tax. Every person who incurs liability for the tax imposed by section 4701 is required to file a return in accordance with section 6011 and § 46.6011(a)-1 relating to the general requirement of a return, statement or list.

(e) Effective date. The provisions of this section shall apply to obligations issued after December 31, 1982, unless issued on the exercise of a warrant or the conversion of a convertible obligation if the warrant or obligation was offered or sold outside the United States without registration under the Securities Act of 1933 and was issued before August 10, 1982. See section 310(d)(3) of the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982.

[T.D. 8102, 51 FR 33594, Sept. 22, 1986; 51 FR 36392, Oct. 10, 1986, as amended by T.D. 8300, 55 FR 19627, May 10, 1990]

PART 47 DESIGNATED DRUGS EXCISE TAX REGULATIONS

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805.

Source: T.D. 10003, 89 FR 55511, July 5, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

Section 47.5000D-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 5000D.

§ 47.5000D-0 Table of contents.

This section lists the table of contents for §§ 47.5000D-1 through 47.5000D-4.

§ 47.5000D-1 Introduction.

(a) In general.

(b) Applicability date.

§§ 47.5000D-2—47.5000D-4 [Reserved]

§ 47.5000D-1 Introduction.

(a) In general. The regulations in this part are designated the Designated Drugs Excise Tax Regulations. The regulations in this part relate to the tax imposed by section 5000D of the Internal Revenue Code. See part 40 of this chapter for regulations relating to returns, payments, and other procedural rules applicable to this part.

(b) Applicability date. This section applies to returns filed for calendar quarters beginning on or after October 1, 2023.

§§ 47.5000D-2--47.5000D-4 [Reserved]

PART 48 MANUFACTURERS AND RETAILERS EXCISE TAXES

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805, unless otherwise noted. Section 48.4052-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4052(g). Section 48.4064-1(b)(3) also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4064(b)(1)(C)(iii). Section 48.4064-1(d)(3)(iii) also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4064(d)(1). Section 48.4064-1(d)(5) also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4064(d)(2). Section 48.4081-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4083(a)(2). Section 48.4081-6 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4081(c); Section 48.4081-7 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4081(e). Section 48.4082-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4082. Section 48.4082-1T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4082(a). Section 48.4082-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4082. Section 48.4082-5 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4082. Section 48.4082-6 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4082(d). Section 48.4082-7 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4082(d). Section 48.4101-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4101(a). Section 48.4101-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6071(a). Section 48.4191-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4191. Section 48.4191-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4191(b)(2). Section 48.4221-3(e) also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4221(a). Section 48.6416(b)(2)-2(b) also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6416(b). Section 48.6427-8 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6427(m). Section 48.6427-9 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6427(m). Section 48.6427-10 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6427(m). Section 48.6427-11 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6427(m). Section 48.6435-1T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6435(a) and 6001.

Subpart A Introduction
§ 48.0-1 Introduction.

The regulations in this part 48 are designated “Manufacturers and Retailers Excise Tax Regulations.” The regulations relate to the excise taxes imposed by chapter 31 and 32 of the Internal Revenue Code. Chapter 31 (relating to retail taxes) imposes tax on certain luxury items, special fuels, fuel used in commercial transportation on inland waterways, and heavy trucks and trailers. Chapter 32 (relating to manufacturers taxes) imposes tax on gas guzzler automobiles, highway-type tires, taxable fuel, aviation fuel, coal, certain vaccines, sporting goods, and taxable medical devices. Although chapter 32 also imposes a tax on firearms, this tax is under the jurisdiction of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms. See part 40 of this chapter for regulations relating to returns, payments, and deposits of taxes imposed by chapters 31 and 32 (other than the tax on firearms imposed by section 4181).

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10453, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 9604, 77 FR 72934, Dec. 7, 2012]

§ 48.0-2 General definitions and attachment of tax.

(a) Meaning of terms. As used in the regulations in this part, unless otherwise expressly indicated:

(1) The terms defined in the provisions of law contained in the regulations in this part shall have the meanings so assigned to them.

(2) [Reserved]

(3) The term calendar quarter means a period of 3 calendar months ending on March 31, June 30, September 30, or December 31.

(4)(i) The term manufacturer includes any person who produces a taxable article from scrap, salvage, or junk material, or from new or raw material, by processing, manipulating, or changing the form of an article or by combining or assembling two or more articles. The term also includes a “producer” and an “importer”. An “importer” of a taxable article is any person who brings such an article into the United States from a source outside the United States, or who withdraws such an article from a customs bonded warehouse for sale or use in the United States. If the nominal importer of a taxable article is not its beneficial owner (for example, the nominal importer is a customs broker engaged by the beneficial owner), the beneficial owner is the “importer” of the article for purposes of chapter 32 and is liable for tax on his sale or use of the article in the United States. See section 4219 and the regulations thereunder for the circumstances under which sales by persons other than the manufacturer or importer are subject to the manufacturers excise tax.

(ii) Under certain circumstances, as where a person manufactures or produces a taxable article for another person who furnishes materials under an agreement whereby the person who furnished the materials retains title thereto and to the finished article, the person for whom the taxable article is manufactured or produced, and not the person who actually manufactures or produces it, will be considered the manufacturer.

(iii) A manufacturer who sells a taxable article in a knockdown condition is liable for the tax as a manufacturer. Whether the person who buys such component parts and assembles a taxable article from them will also be liable for tax as a further manufacturer of a taxable article will depend on the relative amount of labor, material, and overhead required to assemble the completed article and on whether the article is assembled for a business or personal use. See section 4218 and the regulations thereunder.

(5) The term sale means an agreement whereby the seller transfers the property (that is, the title or the substantial incidents of ownership) in goods to the buyer for a consideration called the price, which may consist of money, services, or other things.

(6) The term taxable article means any article taxable under section 4041 or Chapter 32, Subtitle D, of the Code.

(7) The term vendor includes a lessor except that, with respect to the manufacturers excise taxes, this rule applies only where the lessor is also the manufacturer of the article.

(8) The term purchaser includes a lessee except that, with respect to the manufacturers excise taxes, this rule applies only where the lessor is also the manufacturer of the article.

(9) The term exporter means the person named as shipper or consignor in the export bill of lading.

(10) The term exportation means the severance of an article from the mass of things belonging within the United States with the intention of uniting it with the mass of things belonging within some foreign country or within a possession of the United States.

(11) The term possession of the United States includes Guam, the Midway Islands, Palmyra, the Panama Canal Zone, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, and Wake Island.

(b) Attachment of tax. (1) For purposes of this part, the manufacturers excise tax generally attaches when the title to the article sold passes from the manufacturer to a purchaser, and the retailers excise tax generally attaches when the title to the article sold passes from the retailer to a purchaser.

(2) When title passes is dependent upon the intention of the parties as gathered from the contract of sale and the attendant circumstances. In the absence of expressed intention, the legal rules of presumption followed in the jurisdiction where the sale is made govern in determining when title passes.

(3) In the case of a sale on credit, the tax attaches whether or not the purchase price is actually collected.

(4) Where a consignor (such as a manufacturer) consigns articles to a consignee (such as a dealer), retaining ownership in them until they are disposed of by the consignee, title does not pass, and the tax does not attach, until sale by the consignee. Where the relationship between a manufacturer and a dealer is that of principal and agent, title does not pass, and the tax does not attach, until sale by the dealer.

(5) In the case of a lease, an installment sale, a conditional sale, or a chattel mortgage arrangement or similar arrangement creating a security interest, a proportionate part of the tax attaches to each payment. See section 4217 and the regulations thereunder for a limitation on the amount of tax payable on lease payments.

(6) In the case of use by the manufacturer, the tax attaches at the time the use begins.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13515, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17155, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.0-3 Exemption certificates.

Several sections of the regulations in this part, relating to sales exempt from retailers or manufacturers excise tax, require the retailer or manufacturer (as the case may be) to obtain an exemption certificate from the purchaser to substantiate the exempt character of the sale. Many of these sections also contain specimen forms of acceptable exemption certificates. However, any form of exemption certificate will be acceptable if it includes all the information required to be contained in such a certificate by the pertinent sections of the regulations in this part. If it contains all the required information, a form of exemption certificate that is processed by data processing equipment is acceptable.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13516, Mar. 31, 1978. Redesignated by T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32014, Aug. 8, 1985]

B Subparts B-E [Reserved]
Subpart F Special Fuels

Source: T.D. 6505, 25 FR 11217, Nov. 26, 1960, unless otherwise noted.

§ 48.4041-0 Applicability of regulations relating to diesel fuel after December 31, 1993.

Sections 48.4041-3 through 48.4041-17 do not apply to sales or uses of diesel fuel after December 31, 1993. For rules relating to the diesel fuel tax imposed by section 4041 after that date, see § 48.4082-4.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10453, Mar. 14, 1996]

§ 48.4041-3 Application of tax on sales of special motor fuel for use in motor vehicles and motorboats.

(a) In general. The tax imposed by paragraph (2)(A) of section 4041 (a), (or before April 1, 1983, paragraph (1) of section 4041 (b)), applies to the taxable sale of special motor fuel by any person to an owner, lessee, or other operator of a motor vehicle or motorboat, for use as a fuel in the motor vehicle or motorboat. The tax does not apply to special motor fuel sold for use on or after April 1, 1983, and before October 1, 1988, in an off-highway business use.

(b) Liability for tax. The tax on the taxable sale of special motor fuel is payable by the person who sells the special motor fuel to the owner, lessee, or other operator of a motor vehicle or motorboat.

(c) Rate of tax—(1) In general. Tax is imposed on the sale of special motor fuel at the rate applicable on the date on which the special motor fuel is sold. See § 48.4041-1(b)(2) for rates. The test of taxability at the rates specified in § 48.4041-1(b)(2) (i)(A) and (ii)(A) is whether the fuel is to be used in a motor vehicle or motorboat. For purposes of paragraphs (c) (2) and (3) of this section, the term “qualified business use” has the same meaning as that given to the term “off-highway business use” by section 6421(d)(2).

(2) Special motor fuel sold for use as a fuel in a motor vehicle. Tax at the rates specified in paragraphs (b)(2) (i)(A) and (ii)(A) of § 48.4041-1 applies in the case of the sale of special motor fuel for use as a fuel in a motor vehicle. Tax at the rates specified in that section applies regardless of whether the motor vehicle is a highway vehicle. However, a reduced rate of tax from that imposed by paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) of § 48.4041-1 is allowed by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of § 48.4041-1 if special motor fuel is sold for use in a qualified business use. An exemption from the tax imposed by paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of § 48.4041-1 is allowed by paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C) of § 48.4041-1 if the special motor fuel is sold for use in an off-highway business use.

(3) Special motor fuel sold for use as fuel in a motorboat. Tax at the rates specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(A) and (ii)(A) of § 48.4041-1 applies in the case of the sale of special motor fuel for use as fuel in a motorboat. The qualified business use reduced rate of tax set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of § 48.4041-1 and the off-highway business use exemption set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C) of § 48.4041-1 are not applicable to motorboats unless the motorboat is a vessel employed in the fisheries or whaling business. See section 6421(d)(2)(B).

(d) Example. Application of the tax to the sale of special motor fuels may be illustrated by the following example.

Example.The N Company is engaged in the manufacture of ceramic products. It has a vehicle which is used to haul clay from a clay pit to its factory. This vehicle has not been registered for highway use and under the applicable State law is not required to be registered for highway use since none of the hauling of clay is done on public highways. The N Company also uses a ditch digging machine in the vicinity of the clay pit for the construction of drains. A fork lift truck is used to move cartons of merchandise from place to place inside the company's warehouse and to assist in the loading of merchandise onto the company's highway trucks for delivery to purchasers. The highway trucks are registered by the State for use on highways. Special motor fuel is used for the operation of all of these items of equipment. Before April 1, 1983, the special motor fuel sold for use as a fuel in the registered highway trucks is subject to tax at the rate specified in § 48.4041-1(b)(2)(i)(A). On or after January 1, 1979, and before April 1, 1983, the special motor fuel sold for use as a fuel in the unregistered truck used to haul clay from the pit to the factory and in the fork lift truck, assuming both of these are used in qualified business uses, is subject to tax at the rate specified in § 48.4041-1(b)(2)(i)(C). If the unregistered truck and forklift are not used in qualified business uses, then the special motor fuel sold for use in these vehicles is taxable at the rate specified in § 48.4041-1(b)(2)(i)(A) since both are motor vehicles. No tax is payable with respect to the special motor fuel sold for use in the ditch digging machine since that machine is not a motor vehicle. On and after April 1, 1983, and before October 1, 1988, special motor fuel sold for use in the registered trucks is taxable at the rate specified in § 48.4041-1(b)(2)(ii)(A) because the trucks are motor vehicles. On and after April 1, 1983, and before October 1, 1988, special motor fuel sold for use in the unregistered truck and the fork lift, assuming that both vehicles are used in off-highway business uses, is exempt from tax as specified in § 48.4041-1(b)(2)(ii)(C). If the unregistered truck and fork lift are not used in off-highway business uses, then the special motor fuel sold for use in these vehicles is taxable at the rate specified in § 48.4041-1(b)(2)(ii)(A) since both are motor vehicles. No tax is payable with respect to the special motor fuel sold for use in the ditch digging machine since that machine is not a motor vehicle.

(e) Cross reference. (1) For the tax applicable in certain cases based on the use of special motor fuel as a fuel in a motor vehicle or motorboat, see § 48.4041-6.

(2) For the definition of the terms “highway”, “motor vehicle”, “special motor fuel”, and “registered”, see paragraphs (a), (c), (f), and (i) of § 48.4041-8. For the definition of the term “off-highway business use”, see section 6421(d)(2).

(3) For the exemption from tax with respect to special motor fuel sold for use on a farm for farming purposes or as supplies for vessels, see §§ 48.4041-9 and 48.4041-10, respectively.

(4) For credit or refund of tax paid on special motor fuel resold or used otherwise than for the purpose for which purchased, see section 6427(a).

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 14, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-4 Application of tax on sales of liquid for use as fuel in aircraft in noncommercial aviation.

(a) In general. The taxes imposed by subparagraphs (1)(A) and (2)(A) of section 4041(c) apply to the taxable sale of any liquid by any person to an owner, lessee, or other operator of an aircraft, for use as a fuel in the aircraft in noncommercial aviation.

(b) Liability of tax. The tax on the taxable sale of any liquid used as fuel in aircraft in noncommercial aviation is payable by the person who sells the liquid to the owner, lessee, or operator of an aircraft in noncommercial aviation.

(c) Rate of tax. Tax is imposed on the sale of liquids used as fuel in aircraft in noncommercial aviation at the rate applicable on the date on which the liquid is sold. See § 48.4041-1(b)(3) for rates.

(d) Cross references. (1) For the tax applicable on the basis of the use of fuel in an aircraft in noncommercial aviation, see § 48.4041-6.

(2) For the definition of the term “noncommercial aviation”, see paragraph (j) of § 48.4041-8.

(3) For the exemption of tax with respect to liquids used as fuel in aircraft in noncommercial aviation sold for use on a farm for farming purposes or as supplies for vessels or aircraft, see §§ 48.4041-9 and 48.4041-10, respectively. For tax-free sales if sellers and purchasers are registered, see § 48.4041-11.

(4) For credit or refund of tax paid on fuel used in noncommercial aviation that is resold or used otherwise than for the purpose for which purchased, see section 6427(a).

(e) Effective date. The provisions of this section shall apply to sales or uses occurring before October 1, 1980, and to sales or uses occurring on or after September 1, 1982, and ending before January 1, 1988.

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 15, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-5 Sales of diesel and special motor fuels and fuel for use in aircraft; rules of general application.

(a) Taxability of liquid fuel delivered into purchaser's tanks—(1) Fuel supply tanks. (i) The sale of diesel fuel to an owner, lessee, or other operator of a diesel-powered highway vehicle, or of special motor fuel to an owner, lessee, or other operator of a motor vehicle or motorboat, or of fuel to an owner, lessee, or other operator of an aircraft used in noncommercial aviation is considered a taxable sale of the liquid fuel if the liquid fuel is delivered by the seller into the fuel supply tank of the vehicle, motorboat, or aircraft. For purpose of this paragraph (a), liquid fuel sold at a location unattended by the seller (such as under a cardlock or meter system) on or after January 2, 1986, is considered to be delivered into the fuel supply tank by the seller except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. In this regard, see section 6427(a) for credit or refund of tax if liquid fuel acquired in a transaction subject to tax is used in a nontaxable use.

(ii) If the seller maintains special devices at the unattended location to account accurately for sales of liquid fuel for nontaxable uses (such as assigning a separate “nontaxable” meter or, in a cardlock system, issuing a special “nontaxable” card to a customer who regularly purchases fuel for nontaxable uses), then such sales of liquid fuel shall be considered nontaxable. The seller must maintain sufficient records of such nontaxable sales and include in these records the name of the purchaser, the date of the purchase, and the quantity of fuel purchased in each sale.

(2) Bulk tanks. The sale of diesel fuel to an owner, lessee, or other operator of a diesel-powered highway vehicle, or of special motor fuel to an owner, lessee, or other operator of a motor vehicle or motorboat, or of fuel to an owner, lessee, or other operator of an aircraft used in noncommercial aviation is considered a taxable sale of the liquid fuel if—

(i) The liquid fuel is delivered by the seller into a bulk supply tank (or other container) that is not the fuel supply tank of a vehicle, motorboat, or aircraft; and

(ii) The purchaser furnishes a written statement to the seller before or at the time of the sale stating that the entire quantity of the liquid fuel covered by the sale is for a taxable purpose as a fuel in such a vehicle, motorboat, or aircraft.

If the purchaser fails to provide the written statement required by paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the purchaser is liable for the tax on the later taxable sale or use. If a purchaser acquires both fuel that is to be used for taxable purposes and fuel that is to be used for nontaxable purposes, and the fuel that is to be used for taxable purposes is stored in a different storage tank (or container) from the tank used to store the fuel to be used for nontaxable purposes, the written statement described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section will relate to the fuel to be used for taxable purposes if proper records are kept by the purchaser that sufficiently identify the tanks (or containers) into which tax-paid fuel is delivered and the quantities of fuel delivered into those tanks (or containers). If only occasional sales for delivery into a bulk storage tank (or other container) are made to a purchaser, a separate statement must be furnished for each order. However, if sales are regularly or frequently made to a purchaser, a written statement covering all orders for a specified period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters is acceptable.

(b) Sales for resale and to consignees. (1) A sale to a dealer for resale is not subject to tax even if it is known at the time of the sale that the liquid fuel will be resold by the dealer for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle, motor vehicle, motorboat, or aircraft.

(2) The tax is payable by the person who makes the taxable sale. If a taxable liquid fuel is consigned to a person for sale and the consignor retains ownership in the liquid fuel until it is disposed of by the consignee, the consignor is the person liable for the tax when a taxable sale of the liquid fuel is made by the consignee. If the consignor transfers ownership in the taxable liquid fuel to the consignee before sale of the liquid fuel by the consignee, the consignee is the person liable for the tax upon a subsequent taxable sale of the liquid. However, if ownership of the liquid fuel is transferred back to the consignor or to another person before a taxable sale is made, as described in paragraph (a) of this section, and thereafter a taxable sale of the liquid fuel is made by such person or by another person acting as the person's agent, such person is liable for the tax. See paragraph (d) of § 48.4041-8 for definition of the term “taxable liquid fuel.”

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 15, Jan. 2, 1986, as amended by T.D. 8154, 52 FR 32008, Aug. 25, 1987]

§ 48.4041-6 Application of tax on use of taxable liquid fuel.

(a) In general—(1) Diesel fuel. (i) If, before April 1, 1983, a person acquires any diesel fuel by any means other than through a transaction subject to tax under section 4041(a)(1) and uses it as a fuel in a diesel powered highway vehicle, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(a)(2) on the quantity of diesel fuel so used at the appropriate rate set forth in § 48.4041-1(b)(1)(i). If a person acquired any diesel fuel through a transaction which is subject to tax at the rate set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(i) (C) or (D) of § 48.4041-1, and uses it for a use described in paragraph (b) (1) (i) (A) or (B) of § 48.4041-1 the person is liable for an additional tax uder section 4041(a)(2) on the quantity of diesel fuel so used. See § 48.4041-1(b)(1)(i)(E), (F), or (G) for the applicable rate of tax. See section 6427(a) for credit or refund of tax where diesel fuel acquired in a transaction subject to tax at the rate set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(i) (A) or (B) of § 48.4041-1 is used as described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) (C) or (D) of § 48.4041-1 or in a nontaxable use.

(ii) On or after April 1, 1983, and before August 1, 1984, if a person acquires any diesel fuel by any means other than through a transaction subject to tax under section 4041(a)(1)(A) and uses it as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(a)(1)(B) on the quantity of diesel fuel so used at the appropriate rate set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of § 48.4041-1. If a person acquired any diesel fuel through a transaction for which no tax is imposed by reason of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) of § 48.4041-1 and uses it in other than a nontaxable use, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(a)(1)(B) on the quantity of fuel so used. See paragraph (b)(1)(ii) (D) or (E) of § 48.4041-1 for the applicable rate of tax. See section 6427(a) for credit or refund of tax where diesel fuel acquired in a transaction subject to tax at the rate set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of § 48.4041-1 is used as described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) of § 48.4041-1 or in another nontaxable use.

(iii) On or after August 1, 1984, and before October 1, 1988, if a person acquires any diesel fuel by any means other than through a transaction subject to tax under section 4041(a)(1)(A) and uses it as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(a)(1)(B) on the quantity of diesel fuel so used at the appropriate rate set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of § 48.4041-1. If a person acquired any diesel fuel through a transaction for which no tax is imposed by reason of paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(C) of § 48.4041-1 and uses it in other than a nontaxable use, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(a)(1)(B) on the quantity of fuel so used. See paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(D) of § 48.4041-1 for the applicable rate of tax. See section 6427(a) for credit or refund of tax where diesel fuel acquired in a transaction subject to tax at the rate set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of § 48.4041-1 is used as described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(C) of § 48.4041-1 or in another nontaxable use.

(2) Special motor fuel. (i) On or after January 1, 1979, and before April 1, 1983, if a person acquired any special motor fuel by any means other than through a transaction subject to tax under section 4041(b)(1) and uses it as a fuel in a motor vehicle or motorboat, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(b)(2) on the quantity of special motor fuel so used at the appropriate rate set forth in § 48.4041-1(b)(2)(i). If a person acquired any special motor fuel through a transaction with is subject to a tax at the rate set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of § 48.4041-1 and uses it in a use other than one for which the reduced rate applies, the person is liable for an additional tax under section 4041(b)(2) on the quantity of special motor fuel so used. See § 48.4041-1(b)(2)(i) (D) or (E) for the applicable rate of tax. See section 6427(a) for credit or refund of tax where special motor fuel acquired in a transaction subject to tax at the rate set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of § 48.4041-1 is used for a purpose described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of § 48.4041-1 or in a nontaxable use.

(ii) On or after April 1, 1983, and before October 1, 1988, if a person acquired any special motor fuel by any means other than through a transaction subject to tax under section 4041(a)(2)(A) and uses it as a fuel in a motor vehicle or motorboat, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(a)(2)(B) on the quantity of spcial motor fuel so used at the appropriate rate set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of § 48.4041-1. If a person acquired any special motor fuel through a transaction for which no tax is imposed by reason of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C) of § 48.4041-1 and uses it in other than a nontaxable use, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(a)(2)(B) on the quantity of fuel so used. See paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of § 48.4041-1 for the applicable rate of tax. See section 6427(a) for credit or refund of tax where special motor fuel acquired in a transaction subject to tax at the rate set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of § 48.4041-1 is used for a purpose described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C) of § 48.4041-1 or in another nontaxable use.

(3) Noncommercial aviation. If a person acquires any liquid fuel by any means other than through a transaction subject to tax under section 4041(c)(1)(A) or section 4041(c)(2)(A) and uses it as fuel in an aircraft in noncommercial aviation, the person is liable for a tax under section 4041(c)(1)(B) or section 4041(c)(2)(B) on the quantity of the liquid fuel so used at the appropriate rate set forth in § 48.4041-1(b)(3).

(b) Bulk purchases by users. Taxpayers who purchase taxable liquid fuel in bulk delivered into storage tanks or other containers and use it for taxable or nontaxable purposes or in registered and nonregistered vehicles must maintain adequate records of all fuel used for each purpose to permit verification of the tax paid and of any credits, refunds, or exemptions claimed.

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 15, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-7 Dual use of taxable liquid fuel.

Tax applies to all taxable liquid fuel sold for use or used as a fuel in the motor which is used to propel a diesel-powered vehicle or in the motor used to propel a motor vehicle, motorboat, or aircraft, even though the motor is also used for a purpose other than the propulsion of the vehicle, motorboat, or aircraft. Thus, if the motor of a diesel-powered highway vehicle or a motorboat operates special equipment by means of a power take-off or power transfer, tax applies to all taxable liquid fuel sold for this use or so used, whether or not the special equipment is mounted on the vehicle or boat. For example, tax applies to diesel fuel sold to operate the mixing unit on a concrete mixer truck if the mixing unit is operated by means of a power take-off from the motor of the vehicle. Similarly, tax applies to all taxable liquid fuel sold for use or used in a motor propelling a fuel oil truck even though the same motor is used to operate the pump (whether or not mounted on the truck) for discharging the fuel into customers' storage tanks. However, tax does not apply to liquid fuel sold for use or used in a separate motor to operate special equipment (whether or not the equipment is mounted on the vehicle). If the taxable liquid fuel used in a separate motor is drawn from the same tank as the one which supplies fuel for the propulsion of the vehicle, a reasonable determination of the quantity of taxable liquid fuel used in such separate motor or during such period is acceptable for purposes of application of the tax. This determination must be based, however, on the operating experience of the person using the taxable liquid fuel, and the taxpayer must maintain records which support the allocation used. Devices to measure the number of miles the vehicle has traveled, such as hubometers, may be used in making a preliminary determination of the number of gallons of fuel used to propel the vehicle. In order to make a final determination of the number of gallons of fuel used to propel the vehicle, there must be added to this preliminary determination the amount of fuel consumed while idling or warming up the motor preparatory to propelling the vehicle.

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 16, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-8 Definitions.

For purposes of the regulations in this subpart, unless otherwise expressly indicated:

(a) Highway. The term “highway” includes any road (whether a Federal highway, State highway, city street, rural road, or otherwise) in the United States which is not a private roadway.

(b) Highway vehicle—(1) In general. The term “highway vehicle” means any self-propelled vehicle, or any trailer or semi-trailer, designed to perform a function of transporting a load over highways, whether or not also designed to perform other functions, but does not include a vehicle described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. For purposes of this definition, a vehicle consists of a chassis, or a chassis and a body if the vehicle has a body, but does not include the vehicle's load. Therefore, in determining whether a vehicle is a “highway vehicle”, it is immaterial that the vehicle is designed to perform a highway transportation function for only a particular kind of load, such as passengers, furnishings and personal effects (as in a house, office, or utility trailer), a special type of cargo, goods, supplies, or materials, or, except to the extent otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, machinery or equipment specially designed to perform some off-highway task unrelated to highway transportation. In the case of specially designed machinery or equipment, it is also immaterial, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, that such machinery or equipment is permanently mounted on the vehicle. For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, the term “transport” includes the term “tow”. A vehicle which is not a highway vehicle within the meaning of this paragraph shall be treated as a non-highway vehicle for purposes of section 4041. Examples of vehicles that are designed to perform a function of transporting a load over the public highways are passenger automobiles, motorcycles, buses, and highway-type trucks, truck tractors, trailers, and semi-trailers.

(2) Exceptions—(i) Certain specially designed mobile machinery for nontransportation functions. A self-propelled vehicle, or trailer or semi-trailer, is not a highway vehicle if it (A) consists of a chassis to which there has been permanentaly mounted (by welding, bolting, riveting, or other means) machinery or equipment to perform a construction, manufacturing, processing, farming, mining, drilling, timbering, or other operation similar to any one of the foregoing enumerated operations if the operation of the machinery or equipment is unrelated to transportation on or off the public highways, (B) the chassis has been specially designed to serve only as a mobile carriage and mount (and a power source, where applicable) for the particular machinery or equipment involved, whether or not such machinery or equipment is in operation, and (C) by reason of such special design, such chassis could not, without substantial structural modification, be used as a component of a vehicle designed to perform a function of transporting any load other than that particular machinery or equipment or similar machinery or equipment requiring such a specially designed chassis.

(ii) Certain vehicles specially designed for off-highway transportation. A self-propelled vehicle, or a trailer or semi-trailer, is not a highway vehicle if it is (A) specially designed for the primary function of transporting a particular type of load other than over the public highway in connection with a construction, manufacturing, processing, farming, mining, drilling, timbering, or other operation similar to any one of the foregoing enumerated operations, and (B) if by reason of such special design, the use of such vehicle to transport such load over the public highways is substantially limited or substantially impaired. For purposes of applying the rule of clause (b) of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii), account may be taken of whether the vehicle may travel at regular highway speeds, requires a special permit for highway use, is overweight, overheight or overwidth for regular use, and any other relevant considerations. Solely for purposes of determinations under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii), where there is affixed to the vehicle equipment used for loading, unloading, storing, vending, handling, processing, preserving, or otherwise caring for a load transported by the vehicle over the public highways, the functions are related to the transportation of a load over the public highways even though the functions may be performed off the public highways.

(iii) Certain trailers and semi-trailers specially designed to perform nontransportation functions off the public highways. A trailer or semi-trailer is not a highway vehicle if it is specially designed to serve no purpose other than providing an enclosed stationary shelter for the carrying on of a function which is directly connected with and necessary to, and at the off-highway site of, a construction, manufacturing, processing, mining, drilling, farming, timbering, or other operation similar to any one of the foregoing enumerated operations, such as a trailer specially designed to serve as an office for such an operation.

(3) Optional application. For purposes of section 4041, if any rules existing immediately prior to January 13, 1977, would, if applicable, unequivocally resolve an issue involving the definition of a highway vehicle with respect to a period prior to such date, at the option of the taxpayer, such rules existing prior to such date shall be applied to resolve the issue for all periods prior to such date, and the rules of paragraph (b) (1) and (2) of this section, which define the term “highway vehicle”, shall not apply with respect to such issue for all periods prior to such date.

(4) Diesel-powered highway vehicle. The term “diesel-powered highway vehicle” means any highway vehicle (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(1) of this section) which is also a motor vehicle (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) and which uses diesel fuel (as defined in paragraph (e) of this section) for propulsion purposes.

(c) Motor vehicles. The term “motor vehicle” includes all types of vehicles propelled by motor that are designed for carrying or towing loads from one place to another, regardless of the type of load or material carried or towed and whether or not the vehicle is registered or required to be registered for highway use. Included are fork lift trucks used to carry loads at railroad stations, industrial plants, warehouses, etc. The term does not include farm tractors, trench diggers, power shovels, bulldozers, road graders or rollers, and similar equipment which does not carry or tow a load; nor does it include any vehicle which moves exclusively on rails. For periods prior to January 6, 1977, a vehicle which is designed for towing, but not carrying, loads shall not be considered to be a motor vehicle.

(d) Taxable liquid fuel. The term “taxable liquid fuel” (or “taxable liquid”) means any liquid which is either—

(1) Diesel fuel as defined in paragraph (e) of this section,

(2) Special motor fuel as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, or

(3) Any liquid fuel used in an aircraft in “noncommercial aviation”, as defined in paragraph (h) of this section.

(e) Diesel fuel. The term “diesel fuel” means any liquid (other than a product taxable as gasoline under the provisions of section 4081) which is sold for use or used as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle.

(f) Special motor fuel. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, special motor fuel means any liquid fuel, including—

(i) Any liquefied petroleum gas (such as propane, butane, pentane, or mixtures of the same);

(ii) Liquefied natural gas; or

(iii) Benzol, benzene, naptha, or any other liquid, whether a refined, partly refined, or unrefined product, 10 percent of which has been recovered when the thermometer reads 347 °F. (175 °C.) or 95 percent of which has been recoverd when the thermometer reads 464 °F. (240 °C.) when subjected to distillation in accordance with the “Standard Method of Test for Distillation of Gasoline, Naptha, Kerosene, and Similar Petroleum Products” (A.S.T.M. designation: D86) of the American Society for Testing Materials, regardless of the trade name under which sold.

(2) The term “special motor fuel” does not include any product taxable under the provisions of section 4081, nor does it include “kerosene, gas oil, or fuel oil”, as defined in paragraph (g) of this section.

(g) Kerosene, gas oil, or fuel oil. (1) The term “kerosene, gas, oil or fuel oil” means any product (i) 10 percent of which has not been recovered when the thermometer reads 347 °F. (175 °C.), and (ii) 95 percent of which has not been recovered when the thermometer reads 464 °F. (240 °C.), when subjected to distillation in accordance with the “Standard Method of Test for Distillation of Gasoline, Naptha, Kerosene, and Similar Petroleum Products” (A.S.T.M. designation: D86) of the American Society for Testing Materials.

(2) Products designated as kerosene, gas, oil, or fuel oil which do not fall within the specifications of both paragraphs (g)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section are taxable as special motor fuel if sold or used as a fuel in a motor vehicle or motorboat.

(h) Fuel used in the aircraft in noncommercial aviation. The term “fuel used in an aircraft in noncommercial aviation” means any liquid (including any product taxable under section 4081) that is sold for use or used as a fuel in an aircraft in noncommercial aviation (as defined in paragraph (j) of this section).

(i) Registered. The term “registered”, when used with reference to a highway vehicle, means—

(1) Registered for highway use under the laws of any State, District of Columbia, or foreign country, or

(2) Required to be registered for highway use under the law of the State, District of Columbia, or foreign country in which it is operated or situated. Any highway vehicle which is operated under a dealer's tag, license, or permit is considered to be registered. A highway vehicle is not considered to be “registered” solely because there has been issued a special permit for operation of the vehicle at particular times and under specified conditions. However, a highway vehicle which is required to be registered and which also has been issued a special permit for operation of the vehicle under specified conditions, such as carrying an oversized load, is still considered to be “registered”.

(j) Noncommercial aviation. The term “noncommercial aviation” means any use of an aircraft, other than in a business of transporting persons or property for compensation or hire by air. The term also includes any use of an aircraft, in a business described in the preceding sentence, which is properly allocable to any transportation exempt from taxes imposed by sections 4261 (transportation of persons) and 4271 (transportation of property) by reason of section 4281 (use of small aircraft on nonestablished lines) or 4282 (transportation of members of affiliated group).

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 17, Jan. 2, 1986, as amended by T.D. 8609, 60 FR 40081, Aug. 7, 1995]

§ 48.4041-9 Exemption for farm use.

(a) In general. The tax imposed by section 4041 does not apply to diesel fuel or special motor fuel, or fuel used in noncommercial aviation, sold for use or used on a farm in the United States for farming purposes. The tax applies in the case of diesel fuel delivered into the fuel supply tank of a highway vehicle, or special motor fuel delivered into the fuel supply tank of a motor vehicle or motorboat, even if it is known that the liquid fuel is to be used on a farm for farming purposes. Credit or refund of the tax paid in such case may be claimed as provided by section 6427(c) upon proof that the taxable liquid was used on a farm for farming purposes. A tax-free sale of fuel delivered into the fuel supply tank of an aircraft in noncommercial aviation where such fuel is to be used on the farm for farming purposes may be made only if the requirements of § 48.4041-11 are met. The terms “used on a farm for farming purposes”, and related terms, have the same meaning for purposes of the exemption in section 4041(f) and the regulations in this section as these terms are defined in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of section 6420(c) and the regulations contained in § 48.6420-4.

(b) Application of exemption. The exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply with respect to diesel fuel or special motor fuel or fuel used in noncommercial aviation sold for use or used for nonfarming purposes, or diesel fuel or special motor fuel or fuel used in noncommercial aviation sold for use or used off a farm, regardless of the nature of the use. Thus, if a vehicle, motorboat, or aircraft is used both on a farm and off the farm, or if it is used on a farm both for farming and nonfarming purposes, the exemption applies only with respect to that portion of the diesel fuel or special motor fuel or fuel used in noncommercial aviation which is sold for use or used “on a farm for farming purposes”. For purposes of this exemption, it is immaterial whether or not a vehicle is registered for highway use. However, the actual use of the vehicle and the place where it is used are material. For example, if a truck used on a farm for farming purposes is also used on the highways (even though in connection with operating the farm), tax applies to that diesel fuel or special motor fuel which is sold for use or used in operating the truck on the highways, since the fuel was used off the farm.

(c) Termination of exemption. The exemption referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply on and after October 1, 1988.

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 18, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-10 Exemption for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft.

(a) Application of exemption. The tax imposed by section 4041 does not apply to any fuels which are sold for use or used as supplies for vessels or aircraft within the meaning of section 4221(a)(3) and (d)(3), and § 48.4221-4. In the case of a liquid sold for use as fuel in an aircraft, a tax-free sale may be made only if the requirements of § 48.4041-11 are met. For credit or refund of tax paid on fuels which have been sold or used as supplies for vessels or aircraft, see section 6416(b)(2)(B), section 6427, and paragraph (f) of this section.

(b) Evidence required to establish exemption. (1) In order to establish exemption from tax in the case of a sale of fuels for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft, it is necessary that the seller obtain from the owner, charterer, or authorized agent of the vessel or aircraft and retain in its possession a property executed exemption certificate in the form prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section. If fuel is sold tax free for use as supplies for civil aircraft employed in foreign trade or in trade between the United States and any of its possessions, the exemption certificate must show the name of the country in which the aircraft is registered.

(2) If only occasional sales of fuels are made to a purchaser for use which is exempt from tax as provided in this section, a separate exemption certificate must be furnished for each order. However, if sales are regularly or frequently made to a purchaser for such exempt use, a certificate covering all orders for a specified period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters is acceptable. Such certificates and proper records of invoices, orders, etc., relative to tax-free sales must be kept for inspection by the district director as provided in section 6001. If a seller's records with respect to any sale claimed to be tax free do not include a proper certificate, with supporting invoices and such other evidence as may be necessary to establish the exempt character of the sale, tax is payable by the seller on the sale.

(c) Acceptable form of exemption certificate. The following form of exemption certificate, which must be adhered to in substance, is acceptable for the purposes of this section.

Exemption Certificate

(For use by purchasers of fuels for use as supplies for certain vessels or aircraft (section 4041(g) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954).)

(Date), 19—

The undersigned purchaser hereby certifies that he/she is the

(owner, charterer, or authorized agent of owner or charterer) of (Name of company and vessel) and that the fuel specified in the accompanying order, or as specified below or on the reverse side hereof, will be used only as fuel supplies for a vessel belonging to one of the following classes of vessels (including aircraft) to which section 4041(g) of the Internal Revenue Code applies: (Check class to which vessel belongs):

(1) Vessels (including aircraft) engaged in foreign trade.

(2) Vessels engaged in trade between the Atlantic and Pacific ports of the United States.

(3) Vessels (including aircraft) engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions.

(4) Vessels employed in the fisheries or whaling business.

(5) Vessels (including aircraft) of war of the United States or a foreign nation.

The undersigned understands that if the fuels are sold or used otherwise than as stated above and for a taxable purpose specified in section 4041 of the Internal Revenue Code, the undersigned will be liable for the tax upon such sale or use. It is also understood that this certificate may not be used in purchasing fuels, if such fuels are for use as fuels in pleasure vessels, or of any type of aircraft except—

(1) Civil aircraft employed in foreign trade or trade between the United States and any of its possessions, and otherwise entitled to exemption, and

(2) Aircraft owned by the United States or any foreign country and constituting a part of the armed forces thereof.

The undersigned understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate to secure exemption will subject the undersigned and all others making fraudulent use to a penalty equivalent to the amount of tax due on the sale of the fuel and, upon conviction, to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution. The purchaser also understands that it must be prepared to establish by satisfactory evidence the purpose for which the fuel purchased under this certificate was used.

(Signature) (Address) Registration Number if fuel used as supplies for civil aircraft engaged in foreign trade or in trade between the United States and any of its possessions.

(d) Exemption certificate not obtained prior to filing of seller's excise tax return. If the exemption certificate is not obtained prior to the time the seller files a return covering taxes due for the period during which the sale was made, the seller must include the tax on the sale in its return for that period. However, if the certificate is later obtained, a claim for refund of the tax paid on the sale may be filed on Form 843, or a credit for the tax paid may be taken upon a subsequent return as provided by section 6416(b)(2)(B) and § 48.6416(b)-2(c).

(e) Liability of purchaser. The person who purchases fuels tax free as provided in this section is liable for the tax imposed by section 4041 if the person sells or uses such fuel in a sale or use that is not exempt under any provision of law applicable to the taxes imposed by section 4041.

(f) Credit or refund. (1) If diesel fuel or special motor fuel upon which the tax imposed by section 4041(a) (1) or (2), has been paid, is sold or used as supplies for vessels, a credit or refund of the tax is available under section 6416(b)(2)(B) to the retail dealer who paid the tax. As an alternative, a credit or refund of tax is available under section 6427 to the operator of the vessel who used the fuel. Where the retail dealer claims refund of the tax, the dealer, in accordance with section 6416(a), must reimburse the operator of the vessel for the amount of tax or obtain the written consent of the operator to the filing of such claim.

(2) If aviation fuel upon which the tax imposed by section 4041(c) has been paid is sold or used as supplies for aircraft, credit or refund of the tax is available only as a payment under section 6427 to the operator of the aircraft who uses the fuel or to the person who resells the fuel for such use.

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 18, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-11 Tax-free sales of fuel for use in noncommercial aviation only if sellers and certain purchasers are registered.

(a) In general. Any sale of liquid fuel for delivery into a fuel supply tank of an aircraft is presumed to be subject to tax under section 4041(c), unless both the seller and purchaser of the liquid fuel are registered as provided in paragraph (b) of this section or are within one of he exceptions provided in paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Form of registration. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section (relating to exceptions for State and local governments, for fuel purchased from customs bonded warehouses or continuous customs custody, and for fuel purchased for use in certain aircraft of the United States or of any foreign nation), tax-free sales under section 4041(c) may be made only if both the seller and the purchaser have registered as required by section 4041(i) and this paragraph (b). If fuel is purchased tax paid for use in noncommercial aviation but is used for a nontaxable purpose, see section 6427(a) for provisions relating to refunds or credits of tax for tax-paid fuels not used for the purpose for which sold. Any person desiring to be registered in order to sell or purchase fuel free of the tax imposed by section 4041(c) must, before making any tax-free sale or purchase, file Form 637A, in duplicate. Form 637A must be filed with the District Director of Internal Revenue for the district in which the principal place of business of the applicant is located (or if the applicant has no principal place of business in the United States, with the Director of International Operations, Internal Revenue Service, Washington, DC 20224). The person who receives a validated Certificate of Registry (Validated Form 637A) is considered to be registered for purposes of selling or purchasing fuel tax free as provided in this section.

(c) Transactions excepted from registration. (1) A State or local government purchasing fuel delivered into a fuel supply tank of an aircraft it operates for its exclusive use may, but is not required to, register as provided in this section.

(2) Any purchaser of aircraft fuel who purchases fuel from any customs bonded warehouse or from continuous customs custody elsewhere than in a bonded warehouse is not required to register to purchase aircraft fuel from these sources tax free.

(3) Any purchaser of fuel for use in an aircraft which is owned by the United States or any foreign country and constitutes a part of the armed forces thereof is not required to register to purchase aircraft fuel tax free.

(4) The exceptions from registration in paragraphs (c) (1), (2), and (3) of this section do not relieve purchasers from the requirement of furnishing an exemption certificate as required by paragraph (d) of this section.

(d) Evidence of tax-free sale. (1) To establish the right of a purchaser to purchase fuel delivered into the fuel supply tank of an aircraft tax free, the seller must obtain from the purchaser and retain in its possession a certificate, properly executed and signed by or on behalf of the purchaser, containing the following information:

(i) Date of purchase,

(ii) The purchaser's registration number (or the exception from registration which is relied upon), and

(iii) A brief statement of the intended tax-free use of the fuel (for example, by an airline in the business of transporting persons or property for hire).

(2) The following form of certificate, which must be adhered to in substance, is acceptable for the purposes of this paragraph.

(Date) ____________________, 19____

The undersigned signifies that he/she, or the

(Name of purchaser if other than undersigned) of which the undersigned is (Title) holds Certificate of Registry No. __________ or has not registered because (Brief statement of exception from registration relied upon) delivered into a supply tank of the subject aircraft may be purchased free of tax because the fuel will be used (Brief statement of tax-free use)

The undersigned understands that if the fuel is used otherwise than as stated above and for a purpose taxable under section 4041 of the Internal Revenue Code, the undersigned will be liable for the tax upon such use, and that the undersigned must be prepared to establish by satisfactory evidence the purpose for which the fuel purchased under this certificate was used.

The undersigned also understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate to secure exemption will subject the undersigned and all others making fraudulent use to a penalty equivalent to the amount of tax due on the sale of the fuel and, upon conviction, to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

(Signature) (Address)

(3) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, a separate exemption certificate must be furnished for each sale of fuel delivered into a fuel supply tank of an aircraft. If a portion of the fuel is intended to be used for a nontaxable purpose, the entire amount of the fuel may be sold tax free. Exemption certificates and proper supporting records such as invoices, orders, etc., relative to tax-free sales must be readily accessible for inspection by internal revenue officers and retained as provided in section 6001 of the Code and the regulations thereunder.

(4) If the purchaser of fuel to be used in an aircraft has reasonable grounds to believe that 90 percent or more of the total of the fuel to be purchased by it during a specified period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters will be used in a tax-free use, it may furnish each of its suppliers an exemption certificate covering all purchases for the specified period. The certificate shall be substantially in the same form as the certificate in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, except that in place of the date the purchaser shall specify the period covered by the certificate, and the purchaser shall give a brief explanation of its grounds for belief that 90 percent or more of its total fuel will be used in a tax-free use.

(5) The presumption under section 4041(i) that any liquid delivered into a fuel supply tank of an aircraft is taxable places the duty on the seller of the liquid fuel to use reasonable diligence to satisfy itself that a tax-free sale of fuel to the purchaser is allowed by law. In the absence of circumstances surrounding a sale that would raise a question as to whether a tax-free sale is allowable, the requirement of reasonable diligence is satisfied if the seller receives and retains the required certificate evidencing the right of the purchaser to buy the fuel tax free. However, if the circumstances are such as to indicate the seller has failed to use reasonable diligence, it is not relieved of liability for the tax imposed by section 4041(c). In addition, if the seller fails to obtain and retain the evidence of tax-free sales as required by this paragraph (d), it is not relieved of liability for the tax imposed by section 4041(c).

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 19, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-12 Sales by United States, etc.

The taxes imposed by section 4041 apply to the sale at retail of taxable liquid fuels by the United States or by any agency or instrumentality of the United States, unless by statute specifically exempted from these taxes. However, the exemptions from these taxes provided by section 4041 (f), (g), and (h) and the regulations thereunder contained in this subpart F are available to the extent therein provided.

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 20, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-13 Other credits or refunds.

(a) In general. For provisions relating to credit or refund of tax paid on taxable liquid fuel resold by the purchaser, or used otherwise than for the purpose for which purchased, see section 6427 and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart O of this part.

(b) Tax-paid liquid fuel used by local transit systems. For provisions relating to credit or refund in the case of taxable liquid fuel used in vehicles while engaged in furnishing scheduled common carrier public passenger land transportation service along regular routes, see section 6427(b) and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart O of this part.

(c) Credit or refund of diesel fuel differential amount. For provisions relating to an income tax credit or refund of the increased diesel fuel tax for original purchasers of diesel-powered automobiles and light trucks, see section 6427(g) and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart O of this part.

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 20, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-14 Exemption for sale to or use by certain aircraft museums.

(a) In general. (1) The tax imposed by section 4041 does not apply to liquids which are sold for use or used by an aircraft museum in an aircraft or vehicle owned by such museum and used exclusively for the procurement, care, and exhibition of aircraft of the type used for combat or transport in World War II.

(2) In the case of liquid sold for use in an aircraft owned by an aircraft museum and to be used for the pruposes described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a tax-free sale may be made only if the requirements of § 48.4041-11 are met.

(b) Cross reference. For the definition of aircraft museum, see section 4041(h)(2).

[T.D. 8066, 51 FR 20, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-15 Sales to States or political subdivisions thereof.

(a) Application of exemption. The taxes imposed by section 4041 do not apply in the case of a sale of any liquid by any person for the exclusive use of any State or any political subdivision thereof, the District of Columbia, or in the case of the use of any liquid by any State or any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, as a fuel in a motor vehicle, motorboat, or aircraft.

(b) Evidence required to establish exemption. Any vendor claiming exemption under this section shall be prepared to produce evidence that will establish the right to exemption from the tax imposed by section 4041. Generally, orders or contracts of a State or a political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, when signed by an authorized officer thereof will be accepted in support of the exemption. However, in the absence of such orders or contracts, a certificate signed by such an authorized officer that the liquid sold was purchased for the exclusive use of a State or political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, will be acceptable. The certificate shall be in substantially the following form:

Exemption Certificate

(For use by States and local governments. (section 4041(g)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code).)

Date ____________________, 19____.

I hereby certify that I am ______________ of ______________ (State or local government) that I am authorized to execute this certificate; and that

(Check applicable type of certificate) ______the liquid or liquids specified in the accompanying order, or on the reverse side hereof, (or) ______all orders placed by the purchaser for the period commencing __________ (Date) and ending __________ (Date) (period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters) are, or will be, purchased from __________ (Name of vendor) for the exclusive use of __________ (Governmental unit) of ____________________ (State or local government).

I understand that the exemption from tax in the case of sales of liquids under this exemption certificate is limited to the sale of articles purchased for the exclusive use of a State, etc. I understand that the fraudulent use of this certificate for the purpose of securing this exemption will subject me and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with costs of prosecution.

Signature ____________________ Address ____________________

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13516, Mar. 31, 1978. Redesignated by T.D. 8066, 51 FR 14, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-16 Sales for export.

(a) General rule. In order for a sale to be exempt from tax under section 4041 as a sale for export, it is necessary that the liquid be (1) identified as having been sold by the retailer for export and (2) exported in due course. To establish exemption from tax in the case of a taxable article for export, it is necessary that the retailer maintain adequate records and have in his possession documentary evidence showing that the article was so sold.

(b) Proof of exportation. Exportation may be evidenced by any one of (1) a copy of the export bill of lading issued by the delivering carrier, (2) a certificate by the agent or representative of the export carrier showing actual exportation of the liquid, (3) a certificate of landing signed by a customs officer of the foreign country to which the liquid is exported, or (4) a statement of the foreign consignee showing receipt of the liquid.

(c) Shipment to possessions of the United States. The same provisions as relate to sales for export and proof of exportation will apply to sales for shipment to a possession of the United States, within the meaning of § 48.0-2.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13516, Mar. 31, 1978. Redesignated by T.D. 8066, 51 FR 14, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-17 Tax-free retail sales to certain nonprofit educational organizations.

(a) In general. The taxes imposed by section 4041 do not apply in the case of a sale of any liquid by any person to a nonprofit educational organization (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) for its exclusive use, or in the case of the use of any liquid by such an organization. In the case of a school operated as an activity of an organization described in section 501(c)(3), as referred to in paragraph (b) of this section, the liquid must be sold for the exclusive use of the school, or the liquid must be used exclusively by the school.

(b) Definition of nonprofit educational organization. For purposes of section 4041(g)(4) and this section, the term “nonprofit educational organization” means an organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii), that is exempt from income tax under section 501(a), whose primary function is the presentation of formal instruction and which normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly enrolled body of pupils or students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are regularly carried on. The term also includes a school operated as an activity of an organization described in section 501(c)(3) which is exempt from income tax under section 501 (a), provided such school normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly enrolled body of pupils or students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are regularly carried on.

(c) Evidence required to establish tax-free sales to a nonprofit educational organization; general rule. To establish the right to exemption, the retailer must obtain from the purchaser and retain in its possesson a properly executed certificate as set forth in paragraph (d) of this section.

(d) Forms of exemption certificates. The following forms of exemption certificates will be acceptable for the purpose of this section and must be adhered to in substance.

(1) Form of certificate for exemption from retailers excise taxes for use by a nonprofit educational organization, other than a school operated as an activity of a church or other exempt organization that in itself is not a nonprofit educational organization.

Exemption Certificate

(For use by a nonprofit educational organization (other than a school operated as an activity of a church or other exempt organization that in itself is not a nonprofit educational organization) purchasing articles subject to retailers excise tax for its exclusive use) __________________, 19____ (Date) I hereby certify that I am __________ (Title) of __________ (Exempt organization); that I am authorized to execute this certificate; and that the articles specified in the accompanying order or on the reverse side hereof are purchased by such organization exclusively for use in its educational activities.

I understand that this exemption certificate is for use only by a nonprofit educational organization in the tax-free purchase for its exclusive use of articles subject to the retailers excise tax; and it is agreed that if any article purchased tax free under this exemption certificate is used otherwise, such fact will be reported to the retailer from whom the tax-free purchase was made.

The organization claiming exemption under this certificate has received a determination letter (or a ruling) from the Internal Revenue Service holding the organization to be exempt from income tax as an organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii) that is exempt from income tax under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (or has received a determination letter (or ruling) under the corresponding provisions of prior revenue laws). The date of such determination letter (or ruling) is ______ and such determination letter (or ruling) has not been withdrawn or revoked.

I understand that the fraudulent use of this certificate for the purpose of securing this exemption will subject me and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with costs of prosecution.

(Signature of authorized individual) (Address)

(2) Form of certificate for exemption from retailers excise taxes for use by a school operated as an activity of a church or other organization described in section 501(c)(3) that in itself is not an educational organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Code:

Exemption Certificate

(For use by or for a school operated as an activity of a church or other organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, that is not, in itself, an educational organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii), purchasing articles subject to retailers excise tax for the exclusive use of the school) — ____________________, 19____ (Date) I hereby certify that I am __________ (Title) of __________ (School, church, parish, etc.); that I am authorized to execute this certificate; and that the articles specified in the accompanying order or on the reverse side hereof are purchased by such institution exclusively for use in its educational activities.

I understand that this exemption certificate is for use only by a school operated as an activity of a church or other organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, in the tax-free purchase for its exclusive use of articles subject to the retailers excise tax; or by a church, or other organization in the tax-free purchase of any such article for the exclusive use of its school which qualifies for the exemption; and it is agreed that if any article purchased tax free under this exemption certificate is used otherwise, such fact will be reported to the retailer from whom the tax-free purchase was made.

The school operated as an activity of the church or other organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly enrolled body of pupils or students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are regularly carried on.

I understand that the fraudulent use of this certificate for the purpose of securing this exemption will subject me and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with costs of prosecution.

(Signature of authorized individual) (Address)

(e) Frequency of certificates. Where only occasional sales are made by a retailer to a nonprofit educational organization, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, a separate exemption certificate should be furnished for each order. However, where sales by the retailer to the educational organization are regularly or frequently made, a certificate covering all orders for a specified period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters will be acceptable. Such certificate and proper records of invoices, orders, etc., relative to tax-free sales must be readily accessible for inspection by internal revenue officers and retained as provided in section 6001 of the Code and the regulations thereunder.

(f) Prima facie evidence of exempt use. The exemption certificate procured by the retailer from the purchasing nonprofit educational organization will be acceptable as prima facie evidence that the article is purchased for the exclusive use of such organization.

(g) Exemption certificate not obtained prior to filing of retailer's excise tax return. If the sale is otherwise exempt but the exemption certificate is not obtained prior to the time the retailer files a return covering taxes due for the period in which the sale was made, the retailer must include the tax on such sale in its return for that period. However, if the certificate is later obtained, a credit may be taken on a subsequent return or a claim for refund of the tax paid on such sale may be filed, within the period of limitation prescribed by section 6511(b) of the Code and § 301.6511(b)-1 of this chapter.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13516, Mar. 31, 1978. Redesignated by T.D. 8066, 51 FR 14, Jan. 2, 1986]

§ 48.4041-18 [Reserved]
§ 48.4041-19 Exemption for qualified methanol and ethanol fuel.

(a) In general. Under section 4041(b)(2), the tax imposed upon the sale or use of motor fuels under section 4041(a) does not apply to the sale or use of qualified methanol or ethanol fuel.

(b) Qualified methanol or ethanol fuel defined. For purposes of section 4041(b)(2) and this section, qualified methanol or ethanol fuel is liquid motor fuel, 85% of the volume of which consists of alcohol, as defined in section 4081(c) and § 48.4081-2(a)(4) of the regulations as modified by the following sentence. For purposes of section 4041(b)(2) and this section, the alcohol contained in a qualified methanol or ethanol fuel may be produced from coal. The actual gallonage of each component of the mixture (without adjustment for temperature) shall be used in determining whether the 85 percent alcohol has been met. Further, in determining whether a particular mixture containing less than 85 percent alcohol satisfies this percentage requirement, the District Director shall take into account the existence of any facts and circumstances, that establish that but for the commercial and operational realities of the blending process, it may reasonably be concluded that the mixture would have contained at least 85 percent alcohol. The necessary facts and circumstances will not be found to exist if over a period of time the mixtures blended by a blender show a consistent pattern of failing to contain 85 percent alcohol.

(c) Mixtures which do not qualify as qualified methanol or ethanol fuel. If a methanol or ethanol fuel does not qualify as qualified methanol or ethanol fuel under this section, the entire mixture is taxed at the rate of tax applicable to sales of special motor fuels under section 4041(a)(2) of the Code.

(d) Refunds relating to fuels used to produce qualified fuels. See section 6427 for rules which relate to the allowance of a refund or credit to a person who uses tax-paid diesel, special motor or noncommercial aviation fuels to produce a qualified methanol or ethanol fuel and section 6416 for rules which relate to the allowance of a refund or credit to a person who uses tax-paid gasoline to produce a qualified methanol or ethanol fuel.

(e) Later blending. If a qualified methanol or ethanol fuel is blended with other motor fuel in a mixture less than 85 percent of which consists of alcohol, the subsequent sale or use of such alcohol mixture fuel is taxable under the provisions of section 4041 or section 4081 subject to the requirements, limitations and exemptions of those sections. Thus, if the alcohol mixture fuel is at least 10% alcohol by volume, sale or use of the fuel is taxed at the rates provided in section 4041(k) or section 4081(c), but if the fuel is less than 10% alcohol, sale or use of the fuel is taxed at the rates provided in section 4041(a) or section 4081(a).

(f) Effective date. Section 4041(b)(2) applies to sales or uses after March 31, 1983, and before October 1, 1988.

[T.D. 8152, 52 FR 31617, Aug. 21, 1987]

§ 48.4041-20 Partially exempt methanol and ethanol fuel.

(a) In general. Under section 4041(m), the sale or use of partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel is taxed at the rate of 4 1/2 cents per gallon of fuel sold or used. The amount of tax is based upon the total volume of fuel and not merely upon the nonalcohol portion of the fuel.

(b) Partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel defined. For purposes of section 4041(m) and this section, partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel is liquid motor fuel, 85% of which by volume consists of alcohol, as defined in section 4081 and § 48.4081-2(a)(4) of the regulations, as modified by the following sentence. For purposes of section 4041(m) and this section, the alcohol contained in partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel must be produced from natural gas. The actual gallonage of each component of the mixture (without adjustment for temperature) shall be used in determining whether the 85 percent alcohol requirement has been met. Further, in determining whether a particular mixture containing less than 85 percent alcohol satisfies this percentage requirement, the District Director shall take into account the existence of any facts and circumstances that establish that but for the commercial and operational realities of the blending process, it may reasonably be concluded that the mixture would have contained at least 85 percent alcohol. The necessary facts and circumstances will not be found to exist if over a period of time the mixtures blended by a blender show a consistent pattern of failing to contain 85 percent alcohol. See paragraph (f) of this section for rules relating to information required to be attached to the taxpayer's return of the tax imposed by chapter 31 relating to the alcohol content of the partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel for which tax is paid.

(c) Mixtures which do not qualify as partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel. If methanol or ethanol fuel does not qualify as partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel under this section, the entire mixture is taxed at the rate of tax applicable under section 4041(a)(2) of the Code.

(d) Refunds relating to fuels. See section 6427 for rules which relate to the allowance of a refund or credit to a person who uses tax-paid diesel, special motor or noncommercial aviation fuel to produce a partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel and section 6416 for rules which relate to the allowance of a refund or credit to a person who uses tax-paid gasoline to produce a partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel.

(e) Later blending. If a partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel is blended with other motor fuel in a mixture less than 85 percent of which consists of alcohol, the subsequent sale or use of such blended motor fuel is taxable under the provisions of section 4041(a) or section 4081(a), subject to the requirements, limitations and exemptions of those sections.

(f) Records required to be furnished by the taxpayer. A taxpayer making a return of the tax imposed by chapter 31 indicating payment of the tax under section 4041(m) and § 48.4041-20 at the reduced rate must attach a statement to the return indicating the total number of gallons of partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel containing at least 85 percent alcohol and the total number of gallons of partially exempt methanol or ethanol fuel containing less than 85 percent alcohol, but qualifying for taxation at the reduced rate under the rules of paragraph (b) of this section. However, the taxpayer does not have to specify the precise mixture ratio of every mixture blended for which tax is being paid.

(g) Effective date. Section 4041(m) applies to sales and uses after July 31, 1984. If methanol or ethanol fuel meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section was put into the tank of a vehicle prior to August 1, 1984, the fuel is considered used prior to that date and is subject to the tax described in paragraph (a) of section 4041.

[T.D. 8152, 52 FR 31617, Aug. 21, 1987]

§ 48.4041-21 Compressed natural gas (CNG).

(a) Delivery of CNG into the fuel supply tank of a motor vehicle or motorboat—(1) Imposition of tax. Tax is imposed on the delivery of compressed natural gas (CNG) into the fuel supply tank of the propulsion engine of a motor vehicle or motorboat unless tax was previously imposed on the CNG under paragraph (b) of this section.

(2) Liability for tax. If the delivery of the CNG is in connection with a sale, the seller of the CNG is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. If the delivery of the CNG is not in connection with a sale, the operator of the motor vehicle or motorboat, as the case may be, is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(b) Bulk sales of CNG—(1) In general. Tax is imposed on the sale of CNG that is not in connection with the delivery of the CNG into the fuel supply tank of the propulsion engine of a motor vehicle or motorboat if, by the time of the sale—

(i) The buyer has given the seller a written statement stating that the entire quantity of the CNG covered by the statement is for use by the buyer for a taxable use as a fuel in a motor vehicle or motorboat; and

(ii) The seller has given the buyer a written acknowledgement of receipt of the statement described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.

(2) Liability for tax. The seller of the CNG is liable for the tax imposed under this paragraph (b).

(c) Exemptions—(1) In general. The taxes imposed under this section do not apply to a delivery or sale of CNG for a use described in section 4041(a)(3)(B), (b)(1), (f), (g), or (h). However, if the person otherwise liable for tax under this section is the seller of the CNG, the exemption under this section applies only if, by the time of sale, the seller receives an unexpired certificate (as described in this paragraph (c)) from the buyer and has no reason to believe any information in the certificate is false.

(2) Certificate; in general. The certificate to be provided by a buyer of CNG is to consist of a statement that is signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the buyer, should be in substantially the same form as the model certificate provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, and should contain all information necessary to complete the model certificate. A new certificate must be given if any information in the current certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale. The certificate expires on the earliest of the following dates:

(i) The date one year after the effective date of the certificate (which may be no earlier than the date it is signed).

(ii) The date a new certificate is provided to the seller.

(iii) The date the seller is notified by the Internal Revenue Service or the buyer that the buyer's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(3) Withdrawal of the right to provide a certificate. The Internal Revenue Service may withdraw the right of a buyer of CNG to provide a certificate under this paragraph (c) if the buyer uses CNG to which a certificate applies in a taxable use. The Internal Revenue Service may notify any seller to whom the buyer has provided a certificate that the buyer's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(4) Model certificate.

Certificate of Person Buying Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for a Nontaxable Use (To support tax-free sales of CNG under section 4041 of the Internal Revenue Code.) Name, address, and employer identification number of seller

____________________ (“Buyer”) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The CNG to which this certificate relates will be used in a nontaxable use.

This certificate applies to the following (complete as applicable):

If this is a single purchase certificate, check here ______ and enter:

1. Invoice or delivery ticket number ________________

2. ________ (number of MCFs) ________

If this is a certificate covering all purchases under a specified account or order number, check here ______ and enter:

1. Effective date ________________

2. Expiration date ________________ (period not to exceed 1 year after the effective date)

3. Buyer account or order number ________________

Buyer will not claim a credit or refund under section 6427 of the Internal Revenue Code for any CNG to which this certificate relates.

Buyer will provide a new certificate to the seller if any information in this certificate changes.

Buyer understands that if Buyer violates the terms of this certificate, the Internal Revenue Service may withdraw Buyer's right to provide a certificate.

Buyer has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn. In addition, the Internal Revenue Service has not notified Buyer that the right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn from a purchaser to which Buyer sells CNG tax free.

Buyer understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Buyer and all parties making any fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Employer identification number Address of Buyer Signature and date signed

(d) Rate of tax. The rate of the tax imposed under this section is the rate prescribed by section 4041(a)(3).

(e) Effective date. This section is effective October 1, 1995.

[T.D. 8609, 60 FR 40082, Aug. 7, 1995; 60 FR 50245, Sept. 28, 1995; T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10453, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17155, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9051, 69 FR 15941, Apr. 2, 2003]

Subpart G Fuel Used on Inland Waterways

Source: T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13516, Mar. 31, 1978, unless otherwise noted.

§ 48.4042-1 Tax on fuel used in commercial waterway transportation.

(a) In general. Section 4042(a) imposes an excise tax on the use of liquid fuel in the propulsion system of commercial transportation vessels while traveling on certain inland and intracoastal waterways (see § 48.4042-1 (f)). The tax applies generally to all types of vessels, including ships, barges, and tugboats. It is in addition to all other taxes imposed on the sale or use of fuel.

(b) Amount of tax. For the amount of tax, see section 4042(b).

(c) Person liable for tax. The person operating the vessel in which the propulsion fuel is consumed is the user of liquid fuel for purposes of section 4042(a). Thus, a person who operates (or whose employees operate) a vessel is responsible for filing returns and paying the tax. If a vessel owner (or lessee) contracts with an independent contractor to operate the vessel, the independent contractor is the user of liquid fuel for purposes of section 4042(a), regardless of who purchases the fuel.

(d) Time of use. Fuel is not taxed by section 4042(a) when put into a vessel's tanks. For purposes of section 4042(a), fuel is used when it is actually consumed by a vessel's engine.

(e) Liquid fuel. For purposes of the tax imposed under this section, liquid fuel means any liquid fuel including gasoline, diesel fuel, special motor fuel, or Bunker C residual fuel oil.

(f) Commercial waterway transportation—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4042(a) and § 48.4042-2(c)(1), the term “commercial waterway transportation” means the use of a vessel on the waterways specified in paragraphs (g) (1) through (27) of this section if:

(i) Use of the vessel is in the business of transporting property for compensation or hire, or

(ii) Use of the vessel is in transporting property in the business of the owner, lessee, or operator of the vessel (whether or not a fee is charged).

Except for the operation of certain fishing vessels, the operation of all vessels satisfying the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(i) or (1)(ii) of this section will be deemed “commercial waterway transportation,” regardless of whether the vessel is actually engaged in the transportation of property on a particular voyage. Thus, “commercial waterway transportation” includes the operation of vessels while moving empty of cargo, while awaiting passage through locks, while dislodging vessels grounded on a sandbar, while moving to or from a repair facility, while maneuvering around loading and unloading docks, and while fleeting barges into a single tow.

(2) Fishing vessels exception. A vessel does not transport property in the business of the owner, lessee, or operator, for purposes of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, by merely transporting fish or other aquatic animal life caught on the voyage. The tax imposed by section 4042(a) does not apply to fuel used by a fishing vessel while traveling to a fishing site, while engaged in fishing, or while returning from the fishing site with its catch. However, the tax applies to fuel used by a commercial vessel along the taxable waterways while traveling to pick up aquatic animal life caught by another vessel and while transporting the catch of such other vessel.

(g) Specified waterways. Only fuel used on those waterways specified in section 206 of the Inland Waterways Revenue Act of 1978 (specified waterways) is taxable. The specified waterways are as follows:

(1) Alabama-Coosa Rivers. From junction with the Tombigbee River at river mile (hereinafter referred to as RM) 0 to junction with the Coosa River at RM 314.

(2) Allegheny River. From confluence with the Monongahela River to form the Ohio River at RM 0 to the head of the existing project at East Brady, Pennsylvania, RM 72.

(3) Apalachicola-Chattachoochee and Flint Rivers. Apalachicola River from mouth at Apalachicola Bay (intersection with the Gulf Intracoastal Waterway) RM 0 to junction with Chattachoochee and Flint Rivers at RM 107.8. Chattachoochee River from junction with Apalachicola and Flint Rivers at RM 0 to Columbus, Georgia, at RM 155 and Flint River, from junction with Apalachicola and Chattachoochee Rivers at RM 0 to Bainbridge, Georgia, at RM 28.

(4) Arkansas River (McClellan-Kerr Arkansas River Navigation System). From junction with Mississippi River at RM 0 to port of Catoosa, Oklahoma, at RM 448.2.

(5) Atchafalaya River. From RM 0 at its intersection with the Gulf Intracoastal Waterway at Morgan City, Louisiana, upstream to junction with Red River at RM 116.8.

(6) Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway (A.I.W.W.). Two inland water routes approximately paralleling the Atlantic coast between Norfolk, Virginia, and Miami, Florida, for 1,192 miles via both the Albermarle and Chesapeake Canal and Great Dismal Swamp Canal routes. For vessels traveling along the A.I.W.W. no matter how short the distance, the A.I.W.W. includes the main channel, all alternate channels, and all adjoining bays and sounds, regardless of depth. However, vessels merely crossing the A.I.W.W. on route either to a coastal port or to a nonspecified waterway will not be treated as traveling on the A.I.W.W.

(7) Black Warrior-Tombigbee-Mobile Rivers. Black Warrior River System from RM 2.9, Mobile River (at Chickasaw Creek) to confluence with Tombigbee River at RM 45. Tombigbee River (to Demopolis at RM 215.4) to port of Birmingham, RM's 374—411 and upstream to head of navigation on Mulberry Fork (RM 429.6), Locust Fork (RM 407.8), and Sipsey Fork (RM 430.4).

(8) Columbia River (Columbia-Snake Rivers Inland Waterways). From The Dalles at RM 191.5 to Pasco, Washington (McNary Pool), at RM 330, Snake River from RM 0 at the mouth to RM 231.5 at Johnson Bar Landing, Idaho.

(9) Cumberland River: Junction with Ohio River at RM 0 to head of navigation, upstream to Carthage, Tennessee, at RM 313.5.

(10) Green and Barren Rivers. Green River from junction with the Ohio River at RM 0 to head of navigation at RM 149.1.

(11) Gulf Intracoastal Waterway (G.I.W.W.) From the mouth of St. Mark's River, Florida, to Brownsville, Texas, 1,134.5 miles. For vessels traveling along the G.I.W.W. no matter how short the distance, the G.I.W.W. includes the main channel, all alternate channels, and all adjoining bays and sounds, regardless of depth. However, vessels merely crossing the G.I.W.W. on route either to a coastal port or to a nonspecified waterway will not be treated as traveling on the G.I.W.W.

(12) Illinois Waterway. Illinois River from junction with the Mississippi River at RM 0 to the Des Plaines River and along the Des Plaines River to Lockport Lock and Dam at RM 291. Chicago Sanitary and Ship Canal from Lockport Lock and Dam at RM 291 to the South Branch Chicago River and along the South Branch Chicago River to Lake Street, Chicago at RM 325.5 near Chicago Harbor. Calumet-Sag Channel from junction with the Chicago Sanitary and Ship Canal to the Little Calumet River and along the Little Calumet and Calumet Rivers to turning basin 5, near the entrance to Lake Calumet, an additional 23.8 RMS. Total waterway distance approximately 350 RMs.

(13) Kanawha River. From junction with Ohio River at RM 0 to RM 90.6 at Deepwater, West Virginia.

(14) Kaskaskia River. From junction with the Mississippi River at RM 0 to RM 36.2 at Fayetteville, Illinois.

(15) Kentucky River. From junction with Ohio River at RM 0 to confluence of Middle and North Forks at RM 258.6.

(16) Lower Mississippi River. From Baton Rouge, Louisiana, RM 233.9 to Cairo, Illinois, RM 953.8.

(17) Upper Mississippi River From Cairo, Illinois, RM 953.8 to Minneapolis, Minnesota, RM 1,811.4.

(18) Missouri River. From junction with Mississippi River at RM 0 to Sioux City, Iowa, at RM 734.8.

(19) Monongahela River. From junction with Allegheny River to form the Ohio River at RM 0 to junction of the Tygart and West Fork Rivers, FairmontOhio River. From junction with the Mississippi River at RM 0 to junction of the Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers at Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, at RM 981.

(21) Ouachita-Black Rivers. From the mouth of the Black River at its junction with the Red River at RM 0 to RM 351 at Camden, Arkansas.

(22) Pearl River. From junction of West Pearl River with the Rigolets at RM 0 to Bogalusa, Louisiana, RM 58.

(23) Red River. From RM 0 to the mouth of Cypress Bayou at RM 236.

(24) Tennessee River. From junction with Ohio River at RM 0 to confluence with Holstein and French Rivers at RM 652.

(25) Tennessee-Tombigbee Waterway. From its confluence with the Tennessee River to the Warrior River at Demopolis, Alabama.

(26) White River. From RM 9.8 to RM 255 at Newport, Arkansas.

(27) Willamette River. From RM 21 upstream of Portland, Oregon, to Harrisburg, Oregon, at RM 194.

[T.D. 7727, 45 FR 70861, Oct. 27, 1980, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10453, Mar. 14, 1996]

§ 48.4042-2 Special rules.

(a) Dual use of liquid fuels—(1) Dual use by the propulsion engine. The tax imposed by section 4042(a) applies to all taxable liquid used as a fuel in the propulsion system of the vessel, regardless of whether the engine (or other propulsion system) is used for a purpose other than propulsion of the vessel. For purposes of this section, any engines generating movement of a vessel (including bow thrusters used for steering) are part of the propulsion system. The tax does not apply to fuel consumed in engines which are not used to generate movement of a vessel. When the propulsion engine operates special equipment by means of a power take-off or power transfer, the tax applies to all liquid fuel consumed by that engine. For example, the tax applies to all fuel used in the engine operating an alternator, a generator, or pumps, if that engine is used to generate movement of a vessel.

(2) Common tank. If the liquid fuel consumed by a nonpropulsion engine is drawn from the same tank as fuel consumed by a propulsion engine, a reasonable determination of the quantity of fuel used in such a separate engine will be acceptable for purposes of excluding from taxation a portion of the fuel consumed by the vessel. The determination of the amount of fuel consumed by the nonpropulsion engine may be based primarily on the operating experience of the person using the fuel; however, in order to exclude fuel from taxation under the rule set out in this paragraph (a)(2), the taxpayer must maintain records which will support the allocation used.

(b) Voyages crossing boundaries of the specified waterways. Fuel consumed by a vessel traveling along the specified waterways is taxable only to the extent of fuel consumed for propulsion while on the specified waterways. Generally, the operator may calculate the amount of fuel consumed while on the specified waterways during a particular voyage by mulitplying total fuel consumed in the propulsion engine by a fraction. The numerator of the fraction is the time spent operating on the specified waterways; the denominator is the total time spent operating on the specified and nonspecified waterways during the voyage. This calculation may not be used when it is unreasonable. It may be determined to be unreasonable by:

(1) Better evidence of fuel consumed (e.g., readings from an accurate fuel gauge or records from similar voyages); or

(2) The existence of factors causing a substantial discrepancy between the rate of fuel consumption on the specified and nonspecified waterways.

(c) Records required. (1) All operators of vessels used in commercial waterway transportation must maintain records sufficient to establish to the satisfaction of the district director the amount of fuel used for taxable purposes. Those records may include, when relevant to establish liability:

(i) Quantity of fuel and date of acquisition of all liquid fuels acquired for both taxable and nontaxable purposes, whether delivered to storage tanks or tanks on a vessel;

(ii) Date and quantity of fuel pumped into tanks on each vessel;

(iii) Identification number or name of each vessel using fuel; and

(iv) Departure time, departure point, route traveled, destination, and arrival time for each vessel.

(2) Vessel operators seeking a tax exemption provided by section 4042(c) must maintain records which will support any exemption claimed. Where applicable, the records shall contain:

(i) The draft of the vessel on each voyage (for exemption under section 4042(c)(1));

(ii) The type of vessel in which fuel is consumed and the type of vessel in which cargo is transported (for exemption under section 4042(c) (1), (2) or (4); and

(iii) The ultimate use of cargo transported (for exemption under section 4042(c)(3)).

[T.D. 7727, 45 FR 70862, Oct. 27, 1980, as amended by T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992]

§ 48.4042-3 Certain types of commercial waterway transportation excluded.

(a) Deep draft ocean-going vessels—(1) In general. Under section 4042(c)(1), there is no tax imposed by section 4042(a) if:

(i) The vessel was designed primarily for use on the high seas; and

(ii) The vessel has a draft of more than 12 feet on the voyage for which the fuel tax exclusion is sought (e.g. 12 feet 1 inch).

(2) Meaning of “designed primarily for use on the high seas.” Section 4042(c)(1) requires a determination of the primacy of the design features rendering the vessel useful for service on the high seas, as opposed to the features which render the vessel useful for service on all less turbulent waters. Thus, whether a ship is “designed primarily for use on the high seas” must be determined from all the facts, including structural features and equipment. If the predominant use of a vessel is on the high seas, it shall be presumed to be “designed primarily for use on the high seas.” If the predominant use of a vessel is on waters other than the high seas, it shall be presumed not to be “designed primarily for use on the high seas.”

(3) Meaning of “high seas.” For purposes of this section, “high seas” shall mean waters other than the territorial waters of the United States or any other country. Thus, the high seas shall not include the internal waters of any country, the Great Lakes, harbors, or narrow coastal indentations.

(4) Twelve foot draft—(i) Definition. For purposes of section 4042(c)(1), “draft” shall mean the maximum vertical distance between the mean water line and the bottom of the keel. In cases where a vessel has a skeg or other appendage extending locally below the line of the keel, the draft shall be measured from the deepest appendage. A separage determination of draft must be made for each voyage when the vessel has its greatest load of cargo and fuel. For purposes of this determination, the term “voyage” means a round trip voyage. Therefore, if a vessel travels into the specified waterway system to pick up cargo and has a draft sufficient to qualify for the exclusion when loaded, then for purposes of section 4042(c)(1) the vessel satisfies the 12 foot draft requirement for the entire voyage. Similarly, if a vessel loaded with cargo travels into the specified waterway system with a draft sufficient to qualify for the exclusion provided by section 4042(c)(1), then the fuel consumed on the entire voyage may be excluded, regardless of the vessel's draft after the cargo is unloaded.

(ii) Example. The following example illustrates the application of paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section:

Example.A ship with a design draft of 20 feet (maximum certified draft when fully loaded) travels into a taxable waterway with only a partial load, such that the draft is 12 feet. The ship unloads and departs the waterway empty. The portion of the fuel consumed for propulsion of the vessel on the specified waterway is taxable because only vessels with a draft greater than 12 feet are eligible for the section 4042(c)(1) exemption from tax.

(b) Commercial passenger vessels. Under section 4042(c)(2), the tax imposed by section 4042(a) does not apply to fuel consumed by vessels used primarily for the transportation of persons. Thus, commercial passenger vessels while being operated as passenger vessels are not subject to tax, even if such vessels in fact transport property in addition to transporting passengers. Similarly, ferry boats carrying passengers are not subject to tax, even if such vessels carry the passengers' automobiles.

(c) Exemption for State or local governments—(1) In general. Under section 4042(c)(3), there is no tax imposed by section 4042(a) if:

(i) The vessel is being used by a State or local government; and

(ii) The vessel is being used in transporting property in the State or local government's business.

(2) State or local government. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section a “vessel is being used by a State or local government” if it is operated by any State, the District of Columbia, or any political subdivision of a State. If a private party is contracted to haul for a State or local government, the vessel is not “being used by a State or local government.” Similarly, if a person other than a State or local government is contracted to supply vessel operators, the fuel consumed by the vessel is not used “by a State or local government,” regardless of ownership of the vessel. However, when a local government leases barges and employees of the local government operate the barges, the vessel is being used by the local government.

(3) Government business. The test for whether a vessel is being used “in transporting in a State or local government's business,” within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, is whether the ultimate use of the cargo is for a function which is ordinarily carried out by governmental units. For example, when the cargo transported is salt to be spread on icy roads, the vessel is being used “in transporting in a State or local business” because the use to which the cargo will be put (road maintenance) is a function ordinarily performed by governmental units. Fuel consumed in a vessel transporting property for compensation or in furtherance of a business not ordinarily carried out by a governmental unit is not exempt from taxation by section 4042(c)(3).

(d) Ocean-going barges. Under section 4042(c)(4), the tax imposed by section 4042(a) does not apply to fuel consumed by tugs moving exclusively barges released by ocean-going carriers solely to pick up or deliver international cargos. The tax exemption provided by section 4042(c)(4) applies to LASH barges, SEABEE barges, and all other ocean-going barges carried aboard ocean-going vessels. There is no exemption under section 4042(c)(4) while:

(1) One or more of the barges in the tow is not a LASH barge, SEABEE barge, or other ocean-going barge carried aboard on ocean-going vessel; or

(2) One or more of the barges in the tow is not on an international voyage; or

(3) Part of the cargo in the tow is not being transported internationally.

[T.D. 7727, 45 FR 70862, Oct. 27, 1980]

Subpart H Motor Vehicles, Tires, Tubes, Tread Rubber, and Taxable Fuel

Source: T.D. 6648, 28 FR 3633, Apr. 13, 1963, unless otherwise noted.

11 Automotive and Related Items
12 motor vehicles
§ 48.4052-1 Heavy trucks and trailers; certification requirement.

(a) In general. Tax is not imposed by section 4051 on the sale of an article for resale or leasing in a long-term lease if, by the time of sale, the seller has in good faith accepted from the buyer a statement that the buyer executed in good faith and that is in substantially the same form, and subject to the same conditions, as the certificate described in § 145.4052-1(a)(6) of this chapter, except that the certificate must be signed under penalties of perjury and need not refer to Form 637 or include a registration number.

(b) References to § 145.4052-1(a)(2) of this chapter. References to § 145.4052-1(a)(2) of this chapter appearing in § 145.4052-1 of this chapter apply also to paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Effective date. This section is applicable after June 30, 1998. In addition, tax is not imposed on a sale occurring after December 31, 1997, and before July 1, 1998, if the conditions of paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17155, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4061(a) [Reserved]
§ 48.4061(a)-1 Imposition of tax; exclusion for light-duty trucks, etc.

(a) Imposition of tax—(1) In general. Section 4061(a)(1) imposes a tax on the sale by the manufacturer, producer, or importer of the following articles (including in each case parts and accessories therefor sold on or in connection therewith or with the sale thereof):

(i) Automobile truck and bus chassis and bodies;

(ii) Truck and bus trailer and semitrailer chassis and bodies; and

(iii) Tractors of the kind chiefly used for highway transportation in combination with a trailer or semitrailer.

For purposes of this section, a sale of an automobile truck or bus, or a truck or bus trailer or semitrailer, shall be considered to be a sale of a chassis and of a body enumerated in this paragraph (a)(1).

(2) Special rule applicable to chassis and bodies. A chassis or body enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is taxable under section 4061(a)(1) only if such chassis or body is, within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section, sold for use as a component part of a highway vehicle (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section), which is an automobile truck or bus, a truck or bus trailer or semitrailer, or a tractor of the kind chiefly used for highway transportation in combination with a trailer or semitrailer. Furthermore, a chassis or body which is not enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is not taxable under section 4061(a)(1) even though such chassis or body is used as a component part of a highway vehicle (e.g., a chassis or body of a passenger automobile).

(3) Equipment installed on chassis or bodies. (i) For purposes of the tax imposed by section 4061(a)(1), equipment or machinery installed on a taxable chassis or body is considered to be an integral part of the taxable chassis or body if the machinery or equipment contributes toward the highway transportation function of the chassis or body, regardless of whether separate sales of the machinery or equipment would be subject to the tax on automotive parts or accessories imposed by section 4061(b). Therefore, the amount of the sale price of a taxable chassis or body that is attributable to such machinery or equipment must be included in the tax base when computing the tax due on a manufacturer's or importer's sale or use of a taxable chassis or body. Examples of the type of machinery or equipment that contribute to the highway transportation function of a chassis or body are the following: Loading and unloading equipment; towing winches; and all other machinery or equipment contributing to either the maintenance or safety of the vehicle, the preservation of cargo (other than refrigeration units), or the comfort or nvenience of the driver or passengers.

(ii) Amounts charged for machinery or equipment that is installed on a taxable chassis or body are not part of the taxable sale price of the chassis or body if (A) such machinery or equipment does not contribute toward the highway transportation function of the chassis or body and (B) the reasonableness of the charge for the machinery or equipment is supportable by adequate records. Examples of such machinery or equipment are the following: equipment designed to spread materials on the highway; machinery or equipment used solely in the operation of mobile amusement rides; television equipment mounted in a mobile television studio; machine shop equipment mounted in a mobile machine shop; and car crushing equipment mounted on the chassis of a mobile car crusher.

(4) Passenger automobile chassis and bodies, motorcycles, etc. No tax is imposed under section 4061(a) on the sale of a motorcycle or, in the case of a sale made after December 10, 1971, on the sale of automobile chassis and bodies not enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or of trailer and semitrailer chassis and bodies suitable for use in combination with passenger automobiles. For tax on certain sales made after December 31, 1958, and before December 11, 1971, see paragraph (b)(4) of this section.

(5) Cross references. For additional rules relating to the sale of a chassis or body enumerated in this paragraph for use as a component part of a highway vehicle, see paragraph (e) of this section. For exclusion of certain light-duty highway vehicles, see paragraph (f) of this section. For provisions relating to the tax-free sale of bodies to certain manufacturers, see section 4063(b) and the regulations thereunder. For other exemptions from the tax imposed under section 4061(a), see sections 4063 and 4221 and the regulations thereunder. For special rules relating to the sale by a manufacturer of a vehicle consisting of a tax-paid chassis and a body manufactured by him, see § 48.4061(a)-5.

(b) Rate and computation of tax—(1) In general. With respect to the articles enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the rate of tax imposed by section 4061(a)(1) is:

Percent

(i) For articles sold during the period beginning on January 1, 1959, and ending on September 30, 1979 | 10

(ii) For articles sold on or after October 1, 1979 | 5

(2) Determination of price subject to tax. The tax is computed by applying to the price for which the article is sold the rate in effect at the time of the sale. For definition of the term “price” and for application of the tax to leases of articles, see sections 4216 and 4217, respectively, and the regulations thereunder. If an article subject to tax under section 4061(a) has equipment mounted thereon to perform functions other than in connection with the transportation of persons or property, no tax under section 4061(a) attaches to that part of the selling price of the completed unit which is reasonably attributable to such equipment provided such part of the selling price is billed separately on the invoice to the customer or can otherwise be established by adequate records. For other rules relating to the sale of parts or accessories in connection with the sale of a chassis, body, or completed unit, see § 48.4061(a)-4. For special rules relating to the determination of selling price when equipment or machinery is permanently installed on a taxable chassis or body, see paragraph (a)(3) of this section.

(3) Tax on trailers sold before December 11, 1971. With respect to sales made after December 31, 1958, and before December 11, 1971, the rate of tax imposed under section 4061(a) on a trailer or semitrailer chassis or body that is a highway vehicle within the meaning of paragraph (d) of this section depends upon a classification of the article. The sale during this period of a trailer or semitrailer chassis or body (other than a house trailer) suitable for use in combination with passenger automobiles is subject to tax as set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. A trailer suitable for use in combination with a passenger automobile which is designed for purposes other than living or sleeping, commonly referred to as a “utility trailer”, is an example of a trailer taxable at the 7 percent rate set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. The sale of a trailer or semitrailer chassis or body that is not suitable for use in combination with passenger automobiles is subject to tax as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(4) Passenger automobile chassis and bodies and related articles sold before December 11, 1971. With respect to the sale after December 31, 1958, and before December 11, 1971, of (i) automobile chassis and bodies not enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or (ii) trailer and semitrailer chassis and bodies suitable for use in combination with passenger automobiles, the tax imposed by section 4016(a) is computed in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section at the rate of 10 percent for sales prior to June 22, 1965, and at the rate of 7 percent thereafter.

(c) Liability for tax. The tax imposed by section 4061(a) is payable by the manufacturer, producer, or importer making the sale.

(d) Highway vehicle—(1) Definition. For purposes of this subchapter, the term “highway vehicle” means any self-propelled vehicle, or any trailer or semitrailer, designed to perform a function of transporting a load over public highways, whether or not also designed to perform other functins, but does not include a vehicle described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. For purposes of this definition, a vehicle consists of a chassis, or a chassis and a body if the vehicle has a body, but does not include the vehicle's load. Therefore, in determining whether a vehicle is a “highway vehicle”, it is immaterial that the vehicle is designed to perform a highway transportation function for only a particular kind of load, such as passengers, furnishings and personal effects (as in a house, office, or utility trailer), a special type of cargo, goods, supplies, or materials, or, except to the extent otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, machinery or equipment specially designed to perform some off-highway task unrelated to highway transportation. In the case of specially designed machinery or equipment, it is also immaterial, except as provided in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, that such machinery or equipment is permanently mounted on the vehicle. For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, the term “transport” includes the term “tow”, and the term “public highway” includes any road (whether a Federal highway, State highway, city street, or otherwise) in the United States which is not a private roadway. A vehicle which is not a highway vehicle within the meaning of this paragraph shall be treated as a nonhighway vehicle for purposes of this subchapter. Examples of vehicles that are designed to perform a function of transporting a load over the public highways are passenger automobiles, motorcycles, buses, and highway-type trucks, truck tractors, trailers, and semi-trailers.

(2) Exceptions—(i) Certain specially designed mobile machinery for nontransportation functions. A self-propelled vehicle, or trailer or semi-trailer, is not a highway vehicle if it (A) consists of a chassis to which there has been permanently mounted (by welding, bolting, riveting, or other means) machinery or equipment to perform a construction, manufacturing, processing, farming, mining, drilling, timbering, or operation similar to any one of the foregoing enumerated operations if the operation of the machinery or equipment or equipment is unrelated to transportation on or off the public highways, (B) the chassis has been specially designed to serve only as a mobile carriage and mount (and a power source, where applicable) for the particular machinery or equipment involved, whether or not such machinery or equipment is in operation, and (C) by reason of such special design, such chassis could not, without substantial structural modification, be used as a component of a vehicle designed to perform a function of transporting any load other than that particular machinery or equipment or similar machinery or equipment requiring such a specially designed chassis.

(ii) Certain vehicles specially designed for offhighway transportation. A self-propelled vehicle, or a trailer or semitrailer, is not a highway vehicle if it is (A) specially designed for the primary function of transporting a particular type of load other than over the public highway in connection with a construction, manufacturing, processing, farming, mining, drilling, timbering, or operation similar to any one of the foregoing enumerated operations, and (B) if by reason of such special design, the use of such vehicle to transport such load over the public highways is substantially limited or substantially impaired. For purposes of applying the rule of (B) of this subdivision, account may be taken of whether the vehicle may travel at regular highway speeds, requires a special permit for highway use, is overweight, overheight or overwidth for regular use, and any other relevant considerations. Soley for purposes of determinations under this paragraph (d)(2)(ii), where there is affixed to the vehicle equiplment used for loading, unloading, storing, vending, handling, processing, preserving, or otherwise caring for a load transported by the vehicle over the public highways, the functions are related to the transportation of a load over the public highways even though such functions may be performed off the public highways.

(iii) Certain trailers and semi-trailers specially designed to perform non-transportation functions off the public highways. A trailer or semi-trailer is not a highway vehicle if it is specially designed to serve no purpose other than providing an enclosed stationary shelter for the carrying on of a function which is directly connected with and necessary to, and at the off-highway site of, a construction, manufacturing, processing, mining, drilling, farming, timbering, or operation similar to any one of the foregoing enumerated operations such as a trailer specially designed to serve as an office for such an operation.

(3) Optional application. For purposes of this subchapter, if any rules existing immediately prior to January 13, 1977 would, if applicable, unequivocally resolve an issue involving the definition of a highway vehicle with respect to a period prior to such date, at the option of the taxpayer, such rules existing prior to such date shall be applied to resolve the issue for all periods prior to such date, and the rules of paragraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this section, which define the term “highway vehicle”, shall not apply with respect to such issue for all periods prior to such date.

(4) Highway vehicles not subject to section 4061 tax. Although for purposes of this paragraph (d) passenger automobiles, automobile trailers and semitrailers, motor homes, motorcycles, light-duty trucks, etc., will be considered to be highway vehicles because they are designed to perform a function of transporting a load over public highways, the tax imposed under section 4061(a) does not apply to the sale of such vehicles because they either are not articles subject to tax under such section or are excluded from tax under section 4061 (a)(2). See also paragraphs (a)(4) and (f) of this section. Despite the fact that passenger automobiles, passenger automobile trailers and semi-trailers, motor homes, motorcycles, light-duty trucks, etc., are not subject to the manufacturers excise tax on highway vehicles imposed by section 4061(a), the fact that they are nevertheless considered highway vehicles for purposes of this subchapter can be of material significance in determining the applicability of such excise taxes as the tax imposed by section 4041 (relating to diesel and special motor fuels), the tax imposed by section 4071(a)(1) (relating to tires of the type used on highway vehicles), or the tax imposed by section 4481 (relating to highway use tax on highway motor vehicles). In addition, the definition of the term “highway vehicle” is material in determining the credits or refunds provided by section 6416(b)(2)(I) (relating to diesel fuel used in certain highway vehicles), section 6421(a) (relating to gasoline used for a nonhighway purpose), section 6424 (relating to lubricating oil used otherwise than in a highway motor vehicle), and section 6427(a) (relating to diesel or special motor fuel not used for a taxable purpose).

(e) Sale of a chassis or body for use as a component of a vehicle other than a highway vehicle—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (a)(4), (e)(2), or (f) of this section, the sale of a chassis or body shall be deemed to be a sale of a chassis or body enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section if such chassis or body is, in any sense, reasonably suitable for use as a component part of a highway vehicle that is either an automobile truck or bus, a truck or bus trailer or semitrailer, or a tractor of the kind chiefly used for highway transportation in combination with a trailer or semitrailer.

(2) Exceptions based on unitary concept—(i) Completed vehicles not qualifying as highway vehicles. With respect to the sale of a vehicle after January 13, 1977 which would otherwise be treated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section as a sale of a chassis or body enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the tax imposed under section 4061(a) shall not apply to such sale if the vehicle (considered as a completed unit) is not considered to be a highway vehicle within the meaning of paragraph (d) of this section.

(ii) Tax-free sales of chassis and bodies. With respect to the sale after January 13, 1977 of a chassis or body (not including the sale of a completed vehicle described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section) which would otherwise be treated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section as a sale of a chassis or body enumerated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the tax imposed under section 4061(a) shall not apply to such sale if the chassis or body is actually sold for use, or for resale for use, as a component part of a vehicle that is not a highway vehicle within the meaning of paragraph (d) of this section. For purposes of determining the liability of the manufacturer or reseller for the tax imposed under section 4061(a), the test of the preceding sentence will be considered to be met if (A) the purchaser furnishes the statement set forth in paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section to the seller before the manufacturer files a return covering excise taxes for the period in which the sale was made, and (B) the manufacturer or reseller complies with the requirements set forth in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section. However, even though the purchaser and manufacturer (or reseller) have complied with the foregoing, the tax imposed under section 4061(a), shall apply to such sale if the manufacturer or reseller has received a written notification (applicable with respect to such sale) from the Internal Revenue Service that sales of a specified type or types of chassis or bodies may not be made tax free pursuant to this paragraph (e)(2)(ii) until further notification. Any such notification issued by the Internal Revenue Service shall be effective only with respect to sales after the manufacturer has received such notification.

(iii) Requirements to be met. In order for a manufacturer or reseller to sell free of tax under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section an otherwise taxable chassis or body, the manufacturer or reseller must:

(A) Retain in his possession the statement required to be furnished by the purchaser and such other evidence as may be furnished by the purchaser to support the tax-free sale. Such evidence shall be retained for at least 3 years from the due date of the tax that would be due if the transaction in question had been a taxable sale; and

(B) Indicate on the invoice with respect to the sale of the chassis or body that the sale of such article is made free of tax under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section.

(iv) Form of statement. In order for an otherwise taxable chassis or body to be sold free of tax under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, the purchaser must execute and furnish to the manufacturer or reseller a statement that substantially complies with the following form:

__________________________, 19____

Under the penalty of perjury, the undersigned certifies that he, or the ____________________________, (Name of purchaser if other than the undersigned) of which he is __________________ (Title), is in the business of ______________________ (State nature of business), and that the chassis and/or bodies covered by the accompanying order or contract for purchase from ____________________ (Name and address of seller) are purchased for (check One) ____ ☐ use, or for ☐ resale for use, as components of the following type or types of nonhighway vehicles:

1. 2. 3.

The undersigned understands that he must be prepared to establish by satisfactory evidence the actual use or disposition of such chassis or bodies and that, upon their use or disposition other than use as components of a nonhighway vehicle, he consents to be treated as the manufacturer of any such chassis or body purchased by him free of the tax imposed by section 4061(a).

The undersigned also understands that he and all guilty parties will, for use of this statement to willfully attempt to evade or defeat the tax imposed under section 4061, be subject, under section 7201, to a fine of not more than $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

The undersigned agrees to retain in his possession a copy of this statement for at least 3 years from its date.

(Signature) (Address)

(v) Refund or credit of overpayment. If a purchaser furnished the manufacturer with the statement described in paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section after the time the manufacturer has filed a return covering excise taxes for the period in which the sale was made, the manufacturer must include the tax on the sale in his return for the period. However, in such case, if the conditions prescribed in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section are met, a claim for refund of the tax paid on such sale may be filed by the manufacturer on Form 843, or a credit taken on a subsequent return, in accordance with the provisions of sections 6402(a) and 6416(a) and § 48.6416(a)-1.

(vi) Cross reference. For special rules relating to the sale by a manufacturer of a vehicle consisting of a tax-paid chassis and a body manufactured by him, see § 48.4061(a)-5.

(f) Exclusion of light-duty trucks, buses, and related articles from tax—(1) In general. (i) No tax is imposed by section 4061(a)(1) on the sale after December 10, 1971, of the following articles, if suitable for use with a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight of 10,000 pounds or less (as determined under paragraph (f)(3) of this section):

(A) Automobile truck and bus chassis and bodies, and

(B) Truck trailer and semitrailer chassis and bodies, suitable for use with a trailer or semitrailer having a gross vehicle weight of 10,000 pounds or less (as so determined).

(ii) For purposes of this part, a chassis or body is suitable for use with a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight of 10,000 pounds or less (hereafter referred to in this paragraph (f) as a “light-duty vehicle”) if such chassis or body is commonly used with such a vehicle or possesses actual, practical, and commercial fitness for such use. A truck or bus chassis, sold after December 10, 1971, which is suitable for use with a light-duty vehicle, is not subject to the tax imposed by section 4061(a)(1) regardless of the body actually mounted thereon. Similarly, a truck trailer or semitrailer chassis sold after such date, suitable for use with a trailer or semitrailer having a gross vehicle weight of 10,000 pounds or less, which trailer or semitrailer is suitable for use in connection with a light-duty towing vehicle, is not subject to such tax regardless of the body actually mounted thereon. A truck or bus body, sold after such date, which is suitable for use with a light-duty vehicle, is not subject to such tax even though it may also be suitable for use with (and is actually a component of) a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight in excess of 10,000 pounds. Similarly, a truck trailer or semitrailer body sold after such date, suitable for use with a trailer or semitrailer having a gross vehicle weight of 10,000 pounds or less, which trailer or semitrailer is suitable for use with a light-duty towing vehicle, is not subject to such tax even though it may also be suitable for use with (and is actually a component of) a trailer or semitrailer having a gross vehicle weight of more than 10,000 pounds, or is used in connection with a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight of more than 10,000 pounds.

(iii) Where an exempt body is mounted on a taxable chassis, or a taxable body is mounted on an exempt chassis, the taxable chassis or taxable body, as the case may be, nevertheless remains subject to such tax, if the resulting vehicle is a highway vehicle as defined in paragraph (d) of this section.

(iv) Where the modification of an article, exempt from tax when sold by the original manufacturer, constitutes further manufacture after the original manufacturer's sale, a tax may be imposed on the subsequent manufacturer's sale or use of the modified article.

(2) Parts and accessories. (i) The sale of a part or accessory which, if sold on December 10, 1971, would be subject to the tax imposed by section 4061(a)(1) as in effect at such time, is not subject to the tax imposed by section 4061(a)(1) as in effect after such date if:

(A) It is sold by the manufacturer on or in connection therewith, or with the sale of, a vehicle enumerated in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section which is not subject to such tax, and

(B) It is not a replacement part (as defined in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section).

(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (f)(2), a part or accessory is considered sold with a vehicle if, as of the time the article is sold by the manufacturer, the part or accessory has been ordered from such manufacturer for use with the vehicle. Thus, for example, original equipment sold after December 10, 1971, with a light-duty vehicle, consisting of parts and accessories which are ordered from the manufacturer of the vehicle not later than the time at which such vehicle is sold by him (whether or not installed as of such time) are not subject to such tax. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(2), a part is a replacement part, regardless of when ordered,if its use with a vehicle is as a replacement for a part of such vehicle. Therefore, spare parts or accessories sold separately or ordered with a light-duty truck are subject to the tax imposed on sales of parts or accessories by section 4061(b)(1), unless they are excluded from tax as articles used interchangeably between truck and passenger vehicles under the provisions of section 4061(b)(2).

(3) Gross vehicle weight. (i) For purposes of paragraph (f)(1) of this section gross vehicle weight means the maximum total weight of a loaded vehicle. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f)(3), such maximum total weight shall be the gross vehicle weight rating of the article (as manufactured) as secified or established by the manufacturer of the completed article, unless such rating is unreasonable in light of the facts and circumstances in a particular case.

(ii) A manufacturer must specify or establish a weight rating for each chassis, body, or vehicle sold by him after September 22, 1971, if such article requires no additional manufacture other than (A) the addition of readily attachable articles, such as tire or rim assemblies or minor accessories, (B) the performance of minor finishing operations, such as painting, or (C) in the case of a chassis, the addition of a body. If an article is specially manufactured to the purchaser's specifications, such specifications may be used to establish the gross vehicle weight of the article.

(iii) A manufacturer shall maintian a record of the gross vehicle weight rating of each truck, bus, trailer, and semitrailer sold by him and excluded from the tax imposed by section 4061(a)(1) by reason of section 4061(a)(2) and this paragraph (f). For this purpose, a record of the serial number of each such article shall be treated as a record of the gross vehicle weight rating of the article if such rating is indicated by the serial number.

(iv) If (A) the manufacturer's rating indicated in a label or identifying device affixed to an article, (B) the rating set forth in his sales invoice or warranty agreement, and (C) his advertised rating for that article (or two or more identical articles) are inconsistent, the highest of such ratings will be considered to be the manufacturer's gross vehicle weight rating specified or established for purposes of the tax imposed by section 4061(a)(1).

(v) With respect to articles sold after January 31, 1972, the manufacturer's gross vehicle weight rating must take into account the strength of the chassis frame, the axle capacity and placement, and the spring, brake, rim, and tire capacities. The component with the lowest weight rating ordinarily shall be considered determinative of the gross vehicle weight. If the capacity of any of the readily attachable components (springs, brakes, rims, or tires) would otherwise be determinative of a gross vehicle weight rating of 10,000 pounds or less, no readily attachable component will be taken into account in determining such rating unless the rating determined solely on the basis of the chassis frame or the total of the axle ratings is 12,000 pounds or less.

(vi) For purposes of paragraph (f)(3)(v) of ths section, the term “total of the axle ratings” means the sum of the maximum load carrying capability (capacity and placement) of the axles (without regard to springs, brakes, rims, and tires) and, in the case of a trailer or semitrailer, the weight, if any, that is to be borne by a vehicle used in combination with the trailer or semitrailer for which gross vehicle weight is determined.

[T.D. 7461, 42 FR 2672, Jan. 13, 1977, as amended by T.D. 7461, 42 FR 5695, Jan. 31, 1977; T.D. 7566, 43 FR 41389, Sept. 18, 1978]

§ 48.4061(a)-2 Bonding of importers.

(a) Authority for requiring bond. Section 623 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1623), provides as follows:

Sec. 623. Bonds and other security. (a) In any case in which bond or other security is not specifically required by law, the Secretary of the Treasury may by regulation or specific instruction require, or authorize collectors of customs to require, such bonds or other security as he, or they, may deem necessary for the protection of the revenue or to assure compliance with any provision of law, regulation, or instruction which the Secretary of the Treasury or the Customs Service may be authorized to enforce.

(b) Whenever a bond is required or authorized by a law, regulation, or instruction which the Secretary of the Treasury or the Customs Service is authorized to enforce, the Secretary of the Treasury may—

(1) Except as otherwise specifically provided by law, prescribe the conditions and form of such bond, and fix the amount of penalty thereof, whether for the payment of liquidated damages or of a penal sum: Provided, That when a consolidated bond authorized by paragraph 4 of this subsection is taken, the Secretary of the Treasury may fix the penalty of such bond without regard to any other provision of law, regulation, or instruction.

(2) Provide for the approval of the sureties on such bond, without regard to any general provision of law.

(3) Authorize the execution of a term bond the conditions of which shall extend to and cover similar cases of importations over such period of time, not to exceed one year, or such longer period as he may fix when in his opinion special circumstances existing in a particular instance require such longer period.

(4) Authorize, to the extent that he may deem necessary, the taking of a consolidated bond (single entry on term), in lieu of separate bonds to assure compliance with two or more provisions of law, regulations, or instructions which the Secretary of the Treasury or the Customs Service is authorized to enforce. A consolidated bond taken pursuant to the authority contained in this subsection shall have the same force and effect in respect of every provision of law, regulation, or instruction for the purposes for which it is required as though separate bonds had been taken to assure compliance with each such provision.

(c) The Secretary of the Treasury may authorize the cancellation of any bond provided for in this section, or of any charge that may have been made against such bond, in the event of a breach of any condition of the bond, upon the payment of such lesser amount or penalty or upon such other terms and conditions as he may deem sufficient.

(d) No condition in any bond taken to assure compliance with any law, regulation, or instruction which the Secretary of the Treasury or the Customs Service is authorized to enforce shall be held invalid on the ground that such condition is not specified in the law, regulation, or instruction authorizing or requiring the taking of such bond.

(e) The Secretary of the Treasury is authorized to permit the deposit of money or obligations of the United States, in such amount and upon such conditions as he may by regulation prescribe, in lieu of sureties on any bond required or authorized by a law, regulation, or instruction which the Secretary of the Treasury or the Customs Service is authorized to enforce.

(b) Application for determination whether bond required—(1) Requirement of application—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, every importer of articles taxable under section 4061(a) shall make application for a determination whether the importer is required to give bond in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section. Such application shall be submitted in writing to the district director for the district in which the importer will file returns of any tax under section 4061(a) for which he may incur liability.

(ii) Form of application. No form is prescribed for making the application required under subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, but such application shall include the following information:

(a) The name of the person making the application and the address of his principal place of business, and, if the principal place of business of such person is outside the United States, the address of his principal place of business, office, or agency in the United States.

(b) Information establishing that the person making the application is an importer of articles taxable under section 4061(a).

(c) The kind and approximate number of automobiles, trucks, buses, etc., which the importer may be expected to import during an average calendar quarter and the approximate amount of tax under section 4061(a) for which the importer may be expected to incur liability in respect of such articles.

(d) Whether the importer has filed returns of tax under chapter 31 or chapter 32 within the 2-year period immediately preceding the date on which the application is filed, and, if so, the internal revenue district in which such returns were filed.

(e) Facts pertaining to the importer's assets and liabilities which will aid the district director in determining whether a bond shall be required.

(2) Exceptions. The provisions of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall have no application in any case where an article taxable under section 4061(a) is:

(i) Incidentally imported by an individual for his personal use.

(ii) Brought into the United States for export to a foreign country or possession of the United States.

(iii) Admitted to the United States free of duty as an instrument of international traffic.

(iv) Admitted to the United States free of duty as a temporary importation under bond.

(v) Returned to the United States after having been sold in the United States and exported.

(c) Requirement of bond—(1) In general. If the district director determines that a bond is necessary in order to insure payment of the tax under section 4061(a), and to assure compliance with all provisions of the Code and regulations thereunder, with respect to articles imported by any importer required to make application for a determination under paragraph (b) of this section, such bond shall be given by such importer. Such bond shall be submitted, in duplicate, to the district director for the district in which the importer will file returns of any tax under section 4061(a) for which he may incur liability.

(2) Execution of bond—(i) In general. The bond required under this paragraph shall be executed with satisfactory surety. (For provisions as to what will be considered “satisfactory surety”, see subparagraph (3) of this paragraph.) Such bond shall be conditioned that the principal shall not engage in any attempt, by himself or by collusion with others, to defraud the United States of any tax under section 4061(a); that he shall render truly and completely all returns, statements, and other documents required of him by law or regulations in respect of such tax; that he shall timely pay all such tax for which he is liable; and, in the case of any such tax in respect of an article released from customs custody by reason of such bond that he shall pay such tax whether the liability therefor is incurred by him or by some other person as the importer of the articles covered by the bond, unless such other person makes payment of such tax on or before the due date. The bond shall be in an amount which the district director believes to be sufficient to protect the interests of the United States with respect to all articles taxable under section 4061(a) which are released from customs custody by reason of such bond, but in no event shall the bond be in an amount less than the approximate amount of tax under section 4061(a) for which the principal may be expected to incur liability during an average calendar quarter. Such bond shall be signed by the individual, if the principal is an individual; the president, vice president, or other principal officer, if the principal is a corporation; a responsible and duly authorized member or officer having knowledge of its affairs, if the principal is a partnership or other unincorporated organization; or the fiduciary, if the principal is a trust or estate.

(ii) Cancellation clause. The bond required under this paragraph may be accepted with a cancellation clause incorporated therein. Such cancellation clause shall provide that:

(a) Any surety on the bond may at any time give notice to the principal and the district director that he desires to be relieved of liability under said bond after a date named, which shall be at least 60 days after the receipt of notice by the district director.

(b) If the notice is not withdrawn in writing prior to the date named in the notice, the rights of the principal as supported by said bond shall be terminated on such date (unless supported by another bond or bonds). The surety shall, however, remain liable with respect to any tax under section 4061(a) (plus penalties and interest) the liability for which is incurred in respect of articles released from customs custody by reason of the bond.

(c) Said notice may not be given by an agent of the surety, unless it is accompanied by power of attorney duly executed by the surety authorizing the agent to give such notice or by a verified statement that such power of attorney is on file with the Treasury Department.

(iii) Changes in bond. After filing of the bond required under this paragraph, no change may be made in the terms thereof except with the consent of the surety or sureties and subject to the approval of the district director.

(3) Satisfactory surety—(i) Approved surety company or bonds or notes of the United States. For purposes of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, a bond shall be considered executed with satisfactory surety if:

(a) It is executed by a surety company holding a certificate of authority from the Secretary as an acceptable surety on Federal bonds; or

(b) It is secured by bonds or notes of the United States as provided in 6 U.S.C. 15 (see 31 CFR Part 225).

(ii) Other surety acceptable in discretion of district director. For purposes of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, a bond may, in the discretion of the district director, be considered executed with satisfactory surety if, in lieu of being executed or secured as provided in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, it is:

(a) Executed by a corporate surety (other than a surety company), provided such corporate surety establishes that it is within its corporate powers to act as surety for another corporation or an individual;

(b) Executed by two or more individual sureties, provided such individual sureties meet the conditions contained in subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph;

(c) Secured by a mortgage on real or personal property;

(d) Secured by a certified, cashier's, or treasurer's check drawn on any bank or trust company incorporated under the laws of the United States or any State, Territory, or possession of the United States, or by a United States postal, bank, express, or telegraph money order;

(e) Secured by corporate bonds or stocks, or by bonds issued by a State or political subdivision thereof, of recognized stability; or

(f) Secured by any other acceptable collateral. Collateral shall be deposited with the district director or, in his discretion, with a responsible financial institution acting as escrow agent.

(iii) Conditions to be met by individual sureties. If a bond is executed by two or more individual sureties, the following conditions must be met by each such individual surety:

(a) He must reside within the State in which the principal place of business or legal residence of the primary obligor is located;

(b) He must have property subject to execution of a current market value, above all encumbrances, equal to at least the penalty of the bond;

(c) All real property which he offers as security must be located in the State in which the principal place of business or legal residence of the primary obligor is located;

(d) He must agree not to mortgage, or otherwise encumber, any property offered as security while the bond continues in effect without first securing the permission of the district director; and

(e) He must file with the bond, and annually thereafter so long as the bond continues in effect, an affidavit as to the adequacy of his security, executed on the appropriate form furnished by the district director.

Partners may not act as sureties upon bonds of their partnership. Stockholders of a corporate principal may be accepted as sureties provided their qualifications as such are independent of their holdings of the stock of the corporation.

(iv) Adequacy of surety. No surety or security shall be accepted if it does not adequately protect the interest of the United States.

(4) New or additional bond. The district director may require a new or additional bond under this section in any case where he deems it necessary or desirable in order to protect the interests of the United States.

(d) Termination of requirement—(1) Application for relief from requirement. Any importer who has given bond as required under paragraph (c) of this section may make application for relief from such requirement at any time after the last day of the first month following the close of the calendar quarter in which the bond was given. Any such application shall be submitted to the district director to whom the bond was furnished and shall set forth such facts as will be of assistance to the district director in determining whether the relief shall be granted.

(2) Relief from requirement. In any case where the district director determines that the bond required under paragraph (c) of this section to be given by an importer is no longer necessary to insure payment of any tax under section 4061(a) for which liability may be incurred by such importer, such importer shall no longer be required to give such bond.

(e) Evidence required for release of imported articles from customs custody—(1) In general. Each article taxable under section 4061(a) which arrives in the United States from any foreign country or possession of the United States on or after the first day of the first calendar quarter beginning more than 60 days after the date of publication of this Treasury decision in the Federal Register, and which is imported by any person required under paragraph (b) of this section to make application for a determination whether bond shall be given, shall not, if subject to customs examination and release, be released from customs custody until the evidence prescribed in subparagraph (2) (i) or (ii) of this paragraph has been furnished by such person to the collector of customs.

(2) Form of evidence. The evidence required under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall be in the form of a statement, executed, signed, and dated by the district director. Such statement shall show the following:

(i) Bond required. If the importer is required to give bond under this section the statement shall show:

(a) The total number of articles in respect of which the statement is given.

(b) The model number of each such article.

(c) The name and address of the importer of such articles.

(d) If the articles are to be released from customs custody to a person other than the importer, the name and address of such other person.

(e) That the importer has given a bond which the district director finds sufficient to protect the interests of the United States with respect to any tax under section 4061(a) for which liability may be incurred in respect of such articles.

A statement under this subdivision shall be furnished to the importer by the district director, upon request of the importer, in every case where such importer furnishes the district director with information which establishes to the satisfaction of the district director that the importer has given bond in an amount sufficient to protect the interests of the United States with respect to any tax under section 4061(a) which may become due in respect of the articles to which the request relates, and with such other information as is required under this subdivision to be shown in the statement. Such request, together with such information, shall be submitted by the importer immediately upon receipt by him of notice that articles taxable under section 4061(a) have been exported to his order. A separate request shall be made in respect of each shipment. Each statement given under this subdivision shall be executed in duplicate. The original of such statement shall be furnished by the district director to the importer and the copy shall be retained by the district director.

(ii) No bond required. If the importer is not required to give bond under this section, the statement shall show:

(a) The name and address of the importer.

(b) That bond under this section is not required of such importer.

A statement under this subdivision shall be furnished to the importer by the district director on the date on which the district director determines that the importer is not required to give a bond under this section. Such statement shall be executed in triplicate. The original of such statement and one signed copy shall be furnished by the district director to the importer, and one copy shall be retained by the district director. Additional signed copies of such statement will be furnished by the district director to the importer upon request of the importer. However, once such statement, or a signed copy thereof, has been furnished by the importer to a collector of customs, the requirements imposed by subparagraph (1) of this paragraph are deemed to be satisfied in respect of all articles taxable under section 4061(a) which thereafter arrive in the United States for release to or for the importer in a port under the jurisdiction of such collector of customs, until such time, if any, as such collector of customs receives written notification from the district director or the Commissioner of Customs that such statement has been withdrawn.

(46 Stat. 759; 19 U.S.C. 1623)

[T.D. 6499, 25 FR 10347, Oct. 28, 1960, as amended by T.D. 7517, 42 FR 58935, Nov. 14, 1977]

§ 48.4061(a)-3 Definitions.

For purposes of the tax imposed by section 4061, unless otherwise expressly indicated:

(a) Automobile truck. The term “automobile truck” includes automobile buses, and truck and bus trailers and semitrailers.

(b) Other automobile. The term “other automobile” means all automobiles other than automobile trucks, and includes trailers and semitrailers suitable for use in connection with passenger automobiles, but does not include house trailers.

(c) Tractor. The term “tractor” means any tractor chiefly used for highway transportation in combination with a trailer or semitrailer.

§ 48.4061(a)-4 Parts or accessories sold on or in connection with chasis, bodies, etc.

(a) In general. The tax attaches in respect of parts or accessories for articles specified in section 4061(a) sold on or in connection therewith or with the sale thereof at the rate applicable to the sale of the basic article. The tax attaches in such case whether or not the parts or accessories are billed separately. For the tax applicable to parts or accessories which are not sold on or in connection with the sale of a taxable chassis, body, or tractor, see § 48.4061(b)-1.

(b) Essential equipment. If taxable chassis, bodies, or tractors are sold by the manufacturer, producer, or importer without parts or accessories which are considered equipment essential for the operation or appearance of such articles, the sale of such parts or accessories will be considered, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, to have been made in connection with the sale of the basic article even though they are shipped separately at the same time or on a different date. For example, if a manufacturer sells to any person a chassis and the bumpers for such chassis, or sells a taxable tractor and the fifth wheel and attachments, the tax applies to such parts or accessories at the same rate as on the chassis or tractor regardless of the method of billing or the time at which the shipments were made.

§ 48.4061(a)-5 Sale of automobile truck bodies and chassis.

(a) Sale of completed vehicle. An automobile truck (as defined by § 48.4061(a)-3(a)) for purposes of the tax imposed by section 4061(a) consists of two parts, namely, a body and a chassis. Generally, the tax applies to the sale by the manufacturer of each. Thus, if the purchaser of a tax-paid chassis attaches to it a taxable body manufactured by him and sells the completed vehicle, he is liable for tax based on the sale price of the body only. However, in such a case, the tax attaches to the selling price of the entire vehicle unless adequate records are available to show the portion of the total selling price attributable to the body.

(b) Cross references. For special rules relating to the sale of a chassis or body to a purchaser who will use it in the manufacture or assembly of a nonhighway vehicle, see § 48.4061(a)-1(e). With respect to bodies sold to a chassis manufacturer, see also section 4063(b) and the regulations thereunder.

[T.D. 7461, 42 FR 2675, Jan. 13, 1977]

§ 48.4061(b) [Reserved]
§ 48.4061(b)-1 Imposition of tax.

(a) In general. Section 4061(b) imposes a tax on the sale by the manufacturer, producer, or importer of parts or accessories (other than tires and inner tubes and other than automobile radio and television receiving sets) for any of the articles enumerated in section 4061 (a) (see paragraph (a) of § 48.4061 (a)-1).

(b) Rates of tax. Tax is imposed on the sale of parts or accessories for any of the articles enumerated in section 4061(a) at the rates specified below:

Percent

(1) Parts or accessories sold during the period January 1, 1959, to June 30, 1965, inclusive | 8

(2) Parts or accessories sold on or after July 1, 1965 | 5

The tax is computed by applying to the price for which the part or accessory is sold the rate in effect at the time of the sale. For definition of the term “price” see section 4216 and the regulations thereunder contained in Subpart M of this part.

(c) Liability for tax. The tax imposed by section 4061(b) is payable by the manufacturer, producer, or importer making the sale.

[T.D. 6648, 28 FR 3633, Apr. 13, 1963, as amended by T.D. 6753, 29 FR 12717, Sept. 9, 1964]

§ 48.4061(b)-2 Definition of parts or accessories.

(a) In general. The term “parts or accessories” includes (1) any article the primary use of which is to improve, repair, replace, or serve as a component part of an automobile truck or bus chasis or body, or other automobile chassis or body, or taxable tractor, (2) any article designed to be attached to or used in connection with such chassis, body, or tractor to add to its utility or ornamentation, and (3) any article the primary use of which is in connection with such chassis, body, or tractor, whether or not essential to its operation or use. The term “parts or accessories” includes all articles which have reached such a stage of manufacture as to be commonly known as parts or accessories whether or not fitting operations are required in connection with their installation. An article shall not be deemed to be a taxable part or accessory even though it is designed to be attached to the vehicle or to be primarily used in connection therewith if the article is in effect the load being transported and the primary function of the article is to serve a purpose unrelated to the vehicle as such. For example, a construction derrick attached to a truck is not a taxable part or accessory inasmuch as the derrick is the load of the truck and its use is in connection with construction work at a construction site rather than in connection with the transportation or loading or unloading function of the truck. On the other hand, an article such as a towing cradle or loading or unloading equipment designed to be attached to or to be primarily used in connection with a truck is a taxable part or accessory inasmuch as the articles contributes to the load-carrying function of the truck. The term “parts or accessories” does not include tires, inner tubes, or automobile radio or television receiving sets, since these articles are expressly exempted by section 4061(b) from the tax. However, the term “parts or accessories” includes tire valves designed for use on tires or tubes for articles taxable under section 4061(a).

(b) Articles of a general use. The term “parts or accessories” does not include articles which are not used primarily in the manufacture, repair, etc., of automobile trucks, other automobiles, or tractors, but have a general use in the manufacture, repair, etc., of various articles. For example, commodities such as ball and roller bearings, bolts, nuts, washers, screws, nails, tacks, rivets, pins, studs, cotters, pipe fittings such as plugs, tees, ells, and elbows, drain cocks, grease cups, oilers, and similar articles are not of themselves parts or accessories unless so constructed as to be used primarily in the manufacture, repair, etc., of automobile trucks, other automobiles, or tractors. On the other hand, parts for automobile parts or accessories are in themselves taxable unless they are articles of a type not specifically designed for use primarily in the automobile field. For example, the tax applies to the sale of gears, flexible shafts and flexible housings designed as replacement parts for automotive speedometers; as well as replacement parts for automobile engines, transmissions, differentials, steering mechanisms, timers, windshild-wiper motors, and other automobile parts or accessories.

(c) Materials of a general use—(1) General rule. The term “parts or accessories” also does not include material such as glass, cloth, leather, matting linoleum, and other materials sold in rolls or by the foot, such as brake lining, tape, binding, wire, cable, metal and rubber tubing, packing, conduit, and similar material. However, except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, when any such material is cut or otherwise transformed by any person into an automobile part or accessory, tax attaches at the time such part or accessory is sold by such person.

(2) Articles made for immediate installation or repair. If in connection with an immediate installation in an automobile truck, other automobile, or tractor an article is produced through the use of special machinery or as a result of specialized skills from lengths or rolls of material, the person producing such article is considered to have manufactured an automobile part or accessory and the tax applies to his sale of such part or accessory. For example, tax applies to the sale of automobile glass cut to size to replace broken glass, or automobile seat covers, automobile floor mats, or fitted truck top covers produced to replace worn seat covers, floor mats, or truck top covers. However, if an article of a minor nature is produced by simple operation from lengths or rolls of material for immediate use by a repairman in the repair of an automobile truck, other automobile, or tractor on which he is then working, the person producing such article is not considered to have manufactured an automobile part or accessory and tax does not apply on his sale of such article. For example, tax does not apply where a wire, hose, or board is cut to size in order to replace a damaged wire, hose, or board of an automobile truck, other automobile, or tractor.

(d) Examples of articles taxable as parts or accessories. Examples of articles which are taxable as parts or accessories are: Automobile air conditioners; baby seats for automobiles; automobile beds; automobile hammocks; automobile clutches; bottle warmers and heating pads designed to operate from an automobile cigarette lighter; automobile radio antennae; automobile license plate frames; automobile clocks; automobile mirrors and mirror brackets; purses for carrying parking meter coins or cases for carrying registration cards when designed for attachment to an automobile; safes primarily designed for use in taxable motor vehicles; electric bulbs primarily designed and adapted for use on automobiles; automobile floor mats; jacks of the mechanical or hydraulic bumper, screw, ratchet, scissors, or other type primarily designed to be carried as accessories in automobiles as distinguished from jacks designed especially for use in garages and repair shops; dollies of the type commonly known as converter dollies which are used as connectors to convert semitrailers to full trailers; tool kits recommended for use with automobiles; automobile seat covers of any construction whether they are ready-made or custom fitted; fitted truck top covers; glass cut to size for installation in automobiles; and automobile bearings, such as automobile crankshaft or connecting rod bearings.

(e) Effective date. This section shall be effective with respect to sales made on or after January 1, 1964. For the definition of parts or accessories applicable to sales thereof prior to such date, see § 40.4061(b)-2 of this chapter (Manufacturers and Retailers Excise Tax Regulations).

(f) Cross references. For provisions relating to the tax imposed upon:

(1) Tires and inner tubes, see section 4071 and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart H of this part;

(2) Automobile radio and television receiving sets, see section 4141 and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart J of this part; and

(3) Fare registers and fare boxes for use on buses and automobiles, see section 4191 and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart L of this part.

[T.D. 6648, 28 FR 3633, Apr. 13, 1963, as amended by T.D. 6655, 28 FR 5235, May 25, 1963]

§ 48.4061(b)-3 Rebuilt, reconditioned, or repaired parts or accessories.

(a) Rebuilt parts or accessories. Rebuilding of automobile parts or accessories, as distinguished from reconditioning or repairing, constitutes manufacturing, and the rebuilder of such parts or accessories is liable for the tax imposed by section 4061(b) with respect to his sales of such rebuilt parts or accessories. Reboring or other machining, rewinding, and comparable major operations constitute rebuilding. The person owning the part or accessory being rebuilt is the manufacturer of the article and is liable for the tax on his sale of the rebuilt part or accessory. The tax attaches whether the machining or other operation is performed by the rebuilder himself or by some other person in his behalf. For example, the tax attaches with respect to sales of (1) rebuilt batteries, (2) rebabbited or machined connecting rods, (3) reassembled clutches after operations such as the resurfacing of clutch plates, (4) rewound armatures, (5) reassembled generators with armatures rewound by or for the person reassembling the generator, (6) reground or remetalized crankshafts, and (7) engines in which blocks are machined (such as cylinders rebored or new sleeves inserted with or without cylinders being rebored) or new blocks installed. For provisions relating to the sale price of rebuilt parts or accessories, see § 48.4062(b)-1.

(b) Reconditioned parts or accessories. The mere disassembling, cleaning, and reassembling (with any necessary replacements of worn parts) of automobile parts or accessories, such as fuel pumps, water pumps, carburetors, distributors, shock absorbers, windshield-wiper motors, brake shoes, clutch disks, voltage regulators, and other parts or accessories, are regarded as reconditioning operations rather than the manufacturing or production of rebuilt parts or accessories. The sale of a reconditioned part or accessory is not subject to tax if previous to the reconditioning there had been a prior sale of such part or accessory in the United States. Any new taxable parts or accessories produced, or purchased tax free for use in further manufacture, and used as replacements in reconditioning such units are subject to tax when used by the reconditioner.

(c) Repaired parts or accessories. The tax does not apply to the amount paid for the repair of automobile parts or accessories for the owner thereof. Repairing consists of the restoration, whether by rebuilding or reconditioning, of an owner's part or accessory to usable condition for his own use rather than for sale. The person who performs the repairing must retain in his possession evidence or documents from which the nontaxable nature of the operation can be ascertained. Any person engaged in rebuilding parts or accessories for purposes of sale incurs liability for tax with respect to his own use of any part or accessory rebuilt by him for sale.

§ 48.4061-1 Temporary regulations with respect to floor stock refunds or credits on cement mixers.

(a) In general—(1) Refund or credit. Pub. L. 91-678 (84 Stat. 2062, Jan. 12, 1971) provides that if:

(i) A manufacturer, producer, or importer paid the tax imposed by section 4061 (relating to imposition of tax on motor vehicles) on the sale of a cement mixer after June 30, 1968, and before January 1, 1970, and

(ii) Such cement mixer was held by a dealer on January 1, 1970, for purposes of resale and was not used,

the manufacturer, producer, or importer is entitled to a credit or refund (without interest) of the amount of tax he paid on his sale of such cement mixer.

(2) Time for filing claim. The manufacturer, producer, or importer entitled to a credit or refund under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall file his claim for credit or refund on or before October 31, 1971, based upon a request submitted to the manufacturer, producer, or importer on or before July 31, 1971, by the dealer who held the cement mixer in respect of which the credit or refund is claimed. Before he files his claim for credit or refund, the manufacturer, producer, or importer shall either reimburse the dealer for the amount of tax he is claiming with respect to the cement mixer or obtain written consent from the dealer to claim such tax.

(3) Other provisions applicable. All provisions of law, including penalties, applicable in respect of the taxes imposed by section 4061 of such Code shall, insofar as applicable and not inconsistent with Pub. L. 91-678 apply in respect of the credits and refunds provided for in this section to the same extent as if the credits or refunds constituted overpayments of the taxes.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

(1) Cement mixer. The term “cement mixer” means:

(i) Any article designed to be placed or mounted on an automobile truck chassis or truck trailer or semitrailer chassis and to be used to process or prepare concrete, and

(ii) Parts or accessories designed primarily for use on or in connection with an article described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph.

(2) Dealer. The term “dealer” includes a wholesaler, jobber, distributor, or retailer.

(3) Held by a dealer. A cement mixer shall be considered as “held by a dealer” if title thereto has passed to the dealer (whether or not delivery to him has been made), and if for purposes of consumption title to the cement mixer or possession thereof had not at any time prior to January 1, 1970, been transferred to any person other than a dealer. For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section and notwithstanding the preceding sentence, a cement mixer shall be considered as “held by a dealer” and not to have been used, although possession of such cement mixer has been transferred to another person, if such cement mixer is returned to the dealer in a transaction under which any amount paid or deposited by the transferee for such cement mixer is refunded to him (other than amounts retained by the dealer to cover damage to the cement mixer). Moreover, such a cement mixer shall be considered as held by a dealer on January 1, 1970, even though it was in the possession of the transferee on such day, if it was returned to the dealer (in a transaction described in the preceding sentence) before January 31, 1970. The determination as to the time title passes or possession is obtained for purposes of consumption shall be made under applicable local law. (See subdivisions (iii), (iv), and (v) of paragraph (b)(4) of § 145.2-1 of this subchapter for examples illustrating the provisions of this subparagraph.)

(c) Other requirements. All the requirements of paragraph (c) (relating to participation of dealers), paragraph (d) (relating to claim for credit or refund), paragraph (e) (relating to evidence to be retained), and paragraph (f) (relating to effect on other claims for refund or credit) of § 48.6412-1 are applicable (to the extent they are not inconsistent with section 4061 and Pub. L. 91-678) with respect to a claim for credit or refund under this section. With respect to claims for credit or refund under this section, the term “dealer request limitation date” and “claim limitation date” used in paragraphs (c) and (d) of § 48.6412-1 means July 31, 1971, and October 31, 1971, respectively.

[T.D. 7090, 36 FR 3893, Mar. 2, 1971]

§ 48.4062(a) [Reserved]
§ 48.4062(a)-1 Specific parts or accessories.

Spark plugs, storage batteries, leaf springs, coils, timers, and tire chains, which are suitable for use on or in connection with, or as component parts of, automobile trucks, other automobiles, tractors, or other vehicles enumerated in section 4061(a), are considered parts of, or accessories for, such articles whether or not primarily designed or adapted for such use.

§ 48.4062(b) [Reserved]
§ 48.4062(b)-1 Rebuilt parts or accessories sold on an exchange basis.

The sale price of a rebuilt part or accessory on which the tax is to be computed shall not include the value of a like part or accessory accepted in exchange. The total amount charged in excess of the amount allowed for a like article accepted in an exchange will be the basis for tax. For example, if a rebuilt automobile engine is sold for $100, plus another automobile engine, the tax on the rebuilt engine will be computed on the basis of $100.

§ 48.4063-1 Tax-free sales of bodies to chassis manufacturers.

Under the provisions of section 4063(b), the tax imposed by section 4061(a) shall not apply to bodies sold by the manufacturer thereof to a manufacturer (but not an importer) of automobile trucks (as defined by § 48.4061(a)-3(a)) to be sold by the purchaser. Thus, a manufacturer of automobile truck bodies is permitted to sell such bodies tax free to manufacturers of automobile truck chassis. This section does not apply with respect to the sale of an automobile truck chassis to manufacturers of automobile truck bodies. However, see § 48.4061(a)-1(e) with respect to the sale of an automobile truck chassis for use in the manufacture or assembly of a nonhighway vehicle (within the meaning of § 48.4061(a)-1(d)). In order to effect a tax-free sale of a body as provided in this section, both the seller and purchaser must comply with the registration and other requirements of section 4222 and the regulations thereunder. A chassis manufacturer who purchases a body tax free as provided in this section shall, for purposes of application of the tax imposed by section 4061(a), be considered the manufacturer of such body.

[T.D. 7461, 42 FR 2675, Jan. 13, 1977]

§ 48.4063-2 Tax-free sales of parts or accessories sold for resale on or in connection with the first retail sale of a light-duty truck.

(a) In general. Under section 4063(e), the 8-percent manufacturers excise tax imposed by section 4061(b) on the sale of truck parts or accessories does not apply to the sale by the manufacturer, producer, or importer of any parts which are to be resold by the purchaser on or in connection with the first retail sale of a light-duty truck as defined in section 4061(a)(2), or which are to be resold by the purchaser to a second purchaser for resale by the second purchaser on or in connection with the first retail sale of a light-duty truck. A tax-free sale is also allowed under section 4063(e) if an ultimate purchaser makes a direct purchase from a manufacturer of a part or accessory for use on or in connection with a substantially contemporaneous purchase of a new light-duty truck.

(b) Evidence required for tax-free sales of light-duty truck parts and accessories—(1) In general. The provisions of section 4063(e) do not apply with respect to any sale unless the manufacturer, the first purchaser, and the second purchaser, if any, are all registered as required under section 4222, and unless they comply with all the requirements under that section relating to tax-free sales. To effectuate a tax-free sale directly from the manufacturer, first or second purchaser to an ultimate purchaser, the ultimate purchaser must, in every case, satisfy the provisions of paragraphs (b)(3)(i), (ii) and (iii) of this section. Persons not required to be registered under section 4222(b) may purchase articles tax free by following the same procedures that apply to them in the case of other tax-free sales. See § 48.4222(b)-1.

(2) Revocation or suspension of registration or right to use exemption certificate. A person's registration and right to sell or purchase articles tax free through the use of an exemption certificate may be revoked or suspended. See § 48.4222(c)-1. Such a revocation or suspension shall be in addition to any other penalties that may apply. Any person who purchases articles tax free and who sells or uses them for a non-exempt purpose shall notify its vendor of the taxable sale or use.

(3) Exemption certificate. (i) To establish exemption from tax under section 4061(b) in those instances where a sale is made directly to an ultimate purchaser, the manufacturer, first, or second purchaser must obtain (prior to or at the time of sale) from the ultimate purchaser and retain in its possession a properly executed exemption certificate in the form prescribed in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section.

(ii) Where only occasional sales are made, a separate exemption certificate shall be furnished for each order. However, where sales are regularly or frequently made to a purchaser for such exempt use, a certificate covering all sales for a specified period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters will be acceptable. Such certificates and proper records of invoices, orders, etc. relative to tax-free sales must be kept for inspection by the district director as provided in section 6001 and the regulations thereunder.

(iii) The following form of exemption certificate will be acceptable for purposes of this section and must be adhered to in substance.

Exemption Certificate

(For use by ultimate purchaser who purchase parts or accessories from a manufacturer, producer, importer, first or second purchaser for use on or in connection with the first retail sale of a light-duty truck. (Section 4063 of the Internal Revenue Code.))

(Date) ______________________ 19____.

1. I, the undersigned, certify that I am, or the (Name of company __________________ of which I am (Position held __________, is purchasing from the manufacturer, producer, importer, first or second purchaser the parts or accessories specified in section 2 below (or in the purchase order or invoice attached hereto) for use on or in connection with a substantially contemporaneous purchase of a new light-duty truck specified in section 3 below. I also certify that (check applicable type of certificate) ______ the article or articles specified in the accompanying order, as described below, or __________ all orders placed by the purchaser for the period commencing (Date) ______ and ending (Date) ______ (period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters), will be used only for the above stated tax-exempt purposes and will not be used as a replacement part.

I understand that the willful use of this exemption certificate to evade or defeat the manufacturers excise tax otherwise applicable to these parts or accessories will subject me to a fine of not more than $10,000 or imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with cost of prosecution.

(Signature) ____________________. (Address) ____________________.

2. Description of parts and accessories

Type | Quantity | Price | Total

3. Description of new light-duty truck

(a) Type: (b) Quantity, (c) Serial Number.

(d) GVWR: (e) Date of Sale, (f) Invoice Number.

(g) Name and Address of Vendor of Vehicle.

(c) Information; records—(1) Information to be furnished to vendee. A vendor (including the manufacturer) selling light-duty truck parts and accessories tax free under section 4063(e) shall indicate to its vendee that the vendee is obtaining the parts or accessories tax free for the purpose of resale (or use) on or in connection with the first retail sale of a light-duty truck. This information may be transmitted by any convenient means, such as coding of sales invoices, provided that the information is presented with sufficient particularity so that the purchaser is informed that the purchaser has obtained the light-duty truck parts or accessories tax free.

(2) Records of vendor. A manufacturer or vendor selling light-duty truck parts or accessories tax free under section 4063(e) shall maintain in its records the identity of the purchaser, a signed statement of the exempt purpose for purchasing the light-duty truck parts or accessories, and the quantity of light-duty truck parts or accessories sold tax free to each purchaser.

(3) Records of vendee. A person purchasing light-duty truck parts or accessories tax free under section 4063(e) must maintain sufficient records to establish that the parts or accessories purchased tax free have actually been resold (or used) on or in connection with the first retail sale of a light-duty truck or have been resold to a second purchaser for such a resale by the second purchaser.

(d) Duty of selling manufacturer to ascertain validity of tax-free sale. The selling manufacturer of light-duty truck parts is not relieved of liability under the provisions of section 4063(e) by reason of section 4221(c) for the tax imposed by section 4061(b) if at the time of sale the selling manufacturer has knowledge or reason to believe that the light-duty truck parts or accessories sold by it to the purchaser are not intended for resale (or use) on or in connection with the first retail sale of a light-duty truck. The selling manufacturer is also not relieved of liability if it has knowledge or reason to believe that the purchaser has failed to register, refused to execute an exemption certificate, or that its registration or its right to purchase tax free through the use of an exemption certificate has been revoked or suspended.

(e) Cross reference. For credit or refund, see section 6416(b)(2).

(f) Effective date. Section 4063(e) (relating to light-duty truck parts and accessories) applies to sales on or after December 1, 1978. Light-duty truck parts or accessories sold prior to that date are not exempt from tax under section 4061(b) by reason of section 4063(e).

[T.D. 7834, 47 FR 42344, Sept. 27, 1982]

§ 48.4063-3 Other tax-free sales.

For provisions relating to tax-free sales of articles referred to in section 4061, see:

(a) Section 4221, relating to certain tax-free sales;

(b) Section 4222, relating to registration; and

(c) Section 4223, relating to special rules pertaining to further manufacture;

and the regulations thereunder contained in Subpart N of this part.

[T.D. 7727, 28 FR 3633, Apr. 13, 1963. Redesignated by T.D. 7834, 47 FR 42344, Sept. 27, 1982]

§ 48.4064-1 Gas guzzler tax.

(a) General rule—(1) In general. Section 4064 imposes on the sale by the manufacturer of an automobile a tax determined in accordance with the tables in section 4064(a) (1) through (7), and in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The tax is applicable to model types of 1980 and later model year automobiles that have a fuel economy level below the applicable tax-free fuel economy level. Paragraph (b) of this section defines the following terms: sale, manufacturer, automobile, model year, model type, fuel economy, and fuel. Paragraph (c) of this section contains rules relating to the determination of fuel economy. Paragraph (d) of this section contains a special rule for certain small manufacturers. Paragraph (e) of this section contains rules relating to the tax-free sales of emergency vehicles.

(2) Tables. (i) In the case of a 1980 model year automobile:

If the fuel economy of the model type in which the automobile falls is:

The tax is—

Miles per gallon:

At least 15 | 0

At least 14 but less than 15 | $200

At least 13 but less than 14 | 300

Less than 13 | 550

(ii) In the case of a 1981 model year automobile:

If the fuel economy of the model type in which the automobile falls is:

The tax is—

Miles per gallon:

At least 17 | 0

At least 16 but less than 17 | $200

At least 15 but less than 16 | 350

At least 14 but less than 15 | 450

At least 13 but less than 14 | 550

Less than 13 | 650

(iii) In the case of a 1982 model year automobile:

If the fuel economy of the model type in which the automobile falls is:

The tax is—

Miles per gallon:

At least 18.5 | 0

At least 17.5 but less than 18.5 | $200

At least 16.5 but less than 17.5 | 350

At least 15.5 but less than 16.5 | 450

At least 14.5 but less than 15.5 | 600

At least 13.5 but less than 14.5 | 750

At least 12.5 but less than 13.5 | 950

Less than 12.5 | 1,200

(iv) In the case of a 1983 model year automobile:

If the fuel economy of the model type in which the automobile falls is:

The tax is—

Miles per gallon:

At least 19 | 0

At least 18 but less than 19 | $350

At least 17 but less than 18 | 500

At least 16 but less than 17 | 650

At least 15 but less than 16 | 800

At least 14 but less than 15 | 1,000

At least 13 but less than 14 | 1,250

Less than 13 | 1,550

(v) In the case of a 1984 model year automobile:

If the fuel economy of the model type in which the automobile falls is:

The tax is—

Miles per gallon:

At least 19.5 | 0

At least 18.5 but less than 19.5 | $450

At least 17.5 but less than 18.5 | 600

At least 16.5 but less than 17.5 | 750

At least 15.5 but less than 16.5 | 950

At least 14.5 but less than 15.5 | 1,150

At least 13.5 but less than 14.5 | 1,450

At least 12.5 but less than 13.5 | 1,750

Less than 12.5. | 2,150

(vi) In the case of a 1985 model year automobile:

If the fuel economy of the model type in which the automobile falls is:

The tax is—

Miles per gallon:

At least 21 | 0

At least 20 but less than 21 | $500

At least 19 but less than 20 | 600

At least 18 but less than 19 | 800

At least 17 but less than 18 | 1,000

At least 16 but less than 17 | 1,200

At least 15 but less than 16 | 1,500

At least 14 but less than 15 | 1,800

At least 13 but less than 14 | 2,200

Less than 13 | 2,650

(vii) In the case of a 1986 or later model year automobile:

If the fuel economy of the model type in which the automobile falls is:

The tax is—

Miles per gallon:

At least 22.5 | 0

At least 21.5 but less than 22.5 | $500

At least 20.5 but less than 21.5 | 650

At least 19.5 but less than 20.5 | 850

At least 18.5 but less than 19.5 | 1,050

At least 17.5 but less than 18.5 | 1,300

At least 16.5 but less than 17.5 | 1,500

At least 15.5 but less than 16.5 | 1,850

At least 14.5 but less than 15.5 | 2,250

At least 13.5 but less than 14.5 | 2,700

At least 12.5 but less than 13.5 | 3,200

Less than 12.5 | 3,850

(3) Liability for tax. The tax imposed by section 4064 is payable by the manufacturer making the sale. An automobile sold before the time a determination of fuel economy is made for the model type (as defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section) is subject to tax if it is subsequently determined that the fuel economy level of that model type of automobile is within the taxable range (see paragraph (a)(1) of this section).

(b) Definitions—(1) Sale. Sale includes the use (within the meaning of section 4218) or the first lease (within the meaning of section 4217(e)) of an automobile by the manufacturer.

(2) Manufacturer. The term “manufacturer” has the same meaning assigned to such term under § 48.0-2(a)(4). The term “manufacturer” includes a producer or importer. An importer is a person who imports an automobile whether or not in connection with a trade or business.

(3) Automobile. The term “automobile” means any four-wheeled vehicle—

(i) Propelled by an engine powered by fuel;

(ii) Manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways (except any vehicle operated exclusively on a rail or rails);

(iii) Rated at 6,000 pounds gross vehicle weight or less; and

(iv) Requiring no further manufacturing operations to perform its intended function, other than the addition of readily attachable components, such as mirrors or tire and rim assemblies, or minor finishing operations, such as painting. For this purpose, gross vehicle weight means the value specified by the manufacturer as the maximum design loaded weight of a single vehicle. An automobile does not include a nonpassenger automobile as defined in regulations in effect on November 9, 1978 (49 CFR 523.5 (1978)), which were prescribed by the Secretary of Transportation for section 501 of the Motor Vehicle Information and Cost Savings Act (15 U.S.C. 2001). In addition, an automobile does not include the following: any vehicle sold for use and used primarily as an ambulance or combination ambulance-hearse; any vehicle sold for use and used by the United States or by a State or local government primarily for police or other law enforcement purposes; or any vehicle sold for use and used primarily for firefighting purposes.

(4) Model year. The term “model year” means the manufacturer's annual production period (as determined by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency) which includes January 1 of any particular calendar year. If the manufacturer has no annual production year, the model year is the calendar year.

(5) Model type. The term “model type” means a particular class of automobile, as determined by regulations in effect on November 9, 1978 (40 CFR 600.002-79(a)(19) (1978)), which were prescribed by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency.

(6) Fuel economy. The term “fuel economy” means the average number of miles traveled by an automobile per gallon of fuel consumed, rounded to the nearest .1 mile per gallon. The fuel economy for any model type is determined by the Environmental Protection Agency (as determined in accordance with the procedures provided in paragraph (c) of this section). For this purpose, the fuel economy is a combined (urban-highway weighted average) mileage figure estimated in connection with the determination (or redetermination) of general label value (fuel economy information displayed on a sticker that is affixed to new automobiles) mandated under section 506 of the Motor Vehicle Information and Cost Savings Act (15 U.S.C. 2006) and regulations thereunder (40 CFR Part 600).

(7) Fuel. The term “fuel” means gasoline and diesel fuel.

(c) Determination of fuel economy. For purposes of this section, the fuel economy for any model type is determined (or redetermined) in accordance with the testing and calculation procedures utilized by the Environmental Protection Agency Administrator for model year 1975 (weighted 55 percent urban cycle and 45 percent highway cycle), or any other procedures (yielding comparable results) established by the Administrator. The Environmental Protection Agency's determination (or redetermination) of a model type's fuel economy is made at the time the general label fuel economy value is calculated (or recalculated). This determination (or redetermination) is conclusive for purposes of this section. A redetermination of a model type's fuel economy value shall be effective only with respect to those automobiles for which the manufacturer is required (or is permitted and chooses) under Environmental Protection Agency regulations to affix labels with the recalculated general label fuel economy value.

(d) Special rule for small manufacturers—(1) In general. A small manufacturer (as defined in subparagraph (2)(i) of this paragraph) may apply for a determination that it is not feasible for that manufacturer to meet the statutory tax-free fuel economy level for the model year, with respect to all automobiles produced by that manufacturer, or with respect to a particular model type. For this purpose, the Commissioner (or his delegate) will make a determination of maximum feasible fuel economy level with respect to the automobiles that are the subject of the determination, but only after consultation with the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Transportation, and the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency (or their delegates) to obtain their views. A finding that it is not feasible for the manufacturer to meet the statutory tax-free fuel economy level will be made by the Internal Revenue Service if the maximum feasible fuel economy level (as defined in subparagraph (3)(i) of this paragraph) of the automobiles that are the subject of the determination is lower than the statutory tax-free fuel economy level for those automobiles. If it is determined that it is not feasible for a small manufacturer to meet the statutory tax-free fuel economy level, the Secretary (or his delegate) has the discretion to grant to the manufacturer the alternate rate schedule prescribed in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section in lieu of the applicable statutory tax table prescribed in section 4064(a). The decision whether to grant the alternate rate schedule shall be based on the consideration set forth in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section. If a small manufacturer for which an alternate rate schedule under this paragraph (d) is applicable sells an automobile to an importer, the alternate rate schedule applies to the sale by the importer of such automobile if such automobile is of the model year and type to which such alternate schedule applies.

(2) Definitions—(i) Small manufacturer. A small manufacturer is any manufacturer who produced (whether or not in the United States) fewer than 10,000 automobiles in the second model year preceding the affected model year (the model year for which the determination under this paragraph is being made), and who can reasonably be expected to produce (whether or not in the United States) fewer than 10,000 automobiles in the affected model year.

(ii) Manufacturer. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “manufacturer” does not include a person who is only an importer, but does include a producer of automobiles outside the United States who is also an importer.

(iii) Members of a controlled group. For purposes of this paragraph, persons who are members of a controlled group of corporations (as defined in section 1563(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that “more than 50 percent” is substituted for “at least 80 percent” each place it appears in section 1563(a)) are treated as one manufacturer.

(3) Basis for determination—(i) Maximum feasible fuel economy level. For purposes of this paragraph, the maximum feasible fuel economy level is determined by taking into account the same factors used in determining the maximum feasible fuel economy level under section 502(e) of the Motor Vehicle Information and Cost Savings Act (as amended) and the regulations thereunder in effect on November 9, 1978. (Those regulations for small manufacturers are prescribed in 49 CFR Part 525 (1978).) In making this determination, the Commissioner (or his delegate) will consult with the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration of the Department of Transportation.

(ii) Decision to grant alternate rate schedule. In deciding whether to grant an alternate rate schedule, the Secretary (or his delegate) will consider whether the use (in the United States) of the automobile serves an important public policy (e.g., providing public transportation or transportation for the handicapped) that overrides the United States' need to conserve energy. The manufacturer has the burden of demonstrating that the public policy consideration involved overrides the United States' need to conserve energy. The Commissioner (or his delegate), after consultation with the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Transportation, and the Administratior of the Environmental Protection Agency (or their delegates), will review the information submitted by the manufacturer and report findings and recommendations to the Secretary (or his delegate).

(iii) Alternate rate schedule and tax. If an alternate rate schedule is granted, the maximum feasible fuel economy level shall be deemed to be the statutory tax-free fuel economy level. Accordingly, a tax is imposed only on automobiles sold that fail to meet the deemed tax-free fuel economy level. The alternate rate schedule shall be determined by substituting the maximum feasible fuel economy level for the tax-free fuel economy level in the applicable statutory tax table set forth in section 4064(a), and by substituting for the miles per gallon amount prescribed in that applicable table an amount that is the tax-free level decreased by one mile per gallon increments, while keeping the same corresponding tax amount prescribed in the applicable table. The rule for determining an alternate rate schedule may be illustrated by the following example:

Example. Manufacturer X, a small manufacturer of automobiles specifically designed to accommodate disabled passengers, applied for a determination that it is not feasible for X to meet the statutory tax-free fuel economy level for a particular model type of X's 1982 model year automobiles. It was determined that the maximum feasible fuel economy level for that model type was 15 miles per gallon. The Secretary decided to grant X an alternate rate schedule. The alternate rate schedule for the model type would be as follows:

If the fuel economy of the automobile is:

The tax is—

Miles per gallon:

At least 15 | 0

At least 14 but less than 15 | $200

At least 13 but less than 14 | 350

At least 12 but less than 13 | 450

At least 11 but less than 12 | 600

At least 10 but less than 11 | 750

At least 9 but less than 10 | 950

Less than 9 | 1,200

Thus, if X's 1982 automobiles of that model year and type attain only 12 miles per gallon (because X fails to modify them to reach the maximum feasible fuel economy level before they are sold), the tax imposed upon the sale of each automobile is $450 (instead of the $1,200 tax (see the applicable statutory tax table set forth in section 4064(a)(3)), which would have been imposed had no alternate rate schedule been prescribed).

(4) Duration of determination. A determination under this paragraph does not apply to more than three model years.

(5) Requirements for application. Each application for a determination under this section must—

(i) Identify the model year or years, and particular model type or types for which a determination is requested;

(ii) (A) In the case of an application for model year 1980, be submitted not later than May 8, 1980;

(B) In case of an application for model year 1981, be submitted not later than 9 months before the beginning of that model year or March 10, 1980, whichever is later;

(C) In the case of an application for model year 1982 or any subsequent model year, be submitted not later than 9 months before that model year;

(iii) Be submitted in three copies to: Commissioner of Internal Revenue, Attention: Associate Chief Counsel (Technical), 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20224;

(iv) Be written in the English language;

(v) Set forth the full name, address, and title of the official responsible for preparing the application;

(vi) State whether the applicant is a member of a controlled group of corporations (as defined in paragraph (d) (2) (iii) of this section);

(vii) State the total number of automobiles manufactured (whether or not in the United States) by the applicant (or the controlled group of corporations in the case where the applicant is a member of the group) in the second model year immediately preceding each affected model year and the total number of automobiles likely to be manufactured in the affected model year;

(viii) Set forth the same information required by an application pursuant to section 502 (c) of the Motor Vehicle Information and Cost Savings Act (as amended) and the regulations thereunder (see 49 CFR part 525 (1978)) and state whether or not the applicant under this paragraph has also made an application pursuant to such Act; and

(ix) Set forth the reasons why an alternate rate schedule should be granted under paragraph (d) (3) (ii) of this section.

(6) Update of application. A manufacturer making an application under this section must update the application when a material change of circumstances occurs or material information not available at the time of applying becomes available. The manufacturer must also furnish any further information that may be required by the Internal Revenue Service.

(7) Processing of applications. If a manufacturer's application is found not to contain the information required by this paragraph, the applicant will be informed of the areas of insufficiency. The application will not receive further consideration until the required information is submitted. Each applicant will be informed in writing whether an application has been granted or denied.

(e) Tax-free sales of emergency vehicles—(1) In general. The tax imposed by section 4064 (a) shall not apply to vehicles sold by a manufacturer for use and used (i) primarily as an ambulance or combination ambulance-hearse, (ii) by the United States or by a State or local government primarily for police or other law enforcement purposes, or (iii) primarily for fire-fighting purposes. A vehicle may be sold tax-free by the manufacturer under this paragraph only in those cases where the sale is made directly to a purchaser for an emergency use prescribed in this subparagraph. In order to effect a tax-free sale, the requirements of section 4222 and the regulations thereunder must be met.

(2) Credit or refund. Where tax is paid on the sale of a vehicle, but the vehicle is used or resold for an emergency use prescribed in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, a claim for refund of the tax paid on such sale may be filed by the manufacturer on Form 8849 (or on such other form as the Commissioner may designate), or a credit may be taken on a subsequent return, in accordance with the provisions of sections 6402 (a) and 6416 (a) and § 48.6416 (a)-1.

[T.D. 8036, 50 FR 29960, July 23, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10453, Mar. 14, 1996]

13 Tires, Tubes, and Tread Rubber
§ 48.4071-1 Imposition and rates of tax.

(a) Imposition of tax—(1) Imposition of tax before January 1, 1984. Section 4071 imposes a tax at the rates set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section on tires made wholly or in part of rubber, inner tubes (for tires) made wholly or in part of rubber and tread rubber which are sold by the manufacturer thereof before January 1, 1984.

(2) Imposition of tax after December 31, 1983. Section 4071 imposes a tax at the rates set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section on tires of the type used on highway vehicles and made wholly or in part of rubber which are sold by the manufacturer thereof after December 31, 1983.

(3) Definitions. For definitions of the terms “tires,” “inner tubes,” “tread rubber,” “rubber” and “manufacturer,” see § 48.4072-1 of the regulations.

(b) Rates and computation of tax—(1) Rates of tax before January 1, 1984—(i) Tires:

(A) Of the type used on highway vehicles:

(1) For the period July 1, 1965 to December 31, 1980, inclusive—10 cents per pound.

(2) For the period January 1, 1981 to December 31, 1983, inclusive—9.75 cents per pound.

(B) Of the type used on other than highway vehicles:

(1) For the period July 1, 1965, to December 31, 1980, inclusive—5 cents per pound.

(2) For the period January 1, 1981 to December 31, 1983, inclusive—4.875 cents per pound.

(C) Laminated tires for the period July 1, 1965 to December 31, 1983, inclusive—1 cent per pound.

(ii) Inner tubes:

For the period July 1, 1965 to December 31, 1983, inclusive—10 cents per pound.

(iii) Tread Rubber:

For the period July 1, 1965 to December 31, 1983, inclusive—5 cents per pound.

(2) Rates of tax on or after January 1, 1984. Tires of the type used on highway vehicles:

(i) Tires weighing not more than 40 pounds—0 cents.

(ii) Tires weighing more than 40 pounds but not more than 70 pounds—15 cents for each pound in excess of 40 pounds.

(iii) Tires weighing more than 70 pounds but not more than 90 pounds—$4.50 plus 30 cents for each pound in excess of 70 pounds.

(iv) Tires weighing more than 90 pounds—$10.50 plus 50 cents for each pound in excess of 90 pounds.

(3) Computation of tax. The tax on tires, inner tubes, and tread rubber is computed by applying to the total weight (including a fractional part of a pound) of the article the rate in effect at the time the article is sold. See § 48.4071-2, relating to determination of weight.

(c) Liability for tax. The tax imposed by section 4071 is payable by the manufacturer when the manufacturer makes a sale of a taxable article, or as provided in section 4071 (b) and § 48.4071-3 for a manufacturer who sells at retail, when the manufacturer delivers a taxable article to a retail store, or to a retail outlet, of the manufacturer.

(d) Recapped or retreaded tires. The recapping or retreading of a tire, whether from shoulder-to-shoulder or bead-to-bead, does not constitute manufacture of a taxable tire. The tax on tires imposed by section 4071 does not apply to the sale of a recapped or retreaded tire, except that a used tire or carcass not previously sold in the United States that is recapped or retreaded from shoulder-to-shoulder or bead-to-bead in a foreign country and imported into the United States is subject to the tax imposed by section 4071 when such tire is sold or used by the importer. This paragraph (d) is effective for recapped and retreaded tires sold on or after January 1, 1984.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954. (80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6005, Feb. 10, 1982, as amended by T.D. 8057, 50 FR 41491, Oct. 11, 1985; T.D. 8152, 52 FR 31618, Aug. 21, 1987]

§ 48.4071-2 Determination of weight.

(a) In general—(1) Tires. (i) Metal rims or rim bases are not to be included in determining the total weight of a tire. However, the wire, staples, darts, clips, and other material or fastening devices which form a part of the tire or are required for its use must be included in determining the total weight of the tire. Studs are considered to be part of a tire and are to be included when determining the weight of a tire. In the case of a tubeless tire, the total weight includes the weight of the air valve and stem or any other mechanism that functions as a part of the tire and is used in connection with inflating the tire or maintaining its air pressure.

(ii) When tires are sold with metal rims or rim bases attached, the manufacturer must maintain records that will establish what portion of the total weight of the finished product represents the tire exclusive of the metal rim or rim base.

(2) Inner tubes. The total weight of an inner tube includes the weight of the air valve and stem or any other mechanism attached to the inner tube that is used in connection with inflating the tube or maintaining its air pressure.

(b) Alternative method of determining weight of tires after December 31, 1983. A manufacturer who has received permission from the Commissioner may, subject to such conditions as the Commissioner may prescribe, determine total weight of tires manufactured and sold by the manufacturer on the basis of the average weight for each type, size, grade, and classification. The average weights must be established in accordance with the method approved by the Commissioner and apply for such periods as the Commissioner may prescribe. The Commissioner may terminate the approval granted any manufacturer. In the case of the termination of the approval granted any manufacturer, the termination becomes effective 10 days from the date of the receipt by the manufacturer of the notice of termination. A manufacturer may effect termination, as of a specified date, of the privilege to determine total weight in accordance with provisions of this paragraph by giving no less than 10 days written notice of such intention to the Commissioner. The termination of the approval given a manufacturer does not affect a manufacturer's tax liability for tires sold prior to the effective date of the notice of termination.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954. (80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6005, Feb. 10, 1982, as amended by T.D. 8152, 52 FR 31618, Aug. 21, 1987]

§ 48.4071-3 Imposition of tax on tires and tubes delivered to manufacturer's retail outlet.

(a) General rule. If, on or after October 1, 1966, a tire or inner tube is delivered by the manufacturer thereof to a retail outlet of the manufacturer, the manufacturer is liable for tax in respect of the tire or tube at the rate set forth in section 4071 in the same manner as if the tire or tube had been sold at the time it was delivered to the retail outlet. The amount of tax payable shall be computed in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of § 48.4071-1, and of § 48.4071-2.

(b) Definition of retail outlet. For purposes of this section, the term “retail outlet” includes the term “retail store.” A retail outlet is a facility maintained by a manufacturer for selling tires or tubes at retail. A facility may be a retail outlet even though some sales are made at wholesale at such facility; see paragraph (d)(1) of this section. A facility may also be considered to a retail outlet for the purposes of this section notwithstanding that its main activity is in another area than selling tires or inner tubes. For example, if a manufacturer operates a facility for both automotive repair and the selling of tires at retail, the facility is considered a retail outlet for the purposes of this section even if the primary activity of the facility is automotive repair. No facility is considered a retail outlet for the purposes of this section if it is determined that less than 15 percent of the taxable tires and inner tubes removed from such facility are sold at retail by such facility. The determination described in the preceding sentence is made on the basis of the experience of a representative period, of at least 12 consecutive calendar months during the 2-year period immediately preceding the first day included in the return period for which tax under section 4071(b) is reported. If a facility has not been in existence during such a 12-month period, the determination is made on the basis of the available experience of the manufacturer. See also paragraph (c)(3) of this section, relating to imposition of tax where a retail outlet is maintained as an adjunct to a production facility or distribution center.

(c) Delivery—(1) In general. A manufacturer of tires or inner tubes may, at its option, treat either of the following events as constituting delivery to a retail outlet:

(i) Delivery of tires or inner tubes to a common carrier (or, where the tires or tubes are transported by the manufacturer, the placing of the tires or tubes into the manufacturer's over-the-road vehicle) for shipment from the plant in which the tires or tubes are manufactured, or from a regional distribution center of tires and inner tubes, to a retail outlet or to a location in the immediate vicinity of a retail outlet primarily for future delivery to the retail outlet.

(ii) Arrival of the tires or tubes at the retail outlet, or, where shipment is to a location in the immediate vicinity of a retail outlet primarily for future delivery to the retail outlet, the arrival of the tires or tubes at such location.

In its excise tax return for the first return period beginning after September 30, 1966, a manufacturer of tires or inner tubes must elect to determine the date of delivery to retail outlets in accordance with one of the two subdivisions of this paragraph (c)(1) and must determine the dates of all deliveries made to all retail outlets in accordance with the subdivision which the manufacturer has elected to apply. The election may be made in a statement attached to the return for such period. Having elected to treat one of the events listed in subdivision (i) or (ii) of this paragraph (c)(1) as constituting delivery to a retail outlet for purposes of its return for the first return period after September 30, 1966, the manufacturer may not use a different criterion for a subsequent return period unless permission of the district director is obtained in advance.

(2) Deliveries made in the immediate vicinity of a retail outlet primarily for future delivery to the retail outlet. (i) For purposes of this section, any delivery which is made in the immediate vicinity of a retail outlet primarily for future delivery to the retail outlet is deemed to be a delivery to the retail outlet. For the purpose of the preceding sentence, a location is considered to be in the immediate vicinity of a retail outlet if the distance between the location and the retail outlet is sufficiently small so that it is feasible to transport tires and inner tubes between the location and the retail outlet by means of dollies, fork lift trucks, pushcarts, and similar vehicles of the type normally used around the premises of factories and similar establishments, as opposed to highway motor vehicles. For the purpose of the preceding sentence, it is immaterial that a public thoroughfare must be used in order to transport tires or inner tubes to a retail outlet from another location. Tires and inner tubes delivered to a location in the immediate vicinity of a retail outlet are considered to be delivered to the location “primarily for future delivery” to the retail outlet if it is determined that a majority (by number) of the tires and tubes removed from the location are delivered to the retail outlet. The determination described in the preceding sentence is made on the basis of the experience of a representative period of at least 12 consecutive calendar months during the 2-year period immediately preceding the first day included in the return period for which tax under section 4071(b) is reported. If a facility has not been in existence during such a 12-month period, the determination is made on the basis of the available experience of the manufacturer. If it is determined that the majority of all tires and inner tubes removed from a given location are delivered to a retail outlet of the manufacturer in the immediate vicinity of the location, tax is imposed upon all tires and tubes delivered by the manufacturer to the location, even though all or part of the tires or tubes comprising a particular shipment to the location may be intended for further transportation to a location other than the retail outlet. If it is determined that a majority of all tires and inner tubes removed from a given location are not delivered to a retail outlet of the manufacturer in the immediate vicinity of the location, tax is imposed upon the removal of a tire or inner tube from the location to the premises of the retail outlet. See also paragraph (d)(2) of this section, relating to sales by the manufacturer at facilities other than retail outlets.

(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (c)(2) may be illustrated by the following examples.

Example.A manufacturer of tires and tubes whose plant is located in City X operates two facilities in City Y; Warehouse A and Store Q. Store Q is a retail outlet within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section, and Warehouse A is in the immediate vicinity of Store Q. During the 12-month period ending September 30, 1966, 60 percent of the tires and inner tubes removed from Warehouse A were delivered to Store Q. All tires or inner tubes delivered by the manufacturer to Warehouse A are subject to a tax under section 4071(b) and this section (unless, before such delivery, tax was imposed on the same tires and tubes).

(3) Retail outlet maintained as adjunct of production or distribution facility. If a retail outlet is maintained as an adjunct to and in the immediate vicinity of a facility which is not a retail outlet (as, for example, a production plant or a regional distribution center), delivery to the retail outlet is deemed to occur at the earlier of:

(i) The date when a tire or inner tube is removed from the general storage facilities in the facility which is not a retail outlet for transfer to the premises of the retail outlet, or

(ii) The date when a tire or inner tube is designated to be sold by or at the retail outlet.

(d) Special rules—(1) Retail outlets which also sell at wholesale. Tax applies to all shipments of tires and inner tubes delivered to a retail outlet as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Thus, for the purposes of section 4071(b) and this section, it is immaterial that all or part of the tires or inner tubes of a particular delivery to a retail outlet are intended for sale at wholesale. See also paragraph (d)(3) of this section.

(2) Sales by manufacturer at facilities other than retail outlets. Sales by the manufacturer of tires and inner tubes at facilities other than retail outlets are subject to tax under section 4071(a).

(3) Deliveries of tires or tubes on which tax has been previously imposed. (i) Tax is not imposed under section 4071(b) and this section on any tire or inner tube in respect of which there was previously imposed a tax under section 4071(a). Similarly, a tire or inner tube is taxed only once under section 4071(b) and this section.

(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (d)(3) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.A manufacturer has two selling facilities, Store No. 1 and Store No. 2. Only retail sales are made at Store No. 2, which obtains its merchandise from Store No. 1. Assume that, although wholesaling and distribution activities are conducted at Store No. 1, the sale of tires and tubes at retail is conducted at Store No. 1 to the extent that Store No. 1 is a retail outlet within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section, with the result that tax is imposed on deliveries by the manufacturer of tires and tubes to Store No. 1. Tax is not imposed on a delivery of tires or inner tubes from Store No. 1 to Store No. 2.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954. (80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6005, Feb. 10, 1982]

§ 48.4071-4 Original equipment tires on imported articles.

The tax imposed by section 4071(a) applies with respect to tires and inner tubes (other than bicycle tires and inner tubes) that are original equipment for an imported article upon which no tax is imposed under section 4061 if the article is sold on or after December 11, 1971. In such a case, the importer of the article is treated as the manufacturer and vendor of the tires and inner tubes with which the article is equipped. However, the tax imposed by section 4071(a) is not imposed with respect to tires and inner tubes if the imported article is an automobile bus chassis or an automobile bus body. Solely for purposes of this section, the provisions of section 4218 (relating to use by a manufacturer or importer considered a sale) do not apply in cases where an individual imports an article having original equipment tires and tubes and on which article no tax is imposed under section 4061 if the article is imported solely for the individual's personal use and is so used.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954. (80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6006, Feb. 10, 1982]

§ 48.4072-1 Definitions.

For purposes of the regulations in this part, unless otherwise expressly indicated:

(a) Rubber. The term “rubber” includes synthetic and substitute rubber.

(b) Tread rubber. The term “tread rubber” means any material (1) which is commonly or commercially known as tread rubber or camelback, or (2) which is a substitute for any material commonly or commercially known as tread rubber or camelback and is of a type used in recapping or retreading tires. The term includes, for example, strips of material, wholly or partially of rubber, natural or synthetic, intended to be vulcanized or otherwise affixed to a tire casing to form the outside perimeter of the tire, smooth or treaded. It also includes treading material produced by reprocessing scrap, salvage, or junk rubber and a continuous rubber ribbon produced through an extrusion process for direct application in recapping or retreading a tire casing. The term does not include rubber in various forms such as strip, slab, pellet, etc. which is used as raw material for the extrusion process. Tread rubber loses its identity as such when it has been used in the recapping or retreading of a tire of a type used on a highway vehicle (without regard to the actual use ultimately made of the tire) or has deteriorated in quality to the point where it is no longer suitable for use in recapping or retreading of a tire. (In the case of such deterioration, see section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)-2 to secure a refund or credit of the tax paid.)

(c) Tires of the type used on highway vehicles. (1) The term “tires of the type used on highway vehicles”, for purposes of §§ 48.4071-1 through 48.4073-3 means tires of the type used on:

(i) Motor vehicles that are highway vehicles (within the meaning of § 48.4061(a)-1(d)), or

(ii) Vehicles of the type used in connection with motor vehicles that are highway vehicles (within the meaning of § 48.4061(a)-1(d)).

The term “tires of the type used on highway vehicles” does not include bicycle tires. Bicycle tires, however, are included in the term “other tires” as used in section 4071(a)(2).

(2) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, tires of the type used on motor vehicles that are highway vehicles include tires used on motor trucks, buses, passenger automobiles, motor homes, highway tractors, trolley buses or coaches, and motorcycles.

(3) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, tires of the type used on vehicles of the type used in connection with motor vehicles that are highway vehicles include tires used on truck or bus trailers, truck semitrailers, mobile homes, housetrailers, or utility trailers.

(d) Inner tubes. The term “inner tubes” includes air containers of all types made wholly or in part of rubber and designed and manufactured for use in pneumatic tires.

(e) Tires. The term “tires” includes rubber casings, hoops, and strips or bands of all kinds designed and shaped or built to form the tread of or to fit a vehicle wheel. Tires of either the pneumatic or solid type which fit or form the tread for wheels of any article which is capable of use as a means of transporting a person or burden are taxable as tires. Examples of articles which may be equipped with taxable tires are motor scooters, minibikes, industrial trucks, farm tractors, wheelbarrows, and similar articles. See section 4073(a) and § 48.4073-1 with respect to the exemption of tires of certain sizes, and section 4073(b) and § 48.4073-2 with respect to the exemption for tires with internal wire fastening.

(f) Laminated tires. For purposes of the tax imposed by section 4071, the term “laminated tires” means tires (1) which are not “tires of the type used on highway vehicles” within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section, and (2) which consist wholly of scrap rubber from used tire casings with an internal metal fastening agent.

(g) Manufacturer. The term “manufacturer” means manufacturer, producer, or importer. A person who converts, by any process, a new tire taxable under section 4071 at one rate of tax into a tire taxable under section 4071 at a different rate (as for example, an off highway-type tire converted into a highway-type tire) is considered to be a manufacturer of the converted tire. If a conversion results in a reduced rate of tax for the converted tire, see section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)-2 to secure a credit or refund of part of the tax paid. The term “manufactured” includes “produced” and “imported”.

(h) Cross references. For other definitions, see § 48.0-2.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954. (80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6007, Feb. 10, 1982]

§ 48.4073 [Reserved]
§ 48.4073-1 Exemption of tires of certain sizes.

The tax does not apply to sales of tires of all-rubber construction (whether hollow center or solid) if they have no fabric or metal reinforcement and do not exceed either of these measurements: (a) 20 inches in diameter measured to the outside circumferences, and (b) 1 3/4 inches in cross-section. The exemption provided by section 4073(a) is to be determined solely on the measurements of the tire and not on the purpose for which it is designed or used.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954. (80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6007, Feb. 10, 1982]

§ 48.4073-2 Exemption of tires with internal wire fastening.

The tax does not apply to sales of tires of any size or dimension manufactured from extruded tiring that is fastened or held together by means of internal wire or other metallic material.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954. (80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6007, Feb. 10, 1982]

§ 48.4073-3 Exemption of tread rubber used for recapping nonhighway tires.

(a) Sold direct by manufacturer for nontaxable use. The tax does not apply to the sale of tread rubber by the manufacturer to any person for use by that person otherwise than in the recapping or retreading of tires of the type used on highway vehicles. In determining whether tread rubber is sold for a taxable or nontaxable use, the type of vehicle on which the recapped or retreaded tire is to be used, or the actual or intended use of the recapped or retreaded tire, is immaterial. The controlling factor is whether the tire resulting from the recapping or retreading is of a type that is used otherwise than on a highway vehicle. For definition of “tires of the type used on highway vehicles”, see paragraph (c) of § 48.4072-1.

(b) Sales for resale for nontaxable use. No sale of tread rubber may be made tax free for resale even though it is known at the time of the sale that the tread rubber will be resold for use otherwise than in the recapping or retreading of tires of the type used on highway vehicles. However, where the tread rubber is resold for such use, the manufacturer who paid the tax on a sale of the tread rubber may secure a refund or credit in accordance with the provisions of section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)-2.

(c) Evidence required to establish exemption. (1) To establish the right to sell tread rubber tax free under section 4073(c), the manufacturer must obtain from the purchaser and retain in its possession a properly executed exemption certificate.

(2) Where only occasional sales of tread rubber for exempt use are made to a purchaser, a separate exemption certificate should be furnished for each order. However, where sales are regularly and frequently made to a purchaser for exempt use, a certificate covering all purchases during the period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters is acceptable. The certificates and proper records of invoices, orders, etc., relative to tax-free sales must be kept for inspection by the district director as provided in section 6001 and the regulations in subpart Q.

(d) Acceptable form of exemption certificate. The following form of exemption certificate is acceptable for the purposes of this section and must be adhered to in substance:

Exemption Certificate

(For use by persons who purchase tread rubber from the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof for use otherwise than in recapping or retreading tires of the type used on highway vehicles (section 4073(c) of the Internal Revenue Code).)

(Date) ________________________, 19____

I, the undersigned, certify that I am the purchaser, or the (Title) ______ of (Name of purchaser if other than the undersigned) __________ who is the purchaser of: ____ The tread rubber specified in the accompanying order or contract, or ____ All tread rubber specified in contracts or orders entered into or placed with (Name of seller) ______ for the period commencing ______ and ending ______ (period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters), and that such tread rubber will not be used in the recapping or retreading of tires of the type used on highway vehicles, but will be used for the following purposes:

The undersigned understands that if the tread rubber is used for the recapping or retreading of tires of the type used on highway vehicles, or is sold or otherwise disposed of, such fact must be promptly reported to the manufacturer. The undersigned also understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate for the purpose of securing this exemption will subject the undersigned or any other party making such fraudulent use to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with costs of prosecution. The purchaser also understands that the purchaser must be prepared to establish by satisfactory evidence the purpose for which the tread rubber was used.

(Signature) (Address)

(e) Exemption certificate not obtained prior to filing of manufacturer's excise tax return. If the sale is otherwise exempt but the exemption certificate is not obtained prior to the time the manufacturer files a return covering taxes due for the period during which the sale was made, the manufacturer must include the tax on the sale in its return for that period. However, if the certificate is later obtained, a claim for refund of the tax paid on the sale may be filed, or a credit for the amount may be taken upon a subsequent return, as provided by section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)-2.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954. (80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6007, Feb. 10, 1982]

§ 48.4073-4 Other tax-free sales.

(a) Cross references. For provisions relating to tax-free sales of articles referred to in section 4071, see:

(1) Section 4221, relating to certain tax-free sales, and the regulations thereunder in subpart H;

(2) Section 4222, relating to registration, and the regulations thereunder in subpart H;

(3) Section 4223, relating to special rules pertaining to further manufacture, and the regulations thereunder in subpart H; and

(4) 28 FR 348, January 12, 1963, relating to the authorization of an exemption from the tax imposed by section 4071 by the Secretary of the Treasury under section 4293 for sales of certain tires and inner tubes sold to the American Red Cross on or after March 1, 1963.

(Secs. 4071(b), 4071(c), 4073(c), and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954; 80 Stat. 331, 26 U.S.C. 4071(b); 68A Stat. 482, 26 U.S.C. 4071(c); 70 Stat. 389, 26 U.S.C. 4073(c); 68A Stat. 917, 26 U.S.C. 7805)

[T.D. 7809, 47 FR 6008, Feb. 10, 1982]

14 Taxable Fuel

Source: T.D. 8421, 57 FR 32424, July 22, 1992, unless otherwise noted.

§ 48.4081-1 Taxable fuel; definitions.

(a) Overview. This section provides definitions for purposes of the tax on taxable fuel imposed by section 4081.

(b) Definitions.

Approved terminal or refinery means a terminal or refinery that is operated, respectively, by a taxable fuel registrant that is a terminal operator, or by a taxable fuel registrant that is a refiner.

Aviation gasoline means all special grades of gasoline that are suitable for use in aviation reciprocating engines and covered by ASTM specification D 910 or military specification MIL-G-5572. For availability of ASTM and military specifications, see paragraph (d) of this section.

Blender means any person that produces blended taxable fuel.

Bulk transfer means any transfer of taxable fuel by pipeline or vessel.

Bulk transfer/terminal system means the taxable fuel distribution system consisting of refineries, pipelines, vessels, and terminals. Thus, taxable fuel in a refinery, pipeline, vessel, or terminal is in the bulk transfer/terminal system. Taxable fuel in the fuel supply tank of any engine, or in any tank car, rail car, trailer, truck, or other equipment suitable for ground transportation is not in the bulk transfer/terminal system.

Bus means automobile bus.

Diesel-powered bus means any bus that is propelled by a diesel-powered engine.

Diesel-powered highway vehicle means a highway vehicle, as defined in § 48.4061(a)-1(d), that is propelled by a diesel-powered engine.

Diesel-powered train means any diesel-powered equipment or machinery that rides on rails. Thus, for example, the term includes a locomotive, work train, switching engine, and track maintenance machine.

Enterer generally means the importer of record (under customs law) with respect to the taxable fuel, except that—

(1) If the importer of record is a customs broker engaged by the owner of the taxable fuel, the person for whom the broker is acting is the enterer; and

(2) If there is no importer of record for taxable fuel entered into the United States, the owner of the taxable fuel at the time it is brought into the United States is the enterer.

Entry of taxable fuel into the United States occurs when—

(1) The taxable fuel is brought into the United States and applicable customs law requires that the taxable fuel be entered into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing; or

(2) The taxable fuel is brought into the United States from Puerto Rico and applicable customs law would require that the taxable fuel be entered into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing if the taxable fuel were brought into the United States from somewhere other than Puerto Rico.

Excluded liquid means any liquid that—

(1) Contains less than four percent normal paraffins; or

(2) Has a—

(i) Distillation range of 125 °F. or less;

(ii) Sulfur content of 10 ppm or less; and

(iii) Minimum color of + 27 Saybolt.

Finished gasoline means all products (including gasohol (as defined in § 48.4081-6(b)(2))) that are commonly or commercially known or sold as gasoline and are suitable for use as a motor fuel, other than products that have an ASTM octane number of less than 75 as determined by the motor method.

Gasoline means finished gasoline and gasoline blendstocks.

Industrial user means any person that receives gasoline blendstocks by bulk transfer for its own use in the manufacture of any product other than finished gasoline.

Kerosene means any liquid that meets the specifications for kerosene or would meet those specifications but for the presence in the liquid of a dye of the type described in § 48.4082-1(b). A liquid meets the specifications for kerosene if it is one of the two grades of kerosene (No. 1-K and No. 2-K) covered by ASTM specification D 3699, or kerosene-type jet fuel covered by ASTM specification D 1655 or military specification MIL-DTL-5624T (Grade JP-5) or MIL-DTL-83133E (Grade JP-8). For availability of ASTM and military specifications, see paragraph (d) of this section. However, the term does not include excluded liquid.

Position holder means, with respect to taxable fuel in a terminal, the person that holds the inventory position in the taxable fuel, as reflected on the records of the terminal operator. A person holds the inventory position in taxable fuel when that person has a contractual agreement with the terminal operator for the use of storage facilities and terminaling services at a terminal with respect to the taxable fuel. The term also includes a terminal operator that owns taxable fuel in its terminal.

Rack means a mechanism capable of delivering taxable fuel into a means of transport other than a pipeline or vessel.

Refiner means any person that owns, operates, or otherwise controls a refinery.

Refinery means a facility used to produce taxable fuel and from which taxable fuel may be removed by pipeline, by vessel, or at a rack. However, the term does not include a facility where only blended fuel or gasohol (as defined in § 48.4081-6(b)(2)), and no other type of taxable fuel, is produced. For this purpose blended fuel is any mixture that, if produced outside the bulk transfer/terminal system, would be blended taxable fuel.

Removal means any physical transfer of taxable fuel, and any use of taxable fuel other than as a material in the production of taxable fuel or special fuels. However, taxable fuel is not removed when it evaporates or is otherwise lost or destroyed.

Sale means—

(1) The transfer of title to, or substantial incidents of ownership in, taxable fuel (other than taxable fuel in a terminal) to the buyer for a consideration, which may consist of money, services, or other property; or

(2) The transfer of the inventory position in the taxable fuel in a terminal if the transferee becomes the position holder with respect to the taxable fuel.

State includes any State, any political subdivision of a State, the District of Columbia, the American Red Cross, and, to the extent provided by section 7871, any Indian tribal government.

Taxable fuel means gasoline, diesel fuel, and kerosene.

Taxable fuel registrant means an enterer, industrial user, refiner, terminal operator, or throughputter that is registered as such under section 4101.

Terminal means a taxable fuel storage and distribution facility that is supplied by pipeline or vessel and from which taxable fuel may be removed at a rack. However, the term does not include any facility at which gasoline blendstocks are used in the manufacture of products other than finished gasoline and from which no gasoline is removed. Also, effective January 2, 1998, the term does not include any facility where finished gasoline, undyed diesel fuel, or undyed kerosene is stored if the facility is operated by a taxable fuel registrant and all such taxable fuel stored at the facility has been previously taxed under section 4081 upon removal from a refinery or terminal.

Terminal operator means any person that owns, operates, or otherwise controls a terminal.

Throughputter means any person that—

(1) Owns taxable fuel within the bulk transfer/terminal system (other than in a terminal); or

(2) Is a position holder.

Vessel means a waterborne taxable fuel transporting vessel.

(c) Blended taxable fuel, diesel fuel, and gasoline blendstocks; definitions—(1) Blended taxable fuel—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (c)(1)(iii) of this section, blended taxable fuel means any taxable fuel that is produced outside the bulk transfer/terminal system by mixing—

(A) Taxable fuel with respect to which tax has been imposed under section 4041(a)(1) or 4081(a) (other than taxable fuel for which a credit or payment has been allowed); and

(B) Any other liquid on which tax has not been imposed under section 4081.

(ii) Exclusion; minor blending. A mixture described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section is not blended taxable fuel if, during the calendar quarter in which the blender removes or sells the mixture, all such mixtures removed or sold by the blender contain, in the aggregate, less than 400 gallons of liquid described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section.

(iii) Exclusion; gasohol. Blended taxable fuel does not include any gasohol (as defined in § 48.4081-6(b)(2)) if, disregarding the alcohol, the gasohol is not blended taxable fuel and contains, in addition to permitted amounts of liquids described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section, only gasoline with respect to which—

(A) Tax was imposed under section 4081(a) at a rate described in § 48.4081-6(e) (relating to the gasohol production tax rate and the gasohol tax rate); or

(B) A valid claim is made under section 6427(f).

(2) Diesel fuel—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, diesel fuel means any liquid that, without further processing or blending, is suitable for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle or diesel-powered train. A liquid is suitable for this use if the liquid has practical and commercial fitness for use in the propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle or diesel-powered train. A liquid may possess this practical and commercial fitness even though the specified use is not the liquid's predominant use. However, a liquid does not possess this practical and commercial fitness solely by reason of its possible or rare use as a fuel in the propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle or diesel-powered train.

(ii) Exclusion. Diesel fuel does not include gasoline, kerosene, excluded liquid, No. 5 and No. 6 fuel oils covered by ASTM specification D 396, or F-76 (Fuel Naval Distillate) covered by military specification MIL-F-16884. For availability of ASTM and military specifications, see paragraph (d) of this section.

(3) Gasoline blendstocks—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, gasoline blendstocks means—

(A) Alkylate;

(B) Butane;

(C) Butene;

(D) Catalytically cracked gasoline;

(E) Coker gasoline;

(F) Ethyl tertiary butyl ether (ETBE);

(G) Hexane;

(H) Hydrocrackate;

(I) Isomerate;

(J) Methyl tertiary butyl ether (MTBE);

(K) Mixed xylene (not including any separated isomer of xylene);

(L) Natural gasoline;

(M) Pentane;

(N) Pentane mixture;

(O) Polymer gasoline;

(P) Raffinate;

(Q) Reformate;

(R) Straight-run gasoline;

(S) Straight-run naphtha;

(T) Tertiary amyl methyl ether (TAME);

(U) Tertiary butyl alcohol (gasoline grade) (TBA);

(V) Thermally cracked gasoline;

(W) Toluene; and

(X) Transmix containing gasoline.

(ii) Exclusion. Gasoline blendstocks does not include any product that cannot, without further processing, be used in the production of finished gasoline. For example, a mixed hydrocarbon stream that is produced in a natural gas processing plant is not a gasoline blendstock if the stream cannot be used to produce finished gasoline without further processing.

(d) ASTM and military specifications. ASTM specifications may be obtained from the American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428. Military specifications may be obtained from the Standardization Document Order Desk, Building 4, Section D, 700 Robbins Avenue, Philadelphia, PA 19111.

(e) Other definitions. For other definitions relating to taxable fuel, see §§ 48.4081-6(b), 48.4082-5(b), 48.4082-6(b), 48.4082-7(b), 48.4101-1(b), 48.6427-9(b), 48.6427-10(b), and 48.6427-11(b).

(f) Effective date. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, this section is applicable after December 31, 1993.

(2) In paragraph (b) of this section the definition of aviation gasoline and the third sentence in the definition of terminal are applicable after January 1, 1998, the definition of kerosene, excluded liquid, and taxable fuel are applicable after June 30, 1998, and the definition of enterer is applicable to entries of taxable fuel after September 27, 2004. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section is applicable after December 31, 1997.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10453, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8748, 63 FR 25, Jan. 2, 1998; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17155, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9051, 68 FR 15940, Apr. 2, 2003; T.D. 9145, 69 FR 45588, July 30, 2004; T.D. 9346, 72 FR 41223, July 27, 2007]

§ 48.4081-2 Taxable fuel; tax on removal at a terminal rack.

(a) Overview. This section provides the general rule that all removals of taxable fuel at a terminal rack are subject to tax and the position holder with respect to the fuel is liable for the tax.

(b) Imposition of tax. Tax is imposed on the removal of taxable fuel from a terminal if the taxable fuel is removed at the rack.

(c) Liability for tax—(1) In general. The position holder with respect to the taxable fuel is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this section.

(2) Joint and several liability of terminal operator; unregistered position holder—(i) In general. The terminal operator is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this section if—

(A) The position holder with respect to the taxable fuel is a person other than the terminal operator and is not a taxable fuel registrant; and

(B) The terminal operator has not met the conditions of paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.

(ii) Conditions for avoidance of liability. A terminal operator is not liable for tax under this paragraph (c)(2) if, at the time of the removal, the terminal operator—

(A) Is a taxable fuel registrant;

(B) Has an unexpired notification certificate (as described in § 48.4081-5) from the position holder; and

(C) Has no reason to believe that any information in the notification certificate is false.

(3) Joint and several liability of terminal operator; incorrect information provided. The terminal operator is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this section if, in connection with the removal of diesel fuel or kerosene that is not dyed and marked in accordance with § 48.4082-1, the terminal operator provides any person (including the position holder with respect to the fuel) with any bill of lading, shipping paper, record, or similar document indicating that the diesel fuel or kerosene is dyed and marked in accordance with § 48.4082-1.

(4) Example. The following example illustrates this paragraph (c) and § 48.4082-1:

Example. (i) TO is a terminal operator and PH is the position holder with respect to, and owner of, 8,000 gallons of diesel fuel stored in TO's terminal. TO and PH are taxable fuel registrants. When the fuel is removed from the terminal at the rack, the fuel is not dyed and marked in accordance with § 48.4082-1, and TO does not provide any person with any paperwork indicating that the fuel is dyed and marked. After the removal from the terminal, PH sells the fuel to individuals for use as heating oil, a nontaxable use.

(ii) Because PH is the position holder of the fuel at the time of the removal from the terminal, PH is liable for the tax imposed by section 4081. The removal is subject to tax because the fuel is not dyed and marked in accordance with § 48.4082-1, and later use of the fuel in a nontaxable use does not make the removal from the terminal exempt from tax.

(iii) Because PH is a taxable fuel registrant and TO did not provide any person with any paperwork indicating that the fuel is dyed and marked, TO is not jointly and severally liable for tax under paragraph (c) (2) or (3) of this section.

(d) Rate of tax. For the rate of tax generally, see section 4081(a). For the rate of tax on gasohol and on gasoline removed for gasohol production, see § 48.4081-6.

(e) Exemptions. For exemptions from the tax imposed under this section, see §§ 48.4081-4 (relating to gasoline blendstocks), 48.4082-1 (relating to dyed diesel fuel and dyed kerosene), 48.4082-5 (relating to diesel fuel and kerosene used in Alaska), 48.4082-6 (relating to aviation-grade kerosene), and 48.4082-7 (relating to kerosene used for a feedstock purpose).

(f) Effective date. This section is applicable after December 31, 1993.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10455, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17156, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4081-3 Taxable fuel; taxable events other than removal at the terminal rack.

(a) Overview. Although tax is imposed when taxable fuel is removed from the terminal at the rack, tax also is imposed in certain other situations described in this section.

(b) Tax on removal from a refinery—(1) Imposition of tax. Tax is imposed on the following removals from a refinery:

(i) A removal of taxable fuel by bulk transfer if the refiner or the owner of the taxable fuel immediately before the removal is not a taxable fuel registrant.

(ii) A removal of taxable fuel at the rack.

(iii) After September 30, 1995, a removal of a batch of gasohol from an approved refinery by bulk transfer if the refiner treats itself with respect to the removal as a person that is not registered under section 4101. See § 48.4101-1(a). For the rule providing that no deposit is required in the case of the tax imposed under this paragraph (b)(1)(iii), see § 40.6302(c)-1(f)(4) of this chapter. For the rule allowing inspections of facilities where gasohol is produced, see section 4083.

(2) Exception for certain refineries. The tax imposed under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section does not apply to a removal of taxable fuel if—

(i) The taxable fuel is removed from an approved refinery that is not served by pipeline (other than a pipeline for the receipt of crude oil) or vessel;

(ii) The taxable fuel is received at a facility that is operated by a taxable fuel registrant and is located within the bulk transfer/terminal system;

(iii) The removal from the refinery is by—

(A) Rail car; or

(B) In the case of diesel fuel, a trailer or semi-trailer that is used exclusively for the transport service described in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section;

(iv) In the case of taxable fuel removed by rail car, the facility at which the fuel is received is operated by the same person that operates the refinery from which the fuel was removed; and

(v) In the case of diesel fuel removed by a trailer or semi-trailer, the facility at which the fuel is received is less than 20 miles from the refinery from which the diesel fuel was removed.

(3) Liability for tax. The refiner is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(c) Tax on entry into the United States—(1) Imposition of tax. Tax is imposed on the entry of taxable fuel into the United States if—

(i) The entry is by bulk transfer and the enterer is not a taxable fuel registrant; or

(ii) The entry is not by bulk transfer.

(2) Liability for tax—(i) In general. The enterer is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(ii) Joint and several liability of the importer of record. The importer of record with respect to the taxable fuel is jointly and severally liable with the enterer for the tax imposed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if—

(A) The importer of record is not the enterer of the taxable fuel; and

(B) The enterer is not a taxable fuel registrant.

(iii) Conditions for avoidance of liability. The importer of record is not liable for the tax under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section if, at the time of the entry, the importer of record—

(A) Has an unexpired notification certificate (as described in § 48.4081-5) from the enterer; and

(B) Has no reason to believe that any information in the notification certificate is false.

(iv) Customs bond. The Customs bond posted with respect to the importation of the fuel will not be charged for the tax imposed on the entry of the fuel if the enterer is a taxable fuel registrant. A Customs bond will not be charged for the tax imposed on the entry of the fuel covered by the bond, if at the time of entry, the surety—

(A) Has an unexpired notification certificate (as described in § 48.4081-5) from the enterer; and

(B) Has no reason to believe that any information in the notification certificate is false.

(d) Tax on bulk transfers from a terminal by an unregistered position holder—(1) Imposition of tax. Tax is imposed on the removal by bulk transfer of taxable fuel from a terminal if the position holder with respect to the taxable fuel is not a taxable fuel registrant.

(2) Liability for tax—(i) In general. The position holder with respect to the taxable fuel is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

(ii) Joint and several liability of terminal operator. The terminal operator is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (d)(1) of this section if—

(A) The position holder with respect to the taxable fuel is a person other than the terminal operator; and

(B) The terminal operator has not met the conditions of paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.

(iii) Conditions for avoidance of liability. A terminal operator is not liable for tax under this paragraph (d)(2) if, at the time of the bulk transfer, the terminal operator—

(A) Is a taxable fuel registrant;

(B) Has an unexpired notification certificate (described in § 48.4081-5) from the position holder; and

(C) Has no reason to believe that any information in the notification certificate is false.

(e) Tax on bulk transfers not received at an approved terminal or refinery—(1) Imposition of tax. Tax on taxable fuel is imposed if—

(i) Taxable fuel is removed by bulk transfer from a refinery or terminal, or entered by bulk transfer into the United States;

(ii) No tax was imposed on such removal or entry under paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section; and

(iii) Upon removal from the pipeline or vessel, the taxable fuel is not received at an approved terminal or refinery (or at another pipeline or vessel).

(2) Liability for tax—(i) In general. The owner of the taxable fuel when it is removed from the pipeline or vessel is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if the owner has not met the conditions of paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section.

(ii) Conditions for avoidance of liability. An owner of taxable fuel is not liable for tax under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section if, at the time the taxable fuel is removed from the pipeline or vessel, the owner of the taxable fuel—

(A) Is a taxable fuel registrant;

(B) Has an unexpired notification certificate (described in § 48.4081-5) from the operator of the terminal or refinery where the taxable fuel is received; and

(C) Has no reason to believe that any information in the notification certificate is false.

(iii) Liability of the operator of the facility where the taxable fuel is received. The operator of the facility where the taxable fuel is received is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if the owner of the taxable fuel has met the conditions of paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section and is jointly and severally liable for the tax if the owner has not met such conditions.

(f) Tax on sales within the bulk transfer/terminal system—(1) Imposition of tax. Tax is imposed on the sale of taxable fuel located within the bulk transfer/terminal system if the sale is to a person that is not a taxable fuel registrant and tax has not been imposed on such taxable fuel under § 48.4081-2, or paragraph (b), (c), (d), or (e) of this section.

(2) Exception for certain sales of taxable fuel for export. The tax imposed under paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to a sale of taxable fuel if—

(i) The buyer's principal place of business is not within the United States;

(ii) The sale of the fuel occurs as the fuel is delivered into a transport vessel;

(iii) The vessel has a capacity of at least 20,000 barrels of fuel;

(iv) The seller is a taxable fuel registrant and the exporter of record of the fuel; and

(v) The fuel was exported in due course.

(3) Liability for tax—(i) In general. The seller of the taxable fuel is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (f)(1) of this section if the seller has not met the conditions of paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section.

(ii) Conditions for avoidance of liability. A seller is not liable for tax under paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section if, at the time of the sale, the seller—

(A) Is a taxable fuel registrant;

(B) Has an unexpired notification certificate (described in § 48.4081-5) from the buyer; and

(C) Has no reason to believe that any information in the certificate is false.

(iii) Liability of the buyer. The buyer of the taxable fuel is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (f)(1) of this section if the seller of the taxable fuel has met the conditions of paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section and is jointly and severally liable for the tax if the seller has not met such conditions.

(4) Example. The following example illustrates this paragraph (f) and the definition of the term sale in § 48.4081-1:

Example.PH owns one million gallons of untaxed gasoline that is stored in TO's terminal. PH also is the position holder with respect to the gasoline. While the gasoline remains stored in the terminal, PH transfers title to 200,000 gallons of the gasoline to A, a person that is not a taxable fuel registrant. PH continues to hold the inventory position on TO's records with respect to the one million gallons. Because PH continues as the position holder with respect to the gasoline, the transfer of title to the gasoline from PH to A is not a sale of gasoline. Because this transfer of title from PH to A is not a sale of gasoline, the tax imposed under paragraph (f) of this section does not apply to the transfer.

(g) Tax on removal or sale of blended taxable fuel by the blender—(1) Imposition of tax. A tax is imposed on the removal or sale of blended taxable fuel by the blender thereof. Tax is computed on the difference between the total number of gallons of blended taxable fuel removed or sold and the number of gallons of previously taxed taxable fuel used to produce the blended taxable fuel. For this purpose, the alcohol in gasohol is treated as previously taxed taxable fuel.

(2) Liability for tax—(i) Liability of the blender. The blender is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (g)(1) of this section.

(ii) Liability of seller of untaxed liquid. On and after April 2, 2003, a person that sells any liquid that is used to produce blended taxable fuel is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (g)(1) of this section on the removal or sale of that blended taxable fuel if the liquid—

(A) Is described in § 48.4081-1(c)(1)(i)(B) (relating to liquids on which tax has not been imposed under section 4081); and

(B) Is sold by that person as gasoline, diesel fuel, or kerosene that has been taxed under section 4081.

(3) Examples. The following examples illustrate the provisions of this paragraph (g) and the definitions of blended taxable fuel and diesel fuel in § 48.4081-1(c):

Example 1. (i) Facts. W is a wholesale distributor of petroleum products and R is a retailer of petroleum products. W sells to R 1,000 gallons of an untaxed liquid (a liquid described in § 48.4081-1(c)(1)(i)(B)) and delivers the liquid into a storage tank (tank) at R's retail facility. However, W's invoice to R states that the liquid is undyed diesel fuel. At the time of the delivery, the tank contains 4,000 gallons of undyed diesel fuel, a taxable fuel that has been taxed under section 4081. The resulting 5,000 gallon mixture is suitable for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle because it has practical and commercial fitness for use in the propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle. The mixture does not satisfy the dyeing requirements of § 48.4082-1. R sells the mixture from the tank to a construction company for off-highway business use.

(ii) Analysis—(A) Production of blended taxable fuel. R is a blender within the meaning of § 48.4081-1 because R has produced blended taxable fuel, as defined in § 48.4081-1, by mixing 1,000 gallons of a liquid that has not been taxed under section 4081 with 4,000 gallons of diesel fuel that has been taxed under section 4081. The mixing occurs outside of the bulk transfer/terminal system and the resulting product is diesel fuel because it is suitable for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle.

(B) Imposition of tax. Under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, tax is imposed on R's sale of the 5,000 gallons of blended taxable fuel to the construction company. Even though the blended taxable fuel is sold for off-highway business use, which is a nontaxable use as defined in section 4082(b), the sale is not exempt from tax because the blended taxable fuel does not satisfy the dyeing requirements of § 48.4082-1. Tax is computed on 1,000 gallons, which is the difference between the number of gallons of blended taxable fuel R sells (5,000) and the number of gallons of previously taxed taxable fuel used to produce the blended taxable fuel (4,000).

(C) Liability for tax. R, as the blender, is liable for this tax under paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section. W is jointly and severally liable for this tax under paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section because the blended taxable fuel is produced using an untaxed liquid that W sold as undyed diesel fuel (that is, as diesel fuel that was taxed under section 4081).

Example 2. (i) Facts. W, a wholesale distributor of petroleum products, buys 7,000 gallons of diesel fuel at a terminal rack. The diesel fuel is delivered into a tank trailer. Tax is imposed on the diesel fuel under § 48.4081-2 when the diesel fuel is removed at the rack. W then goes to another location where X, the operator of a chemical plant, sells W 1,000 gallons of an untaxed liquid (a liquid described in § 48.4081-1(c)(1)(i)(B)). However, X's invoice to W states that the liquid is undyed diesel fuel. This liquid is delivered into the tank trailer already containing the 7,000 gallons of diesel fuel. The resulting 8,000 gallon mixture is suitable for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle because it has practical and commercial fitness for use in the propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle. The mixture does not satisfy the dyeing requirements of § 48.4082-1. W sells the mixture to R, a retailer of petroleum products, and delivers the mixture into a storage tank at R's retail facility. R sells the mixture to its customers.

(ii) Analysis—(A) Production of blended taxable fuel. W is a blender within the meaning of § 48.4081-1 because W has produced blended taxable fuel, as defined in § 48.4081-1, by mixing 1,000 gallons of a liquid that has not been taxed under section 4081 with 7,000 gallons of diesel fuel that has been taxed under section 4081. The mixing occurs outside of the bulk transfer/terminal system and the resulting product is diesel fuel because it is suitable for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle. Thus, R has bought blended taxable fuel.

(B) Imposition of tax. Under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, tax is imposed on W's sale of the 8,000 gallons of blended taxable fuel to R. Tax is computed on 1,000 gallons, which is the difference between the number of gallons of blended taxable fuel W sells (8,000) and the number of gallons of previously taxed taxable fuel used to produce the blended taxable fuel (7,000). No tax is imposed on R's subsequent sale of the blended taxable fuel because tax is imposed only with respect to a removal or sale by the blender.

(C) Liability for tax. W, as the blender, is liable for this tax under paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section. X is jointly and severally liable for this tax under paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section because the blended taxable fuel is produced using an untaxed liquid that X sold as undyed diesel fuel (that is, as diesel fuel that was taxed under section 4081). R has no liability for tax because R is not a blender and did not sell any untaxed liquid as a taxed taxable fuel. R only sold taxed taxable fuel, the blended taxable fuel bought from W.

(h) Rate of tax. For the rate of tax generally imposed under this section, see section 4081(a). For the rate of tax on gasohol and on gasoline removed or entered for gasohol production, see § 48.4081-6.

(i) Exemptions. For exemptions from the taxes imposed under this section, see §§ 48.4081-4 (relating to gasoline blendstocks), 48.4082-1 (relating to dyed diesel fuel and dyed kerosene), 48.4082-5 (relating to diesel fuel and kerosene used in Alaska), 48.4082-6 (relating to aviation-grade kerosene), and 48.4082-7 (relating to kerosene used for a feedstock purpose).

(j) Effective/applicability date: This section is applicable January 1, 1994, except that paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section are applicable to entries of taxable fuel after September 27, 2004.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10455, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17156, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9051, 68 FR 15941, Apr. 2, 2003; T.D. 9145, 69 FR 45588, July 30, 2004; T.D. 9346, 72 FR 41223, July 27, 2007]

§ 48.4081-4 Gasoline; special rules for gasoline blendstocks.

(a) Overview. This section provides rules exempting from tax certain removals, entries, and sales of gasoline blendstocks. Generally, under prescribed conditions, tax is not imposed on gasoline blendstocks that are not used to produce finished gasoline or that are received at an approved terminal or refinery.

(b) Nonbulk removals and entries of gasoline blendstocks not used to produce gasoline—(1) Removals and entries not in connection with sales. Tax is not imposed under § 48.4081-2(b), § 48.4081-3(b)(1)(ii), or § 48.4081-3(c)(1)(ii) on the removal or entry of gasoline blendstocks not in connection with a sale if—

(i) The person otherwise liable for tax under § 48.4081-2(c)(1) (the position holder), § 48.4081-3(b)(3) (the refiner), or § 48.4081-3(c)(2) (the enterer) is a taxable fuel registrant; and

(ii) Such person does not use the gasoline blendstocks to produce finished gasoline.

(2) Removals and entries in connection with sales. Tax is not imposed under § 48.4081-2(b), § 48.4081-3(b)(1)(ii), or § 48.4081-3(c)(1)(ii) on the removal or entry of gasoline blendstocks in connection with a sale if—

(i) The person otherwise liable for tax under § 48.4081-2(c)(1) (the position holder), § 48.4081-3(b)(3) (the refiner), or § 48.4081-3(c)(2) (the enterer) is a taxable fuel registrant; and

(ii) At the time of the sale, such person has an unexpired certificate (described in paragraph (e) of this section) from the buyer and has no reason to believe any information in the certificate is false.

(3) Tax on sales after certain nonbulk removals or entries—(i) In general. If paragraph (b) (1) or (2) of this section applies to the removal or entry of gasoline blendstocks, tax is imposed on any sale of such blendstocks unless, at the time of the sale, the seller—

(A) Has an unexpired certificate (described in paragraph (e) of this section) from its buyer; and

(B) Has no reason to believe any information in the certificate is false.

(ii) Liability for tax. The seller is liable for the tax imposed under this paragraph (b)(3).

(iii) Rate of tax. For the rate of tax, see section 4081.

(c) Nonbulk removals and entries of gasoline blendstocks received at an approved terminal or refinery. Tax is not imposed under § 48.4081-2(b), § 48.4081-3(b)(1)(ii), or § 48.4081-3(c)(1)(ii) on the removal or entry of gasoline blendstocks that are received at a terminal or refinery if the person otherwise liable for tax under § 48.4081-2(c)(1) (the position holder), § 48.4081-3(b)(3) (the refiner), or § 48.4081-3(c)(2) (the enterer)—

(1) Is a taxable fuel registrant;

(2) Has an unexpired notification certificate (described in § 48.4081-5) from the operator of the terminal or refinery where the gasoline blendstocks are received; and

(3) Has no reason to believe that any information in the certificate is false.

(d) Bulk transfer to a registered industrial user. Tax is not imposed under § 48.4081-3(e)(1) if, upon the removal of gasoline blendstocks from a pipeline or vessel, the gasoline blendstocks are received by a taxable fuel registrant that is an industrial user.

(e) Certificate—(1) In general. The certificate to be provided by a buyer of gasoline blendstocks consists of a statement that is signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the buyer, is in substantially the same form as the model certificate provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, and contains all information necessary to complete such model certificate. A new certificate must be given if any information in the current certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale. The certificate expires on the earliest of the following dates:

(i) The date one year after the effective date of the certificate (which may be no earlier than the date it is signed).

(ii) The date a new certificate is provided to the seller.

(iii) The date the seller is notified by the Internal Revenue Service or the buyer that the buyer's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(2) Withdrawal of right to provide certificate. The Internal Revenue Service may withdraw the right of a buyer of gasoline blendstocks to provide a certificate under this paragraph (e) if such buyer uses gasoline blendstocks to which a certificate applies in the production of finished gasoline or resells the gasoline blendstocks without obtaining a certificate from its buyer. The Internal Revenue Service may notify any seller to whom the buyer has provided a certificate that the buyer's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(3) Model certificate.

Certificate of Person Buying Gasoline Blendstocks for use Other Than in the Production of Finished Gasoline (To support tax-free sales under section 4081 of the Internal Revenue Code)

Name, address, and employer identification number of seller

The undersigned buyer (“Buyer”) hereby certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The gasoline blendstocks to which this certificate relates will not be used to produce finished gasoline.

This certificate applies to the following (complete as applicable):

If this is a single purchase certificate, check here ______ and enter:

1. Invoice or delivery ticket number ______

2. ______ (number of gallons) of ______ (type of gasoline blendstocks)

If this is a certificate covering all purchases under a specified account or order number, check here ______ and enter:

1. Effective date ______

2. Expiration date ______

(period not to exceed 1 year after the effective date)

3. Type (or types) of gasoline blendstocks ______

4. Buyer account or order number ______

Buyer will not claim a credit or refund under section 6427(h) of the Internal Revenue Code for any gasoline blendstocks covered by this certificate.

Buyer will provide a new certificate to the seller if any information in this certificate changes.

If Buyer resells the gasoline blendstocks to which this certificate relates, Buyer will be liable for tax unless Buyer obtains a certificate from the purchaser stating that the gasoline blendstocks will not be used to produce finished gasoline and otherwise complies with the conditions of § 48.4081-4(b)(3) of the Manufacturers and Retailers Excise Tax Regulations.

Buyer understands that if Buyer violates the terms of this certificate, the Internal Revenue Service may withdraw Buyer's right to provide a certificate.

Buyer has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn. In addition, the Internal Revenue Service has not notified Buyer that the right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn from a purchaser to which Buyer sells gasoline blendstocks tax free.

Buyer understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Buyer and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Signature and date signed

Printed or typed name of person signing

Title of person signing

Name of Buyer

Employer identification number

Address of Buyer

(f) Effective date. This section is effective January 1, 1994.

[T.D. 8421, 57 FR 32424, July 22, 1992; 57 FR 39421, Aug. 31, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10457, Mar. 14, 1996]

§ 48.4081-5 Taxable fuel; notification certificate of taxable fuel registrant.

(a) Overview. This section sets forth requirements for the notification certificate under §§ 48.4081-2(c)(2)(ii), 48.4081-3(c)(2)(iii) and (iv), 48.4081-3(d)(2)(iii), 48.4081-3(e)(2)(iii), 48.4081-3(f)(2)(ii), and 48.4081-4(c) to notify another person of the taxable fuel registrant's registration status.

(b) Certificate—(1) In general. The certificate to be provided by a taxable fuel registrant consists of a statement that is signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the registrant, is in substantially the same form as the model provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and contains all information necessary to complete such model. A new certificate must be given if any information in the most recently provided certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale. The certificate expires on the earlier of the following dates:

(i) The date the registrant provides a new certificate.

(ii) The date the recipient of the certificate is notified by either the Internal Revenue Service or the registrant that the registrant's registration has been revoked or suspended.

(2) Model certificate.

Notification Certificate of Taxable Fuel Registrant

Name, address, and employer identification number of person receiving certificate

The undersigned taxable fuel registrant (“Registrant”) hereby certifies under penalties of perjury that Registrant is registered by the Internal Revenue Service with registration number ______ and that Registrant's registration has not been revoked or suspended by the Internal Revenue Service.

Registrant understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Registrant and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the cost of prosecution.

Signature and date signed Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Name of registrant Employer identification number Address of registrant

(3) Use of Form 637 or letter of registration as a notification certificate prohibited. A copy of the certificate of registry (Form 637) or letter of registration issued to a registrant by the Internal Revenue Service is not a notification certificate described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(c) Effective date. This section is effective January 1, 1994.

[T.D. 8421, 57 FR 32424, July 22, 1992; 57 FR 39422, Aug. 31, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10457, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 9145, 69 FR 45588, July 30, 2004; T.D. 9346, 72 FR 41224, July 27, 2007]

§ 48.4081-6 Gasoline; gasohol.

(a) Overview. This section provides rules for determining the applicability of reduced rates of tax on a removal or entry of gasohol or of gasoline used to produce gasohol. Rules are also provided for the imposition of tax on the separation of gasoline from gasohol and the failure to use gasoline that has been taxed at a reduced rate to produce gasohol.

(b) Explanation of terms—(1) Alcohol—(i) In general; source of the alcohol. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, alcohol means any alcohol that is not a derivative product of petroleum, natural gas, or coal (including peat). Thus, the term includes methanol and ethanol that are not derived from petroleum, natural gas, or coal (including peat). The term also includes alcohol produced either within or outside the United States.

(ii) Proof and denaturants. Alcohol does not include alcohol with a proof of less than 190 degrees (determined without regard to added denaturants). If the alcohol added to a fuel/alcohol mixture (the added alcohol) includes impurities or denaturants, the volume of alcohol in the mixture is determined under the following rules:

(A) The volume of alcohol in the mixture includes the volume of any impurities (other than added denaturants and any fuel with which the alcohol is mixed) that reduce the purity of the added alcohol to not less than 190 proof (determined without regard to added denaturants).

(B) The volume of alcohol in the mixture includes the volume of any approved denaturants that reduce the purity of the added alcohol, but only to the extent that the volume of the approved denaturants does not exceed five percent of the volume of the added alcohol (including the approved denaturants). If the volume of the approved denaturants exceeds five percent of the volume of the added alcohol, the excess over five percent is considered part of the nonalcohol content of the mixture.

(C) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(ii), approved denaturants are any denaturants (including gasoline and nonalcohol fuel denaturants) that reduce the purity of the added alcohol and are added to such alcohol under a formula approved by the Secretary.

(iii) Products derived from alcohol. If alcohol described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section has been chemically transformed in producing another product (that is, the alcohol is no longer present as a separate chemical in the other product) and there is no significant loss in the energy content of the alcohol, any mixture containing the product includes the volume of alcohol used to produce the product. Thus, for example, a mixture of gasoline and ethyl tertiary butyl ether (ETBE), or of gasoline and methyl tertiary butyl ether (MTBE), includes any alcohol described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section that is used to produce the ETBE or MTBE, respectively, in a chemical reaction in which there is no significant loss in the energy content of the alcohol.

(2) Gasohol—(i) In general—(A) Gasohol is a mixture of gasoline and alcohol that is 10 percent gasohol, 7.7 percent gasohol, or 5.7 percent gasohol. The determination of whether a particular mixture is 10 percent gasohol, 7.7 percent gasohol, or 5.7 percent gasohol is made on a batch-by-batch basis. A batch of gasohol is a discrete mixture of gasoline and alcohol.

(B) If a particular mixture is produced within the bulk transfer/terminal system (for example, at a refinery), the determination of whether the mixture is gasohol is made at the time of the taxable removal or entry of the mixture.

(C) If a particular mixture is produced outside of the bulk transfer/terminal system (for example, by splash blending after the gasoline has been removed from the terminal at the rack), the determination of whether the mixture is gasohol is made immediately after the mixture is produced. In such a case, the contents of the batch typically correspond to a gasoline meter delivery ticket and an alcohol meter delivery ticket, each of which shows the number of gallons of liquid delivered into the mixture. The volume of each component in a batch (without adjustment for temperature) ordinarily is determined by the number of metered gallons shown on the delivery tickets for the gasoline and alcohol delivered. However, if metered gallons of gasoline and alcohol are added to a tank already containing more than a minor amount of liquid, the determination of whether a batch satisfies the alcohol-content requirement will be made by taking into account the amount of alcohol and non-alcohol fuel contained in the liquid already in the tank. Ordinarily, any amount in excess of 0.5 percent of the capacity of the tank will not be considered minor.

(ii) 10 percent gasohol—(A) In general. A batch of gasoline/alcohol mixture is 10 percent gasohol if it contains at least 9.8 percent alcohol by volume, without rounding.

(B) Batches containing less than 10 percent but at least 9.8 percent alcohol. If a batch of mixture contains less than 10 percent alcohol but at least 9.8 percent alcohol, without rounding, only a portion of the batch is considered to be 10 percent gasohol. That portion equals the number of gallons of alcohol in the batch multiplied by 10. Any remaining liquid in the mixture is excess liquid.

(iii) 7.7 percent gasohol—(A) In general. A batch of gasoline/alcohol mixture is 7.7 percent gasohol if it contains less than 9.8 percent alcohol but at least 7.55 percent alcohol by volume, without rounding.

(B) Batches containing less than 7.7 percent but at least 7.55 percent alcohol. If a batch of mixture contains less than 7.7 percent alcohol but at least 7.55 percent alcohol, without rounding, only a portion of the batch is considered to be 7.7 percent gasohol. That portion equals the number of gallons of alcohol in the batch multiplied by 12.987. Any remaining liquid in the mixture is excess liquid.

(iv) 5.7 percent gasohol—(A) In general. A batch of gasoline/alcohol mixture is 5.7 percent gasohol if it contains less than 7.55 percent alcohol but at least 5.59 percent alcohol by volume, without rounding.

(B) Batches containing less than 5.7 percent but at least 5.59 percent alcohol. If a batch of mixture contains less than 5.7 percent alcohol but at least 5.59 percent alcohol, without rounding, only a portion of the batch is considered to be 5.7 percent gasohol. That portion equals the number of gallons of alcohol in the batch multiplied by 17.544. Any remaining liquid in the mixture is excess liquid.

(v) Tax on excess liquid. If tax was imposed on the excess liquid in any gasohol at the gasohol production tax rate (as defined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section), the excess liquid in the batch is considered to be gasoline with respect to which there is a failure to blend into gasohol for purposes of paragraph (f) of this section. If tax was imposed on the excess liquid at the rate of tax described in section 4081(a), a credit or refund under section 6427(f) is not allowed with respect to the excess liquid.

(vi) Examples. The following examples illustrate this paragraph (b)(2). In these examples, a gasohol blender creates a gasoline/alcohol mixture by pumping a specified amount of gasoline into an empty tank and then adding a specified amount of alcohol.

Example 1.Mixtures containing exactly 10 percent alcohol. The applicable delivery tickets show that the mixture is made with 7200 metered gallons of gasoline and 800 metered gallons of alcohol. Accordingly, the mixture contains 10 percent alcohol (as determined based on the delivery tickets provided to the blender) and qualifies as 10 percent gasohol.

Example 2.Mixtures containing less than 10 percent alcohol but at least 9.8 percent alcohol. The applicable delivery tickets show that the mixture is made with 7205 metered gallons of gasoline and 795 metered gallons of alcohol. Because the mixture contains less than 10 percent alcohol, but more than 9.8 percent alcohol (as determined based on the delivery tickets provided to the blender), 7950 gallons of the mixture qualify as 10 percent gasohol. If tax was imposed on the gasoline in the mixture at the gasohol production rate applicable to 10 percent gasohol, the remaining 50 gallons of the mixture (the excess liquid) are treated as gasoline with respect to which there was a failure to blend into gasohol for purposes of paragraph (f) of this section. If tax was imposed on the gasoline in the mixture at the rate of tax described in section 4081(a), a credit or refund under section 6427(f) is allowed only with respect to 7155 gallons of gasoline.

Example 3.Mixtures containing less than 5.59 percent alcohol. The applicable delivery tickets show that the mixture is made with 7568 metered gallons of gasoline and 436 metered gallons of alcohol. Because the mixture contains only 5.45 percent alcohol (as determined based on the delivery tickets provided to the blender), the mixture does not qualify as gasohol.

(3) Gasohol blender. Gasohol blender means any person that regularly produces gasohol outside of the bulk transfer/terminal system for sale or use in its trade or business.

(4) Registered gasohol blender. Registered gasohol blender means a person that is registered under section 4101 as a gasohol blender.

(c) Rate of tax on gasoline removed or entered for gasohol production—(1) In general. The rate of tax imposed on gasoline under § 48.4081-2(b) (relating to tax imposed at the terminal rack), § 48.4081-3(b)(1) (relating to tax imposed at the refinery), or § 48.4081-3(c)(1) (relating to tax imposed on entries) is the gasohol production tax rate if—

(i) The person liable for tax under § 48.4081-2(c)(1) (the position holder), § 48.4081-3(b)(3) (the refiner), or § 48.4081-3(c)(2) (the enterer) is a taxable fuel registrant and a registered gasohol blender, and such person produces gasohol with the gasoline within 24 hours after removing or entering the gasoline; or

(ii) The gasoline is sold in connection with the removal or entry, the person liable for tax under § 48.4081-2(c)(1) (the position holder), § 48.4081-3(b)(3) (the refiner), or § 48.4081-3(c)(2) (the enterer) is a taxable fuel registrant and the person, at the time of the sale,—

(A) Has an unexpired certificate (as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section) from the buyer; and

(B) Has no reason to believe that any information in the certificate is false.

(2) Certificate—(i) In general. The certificate referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) of this section is a statement that is to be provided by a registered gasohol blender that is signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the registered gasohol blender, is in substantially the same form as the model certificate provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, and contains all information necessary to complete such model certificate. A new certificate must be given if any information in the current certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale. The certificate expires on the earliest of the following dates:

(A) The date one year after the effective date of the certificate (which may be no earlier than the date it is signed).

(B) The date the registered gasohol blender provides a new certificate to the seller.

(C) The date the seller is notified by the Internal Revenue Service or the gasohol blender that the gasohol blender's registration has been revoked or suspended.

(ii) Model certificate.

Certificate of Registered Gasohol Blender (To support sales of gasoline at the gasohol production tax rate under section 4081(c) of the Internal Revenue Code) Name, address, and employer identification number of seller

____________________ (Buyer) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

Buyer is registered as a gasohol blender with registration number ________________. Buyer's registration has not been suspended or revoked by the Internal Revenue Service.

The gasoline bought under this certificate will be used by Buyer to produce gasohol (as defined in § 48.4081-6(b) of the Manufacturers and Retailers Excise Tax Regulations) within 24 hours after buying the gasoline.

Type of gasohol Buyer will produce (check one only):

______ 10% gasohol ______ 7.7% gasohol ______ 5.7% gasohol

If the gasohol the Buyer will produce will contain ethanol, check here: ______

This certificate applies to the following (complete as applicable):

If this is a single purchase certificate, check here ______ and enter:

1. Account number ________________

2. Number of gallons ________________

If this is a certificate covering all purchases under a specified account or order number, check here ______ and enter:

1. Effective date ________________

2. Expiration date ________________ (period not to exceed 1 year after the effective date)

3. Buyer account or order number ________________

Buyer will not claim a credit or refund under section 6427(f) of the Internal Revenue Code for any gasoline covered by this certificate.

Buyer agrees to provide seller with a new certificate if any information on this certificate changes.

Buyer understands that Buyer's registration may be revoked if the gasoline covered by this certificate is resold or is used other than in Buyer's production of the type of gasohol identified above.

Buyer will reduce any alcohol mixture credit under section 40(b) by an amount equal to the benefit of the gasohol production tax rate under section 4081(c) for the gasohol to which this certificate relates.

Buyer understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Buyer and all parties making any fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Employer identification number Address of Buyer Signature and date signed

(iii) Use of Form 637 or letter of registration as a gasohol blender's certificate prohibited. A copy of the certificate of registry (Form 637) or letter of registration issued to a gasohol blender by the Internal Revenue Service is not a gasohol blender's certificate described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.

(d) Rate of tax on gasohol removed or entered. The rate of tax imposed on removals or entries of any gasohol under §§ 48.4081-2(b), 48.4081-3(b)(1), and 48.4081-3(c)(1) is the gasohol tax rate. The rate of tax imposed on removals and entries of excess liquid described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is the rate of tax applicable to gasoline under section 4081(a).

(e) Tax rates—(1) Gasohol production tax rate. The gasohol production tax rate is the applicable rate of tax determined under section 4081(c)(2)(A).

(2) Gasohol tax rate. The gasohol tax rate is the applicable alcohol mixture rate determined under section 4081(c)(4)(A).

(f) Later separation and failure to blend—(1) Later separation—(i) Imposition of tax. A tax is imposed on the removal or sale of gasoline separated from gasohol with respect to which tax was imposed at a rate described in paragraph (e) of this section or with respect to which a credit or payment was allowed or made by reason of section 6427(f)(1).

(ii) Liability for tax. The person that owns the gasohol at the time gasoline is separated from the gasohol is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section.

(iii) Rate of tax. The rate of tax imposed under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section is the difference between the rate of tax applicable to gasoline not described in this section and the applicable gasohol production tax rate.

(2) Failure to blend—(i) Imposition of tax. Tax is imposed on the entry, removal, or sale of gasoline (including excess liquid described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) with respect to which tax was imposed at a gasohol production tax rate if—

(A) The gasoline was not blended into gasohol; or

(B) The gasoline was blended into gasohol but the gasohol production tax rate applicable to the type of gasohol produced is greater than the rate of tax originally imposed on the gasoline.

(ii) Liability for tax. (A) In the case of gasoline with respect to which tax was imposed at the gasohol production tax rate under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, the person liable for the tax imposed by paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section is the person that was liable for tax on the entry or removal.

(B) In the case of gasoline with respect to which tax was imposed at the gasohol production tax rate under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the person that bought the gasoline in connection with the entry or removal is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section.

(iii) Rate of tax. The rate of tax imposed on gasoline described in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A) of this section is the difference between the rate of tax applicable to gasoline not described in this section and the rate of tax previously imposed on the gasoline. The rate of tax imposed on gasoline described in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section is the difference between the gasohol production tax rate applicable to the type of gasohol produced and the rate of tax previously imposed on the gasoline.

(iv) Example. The following example illustrates this paragraph (f)(2):

Example. (i) A registered gasohol blender bought gasoline in connection with a removal described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. Based on the blender's certification (described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section) that the blender would produce 10 percent gasohol with the gasoline, tax at the gasohol production tax rate applicable to 10 percent gasohol was imposed on the removal.

(ii) The blender then produced a mixture by splash blending in a tank holding approximately 8000 gallons of mixture. The applicable delivery tickets show that the mixture was blended by first pumping 7220 metered gallons of gasoline into the empty tank, and then pumping 780 metered gallons of alcohol into the tank. Because the mixture contains 9.75 percent alcohol (as determined based on the delivery tickets provided to the blender) the entire mixture qualifies as 7.7 percent gasohol, rather than 10 percent gasohol.

(iii) Because the 7220 gallons of gasoline were taxed at the gasohol production tax rate applicable to 10 percent gasohol but the gasoline was blended into 7.7 percent gasohol, a failure to blend has occurred with respect to the gasoline. As the person that bought the gasoline in connection with the taxable removal, the blender is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section. The amount of tax imposed is the difference between—

(A) 7220 gallons times the gasohol production tax rate applicable to 7.7 percent gasohol; and (B) 7220 gallons times the gasohol production tax rate applicable to 10 percent gasohol. (iv) Because the gasohol does not contain exactly 7.7 percent alcohol, the benefit of the gasohol production tax rate with respect to the alcohol is less than the amount of the alcohol mixture credit under section 40(b) (determined before the application of section 40(c)). Accordingly, the blender may be entitled to claim an alcohol mixture credit for the alcohol used in the gasohol. Under section 40(c), however, the amount of the alcohol mixture credit must be reduced to take into account the benefit provided with respect to the alcohol by the gasohol production tax rate.

(g) Effective date. This section is effective August 7, 1995.

[T.D. 8609, 60 FR 40082, Aug. 7, 1995, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10457, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17157, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4081-7 Taxable fuel; conditions for refunds of taxable fuel tax under section 4081(e).

(a) Overview. This section provides reporting requirements and other conditions that a person paying tax to the government under section 4081 must satisfy to receive a refund (but not a credit) under section 4081(e) with respect to taxable fuel on which a prior tax was paid to the government under section 4081. No credit against any tax imposed under the Internal Revenue Code is allowed under this section.

(b) Conditions to allowance of refund. A claim for refund of tax imposed by section 4081 with respect to taxable fuel is allowed under section 4081(e) and this section only if—

(1) A tax imposed by section 4081 with respect to the taxable fuel was paid to the government and not credited or refunded (the “first tax”);

(2) After imposition of the first tax, another tax was imposed by section 4081 with respect to the same taxable fuel and was also paid to the government (the “second tax”);

(3) The person that paid the second tax to the government has filed a timely claim for refund that contains the information required under paragraph (d) of this section; and

(4) The person that paid the first tax to the government has met the reporting requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.

(c) Reporting requirements—(1) Reporting by persons paying the first tax. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the person that paid the first tax under § 48.4081-3 (the first taxpayer) must file a report that is in substantially the same form as the model report provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section (or such other model report as the Commissioner may prescribe) and contains all information necessary to complete such model report (the first taxpayer's report). A first taxpayer's report must be filed with the return to which the report relates (or at such other time, or in such other manner, as prescribed by the Commissioner).

(2) Model first taxpayer's report.

First Taxpayer's Report 1. First Taxpayer's name, address, and employer identification number 2. Name, address, and employer identification number of the buyer of the taxable fuel subject to tax 3.

Date and location of removal, entry, or sale

4.

Volume and type of taxable fuel removed, entered, or sold

5. Check type of taxable event:

__________ Removal from refinery

__________ Entry into United States

__________ Bulk transfer from terminal by unregistered position holder

__________ Bulk transfer not received at an approved terminal

__________ Sale within the bulk transfer/terminal system

__________ Removal at the terminal rack

__________ Removal or sale by the blender

6.

Amount of Federal excise tax paid on account of the removal, entry, or sale

The undersigned taxpayer (the “Taxpayer”) has not received, and will not claim, a credit with respect to, or a refund of, the tax on the taxable fuel to which this form relates.

Under penalties of perjury, the Taxpayer declares that Taxpayer has examined this statement, including any accompanying schedules and statements, and, to the best of Taxpayer's knowledge and belief, they are true, correct and complete.

Signature and date signed Printed or typed name of person signing this report Title

(3) Optional reporting for certain taxable events. Paragraph (c)(1) of this section does not apply with respect to a tax imposed under § 48.4081-2 (removal at a terminal rack), § 48.4081-3(c)(1)(ii) (nonbulk entries into the United States), or § 48.4081-3(g) (removals or sales by blenders). However, if the person liable for the tax expects that another tax will be imposed under section 4081 with respect to the taxable fuel, that person should (but is not required to) file a first taxpayer's report.

(4) Information provided to subsequent owners, etc.—(i) By person required to file first taxpayer's report. A first taxpayer required to file a first taxpayer's report under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must give a copy of the report to—

(A) The person to whom the first taxpayer sells (within the meaning of § 48.4081-1)) the taxable fuel within the bulk transfer/terminal system; or

(B) The owner of the taxable fuel immediately before the imposition of the first tax, if the first taxpayer is not the owner at that time.

(ii) By person filing optional first taxpayer's report. A first taxpayer filing a first taxpayer's report under paragraph (c)(3) of this section should (but is not required to) give a copy of the report to—

(A) The person to whom the first taxpayer sells the taxable fuel; or

(B) The owner of the taxable fuel immediately before the imposition of the first tax, if the first taxpayer is not the owner at that time.

(iii) By person receiving first taxpayer's report. A person that receives a copy of the first taxpayer's report and subsequently sells (within the meaning of § 48.4081-1)) the taxable fuel within the bulk transfer/terminal system must give the copy and a statement that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section to the buyer. A person that receives a copy of the first taxpayer's report and subsequently sells the taxable fuel outside the bulk transfer/terminal system should (but is not required to) give the copy and a statement that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section to the buyer, if that person expects that another tax will be imposed under section 4081 with respect to the taxable fuel.

(iv) Form of statement—(A) In general. A statement satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c)(4)(iv) if it is provided at the bottom or on the back of the copy of the first taxpayer's report (or in an attached document). This statement must contain all information necessary to complete the model statement provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iv)(B) of this section (or such other model statement as the Commissioner may prescribe) but need not be in the same format.

(B) Model statement describing subsequent sale.

Statement of Subsequent Seller 1. Name, address, and employer identification number of seller in subsequent sale 2. Name, address, and employer identification number of buyer in subsequent sale 3. Date and location of subsequent sale 4. Volume and type of taxable fuel sold

The undersigned seller (the “Seller”) has received the copy of the first taxpayer's report provided with this statement in connection with Seller's purchase of the taxable fuel described in this statement.

Under penalties of perjury, Seller declares that Seller has examined this statement, including any accompanying schedules and statements, and, to the best of Seller's knowledge and belief, they are true, correct and complete.

Signature and date signed Printed or typed name of person signing this statement Title

(v) Sale to multiple buyers. If the first taxpayer's report relates to taxable fuel divided among more than one buyer, multiple copies of the first taxpayer's report must be made at the stage that the taxable fuel is divided and each buyer must be given a copy of the report.

(d) Form and content of claim—(1) In general. The following rules apply to claims for refund under section 4081(e):

(i) The claim must be made by the person that paid the second tax to the government and must include all the information described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(ii) The claim must be made on Form 8849 (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions on the form. The form should be marked Section 4081(e) Claim at the top. Section 4081(e) claims must not be included with a claim for a refund under any other provision of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) Information to be included in the claim. Each claim for a refund under section 4081(e) must contain the following information with respect to the taxable fuel covered by the claim:

(i) Volume and type of taxable fuel.

(ii) Date on which the claimant incurred the tax liability to which this claim relates (the second tax).

(iii) Amount of second tax that claimant paid to the government and a statement that claimant has not included the amount of this tax in the sales price of the taxable fuel to which this claim relates and has not collected that amount from the person that bought the taxable fuel from claimant.

(iv) Name, address, and employer identification number of the person that paid the first tax to the government.

(v) A copy of the first taxpayer's report that relates to the taxable fuel covered by the claim.

(vi) If the taxable fuel covered by the claim was bought other than from the first taxpayer, a copy of the statement of subsequent seller that the claimant received with respect to that taxable fuel.

(e) Time for filing claim. A claim for refund under section 4081(e) may be filed any time after the claimant has filed the return of the second tax and before the end of the period prescribed by section 6511 for the filing of a claim for a refund.

(f) Examples. The following examples illustrate the provisions of this section.

Example 1. (i) A is a taxable fuel registrant that owns 10,000 gallons of gasoline, and on April 5, 1996, is transporting the gasoline by barge on a waterway in the United States. That day, A sells the gasoline to B, a person that is not a taxable fuel registrant. A is liable for tax on the sale under § 48.4081-3(f). A pays this tax to the government and attaches to its return of the gasoline tax for the 2nd quarter of 1996 the first taxpayer's report described in paragraph (c) of this section. A also gives a copy of this report to B.

(ii) On April 9, 1996, B sells the gasoline to C, a taxable fuel registrant. B also gives C a copy of the first taxpayer's report and the statement of subsequent seller (required under paragraph (c)(4) of this section). On April 14, 1996, the gasoline is removed from a terminal at the rack. C is the position holder of the gasoline at the time of the removal and thus is liable for tax on the removal under § 48.4081-2(c)(1). C pays this tax to the government.

(iii) After C has filed a return of the second tax and before the end of the period prescribed by section 6511 for filing a claim for a refund, C files a claim for a refund of the second tax. The claim is in the form prescribed in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. C includes with its claim a copy of the first taxpayer's report and statement of subsequent seller. Because the conditions to allowance of a refund under paragraph (b) of this section have been met, C is allowed a refund of the second tax.

Example 2.The facts are the same as in Example 1 except that A does not pay the tax to the government. Because the first tax was not paid to the government as required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the conditions to allowance of a refund under paragraph (b) of this section have not been met. Therefore, C is not allowed a refund of the second tax.

(g) Effective date. This section is effective in the case of taxable fuel with respect to which the first tax is imposed after September 30, 1995.

[T.D. 8421, 57 FR 32424, July 22, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8609, 60 FR 40086, Aug. 7, 1995; T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10457, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17157, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4081-8 Taxable fuel; measurement.

(a) In general. Volumes of taxable fuel may be measured on the basis of actual volumetric gallons or gallons adjusted to 60 degrees Fahrenheit.

(b) Effective date. This section is applicable January 1, 1994.

[66 FR 27597, May 18, 2001]

§ 48.4082-1 Diesel fuel and kerosene; exemption for dyed fuel.

(a) Exemption. Tax is not imposed by section 4081 on the removal, entry, or sale of any diesel fuel or kerosene if—

(1) The person otherwise liable for tax is a taxable fuel registrant;

(2) In the case of a removal from a terminal, the terminal is an approved terminal; and

(3) The diesel fuel or kerosene satisfies the dyeing and marking requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.

(b) Dyeing requirements. Diesel fuel or kerosene satisfies the dyeing requirement of this paragraph (b) only if the diesel fuel or kerosene contains—

(1) The dye Solvent Red 164 (and no other dye) at a concentration spectrally equivalent to at least 3.9 pounds of the solid dye standard Solvent Red 26 per thousand barrels of diesel fuel or kerosene; or

(2) Any dye of a type and in a concentration that has been approved by the Commissioner.

(c) Marking requirements. [Reserved]

(d) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 48.4082-1T(d).

(e) Effective date—(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, this section is applicable March 14, 1996.

(2) [Reserved] For further guidance, see § 48.4082-1T(e)(2).

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10457, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17157, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9199, 70 FR 21333, Apr. 26, 2005]

§ 48.4082-1T Diesel fuel and kerosene; exemption for dyed fuel (temporary).

(a) through (c) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 48.4082-1(a) through (c).

(d) Time and method for adding dye—(1) In general. Except as provided by paragraph (d)(6) of this section, diesel fuel or kerosene satisfies the dyeing requirements of this paragraph (d) only if the dye required by § 48.4082-1(b) is combined with the diesel fuel or kerosene by means of a mechanical injection system that is approved by the Commissioner for use at the facility where the dyeing occurs. Application for approval must be made in the form and manner required by the Commissioner. Rules similar to the rules of § 48.4101-1(g) apply to the Commissioner's action on the applications.

(2) Mechanical injection system; requirements. The Commissioner will approve a mechanical injection system only if—

(i) The system has features that automatically inject an amount of dye that satisfies the concentration requirements of § 48.4082-1(b) into diesel fuel or kerosene as the diesel fuel or kerosene is delivered from the bulk transfer/terminal system into the transport compartment of a truck, trailer, railroad car, or other means of nonbulk transfer;

(ii) The system has calibrated devices that accurately measure and record the amount of dye and the amount of diesel fuel and kerosene that is dispensed for each removal;

(iii) The system has automatic shut-off devices that prevent the removal of more than 100 gallons of undyed diesel fuel or kerosene in the case of a system malfunction;

(iv) The system is secured by either—

(A) Unbroken seals that are issued, installed, and maintained by the terminal operator and secure the measurement devices, shut-off devices, and other access points to the injection system; or

(B) A secured container that controls access to the measurement devices, shut-off devices, and other access points and is secured by an unbroken seal issued, installed, and maintained by the terminal operator;

(v) Each seal securing the system bears a unique identifying number or code and is produced in a manner that provides adequate assurance against duplication; and

(vi) The operator of the facility has written procedures in place for complying with its duty, described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, to maintain the system's security standards.

(3) Mechanical injection system; basis for approval. In determining whether to approve a mechanical injection system, the Commissioner will take into account the individual circumstances of each facility, including local fire and safety codes, to ensure that the cost of acquiring and maintaining the appropriate levels of security are reasonable for that facility.

(4) Mechanical injection system; duty of the operator of a mechanical injection system to maintain the system's security standards. Each operator of a mechanical injection system must—

(i) Maintain a record for each seal, including its identifying number or code, the location of the seal, the date(s) on which the seal was issued and installed, and the reason for the installation;

(ii) Visually inspect each installed seal not less than once during every 24 hour period to ascertain that each seal and lock mechanism, if applicable, has not been physically altered;

(iii) Check the identifying number or code for each seal against the records maintained by the terminal operator no less frequently than once during each seven day period and record each inspection and verification;

(iv) Promptly notify the Commissioner if inspection of a seal reveals any inconsistency in the records pertaining to that seal, or if the seal has been damaged or removed (other than a removal authorized by the operator for testing or maintenance);

(v) Maintain a record of each seal that has been replaced to include the seal number or code, the date the seal was issued, the location of the seal, the date the seal was replaced, and the reason the seal was replaced;

(vi) Promptly destroy and replace seals that have been removed from the system;

(vii) Restrict access to unused seal inventory to individuals specifically designated by the operator and maintain a record of such individuals;

(viii) Maintain a record of each installation, inspection, and destruction described in this paragraph (d)(4), including the name of the individual who conducts the installation, inspection, or destruction;

(ix) Make available for the Commissioner's immediate inspection the seals and records described in this paragraph (d)(4); and

(x) Promptly notify the Commissioner if, and when, the dye injection system is placed out of service.

(5) Mechanical injection system; revocation or suspension of approval. The Commissioner may revoke or suspend its approval of a dye injection system if the Commissioner determines that the system does not meet the standards of paragraph (d)(2) of this section or if the operator of the system has not complied with the requirements of paragraph (d)(4) of this section.

(6) Sales and entries. For purposes of determining whether tax is imposed by section 4081 on a sale or entry of diesel fuel or kerosene, such fuel satisfies the dyeing requirements of this paragraph (d) only if the dye required by § 48.4082-1(b) is combined with the fuel before the sale or entry and the seller or enterer has in its records evidence (such as a certificate from the terminal operator providing the fuel) establishing that the dye was combined with the fuel by means of a mechanical injection system. Thus, for example, diesel fuel or kerosene that is entered into the United States by means of nonbulk transfer (such as a railroad car) does not satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (d) if the required dye and marker are combined with diesel fuel or kerosene after the diesel fuel or kerosene has been entered into the United States.

(7) Cross reference. For the penalty relating to mechanical dye injection systems, see section 6715A.

(e) and (e)(1) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 48.4082-1(e) and (e)(1).

(2) This section is applicable on October 24, 2005.

[T.D. 9199, 70 FR 21333, Apr. 26, 2005]

§ 48.4082-2 Diesel fuel and kerosene; notice required for dyed fuel.

(a) In general. A legible and conspicuous notice stating “DYED DIESEL FUEL, NONTAXABLE USE ONLY, PENALTY FOR TAXABLE USE” must be posted by a seller on any retail pump or other delivery facility where it sells dyed diesel fuel for use by its buyer. A legible and conspicuous notice stating “DYED KEROSENE, NONTAXABLE USE ONLY, PENALTY FOR TAXABLE USE” must be posted by a seller on any retail pump or other delivery facility where it sells dyed kerosene for use by its buyer. Any seller that fails to post the required notice on any retail pump or other delivery facility where it sells dyed fuel is, for purposes of the penalty imposed by section 6715, presumed to know that the fuel will not be used for a nontaxable use.

(b) Cross reference; terminal operators. For the requirement that terminal operators provide a notice with respect to dyed fuel, see § 48.4101-1(h)(3) (relating to terms and conditions of registration for terminal operators).

(c) Effective date. This section is applicable with respect to diesel fuel after December 31, 1993, and with respect to kerosene after June 30, 1998.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17157, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4082-3 Diesel fuel and kerosene; visual inspection devices. [Reserved]
§ 48.4082-4 Diesel fuel and kerosene; back-up tax.

(a) Imposition of tax—(1) In general. Tax is imposed by section 4041 on the delivery into the fuel supply tank of the propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle (other than a diesel-powered bus) of—

(i) Any diesel fuel or kerosene on which tax has not been imposed by section 4081;

(ii) Any diesel fuel or kerosene for which a credit or payment has been allowed under section 6427; or

(iii) Any liquid (other than taxable fuel) for use as fuel.

(2) Liability for tax—(i) In general. The operator of the highway vehicle into which the fuel is delivered is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(ii) Joint and several liability of the seller. The seller of the fuel is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the seller knows or has reason to know that the fuel will not be used in a nontaxable use.

(3) Rate of tax. The rate of tax is the rate imposed on diesel fuel by section 4081(a).

(b) Tax on diesel fuel and kerosene; buses and trains—(1) In general. Tax is imposed by section 4041 on the delivery into the fuel supply tank of the propulsion engine of a diesel-powered bus or a diesel-powered train of—

(i) Any diesel fuel or kerosene on which tax has not been imposed by section 4081;

(ii) Any diesel fuel or kerosene for which a credit or payment has been allowed under section 6427; or

(iii) Any liquid (other than taxable fuel) for use as fuel.

(2) Liability for tax—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the operator of the bus or train into which the fuel is delivered is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(ii) Special rule for certain train operators. The person that delivers the fuel into the fuel supply tank of a train, rather than the train operator, is liable for the tax imposed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if, at the time of the delivery—

(A) The deliverer of the fuel and the operator of the train are both registered as train operators under § 48.4101-1; and

(B) A written agreement between the deliverer of the fuel and the operator requires the deliverer to pay the tax imposed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(3) Rate of tax—(i) Buses—(A) In general. The rate of tax under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is the sum of the rates described in sections 4041(a)(1)(C)(iii)(I) and 4041(d)(1) (the bus rate) if the bus is used to furnish (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public and either such transportation is scheduled and along regular routes or the seating capacity of the bus is at least 20 adults (not including the driver). A bus is available to the general public if the bus is available for hire to more than a limited number of persons, groups, or organizations.

(B) Other uses. The rate of tax under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is the rate of tax imposed on diesel fuel by section 4081(a) if the bus is used for a purpose other than that described in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section.

(ii) Trains. The rate of tax under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is the rate prescribed in section 4041 for diesel fuel sold for use in a train (the train rate).

(4) Cross reference. For the registration requirement relating to certain bus and train operators, see § 48.4101-1(c)(2).

(c) Exemptions. The taxes imposed under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to a delivery of any liquid for—

(1) Use on a farm for farming purposes as that term and related terms are defined in § 48.6420-4 (a) through (g);

(2) The exclusive use of a State;

(3) Use described in section 4041(h) (relating to use in a vehicle owned by an aircraft museum);

(4) Use in a bus while the bus is engaged in the transportation of students and employees of schools (as defined in the last sentence of section 4221(d)(7)(C));

(5) Use in a qualified local bus (as defined in section 6427(b)(2)(D)) while the bus is engaged in furnishing (for compensation) intracity passenger land transportation that is available to the general public and is scheduled and along regular routes;

(6) Use in a highway vehicle that—

(i) Is not registered (and is not required to be registered) for highway use under the laws of any State or foreign country; and

(ii) Is used in the operator's trade or business or in an activity of the operator described in section 212 (relating to the production of income);

(7) The exclusive use of a nonprofit educational organization, as defined in § 48.4221-6(b); or

(8) Use in a highway vehicle that is owned by the United States and is not used on the highway.

(d) Effective date. This section is applicable after December 31, 1993, except that references to kerosene are applicable after June 30, 1998.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10458, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17157, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4082-5 Diesel fuel and kerosene; Alaska.

(a) Application. This section applies to diesel fuel or kerosene removed, entered, or sold in Alaska for ultimate sale or use in an exempt area of Alaska.

(b) Definitions.

Exempt area of Alaska means the area of Alaska in which the sulfur content requirements for diesel fuel (see section 211(i) of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7545(i))) do not apply because the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency has granted an exemption under section 211(i)(4) of that Act.

Nontaxable use means a use described in section 4082(b).

Qualified dealer means any person that holds a qualified dealer license from the state of Alaska or has been registered by the district director as a qualified retailer. The district director will register a person as a qualified retailer only if the district director—

(1) Determines that the person, in the course of its trade or business, regularly sells diesel fuel or kerosene for use by its buyer in a nontaxable use; and

(2) Is satisfied with the filing, deposit, payment, and claim history for all federal taxes of the person and any related person.

(c) Tax-free removals and entries. Notwithstanding § 48.4082-1, tax is not imposed by section 4081 on the removal or entry of any diesel fuel or kerosene in an exempt area of Alaska if—

(1) The person that would be liable for tax under § 48.4081-2 or 48.4081-3 is a taxable fuel registrant and satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section;

(2) In the case of a removal from a terminal, the terminal is an approved terminal; and

(3) The owner of the diesel fuel or kerosene immediately after the removal or entry holds the fuel for its own use in a nontaxable use or is a qualified dealer.

(d) Sales after removals and entries—(1) In general. Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply with respect to diesel fuel or kerosene that is subsequently sold by a qualified dealer unless—

(i) The fuel is sold in an exempt area of Alaska;

(ii) The buyer purchases the fuel for its own use in a nontaxable use or is a qualified dealer; and

(iii) The seller satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.

(2) Tax imposed at time of sale; liability for tax. Notwithstanding §§ 48.4081-2 and 48.4081-3, in any case in which paragraph (c) of this section does not apply with respect to diesel fuel or kerosene because of a subsequent sale by a qualified dealer, the tax with respect to that fuel is imposed at the time of the subsequent sale and the qualified dealer is liable for the tax.

(3) Rate of tax. For the rate of tax, see section 4081.

(e) Evidence of tax-free transactions. The requirements of section 4082(c)(2) (relating to certification) and this paragraph (e) are satisfied if the person otherwise liable for tax is able to show the district director satisfactory evidence of the exempt nature of the transaction and has no reason to believe that the evidence is false. Satisfactory evidence may include copies of qualified dealer licenses or exemption certificates obtained for state tax purposes.

(f) Registration. With respect to each person that has been registered as a qualified retailer by the district director, the rules of § 48.4101-1(g), (h), and (i) apply.

(g) Cross reference. For the tax on previously untaxed diesel fuel or kerosene that is used for a taxable purpose, see § 48.4082-4.

(h) Effective date. This section is applicable with respect to diesel fuel removed or entered after December 31, 1996, and with respect to kerosene removed or entered after June 30, 1998. A person registered by the district director as a qualified retailer before April 2, 1998 may be treated, to the extent the district director determines appropriate, as a qualified dealer for the period before that date.

[T.D. 8693, 61 FR 66216, Dec. 17, 1996. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 8748, 63 FR 25, Jan. 2, 1998; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17157, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4082-6 Kerosene; exemption for aviation-grade kerosene.

(a) Overview. This section prescribes the conditions under which tax does not apply to the removal or entry of aviation-grade kerosene that is destined for use as a fuel in an aircraft.

(b) Definition. For purposes of this section, aviation-grade kerosene means kerosene-type jet fuel covered by ASTM specification D 1655 or military specification MIL-DTL-5624T (Grade JP-5) or MIL-DTL-83133E (Grade JP-8). For availability of ASTM and military specifications, see § 48.4081-1(d).

(c) Exemption for certain removals and entries. Tax is not imposed under § 48.4081-2(b), 48.4081-3(b)(1)(ii), or 48.4081-3(c)(1)(ii) on the removal or entry of aviation-grade kerosene if—

(1) The person otherwise liable for tax is a taxable fuel registrant;

(2) In the case of a removal from a terminal, the terminal is an approved terminal; and

(3)(i) The person otherwise liable for tax delivers the kerosene into the fuel supply tank of an aircraft and this delivery is not in connection with a sale; or

(ii) The kerosene is sold for use as a fuel in an aircraft and, at the time of the sale, the person otherwise liable for tax has an unexpired certificate (described in paragraph (e) of this section) from the buyer and has no reason to believe any information in the certificate is false.

(d) Certain later sales—(1) In general. Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply with respect to kerosene that is sold as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section if there is a later disqualifying sale of the kerosene. A later disqualifying sale is any later sale other than a later sale—

(i) By a person that, at the time of the sale, has an unexpired certificate (described in paragraph (e) of this section) from the buyer and has no reason to believe that any information in the certificate is false; or

(ii) In connection with the delivery of the kerosene into the fuel supply tank of an aircraft.

(2) Imposition of tax; liability for tax. Notwithstanding §§ 48.4081-2 and 48.4081-3, in any case in which paragraph (d)(1) of this section applies, tax is imposed with respect to that kerosene at the time of the first later disqualifying sale and the seller in that sale is liable for the tax.

(3) Rate of tax. For the rate of tax, see section 4081.

(e) Certificate—(1) In general. The certificate described in this paragraph (e) is a statement by a buyer that is signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the buyer, is in substantially the same form as the model certificate provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, and contains all information necessary to complete the model certificate. A new certificate or notice that the current certificate is invalid must be given if any information in the current certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale. The certificate expires on the earliest of the following dates:

(i) The date one year after the effective date of the certificate (which may be no earlier than the date it is signed).

(ii) The date the buyer provides the seller a new certificate or notice that the current certificate is invalid.

(iii) The date the Internal Revenue Service or the buyer notifies the seller that the buyer's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(2) Withdrawal of the right to provide a certificate. The Internal Revenue Service may withdraw the right of a buyer of aviation-grade kerosene to provide a certificate under this section if the buyer uses the aviation-grade kerosene to which a certificate relates other than as a fuel in an aircraft or sells the kerosene without first obtaining a certificate from its buyer. The Internal Revenue Service may notify any seller to whom the buyer has provided a certificate that the buyer's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(3) Model certificate.

CERTIFICATE OF PERSON BUYING AVIATION-GRADE KEROSENE FOR USE AS A FUEL IN AN AIRCRAFT (To support tax-free removals and entries of aviation-grade kerosene under section 4082 of the Internal Revenue Code.) ______________________________________(Buyer) certifies the following Name of Buyer

under penalties of perjury:

The aviation-grade kerosene to which this certificate applies will be used by Buyer as a fuel in an aircraft or resold by Buyer for that use.

This certificate applies to ________ percent of Buyer's purchases from ________________________ (name, address, and employer identification number of seller) as follows (complete as applicable):

1. A single purchase on invoice or delivery ticket number ____________.

2. All purchases between ____________ (effective date) and ____________ (expiration date) (period not to exceed one year after the effective date) under account or order number(s) ____________. If this certificate applies only to Buyer's purchases for certain locations, check here ________ and list the locations.

Buyer is buying the kerosene for (check either or both as applicable): ____ Buyer's use as a fuel in an aircraft. ____ Resale for use as a fuel in an aircraft.

Buyer will provide a new certificate to the seller if any information in this certificate changes.

If Buyer sells the aviation-grade kerosene to which this certificate relates and does not deliver it into the fuel supply tank of an aircraft, Buyer will be liable for tax unless Buyer obtains a certificate from its buyer stating that the aviation-grade kerosene will be used as a fuel in an aircraft.

If Buyer violates the terms of this certificate, the Internal Revenue Service may withdraw Buyer's right to provide a certificate.

Buyer has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

The fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Buyer and all parties making any fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Employer identification number Address of Buyer Signature and date signed

(f) Effective date. This section is applicable after March 30, 2000, except that paragraph (d) of this section is applicable after June 30, 2000.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17158, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4082-7 Kerosene; exemption for feedstock purposes.

(a) Overview. This section prescribes the conditions under which tax does not apply to the removal or entry of kerosene for use for a feedstock purpose.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this section:

Feedstock purpose means the use of kerosene for nonfuel purposes in the manufacture or production of any substance other than gasoline, diesel fuel, or special fuels referred to in section 4041. Thus, for example, kerosene is used for a feedstock purpose when it is used as an ingredient in the production of paint and is not used for a feedstock purpose when it is used to power machinery at a factory where paint is produced.

Feedstock user means a person that uses kerosene for a feedstock purpose.

Registered feedstock user means a feedstock user that is—

(1) Registered under section 4101 as a feedstock user; or

(2) With respect to removals and entries before October 1, 2000, a taxable fuel registrant.

(c) Exemption for removals and entries. Tax is not imposed on the removal or entry of kerosene if—

(1) The person otherwise liable for tax is a taxable fuel registrant;

(2) In the case of a removal from a terminal, the terminal is an approved terminal; and

(3)(i) The person otherwise liable for tax uses the kerosene for a feedstock purpose; or

(ii) The kerosene is sold for use by the buyer for a feedstock purpose and, at the time of the sale, the person otherwise liable for tax has an unexpired certificate (described in paragraph (e) of this section) from the buyer and has no reason to believe any information in the certificate is false.

(d) Later sale—(1) In general. Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply with respect to kerosene that is sold as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section if the buyer in that sale (the certifying buyer) sells the kerosene.

(2) Imposition of tax; liability for tax. Notwithstanding §§ 48.4081-2 and 48.4081-3, in any case in which paragraph (d)(1) of this section applies, tax with respect to that kerosene is imposed at the time of the sale by the certifying buyer and the certifying buyer is liable for the tax.

(3) Rate of tax. For the rate of tax, see section 4081.

(e) Certificate—(1) In general. The certificate described in this paragraph (e) is a statement by a buyer that is signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the buyer, is in substantially the same form as the model certificate provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, and contains all information necessary to complete the model certificate. A new certificate or notice that the current certificate is invalid must be given if any information in the current certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale. The certificate expires on the earliest of the following dates:

(i) The date one year after the effective date of the certificate (which may be no earlier than the date it is signed).

(ii) The date the buyer provides the seller a new certificate or notice that the current certificate is invalid.

(iii) The date the seller is notified by the Internal Revenue Service or the buyer that the buyer's registration has been revoked or suspended.

(2) Model certificate.

CERTIFICATE OF REGISTERED FEEDSTOCK USER (To support tax-free removals and entries of kerosene under section 4082 of the Internal Revenue Code.) ______________________________________(Buyer) certifies the following Name of Buyer

under penalties of perjury:

Buyer is a registered feedstock user with registration number ________. Buyer's registration has not been revoked or suspended.

The kerosene to which this certificate applies will be used by Buyer for a feedstock purpose.

This certificate applies to ________ percent of Buyer's purchases from ________________________ (name, address, and employer identification number of seller as follows (complete as applicable):

1. A single purchase on invoice or delivery ticket number ____________.

2. All purchases between ____________ (effective date) and ____________ (expiration date) (period not to exceed one year after the effective date) under account or order number(s) ____________. If this certificate applies only to Buyer's purchases for certain locations, check here ________ and list the locations.

If Buyer sells the kerosene to which this certificate relates, Buyer will be liable for tax on that sale.

Buyer will provide a new certificate to the seller if any information in this certificate changes.

If Buyer violates the terms of this certificate, the Internal Revenue Service may revoke Buyer's registration.

Buyer understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Buyer and all parties making any fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Employer identification number Address of Buyer Signature and date signed

(f) Effective date. This section is applicable after March 30, 2000, except that paragraph (d) of this section is applicable after June 30, 2000.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17158, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4083-1 Taxable fuel; administrative authority.

(a) In general—(1) Authority to inspect. Officers or employees of the IRS designated by the Commissioner, upon presenting appropriate credentials and a written notice to the owner, operator, or agent in charge, are authorized to enter any place and to conduct inspections in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.

(2) Reasonableness. Inspections will be performed in a reasonable manner and at times that are reasonable under the circumstances, taking into consideration the normal business hours of the place to be entered.

(b) Place of inspection—(1) In general. Inspections may be at any place at which taxable fuel is (or may be) produced or stored or at any inspection site where evidence of activities described in section 6715(a) may be discovered. These places may include, but are not limited to—

(i) Any terminal;

(ii) Any fuel storage facility that is not a terminal;

(iii) Any retail fuel facility; or

(iv) Any designated inspection site.

(2) Designated inspection sites. A designated inspection site is any State highway inspection station, weigh station, agricultural inspection station, mobile station, or other location designated by the Commissioner to be used as a fuel inspection site. A designated inspection site will be identified as a fuel inspection site.

(c) Scope of inspection—(1) Inspection. Officers or employees may physically inspect, examine or otherwise search any tank, reservoir, or other container that can or may be used for the production, storage, or transportation of fuel, fuel dyes, or fuel markers. Inspection may also be made of any equipment used for, or in connection with, production, storage, or transportation of fuel, fuel dyes, or fuel markers. This includes any equipment used for the dyeing or marking of fuel. This also includes books and records, if any, that are maintained at the place of inspection and are kept to determine excise tax liability under section 4081.

(2) Detainment. Officers or employees may detain any vehicle or train for the purpose of inspecting its fuel tanks and storage tanks. Detainment will be either on the premises under inspection or at a designated inspection site. Detainment may continue for such reasonable period of time as is necessary to determine the amount and composition of the fuel.

(3) Removal of samples. Officers or employees may take and remove samples of fuel in such quantities as are reasonably necessary to determine the composition of the fuel.

(d) Refusal to submit to inspection. For the penalty for any refusal to permit an entry or inspection authorized by this section, see section 4083(c)(3). This penalty is in addition to any tax that may be imposed by section 4041 or 4081 and any penalty that may be imposed by section 6715.

(e) Effective date. This section is effective January 1, 1994.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10458, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8685, 61 FR 58007, Nov. 12, 1996; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17159, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4091-3 [Reserved]
§ 48.4101-1 Taxable fuel; registration.

(a) In general. (1) This section provides rules relating to registration under section 4101 for purposes of the federal excise tax on taxable fuel imposed by sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081 and the credit or payment allowed to certain ultimate vendors of diesel fuel and kerosene under section 6427.

(2) A person is registered under section 4101 only if the district director has issued a registration letter to the person and the registration has not been revoked or suspended. However, the United States is treated as registered under section 4101.

(3) A refiner that is registered under section 4101 may, with respect to the bulk removal of any batch of gasohol from its refinery, treat itself as a person that is not registered. See § 48.4081-3(b)(1)(iii).

(4) Each business unit that has, or is required to have, a separate employer identification number is treated as a separate person. Thus, two business units (for example, a parent corporation and a subsidiary corporation, or a proprietorship and a related partnership), each of which has a different employer identification number, are two persons.

(5) A registration in effect on December 31, 1993, with respect to the tax on gasoline or diesel fuel is subject to the district director's review, and to revocation or suspension, under the standards set forth in this section, but remains in effect until the earlier of—

(i) The effective date of a registration issued under paragraph (g)(3) of this section; or

(ii) The effective date of the revocation or suspension of the registration under paragraph (i) of this section.

(6)(i) A person is treated as a taxable fuel registrant if on June 30, 1998, the person—

(A) Is an enterer, refiner, terminal operator, or throughputter with respect to kerosene and is registered under section 4101 as a producer or importer of aviation fuel;

(B) Operates one or more terminals that store kerosene (and no other type of taxable fuel); or

(C) Is a commercial airline, an operator of aircraft in noncommercial aviation, or a fixed base operator and is also a position holder with respect to kerosene.

(ii) A person treated as registered under paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section is treated as registered from July 1, 1998, until the earlier of—

(A) The date of a subsequent denial of an application for registration under paragraph (g)(2) of this section;

(B) The effective date of a subsequent registration issued under paragraph (g)(3) of this section;

(C) The effective date of a subsequent revocation or suspension of registration under paragraph (i) of this section; or

(D) July 1, 1999.

(b) Definitions—(1) Applicant. An applicant is a person that has applied for registration under paragraph (e) of this section.

(2) Bonded registrant. A bonded registrant is a person that has given a bond to the district director under paragraph (j) of this section as a condition of registration.

(3) Gasohol bonding amount. The gasohol bonding amount is the product of—

(i) The rate of tax applicable to later separation, as described in § 48.4081-6(f)(1)(iii); and

(ii) The total number of gallons of gasoline expected to be bought at the gasohol production tax rate by the gasohol blender during a representative 6-month period (as determined by the district director).

(4) Penalized for a wrongful act. A person has been penalized for a wrongful act if the person has—

(i) Been assessed any penalty under chapter 68 of the Internal Revenue Code (or similar provision of the law of any State) for fraudulently failing to file any return or pay any tax, and the penalty has not been wholly abated, refunded, or credited;

(ii) Been assessed any penalty under chapter 68 of the Internal Revenue Code, such penalty has not been wholly abated, refunded, or credited, and the district director determines that the conduct resulting in the penalty is part of a consistent pattern of failing to deposit, pay, or pay over a substantial amount of tax;

(iii) Been convicted of a crime under chapter 75 of the Internal Revenue Code (or similar provision of the law of any State), or of conspiracy to commit such a crime, and the conviction has not been wholly reversed by a court of competent jurisdiction;

(iv) Been convicted, under the laws of the United States or any State, of a felony for which an element of the offense is theft, fraud, or the making of false statements, and the conviction has not been wholly reversed by a court of competent jurisdiction;

(v) Been assessed any tax under section 4103 and the tax has not been wholly abated, refunded, or credited; or

(vi) Had its registration under section 4101 or 4222 revoked.

(5) Related person. A related person is a person that—

(i) Directly or indirectly exercises control over an activity of the applicant if the activity is described in paragraph (c)(1) or (d) of this section;

(ii) Owns, directly or indirectly, five percent or more of the applicant;

(iii) Is under a duty to assure the payment of a tax for which the applicant is responsible;

(iv) Is a member, with the applicant, of a group of organizations (as defined in § 1.52-1(b) of this chapter) that would be treated as a group of trades or businesses under common control for purposes of § 1.52-1 of this chapter; or

(v) Distributed or transferred assets to the applicant in a transaction in which the applicant's basis in the assets is determined by reference to the basis of the assets in the hands of the distributor or transferor.

(6) Registrant. A registrant is a person that the district director has, in accordance with paragraph (g)(3) of this section, registered under section 4101 and whose registration has not been revoked or suspended.

(7) Pipeline operator. A pipeline operator is any person that operates a pipeline within the bulk transfer/terminal system.

(8) Vessel operator. A vessel operator is any person that operates a vessel within the bulk transfer/terminal system. However, for purposes of this definition, vessel does not include a deep draft ocean-going vessel (as defined in § 48.4042-3(a)).

(9) Other definitions. For other definitions relating to taxable fuel, see §§ 48.4081-1, 48.4081-6(b), 48.4082-5(b), 48.4082-6(b), 48.4082-7(b), 48.6427-9(b), 48.6427-10(b), and 48.6427-11(b).

(c) Persons required to be registered—(1) In general. A person is required to be registered under section 4101 if the person is—

(i) A blender;

(ii) An enterer;

(iii) A pipeline operator;

(iv) A position holder;

(v) A refiner;

(vi) A terminal operator; or

(vii) A vessel operator.

(2) Bus and train operators. Every operator of a bus or train is required to be registered under section 4101 at any time it incurs any liability for tax under section 4041 at the bus rate (as described in § 48.4082-4(b)(3)(i)) or the train rate (as described in § 48.4082-4(b)(3)(ii)).

(3) Consequences of failing to register. For the criminal penalty imposed for failure to register, see section 7232. For the civil penalty imposed for failure to register, see section 7272.

(d) Persons that may, but are not required to, be registered. A person may, but is not required to, be registered under section 4101 if the person is—

(1) A feedstock user;

(2) A gasohol blender;

(3) An industrial user;

(4) A throughputter that is not a position holder;

(5) An ultimate vendor; or

(6) An ultimate vendor (blocked pump).

(e) Application instructions. Application for registration under section 4101 must be made in accordance with the instructions for Form 637 (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate).

(f) Registration tests—(1) In general—(i) Persons other than ultimate vendors, pipeline operators, and vessel operators. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, the district director will register an applicant only if the district director determines that the applicant meets the following three tests (collectively, the registration tests):

(A) The activity test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section.

(B) The acceptable risk test of paragraph (f)(3) of this section.

(C) The adequate security test of paragraph (f)(4) of this section.

(ii) Ultimate vendors, pipeline operators, and vessel operators. The district director will register an applicant as an ultimate vendor, ultimate vendor (blocked pump), pipeline operator, or vessel operator only if the district director—

(A) Determines that the applicant meets the activity test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section; and

(B) Is satisfied with the filing, deposit, payment, and claim history for all federal taxes of the applicant and any related person.

(2) The activity test. An applicant meets the activity test of this paragraph (f)(2) only if the district director determines that the applicant—

(i) Is, in the course of its trade or business, regularly engaged as an operator of a bus or train or in the characteristic activity of a person described in paragraph (c)(1) or (d) of this section; or

(ii) Is likely to be (because of such factors as the applicant's business experience, financial standing, or trade connections), in the course of its trade or business, regularly engaged as an operator of a bus or train or in the characteristic activity of a person described in paragraph (c)(1) or (d) of this section within a reasonable time after becoming registered under section 4101.

(3) Acceptable risk test—(i) In general. An applicant meets the acceptable risk test of this paragraph (f)(3) only if—

(A) Neither the applicant nor a related person has been penalized for a wrongful act; or

(B) Even though the applicant or a related person has been penalized for a wrongful act, the district director determines, after review of evidence offered by the applicant, that the registration of the applicant does not create a significant risk of nonpayment or late payment of the tax imposed by sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081.

(ii) Significant risk of nonpayment or late payment of tax. In making the determination described in paragraph (f)(3)(i)(B) of this section, the district director may consider factors such as the following:

(A) The time elapsed since the applicant or related person was penalized for a wrongful act.

(B) The present relationship between the applicant and any related person that was penalized for any wrongful act.

(C) The degree of rehabilitation of the person penalized for any wrongful act.

(D) The amount of bond given by the applicant. In this regard, the district director may accept a bond under paragraph (j) of this section, without regard to the limits on the amount of the bond set by paragraph (j)(2) of this section.

(4) Adequate security test—(i) In general. An applicant meets the adequate security test of this paragraph (f)(4) only if the district director determines that the applicant has both adequate financial resources and a satisfactory tax history, or the applicant gives the district director a bond (under the provisions of paragraph (j) of this section).

(ii) Adequate financial resources—(A) In general. An applicant has adequate financial resources only if the district director determines that the applicant is financially capable of paying—

(1) Its expected tax liability under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081 for a representative 6-month period (as determined by the district director);

(2) In the case of a terminal operator, the expected tax liability under section 4081 of persons other than the terminal operator with respect to taxable fuel removed at the racks of its terminals during a representative 1-month period (as determined by the district director); and

(3) In the case of a gasohol blender, the gasohol bonding amount.

(B) Basis for determination. The determination under § 48.4101-1(f)(4)(ii) must be based on all information relevant to the applicant's financial status.

(iii) Satisfactory tax history. An applicant has a satisfactory tax history only if the district director is satisfied with the filing, deposit, and payment history for all federal taxes of the applicant and any related person.

(g) Action on the application by the district director—(1) Review of application. The district director may investigate the accuracy and completeness of any representations made by an applicant, request any additional relevant information from the applicant, and inspect the applicant's premises during normal business hours without advance notice.

(2) Denial. If the district director determines that an applicant does not meet all of the applicable registration tests described in paragraph (f) of this section, the district director must notify the applicant, in writing, that its application for registration is denied and state the basis for the denial.

(3) Approval. If the district director determines that an applicant meets all of the applicable registration tests described in paragraph (f) of this section, the district director must register the applicant under section 4101 and issue the applicant a letter of registration containing the effective date of the registration. The effective date of the registration must be no earlier than the date on which the district director signs the letter of registration. A copy of an application for registration (Form 637) is not a letter of registration.

(h) Terms and conditions of registration—(1) Affirmative duties. Each registrant must—

(i) Make deposits, file returns, and pay taxes required by the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations;

(ii) Keep records sufficient to show the registrant's tax liability under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081 and payments or deposits of such liability;

(iii) Make all information reports required under section 4101(d);

(iv) Make available for inspection on demand by the Internal Revenue Service during normal business hours records relevant to a determination of tax liability under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081; and

(v) Notify the district director of any change (such as a change in ownership) in the information the registrant submitted in connection with its application for registration, or previously submitted under this paragraph (h)(1)(v), within 10 days after the change occurs.

(2) Prohibited actions. A registrant may not—

(i) Sell, lease or otherwise allow another person to use its registration;

(ii) Make any false statement to the district director in connection with a submission under paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(3) of this section;

(iii) Make any false statement on, or violate the terms of, any certificate given to another person to support an exemption from, or a reduced rate of, the tax imposed by section 4081; or

(iv) In the case of an ultimate vendor (blocked pump), deliver kerosene (or allow kerosene to be delivered) into the fuel supply tank of a diesel-powered highway vehicle or diesel-powered train from a blocked pump.

(3) Additional terms and conditions for terminal operators—(i) Notice required with respect to dyed diesel fuel and dyed kerosene. A legible and conspicuous notice stating “DYED DIESEL FUEL, NONTAXABLE USE ONLY, PENALTY FOR TAXABLE USE” must be provided by each terminal operator to any person that receives dyed diesel fuel at a terminal rack of that operator. A legible and conspicuous notice stating “DYED KEROSENE, NONTAXABLE USE ONLY, PENALTY FOR TAXABLE USE” must be provided by each terminal operator to any person that receives dyed kerosene at a terminal rack of that operator. These notices must be provided by the time of the removal and must appear on all shipping papers, bills of lading, and similar documents that are provided by the terminal operator to accompany the removal of the fuel.

(ii) Records to be maintained relating to removals of diesel fuel or kerosene. Each terminal operator must keep the following information with respect to each rack removal of diesel fuel or kerosene at each terminal it operates:

(A) The bill of lading or other shipping document.

(B) The record of whether the fuel was dyed and marked in accordance with § 48.4082-1.

(C) The volume and date of the removal.

(D) The identity of the person, such as a common carrier, that physically received the fuel.

(E) Any other information required by the Commissioner.

(iii) Records to be maintained relating to dye. With respect to each of its terminals, a terminal operator must keep records relating to dye inventories and usage.

(iv) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 48.4101-1T(h)(3)(iv).

(v) Prohibition on providing incorrect information. In connection with the removal of diesel fuel or kerosene that is not dyed and marked in accordance with § 48.4082-1, a terminal operator may not provide any person (including the position holder with respect to the fuel) with any bill of lading, shipping paper, or similar document indicating that the diesel fuel or kerosene is dyed and marked in accordance with § 48.4082-1.

(i) Adverse actions by the district director against a registrant—(1) Mandatory revocation or suspension. The district director must revoke or suspend the registration of any registrant if the district director determines that the registrant, at any time—

(i) Does not meet one or more of the applicable registration tests under paragraph (f) of this section and has not corrected the deficiency within a reasonable period of time after notification by the district director;

(ii) Has used its registration to evade, or attempt to evade, the payment of any tax imposed by section 4041(a)(1) or 4081, or to postpone or in any manner to interfere with the collection of any such tax, or to make a fraudulent claim for a credit or payment;

(iii) Has aided or abetted another person in evading, or attempting to evade, payment of any tax imposed by section 4041(a)(1) or 4081, or in making a fraudulent claim for a credit or payment; or

(iv) Has sold, leased, or otherwise allowed another person to use its registration.

(2) Remedial action permitted in other cases. If the district director determines that a registrant has, at any time, failed to comply with the terms and conditions of registration under paragraph (h) of this section, made a false statement to the district director in connection with its application for registration or retention of registration, or otherwise used its registration in a manner that creates a significant risk of nonpayment or late payment of tax, then the district director may—

(i) Revoke or suspend the registrant's registration;

(ii) In the case of a registrant other than an ultimate vendor or an ultimate vendor (blocked pump), require the registrant to give a bond under the provisions of paragraph (j) of this section as a condition of retaining its registration; and

(iii) In the case of a registrant other than an ultimate vendor or an ultimate vendor (blocked pump), require the registrant to file monthly or semimonthly returns under § 40.6011(a)-1(b) of this chapter as a condition of retaining its registration.

(3) Action by the district director to revoke or suspend a registration. If the district director revokes or suspends a registration, the district director must so notify the registrant in writing and state the basis for the revocation or suspension. The effective date of the revocation or suspension may not be earlier than the date on which the district director notifies the registrant.

(j) Bonds—(1) Form. Each bond given to the district director as a condition of registration under paragraph (f)(4)(i) or (i)(2)(ii) of this section must be executed in the form prescribed by the district director. Each bond must be—

(i) A public debt obligation of the United States Government;

(ii) An obligation the principal and interest of which are unconditionally guaranteed by the United States Government;

(iii) A bond executed by a surety company listed in Department of the Treasury Circular 570 as an acceptable surety or reinsurer of federal bonds (a surety bond); or

(iv) Any other bond with security (including liens under section 4101(b)(1)(B)) considered acceptable by the district director.

(2) Amount of bond. A bond given under this paragraph (j) must be in an amount that the district director determines will ensure timely collection of the taxes imposed by sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081, taking into account the applicant's financial capabilities, tax history, and expected liability under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081. The district director may increase or decrease the amount of the required bond to take into account changes in the applicant's financial capabilities, tax history, and expected liability under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081. However, in no case may the amount of the bond be greater than the amount that the district director determines is equal to—

(i) The applicant's expected tax liability under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081 for a representative 6-month period (as determined by the district director);

(ii) In the case of a terminal operator, the expected tax liability of persons other than the terminal operator under section 4081 with respect to taxable fuel removed at the racks of its terminals (determined as if all removals of taxable fuel were taxable) during a representative 1-month period (as determined by the district director); and

(iii) In the case of a gasohol blender, the gasohol bonding amount.

(3) Collection of taxes from a bond. If a bonded registrant does not pay the amount of tax it incurs under section 4041(a)(1) or 4081 by the time prescribed in section 6151 for paying that tax, the district director may collect the amount of the unpaid tax (including penalties and interest with respect to that tax) from the bonded registrant's bond.

(4) Termination of bonds—(i) Surety bonds. A surety on a bond may give written notice to the district director and the bonded registrant that the surety desires to be relieved of liability under the bond after a certain date, which date must be at least 60 days after the receipt of the notice by the district director. The surety will be relieved of any liability that the bonded registrant incurs after the date named in the notice. However, the surety remains liable for the amount of tax that the bonded registrant incurred under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081 during the term of the bond and for penalties and interest with respect to that tax.

(ii) Other bonds. A bond (other than a surety bond) given to the district director may be returned to the bonded registrant only after the earlier of—

(A) The district director's determination that the bonded registrant has paid all taxes that the bonded registrant incurred under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081 during the period covered by the bond and any penalties and interest with respect to the taxes;

(B) The expiration of the period for assessment of the taxes that the bonded registrant incurred under sections 4041(a)(1) and 4081 taxes during the period covered by the bond, as determined under the provisions of subchapter A of chapter 66 of the Internal Revenue Code; or

(C) The date that the district director receives from the registrant a substitute bond given under this paragraph (j).

(5) Determination that bond is no longer required. If the district director determines that the bonded registrant meets the adequate security test of paragraph (f)(4) of this section without a bond, the registrant is to be released from the obligation to give a bond as a condition of registration under section 4101.

(k) Cross references. For a rule relating to the filing of monthly and semimonthly returns by certain persons that are registered under section 4101, see § 40.6011(a)-1(b)(2) of this chapter. For rules relating to the tax on taxable fuel, see §§ 48.4081-1 through 48.4083-1. For rules relating to claims by registered ultimate vendors, see § 48.6427-9. For rules relating to claims by registered ultimate vendors (blocked pump), see § 48.6427-10.

(l) Effective dates. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (l), this section is applicable as of January 1, 1994.

(2) Paragraph (c)(1) of this section (relating to persons required to be registered) is applicable as of January 1, 1995, except that paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) and (c)(1)(vii) of this section are applicable after March 31, 2001.

(3) Paragraph (h)(3)(iii) of this section (relating to certain recordkeeping requirements) is applicable as of July 1, 1996.

(4) References in this section to kerosene are applicable after June 30, 1998.

(5) Applicability date. Paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(B) of this section applies on and after July 6, 2011.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10459, Mar. 14, 1996; 61 FR 28053, June 4, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17159, Mar. 31, 2000; 65 FR 26488, May 8, 2000; T.D. 9199, 70 FR 21334, Apr. 26, 2005; T.D. 9533, 76 FR 39283, July 6, 2011; 78 FR 9637, 78 FR 54761, Sept. 6, 2013]

§ 48.4101-2 Information reporting.

(a) In general. Each information report under section 4101(d) must be—

(1) Made in the form required by the Commissioner;

(2) Made for a period of one calendar month; and

(3) Filed by the last day of the first month following the month for which the report is made, except that a report relating to any month during 2000 must be filed by February 28, 2001.

(b) Effective date. This section is applicable after March 30, 2000.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17160, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4102-1 Inspection of records by State or local tax officers.

(a) Inspection of records maintained by taxpayer. The records that a taxpayer is required to keep with respect to the taxes imposed by section 4081 or 4091 must be open to inspection by any officer of any State or political subdivision thereof, or of the District of Columbia, who is charged with the enforcement or collection of any tax on taxable fuel or aviation fuel.

(b) Inspection of records maintained by Internal Revenue Service—(1) In general. The records maintained by the Internal Revenue Service with respect to the taxes imposed by sections 4081 and 4091 shall, upon the request of an officer (described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) of a State or political subdivision thereof, or of the District of Columbia, be open to inspection by the officer for purposes of collection or enforcement.

(2) Requests for inspection. Requests for inspection under this paragraph shall be made in writing, signed by any officer of a State, political subdivision, or the District of Columbia, who is charged with the enforcement or collection of any tax on taxable fuel or aviation fuel imposed by the State, political subdivision, or the District of Columbia, and shall be addressed to the director of the Internal Revenue Service Center having custody of the records which it is desired to inspect. Each such request shall state (i) the kind of records (whether pertaining to taxable fuel or aviation fuel) it is desired to inspect, (ii) the period or periods covered by the records involved, (iii) the name of the officer by whom the inspection is to be made, (iv) the name of the representative of the officer who has been designated to make the inspection, (v) by specific reference, the law of the State, political subdivision, or the District of Columbia imposing the tax which the officer is charged with collecting or enforcing, and the law under which the officer is so charged, and (vi) the purpose for which the inspection is to be made. The service center director will notify the person making the request upon approval or disapproval of the request.

(3) Time and place for inspection. In any case where a request for inspection under this paragraph (b) is approved, the inspection shall be made in the office of the service center director having custody of the records which it is desired to inspect, but only in the presence of an internal revenue officer or employee and during the regular hours of business of the office.

[T.D. 7908, 48 FR 40222, Sept. 6, 1983, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10462, Mar. 14, 1996]

Subpart I Coal
§ 48.4121-1 Imposition and rate of tax on coal.

(a) Imposition of tax—(1) In general. Section 4121(a) imposes a tax on coal mined at any time in this country if the coal is sold or used by the producer after March 31, 1978 (see section 4218 and the regulations under that section for rules relating to the use of coal being treated as a sale of coal). For purposes of this section, the term “producer” means the person in whom is vested ownership of the coal under state law immediately after the coal is severed from the ground, without regard to the existence of any contractual arrangement for the sale or other disposition of the coal or the payment of any royalties between the producer and third parties. The term includes any person who extracts coal from coal waste refuse piles or from the silt waste product which results from the wet washing (or similarly processing) of coal. However, the excise tax does not apply to a producer who sells the silt waste product without extracting the coal from it, or to the producer who uses the silt waste product without extracting the coal from it. Furthermore, the excise tax does not apply to the sale or use of the silt waste product after any coal has been extracted from it.

(2) Examples. Paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).A, a limited partnership, is the owner of land on which a coal mine is located. A contracts with XYZ Company to extract the coal for a set price per ton. XYZ Company is an independent contractor and has no ownership interest in the coal mined. Under state law, A is the owner of the coal immediately after severance. After XYZ extracts the coal from the mine, A sells the coal. A is the producer of the coal and is responsible for the payment of the excise tax.

Example (2).A, a limited partnership, is the owner of land on which a coal mine is located. A leases the land to XYZ Company, and XYZ Company extracts coal from the mine and sells it. Under state law, XYZ is the owner of the coal immediately after the coal is severed from the ground. XYZ Company is the producer and must pay the excise tax. This is true even though the lease agreement requires XYZ to pay a royalty to A.

Example (3).XYZ Company purchases a coal waste refuse pile from B and extracts the coal from the waste refuse pile and sells the coal. XYZ is the producer and must pay the excise tax.

Example (4).XYZ Company is a producer of coal and operates its own cleaning plant. After wet washing the coal, it sells the coal and the silt waste product. The sale of the coal is subject to the excise tax whereas the sale of the silt is not.

Example (5).Assume the same facts as in example (4) except that before selling the silt waste product XYZ Company extracts a small quantity of finely sized coal from the silt waste product and then sells both the finely sized coal and the silt waste product. The sale of the finely sized coal is subject to the excise tax whereas the sale of the silt is not.

(b) Rate of tax—(1) Underground mines; surface mines. The rate of tax imposed on coal from underground mines located in the United States is the lower of 50 cents per ton (2,000 pounds), or 2 percent of the sale price. The rate of tax imposed on coal from surface mines located in the United States is the lower of 25 cents per ton (2,000 pounds) or 2 percent of the sale price. If a sale or use includes a portion of a ton, the tax is applied proportionately. Thus, if 1,200 pounds of coal from an underground mine are sold for $35.00, the tax is 30 cents.

(2) Combination. If a single mine yields coal from both surface and underground mining, the producer must determine the rate (50 cents or 25 cents per ton) for each ton of coal mined: It is presumed that coal is mined from underground mines (50 cents per ton) unless the producer keeps sufficient records to establish to the satisfaction of the Secretary that the coal was mined from a surface mine.

(c) Exemptions—(1) Lignite or imported coal. The excise tax of coal does not apply to lignite or imported coal. Lignite is defined in accordance with the standard specification for classification of coals by rank of the American Society for Testing and Materials (Annual Book of ASTM Standards Part 26, D 388). The procedures specified in D 388 must be followed. If a producer extracts both taxable coal and lignite, then the producer must maintain adequate records to establish the portion of the mineral mined that is exempt from the tax. In determining whether all or a portion of the mineral extracted is lignite, the Service will consider all the facts and circumstances. For example, if a producer sells lignite and coal, the Service will examine all the facts and circumstances, including the contract price, contract specifications, and the amount of lignite extracted as it compares to the amount of lignite sold.

(2) Other exemptions not applicable. There are no exemptions for sales for further manufacture, for export, for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft, for the use of a State or local government, or for the use of a nonprofit educational organization. Furthermore, the Secretary does not have discretion to exempt sales of coal for use of the United States from the tax. There is also no exemption from the coal excise tax when the coal is used in further manufacture of another article that is subject to manufacturers excise tax. For example, if a producer of coal converts coal into gasoline which the producer then sells, the producer is liable for the coal excise tax when the coal is converted into gasoline and also liable for the manufacturers excise tax on gasoline when the gasoline is sold.

(d) Definitions and special rules—(1) Coal produced from surface mine. Coal is treated as produced from a surface mine if all of the geological matter (e.g., trees, earth, rock) above the coal is removed before the coal is mined. In addition, both coal mined by auger and coal that is reclaimed from coal waste refuse piles are treated as produced from a surface mine.

(2) Coal produced from underground mine. Coal is treated as produced from an underground mine if it is not produced from a surface mine.

(3) Coal used by the producer. For purposes of this section, the term “coal used by the producer” means use by the producer in other than a mining process. A mining process is determined the same way it is determined for percentage depletion purposes. For example, a producer who mines coal does not “use” the coal and thereby becomes liable for the tax merely because, before selling the coal, the producer breaks it, cleans it, sizes it, or applies one of the other processes listed in section 613(c)(4)(A) of the Code. In such a case, the producer will be liable for the tax only when he sells the coal. On the other hand, a producer who mines coal does become liable for the tax when he uses the coal as fuel, as an ingredient in making coke, or in another process not treated as “mining” under section 613(c).

(4) Tonnage sold and sales price. For purposes of determining both the amount of coal sold by a producer and the sales price of the coal, the point of sale is f.o.b. mine, or f.o.b. cleaning point if the producer cleans the coal before selling it. This is true even if the producer sells the coal on the basis of a delivered price. Accordingly, f.o.b. mine or cleaning point is the point at which the number of tons sold is to be determined for purposes of applying the applicable tonnage rate, and the point at which the sales price is to be determined for purposes of the tax under the 2 percent rate.

(5) Constructive sale price. If a producer uses coal mined by the producer in other than a mining process, a constructive sale price must be used in determining the tax under the 2 percent rate. This constructive price is determined under sections 613(c) and 4218(e) of the Code, and is based on sales of like kind and grade of coal by the producer or other producers made f.o.b. mine (if the coal is used without first being cleaned) or f.o.b. cleaning plant (if the coal is cleaned before it is used). Normally, this constructive price will be the same as the constructive price used in determining the producer's percentage depletion deduction.

[T.D. 7726, 45 FR 66453, Oct. 7, 1980; 45 FR 69214, Oct. 20, 1980; T.D. 8448, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992]

J Subpart J [Reserved]
Subpart K Sporting Goods

Source: Sections 48.4161(a)-1 through 48.4161(b)-5 contained in T.D. 7328, 39 FR 36586, Oct. 11, 1974, unless otherwise noted. Sections 48.4181-1 through 48.4182-2 contained in T.D. 6454, 25 FR 1774, Mar. 1, 1960.

§ 48.4161(a) [Reserved]
§ 48.4161(a)-1 Imposition and rate of tax; fishing equipment.

(a) Imposition of tax. Section 4161(a) imposes a tax on the sale of the following articles of fishing equipment (including in each case parts or accessories of such articles sold on or in connection therewith or with the sale thereof) by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof:

(1) Fishing rods;

(2) Fishing creels;

(3) Fishing reels; and

(4) Artificial lures, baits, and flies.

The tax applies only to those items of fishing equipment specified in section 4161(a) and this paragraph. Therefore, other items of fishing equipment, such as fishing nets, lines, hooks, sinkers, gaffs, etc., are not subject to the tax. Furthermore, the tax applies only to those specified articles of fishing equipment that are designed or constructed for use in the sport of fishing. Accordingly, the tax does not apply to those articles which, although nominally articles that are specified in section 4161(a), are in the nature of toys or novelties that merely simulate articles of a type referred to in section 4161(a), and are not designed or constructed for practical use in the sport of fishing.

(b) Rate of tax. Tax is imposed on the sale of the articles enumerated in section 4161(a) and paragraph (a) of this section at the rate of 10 percent of the price for which such articles are sold. For the definition of the term “price” see section 4216 and the regulations thereunder.

(c) Liability for tax. The tax imposed by section 4161(a) is payable by the manufacturer, producer, or importer making the sale. For determining who is the manufacturer, producer, or importer, see § 48.0-2(a)(4).

[T.D. 7328, 39 FR 36586, Oct. 11, 1974, as amended by T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32014, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.4161(a)-2 Meaning of terms.

(a) Fishing rods. The term “fishing rods” includes all articles, however, designated, that are designed or constructed for use in conjunction with a fishing reel for casting a line and hook in the sport of fishing. The term does not include any article that is neither designed for use in casting, nor suitable for such use. A so-called fishing rod “blank” is not considered to be a “fishing rod” unless the blank contains an affixed handle and reel seat, or is sold in the form of a kit that contains a rod blank, a handle, and a reel seat.

(b) Fishing creels. The term “fishing creels” includes all portable containers, of whatever material made, that are designed for storing and carrying fish from the time they are caught until such time as they are removed from the container for consumption or preservation. The term does not include any article primarily designed for use in the commercial fishing industry, or an article such as a collapsible wire basket designed to be hung over the side of a boat to keep fish captive and alive in the water.

(c) Fishing reels. The term “fishing reels” includes all mechanical and electrical devices that contain a spool for dispensing and recovering fishing line, and are designed for use with fishing rods in casting and in reeling in hooked fish in the sport of fishing. The term also includes reels designed for use with bows, in the sport of bowfishing.

(d) Artificial lures, baits, and flies. The term “artificial lures, baits, and flies” includes all artifacts, of whatever materials made, that simulate an article considered edible by fish and are designed to be attached to a line or hook to attract fish so that they may be captured. Thus, the term includes such artifacts as imitation flies, blades, spoons, and spinners, and edible materials that have been processed so as to resemble a different edible article considered more attractive to fish, such as bread crumbs treated so as to simulate salmon eggs, and pork rind cut and dyed to resemble frogs, eels, or tadpoles.

[T.D. 7328, 39 FR 36586, Oct. 11, 1974, as amended by T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32014, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.4161(a)-3 Parts and accessories.

(a) In general. The tax attaches with respect to parts and accessories for articles specified in section 4161(a) and § 48.4161(a)-1 that are sold on or in connection with such articles, or with the sale thereof, at the same rate applicable to the sale of the basic articles. The tax attaches in such cases whether or not charges for the parts or accessories are billed separately. To be considered a part or accessory for an article specified in section 4161(a), an item must be either essential to the operation of the specified article, or be designed to directly improve the performance of the specified article, or to improve its appearance. For example, a carrying case for a fishing rod is not considered to be a part or accessory for a fishing rod, despite the fact that it is designed for use with the rod, because it is neither essential to the use of the rod, nor does it in any way improve its performance or appearance. A sale of a part or accessory which would otherwise be considered a sale “on or in connection with” the sale of an article taxable under section 4161(a), is not subject to tax if the part or accessory is sold as a replacement for an identical part or accessory being sold with the taxable article.

(b) Essential equipment. If taxable articles are sold by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof, without parts or accessories that are essential for their operation, or are designed directly to improve the performance or appearnace of the articles, the separate sale of the parts accessories to the same vendee will be considered, in the absense of evidence to the contrary, to have been made in connection with the sale of the basic article, even though the parts or accessories are shipped separately at the same time or on a different date.

[T.D. 7328, 39 FR 36586, Oct. 11, 1974, as amended by T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32014, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.4161(a)-4 Use considered sale.

For provisions relating to the tax on use of taxable articles by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof, see section 4218 relating to use by a manufacturer being considered a sale, and the regulations thereunder.

§ 48.4161(a)-5 Tax-free sales.

For provisions relating to the tax-free sales of articles referred to in section 4161(a) see:

(a) Section 4221, relating to certain tax-free sales;

(b) Section 4222, relating to registration;

(c) Section 4223, pertaining to special rules relating to further manufacture; and

(d) Section 4225, relating to exemption of articles manufactured or produced by Indians;

and the regulations thereunder.

§ 48.4161(b) [Reserved]
§ 48.4161(b)-1 Imposition and rates of tax; bows and arrows.

(a) Imposition of tax. Section 4161(b) imposes a tax on the sale of the following articles by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof:

(1) Any bow that has a draw weight of 10 pounds or more;

(2) Any arrow that measures 18 inches overall or more in length;

(3) Any part or accessory (other than a fishing reel) suitable for inclusion in or attachment to a bow or arrow described in subparagraph (1) or (2) of this paragraph; and

(4) Any quiver suitable for use with arrows described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph.

(b) Rate of tax. The tax is imposed on the sale of articles enumerated in section 4161(b) and paragraph (a) of this section at the rate of 11 percent of the price for which such articles are sold. For the definition of the term “price”, see section 4216 and the regulations thereunder.

(c) Liability for tax. (1) The tax imposed by section 4161(b) is payable by the manufacturer, producer, or importer making the sale. For determining who is the manufacturer, producer, or importer, see § 48.0-2(a)(4).

[T.D. 7328, 39 FR 36586, Oct. 11, 1974, as amended by T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32014, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.4161(b)-2 Meaning of terms.

(a) For purposes of the tax imposed by section 4161(b), and unless otherwise expressly indicated:

(1) Bows. The term “bows” includes all articles made of flexible materials, that are designed to be equipped with a string and used for the propelling of arrows in the sport of archery (target shooting), or in hunting or fishing.

(2) Arrows. The term “arrows” includes all articles designed or constructed to be propelled by a bow in the sport of archery (target shooting), or in hunting or fishing. The overall length of an arrow is to be measured from the point of the tip or arrow-head to the end of the arrow nock. In the case of arrows sold by the manufacturer without heads, tips, or nocks, the overall length is to include the length of the shaft plus the length of the nock and head or tip that is normally used with the particular type of arrow shaft.

(b) Parts and accessories—(1) In general. “Parts and accessories” for bows and arrows include all articles (other than fishing reels) suitable for inclusion in, or attachment to, a bow or arrow of the type described in section 4161(b)(1) and paragraph (a) of this section. Examples of parts and accessories for bows are bow handles, bow limbs, bow strings, bow string silencers, bow stabilizers, arrow rests, bow slings, bow sights, bow levels, bow tip protectors, brush buttons, camouflaged bow covers, and all other articles designed to be attached to or included in a bow to assist in aiming or propelling an arrow, or to protect the bow while in use. Example of parts and accessories for arrows are arrow shafts, nocks, tips, heads, head adapters, and feathers.

(2) General purpose materials and articles. General purpose materials and articles that are not specifically designed to directly improve the performance or appearance of bows or arrows, or to protect them while in use, are not considered to be “parts and accessories” for bows or arrows, even though such materials may be intended, after further processing, to be included in or attached to bows or arrows. An example of a nontaxable article that is designed for use with a bow, but is neither attached to a bow, nor serves a purpose directly related to the efficient use of a bow, is a carrying case for a bow. Examples of nontaxable general purpose materials or articles are glues and cements, feathers before they are prepared for use with arrows, and bowstring thread before it is processed into bowstrings. Arrow-shaft material is considered to be a taxable part for an arrow, unless the manufacturer, producer, or importer can establish that the particular material is unsuitable for use in the manufacture of arrows that are subject to the tax imposed by section 4161(b)(1)(B). In addition, the term “parts and accessories” does not include articles in the nature of expendable supplies, even though such articles are designed to be applied to, or used with, bows or arrows. Examples of such supply materials are bowstring wax, and archery powder.

(c) Quivers. The term “quivers” includes all articles, of whatever material made, that are designed to contain, and to provide ready access to, taxable arrows during the time an archer is engaged in target shooting, hunting, or fishing. The term does not include any article designed solely for storing or transporting arrows during times when the arrows are not in use.

§ 48.4161(b)-3 Use considered sale.

For provisions relating to the tax on use of taxable articles by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof, see section 4218 relating to use by a manufacturer considered a sale, and the regulations thereunder.

§ 48.4161(b)-4 Tax-free sales.

For provisions relating to tax-free sales of articles referred to in section 4161(b) see:

(a) Section 4221, relating to certain tax-free sales;

(b) Section 4222, relating to registration;

(c) Section 4223, pertaining to special rules relating to further manufacture; and

(d) Section 4225, relating to exemption of articles manufactured or produced by Indians;

and the regulations thereunder.

§ 48.4161(b)-5 Effective date.

The taxes imposed by section 4161(b) are effective with respect to sales made on and after January 1, 1975.

Subpart L Taxable Medical Devices
§ 48.4191-1 Imposition and rate of tax.

(a) Imposition of tax. Under section 4191(a), tax is imposed on the sale of any taxable medical device by the manufacturer, producer, or importer of the device. For the definition of the term taxable medical device, see § 48.4191-2.

(b) Rate of tax. Tax is imposed on the sale of a taxable medical device at the rate of 2.3 percent of the price for which the device is sold. For the definition of the term price, see section 4216 and §§ 48.4216(a)-1 through 48.4216(e)-3.

(c) Liability for tax. The manufacturer, producer, or importer making the sale of a taxable medical device is liable for the tax imposed by section 4191(a). For rules relating to the determination of who the manufacturer, producer, or importer is for purposes of section 4191, see § 48.0-2(a)(4). For the definition of the term sale, see § 48.0-2(a)(5). For rules relating to the lease of an article by the manufacturer, producer, or importer, see section 4217 and § 48.4217-1 through § 48.4217-2. For rules relating to the use of an article by the manufacturer, producer, or importer, see section 4218 and § 48.4218-1 through § 48.4218-5.

(d) Procedural rules. For the procedural rules relating to section 4191, see part 40 of this chapter.

(e) Tax-free sales for further manufacture or export. For rules relating to tax-free sales of taxable medical devices for further manufacture or export, see section 4221 and § 48.4221-1 through § 48.4221-3.

(f) Payments made on or after January 1, 2013, pursuant to lease, installment sale, or sale on credit contracts. For rules relating to the taxability of payments made on or after January 1, 2013, pursuant to a lease, installment sale, or sale on credit contract entered into on or after March 30, 2010, see § 48.4216(c)-1(e)(1). For rules relating to the taxability of payments made on or after January 1, 2013, pursuant to a lease, installment sale, or sale on credit contract entered into before March 30, 2010, see § 48.4216(c)-1(e)(2).

(g) Effective/applicability date. This section applies to sales of taxable medical devices on and after January 1, 2013.

[T.D. 9604, 77 FR 72934, Dec. 7, 2012]

§ 48.4191-2 Taxable medical device.

(a) Taxable medical device—(1) In general. A taxable medical device is any device, as defined in section 201(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), that is intended for humans. For purposes of this section, a device defined in section 201(h) of the FFDCA that is intended for humans means a device that is listed as a device with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) under section 510(j) of the FFDCA and 21 CFR part 807, pursuant to FDA requirements.

(2) Devices that should have been listed with the FDA. If a device is not listed as a device with the FDA but the FDA determines that the device should have been listed as a device, the device will be deemed to be listed as a device with the FDA as of the date the FDA notifies the manufacturer or importer in writing that corrective action with respect to listing is required.

(b) Exemptions—(1) Specific exemptions. The term taxable medical device does not include eyeglasses, contact lenses, and hearing aids.

(2) Retail exemption. The term taxable medical device does not include any device of a type that is generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use (the retail exemption). A device will be considered to be of a type that is generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use if it is regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers who are not medical professionals, and if the design of the device demonstrates that it is not primarily intended for use in a medical institution or office or by a medical professional. Whether a device is of a type described in the preceding sentence is evaluated based on all the relevant facts and circumstances. Factors relevant to this evaluation are enumerated in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. Further, there may be facts and circumstances that are relevant in evaluating whether a device is of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use in addition to those described in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. The determination of whether a device is of a type that qualifies for the retail exemption is made based on the overall balance of factors relevant to the particular type of device. The fact that a device is of a type that requires a prescription is not a factor in the determination of whether or not the device falls under the retail exemption.

(i) Regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers. The following factors are relevant in determining whether a device is of a type that is regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers who are not medical professionals:

(A) Whether consumers who are not medical professionals can purchase the device in person, over the telephone, or over the Internet, through retail businesses such as drug stores, supermarkets, or medical supply stores and retailers that primarily sell devices (for example, specialty medical stores, durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies (DMEPOS) suppliers and similar vendors);

(B) Whether consumers who are not medical professionals can use the device safely and effectively for its intended medical purpose with minimal or no training from a medical professional; and

(C) Whether the device is classified by the FDA under Subpart D of 21 CFR part 890 (Physical Medicine Devices).

(ii) Primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by a medical professional. The following factors are relevant in determining whether a device is designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by a medical professional:

(A) Whether the device generally must be implanted, inserted, operated, or otherwise administered by a medical professional;

(B) Whether the cost to acquire, maintain, and/or use the device requires a large initial investment and/or ongoing expenditure that is not affordable for the average individual consumer;

(C) Whether the device is a Class III device under the FDA system of classification;

(D) Whether the device is classified by the FDA under—

(1) 21 CFR part 862 (Clinical Chemistry and Clinical Toxicology Devices), 21 CFR part 864 (Hematology and Pathology Devices), 21 CFR part 866 (Immunology and Microbiology Devices), 21 CFR part 868 (Anesthesiology Devices), 21 CFR part 870 (Cardiovascular Devices), 21 CFR part 874 (Ear, Nose, and Throat Devices), 21 CFR part 876 (Gastroenterology—Urology Devices), 21 CFR part 878 (General and Plastic Surgery Devices), 21 CFR part 882 (Neurological Devices), 21 CFR part 886 (Ophthalmic Devices), 21 CFR part 888 (Orthopedic Devices), or 21 CFR part 892 (Radiology Devices);

(2) Subpart B, Subpart D, or Subpart E of 21 CFR part 872 (Dental Devices);

(3) Subpart B, Subpart C, Subpart D, Subpart E, or Subpart G of 21 CFR part 884 (Obstetrical and Gynecological Devices); or

(4) Subpart B of 21 CFR part 890 (Physical Medicine Devices); and

(E) Whether the device qualifies as durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies for which payment is available exclusively on a rental basis under the Medicare Part B payment rules, and is an “item requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222.

(iii) Safe Harbor. The following devices will be considered to be of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use:

(A) Devices that are included in the FDA's online IVD Home Use Lab Tests (Over-the-Counter Tests) database, available at http://www.accessdata.fda.gov/scripts/cdrh/cfdocs/cfIVD/Search.cfm.

(B) Devices that are described as “OTC” or “over the counter” devices in the relevant FDA classification regulation heading.

(C) Devices that are described as “OTC” or “over the counter” devices in the FDA's product code name, the FDA's device classification name, or the “classification name” field in the FDA's device registration and listing database, available at http://www.accessdata.fda.gov/scripts/cdrh/cfdocs/cfrl/rl.cfm.

(D) Devices that qualify as durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies, as described in Subpart C of 42 CFR part 414 (Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition) and Subpart D of 42 CFR part 414 (Durable Medical Equipment and Prosthetic and Orthotic Devices), for which payment is available on a purchase basis under Medicare Part B payment rules, and are—

(1) “Prosthetic and orthotic devices,” as defined in 42 CFR 414.202, that do not require implantation or insertion by a medical professional;

(2) “Parenteral and enteral nutrients, equipment, and supplies” as defined in 42 CFR 411.351 and described in 42 CFR 414.102(b);

(3) “Customized items,” as described in 42 CFR 414.224;

(4) “Therapeutic shoes,” as described in 42 CFR 414.228(c); or

(5) Supplies necessary for the effective use of durable medical equipment (DME), as described in section 110.3 of chapter 15 of the Medicare Benefit Policy Manual (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Studies Publication 100-02).

(iv) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (b)(2).

Example 1. X manufactures non-sterile absorbent tipped applicators. X sells the applicators to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the applicators to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of non-sterile absorbent tipped applicators to list the applicators as a device with the FDA. The applicators are classified by the FDA under 21 CFR part 880 (General Hospital and Personal Use Devices) and product code KXF.

Absorbent tipped applicators do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the absorbent tipped applicators are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the absorbent tipped applicators at drug stores, supermarkets, cosmetic supply stores or other similar businesses, and can use the applicators safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose without training from a medical professional. Further, the absorbent tipped applicators do not need to be implanted, inserted, operated, or otherwise administered by a medical professional, do not require a large investment and/or ongoing expenditure, are not a Class III device, are not classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222.

Thus, the applicators have multiple factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section that tend to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and none of the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section tend to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the applicators are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 2. X manufactures adhesive bandages. X sells the adhesive bandages to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the bandages to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of adhesive bandages to list the bandages as a device with the FDA. The adhesive bandages are classified by the FDA under 21 CFR part 880 (General Hospital and Personal Use Devices) and product code KGX.

Adhesive bandages do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the adhesive bandages are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the adhesive bandages at drug stores, supermarkets, or other similar businesses, and can use the adhesive bandages safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose without training from a medical professional. Further, the adhesive bandages do not need to be implanted, inserted, operated, or otherwise administered by a medical professional, do not require a large investment and/or ongoing expenditure, are not Class III devices, are not classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222.

Thus, the adhesive bandages have multiple factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section that tend to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and none of the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section tend to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the adhesive bandages are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 3. X manufactures snake bite suction kits. X sells the snake bite suction kits to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the kits to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of snake bite suction kits to list the kits as a device with the FDA. The FDA classifies the snake bit suction kits under 21 CFR part 880 (General Hospital and Personal Use Devices) and product code KYP.

Snake bite suction kits do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the snake bite suction kits are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the snake bite suction kits at sporting goods stores, camping stores, or other similar retail businesses, and can use the kits safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose without training from a medical professional. Further, the snake bite suction kits do not need to be implanted, inserted, operated, or otherwise administered by a medical professional, do not require a large investment and/or ongoing expenditure, are not Class III devices, are not classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222.

Thus, the snake bite suction kits have multiple factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section that tend to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and none of the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section tend to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the snake bite suction kits are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 4. X manufactures denture adhesives. X sells the denture adhesives to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the adhesives to dental offices and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of denture adhesives to list the adhesive as a device with the FDA. The FDA classifies the denture adhesives under 21 CFR part 872 (Dental Devices) and product code KXX.

The denture adhesives do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the denture adhesives are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the denture adhesives at drug stores, supermarkets, or other similar businesses, and can use the adhesives safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose with minimal or no training from a medical professional. Further, the denture adhesives do not need to be implanted, inserted, operated, or otherwise administered by a medical professional, do not require a large investment and/or ongoing expenditure, are not Class III devices, are not classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222.

Thus, the denture adhesives have multiple factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section that tend to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and none of the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section tend to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the denture adhesives are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 5. X manufactures mobile x-ray systems. X sells the x-ray systems to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the systems generally to medical institutions and offices, as well as medical professionals. The FDA requires manufacturers of mobile x-ray systems to list the systems as a device with the FDA. The FDA classifies the mobile x-ray systems under 21 CFR part 892 (Radiology Devices) and product code IZL.

Mobile x-ray systems do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the mobile x-ray systems are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the mobile x-ray systems over the Internet. However, individual consumers cannot use the x-ray systems safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose without training from a medical professional. Although the mobile x-ray systems are not Class III devices and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222, they need to be operated by a medical professional, may require a large investment and/or ongoing expenditure, and are classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section (21 CFR part 892 (Radiology Devices).

Thus, with regard to the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the mobile x-ray systems have one factor that tends to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and one factor that tends to show that they are not regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers. With regard to the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the mobile x-ray systems have multiple factors that tend to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the mobile x-ray systems are not devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 6. X manufactures pregnancy test kits. X sells the kits to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the pregnancy test kits to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of pregnancy test kits to list the kits as a device with the FDA. The FDA classifies the kits under 21 CFR part 862 (Clinical Chemistry and Clinical Toxicology Devices) and product code LCX.

The pregnancy test kits are included in the FDA's online IVD Home Use Lab Tests (Over-the-Counter Tests) database. Therefore, the over the counter pregnancy test kits fall within the safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section. Further, the FDA product code name for LCX is “Kit, Test, Pregnancy, HCG, Over The Counter.” Therefore, the pregnancy test kits also fall within the safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section. Accordingly, the pregnancy test kits are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 7. X manufactures blood glucose monitors, blood glucose test strips, and lancets. X sells the blood glucose monitors, test strips, and lancets to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the monitors, test strips, and lancets to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of blood glucose monitors, test strips, and lancets to list the items as devices with the FDA. The FDA classifies the blood glucose monitors under 21 CFR part 862 (Clinical Chemistry and Clinical Toxicology Devices) and product code NBW. The FDA classifies the test strips under 21 CFR part 862 (Clinical Chemistry and Clinical Toxicology Devices) and product code NBW. The FDA classifies the lancets under 21 CFR part 878 (General and Plastic Surgery Devices) and product code FMK.

The blood glucose monitors and test strips are included in the FDA's online IVD Home Use Lab Tests (Over-the-Counter Tests) database. Therefore, the blood glucose monitors and test strips fall within the safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section. Further, the FDA product code name for NBW is “System, Test, Blood Glucose, Over the Counter.” Therefore, the blood glucose monitors and test strips also fall within the safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section.

In addition, the lancets are supplies necessary for the effective use of DME as described in section 110.3 of chapter 15 of the Medicare Policy Benefit Manual. Therefore, the lancets fall within the safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D)(5) of this section.

Accordingly, the blood glucose monitors, test strips, and lancets are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 8. X manufactures single axis endoskeletal knee shin systems, which are used in the manufacture of prosthetic legs. X sells the knee shin systems to Y, a business that makes prosthetic legs. The FDA requires manufacturers of knee shin systems and prosthetic legs to list the items as devices with the FDA. The FDA classifies prosthetic leg components, including knee shin systems, as external limb prosthetic components under Subpart D of 21 CFR part 890.3420 and product code ISH. The FDA classifies prosthetic legs as an external assembled lower limb prosthesis under 21 CFR part 890.3500 and product code ISW/KFX. In addition, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services have assigned the knee shin systems Healthcare Procedure Coding System code L5810.

Prosthetic legs and certain prosthetic leg components, including single axis endoskeletal knee shin systems, fall within the safe harbor for prosthetic and orthotic devices that do not require implantation or insertion by a medical profession that is set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D)(1) of this section. Accordingly, both the single axis endoskeletal knee shin systems manufactured by X and the prosthetic legs made by Y are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 9. X manufactures mechanical and powered wheelchairs. X sells the wheelchairs to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the wheelchairs to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, nursing homes, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of manual and powered wheelchairs to list the items as devices with the FDA. The FDA classifies the manual and powered wheelchairs under Subpart D of 21 CFR part 890 (Physical Medicine Devices). The FDA classifies mechanical wheelchairs under product code IOR. The FDA classifies powered wheelchairs under product code product code ITI.

Mechanical and powered wheelchairs do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the mechanical and powered wheelchairs are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the wheelchairs in drug stores, medical specialty stores, or DME suppliers, as well as over the Internet. In addition, individual consumers can use the wheelchairs safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose with minimal or no training from a medical professional, and the wheelchairs are classified by the FDA under Subpart D of 21 CFR part 890 (Physical Medicine Devices). Further, although the wheelchairs may require a large initial investment and/or ongoing expenditure, they do not need to be implanted, inserted, operated, or otherwise administered by a medical professional, are not Class III devices, are not classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222.

Thus, the wheelchairs have multiple factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section that tend to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and, at most, only one factor under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section tends to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the mechanical and powered wheelchairs are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 10. X manufactures portable oxygen concentrators. X sells the portable oxygen concentrators to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the portable oxygen concentrators to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of portable oxygen concentrators to list the items as devices with the FDA. The FDA classifies the oxygen regulators under 21 CFR part 868 (Anesthesiology Devices) and product code CAW.

Portable oxygen concentrators do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the oxygen concentrators are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the portable oxygen concentrators in retail pharmacies, medical specialty stores, or DME suppliers, as well as over the Internet. In addition, individual consumers can use the portable oxygen concentrators safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose with minimal or no training from a medical professional. Further, although the portable oxygen concentrators are classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, they do not need to be implanted, inserted, operated, or otherwise administered by a medical professional, do not require a large investment and/or ongoing expenditure, are not Class III devices, and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222.

Thus, the portable oxygen concentrators have multiple factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section that tend to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and only one factor under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section that tends to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the portable oxygen concentrators are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 11. X manufactures urinary ileostomy bags. X sells the urinary ileostomy bags to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the urinary ileostomy bags to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of urinary ileostomy bags to list the items as devices with the FDA. The FDA classifies the urinary ileostomy bags under 21 CFR part 876 (Gastroenterology—Urology Devices) and product code EXH.

The urinary ileostomy bags are “Prosthetic and orthotic devices,” as defined in 42 CFR 414.202, that do not require implantation or insertion by a medical professional. Therefore, the urinary ileostomy bags fall within the safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(D)(1) of this section. Accordingly, the urinary ileostomy bags are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 12. X manufactures nonabsorbable silk sutures. X sells the nonabsorbable silk sutures to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the nonabsorbable silk sutures to medical institutions and offices, medical professionals, and retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of nonabsorbable silk sutures to list the items as devices with the FDA. The FDA classifies the nonabsorbable silk sutures under 21 CFR part 878 (General and Plastic Surgery Devices) and product code GAP.

Nonabsorbable silk sutures do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the nonabsorbable silk sutures are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the nonabsorbable silk sutures over the Internet. However, individual consumers cannot use nonabsorbable silk sutures safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose with minimal or no training from a medical professional. Further, although the nonabsorbable silk sutures do not require a large investment and/or ongoing expenditure, are not Class III devices, and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222, the nonabsorbable silk sutures are classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, and they need to be administered by a medical professional.

Thus, with regard to the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the nonabsorbable silk sutures have one factor that tends to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and one factor that tends to show that they are not regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers. With regard to the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the nonabsorbable silk sutures have multiple factors that tend to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the nonabsorbable silk sutures are not devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 13. X manufactures nuclear magnetic resonance imaging (NMRI) systems (also known as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) systems). X sells the NMRI systems to distributor Y, which, in turn, sells the systems to medical institutions. The FDA requires manufacturers of NMRI systems to list the systems as a device with the FDA. The FDA classifies the magnetic resonance diagnostic device under 21 CFR part 892 (Radiology Devices) and product code LNH.

NMRI systems do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the NMRI systems are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals may be able to regularly purchase the NMRI systems over the Internet. However, individual consumers cannot use the NMRI systems safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose without training from a medical professional. Although the NMRI systems are not Class III devices and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222, they need to be operated by a medical professional, and are of a type classified by the FDA under 21 CFR part 892 (Radiology Devices). Further, the cost to acquire, maintain, and/or use the NMRI systems requires a large initial investment and/or ongoing expenditure that is not affordable for the average consumer.

Thus, with regard to the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i), the NMRI systems have, at most, one factor that tends to show that they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and at least one factor that tends to show that they are not regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers. With regard to the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(ii), the NMRI systems have multiple factors that tend to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the NMRI systems are not devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 14. X manufactures therapeutic AC powered adjustable home use beds. X sells the beds to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the beds to retail businesses. The FDA requires manufacturers of therapeutic AC powered adjustable home use beds to list the items as devices with the FDA. The FDA classifies the therapeutic AC powered adjustable home use beds under 21 CFR part 880 (General Hospital Devices) and product code LLI.

Therapeutic AC powered adjustable home use beds do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the beds are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Although the beds may require a large initial investment and/or ongoing expenditure, individual consumers who are not medical professionals can regularly purchase the beds in medical specialty stores or from DME suppliers, as well as over the Internet. In addition, individual consumers can use the beds safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose with minimal or no training from a medical professional. Further, the beds are not classified by the FDA under a category described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) of this section, do not need to be implanted, inserted, operated, or otherwise administered by a medical professional, are not Class III devices, and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222.

Thus, the therapeutic AC powered adjustable home use beds have multiple factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section that tend to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and, at most, only one factor under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section that tends to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the therapeutic AC powered adjustable home use beds are devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

Example 15. X manufactures powered flotation therapy beds. X sells the beds to distributors Y and Z, which, in turn, sell the beds to medical institutions and offices, and medical professionals. The FDA requires manufacturers of powered flotation therapy beds to list the items as devices with the FDA. The FDA classifies the powered flotation therapy beds under 21 CFR part 890 (Physical Medicine Devices) and product code IOQ.

Powered flotation therapy beds do not fall within a retail exemption safe harbor set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section. Therefore, the determination of whether the beds are devices of a type generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use must be made on a facts and circumstances basis.

Individual consumers who are not medical professionals may be able to regularly purchase the beds over the Internet. However, individual consumers cannot use the beds safely and effectively for their intended medical purpose with minimal or no training from a medical professional. Although the powered flotation therapy beds are not Class III devices and are not “items requiring frequent and substantial servicing” as defined in 42 CFR 414.222, they need to be operated or otherwise administered by a medical professional. Further, the cost to acquire, maintain, and/or use the powered flotation therapy beds requires a large initial investment and/or ongoing expenditure that is not affordable for the average consumer.

Thus, with regard to the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the powered flotation therapy beds have, at most, one factor that tends to show they are regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers and at least one factor that tends to show they are not regularly available for purchase and use by individual consumers. With regard to the factors under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the powered flotation therapy beds have multiple factors that tend to show they are designed primarily for use in a medical institution or office or by medical professionals. Based on the totality of the facts and circumstances, the powered flotation therapy beds are not devices that are of a type that are generally purchased by the general public at retail for individual use.

(c) Effective/applicability date. This section applies to sales of taxable medical devices on and after January 1, 2013.

[T.D. 9604, 77 FR 72934, Dec. 7, 2012; 78 FR 15878, Mar. 13, 2013]

Subpart M Special Provisions Applicable to Manufacturers Taxes
§ 48.4216(a)-1 Charges to be included in sale price.

(a) In general. The “price” for which an article is sold includes the total consideration paid for the article, whether that consideration is in the form of money, services, or other things. See § 48.0-2 (a) (5). However, for purposes of the taxes imposed under Chapter 32 certain collateral charges made in connection with the sale of a taxable article must be included in the taxable sale price, whereas others may be excluded. Any charge which is required by a manufacturer, producer, or importer to be paid as a condition of its sale of a taxable article and which is not attributable to an expense falling within one of the exclusions provided in section 4216 or the regulations thereunder is includible in the taxable sale price. It is immaterial for this purpose that the charge may be paid to a person other than the manufacturer, producer, or importer, or that it may be separately billed to the purchaser as a charge earmarked for expenses incurred or to be incurred in his behalf, such as charges for demonstration or display of the article, for sales promotion programs, or otherwise. With respect to the rules relating to exclusion (in the case of sales after December 31, 1960) of charges for local advertising of a manufacturer's products, see section 4216(e) and § 48.4216(e)-1. In the case of sales on credit, a carrying, finance, or service charge is excludable from the sale price if it is reasonably related to the costs of carrying the deferred portion of the sale price (such as interest on the deferred portion of the sale price, expenses of bookkeeping necessary to keep the records of such sales, and expenses of correspondence and other communication in connection with collection).

(b) Tools and dies. Separate charges for tools and dies used in the manufacture or production of a taxable article are to be included, in whole or in part, in the sale price on which the tax is based. It is immaterial whether the charges for such items are billed in a lump sum or are amortized or allocated to each of the taxable articles. If, at the termination of a contract to manufacture taxable articles, the tools and dies used in production pass to the purchaser, only the amount of depreciation of the tools and dies incurred in production, computed on a “production output” basis, should be included in the sale price. If the purchaser furnishes the tools and dies, the amount of the cost thereof, to the extent that such cost has been depreciated in the production of the taxable articles (computed on a “production output” basis), shall be included in determining the sale price of the articles for purposes of computing the tax. This paragraph applies to sales by manufacturers after May 5, 1974.

(c) Charges for warranty. A charge for a warranty of an article which the manufacturer, producer, or importer requires the purchaser to pay in order to obtain the article shall be included in the sale price of the article on which the tax is computed. On the other hand, a charge for a warranty of a taxable article paid at the purchaser's option shall not be included in the sale price for purposes of computing tax thereon.

(d) Charges for coverings, containers, and packing. Any charge by the manufacturer, producer, or importer for coverings and containers of whatever nature used to pack an article for shipment shall be included as part of the sale price for the purpose of computing the tax, whether or not the charges are identified as such on the invoice or are billed separately. Even though there is an agreement that the manufacturer, producer, or importer will repay all or a portion of the charge for the coverings or containers upon the return thereof, the full charge nevertheless shall be included in the sale price. It is immaterial whether the charge made at the time of sale is more or less than the actual value of the covering or container. See paragraph (b)(4) of § 48.6416(b)-1 for provisions relating to the claiming of a credit or refund in the case of a price readjustment due to the return or repossession of a covering or container. Packing charges are to be included in the sale price whether the charges cover normal packing or special packing services, such as for extra protection of the article or for odd-lot quantities. This rule shall apply whether the packing services are initiated by the manufacturer, producer, or importer or are furnished at the request of the purchaser and whether the packing is performed by the manufacturer, producer, or importer or by another person at his request. If the purchaser supplies packing materials, the fair market value of such materials must be included in the tax base when computing tax liability on the sale of the article.

(e) Taxable and nontaxable articles sold as a unit. Where a taxable article and a nontaxable article are sold by the manufacturer as a unit, the tax attaches to that portion of the manufacturer's sale price of the unit which is properly allocable to the taxable article. For example, where a fishing reel (an article subject to tax under section 4161(a)) is equipped with a fishing line (a nontaxable article) and the reel and line are sold as a unit, the tax imposed by section 4161(a) applies only to that portion of the manufacturer's sale price of the unit which is properly allocable to the fishing reel. Normally, the taxable portion of such a unit may be determined by applying to the manufacturer's sale price of the unit the ratio which the manufacturer's separate sale price of the taxable article bears to the sum of the sale prices of both the taxable and nontaxable articles, if such articles are sold separately by the manufacturer. Where the articles (or either one of them) are not sold separately by the manufacturer and do not have established sale prices, the taxable portion is to be determined from a comparison of the actual costs of the articles to the manufacturer. Thus, if the cost of the taxable article represents four-fifths of the total cost of the complete unit, the tax applies to four-fifths of the price charged by the manufacturer for the unit.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13517, Mar. 31, 1978]

§ 48.4216(a)-2 Exclusions from sale price.

(a) Tax—(1) Tax not part of taxable sale price. The tax imposed by Chapter 32 of the Code on the sale of an article is not part of the taxable sale price of the article. Thus, if a manufacturer computes the tax on a sale price which is determined without regard to the tax, and it charges the proper tax as a separate item, the amount of tax so charged does not become a part of the taxable sale price and no tax is due on the tax so charged. Where no separate charge is made as tax, it will be presumed that the price charged to the purchaser for the article includes the proper tax, and the proper percentage of such price will be allocated to the tax.

(2) Computation of tax. If an article subject to tax at the rate of 10 percent is sold for $100 and an additional item of $10 is billed as tax, $100 is the taxable selling price and $10 is the amount of tax due thereon. However, if the article is sold for $100 with no separate billing or indication of the amount of the tax, it will be presumed that the tax is included in the $100, and a computation will be necessary to determine what portion of the total amount represents the sale price of the article and what portion represents the tax. The computation is as follows:

Taxable sale price = sale price including tax/100 + rate of tax.

Thus, if the tax rate is 10 percent and the sale price including tax is $100, the taxable sale price is $90.91 (that is, $100 divided by (100 + 10)), and the tax is 10 percent of $90.91, or $9.09.

(b) Transportation, delivery, insurance, or installation charges—(1) Charges incurred pursuant to sale. Charges for transportation, delivery, insurance, installation, and other expenses actually incurred in connection with the delivery of an article to a purchaser pursuant to a bona fide sale shall be excluded from the sale price in computing the tax. Such charges include all items of transportation, delivery, insurance, installation, and similar expense incurred after shipment to a customer begins, in response to the customer's order, pursuant to a bona fide sale. However, costs of such nature incurred by a manufacturer, producer, or importer in transporting, in the normal course of business and for its benefit and convenience, articles from a factory or port of entry to a warehouse or other facility (regardless of the location of such warehouse or facility) are not considered as being incurred in connection with the delivery of an article to a purchaser pursuant to a bona find sale, and charges therefor cannot be excluded from the sale price in computing tax liability. Similarly, an allowance granted by a manufacturer as reimbursement for expenses incurred by the purchaser in shipping used articles to the manufacturer for credit against the purchase price of taxable articles shall not be excluded from the sale price when computing tax due on the sale of the taxable articles. In any event, no charge may be excluded from the sale price unless the conditions set forth in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph are complied with. Said conditions are prescribed under the authority granted the Secretary or his delegate in section 4216(a).

(2) Only actual expenses to be excluded. Where a separate charge is made for transportation or other expenses incurred in connection with the delivery of an article to the purchaser pursuant to a bona fide sale, there shall be excluded in arriving at the sale price subject to tax only that portion of the charge which represents the actual expenses incurred for the transportation or other excludible expenses. Where a separate charge is less than the actual expense, the difference is presumed to be included in the billed price. Such difference, together with the separate charge, shall be excluded in arriving at the sale price on which the tax is computed. Similarly, where no separate charge is made but the manufacturer, producer, or importer incurs an expense of the type to which this paragraph has application, the amount of such expense actually incurred shall be excluded from the sale price on which the tax is computed. Where transportation expense is incurred in conjunction with a shipment composed of both taxable and nontaxable articles, only the portion of the expense allocable to the taxable articles shall be excludible. In general, unless the taxpayer establishes to the satisfaction of the district director that another method reasonably apportions such freight expense between taxable and nontaxable articles, such expense should be apportioned on the basis of the relative weights (or, if available, the relative published tariff rates applicable to) the taxable and nontaxable articles. Where it is not feasible to apportion such expense on the basis of relative weights or tariff rates, the expense shall be apportioned on another reasonable basis; for example, in the case of a shipment including both taxable and nontaxable automotive parts which are subject to the same tariff rate, it may be appropriate to apportion the transportation expense on the basis of the relative sale prices. A charge for insurance in connection with the delivery of an article to a purchaser is considered to represent an expense actually incurred only to the extent that an amount equivalent to such charge is paid or payable by the manufacturer to a person authorized to assume such insurance risk.

(3) Transportation, delivery, or installation services performed by manufacturer. For purposes of computing the taxable sale price of articles, it is immaterial whether the transportation, delivery, or other services of the type to which this paragraph has application are performed by a common carrier or independent agency for or on behalf of the manufacturer, producer, or importer, or are performed by the manufacturer, producer, or importer with the use of its own vehicles or other facilities. Thus, where a manufacturer, producer, or importer performs the transportation, delivery, or other services with its equipment, tools, employees, etc., the cost of such services allocable to the sale of the taxable article shall be excluded. In determining whether an expense is an excludible transportation or delivery expense, only those expenses incurred by reason of the fact that the purchaser accepts delivery at some point other than the manufacturer's place of business shall be considered excludible transportation or delivery expenses. All expenses incurred in placing an article packed, ready for shipment on the loading dock at the manufacturer's factory are not excludible transportation or delivery expenses. An allowance granted by the manufacturer, producer, or importer to the purchaser for transportation, delivery, or other expenses incurred or to be incurred by the purchaser in connection with the sale shall be excluded in computing the taxable sale price, if charges for similar expenses would be excludible if incurred by the manufacturer.

(4) Records in support of exclusion. Every manufacturer, producer, or importer making sales of taxable articles shall keep records which will disclose the amount of transportation, delivery, insurance, installation or other expense actually incurred by it in connection with the delivery of a taxable article to a purchaser pursuant to a bona fide sale.

(c) Other charges. A charge or expense not within the scope of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, whether or not separately stated, may not be excluded in computing the taxable sale price unless it can be shown by adequate records that the charge or expense properly is not to be included as a manufacturing or selling expense or is in no way incidental to placing the article in condition packed ready for shipment. Commissions to manufacturers' agents, or allowances, payments, or adjustments made to, and for the benefit of, persons other than the purchaser may not be excluded or deducted, under any condition, in computing the sale price upon which the tax is computed.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13518, Mar. 31, 1978; T.D. 7536, 43 FR 16974, Apr. 21, 1978]

§ 48.4216(a)-3 Other items relating to tax on sale price.

(a) Exchanges. If, in connection with the sale of an article subject to a tax imposed under Chapter 32 on the price for which sold, a manufacturer receives from its vendee another article in exchange, the tax on the manufacturer's sale shall be computed on the basis of the amount allowed for the article received from the vendee, plus any additional amount charged the vendee.

(b) Replacements under warranty. If an article, subject to a tax imposed under Chapter 32 on the price for which sold, is returned to the manufacturer by reason of the failure of the article under a warranty as to its quality or service, and a new article is given by the manufacturer, free, or at a reduced price, the tax on the new article shall be computed on the actual amount, if any, to be paid to the manufacturer for the new article. See paragraph (b)(2) of § 48.6416(b)-1 for the circumstances under which the allowance made by the manufacturer, producer, or importer upon the return of the first article constitutes a price readjustment of the sale price of first article and the extent, if any, to which a credit may be allowed, or refund made, of the tax paid by the manufacturer, producer, or importer on the sale of the first article.

(c) Readjustments in sale price. Readjustment in sale price (such as allowable discounts, rebates, bonuses, etc.) cannot be anticipated. The tax must be based upon the original price unless the readjustments have actually been made prior to the close of the period for which the tax upon the sale is returned. However, if the price upon which the tax was computed is subsequently readjusted, credit may be taken against the tax due on a subsequent return or a claim for refund filed as provided by section 6416(b)(1) and the regulations thereunder.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13519, Mar. 31, 1978]

§ 48.4216(b)-1 Constructive sale price; scope and application.

(a) In general. Section 4216(b) pertains to those taxes imposed under Chapter 32 that are based on the price for which an article is sold, and contains the provisions for constructing a tax base other than the actual sale price of the article, under certain defined conditions.

(b) Specific applications. (1) Section 4216(b)(1) applies to:

(i) Arm's-length sales at retail or on consignment, other than those sales at retail and to retailers to which section 4216(b)(2) and § 48.4216(b)-3 apply; and

(ii) Sales otherwise than at arm's length, and at less than fair market price.

(2) Section 4216(b)(2) applies generally to arm's-length sales of an article at retail or to retailers, or both, where the manufacturer also sells the same article to wholesale distributors.

(3) Section 4216(b)(3) provides a formula for determining a constructive sale price for sales of taxable articles between members of an affiliated group of corporations (as “affiliated group” is defined in section 1504(a)) in those instances where the purchasing corporation regularly resells to retailers but does not regularly resell to wholesale distributors, and except for situations where section 4216(b) (4) or (5) applies.

(4) Section 4216(b)(4) provides a special method for computing a constructive sale price for sales of taxable articles between affiliated corporations where the purchasing corporation sells only to retailers, and the normal method of selling within the industry is for manufacturers to sell to wholesale distributors.

(5) Section 4216(b)(5) provides a special method for computing a constructive sale price for sales of articles subject to a tax imposed by section 4061(a) (trucks, buses, tractors, etc.) between affiliated corporations, where the purchasing corporation regularly sells such articles in arm's-length transactions to independent retailers.

(c) Definitions. For purposes of section 4216(b) and the regulations thereunder and unless otherwise indicated:

(1) Sale at retail. A “sale at retail,” or a “retail sale”, is a sale of an article to a purchaser who intends to use or lease the article rather than resell it. The fact that articles are sold in wholesale lots, or at wholesale prices, will not change the character of such sales as “sales at retail” if the purchaser is not engaged in the business of reselling such articles, and acquires them for the purpose of using them rather than reselling them.

(2) Retail dealers. A “retail dealer”, or “retailer”, is a person engaged in the business of selling articles at retail.

(3) Wholesale distributor. The term “wholesale distributor” means a person engaged in the business of selling articles to persons engaged in the business of reselling such articles.

[T.D. 7613, 44 FR 23824, Apr. 23, 1979]

§ 48.4216(b)-2 Constructive sale price; basic rules.

(a) In general. Section 4216(b)(1) sets forth the conditions that require the Secretary to construct a sale price on which to compute a tax imposed under Chapter 32 on the price for which an article is sold. The section requires a constructive sale price to be established where a taxable article is (1) sold at retail, (2) sold while on consignment, or (3) sold otherwise than through an arm's-length transaction at less than fair market price. See § 48.4216 (b)-2 (c) for the treatment of articles taxable under section 4061(a).

(b) Sales at retail. Section 4216(b)(1)(A) relates to the determination of a constructive sale price for sales of taxable articles sold at arm's length and at retail. In the case of such sales, the constructive sale price is the highest price for which such articles are sold to wholesale distributors, in the ordinary course of trade, by manufacturers or producers thereof, as determined by the Secretary. If the constructive sale price is less than the actual sale price, the constructive sale price shall be used as the tax base. If the constructive sale price is not less than the actual sale price, the actual sale price shall be considered as not less than fair market, and shall be used as the tax base. In determining the highest price for which articles are sold by manufacturers to wholesale distributors, there must be taken into consideration the normal industry practices with respect to section 4216 (a) and (f) inclusions and exclusions. However, once a constructive sale price has been determined by the Secretary or his delegate, no further adjustment of such price shall be made. The provisions of section 4216(b)(1)(A) and this paragraph shall not apply in those instances where the provisions of section 4216(b)(2) and § 48.4216(b)-3 apply.

(c) Sales of articles taxable under section 4061(a). With respect to sales made after December 31, 1978, in the case of an article the sale of which is taxable under section 4061(a) and which is sold at retail, the tax under this chapter shall be computed on a percentage (as determined by the Secretary but not greater than 100 percent) of the actual selling price based on the highest price for which such articles are sold by manufacturers and producers in the ordinary course of trade. The constructive sale price under this section shall be determined without regard to any individual manufacturer's or producer's cost.

(d) Sales on consignment. As in the case of sales at retail, the constructive sale price for sales on consignment shall be the price for which such articles are sold, in the ordinary course of trade, by manufacturers or producers thereof, as determined by the Secretary or his delegate. For purposes of section 4216(b)(1)(B) and this paragraph, an article is considered to be sold on consignment if it is sold while it is on consignment to a person which has the right to sell, and does sell, such article in its own name, but never receives title to the article from the manufacturer. Ordinarily, the constructive sale price of an article sold on consignment is the net price received by the manufacturer from the consignee. The provisions of section 4216(b)(1)(B) and this paragraph shall not apply if the provisions of section 4216(b)(2) and § 48.4216(b)-3 apply.

(e) Sales not at arm's length. For purposes of section 4216(b)(1)(C) and this paragraph, a sale is considered to be made under circumstances otherwise than at “arm's length” if:

(1) One of the parties is controlled (in law or in fact) by the other, or there is common control, whether or not such control is actually exercised to influence the sale price, or

(2) The sale is made pursuant to special arrangements between a manufacturer and a purchaser.

In the case of an article sold otherwise than at arm's length, and at less than fair market price, the constructive sale price shall be the price for which such articles are sold, in the ordinary course of trade, by manufacturers or producers thereof, as determined by the Secretary. Once such a constructive sale price has been determined, no further adjustment of such price shall be made. See sections 4216(b) (3), (4), and (5), and § 48.4216 (b)-4, for specific methods for determining constructive sale prices for intercompany sales under certain defined conditions.

[T.D. 7613, 44 FR 23825, Apr. 23, 1979; 44 FR 47767, Aug. 15, 1979]

§ 48.4216(b)-3 Constructive sale price; special rule for arm's-length sales.

(a) In general. Section 4216 (b)(2) provides a special rule under which a manufacturer shall determine a constructive sale price for his sales of taxable articles at retail, and to retail dealers, under certain conditions. The rule is applicable where:

(1) The manufacturer regularly sells such articles at retail, or to retailers, or both, as the case may be,

(2) The manufacturer also regularly sells such articles to one or more wholesale distributors in arm's-length transactions, and the manufacturer establishes that its prices in such cases are determined without regard to any benefit to be derived under section 4216(b)(2),

(3) The transactions are arm's-length transactions, and

(4) With respect to articles to which the tax imposed by section 4061(a) applies (relating to trucks, buses, tractors, etc.), the normal method of sales for such articles within the industry is not to sell such articles at retail or to retailers, or combinations thereof.

A manufacturer meeting the foregoing requirements shall base its tax liability for sales at retail and sales to retailers on the lower of its actual sale price or the highest price for which it sells the same articles under the same conditions to wholesale distributors.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of section 4216(b)(2) and this section:

(1) Actual sale price. “Actual sale price” means the actual selling price of an article determined in the same manner as sale price is determined for a taxable sale. Accordingly, such price must reflect the inclusions and exclusions set forth in sections 4216 (a) and (f), and any price adjustments described in section 6416(b)(1).

(2) Highest price to wholesale distributors. The “highest price” charged wholesale distributors for an article by a manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof, is the highest price at which the manufacturer, producer, or importer sells the article to wholesale distributors, determined without regard to quantity. Such price shall be determined in the same manner as sale price is determined for a taxable sale with respect to sections 4216 (a) and (f) inclusions and exclusions; however, since the price is to be a “highest” price, no further adjustment may be made for price readjustments under section 6416(b)(1).

(3) Regular sales. An article is considered to sold “regularly” at retail or to retailers if sales are made at retail or to retailers periodically and recurringly as a regular part of the seller's business. If a seller makes only isolated or casual sales of an article at retail or to retailers, it is not considered to be selling “regularly” at retail or to retailers. Similarly, a manufacturer is considered to be making regular sales for an article to one or more distributors if it sells the article to at least one distributor periodically and recurringly as a regular part of its business.

(4) Normal method of sales in industry. In the absence of a showing to the Commissioner of Internal Revenue of a more appropriate manner of determining the normal method of sales within an industry which is practical in application, the normal method of sales within an industry shall be regarded as not being at retail or to retailers, or both, if the industry dollar volume of sales which are at retail or to retailers, or both, is less than half the total industry dollar volume of sales at all levels of distribution by manufacturers, producers, or importers, including sales to other manufacturers, producers, or importers.

(5) Industry. Each of the following categories of articles upon which tax is imposed by section 4061(a) constitutes a separate “industry”:

(i) Taxable automobile trucks (consisting of automobile truck bodies and chassis);

(ii) Taxable automobile buses (consisting of automobile bus bodies and chassis);

(iii) Taxable truck and bus trailers and semitrailers (consisting of chassis and bodies of such trailers and semi-trailers); and

(iv) Taxable tractors of the kind chiefly used for highway transportation in combination with a trailer or semi-trailer.

(6) Application of section 4216(b)(2) to certain sales before June 22, 1965. In the case of sales before June 22, 1965, of articles then taxable under section 4121 (relating to electric, gas, and oil appliances), section 4216(b)(2) also applied in the case of a sale of such an article to a special dealer. The applicability of section 4216(b)(2) to such a sale may be determined by inserting “or to a special dealer” following “or to a retailer” in so much of section 4216(b)(2) as precedes subparagraph (A); by inserting “or to special dealers” following “retailers” in section 4216(b)(2)(A); and by inserting “(other than special dealers)” after “wholesale distributors” in section 4216(b)(2)(B) and so much of section 4216(b)(2) as follows section 4216(b)(2)(D). A “special dealer” was a distributor of articles taxable under section 4121 who did not maintain a sales force to resell the article whose constructive sale price was established under section 4216(b)(2) but relied on salesmen of the manufacturer, producer, or importer of the article. In the case of sales before June 22, 1965, of articles taxable under section 4191 (relating to business machines) or section 4211 (relating to matches), section 4216(b)(2) was applicable in the same manner as in the case of articles taxable under section 4061(a). With respect to sales after September 30, 1972, section 4216(b)(2)(C) applied only to articles taxable under section 4061(a), 4191, or 4211. Section 4216(b)(2)(C) was applicable to sales before October 1, 1962, of all articles subject to tax under Chapter 32.

[T.D. 7613, 44 FR 23825, Apr. 23, 1979]

§ 48.4216(b)-4 Constructive sale price; affiliated corporations.

(a) In general. Sections 4216(b) (3), (4), and (5) establish procedures for determining a constructive sale price under section 4216(b)(1)(C) for sales between corporations that are members of the same “affiliated group”, as that term is defined in section 1504(a).

(b) Sales to which section 4216(b)(3) applies. Section 4216(b)(3), which applies to articles sold after December 31, 1969, provides a procedure for determining a constructive sale price under section 4216(b)(1)(C) in those instances where:

(1) A manufacturer, producer or importer regularly sells a taxable article (other than an article subject to a tax imposed by section 4061(a) (trucks, buses, etc.)) to a wholesale distributor which is a member of the same affiliated group as the manufacturer, producer or importer, and

(2) The wholesale distributor regularly sells such article to one or more independent retailers, but does not regularly sell to wholesale distributors.

Under such circumstances the constructive sale price for the article shall be an amount equal to 90 percent of the lowest price for which the distributor regularly sells the article in arm's-length transactions to such independent retailers. Once the constructive sale price has been determined, no adjustment shall be made for sections 4216 (a) and (f) inclusions or exclusions or section 6416(b)(1) price readjustments. If both section 4216(b)(3) and section 4216(b)(4) apply with respect to the sale of an article, the constructive sale price for such article shall be the lower of the prices computed under section 4216(b)(3) and section 4216(b)(4).

(c) Sales to which section 4216(b)(4) applies. Section 4216(b)(4), which applies to articles sold after December 31, 1969, provides a procedure for determining a constructive sale price under section 4216(b)(1)(C) in those instances where:

(1) A manufacturer, producer, or importer regularly sells (except for tax-free sales) a taxable article only to a wholesale distributor which is a member of the same affiliated group as the manufacturer, producer, or importer,

(2) The distributor regularly sells (except for tax-free sales) such article only to retail dealers, and

(3) The normal method of sales for such articles within the industry is to sell such articles in arm's-length transactions to wholesale distributors.

Section 4216(b)(4) applies with respect to articles taxable under section 4061(a) (relating to trucks, buses, etc.) only as to sales after December 31, 1969, and before January 1, 1971. Under section 4216(b)(4), the constructive sale price of such article shall be the median price at which the distributor, at the time of the sale by the manufacturer, resells the article to retail dealers, reduced by a percentage of such price equal to the percentage which:

(i) The difference between the median price for which comparable articles are sold to wholesale distributors, in the ordinary course of trade, by manufacturers of producers thereof, and the median price at which such wholesale distributors in arm's-length transactions sell such comparable articles to retailers, is of

(ii) The median price at which such wholesale distributors in arm's-length transactions sell such comparable articles to retailers.

For purposes of this paragraph, the “median price” for which an article is sold at a particular level of distribution is the price midway between the highest and lowest prices charged vendees at the particular level of distribution. Where only one price is charged at a level of distribution, “median price” is equivalent to “actual price”. All sale prices referred to in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section are prices that must reflect the inclusions and exclusions set forth in sections 4216(a) and (f). However, once a constructive sale price has been determined under these paragraphs, no further adjustment of such price is allowed.

(d) Application of section 4216(b)(4). The application of section 4216(b)(4) and paragraph (c) of this section may be illustrated by the following example:

Example. M,a corporation engaged in the manufacture of article X, sold 100 of such articles at $10.00 per article to a wholesale distributor N, a corporation engaged in the business of selling X articles to independent retail dealers. N is a member of the same affiliated group of corporations as M. M sells X articles only to N. The normal method of manufacturers' sales of X articles in the industry is to sell to independent wholesale distributors. N corporation sells X articles to retailers for $15.00 each. The price for which comparable X articles are sold to wholesale distributors in the ordinary course of trade by manufacturers thereof is $12.00 per article. Wholesale distributors sell X articles to retailers in the ordinary course of trade for $16.00 per article. Under the foregoing facts the constructive sale price determined under section 4216(b)(4) and this paragraph is $11.25, computed as follows:

(e) Sales to which section 4216(b)(5) applies. Section 4216(b)(5), which applies to articles sold after December 31, 1970, provides a procedure for determining a constructive sale price under section 4216(b)(1)(C) in those circumstances where:

(1) A manufacturer, producer, or importer of an article subject to a tax imposed by section 4061(a) (trucks, buses, etc.) regularly sells such article to a wholesale distributor that is a member of the same affiliated group of corporations as the manufacturer, producer, or importer, and

(2) Such distributor regularly sells such articles to independent retail dealers.

Under such circumstances the constructive sale price of such articles shall be 98 1/2 percent of the lowest price for which such distributor regularly sells the article in arms's-length transactions to the independent retail dealers. Once the constructive sale price has been determined, no adjustment shall be made for section 4216 (a) and (f) inclusions or exclusions or section 6416(b)(1) price readjustments.

(f) Determination of “lowest price”. (1) In addition to other considerations, in determining a “lowest price” for purposes of section 4216(b) (1), (3), and (5) and § 48.4216(b)-4(b), and 48.4216(b)-4(e), such price shall be determined:

(i) Without requiring that a given percentage of sales be made at that price (provided that the volume of sales made at that price is great enough to indicate that those sales have not been engaged in primarily to establish a lower tax base), and

(ii) Without including any charge for a fixed amount that the purchaser has an unconditional right to recover on the basis of a contractual arrangement existing at the time of sale.

(2) For purposes of applying section 4216(b)(1) and § 48.4216(b)-2, section 4216(b)(6) and this paragraph apply to articles sold after June 30, 1962. For purposes of applying section 4216(b)(3) and paragraph (b) of this section, section 4216(b)(6) and this paragraph apply to articles sold after December 31, 1969. For purposes of applying section 4216(b)(5) and paragraph (e) of this section, section 4216(b)(6) and this paragraph apply to articles sold after December 31, 1970.

(g) Definitions. For purposes of this section and paragraphs (3), (4), and (5) of section 4216(b), the term “regularly sells” has the same meaning as that accorded the term “regular sales” in subparagraph (3) of § 48.4216(b)-3(b), and the term “normal method of sales in the industry” has the same meaning as accorded that term in subparagraph (4) of § 48.4216(b)-3(b).

[T.D. 7613, 44 FR 23826, Apr. 23, 1979; 44 FR 47767, Aug. 15, 1979]

§ 48.4216(c)-1 Computation of tax on leases and installment sales.

(a) Leases. When a taxable article is leased by a manufacturer, producer, or importer, liability for tax is incurred, except as provided by section 4217(b) and § 48.4217-2, on each payment made with respect to such lease. Tax is payable on each lease payment as long as the article is leased by the manufacturer, producer, or importer. The tax payable with respect to each lease payment is a percentage of each payment based on the rate of tax, if any, in effect on the date the lease payment is due. If the article is subsequently sold by the manufacturer, producer, or importer, the tax applies also to such sale, without regard to the tax paid when the article was leased. For definition of the term “lease”, see paragraph (a) of § 48.4217-1(a).

(b) Installment sales. When a taxable article is sold under an installment payment contract with title reserved in the seller, or under a conditional sale contract, chattel mortgage arrangement or other arrangement creating a security interest with payments to be made in installments, tax shall be computed and paid on each payment made by the purchaser. The tax payable with each payment is a percentage of each payment based on the rate of tax, if any, in effect on the date the payment is due. The part of each payment that is subject to tax is that portion of the payment equal to the percentage of the total charge for the article that is subject to tax. For example, if the total charge for the article is $1,000, and of the total amount charged only 90 percent thereof, or $900, is subject to tax by reason of exclusions, then only 90 percent of the installment payment is subject to tax. If the tax base is a constructive sale price computed under section 4216(b) that is less than the actual sale price of the article, the portion of each payment subject to tax is the percentage of such payment equal to the percentage that the constructive sale price bears to the actual sale price. For example, if an article is sold at retail for $100, and the constructive sale price for such an article computed under the provisions of section 4216(b)(1)(A) is $75, the percentage which the constructive sale price bears to the actual sale price is 75 percent. Accordingly, only 75 percent of each installment payment is subject to tax.

(c) Sales on credit. Where articles are sold on credit under conditions other than those specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the entire tax shall be reported and paid with the return covering the period in which the sale is made, even though the price may not be paid to the manufacturer, producer, or importer until a later date, or not paid at all.

(d) Effective dates of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. The rules set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section are effective as of June 22, 1965. As in effect before June 22, 1965, section 4216(c) required, in the case of a transaction described in section 4216(c) (1), (2), (3), or (4), that there be paid upon each payment with respect to an article that portion of the total tax which was proportionate to the portion of the total amount to be paid represented by such payment.

(e) Contracts for the lease, installment sale, or sale on credit, of a taxable medical device—(1) General rule. Payments made on or after January 1, 2013, pursuant to a contract for the lease, installment sale, or sale on credit of a taxable medical device that was entered into on or after March 30, 2010, are subject to tax under section 4191. The provisions of sections 4216(c) and 4217, paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section, and § 48.4217-2 apply.

(2) Exception for payments made on or after January 1, 2013, pursuant to written binding contracts entered into prior to March 30, 2010. Payments made on or after January 1, 2013, pursuant to a written binding contract for the lease, installment sale, or sale on credit of a taxable medical device that was in effect prior to March 30, 2010, are not subject to tax under section 4191. This exception includes payments made on or after January 1, 2013, if they are made pursuant to a written binding contract that was entered into prior to March 30, 2010. This exception does not apply to payments made under any contract that is materially modified on or after March 30, 2010. For this purpose, a material modification includes only a modification that materially affects the property to be provided under the contract, the terms of payment under the contract, or the amount payable under the contract. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a material modification does not include a modification to the contract required by applicable Federal, State, or local law.

(3) Effective/applicability date. This section applies on and after January 1, 2013.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13519, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 9604, 77 FR 72938, Dec. 7, 2012; 78 FR 15878, Mar. 13, 2013]

§ 48.4216(d)-1 Sales of installment accounts.

(a) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, in case of a sale or other disposition by a manufacturer, producer, or importer of an installment account of the type specified in section 4216(c), the tax shall not apply to subsequent installment payments on such account. Instead, there shall be paid an amount equal to the difference between the tax previously paid on such installment account and the total tax computed by applying:

(1) To each installment due before the sale of the installment account, the rate of tax applicable at the time payment thereof was due, and

(2) To each installment, the time for payment of which has not arrived, the rate of tax which, under the provisions of Chapter 32 as in effect on the date of the sale of the installment account, is (or is to be) in effect on the date such installment is due.

However, see paragraph (b) of this section if the sale is made in a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding. The tax due under this paragraph shall be included in the return for the period in which the account is sold.

(b) Sale in bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding. In the case of a sale of an installment account of a manufacturer, producer, or importer pursuant to the order of, or subject to the approval of, a court of competent jurisdiction in a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding, the amount of tax due shall be computed and paid as provided in paragraph (a) of this section but shall not exceed the amount of tax computed by multiplying (1) the proportionate share of the amount for which such accounts are sold which is allocable to each unpaid installment payment, by (2) the rate of tax which, under the provisions of chapter 32 as in effect on the date of the sale of the installment account, is (or is to be) in effect on the date such payment is due.

(c) Collection of installment accounts on behalf of the manufacturer. Where a manufacturer, producer, or importer retains title to an installment account but turns it over to another person for collection on a fee basis, no sale of such account (or other disposition as contemplated in section 4216(d)) has been made. The tax shall continue to be paid as provided by section 4216(c).

(d) Returned installment accounts. Where an installment account which has been sold or otherwise disposed of is returned to the manufacturer, producer, or importer who sold it under an agreement under which the account was sold, and credit or refund has been allowed under section 6416(b)(5) and the regulations thereunder, the manufacturer, producer, or importer shall pay tax as provided by section 4216(c) and § 48.4216(c)-1 on any subsequent payments made on such returned installment account until such time as there shall have been paid the total tax liability with respect to the account as computed under paragraph (a) of this section.

(e) Limitation. The sum of the amounts payable under this section and § 48.4216(c)-1 on an installment account shall not exceed the total amount of tax which would be payable if such installment account had not been sold or otherwise disposed of (computed as provided in subsection (c)).

(f) Applicability of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. The rules set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section apply in the case of installment accounts sold after June 21, 1965. In the case of installment accounts sold before June 22, 1965, paragraph (b) of this section shall be applied by substituting, in lieu of subparagraph (2) thereof, “the rate of tax, as set forth in chapter 32 of the Code, which applied on the day on which the transaction giving rise to such installment accounts took place.”

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13520, Mar. 31, 1978]

§ 48.4216(e)-1 Exclusion of local advertising charges from sale price.

(a) In general. Section 4216(e) deals with the treatment to be accorded charges made by a manufacturer for, and reimbursements by a manufacturer of expenditures in connection with, the advertising of certain articles subject to excise tax under chapter 32 of the Code. Section 4216(e) provides an exclusion (which is in addition to the exclusions provided by section 4216(a) and the regulations thereunder) in respect of charges for local advertising, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, for purposes of determining the price for which an article is sold. See paragraph (c) of this section. The exclusion provided by section 4216(e) and paragraph (c) of this section has application only if:

(1) In the case of articles sold during the period January 1, 1961, through December 31, 1962, the advertising is broadcast over a radio or television station, or appears in a newspaper; and

(2) In the case of articles sold on or after January 1, 1963, the advertising is broadcast over a radio or television station, appears in a newspaper or magazine, or is displayed by means of an outdoor advertising sign or poster.

Section 4216(e) also provides an overall limitation in respect of the sum of the amount of the exclusions from price as charges for local advertising and the amount of the readjustments authorized under section 6416(b)(1) (relating to credits or refunds for price readjustments) in respect of reimbursements by a manufacture of expenditures for local advertising. See § 48.4216(e)-2. For provisions prohibiting exclusion from price or readjustment of price in respect of charges for, and reimbursements of expenditures for, advertising other than local advertising, see § 48.4216(e)-3.

(b) Definition of local advertising—(1) In general. For purposes of the regulations under sections 4216(e) and 6416(b)(1), the term “local advertising” means advertising which relates to an article with respect to which tax is imposed under Chapter 32 of the Code on the price for which sold and which:

(i) Is initiated or obtained by the purchaser or any subsequent vendee,

(ii) Names the article for which the price is determinable under section 4216 and states the location at which such article may be purchased at retail, and

(iii)(a) In the case of articles sold on or after January 1, 1961, and before January 1, 1963, is broadcast over a radio station or television station or appears in a newspaper, or

(b) In the case of articles sold on or after January 1, 1963, is broadcast over a radio station or television station, appears in a newspaper or magazine, or is displayed by means of an outdoor advertising sign or poster.

(2) Initiating or obtaining advertising. For purposes of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, the advertising must be initiated or obtained by one or more of the persons in the chain of distribution of the article (wholesale distributor, jobber, dealer, etc.) who purchased the article for resale. For purposes of this subparagraph, the manufacturer is not considered to be one of the persons in the chain of distribution of the article. In general, advertising of an article is considered to be initiated or obtained by one or more persons in the chain of distribution of the article if any such person:

(i) Takes an active part in the actual planning and development, or in the arrangements or negotiations leading to the development, of the form and content of the advertising, or

(ii) Contracts for the placement of the advertising.

The participation by the manufacturer of the article in the planning, development, or placement of the advertising is immaterial provided the advertising is in fact initiated or obtained by one or more persons in the chain of distribution of the article. Furthermore, it is immaterial whether or not the advertising is subject to the approval of the manufacturer of the article. However, if no person in the chain of distribution of the article takes an active part in the actual planning and development, or in the arrangements or negotiations leading to the development, of the form and content of the advertising, but, rather, all such planning, development, arrangements, and negotiations are accomplished by the manufacturer of the article, then such manufacturer is considered to have initiated the advertising, and if he also contracts for the placement of the advertising, such advertising does not qualify as “local advertising”.

(3) Identification of article and sales location. To meet the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, the advertising must identify the article for which the price is determinable under section 4216 and give the location or locations at which the article may be purchased at retail. All products taxable at the same rate under the same section of chapter 32 of the Code shall be considered to be an “article” for purposes of the preceding sentence. No specific method or means of identification is prescribed. The identification of the article may be made through the use of the name of the manufacturer or the use of an established trade-mark, such as a seal, picture, letter or letters, etc., or a combination thereof. The advertising must identify the particular retail establishment or establishments at which the article may be purchased at retail but need not specify the location of any such establishment in terms of the number by which the premises are designated or the name of the street on which the retail premises are situated. However, the location of the retail premises must be described sufficiently, as, for example, by reference to a particular named shopping area or shopping center, to enable consumers to find the retail establishment.

(4) Determination of costs of local advertising. Where an advertisement identifies more than one article, and all such articles are not taxable, or are not taxable at the same rate under the same section of Chapter 32 of the Code, a reasonable allocation of the cost of the advertisement must be made among (i) articles taxable at the same rate under the same section of the Code and (ii) articles which are not taxable under Chapter 32 of the Code. For example, in the case of a single page newspaper or magazine advertisement, an allocation of costs reflecting the lineage or space devoted to the specified categories will be considered to reflect a reasonable allocation of the cost of advertising the different articles. As a general rule, only the cost of the “spot” portion identifying the retail establishment is considered “local advertising” in the case of national television or radio programs.

(5) Meaning of “newspaper”. The term “newspaper”, as used in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, is limited to those publications which are commonly understood to be newspapers and which are printed and distributed periodically at daily, weekly, or other short intervals for the dissemination of news of a general character and of a general interest. The term does not include handbills, circulars, flyers, or the like, unless printed and distributed as a part of a publication which constitutes a newspaper within the meaning of this subparagraph. Neither does the term include any publication which is issued to supply information on certain subjects of interest to particular groups unless such publication otherwise qualifies as a newspaper within the meaning of this subparagraph. For purposes of this subparagraph, advertising is not considered to be news of a general character and of a general interest.

(6) Meaning of “magazine”. The term “magazine”, as used in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, is limited to those publications which are (i) commonly understood to be magazines, (ii) printed and distributed periodically at least twice a year, and (iii) published for the dissemination of information of a general nature or of special interest to particular groups. The term does not include handbills, circulars, flyers or the like, unless printed and distributed as a part of a publication which constitutes a magazine within the meaning of this subparagraph. For purposes of this subparagraph, advertising is not considered to be information of a general nature or information of special interest to particular groups within the contemplation of subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph.

(7) Meaning of “outdoor advertising sign or poster”. The term “outdoor advertising sign or poster”, as used in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, means a sign or poster displaying advertising matter, which is located outside of a roofed enclosure. This term includes both signs or posters on billboards, whether placed on or affixed to land, buildings, or other structures, and those which are displayed on or attached to moving objects, provided the signs or posters are located outside of a roofed enclosure. The term “roofed enclosure” means a roof structure which is enclosed on more than one-half of its sides by walls, fences, or other barriers.

(c) Exclusion—(1) Conditions and limitations. A charge for local advertising which is required by a manufacturer to be paid as a condition to his sale of an article is not a part of the taxable price of the article, to the extent that such charge meets each of the following conditions and limitations:

(i) Such charge does not exceed 5 percent of the difference between (a) an amount which would constitute to taxable price of the article (computed at the time of the sale of the article) if no part of any charge for local advertising were excludable in computing taxable price and (b) the amount of any separate charge for local advertising, whatever the amount of such charge may be,

(ii) Such charge is specifically shown as a separate charge for local advertising on the invoice or statement covering the sale of the article.

(iii) Such charge is billed by the manufacturer with the intention on his part of repaying the amount of the charge to the person purchasing the article from him, or to any person who subsequently purchases the article for resale, in reimbursement of costs incurred or local advertising of such article or some other article or articles taxable at the same rate under the same section of the Code. In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the fact of such intention will be assumed in all cases where the manufacturer and his vendees are parties to an advertising plan which calls for such repayments, or the manufacturer can otherwise establish that the vendees to whom he bills such charges understand and expect that such repayments will be made.

(2) When exclusion ceases to apply. To the extent that charge for local advertising meets the conditions and limitations stated in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, such charge is excludable in computing the taxable price of the article in respect of which the charge was made. However, the exclusion will cease to apply in respect of any part of such charge which the manufacturer fails to repay, before May 1 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which the article was sold, to the person who purchased the article from him, or to some other person who subsequently purchases the article for resale, in reimbursement of costs incurred for local advertising of such article or some other article or articles taxable at the same rate under the same section of the Code. If, before such May 1, any part of the charge so excluded has not been so repaid, the manufacturer becomes liable for tax on such May 1 in the same manner as if an article taxable under such section of the Code had been sold by him on such May 1 at a taxable price equivalent to that part of the charge not so repaid. However, see paragraph (c)(2) of § 48.6416(b)-1, relating to price readjustments in cases where local advertising charges are not repaid before such May 1 but are subsequently paid over by the manufacturer to his vendees in reimbursement of costs for local advertising. For provisions relating to the method of determining whether a payment by a manufacturer is or is not attributable to an excluded local advertising charge, see paragraph (b)(3) of § 48.4216(e)-2. In any case where the payment is determined to be attributable to such a charge, the date of the sale in connection with which the charge was made shall be determined on a first-in-first-out basis in respect of the vendee to whom the charge was billed by the manufacturer.

(d) Examples. The application of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1). During the first calendar quarter of 1961, a manufacturer sold refrigerators to one of his distributors at a total charge of $10,500, exclusive of tax, transportation charges, delivery charges, or other charges which are excludable in computing taxable price pursuant to section 4216(a). This total charge of $10,500 was billed as follows:

Refrigerators | $10,000

Local advertising charge | 500

Total charge | 10,500

At the time of the manufacturer's sales of the refrigerators, it was his intention, in accordance with the agreement between him and the distributor, to make repayment to the distributor of the local advertising charge, to the extent of expenditures by the distributor for radio, television, or newspaper advertising specifically naming refrigerators or other articles taxable at the same rate under section 4111 which were manufactured by the manufacturer, and giving the location of various retail stores within the distributor's territory where such articles may be purchased. Pursuant to such agreement, the selection of the advertising medium to be employed is to be made by the distributor, who is to plan the advertising subject to approval by the manufacturer, and contract for its placement. In this example, the advertising for which the charge is made qualifies as local advertising, the charge is billed to the manufacturer's vendee as a separate charge, the manufacturer intends to repay the charge to his vendee in reimbursement of costs incurred by the vendee for local advertising, and the charge does not exceed 5 percent of $10,000. Accordingly, the manufacturer's charge of $500 for local advertising is not includible in the taxable price of the refrigerators for purposes of computing and paying the tax imposed by section 4111.

Example (2).Assume the same facts as those stated in Example (1), and assume further that prior to May 1, 1962, the manufacturer has repaid to the distributor, in reimbursement of local advertising expenses incurred by the distributor in connection with refrigerators or other articles taxable at the same rate under section 4111 sold to him by the manufacturer, $400 of the $500 billed as a local advertising charge by the manufacturer in connection with his sale of refrigerators to the distributor in the first quarter of 1961. The manufacturer is liable, as of May 1, 1962, for tax in respect of the $100 which has not been repaid to the distributor. The amount of the tax is determinable at the rate in effect under section 4111 on May 1, 1962, in respect of refrigerators and is includible in the manufacturer's return of tax under such section for the second quarter of 1962.

Example (3). During the first calendar quarter of 1961, a manufacturer sold refrigerators to one of his distributors at a total charge of $11,000, exclusive of tax, transportation charges, delivery charges, or other charges which are excludable in computing taxable price under section 4216(a). This total charge of $11,000 was billed as follows:

Refrigerators | $10,000

Local advertising charge | 1,000

Total charge | 11,000

At the time of the manufacturer's sales of the refrigerators, it was his intention, in accordance with the terms of a cooperative advertising plan to which the manufacturer and the distributor were parties, to make repayment to the distributor of the local advertising charge. Pursuant to the plan, the repayment would be made to the extent of expenditures by the distributor for radio, television, or newspaper advertising, initiated or obtained by him, specifically naming refrigerators or other articles taxable at the same rate under section 4111 which were manufactured by the manufacturer, and giving the location of various retail stores within the distributor's territory where such articles may be purchased. In this example, only $500 of the manufacturer's charge of $1,000 for local advertising may be excluded in determining the taxable price of the refrigerators for purposes of reporting and paying the tax imposed by section 4111. The remaining $500 may not be excluded in computing the taxable price of the refrigerators since this is the amount by which the $1,000 local advertising charge exceeds 5 percent of $10,000. Thus, the taxable price of the refrigerators in this example is $10,500.

Example (4).Assume the same facts as those stated in Example (1), except that, pursuant to the agreement between the manufacturer and the distributor, the manufacturer is to contract for the placement of the local advertising. Payment of the $500 local advertising charge is to be made by the manufacturer to the person with whom the advertising is placed in satisfaction of the manufacturer's contractual liability to such person. Under these circumstances, the manufacturer's payment of the $500 charge to the person with whom the advertising is placed does not constitute a refund to the purchaser in reimbursement of costs incurred for local advertising.

[T.D. 6635, 28 FR 1201, Feb. 7, 1963, as amended by T.D. 6686, 28 FR 11410, Oct. 24, 1963. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13520, Mar. 31, 1978]

§ 48.4216(e)-2 Limitation on aggregate of exclusions and price readjustments.

(a) In general. The sum of the amount excluded from taxable price in respect of charges for local advertising, as provided in section 4216(e)(1) and § 48.4216(e)-1, plus the amount of the readjustments for which credits or refunds may be claimed in respect of local advertising, as provided in section 6416(b)(1) and paragraph (c) of § 48.6416(b)-1, is subject to an over-all 5 percent limitation. This limitation applies to each manufacturer, as of the close of each calendar quarter, in respect of all articles taxable under the same section of Chapter 32 which were sold by such manufacturer in such quarter (and the preceding quarter of quarters, if any, in the calendar year). For example, a manufacturer selling articles taxable under section 4061 (relating to automobiles, trucks, buses, etc.), and also selling articles taxable under section 4111 (relating to refrigerators, quick-freeze units, etc.), who makes separate charges for local advertising in connection with his sales, or who makes reimbursement of local advertising expenses to his vendees out of moneys previously included in taxable price, in respect of any one or more articles in each of the two groups must apply the limitation separately in relation to the articles taxable under section 4061 and in relation to the articles taxable under section 4111. However, in such case, no breakdown of the separate articles taxable under section 4061, or of the separate articles taxable under section 4111, is required.

(b) Computation of over-all 5 percent limitation—(1) In general. The limitation prescribed by section 4216(e)(2) (the “over-all 5 percent limitation” referred to in paragraph (a) of this section) as to the total of the exclusions from price and readjustments of price which may be claimed for local advertising in respect of all articles taxable under the same section of Chapter 32 of the Code shall be computed as of the close of each calendar quarter of the calendar year. The over-all 5 percent limitation is 5 percent of the difference between (i) the amount which would constitute the total taxable price (computed at the time of sale) of all articles taxable under the same section of Chapter 32 of the Code sold by the manufacturer during the elapsed calendar quarters of the calendar year, if no part of any charge for local advertising were excludable in computing taxable price, and (ii) the total of all amounts billed as separate charges for local advertising of such articles (whatever the amount of any single charge of the total of all charges). In making the computations under subdivisions (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph, credits or refunds under section 6416(b) of tax paid on the sale of any such articles are to be disregarded and articles sold tax-free by the manufacturer are to be excluded. The amount by which the over-all 5 percent limitation computed as of the close of a particular calendar quarter in respect of articles taxable under the same section of the Code exceeds the sum of the charges for local advertising excluded in computing the taxable price and the amount of reimbursements for local advertising of such articles made during the elapsed calendar quarters of the calendar year, in respect of which credit or refund has been claimed, represents the unused portion of the over-all 5 percent limitation. Such unused portion is the maximum amount of reimbursements for local advertising in respect of which credit or refund may be claimed at the close of the particular calendar quarter, subject to the applicable conditions and limitations governing the right to claim a credit or refund in respect of local advertising (see § 48.6416(b)-1). The unused portion of the over-all 5 percent limitation as of the close of the fourth calendar quarter of a calendar year in respect of which credit or refund may not be claimed as of the close of such quarter must be disregarded in computing the over-all 5 percent limitation for any subsequent calendar quarter. Moreover, the amount of any reimbursements for local advertising made by a manufacturer in a calendar year which is in excess of the amount of such reimbursements in respect of which credit or refund may be claimed, within the over-all limitation, as of the close of the calendar year, may not subsequently serve as the basis for a credit or refund.

(2) Alternative method of computation in certain cases. If during the portion of the calendar year ending with the date as of which the over-all 5 percent limitation is being computed the amount of the local advertising charge separately billed by the manufacturer has not, in respect of any sale of any articles taxable under the same section of Chapter 32 of the Code, exceeded the amount excludable pursuant to paragraph (c) of § 48.4216(e)-1 in computing taxable price, the over-all 5 percent limitation as of the close of a particular calendar quarter in respect of articles taxable under such section is 5 percent of the total taxable price (computed at the time of the sale) of all such articles sold taxpaid during the calendar year.

(3) Allocation of amounts paid in reimbursement of expenditures for local advertising. If a manufacturer makes contributions to a local advertising program in connection with which he makes excludable local advertising charges, it is necessary that reimbursements by the manufacturer for local advertising be attributed to the charges for local advertising, to the manufacturer's contributions, or allocated between them. Whether an amount paid by a manufacturer in reimbursement of expenses for local advertising is or is not a repayment of a local advertising charge which was excluded from taxable price under section 4216(e)(1) and § 48.4216(e)-1, shall be determined on the basis of an allocation made under the agreement between the manufacturer and his vendee (or any subsequent vendee).

(c) Examples. The application of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1). During the first and second calendar quarters of 1961, a manufacturer makes sales of articles taxable under section 4111 to his distributors. The total charges for such sales, exclusive of the tax, transportation charges, delivery charges, or other charges which are excludable, pursuant to section 4216(a), in computing taxable price, are as follows:

First Quarter

Articles taxable under section 4111 | $100,000

Local advertising charges | 3,000

Total charge | $103,000

Second Quarter

Articles taxable under section 4111 | $150,000

Local advertising charges | 4,000

Total charge | $154,000

Assume further that the manufacturer contributes to the advertising plan and that the manufacturer pays $5,500 and $1,000 during the first and second calendar quarters of 1961, respectively, to his distributors in reimbursement of expenses incurred by them for local advertising of the articles purchased from the manufacturer.

Computation as of close of first calendar quarter

1. Amount which would constitute total taxable price (computed at time of sale) if not part of any charge for local advertising were excludable in computing taxable price | $103,000

2. Amounts billed as separate charges for local advertising | 3,000

3. Difference | $100,000

4. Over-all 5 percent limitation (5 percent of item 3) | $5,000

5. Amount excluded in computing taxable price | 3,000

6. Unused portion of limitation | $2,000

7. Allocation, pursuant to agreement, or $5,500 paid to distributors:

Charges for local advertising | $3,000

Contributions by manufacturer | 2,500

Readjustment may be claimed in respect of that portion of the total amount repaid to the distributors which is allocated to the manufacturer's contribution ($2,500) to the extent that such portion does not exceed the unused portion of the over-all 5 percent limitation ($2,000). Accordingly, as of the close of the first calendar quarter the manufacturer may claim credit or refund in respect of a readjustment or price in the amount of $2,000.

Computation as of close of second calendar quarter

1. Amount which would constitute total taxable price (computed at time of sale) if not part of any charge for local advertising were excludable in computing taxable price $103,000 + $154,000) | $257,000

2. Amounts billed as separate charges for local advertising ($3,000 + $4,000) | 7,000

3. Difference | $250,000

4. Over-all 5 percent limitation (5 percent of item 3) | $12,500

5. Amount excluded in computing taxable price ($3,000 + $4,000) plus readjustment claimed at end of first calendar quarter ($2,000) | 9,000

6. Unused portion of limitation | $3,500

7. Allocation, pursuant to agreement, of $6,500 ($5,500 + $1,000) paid to distributors:

Charges for local advertising | $3,500

Contributions by manufacturer | 3,000

Although the total reimbursements for local advertising expenses attributable to contributions by the manufacturer ($3,000) does not exceed the unused portion of the over-all 5 percent limitation ($3,500), the manufacturer having taken, at the close of the first calendar quarter, a price readjustment in the amount of $2,000 in respect of his contributions is entitled at the close of the second calendar quarter to claim credit or refund in respect of a price readjustment in the amount of $1,000 ($3,000−$2,000).

Example (2). During the first calendar quarter of 1961, a manufacturer sold articles taxable under section 4111 to his distributors at a total charge of $106,000, exclusive of the tax, transportation charges, delivery charges, or other charges which are excludable, pursuant to section 4216(a), in computing taxable price. This total charge of $106,000 was billed as follows:

Articles taxable under section 4111 | $100,000

Local advertising charges | 6,000

Total charge | $106,000

Assume further that the manufacturer contributes to the advertising plan and that the manufacturer pays $3,000 during the first calendar quarter of 1961 to his distributors in reimbursement of expenses incurred by them for local advertising of the articles purchased from the manufacturer.

Computation as of close of first calendar quarter

1. Amount which would constitute total taxable price (computed at time of sale) if not part of any charge for local advertising were excludable in computing taxable price | $106,000

2. Amounts billed as separate charges for local advertising | 6,000

3. Difference | $100,000

4. Over-all 5 percent limitation (5 percent of item 3) | $5,000

5. Amount excluded in computing taxable price (see paragraph (c) of § 48.4216(e)-1) | 5,000

6. Unused portion of limitation | $0

7. Allocation, pursuant to agreement, of $3,000 paid to distributors:

Charges for local advertising | $2,000

Contributions by manufacturer | 1,000

Credit or refund may not be claimed in respect of that portion of the total amount repaid to the distributors ($3,000) which is allocated to the manufacturer's contribution ($1,000) since the amount excluded in computing taxable price is equal to the over-all 5 percent limitation.

[T.D. 6635, 28 FR 1203, Feb. 7, 1963. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13520, Mar. 31, 1978]

§ 48.4216(e)-3 No exclusion or readjustment for other advertising charges or reimbursements.

(a) Exclusions from price. No exclusion in computing the taxable price of any article sold by the manufacturer may be allowed in respect of any charge for advertising if, and to the extent that, such charge:

(1) Is for advertising which does not qualify as local advertising within the meaning of section 4216(e)(4) and paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 48.4216(e)-1, or

(2) Does not satisfy all of the conditions and limitations stated in section 4216(e)(1) and paragraph (c) of § 48.4216(e)-1.

(b) Readjustments of price. No credit or refund under section 6416(b)(1) may be allowed in respect of any amount which was included in the taxable price of an article sold by the manufacturer and which was later paid by him to his vendee in reimbursement of costs incurred for advertising, if, and to the extent that, the amount so paid:

(1) Is for advertising which does not qualify as local advertising within the meaning of section 4216(e)(4) and paragraph (b) of § 48.4216(e)-1, or

(2) Is not within the limitation provided in section 4216(e)(2), as computed in accordance with § 48.4216(e)-2, as of the close of the calendar quarter in which the amount is so paid over or as of the close of any subsequent calendar quarter in the same calendar year. See, however, paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of § 48.6416(b)-1, relating to redetermination of price readjustments in cases where local advertising charges excluded from taxable price in one calendar year become taxable as of May 1 of the following calendar year.

[T.D. 6686, 28 FR 11411, Oct. 24, 1963. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13521, Mar. 31, 1978]

§ 48.4216(f)-1 Value of used components excluded from price of certain trucks.

For purposes of the tax imposed by section 4061(a)(1) (relating to trucks, buses, etc.), in determining the price for which an article is sold, the value of any previously used component of such article shall be excluded from the price if the person furnishing the component is the first user of the finished article. For example, where a manufacturer builds a truck for a customer who intends to use, rather than resell the truck, incorporating used parts furnished by the customer, the value of the previously used parts shall not be included in the price for which the truck is considered sold by the manufacturer.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13521, Mar. 31, 1978]

§ 48.4217-1 Lease considered as sale.

For purposes of Chapter 32 of the Code, the lease of an article by a manufacturer, producer, or importer shall be considered a sale of the article. The term “lease” means a contract or agreement, written or verbal, which gives the lessee an exclusive, continuous right to the possession or use of a particular article for a period of time. The term includes any renewal or extension of a lease or any subsequent lease of the article. However, in the case of the lease of an automobile the sale of which by the manufacturer would be taxable under section 4064, the term includes only the first lease (excluding any renewal or extension of the lease) of such automobile by the manufacturer.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13521, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 8036, 50 FR 29963, July 23, 1985]

§ 48.4217-2 Limitation on amount of tax applicable to certain leases.

(a) Conditions for eligibility. Section 4217(b) provides for a limitation on the amount of tax that shall apply to the lease, any renewal, or further lease, of an article which, if sold, would be subject to tax on the basis of sale price. Such limitation on the amount of the tax applies with respect to the lease of an article only if, at the time of making the lease, the lessor is engaged in the business of selling in arm's length transactions the same type and model of article. In case of a lease to which section 4217(b) does not apply, tax shall be computed and paid as provided in section 4216(c) and paragraph (a) of § 48.4216(c)-1.

(b) Lessor engaged in business of selling. The lessor will be regarded as being engaged in the business of selling in arm's length transactions the same type and model of an article as the one being leased if it periodically and recurringly makes bona fide offers for sale of such articles in the regular course of operation of its business, which offers if accepted would constitute sales at arm's length. Whether the offers are bona fide shall be determined on the basis of the facts in each case, such as sales actually made, the nature of the advertising, sales literature, and other means used to effectuate sales. It is not necessary that the offers for sale be made to the same class of purchasers as those to whom the article is being leased.

(c) Same type and model of article. To qualify as the “same type and model of article”, the article offered for sale must be an unused article essentially the same in size, design, and function as the article being leased. For example, a van-type truck trailer would not be the same type and model as a stake-body of flat-bed truck trailer. Neither would a 25-foot van-type trailer be the same type and model as a 35-foot van-type trailer. Slight differences in appearance or accessories will not render articles dissimilar which are identical in all other respects.

(d) Basis for tax—(1) Tax payable until total tax is paid. In case of a lease of an article to which section 4217 (b) applies, tax shall be paid on each lease payment in an amount computed by applying to such lease payment a percentage equal to the rate of tax in effect on the date of the lease payment. Such tax payments shall continue to be made under such lease, or any subsequent lease of the article, until the cumulative total of the tax payments equals the total tax. Lease payments made thereafter with respect to that article shall not be subject to tax. For definition of the term “total tax”, see paragraph (e) of this section.

(2) Changes in tax rates. Except as provided in:

(i) Section 701 (a) (3) of the Excise Tax Reduction Act of 1965 (79 Stat. 155) in the case of certain reductions in tax rates effective June 22, 1965, or January 1, 1966, and

(ii) Section 401(h)(3) of the Revenue Act of 1971 (85 Stat. 534) in the case of certain reductions in tax rates effective December 11, 1971, if the rate of tax is increased or decreased during a lease period, the new rate shall apply to the lease payments made on and after the date of the change, but the amount of the total tax shall remain the same.

(e) Total tax. For purposes of this section, the term “total tax” means the amount of tax, computed at the rate in effect on the date of the first lease of the article to which section 4217(b) applies, which would be due on the constructive sale price of the article as determined under section 4216(b) and § 48.4216(b)-2, as if the article had been sold by a manufacturer at retail on such date.

(f) Sale of article before total tax becomes payable. If the lessor sells the article before the total tax has become payable, the tax payable on the sale shall be the lesser of the following amounts:

(1) The difference between (i) the total tax, and (ii) the aggregate tax applicable to lease payments already received; or

(2) A tax computed, at the rate in effect on the date of the sale, on the price for which the article is sold.

For purposes of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, the provisions of section 4216(b) for determining a constructive sale price shall not apply if the sale is at arm's length. If the sale is not at arm's length, the tax referred to in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph shall be computed on a constructive sale price as provided in § 48.4216(b)-2.

(g) Sale of article after total tax has become payable. If the lessor sells an article after the total tax has become payable, the tax imposed under Chapter 32 of the Code shall not apply to such sale.

(h) Special rules applicable to certain leases entered into before January 1, 1959. For purposes of this section, in the case of any lease entered into before, and existing on, January 1, 1959:

(1) Such lease shall be considered to have been entered into on January 1, 1959.

(2) The total tax shall be computed on the fair market value of the article on January 1, 1959.

(3) The lease payments under such lease shall include only payents attributable to periods beginning after December 31, 1958.

(i) Cross-reference. In the case of the lease of an automobile the sale of which by the manufacturer would be taxable under section 4064, the foregoing provisions of this section shall not apply. See section 4217 (e) for the rules relating to the payment of the gas guzzler tax.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13521, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 8036, 50 FR 29963, July 23, 1985]

15 Use by Manufacturer or Importer Considered Sale
§ 48.4218-1 Tax on use by manufacturer, producer, or importer.

(a) In general. Section 4218 imposes tax in respect of certain uses of articles by the actual manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof. This section also applies in respect of the use of articles by any other person who, pursuant to a provision of Chapter 32 of the Code, is considered to be, or is treated as, the manufacturer or producer of the articles. See, for example, section 4223 relating to articles purchased tax free for use in further manufacture.

(b) Taxable articles in general—(1) Application of tax. If the manufacturer, producer, or importer of an article taxable under Chapter 32 of the Code (other than an article referred to in paragraph (a), (d), or (e) of this section) uses the article for any purpose other than that indicated in subparagraph (3) or (4) of this paragraph, he shall be liable for tax with respect to the use of such article in the same manner as if the article were sold by him.

(2) Taxable use in manufacture of nontaxable articles—(i) In general. In the case of an article to which subparagraph (1) of this paragraph applies, tax attaches when the manufacturer, producer, or importer of the article uses it as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, another article which is not taxable under Chapter 32 of the Code, regardless of the disposition made of such other article. (See paragraph (c) of § 48.4218-5 for computation of tax on such use.)

(ii) Types of use in manufacture of nontaxable articles. Taxable use may consist of the incorporation of a taxable article, such as an electric light bulb, into a nontaxable article, such as a flashlight. Taxable use may also result from the combining of a taxable article (or the components thereof) with a nontaxable article (or the components of a nontaxable article) resulting in a combination end article which itself is not taxable. Although the taxable article may not be a completely separable unit, within the contemplation of the law a taxable article has been produced and incorporated in the combination end article. The following are examples of taxable articles so used:

(a) Household type electric or gas clothes drier incorporated in a combination washer-drier.

(b) Household type electric, gas, or oil cooking range combined either with a range using other means of heating or with a nontaxable space heater.

(c) Taxable radio receiving set incorporated in a combination radio receiver-transmitter or in a combination radio receiver-intercommunication system.

If an automobile part or accessory, radio or television component, or camera lens is used as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, a taxable article to which subparagraph (1) of this paragraph has application and such article in turn is used in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, a nontaxable article, the part or accessory, component, or lens is considered to have been used in the manufacture of the taxable article, and not in the manufacture of the nontaxable article. For example, the use of taxable radio components in the production of a taxable radio receiving set is exempt from tax (see paragraph (d) of this section), but the use of the radio receiving set in the production of a nontaxable combination radio receiver-transmitter is subject to tax. See section 6416(b)(2) or 6416(b)(3) and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart O for credit or refund of tax paid in respect of such radio receiver if the combination radio receiver-transmitter is by any person exported, sold to a State or local government for its exclusive use, sold to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use, or used or sold for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft.

(3) Nontaxable use in manufacture of taxable articles. The tax on the use of an article to which subparagraph (1) of this paragraph has application shall not apply if the article is used by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, another article taxable under Chapter 32 to be manufactured or produced by him. It is immaterial what disposition is made of such other article.

(4) Gasoline. The tax on the use of an article shall not apply in the case of gasoline used on or after October 1, 1961, by any person, for nonfuel purposes, as a material in the manufacture or production of another article to be manufactured or produced by him. See section 4221 and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart N. For provisions applicable to use of gasoline by a producer or importer otherwise than in the production of other gasoline, or special motor fuel taxable under section 4041(b), see section 4082(c) and paragraph (c) of § 48.4082-1 contained in subpart H.

(c) Tires, inner tubes, and automobile radio or television receiving sets. If the manufacturer, producer, or importer of a tire or inner tube taxable under section 4071 (other than a bicycle tire or inner tube referred to in paragraph (e) of this section), or an automobile radio or television receiving set taxable under section 4141, sells such article on or in connection with the sale of any other article or uses it for any purpose, he shall be liable for tax with respect to such tire, inner tube, or radio or television receiving set in the same manner as if it were sold by him as a separate article. However, tax does not apply where the manufacturer, producer, or importer of the tire, inner tube, or automobile radio or television receiving set sells such article on or in connection with the sale of another article manufactured by him for any of the exempt purposes specified in paragraphs (2) to (5), inclusive, of section 4221(a) and the regulations thereunder contained in subpart N.

(d) Automobile parts or accessories, radio or television components, and camera lenses—(1) Application of tax. If the manufacturer, producer, or importer of an automobile part or accessory taxable under section 4061(b), a radio or television component taxable under section 4141, or a camera lens taxable under section 4171, uses the article for any purpose other than that indicated in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, he shall be liable for tax with respect to the use of the article in the same manner as if the article were sold by him. For example, tax applies if the manufacturer, producer, or importer uses the article referred to in this subparagraph for repair or replacement purposes in connection with equipment used by him in the operation of his business.

(2) Nontaxable use in manufacture of other articles. The tax on the use of an article referred to in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall not apply if the article is used by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, any other article (whether or not taxable under Chapter 32) to be manufactured or produced by him. It is immaterial what disposition is made of such other article.

(e) Bicycle tires and inner tubes—(1) Application of tax. If the manufacturer, producer, or importer of a bicycle tire as defined in section 4221(e)(4)(B) or an inner tube for such a tire uses the tire or inner tube for any purpose other than as indicated in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, he shall be liable for tax with respect to the use of the tire or inner tube in the same manner as if the article were sold by him.

(2) Nontaxable use in manufacture of other articles. The tax on the use of a bicycle tire or inner tube referred to in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall not apply if the tire or inner tube is used by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, a new bicycle to be manufactured or produced by him. It is immaterial what disposition is made of the new bicycle. Tax, however, applies in the case of the use of a bicycle tire or inner tube by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof in the rebuilding or reconditioning of a used bicycle.

(3) Effective date. The provisions of this paragraph shall apply to the use on or after May 1, 1960, of a bicycle tire or inner tube by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof. Liability for tax on the use prior to that date of a bicycle tire or inner tube by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof shall be based on the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section which apply to tires and inner tubes in general.

(f) Use after lease. If the manufacturer, producer, or importer of a taxable article leases such article and thereafter uses the article, he incurs liability for tax on such use as provided in these regulations to the same extent as if the article were sold after being leased. See section 4217 and the regulations thereunder in this subpart for application and computation of tax in case of leased articles.

(g) Time of application of tax. In the case of a taxable use of an article by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof, the tax attaches at the time such use begins. If tax applies by reason of the sale of an article by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof on or in connection with his sale of another article, the tax attaches at the time of the sale of such other article.

(h) Exemptions because of other statutory provisions. Tax does not apply on the use of an article by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof if under the applicable provisions of the Code the sale of the article for a similar use would not be subject to tax. For example, the use of gasoline by the producer thereof to propel tankers engaged in foreign trade which are owned or leased by the producer would not be subject to tax under section 4218 since a sale for such use would be exempt from tax as provided in section 4221(a)(3). Also, tax need not be paid with respect to the use of an article by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof if such use would qualify, under the provisions of section 6416(b), for credit or refund of the tax paid.

[T.D. 6687, 28 FR 11780, Nov. 5, 1963]

§ 48.4218-2 Business or personal use of articles.

(a) Business use. Section 4218 applies to the use by a person, in the operation of any business in which he is engaged, of a taxable article which has been manufactured, produced, or imported by him or his agent. For example, a person engaged in the operation of a dairy business incurs liability for tax with respect to a truck body manufactured by him and used in the operation of his dairy business.

(b) Personal use. The tax on use of a taxable article does not attach in cases where an individual incidentally manufactures, produces, or imports a taxable article for his personal use or causes a taxable article to be manufactured, produced, or imported for his personal use.

[T.D. 6687, 28 FR 11781, Nov. 5, 1963]

§ 48.4218-3 Events subsequent to taxable use of article.

Liability for tax incurred on the use of an article is not extinguished or reduced because of any subsequent sale or lease of the article even if such sale or lease would have been exempt if the article had been so sold or leased prior to use. If a manufacturer, producer, or importer of an article incurs liability for tax on his use thereof, and thereafter sells or leases the article in a transaction which otherwise would be subject to tax, liability for tax is not incurred on such sale or lease.

[T.D. 6687, 28 FR 11781, Nov. 5, 1963]

§ 48.4218-4 Use in further manufacture.

For purposes of section 4218 and § 48.4218-1, an article is used as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, another article, if it is incorporated in, or is a part or accessory of, the other article. Lubricating oil in the crankcase of a new truck is an example of a taxable article use as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, another article. In addition, an article (other than gasoline used as a fuel) is considered to be used as material in the manufacture of another article if it is partly or entirely consumed in testing such other article; for example, shells or cartridges used in testing new firearms. similarly, if an article is partly or wholly consumed in quality testing a production run of like articles (as, for example, an automotive part destroyed in stress testing) such article is also considered to have been used as material in the manufacture of another article. However, if a taxable article that has been used tax free and only partly consumed in testing is later sold, or put to a taxable use, by the manufacturer, tax attaches to such sale or use. An article that is consumed in the manufacturing process other than in testing, so that it is not a physical part of the manufactured article, is not used as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, such other article. Thus, lubricating oil consumed in operating plant machinery in the course of the manufacture of automobile truck chassis is not used as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, the truck chassis.

[T.D. 6687, 28 FR 11781, Nov. 5, 1963, as amended by T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13521, Mar. 31, 1978]

§ 48.4218-5 Computation of tax.

(a) Tax based on price. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, tax liability incurred on the use of an article shall be computed on the price at which such or similar articles are sold in the ordinary course of trade by manufacturers, producers, or importers thereof and in the absence of special arrangements. For additional provisions applicable in computing the tax in the case of the use of an article by a manufacturer and producer who purchased the article free of tax under section 4221(a)(1) for use by him in further manufacture, see section 423(b) and the regulations thereunder.

(b) Articles regularly sold by manufacturer. If the manufacturer, producer, or importer of an article regularly sells such articles at wholesale in arm's length transactions, tax liability on his use of any such article shall be computed on his lowest established wholesale price for such articles in effect at the time of the taxable use. In establishing such price, there shall be included and excluded, as applicable, the charges and readjustments specified in sections 4216(a), 4216(f), and 6416(b)(1), as in effect at the time tax liability on the use of the article is incurred, and the regulations thereunder contained in this subpart and subpart O. If the manufacturer, producer, or importer of an article does not regularly sell such articles at wholesale in arm's length transactions, a constructive price on which the use tax shall be computed will be determined by the Commissioner. This price will be established after considering the selling practices and price structures of manufacturers, producers, and importers of similar articles.

(c) Articles governed by section 4218(a) used in manufacture of nontaxable combination articles. If the manufacturer, producer, or importer of an article to which section 4218(a) applies does not regularly sell such article separately but uses it as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, a nontaxable combination article consisting of a taxable and nontaxable article, liability for tax on his use shall be computed on the constructive price of the taxable article at the time of use. To determine the constructive price of the taxable article in such case, the combination article is considered to be composed of (1) parts used exclusively in the functioning of the taxable article in the combination, (2) parts used exclusively in the functioning of the nontaxable article in the combination, and (3) parts, called common parts, which serve a dual function in connection with the parts in both subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph. The ratio which the cost of the parts in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph bears to the sum of the cost of such parts and the parts in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph is applied to the lowest established wholesale price for which like combination articles are at the time of the taxable use being sold by the manufacturer or producer in the ordinary course of trade. The resulting amount is the constructive sale price for the taxable article on which tax is to be computed. The cost of the common parts is allocable to the parts in subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph in the same ratio, and, therefore, need not be taken into account in the computation since the inclusion and allocation of the cost of such parts in the determination would not result in a different ratio. In determining the lowest established wholesale price for the combination article, there shall be included and excluded, as applicable, the charges and readjustments specified in sections 4216(a), 4216(f), and 6416(b)(1), as in effect at the time tax liability on the use of the taxable article is incurred, and the regulations thereunder contained in this subpart and subpart O of this part. The tax applicable to the use of the article for which a constructive sale price has been computed is not affected by any charges or readjustments of the price for which the nontaxable combination article is sold, whether by reason of the return or repossession of the nontaxable article or its covering or container, or by a bona fide discount, rebate, allowance, or other factor. The application of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.A manufacturer of a nontaxable washer-drier combination produces and uses an electric clothes drier taxable under section 4121 in the manufacture of the combination article. The lowest established wholesale price of the manufacturer for the washer-drier combination at the time of the taxable use is $150 with respect to identical combinations after including and excluding applicable charges and readjustments. The manufacturer does not regularly sell such drier separately. In the manufacture of the washer-drier the two units are integrated to the extent that certain component parts function both in the operation of the washer and of the drier. The parts used exclusively in the operation of the washer cost $30 and those used exclusively in the operation of the drier cost $20. The taxable cost ratio in this instance is 20/50, or 40 percent. Applying 40 percent to the manufacturer's lowest established wholesale price of $150 for the washer-drier results in $60 as the constructive price for the taxable article in the combination at the time tax liability is incurred. No additional charges or readjustments in connection with, or subsequent to, the sale of the washer-drier combination may affect the tax liability incurred at the time of use.

(d) Tax based on weight or volume. Where liability for tax is incurred on the use of an article subject, if sold, to a tax based on:

(1) The weight of the article (such as a tire), or

(2) The volume of the article (such as gasoline or lubricating oil),

the tax due shall be computed on the basis which would be applicable if such article were sold.

[T.D. 6687, 28 FR 11781, Nov. 5, 1963]

16 Application of Tax in Case of Sales by Other Than Manufacturer or Importer
§ 48.4219-1 Sales of taxable articles by a person other than the manufacturer, producer, or importer.

(a) General rule. If the title to, or ownership of, an article taxable under Chapter 32 of the Code is transferred from the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof, and, under the law, no tax attaches to such transfer, the subsequent sale, lease, or use of such article by the transferee is subject to tax to the same extent and in the same manner as if such transferee were the manufacturer, producer, or importer of the article. The following examples illustrate this rule:

(1) The surviving spouse, child or children, executors or administrators, or other legal representatives, as the case may be, of a deceased manufacturer, producer, or importer of taxable articles, incur liability for tax on all such articles sold by them.

(2) A receiver or trustee in bankruptcy who under a court order conducts or liquidates the business of a manufacturer, producer, or importer of taxable articles, incurs liability for tax on all taxable articles sold by him, regardless of whether the articles were manufactured, produced, or imported before or after he took charge of the business.

(3) An assignee for the benefit of creditors of a manufacturer, producer, or importer incurs liability for tax with respect to all taxable articles sold by him as such assignee.

(4) If one or more members of a partnership withdraw, or if new partners are admitted, the new partnership so constituted incurs liability for tax on all taxable articles sold by it regardless of when such articles were manufactured, produced, or imported.

(5) A person who acquires title to taxable articles as a result of default of the manufacturer, producer, or importer pursuant to an agreement under the terms of which the articles were pledged as collateral incurs liability for tax with respect to his sale of the articles so acquired.

(6) A person who succeeds to the business of a manufacturer, producer, or importer of taxable articles, such as:

(i) A corporation which results from a consolidation, merger, or reorganization;

(ii) A corporation which acquires the business of an individual or partnership; or

(iii) A stockholder in a corporation who, after its dissolution, continues the business;

incurs liability for tax on all taxable articles sold by such person. However, where a manufacturer, producer, or importer sells only his assets, rather than ownership of his business, he incurs liability for tax on the sale of any taxable articles included in such assets.

(b) Transfer of title to damaged articles. If title to a damaged taxable article is transferred by the manufacturer, producer, or importer thereof to a carrier or insurance company in adjustment of a damage claim, such transfer is not considered a taxable sale of the article. If the article is usable, even though damaged, the carrier or insurance company incurs liability for tax on its sale, lease, or use of the article. Where the article has been damaged to the extent that its only value is as scrap, and it is not restored to usable condition, sale thereof by the carrier or insurance company is not subject to tax.

[T.D. 6687, 28 FR 11782, Nov. 5, 1963]

Subpart N Exemptions, Registration, Etc.

Source: T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, unless otherwise noted.

§ 48.4221-1 Tax-free sales; general rule.

(a) Application of regulations under section 4221—(1) In general. The regulations under section 4221 provide rules under which the manufacturer, producer, or importer of an article subject to tax under chapter 32 (or the retailer of an article subject to tax under subchapter A or C of chapter 31) may sell the article tax free under section 4221.

(2) Limitations. The following restrictions must be taken into account in applying the regulations under section 4221:

(i) The exemptions under section 4221 (a)(4) and (a)(5) do not apply to the tax imposed by section 4064 (gas guzzler tax).

(ii) The exemptions under section 4221 do not apply to the tax imposed by section 4081 (taxable fuel tax).

(iii) The exemptions under section 4221 do not apply to the tax imposed by section 4091 (aviation fuel tax). For rules relating to tax-free sales of aviation fuel, see section 4092 and the regulations thereunder.

(iv) The exemptions under section 4221 do not apply to the tax imposed by section 4121 (coal tax).

(v) The exemptions under section 4221 (a)(3) through (a)(5) do not apply to the tax imposed by section 4131 (vaccine tax). In addition, the exemption under section 4221(a)(2) applies to the vaccine tax only to the extent provided in § 48.4221-3(e) (relating to tax-free sales of vaccine for export).

(vi) The exemptions under section 4221(a) apply only in those cases where the exportation or use referred to is to occur before any other use.

(vii) The exemptions under section 4221(a)(3) through (a)(6) do not apply to the tax imposed by section 4191 (medical device tax).

(b) Manufacturer relieved of liability in certain cases—(1) General rule. Under the provisions of section 4221(c), if an article subject to tax under Chapter 32 of the Code is sold free of tax by the manufacturer of the article for an exempt purpose referred to in section 4221(c) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the manufacturer shall be relieved of any tax liability under Chapter 32 with respect to such sale if the manufacturer in good faith accepts a proper certification by the purchaser that the article or articles will be used by the purchaser in the stated exempt manner. See paragraph (b)(2) of this section for a list of the exempt purposes referred to in section 4221(c).

(2) The following are situations wherein section 4221(c) is applicable with respect to sales made tax free on the assumption that one of the following sections of the Code provides exemption for such sales:

(i) Section 4221(a)(1), to the extent that it relates to sales for further manufacture by a first purchaser (see § 48.4221-2),

(ii) Section 4221(a)(3), relating to supplies for vessels and aircraft (see § 48.4221-4),

(iii) Section 4221(a)(4), relating to sales to State or local governments (see § 48.4221-5),

(iv) Section 4221(a)(5), relating to sales to nonprofit educational organizations (see § 48.4221-6), and

(v) Section 4221(e)(3) relating to the sale of tires used on intercity, local, or school buses (see § 48.4221-8).

(3) Duty of seller to ascertain validity of tax-free sale. If the manufacturer at the time of its sale has reason to believe that the article sold by it is not intended for the exempt purpose indicated by the purchaser, or that the purchaser has failed to register as required, the manufacturer is not considered to have accepted certification from the purchaser in good faith, and is not relieved from liability under the provisions of section 4221(c).

(4) Information to be furnished to purchaser. A manufacturer selling articles free of tax under this section after December 31, 1978, shall indicate to the purchaser that (i) certain articles normally subject to tax are being sold tax free and (ii) the purchaser is obtaining those articles tax free for an exempt purpose under an exemption certificate or its equivalent. The manufacturer may transmit this information by any convenient means, such as coding of sales invoices, provided that the information is presented with sufficient particularity so that the purchaser is informed that he has obtained the articles tax free and:

(i) The purchaser can compute and remit the tax due if an article sold tax free for further manufacture is diverted to a taxable use,

(ii) The manufacturer can remit the tax due with respect to an article purchased tax free for resale for use in further manufacture or for export if, within the 6-month period described in § 48.4221-2(c) or § 48.4221-3(c), the manufacturer does not receive proof that the article has been exported or resold for use in further manufacture, or

(iii) The purchaser can notify the manufacturer if an article otherwise purchased tax free is diverted to a taxable use.

(c) Evidence required in support of tax-free sales—(1) Purchasers required to be registered. Every purchaser who is required to be registered (see § 48.4222(a)-1) shall furnish to the seller, as evidence in support of each tax-free sale made by the seller to such purchaser, the exempt purpose for which the article or articles are being purchased and the registration number of the purchaser. Such information must be in writing and may be noted on the purchase order or other document furnished by the purchaser to the seller in connection with each sale.

(2) Purchasers not required to be registered. For the evidence which purchasers not required to register must furnish to the seller in support of each tax-free sale made by the seller to such purchasers, see paragraph (b) of § 48.4221-3 for sales or resales to a foreign purchaser for export, paragraph (d) of § 48.4221-4 for sales of supplies to vessels or aircraft, paragraph (c) of § 48.4221-5 for sales to State and local governments, and paragraph (c) of § 48.4222(b)-1 for sales and purchases by the United States.

[T.D. 6687, 28 FR 11782, Nov. 5, 1963, as amended by T.D. 7834, 47 FR 42345, Sept. 27, 1982; T.D. 8036, 50 FR 29963, July 23, 1985; T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17160, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9604, 77 FR 72938, Dec. 7, 2012]

§ 48.4221-2 Tax-free sale of articles to be used for, or resold for, further manufacture.

(a) Further manufacture—(1) In general. Under prescribed conditions, an article subject to tax under Chapter 32 (other than a tire taxable under section 4071, which is given special treatment under section 4221(e)(2) and § 48.4221-7) may be sold tax free by the manufacturer, pursuant to section 4221(a)(1), for use by the purchaser in further manufacture, or for resale by the purchaser to a second purchaser for use by the second purchaser in further manufacture. See section 4221(d)(6) and paragraph (b) of this section for the circumstances under which an article is considered to have been sold for use in further manufacture. See section 6416(b)(3) and § 48.6416(b)-3 for the circumstances under which credit or refund is available when tax-paid articles are used in further manufacture.

(2) Proof of resale for use in further manufacture. See section 4221(b)(1) and paragraph (c) of this section for provisions under which the exemption provided in section 4221(a)(1) shall cease to apply in the case of an article sold by the manufacturer to a purchaser for resale to a second purchaser for use in further manufacture unless the manufacturer receives timely proof of resale for further manufacture.

(b) Circumstances under which an article is considered to have been sold for use in further manufacture. (1) An article shall be treated as sold for use in further manufacture if the article is sold for use by the buyer as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, another article taxable under chapter 32 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) An article is used as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component of, another article if it is incorporated in, or is a part or accessory of, the other article when the other article is sold by the manufacturer. In addition, an article is considered to be used as material in the manufacture of another article if it is consumed in whole or in part in testing such other article. However, an article that is consumed in the manufacturing process other than in testing, so that it is not a physical part of the manufactured article, is not considered to have been used as material in the manufacture of, or as a component part of, another article.

(c) Proof of resale for further manufacture—(1) Cessation of exemption. The exemption provided in section 4221(a)(1) and described in paragraph (a) of this section in respect of an article sold by the manufacturer to a purchaser for resale to a second purchaser for use by the second purchaser in further manufacture shall cease to apply on the first day following the close of the 6-month period which begins on the date of the sale of such article by the manufacturer, or the date of shipment of the article by the manufacturer, whichever is earlier, unless, within such 6-month period, the manufacturer receives proof, in the form prescribed by paragraph (c) (2) of this section, that the article was actually resold by the purchaser to a second purchaser for such use. If, on the first day following the close of the 6-month period, such proof has not been received, the manufacturer shall become liable for tax at that time at the rate in effect when the sale was made but otherwise in the same manner as if the article had been sold by it on such first day at a taxable price equivalent to that at which the article was actually sold. If the manufacturer later obtains such proof, it may file a claim for refund or credit of this tax. The payment of this tax by the manufacturer is not considered an overpayment by the subsequent manufacturer or producer for which the subsequent manufacturer or producer is entitled to a credit or refund under section 6416(b)(3). See section 4221(d)(6) and paragraph (b) of this section for the circumstances under which an article is considered to have been sold for use in further manufacture.

(2) Proof of resale—(i) Certificate of purchaser. The proof of resale to be received by the manufacturer, as required under section 4221(b)(1), may consist of either a copy of the invoice of the manufacturer's vendee directed to his purchaser which discloses the certificate of registry number held by each party or a statement described below. In the case of an invoice of manufacturer's vendee, it must appear from such invoice (or by statement attached thereto) that the article was in fact resold for use in further manufacture. In lieu of such an invoice, proof of resale may consist of a statement, executed and signed by the manufacturer's vendee. Such statement shall be in substantially the following form:

Statement of Manufacturer's Vendee

(To support tax-free sales of taxable articles to a purchaser for resale to a second purchaser for use in further manufacture (section 4221(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code).)

(Date) __________________________, 19____.

The undersigned, or the ______________________________________ (Name of manufacturer's vendee if other than undersigned), of which I am __________ (Title), holds certificate of registry No. ____, issued by the District Director of Internal Revenue at __________________.

The article or articles specified below or on the reverse side hereof were purchased tax free by me, or by ________________________________ (Name of manufacturer's vendee if other than undersigned), on __________ (Date) and were thereafter resold to a purchaser who holds certificate of registry No. ____, issued by the District Director of Internal Revenue at __________________, for use by it as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part or parts of, an article or articles taxable under chapter 32 of the Internal Revenue Code, or, if the article or articles are automobile parts or accessories (to which section 4061(b) applies) or gasoline, for use by it as material (for nonfuel uses in the case of gasoline) in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part or parts of, any article or articles.

The undersigned, or __________________________________ (Name of manufacturer's vendee if other than undersigned), has in my/its possession proof of tax-free resale of such article or articles in the form of related purchase orders and sales invoices, and proof of tax-free resale will be retained by me or ____________________________________ (Name of manufacturer's vendee if other than undersigned), for at least 3 years from the date of this statement, and will be made readily available for inspection by Government officers during such 3-year period.

I have not previously executed a statement in respect of such certificate of resale, and I understand that the fraudulent use of this statement may subject me and all parties making such fraudulent use of this statement to a fine of not more than $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

(Signature) (Address)

(ii) Period covered. Any statement executed and signed by the manufacturer's vendee, as provided in subdivision (i) of this paragraph (c)(2), may be executed with respect to any one or more articles purchased tax free from a manufacturer and resold for use in further manufacture within the 6-month period prescribed in section 4221 (a)(1) and paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Such statement (or other prescribed proof of resale) must be retained for inspection by the district director as provided in section 6001.

(Sec. 4222 (72 Stat. 1284; 26 U.S.C. 422); secs. 4051, 4052, 4061 and 7805 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (96 Stat. 2174, 2175 and 2173; 68A Stat. 917; 26 U.S.C. 4051, 4052, 4061, and 7805) and secs. 522 and 523 of the Highway Revenue Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-424, 96 Stat. 2185, 2186))

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 7681, 45 FR 13728, Mar. 3, 1980; T.D. 7753, 46 FR 2999, Jan. 13, 1981; T.D. 7882, 48 FR 14362, Apr. 4, 1983; T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996]

§ 48.4221-3 Tax-free sale of articles for export, or for resale by the purchaser to a second purchaser for export.

(a) In general. (1) An article subject to tax under Chapter 32 of the Code may be sold tax free by the manufacturer, pursuant to section 4221(a)(2) and this section, for export, or for resale by the purchaser to a second purchaser for export. See paragraph (a)(10) of § 48.0-2 for the meaning of the term “export”. An article may be sold tax free by the manufacturer under the provisions of this section only if the person to whom the manufacturer sells the article intends either to export the article or to resell it to a person who intends to export it. An article may not be sold tax free under the provisions of this section by a manufacturer to a purchaser for resale to a second purchaser which does not intend to export the article itself but plans to resell it to a third purchaser for export. See section 6416 (b)(2)(A) and paragraph (b)(1) of § 48.6416(b)-2 for the circumstances under which credit or refund of tax is available where tax-paid articles are exported from the United States.

(2) If an article, otherwise taxable under Chapter 32 of the Code:

(i) Is sold tax free by the manufacturer pursuant to section 4221(a)(2) and this section, and

(ii) Is returned subsequently to the United States in an unused and undamaged condition,

then the importer is liable for the tax imposed by Chapter 32 on the subsequent sale or use of the article in the United States. The provisions of this paragraph (a)(2) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).Q, a U.S. motor vehicle manufacturer, previously sold a truck chassis to R, a company in Canada. The sale was tax free under section 4221(a)(2). R mounted a truck body on the truck chassis and sold the completed vehicle to S. Thereafter S sold the completed new vehicle to T who imported the vehicle into the United States and sold it. The sale of the completed truck subjects T to an excise tax liability under section 4061(a)(1) with respect to both the body and the chassis.

Example (2).X, a U.S. manufacturer of trucks, sold a trash collection truck to Y, a company in France. The sale was tax free under section 4221(a)(2). The truck was sold by Y to the City of Nice, France. After initial use, the city determined that the truck was not suited for its needs and resold the truck to X. X returned the truck to the United States where it was resold. The resale of the truck by X does not subject X to an excise tax liability under section 4061(a)(1).

(b) Sales or resales to a foreign purchaser for export. In the case of sales or resales to a foreign purchaser for export, where the first purchaser or the second purchaser is located in a foreign country or possession of the United States, such purchaser is not required to register as provided in section 4222(a) and § 48.4222(a)-1. To establish the right to sell articles tax free for export to a purchaser who is not registered and who is located in a foreign country or a possession of the United States, the manufacturer must obtain from such purchaser at the time title to the article passes or at the time of shipment, whichever is earlier, either:

(1) A written order or contract of sale showing that the manufacturer is to ship the article to a foreign destination; or

(2) Where delivery by the manufacturer is to be made within the United States, a statement from the purchaser showing:

(i) That the article is purchased either to fill existing or future orders for delivery to a foreign destination or for resale to another person engaged in the business of exporting who will export the article, and

(ii) That such article will be transported to its foreign destination in due course prior to use or further manufacture and prior to any resale except for export.

See section 4221(b) and paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section for requirements as to timely proof of exportation and cessation of the exemption for export unless the evidence to show actual exportation has been received by the manufacturer.

(c) Cessation of exemption. The exemption provided in section 4221(a)(2) and paragraph (a) of this section for an article sold by the manufacturer for export or for resale by the purchaser to a second purchaser for export shall cease to apply on the first day following the close of the 6-month period which begins on the date of the sale of the article by the manufacturer, or the date of shipment of the article by the manufacturer, whichever is earlier, unless within the 6-month period the manufacturer receives proof, in the form prescribed by paragraph (d) of this section, that the article was actually exported. If, on the first day following the close of the 6-month period, the proof has not been received, the manufacturer shall become liable for tax at that time at the rate in effect when the sale was made but otherwise in the same manner as if the article had been sold by it on such first day at a taxable price equivalent to that at which the article was actually sold.

(d) Proof of exportation. (1) Exportation may be evidenced by:

(i) A copy of the export bill of lading issued by the delivering carrier,

(ii) A certificate by the agent or representative of the export carrier showing actual exportation of the article,

(iii) A certificate of landing signed by a customs officer of the foreign country to which the article is exported,

(iv) Where the foreign country has no customs administration, a statement of the foreign consignee showing receipt of the article, or

(v) Where a department or agency of the United States Government is unable to furnish any one of the foregoing four types of proof of exportation, a statement or certification on the department or agency stationery, executed by an authorized officer, that the listed or identified articles have, in fact, been exported.

(2) In any case where the manufacturer is not the exporter, the manufacturer must have in its possession a statement from the vendee to whom the manufacturer sold the article stating that the article was in fact exported in due course by the vendee or was sold to another person who in due course exported the article. The statement must state what evidence is available to establish that the article was in fact exported in due course prior to use or further manufacture and prior to resale in the United States other than for export. Such evidence must be that described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and the statement must show where such evidence is readily available for inspection by Government officers, and should be in substantially the following form:

Statement of Manufacturer's Vendee

(To support tax-free sales of taxable articles to a purchaser for export or for resale to a second purchaser for export (section 4221(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code).)

The undersigned, or the ______________________________ (Name of manufacturer's vendee if other than undersigned) of which I am __________ (Title) holds certificate of registry No. ____, issued by the District Director of Internal Revenue at __________________.

The article or articles specified below or on the reverse side hereof were purchased tax free by me or by ____________________________ (Name of manufacturer's vendee if other than undersigned) on __________ (Date), and were thereafter exported.

The undersigned or ____________________________ (Name of manufacturer's vendee if other than undersigned) has in my/its possession proof of exportation in respect of such article or articles. The evidence of export available is __________________ and is located at ______________________________ (If other than address below). Such proof of exportation will be retained by ______________________________ (Name of manufacturer's vendee) for at least 3 years from the date of this statement and will be made readily available for inspection by Government officers.

I have not previously executed a statement in respect of the article or articles covered by this statement, and I understand that the fraudulent use of this statement will subject me and all parties making such fraudulent use of this statement to a fine of not more than $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

(Signature) (Address) (Date)

(3) The statement executed and signed by the manufacturer's vendee, as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, may be executed with respect to any one or more articles purchased tax free from a manufacturer and exported within the 6-month period prescribed in section 4221(b)(2) and paragraph (c) of this section. Such statement shall be kept for inspection by the district director as provided in section 6001 and the regulations thereunder.

(e) Vaccines. The exemption provided by section 4221(a)(2) applies after August 10, 1993, to the tax imposed on vaccines by section 4131, but only if—

(1) The vaccine is sold by the manufacturer after August 10, 1993; and

(2) In the case of vaccine sold to, or sold for resale to, the United States or any of its agencies or instrumentalities, the United States or such agency or instrumentality notifies the manufacturer that the vaccine is intended for uses other than the vaccination of persons described in 42 U.S.C. 300aa-11(c)(1)(B)(i)(II) (relating to certain U.S. citizens who are vaccinated outside the United States).

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 7729, 45 FR 72653, Nov. 3, 1980; T.D. 8561, 59 FR 43045, Aug. 22, 1994]

§ 48.4221-4 Tax-free sale of articles for use by the purchaser as supplies for vessels or aircraft.

(a) Supplies for vessels or aircraft—(1) In general. An article subject to tax under Chapter 32 may be sold tax free by the manufacturer, pursuant to section 4221(a)(3) and this section, for use by the purchaser as supplies for vessels or aircraft. See paragraph (b) of this section for the meaning of the term “supplies for vessels or aircraft.” An article may be sold tax free under the provisions of this section only in those cases where the sale of an article by the manufacturer is made directly to the owner, officer, charterer, or authorized agent of a vessel or aircraft for use as supplies for the vessel or aircraft. No sale may be made tax free to a dealer for resale for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft, even though it is known at the time of sale by the manufacturer that the article will be so resold. See section 6416(b)(2)(B) and paragraph (b)(2) of § 48.6416 (b)-2 for circumstances under which credit or refund of tax is available where tax-paid articles are used, or sold for use, as supplies for vessels or aircraft. An article may not be sold tax free under the provisions of this section by the manufacturer to passengers or members of the crew of a vessel or aircraft.

(2) Civil aircraft of foreign registry. In the case of any article sold by the manufacturer for use by the purchaser as supplies for civil aircraft of foreign registry employed in foreign trade or in trade between the United States and any of its possessions, the provisions of this paragraph apply only if the reciprocity requirements of section 4221(e)(1) are met. See paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Meaning of terms—(1) Supplies for vessels or aircraft. The term “supplies for vessels or aircraft” means fuel supplies, ships' stores, sea stores, or legitimate equipment on vessels of war of the United States or of any foreign nation, vessels employed in the fisheries or in the whaling business, or vessels actually engaged in foreign trade or trade between the Atlantic and Pacific ports of the United States or between the United States and any of its possessions.

(2) Fuel supplies, ships' stores, and legitimate equipment. The terms “fuel supplies”, “ships' stores”, and “legitimate equipment” include all articles, materials, supplies, and equipment necessary for the navigation, propulsion, and upkeep of vessels of war of the United States or of any foreign nation, vessels employed in the fisheries or in the whaling business, or vessels actually engaged in foreign trade or in trade between the Atlantic and Pacific ports of the United States or between the United States and any of its possessions, even though such vessels may make intermediate stops in the United States. The term does not include supplies for vessels engaged in trade (i) between domestic ports in the Atlantic Ocean and the Gulf of Mexico, (ii) between domestic ports on the Pacific Ocean, (iii) between domestic ports on the Great Lakes, or (iv) on the inland waterways of the United States.

(3) Sea stores. The term “sea stores” includes any article purchased for use or consumption by the passengers or crew, or both, of a vessel during its voyage.

(4) Vessels. The term “vessel” includes (i) every description of watercraft or other contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on water, (ii) civil aircraft registered in the United States and employed in foreign trade or in trade between the United States and any of its possessions, and (iii) civil aircraft registered in a foreign country and employed in foreign trade or in trade between the United States and any of its possessions.

(5) Vessels of war of the United States or of any foreign nation. The term “vessels of war of the United States or of any foreign nation” includes (i) every description of watercraft or other contrivance used, or capable of being used, as a means of transportation on water and constituting equipment of the armed forces (including the U.S. Coast Guard and U.S. National Guard) of the United States or of a foreign nation, and (ii) aircraft owned by the United States or by any foreign nation and constituting equipment of the armed forces thereof. For purposes of this section, vessels or aircraft owned by armed forces are not considered to be equipment of such armed forces while on lease or loan to an organization that is not part of the armed forces.

(6) Vessels used in fisheries or whaling business. The exemption provided by section 4221(a)(3) and paragraph (a) of this section in the case of articles sold for the prescribed use on vessels employed in the fisheries or whaling business is limited to articles sold by the manufacturer for such use on vessles while employed, and to the extent employed, exclusively in the fisheries or in the whaling business. For purposes of this section, vessels engaged in sport fishing are not considered to be employed in the fisheries.

(7) Civil aircraft. The exemption provided by section 4221(a)(3) and paragraph (a) of this section relating to supplies for vessels or aircraft, with respect to civil aircraft, extends only to civil aircraft when employed in foreign trade, or in trade between the United States and any of its possessions. Sales of supplies to civil aircraft when engaged in trade between the Atlantic and the Pacific ports of the United States are not exempt from the tax imposed under Chapter 32. See section 4221(e)(1) and paragraph (c) of this section for requirement of reciprocal exemption in the case of a civil aircraft registered in a foreign country.

(8) Trade. The term “trade” includes the transportation of persons or property for hire and the making of the necessary preparations for such transportation. The term “trade” also includes the transportation of property on a vessel or aircraft owned or chartered by the owner of the property in connection with the purchase, sale, or exchange of the property in a commercial business operation. However, a vessel owned or chartered by a company and used in the transportation of personnel or property of such company to or from its business properties located in a foreign country, or in a possession of the United States, is not engaged in “trade”.

(c) Reciprocity required in the case of civil aircraft. The exemption provided by section 4221(a)(3) and paragraph (a) of this section with respect to the sales of supplies for civil aircraft registered in a foreign country is further limited in that the privilege of exemption may be granted only if the Secretary of Commerce advises the Secretary of the Treasury that the foreign country allows, or will allow, substantially the same reciprocal privileges. If a foreign country discontinues the allowance of such substantially reciprocal exemption, the exemption allowed by the United States will not apply after the Secretary of the Treasury is notified by the Secretary of Commerce of the discontinuance of the exemption allowed by the foreign country.

(d) Evidence required to establish exemption—(1) In general. The exemption provided in section 4221(a)(3) and paragraph (a) of this section for articles sold for use by the purchaser as supplies for vessels or aircraft applies only (i) if both the manufacturer and purchaser are registered under the provisions of section 4222 or (ii) the purchaser or both the manufacturer and the purchaser are not registered but have satisfied the provisions of paragraph (d)(2) of this section. See paragraph (c) of § 48.4221-1 for the evidence required to establish exemption where the purchaser is registered pursuant to section 4222 and § 48.4222(a)-1.

(2) Exemption certificates for use in support of tax-free sales of supplies for vessels and aircraft. (i) In order to establish exemption from tax under section 4221(a)(3) in those instances where the purchaser or both the manufacturer and purchaser are not registered under section 4222, the manufacturer must obtain (prior to or at the time of the sale) from the owner, charterer, or authorized agent of the vessel or aircraft and retain in the manufacturer's possession a properly executed exemption certificate in the form prescribed by subdivision (iii) of this paragraph (d)(2). If articles are sold tax free for use as supplies for civil aircraft employed in foreign trade or in trade between the United States and any of its possessions, the exemption certificate must show the name of the country in which the aircraft is registered.

(ii) Where only occasional sales of articles are made to a purchaser for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft, a separate exemption certificate shall be furnished for each order. However, where sales are regularly or frequently made to a purchaser for such exempt use, a certificate covering all orders for a specified period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters will be acceptable. Such certificates and proper records of invoices, orders, etc., relative to tax-free sales must be kept for inspection by the district director as provided in section 6001 and the regulations thereunder.

(iii) Acceptable form of exemption certificate. The following form of exemption certificate will be acceptable for the purposes of this section and must by adhered to in substance:

Exemption Certificate

(For use by purchasers of articles for use as fuel supplies, ships stores, sea stores, of legitimate equipment on certain vessels or aircraft (sections 4221 and 4222 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954).) (Date) __________________________, 19____.

I, the undersigned purchaser, hereby certify that I am the ________________ (Owner, charterer, or authorized agent) of __________ (Name of company and vessel) and that: (Check applicable type of certificate)

____ the article or articles specified in the accompanying order, or on the reverse side hereof, (or) ____ all orders placed by the purchaser for the period commencing (Date) ______ and ending (Date) ______ (period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters), will be used only for fuel supplies, ships' stores, sea stores, or legitimate equipment on a vessel belonging to one of the following classes of vessels to which section 4221 of the Internal Revenue Code applies: (Check class to which vessel belongs.)

(1) Vessels engaged in foreign trade.

(2) Vessels engaged in trade between the Atlantic and Pacific ports of the United States.

(3) Vessels engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions.

(4) Vessels employed in the fisheries or whaling business.

(5) Vessels of war of the United States or a foreign nation.

If the articles are purchased for use on civil aircraft engaged in trade as specified in (1) or (3) above, state the name of the country in which the aircraft is registered:

I understand that if the articles are used for any purpose other than as stated in this certificate, or are resold or otherwise disposed of, I must report such fact to the manufacturer. I understand that this certificate may not be used in purchasing articles tax free for use as fuel supplies, etc., on pleasure vessels, or on any type of aircraft except that (i) civil aircraft employed in foreign trade or trade between the United States and any of its possessions, and (ii) aircraft owned by the United States or any foreign country and constituting a part of the armed forces thereof.

I understand that the fraudulent use of this certificate to secure exemption will subject me and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with costs of prosecution. I also understand that I must be prepared to establish by satisfactory evidence the purpose for which the article was used.

(Signature) (Address)

§ 48.4221-5 Tax-free sale of articles to State and local governments for their exclusive use.

(a) In general. An article (excluding an automobile subject to tax under section 4064) subject to tax under Chapter 32 of the Code may be sold tax free by the manufacturer, pursuant to section 4221(a)(4) and this section, to a State or local government for the exclusive use of such State or local government. See paragraph (b) of this section for the meaning of the term “State or local government”. An article may be sold tax free by the manufacturer under this paragraph only in those cases where the sale is made directly to a State or local government for its exclusive use. Accordingly, no sale may be made tax free to a dealer for resale to a State or local government for its exclusive use, even though it is known at the time of sale by the manufacturer that the article will be so resold. A sale of an article to a State or local government for resale is not considered to be a sale for the “exclusive use” of the State or local government, within the meaning of section 4221(a)(4), and, therefore, such sales may not be made tax free. Such sales are not exempt regardless of whether the resales are made to government employees, or the fact that the article is an item of equipment the employee is required to possess in carrying out his duties. For example, pistols or revolvers may not be sold tax free to a State or local government for resale to its police officers. See section 6416(b)(2)(C), and paragraph (b)(3) of § 48.6416(b)-2, for the circumstances under which credit or refund of tax is available where tax-paid articles are sold for the exclusive use of a State or local government.

(b) State or local government. The term “State or local government” includes any State, the District of Columbia, and any political subdivision of any of the foregoing.

(c) Evidence required in support of tax-free sales to States or local governments. (1) The evidence required in support of a tax-free sale to the State or local government shall, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, consist of a certificate, executed and signed by an officer or employee authorized by the State or local government to execute and sign the certificate. If it is impracticable to furnish a separate certificate for each order or contract because of a frequency of purchases, a certificate covering all orders between given dates (such period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters) will be acceptable. The certificates and proper records of invoices, orders, etc., relative to tax-free sales must be retained by the manufacturer as provided in section 6001 and the regulations thereunder. The certificate shall be in substantially the following form:

Exemption Certificate (For use by States and local governments (section 4221(a)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code)) (Date) __________________________, 19____.

I hereby certify that I am __________________ (Title of Officer) of __________________ (State or local government) that I am authorized to execute this certificate; and that:

(Check applicable type of certificate) ____ the article or articles specified in the accompanying order, or on the reverse side hereof, (or) ____ all orders placed by the purchaser for the period commencing __________________ (Date) and ending __________________ (Date) (period not to exceed 12 calendar quarters), are, or will be, purchased from __________________ (Name of manufacturer) for the exclusive use of __________________ (Governmental unit) of __________________ (State or local government).

I understand that the exemption from tax in the case of sales of articles under this exemption certificate to a State, etc., is limited to the sale of articles purchased for its exclusive use. I understand that the fraudulent use of this certificate for the purpose of securing this exemption will subject me and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine of not more than $10,000, or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with costs of prosecution.

(Signature) (Address)

(2) A purchase order, provided that all of the information required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section is included therein, is acceptable in lieu of a separate exemption certificate.

(d) Resale of articles purchased tax free by a State or local government. If articles purchased tax free for the exclusive use of a State or local government are prior to use by the State or local government resold under circumstances that do not amount to an exclusive use by the State or local government (such as tires that are resold by a volunteer fire department to volunteer firemen), the parties responsible in the State or local government are required to inform the manufacturer, producer, or importer from whom the articles were purchased that they were disposed of in a manner that did not amount to an exclusive use by the State or local government. A willful failure to supply the manufacturer, producer, or importer with the information required by this subparagraph will subject responsible parties to the penalties provided by section 7203.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 8036, 50 FR 29963, July 23, 1985; T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996]

§ 48.4221-6 Tax-free sales of articles to nonprofit educational organizations.

(a) In general. An article (excluding an automobile subject to tax under section 4064) subject to tax under Chapter 32 of the Code may be sold tax free by the manufacturer, pursuant to section 4221(a)(5) and this section, to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use. See paragraph (b) of this section for the meaning of the term “nonprofit educational organization”. An article may be sold tax free by the manufacturer under this paragraph only in those cases where the sale of an article by the manufacturer is made directly to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use. Accordingly, no sale may be made tax free to a dealer for resale to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use even though it is known at the time of sale by the manufacturer that the article will be so resold. See section 6416(b)(2)(D), and paragraph (b)(4) of § 48.6416(b)-2, for the circumstances under which credit or refund of tax is available where tax-paid articles are sold for the exclusive use of a nonprofit educational organization.

(b) Nonprofit educational organization. The term “nonprofit educational organization” means an organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii) that is exempt from income tax under section 501(a). Section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii) describes an “educational organization” as one that normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly enrolled body of pupils or students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are regularly carried on. The term also includes a school operated as an activity of an organization described in section 501(c)(3) which is exempt from income tax under section 501(a), provided the primary function of such school is the presentation of formal instruction and provided such school normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly enrolled body of pupils or students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are regularly carried on.

(c) Evidence required in support of tax-free sales to nonprofit educational organizations. Every nonprofit educational organization purchasing tax free under section 4221(a)(5) must furnish the following information to the seller:

(1) The exempt purpose for which the article or articles are being purchased, and

(2) Its registration number, and the district director's office that issued the registration number.

Such information must be in writing and may be noted on the purchase order or other document furnished by the purchaser to the seller in connection with each sale “except that a single notification containing the information described in this paragraph may cover all sales by the seller to the purchaser made during a designated period not to exceed 12 successive calendar quarters.”. See paragraph (c) of § 48.4221-1 for the evidence required to establish exemption.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 7686, 45 FR 17574, Mar. 19, 1980; T.D. 8036, 50 FR 29963, July 23, 1985]

§ 48.4221-7 Tax-free sales of tires and tubes.

(a) In general. A manufacturer of tires or inner tubes that are taxable under section 4071 may sell such articles tax free if the sale meets the conditions prescribed in section 4221(e)(2) and paragraph (a) (1) and (2) of this section. The following are conditions under which articles taxable under section 4071 may be sold tax free:

(1) The tire or tube is sold for use by the purchaser for sale on or in connection with the sale of another article manufactured or produced by the purchaser; and

(2) The other article is to be sold in a tax-free sale by the purchaser for export, for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft, to a State or local government for its exclusive use, or to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use, or the other article is to be sold by the purchaser for any of such purposes in a sale which would be tax-free but for the fact that the other article is not subject to tax under Chapter 32 of the Code.

See section 6416(b)(2)(F) and paragraph (b)(6) of § 48.6416(b)-2 for the circumstances under which credit or refund of tax is available for tax-paid tires or tubes that are resold for the purposes described in this paragraph (a).

(b) Registration requirements. In order to effect a tax-free sale under section 4221(e)(2)(A), both the manufacturer and purchaser (except for purchasers who are exempt from the registration requirement under § 48.4222(b)-1) must be registered with the District Director of Internal Revenue as required in § 48.4222(a)-1. At the time of sale, the registration number assigned to the purchaser by the district director together with the purpose for which the article was purchased must be shown on (or attached to) the invoice, purchase order, or other document used for the sale.

(c) Proof required in support of tax-free sales of tires and tubes—(1) Cessation of exemption. The exemption allowed under section 4221(e)(2)(A) and this section on the sale of a tire or inner tube shall cease to apply unless, within the 6-month period which begins on the date of the tax-free sale by the manufacturer of such article (or, if earlier, on the date of shipment by such manufacturer), the manufacturer receives proof from the purchaser that such article has been used on or in connection with the sale of another article which has been sold for one of the tax-exempt purposes referred to in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. If the manufacturer has not received the required information within such 6-month period, the temporary suspension of the liability for the payment of the tax ceases, and the manufacturer shall include the tax on the sale of the tire or inner tube in his return for the period in which the 6-month period expires. If the required information is received after the expiration of the 6-month period, the manufacturer may file a claim for credit or refund of tax so paid on his sale of the tire or inner tube.

(2) Required information. The information which the manufacturer must receive within the 6-month period, referred to in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, shall be in substantially the following form:

Statement of Manufacturer's Vendee (To support tax-free sales of tires or inner tubes by the manufacturer thereof for use on or in connection with the sale of another article (section 4221(e)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code)) (Date) ____________________________, 19____.

I certify that I, or the __________________, (Name of purchaser if other than undersigned) of which I am __________________ (Title) am/is in the business of selling __________________ (Products handled) and hold(s) certificate of registry No. ____ issued by the District Director of Internal Revenue at __________________; and that the tires or inner tubes which were purchased or shipped on ____________________, 19____, as specified on the back hereof, have been used on or in connection with the sale of __________________ (Products sold) by such undersigned.

Check one ____ for export by __________________ (Name of carrier) to __________________ (Name of foreign country or U.S. possession) and was so exported on ____________________, 19____ (Date). (A copy of the bill of lading or other proof of exportation is attached.) ____ for use as supplies on __________________ (Name of vessel or aircraft) which is registered in __________________ (Name of country in which vessel or aircraft is registered). ____ to __________________ (Name of State or local government). ____ to __________________ (Name and address of the nonprofit educational organization).

I understand that the fraudulent use of this certificate for the purpose of substantiating the tax-free sale will subject me and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to revocation of the privilege of purchasing articles tax free and to a fine of not more than $10,000 or to imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with costs of prosecution.

(Signature) (Address)

§ 48.4221-8 Tax-free sales of tires, tubes, and tread rubber used on intercity, local, and school buses.

(a) In general. Under section 4221(e)(5), the taxes imposed by section 4071(a)(1), (3) and (4) shall not apply to sales by a manufacturer, producer, or importer of tires of the type used on highway vehicles or inner tubes for tires sold for use by the purchaser on or in connection with a qualified bus, or to the sales by a manufacturer, producer, or importer of tread rubber sold for use by the purchaser in the recapping or retreading of any tire to be used by the purchaser on or in connection with a qualified bus if the requirements of this section are met.

(b) Meaning of terms—(1) Qualified bus. “Qualified bus” means an intercity, local, or school bus.

(2) Intercity or local bus. “Intercity or local bus” means any automobile bus which is used predominantly (more than 50 percent) in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public if such transportation is scheduled and along regular routes, or if the seating capacity of the bus is at least 20 adults (not including the driver). In determining predominant use, mileage travelled with passengers as well as mileage travelled incidental to such passenger transportation, such as “deadheading”, is counted. Under the first alternative, the size of the bus is not relevant for purposes of determining whether or not the use of the bus qualifies for the exemption. Under the second alternative, for non-scheduled bus operations, such as that provided by charter buses, the exemption is available only if the bus has a passenger seating capacity of at least 20 adults and the transportation is available to the general public. For purposes of determining whether the bus has a seating capacity of at least 20 adults, the bus driver is not included. Service is available to the general public if bus service is used in a passenger transportation business in which service is offered to more than a limited number of persons, groups, or organizations.

(3) School bus. “School bus” means any automobile bus in which “substantially all” (85 percent or more) of the use involves transporting students and employees of a school. Incidental use (deadheading) of the school bus without passengers to or from a point to which students or employees of school are transported is considered to be a use which involves transporting students or employees of schools. A school is any educational organization which normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly enrolled body of pupils or students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are carried on. Tax-exempt schools, taxable schools, and a private contractor who operates a bus for tax-exempt or a taxable school may qualify for the tax exemption if all the requirements of this section are met.

(b) Registration requirements for tires, tubes, and tread rubber; vendees purchasing tax free. The provisions of section 4221(e)(5) do not apply with respect to any sale unless the manufacturer and the vendee are registered as required under section 4222, and unless they comply with all the requirements under that section relating to tax-free sales. See § 48.4222 (a)-1. Persons not required to be registered under section 4222(b) may purchase articles tax free by following the same procedures that apply to them in the case of other tax-free sales. See § 48.4222(b)-1. A person's registration and right to sell or purchase articles tax free may be revoked or suspended as provided in § 48.4222(c).1. Such a revocation or suspension shall be in addition to any other penalties that may apply.

(c) Cross reference. For credit or refund, see section 6416(b)(2).

(d) Information; records—(1) Information to be furnished to purchaser. A manufacturer selling tires, tubes, or tread rubber tax free under section 4221(e)(5) shall indicate to the purchaser that the purchaser is obtaining the tires or tubes tax free for the purpose of use on or in connection with a qualified bus, and that the purchaser is obtaining the tread rubber tax free for use in the recapping or retreading of tires to be used by the purchaser on or in connection with a qualified bus. The manufacturer may transmit this information by any convenient means, such as coding of sales invoices, provided that the information is presented with sufficient particularity so that the purchaser is informed that the purchaser has obtained the tires, tubes, and tread rubber tax free.

(2) Records of manufacturer. A manufacturer selling tires, tubes, or tread rubber tax free under section 4221(e)(5) shall maintain in its records the identity of the purchaser, a signed statement of the exempt purpose for purchasing the tires, tubes, or tread rubber, and the quantity of tires, tubes, or tread rubber sold tax free to each purchaser.

(3) Records of purchaser. A person purchasing tires, tubes, or tread rubber tax free under section 4221(e)(5) must maintain sufficient records to establish that the tires, tubes, or tread rubber purchased tax free has actually been used for that purpose.

(e) Duty of selling manufacturer to ascertain validity of tax-free sale. The selling manufacturer is not relieved of liability under the provisions of section 4221(e)(5) by reason of section 4221(c) for the tax imposed by section 4061(b) if at the time of sale the selling manufacturer has knowledge or reason to believe that the tires, tubes, or tread rubber sold by it to the purchaser are not intended for use on an intercity, local, or school bus, or that the purchaser has failed to register, or that its registration has been revoked or suspended.

(f) Effective date. Section 4221(e)(5) (relating to tires, tubes, and tread rubber) applies to sales on or after December 1, 1978. The sale of tires, tubes, or tread rubber sold prior to that date is not exempt from tax under section 4221(e)(5).

[T.D. 7834, 47 FR 42346, Sept. 27, 1982. Redesignated by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996]

§ 48.4222(a)-1 Registration.

(a) General rule. Except as provided in § 48.4222(b)-1, tax-free sales under section 4221 may be made only if the manufacturer, first purchaser, and second purchaser, as the case may be, have been registered by the Internal Revenue Service.

(b) Application instructions. Application for registration under section 4222 must be made in accordance with instructions for Form 637 (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate).

(c) Evidence required in support of tax-free sales. See subparagraph (1) of § 48.4221-1(c) for evidence required in support of tax-free sales to purchasers who are required to be registered.

(d) Failure to register. If either the seller or purchaser is not registered as required by this section of the regulations, tax-free sales may not be made, except as indicated in § 48.4222(b)-1.

(e) Cross references. (1) For exceptions to the requirement for registration, see section 4222(b) and § 48.4222(b)-1.

(2) For revocation or suspension of registration, see § 48.4222(c)-1.

(3) For applicability of section 4222 and these regulations to exemptions provided by sections 4063(b), 4182(b), and 4293, see § 48.4222(d)-1

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996]

§ 48.4222(b)-1 Exceptions to the requirement for registration.

(a) State and local governments. The Internal Revenue Service will not register State or local governments under section 4222. To establish the right to sell articles tax free to a State or local government, the manufacturer must obtain the information described in § 48.4221-5(c).

(b) Sales or resales to foreign purchasers for export. Persons whose principal place of business is not within the United States may, but are not required to, register in order to purchase articles tax free for export. To establish the right to sell articles tax free for export to a purchaser who is not registered and who is located in a foreign country or a possession of the United States, the manufacturer must obtain the evidence required by paragraph (b) of § 48.4221-3.

(c) United States. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of § 48.4222(d)-1 (relating to sales to the American Red Cross) the registration requirements of the regulations in this part do not apply to purchases and sales by the United States or any of its agencies or instrumentalities. The evidence required in support of such tax-free purchases and sales is a notation on the purchase order or other document furnished to the seller clearly indicating that the article or articles are being purchased tax free as authorized by Chapter 32 of the Code.

(d) Supplies for vessels and aircraft. An article subject to an excise tax imposed by Chapter 32 of the Code may be sold tax free by the manufacturer under the provisions of § 48.4221-4 for use by the purchaser as supplies for a vessel or aircraft if both the manufacturer and the purchaser are registered under the provisions of § 48.4222(a)-1. The article also may, on or after July 1, 1965, be sold tax free for such use even though neither the manufacturer nor the purchaser is so registered if the provisions of paragraph (d) of § 48.4221-4 are satisfied.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17160, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.4222(c)-1 Revocation or suspension of registration.

The district director or the Director of International Operations, as the case may be, is authorized to revoke or temporarily suspend, upon written notice, the registration of any person and the right of such person to sell or purchase articles tax free under section 4221 of the Code in any case in which he finds that (1) the registrant is not a bona fide manufacturer, or a purchaser reselling direct to manufacturers or exporters; (2) the registrant is for some other reason not eligible under these regulations to retain a Certificate of Registry; (3) the registrant has used his registration to avoid the payment of any tax imposed by Chapter 32 of the Code, or to postpone or interfere in any manner with the collection of such tax; (4) such revocation or suspension is necessary to protect the revenue; or (5) the registrant failed to comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) of § 48.4222 (a)-1, relating to the evidence required to support a tax-free sale. The revocation or suspension of registration is in addition to any other penalty that may apply under the law for any act or failure to act.

(Secs. 4222 (72 Stat. 1284; 26 U.S.C. 4222) and 7805 (68A Stat. 917; 26 U.S.C. 7805) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954); secs. 4051, 4052, 4061 and 7805 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (96 Stat. 2174, 2175 and 2173; 68A Stat. 917; 26 U.S.C. 4051, 4052, 4061, and 7805) and secs. 522 and 523 of the Highway Revenue Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-424, 96 Stat. 2185, 2186))

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 7753, 46 FR 2999, Jan. 13, 1981; T.D. 7882, 48 FR 14362, Apr. 4, 1983]

§ 48.4222(d)-1 Registration in the case of certain other exemptions.

The registration procedure set forth in § 48.4222 (a)-1 also applies in the following cases:

(a) Tax-free sales on or after March 10, 1980, under section 4064(b)(1)(C) (relating to emergency vehicles). Both the vendor and vendee (other than a State or local government) must be registered.

(b) Tax-free sales under section 4293 to any corporation created by Act of Congress to act in matters of relief under the treaty of Geneva of August 22, 1864 (American Red Cross) for its exclusive use. Both the vendor and the vendee must be registered.

[T.D. 7536, 43 FR 13522, Mar. 31, 1978, as amended by T.D. 7834, 47 FR 42347, Sept. 27, 1982; T.D. 8036, 50 FR 29963, July 23, 1985; T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996]

§ 48.4223-1 Special rules relating to further manufacture.

(a) Purchasing manufacturer to be treated as the manufacturer. For purposes of Chapter 32, a manufacturer or producer to whom an article is sold or resold tax free under section 4221(a)(1) of the Code for use by it in further manufacture shall be treated as the manufacturer or producer of such article. If a manufacturer who purchases an article tax free for further manufacture does not use the article for further manufacture, the sale of the article by it, or its use of the article other than in further manufacture, shall, for purposes of the taxes imposed by Chapter 32 of the Code, be treated as a sale or use of the article by the manufacturer thereof. See paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section for determination of taxable sale price where an article purchased tax free for further manufacture is resold, or used other than in further manufacture.

(b) Computation of tax. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the tax liability referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall be based on the price for which the article was sold by the purchasing manufacturer, or, where the manufacturer uses the article for a purpose other than which it was purchased, the tax shall be based on the price at which such or similar articles are sold, in the ordinary course of trade by manufacturers, producers, or importers thereof. See section 4218(e) and § 48.4218-5.

(c) Election. (1) Instead of computing the tax as described under paragraph (b) of this section, the purchasing manufacturer who has incurred liability for tax on its sale or use of an article as provided by paragraph (a) of this section may compute the tax incurred under Chapter 32 by using as the tax base either the price for which the article was sold to it by the first purchaser, if any, or the price for which such article was sold by the actual manufacturer, producer, or importer of such article. The purchasing manufacturer must have in its possession information upon which to substantiate such basis for tax. For purposes of this paragraph, the price for which the article was sold by the actual manufacturer or by the first purchaser shall be determined as provided in section 4216 and the regulations thereunder. However, such price shall not be adjusted for any discount, rebate, allowance, return, or repossession of a container or covering, or otherwise.

(2) The election under this paragraph shall be in the form of a statement attached to the return reporting the tax applicable to the sale or use of the article which gave rise to such tax liability. Such election, once made, may not be revoked.

§ 48.4225-1 Exemption of articles manufactured or produced by Indians.

The exemption provided under section 4225 applies to articles taxable under Chapter 32 of the Code that are of native Indian handicraft and are manufactured or produced by Indians on Indian reservations or in Indian schools, or manufactured or produced by Indians who are under the jurisdiction of the United States Government in Alaska. For purposes of this section, Indians who reside on allotments of land adjacent to an Indian reservation and are subject to the supervision, control, and jurisdiction of the Bureau of Indian Affairs are considered to be “Indians on Indian reservations”.

Subpart O Refunds and Other Administrative Provisions of Special Application to Retailers and Manufacturers Taxes
§ 48.6412-1 Floor stocks credit or refund.

(a) In general. This section sets forth the procedures to be followed in claiming the credit or refund authorized by section 6412 for manufacturers excise taxes paid in respect of certain articles held by dealers as floor stocks on October 1, 1988. See § 48.6412-2 for definitions of the following terms when used in this section: “floor stocks”, “inventory date”, “dealer”, “held by a dealer”, “old rate”, “new rate”, “dealer request limitation date”, “claim limitation date”, and “tax paid”. See § 48.6412-3 for determining the amount of tax paid on articles that are held as floor stocks. The manufacturers excise taxes for which credit or refund may be claimed under this section are those imposed by section 4071, relating to tires of the type used on highway vehicles; and section 4081, relating to gasoline. For definition of the term “highway vehicle”, see § 48.4061(a)-1(d).

(b) Computation of the amount of floor stocks credit or refund. The amount of floor stocks credit or refund which may be claimed by the manufacturer under section 6412(a)(1) may not exceed an amount equal to the difference between the tax paid by the manufacturer on the sale of the article and the amount of tax made applicable to the article on the inventory date. No interest is allowable with respect to any amount of tax credited or refunded under section 6412 and this section. In applying the floor stocks credit or refund provisions, the date on which the manufacturer paid the tax with respect to the article held as floor stocks is not relevant. Thus, the period of limitations provided in section 6511 with respect to claims for credit or refund does not apply; however, see paragraph (f) of this section. For definition of the term “manufacturer”, see § 48.0-2(a)(4).

(c) Limitation. Except as provided in § 48.6412-3, no credit or refund is allowable under this section for an amount paid as tax which may be credited or refunded under any provisions of law other than section 6412(a)(1), or which was allowable as a credit or refund under section 6412 with respect to an earlier inventory date.

(d) Relationship between credits or refunds for floor stocks and credits or refunds for price readjustments. The amount which may be credited or refunded for floor stocks and for price readjustments on an article may not in the aggregate exceed the tax paid in respect of the article. A credit or refund computed on the basis of the old tax rate will be allowed with respect to a price readjustment of an article on which a floor stock credit or refund was allowed, but only if the amount of the floor stock credit or refund otherwise allowable was reduced by taking into account such price readjustment, as determined under § 48.6412-3(e). The manufacturer must keep readily available for inspection sufficient records to enable examining officers of the Internal Revenue Service to ascertain the correctness of any claim for credit or refund for a price readjustment of an article on which a floor stock refund was claimed.

(e) Participation of dealers—(1) Request by dealer. On or before the dealer request limitation date, a dealer may submit to a manufacturer a request with respect to a credit or refund allowable under this section for tax paid by the manufacturer with respect to articles held by the dealer as floor stocks. This request may be submitted directly to the manufacturer, or it may be submitted to him indirectly through another dealer in the distribution chain if the request is received by the manufacturer or an authorized agent of the manufacturer on or before the dealer request limitation date.

(2) Requirements for claim by manufacturer. No amount of credit or refund under this section may be claimed by a manufacturer with respect to articles held by a dealer as floor stocks unless—

(i) The claim for the amount is based upon a request submitted by the dealer to the claimant on or before the dealer request limitation date;

(ii) The amount is paid by the claimant to the dealer, or the dealer's written consent to allowance of the credit or refund has been received by the claimant, on or before the claim limitation date; and

(iii) The request by the dealer is supported by an inventory statement, made under the penalties of perjury and signed by the dealer or by the dealer's authorized representative, setting forth the following information:

(A) The name and address of the dealer and of the applicable manufacturer, (if the name and address of the applicable manufacturer is unknown to the dealer, these items may be added by any person in the chain of distribution);

(B) The identification number, if any, of the article, such as a serial, stock, model, type, or class number, or some other suitable means of identification;

(C) A brief description of the article, such as its common name or designation; and

(D) The quantity of articles held by the dealer as floor stocks on the inventory date.

(3) Actual manufacturer unknown. If a dealer addresses a request to the person, who from markings on the article the dealer presumes to be the manufacturer, the request may be treated as made to the actual manufacturer if the actual manufacturer accepts the dealer's request.

(4) Payment to dealer by claimant. Payment may be made directly to the dealer or to the dealer's authorized agent or representative by the claimant or by the claimant's authorized agent or representative. If a claimant pays a dealer through the claimant's agent or representative, the evidence must show that the dealer actually received the payment. If a dealer authorizes the claimant to pay the dealer through the dealer's agent or representative, evidence showing receipt of the payment by the agent or representative will be accepted as proof of actual payment to the dealer. Payment shall be made, at the manufacturer's option, in cash, by check, or by credit to the dealer's account as maintained by the claimant. The amount of the payment which may be made by crediting the dealer's account may not exceed the undisputed debit balance due at the time the credit is made. However, payment may be made in merchandise at the dealer's option with the concurrence of the manufacturer.

(5) Date of performance. The date on which any act described in this paragraph (e) is performed by an agent or representative on behalf of a claimant or dealer is deemed to be the date on which the act is performed by the principal.

(6) Record of inventories. For provisions relating to the record of a dealer's inventories to be kept by the claimant, see paragraph (g) of this section.

(7) Sample written consent. No particular form is prescribed or required for the written consent of the dealer described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section. However, the following is an example of an acceptable consent statement by a dealer:

Consent Statement of Dealer

(For use by dealer in requesting manufacturer, producer, or importer to obtain credit under section 6412 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 with respect to floor stocks.)

I hereby consent to the allowance to the manufacturer, producer, or importer of the floor stocks credit or refund of the excise tax imposed by the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 with respect to the articles in my inventory on __________.

(Name) By (Signature of Officer) (Title) (Date)

(f) Procedure for claiming credit or refund—(1) In general. Each claim for credit or refund under this section shall be filed on or before the applicable claim limitation date, in the manner and subject to the conditions stated in this section and in § 301.6402-2 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration). Either credit or refund, or a combination thereof, may be claimed, but the amount which may be claimed as a credit on a return shall not exceed the total tax liability shown on the return, reduced by the amount of any deposits made under § 48.6302(c)-1 with respect to the return and by any amount of credit claimed on the return pursuant to any provision of law other than section 6412. If the total amount which may be claimed exceeds the amount that may be claimed as credit on a return, the excess amount may be claimed on or before the applicable claim limitation date either as a refund or as a credit on a subsequent return. If credit is claimed the amount of the credit shall be entered as a credit on a timely-filed return of tax. The statement described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section must show the amount and date of each previous and concurrent claim for credit or refund under this section and indicate whether any future claims are expected to be filed.

(2) Supporting evidence to be submitted by the manufacturer. No credit or refund shall be allowed under this section unless there is submitted, in support of the claim for credit or refund, a statement signed by the person making the claim, that describes in general terms the articles covered by the claim, sets forth the method of computing the amount claimed (including a description of any procedures used pursuant to § 48.6412-3), and states that—

(i) The claimant paid to the district director or the director of the internal revenue service center the tax for which credit or refund is claimed;

(ii) The total amount claimed represents payments requested by dealers before the dealer request limitation date;

(iii) The total amount claimed either was paid by the claimant to the dealers, or the claimant received the written consent of the dealers to the allowance of the amount claimed:

(iv) The claimant has in his possession, and available for inspection by internal revenue officers, the evidence with respect to inventories required by paragraph (g)(2) of this section, and any written consents referred to in paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section; and

(v) No other claim for credit or refund under this section has been or will be made by the claimant with respect to any amount covered by the claim.

(g) Evidence to be retained in the manufacturer's records. Every person filing a claim for credit or refund pursuant to this section shall support the claim by keeping as part of the claimant's records—

(1) The dealer's inventory statements required by paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section, to the extent that the articles are covered by the claim;

(2) Records, in respect of the articles held by each dealer, showing—

(i) The name and address of the dealer,

(ii) The quantities of each article held by the dealer as floor stocks by taxable category, for example, by model or type number,

(iii) The amount of tax considered to be paid by the manufacturer with respect to each article held by the dealer, as determined under § 48.6412-3,

(iv) The amount of tax, if any, which the claimant would pay on the sale of each article held by the dealer if the tax were computed at the new rate,

(v) The total amount of reimbursement due the dealer,

(vi) The date on which the claimant received from the dealer the request described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, but only if payment was not made to the dealer before the dealer request limitation date, and

(vii) The date and amount of each payment to a dealer, or the date of receipt by the claimant from the dealer of a written consent, as set forth in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section; and

(3) Any such written consent received from a dealer.

(h) Special rules where the presumed manufacturer is the agent of the actual manufacturer. For purposes of this section, if a manufacturer sells articles tax-paid to a second manufacturer for resale by the second manufacturer under its own brand name, the second manufacturer may perform any acts and keep any records which are a prerequisite to the first manufacturer's filing a claim for floor stocks credit or refund with respect to the articles. If such a procedure is followed, the claim filed by the first manufacturer shall include a statement indicating the name and address of the second manufacturer and the amount of its claim which relates to articles sold to the second manufacturer.

(i) Effect on other claims for credit or refund. If a claim for credit or refund is made pursuant to section 6416 and the regulations thereunder, relating in part to returned sales, sales for export or for exempt use, sales to States, etc., with respect to a tax imposed by section 4071 or section 4081, and if the claim is made with respect to articles sold by the claimant before the date on which the tax is reduced in rate or terminated, the claim shall be based on the new rate of tax unless the claimant can establish that the tax was imposed at the old rate and that no refund or credit under this section was allowed with respect to the articles. See, however, paragraph (d) of this section.

(j) Other applicable provisions. All provisions of law, including penalties, applicable in respect of the taxes imposed by sections 4071 and 4081 shall, insofar as applicable and not inconsistent with section 6412, apply in respect to the credits and refunds provided for in section 6412 to the same extent as if the credits or refunds constituted overpayments of the taxes. For provisions under which timely mailing is treated as timely filing, and for provisions applicable to the time for performance of acts when the last day falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday, see §§ 301.7502-1 and 301.7503-1, respectively, of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32019, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6412-2 Definitions for purposes of floor stocks credit or refund.

For purposes of section 6412 and the regulations thereunder—

(a) Floor stocks. The term “floor stocks” means any article subject to the tax imposed by section 4071 or section 4081 which—

(1) Is sold by the manufacturer (otherwise than in a tax-free sale) before October 1, 1988,

(2) Is held by a dealer at the first moment on October 1, 1988, and has not been used, and

(3) Is intended for sale.

However, the term “floor stocks” does not include gasoline in retail stocks held at the place where intended to be sold at retail, nor with respect to gasoline held for sale by a producer or importer of gasoline.

(b) Inventory date. The term “inventory date” means the first moment on the date on which an article is treated as floor stocks within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Dealer. The term “dealer” includes a wholesaler, jobber, distributor, or retailer.

(d) Held by a dealer—(1) In general. (i) An article is considered as “held by a dealer” if title to the article has passed to the dealer (whether or not delivery to the dealer has been made), and if, for purposes of consumption, title to or possession of the article has not at any time been transferred to any person other than a dealer.

(ii) Floor samples, demonstrators, and articles undergoing repair (whether or not on the dealer's premises) that are carried in stock to be sold as new articles, and articles purchased tax-paid by a manufacturer or a sales subsidiary and held by the person on the inventory date for resale as such, will be considered as unused and held by a dealer, if title to or possession of the article has not at any time been transferred to any person for purposes of consumption.

(iii) Articles sold by a dealer to a consumer before the inventory date and thereafter repossessed by the dealer, and articles purchased tax-paid by a manufacturer for use in further manufacture within the meaning of section 4221(d)(6), will not be considered as held by a dealer.

(iv) The determination as to the time title or possession passes for purposes of consumption shall be made under applicable local law.

(2) Examples. The application of this paragraph (d) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).If, under local law, title to an article sold by a dealer under a conditional sales contract is in the dealer on the inventory date, but the consumer has physical possession of the article on that date, the article is not considered as held by the dealer.

Example (2).If, under local law, title to an article is in the consumer on the inventory date because the article is specifically identified with a contract, but on that date the dealer still has physical possession of the article, for example, in his will-call department, the article is not considered as held by the dealer on that date because title to the article has passed to the consumer for purposes of consumption.

Example (3).If, under local law, title to an article is in the consumer on the inventory date because the dealer transferred the article to a common carrier for delivery to the consumer, the article in transit is not considered as held by the dealer on that date because title has passed to the consumer for purposes of consumption, even though neither the dealer nor the consumer has physical possession of the article.

Example (4).If, under local law, title to an article is in the dealer on the inventory date and does not pass to the consumer until delivery by a common carrier, the article in transit shall be considered as held by the dealer on that date because neither the title nor possession has passed to the consumer for purposes of consumption.

Example (5).If an article has been mortgaged or otherwise hypothecated by a dealer as security for a loan and, under local law, title to the article is in the creditor on the inventory date, and physical possession is in the dealer, the article shall be considered as held by the dealer on that date because neither title nor possession has passed to the consumer for purposes of consumption.

(e) Old rate. The term “old rate” means the rate of tax in effect with respect to the sale of an article before the date designated in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section on which the tax is reduced in rate or is terminated.

(f) New rate. The term “new rate” means the rate of tax, if any, in effect with respect to the sale of an article on the date designated in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section on which the tax is reduced in rate or is terminated.

(g) Dealer request limitation date. The term “dealer request limitation date” is the date prescribed by section 6412(a)(1) before which the request on which the manufacturer's claim is based must be submitted to the manufacturer by the dealer who held the floor stocks on the inventory date. In the case of an article held by a dealer on October 1, 1988, the dealer request limitation date is January 1, 1989.

(h) Claim limitation date. The term “claim limitation date” means the last date prescribed by section 6412(a)(1) on which refund or credit with respect to floor stocks may be claimed by a manufacturer. In the case of an article held by a dealer on October 1, 1988, the claim limitation date is March 31, 1989.

(i) Tax paid. A tax is considered paid if it was paid or was offset by an allowable credit on the return on which it was reported.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32021, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6412-3 Amount of tax paid on each article.

(a) General rule. For purposes of making the claim for credit or refund under § 48.6412-1 in respect of floor stocks held by a dealer, the tax paid on each article must be separately computed. If desired, the procedures set forth in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section may be used in making the computation. The procedure used in determining the tax paid on an article must also be used in determining the amount of tax, if any, made applicable to the article on the effective date of reduction or repeal of the tax involved. Prior approval of the Internal Revenue Service for the method of computation need not be obtained and should not be requested.

(b) Selling price. In determining the price of an article on which the tax paid is to be computed, the average of the gross selling prices of identical articles sold during a representative period may be used. For example, truck chassis of the same model that are sold by the manufacturer with the same equipment and accessories are identical articles whose selling prices may be computed on the basis of an average.

(c) Transportation charges. In determining the price of an article on which the tax paid is to be computed, the average of the exclusions authorized by section 4216(a) for transportation, delivery, insurance, installation, etc., for a reasonable category of articles during a representative period may be used.

(d) Credits for tax paid on inner tubes. The average of the credits authorized by section 6416(c) for tax paid on tires or inner tubes may be averaged for a reasonable category of articles during a representative period. The credits shall be subtracted from the gross excise tax to arrive at the net excise tax paid.

(e) Price readjustments. (1) In determining the price on which the tax paid is to be computed, there must be taken into account any price readjustments with respect to which the manufacturer has filed a claim for credit or refund under section 6416(b). Other price readjustments which have been, or are reasonably expected to be, made with respect to the article may, at the option of the manufacturer, be taken into account in computing the price of the article.

(2) Price readjustments which cannot be attributed to specific articles as of the inventory date (as, for example, a price readjustment of a flat dollar amount which is made to dealers who meet a sales quota) may be taken into account on the basis of an average of the adjustments which is computed for a reasonable category of articles over a representative period.

(3) Price readjustments related to specific items (as, for example, an automatic rebate of a specific percentage of the price of each unit sold to a dealer) may not be averaged, and in such a case only the actual price readjustment attributable to a particular article may be taken into account in computing the tax on that article.

(4) If, because of the facts in a case, a price readjustment can be attributed to specific articles for purposes of consumer refunds but cannot be attributed to specific articles for purposes of floor stocks credits or refunds, the price adjustment may be averaged for purposes of both consumer refunds and floor stocks credits and refunds.

(f) Representative period. A period will be considered a representative period if—

(1) It covers (i) at least four consecutive calendar quarters, the last of which ends with a period of six calendar months immediately preceding the effective date of the tax reduction or repeal involved or (ii) any other period of time which the taxpayer can demonstrate constitutes a representative period for the particular category, and

(2) The number of articles in the category involved sold by the manufacturer during the period either (i) equals or exceeds the number of articles in the category to which the average amount is to be applied or (ii) can be demonstrated by the taxpayer to be a representative quantity.

(g) Reasonable category. Examples of a reasonable category of articles are articles that are identified by a common stock or class number or which are of the same model, class, or line. For the purpose of averaging exclusions, another example of a reasonable category of articles is a grouping of articles that are shipped in the same container. If a manufacturer sells articles bearing his own trademark and also sells articles as private brands, separate computations of the two brands must be made under this section.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32022, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(a)-1 Claims for credit or refund of overpayments of taxes on special fuels and manufacturers taxes.

Any claims for credit or refund of an overpayment of a tax imposed by chapter 31 or chapter 32 shall be made in accordance with the applicable provisions of this subpart and the applicable provisions of § 301.6402-2 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration). A claim on Form 843 is not required in the case of a claim for credit, but the amount of the credit shall be claimed by entering that amount as a credit on a return of tax under this subpart filed by the person making the claim. In this regard, see § 48.6416(f)-1.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32022, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(a)-2 Credit or refund of tax on special fuels.

(a) Overpayments not described in section 6416(b)(2)—(1) Claims included. This paragraph applies only to claims for credit or refund of an overpayment of tax imposed by section 4041(a)(1)(A) (relating to tax on the sale of diesel fuel), section 4041(a)(2)(A) (relating to tax on the sale of special motor fuels), section 4041(c)(1)(A) (relating to tax on the sale of fuel for use in noncommercial aviation), or section 4041(c)(2)(A) (relating to the tax on sale of gasoline for use in noncommercial aviation). It does not apply, however, to a claim for credit or refund of any overpayment described in paragraph (b) of this section which arises by reason of the application of section 6416(b)(2).

(2) Supporting evidence required. No credit or refund of any overpayment to which this paragraph (a) applies shall be allowed unless the person who paid the tax submits with the claim a written consent of the ultimate purchaser to the allowance of the credit or refund, or submits with the claim a statement, supported by sufficient available evidence, asserting that—

(i) The person has neither included the tax in the price of the fuel with respect to which it was imposed nor collected the amount of the tax from a vendee, and identifying the nature of the evidence available to establish these facts, or

(ii) The person has repaid the amount of the tax to the ultimate purchaser of the fuel.

(3) Ultimate purchaser. The term “ultimate purchaser”, as used in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, means the vendee to whom the fuel was sold tax-paid by the person claiming credit or refund.

(b) Overpayments determined under section 6416(b)(2)—(1) Claims included. This paragraph applies only to claims for credit or refund of amounts paid as tax under section 4041(a)(1)(A) (relating to tax on the sale of diesel fuel) or section 4041(a)(2)(A) (relating to tax on the sale of special motor fuels) that are determined to be overpayments by reason of section 6416(b)(2) (relating to tax payments in respect of certain uses, sales, or resales of a taxable article).

(2) Supporting evidence required. No credit or refund of an overpayment to which this paragraph (b) applies shall be allowed unless the person who paid the tax submits with the claim a statement, supported by sufficient available evidence, asserting that—

(i) The person has neither included the tax in the price of the fuel with respect to which it was imposed nor collected the amount of the tax from a vendee, and identifying the nature of the evidence available to establish these facts, or

(ii) The person has repaid, or agreed to repay, the amount of the tax to the ultimate vendor of the fuel, or

(iii) The person has secured, and will submit upon request of the Service, the written consent of the ultimate vendor to the allowance of the credit or refund.

(3) Ultimate vendor. The term “ultimate vendor”, as used in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, means the seller making the sale which gives rise to the overpayment or which last precedes the exportation or use which gives rise to the overpayment.

(c) Nonapplication to tax on use of special fuels. This section shall not have any effect on overpayments of tax under section 4041(a)(1)(B) (relating to tax on the use of diesel fuel), section 4041(a)(2)(B) (relating to tax on the use of special motor fuels), section 4041(c)(1)(B) (relating to tax on the use of fuel other than gasoline in noncommercial aviation), section 4041(c)(2)(B) (relating to tax on the use of gasoline in noncommercial aviation), or section 4042 (relating to tax on fuel used in commercial transportation on inland waterways).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32022, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(a)-3 Credit or refund of manufacturers tax under chapter 32.

(a) Overpayment not described in section 6416(b)(3)(C) or (4) (prior to April 1, 1983) and section 6416(b)(2)—(1) Claims included. This paragraph applies only to claims for credit or refund of an overpayment of manufacturers tax imposed by chapter 32. It does not apply, however, to a claim for credit or refund on any overpayment described in paragraph (b) of this section which arises by reason of the application of section 6416(b)(2), (3)(C), or (4).

(2) Supporting evidence required. No credit or refund of any overpayment to which this paragraph (a) applies shall be allowed unless the person who paid the tax submits with the claim a written consent of the ultimate purchaser to the allowance of the credit or refund, or submits with the claim a statement, supported by sufficient availabe evidence, asserting that—

(i) The person has neither included the tax in the price of the article with respect to which it was imposed nor collected the amount of the tax from a vendee, and identifying the nature of the evidence available to establish these facts, or

(ii) The person has repaid the amount of the tax to the ultimate purchaser of the article.

(3) Ultimate purchaser—(i) General rule. The term “ultimate purchaser”, as used in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, means the person who purchased the article for consumption, or for use in the manufacture of other articles and not for resale in the form in which purchased.

(ii) Special rule under section 6416(a)(3)—(A) Conditions to be met. If tax under chapter 32 is paid in respect of an article and the Commissioner determines that the article is not subject to tax under chapter 32, the term “ultimate purchaser”, as used in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, includes any wholesaler, jobber, distributor, or retailer who, on the 15th day after the date of the determination, holds for sale any such article with respect to which tax has been paid, if the claim for credit or refund of the overpayment in respect of the articles held for sale by the wholesaler, jobber, distributor, or retailer is filed on or before the date on which the person who paid the tax is required to file a return for the period ending with the first calendar quarter which begins more than 60 days after the date of the determination by the Commissioner.

(B) Supporting statement. A claim for credit or refund of an overpayment of tax in respect of an article as to which a wholesaler, jobber, distributor, or retailer is the ultimate purchaser, as provided in this paragraph (a)(3)(ii), must be supported by a statement that the person filing the claim has a statement, by each wholesaler, jobber, distributor, or retailer whose articles are covered by the claim, showing total inventory, by model number and quantity, of all such articles purchased tax-paid and held for sale as of 12:01 a.m. of the 15th day after the date of the determination by the Commissioner that the article is not subject to tax under chapter 32.

(C) Inventory requirement. The inventory shall not include any such article, title to which, or possession of which, has previously been transferred to any person for purposes of consumption unless the entire purchase price was repaid to the person or credited to the person's account and the sale was rescinded or any such article purchased by the wholesaler, jobber, distributor, or retailer as a component part of, or on or in connection with, another article. An article in transit at the first moment of the 15th day after the date of the determination is regarded as being held by the person to whom it was shipped, except that if title to the article does not pass until delivered to the person the article is deemed to be held by the shipper.

(b) Overpayments described in section 6416(b) (3)(C) or (4) (prior to April 1, 1983) and section 6416(b)(2)—(1) Claims included. This paragraph applies only to claims for credit or refund of amounts paid as tax under chapter 32 that are determined to be overpayments by reason of section 6416(b)(2) (relating to tax payments in respect of certain uses, sales, or resales of a taxable article), section 6416(b)(3)(C) (relating to tax-paid tires or inner tubes used for further manufacture), or section 6416(b)(4) (relating to tires or inner tubes used by the manufacturer on another manufactured article).

(2) Supporting evidence required. No credit or refund of an overpayment to which this paragraph (b) applies shall be allowed unless the person who paid the tax submits with the claim a statement, supported by sufficient available evidence, asserting that—

(i) The person neither included the tax in the price of the article with respect to which it was imposed nor collected the amount of the tax from a vendee, and identifying the nature of the evidence available to establish these facts, or

(ii) The person repaid, or agreed to repay, the amount of the tax to the ultimate vendor of the article, or

(iii) The person has secured, and will submit upon request of the Service, the written consent of the ultimate vendor to the allowance of the credit or refund.

(3) Ultimate vendor—(i) General rule— The term “ultimate vendor”, as used in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, means the seller making the sale which gives rise to the overpayment or which last precedes the exportation or use which has given rise to the overpayment.

(ii) Special rule under section 6416(a)(3)(B) prior to revision by the Highway Revenue Act of 1982. In the case of an overpayment determined under section 6416(b) (2)(F), (3)(C), or (4) in respect of tires or inner tubes, where the taxable article is used as a component part of, or sold on or in connection with or with the sale of, a second article which is exported, sold to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use, sold to a State or local government for the exclusive use of a State or local government or used or sold for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft, the term “ultimate vendor”, as used in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, means the ultimate vendor of the second article.

(c) Overpayments not included. This section does not apply to any overpayment determined under section 6416(b)(1) (relating to price readjustments), section 6416(b)(3)(A) (relating to certain cases in which refund or credit is allowable to the manufacturer who uses, in the further manufacture of a second article, a taxable article purchased by the manufacturer tax-paid), section 6416(b)(3)(B) prior to April 1, 1983 (relating to parts or accessories taxable under section 4061(b) and used by a subsequent manufacturer or producer as material or a component part of any other article manufactured or produced by him), section 6416(b)(4) after March 31, 1983 (relating to tires), section 6416(b)(5) (relating to the return to the seller of certain installment accounts which the seller had previously sold) or section 6416(b)(6) (relating to truck chassis, bodies, and semi-trailers used for further manufacture). In this regard, see §§ 48.6416(b)(1)-1, 48.6416(b)(3)-1, and 48.6416(b)(5)-1.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32023, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8748, 63 FR 15292, Mar. 31, 1998]

§ 48.6416(b)(1)-1 Price readjustments causing overpayments of manufacturers tax.

In the case of any payment of tax under chapter 32 that is determined to be an overpayment by reason of a price readjustment within the meaning of section 6416(b)(1) and § 48.6416(b)(1)-2 or § 48.6416(b)(1)-3, the person who paid the tax may file a claim for refund of the overpayment or may claim credit for the overpayment on any return of tax under this subpart which the person subsequently files. Price readjustments may not be anticipated. However, if the readjustment has actually been made before the return is filed for the period in which the sale was made, the tax to be reported in respect of the sale may, at the election of the taxpayer, be based either (a) on the price as so readjusted or (b) on the original sale price and a credit or refund claimed in respect of the price readjustment. A price readjustment will be deemed to have been made at the time when the amount of the readjustment has been refunded to the vendor or the vendor has been informed that the vendor's account has been credited with the amount. No interest shall be paid on any credit or refund allowed under this section. For provisions relating to the evidence required in support of a claim for credit or refund, see § 301.6402-2 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration), § 48.6416(a)-3(a)(2), and § 48.6416(b)(1)-4. For provisions authorizing the taking of a credit in lieu of filing a claim for refund, see section 6416(d) and § 48.6416(f)-1.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32024, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(b)(1)-2 Determination of price readjustments.

(a) In general—(1) Rules of usual application—(i) Amount treated as overpayment. If the tax imposed by chapter 32 has been paid and thereafter the price of the article on which the tax was based is readjusted, that part of the tax which is proportionate to the part of the price which is repaid or credited to the purchaser is considered to be an overpayment. A readjustment of price to the purchaser may occur by reason of—

(A) The return of the article,

(B) The repossession of the article,

(C) The return or repossession of the covering or container of the article, or

(D) A bona fide discount, rebate, or allowance against the price at which the article was sold.

(ii) Requirements of price readjustment. A price readjustment will not be deemed to have been made unless the person who paid the tax either—

(A) Repays part or all of the purchase price in cash to the vendee,

(B) Credits the vendee's account for part or all of the purchase price, or

(C) Directly or indirectly reimburses a third party for part or all of the purchase price for the direct benefit of the vendee.

In addition, to be deemed a price readjustment, the payment or credit must be contractually or economically related to the taxable sale that the payment or credit purports to adjust. Thus, commissions or bonuses paid to a manufacturer's own agents or salesperson for selling the manufacturer's taxable products are not price readjustments for purposes of this section, since those commissions or bonuses are not paid or credited either to the manufacturer's vendee or to a third party for the vendee's benefit. On the other hand, a bonus paid by the manufacturer to a dealer's salesperson for negotiating the sale of a taxable article previously sold to the dealer by the manufacturer is considered to be a readjustment of the price on the original sale of the taxable article, regardless of whether the payment to the salesperson is made directly by the manufacturer or to the salesperson through the dealer. In such a case, the payment is related to the sale of a taxable article and is made for the benefit of the dealer because it is made to the dealer's salesperson to encourage the sale of a product owned by the dealer. Similarly, payments or credits made by a manufacturer to a vendee as reimbursement of interest expense incurred by the vendee in connection with a so-called “free flooring” arrangement for the purchase of taxable articles is a price readjustment, regardless of whether the payment or credit is made directly to the vendee or to the vendee's creditor on behalf of the vendee.

(iii) Limitation on credit or refund. The credit or refund allowable by reason of a price readjustment in respect of the sale of a taxable article may not exceed an amount which bears the same ratio to the total tax originally due and payable on the article as the amount of the tax-included readjustment bears to the original tax-included sale price of the article.

Example.A manufacturer sells a taxable article for $100 plus $10 excise tax, and reports and pays tax liability accordingly. Thereafter, the manufacturer credits the customer's account for $11 (tax included) in readjustment of the original sale price. The overpayment of tax is $1, determined as follows: Tax-included readjustment × Tax-included sale price Original tax due = Tax overpayment. $11 × $10 = $1 tax overpaid. $110

(2) Rules of special application—(i) Constructive sale price. If, in the case of a taxable sale, the tax imposed by chapter 32 is based on a constructive sale price determined under any paragraph of section 4216(b) and the regulations thereunder, as determined without reference to section 4218, then any price readjustment made with respect to the sale may be taken into account under this section only to the extent that the price readjustment reduces the actual sale price of the article below the constructive sale price.

Example. (A) A manufacturer sells a taxable article at retail for $110 tax included. Under section 4216(b)(1) the constructive sale price (tax included) of the article is determined to be $93. Thereafter, the manufacturer grants an allowance of $10 to the purchaser, which reduces the actual selling price (tax included) to $100. Since the readjustment price still exceeds the amounts of the constructive sale price, this readjustment is not recognized as a price readjustment under this section.

(B) Subsequently, the manufacturer extends to the purchaser an additional price allowance of $10, thereby reducing the actual sale price to $90. Since the actual sale price is now $3 less than the constructive sale price of $93, the manufacturer has overpaid by the amount of tax attributable to the $3. Assuming the tax rate involved is 10 percent, and the prices involved are tax-included, the overpayment of tax would be $0.27, determined as follows:

(ii) Price determined under section 4223(b)(2). If a manufacturer (within the meaning of section 4223(a)) to whom an article is sold or resold free of tax in accordance with the provisions of section 4221(a)(1) for use in further manufacture diverts the article to a taxable use or sells it in a taxable sale, and pursuant to the provisions of section 4223(b)(2) computes the tax liability in respect of the use or sale on the price for which the article was sold to the manufacturer or on the price at which the article was sold by the actual manufacturer, a reduction of the price on which the tax was based does not result in an overpayment within the meaning of section 6416(b)(1) of this section. Moreover, if a manufacturer purchases an article tax free and computes the tax in respect of a subsequent sale of the article pursuant to the provisions of section 4223(b)(2), an overpayment does not arise by reason of readjustment of the price for which the article was sold by the manufacturer except where the readjustment results from the return or repossession of the article by the manufacturer, and all of the purchase price is refunded by the manufacturer. See, however, paragraph (b)(4) of this section as to repurchased articles.

(b) Return of an article—(1) Price readjustment. If a taxable article is returned to the manufacturer who paid the tax imposed by chapter 32 on the sale of the article, a price readjustment giving rise to an overpayment results—

(i) If the article is returned before use, and all of the purchase price is repaid to the vendee or credited to the vendee's account, or

(ii) If the article is returned under an express or implied warranty as to quality or service, and all or a part of the purchase price is repaid to the vendee or credited to the vendee's account, or

(iii) If title is still in the seller, as, for example, in the case of certain installment sales contracts, and all or a part of the purchase price is repaid to the vendee or credited to the vendee's account.

(2) Return of purchase price. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if all of the purchase price of an article has been returned to the vendee, except for an amount retained by the manufacturer pursuant to contract as reimbursement of expense incurred in connection with the sale (such as a handling or restocking charge), all of the purchase price is considered to have been returned to the vendee.

(3) Taxability of subsequent sale or use. If, under any of the conditions described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an article is returned to the manufacturer who paid the tax and all of the purchase price is returned to the vendee, the sale is considered to have been rescinded. Any subsequent sale or use of the article by the manufacturer will be considered to be an original sale or use of the article by the manufacturer which is subject to tax under chapter 32 unless otherwise exempt. If under any such condition an article is returned to the manufacturer who paid the tax and only part of the purchase price is returned to the vendee, a subsequent sale of the article by the manufacturer will be subject to tax to the extent that the sale price exceeds the adjusted sale price of the first taxable sale.

(4) Treatment of other transactions as repurchases. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a price readjustment will not result when a taxable article is returned to the manufacturer who paid the tax on the sale of the article, even though all or a part of the purchase price is repaid to the vendee or credited to the vendee's account, since such a transaction will be considered to be a repurchase of the article by the manufacturer.

(c) Repossession of an article. If a taxable article is repossessed by the manufacturer who paid the tax imposed by chapter 32 on the sale of the article, and all or a part of the purchase price is repaid to the vendee or credited to the vendee's account, a price readjustment giving rise to an overpayment will result. However, if the manufacturer later resells the repossessed article for a price in excess of the original adjusted sale price, the manufacturer will be liable for tax under chapter 32 to the extent that the resale price exceeds the original adjusted sale price.

(d) Return or repossession of covering or container. If the covering or container of a taxable article is returned to, or repossessed by the manufacturer who paid the tax imposed by chapter 32 on the sale of the article, and all or a portion of the purchase price is repaid to the vendee or credited to the vendee's account by reason of the return or repossession of the covering or container, a price adjustment giving rise to an overpayment will result. If a taxable article is considered to have been repurchased, as provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and the covering or container accompanies the taxable article as part of the transaction, the covering or container will also be considered to have been repurchased.

(e) Bona fide discounts, rebates, or allowances—(1) In general. Except as provided in § 48.6416(b)(1)-3 (relating to readjustments in respect of local advertising), the basic consideration in determining, for purposes of this section, whether a bona fide discount, rebate, or allowance has been made is whether the price actually paid by, or charged against, the purchaser has in fact been reduced by subsequent transactions between the parties. Generally, the price will be considered to have been readjusted by reason of a bona fide discount, rebate, or allowance, only if the manufacturer who made the taxable sale repays a part of the purchase price in cash to the vendee, or credits the vendee's account, or directly or indirectly reimburses a third party for part or all of the purchase price for the direct benefit of the vendee, in consideration of factors which, if taken into account at the time of the original transaction, would have resulted at that time in a lower sale price. For example, a price readjustment will be considered to have been made when a bona fide discount, rebate, or allowance is given in consideration of such factors as prompt payment, quantity buying over a specified period, the vendee's inventory of an article when new models are introduced, or a general price reduction affecting articles held in stock by the vendee as of a certain date. On the other hand, repayments made to the vendee do not effectuate price readjustments if given in consideration of circumstances under which the vendee has incurred, or is required to incur, an expense which, if treated as a separate item in the original transaction, would have been includible in the price of the article for purposes of computing the tax.

Examples. The provisions of paragraph (e)(1) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).B, a manufacturer of fishing rods, bills its distributors in a specified amount per fishing rod purchased by them. Thereafter, B issues to each distributor a credit memorandum in the amount of X dollars for each demonstration by the distributor of the fishing rods at a sporting goods exhibition. The credit which B allows the distributor for demonstration of B's product does not effect a readjustment of price.

Example (2).C, a manufacturer of automobiles, bills its dealers in a specified amount per automobile purchased by them. Thereafter, C remits to the dealer X dollars of the original sale price for each automobile sold by the dealer in the last month of the model year. An additional amount of Y dollars is paid to the dealer upon a showing by the dealer that the dealer has paid Y dollars to the salesperson who made the sale. In this case, the X dollars paid to the dealer by C constitutes a bona fide discount, rebate, or allowance since payment of such amount is in the nature of a price reduction by reason of the dealer's inventory when new models are introduced. In addition, the Y dollars paid to the dealer in reimbursement for the amount paid by the dealer to the salesperson who made the sale, also constitutes a bona fide discount, rebate, or allowance.

(2) Inability to collect price. A charge-off of an amount outstanding in an open account, due to inability to collect, is not a bona fide discount, rebate, or allowance and does not, in and of itself, give rise to a price readjustment within the meaning of this section.

(3) Loss or damage in transit. If title to an article has passed to the vendee, the subsequent loss, damage, or destruction of the article while in the possession of a carrier for delivery to the vendee does not, in and of itself, affect the price at which the article was sold. However, if the article was sold under a contract providing that, if the article was lost, damaged, or destroyed in transit, title would revert to the vendor and the vendor would reimburse the vendee in full for the sale price, then the original sale is considered to have been rescinded. The vendor is entitled to credit or refund of the tax paid upon reimbursement of the full tax-included sale price to the vendee.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32024, Aug. 8, 1985; 50 FR 42518, Oct. 21, 1985]

§ 48.6416(b)(1)-3 Readjustment for local advertising charges.

(a) In general. If a manufacturer has paid the tax imposed by chapter 32 on the price of any article sold by the manufacturer and thereafter has repaid a portion of the price to the purchaser or any subsequent vendee in reimbursement of expenses for local advertising of the article or any other article sold by the manufacturer which is taxable at the same rate under the same section of chapter 32, the reimbursement will be considered a price readjustment constituting an overpayment which the manufacturer may claim as a credit or refund. The amount of the reimbursement may not, however, exceed the limitation provided by section 4216(e)(2) and § 48.4216(e)-2, determined as of the close of the calendar quarter in which the reimbursement is made or as of the close of any subsequent calendar quarter of the same calendar year in which it is made. The term “local advertising”, as used in this section, has the same meaning as prescribed by section 4216(e)(4) and includes generally, advertising which is broadcast over a radio station or television station, or appears in a newspaper or magazine, or is displayed by means of an outdoor advertising sign or poster.

(b) Local advertising charges excluded from taxable price in one year but repaid in following year—(1) Determination of price readjustments for year in which charge is repaid. If the tax imposed by chapter 32 was paid with respect to local advertising charges that were excluded in computing the taxable price of an article sold in any calendar year but are not repaid to the manufacturer's purchaser or any subsequent vendee before May 1 of the following calendar year, the subsequent repayment of those charges by the manufacturer in reimbursement of expenses for local advertising will be considered a price readjustment constituting an overpayment which the manufacturer may claim as a credit or refund. The amount of the reimbursement may not, however, exceed the limitation provided by section 4216(e)(2) and § 48.4216(e)-(2), determined as of the close of the calendar quarter in which the reimbursement is made or as of the close of any subsequent calendar quarter of the same calendar year in which it is made.

(2) Redetermination of price readjustments for year in which charge was made. If the tax imposed by chapter 32 was paid with respect to local advertising charges that were excluded in computing the taxable price of an article sold in any calendar year but are not repaid to the manufacturer's purchaser or any subsequent vendor before May 1 of the following calendar year, the manufacturer may make a redetermination, in respect of the calendar year in which the charge was made, of the price readjustments constituting an overpayment which the manufacturer may claim as a credit or refund. This redetermination may be made by excluding the local advertising charges made in the calendar year that became taxable as of May 1 of the following calendar year.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32026, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(b)(1)-4 Supporting evidence required in case of price readjustments.

No credit or refund of an overpayment arising by reason of a price readjustment described in § 48.6416(b)(1)-2 or § 48.6416(b)(1)-3 shall be allowed unless the manufacturer who paid the tax submits a statement, supported by sufficient available evidence—

(a) Describing the circumstances which gave rise to the price readjustment,

(b) Identifying the article in respect of which the price readjustment was allowed,

(c) Showing the price at which the article was sold, the amount of tax paid in respect of the article, and the date on which the tax was paid,

(d) Giving the name and address of the purchaser to whom the article was sold, and

(e) Showing the amount repaid to the purchaser or credited to the purchaser's account.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32026, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(b)(2)-1 Certain exportations, uses, sales, or resales causing overpayments of tax.

In the case of any payment of tax under section 4041 (a)(1) or (a)(2) (diesel fuel and special fuels tax) or under chapter 32 (manufacturers tax) that is determined to be an overpayment by reason of certain exportations, uses, sales, or resales described in section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-2, the person who paid the tax may file a claim for refund of the overpayment or, in the case of overpayments under chapter 32, may claim credit for the overpayment on any return of tax under this subpart which the person subsequently files. However, under the circumstances described in section 6416(c) and § 48.6416(e)-1, the overpayments under chapter 32 may be refunded to an exporter or shipper. No interest shall be paid on any credit or refund allowed under this section. For provisions relating to the evidence required in support of a claim for credit or refund under this section, see § 301.6402-2 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration) and §§ 48.6416(b)(2)-3 and 48.6416(b)(2)-4. For provisions authorizing the taking of a credit in lieu of filing a claim for refund, see section 6416(d) and § 48.6416(f)-1.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32026, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17160, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.6416(b)(2)-2 Exportations, uses, sales, and resales included.

(a) In general. The tax paid under chapter 32 (or under section 4041(a) or (d) in respect of sales or under section 4051) with respect to any article is considered to be an overpayment in the case of any exportation, use, sale, or resale described in this section. This section applies only in those cases in which the exportation, use, sale, or resale (or any combination thereof) referred to in this section occurs before any other use. In addition, the following restrictions must be taken into account in applying the regulations under section 6416(b)(2):

(1) Sections 6416(b)(2)(C) and (D) do not apply to any tax paid under section 4064 (gas guzzler tax).

(2) Sections 6416(b)(2)(B), (C), and (D) do not apply to any tax paid under section 4131 (vaccine tax) and section 6416(b)(2)(A) applies only to the extent prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(3) Section 6416(b)(2) does not apply to any tax paid under section 4041(a)(1) or 4081 on diesel fuel or kerosene, section 4091 (aviation fuel tax), or section 4121 (coal tax).

(4) Beginning on January 1, 2013, sections 6416(b)(2)(B), (C), (D), and (E) do not apply to any tax paid under section 4191 (medical device tax).

(b) Exportation of tax-paid articles—(1) In general. Subject to the limitations of section 6416(b)(2) and paragraph (b)(2) of this section, tax paid under chapter 31 or 32 on the sale of any article will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(2)(A) if the article is exported by any person. Except in the case of articles subject to the tax imposed by section 4061(a), prior to April 1, 1983, it is immaterial for purposes of this paragraph (b), whether the person who made the taxable sale had knowledge at the time of the sale that the article or fuel was being purchased for export to a foreign country or shipment to a possession of the United States. See § 48.6416(e)-1 for the circumstances under which a claim for refund by reason of the exportation of an article may be claimed by the exporter or shipper, rather than by the person who paid the tax. For definition of the term “possession of the United States”, see § 48.0-2(a)(11).

(2) Rule for exportation of vaccines. Paragraph (b)(1) of this section applies to tax paid under section 4131 on the sale of a vaccine, but only if the sale by the manufacturer occurs after August 10, 1993, and, in the case of vaccine sold to the United States or any of its agencies or instrumentalities, the condition of § 48.4221-3(e)(2) is satisfied.

(c) Supplies for vessels or aircraft. A payment of tax under chapter 32 on the sale of any article, or under section 4041 (a)(1) or (a)(2) on the sale of diesel fuel or special motor fuel, will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(2)(B) if the article or fuel is used by any person, or is sold by any person for use by the purchaser, as supplies for vessels or aircraft.

The term “supplies for vessels or aircraft”, as used in this paragraph, has the same meaning as when used in sections 4041(g), 4221(a)(3), 4221(d)(3), and 4221(e)(1), and the regulations thereunder.

(d) Use by State or local government. A payment of tax under chapter 32 on the sale of any article, or under section 4041 (a)(1) or (a)(2) on the sale of diesel fuel or special motor fuel, will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(2)(C) if the article of fuel is sold by any person to a State, any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia for the exclusive use of a State, any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia. For provisions relating to tax-free sales to a State, any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, see section 4221(a)(4) and the regulations thereunder.

(e) Use by nonprofit educational organization. A payment of tax under chapter 32 on the sale of any article, or under section 4041 (a)(1) or (a)(2) on the sale of diesel fuel or special motor fuel, will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(2)(D) if the article or fuel is sold by any person to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use. The term “nonprofit educational organization”, as used in this paragraph (e), has the same meaning as when used in section 4221 (a)(5) or (d)(5), whichever applies, and the regulations thereunder.

(f) Tax-paid tires or inner tubes resold for use in further manufacture. A payment of tax under section 4071 on the sale of a tire or, prior to January 1, 1984, on the sale of an inner tube will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(2)(E) if—

(1) The tire or inner tube is, after the original sale of the article by the manufacturer, resold by any person to another manufacturer;

(2) The other manufacturer sells the tire or inner tube on or in connection with, or with the sale of, any other article manufactured or produced by the other manufacturer; and

(3) That other article is by any person either—

(i) Exported to a foreign country or to a possession of the United States,

(ii) Sold to a State, any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia for the exclusive use of a State, any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia,

(iii) Sold to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use, or

(iv) Used or sold for use as supplies for vessels or aircraft.

The overpayment described in this paragraph (f) is to be distinguished from the overpayment described in section 6416(b)(3)(C) prior to amendment by the Highway Revenue Act of 1982 and section 6416(b)(3) as amended by the Highway Revenue Act of 1982, and § 48.6416(b)(3)-2 (d) in that the overpayment here described arises from a “resale” for the use described in this paragraph, while the section 6416(b)(3)(C) overpayment arises from the “use” of tires or inner tubes in the manufacture of other articles by a subsequent manufacturer who purchases tax-paid tires or tubes and disposes of finished articles on the basis of one of the exemptions set forth in section 6416(B)(3)(C). A manufacturer claiming a credit or refund under this paragraph (f) must have substantially the same information available in support of the claim as is required under § 48.4221-7(c)(2) in support of exempt sales of tires or inner tubes under the provisions of section 4221(e)(2), except that none of the parties involved need be registered under section 4222.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32027, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8561, 59 FR 43045, Aug. 22, 1994; T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17160, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9604, 77 FR 72938, Dec. 7, 2012]

§ 48.6416(b)(2)-3 Supporting evidence required in case of manufacturers tax involving exportations, uses, sales, or resales.

(a) Evidence to be submitted by claimant. No claim for credit or refund of an overpayment, within the meaning of section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-2, of tax under chapter 32 shall be allowed unless the person who paid the tax submits with the claim the evidence required by paragraph (b)(2) of § 48.6416(a)-3 and a statement, supported by sufficient available evidence—

(1) Showing the amount claimed in respect of each category of exportations, uses, sales, or resales on which the claim is based and which give rise to a right of credit or refund under section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-1,

(2) Identifying the article, both as to nature and quantity, in respect of which credit or refund is claimed,

(3) Showing the amount of tax paid in respect of the article or articles and the dates of payment, and

(4) In the case of an overpayment determined under section 6416(b)(2)(A) and paragraph (b) of § 48.6416(b)(2)-2 in respect of an article which was taxable prior to April 1, 1983 under section 4061(a), indicating that, pursuant to section 6416(g), the person claiming a credit or refund possessed at the time that person shipped the article or at the time title to the article passed to the vendee, whichever is earlier, evidence that the article was to be exported to a foreign country or shipped to a possession of the United States, or

(5) In the case of any overpayment other than an overpayment determined under section 6416(b)(2)(E) and paragraph (f) of § 48.6416(b)(2)-2, indicating that the person claiming a credit or refund possesses evidence (as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) that the article has been exported, or has been used, sold, or resold in a manner or for a purpose which gives rise to an overpayment within the meaning of section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-2, or

(6) In the case of an overpayment determined under section 6416(b)(2)(E) and paragraph (f) of § 48.6416(b)(2)-2, relating to a tax-paid tire or inner tube sold on or in connection with, or with the sale of, a second article that has been manufactured, indicating that the person claiming credit or refund possesses (i) evidence (as set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) that the second article has been exported, or has been used or sold as provided in § 48.6416(b)(2)-2(f), and (ii) a statement, executed and signed by the ultimate purchaser of the tire or inner tube, that the ultimate purchaser purchased the tire or inner tube from a person other than the person who paid the tax on the sale of the tire or inner tube.

(b) Evidence required to be in possession of claimant—(1) Evidence required under paragraph (a)(5)—(i) In general. The evidence required to be retained by the person who paid the tax, as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, must, in the case of an article exported, consist of proof of exportation in the form prescribed in the regulations under section 4221 or must, in the case of other articles sold tax-paid by that person, consist of a certificate, executed and signed by the ultimate purchaser of the article, in the form prescribed in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. However, if the article to which the claim relates has passed through a chain of sales from the person who paid the tax to the ultimate purchaser, the evidence required to be retained by the person who paid the tax may consist of a certificate, executed and signed by the ultimate vendor of the article, in the form provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, rather than the proof of exportation itself or the certificate of the ultimate purchaser.

(ii) Certificate of ultimate purchaser.

(A) The certificate executed and signed by the ultimate purchaser of the article to which the claim relates must identify the article, both as to nature and quantity; show the address of the ultimate purchaser of the article, and the name and address of the ultimate vendor of the article; and describe the use actually made of the article in sufficient detail to establish that credit or refund is due, except that the use to be made of the article must be described in lieu of actual use if the claim is made by reason of the sale or resale of an article for a specified use which gives rise to the overpayment.

(B) If the certificate sets forth the use to be made of any article, rather than its actual use, it must show that the ultimate purchaser has agreed to notify the claimant if the article is not in fact used as specified in the certificate.

(C) The certificate must also contain a statement that the ultimate purchaser understands that the ultimate purchaser and any other party may, for fraudulent use of the certificate, be subject under section 7201 to a fine of not more than $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

(D) A purchase order will be acceptable in lieu of a separate certificate of the ultimate purchaser if it contains all the information required by this paragraph (b)(1)(ii).

(iii) Certificate of ultimate vendor. Any certificate executed and signed by an ultimate vendor as evidence to be retained by the person who paid the tax, as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, may be executed with respect to any one or more overpayments by the person which arose under section 6416(b)(2) and §§ 48.6416(b)(2)-2 by reason of exportations, uses, sales or resales, occurring within any period of not more than 12 consecutive calendar quarters, the beginning and ending dates of which are specified in the certificate.

The certificate must be in substantially the following form:

Statement of Ultimate Vendor

(For use in claiming credit or refund of overpayment determined under section 6416(b)(2) (other than section 6416(b)(2)(E)) of the Internal Revenue Code.)

The undersigned or the

(Name of ultimate vendor if other than undersigned) of which the undersigned is (Title), is the ultimate vendor of the article specified below or on the reverse side hereof.

The article was purchased by the ultimate vendor tax-paid and was thereafter exported, used, sold, or resold (as indicated below or on the reverse side hereof).

The ultimate vendor possesses

(Proof of exportation in respect of the article, or a certificate as to use executed by the ultimate purchaser of the article) The (Proof of exportation or certificate)

(1) is retained by the ultimate vendor, (2) will, upon request, be forwarded to

(Name or person who paid the tax) at any time within 3 years from the date of this statement for use by that person to establish that credit or refund is due in respect of the article, and (3) will otherwise be held by the ultimate vendor for the required 3-year period.

According to the best knowledge and belief of the undersigned, no statement in respect of the

(Proof of exportation or certificate) has previously been executed, and the undersigned understands that the fraudulent use of this statement may, under section 7201, subject the undersigned or any other party making such fraudulent use to a fine of not more than $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution. (Signature) (Address) (Date)

Vendor's invoice | Articles | Date of resale | Quantity | Exported or use made or to be made (specify)

(2) Evidence required under paragraph (a)(6)—(i) In general— The evidence required to be retained by the person who paid the tax, as provided in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, must, in the case of an exportation of the second article, consist of proof of exportation of the second article in the form prescribed in the regulations under section 4221 or must, in other cases, consist of a certificate, executed and signed by the ultimate purchaser of the second article, in the form prescribed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section. However, the evidence required to be retained by the person who paid the tax may consist of a certificate, executed and signed by the ultimate vendor of the second article, in the form provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, rather than the proof of exportation itself or the certificate of the ultimate purchaser.

(ii) Certificate of ultimate purchaser— The certificate of the ultimate purchaser of the second article must contain the same information as that required in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, except that the information must be furnished in respect of the second article, rather than the article to which the claims relates.

(iii) Certificate of ultimate vendor— Any certificate executed and signed by an ultimate vendor as evidence to be retained by the person who paid the tax, as provided in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, may be executed with respect to any one of more overpayments by that person which arose under section 6416(b)(2)(E) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-2 (f) by reason of exportations, uses, sales, or resales of a second article occurring within any period of not more than 12 consecutive calendar quarters, the beginning and ending dates of which are specified in the certificate. The certificate must be in substantially the following form:

STATEMENT Of ULTIMATE VENDOR

(For use in claiming credit or refund of overpayment determined under section 6416 (b)(2)(E), Internal Revenue Code, involving tires or inner tubes sold on or with another article.)

The undersigned or the

(Name of ultimate vendor of second article if other than undersigned) of which the undersigned is (Title), is the ultimate vendor of an article, specified below or on the reverse side hereof, on which or with which a tax-paid tire or inner tube was sold.

The ultimate vendor possesses

(Proof of exportation in respect of the article on which or with which the tire or inner tube was sold, or a certificate as to use of the article executed by the ultimate purchaser of the article) The (Proof of exportation or certificate) (1) is retained by the ultimate vendor, (2) will, upon request, be forwarded to (Name of person who paid the tax on the tire or inner tube) at any time within 3 years from the date of this statement for use in establishing that credit or refund is due in respect of the tire or inner tube, and (3) will otherwise be held by the ultimate vendor for the required 3-year period.

According to the best knowledge and belief of the undersigned, no statement in respect of the

(Proof of exportation or certificate) has previously been executed, and the undersigned understands that the fraudulent use of this statement may, under section 7201, subject the undersigned or any other party making such fraudulent use to a fine of not more than $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution. (Signature) (Address) (Date)

Tires or inner tubes (specify and state quantity) | Vendor's invoice on second article | Second article (specify and state quantity) | Date of sale of second article | Exported or use made of or to be made (specify in respect of second article)

(3) Repayment or consent of ultimate vendor. If the person claiming credit or refund of an overpayment to which this section applies has repaid, or agreed to repay, the amount of the overpayment to the ultimate vendor or if the ultimate vendor consents to the allowance of the credit or refund, a statement to that effect, signed by the ultimate vendor, must be shown on, or made a part of, the evidence required under this section to be retained by the person claiming the credit or refund. In this regard, see § 48.6416(a)-3(b)(2).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32028, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(b)(2)-4 Supporting evidence required in case of special fuels tax involving exportations, uses, sales, or resales of special fuels.

(a) Evidence to be submitted by claimant. No claim for credit or refund of an overpayment, within the meaning of section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-2 of tax under section 4041 (a)(1) or (b)(2) shall be allowed unless the person who paid the tax submits with the claim the evidence required by paragraph (b)(2) of § 48.6416(a)-2 and a statement, supported by sufficient available evidence—

(1) Showing the amount claimed in respect of each category of exportations, uses, sales, or resales on which the claim is based and which give rise to right of credit or refund under section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-1,

(2) Identifying the fuel, both as to nature and quantity, in respect of which credit or refund is claimed,

(3) Showing the amount of tax paid in respect of the fuel and the dates of payment, and

(4) Indicating that the fuel has been exported, or has been used, sold, or resold in a manner or for a purpose which gives rise to an overpayment within the meaning of section 6416(b)(2) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-2.

(b) Evidence required to be in possession of claimant. (1) The evidence required to be retained by the person who paid the tax, as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, must, in the case of fuel exported, consist of proof of exportation or must, in the case of other fuel sold tax-paid by that person, consist of a certificate, executed and signed by the person who purchased the fuel in a resale or for the use which gave rise to the overpayment.

(2) The certificate must identify the fuel, both as to nature and quantity, in respect of which credit or refund is claimed; show the address of the purchaser; show the name and address of the person from whom the fuel was purchased and the date or dates on which the fuel was purchased; and show that the fuel was resold and the date of the resale.

(3) If the claim is not based on resale of the fuel, the certificate must describe the use actually made of the fuel in sufficient detail to establish that credit or refund is due. However, the use to be made of the fuel must be described in lieu of actual use if the claim is made by reason of the sale of the fuel for a specified use which gives rise to an overpayment under § 48.6416(b)(2)-2.

(4) If the certificate sets forth the use to be made of the fuel, rather than its actual use, it must show that the purchaser has agreed to notify the claimant if the fuel is not in fact used as specified in the certificate.

(5) The certificate must also contain a statement that the purchaser has not previously executed a certificate in respect of the fuel and understands that any party may, for fraudulent use of the certificate, be subject under section 7201 to a fine of not more than $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32030, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(b)(3)-1 Tax-paid articles used for further manufacture and causing overpayments of tax.

In the case of any payment of tax under chapter 32 that is determined to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(3) and § 48.6416(b)(3)-2 by reason of the sale of an article (other than coal taxable under section 4121), directly or indirectly, by the manufacturer of the article to a subsequent manufacturer who uses the article in further manufacture of a second article or who sells the article with, or as a part of, the second article manufactured or produced by the subsequent manufacturer, the subsequent manufacturer may file claim for refund of the overpayment or may claim credit for the overpayment on any return of tax under this subpart subsequently filed. No interest shall be paid on any credit or refund allowed under this section. For provisions relating to the evidence required in support of a claim for credit or refund, see § 301.6402-2 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration) and §§ 48.6416(a)-3 and 48.6416(b)(3)-3. For provisions authorizing the taking of a credit in lieu of filing a claim for refund, see section 6416(d) and § 48.6416(f)-1.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32030, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(b)(3)-2 Further manufacture included.

(a) In general. The payment of tax imposed by chapter 32 on the sale of any article (other than coal taxable under section 4121) by a manufacturer of the article will be considered to be an overpayment by reason of any use in further manufacture, or sale as part of a second manufactured article, described in any one of paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section. This section applies in those cases where the exportation, use, or sale (or any combination of those activities) referred to in any one or more of those paragraphs occurs before any other use. For provisions relating to overpayments arising by reason of resales of tax-paid articles for use in further manufacture as provided in this section, see section 6416(b)(2)(E) and paragraph (f) of § 48.6416(b)(2)-2.

(b) Use of tax-paid articles in further manufacture described in section 6416(b)(3)(A). A payment of tax under chapter 32 on the sale of any article (other than coal taxable under section 4121), directly or indirectly, by the manufacturer of the article to a subsequent manufacturer will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(3)(A) if the article is used by the subsequent manufacturer as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, a second article manufactured or produced by the subsequent manufacturer which is—

(1) Taxable under chapter 32, or

(2) An automobile bus chassis or an automobile bus body.

For this purpose it is immaterial whether the second article is sold or otherwise disposed of, or if sold, whether the sale is a taxable sale. Any article to which this paragraph (b) applies which would have been used in the manufacture or production of a second article, except for the fact that it was broken or rendered useless in the process of manufacturing or producing the second article, will be considered to have been used as a component part of the second article. This paragraph (b) does not apply to articles sold and used as provided in any of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section.

(c) Use of truck, bus, etc., parts or accessories. A payment of tax under section 4061 (b) on the sale prior to January 7, 1983, of any truck, bus, etc., part or accessory, directly or indirectly, by the manufacturer of the article to a subsequent manufacturer will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(3)(B) if the part or accessory is used by the subsequent manufacturer as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, a second article manufactured or produced by the subsequent manufacturer. For this purpose it is immaterial whether the second article is or is not taxable under chapter 32. Any article to which this paragraph (c) applies which would have been used in the manufacture or production of a second article, except for the fact that it was broken or rendered useless in the process of manufacturing or producing the second article, will be considered to have been used as a component part of the second article.

(d) Tax-paid tires or inner tubes used in further manufacture. (1) A payment of tax under section 4071 on the sale prior to January 1, 1984, of a tire or inner tube, directly or indirectly, by the manufacturer of the article to a subsequent manufacturer will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(3)(C) if the subsequent manufacturer sells the tire or inner tube on or in connection with, or with the sale of, any other article manufactured or produced by the subsequent manufacturer and if the other article is—

(i) An automobile bus chassis or automobile bus body, or

(ii) By any person (A) exported to a foreign country or to a possession of the United States, (B) sold to a State, any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia for the exclusive use of a State, any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, (C) sold to a nonprofit educational organization for its exclusive use, or (D) used or sold for use as supplies to vessels or aircraft.

For tax-paid tires used in further manufacture after December 31, 1983, see section 6416(b)(3)(A) and the regulations thereunder.

(2) The overpayment in this paragraph (d) is to be distinguished from that overpayment described in section 6416(b)(2)(E) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-2(f) in that this overpayment arises from the “use” described in this paragraph, whereas the overpayment under section 6416(b)(2)(E) arises from the “resale” of tax-paid tires or inner tubes by any person to a subsequent manufacturer who disposes of the articles on or in connection with, or with the sale of, a second article manufactured or produced by the subsequent manufacturer which is disposed of on the basis of one of the exemptions set forth in section 6416(b)(3)(C).

(3) If the second article is exported or shipped as provided in this paragraph (d), it is immaterial whether the subsequent manufacturer sold the article with the knowledge that it would be exported or shipped.

(4) An overpayment arises under paragraph (d)(1) of this section only if the tire or inner tube constitutes a part of, or is associated with, the second article at the time the second article is exported, shipped, sold, used, or sold for use, as prescribed in this paragraph.

(5) For definition of certain terms used in this paragraph, see section 4221 and the regulations thereunder.

(6) For provisions relating to overpayments arising by reason of tires or inner tubes sold tax-paid by the manufacturer of the same, on or in connection with, or with the sale of, any article manufactured or produced by that manufacturer and exported, sold, or used or sold for use, as provided in this paragraph (d), see section 6416(b)(4).

(7) For provisions relating to credit allowable in respect of tires and inner tubes sold on or in connection with, or with the sale of, another article taxable under chapter 32, prior to January 1, 1984, see section 6416(c) and § 48.6416(c)-1.

(8) If a second article referred to in paragraph (d)(1) of this section is sold for a use described in that paragraph and is not so used, this paragraph (d) is in all respects inapplicable.

(e) Use of bicycle tires or tubes in further manufacture. A payment of tax under section 4071 on the sale, prior to January 1, 1984, of a bicycle or tricycle tire or inner tube, directly or indirectly, by the manufacturer of the same to a subsequent manufacturer will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(3)(E) if the tire or tube is used by the subsequent manufacturer as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, a bicycle or tricycle manufactured or produced by the subsequent manufacturer which is not a rebuilt or reconditioned bicycle or tricycle. For definition of the term “bicycle tire”, see section 4221(e)(4)(B) and the regulations thereunder.

(f) Use of gasoline in further manufacture. A payment of tax under section 4081 on the sale of gasoline, directly or indirectly, by the manufacturer of the same to a subsequent manufacturer will be considered an overpayment under section 6416(b)(3)(B) if the gasoline is used for nonfuel purposes by the subsequent manufacturer as a material in the manufacture or production of any other article manufactured or produced by the subsequent manufacturer. For this purpose it is immaterial whether the other article is or is not taxable under chapter 32. For provisions relating to the use of gasoline for nonfuel purposes, see section 4221 and the regulations thereunder.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32030, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8748, 63 FR 15292, Mar. 31, 1998]

§ 48.6416(b)(3)-3 Supporting evidence required in case of tax-paid articles used for further manufacture.

(a) Evidence to be submitted by claimant. No claim for credit or refund of an overpayment, within the meaning of section 6416(b)(3) and § 48.6416(b)(3)-2 shall be allowed unless the subsequent manufacturer submits with the claim the evidence required by § 48.6416(a)-3 and a statement, supported by sufficient available evidence—

(1) Showing the amount claimed in respect of each category of exportations, uses, or sales on which the claim is based and which give rise to a right of credit or refund under section 6416(b)(3) and § 48.6416(b)(3)-1,

(2) Showing the name and address of the manufacturer, producer, or importer of the article in respect of which credit or refund is claimed,

(3) Identifying the article, both as to nature and quantity, in respect of which credit or refund is claimed,

(4) Showing the amount of tax paid in respect of the article by the manufacturer or producer of the article and the date of payment,

(5) Indicating that the article was used by the claimant as material in the manufacture or production of, or as a component part of, a second article manufactured or produced by the manufacturer or was sold on or in connection with, or with the sale of, a second article manufactured or produced by the manufacturer,

(6) Identitying the second article, both as to nature and quantity, and

(7) In the case of an overpayment determined under section 6416(b)(3)(C) as it existed prior to January 1, 1984, and paragraph (d)(1) of § 48.6416(b)(3)-2 in respect of a tire or inner tube taxable under section 4071, indicating that the manufacturer has evidence available (as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section) that the second article is an automobile bus chassis or automobile bus body, or has been exported, used, or sold as provided in section 6416(b)(3)(C)(ii) and § 48.6416(b)(3)-2(d)(1)(ii).

(b) Evidence required to be in possession of claimant—(1) In general. The evidence required to be retained by the person claiming credit or refund, as provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, must, in the case of an exportation of the second article, consist of proof of exportation of the second article in the form prescribed in the regulations under section 4221, or must, in other cases (except when the second article is an automobile bus chassis or automobile bus body), consist of a certificate, executed and signed by the ultimate purchaser of the second article, in the form prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. However, if the second article has passed through a chain of sales from the manufacturer of the second article to the ultimate purchaser of the second article, the evidence may consist of a certificate, executed and signed by the ultimate vendor of the second article, in the form provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, rather than the proof of exportation itself of the second article or the certificate of the ultimate purchaser of the second article.

(2) Certificate of ultimate purchaser of second article. The certificate executed and signed by the ultimate purchaser of the second article must contain the same information as that required in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of § 48.6416(b)(2)-3, except that the information must be furnished in respect of the second article, rather than the article to which the claim relates.

(3) Certificate of ultimate vendor of second article. Any certificate executed and signed by an ultimate vendor as evidence to be retained by the person claiming credit or refund must be executed in the same form and manner as that provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) and § 48.6416(b)(2)-3.

(4) Repayment or consent of ultimate vendor. If the person claiming credit or refund of an overpayment to which this section applies has repaid, or agreed to repay, the amount of the overpayment to the ultimate vendor or if the ultimate vendor consents to the allowance of the credit or refund, a statement to that effect, signed by the ultimate vendor, must be shown on, or made a part of, the evidence required to be retained by the person claiming the credit or refund. In this regard, see § 48.6416(a)-3(b)(2).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32032, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(b)(5)-1 Return of installment accounts causing overpayments of tax.

(a) In general. In the case of any payment of tax under section 4216(d)(1) in respect of the sale of any installment account that is determined to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(5) and paragraph (b) of this section upon return of the installment account, the person who paid the tax may file a claim for refund of the overpayment or may claim credit for the overpayment on any return of tax under this subpart which that person subsequently files. No interest shall be paid on any credit or refund allowed under this section. For provisions relating to the evidence required in support of a claim for credit or refund under this section, see § 301.6402-2 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration) and paragraph (c) of this section. For provisions authorizing the taking of a credit in lieu of filing a claim for refund, see section 6416(d) and § 48.6416(f)-1.

(b) Overpayment of tax allocable to repaid consideration. The payment of tax imposed by section 4216(d)(1) on the sale of an installment account by the manufacturer will be considered to be an overpayment under section 6416(b)(5) to the extent of the tax allocable to any consideration repaid or credited to the purchaser of the installment account upon the return of the account to the manufacturer pursuant to the agreement under which the account originally was sold, if the readjustment of the consideration occurs pursuant to the provisions of the agreement. The tax allocable to the repaid or credited consideration is the amount which bears the same ratio to the total tax paid under section 4216(d)(1) with respect to the installment account as the amount of consideration repaid or credited to the purchaser bears to the total consideration for which the account was sold. This paragraph (b) does not apply where an installment account is originally sold pursuant to the order of, or subject to the approval of, a court of competent jurisdiction in a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding.

(c) Evidence to be submitted by claimant. No claim for credit of refund of an overpayment, within the meaning of section 6416(b)(5) and paragraph (b) of this section, of tax under section 4216(d)(1) shall be allowed unless the person who paid the tax submits with the claim a statement supported by sufficient available evidence, indicating—

(1) The name and address of the person to whom the installment account was sold,

(2) The amount of tax due under section 4216(d)(1) by reason of the sale of the installment account, the amount of the tax paid under section 4216(d)(1) with respect to the sale, and the date of payment,

(3) The amount for which the installment account was sold,

(4) The amount which was repaid or credited to the purchaser of the account by reason of the return of the account to the person claiming the credit or refund, and

(5)(i) The fact that the amount repaid or credited to the purchaser of the account was so repaid or credited pursuant to the agreement under which the account was sold, and

(ii) The fact that the account was returned to the manufacturer pursuant to that agreement.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32033, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(c)-1 Credit for tax paid on tires or, prior to January 1, 1984, inner tubes.

(a) Allowance of credit against tax on sale of taxable article. If tax has been paid under section 4071 on the sale, or under section 4218 on the use, of a tire or inner tube, and the manufacturer of another article taxable under chapter 32 sells the tire or inner tube on or in connection with the sale of that other article, a credit in respect of the tire or inner tube is allowable under section 6416(c) against the tax imposed on the sale of that other article. The amount of the credit is to be determined as provided in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.

(b) Tires or tubes purchased by manufacturer of the other article. If the manufacturer of the other article purchased the tire or inner tube tax-paid, the amount of the credit shall be determined by applying to the purchase price of the tire or inner tube the percentage rate of tax applicable to the sale of the other article. For this purpose, the purchase price shall be determined by including any tax passed on to the manufacturer and, in the case of a tire, by excluding any part of the price attributable to the metal rim or rim base. For example, if the selling price of an automobile truck is $24,000, tax equivalent to 10 percent of the price (i.e., $2,400) is imposed under section 4601(a) on the sale (before April 1, 1983) of the automobile truck. If the tires or inner tubes sold on or in connection with the automobile truck are purchased by the manufacturer of the automobile truck for $1,500 (computed as provided in this paragraph) a credit of $150 (10 percent of $1,500) is allowable against the tax imposed on the sale of the automobile truck.

(c) Tires or tubes manufactured by manufacturer or other articles. If the manufacturer of the other article is also the manufacturer of the tire or inner tube and incurs tax liability under section 4218 on the use by that manufacturer of the tire or inner tube, the amount of the credit shall be determined by applying to the fair market price of the tire or inner tube, the percentage rate of tax applicable to the sale of the other article. For this purpose, the fair market price of the tire or inner tube shall be the price at which the same or similar tires or inner tubes are sold by manufacturers of tires or inner tubes in the ordinary course of trade, as determined by the Commissioner, and by excluding, in the case of a tire, any part of the price attributable to the metal rim or rim base. The determination of the Commissioner shall be made in the same manner as determinations made under section 4218.

(d) Other applicable rules. (1) For purposes of this section, the term “manufacturer” includes the original manufacturer of the other article and any succeeding purchaser of the article who further manufactures the article so as to become liable as a manufacturer of an article taxable under chapter 32. Therefore, the credit provided by section 6416(c) and this section is available both to the original manufacturer of the other article and also to every succeeding purchaser of that article who sells that article on or in connection with, or with the sale of, another article taxable under chapter 32.

(2) No interest shall be paid on any credit allowed under this section.

(3) If credit is not claimed under this section against the tax applicable to the sale of the other article, the manufacturer of the other article may claim refund of an amount equivalent to the credit or may claim credit on any return of tax under this subpart subsequently filed.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32034, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(e)-1 Refund to exporter or shipper.

(a) In general. Any payment of tax imposed by sections 4041, 4051 or chapter 32 that is determined to be an overpayment within the meaning of section 6416(b)(2) (A) or (E), section 6416(b)(3)(C) (prior to January 7, 1983), or section 6416(b)(4), and the regulations thereunder, by reason of the exportation of any article may be refunded to the exporter or shipper of the article pursuant to section 6416(c) of this section, if—

(1) The exporter or shipper files a claim for refund of the overpayment, and

(2) The person who paid the tax waives the right to claim credit or refund of the tax.

No interest shall be paid on any refund allowed under this section. For provisions relating to the evidence required in support of a claim under this paragraph (a), see § 301.6402 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration) and paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) Supporting evidence required. No claim for refund of any overpayment of tax to which this section applies shall be allowed unless the exporter or shipper submits with that claim proof of exportation in the form prescribed by the regulations under section 4221, and a statement, signed by the person who paid the tax, showing—

(1) That the person who paid the tax waives the right to claim credit or refund of the tax,

(2) In the case of an overpayment determined under section 6416(b)(2)(A) and paragraph (b) of § 48.6416(b)(2)-2 in respect of a truck, bus, tractor, etc., taxable under section 4061(a), that, pursuant to section 6416(g), the person who paid the tax possessed at the time that person shipped the article or at the time title to the article passed to that perons's vendee, whichever is earlier, evidence that the article was to be exported to a foreign country or shipped to a possession of the United States.

(3) The amount of tax paid on the sale of the article and the date of payment, and

(4) The internal revenue service office to which the tax was paid.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32034, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(f)-1 Credit on returns.

Any person entitled to claim refund of any overpayment of tax imposed by section 4041, 4042, 4051 or chapter 32 may, in lieu of claiming refund of the overpayment, claim credit for the overpayment on any return of tax under this subpart subsequently filed. Any such credit claimed on a return must be supported by the evidence prescribed in the applicable regulations in this subpart and § 301.6402 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32034, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6416(h)-1 Accounting procedures for like articles.

(a) Identification of manufacturer. In applying section 6416 and the regulations thereunder, a person who has purchased like articles from various manufacturers may determine the particular manufacturer from whom that person purchased any one of those articles by a first-in-first-out (FIFO) method, by a last-in-first-out (LIFO) method, or by any other consistent method approved by the district director. For the first year for which a person makes a determination under this section, the person may adopt any one of the following methods without securing prior approval by the district director.

(1) FIFO method.

(2) LIFO method.

(3) Any method by which the actual manufacturer of the article is in fact identified.

Any other method of determining the manufacturer of a particular article must be approved by the district director before its adoption. After any method for identifying the manufacturer has been properly adopted, it may not be changed without first securing the consent of the district director.

(b) Determining amount of tax paid. In applying section 6416 and the regulations thereunder, if the identity of the manufacturer of any article has been determined by a person pursuant to a method prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section, that manufacturer of the article must determine the tax paid under chapter 32 with respect to that article consistently with the method used in identifying the manufacturer.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32035, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6420-1 Credits or payments to ultimate purchaser of gasoline used on a farm.

(a) In general. If gasoline is used on a farm for farming purposes after June 30, 1965, a credit (under the circumstances described in paragraph (b) of this section) or a payment (under the circumstances described in paragraph (c) of this section) in respect of the gasoline shall be allowed or made to the ultimate purchaser of the gasoline in an amount determined by multiplying (1) the number of gallons of gasoline so used by (2) the rate of tax on gasoline under section 4081 that applied on the date the gasoline was purchased by the ultimate purchaser. No interest shall be paid on any payment, allowed under paragraph (c) of this section. However, interest may be paid on any overpayment (as defined by section 6401) arising from a credit allowed under paragraph (b) of this section. See section 34(a), relating to credit for certain uses of gasoline and special fuels, and lubricating oil used prior to January 7, 1983). See § 48.6420-2 for the time within which a claim for credit or payment must be made. See section 4081 and the regulations thereunder for the rates of tax on gasoline. See § 48.6420-2 for meaning of the terms “Used on a farm for farming purposes,” “farm,” “gasoline,” “ultimate purchaser,” and “taxable year.”

(b) Allowance of income tax credit in lieu of payment. With respect to persons subject to income tax, repayment of the tax paid under section 4081 on gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes may be obtained only by claiming a credit for the amount of this tax against the income tax imposed by subtitle A of the Code. The amount of the credit shall be an amount equal to the payment which would be made under section 6420 with respect to gasoline used during the taxable year on a farm for farming purposes if section 6420(g)(1) and paragraph (c) of this section did not apply. See section 34(a)(1).

(c) Allowance of payment. Payments in respect of gasoline upon which tax was paid under section 4081 that is used on a farm for farming purposes shall be made only to—

(1) The United States or agency or instrumentality thereof, a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an agency or instrumentality of one or more States or political subdivisions of a State, or the District of Columbia, or

(2) An organization which is exempt from tax under section 501(a) and is not required to made a return of the income tax imposed under subtitle A for its taxable year.

(d) Use of gasoline. (1) The credit or payment described in paragraph (a) of this section is allowable only in respect of gasoline used on a farm in the United States for farming purposes. The credit or payment is not allowable with respect to gasoline used for nonfarming purposes, or gasoline used off a farm, regardless of the nature of the use. If a vehicle or other equipment is used both on a farm and off the farm, or if it is used on a farm both for farming and nonfarming purposes, the credit or payment is allowable only with respect to that portion of the gasoline which was “used on a farm for farming purposes” as defined in paragraph (a) of § 48.6420-4. In determining if this requirement is met, neither the type of equipment or vehicle used nor its registration for highway use is material. However, the actual use of the equipment or vehicle and the place where it is used are material. For example, if a truck used on a farm for farming purposes is also used on the highways, gasoline used in connection with operating the truck on the highways is not taken into account in computing the credit or payment.

(2) For purposes of determining the allowable credit or payment in respect of gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes, gasoline on hand shall be considered used in the order in which it was purchased. Thus, if the owner, tenant, or operator of a farm has on hand gasoline acquired in two purchases made at different times and subject to different rates of tax, in determining credit or payment for gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes, it will be assumed that the gasoline purchased first was the first gasoline used, and the rate applicable to that purchase will apply in determining the credit or payment, until all that gasoline is accounted for.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32035, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6420-2 Time for filing claim for credit or payment.

(a) In general. A claim for credit or payment described in § 48.6420-1 with respect to gasoline used after June 30, 1965, on a farm for farming purposes, shall cover only gasoline used during the taxable year on a farm for farming purposes. Therefore, gasoline on hand at the end of a taxable year as, for example, in fuel supply tanks of farm machinery or in storage tanks or drums, must be excluded from a claim filed for that taxable year (but may be included in a claim filed for a later taxable year if used during that later year on a farm for farming purposes). Gasoline used during a taxable year may be covered by a claim filed for that taxable year although the gasoline was not paid for at the time the claim is filed. For purposes of applying this section, a governmental unit or exempt organization described in § 48.6420-1 (c) is considered to have as its taxable year, the calendar year or fiscal year on the basis of which it regularly keeps its books; see paragraph (h) of this section.

(b) Time for filing. (1) A claim for credit with respect to gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes shall not be allowed unless it is filed no later than the time prescribed by section 6511 and the regulations thereunder for filing a claim for credit or refund of income tax for the particular taxable year.

(2) A claim for payment of a governmental unit or exempt organization described in § 48.6420-1(c) must be filed no later than 3 years following the close of its taxable year. (See paragraph (h) of this section.)

(3) See § 301.7502-1 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration) for provisions treating timely mailing as timely filing and § 301.7502-1 of this chapter for time for performance of an act where the last day falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday.

(c) Limit of one claim per taxable year. Not more than one claim may be filed under section 6420 by any person with respect to gasoline used during the same taxable year.

(d) Form and content of claim—(1) Claim for credit. (i) The claim for credit with respect to gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes must be made by attaching a Form 4136 to the income tax return of an individual or a corporation. Form 4136 must be executed in accordance with the instructions prescribed for the preparation of the form. A partnership may not file Form 4136. When a partnership files Form 1065, U.S. Partnership Return of Income, it must include a statement showing how many gallons of gasoline are allocated to each partner and the use made of the gasoline.

(ii) If an individual dies during the taxable year, the claim for credit may be made only for that portion of the individual's taxable year ending with the date of death. If a sole proprietorship, a partnership or corporation is terminated or liquidated during the taxable year, the claim for credit may be made only for the portion of its year ending with the date of the termination or liquidation.

(2) Claim for payment. The claim for payment with respect to gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes by a governmental unit or exempt organization described in § 48.6420-1(c) must be made on Form 843 in accordance with the instructions prescribed for the preparation of the form. The claim by such a unit or organization must be filed with the service center for the internal revenue region in which the principal place of business or principal office of the claimant is located.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32035, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6420-3 Exempt sales; other payments or refunds available.

(a) Exempt sales. Credits or payments are allowable only for gasoline that was sold by the producer or importer in a transaction that was subject to tax under section 4081. No credit or payment shall be allowed or made under § 48.6420-1 with respect to gasoline which was exempt from the tax imposed by section 4081. For example, a State or local government may not file a claim with respect to any gasoline which it purchased tax free from the producer, even though the State or local government used the gasoline on a farm for farming purposes. Similarly, payment may not be made with respect to gasoline purchased by a State tax free for its exclusive use, as provided in section 4221, which is used on a State prison farm for farming purposes.

(b) Other payments or refunds available. Any amount which, without regard to the second sentence of section 6420(d) and this paragraph (b), would be allowable as a credit or payable to any person under § 48.6420-1 with respect to any gasoline is reduced by any other amount which is allowable as a credit or payable under section 6420, or is refundable under any other provision of the Code, to any person with respect to the same gasoline. Thus, a person who is the ultimate purchaser of gasoline may not file a claim for credit or payment with respect to that gasoline if another person is entitled to claim a payment, credit, or refund with respect to the same gasoline. For example, a State or local government may not file a claim for payment if it has executed, or intends to execute, a written consent to enable the producer to claim a credit or refund for the tax that was paid. See, for example, §§ 48.6416(a)-3(b)(2), 48.6416(b)(2)-2(d), and 48.6416(b)(2)-3(b)(1).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32036, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6420-4 Meaning of terms.

For purposes of the regulations under section 6420, unless otherwise expressly indicated—

(a) Used on a farm for farming purposes. The term “used on a farm for farming purposes” applies only to gasoline which is used (1) in carrying on a trade or business of farming, (2) on a farm in the United States, and (3) for farming purposes. Gasoline used in an aircraft will qualify if its use otherwise satisfies these requirements. For the meaning of the term “trade or business of farming,” see paragraph (b) of this section. For the definition of the term “farm,” see paragraph (c) of this section. For the definition of the term “farming purposes,” see paragraphs (d) through (g) of this section. The term “United States” has the meaning assigned to it by section 7701(a)(9).

(b) Trade or business of farming. A person will be considered to be engaged in the trade or business of farming if the person cultivates, operates, or manages a farm for gain or profit, either as an owner or a tenant. A person engaged in forestry or the growing of timber is not thereby engaged in the trade or business of farming. A person who operates a garden plot, orchard, or farm for the primary purpose of growing produce for the person's own use is not considered to be engaged in the trade or business of farming. Generally, the operation of a farm does not constitute the carrying on of a trade or business if the farm is occupied by a person primarily for residential purposes or is used primarily for pleasure, such as for the entertainment of guests or as a hobby.

(c) Farm. The term “farm” is used in its ordinary and accepted sense, and generally means land used for the production of crops, fruits, or other agricultural products or for the sustenance of livestock or poultry. The term “livestock” includes cattle, hogs, horses, mules, donkeys, sheep, goats, and captive fur-bearing animals. The term “poultry” includes chickens, turkeys, geese, ducks, and pigeons. Thus, a farm includes livestock, dairy, poultry, fish, fruit, fur-bearing animals, and truck farms, plantations, ranches, nurseries, ranges, orchards, feed yards for fattening cattle, and greenhouses and other similar structures used primarily for the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities. Greenhouses and other similar structures that are used primarily for purposes other than the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities do not constitute farms, as, for example, structures that are used primarily for the display, storage, fabrication, or sale of wreaths, corsages, and bouquets. A fish farm is an area where fish are grown or raised, as opposed to merely caught or harvested.

(d) Gasoline used in cultivating, raising, or harvesting. Gasoline is used for “farming purposes” when it is used on a farm by the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm in connection with cultivating the soil, raising or harvesting any agricultural or horticultural commodity, or raising, shearing, feeding, caring for, training, or managing livestock, poultry, bees, or wildlife. Examples of operations which are considered to be operations for “farming purposes” within the meaning of this paragraph include plowing, seeding, fertilizing, weed killing, corn or cotton picking, threshing, combining, baling, silo filling, and chopping silage.

(e) Gasoline used in handling, packing, or storing. (1) Gasoline is used for “farming purposes” when it is used by the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm in handling, drying, packing, grading, or storing any agricultural or horticultural commodity in its unmanufactured state, but only if the owner, tenant, or operator produced more than one-half of the commodity which was so treated during the taxable year for which claim for credit or payment is filed.

(2) Gasoline used in connection with canning, freezing, packaging, or processing operations will not be considered to be used for farming purposes, even though these operations are performed on a farm. Thus, for example, although gasoline used on a farm in connection with the production or harvesting of maple sap or oleoresin from a living tree is considered to be used for farming purposes under paragraph (d) of this section, gasoline used in the processing of maple sap into maple syrup or maple sugar or used in the processing of oleoresin into gum spirits of turpentine or gum resin is not used for farming purposes, even though these processing operations are conducted on a farm.

(3) Gasoline used in connection with processing operations which change a commodity from its raw or natural state, or operations performed with respect to a commodity after its character has been changed from its raw or natural state by a processing operation, will not be considered to be used for farming purposes. For example, gasoline used for the extraction of juices from fruits or vegetables is used in a processing operation which changes the character of the fruits or vegetables from their raw or natural state and will not be considered to be used for “farming purposes.”

(4) The term “commodity,” as used in this paragraph (e), refers to a single agricultural or horticultural product. For example, all apples are treated as a single commodity while apples and peaches are treated as two separate commodities. Operations with respect to each commodity are to be considered separately in applying the “one-half” production test described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.

(f) Gasoline used in planting, cultivating, or caring for trees. Gasoline is used “for farming purposes” when it is used by the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm in connection with the planting, cultivating, caring for, or cutting of trees that is incidental to the farming operations of the farm on which it is performed or incidental to the farming operations of the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm, or in connection with the preparation (other than milling) of trees for market that is incidental to these farming operations. These operations include the felling of trees and cutting them into logs or firewood but do not include sawing logs into lumber, chipping, or other milling operations. Operations of the prescribed character will be considered incidental to farming operations only if they are of a minor nature in comparison with the total farming operations involved. Therefore, a tree farmer or timber grower may not claim credit or payment under § 48.6420-1 with respect to gasoline used in connection with the trade or business of tree farming or timber growing.

(g) Gasoline used in the maintenance of a farm or farm equipment. Gasoline is used “for farming purposes” when it is used by the owner, tenant, or operator of a farm in connection with the operation, management, conservation, improvement, or maintenance of the farm and its tools and equipment. The activities included are those which contribute in any way to the conduct of the farm as such, as distinguished from any other enterprise in which the owner, tenant, or operator may be engaged. Examples of included operations are clearing land, repairing fences and farm buildings, building terraces or irrigation ditches, cleaning tools or farm machinery, and painting farm buildings. Since the gasoline must be used by the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm to which the operations relate, gasoline used by an organization which contracts with a farmer to renovate his farm properties is not used for farming purposes. Gasoline used in a gasoline-powered lawn mower for maintaining a lawn is not used for farming purposes.

(h) Taxable year. The “taxable year” of a governmental unit or tax-exempt organization described in § 48.6420-1(c) is the calendar or fiscal year on the basis of which it regularly keeps its books. The “taxable year” of persons subject to income tax shall have the meaning as it has under section 7701(a)(23).

(i) Gasoline. The term “gasoline” has the same meaning given to this term by section 4082(b) and the regulations thereunder.

(j) Ultimate purchaser. The term “ultimate purchaser” includes only a person who is an owner, tenant, or operator of a farm. A person who is an owner, tenant, or operator of a farm is an ultimate purchaser of gasoline only with respect to such gasoline as is purchased by the person and used for farming purposes on a farm of which the person is the owner, tenant, or operator. Thus the owner of a farm who purchases gasoline which is used on the farm by its owner, tenant, or operator for farming purposes is generally the ultimate purchaser of the gasoline. If, however, the cost of gasoline supplied by an owner, tenant, or operator of a farm, is by agreement or other arrangement borne by a second person who is an owner, or operator of the farm, the second person who bore the cost of the gasoline is considered to be the ultimate purchaser of the gasoline.

(k) Certain farming use by persons other than the owner, tenant or operator—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (l) of this section, the owner, tenant, or operator of a farm on which gasoline is used by any other person for the purposes described in section 6420(c)(3)(A) and paragraph (d) of this section (relating to gasoline used in cultivating, raising, or harvesting) will be treated, for the purposes of § 48.6420-1 (a), as the ultimate purchaser who used the gasoline on the farm for farming purposes.

(2) Example. The rule of paragraph (k)(1) of this section may be illustrated by the following example.

Example.Farmer A hired custom operator B to cultivate the soil on A's farm. B used 200 gallons of gasoline which B had purchased in performing the work on A's farm. In addition, A hired Farmer C to do some plowing on A's farm, using C's own tractor and 50 gallons of gasoline which C had purchased. A is deemed to be the ultimate purchaser and user of the gasoline used on A's farm by B and C, and A is entitled to take a credit in respect of the gasoline. Accordingly, no credit in respect to the gasoline may be taken by either B or C.

(l) Aerial applicators treated as ultimate purchasers—(1) General rule. Section 6420(c)(3)(A) provides that only the owner, tenant, or operator of a farm is entitled to be treated as a user and ultimate purchaser. Section 6420(c)(4) provides that, under section 6420(c)(3)(A), an aerial applicator or other applicator is entitled to be treated as the user and ultimate purchaser of gasoline used by it on a farm for the purposes described in section 6420(c)(3)(A), but only if the owner, tenant, or operator who is otherwise entitled to treatment as the user and ultimate purchaser waives the right to credit or payment. See paragraph (l)(2) of this section.

(2) Form and manner of waiver. To waive the right to be treated as user and ultimate purchaser of gasoline which is used on a farm by an aerial applicator or other applicator, the owner, tenant, or operator of a farm who is otherwise entitled to treatment as user and ultimate purchaser must execute an irrevocable written agreement (as here described) no later than the date on which the aerial applicator or other applicator claiming the credit or payment files its return for the taxable year in which the gasoline is used. The agreement must identify the period for which the owner, tenant, or operator waives the right to credit or payment. The effective period of the waiver cannot extend beyond the last day of the taxable year of the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm on which the gasoline was used. If the owner, tenant, or operator's taxable year extends beyond the taxable year of the applicator, the applicator can only claim a credit or payment for periods included in the applicator's taxable year. Periods after the last day of the applicator's taxable year which are included under the agreement must be claimed on the applicator's return for the next succeeding taxable year. The waiver may be in the form shown under paragraph (l)(6) of this section or in any other form that meets the requirements of this paragraph and clearly states that the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm knowingly waives the right to receive the credit or payment.

(3) Agreement included on aerial applicator's invoice. The agreement waiving a right to receive a credit or payment under section 6420 may be a separate document or may appear on the invoice for aerial application services or other unrelated document from the aerial applicator or other applicator to the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm. If the waiver agreement appears on an invoice or other unrelated document, however, it must be printed in a section of the invoice or other document clearly set off from all other material contained in the invoice or other document, and it must be printed in type sufficiently large to put the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm on notice that the person has waived the right to receive a credit or payment under section 6420. Additionally, if the waiver agreement appears as part of any invoice or other unrelated document, it must be executed separately from any other item included in the invoice or other document which requires the owner, tenant, or operator's signature.

(4) Copies of agreement waiving right to credit or payment. No copies of any agreement waiving a right to credits or payments under section 6420 are to be submitted to the Internal Revenue Service unless a request is made by the Service to the taxpayer for the waivers. Aerial applicators must, however, retain copies of all waivers, and a copy of each waiver must be supplied by the aerial applicator to the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm who waives the right to receive a credit or payment. See regulations § 48.6420-6 for general requirements for records to be kept.

(5) Waiver on behalf of owner, tenant, or operator of farm. An agent of the owner, tenant, or operator of a farm who is expressly authorized to act on behalf of and to bind the owner, tenant, or operator may waive that person's rights to a credit or payment under section 6420 by signing the waiver on the person's behalf.

(6) Sample form of agreement. While no specific form is required for an effective waiver, an acceptable form waiving the right to receive a credit or payment under section 6420 follows:

I hereby waive my right as owner/tenant/operator of a farm located at ____________ (address) ____________ to receive credit or payment from the United States for gasoline used by __________ (aerial applicator) ____________ on the farm in connection with cultivating the soil, or the raising or harvesting of any agricultural or horticultural commodity. This waiver applies to gasoline used during the period ____________ both dates inclusive. I understand that by signing this waiver, I give up my right to claim any credit or payment for gasoline used by the aerial applicator during the period indicated, and I acknowledge that I have not previously claimed any credit for that gasoline.

(Signature of Owner/Tenant/Operator)

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32036, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8152, 52 FR 31621, Aug. 21, 1987]

§ 48.6420-5 Applicable laws.

(a) Penalties, excessive claims, etc. All provisions of law, including penalties, applicable in respect of the tax imposed by section 4081 shall, to the extent applicable and consistent with section 6420, apply in respect of the payments provided for in section 6420 to the same extent as if these payments were refunds of overpayments of the tax imposed on the sale of gasoline under section 4081. For special rules applicable to the assessment and collection of amounts constituting excessive payments under section 6420, see section 6206 and the regulations thereunder. For the civil penalty assessable in the case of excessive claims under section 6420, see section 6675 and the regulations thereunder. For the treatment as an overpayment of an amount allowable as an excessive credit under section 39 with respect to amounts payable under section 6420, see section 6401(b).

(b) Examination of books and witnesses. For the purpose of ascertaining (1) the correctness of any claim made under section 6420 or (2) the correctness of any credit or payment made in respect of the claim, the Commissioner shall have the same authority granted by paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of section 7602, relating to examination of books and witnesses, as if the person claiming credit or payment under section 6420 were the person liable for tax.

(c) Fractional part of a dollar. Section 6420(e)(3) provides that section 7504, relating to fractional parts of a dollar, shall not apply with respect to the allowance of any amount as a credit or payment under section 6420. Accordingly, credits or payments authorized by section 6420 shall be made in the exact amount to which the claimant is entitled and shall not be rounded to the nearest whole dollar amount.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32038, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6420-6 Records to be kept in substantiation of credits or payments.

(a) In general. Every person making a claim for credit or payment under section 6420 must keep records sufficient to enable the district director to determine whether the person is entitled to credit or payment under section 6420 and, if so, the amount of the credit or payment. No particular form is prescribed for keeping the records, but the records must include a copy of the income tax return or claim and a copy of any statement or document submitted with the return or claim. The records must also show with respect to the taxable year covered by the claim—

(1) The number of gallons of gasoline purchased and the dates of purchase,

(2) The name and address of each vendor from whom gasoline was purchased and the total number of gallons purchased from each,

(3) The number of gallons of gasoline purchased by the claimant and used during the taxable year for farming purposes on a farm of which the claimant is the owner, tenant, or operator,

(4) The number of gallons of gasoline used during the taxable year for the purposes described in section 6420(c)(3)(A) and § 48.6420-4(d) (relating to cultivating, raising, or harvesting) by a person other than the owner, tenant, or operator on a farm of which the claimant is the owner, tenant, or operator, and

(5) Other information as necessary to establish the correctness of the claim.

(b) Acceptable records. (1) Evidence of purchases of gasoline, and the purposes for which it was used, to substantiate claims may include paid duplicate sales invoices or tickets from the gasoline dealer or other vendor, and detailed records of all fuel used which show the amount consumed on a farm for farming purposes and the amount used for other purposes.

(2) Records maintained for Federal or State income tax purposes, or to support claims for refund of a State tax on gasoline, may be used to the extent that they contain the information necessary to substantiate the accuracy of the claim for credit under section 6420. However, the records must show separately the number of gallons of gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes.

(3) If trucks or other vehicles are used both on and off the farm, an allocation of gasoline used in the vehicle will be required to show separately the number of gallons of gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes in respect of which the claim is made.

(4) If the owner, tenant, or operator is entitled under section 6420(c)(4)(A) to claim credit or payment in respect of gasoline used on the person's farm by another person other than an owner, tenant, or operator of the farm for a purpose described in section 6420(c)(3)(A) and § 48.6420-4(d), the claimant must have records showing (i) the name and address of the person who performed the farming operation, (ii) a description of the type of work (such as plowing, threshing, combining, etc.) and the type of equipment used, (iii) the date or dates on which the work was done, and (iv) the number of gallons of gasoline so used on the claimant's farm.

(c) Place and period for keeping records. (1) All records required by this section must be kept by the claimant at a convenient and safe location within the United States which is accessible to internal revenue officers and shall during normal business hours be available for inspection by internal revenue officers. If the claimant has a principal place of business in the United States, the records must be kept at that place of business.

(2) Records required to substantiate a claim under section 6420 must be maintained for a period of at least 3 years from the last date prescribed for the filing of the claim for credit or payment.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32038, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6420(a)-2 Gasoline includible in claim.

Payment may be claimed under section 6420 only in respect of gasoline used on a farm in the United States for farming purposes. No payment is allowable under section 6420 with respect to gasoline used for nonfarming purposes, or gasoline used off a farm, regardless of the nature of such use. If a vehicle or other equipment is used both on a farm and off the farm, or if it is used on a farm both for farming and nonfarming purposes, payment is allowable only with respect to that portion of the gasoline which was “used on a farm for farming purposes” as defined in paragraph (a) of § 48.6420(c)-1. The type of equipment or vehicle and whether or not it is registered for highway use is immaterial. However, the actual use of the equipment or vehicle and place where it is used are material. For example, if a truck used on a farm for farming purposes is also used on the highways (even though in connection with operating the farm), the gasoline used in operating the truck on the highways is not to be taken into account in computing the payment for which a claim is filed, since such gasoline was used off the farm.

[T.D. 6433, 24 FR 10395, Dec. 22, 1959]

§ 48.6421-0 Off-highway business use.

For purposes of the regulations under section 6421, after March 31, 1983, the term “off-highway business use” is used in lieu of the term “qualified business use” and has the same meaning as “qualified business use” under § 48.6421-4(b).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32039, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6421-1 Credits or payments to ultimate purchaser of gasoline used for certain nonhighway purposes.

(a) In general. (1) If gasoline is used in a qualified business use or as fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation), a credit (under the circumstances described in paragraph (b) of this section) or a payment (under the circumstances described in paragraph (c) of this section) in respect of the gasoline shall be allowed or made to the ultimate purchaser of the gasoline. For gasoline used in a qualified business use prior to April 1, 1983, the credit or payment under this section shall be an amount equal to 1 cent for each gallon of gasoline so used on which the tax was paid at the rate of 3 cents a gallon, and 2 cents for each gallon of gasoline so used on which the tax was paid at the rate of 4 cents a gallon. For gasoline used in an off-highway business use after March 31, 1983, the credit or payment under this section shall be an amount equal to the amount determined by multiplying the number of gallons so used by the rate at which tax was imposed on such gasoline under section 4081. For gasoline used as a fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation) the credit or payment under this section shall be an amount equal to the amount determined by multiplying the number of gallons so used by the rate at which tax was imposed on the gasoline under section 4081. No interest shall be paid on any payment allowed under paragraph (c) of this section. However, interest may be paid on any overpayment (as defined by section 6401) arising from a credit allowed under paragraph (b) of this section. See section 34(a), relating to credit for certain uses of gasoline and special fuels (and lubricating oil used prior to January 7, 1983). See § 48.6421-3 for the time within which a claim for credit or payment must be made under this section. See § 48.6421-4 for the meaning of the terms “gasoline,” “qualified business use,” “noncommercial aviation,” and “taxable year.”

(2) For purposes of determining the allowable credit or payment in respect of gasoline used in a qualified business use or as fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation), gasoline on hand shall be considered used in the order in which it was purchased. Thus, if the ultimate purchaser has on hand gasoline acquired in two purchases made at different times and subject to different rates of tax, in determining credit or payment for the gasoline used in a qualified business use or as fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation), it will be assumed that the gasoline first purchased was the first gasoline used, and the rate applicable to that purchase will apply in determining the credit or payment, until all that gasoline is accounted for.

(b) Allowance of income tax credit in lieu of payment. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, repayment under this section of the tax paid under section 4081 on gasoline used in a qualified business use or as a fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation) by a person subject to income tax may be obtained only by claiming a credit for the amount of this tax against the tax imposed by subtitle A of the Code. The amount of the credit shall be an amount equal to the payment which would be made under section 6421 with respect to gasoline used during the taxable year in a qualified business use or as a fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation) if section 6421(i) and paragraph (c) of this section did not apply. See section 34(a)(2).

(c) Allowance of payment. Payments in respect of gasoline upon which tax was paid under section 4081 that is used in a qualified business use or as a fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation) shall be made only to—

(1) The United States or any agency or instrumentality thereof, a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an agency or instrumentality of one or more State political subdivisions of a State, or the District of Columbia,

(2) An organization which is exempt from tax under section 501(a) and is not required to make a return of the income tax imposed under subtitle A for its taxable year, or

(3) A person described in section 6421(c)(2) to whom $1,000 or more is payable (without regard to paragraph (b) of this section) under this section with respect to gasoline used during any of the first three quarters of the person's taxable year.

(d) Dual use of gasoline. (1) No credit or payment may be claimed in respect of gasoline used in a highway vehicle used in a trade or business or for the production of income solely by reason of the fact that the propulsion motor in the vehicle is also used for a purpose other than the propulsion of the vehicle. Thus, if the propulsion motor of a highway vehicle (used in a trade or business or for the production of income) also operates special equipment, such as a mixing unit on a concrete mixer truck or a pump for discharging fuel from a tank truck, by means of a power takeoff or power transfer, no credit or payment may be claimed in respect of the gasoline used to operate the special equipment, even though the special equipment is mounted on the highway vehicle.

(2) If a highway vehicle is equipped with a separate motor to operate the special equipment used in a trade or business or for the production of income, such as a refrigeration unit, pump, generator, or mixing unit, credit or payment may be claimed in respect of the gasoline used in the separate motor.

(3) If gasoline used in a separate motor is drawn from the same tank as the one which supplies gasoline for the propulsion of the highway vehicle, the determination as to the quantity of gasoline used in the separate motor operating the special equipment must be based on operating experience and supported by records.

(4) Devices to measure the number of miles the highway vehicle has traveled, such as hubometers, may be used in making a preliminary determination of the number of gallons of gasoline used to propel the vehicle. In order to make a final determination of the number of gallons of gasoline used to propel the vehicle, there must be added to this preliminary determination the number of gallons of gasoline consumed while idling or warming up the motor preparatory to propelling the vehicle.

(e) Gasoline lost or destroyed. Gasoline lost or destroyed through spillage, fire, or other casualty is not considered to have been “used” in a qualified business use or as fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation) and, accordingly, credit or payment in respect of the gasoline may not be claimed.

(f) Supporting evidence required. Each claim under this section for credit or payment must include a statement showing—

(1) The total number of gallons of gasoline purchased and used during the period covered by the claim in a qualified business use multiplied by the rate of payment allowable in respect of the gasoline. (For the rate of payment allowable, see paragraph (a)(1) of this section.)

(2) The total number of gallons of gasoline purchased and used during the period covered by the claim for use as fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation) multiplied by the rate of payment allowable in respect of the gasoline.

(3) The purpose or purposes for which the gasoline was used, determined by reference to general categories, and the amount used for each purpose; and

(4) If a claim on Form 843 is being filed, the internal revenue district or service center with which the claimant last filed an income tax return (if any).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32039, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6421-2 Credits or payments to ultimate purchasers of gasoline used in intercity, local, or school buses.

(a) In general. If gasoline is used in an intercity or local bus while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in a school bus engaged in the transportation of students or employees of schools, a credit (under the circumstances described in paragraph (b) of this section) or a payment (under the circumstances described in paragraph (c) of this section) in respect to the gasoline shall be allowed or made to the ultimate purchaser of the gasoline. The credit or payment under this section shall be an amount equal to the product of the number of gallons of gasoline so used multiplied by the rate at which tax was imposed on the gasoline by section 4081. No interest shall be paid on any payment allowed under paragraph (c) of this section. However, interest may be paid on an overpayment (as defined by section 6401) arising from a credit allowed under paragraph (b) of this section. See section 34(a) relating to credit for certain uses of gasoline and special fuels, (and lubricating oil used prior to January 7, 1983). See § 48.6421-3 for the time within which a claim for credit or payment must be made under this section. See § 48.6421-4 for the meaning of “gasoline.”

(b) Allowance of income tax credit. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, repayment under this section of the tax paid under section 4081 of gasoline used while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus transportation operations by a person subject to income tax may be obtained only by claiming a credit for the amount of this tax against the tax imposed by subtitle A of the Code. The amount of the credit shall be an amount equal to the payment which would be made under section 6421 with respect to gasoline used during the taxable year for this passenger land transportation or school bus operations if section 6421(i) and paragraph (c) of this section did not apply. See section 34(a)(2).

(c) Allowance of payment. Payments in respect of gasoline upon which tax was paid under section 4081 that is used while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus transportation operations shall be made only to—

(1) The United States or any agency or instrumentality thereof, a State, or political subdivision of a State, or an agency or instrumentality of one or more States or political subdivisions of a State, or the District of Columbia,

(2) An organization which is exempt from tax under section 501(a) and is not required to make a return of the income tax imposed under subtitle A for its taxable year, or

(3) A person described in section 6421(c)(2) to whom $1,000 or more is payable (without regard to paragraph (b) of this section) under this section with respect to gasoline used during any of the first three quarters of the person's taxable year.

(d) Supporting evidence required. Each claim under this section for credit or payment must include a statement showing—

(1) The total number of gallons of gasoline purchased and used during the period covered by the claim for each intercity or local bus while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public multiplied by the rate at which tax was imposed on the gasoline by section 4081.

(2) The total number of gallons of gasoline purchased and used in each bus while engaged in school bus transportation operations multiplied by the rate at which tax was imposed on the gasoline by section 4081, and

(3) If a claim on Form 843 is being filed, the internal revenue district or service center with which the claimant last filed an income tax return (if any).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32040, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17161, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.6421-3 Time for filing claim for credit or payment.

(a) In general. A claim for credit or payment described in § 48.6421-1 with respect to gasoline used in a qualified business use or as a fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation) or in § 48.6421-2 with respect to gasoline used either in an intercity or local bus while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus transportation operations, shall cover only gasoline used during the taxable year, or when paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies, gasoline used during the calendar quarter. Therefore, gasoline on hand at the end of a taxable year, or, if applicable, a calendar quarter, such as gasoline in fuel supply tanks of vehicles or in storage tanks or drums, must be excluded from a claim filed for the taxable year or calendar quarter, as the case may be. However, this gasoline may be included in a claim filed for a later taxable year or a later calendar quarter if it is used during that later year or quarter in a qualified business use, as fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft in noncommercial aviation), or in intercity, local, or school buses. Gasoline used during the taxable year or calendar quarter may be covered by the claim for that period although the gasoline was not paid for at the time the claim is filed. For purposes of applying this section, a governmental unit or exempt organization described in § 48.6421-1(c) or § 48.6421-2(c) is considered to have as its taxable year, the calendar year or fiscal year on the basis of which it regularly keeps its books; see § 48.6421-4(g).

(b) Time for filing—(1) Annual claims. (i) A claim under this section for credit or payment with respect to gasoline shall not be allowed unless it is filed no later than the time prescribed by section 6511 and the regulations thereunder for filing a claim for credit or refund of income tax for the particular taxable year.

(ii) A claim for payment of a governmental unit or exempt organization described in § 48.6421-1(c) or § 48.6421-2(c) must be filed no later than 3 years following the close of its taxable year (see § 48.6421-4).

(2) Quarterly claims. A claim for payment of $1,000 or more in respect of gasoline used during any of the first three quarters of the taxable year, filed either under § 48.6421-1(c)(3) in respect of gasoline used in a qualified business use or as a fuel in an aircraft (other than aircraft used in noncommercial aviation) or under § 48.6421-2(c)(3) in respect of gasoline used while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus operations, shall not be allowed unless the claim is filed on or before the last day of the first calendar quarter following the calendar quarter for which the claim is filed. No quarterly claim may be filed for the last calendar quarter of the taxable year. Amounts for which payment is disallowed under this paragraph (b)(2) merely because the claim was not filed on time may be included in an annual claim filed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, but other amounts for which a claim for payment has been filed under this paragraph (b)(2) may not be included in an annual claim filed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(3) Other applicable rules. See § 301.7502-1 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration) for provisions treating timely mailing as timely filing and § 301.7503-1 of this chapter for time for performance of an act where the last day falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday.

(c) Limit on claims per taxable year. Not more than one claim may be filed under § 48.6421-1 or § 48.6421-2 by any person with respect to gasoline used during any taxable year, except to the extent that quarterly claims may be filed under paragraph (b)(2) of this section with respect to any calendar quarter (other than the last calendar quarter) of the taxable year.

(d) Form and content of claim—(1) Claim for credit. The claim for credit to which this section applies must be made by attaching a Form 4136 to the income tax return of an individual or a corporation. Form 4136 must be executed in accordance with the instructions prescribed for the preparation of the form. A partnership may not file Form 4136. When a partnership files Form 1065, U.S. Partnership Return of Income, it must include a statement showing how many gallons of gasoline are allocated to each partner and the use made of the gasoline.

(2) Claim for payment. The claim for payment to which this section applies must be made on Form 8849 (or on such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions prescribed for the preparation of the form. Each form must designate the taxable year, or calendar quarter, for which it is filed.

(3) Death or termination. (i) If an individual dies, or if a sole proprietorship, partnership, or corporation is terminated or liquidated, during the taxable year, the claim for credit or payment may be filed in respect of gasoline used during the short taxable year in the same manner as is provided for gasoline used in a full taxable year. Those months which constitute a quarter of a full taxable year will constitute the same quarter of the short taxable year. For example, if a corporation using the calendar year is liquidated on September 30, 1982, and is entitled to $900 under § 48.6421-1 in respect of gasoline used in a qualified business use for the calendar quarters ending June 30 and September 30, it may file a claim for payment in respect of the gasoline used during the calendar quarters ending June 30, and September 30, 1981, and take a credit of $900 on its income tax return for the short taxable year in respect of the gasoline used during the calendar quarter ending March 31, 1982.

(ii) A claim for payment on behalf of a decedent may be filed by the decedent's executor, administrator, or any other person charged with responsibility for the decedent's affairs. Such a claim must be accompanied by copies of the letters testamentary, letters of administration, or, in the case of a claim filed by other than the executor or administrator, the information called for in Form 1310 (Statement of Person Claiming Refund Due a Deceased Taxpayer). The claim may cover only gasoline in respect of which the decedent would have been entitled to claim payment. For example, if an individual dies on July 15, 1982, prior to claiming payment under § 48.6421-1 or $1,000 or more applicable to gasoline purchased and used in a qualified business use during the calendar quarter ending June 30, 1982, the decedent's executor or other legal representative may file a claim for payment covering that calendar quarter, and take the credit provided by section 39(a)(2) against the decedent's income tax on the income tax return for the short taxable year in respect of gasoline purchased by the decedent and so used during the period from July 1, 1982 to July 15, 1982, the date of death.

(e) Restrictions on claims for credit or payment. Credits or payments are allowable only in respect of gasoline that was sold by the producer or importer in a transaction that was subject to tax under section 4081. For example, a State or local government may not file a claim with respect to any gasoline which it purchased tax free from the producer, even though the State or local government used the gasoline as a fuel for the purposes described in paragraph (a) of this section. Similarly, a governmental unit or tax-exempt organization that is the ultimate purchaser of gasoline may not file a claim for payment if it is known that another person is entitled to claim credit, payment, or refund with respect to the same gasoline. For example, a State or local government may not file a claim for payment if it has executed, or intends to execute, a written consent, or other documentation, to enable the producer to claim credit or refund for the tax that was paid. See, for example, §§ 48.6416(a)-3 and 48.6416(b)(2)-3(b)(1).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32041, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10463, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 8748, 63 FR 26, Jan. 2, 1998]

§ 48.6421-4 Meaning of terms.

For purposes of the regulations under section 6421, unless otherwise expressly indicated—

(a) Gasoline. The term “gasoline” has the same meaning given to such term by section 4082(b) and regulations thereunder.

(b) Qualified business use. (1) The term “qualified business use” means any use by a person in a trade or business of the person or in an activity of the person described in section 212 (relating to production of income) otherwise than as a fuel in a highway vehicle—

(i) That at the time of the use is registered, or is required to be registered, for highway use under the laws of any state, the District of Columbia, or a foreign country, or

(ii) That, in the case of a highway vehicles owned by the United States, is used on the highway.

The term “qualified business use” does not include any use in a motorboat, other than a vessel used in the fisheries or whaling business. See paragraph (c) of this section for the definition of “highway vehicle.” See paragraph (d) of this section for the definition of “highway.”

(2) Any highway vehicle operated under a dealer's tag, license, or permit will be considered to be registered. A highway vehicle is not considered to be “registered” solely because there has been issued a special permit for operation of the vehicle at particular times and under specified conditions. However, a highway vehicle that is required to be registered and that is also issued a special permit for operation of the vehicle under specified conditions, such as carrying an oversize load, is still considered to be “registered.”

(3) Nonbusiness, off-highway use of gasoline by such vehicles and equipment as minibikes, snowmobiles, power lawn mowers, chain saws, and other yard equipment does not qualify as gasoline used a qualified business use.

(4) Examples of gasoline used in a qualified business use include:

(i) Gasoline used (in a trade or business or for the production of income) in stationary engines to operate pumps, generators, compressors, and power saws;

(ii) Gasoline used (in a trade or business or for the production of income) for cleaning purposes;

(iii) Gasoline used (in a trade or business or for the production of income) in forklift trucks, bulldozers, and earthmovers; and

(iv) Gasoline used by a nonhighway vehicle in connection with the trade or business of construction, mining or logging.

(5) Illustration. The application of this paragraph (b) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.M Corporation, a logging company, files its income tax return on the basis of the calendar year. During 1982, the company used 20,000 gallons of gasoline in its logging business. Of this amount, 12,000 gallons were used as fuel in registered highway vehicles which were operated both on the public highways and on the company's private roads. Of the remaining 8,000 gallons, 6,000 were used in nonhighway vehicles, such as tractors and bulldozers, and 2,000 gallons were used in highway vehicles, such as heavy trucks which, at the time of use, were neither registered nor required to be registered under state law for highway use by reason of being operated entirely on the company's property. As the ultimate purchaser, M may take a credit on its income tax return for 1982 under this section in respect of the 6,000 gallons used in the nonhighway vehicles and the 2,000 gallons used in the unregistered highway vehicles. However, no credit may be allowed with respect to the 12,000 gallons used in the registered highway vehicles even though a portion of this gasoline was used in operating the vehicles on the company's own property.

(c) Highway vehicle. The term “highway vehicle” has the same meaning assigned to this term under § 48.4061(a)-1(d).

(d) Highway. The term “highway” includes any road, whether a Federal highway, State highway, city street, or otherwise, in the United States which is not a private roadway.

(e) Noncommercial aviation. The term “non-commercial aviation” has the same meaning given to such term by section 4041(c)(4).

(f) Calendar quarter. The term “calendar quarter” means a period of three calendar months ending on March 31, June 30, September 30, or December 31.

(g) Taxable year. The “taxable year” of a governmental unit or tax-exempt organization described in § 48.6421-1(c) or § 48.6421-2(c) is the calendar or fiscal year on the basis of which it regularly keeps its books. The “taxable year” of persons subject to income tax shall have the meaning it has under section 7701(a)(23).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32042, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6421-5 Exempt sales; other payments or refunds available.

(a) Exempt sales. No credit or payment shall be allowed or made under § 48.6421-1 or § 48.6421-2 with respect to gasoline which was exempt from the tax imposed by section 4081. For example, credit or payment may not be allowed or made with respect to gasoline purchased tax free for use as supplies for certain vessels and airplanes, or with respect to gasoline purchased by a State tax free for its exclusive use, as provided in section 4221.

(b) Other payments or refunds available. Any amount which, without regard to the second sentence of section 6421(e)(1) and this paragraph (b), would be allowable as a credit or payable to any person under § 48.6421-1 or § 48.6421-2 is reduced by any other amount which is allowable as a credit or payable under section 6421, or is refundable under any other provision of the Code, to any person with respect to the same gasoline.

(c) Gasoline used on farms. Payments with respect to gasoline used on a farm for farming purposes shall be claimed under section 6420 and § 48.6420-1, and no claim in respect of that gasoline may be made under section 6421 and the regulations thereunder.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32042, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6421-6 Applicable laws.

(a) Penalties, excessive claims, etc. All provisions of law, including penalties, applicable in respect of the tax imposed by section 4081 shall, to the extent applicable and consistent with section 6421, apply in respect of the payments provided for in section 6421 to the same extent as if these payments were refunds of overpayments of the tax imposed on the sale of gasoline by section 4081. For special rules applicable to the assessment and collection of amounts constituting excessive payments under section 6421, see section 6206 and the regulations thereunder. For the civil penalty assessable in the case of excessive claims under section 6421, see section 6675 and the regulations thereunder. For the treatment as an overpayment of an amount allowable as an excessive credit under section 34 (section 39 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 prior to its revision by the Tax Reform Act of 1984) with respect to amounts payable under section 6421, see section 6401(b).

(b) Examination of books and witnesses. For the purpose of ascertaining (1) the correctness of any claim made under section 6421 or (2) the correctness of any credit or payment made in respect of the claim, the Commissioner shall have the same authority granted by paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of section 7602, relating to examination of books and witnesses, as if the person claiming credits or payment under section 6421 were the person liable for tax.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32042, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6421-7 Records to be kept in substantiation of credits or payments.

(a) In general. Every person making a claim for credit or payment under section 6421 must keep records sufficient to enable the district director to determine whether the person is entitled to credit or payment under section 6421 and, if so, the amount of the credit or payment. No particular form is prescribed for keeping the records, but the records must include a copy of any statement or document submitted with the return or claim. The records must also show with respect to the period covered by the claim—

(1) The number of gallons of gasoline purchased and the dates of purchase,

(2) The name and address of each vendor from whom gasoline was purchased and the total number of gallons purchased from each,

(3) The number of gallons of gasoline purchased by the claimant and used during the period covered by the claim for nonhighway purposes or in intercity, local or school buses,

(4) Other information as necessary to establish the correctness of the claim.

(b) Acceptable records. (1) Evidence of purchases of gasoline, and the purposes for which it was used, to substantiate claims may include paid duplicate sales invoices or tickets from the gasoline dealer or other vendor, and detailed records of all fuel used which show the amount used for the prescribed purpose and the amount used for other purposes.

(2) Records maintained for Federal or State income tax purposes, or to support claims for refund of a State tax on gasoline, may be used to the extent that they contain the information necessary to substantiate the accuracy of the claim for credit under section 6421. However, the records must show separately the number of gallons of gasoline used for nonhighway purposes or in intercity, local, or school buses during the period covered by the claim.

(c) Place and period for keeping records. (1) All records required by this section must be kept by the claimant at a convenient and safe location within the United States which is accessible to internal revenue officers and shall during normal business hours be available for inspection by internal revenue officers. If the claimant has a principal place of business in the United States, the records must be kept at that place of business.

(2) Records required to substantiate a claim under section 6421 must be maintained for a period of at least 3 years from the last date prescribed for the filing of the claim for credit or payment.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32043, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6427-0 Off-highway business use.

For purposes of the regulations under section 6427, after March 31, 1983, the term “off-highway business use” is used in lieu of the term “qualified business use” and has the same meaning as “qualified business use” under § 48.6421-1(b).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32046, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6427-1 Credit or payments to purchaser of special fuels resold or used for nontaxable, farming, or other purposes.

(a) Amount of repayment—(1) Nontaxable or other uses. (i) If tax has been paid under section 4041(a)(1) on the sale of diesel fuel for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle or under section 4041(a)(2) on the sale of special motor fuel for use as a fuel in a motor vehicle or a motorboat and the fuel is used by the purchaser for a nontaxable purpose or for a purpose taxable at a lower rate than the purposes for which sold, a credit (under the circumstances described in paragraph (b) of this section) or a payment (under the circumstances described in paragraph (c) of this section) in respect of the fuel shall be allowed or made to the purchaser of the fuel in an amount equal to—

(A) The amount of the tax imposed on the sale of the fuel to the purchaser if the purchaser resells the fuel, or

(B) If the purchaser uses the fuel, the amount of tax imposed on the sale of the fuel to the purchaser, less the amount of tax, if any, that would have been imposed on the purchaser's use of the fuel if no tax had been imposed on the sale of the fuel to the purchaser.

(ii) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and for the regulations under section 6427 applying such paragraph, tax imposed on the sale of fuel will be treated as an overpayment by the purchaser if the person resells the fuel or uses it for a nontaxable purpose or for a purpose taxable at a lower rate than that for which sold to the purchaser. Thus, for example, special motor fuel which was sold tax paid to the purchaser for use otherwise than in a qualified business use in a motor vehicle will qualify for the payment under section 6427 if the purchaser uses it as a fuel in a qualified business use.

(2) Used for farming purposes. (i) If tax has been paid under section 4041(a)(1) on the sale of diesel fuel for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle, or under section 4041(a)(2) on the sale of special motor fuel for use as a fuel in a motor vehicle or a motor boat and the fuel is used on a farm for farming purposes, a credit (under the circumstances described in paragraph (b) of this section) or a payment (under the circumstances described in paragraph (c) (1) or (2) of this section) in respect of the fuel shall be allowed or made to the purchaser of the fuel in an amount equal to the amount of tax that was imposed under section 4041 on the sale of the fuel. The provisions of section 6420(c) (1), (2), and (3) and § 48.6420-4 shall apply under this paragraph (a)(2) in determining whether the fuel is used on a farm for farming purposes.

(ii) The term “purchaser,” as used in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, includes only a person who is an owner, tenant, or operator of a farm. A person who is owner, tenant, or operator of a farm is a purchaser of fuel only with respect to such fuel as is purchased by the person and used for farming purposes on a farm of which the person is the owner, tenant, or operator. Thus, the owner of a farm who purchases fuel which is used on the farm by its owner, tenant, or operator for farming purposes is generally the purchaser of the fuel. If, however, the cost of fuel supplied by an owner, tenant, or operator of a farm, is by agreement or other arrangement borne by a second person who is an owner, tenant, or operator of the farm, the second person who bore the cost of the fuel is considered to be the purchaser of the fuel.

(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section, if fuel is used on a farm by any person other than the owner, tenant, or operator for the purposes described in section 6420(c)(3)(A) and § 48.6420-4(d) (relating to gasoline used in cultivating, raising, or harvesting), the owner, tenant, or operator (as the case may be) will be treated for the purposes of § 48.6427-1(a)(2)(i) as the purchaser who used the fuel on the farm for farming purposes.

(iv) Section 6427(c) provides that an aerial applicator or other applicator is entitled to be treated as the user and ultimate purchaser of fuel that the applicator uses on a farm for the purposes described in section 6420(c)(3)(A), but only if the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm who is otherwise entitled to be treated as the ultimate purchaser waives the right to credit or payment. The rules contained in section 6420 and the regulations under the section regarding waivers by owners, tenants, and operators of farms of their rights to payments under section 6420 for gasoline used by aerial applicators on a farm for farming purposes apply to waivers under this section.

(3) Definitions, uses, and other rules. (i) No interest shall be paid on any payment allowed under paragraph (c) of this section. However, interest may be paid on any overpayment (as defined by section 6401) arising from a credit. See section 34(a), relating to credit for certain uses of gasoline and special fuels. See section 39(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 prior to its revision by the Highway Revenue Act of 1982, relating to credit for certain uses of lubricating oil. See section 6611, relating to interest on overpayments.

(ii) See § 48.6427-3 for the time within which a claim for credit or payment must be made under this section.

(iii) See § 48.6420-4 for the meaning of the terms “used on a farm for farming purposes” and “farm.” The term “gasoline” has the same meaning given to this term by section 4082(b) and the regulations thereunder. For the meaning of the terms “diesel fuel,” “special motor fuel,” “motor vehicle,” “highway vehicle,” and “registered” see section 4041 and the regulations thereunder. The term “fuel” means diesel fuel, special motor fuel, or gasoline, as the context requires. Where appropriate, the term “use” includes a resale. See § 48.6421-4 for the meaning of “calendar quarter” and “taxable year”.

(iv) For purposes of determining the allowable credit or payment in respect of fuel used for nontaxable purposes, on a farm for farming purposes, or for purposes taxable at a lower rate, fuel on hand shall be considered used in the order in which it was purchased. Thus, if the purchaser made purchases at different times and subject to different rates of tax, then in determining credit or payment for fuel used for a described purpose, it will be assumed that the fuel first purchased was the first fuel used, and the rate applicable to that purchase will apply in determining the credit of payment, until all of that fuel is accounted for.

(v) Fuel lost or destroyed through spillage, fire, or other casualty is not considered to have been “used” within the meaning of this section, and, accordingly, no credit or payment of the tax paid on the sale of the fuel may be made under this section.

(b) Allowance of income tax credit in lieu of payment. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, repayment under this section of the tax paid under section 4041 on fuel used by a person subject to income tax may be obtained only by claiming a credit for the amount of this tax against the tax imposed by subtitle A of the Code. The amount of the credit shall be an amount equal to the payment which would be made under section 6427 with respect to fuel used during the taxable year for nontaxable purposes on a farm for farming purposes, or for purposes taxable at a lower rate, if section 6427(i) and paragraph (c) of this section did not apply. See section 34(a)(3).

(c) Allowance of payment. Payments in respect of fuel upon which tax was paid under section 4041 that is used for nontaxable purposes, on a farm for farming purposes, or for purposes taxable at a lower rate, shall be made only to—

(1) The United States or any agency or instrumentality thereof, a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an agency or instrumentality of one or more States or political subdivisions of a State, or the District of Columbia,

(2) An organization which is exempt from tax under section 501(a) and is not required to make a return of the income tax imposed under subtitle A for its taxable year, or

(3) In the case of fuel used for nontaxable purposes to which section 6427(a) applies, to a person described in section 6427(g)(2) to whom $1,000 or more is payable (without regard to paragraph (b) of this section) under this section with respect to fuel used during any of the first three quarters of his taxable year.

(d) Dual use of fuel. The principles set forth in § 48.4041-7, relating to dual use of fuel, for determining whether liability is incurred under section 4041 at the time of sale of the fuel, are equally applicable in determining whether a credit or payment is to be allowed under this section. Thus, if diesel fuel or special motor fuel used in a separate motor is drawn from the same tank as the one which supplies fuel for the propulsion of the vehicle, a reasonable determination of the quantity of the fuel used in the separate motor will be acceptable for purposes of computing the payment or credit under this section. The determination must be based, however, on the operating experience of the person using the fuel, and a statement, signed by the person, evidencing the operating experience must be maintained as a part of the records of the person claiming the payment or credit.

(e) Supporting evidence required. Each claim under this section for credit or payment must include a statement showing—

(1) The total number of gallons of fuel purchased and used for nontaxable or farming purposes during the period covered by the claim, multiplied by the rate of payment allowable under this section with respect to such fuel;

(2) The purpose or purposes for which the fuel was used, determined by reference to general categories, and the amount used for each of the purposes; and

(3) If a claim on Form 843 is being filed, the internal revenue district or service center with which the claimant last filed an income tax return, (if any).

(f) Illustrations. The application of this section may be illustrated by the following example:

Example. Special motor fuel was sold for use as fuel in a highway vehicle that was registered for highway use. Tax was imposed on the sale at the rate of 9 cents a gallon under section 4041(a)(2). The special motor fuel was eventually used by the purchaser in a qualified business use. The credit or payment of tax is to be computed as follows:

Cents per gallon

Rate at which tax was paid | 9

Less: Rate at which tax would have been imposed on a qualified business use under sec. 4041(b) | 0

Net credit or payment under sec. 6427(a) | 9

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32046, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8152, 52 FR 31621, Aug. 21, 1987]

§ 48.6427-2 Credits or payments to purchaser of diesel or special motor fuels used in intercity, local, or school buses.

(a) In general. (1) If tax has been paid under section 4041(a)(1) on the sale of diesel fuel for use as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle or under section 4041(a)(2) on the sale of special motor fuel for use as a fuel in a motor vehicle or a motorboat and the fuel is used by the purchaser in an intercity or local bus while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in a school bus in the transportation of students and employees of schools, a credit (under the circumstances described in paragraph (b) of this section) or a payment (under the circumstances described in paragraph (c) of this section) in respect of the fuel so used shall be allowed or made to the purchaser of the fuel. The credit or payment under this section shall be an amount equal to the product of the number of gallons of fuel so used multiplied by the rate at which tax was imposed on the fuel by section 4041(a)(1) or section 4041(a)(2), reduced as limited by section 6427(b)(2). No interest shall be paid on any payment allowed under paragraph (c) of this section. However, interest may be paid on any overpayment (as defined by section 6401) arising from a credit. See section 34(a), relating to credit for certain uses of gasoline and special fuels, (and lubricating oil prior to January 7, 1983). See section 6611, relating to interest on overpayments. See § 48.6427-3 for the time within which a claim for credit or payment must be made under this section.

(2) The terms “diesel fuel” and “special motor fuel” have the same meaning as in section 4041 and the regulations thereunder. The term “fuel” means diesel fuel and special motor fuel. See § 48.6421-4 for the meaning of “calendar quarter” and “taxable year.”

(b) Allowance of income tax credit. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, repayment under this section of the tax paid under section 4041(a)(1) or section 4041(a)(2) on diesel or special motor fuel used while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus transportation operations by a person subject to income tax may be obtained only by claiming a credit for the amount of this tax against the tax imposed by subtitle A of the Code. The amount of the credit shall be an amount equal to the payment which would be made under section 6427 with respect to fuel used during the taxable year for passenger land transportation or school bus operations if section 6427(i) and paragraph (c) of this section did not apply. See section 34(a)(3).

(c) Allowance of payment. Payments in respect of diesel or special motor fuel upon which tax was paid under section 4041(a)(1) or section 4041(a)(2) that is used while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus transportation operations shall be made only to—

(1) The United States or any agency or instrumentality thereof, a State, a political subdivision of a State, or an agency or instrumentality of one or more States or political subdivisions of a State, or the District of Columbia,

(2) An organization which is exempt from tax under section 501(a) and is not required to make a return of the income tax imposed under subtitle A for its taxable year, or

(3) A person described in section 6427(g)(2) to whom $1,000 or more is payable (without regard to paragraph (b) of this section) under this section with respect to fuel used during any of the first three quarters of the person's taxable year.

(d) Supporting evidence required. Each claim under this section for credit or payment must include a statement showing—

(1) The total number of gallons of fuel purchased and used in each intercity or local bus while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public multiplied by the rate at which tax was imposed on the fuel by section 4041(a)(1) or section 4041(a)(2). See, however, section 6427(b)(2) with respect to the limitation on the amount of credit for buses other than qualified local buses.

(2) The total number of gallons of fuel purchased and used in each bus while engaged in school bus transportation operations multiplied by the rate at which tax was imposed on the fuel by subsection (a)(1) or (a)(2) of section 4041. See, however, section 6427(b)(2) with respect to the limitation on the amount of credit for buses other than qualified local buses.

(3) If a claim on Form 843 is being filed, the internal revenue district or service center with which the purchaser last filed an income tax return (if any).

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32047, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6427-3 Time for filing claim for credit or payment.

(a) In general. A claim for credit or payment described in § 48.6427-1 with respect to fuel used for nontaxable, farming, or other purposes taxable at a lower rate or in § 48.6427-2 with respect to fuel used either in an intercity or local bus while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus transportation operations shall cover only fuel used during the taxable year, or when paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies, used during the calendar quarter. Therefore, fuel on hand at the end of a taxable year, or, if applicable, a calendar quarter, such as fuel in supply tanks of vehicles or in storage tanks or drums, must be excluded from a claim filed for the taxable year or calendar quarter, as the case may be. However, this fuel may be included in a claim filed for a later taxable year or a later calendar quarter if it is used during that later year or quarter for nontaxable or farming purposes, or in an intercity or local bus while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus transportation operations. Fuel used during the taxable year or calendar quarter may be covered by the claim for that period although the fuel has not been paid for at the time the claim is filed. The purposes of applying this section, a governmental unit or exempt organization described in § 48.6427-1(c) or § 48.6427-2(c) is considered to have as its taxable year the calendar year or fiscal year on the basis of which it regularly keeps its books; see § 48.6421-4.

(b) Time for filing—(1) Annual claims. (i) A claim under this section for credit or payment with respect to fuel used during a taxable year shall not be allowed unless it is filed no later than the time prescribed by section 6511 and the regulations thereunder for filing a claim for credit or refund of income tax for the particular taxable year.

(ii) A claim for payment of a governmental unit or exempt organization described in § 48.6427-1(c) or unit or exempt organization described in § 48.6427-2(c), must be filed no later than 3 years following the close of its taxable year. See § 48.6421-4.

(2) Quarterly claims. A claim for payment of $1,000 or more in respect to fuel used during any of the first three quarters of the taxable year, filed either under § 48.6427-1(c)(3) in respect of fuel used for nontaxable purposes or for purposes taxable at a lower rate, or under § 48.6427-2(c)(3) in respect of fuel used while engaged in furnishing (for compensation) passenger land transportation available to the general public or in school bus transportation operations, shall not be allowed unless the claim is filed on or before the last day of the first calendar quarter following the calendar quarter for which the claim is filed. No quarterly claim may be filed for the last calendar quarter of the taxable year. Amounts for which payment is disallowed under this paragraph (b)(2) merely because the claim was not filed on time may be included in an annual claim filed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, but other amounts for which a claim for payment has been filed under this paragraph (b)(2) may not be included in an annual claim filed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(3) Other applicable rules. See § 301.7502-1 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration) for provisions treating timely mailing as timely filing and § 301.7503-1 of this chapter for time for performance of an act where the last day falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday.

(c) Limit on claims per taxable year. Not more than one claim may be filed under § 48.6427-1 or § 48.6427-2 by any person with respect to fuel used during any taxable year, except to the extent that quarterly claims may be filed under paragraph (b)(2) of this section with respect to any calendar quarter (other than the last calendar quarter) of the taxable year.

(d) Form and content of claim—(1) Claim for credit. The claim for credit to which this section applies must be made by attaching a Form 4136, to the income tax return of an individual or a corporation. Form 4136 must be executed in accordance with the instructions prescribed for the preparation of the form. A partnership may not file Form 4136. When a partnership files Form 1065, U.S. Partnership Return of Income, it must include a statement showing how many gallons of fuel are allocated to each partner and the use made of the fuel.

(2) Claim for payment. The claim for payment to which this section applies must be made on Form 8849 (or on such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions prescribed for the preparation of the form. Each form must designate the taxable year, or calendar quarter, for which it is filed.

(3) Death or termination. (i) If an individual dies, or if a sole proprietorship, partnership, or corporation is terminated or liquidated, during the taxable year, the claim for credit or payment may be filed in respect of fuel used during the short taxable year in the same manner as is provided for fuel used in a full taxable year. Those months which constitute a quarter of a full taxable year will constitute the same quarter of the short taxable year. For example, if a corporation using the calendar year is liquidated on September 30, 1982, and is entitled to $900 under § 48.6427-1 in respect of fuel used for nontaxable purposes for the calendar quarter ending March 31 and is also entitled to payments of $1,500 for each of the calendar quarters ending June 30 and September 30, it may file a claim for payment in respect of the fuel used for nontaxable purposes during the calendar quarters ending June 30, and September 30, 1982, and take a credit of $900 on its income tax return for the short taxable year in respect of the fuel used during the calendar quarter ending March 31, 1982.

(ii) A claim for payment on behalf of a decedent may be filed by the decedent's executor, administrator, or any other person charged with responsibility for the decedent's affairs. Such a claim must be accompanied by copies of the letters testamentary, letters of administration, or, in the case of a claim filed by other than the executor or administrator, the information called for in Form 1310 (Statement of Person Claiming Refund Due a Deceased Taxpayer).

The claim may cover only fuel in respect of which the decedent would have been entitled to claim payments. For example, if an individual dies on July 15, 1982, prior to claiming payment under § 48.6427-1 of $1,000 or more applicable to fuel purchased and used for nontaxable purposes during the calendar quarter ending June 30, 1982, the decedent's executor or other legal representative may file a claim for payment covering that calendar quarter, and take the credit provided by section 39(a)(3) against the decedent's income tax on the income tax return for the short taxable year in respect of fuel purchased by the decedent and so used during the period from July 1, 1982, to July 15, 1982, the date of death.

(e) Restrictions on claims for credit or payment. Credits or payments are allowable only in respect of fuel that was sold by the producer or importer in a transaction that was subject to tax under section 4041. For example, a State or local government may not file a claim with respect to any fuel which it purchased tax free from the producer, even though the State or local government used the fuel for the purposes described in paragraph (a) of this section. Similarly, a State or local government may not file a claim with respect to the use of fuel if it is known that another person is entitled to claim a payment, credit, or refund with respect to the same fuel. For example, a State or local government may not file a claim in respect of tax-paid fuel that has been resold by the purchaser to the State or local government.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32048, Aug. 8, 1985, as amended by T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10464, Mar. 14, 1996; T.D. 8748, 63 FR 26, Jan. 2, 1998]

§ 48.6427-4 Applicable laws.

(a) Penalties, excessive claims, etc. All provisions of law, including penalties, applicable in respect of the tax imposed by section 4041 shall, to the extent applicable and consistent with section 6427, apply in respect of the payments provided for in section 6427 to the same extent as if these payments constituted refunds of overpayments of the tax imposed on the sale of fuels by section 4041. For special rules applicable to the assessment and collection of amounts constituting excessive payments under section 6427, see section 6206 and the regulations thereunder. For the civil penalty assessable in the case of excessive claims under section 6427, see section 6675 and the regulations thereunder. For the treatment as an overpayment of an amount allowable as an excessive credit under section 34 with respect to amounts payable under section 6427, see section 6401(b).

(b) Examination of books and witnesses. For the purpose of ascertaining (1) the correctness of any claim made under section 6427 or (2) the correctness of any credit or payment made in respect of the claim, the Commissioner shall have the same authority granted by paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of section 7602, relating to examination of books and witnesses, as if the person claiming credit or payment under section 6427 were the person liable for tax.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32049, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6427-5 Records to be kept in substantiation of credits or payments.

(a) In general. Every person making a claim for credit or payment under section 6427 must keep records sufficient to enable the district director to determine whether the person is entitled to credit or payment under such section and, if so, the amount of the credit or payment. No particular form is prescribed for keeping the records, but the records must include a copy of the income tax return or claim and a copy of any statement or document submitted with the return or claim. The records must also show with respect to the period covered by the claim—

(1) The number of gallons of fuel purchased and the dates of purchase,

(2) The name and address of each vendor from whom fuel was purchased and the total number of gallons purchased from each,

(3) The number of gallons of fuel purchased by the claimant and used during the period covered by the claim for nontaxable purposes, farming purposes, for other purposes taxable at a lower rate, in local, intercity, or school buses, and

(4) Other information as necessary to establish the correctness of the claim.

(b) Acceptable records. (1) Evidence of purchases of fuel, and the purposes for which it was used, to substantiate claims may include paid duplicate sales invoices or tickets from the fuel dealer or other vendor, and detailed records of all fuel used which show the amount used the prescribed purpose and the amount used for other purposes.

(2) Records maintained for Federal or State income tax purposes, or to support claims for refund of a State tax on fuel, may be used to the extent that they contain the information necessary to substantiate the accuracy of the claim for credit under section 6427. However, the records must show separately the number of gallons of fuel used for nontaxable purposes, farming purposes, other purposes taxable at a lower rate, or in intercity, local, or school buses during the period covered by the claim.

(c) Place and period for keeping records. (1) All records required by this section must be kept by the claimant at a convenient and safe location within the United States which is accessible to internal revenue officers and shall during normal business hours be available for inspection by internal revenue officers. If the claimant has a principal place of business in the United States, the records must be kept at that place of business.

(2) Records required to substantiate a claim under section 6427 must be maintained for a period of at least 3 years from the last date prescribed for the filing of the claim for credit or payment.

[T.D. 8043, 50 FR 32049, Aug. 8, 1985]

§ 48.6427-6 Limitation on credit or refund of tax paid on fuel used in intercity, local or school buses after July 31, 1984.

(a) Limitation on amount of credit or refund—(1) In general. In the case of fuel sold or used after July 31, 1984, on which tax was imposed under section 4041(a), the amount of credit or refund under section 6427(b)(1) shall not exceed 12 cents per gallon except where fuel is used in a bus while such bus is being operated as a “qualified local bus” in which case the credit or refund shall be the full amount of tax paid under section 4041(a) on such fuel.

(2) Qualified local bus. A bus is considered to be operated as a “qualified local bus” if such bus—

(i) Is engaged in furnishing (for compensation) intracity passenger land transportation that is available to the general public and is scheduled and along regular routes,

(ii) Has a seating capacity of at least 20 adults (not including the driver), and

(iii) Is under contract with (or is receiving more than a nominal subsidy from) any State or local government (as defined in section 4221(d)(4)) to furnish such transportation.

A company that operates qualified local buses is eligible for a full refund or credit only with respect to fuel used while such buses are operating as qualified local buses. For example, a company that operates its buses along subsidized intracity routes and also on intercity or unsubsidized intracity routes may obtain a full refund or credit only with respect to fuel used while operating the subsidized intracity routes.

(b) Meaning of terms—(1) Contract with a State or local government. A bus is under contract with a State or local government only if the contract imposes a bona fide obligation on the operator of the bus to furnish the transportation to which the contract relates.

(2) More than a nominal subsidy. A subsidy is more than nominal if the subsidy is reasonably expected to exceed an amount equal to 3 cents multiplied by the number of gallons of fuel used while operating on subsidized routes.

(3) Intracity passenger land transportation. The term “intracity passenger land transportation” means the land transportation of passengers to and from points located within the same metropolitan area. The term includes transportation along routes that cross State, city or county boundaries provided such routes remain within the metropolitan area.

[T.D. 8027, 50 FR 21252, May 23, 1985]

§ 48.6427-8 Diesel fuel and kerosene; claims by ultimate purchasers.

(a) Overview. This section provides rules under which ultimate purchasers of taxed diesel fuel and kerosene may claim the income tax credits or payments allowed by section 6427(l). Generally, these claims relate to diesel fuel and kerosene used in nontaxable uses. Claims relating to diesel fuel and kerosene sold for use on a farm for farming purposes and by a State are made by registered ultimate vendors under § 48.6427-9; claims relating to kerosene sold from a blocked pump are made by registered ultimate vendors (blocked pump) under § 48.6427-10; and claims relating to kerosene sold during certain periods of extreme cold for blending with diesel fuel to be used for heating purposes are made by registered ultimate vendors (blending) under § 48.6427-11.

(b) Conditions to allowance of credit or payment—(1) In general. Except as provided in section 6427(l)(5), a claim for an income tax credit or payment with respect to diesel fuel or kerosene is allowed under section 6427(l) only if—

(i) Tax was imposed by section 4081 on the diesel fuel or kerosene to which the claim relates;

(ii) The claimant produced or bought the diesel fuel or kerosene and did not sell it in the United States;

(iii) The claimant has filed a timely claim for a credit or payment that contains the information required under paragraph (d) of this section;

(iv) The diesel fuel or kerosene was not bought under a certificate described in § 48.6427-9(e)(2) (relating to Certificate of Farming Use or State Use);

(v) The diesel fuel or kerosene was not used on a farm for farming purposes (as defined in § 48.6420-4) or by a State;

(vi) With respect to kerosene, the kerosene was not sold from a blocked pump or sold for blending with diesel fuel under the conditions described in § 48.6427-11; and

(vii) The diesel fuel or kerosene was either—

(A) Used in a use described in § 48.4082-4(c)(3) through (c)(8);

(B) Exported;

(C) Used other than as a fuel in a propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle; or

(D) Used as a fuel in the propulsion engine of a diesel-powered bus if the bus was engaged in a use described in section 6427(b)(1) (after the application of section 6427(b)(3)).

(2) Examples. The following examples illustrate this paragraph (b).

Example 1. (i) In September 2000, F bought 250 gallons of undyed diesel fuel. In October 2000, F used 200 gallons of the fuel in a farm tractor. This use qualifies as use on a farm for farming purposes (as defined in § 48.6420-4). The farm tractor is not a diesel-powered highway vehicle (as defined in § 48.4081-1(b)). F used the remaining 50 gallons to heat F's residence. F filed a complete and timely claim for a credit relating to the 250 gallons.

(ii) A credit or payment is not allowable to F with respect to the 200 gallons of diesel fuel used in the farm tractor. Even though this fuel was used other than as a fuel in a propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle (thus meeting the condition in paragraph (b)(1)(vii)(C) of this section), the condition in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section is not satisfied because the fuel was used on a farm for farming purposes.

(iii) A credit is allowable to F with respect to the 50 gallons F used for heating purposes because the conditions in paragraph (b)(1) of this section have been met. F used this fuel other than as a fuel in a propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle and the use of the fuel for residential heating is not use on a farm for farming purposes.

Example 2. (i) In September 2000, W, a wholesale distributor, sold 3,500 gallons of diesel fuel on which tax has been imposed to C, a construction company located in the United States. W's selling price to C did not include an amount equal to the federal excise tax on the fuel. C used the fuel other than as a fuel in a propulsion engine of a diesel-powered highway vehicle. Both W and C file a complete and timely claim for a credit relating to the fuel.

(ii) Because W resold the fuel in the United States, the condition of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section is not met. Thus, W is not allowed a credit or payment with respect to the fuel.

(iii) C is eligible for a credit or payment with respect to the fuel because the conditions to allowance in paragraph (b)(1) of this section have been met. The conditions to allowance do not include a requirement that C buy the fuel at a price that includes the amount of the tax.

(c) Form of claim. Each claim for an income tax credit under this section must be made on Form 4136 (or on such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form. Each claim for a payment under this section must be made on Form 8849 (or on such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form.

(d) Content of claim. Each claim for a credit or payment under this section must contain the following information with respect to all the diesel fuel or kerosene covered by the claim:

(1) The total number of gallons.

(2) A statement by the claimant that—

(i) The diesel fuel or kerosene did not contain visible evidence of dye; or

(ii) In the case of diesel fuel or kerosene that contains visible evidence of dye, explains the circumstances under which tax was imposed on that fuel.

(3) The use made of the diesel fuel or kerosene covered by the claim described by reference to specific categories listed in paragraph (b)(1)(vii) of this section (such as use in a qualified local bus or the exclusive use of a nonprofit educational organization).

(4) If the diesel fuel or kerosene covered by the claim was exported, a declaration that the claimant has proof of exportation (as described in § 48.4221-3(d)(1)).

(5) A declaration that the claimant has in its possession the name and address of the person(s) that sold the diesel fuel or kerosene to the claimant and the date(s) of the purchase(s).

(e) Time and place for filing claim. For rules relating to the time for filing a claim under section 6427, see section 6427(i). A claim under this section is not filed unless it contains all the information required by paragraph (d) of this section and is filed at the place required by the form.

(f) Effective date. This section is applicable with respect to diesel fuel after December 31, 1993, except for paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, which is applicable to diesel fuel bought by ultimate purchasers after June 30, 1994. This section is applicable with respect to kerosene after June 30, 1998.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10464, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17161, Mar. 31, 2000; T.D. 9051, 68 FR 15942, Apr. 2, 2003]

§ 48.6427-9 Diesel fuel and kerosene; claims by registered ultimate vendors (farming and State use).

(a) Overview. This section provides rules under which certain registered ultimate vendors of taxed diesel fuel and kerosene may claim the income tax credits or payments allowed by section 6427(l)(5)(A). These claims relate to diesel fuel and kerosene sold for use on a farm for farming purposes and by a State. Claims relating to diesel fuel and kerosene used for other nontaxable purposes are made by ultimate purchasers under § 48.6427-8; claims relating to kerosene sold from a blocked pump are made by registered ultimate vendors (blocked pump) under § 48.6427-10; and claims relating to kerosene sold during certain periods of extreme cold for blending with diesel fuel to be used for heating purposes are made by registered ultimate vendors (blending) under § 48.6427-11.

(b) Definitions. (1) An ultimate vendor, as used in this section, is a person that sells undyed diesel fuel or undyed kerosene to—

(i) The owner, tenant, or operator of a farm for use by such person on a farm for farming purposes (as defined in § 48.6420-4);

(ii) A person other than the owner, tenant, or operator of a farm for use by such person for any of the purposes described in § 48.6420-4(d) (relating to cultivating, raising, or harvesting); or

(iii) Any State for its exclusive use.

(2) A registered ultimate vendor is an ultimate vendor that is registered under section 4101 as an ultimate vendor.

(c) Conditions to allowance of credit or payment. A claim for an income tax credit or payment with respect to diesel fuel or kerosene is allowed by section 6427(l)(5)(A) only if—

(1) Tax was imposed by section 4081 on the diesel fuel or kerosene to which the claim relates;

(2) The claimant sold the diesel fuel or kerosene to—

(i) The owner, tenant, or operator of a farm for use by such person on a farm for farming purposes (as defined in § 48.6420-4);

(ii) A person other than the owner, tenant, or operator of a farm for use by such person for any of the purposes described in § 48.6420-4(d) (relating to cultivating, raising, or harvesting); or

(iii) Any State for its exclusive use;

(3) The claimant is a registered ultimate vendor; and

(4) The claimant has filed a timely claim for a credit or payment that contains the information required under paragraph (e) of this section.

(d) Form of claim. Each claim for an income tax credit under this section must be made on Form 4136 (or on such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form. Each claim for a payment under this section must be made on Form 8849 (or on such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form.

(e) Content of claim—(1) In general. Each claim for credit or payment under this section must contain the following information with respect to all the diesel fuel or kerosene covered by the claim:

(i) The total number of gallons.

(ii) A statement by the claimant that—

(A) The diesel fuel or kerosene did not contain visible evidence of dye; or

(B) In the case of diesel fuel or kerosene that contains visible evidence of dye, explains the circumstances under which tax was imposed on that fuel.

(iii) The claimant's registration number.

(iv) The name and taxpayer identification number of each person that bought diesel fuel or kerosene from the claimant in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section and the number of gallons that the claimant sold to that person.

(v) A statement that the claimant—

(A) Has not included the amount of the tax in its sales price of the diesel fuel or kerosene and has not collected the amount of tax from its buyer;

(B) Has repaid the amount of the tax to the ultimate purchaser of the fuel; or

(C) Has obtained the written consent of its buyer to the allowance of the claim.

(vi) A statement that the claimant has in its possession an unexpired certificate described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and the claimant has no reason to believe any information in the certificate is false.

(2) Certificate—(i) In general. The certificate to be provided to the ultimate vendor consists of a statement that is signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the buyer, is in substantially the same form as the model certificate provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, and contains all information necessary to complete such model certificate. A new certificate must be given if any information in the current certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale. The certificate expires on the earlier of the following dates:

(A) The date one year after the effective date of the certificate.

(B) The date a new certificate is provided to the seller.

(ii) Model certificate.

Certificate of Farming Use or State Use

(To support vendor's claim for a credit or payment under section 6427 of the Internal Revenue Code.)

Name, address, and employer identification number of vendor

The undersigned buyer (“Buyer”) hereby certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

Buyer will use the diesel fuel or kerosene to which this certificate relates—(check one)

______ On a farm for farming purposes (as defined in § 48.6420-4(c) of the Manufacturers and Retailers Excise Tax Regulations) and Buyer is the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm on which the fuel will be used; ______ On a farm (as defined in § 48.6420-4(c)) for any of the purposes described in paragraph (d) of that section (relating to cultivating, raising, or harvesting) and Buyer is a person that is not the owner, tenant, or operator of the farm on which the fuel will be used; or ______ For the exclusive use of a State or local government, or the District of Columbia.

This certificate applies to the following (complete as applicable):

If this is a single purchase certificate, check here ______ and enter:

1. Invoice or delivery ticket number ______

2. ______ (number of gallons)

If this is a certificate covering all purchases under a specified account or order number, check here ______ and enter:

1. Effective date ______

2. Expiration date ______ (period not to exceed 1 year after the effective date)

3. Buyer account or order number ______

Buyer will provide a new certificate to the vendor if any information in this certificate changes.

If Buyer uses the diesel fuel or kerosene to which this certificate relates for a purpose other than stated in the certificate Buyer will be liable for tax.

Buyer understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Buyer and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Name of Buyer Employer identification number Address of Buyer Signature and date signed

(f) Time and place for filing claim. For rules relating to the time for filing a claim under section 6427, see section 6427(i). A claim under this section is not filed unless it contains all the information required by paragraph (e) of this section and is filed at the place required by the form.

(g) Effective date. This section is applicable with respect to diesel fuel after December 31, 1993, and with respect to kerosene after June 30, 1998.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10464, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17161, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.6427-10 Kerosene; claims by registered ultimate vendors (blocked pumps).

(a) Overview. This section provides rules under which certain registered ultimate vendors of taxed kerosene may claim the income tax credits or payments allowed by section 6427(l)(5)(B)(i). These claims relate to kerosene sold from a blocked pump. Claims relating to kerosene sold for use on a farm for farming purposes and by a State are made by registered ultimate vendors under § 48.6427-9; claims relating to kerosene sold during certain periods of extreme cold for blending with diesel fuel to be used for heating purposes are made by registered ultimate vendors (blending) under § 48.6427-11; and claims relating to kerosene used for nontaxable purposes are made by ultimate purchasers under § 48.6427-8.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this section:

(1) A blocked pump is a fuel pump that—

(i) Is used to dispense undyed kerosene that is sold at retail for use by the buyer in any nontaxable use;

(ii) Is at a fixed location;

(iii) Is identified with a legible and conspicuous notice stating “UNDYED UNTAXED KEROSENE, NONTAXABLE USE ONLY”; and

(iv)(A) Cannot reasonably be used to dispense fuel directly into the fuel supply tank of a diesel-powered highway vehicle or diesel-powered train (because, for example, of its distance from a road surface or train track or the length of its delivery hose); or

(B) Is locked by the vendor after each sale and unlocked by the vendor only in response to a request by a buyer for undyed kerosene for use other than as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle or diesel-powered train.

(2) A registered ultimate vendor (blocked pump) is a person that is registered under section 4101 as an ultimate vendor (blocked pump).

(3) An ultimate vendor (blocked pump) is a person that sells undyed kerosene from a blocked pump.

(c) Conditions to allowance of credit or payment. A claim for an income tax credit or payment with respect to undyed kerosene is allowed by section 6427(l)(5)(B)(i) only if—

(1) Tax was imposed by section 4081 on the kerosene to which the claim relates;

(2) The claimant sold the kerosene from a blocked pump for its buyer's use other than as a fuel in a diesel-powered highway vehicle or diesel-powered train and the claimant has no reason to believe that the kerosene will not be so used;

(3) The claimant is a registered ultimate vendor (blocked pump);

(4) With respect to each sale of more than five gallons of kerosene from a blocked pump that does not meet the conditions of paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section, the claimant has in its possession the date of the sale, name and address of the buyer, and the number of gallons sold to the buyer; and

(5) The claimant has filed a timely claim for a credit or payment that contains the information required under paragraph (e) of this section.

(d) Form of claim. Each claim for an income tax credit under this section must be made on Form 4136 (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form. Each claim for a payment under this section must be made on Form 8849 (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form.

(e) Content of claim. Each claim for a credit or payment under this section must contain the following information with respect to all of the kerosene covered by the claim:

(1) The claimant's ultimate vendor (blocked pump) registration number.

(2) The total number of gallons.

(3) A statement by the claimant that—

(i) The kerosene did not contain visible evidence of dye; or

(ii) In the case of kerosene that contains visible evidence of dye, explains the circumstances under which tax was imposed on that kerosene.

(4) With respect to each sale of more than five gallons of kerosene from a blocked pump that does not meet the conditions of paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section, a statement by the claimant that it has in its possession the date of the sale, name and address of the buyer, and the number of gallons sold to the buyer.

(5) A statement by the claimant that it—

(i) Has not included the amount of the tax in its sales price of the kerosene and has not collected the amount of the tax from its buyer;

(ii) Has repaid the amount of the tax to its buyer; or

(iii) Has obtained the written consent of its buyer to the allowance of the claim.

(f) Time and place for filing claim. For rules relating to the time for filing a claim under section 6427, see section 6427(i). A claim under this section is not filed unless it contains all the information required by paragraph (e) of this section and is filed at the place required by the form.

(g) Cross reference. For a rule prohibiting a registered ultimate vendor (blocked pump) from delivering kerosene from a blocked pump into the fuel supply tank of a diesel-powered highway vehicle or diesel-powered train, see § 48.4101-1(h)(2)(iv).

(h) Effective date. This section is applicable after March 30, 2000.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17162, Mar. 31, 2000]

§ 48.6427-11 Kerosene; claims by registered ultimate vendors (blending).

(a) Overview. This section provides rules under which certain registered ultimate vendors of taxed kerosene may claim the income tax credits or payments allowed by section 6427(l)(5)(B)(ii). These claims relate to kerosene sold during certain periods of extreme cold for blending with diesel fuel to be used for heating purposes. Claims relating to kerosene sold for use on a farm for farming purposes and by a State are made by registered ultimate vendors under § 48.6427-9; claims relating to kerosene sold from a blocked pump for nontaxable uses are made by registered ultimate vendors (blocked pump) under § 48.6427-10; and other claims relating to kerosene used for nontaxable purposes are made by ultimate purchasers under § 48.6427-8.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this section:

(1) A declaration of extreme cold is a declaration by the Commissioner that a specific geographic area (such as a state or a county within a state) is affected by extremely or unseasonably cold weather conditions. A declaration will be in effect during the period determined by the Commissioner.

(2) A cold weather blend is a blend of kerosene and diesel fuel that is produced in an area described in a declaration of extreme cold and that is sold for use or used for heating purposes.

(3) A registered ultimate vendor (blending) is a taxable fuel registrant, a registered ultimate vendor, or a registered ultimate vendor (blocked pump).

(c) Conditions to allowance of credit or payment. A claim for an income tax credit or payment with respect to kerosene is allowed by section 6427(l)(5)(B)(ii) only if—

(1) Tax was imposed by section 4081 on the kerosene to which the claim relates;

(2) The claimant sold the kerosene in an area described in a declaration of extreme cold for the production of a cold weather blend;

(3) The claimant is a registered ultimate vendor (blending); and

(4) The claimant has filed a timely claim for an income tax credit or payment that contains the information required under paragraph (e) of this section.

(d) Form of claim. Each claim for an income tax credit under this section must be made on Form 4136 (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form. Each claim for a payment under this section must be made on Form 8849 (or such other form as the Commissioner may designate) in accordance with the instructions for that form.

(e) Content of claim—(1) In general. Each claim for credit or payment under this section must contain the following information with respect to all of the kerosene covered by the claim:

(i) The claimant's registration number.

(ii) The total number of gallons.

(iii) A statement by the claimant that—

(A) The kerosene did not contain visible evidence of dye; or

(B) In the case of kerosene that contains visible evidence of dye, explains the circumstances under which tax was imposed on that kerosene.

(iv) A statement by the claimant that it—

(A) Has not included the amount of the tax in its sales price of the kerosene and has not collected the amount of the tax from its buyer;

(B) Has repaid the amount of the tax to its buyer; or

(C) Has obtained the written consent of its buyer to the allowance of the claim.

(v) A statement that the claimant has in its possession an unexpired certificate described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and the claimant has no reason to believe any information in the certificate is false.

(2) Certificate—(i) In general. The certificate described in this paragraph (e) is a statement by a buyer that is signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the buyer, is in substantially the same form as the model certificate provided in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section, and contains all information necessary to complete the model certificate. A certificate must be given for each purchase of kerosene. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale.

(ii) Withdrawal of the right to provide a certificate. The Internal Revenue Service may withdraw the right of a buyer of kerosene to provide a certificate under this section if the buyer uses the kerosene to which a certificate relates other than for producing a cold weather blend. The Internal Revenue Service may notify any seller to whom the buyer has provided a certificate that the buyer's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(iii) Model certificate.

CERTIFICATE OF BUYER FOR PRODUCTION OF A COLD WEATHER BLEND (To support vendor's claim for a credit or payment under section 6427 of the Internal Revenue Code.)

__________(Buyer) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

Name of buyer

The kerosene to which this certificate applies will be used by Buyer to produce a blend of kerosene and diesel fuel in an area described in a declaration of extreme cold and the blend will be sold for use or used for heating purposes.

This certificate applies to ____ percent of Buyer's purchase from __________ (name, address, and employer identification number of seller) on invoice or delivery ticket number ____.

If Buyer violates the terms of this certificate, the Internal Revenue Service may withdraw Buyer's right to provide a certificate.

Buyer has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

Buyer understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Buyer and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

__________________________________________ Printed or typed name of person signing. __________________________________________ Title of person signing __________________________________________ Employer identification number __________________________________________ Address of Buyer __________________________________________ Signature and date signed

(f) Time and place for filing claim. For rules relating to the time for filing a claim under section 6427, see section 6427(i). A claim under this section is not filed unless it contains all the information required by paragraph (e) of this section and is filed at the place required by the form.

(g) Effective date. This section is applicable after March 30, 2000.

[T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17162, Mar. 31, 2000, as amended by T.D. 8879, 65 FR 26489, May 8, 2000]

§ 48.6435-1T Dyed fuel refund.

(a) Overview. This section provides guidance related to section 6435 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code), including definitions, rules, conditions, filing instructions, and reporting requirements governing claims. Paragraph (h) of this section provides an example illustrating the provisions of this section.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of section 6435 and this § 48.6435-1T:

(1) Approved terminal. The term approved terminal has the same meaning as provided in § 48.4081-1(b).

(2) Eligible dyed fuel. The term eligible dyed fuel means diesel fuel or kerosene with respect to which a tax under section 4081 of the Code (section 4081 tax) was previously paid (and not credited or refunded), and that is exempt from taxation under section 4082(a) of the Code.

(3) Section 6435 refund. The term section 6435 refund means a payment made under section 6435(a) to the person that paid the section 4081 tax to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) with respect to eligible dyed fuel. Under paragraph (c) of this section, such a payment is a refund of an overpayment (without interest) under section 6402 to the taxpayer equal to the amount of section 4081 tax previously paid by the taxpayer with respect to such fuel.

(c) Refund of overpayment. If a person satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (d) through (g) of this section with respect to eligible dyed fuel, then pursuant to section 6435, an amount equal to the section 4081 tax paid to the IRS (including any tax paid at the Leaking Underground Storage Tank Trust Fund financing rate (LUST tax) under section 4081(a)(2)(B)) with respect to such fuel is allowed as a refund (without interest) to such person as an overpayment of such tax under section 6402.

(d) Conditions to allowance of refund. A claim for refund is allowed under section 6435 and this § 48.6435-1T only if each of the following conditions is satisfied:

(1) Section 4081 tax was imposed with respect to diesel fuel or kerosene;

(2) The taxpayer was liable for and paid such tax to the IRS and the tax has not been credited or refunded;

(3) The taxpayer removes from an approved terminal the diesel fuel or kerosene, which has been dyed as provided in section 4082(a); and

(4) The taxpayer meets the reporting requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.

(e) Reporting requirements—(1) In general. A taxpayer must file a report with respect to the tax described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section that is in substantially the same form as the model report provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section (or such other model report as the Commissioner of Internal Revenue (Commissioner) may prescribe) and contains all information necessary to complete such report (section 6435 taxpayer's report). A section 6435 taxpayer's report must be filed with the section 6435 claim to which it relates (or at such other time, or in such other manner, as prescribed by the Commissioner).

(2) Model section 6435 taxpayer's report.

Section 6435 Taxpayer's Report

1. Taxpayer's name, address, and employer identification number 2. Date and location of taxable event 3. Volume and type of taxable fuel 4. Check type of taxable event: __Removal at the terminal rack __Entry into United States __ Other:________ Description 5. Amount of federal excise tax paid on the taxable event 6. [ ] Check the box if Taxpayer previously filed a First Taxpayer's Report under § 48.4081-7 relating to the same fuel described in this statement. Year and quarter First Taxpayer's Report filed

Taxpayer hereby revokes such report with respect to the fuel described in this statement.

Except for the section 6435 claim to which this report relates, the undersigned taxpayer (the “Taxpayer”) has not received, and will not claim, a credit with respect to, or a refund of, the tax to which this form relates.

Under penalties of perjury, Taxpayer declares that Taxpayer has examined this statement, including any accompanying schedules and statements, and to the best of Taxpayer's knowledge and belief, such statements are true, correct, and complete.

Signature and date signed Printed or typed name of person signing this report Title

(f) Filing instructions for a section 6435 claim—(1) Form of claim. A taxpayer must submit a section 6435 claim on Form 8849, Claim for Refund of Excise Taxes, that includes the section 6435 taxpayer's report and a completed Schedule 5 (Form 8849), Section 4081(e) and 6435 Claims, or any successor form(s). Both the Form 8849 and the included Schedule 5 (Form 8849) must include all information and documentation required by the forms, form instructions, and this section. A taxpayer cannot make a section 6435 claim on the same Form 8849 as any other claims besides another section 6435 claim. Therefore, no other schedules or types of claims may be included with the Form 8849 on which a section 6435 claim is made. For example, if a taxpayer making a section 6435 claim also wishes to make section 4081(e) claims, the taxpayer must submit a separate Form 8849, and include a separate Schedule 5 (Form 8849), for those section 4081(e) claims.

(2) Content of claim. A section 6435 claim must contain the following information with respect to the eligible dyed fuel covered by the claim:

(i) Volume and type of fuel removed.

(ii) Date of removal of fuel.

(iii) Amount of section 4081 tax previously paid with respect to such fuel.

(iv) The section 6435 taxpayer's report that relates to such fuel.

(g) Time for filing claim. A section 6435 claim may be filed any time after the removal of the eligible dyed fuel and before the end of the period prescribed by section 6511 of the Code for the filing of a claim for a refund of an overpayment of the section 4081 tax paid with respect to such fuel.

(h) Example. The following example illustrates the provisions of this section: On June 25, 2026, X, a taxable fuel registrant, removes 10,000 gallons of undyed diesel fuel from an approved terminal at the rack. The diesel fuel is then transported to and entered into a second approved terminal via tank trucks. X, as the position holder of the diesel fuel at the time of this first removal, is liable for the $2,440 section 4081 tax imposed on the removal, which includes the LUST tax. On July 31, 2026, X timely files its Form 720 for the quarterly tax period ending June 30, 2026, on which it reports the section 4081 tax imposed on the removal, and pays the section 4081 tax to the IRS. Pursuant to § 48.4081-7(c)(3), X also files a first taxpayer's report with its Form 720 with respect to the removal of the 10,000 gallons of diesel fuel. On August 10, 2026, X dyes 5,000 gallons of the diesel fuel and removes the dyed diesel fuel from the second approved terminal. The dyed diesel fuel is intended for use on a farm, which is a nontaxable use. After X has removed the dyed diesel fuel from the second approved terminal, X files a Form 8849 that only covers a section 6435 claim, and includes a completed Schedule 5 (Form 8849) and the required section 6435 taxpayer's report, to claim a refund in the amount of the $1,220 section 4081 tax paid with respect to such fuel. X's section 6435 taxpayer's report uses the model report provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section. X checks the box in line 6 of its section 6435 taxpayer's report and identifies the corresponding first taxpayer's report it filed for the quarterly tax period ending June 30, 2026, thereby revoking the first taxpayer's report to the extent of the 5,000 gallons of dyed diesel fuel. Because X has met the conditions under paragraph (d) of this section and filed a claim for refund in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, X is allowed a refund of the section 4081 tax (including the LUST tax) that it paid to the IRS on the June 25, 2026, removal of the 5,000 gallons of diesel fuel that it later reentered, dyed, and removed.

(i) Applicability date. This section applies to removals of eligible dyed fuel occurring on or after December 31, 2025.

(j) Expiration date. This section expires on the earlier of May 1, 2029, or the date of any statutory change that would appropriate funds for the payment of claims under section 6435 to persons other than the taxpayer that paid the section 4081 tax to which the claim relates.

[T.D. 10047, 91 FR 23367, May 1, 2026]

Effective Date Note:At 91 FR 23367, May 1, 2026, § 48.6435-1T was added, effective May 1, 2026, through May 1, 2029.

§ 48.6715-1 Penalty for misuse of dyed fuel.

(a) In general. If any person willfully alters, or attempts to alter, the strength or composition of any dye or marking done pursuant to § 48.4082-1 in any dyed fuel, then section 6715(a)(3) provides that such person shall pay a penalty in addition to any tax. The penalty imposed by section 6715(a)(3) will not apply in the following cases:

(1) Diesel fuel or kerosene that satisfies the dyeing and marking requirements of § 48.4082-1 (b) and (c) is blended with any undyed liquid and the resulting product satisfies the dyeing and marking requirements of § 48.4082-1 (b) and (c).

(2) Diesel fuel or kerosene that satisfies the dyeing and marking requirements of § 48.4082-1 (b) and (c) is blended with any other liquid (other than diesel fuel or kerosene) that contains the type and amount of dye and marker required for diesel fuel or kerosene dyed and marked in accordance with § 48.4082-1 (b) and (c).

(3) The alteration or attempted alteration occurs in an exempt area of Alaska after September 30, 1996.

(4) Diesel fuel or kerosene that does not satisfy the dyeing and marking requirements of § 48.4082-1 (b) and (c) is blended with diesel fuel or kerosene that satisfies the dyeing and marking requirements of § 48.4082-1 (b) and (c) and the blending occurs as part of a use described in § 48.4082-4(c) or § 48.6427-8(b)(1)(vii)(C) or (D).

(b) Effective date. This section is effective January 1, 1994.

[T.D. 8659, 61 FR 10465, Mar. 14, 1996, as amended by T.D. 8685, 61 FR 58007, Nov. 12, 1996; T.D. 8748, 63 FR 26, Jan. 2, 1998; T.D. 8879, 65 FR 17163, Mar. 31, 2000]

PART 49 FACILITIES AND SERVICES EXCISE TAXES

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805. Section 49.4251-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4251(d).

Subpart A Introduction

Source: T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9664, Dec. 3, 1959, unless otherwise noted.

§ 49.0-1 Introduction.

The regulations in this part 49 are designated “Facilities and Services Excise Tax Regulations.” The regulations relate to the taxes on communications and transportation by air imposed by chapter 33 of the Internal Revenue Code and the taxes on indoor tanning services imposed by section 5000B. See part 40 of this chapter for regulations relating to returns, payments, and deposits of these taxes.

[T.D. 9621, 78 FR 34876, June 11, 2013]

§ 49.0-2 General definitions and use of terms.

As used in the regulations in this part, unless otherwise expressly indicated:

(a) The terms defined in the provisions of law contained in the regulations in this part shall have the meanings so assigned to them.

(b) The Internal Revenue Code of 1954 means the Act approved August 16, 1954 (68A Stat.), entitled “An Act to revise the internal revenue laws of the United States”, as amended.

(c) District director means district director of internal revenue. The term also includes the Director of International Operations in all cases where the authority to perform the functions which may be performed by a district director has been delegated to the Director of International Operations.

(d) Calendar quarter means a period of 3 calendar months ending on March 31, June 30, September 30, or December 31.

B Subpart B [Reserved]
Subpart C Communications

Source: T.D. 6664, 28 FR 7252, July 16, 1963, unless otherwise noted.

§ 49.4251-1 Imposition of tax.

(a) In general. Section 4251 imposes a tax on amounts paid for general telephone service; toll telephone service; telegraph service; teletypewriter exchange service; wire mileage service; and wire and equipment service. See § 49.4251-2 for rate and application of tax.

(b) Termination of tax on general telephone service. (1) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, no tax is imposed on amounts paid on or after July 1, 1965, for general telephone service rendered on or after such date.

(2) In the case of amounts paid pursuant to bills rendered on or after July 1, 1965, for general telephone service for which no previous bill was rendered, no tax is imposed on that portion of the amount paid pursuant to such bill or bills as is attributable to general telephone service rendered subsequent to April 30, 1965. However, the tax applies to that portion of the amount paid pursuant to any such bill or bills as is attributable to general telephone service rendered prior to May 1, 1965. The tax also applies to amounts paid for general telephone service pursuant to bills rendered before July 1, 1965, without regard to when the payment is made or the service is rendered.

[T.D. 6664, 28 FR 7252, July 16, 1963, as amended by T.D. 6694, 28 FR 12929, Dec. 5, 1963; T.D. 6753, 29 FR 12718, Sept. 9, 1964]

§ 49.4251-2 Rate and application of tax.

(a) Rate of tax. Tax is imposed on amounts paid for each of the following services rendered at the rate specified below:

Taxable service | Rate of tax (percent)

General telephone service | 10

Toll telephone service | 10

Telegraph service | 10

Teletypewriter exchange service | 10

Wire mileage service | 10

Wire and equipment service | 8

(b) Amounts paid. The term “amounts paid” means the amounts collected for the communication services specified in paragraph (a) of this section, without regard to whether the charge therefor is paid or satisfied in money, service, or other valuable consideration. For additional provisions relating to the term “amounts paid” see the section of the regulations relating to the particular taxable service listed in paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Liability for, and return of, tax. The taxes imposed by section 4251 are payable by the person paying for the services rendered, and must be paid to the person rendering the services who is required to collect the tax and return and pay over the tax.

[T.D. 6664, 28 FR 7252, July 16, 1963, as amended by T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992]

§ 49.4251-3 [Reserved]
§ 49.4251-4 Prepaid telephone cards.

(a) In general. In the case of communications services acquired by means of a prepaid telephone card (PTC), the face amount of the PTC is treated as an amount paid for communications services and that amount is treated as paid when the PTC is transferred by any carrier to any person that is not a carrier. This section provides rules for the application of the section 4251 tax to PTCs.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this section:

Carrier means a telecommunications carrier as defined in 47 U.S.C. 153.

Comparable PTC means a currently available dollar card or tariffed unit card (other than a PTC transferred in bulk or under special circumstances, such as for promotional purposes) that provides the same type and amount of communications services as the PTC to which it is being compared.

Dollar card means a PTC the value of which is designated by the carrier in dollars (even if also designated in units of service), provided that the designated value is not less than the amount for which the PTC is expected to be sold to a holder.

Holder means a person that purchases other than for resale.

Prepaid telephone card (PTC) means a card or similar arrangement that permits its holder to obtain a fixed amount of communications services by means of a code (such as a personal identification number (PIN)) or other access device provided by the carrier and to pay for those services in advance.

Tariff means a schedule of rates and regulations filed by a carrier with the Federal Communications Commission.

Tariffed unit card means a unit card that is transferred by a carrier—

(1) To a holder at a price that does not exceed the designated number of units on the PTC multiplied by the carrier's tariffed price per unit; or

(2) To a transferee reseller subject to a contractual or other arrangement under which the price at which the PTC is sold to a holder will not exceed the designated number of units on the PTC multiplied by the carrier's tariffed price per unit.

Transferee means the first person that is not a carrier to whom a PTC is transferred by a carrier.

Transferee reseller means a transferee that purchases a PTC for resale.

Unit card means a PTC other than a dollar card.

Untariffed unit card means a unit card other than a tariffed unit card.

(c) Determination of face amount—(1) Dollar card. The face amount of a dollar card is the designated dollar value.

(2) Tariffed unit card. The face amount of a tariffed unit card is the designated number of units on the PTC multiplied by the tariffed price per unit.

(3) Untariffed unit card—(i) Transfer to holder. The face amount of an untariffed unit card transferred by a carrier to a holder is the amount for which the carrier sells the PTC to the holder.

(ii) Transfer to transferee reseller—(A) In general. The face amount of an untariffed unit card transferred by a carrier to a transferee reseller is at the option of the carrier—

(1) The highest amount for which the carrier sells a PTC that provides the same type and amount of communications services to a holder that ordinarily would not be expected to buy more than one such PTC at a time (if the carrier makes such sales on a regular and arm's-length basis) or the face amount of a comparable PTC (if the carrier does not make such sales on a regular and arm's-length basis);

(2) 135 percent of the amount for which the carrier sells the PTC to the transferee reseller (including in that amount, in addition to any sum certain fixed at the time of the sale, any contingent amount per unit multiplied by the designated number of units on the PTC); or

(3) If the PTC is of a type that ordinarily is used entirely for domestic communications service, the maximum number of minutes of domestic communications service on the PTC multiplied by the applicable rate.

(B) Applicable rate. The applicable rate under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(3) of this section with respect to a PTC is $0.30 reduced (but not below $0.20) by $0.01 for each full 20 minutes by which the maximum number of minutes of domestic communications service on the PTC exceeds 40 minutes.

(C) Sales not at arm's length. In the case of a transfer of an untariffed unit card by a carrier to a transferee reseller otherwise than through an arm's-length transaction, the fair market retail value of the PTC shall be substituted for the amount determined in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(2) of this section.

(4) Exclusion. The amount of any state or local tax imposed on the furnishing or sale of communications services that is separately stated in the bill or on the face of the PTC and the amount of any section 4251 tax separately stated in the bill or on the face of the PTC are disregarded in determining, for purposes of this paragraph (c), the amount for which a PTC is sold.

(d) Liability for tax—(1) In general. Under section 4251(d), the section 4251(a) tax is imposed on the transfer of a PTC by a carrier to a transferee. The person liable for the tax is the transferee. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the person responsible for collecting the tax is the carrier transferring the PTC to the transferee. If a holder purchases a PTC from a transferee reseller, the amount the holder pays for the PTC is not treated as an amount paid for communications services and thus tax is not imposed on that payment.

(2) Effect of statement that purchaser is a carrier—(i) On transferor. A carrier that transfers a PTC to a purchaser is not responsible for collecting the tax if, at the time of transfer, the transferor carrier has received written notification from the purchaser that the purchaser is a carrier, and the transferor has no reason to believe otherwise. The notification to be provided by the purchaser is a statement, signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the purchaser, that the purchaser is a carrier (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section). The statement is not required to take any particular form.

(ii) On purchaser. If a purchaser that is not a carrier provides the notification described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section to the carrier that transfers a PTC, the purchaser remains liable for the tax imposed on the transfer of the PTC.

(3) Exemptions. Any exemptions available under section 4253 apply to the transfer of a PTC from a carrier to a holder. Section 4253 does not apply to the transfer of a PTC from a carrier to a transferee reseller.

(e) Examples. The following examples illustrate the provisions of this section:

Example 1. Unit card; sold to individual. (i) On May 1, 2000, A, a carrier, sells a card it calls a prepaid telephone card at A's retail store to P, an individual, for P's use in making telephone calls. A provides P with a PIN. The value of the card is not denominated in dollars, but the face of the card is marked 30 minutes. The sales price is $9. A tariff has not been filed for the minutes on the card. The toll telephone service acquired by purchasing the card will be obtained by entering the PIN and the telephone number to be called.

(ii) Because P purchased from a carrier other than for resale, P is a holder. The card provides its holder, P, with a fixed amount of communications services (30 minutes of toll telephone service) to be obtained by means of a PIN, for which P pays in advance of obtaining service; therefore, the card is a PTC. Because the value of the PTC is not designated in dollars and a tariff has not been filed for the minutes on the PTC, the PTC is an untariffed unit card. Because it is transferred by the carrier to the holder, the face amount is the sales price ($9).

(iii) The card is a PTC; thus, under section 4251(d), the face amount is treated as an amount paid for communications services and that amount is treated as paid when the PTC is transferred from A to P. Accordingly, at the time of transfer, P is liable for the 3 percent tax imposed by section 4251(a). The amount of the tax is $0.27 (3% × the $9 face amount). Thus, the total paid by P is $9.27, the $9 sales price plus $0.27 tax. A is responsible for collecting the tax from P.

Example 2. Unit card; given to individual. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that instead of selling a card, A gives a 30 minute card to P.

(ii) Although the card provides P with a fixed amount of communications services (30 minutes of toll telephone service) to be obtained by means of a PIN, P does not pay for the service. Therefore, the card is not a PTC, even though it is called a prepaid telephone card by A.

(iii) Because the card is not a PTC, section 4251(d) does not apply. Furthermore, no tax is imposed by section 4251(a) because no amount is paid for the communications services.

Example 3. Unit card; adding value. (i) After using the card described in Example 2, P arranges with A by telephone to have 30 minutes of toll telephone service added to the card. The sales price is $9. P is told to continue using the PIN provided with the card.

(ii) Because P purchased from a carrier other than for resale, P is a holder. The arrangement provides its holder, P, with a fixed amount of communications services (30 minutes of toll telephone service) to be obtained by means of a PIN, for which P pays in advance of obtaining service; therefore, the arrangement is a PTC. Because the value of the PTC is not designated in dollars and a tariff has not been filed for the minutes on the PTC, the PTC is an untariffed unit card. Because it is transferred by the carrier to the holder, the face amount is the sales price ($9).

(iii) The arrangement is a PTC; thus, under section 4251(d), the face amount is treated as an amount paid for communications services and that amount is treated as paid when the PTC is transferred from A to P. Accordingly, at the time of transfer, P is liable for the 3 percent tax imposed by section 4251(a). The amount of the tax is $0.27 (3% × the $9 face amount). Thus, the total paid by P is $9.27, the $9 sales price plus $0.27 tax. A is responsible for collecting the tax from P.

Example 4. Dollar card; sold other than for resale. (i) On May 1, 2000, B, a carrier, sells 100,000 cards it calls prepaid telephone cards to Q, an auto dealer, for $50,000. Q will give away a card to each person that visits Q's dealership. B provides Q with a PIN for each card. The face of each card is marked $3. The toll telephone service acquired by purchasing the card will be obtained by entering the PIN and the telephone number to be called.

(ii) Because Q purchased from a carrier other than for resale, Q is a holder. Each card provides its holder, Q, with a fixed amount of communications services ($3 of toll telephone service) to be obtained by means of a PIN, for which Q pays in advance of obtaining service; therefore, each card is a PTC even though Q's visitors do not pay for the cards. The value of each PTC is designated in dollars; therefore, each PTC is a dollar card. Because the PTC is a dollar card, the face amount is the designated dollar value ($3).

(iii) The cards are PTCs; thus, under section 4251(d), the face amount is treated as an amount paid for communications services and that amount is treated as paid when the PTCs are transferred from B to Q. Accordingly, at the time of transfer, Q is liable for the 3 percent tax imposed by section 4251(a). The amount of the tax is $9,000 (3% × the $3 face amount × 100,000 PTCs). Thus, the total paid by Q is $59,000, the $50,000 sales price plus $9,000 tax. B is responsible for collecting the tax from Q.

Example 5. Tariffed unit card; sold to transferee reseller. (i) On May 1, 2000, C, a carrier, sells 1,000 cards it calls prepaid telephone cards to R, a convenience store owner, for $7,000. C provides R with a PIN for each card. The value of the cards is not denominated in dollars, but the face of each card is marked 30 minutes and a tariff of $0.33 per minute has been filed for the minutes on each card. R agrees that it will sell the cards to individuals for their own use and at a price that does not exceed $0.33 per minute. R actually sells the cards for $9 each (that is, at a price equivalent to $0.30 per minute). The toll telephone service acquired by purchasing the card will be obtained by entering the PIN and the telephone number to be called.

(ii) Because R purchased from a carrier for resale, R is a transferee reseller. Because R's customers will purchase other than for resale, they will be holders. Each card sold by R provides its holder, R's customer, with a fixed amount of communications services (30 minutes of toll telephone service) to be obtained by means of a PIN provided by the carrier, for which R's customer pays in advance of obtaining service; therefore, each card is a PTC. Because the value of each PTC is not designated in dollars and C sells the PTCs to R subject to an arrangement under which the price at which the PTCs are sold to holders will not exceed the designated number of minutes on the PTC multiplied by C's tariffed price per minute, each PTC is a tariffed unit card. Because the PTCs are tariffed unit cards, the face amount of each PTC is $9.90, the designated number of minutes on the PTC multiplied by the tariffed price per minute (30 × $0.33), even though the retail sale price of each card is $9.

(iii) The cards are PTCs; thus, under section 4251(d), the face amount is treated as an amount paid for communications services and that amount is treated as paid when the PTC is transferred from C to R. Accordingly, at the time of transfer, R is liable for the 3 percent tax imposed by section 4251(a). The amount of the tax is $297 (3% × the $9.90 face amount × 1,000 PTCs). Thus, the total paid by R is $7,297, the $7,000 sales price plus $297 tax. C is responsible for collecting the tax from R.

Example 6. Unit card; sold to transferee reseller. (i) On May 1, 2000, D, a carrier, sells 10,000 cards it calls prepaid telephone cards to S, a convenience store owner, for $60,000. D provides S with a PIN for each card. The value of the cards is not denominated in dollars, but the face of each card is marked 30 minutes. A tariff has not been filed for the minutes on each card. S will sell the cards to individuals for their own use for $9 each. D also sells a card that provides 30 minutes of the same type of communications service at its retail store for $9. The toll telephone service acquired by purchasing the card will be obtained by entering the PIN and the telephone number to be called.

(ii) Because S purchased from a carrier for resale, S is a transferee reseller. Because S's customers will purchase other than for resale, they will be holders. Each card sold by S provides its holder, S's customer, with a fixed amount of communications services (30 minutes of toll telephone service) to be obtained by means of a PIN provided by the carrier, for which S's customer pays in advance of obtaining service; therefore, each card is a PTC. Because the value of each PTC is not designated in dollars and a tariff has not been filed for the minutes on the PTC, each PTC is an untariffed unit card.

(iii) The PTCs are untariffed unit cards transferred by the carrier to a transferee reseller. Thus, the face amount is determined under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, which permits D to choose from three alternative methods. Under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(1) of this section, the face amount of each PTC would be $9, the highest amount for which D sells to holders purchasing a single PTC. Alternatively, under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(2) of this section, the face amount of each PTC would be $8.10, computed as follows: 135% × the $60,000 sales price ÷ 10,000 PTC's. Finally, under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(3) of this section (assuming the PTCs are of a type that ordinarily is used entirely for domestic communications services), the face amount of each PTC would be $9 ($0.30 × 30 minutes).

(iv) The cards are PTCs; thus, under section 4251(d), the face amount is treated as an amount paid for communications services and that amount is treated as paid when the PTCs are transferred from D to S. Accordingly, at the time of transfer, S is liable for the 3 percent tax imposed by section 4251(a). Assuming that D chooses to determine the face amount as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(2) of this section, the amount of the tax is $2,430 (3% × the $8.10 face amount × 10,000 PTCs). Thus, the total paid by S is $62,430, the $60,000 sales price plus $2,430 tax. D is responsible for collecting the tax from S.

Example 7. Transfer of card that is not a PTC. (i) On May 1, 2000, E, a carrier, provides a telephone card to T, an individual, for T's use in making telephone calls. E provides T with a PIN. The card provides access to an unlimited amount of communications services. E charges T $0.25 per minute of service, and bills T monthly for services used. The communications services acquired by using the card will be obtained by entering the PIN and the telephone number to be called.

(ii) Although the communications services will be obtained by means of a PIN, T does not receive a fixed amount of communications services. Also, T cannot pay in advance since the amount of T's payment obligation depends upon the number of minutes used. Therefore, the card is not a PTC.

(iii) Because the card is not a PTC, section 4251(d) does not apply. However, the 3 percent tax imposed by section 4251(a) applies to the amounts paid by T to E for the communications services. Accordingly, at the time an amount is paid for communications services, T is liable for tax. E is responsible for collecting the tax from T.

(f) Effective date. This section is applicable with respect to PTCs transferred by a carrier on or after the first day of the first calendar quarter beginning after January 7, 2000.

[T.D. 8855, 64 FR 1057, Jan. 7, 2000; 65 FR 10153, Feb. 25, 2000]

§ 49.4252-1 [Reserved]
§ 49.4252-2 Toll telephone service.

(a) In general. The term “toll telephone service” means any telephone or radio telephone message or conversation for which there is a toll charge, and the charge is paid within the United States. A toll charge is a charge made for such a message or conversation to a place beyond the local service area. For the meaning of the term “United States”, see paragraph (d) of § 49.4252-4.

(b) Amounts paid. (1) The tax in respect of toll telephone service is imposed on the total amount paid for the service, including any charge, in addition to the basic toll charge, made for “overtime” in connection with a telephone or radio telephone message or conversation.

(2) The tax attaches to the total charge made to a hotel or similar subscriber for toll telephone service furnished to the hotel or its guests, but no tax attaches to any charge made by the hotel for service rendered in placing the calls for its guests.

(c) Cross reference. For provisions relating to toll telephone messages communicated through the use of coin-operated telephones, see section 4253(a) and § 49.4253-1. For other provisions relating to toll telephone service, see § 49.4252-4.

§ 49.4252-3 [Reserved]
§ 49.4252-4 Provisions common to telephone and telegraph services.

(a) In general. The tax applies to all amounts paid for services rendered which are incidental to the transmission of a message or conversation. Where dispatches, messages, or conversations are transmitted by telephone, radio telephone, telegraph, cable, or radio free of any charge whatsoever, no tax attaches, but where the carrier in fact makes some charge for the transmission, either in money, service, or other valuable consideration, such charge is subject to the tax upon the basis of the amount of the charge computed in money or money's worth. The tax is payable by the person paying the transmission charge and is to be collected by the person receiving the payment. If a message, dispatch, or conversation is transmitted “collect”, the person who pays the charge therefor is liable for the tax. All telephone and telegraph transmission services when rendered for hire are subject to tax whether or not the agency furnishing such services is a common carrier. For provisions relating to the computation of tax with respect to charges for telephone and telegraph services, see section 4254 and §§ 49.4254-1 and 49.4254-2.

(b) When transmission begins and ends. Transmission begins when the message is delivered by the sender to the carrier, or its agent, and continues until receipt by the addressee or his agent. Thus, an amount paid to a telephone, telegraph, radio, or cable company for messenger service in bringing the recipient of a message to the telephone, or in delivering a dispatch or message, must be included in determining the total amount subject to tax. However, an amount paid for messenger service rendered by a hotel or similar establishment is not to be included in the total charge on which the tax is computed.

(c) Services rendered under contract. (1) Except as an exemption may otherwise be specifically provided for in this part, where, under the provisions of a contract, dispatches, messages, or conversations are transmitted by telephone, radio telephone, telegraph, cable, or radio in consideration of the payment of a lump sum of money or the performance of services, the amounts paid for such transmissions are subject to tax regardless of whether such dispatches, messages, or conversations relate to the operation of the business of a common carrier and whether they are “on line” or “off line”.

(2) Where a telegraph company agrees to transmit over its wires dispatches or messages relating to the business of a carrier free or at reduced rates in consideration of services to be performed by the carrier in transporting men or materials of the telegraph company, all such dispatches or messages are subject to tax.

(d) Meaning of the term “United States”. For purpose of section 4252 (b) and (c), the term “United States” includes the States and the District of Columbia. Such term also includes inland waters (such as rivers, lakes, bays, etc.) lying wholly within the United States, and, where an international boundary line divides inland waters, such parts of such inland waters as lie within the boundary of the United States, and also the waters known as a marine league from low tide on the coast line. Ships within these limits whether of foreign or domestic registry are considered to be within the United States.

(e) Exemptions. For exemptions from the taxes imposed on amounts paid for telephone and telegraph services, see sections 4253, 4292, 4293, and 4294, and the regulations thereunder contained in this part.

§ 49.4252-5 Teletypewriter exchange service.

(a) In general. The term “teletypewriter exchange service” means any service where a teletypewriter (or similar device) may be connected, directly or indirectly, to an exchange operated by a person engaged in the business of furnishing communication service, if by means of such connection communication may be established with any other teletypewriter (or similar device). If the teletypewriter or similar device used in conjunction with such service may be connected to such an exchange, the service constitutes teletypewriter exchange service whether or not it is the practice of the subscriber to the service to make such connection, and whether or not the person engaged in the business of furnishing communication service permits the subscriber to make such connection.

(b) Amounts paid. In determining the amount of tax due, the amount paid for the service shall include all charges made in connection with the furnishing of any teletypewriter exchange service, such as salaries of operators, if in the employ of the person furnishing such service, charges for equipment, instruments, and other apparatus. In cases where a person leases lines or channels, equipment, and other facilities used in conjunction with teletypewriter exchange service, the amounts paid by such person for such lines or channels, equipment, and other facilities constitute amounts paid for teletypewriter exchange service, notwithstanding the fact that the lines or channels, equipment, and other facilities used in conjunction with such service are supplied by different persons or in part by the user of such service.

(c) Exemptions. For exemptions from the tax imposed on amounts paid for teletypewriter exchange service, see sections 4253, 4292, 4293, and 4294, and the regulations thereunder contained in this part.

§ 49.4253-1 Exemption for certain coin-operated service.

(a) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the tax imposed on amounts paid for general telephone service is not applicable to a single telephone conversation paid for by inserting coins in a public coin-operated telephone. The tax imposed on amounts paid for toll telephone service or telegraph service is not applicable to a single telephone conversation for which a tool charge is made (see paragraph (a) of § 49.4252-2), or to a telegraph message, if the charge for such toll telephone service (including any additional charge for overtime) or telegraph service is less than 25 cents and is paid for by inserting coins in a public coin-operated telephone.

(b) Exception where service furnished for a guaranteed amount. Where a coin-operated telephone service is furnished for a guaranteed amount, the amount paid under such guarantee plus any fixed monthly or other periodic charge is subject to the tax imposed on amounts paid for general telephone service. The tax applies to the full amount of the guarantee whether such amount is paid out of receipts from the coin-box of the telephone or from funds of the subscriber.

§ 49.4253-2 Exemption for news services.

(a) In general. The exemption for news services provided by section 4253(b) is applicable to payments for services of the kind listed in section 4251, except general telephone service. The exemption will apply only with respect to payments for services which are utilized exclusively:

(1) In the collection of news for the public press or radio or television broadcasting or in the dissemination of news through the public press or by means of radio or television broadcasting; or

(2) In the collection or dissemination of news by a news ticker service furnishing a general news service similar to that of the public press.

For the exemption to apply, the charge for the services must be billed in writing to the person paying for the services and such person must certify in writing that the services are so utilized.

(b) Scope of the exemption. (1) The exemption applies to amounts charged for messages from any newspaper, press association, radio or television news broadcasting agency, or news ticker service, to any other newspaper, press association, radio or television news broadcasting agency, or news ticker service or to or from their bona fide correspondents, which messages deal exclusively with the collection of news items for, or the dissemination of news items through, the public press, radio or television broadcasting, or a news ticker service furnishing a general news service similar to that of the public press. The exemption does not extend to messages of an administrative nature such as messages transmitting funds to correspondents, messages to correspondents relating to assignments or hotel accommodations, etc.

(2) The exemption does not extend to the collection and dissemination of information or matters for publication in magazines, periodicals, and trade and scientific publications issued to supply information on certain subjects of interest to particular groups; or to amounts paid by newspapers, press associations, radio or television news broadcasting agencies or networks, or news ticker services, for general telephone service taxable under section 4251.

§ 49.4253-3 Exemption for certain organizations.

(a) The American National Red Cross. The taxes imposed by section 4251 do not apply to amounts paid for services furnished to the American National Red Cross.

(b) International organizations. The taxes imposed by section 4251 do not apply to amounts paid for services furnished to an international organization. See section 7701(a) (18) for the definition of “international organization”. An international organization is designated as such by the President of the United States through an Executive order or orders. When an organization has been designated by the President as entitled to enjoy the privileges, exemptions, and immunities conferred by the International Organizations Immunities Act, or part thereof, including exemption from tax, the exemption applies to the taxes imposed by section 4251 on amounts paid for services unless the President otherwise provides. The exemptions is subject to withdrawal or revocation by the President. In case of withdrawal or revocation, unless otherwise provided by the President, the exemption is inapplicable to payments made on or after the date of issuance of the order of withdrawal or the date of revocation.

(c) Exemption certificate. (1) No exemption certificate is required under this section where the payment for the services furnished is made by the American National Red Cross direct to the person furnishing the services. In all other cases the right to exemption under section 4253(c) shall be evidenced by properly executed exemption certificates in substantially the following form:

Exemption of Certificate (Date) __________________________ 19____

I certify that ______________________

(Name of service) have been furnished by (Telephone, telegraph company, etc.) to ____________________ (International Organization, etc.); that the charges of $______ will be paid from ____________________ (International Organization, etc.) funds; and that the charges are exempt from tax under section 4253(c) of the Internal Revenue Code. (Signature of officer or employee) (Address) (Title)

Note:

Penalty for fraudulent use, $10,000 or imprisonment or both.

§ 49.4253-4 Exemption for servicemen in combat zone.

(a) In general. The exemption provided by section 4253(d) is applicable to any payment received for any telephone or radio telephone message or call which originates within a combat zone, as defined in section 112, from a member of the Armed Forces of the United States performing service in such combat zone, if a properly executed certificate of exemption substantially in the form shown in paragraph (c) of this section is furnished to the person receiving such payment.

(b) Service in combat zone. Service is performed in a combat zone only if it is performed in an area which the President of the United States has designated by Executive order, for the purpose of section 112, as an area in which Armed Forces of the United States are or have engaged in combat, and only if it is performed on or after the date designated by the President by Executive order as the date of the commencing of combatant activities in such zone and on or before the date designated by the President by Executive order as the date of the termination of combatant activities in such zone.

(c) Exemption certificate. (1) The exemption certificate shall be in substantially the following form:

Exemption Certificate (Overseas Telephone Calls) (Date) ____________________________ 19____ I certify that the toll charges of $__________ are for telephone or radio telephone messages originating at __________________________ (Point of origin) within a combat zone from (Name) a member of the Armed Forces of the United States performing service in such combat zone; that the transmission facilities were furnished by ____________________ (Name of carrier); and that the charges are exempt from tax under section 4253(d) of the Internal Revenue Code. (Signature of subscriber) (Address)

Note:

Penalty for fraudulent use, $10,000 or imprisonment or both.

(2) See § 49.4253-11 for further provisions relating to exemption certificates.

§ 49.4253-5 Exemption for items otherwise taxed.

A dispatch, message, or conversation transmitted by toll telephone, telegraph, or teletypewriter exchange over the combined facilities of several lines or stations of one or more persons is considered to be one dispatch, message, or conversation, and is subject to only one payment of tax under section 4251.

§ 49.4253-6 Exemption for common carriers and communications companies.

(a) In general. (1) The taxes imposed by section 4251 on amounts paid for wire mileage service and wire and equipment service do not apply to amounts paid for any such services to the extent that the amounts paid are for services utilized by a common carrier, telephone or telegraph company, or television or radio broadcasting station or network in the conduct of its business as such.

(2) The tax imposed by section 4251 on amounts paid for general telephone service does not apply to amounts paid for the use of a continuous telephone or radio telephone line or channel to the extent that the amounts paid are for use by a common carrier, telephone or telegraph company, or television or radio broadcasting station or network in the conduct of its business as such, if such line or channel connects stations between any two of which there would otherwise be a toll charge. A line or channel connects stations between which there would otherwise be a toll charge if the telephone company makes a toll charge for a single message transmitted between the two stations in the case of the ordinary residential and business or commercial telephone service. A line or channel connecting two stations is considered a continuous line or channel if such line or channel does not connect with any switchboard interposed between the two stations, which makes it possible to carry on two or more independent conversations simultaneously. Where a line or channel connects with such a switchboard, the exemption is inapplicable to so much of the amount paid as is attributable to the portion of the line or channel which extends from a station to a switchboard located in the same local service area.

(b) Exemption inapplicable. This particular exemption is not applicable in the case of the taxes imposed on amounts paid for other services by section 4251, even though such services are utilized by the companies described in the conduct of their business as such.

§ 49.4253-7 Exemption for installation charges.

(a) In general. The taxes imposed by section 4251 do not apply to any amount paid as is properly attributable to the installation of any instrument, wire, pole, switchboard, apparatus, or equipment.

(b) Maintenance charges subject to tax. The exemption provided by section 4253(g) and paragraph (a) of this section is applicable only to amounts paid for installation. Amounts paid for the repair or replacement of instruments, wires, poles, switchboards, apparatus, or equipment, incidental to ordinary maintenance, are subject to tax.

§§ 49.4253-8--49.4253-9 [Reserved]
§ 49.4253-10 Exemption for certain private communications services.

(a) In general. The tax imposed by section 4251 on amounts paid for general telephone service does not apply to amounts paid for any such service furnished on or after January 1, 1963, to the extent that the amounts paid are for use of any telephone or radio telephone line or channel (including equipment, instruments, and other apparatus furnished exclusively for use in connection with the line or channel) in the conduct of a trade or business when such line or channel is furnished between specified locations in different States or between specified locations in different counties, municipalities, or similar political subdivisions of a State. The term “trade or business” as used in this section includes activities of organizations which are conducted with no purpose of gain or profit. A line or channel is considered to be furnished between specified locations only when the line or channel connects preselected points without the use of switching functions performed by a communications company exchange. Where an amount is paid which includes a charge for such a line or channel and also a charge for the service provided by means of switching functions performed by a communications company exchange, the exemption is applicable only to that portion of the amount so paid as is attributable to such a line or channel. The preselected points must be located in different States or in different counties or municipalities of the same State. If the preselected points are located in a State in which the political subdivisions are not denominated as counties or municipalities, then the preselected points must be in different political subdivisions of such State which correspond to counties or municipalities. For purposes of this paragraph the term “municipality” means the largest political subdivision of a State below the level of county or similar subdivision. For the exemption to apply, the charge for the service must be billed in writing to the person paying for the service and such person must certify in writing that the service is for use in the conduct of a trade or business.

(b) Exemption inapplicable. This particular exemption is not applicable in the case of taxes imposed on amounts paid for other services by section 4251, even though such services are utilized in the conduct of a trade or business.

§ 49.4253-11 Use and retention of exemption certificates.

A separate exemption certificate (as required by §§ 49.4253-3 and 49.4253-4) shall be furnished for each message paid for as a separate item, but where periodic payments are made, a blanket certificate (for a period not to exceed four calendar quarters) may be accepted as evidence of the right to exemption. An agent of a telegraph, telephone, radio, or cable company should not accept an exemption certificate unless satisfied, on the basis of proper credentials or otherwise, that the person who signed it is the person whom he represents himself to be and that the exemption claimed is allowable under the law. Exemption certificates should be retained with the record of the services rendered for inspection by internal revenue officers as provided in section 6001 and the regulations in Subpart G of this part.

§ 49.4253-12 Cross reference.

For exemptions applicable to amounts received as payment for services furnished to the government of any State or political subdivision of a State, to the District of Columbia, to the government of the United States, or to certain nonprofit educational organizations, see sections 4292, 4293, and 4294, and the regulations thereunder contained in Subpart F of this part.

§ 49.4254-1 Computation of tax.

(a) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, when a bill is rendered to the taxpayer covering charges for general telephone service, toll telephone service, or telegraph service, with respect to which a tax is imposed by section 4251, the amount upon which the tax with respect to such services shall be based shall be the sum of all such charges for such services included in the bill.

(b) Special rule in certain cases. When a bill is rendered to the taxpayer covering charges for general telephone service, toll telephone service, or telegraph service, with respect to which a tax is imposed by section 4251, by a person who groups individual items for purposes of rendering the bill and computing the tax, then the amount on which the tax with respect to each such group shall be based shall be the sum of all items within that group, and the tax on remaining items not included in any such group shall be based on the charge for each item separately.

§ 49.4254-2 Payment for toll telephone service or telegraph service in coin-operated telephones.

Where the tax on a toll telephone or radio telephone message or conversation, or a telegraph, cable, or radio dispatch or message is paid by inserting coins in a coin-operated telephone, the tax shall be computed to the nearest multiple of 5 cents, and where the tax is midway between multiples of 5 cents, the next highest multiple shall apply. In other words, one-half or a greater fraction of 5 cents shall be treated as 5 cents and a smaller fraction shall be ignored.

Subpart D Transportation of Persons

Source: T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, unless otherwise noted.

Note: For exemption from tax on transportation of persons by air of amounts paid by the Department of the Interior for fire prevention and control activities, see 32 FR 5457, April 1, 1967.

§ 49.4261-1 Imposition of tax; in general.

(a) In general. Section 4261 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) imposes three separate taxes on amounts paid for certain transportation of persons by air. Tax attaches at the time of payment for any transportation taxable under section 4261. The applicability of each section 4261 tax is generally determined on a flight-by-flight basis.

(1) Percentage tax. Section 4261(a) imposes a 7.5 percent tax on the amount paid for the taxable transportation of any person. See section 4262(a) of the Code and § 49.4262-1(a) for the definition of the term taxable transportation.

(2) Domestic segment tax. Section 4261(b)(1) imposes a $3 tax (indexed annually for inflation pursuant to section 4261(e)(4)) on the amount paid for each domestic segment of taxable transportation. See section 4261(b)(2) for the definition of the term domestic segment. The domestic segment tax does not apply to a domestic segment beginning or ending at an airport that is a rural airport for the calendar year in which the segment begins or ends (as the case may be). See section 4261(e)(1)(B) for the definition of the term rural airport.

(3) International travel facilities tax. Section 4261(c) imposes a $12 tax (indexed annually for inflation pursuant to section 4261(e)(4)) on any amount paid (whether within or without the United States) for any transportation by air that begins or ends in the United States. The international travel facilities tax does not apply to any transportation that is entirely taxable under section 4261(a) (determined without regard to sections 4281 and 4282). See section 4261(c)(2). A special rule applies to Alaska and Hawaii flights. See section 4261(c)(3).

(b) Payment and collection obligations—(1) In general. The taxes imposed by section 4261 are collected taxes. In general, the person making the payment subject to tax is the taxpayer. See section 4261(d). The person receiving the payment is the collector (also commonly referred to as the collecting agent). See section 4291 of the Code. The collector must collect the applicable tax from the taxpayer, report the tax on Form 720, Quarterly Federal Excise Tax Return, and remit the tax to the Internal Revenue Service. See sections 4291, 6011, and 7501 of the Code. See § 40.6011(a)-1 of this chapter and § 49.4291-1. The collector must also make semimonthly deposits of the taxes imposed by section 4261. See section 6302(e) of the Code. See §§ 40.0-1(c), 40.6302(c)-1, and 40.6302(c)-3 of this chapter. See section 4263(a) and (c) of the Code for special rules relating to the payment and collection of tax.

(2) Failure to collect tax. If any tax imposed by section 4261 is not paid at the time payment for transportation is made, then, to the extent the tax is not collected under any other provision of subchapter C of chapter 33 of the Code, the tax must be paid by the carrier providing the initial segment of transportation that begins or ends in the United States. See section 4263(c). See section 6672 of the Code for rules relating to the application of the trust fund recovery penalty.

(c) Type of aircraft. The taxes imposed by section 4261 generally apply regardless of the type of aircraft on which the transportation is provided, provided all of the other conditions for liability are present and no specific statutory exemption applies. See paragraph (f) of this section for a list of statutory exemptions from tax. Amounts paid for the transportation of persons by air cushion vehicles, also known as hovercraft, are not subject to the taxes imposed by section 4261.

(d) Purpose of transportation. The purpose of the transportation (for example, business or pleasure) is not a factor in determining taxability under section 4261.

(e) Routes. Amounts paid for transportation may be taxable even if the transportation is not between two definite points. Unless otherwise exempt, a payment for continuous transportation that begins and ends at the same point is subject to tax. See section 4281 of the Code and § 49.4281-1 for the exemption for small aircraft on nonestablished lines.

(f) Exemptions from tax; cross-references—(1) Aircraft management services. For the exemption for certain aircraft management services, see section 4261(e)(5) of the Code and § 49.4261-10.

(2) Hard minerals, oil, and gas. For the exemption for certain uses related to the exploration, development, or removal of hard minerals, oil, or gas, see section 4261(f)(1).

(3) Trees and logging operations. For the exemption for certain uses related to trees and logging operations, see section 4261(f)(2).

(4) Air ambulances. For the exemption for air ambulances providing certain emergency medical transportation, see section 4261(g).

(5) Skydiving. For the exemption for certain skydiving uses, see section 4261(h).

(6) Seaplanes. For the exemption for certain seaplane segments, see section 4261(i).

(7) Fractionally-owned aircraft. For the exemption for certain aircraft in fractional ownership aircraft programs, see section 4261(j).

(8) Small aircraft on nonestablished lines. For the exemption for certain small aircraft on nonestablished lines, see section 4281 of the Code and § 49.4281-1.

(9) Affiliated groups. For the exemption for certain transportation of members of an affiliated group, see section 4282.

(10) United States and territories. For exemptions authorized by the Secretary of the Treasury or his delegate for the exclusive use of the United States, see section 4293.

(g) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5001, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4261-2 Application of tax.

(a) Tax on total amount paid. The tax imposed by section 4261(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) is measured by the total amount paid for taxable transportation, whether paid in cash or in kind.

(b) Tax on transportation of each person. The taxes imposed by section 4261(b) and (c) of the Code are head taxes and, therefore, apply on a per-passenger basis. The taxes apply to each passenger for whom an amount is paid, regardless of whether the payment is made as a single lump sum or is made individually for each passenger. In the case of charter flights for which a fixed amount is paid, the section 4261(b) and (c) taxes are computed by multiplying the applicable rate of tax by the number of passengers transported on the aircraft.

(c) Charges for nontransportation services. Where a payment covers charges for nontransportation services as well as for transportation of a person, such as charges for meals, hotel accommodations, etc., the charges for the nontransportation services may be excluded in computing the tax payable with respect to such payment, provided such charges are separable and are shown in the exact amounts thereof in the records pertaining to the transportation charge. If the charges for nontransportation services are not separable from the charge for transportatinon of the person, the tax must be computed upon the full amount of the payment.

(d) Applicability date. Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section apply to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6518, 25 FR 13134, Dec. 21, 1960, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11222, Nov. 14, 1962; T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5001, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4261-3 Payments made within the United States.

(a) Transportation beginning and ending in the United States or the 225-mile zone. The taxes imposed by section 4261(a) and (b) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) applies to payments made within the United States for transportation which begins in the United States or in the 225-mile zone and ends in the United States or in the 225-mile zone. For example, an amount paid within the United States for transportation between New York and Montreal, Canada; between Vancouver, Canada, and Windsor, Canada; or between Nogales, Mexico, and Hermosillo, Mexico, would be fully taxable under section 4261(a) and (b). See section 4262(c) (2) and paragraph (b) of § 49.4262-3 for the definition of the term “225-mile zone”.

(b) Other transportation. In the case of transportation, other than that described in paragraph (a) of this section, for which payment is made in the United States, the taxes imposed by section 4261(a) and (b) apply with respect to the amount paid for that portion of such transportation by air which is directly or indirectly from one port or station in the United States to another port or station in the United States, but only if such portion is not a part of uninterrupted international air transportation within the meaning of section 4262(c)(3) of the Code and § 49.4262-3(c). Transportation that:

(1) Begins in the United States or the 225-mile zone and ends outside such area,

(2) Begins outside the United States or the 225-mile zone and ends inside such area, or

(3) Begins outside the United States and ends outside such area, is taxable only with respect to the portion of the transportation by air which is directly or indirectly from one port or station in the United States to another port or station in the United States, but only if such portion is not a part of “uninterrupted international air transportation” within the meaning of section 4262(c)(3) and § 49.4262-3(c). Thus, on a trip by air from Chicago to London, England, with a stopover at New York, for which payment is made in the United States, if the portion from Chicago to New York is not a part of “uninterrupted international air transportation” within the meaning of section 4262(c)(3) and § 49.4262-3(c), the taxes would apply to the part of the payment which is applicable to the transportation from Chicago to New York. However, if the portion from Chicago to New York is a part of “uninterrupted international air transportation” within the meaning of section 4262(c)(3) and § 49.4262-3(c), the taxes would not apply.

(c) Method of computing tax on taxable portion. Where a payment is made for transportation which is partially taxable under paragraph (b) of this section, the tax imposed by section 4261(a) may be computed on that proportion of the total amount paid which the mileage of the taxable portion of the transportation bears to the mileage of the entire trip.

(d) Cross reference. See section 4262(b) of the Code and § 49.4262-2 for a partial exclusion with respect to amounts paid for certain transportation.

(e) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11222, Nov. 14, 1962; T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5001, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4261-4 Payments made within the United States; evidence of nontaxability.

(a) Presumption of taxability. The tax imposed by section 4261 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) shall apply to any amount paid within the United States for the transportation of any person, unless the taxpayer establishes in accordance with the provisions of this section that at the time of payment the transportation is not transportation in respect of which tax is imposed by section 4261 (see section 4263(d) of the Code).

(b) Through tickets. In the case of transportation which is wholly or in part not taxable transportation, the issuance of one ticket (commonly known as a “through ticket”) covering such transportation will be sufficient to establish that the amount paid for such transportation is wholly or in part not subject to tax. Thus, if A purchases a through ticket in the United States for transportation by air which begins before November 16, 1962, from Chicago to Edmonton, Canada, with a stopover in Minneapolis, no further evidence will be required to establish that no tax applies with respect to the amount paid for the portion of transportation between Minneapolis and Edmonton. A similar result will be reached if a through ticket is purchased for the same air transportation which begins after November 15, 1962, and the trip is not “uninterrupted international air transportation” within the meaning of section 4262(c) (3) and paragraph (c) of § 49.4262-3. See paragraph (d) of this section for the information to be inscribed on all tickets issued for uninterrupted international air transportation.

(c) Separate tickets. Where a separate ticket or order is issued for taxable transportation as defined in section 4262 (a) (1) (referred to in this subpart as the “domestic ticket or order”), but the domestic ticket or order is to be used in conjunction with a ticket or order for additional transportation (referred to in this subpart as the “international ticket or order”) which changes the tax consequences, unless the domestic ticket or order and the international ticket or order are purchased from a single agency or carrier at the same time, the person making payment for the domestic ticket or order shall at the time of payment exhibit the international ticket or order to the agency or carrier receiving such payment. The agency or carrier which receives the payment for the domestic ticket or order shall inscribe the tickets or orders for the entire journey in the following manner:

(1) The international ticket or order shall be inscribed or stamped with an appropriate legend (for example, “Cannot be reused to obtain any tax exemption on a domestic ticket or order”) to show that a domestic ticket or order has been purchased wholly or partially tax free for use in conjunction therewith.

(2) The domestic ticket or order shall be inscribed to show (i) the identity of the agency or carrier which received payment therefor (unless otherwise shown on the ticket or order), (ii) the origin and destination of the additional transportation, (iii) the identify of the carrier furnishing the additional transportation, and (iv) the serial number of the ticket or order covering such additional transportation. If the domestic ticket or order is not large enough to accommodate the prescribed inscription, a statement setting forth the required information shall be attached to such ticket or order.

(d) Tickets issued for uninterrupted international air transportation. All tickets issued for “uninterrupted international air transportation” within the meaning of section 4262(c) (3) and paragraph (c) of § 49.4262-3, whether through tickets or separate tickets, must have inscribed thereon, in addition to the other information required in the regulations in this subpart, sufficient information from which may be ascertained the scheduled arrival and departure time at each stopover to which the 12-hour scheduled interval requirement of section 4262(c)(3) applies. It will be sufficient, for example, if the airline ticket or tickets show the trip number and the date and time of departure of the aircraft from each such stopover point, provided the published airline schedules show the scheduled time of arrival at each such stopover point.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11223, Nov. 14, 1962; T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5003, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4261-5 Payments made outside the United States.

(a) In general. The tax imposed by section 4261(a) and (b)applies to amounts paid outside the United States for the taxable transportation of persons, but only if such transportation begins and ends in the United States. Thus, in addition to the exclusion provided for certain travel under section 4261(a) and (b), the tax imposed by section 4261(a) and (b), shall not apply unless the transportation both begins and ends within the United States. Accordingly, the tax does not apply to a payment made outside the United States for one-way or round-trip transportation between a point within the United States and a point outside the United States.

(b) Transportation between two or more points in the United States. (1) For purposes of this section, a payment made outside the United States for transportation between two or more points in the United States is a payment for transportation which begins and ends in the United States, even though additional transportation to or from a point outside the United States is involved in the entire journey, if at the time of making payment for the transportation between two or more points in the United States it is not definitely established, under the rules set forth in § 49.4261-6, that such transportation is purchased for use in making the journey from or to a point outside the United States. The fact that the entire journey includes transportation from or to a point outside the United States is not in itself determinative of the liability for tax.

(2) The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph:

Example (1).W travels from Havana, Cuba to New York by way of Miami. He purchases in Havana a steamship ticket for his transportation from Havana to Miami and an exchange order for air transportation from Miami to New York. The ticket for the connecting transportation from Havana to Miami, and the order for the transportation from Miami to New York were not appropriately inscribed by the agency or carrier which received the payment for the air transportation involved at the time such payment was received so as to clearly show that the ticket and order were purchased for use in conjunction with each other. Therefore, the agency or carrier which accepts the exchange order and issues the ticket for the transportation from Miami to New York is required to collect the tax which applies to the amount paid outside the United States for such transportation.

Example (2).X travels on a round trip from Montreal, Canada, to Los Angeles by way of New York. He purchases in Montreal air transportation for the round trip between New York and Los Angeles, and uses a private automobile for transportation from Montreal to New York and return to Montreal. The amount paid in Montreal for the round-trip transportation between New York and Los Angeles is a payment for transportation which begins and ends in the United States and is therefore subject to tax.

(c) Cross reference. See section 4262(b) and § 49.4262-2 for a partial exclusion with respect to amounts paid for certain transportation.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended at T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5003, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4261-6 Payments made outside the United States; evidence of nontaxability.

(a) In general. The tax does not apply to a payment made outside the United States for transportation which begins or ends outside the United States. For purposes of the preceding sentence, a payment made outside the United States for transportation between two or more points within the United States (such transportation being referred to hereinafter in this section as “the United States portion”), which is part of transportation from or to a point outside the United States is a payment for transportation which begins or ends outside the United States, where it is definitely established at the time of making payment for the United States portion that such portion is purchased for use in making the journey from or to a point outside the United States. The nontaxable character of the payment made outside the United States for the United States portion shall be established under the rules set forth in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section.

(b) Through tickets. Where one ticket (commonly known as a “through ticket”) is issued to cover all of the United States portion of a journey which begins or ends outside the United States and to cover also the connecting transportation from or to a point outside the United States, no further evidence of the nontaxable character of the transportation covered by such ticket will be required.

(c) Separate tickets. Where separate tickets or orders are issued for the United States portion of a journey which begins or ends outside the United States, the agency or carrier which receives payment for such tickets or orders shall definitely determine at the time of receiving the payment that the United States portion is being purchased for use in conjunction with connecting transportation from or to a point outside the United States, and shall appropriately inscribe the tickets or orders issued outside the United States for the United States portion and for the connecting transportation from or to a point outside the United States to show clearly that such tickets or orders are purchased for use in conjunction with each other. Such tickets or orders shall be inscribed in the following manner:

(1) The ticket or order for the connecting transportation from or to a point outside the United States shall be inscribed or stamped with an appropriate legend (for example, “Not to be used again for purchase of tax-free United States transportation”) to show that the United States portion has been purchased tax free for use in conjunction therewith.

(2) Where the ticket for the United States portion is issued outside the United States, it shall be inscribed to show (i) the identity of the agency or carrier which received payment therefor (unless otherwise shown on the ticket), (ii) the origin and destination of the connecting transportation, (iii) the identity of the carrier furnishing the connecting transportation, and (iv) the serial number of the ticket or order covering such connecting transportation. If the ticket is not large enough to accommodate the prescribed inscription, a statement setting forth the required information shall be attached to such ticket.

(3) Where an order for the United States portion is issued outside the United States, it shall be inscribed to show (i) the origin and destination of the connecting transportation, (ii) the identity of the carrier furnishing the connecting transportation, and (iii) the serial number of the ticket or order covering such connecting transportation.

(d) Ticket issued pursuant to inscribed order. Where the ticket for the United States portion is issued in the United States pursuant to an order which was purchased and properly inscribed outside the United States under the rules set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, liability for payment or collection of tax will not be incurred upon the issuance of the ticket provided the agency or carrier issuing such ticket stamps or inscribes thereon an appropriate legend, for example, “Tax not paid—furnished on order”, or “Exempt—order”.

(e) Maintenance of records. In any case where a payment for the United States portion is not subject to tax under the rules set forth in this section, the carrier furnishing transportation for the United States portion shall procure and maintain appropriate evidence which will clearly show that the tickets or orders for such transportation were purchased for use in conjunction with connecting transportation from or to a point outside the United States.

(f) Examples. The following are examples of nontaxable transportation:

Example (1).Y travels from London, England, to San Francisco by way of New York. He purchases from an agency or carrier in England all of the transportation involved in such journey, which includes air transportation from London to New York and from New York to San Francisco, for which separate tickets are issued. The agency or carrier which receives the payment for Y's transportation from New York to San Francisco will not be required to collect tax with respect to the payment, provided it determines at the time such payment is received that the transportation in question is being purchased for use in conjunction with the connecting transportation from London to New York and it appropriately inscribes both of the tickets for the journey.

Example (2).Z travels from Havana, Cuba, to New York by way of Miami. He purchases in Havana a ticket for his transportation by water from Havana to Miami, and later purchases from a travel agency in Havana air transportation from Miami to New York for which the travel agency issues an exchange order. To establish the nontaxable character of the payment for Z's transportation from Miami to New York the travel agency shall determine at the time payment is received by it that the transportation is being purchased for use in conjunction with the connecting transportation from Havana to Miami, and shall make the appropriate inscription on the ticket and the order. The carrier which accepts the exchange order and issues the ticket for the transportation from Miami to New York will not be required to collect tax with respect to the ticket so issued if it appropriately inscribes the ticket as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.

§ 49.4261-7 Examples of payments subject to tax.

The following are examples of payments for transportation which, unless otherwise exempt under section 4261, 4281, 4282, or 4293 of the Internal Revenue Code are subject to tax:

(a) Cash fares. The tax applies to payments of so-called “cash fares” where no ticket or other evidence of the right to transportation is issued to the passenger.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) Additional charges. Amounts paid as additional charges for changing the class of accommodations, changing the destination or route, extending the time limit of a ticket, as “extra fare”, or for exclusive occupancy of a section, etc., are subject to the tax.

(d)-(e) [Reserved]

(f) Prepaid orders, exchange orders, or similar orders. The tax applies to the amounts paid for prepaid orders, exchange orders, or similar orders for transportation. Additional amounts paid in procuring transportation in connection with the use of prepaid orders, exchange orders, or similar orders, are likewise subject to tax.

(g) [Reserved]

(h) Aircraft charters. (1) When no charge is made by the charterer of an aircraft to the persons transported, the amount paid by the charterer for the charter of the aircraft is subject to tax.

(2) The charterer of an aircraft who sells transportation to other persons must collect and account for the tax with respect to all amounts paid to the charterer by such other persons. In such case, no tax will be due on the amount paid by the charterer for the charter of the aircraft but it shall be the duty of the owner of the aircraft to advise the charterer of the charterer's obligation for collecting, accounting for, and paying over the tax to the Internal Revenue Service.

(i) All-expense tours. Amounts paid for all-expense tours are subject to tax with respect to that portion representing transportation which is subject to tax. See §§ 49.4261-2(c) and 49.4261-8(f)(4).

(j) Payments remitted to foreign countries by persons in the United States. Payments for transportation tickets, prepaid orders, exchange orders, or similar orders are subject to the tax where the payment for such tickets or orders is accomplished by the purchaser either (1) by transmission from within the United States via telegraph or mail of cash, checks, postal or telegraphic money orders, and similar drafts to ticket offices or travel agencies, etc., located in any place without the United States, or (2) by the delivery of the funds to an agency located in the United States for transmission to ticket offices, or travel agencies, etc., without the United States. Such payments are considered to be payments made within the United States.

(k) Applicability date. Paragraph (h) of this section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11223, Nov. 14, 1962; T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5003, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4261-8 Examples of payments not subject to tax.

In addition to a payment specifically exempt under section 4261, 4281, 4282, or 4293 of the Internal Revenue Code the following are examples of payments not subject to tax:

(a) Exchange of prepaid order, scrip, etc., for tickets. A ticket issued pursuant to an exchange order, prepaid order, airline pilot order, or scrip, is not subject to tax where the tax is paid at the time of payment for the order or scrip.

(b) Caretakers and messengers accompanying freight shipments. The tax on the transportation of persons does not apply to amounts paid for transportation of freight that includes also the transportation of caretakers or messengers for which no specific charge as such is made.

(c) Special baggage transportation equipment. An amount paid for special baggage transportation equipment is not subject to the tax on the transportation of persons if separable from the payment for transportation of persons and if shown in the exact amount of the charge on the records covering the taxable transportation payment.

(d) Circus or show conveyances. The amount paid pursuant to a contract for the movement of a circus or show conveyance where the amount covers only the transportation of the performers, laborers, animals, equipment, etc., by such conveyances is not subject to the tax on the transportation of persons imposed by section 4261. However, if the contract payment also covers the issuance to advance agents, bill posters, etc., of circus or show scrip books, or other evidence of the right to transportation, for use on regular passenger conveyances, that portion of the contract payment properly allocable to such scrip books or other evidence is subject to the tax on the transportation of persons.

(e) Corpses. The tax on the transportation of persons does not apply to the amount paid for the transportation of a corpse, but does apply to the amount paid for the transportation of any person accompanying the corpse.

(f) Miscellaneous charges. Where the charge is separable from the payment for the transportation of a person and is shown in the exact amount thereof on the records pertaining to the transportation payment, the tax on the transportation of persons does not apply to the following and similar charges:

(1) Charges for transportation of baggage, including incidental charges such as excess value, storage, transfer, parcel checking, special delivery, etc.

(2)-(3) [Reserved]

(4) Charges for admissions, guides, meals, hotel accommodations, and other nontransportation services, for example, where such items are included in a lump sum payment for an all-expense tour.

(5) [Reserved]

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11223, Nov. 14, 1962; T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5003, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4261-9 Mileage awards.

(a) Tax imposed. Any amount paid (and the value of any other benefit provided) to an air carrier (or any related person) for the right to provide mileage awards for or other reductions in the cost of any transportation of persons by air is an amount paid for taxable transportation and is therefore subject to the tax imposed by section 4261(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. See section 4261(e)(3)(A).

(b) [Reserved]

(c) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021.

[T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5003, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4261-10 Aircraft management services.

(a) In general—(1) Overview. This section prescribes rules relating to the exemption under section 4261(e)(5) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) for amounts paid (in cash or in kind) by an aircraft owner to an aircraft management services provider for certain aircraft management services (aircraft management services exemption). Pursuant to section 4261(e)(5), the tax imposed by section 4261 of the Code does not apply to amounts paid by an aircraft owner to an aircraft management services provider for aircraft management services related to maintenance and support of the aircraft owner's aircraft; or related to flights on the aircraft owner's aircraft (flight services). The aircraft management services exemption applies to amounts paid by an aircraft owner to an aircraft management services provider for flight services on the aircraft owner's aircraft, even if the aircraft owner is not on the flight. The aircraft management services exemption does not apply to amounts paid to an aircraft management services provider by another person on behalf of an aircraft owner (other than in a principal-agent scenario in which the aircraft owner is the principal). In addition, amounts paid for aircraft management services by a party related to the aircraft owner are not amounts paid by the aircraft owner solely by virtue of the relationship between the aircraft owner and the related party. However, if an aircraft owner leases an aircraft to another person, including a related party, amounts paid by the lessee to an aircraft management services provider for aircraft management services related to the leased aircraft qualify for the aircraft management services exemption, provided the lease is not a disqualified lease and all other requirements of section 4261(e)(5) are satisfied. For example, amounts paid for aircraft management services by one member of an affiliated group (as that term is defined in section 4282 of the Code) for flights on an aircraft owned by another member of the affiliated group are not amounts paid by the aircraft owner unless the member owning the aircraft leases the aircraft to the member of the affiliated group that pays for the aircraft management services. See paragraph (b) of this section for definitions of terms used in this section.

(2) Private aviation. The aircraft management services exemption is limited to aircraft management services related to aircraft used in private aviation.

(3) Adequate records required. In order to qualify for the aircraft management services exemption, an aircraft owner and aircraft management services provider must maintain adequate records to show that the amounts paid by the aircraft owner to the aircraft management services provider relate to aircraft management services specifically for the aircraft owner's aircraft or for flights on the aircraft owner's aircraft and to support any allocations required under paragraph (c) under of this section. Such records may include the agreement, if any, between the aircraft owner and the aircraft management services provider, evidence of aircraft ownership, evidence that amounts paid for aircraft management services came from the aircraft owner, and the aircraft management services provider's fee schedule.

(b) Definitions. This paragraph provides definitions applicable to this section.

(1) Aircraft management services. The term aircraft management services means—

(i) Statutory services. The services listed in section 4261(e)(5)(B)(i)-(v); and

(ii) Other services. Any service (including, but not limited to, purchasing fuel, purchasing aircraft parts, and arranging for the fueling of an aircraft owner's aircraft) provided directly or indirectly to an aircraft owner in order to provide air transportation to the aircraft owner on the aircraft owner's aircraft at a level and quality of service required under the agreement between the aircraft owner and the aircraft management services provider.

(2) Aircraft management services provider. The term aircraft management services provider means a person that provides aircraft management services to an aircraft owner.

(3) Aircraft owner—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the term aircraft owner means a person that owns an aircraft managed by an aircraft management services provider (commonly referred to as a managed aircraft), or a person that leases a managed aircraft (lessee) pursuant to a lease that is not a disqualified lease. A person owns a managed aircraft if the person holds legal title to the aircraft, or if the person holds substantial incidents of ownership in the aircraft for a period of more than 31 days. A lessee includes the beneficiary of an owner trust that holds legal title to the managed aircraft.

(ii) Persons not included in the definition of aircraft owner. A lessee of an aircraft under a disqualified lease cannot be an aircraft owner with respect to the aircraft leased pursuant to the disqualified lease. A person that owns stock in a commercial airline does not qualify as an aircraft owner of that commercial airline's aircraft. A participant in a fractional aircraft ownership program, as defined in section 4043(c)(2) of the Code, does not qualify as an aircraft owner of the program's managed aircraft if the amount paid for such person's participation is exempt from the tax imposed by section 4261 reason of section 4261(j).

(4) Disqualified lease. The term disqualified lease has the meaning given to it by section 4261(e)(5)(C)(ii).

(5) Fair market value. The term fair market value means the value of comparable flights or services provided with respect to a comparable aircraft as of the date such flights or services are provided. The aircraft management services provider's published fee schedule in effect on the date(s) the flights or services are provided may be used as evidence of fair market value.

(6) For-hire flight. The term for-hire flight means the use of an aircraft to transport passengers for compensation that is paid in cash or in kind. The term includes, but is not limited to, charter flights, air taxi flights, and sightseeing flights (commonly referred to as flightseeing flights).

(7) Owner trust. The term owner trust means an arrangement in which legal title of an aircraft is held in the name of the trustee of the trust for the limited purpose of registering the aircraft in the United States with the Federal Aviation Administration pursuant to the registration requirements in 49 U.S.C. 40102(a) and 44102(a), and 14 CFR part 47.

(8) Private aviation. The term private aviation means the use of an aircraft for civilian flights, except scheduled passenger service for which tickets (or substitutes equivalent to tickets) are sold on a seat-by-seat basis to the general public. The term includes, but is not limited to, civilian flights operated under Part 135 (14 CFR part 135) of the Federal Aviation Regulations prescribed by the Federal Aviation Administration (FARs).

(9) Substitute aircraft. The term substitute aircraft means an aircraft, other than the aircraft owner's aircraft, that is provided by an aircraft management services provider to the aircraft owner when the aircraft owner's aircraft is not available, regardless of the reason for the unavailability.

(c) Pro rata allocation—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, when an amount paid to an aircraft management services provider includes a portion that is subject to the tax imposed by section 4261 and a portion that consists of amounts described in section 4261(e)(5)(A), the exception in section 4261(e)(5) applies on a pro rata basis only to the portion that consists of amounts described in section 4261(e)(5)(A). See section 4261(e)(5)(D). In such case, the tax base for the portion that is subject to the tax imposed by section 4261(a) is the amount paid for the flights or services, provided the amount paid is separable and shown in exact amounts in the records pertaining to the charge. If the portion of the amount paid that is subject to the tax imposed by section 4261(a) is not separable, the tax base is the fair market value of the flights or services. However, the tax base determined in the previous sentence may not exceed the total amount paid (that is, the sum of the portion that is subject to the tax imposed by section 4261(a) and the portion that consists of amounts described in section 4261(e)(5)(A)).

(2) Substitute aircraft—(i) Flight treated as a charter. If an aircraft management services provider provides a flight to an aircraft owner on a substitute aircraft, the flight is treated as a charter flight provided by the aircraft management services provider to the aircraft owner, regardless of whether the aircraft owner is on the flight, and the aircraft owner is treated as the charterer of such flight. If the flight constitutes taxable transportation, as defined in section 4262 of the Code, the tax imposed by section 4261(a) applies, unless the flight is exempt from such tax by reason of an exemption other than the aircraft management services exemption. See section 4261(b) and (c) for other taxes that may apply to flights provided by an aircraft management services provider to an aircraft owner on substitute aircraft.

(ii) General rule for flights provided on substitute aircraft. In cases where an aircraft management services provider provides a flight to an aircraft owner on a substitute aircraft and an allocation is required, the rule in paragraph (c)(1) of this section applies in determining the tax base. In all other cases, the tax base and the tax imposed by section 4261(a) thereon must be determined in accordance with the rules of § 49.4261-7(h)(1), unless the flight is otherwise exempt from such tax by reason of an exemption other than the aircraft management services exemption.

(iii) Special rule for for-hire flights provided on substitute aircraft. In cases where a substitute aircraft is used to provide a for-hire flight and an amount is paid for the flight by someone other than the aircraft owner, the tax base and the tax imposed by section 4261(a) thereon must be determined in accordance with the rules in § 49.4261-7(h)(2), unless the flight is otherwise exempt from such tax by reason of an exemption other than the aircraft management services exemption.

(d) Choice of flight rules. Whether a flight on an aircraft owner's aircraft operates pursuant to the rules under FARs Part 91 (14 CFR part 91) or pursuant to the rules under FARs Part 135 does not affect the application of section 4261(e)(5).

(e) Aircraft available for hire. Whether an aircraft owner permits an aircraft management services provider or other person to use its aircraft to provide for-hire flights (for example, when the aircraft is not being used by the aircraft owner or when the aircraft is being moved in deadhead service) does not affect the application of section 4261(e)(5). However, an amount paid for for-hire flights on the aircraft owner's aircraft, except payments made by the aircraft owner, does not qualify for the aircraft management services exemption under section 4261(e)(5). Therefore, an amount paid by someone other than the aircraft owner for a for-hire flight on the aircraft owner's aircraft is subject to the tax imposed by section 4261 unless the flight is otherwise exempt from such tax by reason of an exemption other than the aircraft management services exemption. See § 49.4261-7(h) for rules relating to the application of the tax imposed by section 4261 on amounts paid for certain charter flights.

(f) Billing methods. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the method an aircraft management services provider bills, invoices, or otherwise charges an aircraft owner for aircraft management services, whether by specific itemization of costs, flat monthly or hourly fee, or otherwise, does not affect the application of section 4261(e)(5).

(g) Multiple aircraft management services providers not disqualifying. Whether an aircraft owner pays amounts to more than one aircraft management services provider for aircraft management services does not affect the application of section 4261(e)(5).

(h) Examples. The following examples illustrate the provisions of this section.

(1) Example 1—(i) Facts. During the first quarter of 2021, an aircraft owner pays a $3,000 monthly management fee to an aircraft management services provider for services related to operating the aircraft owner's aircraft. The aircraft owner used its own aircraft for all but one of the flights the owner took during the period. On the one occasion that the aircraft owner's aircraft was unavailable when the aircraft owner wanted to fly, the aircraft management services provider used a substitute aircraft to transport the aircraft owner. The flight was within the continental United States and the aircraft owner received no compensation for the transportation of other passengers on the flight. The aircraft owner paid $1,000 for the flight on the substitute aircraft. The aircraft management services provider included the $1,000 charge for the substitute aircraft as a separate line item on the monthly management fee invoice.

(ii) Analysis. The tax imposed by section 4261(a) applies to services that do not qualify for the section 4261(e)(5) exemption; in this case, the flight provided on the substitute aircraft. The flight provided on the substitute aircraft is treated as a charter flight for purposes of the tax imposed by section 4261(a), and the owner is treated as the charterer of the flight. The amount paid by the aircraft owner for the flight on the substitute aircraft is the section 4261(a) tax base. The monthly invoice from the aircraft management services provider to the aircraft owner included a line item in the amount of $1,000 for the charter flight. Because $1,000 is the actual amount paid for the flight, this amount is the section 4261(a) tax base. The tax imposed by section 4261(b) also applies to the flight on a per-passenger basis. See § 49.4261-2(b) for rules regarding the application of the tax imposed by section 4261(b).

(2) Example 2—(i) Facts. Same facts as in paragraph (h)(1) of this section (Example 1), except the invoice does not show the amount paid for the flight on the substitute aircraft and that amount is not otherwise separable from the monthly management fee. The fair market value of the flight on the substitute aircraft is $1,000.

(ii) Analysis. The tax imposed by section 4261(a) applies to the flight provided on the substitute aircraft. The amount paid for the flight on the substitute aircraft is not otherwise separable from the monthly management fee. Because $1,000 is the fair market value of the flight, and such amount does not exceed the $3,000 monthly management fee paid by the aircraft owner, this amount is the section 4261(a) tax base. The tax imposed by section 4261(b) also applies to the flight on a per-passenger basis. See § 49.4261-2(b) for rules regarding the application of the tax imposed by section 4261(b).

(3) Example 3—(i) Facts. An aircraft owner pays a monthly management fee to an aircraft management services provider for aircraft management services related to the aircraft owner's aircraft. When the aircraft is not being used by the owner, the owner sometimes permits a charter company to use the aircraft to provide charter flights. At other times when the aircraft is not being used by the owner, the owner permits a tour operator to use the aircraft for flightseeing tours. All charter and flightseeing flights on the aircraft constitute taxable transportation, as that term is defined in section 4262, and no exemptions (other than section 4261(e)(5)) apply. No charter or flightseeing flights are provided on a substitute aircraft. The aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight is 7,000 pounds.

(ii) Analysis. Amounts paid by the aircraft owner to the aircraft management services provider for aircraft management services related to the aircraft owner's aircraft are exempt under section 4261(e)(5). Amounts paid by the charterer or passengers for the charter flights are subject to tax under section 4261(a) and (b). See § 49.4261-7(h) for rules relating to the application of the tax imposed by section 4261 on amounts paid for charter flights. See § 49.4261-2(b) for rules regarding the application of the tax imposed by section 4261(b). Amounts paid by flightseeing customers for flightseeing tours are also subject to tax under section 4261(a) and (b). If a payment for a flightseeing tour includes charges for nontransportation services, the charges for the nontransportation services may be excluded in computing the tax payable provided the payments are separable and provided in exact amounts. See § 49.4261-2(c).

(i) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021.

[T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5003, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4262-1 Taxable transportation.

(a) In general. Unless excluded under section 4262(b) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) (see § 49.4262-2), taxable transportation means:

(1) Transportation by air which begins in the United States or in that portion of Canada or Mexico which is not more than 225 miles from the nearest point in the continental United States (225-mile zone) and ends in the United States or in the 225-mile zone; and

(2) In the case of any other transportation by air, that portion of such transportation that is directly or indirectly from one port or station in the United States to another port or station in the United States, but only if such transportation is not part of uninterrupted international air transportation within the meaning of section 4262(c)(3) of the Code and § 49.4262-3(c). Transportation from one port or station in the United States occurs whenever a carrier, after leaving any port or station in the United States, makes a regularly scheduled stop at another port or station in the United States irrespective of whether stopovers are permitted or whether passengers disembark.

The provisions of this paragraph are applicable whether the transportation is by rail, motor vehicle, water, or air, or any combination thereof, except that with respect to transportation which begins after November 15, 1962, the tax, if applicable, applies only to the amount paid for that portion of the transportation which is by air.

(b) Illustrations of taxable transportation under section 4262(a) (1). In each of the following examples the transportation is taxable transportation and the amount paid within the United States for such transportation is subject to the taxes imposed by section 4261(a) and (b):

(1) New York to Seattle;

(2) New York to Vancouver, Canada, with a stop at Toronto, Canada;

(3) Chicago to Monterrey, Mexico;

(4) Montreal, Canada, to Toronto, Canada; and

(5) Miami to Los Angeles via Panama. If in the examples in paragraph (b)(1) and (5) of this section, payment for the transportation had been made outside the United States, such payment would nevertheless have been subject to tax since in each case the transportation begins and ends in the United States.

(c) [Reserved]

(d) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of section 4262(a)(2) and the taxes imposed by section 4261(a) and (b) of the Code:

(1) Example (1). A purchases in New York a ticket for air transportation from New York to Nassau, Bahamas, with a scheduled stopover of 14 hours in Miami. The part of the transportation from New York to Miami is taxable transportation as defined in section 4262(a) because such transportation is from one station in the United States to another station in the United States and the trip is not uninterrupted international air transportation (because the scheduled stopover interval in Miami is greater than 12 hours). Therefore, the amount paid for the transportation from New York to Miami is subject to the taxes imposed by section 4261(a) and (b).

(2) [Reserved]

(3) A purchases a through ticket for air transportation from San Francisco to London with stopovers at Denver, Chicago, Philadelphia, and New York. At each stopover the air carrier has scheduled his arrival and departure within 12 hours. After arriving in Philadelphia, A, for his own convenience, decides to stopover for more than 12 hours. The total amount paid by A for his transportation from San Francisco to New York is subject to the taxes imposed by section 4261(a) and (b) since the scheduled interval between the beginning or end and the end or beginning of any two segments of the domestic portion of international air transportation exceeded 12 hours. If the stopover interval in Philadelphia is extended for more than 12 hours by the carrier solely for its own convenience such as making repairs to the aircraft, the domestic portion of A's trip will not become taxable, provided A continues his international air transportation no later than on the first available flight offered by the carrier.

(4) A purchases a through ticket for transportation by air from Los Angeles to Barbados with stopovers at Houston, Mexico City, Mexico, and Miami. At each stopover, except Mexico City, A's scheduled time of arrival and departure is within 12 hours. At Mexico City, A's scheduled time of arrival and departure exceeds 12 hours. The total amount paid by A for his transportation from Los Angeles to Miami, including that part of the transportation to and from Mexico City, is subject to tax since the transportation includes a portion which is indirectly from one port or station in the United States to another port or station in the United States (Houston to Miami via Mexico City) and the scheduled interval in Mexico City between two segments of such portion exceeds 12 hours. If A's scheduled arrival and departure at each stopover of his transportation which is directly or indirectly between ports or stations in the United States, including that at Mexico City, had been within a 12 hours interval and A had arrived and departed at each such stopover within that period, the transportation would have qualified as uninterrupted international air transportation and no part of the amount paid for the transportation by air from Los Angeles to Barbados would be subject to the taxes imposed by section 4261(a) and (b).

(e) Examples of transportation that is not taxable transportation. The following examples illustrate transportation that is not taxable transportation:

(1) New York to Trinidad with no intervening stops;

(2) Minneapolis to Edmonton, Canada, with a stop at Winnipeg, Canada;

(3) Los Angeles to Mexico City, Mexico, with stops at Tijuana and Guadalajara, Mexico;

(4) New York to Whitehorse, Yukon Territory, Canada, by air with a scheduled stopover in Chicago of five hours. Amounts paid for the transportation referred to in examples set forth in paragraphs (e)(1), (2), and (3) of this section are not subject to the tax regardless of where payment is made, since none of the trips:

(i) Begin in the United States or in the 225-mile zone and end in the United States or in the 225-mile zone, nor

(ii) Contain a portion of transportation which is directly or indirectly from one port or station in the United States to another port or station in the United States. The amount paid within the United States for the transportation referred to in the example set forth in paragraph (4) of this section is not subject to tax since the entire trip (including the domestic portion thereof) is uninterrupted international air transportation within the meaning of section 4262(c)(3) and § 49.4262-3(c). In the event the transportation is paid for outside the United States, no tax is due since the transportation does not begin and end in the United States.

(f) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11223, Nov. 14, 1962. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5005, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4262-2 Exclusion of certain travel.

(a) In general. Under section 4262(b) of the Internal Revenue Code taxable transportation does not include that portion of any transportation which meets all four of the following requirements:

(1) Such portion is outside the United States;

(2) Neither such portion nor any segment thereof is directly or indirectly:

(i) Between (a) a point where the route of the transportation leaves or enters the continental United States, or (b) a port or station in the 225-mile zone, and

(ii) A port or station in the 225-mile zone;

(3) Such portion:

(i) Begins at either (a) the point where the route of the transportation leaves the United States, or (b) a port or station in the 225-mile zone, and

(ii) Ends at either (a) the point where the route of the transportation enters the United States, or (b) a port or station in the 225-mile zone; and

(4) A direct line from the point (or the port or station) specified in subparagraph (3) (i) of this paragraph, to the point (or the port or station) specified in subparagraph (3) (ii) of this paragraph, passes through or over a point which is not within 225 miles of the United States. For purposes of this section, the route of the transportation shall be deemed to leave or enter the United States when it passes over (i) the international boundary line between any part of the United States and a contiguous foreign country, or (ii) a point three nautical miles (3.45 statute miles) from low tide on the coast line.

(b) Transportation to or from Alaska or Hawaii. (1) Under the provisions of section 4262(b) transportation between the continental United States or the 225-mile zone and Alaska or Hawaii will be partially exempt from the tax. The portion of such transportation which (i) is outside the United States, (ii) is not transportation between ports or stations within the continental United States or the 225-mile zone, and (iii) is not transportation between ports or stations within Alaska or Hawaii, meets all the requirements set forth in section 4262(b) and is excluded from taxable transportation.

(2) The provisions of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example (1).A buys a ticket for transportation by air from Seattle to Fairbanks, Alaska, via Ketchikan and Juneau, Alaska, and Whitehorse, Yukon Territory, Canada. The portion of the transportation between the point where the route of the transportation leaves the continental United States and the point where it first enters Alaska (the three-mile limit or the international boundary) is not subject to tax.

Example (2). [Reserved]

Example (3).C purchases a ticket in the United States for transportation by air from Vancouver, Canada, to Honolulu, Hawaii. No part of the route followed by the carrier passes through or over any part of the continental United States. The only part of the payment made by C for this transportation which is subject to the tax is that applicable to the portion of the transportation between the three-mile limit off the coast of Hawaii and the airport in Honolulu.

(c) Method of computing tax on travel not excluded. (1) Where a payment is made for transportation which includes transportation excluded under the provisions of section 4262(b):

(i) The tax may be computed on that proportion of the total amount paid which the mileage of the taxable portion of the transportation bears to the mileage of the entire trip, or

(ii) If the taxable portion of the transportation includes transportation from one port or station to another port or station for which an applicable local fare of a like class is available, the tax may be computed on the amount of such local fare, plus an amount equivalent to that proportion of the remainder of the total amount paid which the mileage of the remainder of the taxable portion of the transportation bears to the remainder of the mileage of the entire trip. If the taxable transportation includes a leg from a station to a coastal gateway point of embarkation for which a uniform fare is charged regardless of the gateway point actually used, the tax on such a leg may be computed on the basis of such uniform fare. In the absence of a fare described in this subparagraph, the tax must be determined in accordance with subdivision (i) of this subparagraph. If the taxable portion of the transportation includes a leg between coastal gateway points of embarkation for which no additional fare is charged no tax shall be applicable to such leg of the transportation.

(2) The basis for determining the proportions described in subdivisions (i) and (ii) of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall be the average mileage of the established route traveled by the carrier between given points under normal circumstances.

(d) Example. The application of paragraph (c) of this section may be illustrated by the following example: A purchases in San Francisco a ticket for transportation by air to Honolulu, Hawaii. The portion of the transportation which is outside the continental United States and is outside Hawaii is excluded from taxable transportation. The tax applies to that part of the payment made by A which is applicable to the portion of the transportation between the airport in San Francisco and the three-mile limit off the coast of California (a distance of 15 miles) and between the three-mile limit off the coast of Hawaii and the airport in Honolulu (a distance of 5 miles). The part of the payment made by A which is applicable to the taxable portion of his transportation and the tax due thereon are computed in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) as follows:

Table 1 to Paragraph (d)

Mileage of entire trip (San Francisco airport to Honolulu airport) (miles) | 2,400

Mileage in continental United States (miles) | 15

Mileage in Hawaii (miles) | 5

20

Fare from San Francisco to Honolulu | $168.00

Payment for taxable portion (20/2400 × $168) | $1.40

Tax due (7.5% (rate in effect on date of payment) × $1.40) | $0.11

(All distances and fares assumed for purposes of this example. This example addresses only the computation of the tax imposed by section 4261(a). It does not address the computation of any other tax imposed by section 4261 that may apply to these facts.)

(e) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11224, Nov. 14, 1962. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5006, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4262-3 Definitions.

(a) The continental United States. For purposes of the regulations in this subpart, the term “continental United States” means the District of Columbia and the States other than Alaska and Hawaii, including inland waters (such as rivers, lakes, bays, etc.) lying wholly therein, and, where an international boundary line divides inland waters, such parts of such inland waters as lie within the boundary of the United States, and also the waters 3 nautical miles (3.45 statute miles) from low tide on the coast line.

(b) The 225-mile zone. For purposes of the regulations in this subpart, the term “225-mile zone” means that portion of Canada and Mexico which is not more than 225 miles from the nearest point in the continental United States. Whether any point in Canada or Mexico is more than 225 miles from the continental United States is to be determined by measuring the distance from such point to the nearest point on the boundary of the continental United States.

(c) Uninterrupted International air transportation. (1) For the purpose of the regulations in this subpart, the term “uninterrupted international air transportation” means transportation entirely by air which does not begin in the United States or in the 225-mile zone and end in the United States or in the 225-mile zone provided that:

(i) Where the transportation within the United States involves one stop, the scheduled interval between the beginning or end of the United States portion of such air transportation and the end or beginning of the remainder of the air transportation, and

(ii) Where the United States portion of such transportation involves two or more stops, the scheduled interval between the beginning or end of one segment and the end or beginning of the continuing segment of such portion does not exceed 12 hours. The transportation is considered to be entirely by air even though the passenger may use other means of transportation between two airports provided the scheduled 12-hour limitation for his continuing air transportation is complied with. Transportation which otherwise is uninterrupted international air transportation does not cease to be such because of the use of non-air transportation between ports or stations which are outside the United States, provided the non-air transportation is not part of transportation which is indirectly from one port or station in the United States to another port or station in the United States.

(2) Where the interval between arrival and departure time at any stopover point in the United States exceeds 12 hours, such transportation is not uninterrupted international air transportation even though the schedules of the air lines do not make possible a scheduling within the 12-hour limit. Where any interval scheduled for 12 hours or less is increased to exceed 12 hours, the transportation will continue to be uninterrupted international air transportation if the increase in time is attributable to delays in the arrival or departure of the scheduled air transportation. In such case the transportation shall continue to be uninterrupted international air transportation if the passenger continues his transportation no later than on the first available flight offered by the continuing carrier which affords the passenger substantially the same accommodations as originally purchased. However, if for any other reason such interval at any stopover is increased to more than 12 hours, the transportation will lose its classification of uninterrupted international air transportation. The tax applicable in such case shall be paid as provided in § 49.4263-3(a)(2). The transportation from the point of orgin in the United States to a port or station outside the United States and the 225-mile zone, with a stopover in the United States, must be scheduled before the time the initial transportation commences in order for the United States portion of such transportation to qualify as uninterrupted international air transportation. For example, where transportation by air from Chicago to New York only is scheduled in Chicago and transportation by air from New York to London, England, is scheduled by the passenger after his arrival in New York, the Chicago to New York trip does not qualify as uninterrupted international air transportation even though the passenger may depart on the London flight within 12 hours after arrival in New York.

(d) Transportation. For purposes of the regulations in this subpart, the term transportation includes layover or waiting time and movement of the aircraft in deadhead service.

(e) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11225, Nov. 14, 1962; 27 FR 11691, Nov. 28, 1962. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4263-1 Duty to collect the tax; payments made outside the United States.

(a) Duty to collect tax. Where payment upon which tax is imposed by section 4261 of the Internal Revenue Code is made outside the United States for a prepaid order, exchange order, or similar order, the person furnishing the initial transportation pursuant to such order must collect the applicable tax. See section 4291 and the regulations under section 4291 for cases where persons receiving payment must collect the tax. See section 6672 for rules relating to the application of the trust fund recovery penalty.

(b) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4263-2 Duty to collect the tax in the case of certain refunds.

(a) Special rule for collection of tax. Section 4263(b) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) provides a special rule for the collection of the tax where an unused ticket or order (or portion thereof) purchased without payment of tax is presented for refund and, as a result of the use of only a portion of the transportation purchased in connection with such ticket or order, liability for payment of tax has been incurred. In such a case, the person making the refund shall deduct the amount of the tax due, to the extent available, from the amount which would otherwise be refundable. If the redemption value of the unused ticket or order (or portion thereof) is less than the amount of the tax due on the amount paid for the travel actually performed, the person redeeming the unused ticket or order (or portion thereof) shall make no refund but shall apply the entire amount against the tax due and shall collect any additional tax due or, within 90 days, shall make a report of the amount of the tax remaining uncollected, together with the name and address of the person who sought the refund. The report shall be made to the Commissioner, and a copy of the report shall be furnished to the person presenting the unused ticket or order for redemption.

(b) Return of tax. Any person who has made a collection of tax in accordance with the preceding paragraph shall include such amount in his regular return of taxes required to be collected under section 4291 of the Code.

(c) Example. A carrier receives for redemption a ticket purchased in the United States for transportation from Calgary, Canada, to Edmonton, Canada, which the purchaser bought for use in conjunction with a ticket for nonstop transportation from Seattle to Calgary. The person applying for the refund does not establish to the satisfaction of the carrier that the tax on the Seattle-Calgary ticket has been paid or that the Seattle-Calgary ticket has been redeemed. The carrier, before making any refund for the unused ticket, is required to deduct from the amount otherwise refundable the tax applicable to the amount paid by the purchaser for the transportation from Seattle to Calgary and to report the tax so collected in its quarterly return of Form 720. In the event that the redemption value of the unused Calgary to Edmonton ticket is less than the amount of the tax due on the amount paid for the transportation from Seattle to Calgary, the carrier should not make any refund but should apply against the outstanding tax the entire amount refundable and should either collect the balance of the tax due or make a report, within 90 days, to the Commissioner, setting forth the name and address of the person seeking the refund and the amount of the tax remaining uncollected.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4263-3 Special rule for the payment of tax.

(a) In general. For the rules applicable under section 4263(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, see § 49.4261-1(b)(2).

(b) Relationship to other sections. Section 4263(c) and this section are not intended in any way to relieve the person receiving the payment for taxable transportation of persons from his duty under section 4291 of the Code of collecting the tax at the time such payment is received by him.

(c) [Reserved]

(d) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11226, Nov. 14, 1962. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4263-4 Cross reference.

For the rules applicable under section 4263(d) see § 49.4261-4 relating to payments made within the United States.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4263-5 Round trips.

(a) In general. For purposes of the regulations in this subpart, a round trip shall be considered to consist of two separate trips, i.e., one trip from the point of departure to the destination and a second trip in returning from the destination. A round trip includes certain journeys in which the same routing is not followed on the return trip from the destination to the point of departure as was taken on the going trip (sometimes referred to as “circle trips”). In the case of a cruise or tour (i.e., transportation to no set destination but with one or more intermediate stops en route) the point farthest from the point of departure will be regarded as the destination for purposes of applying the term “round trip”. If a cruise or tour ends at a point other than the one at which it began, the rules of “open jaw” transportation set forth in paragraph (b) of this section apply.

(b) Open jaw transportation. Transportation which qualifies under this paragraph as “open jaw” transportation will be treated in the same manner as a round trip. For purposes of the regulations in this subpart, “open jaw” transportation means (1) transportation from the point of departure to a specified destination and return from the specified destination to a point other than the original point of departure, or (2) transportation from the point of departure to a specified destination and return from a point other than the specified destination to the original point of departure, provided that where the points of the open jaw are within the continental United States or the 225-mile zone, the distance between the points of the open jaw does not exceed the distance of the shorter segment traveled. For example, a trip from New York to New Orleans via Panama would be considered as one trip from New York to Panama and separate trip from Panama to New Orleans, since the distance between the points of the open jaw (i.e., New York and New Orleans) is shorter than the distance between Panama and New Orleans (the shorter of the two segments traveled). Both trips would be nontaxable. On the other hand, transportation from New York to Miami via Bermuda does not qualify as “open jaw” transportation (since the points of the open jaw are in the United States and the distance between them is greater than the shorter segment traveled) and therefore would be considered a single trip from New York to Miami and would be taxable.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959. Redesignated by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4263-6 Transportation outside the northern portion of the Western Hemisphere.

(a) Transportation which leaves and re-enters the northern portion of the Western Hemisphere. For purposes of the regulations in this subpart, transportation, any part of which is outside the northern portion of the Western Hemisphere (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) shall, if the route of the transportation leaves and re-enters the northern portion of the Western Hemisphere, be considered to consist of transportation to the point outside such northern portion and of separate transportation thereafter. The amount paid for such transportation will be considered to be a payment made for two trips and the taxability of the payment will be determined accordingly. Thus, an amount paid for transportation from New York to San Francisco with a stop at Caracas, Venezuela, will be considered an amount paid for a trip from New York to Caracas and for a separate trip from Caracas to San Francisco, neither of which is taxable transportation.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) Northern portion of the Western Hemisphere. For purposes of the regulations in this subpart, the term “northern portion of the Western Hemisphere” means the area lying west of the 30th meridian west of Greenwich, east of the International Date Line, and north of the equator, but not including any country of South America.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959, as amended by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11227, Nov. 14, 1962. Redesignated and amended by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

Subpart E Transportation of Property
§ 49.4271-1 Tax on transportation of property by air.

(a) Purpose of this section. Section 4271 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) imposes a 6.25 percent tax on amounts paid within or without the United States for the taxable transportation of property (as defined in section 4272 of the Code). This section sets forth rules as to the general applicability of the tax. This section also sets forth rules authorized by section 4272(b)(2) which exempt from tax payments for the transportation of property by air in the course of exportation (including shipment to a possession of the United States) by continuous movement, and in due course so exported.

(b) Imposition of tax—(1) The tax imposed by section 4271 applies only to amounts paid to persons engaged in the business of transporting property by air for hire.

(2) The tax imposed by section 4271 does not apply to amounts paid for the transportation of property by air if such transportation is furnished on an aircraft having a maximum certificated takeoff weight (as defined in section 4281(b) of the Code) of 6,000 pounds or less, unless such aircraft is operated on an established line or when such aircraft is a jet aircraft. The tax imposed by section 4271 also does not apply to any payment made by one member of an affiliated group (as defined in section 4282(b) of the Code) to another member of such group for services furnished in connection with the use of an aircraft if such aircraft is owned or leased by a member of the affiliated group and is not available for hire by persons who are not members of such group.

(c) Property exported or imported entirely by air. (1) The tax does not apply to amounts paid for transportation entirely by air which begins in the United States and ends outside the United States, or which begins outside the United States and ends in the United States. Transportation of property by air will be considered to begin and end at the points of origin and destination shown on a through airwaybill covering shipment of the property, even though there may be stopovers in the United States (such as, for example, to consolidate cargo at a “gateway” city). If a through airwaybill is issued by a person other than a person engaged in the business of transporting property by air for hire (for example, by a freight forwarder), the air carrier may accept an air freight manifest listing the article to be shipped by weight and destination as evidence of the existence of a through airwaybill.

(2) If a through airwaybill covering air transportation from its beginning in the United States to a foreign destination, or from its beginning abroad to a U.S. destination, has not been issued, then the export or import character of the shipment must be evidenced by a contract or other written evidence clearly showing the beginning point and ending point of the air transportation.

(3) If a through airwaybill has been issued covering air transportation to a foreign destination, but the transportation nevertheless ends in the United States (for example, because the foreign consignee cancels the order before the shipment leaves a gateway city), then the amount paid for air transportation is taxable. In such a case the air carrier must collect the tax from the shipper or other person who paid for the air transportation.

(4) Any transportation of property by air shipped by the Department of Defense through an aerial port of embarkation and debarkation on a U.S. Government bill of lading shall be considered to:

(i) Begin in the United States and end outside the United States if the bill of lading states that the shipment is “For Export”, or

(ii) Begin outside the United States and end in the United States if the bill of lading states that the shipment is “Imported by Air”.

If a U.S. Government bill of lading stating that a shipment is “For Export” has been issued but the shipment nevertheless ends in the United States, then the amount paid for air transportation is taxable. In such a case the Department of Defense shall notify the air carrier that the shipment is taxable and shall pay the tax to such carrier.

(d) Exportation involving two or more modes of transportation. (1) Even though transportation of property by air begins and ends in the United States, the tax does not apply if the property is being transported in the course of exportation by continuous movement and in due course is so exported, provided the requirements of this paragraph are satisfied. For example, the tax does not apply to air transportation from Chicago to New York if the property is in the course of exportation, by continuous movement, by boat from New York to Europe and in due course is so exported. Delays caused by circumstances beyond the control of the shipper (such as labor disputes or natural disasters) will not interrupt continuous movement. Property arriving at a gateway city by air may be repacked or consolidated with other property without interrupting continuous movement.

(2)(i) Continuous movement in the course of exportation shall be evidenced by (a) the execution of the Export Exemption Certificate, Form 1363, and (b) proof that exportation has actually occurred.

(ii) Form 1363 may be used in connection with a separate payment otherwise subject to tax or it may be used, with the permission of the district director, as a blanket exemption certificate by a person who expects to make payments for numerous export shipments over an indefinite period of time. If used in connection with a separate payment, the certificate shall be executed, in duplicate, by the shipper or other person making the payment subject to tax. Such person shall retain the duplicate with the shipping papers for at least 3 years from the last day of the month during which the shipment was made from the point of origin, and shall file the original with the carrier at the time of payment of the transportation charge. The carrier receiving the original certificate shall retain it along with the document showing payment of the transportation charge, for a period of at least 3 years from the last day of the month during which the shipment was made from the point of origin.

(iii) Form 1363 may be used as a blanket exemption certificate by a person who demonstrates to the satisfaction of the district director that it is impracticable to execute a separate Form 1363 for each payment. Permission to execute a blanket exemption certificate shall be requested, in writing, from the district director for the district in which is located the principal place of business or principal office or agency of the shipper or other person seeking permission. If permission is granted a separate certificate shall be executed in duplicate, by the shipper or other person making the payments, for each air carrier to be used in making export shipments. Such person shall retain the duplicate together with all shipping papers, and shall file the original with the air carrier with or before payment of the first transportation charge to be covered by the certificate. The air carrier shall retain the original certificate together with all documents showing payment of the transportation charges. Permission to execute a blanket exemption certificate if granted, shall remain in force until withdrawn by the person who requested such permission or until withdrawn by the district director who granted such permission. Each person shall retain the certificate for at least 3 years after the last day of the month during which the final shipment covered by the certificate was made from the point of origin. Each person shall retain the shipping and payment documents for at least 3 years after the last day of the month during which the shipment was made from the point of origin.

(3) The filing of a properly executed Form 1363 with the carrier suspends liability for the payment of the tax for a period of 6 months from the date of shipment from the point of origin. If the person who is liable for the tax has not provided evidence to the carrier of the actual exportation of a shipment within such period, then the temporary suspension of the liability for the payment of the tax ceases and the carrier shall collect the tax from the person who paid the carrier for the transportation charge. If, after collection of the tax by the carrier, proof of exportation is subsequently received by the carrier, credit or refund of the tax may be obtained under the terms set forth in section 6415 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.

(4) Documentary evidence of the exportation of the property may consist of a copy of export bill of lading, memorandum from the captain of the vessel, customs official, or a foreign consignee, shipper's export declaration, or other evidence sufficient to establish that the property has actually been exported. The person making the payment subject to tax shall furnish the appropriate documentary evidence to the carrier, or a statement that he holds such documentary evidence. In the latter case, the statement must: (i) Certify that the property covered by the Export Exemption Certificate, Form 1363 was exported; (ii) identify the evidence of exportation; (iii) specify the foreign destination or the possession of the United States to which the property was shipped; and (iv) show the place where such evidence will be available for inspection by internal revenue officers. Any documentary evidence or statement, as the case may be, shall be retained by the carrier and the person making the payment subject to tax for a period of three years from the last day of the month during which the shipment was made from the point of origin. If the person making the payment subject to tax is not the actual exporter and is unable to obtain documentary evidence of exportation, such person shall obtain from the person having custody of the documentary evidence a statement containing the same facts as listed above for a statement furnished to the carrier by the person liable for the tax. The person making the payment subject to tax shall furnish the original of such statement to the carrier and shall retain a copy in his records. The statement shall be retained for the same three year period as the evidence of exportation is to be retained.

(e) Definitions—(1) Property. The term “property” does not include excess baggage accompanying a passenger traveling on an aircraft operated on an established line.

(2) Transportation. The term “transportation” includes layover or waiting time and movement of the aircraft in deadhead service.

(3) Taxable transportation. The term “taxable transportation” is defined in section 4272.

(f) Collection of tax. The tax imposed by section 4271 shall be paid by the person making the payment subject to tax and shall be collected by the person engaged in the business of transporting property by air for hire who receives such payment, except that in the case of amounts subject to tax which are paid by the U.S. Postal Service, the tax shall not be collected by the person engaged in the business of transporting property by air for hire who receives such payment, but instead shall be paid directly by such Service as if it were a collecting agent.

(g) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 7054, 35 FR 12117, July 29, 1970, as amended by T.D. 7190, 37 FR 12794, June 29, 1972; T.D. 7316, 39 FR 21126, June 19, 1974; T.D. 7517, 42 FR 58935, Nov. 14, 1977; T.D. 7953, Redesignated and amended by T.D. 8328, 56 FR 190, Jan. 3, 1991; T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992; T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4271-2 Aircraft management services.

For rules regarding the exemption for certain amounts paid by aircraft owners for aircraft management services, see § 49.4261-10. This section applies to amounts paid on and after January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5008, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4281-1 Small aircraft on nonestablished lines.

(a) In general. Amounts paid for the transportation of persons on a small aircraft of the type sometimes referred to as air taxis shall be exempt from the tax imposed under section 4261 of the Internal Revenue Code provided the aircraft has a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 6,000 pounds or less determined as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. The exemption does not apply, however, when the aircraft is operated on an established line or when the aircraft is a jet aircraft.

(b) Maximum certificated takeoff weight. The term maximum certificated takeoff weight means the maximum certificated takeoff weight shown in the type certificate or airworthiness certificate issued by the Federal Aviation Administration.

(c) Established line. The term “operated on an established line” means operated with some degree of regularity between definite points. It does not necessarily mean that strict regularity of schedule is maintained; that the full run is always made; that a particular route is followed; or that intermediate stops are restricted. The term implies that the person rendering the service maintains and exercises control over the direction, route, time, number of passengers carried, etc. An aircraft is not considered as operated on an established line at any time during which the aircraft is being operated on a flight the sole purpose of which is sightseeing.

(d) Jet aircraft. For purposes of this section, the term jet aircraft does not include any aircraft which is a rotorcraft (such as a helicopter) or propeller aircraft.

(e) Applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on and January 19, 2021. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49, revised as of April 1, 2020.

[T.D. 6430, 24 FR 9665, Dec. 3, 1959. Redesignated by T.D. 6618, 27 FR 11226, Nov. 14, 1962. Further redesignated and amended by T.D. 9948, 86 FR 5007, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 49.4282-1 [Reserved]
Subpart F Collection of Tax By Persons Receiving Payment
§ 49.4291-1 Persons receiving payment must collect tax.

Except as otherwise provided in section 4263(a), every person receiving any payment for facilities or services on which a tax is imposed upon the payor thereof under chapter 33 shall collect the amount of the tax from the person making that payment. Under section 7501, all taxes collected in this manner are held by the collecting agent in trust for the United States. If the person from whom the tax is required to be collected refuses to pay it or if for any reason it is impossible for the collecting agent to collect the tax from that person, the collecting agent is required to report to the Commissioner the name and address of that person, the nature of the facility provided or service rendered, the amount paid therefore, and the date on which paid. Applicable October 1, 2004, this report must be made on or before the report due date. Upon receipt of this report the Commissioner will proceed against the person to whom the facilities were provided or the services rendered to assert the amount of tax due, affording that person the same conference, protest, and appellate rights as are available to other excise taxpayers. In addition, when a field or office audit of a collecting agent's records, or of a taxpayer's records, discloses that the collecting agent failed during prior reporting periods to collect taxes due, the Commissioner may assert those taxes directly against the person to whom the facilities were provided or the services rendered, whether or not the collecting agent had attempted collection or the person liable for the tax had refused payment thereof. For purposes of this section, the report due date is—

(a) In the case of a person using the alternative method of making deposits described in § 40.6302(c)-3 of this chapter, the due date of the return on which the item of adjustment relating to the uncollected tax would be reflected if items of adjustment were determined without regard to the limitation in § 40.6302(c)-3 of this chapter; and

(b) In any other case, the due date of the return on which the tax would have been reported but for the refusal to pay or inability to collect.

[T.D. 8685, 61 FR 58007, Nov. 12, 1996, as amended by T.D. 9051, 68 FR 15942, Apr. 2, 2003; T.D. 9149, 69 FR 48394, Aug. 10, 2004; T.D. 9221, 70 FR 49870, Aug. 25, 2005]

Subpart G Indoor Tanning Services
§ 49.5000B-1 Indoor tanning services.

(a) Overview. This section provides rules for the tax imposed by section 5000B on any indoor tanning service.

(b) Imposition of tax—(1) General rule. Tax is imposed by section 5000B at the time of payment for any indoor tanning service.

(2) Undesignated payment cards—In general. Payment for indoor tanning services is made when an undesignated payment card is redeemed, in whole or in part, to pay for indoor tanning services (and not when a payment is made to purchase the undesignated payment card).

(c) Definitions—(1) The term indoor tanning service means a service employing any electronic product designed to incorporate one or more ultraviolet lamps and intended for the irradiation of an individual by ultraviolet radiation, with wavelengths in air between 200 and 400 nanometers, to induce skin tanning. The term does not include phototherapy service performed by, and on the premises of, a licensed medical professional (such as a dermatologist, psychologist, or registered nurse).

(2) The term other goods and services includes, but is not limited to, protective eyewear, footwear, towels, and tanning lotions; manicures, pedicures, and other cosmetic or spa treatments; and access to sport or exercise facilities.

(3) The term phototherapy service means a service that exposes an individual to specific wavelengths of light for the treatment of—

(i) Dermatological conditions (such as acne, psoriasis, and eczema);

(ii) Sleep disorders;

(iii) Seasonal affective disorder or other psychiatric disorder;

(iv) Neonatal jaundice;

(v) Wound healing; or

(vi) Other medical condition determined by a licensed medical professional to be treatable by exposing the individual to specific wavelengths of light.

(4) The term provider means a person that provides an indoor tanning service as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(5) The term qualified physical fitness facility means a facility—

(i) In which the predominant business or activity is providing equipment and services to its members for purposes of exercise and physical fitness (determined by taking into consideration all of the facts and circumstances, such as the cost of the equipment, variety of services offered, actual usage of services by customers, revenue generated by different services, and how the entity holds itself out to the public through advertising or other means);

(ii) In which providing indoor tanning services is not a substantial part of the business or activity; and

(iii) That does not sell indoor tanning services for a fee to the public or otherwise offer different pricing options to its members based in whole or in part on access to indoor tanning services.

(6) The term undesignated payment card means a gift certificate, gift card, or similar item that can be redeemed for goods or services that may, but do not necessarily, include indoor tanning services.

(d) Application of tax—(1) Tax on total amount paid for indoor tanning services—(i) In general. The tax is imposed on the total amount paid for indoor tanning services, including any amount paid by insurance. The total amount paid is presumed to include the tax if the tax is not separately stated.

(ii) Free services and reduced rates. The tax does not apply to indoor tanning services that are provided free of charge. Indoor tanning services are provided free of charge if no one pays anything of value to the provider of the service for the indoor tanning service. Thus, for example, tax is not imposed on the redemption of a promotional coupon for indoor tanning services if the coupon is provided at no cost and at no obligation to purchase anything. If indoor tanning services are provided at a reduced rate, the tax applies to the amount actually paid for the services.

(iii) Bonus points. The redemption of benefits such as “bonus points” under a loyalty program or similar program or promotion is not a payment for indoor tanning services. Thus, for example, in a promotion that entitles a customer to a “free” tan with the purchase of four tans, tax is not imposed on the redemption of the fifth tan because the amount paid for the four tans included a reduced price for the fifth tan.

(iv) Other fees. Fees for starting, joining, registering, enrolling, and similar fees paid to a provider to join a monthly (or other periodic) membership program that provides indoor tanning services are amounts paid for indoor tanning services. Similarly, amounts paid to a provider that temporarily suspend a periodic membership program are amounts paid for indoor tanning services.

(2) Charges for other goods and services; tanning services separately stated. If a payment covers charges for indoor tanning services as well as other goods and services, the charges for other goods and services may be excluded in computing the tax payable on the amount paid, if the charges—

(i) Are separable (regardless of the manner of invoicing the charges);

(ii) Do not exceed the fair market value of such other goods and services; and

(iii) Are shown in the exact amounts in the provider's records pertaining to the indoor tanning services charge.

(3) Charges for other goods and services; tanning services bundled. This paragraph (d)(3) applies if paragraph (d)(2) of this section does not apply. If a provider offers indoor tanning services (whether of a specified or unlimited amount, including “free” or reduced-rate indoor tanning services) bundled with other goods and services, the payment for the bundled services includes an amount paid for indoor tanning services. The tax applies to that portion of the amount paid to the provider that is reasonably attributable to indoor tanning services. The amount reasonably attributable to indoor tanning services may be determined by—

(i) Applying to the total amount paid a ratio determined by comparing—

(A) The provider's charge for indoor tanning services not in bundled services or, if the provider only charges for indoor tanning services as part of bundled services, the fair market value of similar indoor tanning services (based on the amount charged by comparable providers in the same geographic area); to

(B) The charge determined in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) of this section plus the provider's charge for the other goods and services in the bundled services or, if the provider only charges for other goods and services as part of bundled services, the fair market value of similar goods and services (based on the amount charged by comparable providers in the same geographic area); or

(ii) Any other method allowed in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.

(4) Exemption; qualified physical fitness facilities. No portion of a payment to a qualified physical fitness facility (within the meaning of paragraph (c)(5) of this section) that includes access to indoor tanning services is treated as a payment for indoor tanning services.

(e) Person liable for the tax—(1) General rule. The person who pays for the indoor tanning service is deemed to be the person on whom the service is performed for purposes of collecting the tax. Thus, the person paying for the indoor tanning service is liable for the tax at the time of payment.

(2) Undesignated payment cards—(i) In general. In the case of a payment made with an undesignated payment card (as defined in paragraph (c)(6) of this section), the person who redeems the card, in whole or in part, to pay specifically for indoor tanning services is the person who pays for the indoor tanning services. Thus, the person who redeems an undesignated payment card, in whole or in part, to pay specifically for indoor tanning services is liable for the tax at the time such payment is made (as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section).

(ii) Alternative treatment. The Treasury Department and IRS may provide additional options for the treatment of undesignated payment cards in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.

(3) Tax not collected at time of payment. If the person paying for the indoor tanning services does not pay the tax to the person receiving the payment for the services at the time of payment for the services, the person receiving the payment is liable for the tax.

(f) Persons receiving payment must collect tax. Every person receiving a payment for indoor tanning services on which a tax is imposed under this section must collect the amount of the tax from the person making that payment.

(g) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of section 5000B and this section.

Example 1: Imposition of tax; general rule. (i) P is a nail salon that also provides indoor tanning service incidental to its primary business of providing nail salon services. P advertises a price of $15.00 (exclusive of the tax imposed by section 5000B) for one 10-minute indoor tanning service. During a period when the tax is 10 percent of the amount paid, P calculates the section 5000B tax on $15.00 as provided by paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Thus, the tax is $1.50 ($15.00 × 10%). The person paying for the service is liable for the tax when that person pays for the services. If P does not collect the tax from the person at the time of the payment for the services, P is liable for the tax.

(ii) The facts are the same as in paragraph (i) of this example except that P's advertised price of $15.00 includes the tanning tax. In this case, the tax is $1.36 ($15.00 × 10%/110%) under the second sentence of paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

Example 2: Charges for other goods and services; tanning services separately stated.P provides indoor tanning services and other goods and services. On July 1, 2013, A, an individual, pays P for one 10-minute indoor tanning service and one pair of protective eyewear. P charges $15.00 for the 10-minute indoor tanning service and $2.00 for a pair of protective eyewear. The $2.00 charge for the protective eyewear does not exceed its fair market value. The invoice from P is $17.00 (exclusive of the tax imposed by section 5000B) and separately states the cost of the protective eyewear. Because the cost of the protective eyewear is separately stated, P calculates the section 5000B tax on $15.00 as provided by paragraph (d)(2) of this section. A is liable for the tax when A pays for the services. If P does not collect the tax from A at the time A pays for the services, P is liable for the tax.

Example 3: Charges for other goods and services; tanning services bundled.P provides indoor tanning services and other goods and services and offers bundled services. On July 1, 2013, A, an individual, buys bundled service from P that includes 10 swimming lessons, the use of towels while on P's premises, one pair of protective eyewear, and 2 “free” 10-minute indoor tanning services. P charges $252.00 (exclusive of the tax imposed by section 5000B) for the bundled services. If these services are purchased separately, P charges (exclusive of the tax imposed by section 5000B) $25.00 per swimming lesson, $15.00 for a 10-minute indoor tanning service, $2.00 for the protective eyewear, and does not charge for the use of towels while on P's premises. As determined under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the section 5000B tax applies to the amount reasonably attributable to the indoor tanning service, which is $26.81 (($30.00/$282.00) × $252.00).

Example 4: Person liable for the tax.On July 1, 2013, A buys bundled services (described in Example 3) from P as a gift for B. Under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, A is deemed to be the person on whom the indoor tanning services are performed for purposes of collecting the tax. Therefore, under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, A is liable for the tax when A pays for the services. The tax will be computed under the rules of paragraph (d)(3) of this section. If A does not pay the tax at the time A pays for the services, P is liable for the tax.

Example 5: Undesignated payment cards. (i) P operates a spa that provides a variety of cosmetic goods and services, including indoor tanning services. On July 1, 2013, A buys a gift certificate in the amount of $100.00 from P as a gift for B. The gift certificate may be redeemed by B for B's choice among several services offered by P, including indoor tanning services. On July 15, 2013, B partially redeems the gift certificate to pay for one 10-minute indoor tanning service.

(ii) Under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a payment for indoor tanning services is made, and the tax under section 5000B is imposed, on July 15, 2013, when B partially redeems the gift certificate to pay for one indoor tanning service. Under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, B is the person who pays for the indoor tanning services. Therefore, B is liable for the tax, computed under the rules of paragraph (d) of this section, and pays the tax by permitting P to debit the amount of the tax from the balance of the gift certificate or by paying the amount of the tax to P in cash. If B does not pay the tax at the time B partially redeems the gift certificate to pay for the indoor tanning services, P is liable for the tax.

Example 6: Charges for other goods and services; tanning services bundled; amount attributable to tanning services.On July 1, 2013, A pays $1,000.00 (exclusive of the tax imposed by section 5000B) to spa P for the right to use the following equipment and services during the month of July: up to four massages or facials, unlimited use of a sauna, steam room, showers, and towel service, and unlimited indoor tanning services. If the services are purchased separately, P charges (exclusive of the tax imposed by section 5000B) $150.00 for unlimited indoor tanning services during the month of July, and $900.00 for the other equipment and services during the month of July, not including indoor tanning services. Under paragraph (b) of this section, A has made a payment for indoor tanning services and the tax will be computed under the rules of paragraph (d)(3) of this section. As determined under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the section 5000B tax applies to the amount reasonably attributable to the indoor tanning services, which is $142.86 (($150.00/$1050.00) × $1000.00). If A does not pay the tax at the time A pays for the bundled services, P is liable for the tax.

Example 7: Payments to qualified physical fitness facilities.P operates a full-service gym facility that offers fitness classes, multiple exercise machines (such as treadmills, stationary bicycles, weight training machines, and free weights), and has as its predominant business providing these facilities, equipment, and services to members for purposes of exercise and physical fitness. P provides its members with access to indoor tanning services, comprised of two tanning beds that meet the definition of indoor tanning services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. P generally charges its members a fee for monthly usage of its facilities, equipment, and services, but also offers short-term or free trial memberships and allows non-members to purchase individual or a series of exercise classes. P does not charge any fee for the indoor tanning services, does not offer indoor tanning services separately from its other services, and has no membership tier or category that differs from others based on access to the indoor tanning services. P holds itself out to the public through advertising and marketing as providing equipment and services to improve physical fitness. On July 1, 2013, A pays a membership fee to P in return for use of P's facility during the month of July. Under paragraph (d)(4) of this section, no portion of A's membership fee payment is treated as a payment made for indoor tanning services, because A is a qualified physical fitness facility under paragraph (c)(5) of this section. Therefore, no liability for tax arises under section 5000B.

(h) Effective/applicability date. This section applies to amounts paid on or after June 11, 2013. For rules that apply before that date, see 26 CFR part 49 (revised as of April 1, 2013).

[T.D. 9621, 78 FR 34876, June 11, 2013]

CHAPTER I INTERNAL REVENUE SERVICE, DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY (CONTINUED)

SUBCHAPTER D MISCELLANEOUS EXCISE TAXES (CONTINUED)

PART 50 REGULATIONS RELATING TO THE TAX IMPOSED WITH RESPECT TO CERTAIN HYDRAULIC MINING

Authority: Sec. 23, 27, Stat. 510, as amended; 33 U.S.C. 683.

Source: T.D. 6419, 24 FR 8546, Oct. 22, 1959, unless otherwise noted.

§ 50.1 Introduction.

The Act entitled “An Act to create the California Debris Commission and regulate hydraulic mining in the State of California”, approved March 1, 1893, as amended, 27 Stat. 507; 34 Stat. 1001; 48 Stat. 1118; 52 Stat. 1040; 61 Stat. 501; 33 U.S.C. 661-687, provides in part as follows:

That a commission is hereby created, to be known as the California Debris Commission, consisting of three members. * * *

Sec. 3. That the jurisdiction of said commission, insofar as the same affects mining carried on by the hydraulic process, shall extend to all such mining in the territory drained by the Sacramento and San Joaquin river systems in the State of California. * * *

Sec. 8. That for the purposes of this act “hydraulic mining” and “mining by the hydraulic process,” are hereby declared to have the meaning and application given to said terms in said State.

Sec. 9. That the individual proprietor or proprietors, or in the case of a corporation its manager or agent appointed for that purpose, owning mining ground in the territory in the State of California mentioned in section three hereof, which it is desired to work by the hydraulic process, must file with said commission a verified petition, setting forth such facts as will comply with law and the rules prescribed by said commission.

Sec. 13. That in case a majority of the members of said Commission, within thirty days after the time so fixed, concur in the decision in favor of the petitioner or petitioners, the said Commission shall thereupon make an order directing the methods and specifying in detail the manner in which operations shall proceed in such mine or mines; * * *

Sec. 23. Upon the construction by the said commission of dams or other works for the detention of debris from hydraulic mines and the issuing of the order provided for by this Act to any individual, company, or corporation to work any mine or mines by hydraulic process, the individual, company, or corporation operating thereunder working any mine or mines by hydraulic process, the debris from which flows into or is in whole or in part restrained by such dams or other works erected by said commission, shall pay for each cubic yard mined from the natural bank a tax equal to the total capital cost of the dam, reservoir, and rights of way divided by the total capacity of the reservoir for the restraint of debris, as determined in each case by the California Debris Commission, which tax shall be paid annually on a date fixed by said commission and in accordance with regulations to be adopted by the Secretary of the Treasury, and the Treasurer of the United States is hereby authorized to receive the same. * * * The Secretary of the Army is authorized to enter into contracts to supply storage for water and use of outlet facilities from debris storage reservoirs, for domestic and irrigation purposes and power development upon such conditions of delivery, use, and payment as he may approve: Provided, That the moneys received from such contracts shall be deposited to the credit of the reservoir project from which the water is supplied, and the total capital cost of said reservoir, which is to be repaid by tax on mining operations as herein provided, shall be reduced in the amount so received.

§ 50.2 Scope of regulations.

(a) In general. The regulations in this part relate to the tax imposed with respect to hydraulic mining, the debris from which flows into or is in whole or in part restrained by dams or other works erected for the detention of debris by the California Debris Commission in the area drained by the Sacramento and San Joaquin river systems in the State of California. The regulations have application to taxable years beginning after August 31, 1959. For definition of the term taxable year, see § 50.3(g).

(b) Extent to which the regulations in this part supersede prior regulations. The regulations in this part, with respect to the subject matter within the scope thereof, supersede Treasury Decision 4952 (26 CFR (1939) part 317).

§ 50.3 General definitions and use of terms.

As used in the regulations in this part:

(a) The term Act means “An Act to create the California Debris Commission and regulate hydraulic mining in the State of California” approved March 1, 1893, as amended, 27 Stat. 507; 34 Stat. 1001; 48 Stat. 1118; 52 Stat. 1040; 61 Stat. 501; 33 U.S.C. 661-687.

(b) The term person means an individual, a trust, estate, partnership, company, or corporation.

(c) The term Secretary means the Secretary of the Treasury.

(d) The term Commissioner means the Commissioner of Internal Revenue.

(e) The term district director means the district director of internal revenue.

(f) The terms hydraulic mining and mining by the hydraulic process shall have the meaning and application given said terms in the State of California.

(g) The term taxable year means the twelve-month period ending on August 31 of each year for which the tax imposed by the Act is payable.

§ 50.4 Rates of tax.

(a) Determination of rate. Under the Act the California Debris Commission will determine and prescribe with respect to each debris dam or other works the rate of tax payable in the area served by the particular debris dam or works. The Secretary of the Army will notify the Secretary of the Treasury of the rate of tax fixed with respect to each debris dam or works as such rate becomes known.

(b) Measure of tax. The tax is payable annually on the basis of the number of cubic yards mined from the natural bank by the hydraulic process during the taxable year.

§ 50.5 Liability for the tax.

Liability for tax attaches to any person engaged at any time during the taxable year in hydraulic mining in the area identified in paragraph (a) of § 50.2, if the debris from such mining operations is in whole or in part restrained by any of the debris dams or works constructed by the California Debris Commission.

§ 50.6 Ascertainment of quantity mined.

Each person engaged in hydraulic mining operations within the scope of the tax shall make or cause to be made appropriate surveys of the premises on which such hydraulic mining operations are conducted for the purpose of determining the cubic yardage mined from the natural bank. Such surveys shall be made at the beginning and end of hydraulic mining operations in each taxable year by a licensed engineer or other qualified agency having prior approval of the California Debris Commission, and shall conform to requirements prescribed by the California Debris Commission.

§ 50.7 Returns.

(a) Form of return. Every person liable for tax for any taxable year shall prepare for such year a return on Form 1 (California Debris) in accordance with the instructions thereon and in accordance with the regulations in this part.

(b) Content of return. The return shall show:

(1) The identity of the particular dam or other works restraining debris from the mine;

(2) The name and location of the mine;

(3) The name and address of the person to whom the California Debris Commission has issued a license to operate the mine;

(4) The number and date of the license;

(5) The name and address of the owner of the mine;

(6) The dates on which hydraulic mining operations began and ended during the taxable year for which the return is made;

(7) The number of cubic yards mined by the hydraulic process at the mine during the taxable year;

(8) The rate of tax per cubic yard determined by the California Debris Commission applicable to the particular mine; and

(9) The amount of tax due and payable (cubic yards mined multiplied by the rate of tax per cubic yard).

(c) Supporting statement. With each return there must be submitted a supporting statement of the person who made the surveys at the mine for the mining season covered by the return (see § 50.6), stating that such surveys were made in accordance with requirements prescribed by the California Debris Commission.

(d) Verification of return and supporting statement. The return and the supporting statement shall be verified by written declarations that they are made under the penalties of perjury.

§ 50.8 Due date and place for filing returns and paying tax.

The return for a taxable year shall be filed with, and the tax shall be paid to, the district director at San Francisco, California, on or before September 30 of the calendar year in which the taxable year ends. The tax is due and payable on such date without assessment by, or notice from, the district director.

PART 51 BRANDED PRESCRIPTION DRUG FEE

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805; sec. 9008, Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 119. Section 51.8 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6302(a); Section 51.6302-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6302(a).

Source: T.D. 9544, 76 FR 51249, Aug. 18, 2011, unless otherwise noted.

§ 51.1 Overview.

(a) The regulations in this part 51 are designated “Branded Prescription Drug Fee Regulations.”

(b) The regulations in this part 51 provide guidance on the annual fee imposed on covered entities engaged in the business of manufacturing or importing branded prescription drugs by section 9008 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA), Public Law 111-148 (124 Stat. 119 (2010)), as amended by section 1404 of the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 (HCERA), Public Law 111-152 (124 Stat. 1029 (2010)). All references in these regulations to section 9008 are references to section 9008 of the ACA, as amended by section 1404 of HCERA. Unless otherwise indicated, all other section references are to sections in the Internal Revenue Code. All references to “fee” in these regulations are references to the fee imposed by section 9008.

(c) Section 9008(b)(4) sets an applicable fee amount for each year, beginning with 2011, that will be apportioned among covered entities with aggregate branded prescription drug sales of over $5 million to government programs or pursuant to coverage under such programs. Generally, each covered entity is liable for a fee in each fee year that is based on its sales of branded prescription drugs in the sales year that corresponds to the fee year in an amount determined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) under the rules of this part.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43639, July 28, 2014]

§ 51.2 Explanation of terms.

(a) In general. This section explains the terms used in this part for purposes of the fee imposed by section 9008 on branded prescription drugs.

(b) Agencies. The term Agencies means—

(1) The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of the Department of Health and Human Services (CMS);

(2) The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA); and

(3) The Department of Defense (DOD).

(c) Branded prescription drug—(1) In general. The term branded prescription drug means—

(i) Any prescription drug the application for which was submitted under section 505(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(b)) (FFDCA); or

(ii) Any biological product the license for which was submitted under section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(a)).

(2) Prescription drug. The term prescription drug means any drug that is subject to section 503(b) of the FFDCA.

(d) Branded prescription drug sales. The term branded prescription drug sales means sales of branded prescription drugs to any government program or pursuant to coverage under any such government program. However, the term does not include sales of orphan drugs.

(e) Covered entity—(1) In general. The term covered entity means any manufacturer or importer with gross receipts from branded prescription drug sales including—

(i) A single-person covered entity; or

(ii) A controlled group.

(2) Single-person covered entity. The term single-person covered entity means a covered entity that is not affiliated with a controlled group.

(3) Controlled group. The term controlled group means a group of two or more persons, including at least one person that is a covered entity, that is treated as a single employer under section 52(a), 52(b), 414(m), or 414(o).

(4) Special rules for controlled groups. For purposes of paragraph (e)(3) of this section (related to controlled groups)—

(i) A foreign entity subject to tax under section 881 is included within a group under section 52(a) or 52(b); and

(ii) A person is treated as being a member of a controlled group if it is a member of the group on the end of the day on December 31st of the sales year.

(5) Covered entity status—(i) Rule. An entity's status as a covered entity begins in the first fee year in which the entity has branded prescription drug sales and continues each subsequent fee year until there are no remaining branded prescription drug sales for that entity to be taken into account as described in § 51.5(c) or used to calculate the adjustment amount described in § 51.5(e).

(ii) Example. The following example illustrates the rule of paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section:

(A) Facts. Entity A is a manufacturer with gross receipts of more than $5 million from branded prescription drugs sales in 2011. Entity A does not have any gross receipts from branded prescription drug sales before or after 2011.

(B) Analysis. Entity A is a covered entity beginning in 2011 because it had gross receipts from branded prescription drug sales in 2011. For the 2011 fee year, Entity A does not owe a fee because the 2011 fee is based on sales data from the 2009 sales year. For the 2012 fee year, Entity A does not owe a fee because the 2012 fee is based on sales data from the 2010 sales year. Entity A continues to be a covered entity for the 2012 fee year because its branded prescription drug sales from the 2011 sales year have not yet been taken into account as described in § 51.5(c) and used to calculate the adjustment amount described in § 51.5(e). For the 2013 fee year, Entity A continues to be a covered entity because a portion of its branded prescription drug sales from the 2011 sales year are taken into account as described in § 51.5(c) for purposes of computing the 2013 fee. For the 2013 fee year, Entity A is also liable for the adjustment amount described in § 51.5(e) for the difference between its 2012 fee computed using sales data from the 2010 sales year, which is $0, and what the 2012 fee would have been using sales data from the 2011 sales year. For the 2014 fee year, Entity A continues to be a covered entity because a portion of its branded prescription drug sales for the 2011 sales year are used to calculate the adjustment amount described in § 51.5(e). Therefore, for the 2014 fee year, Entity A will receive an adjustment amount for the difference between its 2013 fee computed using sales data from the 2011 sales year, and what the 2013 fee would have been using sales data from the 2012 sales year, which is $0. After the 2014 fee year, there are no remaining branded prescription drug sales to be taken into account as described in § 51.5(c) or used to calculate the adjustment amount described in § 51.5(e) for Entity A. Accordingly, Entity A is not a covered entity after the 2014 fee year.

(f) Designated entity—(1) In general. The term designated entity means the person within a controlled group that is designated to act for the controlled group regarding the fee by—

(i) Filing Form 8947, “Report of Branded Prescription Drug Information”;

(ii) Receiving IRS communications about the fee for the group;

(iii) Filing an error report for the group, if applicable, as described in § 51.7; and

(iv) Paying the fee to the government.

(2) Selection of designated entity—(i) Controlled group selection of a designated entity. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the controlled group may select a person as the designated entity by filing Form 8947 in accordance with the form instructions. The designated entity must state under penalties of perjury that all members of the controlled group have consented to the selection of the designated entity. The designated entity must maintain a record of all member consents. Each member of a controlled group must maintain a record of its consent to the controlled group's selection of the designated entity.

(ii) Requirement for affiliated groups; agent for the group. If the controlled group, without regard to foreign corporations included under section 9008(d)(2)(B), is also an affiliated group whose common parent files a consolidated return for federal income tax purposes, the designated entity is the agent for the group (within the meaning of § 1.1502-77 of this title).

(iii) IRS selection of a designated entity. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, if a controlled group does not select a designated entity as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the IRS will select a member of the controlled group as the designated entity for the controlled group. If the IRS selects the designated entity, then all members of that controlled group will be deemed to have consented to the IRS's selection of the designated entity.

(g) Fee year. The term fee year means the calendar year in which the fee for a particular sales year must be paid to the government.

(h) Government programs. The term government programs (collectively “Programs”), means—

(1) The Medicare Part B program;

(2) The Medicare Part D program;

(3) The Medicaid program;

(4) Any program under which branded prescription drugs are procured by the Department of Veterans Affairs;

(5) Any program under which branded prescription drugs are procured by the Department of Defense; and

(6) The TRICARE retail pharmacy program.

(i) Manufacturer or importer. The term manufacturer or importer means the person identified in the Labeler Code of the National Drug Code (NDC) for a branded prescription drug.

(j) NDC. The term NDC means the National Drug Code. The NDC is a unique identifier that is assigned to all drug products approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), including a branded prescription drug. The Labeler Code is the first five numeric characters of the NDC or the first six numeric characters when the available five-character code combinations are exhausted.

(k) Orphan drugs—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (k)(2) of this section, the term orphan drug means any branded prescription drug for which any person claimed a section 45C credit and that credit was allowed for any taxable year.

(2) Exclusions. The term orphan drug does not include—

(i) Any drug for which there has been a final assessment or court order disallowing the full section 45C credit taken for the drug; or

(ii) Any drug for any sales year after the calendar year in which the FDA approved the drug for marketing for any indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed, regardless of whether a section 45C credit was allowed for the drug before, in the same year as, or after this FDA designation.

(3) FDA marketing approval for treatment of another rare disease or condition. If a drug has prior FDA marketing approval for the treatment of a rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed, and the FDA subsequently gives the drug marketing approval for the treatment of another rare disease or condition for which another section 45C credit was also allowed, the drug retains its status as an orphan drug provided the FDA has never approved the drug for marketing for any indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (k):

Example 1: Allowance of section 45C credit and later FDA marketing approval of drug for an indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition. (i) Facts. Drug A is a branded prescription drug that was not on the market before 2011. In 2011, a covered entity claimed a section 45C credit for its qualified clinical testing expenses related to Drug A. There was no final IRS assessment or court order that disallowed the full credit for Drug A. In 2012, the FDA approved Drug A for marketing for an indication other than the treatment of the rare disease or condition for which the section 45C credit was allowed and this indication was not for another rare disease or condition for which a section 45C was allowed.

(ii) Analysis. In 2011 and 2012, Drug A is an orphan drug because: first, it was a branded prescription drug for which a person claimed a section 45C credit and for which that credit was allowed for a taxable year; second, there was not a final assessment or court order disallowing the full credit taken for the drug; and third, before 2012, the FDA did not approve the drug for marketing for any indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed. However, Drug A is not an orphan drug for the 2013 sales year or later sales years because in 2012 the FDA approved Drug A for marketing for an indication other than the treatment of the rare disease or condition for which the section 45C credit was allowed and this indication was not for treatment of another rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed.

Example 2: FDA marketing approval of drug for an indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition and later allowance of section 45C credit. (i) Facts. Drug B is a branded prescription drug that was not on the market before 2011. In 2011, FDA approved Drug B for marketing for the treatment of a rare disease or condition and also approved Drug B for marketing for an indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition. In 2012, a covered entity claimed a section 45C credit for its qualified clinical testing expenses related to Drug B. There was no final IRS assessment or court order that disallowed the full credit for Drug B.

(ii) Analysis. In 2011, Drug B is not an orphan drug because no section 45C credit was allowed and because the FDA approved Drug B for an indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition. In 2012, although the covered entity was allowed a section 45C credit for its qualified clinical testing expenses related to Drug B and there was no final IRS assessment or court order that disallowed the full credit, Drug B still is not an orphan drug because the FDA had approved the drug in 2011 for marketing for an indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed in 2012. Thus, Drug B is not an orphan drug for the 2012 sales year or later sales years.

Example 3: Allowance of section 45C credit and subsequent allowance of section 45C credit with no intervening FDA marketing approval of drug for an indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed. (i) Facts. Drug C is a branded prescription drug that was not on the market before 2010. In 2010, a covered entity claimed a section 45C credit for its qualified clinical testing expenses related to Drug C. In 2012, a covered entity claimed an additional section 45C credit for its qualified clinical testing expenses related to Drug C for marketing for the treatment of a rare disease or condition different than the one for which the section 45C credit was claimed in 2010. There was no final IRS assessment or court order that disallowed the full credit for Drug C in 2010 or 2012. The FDA has not approved Drug C for an indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition for which a section 45C was allowed.

(ii) Analysis. In 2010 and 2011, Drug C is an orphan drug because: first, it was a branded prescription drug for which a person claimed a section 45C credit and for which that credit was allowed for a taxable year; second, there was not a final assessment or court order disallowing the full credit taken for the drug; and third, FDA had not approved the drug for marketing for any indication other than the treatment of a rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed. In 2012, Drug C retains its orphan drug status because another section 45C credit was allowed and the FDA did not approve Drug C for marketing for any indication other than the treatment of another rare disease or condition for which a section 45C credit was allowed. Thus, Drug C is an orphan drug for the 2013 sales year.

(l) Sales taken into account. The term sales taken into account means branded prescription drug sales after application of the percentage adjustment table in section 9008(b)(2) (relating to annual sales less than $400,000,001). See § 51.5(a)(3).

(m) Sales year. The term sales year means the second calendar year preceding the fee year. Thus, for example, for the fee year of 2014, the sales year is 2012.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43639, July 28, 2014, as amended by T.D. 9823, 82 FR 34612, July 26, 2017]

§ 51.3 Information requested from covered entities.

(a) In general. Annually, each covered entity may submit a completed Form 8947, “Report of Branded Prescription Drug Information,” in accordance with the instructions for the form. Generally, the form solicits information from covered entities on NDCs, orphan drugs, designated entities, rebates, and other information specified by the form or its instructions.

(b) Due date. Form 8947 must be filed by the date prescribed in guidance in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43641, July 28, 2014]

§ 51.4 Information provided by the agencies.

(a) In general. For each sales year, the IRS will compile a list of branded prescription drugs by NDC using the data submitted on Forms 8947 and in error reports submitted as part of the dispute resolution process (described in § 51.7) and, after applying appropriate due diligence, will provide this list to the Agencies. The Agencies will provide data to the IRS on branded prescription drug sales that occurred during the sales year by Program and NDC. The Agencies will provide data for use in preparing the preliminary fee calculation (described in §§ 51.5 and 51.6) and may revise or supplement that data following review of error reports submitted as part of the dispute resolution process. The calculation methodology for calculating the sales amounts for each Program, including any reasonable estimation techniques and assumptions that the Agencies expect to use, is described in this section.

(b) Medicare Part D—(1) In general. CMS will determine branded prescription drug sales under Medicare Part D by aggregating the ingredient cost reported in the “Ingredient Cost Paid” field on the Prescription Drug Event (PDE) records at the NDC level, reduced by discounts, rebates, and other price concessions provided by the covered entity, for each sales year. CMS will only include PDE data that Part D sponsors have submitted by the PDE submission deadline (within 6 months after the end of the sales year) and that CMS has approved for inclusion in the Part D payment reconciliation.

(2) Discounts, rebates, and other price concessions—(i) In general. For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the term discounts, rebates, and other price concessions means:

(A) Any direct and indirect remuneration (DIR) (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section), which includes any DIR reported on the PDE records at the point of sale and any DIR reported on a Detailed DIR Report (within the meaning of a paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section); and

(B) Any coverage gap discount amount (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section).

(ii) Direct and indirect remuneration. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section, the term direct and indirect remuneration (DIR) has the same meaning as found in the definition of actually paid in 42 CFR 423.308.

(iii) Detailed DIR Report. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section, the term Detailed DIR Report means the report containing any DIR (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section) that is collected yearly from Part D sponsors at the NDC level.

(iv) Coverage gap discount amount. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the term coverage gap discount amount means a 50-percent manufactured-paid discount on certain drugs under the Coverage Gap Discount Program described in section 1860D-14A of the Social Security Act.

(c) Medicare Part B—(1) In general. CMS will determine branded prescription drug sales under Medicare Part B using the following two data sources:

(i) CMS will use data reported by manufacturers pursuant to section 1847A(c) of the Social Security Act to calculate the annual weighted average sales price (ASP) for each Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) code for the sales year.

(ii) CMS will use the Medicare Part B National Summary Data File located at http://www.cms.gov/NonIdentifiableDataFiles/03_PartBNationalSummaryDataFile.asp to obtain the number of allowed billing units per HCPCS code for claims incurred during the sales year.

(2) Calculation—(i) In general. Using the data described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, CMS will determine branded prescription drugs sales under Medicare Part B as described in paragraphs (c)(3), (4), and (5) of this section. CMS reports sales amounts per HCPCS billing code, not per NDC. Therefore, a covered entity's total Part B sales amounts for all NDCs in a given HCPCS billing code appears under only one NDC in each HCPCS billing code and the covered entity's remaining NDCs in the HCPCS billing code are listed with a sales amount of zero.

(ii) Example of a Part B sales report:

HCPCS | NDC | Part B amount

J9876 | 12345-6789-01 | $789,000

12345-6789-02 | 0

12345-6789-03 | 0

12345-6800-80 | 0

12345-6800-90 | 0

(3) HCPCS code; single entity. For each HCPCS code consisting solely and exclusively of branded prescription drugs (as identified by their respective NDCs) manufactured by a single entity, CMS will multiply the annual weighted ASP by the total number of allowed billing units paid during the sales year to determine the total sales for all NDCs associated with the HCPCS code attributed to Medicare Part B.

(4) HCPCS code; multiple manufacturers and/or multiple drugs—(i) Step one. For each HCPCS code consisting of a mixture of branded prescription drugs made by different manufacturers and/or a mixture of branded prescription and generic drugs, CMS will determine—

(A) The annual weighted ASP for the HCPCS code;

(B) The total number of allowed billing units paid by Medicare Part B for each HCPCS code during the sales year;

(C) The names of the entities engaged in manufacturing each NDC assigned to the HCPCS code; and

(D) Those entities (if any) identified in paragraph (c)(4)(i)(C) of this section that are manufacturing branded prescription drugs assigned to the HCPCS code.

(ii) Step two. Using the information from paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, CMS will then do the following:

(A) Calculate the proportion of sales, expressed as a percentage, attributed to each NDC assigned to the HCPCS code by determining the percentage of total sales reported to CMS by each manufacturer of NDC(s) that are assigned to the HCPCS code. For example, if HCPCS code JXXXX contains three drugs with a total of $310,000 sales reported by manufacturers to CMS for the sales year, and $100,000 was reported for Drug A, $200,000 was reported for Drug B, and $10,000 was reported for Drug C, the proportion of sales attributed to each NDC will be 32.26 percent for Drug A, 64.52 percent for Drug B, and 3.22 percent for Drug C; and

(B) For each NDC, multiply the product of the annual weighted ASP and the total allowed billing units paid by Medicare Part B for the HCPCS code by the proportion of sales calculated in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section to determine the sales reportable to the IRS (that is, percentage × (annual weighted ASP × allowed units) = total sales reported to IRS for the NDC). The sales for each manufacturer's NDCs assigned to a HCPCS code are summed and the total sales for each manufacturer's NDCs in a HCPCS code will be reported to the IRS.

(5) HCPCS code; unable to establish a reliable proportion of sales. If CMS is unable to establish a reliable proportion of sales attributable to each NDC assigned to the HCPCS code using the method described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, CMS will use Medicare Part D utilization percentages in lieu of the proportion of sales determined under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section to perform the calculation described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B) of this section.

(d) Medicaid. (1) CMS will determine the branded prescription drug sales for Medicaid as the per-unit Average Manufacturer Price (AMP) less the Unit Rebate Amounts (URA) that CMS calculates based on manufacturer-reported pricing data multiplied by the number of units reported billed by states to manufacturers. This data will be based on the data reported to CMS for the sales year by covered entities and the states for drugs paid for by the states in the Medicaid Drug Rebate Program for the sales year. The data will include all branded prescription drug units for which the states bill rebates to covered entities under the Medicaid Drug Rebate Program. This program includes, but is not limited to, units paid for under various health care plans such as fee for service, managed care organizations, and drugs administered in a non-retail setting such as drugs administered in a physician's office, clinic, hospital or other setting. The Medicaid Drug Rebate Program's calculated branded prescription drug fee does not include state-only pharmaceutical program sales or rebates.

(2) For any covered entity identified in the first five (or six) digits of an NDC during any of the four quarters of a sales year, CMS will use the following methodology to derive the sales figures that account for third-party payers, such as Medicare Part B:

(i) Report total dollars per NDC for AMP minus URA multiplied by the units reported by a state or states.

(ii) Determine the percentage of the total amount reimbursed that is the Medicaid amount of that reimbursement. For example, if the total amount reimbursed is $100,000, and the Medicaid amount reimbursed is $20,000, then the percentage is 20 percent.

(iii) Multiply the percentage of the Medicaid amount of that reimbursement (in the example in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, 20 percent) by the dollar figure derived from paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section (AMP minus URA multiplied by units) to get the new adjusted sales dollar totals.

(e) Department of Veterans Affairs. VA will determine branded prescription drug sales to VA by providing, by NDC, the total amount paid (net of refunds and rebates, when they are associated with a specific NDC) for each branded prescription drug procured by VA for its beneficiaries during the sales year. For this purpose, a drug is procured on the invoice (billing) date. The basis of this information will be national procurement data reported during the sales year by VA's Pharmaceutical Prime Vendor to the VA Pharmacy Benefits Management Service and National Acquisition Center. VA sales data includes the Industrial Funding Fee and the Cost Recovery Fee because these amounts are part of the price VA pays to its Pharmaceutical Prime Vendor to procure a drug.

(f) Department of Defense. DOD will determine branded prescription drug sales to DOD (for DOD programs other than the TRICARE retail pharmacy program) by providing, by Labeler Code, the manufacturer's name, the NDC, brand name, and the amount paid (net of rebates and or refunds) for each branded prescription drug procured by DOD (for DOD programs other than the TRICARE retail pharmacy program) during the sales year. For DOD programs other than the TRICARE retail pharmacy program, a drug is procured based upon the date it was ordered. DOD includes the Industrial Funding Fee and the Cost Recovery Fee in its drug sales data because these amounts are part of the price DOD pays to procure a drug.

(g) TRICARE. DOD will determine branded prescription drug sales to DOD for the TRICARE retail pharmacy program by providing, by Labeler Code, the manufacturer's name, the NDC, brand name, and the amount paid (net of rebates or refunds) for each branded prescription drug procured by DOD through the TRICARE retail pharmacy program during the sales year. For the TRICARE retail pharmacy program, a drug is procured based upon the date it was dispensed. The amount paid is based on the submitted ingredient cost paid, aggregated by NDC, for eligible TRICARE retail pharmacy claims submitted during the program year, minus any refunds or rebates for the corresponding claims.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43641, July 28, 2014; 79 FR 57784, Sept. 26, 2014]

§ 51.5 Fee calculation.

(a) Fee components—(1) In general. For every fee year, the IRS will calculate a covered entity's total fee as described in this section. The IRS will determine a covered entity's total fee by applying, if applicable, the adjustment amount described in paragraph (e) of this section to the entity's allocated fee described in paragraph (d) of this section.

(2) Calculation of branded prescription drug sales. Each covered entity's allocated fee for any fee year is equal to an amount that bears the same ratio to the applicable amount as the covered entity's branded prescription drug sales taken into account during the sales year bears to the aggregate branded prescription drug sales of all covered entities taken into account during the sales year.

(3) Applicable amount. The applicable amounts for fee years are—

Fee year | Applicable amount

2011 | $2,500,000,000

2012 | 2,800,000,000

2013 | 2,800,000,000

2014 | 3,000,000,000

2015 | 3,000,000,000

2016 | 3,000,000,000

2017 | 4,000,000,000

2018 | 4,100,000,000

2019 and thereafter | 2,800,000,000

(4) Sales taken into account. A covered entity's branded prescription drug sales taken into account during any calendar year are as follows:

Covered entity's branded prescription drug sales during the calendar year that are: | Percentage of branded prescription drug sales taken into account is:

Not more than $5,000,000 | 0

More than $5,000,000 but not more than $125,000,000 | 10

More than $125,000,000 but not more than $225,000,000 | 40

More than $225,000,000 but not more than $400,000,000 | 75

More than $400,000,000 | 100

(b) Determination of branded prescription drug sales. The IRS will compile each covered entity's branded prescription drug sales for each Program by NDC. Each NDC will be attributed to the covered entity identified in the Labeler Code as of the end of the day on December 31st of the sales year. For a covered entity that is a controlled group, this includes all NDCs in which a member of the covered entity is identified. For this purpose, the IRS may revise the list of NDCs as a result of information received in the dispute resolution process, and the data the IRS uses to produce the final fee calculation will include any revisions provided by the Agencies at the completion of the dispute resolution process. Each covered entity's branded prescription drug sales will be reduced by its Medicaid state supplemental rebate amounts in the following manner. If CMS has Medicaid state supplemental rebate information for a sales year, CMS will report to the IRS branded prescription drug sales for Medicaid net of Medicaid state supplemental rebates. If CMS does not have complete Medicaid state supplemental rebate information for a sales year, the IRS will reduce the branded prescription drug sales that CMS reported for Medicaid by Medicaid state supplemental rebates reported by the covered entities on Form 8947.

(c) Determination of sales taken into account. (1) For each sales year and for each covered entity, the IRS will calculate sales taken into account. The resulting number is the numerator of the ratio described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

(2) For each sales year, the IRS will calculate the aggregate branded prescription drug sales taken into account for all covered entities. The resulting number is the denominator of the ratio described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(d) Allocated fee calculation. For each covered entity for each fee year, the IRS will calculate the entity's allocated fee by multiplying the applicable amount from paragraph (a)(2) of this section by a fraction—

(1) The numerator of which is the covered entity's branded prescription drug sales taken into account during the sales year (described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section); and

(2) The denominator of which is the aggregate branded prescription drug sales taken into account for all covered entities during the same year (described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section).

(e) Adjustment amount—(1) In general. In addition to the allocated fee computed under paragraph (d) of this section, the IRS will also automatically calculate for each covered entity an adjustment amount. An adjustment amount reflects the difference between the allocated fee determined for the covered entity in the immediately preceding fee year, using data from the second calendar year preceding that fee year, and what the allocated fee would have been for that entity for the immediately preceding fee year using data from the calendar year immediately preceding that fee year. For example, for 2014, the adjustment amount for a covered entity will be the difference between the entity's 2013 allocated fee, using 2011 data, and what the 2013 allocated fee would have been using 2012 data. Although the adjustment reflects a revision of the prior year's fee based on data from the year immediately preceding the prior fee year, the adjustment is only taken into account by adding it to or subtracting it from the allocated fee computed under paragraph (d) of this section for the current fee year to arrive at the total fee for the current fee year. An adjustment amount is treated as a component of the current year's fee. For purposes of section 6601, any increase in the allocated fee computed under paragraph (d) of this section for the current fee year resulting from any adjustment amount, along with the remainder of the fee, is treated as a fee liability due on the due date for the current year's fee. For purposes of sections 6511 and 6611, any adjustment amount that decreases the allocated fee computed under paragraph (d) of this section for the current fee year is treated as a payment towards the current fee liability made on the due date of the current fee year.

(2) Amounts paid to a covered entity because of an adjustment amount. If a covered entity's adjustment amount reduces the fee computed under paragraph (d) of this section below zero and results in an amount due to the covered entity for the fee year, the IRS will pay this amount due to the covered entity. A covered entity does not file Form 843, Claim for Refund and Request for Abatement, to receive this amount owed to a covered entity.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43643, July 28, 2014]

§ 51.6 Notice of preliminary fee calculation.

(a) Content of notice. For each sales year, the IRS will make a preliminary calculation of the fee for each covered entity as described in § 51.5. The IRS will notify each covered entity of its preliminary fee calculation for that sales year. The notification to a covered entity of its preliminary fee calculation will include—

(1) The covered entity's allocated fee;

(2) The covered entity's branded prescription drug sales, by NDC, by Program;

(3) The covered entity's branded prescription drug sales taken into account after application of § 51.5(a)(4);

(4) The aggregate branded prescription drug sales taken into account for all covered entities;

(5) The covered entity's adjustment amount calculated as described in § 51.5(e); and

(6) A reference to the fee dispute resolution procedures set forth in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.

(b) Time of notice. The IRS will send each covered entity notice of its preliminary fee calculation by the date prescribed in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43644, July 28, 2014]

§ 51.7 Dispute resolution process.

(a) In general. Upon receipt of its preliminary fee calculation, each covered entity will have an opportunity to dispute this calculation by submitting to the IRS an error report as described in this section. The IRS will provide its final determination with respect to error reports no later than the time the IRS provides a covered entity with a final fee calculation.

(b) Error report information. To assert that there have been one or more errors in the drug sales data reported by a Program, the mathematical calculation of the fee, the rebate data, the listing of an NDC for an orphan drug, or any other error, a covered entity must submit an error report with each asserted error reported on a separate line. The report must include the following information—

(1) Entity name, address, and Employer Identification Number (EIN) as previously reported on the Form 8947;

(2) The name, telephone number, fax number, and email address (if available) of one or more employees or representatives of the entity with whom the IRS may discuss the claimed errors. If the representative is not an employee of the covered entity who is authorized under section 6103 or designated on Form 8947 to discuss the information reported on Form 8947 with the IRS, a Form 2848, “Power of Attorney and Declaration of Representative,” must be filed with the error report;

(3) For an error in the drug sales data reported by a Program, the name of the Program that reported the data, the NDC, the specific amount of sales data disputed, the proposed corrected amount, an explanation of why the Agency should use the proposed corrected data instead, and documentation of any Program drug sales data or other information used to establish the existence of any errors.

(4) For a mathematical calculation error, the specific calculation element(s) that the entity disputes and its proposed corrected calculation;

(5) For a rebate data error, the NDC for the drug to which it relates; a discussion of whether the data used in the preliminary fee calculation matches previously reported Form 8947 data on rebates; and, if the data used in the preliminary fee calculation does match the Form 8947 data, an explanation of why the Form 8947 data was erroneous and why the IRS should use the proposed corrected data instead;

(6) For the listing of an NDC for an orphan drug, the name and NDC of the orphan drug; a discussion of whether the data used in the preliminary fee calculation matches previously reported Form 8947 data on orphan drugs; and, if the data used in the preliminary fee calculation does match the Form 8947 data, an explanation of why the Form 8947 data was erroneous and why the IRS should use the proposed corrected data instead;

(7) For any other asserted error, an explanation of the nature of the error, how the error affects the fee calculation, an explanation of how the entity established that an error occurred, the proposed correction to the error, and an explanation of why the IRS or Agency should use the proposed corrected data instead;

(8) If an entity is using data to establish the existence of an error and that data was not reported on Form 8947 or contained in the notification of the preliminary fee calculation, a description of what the data is, how the entity acquired the data, and who maintains it; and

(9) Documentation of any rebate and orphan drug data, or other information used to establish the existence of any errors.

(c) Form, manner, and timing of submission. Each covered entity must submit its error report(s) in the form and manner that is prescribed in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin. This guidance will also prescribe the date by which each covered entity must submit its report(s).

(d) Finality. A covered entity must assert any basis for contesting its preliminary fee calculation during the dispute resolution period. In the interest of providing finality to the fee calculation process, the IRS will not accept an error report after the end of the dispute resolution period or alter the final fee calculation on the basis of information provided after the end of the dispute resolution period.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43644, July 28, 2014]

§ 51.8 Notification and payment of fee.

(a) Notification of final fee calculation. No later than August 31st of each fee year, the IRS will send each covered entity its final fee calculation for that year. In any fee year, the IRS will base its final fee calculation on data provided to it by the Agencies as adjusted pursuant to the dispute resolution process. The notification to a covered entity of its final fee calculation will include—

(1) The covered entity's allocated fee;

(2) The covered entity's adjustment amount calculated as described in § 51.5;

(3) The covered entity's branded prescription drug sales, by NDC, by Program;

(4) The covered entity's branded prescription drug sales taken into account after application of § 51.5(a)(4);

(5) The aggregate branded prescription drug sales taken into account for all covered entities; and

(6) The final determination with respect to error reports.

(b) Differences in preliminary fee calculation and final fee calculation. A covered entity's final fee calculation may differ from the covered entity's preliminary fee calculation because of changes made pursuant to the dispute resolution process described in § 51.7. Even if a covered entity did not file an error report described in § 51.7, a covered entity's final fee may differ from a covered entity's preliminary fee because of a change in data reported by the Agencies after resolution of error reports, including a change in the aggregate prescription drug sales figure. A change in aggregate prescription drug sales data can affect each covered entity's fee because each covered entity's fee is a fraction of the aggregate fee collected from all covered entities. A covered entity's final fee may also differ from its preliminary fee calculation because the data used in the preliminary fee calculation may have contained inaccurate branded prescription drug sales information that was corrected or updated at the conclusion of the dispute resolution process.

(c) Payment of final fee. Each covered entity must pay its final fee by September 30th of the fee year. For a controlled group, the payment must be made using the designated entity's EIN as reported on Form 8947. The fee must be paid by electronic funds transfer as required by § 51.6302-1. There is no tax return to be filed for the fee.

(d) Joint and several liability. In the case of a controlled group that is liable for the fee, all members of the controlled group are jointly and severally liable for the fee. Accordingly, if a controlled group's fee is not paid, the IRS will separately assess each member of the group for the full amount of the controlled group's fee.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43644, July 28, 2014]

§ 51.9 Tax treatment of fee.

(a) Treatment as an excise tax. The fee imposed by section 9008 is treated as an excise tax for purposes of subtitle F of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) (sections 6001-7874). Thus, references in subtitle F to “taxes imposed by this title,” “internal revenue tax,” and similar references, are also references to the fee imposed by section 9008. For example, the fee imposed by section 9008 is assessed (section 6201), collected (sections 6301, 6321, and 6331), enforced (section 7402 and 7403), subject to examination and summons (section 7602), and subject to confidentiality rules (section 6103) in the same manner as taxes imposed by the Code.

(b) Deficiency procedures. The deficiency procedures of sections 6211-6216 do not apply to the fee imposed by section 9008.

(c) Limitation on assessment. The IRS must assess the amount of the fee for any fee year within three years of September 30th of that fee year.

(d) Application of section 275. The fee is treated as a tax described in section 275(a)(6) (relating to taxes for which no deduction is allowed).

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43645, July 28, 2014]

§ 51.10 Refund claims.

Any claim for a refund of the fee must be made by the person that paid the fee to the government and must be made on Form 843, “Claim for Refund and Request for Abatement,” in accordance with the instructions for that form.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43645, July 28, 2014]

§ 51.11 Applicability date.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, §§ 51.1 through 51.10 apply on and after July 28, 2014.

(b) Section 51.2(e)(3) applies on and after July 24, 2017.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43645, July 28, 2014, as amended by T.D. 9823, 82 FR 34612, July 26, 2017]

§ 51.6302-1 Method of paying the branded prescription drug fee.

(a) Fee to be paid by electronic funds transfer. Under the authority of section 6302(a), the fee imposed on branded prescription drug sales by section 9008 and § 51.5 must be paid by electronic funds transfer as defined in § 31.6302-1(h)(4)(i) of this title, as if the fee were a depository tax. For the time for paying the fee, see § 51.8.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section applies on and after July 28, 2014.

[T.D. 9684, 79 FR 43645, July 28, 2014]

PART 52 ENVIRONMENTAL TAXES

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805. Section 52.4682-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4682(c)(2); Section 52.4682-5 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4662(e)(4).

§ 52.0-1 Introduction.

The regulations in this part 52 are designated “Environmental Tax Regulations.” The regulations relate to the environmental taxes imposed by chapter 38 of the Internal Revenue Code. See part 40 of this chapter for regulations relating to returns, payments, and deposits of taxes imposed by chapter 38.

[T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992]

§ 52.4681-1 Taxes imposed with respect to ozone-depleting chemicals.

(a) Taxes imposed. Sections 4681 and 4682 impose the following taxes with respect to ozone-depleting chemicals (ODCs):

(1) Tax on ODCs. Section 4681(a)(1) imposes a tax on ODCs that are sold or used by the manufacturer or importer thereof. Except as otherwise provided in § 52.4682-1 (relating to the tax on ODCs), the amount of the tax is equal to the product of—

(i) The weight (in pounds) of the ODC;

(ii) The base tax amount (determined under section 4681(b)(1) (B) or (C)) for the calendar year in which the sale or use occurs; and

(iii) The ozone-depletion factor (determined under section 4682(b)) for the ODC.

(2) Tax on imported taxable products. Section 4681(a)(2) imposes a tax on imported taxable products that are sold or used by the importer thereof. Except as otherwise provided in § 52.4682-3 (relating to the tax on imported taxable products), the tax is computed by reference to the weight of the ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of the product. The amount of tax is equal to the tax that would have been imposed on the ODCs under section 4681(a)(1) if the ODCs had been sold in the United States on the date of the sale or use of the imported product. The weight of such ODCs is determined under § 52.4682-3.

(3) Floor stocks tax—(i) Imposition of tax. Section 4682(h) imposes a floor stocks tax on ODCs that—

(A) Are held by any person other than the manufacturer or importer of the ODC on a date specified in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section; and

(B) Are held on such date for sale or for use in further manufacture.

(ii) Dates on which tax imposed. The floor stocks tax is imposed on January 1 of each calendar year after 1989.

(iii) Amount of tax. Except as otherwise provided in § 52.4682-4 (relating to the floor stocks tax), the amount of the floor stocks tax is equal to the excess of—

(A) The tax that would be imposed on the ODC under section 4681(a)(1) if a sale or use of the ODC by its manufacturer or importer occurred on the date the floor stocks tax is imposed (the tentative tax amount), over

(B) The sum of the taxes previously imposed (if any) on the ODC under sections 4681 and 4682.

(b) Cross-references—(1) Tax on ODCs. Additional rules relating to the tax on ODCs are contained in §§ 52.4682-1 and 52.4682-2.

(2) Tax on imported taxable products. Additional rules relating to the tax on imported taxable products are contained in § 52.4682-3.

(3) Floor stocks tax. Additional rules relating to the floor stocks tax are contained in § 52.4682-4.

(4) Returns, payments, and deposits of tax. Rules requiring returns reporting the taxes imposed by sections 4681 and 4682 are contained in part 40 of this chapter. Part 40 of this chapter also provides rules relating to the use of Government depositaries and to the time for filing returns and making payments of tax.

(c) Definitions of general application. The following definitions set forth the meaning of certain terms for purposes of the regulations under sections 4681 and 4682:

(1) Ozone-depleting chemical. The term “ozone-depleting chemical” (ODC) means any chemical listed in section 4682(a)(2).

(2) United States. The term “United States” has the meaning given such term by section 4612(a)(4). Under section 4612(a)(4)—

(i) The term “United States” means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, any possession of the United States, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands; and

(ii) The term includes—

(A) Submarine seabed and subsoil that would be treated as part of the United States (as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section) under the principles of section 638 relating to continental shelf areas; and

(B) Foreign trade zones of the United States.

(3) Manufacture; manufacturer. The term “manufacture” when used with respect to any ODC or imported product includes its production, and the term “manufacturer” includes a producer.

(4) Entry into United States for consumption, use, or warehousing—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c)(4), the term “entered into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing” when used with respect to any goods means—

(A) Brought into the customs territory of the United States (the customs territory) if applicable customs law requires that the goods be entered into the customs territory for consumption, use, or warehousing;

(B) Admitted into a foreign trade zone for any purpose if like goods brought into the customs territory for such purpose would be entered into the customs territory for consumption, use, or warehousing; or

(C) Imported into any other part of the United States (as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section) for any purpose if like goods brought into the customs territory for such purpose would be entered into the customs territory for consumption, use, or warehousing.

(ii) Entry for transportation and exportation. Goods entered into the customs territory for transportation and exportation are not goods entered for consumption, use, or warehousing.

(iii) Entries described in two or more provisions. In the case of any goods with respect to which entries are described in two or more provisions of paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, only the first such entry is taken into account. Thus, if the admission of goods into a foreign trade zone is an entry into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing, the subsequent entry of such goods into the customs territory will not be treated as an entry into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing.

(iv) Certain imported products not entered for consumption, use, or warehousing. Imported products that are entered into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing do not include any imported products that—

(A) Are entered into the customs territory under Harmonized Tariff Schedule (HTS) heading 9801, 9802, 9803, or 9813;

(B) Would, if entered into the customs territory, be entered under any such heading; or

(C) Are brought into the United States by an individual if the product is brought in for use by the individual and is not expected to be used in a trade or business other than a trade or business of performing services as an employee.

(5) Importer. The term “importer” means the person that first sells or uses goods after their entry into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing (within the meaning of paragraph (c)(4) of this section).

(6) Sale. The term “sale” means the transfer of title or of substantial incidents of ownership (whether or not delivery to, or payment by, the buyer has been made) for consideration which may include money, services, or property. The determination as to the time a sale occurs shall be made under applicable local law.

(7) Use—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in regulations under sections 4681 and 4682, ODCs and imported taxable products are used when they are—

(A) Used as a material in the manufacture of an article, whether by incorporation into such article, chemical transformation, release into the atmosphere, or otherwise; or

(B) Put into service in a trade or business or for production of income.

(ii) Loss, destruction, packaging, warehousing, and repair. The loss, destruction, packaging (including repackaging), warehousing, or repair of ODCs and imported taxable products is not a use of the ODC or product lost, destroyed, packaged, warehoused, or repaired.

(iii) Cross-references to exceptions. For exceptions to the rule contained in paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this section, see—

(A) Section 52.4682-1(b)(2)(iii) (relating to mixture elections), § 52.4682-1(b)(2)(iv) (relating to mixtures for export), and § 52.4682-1(b)(2)(v) (relating to mixtures for use as a feedstock);

(B) Section 52.4682-3(c)(2) (relating to the election to treat entry of an imported taxable product as use); and

(C) Section 52.4682-3(c)(3) (relating to treating sale of an article incorporating an imported taxable product as the first sale or use of the product).

(8) Pound. The term “pound” means a unit of weight that is equal to 16 avoirdupois ounces.

(9) Post-1990 ODC; post-1989 ODC. The term “post-1990 ODC” means any ODC that is listed below Halon-2402 in the table contained in section 4682(a)(2). The term “post-1989 ODC” means any ODC other than a post-1990 ODC.

(d) Effective date. Sections 52.4681-0, 52.4681-1, 52.4682-1, 52.4682-2, 52.4682-3, and 52.4682-4 are effective as of January 1, 1990, and apply to—

(1) Post-1989 ODCs that the manufacturer or importer thereof first sells or uses after December 31, 1989, and post-1990 ODCs that the manufacturer or importer thereof first sells or uses after December 31, 1990;

(2) Imported taxable products that the importer thereof first sells or uses after December 31, 1989 (but, in the case of products first sold or used before January 1, 1991, by taking into account only the post-1989 ODCs used as materials in their manufacture); and

(3) Post-1989 ODCs held for sale or for use in further manufacture by any person other than the manufacturer or importer thereof on January 1, 1990, and post-1989 and post-1990 ODCs that are so held on January 1 of each calendar year after 1990.

[T.D. 8370, 56 FR 56305, Nov. 4, 1991, as amended by T.D. 8442, 57 FR 48186, Oct. 22, 1992; T.D. 8622, 60 FR 52849, Oct. 11, 1995]

§ 52.4682-1 Ozone-depleting chemicals.

(a) Overview. This section provides rules relating to the tax imposed on ozone-depleting chemicals (ODCs) under section 4681, including rules for identifying taxable ODCs and determining when the tax is imposed, and rules prescribing special treatment for certain ODCs. See § 52.4681-1(a)(1) and (c) for general rules and definitions relating to the tax on ODCs.

(b) Taxable ODCs; taxable event—(1) Taxable ODCs—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraphs (c) through (g) of this section, an ODC is taxable if—

(A) It is listed in section 4682(a)(2) on the date it is sold or used by its manufacturer or importer; and

(B) It is manufactured in the United States or entered into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing.

(ii) Storage containers. An ODC described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section is taxable without regard to the type or size of storage container in which the ODC is held.

(iii) Example. The application of this paragraph (b)(1) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.A brings CFC-12, an ODC listed in section 4682(a)(2), into the customs territory and enters the CFC-12 for transportation and exportation. The ODC is not taxable because it is not entered for consumption, use, or warehousing. The ODC also would not be taxable if it were admitted to a foreign trade zone (rather than brought into the customs territory) for transportation and exportation.

(2) Taxable event—(i) In general—(A) General rule. The tax on an ODC is imposed when the ODC is first sold or used (as defined in § 52.4681-1(c)(6) and (7)) by its manufacturer or importer.

(B) Example. The application of this paragraph (b)(2)(i) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.A enters CFC-113, an ODC listed in section 4682(a)(2), into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing. A warehouses the CFC-113 and then decides to ship the ODC to its factory outside the United States (as defined in § 52.4681-1 (c)(2)). The CFC-113 is a taxable ODC because the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section have been met. However, tax is not imposed on the ODC because there is no taxable event. A did not sell the ODC and, under § 52.4681-1(c)(7), warehousing is not a use.

(ii) Mixtures. Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section, the creation of a mixture containing two or more ingredients is treated as a taxable use of the ODCs contained in the mixture. For this purpose, a mixture cannot be represented by a chemical formula, and an ODC is contained in a mixture only if the chemical identity of the ODC is not changed. Thus, except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section—

(A) The tax on the post-1989 ODCs (as defined in § 52.4681-1(c)(9)) contained in mixtures created after December 31, 1989, or on the post-1990 ODCs (as defined in § 52.4681-1(c)(9)) contained in mixtures created after December 31, 1990, is imposed when the mixture is created and not on any subsequent sale or use of the mixture; and

(B) No tax is imposed under section 4681 on the post-1989 ODCs contained in mixtures created before January 1, 1990, or on the post-1990 ODCs contained in mixtures created before January 1, 1991.

(iii) Mixture elections—(A) Permitted elections. The only elections permitted under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) are—

(1) An election for the first calendar quarter beginning after December 31, 1989, and all subsequent periods (the 1990 election); and

(2) An election for the first calendar quarter beginning after December 31, 1990, and all subsequent periods (the 1991 election).

(B) In general. A manufacturer or importer may elect to treat the sale or use of mixtures containing ODCs as the first sale or use of the ODCs contained in the mixtures. If a 1990 election is made under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii), the tax on post-1989 ODCs contained in a mixture sold or used after December 31, 1989 (including any such mixture created before January 1, 1990) is imposed on the date of such sale or use. Similarly, if a 1991 election is made under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii), the tax on post-1990 ODCs contained in a mixture sold or used after December 31, 1990 (including any such mixture created before January 1, 1991) is imposed on the date of such sale or use.

(C) Applicability of elections. An election under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) applies—

(1) In the case of a 1990 election, to all post-1989 ODCs contained in mixtures sold or used by the manufacturer or importer after December 31, 1989 (including any such mixture created before January 1, 1990); and

(2) In the case of a 1991 election, to all post-1990 ODCs contained in mixtures sold or used by the manufacturer or importer after December 31, 1990 (including any such mixture created before January 1, 1991).

(D) Making the election; revocation. An election under this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) shall be made in accordance with the instructions for the return on which the manufacturer or importer reports liability for tax under section 4681. After October 9, 1990, the election may be revoked only with the consent of the Commissioner.

(iv) Special rule for exports. The creation of a mixture for export is not a taxable use of the ODCs contained in the mixture. If a manufacturer or importer sells a mixture for export, § 52.4682-5 applies to the ODCs contained in the mixture. See § 52.4682-5(e) for rules relating to liability of a purchaser for tax if the mixture is not exported.

(v) Special rule for use as a feedstock. The creation of a mixture for use as a feedstock (within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section) is not a taxable use of the ODCs contained in the mixture.

(c) ODCs used as a feedstock—(1) Exemption from tax. No tax is imposed on an ODC if the manufacturer or importer of the ODC—

(i) Uses the ODC as a feedstock in the manufacture of another chemical; or

(ii) Sells the ODC in a qualifying sale (within the meaning of paragraph (c)(4) of this section) for use as a feedstock.

(2) Excess payments—(i) In general. Under section 4682(d)(2)(B), a credit or refund is allowed to a person if—

(A) The person uses an ODC as a feedstock; and

(B) The amount of any tax paid with respect to the ODC under section 4681 or 4682 was not determined under section 4682(d)(2)(A).

(ii) Procedural rules. See section 6402 and the regulations thereunder for rules relating to claiming a credit or refund of tax paid with respect to ODCs that are used as a feedstock. A credit against the income tax is not allowed for the amount determined under section 4682(d)(2)(B).

(3) Definition. An ODC is used as a feedstock only if the ODC is entirely consumed (except for trace amounts) in the manufacture of another chemical. Thus, the transformation of an ODC into one or more new compounds (such as the transformation of CFC-113 into chlorotrifluoroethylene (CTFE or 1113), of CFC-113 into CFC-115 and CFC-116, or of carbon tetrachloride into hydrochloric acid during petroleum refining or incineration) is treated as use as a feedstock. On the other hand, the ODCs used in a mixture (including an azeotrope such as R-500 or R-502) are not used as a feedstock.

(4) Qualifying sale. A sale of ODCs for use as a feedstock is a qualifying sale if the requirements of § 52.4682-2(b)(1) are satisfied with respect to such sale.

(d) ODCs used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation—(1) Phase-in of tax—(i) In general. The amount of tax imposed on an ODC is determined under section 4682(g) if the manufacturer or importer of the ODC—

(A) Uses the ODC during 1990, 1991, 1992, or 1993 in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation; or

(B) Sells the ODC in a qualifying sale (within the meaning of paragraph (d)(5) of this section) during 1990, 1991, 1992, or 1993.

(ii) Amount of tax. Under section 4682(g), ODCs described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section are not taxed if sold or used during 1990 and are taxed at a reduced rate if sold or used during 1991, 1992, or 1993.

(2) Excess payments—(i) In general. Under section 4682(g)(3), a credit against income tax or a refund is allowed to a person if—

(A) The person uses an ODC during 1990, 1991, 1992, or 1993 in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation; and

(B) The amount of any tax paid with respect to the ODC under section 4681 or 4682 was not determined under section 4682(g).

(ii) Procedural rules—(A) The amount determined under section 4682(g)(3) shall be treated as a credit described in section 34(a) (relating to credits for gasoline and special fuels) unless a claim for refund has been filed.

(B) See section 6402 and the regulations thereunder for rules relating to claiming a credit or refund of the tax paid with respect to ODCs that are used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation.

(3) Definition—(i) Rigid foam insulation. The term “rigid foam insulation” means any rigid foam that is designed for use as thermal insulation in buildings, equipment, appliances, tanks, railcars, trucks, or vessels, or on pipes, including any such rigid foam actually used for purposes other than insulation. Information such as test reports on R-values and advertising material reflecting R-value claims for a particular rigid foam may be used to show that such rigid foam is designed for use as thermal insulation.

(ii) Rigid foam—(A) In general. The term “rigid foam” means any closed cell polymeric foam (whether or not rigid) in which chlorofluorocarbons are used to fill voids within the polymer.

(B) Examples of rigid foam products. Rigid foam includes extruded polystyrene foam, polyisocyanurate foam, spray and pour-in-place polyurethane foam, polyethylene foam, phenolic foam, and any other product that the Commissioner identifies as rigid foam in a pronouncement of general applicability. The form of a product identified under this paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(B) does not affect its character as rigid foam. Thus, such products are rigid foam whether in the form of a board, sheet, backer rod, or wrapping, or in a form applied by spraying, pouring, or frothing.

(4) Use in manufacture. An ODC is used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation if it is incorporated into such product or is expended as a propellant or otherwise in the manufacture or application of such product.

(5) Qualifying sale. A sale of an ODC for use in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation is a qualifying sale if the requirements of § 52.4682-2(b)(2) are satisfied with respect to such sale.

(e) Halons; phase-in of tax. The amount of tax imposed on Halon-1211, Halon-1301, or Halon-2402 (Halons) is determined under section 4682(g) if the manufacturer or importer of Halons sells or uses Halons during 1990, 1991, 1992, or 1993. Under section 4682(g), Halons are not taxed if sold or used during 1990 and are taxed at a reduced rate if sold or used during 1991, 1992, or 1993.

(f) Methyl chloroform; reduced rate of tax in 1993. The amount of tax imposed on methyl chloroform is determined under section 4682(g)(5) if the manufacturer or importer of the methyl chloroform sells or uses it during 1993.

(g) ODCs used as medical sterilants—(1) Phase-in of tax. The amount of tax imposed on an ODC is determined under section 4682(g)(4) if the manufacturer or importer of the ODC—

(i) Uses the ODC during 1993 as a medical sterilant; or

(ii) Sells the ODC in a qualifying sale (within the meaning of paragraph (g)(4) of this section) during 1993.

(2) Excess payments—(i) In general. Under section 4682(g)(4)(B), a credit against income tax (without interest) or a refund of tax (without interest) is allowed to a person if—

(A) The person uses an ODC during 1993 as a medical sterilant; and

(B) The amount of any tax paid with respect to the ODC under section 4681 or 4682 exceeds the amount that would have been determined under section 4682(g)(4).

(ii) Amount of credit or refund. The amount of credit or refund of tax is equal to the excess of—

(A) The tax that was paid with respect to the ODCs under sections 4681 and 4682; over

(B) The tax that would have been imposed under section 4682(g)(4).

(iii) Procedural rules. (A) The amount determined under section 4682(g)(4)(B) and paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section is treated as a credit described in section 34(a) (relating to credits for gasoline and special fuels) unless a claim for refund has been filed.

(B) See section 6402 and the regulations under that section for procedural rules relating to claiming a credit or refund of tax.

(3) Definition of use as a medical sterilant. An ODC is used as a medical sterilant if it is used in the manufacture of sterilant gas.

(4) Qualifying sale. A sale of an ODC for use as a medical sterilant is a qualifying sale if the requirements of § 52.4682-2(b)(3) are satisfied with respect to the sale.

(h) ODCs used as propellants in metered-dose inhalers—(1) Reduced rate of tax. The amount of tax imposed on an ODC is determined under section 4682(g)(4) if the manufacturer or importer of the ODC—

(i) Uses the ODC after 1992 as a propellant in a metered-dose inhaler; or

(ii) Sells the ODC in a qualifying sale (within the meaning of paragraph (h)(4) of this section) after 1992.

(2) Excess payments—(i) In general. Under section 4682(g)(4)(B), a credit against income tax (without interest) or a refund of tax (without interest) is allowed to a person if—

(A) The person uses an ODC after 1992 as a propellant in a metered-dose inhaler; and

(B) The amount of any tax paid with respect to the ODC under section 4681 or 4682 exceeds the amount that would have been determined under section 4682(g)(4).

(ii) Amount of credit or refund. The amount of credit or refund of tax is equal to the excess of—

(A) The tax that was paid with respect to the ODCs under sections 4681 and 4682; over

(B) The tax that would have been imposed under section 4682(g)(4).

(iii) Procedural rules—(A) The amount determined under section 4682(g)(4)(B) and paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section is treated as a credit described in section 34(a) (relating to credits for gasoline and special fuels) unless a claim for refund has been filed.

(B) See section 6402 and the regulations under that section for procedural rules relating to claiming a credit or refund of tax.

(3) Definition of metered-dose inhaler. A metered-dose inhaler is an aerosol device that delivers a precisely-measured dose of a therapeutic drug.

(4) Qualifying sale. A sale of an ODC for use as a propellant for a metered-dose inhaler is a qualifying sale if the requirements of § 52.4682-2(b)(4) are satisfied with respect to the sale.

(i) [Reserved]

(j) Exports; cross-reference. For the treatment of exports of ODCs, see § 52.4682-5.

(k) Recycling. [Reserved]

[T.D. 8370, 56 FR 56307, Nov. 4, 1991, as amended by T.D. 8622, 60 FR 52849, Oct. 11, 1995]

§ 52.4682-2 Qualifying sales.

(a) In general—(1) Special rules applicable to certain sales. Special rules apply to sales of ODCs in the following cases:

(i) Under section 4682(d)(2), § 52.4682-1(c), and § 52.4682-4(b)(2)(v) (relating to ODCs used as a feedstock), ODCs sold in qualifying sales are not taxed.

(ii) Under section 4682(g), § 52.4682-1(d), and § 52.4682-4(d)(2) (relating to ODCs used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation), ODCs sold in qualifying sales are not taxed in 1990 and are taxed at a reduced rate in 1991, 1992, and 1993.

(iii) Under section 4682(g)(4) and § 52.4682-1(g) (relating to ODCs used as medical sterilants), ODCs sold in qualifying sales are taxed at a reduced rate in 1993.

(iv) Under section 4682(g)(4) and § 52.4682-1(h) (relating to ODCs used as propellants in metered-dose inhalers), ODCs sold in qualifying sales are taxed at a reduced rate in years after 1992.

(2) Qualifying sales. A sale of ODCs is not a qualifying sale unless the requirements of this section are satisfied. Although registration with the Internal Revenue Service is not required to establish that a sale of ODCs is a qualifying sale, the certificates required by this section shall be made available for inspection by internal revenue agents and officers.

(b) Requirements for qualification—(1) Use as a feedstock. A sale of ODCs is a qualifying sale for purposes of §§ 52.4682-1(c) and 52.4682-4(b)(2)(v) if the manufacturer or importer of the ODCs—

(i) Obtains a certificate in substantially the form set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section from the purchaser of the ODCs; and

(ii) Relies on the certificate in good faith.

(2) Use in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation. A sale of ODCs is a qualifying sale for purposes of §§ 52.4682-1(d) and 52.4682-4(d)(2) if the manufacturer or importer of the ODCs—

(i) Obtains a certificate in substantially the form set forth in paragraph (d)(3) of this section from the purchaser of the ODCs; and

(ii) Relies on the certificate in good faith.

(3) Use as medical sterilants. A sale of ODCs is a qualifying sale for purposes of § 52.4682-1(g) if the manufacturer or importer of the ODCs—

(i) Obtains a certificate in substantially the form set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section from the purchaser of the ODCs; and

(ii) Relies on the certificate in good faith.

(4) Use as propellants in metered-dose inhalers. A sale of ODCs is a qualifying sale for purposes of §§ 52.4682-1(h) and 52.4682-4(b)(2)(vii) if the manufacturer or importer of the ODCs—

(i) Obtains a certificate in substantially the form set forth in paragraph (d)(5) of this section from the purchaser of the ODCs; and

(ii) Relies on the certificate in good faith.

(c) Good faith reliance—(1) In general. The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section are not satisfied with respect to a sale of ODCs and the sale is not a qualifying sale if at the time of the sale—

(i) The manufacturer or importer has reason to believe that the purchaser will use the ODCs other than for the purpose set forth in the certificate; or

(ii) The Internal Revenue Service has notified the manufacturer or importer that the purchaser's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(2) Withdrawal of right to provide a certificate. The Internal Revenue Service may withdraw the right of a purchaser to provide a certificate to its supplier if such purchaser uses the ODCs to which its certificate applies other than for the purpose set forth in such certificate, or otherwise fails to comply with the terms of the certificate. The Internal Revenue Service may notify the supplier to whom the purchaser provided the certificate that the purchaser's right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

(d) Certificate—(1) In general—(i) Rules relating to all certificates. This paragraph (d) sets forth certificates that satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section. The certificate shall consist of a statement executed and signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the purchaser. A certificate provided under paragraph (d)(2) or (5) of this section may apply to a single purchase or to multiple purchases and need not specify an expiration date. A certificate provided under paragraph (d)(3) or (4) of this section may apply to a single purchase or multiple purchases, and will expire as of December 31, 1993, unless an earlier expiration date is specified in the certificate. A new certificate must be given to the supplier if any information on the current certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale.

(ii) Special rule relating to certificates executed before January 1, 1992. Certificates provided under this paragraph (d)(2) and executed before January 1, 1992, satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if they are in substantially the same form as certificates set forth in § 52.4682-2T.

(2) Certificate relating to ODCs used as a feedstock—(i) ODCs that will be resold for use by the second purchaser as a feedstock. If the purchaser will resell the ODCs to a second purchaser for use by such second purchaser as a feedstock, the certificate provided by the purchaser must be in substantially the following form:

Certificate of Purchaser of Chemicals That Will Be Resold for Use by the Second Purchaser as a Feedstock (To support tax-free sales under section 4682(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Date

The undersigned purchaser (“Purchaser”) hereby certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from

(name and address of seller) will be resold by Purchaser to persons (Second Purchasers) that certify to Purchaser that they are purchasing the ozone-depleting chemicals for use as a feedstock (as defined in § 52.4682-1(c)(3) of the Environmental Tax Regulations).

Product | Percentage

CFC-11

CFC-12

CFC-113

CFC-114

CFC-115

Carbon tetrachloride

Methyl chloroform

Other (specify)

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

______ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ______ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser will not claim a credit or refund under section 4682(d)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code for any ozone-depleting chemicals covered by this certificate.

Purchaser understands that any use by Purchaser of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies other than for the purpose set forth in this certificate may result in the withdrawal by the Internal Revenue Service of Purchaser's right to provide a certificate.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the sales covered by this certificate and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers. Purchaser also will retain and make available for inspection by Government officers the certificates of its Second Purchasers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn. In addition, the Internal Revenue Service has not notified Purchaser that the right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn from any Second Purchaser who will purchase ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Signature Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Name of Purchaser Address Taxpayer Identifying Number

(ii) ODCs that will be used by the purchaser as a feedstock. If the purchaser will use the ODCs as a feedstock, the certificate provided by the purchaser must be in substantially the following form:

Certificate of Purchaser of Chemicals That Will Be Used by the Purchaser as a Feedstock (To support tax-free sales under section 4682(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Date

The undersigned purchaser (“Purchaser”) hereby certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from

(name and address of seller) will be used by Purchaser as a feedstock (as defined in § 52.4682-1(c)(3) of the Environmental Tax Regulations).

Product | Percentage | Kilograms to be transformed

CFC-11

CFC-12

CFC-113

CFC-114

CFC-115

Carbon tetrachloride

Methyl chloroform

Other (specify)

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

______ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ______ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser will not claim a credit or refund under section 4682(d)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code for any ozone-depleting chemicals covered by this certificate.

Purchaser understands that any use of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies other than as a feedstock may result in the withdrawal by the Internal Revenue Service of Purchaser's right to provide a certificate.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the use as a feedstock of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Signature Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Name of Purchaser Address Taxpayer Identifying Number

(3) Certificate relating to ODCs used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation—(i) ODCs that will be resold to a second purchaser for use by the second purchaser in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation. If the purchaser will resell the ODCs to a second purchaser for use by such second purchaser in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation, the certificate provided by the purchaser must be in substantially the following form:

Certificate of Purchaser of Chemicals That Will Be Resold for Use by the Second Purchaser in the Manufacture of Rigid Foam Insulation (To support tax-free or tax-reduced sales under section 4682(g) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Effective Date Expiration Date (not after 12/31/93)

The undersigned purchaser (“Purchaser”) hereby certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from

(name and address of seller) will be resold by Purchaser to persons (Second Purchasers) that certify to Purchaser that they are purchasing the ozone-depleting chemicals for use in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation (as defined in § 52.4682-1(d)(3) and (4) of the Environmental Tax Regulations).

Product | Percentage

CFC-11

CFC-12

CFC-113

CFC-114

CFC-115

Carbon tetrachloride

Methyl chloroform

Other (specify)

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

______ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ______ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser will not claim a credit or refund under section 4682(g)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code for any ozone-depleting chemicals covered by this certificate.

Purchaser understands that any use by Purchaser of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies other than for the purpose set forth in this certificate may result in the withdrawal by the Internal Revenue Service of Purchaser's right to provide a certificate.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the sales covered by this certificate and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers. Purchaser also will retain and make available for inspection by Government officers the certificates of its Second Purchasers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn. In addition, the Internal Revenue Service has not notified Purchaser that the right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn from any Second Purchaser who will purchase ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Signature Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Name of Purchaser Address Taxpayer Identifying Number

(ii) ODCs that will be used by the purchaser in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation. If the purchaser will use the ODCs in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation, the certificate provided by the purchaser must be in substantially the following form:

Certificate of Purchaser of Chemicals That Will Be Used by the Purchaser in the Manufacture of Rigid Foam Insulation (To support tax-free or tax-reduced sales under section 4682(g) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Effective Date Expiration Date (not after 12/31/93)

The undersigned purchaser (“Purchaser”) hereby certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from

(name and address of seller) will be used by Purchaser in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation (as defined in § 52.4682-1(d) (3) and (4) of the Environmental Tax Regulations).

Product | Percentage

CFC-11

CFC-12

CFC-113

CFC-114

CFC-115

Carbon tetrachloride

Methyl chloroform

Other (specify)

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

______ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ______ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser will not claim a credit or refund under section 4682(g)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code for any ozone-depleting chemicals covered by this certificate.

Purchaser understands that any use by Purchaser of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies other than in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation may result in the withdrawal by the Internal Revenue Service of Purchaser's right to provide a certificate.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the use in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Signature Printed or typed name of person signing Title of person signing Name of Purchaser Address Taxpayer Identifying Number

(4) Certificate relating to ODCs used as medical sterilants—(i) ODCs that will be resold for use by the second purchaser as medical sterilants. If the purchaser will resell the ODCs to a second purchaser for use by such second purchaser as medical sterilants, the certificate provided by the purchaser must be in substantially the following form:

CERTIFICATE OF PURCHASER OF CHEMICALS THAT WILL BE RESOLD FOR USE BY THE SECOND PURCHASER AS MEDICAL STERILANTS (To support tax-reduced sales under section 4682(g)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Effective Date Expiration Date (not after 12/31/93)

The undersigned purchaser (Purchaser) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from:

(Name of seller) (Address of seller) will be resold by Purchaser to persons (Second Purchasers) that certify to Purchaser that they are purchasing the ozone-depleting chemicals for use as medical sterilants (as defined in § 52.4682-1(g)(3) of the Environmental Tax Regulations).

Product | Percentage

CFC-12 | __________

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

______ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ______ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser will not claim a credit or refund under section 4682(g)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code for any ozone-depleting chemicals covered by this certificate.

Purchaser understands that any use by Purchaser of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies other than for the purpose set forth in this certificate may result in the withdrawal by the Internal Revenue Service of Purchaser's right to provide a certificate.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the sales covered by this certificate and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers. Purchaser also will retain and make available for inspection by Government officers the certificates of its Second Purchasers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn. In addition, the Internal Revenue Service has not notified Purchaser that the right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn from any Second Purchaser who will purchase ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Name of Purchaser Address of Purchaser Taxpayer Identifying Number of Purchaser Title of person signing Printed or typed name of person signing Signature

(ii) ODCs that will be used by the purchaser as medical sterilants. If the purchaser will use the ODCs as medical sterilants, the certificate provided by the purchaser must be in substantially the following form:

CERTIFICATE OF PURCHASER OF CHEMICALS THAT WILL BE USED BY THE PURCHASER AS MEDICAL STERILANTS (To support tax-reduced sales under section 4682(g)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Effective Date Expiration Date (not after 12/31/93)

The undersigned purchaser (Purchaser) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from:

(Name of seller) (Address of seller) will be used by Purchaser as medical sterilants (as defined in § 52.4682-1(g)(3) of the Environmental Tax Regulations).

Product | Percentage

CFC-12 | __________

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

______ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ______ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser will not claim a credit or refund under section 4682(g)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code for any ozone-depleting chemicals covered by this certificate.

Purchaser understands that any use by Purchaser of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies other than as medical sterilants may result in the withdrawal by the Internal Revenue Service of Purchaser's right to provide a certificate.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the use as medical sterilants of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Name of Purchaser Address of Purchaser Taxpayer Identifying Number of Purchaser Title of person signing Printed or typed name of person signing Signature

(5) Certificate relating to ODCs used as propellants in metered-dose inhalers—(i) ODCs that will be resold for use by the second purchaser as propellants in metered-dose inhalers. If the purchaser will resell the ODCs to a second purchaser for use by such second purchaser as propellants in metered-dose inhalers, the certificate provided by the purchaser must be in substantially the following form:

CERTIFICATE OF PURCHASER OF CHEMICALS THAT WILL BE RESOLD FOR USE BY THE SECOND PURCHASER AS PROPELLANTS IN METERED-DOSE INHALERS (To support tax-reduced sales under section 4682(g)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Date

The undersigned purchaser (Purchaser) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from:

(Name of seller) (Address of seller) will be resold by Purchaser to persons (Second Purchasers) that certify to Purchaser that they are purchasing the ozone-depleting chemicals for use as propellants in metered-dose inhalers (as defined in § 52.4682-1(h)(3) of the Environmental Tax Regulations).

Product | Percentage

CFC-11 | ________

CFC-12 | ________

CFC-114 | ________

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

________ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ________ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ________ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ________ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser will not claim a credit or refund under section 4682(g)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code for any ozone-depleting chemicals covered by this certificate.

Purchaser understands that any use by Purchaser of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies other than for the purpose set forth in this certificate may result in the withdrawal by the Internal Revenue Service of Purchaser's right to provide a certificate.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the sales covered by this certificate and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers. Purchaser also will retain and make available for inspection by Government officers the certificates of its Second Purchasers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn. In addition, the Internal Revenue Service has not notified Purchaser that the right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn from any Second Purchaser who will purchase ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Name of Purchaser Address of Purchaser Taxpayer Identifying Number of Purchaser Title of person signing Printed or typed name of person signing Signature

(ii) ODCs that will be used by the purchaser as propellants in metered-dose inhalers. If the purchaser will use the ODCs as propellants in metered-dose inhalers, the certificate provided by the purchaser must be in substantially the following form:

CERTIFICATE OF PURCHASER OF CHEMICALS THAT WILL BE USED BY THE PURCHASER AS PROPELLANTS IN METERED-DOSE INHALERS (To support tax-reduced sales under section 4682(g)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Date

The undersigned purchaser (Purchaser) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from:

(Name of seller) (Address of seller) will be used by Purchaser as propellants in metered-dose inhalers (as defined in § 52.4682-1(h)(3) of the Environmental Tax Regulations).

Product | Percentage

CFC-11 | ________

CFC-12 | ________

CFC-114 | ________

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

________ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ________ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ________ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ________ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser will not claim a credit or refund under section 4682(g)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code for any ozone-depleting chemicals covered by this certificate.

Purchaser understands that any use by Purchaser of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies other than as propellants in metered-dose inhalers may result in the withdrawal by the Internal Revenue Service of Purchaser's right to provide a certificate.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the use as propellants in metered-dose inhalers of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its right to provide a certificate has been withdrawn.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Name of Purchaser Address of Purchaser Taxpayer Identifying Number of Purchaser Title of person signing Printed or typed name of person signing Signature

[T.D. 8370, 56 FR 56308, Nov. 4, 1991, as amended by T.D. 8622, 60 FR 52850, Oct. 11, 1995]

§ 52.4682-3 Imported taxable products.

(a) Overview; references to Tables; special rule for 1990—(1) Overview. This section provides rules relating to the tax imposed on imported taxable products under section 4681, including rules for identifying imported taxable products, determining the weight of the ozone-depleting chemicals (ODCs) used as materials in the manufacture of such products, and computing the amount of tax on such products. See § 52.4681-1(a)(2) and (c) for general rules and definitions relating to the tax on imported taxable products.

(2) References to Tables. When used in this section—

(i) The term Imported Products Table (Table) refers to the Table set forth in paragraph (f)(6) of this section; and

(ii) The term current Imported Products Table (current Table) used with respect to a product refers to the Table in effect on the date such product is first sold or used by the importer thereof.

(3) Special rule for 1990. In the case of products first sold or used before January 1, 1991, post-1990 ODCs (as defined in § 52.4681-1(c)(9)) shall not be taken into account in applying the rules of this section.

(b) Imported taxable products—(1) In general—(i) Rule. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the term “imported taxable product” means any product that—

(A) Is entered into the United States for consumption, use, or warehousing; and

(B) Is listed in the current Table.

(ii) Example. The application of this paragraph (b)(1) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.A brings a light truck with a Harmonized Tariff Schedule classification of 8704 into the customs territory and enters the truck for transportation and exportation. Although the truck is listed in the current Table, it is not an imported taxable product because it is not entered for consumption, use, or warehousing. The truck also would not be an imported taxable product if it were admitted to a foreign trade zone (rather than brought into the customs territory) for transportation and exportation.

(2) Exceptions—(i) In general. A product is not treated as an imported taxable product if—

(A) The product is listed in Part I of the current Table and the adjusted tax with respect to the product is de minimis (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section); or

(B) The product is listed in Part II of the current Table, the adjusted tax with respect to the product is de minimis (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section), and the ODCs (other than methyl chloroform) used as materials in the manufacture of the product were not used for purposes of refrigeration or air conditioning, creating an aerosol or foam, or manufacturing electronic components.

(ii) De minimis adjusted tax. The adjusted tax with respect to a product is de minimis if such tax is less than one/tenth of one percent of the importer's cost of acquiring such product. The term adjusted tax means the tax that would be imposed under section 468l on the ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of such product if such ODCs were sold in the United States and the base tax amount were $1.00.

(c) Taxable event—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (c) (2) and (3) of this section, the tax on an imported taxable product is imposed when the product is first sold or used (as defined in § 52.4681-1(c) (6) and (7)) by its importer. Thus, for example, imported taxable products that are warehoused or repackaged after entry and then exported without being sold or used in the United States are not subject to tax.

(2) Election to treat importation as use—(i) In general. An importer may elect to treat the entry of products into the United States as the use of such products. In the case of imported taxable products to which an election under this paragraph (c)(2) applies—

(A) Tax is imposed on the products on the date of entry (as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section) if the products are entered into the United States after the election becomes effective;

(B) Tax is imposed on the products on the date the election becomes effective if the products were entered into the United States after December 3l, 1989, and before the election becomes effective; and

(C) No tax is imposed if the products were entered into the United States before January 1, 1990.

(ii) Date of entry. The date of entry is determined by reference to customs law. If the actual date is unknown, the importer may use any reasonable and consistent method to determine the date of entry, provided that such date is within 10 business days of arrival of products in the United States.

(iii) Applicability of election. An election under this paragraph (c)(2) applies to all imported taxable products that are owned (and have not been used) by the importer at the time the election becomes effective and all imported taxable products that are entered into the United States by the importer after the election becomes effective. An election under this paragraph (c)(2) becomes effective at the beginning of the first calendar quarter to which the election applies. After October 9, 1990, the election may be revoked only with the consent of the Commissioner.

(iv) Making the election. An election under this paragraph (c)(2) shall be made in accordance with the instructions for the return on which the importer is required to report liability for tax under section 4681.

(3) Treating the sale of an article incorporating an imported taxable product as the first sale or use of such product—(i) In general. In the case of articles to be sold, an importer may treat the sale of an article manufactured or assembled in the United States as the first sale or use of an imported taxable product incorporated in such article, but only if the importer—

(A) Has consistently treated the sale of similar articles as the first sale or use of similar imported taxable products; and

(B) Has not made an election under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(ii) Similar articles and imported taxable products. An importer may establish any reasonable criteria for determining whether articles or imported taxable products are similar for purposes of this paragraph (c)(3).

(iii) Establishment of consistent treatment. An importer has consistently treated the sale of similar articles as the first sale or use of similar imported taxable products only if such treatment is reflected in the computation of tax on the importer's returns for all prior calendar quarters in which such treatment would affect tax liability.

(iv) Example. The application of this paragraph (c)(3) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example. (a) An importer of printed circuits and other electronic components uses those products in assembling television receivers in the United States and also uses the printed circuits in assembling VCRs in the United States. Under the importer's criteria for determining similarity, printed circuits are similar to other printed circuits, but not to the other electronic components. In addition, television receivers are similar to other television receivers, but not to VCRs. The importer has not made an election under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(b) Under this paragraph (c)(3), the importer may treat the sale of the television receivers as the first sale or use of the imported printed circuits incorporated into the television receivers. In that case, the tax on the printed circuits would be imposed when the television receivers are sold rather than when the printed circuits are used in assembling the television receivers.

(c) The importer may treat the sale of the television receivers as the first sale or use of the printed circuits incorporated into the television receivers even if the sale of the television receivers is not treated as the first sale or use of the other electronic components incorporated into the television receivers and even if the sale of VCRs is not treated as the first sale or use of the printed circuits incorporated into the VCRs. Under paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A) of this section, however, the importer must have consistently treated the sale of television receivers as the first sale or use of printed circuits incorporated into the receivers. Thus, in the case of television receivers that were assembled before January 1, 1990, and sold after December 31, 1989, the importer must have treated the sale of the television receivers as the first sale or use of the printed circuits incorporated into the television receivers when reporting tax under section 4681 with respect to such printed circuits.

(d) ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of imported taxable products—(1) ODC weight. The tax imposed on an imported taxable product under section 4681 is computed by reference to the weight of the ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of the product (ODC weight). The ODC weight of a product includes the weight of ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of any components of the product.

(2) ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of a product. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, an ODC is used as a material in the manufacture of a product if the ODC is—

(i) Incorporated into the product;

(ii) Released into the atmosphere in the process of manufacturing the product; or

(iii) Otherwise used in the manufacture of the product (but only to the extent the cost of the ODC is properly allocable to the product).

(3) Protective packaging. ODCs used in the manufacture of the protective material in which a product is packaged are not treated as ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of such product.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (d) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A, a manufacturer located outside the United States, uses ODCs as a solvent to clean the printed circuits it manufactures and as a coolant in the air-conditioning system of the factory in which the printed circuits are manufactured. The ODCs used as a solvent are released into the atmosphere, and, under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, are used as materials in the manufacture of the printed circuits. The ODCs used as a coolant in the air-conditioning system are also used in the manufacture of the printed circuits. Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, these ODCs are used as materials in the manufacture of the printed circuits only to the extent the cost of the ODCs is properly allocable to the printed circuits.

Example 2.B manufactures television receivers outside the United States and wraps them for shipping in a protective packing material manufactured with ODCs. Under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the ODCs used in the manufacture of the protective packing material are not treated as ODCs used as a material in the manufacture of the television receivers.

(e) Methods of determining ODC weight; computation of tax—(1) In general. This paragraph (e) sets forth the methods to be used for determining the ODC weight of an imported taxable product and a method to be used in computing the tax when the ODC weight cannot be determined. The amount of tax is computed separately for each imported taxable product and the method to be used in determining the ODC weight or otherwise computing the tax is separately determined for each such product. Thus, an importer may use one method in computing the tax on some imported taxable products and different methods in computing the tax on other products. For example, an importer of telephone sets may compute the tax using the exact method described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section for determining the ODC weight of telephone sets supplied by one manufacturer and using the Table method described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section for telephone sets supplied by other manufacturers that have not provided sufficient information to allow the importer to use the exact method.

(2) Exact method. If the importer determines the weight of each ODC used as a material in the manufacture of an imported taxable product and supports that determination with sufficient and reliable information, the ODC weight of the product is the weight so determined. Under this method, the ODC weight of a mixture is equal to the weight of the ODCs contained in the mixture. Representations by the manufacturer of the product to the importer as to the weight of the ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of the product may be sufficient and reliable information for this purpose. Thus, a letter to the importer signed by the manufacturer may constitute sufficient and reliable information if the letter adequately identifies the product and states the weight of each ODC used as a material in the product's manufacture.

(3) Table method—(i) In general. If the ODC weight of an imported taxable product is not determined using the exact method described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and the current Table specifies an ODC weight for the product, the ODC weight of the product is the Table ODC weight, regardless of what ODCs were used in the manufacture of the product. In computing the amount of tax, the Table ODC weight shall not be rounded.

(ii) Special rules—(A) Articles assembled in the United States. An importer that assembles finished articles in the United States may compute the amount of tax imposed on the imported taxable products incorporated into the finished article by using the Table ODC weight specified for the article instead of the Table ODC weights specified for the components. In order to compute the tax under this special rule, the importer must determine the actual number of articles manufactured. For example, if an importer manufactures 100 camcorders using imported subassemblies, the importer may compute the amount of tax on the subassemblies by using the Table ODC weight specified for camcorders. Thus, the tax imposed on the subassemblies is equal to the tax that would be imposed on 100 camcorders.

(B) Combination method. This paragraph (e)(3)(ii)(B) applies to an imported taxable product if the current Table specifies weights for two or more ODCs with respect to the product and the importer of the product can determine the weight of any such ODC (and of any ODC used as a substitute for such ODC) and can support such determination with sufficient and reliable information. In determining the ODC weight of any such product, the importer may replace the weight specified in the Table for such ODC with the weight (as determined by the importer) of such ODC and its substitutes. For example, if an importer has sufficient and reliable information to determine the amount of CFC-12 included in a product as a coolant (and to determine that no ODCs have been used as substitutes for CFC-12) but cannot determine the amount of CFC-113 used in manufacturing the product's electronic components, the importer may use the weight specified in the Table for CFC-113 and the actual weight determined by the importer for CFC-12 in determining the ODC weight of the product.

(C) ODCs used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation. In computing the tax using the method described in this paragraph (e)(3), any ODC for which the Table specifies a weight followed by an asterisk (*) shall be treated as an ODC used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation (as defined in § 52.4682-1(d) (3) and (4)).

(4) Value method—(i) General rule. If the importer cannot determine the ODC weight of an imported taxable product under the exact method described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and the Table ODC weight of the product is not specified, the tax imposed on the product under section 4681 is one percent of the entry value of the product.

(ii) Special rule for mixtures. If, in the case of an imported taxable product that is a mixture, the tax was determined under the method described in this paragraph (e)(4), the Commissioner may redetermine the tax based on the ODC weight of the mixture.

(5) Adjustment for prior taxes—(i) In general. If any manufacture with respect to an imported taxable product occurred in the United States or the product incorporates a taxed component or a taxed chemical was used in its manufacture, the product's ODC weight (or value) attributable to manufacture within the United States or to taxed components or taxed chemicals shall be disregarded in computing the tax on such product using a method described in paragraph (e) (2), (3), or (4) of this section.

(ii) Taxed component. The term “taxed component” means any component that previously was subject to tax as an imported taxable product or that would have been so taxed if section 4681 had been in effect for periods before January 1, 1990.

(iii) Taxed chemical. The term “taxed chemical” means any ODC that previously was subject to tax.

(6) Examples. The application of this paragraph (e) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A is an importer (as defined in § 52.4681-1(c)(5)) of VCRs. The HTS classification for the VCRs is 8528.10.40. VCRs classified under HTS heading 8528.10.40 are imported taxable products because they are listed in the Table (contained in paragraph (f)(6) of this section) by name and HTS heading (as described in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section). Each VCR is wrapped in protective packing material manufactured with ODCs. A imports and sells 100 VCRs during the first calendar quarter of 1991. A may determine the ODC weight for the VCRs by reference to the Table. The Table ODC weight specified for VCRs classified under HTS heading 8528.10.40 is 0.0586 pound of CFC-113. This weight does not take protective packaging into account. The amount of tax for the first quarter of 1991 is $6.42 (0.0586 (the ODC weight) × 100 (the number of VCRs sold in the quarter) × $1.37 (the base tax amount for CFC-113 in 1991) × 0.8 (the ozone-depletion factor for CFC-113)). If A uses the exact method (as described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section) to determine the ODC weight for the VCRs, A does not take into account the ODCs used in the manufacture of the protective packaging. (Imported protective packaging containing foams made with ODCs other than foams defined in § 52.4682-1(d)(3) is subject to tax, however, if the packaging is sold as packaging or first used as packaging in the United States.)

Example 2.The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that A's VCRs are manufactured using methyl chloroform as the solvent instead of CFC-113. If A does not use the exact method to determine the weight of the methyl chloroform used in the manufacture of the VCRs, A must, under paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (e)(4)(i) of this section, determine the ODC weight by reference to the Table. If A uses the Table ODC weight, the computation of tax is the same as in Example 1, using the base tax amount and ozone-depletion factor for CFC-113. A does not substitute the base tax amount and ozone-depletion factor of methyl chloroform for those of CFC-113.

Example 3.B imports and sells mixtures of ethylene oxide and CFC-12. The mixture is 88 percent CFC-12 by weight. B also imports and sells R-502. The R-502 is 51 percent CFC-115 by weight. In the first calendar quarter of 1991 B sells 100 pounds of imported ethylene oxide/CFC-12 mixture and 10,000 pounds of imported R-502. The ethylene/CFC-12 mixture and the R-502 are imported taxable products because they are listed in Part I of the Table (contained in paragraph (f)(6) of this section). Under the exact method described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, B computes the tax based on 88 pounds of CFC-12, the amount of ODCs contained in the imported ethylene oxide mixture, and based on 5100 pounds of CFC-115, the amount of ODCs in the imported R-502.

(f) Imported Products Table—(1) In general. This paragraph (f) contains rules relating to the Imported Products Table (Table) and sets forth the Table. The Table lists all the products that are subject to the tax on imported taxable products and specifies the Table ODC weight of each product for which such a weight has been determined.

(2) Applicability of Table—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the Table contained in paragraph (f)(6) of this section is effective on January 1, 1990.

(ii) Treatment of certain products—(A) Products included in a listing that is preceded by a double asterisk (**) in the Table shall not be treated as imported taxable products until October 1, 1990.

(B) Products included in a listing that is preceded by a triple asterisk (***) in the Table shall not be treated as imported taxable products until January l, 1992.

(3) Identification of products—(i) In general. Each listing in the Table identifies a product by name and includes only products that are described by that name. Most listings (other than listings for mixtures) identify a product by both name and HTS heading. In such cases, a product is included in that listing only if the product is described by that name and the rate of duty on the product is determined by reference to that HTS heading. However, the product is included in that listing even if it is manufactured with or contains a different ODC than the ODC specified in the Table.

(ii) Electronic items not listed by specific name—(A) In general. Part II of the Table contains listings for electronic items that are not included within any other listing in the Table. An imported product is included in these listings only if such imported product—

(1) Is an electronic component listed in chapters 84, 85, or 90 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule; or

(2) Contains components described in paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(A)(1) of this section and more than 15 percent of the cost of the imported product is attributable to such components.

(B) Electronic component. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(3)(ii), an electronic component is a component whose operation involves the use of nonmechanical amplification or switching devices such as tubes, transistors, and integrated circuits. Such components do not include passive electrical devices such as resistors and capacitors.

(C) Certain items not included. Items such as screws, nuts, bolts, plastic parts, and similar specially fabricated parts that may be used to construct an electronic item are not themselves included in the listing for electronic items not otherwise listed in the Table.

(iii) Examples. The application of this paragraph (f)(3) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.The Table lists “electronic integrated circuits and microassemblies; HTS heading 8542.” A bipolar transistor under HTS heading 8542.11.00.05 is included in this listing because a bipolar transistor is a type of electronic integrated circuit and HTS heading 8542.11.00.05 is included within HTS heading 8542.

Example 2.The Table lists “radios; HTS heading 8527.19,” “radio combinations; HTS heading 8527.11” and “radio combinations; HTS heading 8527.31.” A radio classified under HTS heading 8527.19 is not included within either listing for radio combinations. However, a radio classified under HTS heading 8527.19.00.20 is included within the listing for radios; HTS heading 8527.19. A radio combination classified under HTS heading 8527.11.20 is included within the listing for radio combinations; HTS heading 8527.11 but not the listing for radio combinations; HTS heading 8527.31. Any radio or radio combination not classified under the HTS heading for any other listing is included in the listing for electronic items not otherwise listed.

(4) Rules for listing products. Products are listed in the Table in accordance with the following rules:

(i) Listing in part I. A product is listed in part I of the Table if it is a mixture containing ODCs. In addition, a product other than a mixture containing ODCs will be listed in part I of a revised Table if the Commissioner has determined that—

(A) The ODC weight of the product is not de minimis when the product is produced using the predominant method of manufacturing the product; and

(B) None of the ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of the product under the predominant method are used for purposes of refrigeration or air conditioning, creating an aerosol or foam, or manufacturing electronic components.

(ii) Listing in part II. A product is listed in part II of the Table if the Commissioner has determined that the ODCs used as materials in the manufacture of the product under the predominant method are used for purposes of refrigeration or air conditioning, creating an aerosol or foam, or manufacturing electronic components.

(iii) Listing in part III. A product is listed in part III of the Table if the Commissioner has determined that the product is not an imported taxable product and the product would otherwise be included within a listing in part II of the Table. For example, floppy disk drive units are listed in part III because they are not imported taxable products and they would, but for their listing in part III, be included within the part II listing for electronic items not specifically identified.

(5) Table ODC weight. The Table ODC weight of a product is the weight, determined by the Commissioner, of the ODCs that are used as materials in the manufacture of the product under the predominant method of manufacturing. The Table ODC weight is given in pounds per single unit of product unless otherwise specified.

(6) Table. The Table is set forth below:

Imported Products Table

Product name | Harmonized tariff schedule heading | ODC | ODC weight

Part I—Products that are mixtures containing ODCs:

Mixtures containing ODCs, including but not limited to:

—anti-static sprays

—automotive products such as “carburetor cleaner,” “stop leak,” and “oil charge”

—cleaning solvents

—contact cleaners

—degreasers

—dusting sprays

—electronic circuit board coolants

—electronic solvents

—ethylene oxide/CFC-12

—fire extinguisher preparations and charges

—flux removers for electronics

—insect and wasp sprays

—mixtures of ODCs

—propellants

—refrigerants

Product name | Harmonized tariff schedule heading | ODC | ODC weight

Part II—Products in which ODCs are used for purposes of refrigeration or air conditioning, creating an aerosol or form or manufacturing electronic components:

Rigid foam insulation defined in § 52.4682-1(d)(3)

Foams made with ODCs, other than foams defined in § 52.4682-1(d)(3)

Scrap flexible foams made with ODCs

Medical products containing ODCs:

Surgical staplers

Cryogenic medical instruments

Drug delivery systems

Inhalants

Dehumidifiers, household | 8415.82.00.50 | CFC-12 | 0.344

Chillers: | 8415.82.00.65

Charged with CFC-12 | CFC-12 | 1600.

Charged with CFC-114 | CFC-114 | 1250.

Charged with R-500 | CFC-12 | 1920.

Refrigerator-freezers, household:

Not >184 liters | 8418.10.00.10 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 11.08 0.13

>184 liters but not >269 liters | 8418.10.00.20 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 11.32 0.26

>269 liters but not >382 liters | 8418.10.00.30 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 11.54 0.35

>382 liters | 8418.10.00.40 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 11.87 0.35

Refrigerators, household:

Not >184 liters | 8418.21.00.10 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 11.08 0.13

>184 liters but not >269 liters | 8418.21.00.20 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 11.32 0.26

>269 liters but not >382 liters | 8418.21.00.30 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 11.54 0.35

>382 liters | 8418.21.00.90 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 11.87 0.35

Freezers, household | 8418.30 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 1 2.0 0.4

Freezers, household | 8418.40 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 12.0 0.4

Refrigerating display counters not >227 kg | 8418.50 | CFC-11 CFC-12 | 1 50.0 260.0

Icemaking machines | 8418.69

Charged with CFC-12 | CFC-12 | 1.4

Charged with R-502 | CFC-115 | 3.39

Drinking water coolers | 8418.69

Charged with CFC-12 | CFC-12 | 0.21

Charged with R-500 | CFC-12 | 0.22

Centrifugal chillers, hermetic | 8418.69

Charged with CFC-12 | CFC-12 | 1600.

Charged with CFC-114 | CFC-114 | 1250.

Charged with R-500 | CFC-12 | 1920.

Reciprocating chillers | 8418.69

Charged with CFC-12 | CFC-12 | 200.

Mobile refrigeration systems | 8418.99

Containers | CFC-12 | 15.

Trucks | CFC-12 | 11.

Trailers | CFC-12 | 20.

Refrigeration condensing units:

not >746W | 8418.99.00.05 | CFC-12 | 0.3

>746W but not >2.2KW | 8418.99.00.10 | CFC-12 | 1.0

>2.2KW but not >7.5KW | 8418.99.00.15 | CFC-12 | 3.0

>7.5KW but not >22.3KW | 8418.99.00.20 | CFC-12 | 8.5

>22.3 KW | 8418.99.00.25 | CFC-12 | 17.0

Fire extinguishers, charged w/ODCs | 8424

Electronic typewriters and word processors | 8469 | CFC-113 | 0.2049

Electronic calculators | 8470.10 | CFC-113 | 0.0035

Electronic calculators w/printing device | 8470.21 | CFC-113 | 0.0057

Electronic calculators | 8470.29 | CFC-113 | 0.0035

Account machines | 8470.40 | CFC-113 | 0.1913

Cash registers | 8470.50 | CFC-113 | 0.1913

Digital automatic data processing machines w/cathode ray tube, not included in subheading 8471.20.00.90 | 8471.20 | CFC-113 | 0.3663

Laptops, notebooks, and pocket computers | 8471.20.00.90 | CFC-113 | 0.03567

Digital processing units w/entry value:

Not >$100K | 8471.91 | CFC-113 | 0.4980

>$100K | 8471.91 | CFC-113 | 27.6667

Combined input/output units (terminals) | 8471.92 | CFC-113 | 0.3600

Keyboards | 8471.92 | CFC-113 | 0.0742

Display units | 8471.92 | CFC-113 | 0.0386

Printer units | 8471.92 | CFC-113 | 0.1558

lnput or output units | 8471.92 | CFC-113 | 0.1370

Hard magnetic disk drive units not included in subheading 8471.93.10 for a disk of a diameter:

Not >9 cm (3 1/2 inches) | 8471.93 | CFC-113 | 0.2829

>9 cm (3 1/2 inches) but not >21 cm (8 1/4 inches) | 8471.93 | CFC-113 | 1.1671

Nonmagnetic storage units w/ entry value >$1,000 | 8471.93 | CFC-113 | 2.7758

Magnetic disk drive units for a disk of a diameter over 21 cm (8 1/4 inches) | 8471.93.10 | CFC-113 | 4.0067

Power supplies | 8471.99.30 | CFC-113 | 0.0655

Electronic office machines | 8472 | CFC-113 | 0.001

Populated cards for digital processing units in subheading 8471.91 w/value:

Not >$100K | 8473.30 | CFC-113 | 0.1408

>$100K | 8473.30 | CFC-113 | 4.82

Automatic goods-vending machines with refrigerating device | 8476.11 | CFC-12 | 0.45

Microwave ovens with electronic controls, with capacity of | 8516.50

0.99 cu. ft. or less | CFC-113 | 0.0300

1.0 through 1.3 cu. ft | CFC-113 | 0.0441

1.31 cu. ft. or greater | CFC-113 | 0.0485

Microwave oven combinations with electronic controls | 8516.60.40.60 | CFC-113 | 0.0595

Telephone sets w/entry value:

Not >$11.00 | 8517.10 | CFC-113 | 0.0225

>$11.00 | 8517.10 | CFC-113 | 0.1

Teleprinters and teletypewriters | 8517.20 | CFC-113 | 0.1

Switching equipment not included in subheading 8517.30.20 | 8517.30 | CFC-113 | 0.1267

Private branch exchange switching equipment | 8517.30.20 | CFC-113 | 0.0753

Modems | 8517.40 | CFC-113 | 0.0225

Intercoms | 8517.81 | CFC-113 | 0.0225

Facsimile machines | 85l7.82 | CFC-113 | 0.0225

Loudspeakers, microphones, headphones, and electric sound amplifier sets, not included in subheading 8518.30.10 | 8518 | CFC-113 | 0.0022

Telephone handsets | 8518.30.10 | CFC-113 | 0.042

Turntables, record players, cassette players, and other sound reproducing apparatus | 8519 | CFC-113 | 0.0022

Magnetic tape recorders and other sound recording apparatus, not included in subheading 8520.20 | 8520 | CFC-113 | 0.0022

Telephone answering machines | 8520.20 | CFC-113 | 0.1

Color video recording/reproducing apparatus | 8521.10.00.20 | CFC-113 | 0.0586

Videodisc players | 8521.90 | CFC-113 | 0.0106

Cordless handset telephones | 8525.20.50 | CFC-113 | 0.1

Cellular communication equipment | 8525.20.60 | CFC-113 | 0.4446

TV cameras | 8525.30 | CFC-113 | 1.423

Camcorders | 8525.30 | CFC-113 | 0.0586

Radio combinations | 8527.11 | CFC-113 | 0.0022

Radios | 8527.19 | CFC-113 | 0.0014

Motor Vehicle radios with or w/o tape player | 8527.21 | CFC-113 | 0.0021

Radio combinations | 8527.31 | CFC-113 | 0.0022

Radios | 8527.32 | CFC-113 | 0.0014

Tuners w/o speaker | 8527.39.00.20 | CFC-113 | 0.0022

Television receivers | 8528 | CFC-113 | 0.0386

VCRs | 8528.10.40 | CFC-113 | 0.0586

Home satellite earth stations | 8528.10.80.55 | CFC-113 | 0.0106

Electronic assemblies for HTS headings 8525, 8527, & 8528 | 8529.90 | CFC-113 | 0.0816

Indicator panels incorporating liquid crystal devices or light emitting diodes | 8531.20 | CFC-113 | 0.0146

Printed circuits | 8534 | CFC-113 | 0.001

Computerized numerical controls | 8537.10.00.30 | CFC-113 | 0.1306

Diodes, crystals, transistors and other similar discrete semiconductor devices | 8541 | CFC-113 | 0.0001

Electronic integrated circuits and microassemblies | 8542 | CFC-113 | 0.0002

Signal generators | 8543.20 | CFC-113 | 0.6518

Avionics | 8543.90.40 | CFC-113 | 0.915

Signal generators subassemblies | 8543.90.80 | CFC-113 | 0.1265

Insulated or refrigerated railway freight cars | 8606 | CFC-11 | 1100.

Passenger automobiles | 8703

Foams (interior) | CFC-11 | 0.8

Foams (exterior) | CFC-11 | 0.7

With charged a/c | CFC-12 | 2.0

Without charged a/c | CFC-12 | 0.2

Electronics | CFC-113 | 0.5

Light trucks | 8704

Foams (interior) | CFC-11 | 0.6

Foams (exterior) | CFC-11 | 0.1

With charged a/c | CFC-12 | 2.0

Without charged a/c | CFC-12 | 0.2

Electronics | CFC-113 | 0.4

Heavy trucks and tractors, GVW 33,001 lbs or more: 2 | 8704

Foams (interior) | CFC-11 | 0.6

Foams (exterior) | CFC-11 | 0.1

With charged a/c | CFC-12 | 3.0

Without charged a/c | CFC-12 | 0.2

Electronics | CFC-113 | 0.4

Motorcycles with seat foamed with ODCs | 8711 | CFC-11 | 0.04

Bicycles with seat foamed with ODCs | 8712 | CFC-11 | 0.04

Seats foamed with ODCs | 8714.95 | CFC-11 | 0.04

Aircraft | 8802 | CFC-12 | 0.25 lb/1000 lbs Operating Empty Weight (OEW).

CFC-113 | 30.0 lbs./1000 lbs.OEW

Optical fibers | 9001 | CFC-12 | 0.005 lb/thousand feet.

Electronic cameras | 9006 | CFC-113 | 0.01

Photocopiers | 9009 | CFC-113 | 0.0426

Avionics | 9014.20 | CFC-113 | 0.915

Electronic drafting machines | 9017 | CFC-113 | 0.12

Complete patient monitoring systems | 9018.19.80 | CFC-12 CFC-113 | 0.94 3.4163

Complete patient monitoring systems; subassemblies thereof | 9018.19.80.60 | CFC-113 | 1.9320

Physical or chemical analysis instruments | 9027 | CFC-12 CFC-113 | 0.0003 0.0271

Oscilloscopes | 9030 | CFC-11 CFC-12 CFC-113 | 0.49 0.5943 0.2613

Foam chairs | 9401 | CFC-11 | 0.30

Foam sofas | 9401 | CFC-11 | 0.75

Foam mattresses | 9404.21 | CFC-11 | 1.60

Electronic games and electronic components thereof | 9504 | CFC-113

Electronic items not otherwise listed in the Table:

Included in HTS chapters 84, 85, 90 | CFC-113 | 0.0004 pound/$1.00 of entry value.

Not included in HTS chapters 84, 85, 90 3 | CFC-113 | 0.0004 pound/$1.00 of entry value.

PART III—Products that are not Imported Taxable Products:

Room air conditioners | 8415.10.00.60

Dishwashers | 8422.11

Clothes washers | 8450.11

Clothes dryers | 8451.21

Floppy disk drive units | 8471.93

Transformers and inductors | 8504

Toasters | 8516.72

Unrecorded media | 8523

Recorded media | 8524

Capacitors | 8532

Resistors | 8533

Switching apparatus | 8536

Cathode tubes | 8540

1 See paragraph (e)(3)(ii)(C) of this section. Denotes an ODC used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation.

2 See paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section. Denotes product for which the effective date is October 1, 1990.

3 See paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(B) of this section. Denotes products for which the effective date is January 1, 1992.

(g) Requests for modification of Table—(1) In general. Any manufacturer or importer of a product may request that the Secretary modify the Table in any of the following respects:

(i) Adding a product to the Table and specifying its Table ODC weight.

(ii) Removing a product from the Table.

(iii) Changing or specifying the Table ODC weight of a product.

(2) Form of request. The Secretary will consider a request for modification that includes the following:

(i) The name, address, taxpayer identifying number, and principal place of business of the requester.

(ii) For each product with respect to which a modification is requested:

(A) The name of the product;

(B) The HTS heading or subheading;

(C) The type of modification requested;

(D) The Table ODC weight that should be specified for the product if the request relates to adding a product or changing or specifying its Table ODC weight; and

(E) The data supporting the request.

(3) Address. The address for submission of requests under this paragraph (g) is: Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Attn: CC:CORP:T:R (Imported Products Table), room 5228, Washington, DC 20044.

(4) Public inspection and copying. Requests submitted under this paragraph (g) will be available in the Internal Revenue Service Freedom of Information Reading Room for public inspection and copying.

[T.D. 8370, 56 FR 56311, Nov. 4, 1991, as amended by T.D. 8370, 58 FR 14518, Mar. 18, 1993]

§ 52.4682-4 Floor stocks tax.

(a) Overview. This section provides rules for identifying ozone-depleting chemicals (ODCs) that are subject to the floor stocks tax imposed by section 4682(h)(1), determining the person that is liable for the tax, and computing the amount of the tax. See § 52.4681-1(a)(3) and (c) for general rules and definitions relating to the floor stocks tax.

(b) Identifying rules—(1) ODCs subject to floor stocks tax; ODCs held for sale or for use in further manufacture—(i) In general. The floor stocks tax is imposed only on an ODC that is held for sale or for use in further manufacture on the date the tax is imposed. This paragraph (b)(1) provides rules for identifying ODCs held for sale or for use in further manufacture.

(ii) Held for sale—(A) In general. For purposes of determining whether an ODC is held for sale, the term sale shall have the meaning set forth in § 52.4681-1(c)(6). ODCs held for sale include ODCs that will be sold in connection with the provision of services or in connection with the sale of a manufactured article and, in such cases, include ODCs that will be sold without the statement of a separate charge for those ODCs.

(B) ODCs held by a government. An ODC that is held by a government for its own use is not held for sale even if the ODC will be transferred between agencies or other subdivisions that have or are required to have different employer identification numbers.

(iii) Held for use in further manufacture. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section, an ODC is held for use in further manufacture if—

(A) The ODC will be used as a material (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section) in the manufacture of an article; and

(B) Such article will be held for sale.

(iv) Use as material—(A) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B) of this section, an ODC will be used as a material in the manufacture of an article if the ODC will be—

(1) Incorporated into the article; or

(2) Released into the atmosphere in the process of manufacturing the article.

(B) ODCs used in equipment. For purposes of the floor stocks tax, an ODC is not used as a material in the manufacture of an article if the ODC is (or will be) contained in equipment used in such manufacture and the ODC will be used for its intended purpose without being released from such equipment. Thus, ODCs that are (or will be) used as coolants in a factory's air-conditioning system are not used as materials in the manufacture of articles produced in the factory.

(v) Storage containers. The floor stocks tax is imposed on an ODC without regard to the type or size of the storage container in which the ODC is held. Thus, the tax may apply to an ODC whether it is in a 14-ounce can or a 30-pound tank.

(vi) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (b)(1) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A, a manufacturer of air conditioners, holds an ODC for use in air conditioners that it will manufacture and sell. A holds the ODC for use in further manufacture.

Example 2.B, a manufacturer of electronic components, holds an ODC for use as a solvent to clean printed circuits that it will sell to computer manufacturers. B holds the ODC for use in further manufacture.

Example 3.C, an automobile dealer, holds an ODC for use in charging air conditioners installed in automobiles that it sells to retail customers. C does not hold the ODC for use in further manufacture. C does, however, hold the ODC for sale, even if the customers are not separately charged for ODCs used in the automobile air conditioners.

Example 4.D operates an air-conditioning repair service and holds an ODC for use in repairing air conditioners for its customers. D holds the ODC for sale even if the customers are not separately charged for ODCs used in the repairs.

Example 5.E, a grocery-store chain, holds an ODC for use in its refrigeration units. E does not hold the ODC for sale or for use in further manufacture.

Example 6.F, a bank, holds an ODC for use in its fire extinguishers to protect the computer system. F does not hold the ODC for sale or for use in further manufacture.

Example 7.G, a government agency, holds an ODC for use in the refrigeration equipment of its various units. The units have separate employer identification numbers. The ODC is stored in a central warehouse until needed by a unit and then transferred to the unit upon request. G does not hold the ODC for sale or for use in further manufacture.

(2)(i) Mixtures—(A) Tax imposed on January 1, 1990. In the case of the floor stocks tax imposed on January l, 1990, the tax is not imposed on an ODC that has been mixed with any other ingredients.

(B) Taxes imposed after 1990—(1) In general. In the case of the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1 of a calendar year after 1990, the tax is not imposed on an ODC that has been mixed with any other ingredients, but only if it is established that such ingredients contribute to the accomplishment of the purpose for which the mixture will be used. A mixture is not exempt from tax under this paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B), however, if it contains only an ODC and an inert ingredient that does not contribute to the accomplishment of the purpose for which the mixture will be used.

(2) Exception. In the case of a floor stocks tax imposed on or after January 1, 1992, a mixture is not exempt from floor stocks tax under this paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) if it contains only ODCs and one or more stabilizers. For this purpose, the term stabilizer means an ingredient needed to maintain the chemical integrity of the ODC.

(C) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (b)(2)(i) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.The floor stocks tax is not imposed on the ODCs contained in refrigerants such as R-500 and R-502 because such products are mixtures of ODCs and other chemicals that contribute to the accomplishment of the purpose for which the mixture will be used.

Example 2.The floor stocks tax is not imposed on the ODCs contained in automotive products used for checking for leaks because such products are a mixture of ODCs and small amounts of dyes and oils that contribute to the accomplishment of the purpose for which the mixture will be used.

Example 3.The floor stocks tax is not imposed on Halon 1301 pressurized with nitrogen. Although nitrogen is an inert ingredient, it contributes to the accomplishment of the purpose for which the mixture will be used.

Example 4.On January 1, 1993, the floor stocks tax is imposed on methyl chloroform that is stabilized to prevent hydrolization or chemical reaction during transportation or use, unless the stabilized methyl chloroform has also been mixed with other ingredients that contribute to the accomplishment of the purpose for which the mixture will be used.

(ii) Manufactured articles. The floor stocks tax is not imposed on an ODC that is contained in a manufactured article in which the ODC will be used for its intended purpose without being released from such article. For example, the tax is not imposed on the ODCs contained in the cooling coils of a refrigerator even if the refrigerator is held for sale. However, the tax is imposed on a can of ODC used to recharge an air conditioning unit because the ODC must be expelled from the can in order to be used. Similarly, beginning in 1991, the tax is imposed on Halons contained in a fire extinguisher held for sale because such ODCs must be expelled from the fire extinguisher in order to be used.

(iii) Recycled ODCs. The floor stocks tax is not imposed on ODCs that have been reclaimed or recycled. For example, the tax is not imposed on an ODC that is held for use in further manufacture after being used as a solvent and recycled.

(iv) ODCs held by the manufacturer or importer. The floor stocks tax is not imposed on ODCs held by their manufacturer or importer.

(v) ODCs used as a feedstock—(A) In general. The floor stocks tax is not imposed on any ODC that was sold in a qualifying sale for use as a feedstock (as defined in § 52.4682-1(c)).

(B) Post-1989 ODCs sold before January 1, 1990; post-1990 ODCs sold before January 1, 1991. A post-1989 ODC that was sold by its manufacturer or importer before January 1, 1990, or a post-1990 ODC that was sold by its manufacturer or importer before January 1, 1991, shall be treated, for purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(v), as an ODC that was sold in a qualifying sale for purposes of § 52.4682-1(c) if the ODC will be used as a feedstock (within the meaning of § 52.4682-2(c)(3)).

(vi) ODCs to be exported—(A) In general. The floor stocks tax is not imposed on any ODC that was sold in a qualifying sale for export (as defined in § 52.4682-5(d)(1)).

(B) ODCs sold before January 1, 1993. An ODC that was sold by its manufacturer or importer before January 1, 1993, is treated, for purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(vi), as an ODC that was sold in a qualifying sale for export for purposes of § 52.4682-5(d)(1) if the ODC will be exported.

(vii) ODCs used as propellants in metered-dose inhalers; years after 1992—(A) In general. The floor stocks tax is not imposed on January 1 of calendar years after 1992 on any ODC that was sold in a qualifying sale for use as a propellant in a metered-dose inhaler (as defined in § 52.4682-1(h)).

(B) ODCs sold before January 1, 1993. An ODC that was sold by its manufacturer or importer before January 1, 1993, is treated, for purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(vii), as an ODC that was sold in a qualifying sale for purposes of § 52.4682-1(h) if the ODC will be used as a propellant in a metered-dose inhaler (within the meaning of § 52.4682-1(h)).

(viii) ODCs used as medical sterilants; 1993. The floor stocks tax is not imposed in 1993 on any ODC held for use as a medical sterilant (as defined in § 52.4682-1(g)).

(c) Person liable for tax—(1) In general. The person liable for the floor stocks tax on an ODC is the person that holds the ODC on a date on which the tax is imposed. The person who holds the ODC is the person who has title to the ODC (whether or not delivery to such person has been made) as of the first moment of such date. The person who has title at such time is determined under applicable local law.

(2) Special rule. Each business unit that has, or is required to have, its own employer identification number is treated as a separate person for purposes of the floor stocks tax. For example, a chain of automotive parts stores that has one employer identification number is one person for purposes of the floor stocks tax, and a parent corporation and subsidiary corporation that each have a different employer identification number are two persons for purposes of the floor stocks tax.

(d) Computation of tax; tentative tax amount—(1) In general—(i) Generally applicable rules. This paragraph (d) provides rules for determining the tentative tax amount and the amount of the floor stocks tax. Section 52.4681-1(a)(3) provides that the amount of the floor stocks tax on an ODC is determined by reference to a tentative tax amount. The tentative tax amount is the amount of tax that would be imposed on the ODC under section 4681(a)(1) if a sale of the ODC by the manufacturer or importer had occurred on the date the floor stocks tax is imposed. The amount of the floor stocks tax imposed on the ODCs contained in a nonexempt mixture is computed on the basis of the weight of the ODCs in that mixture.

(ii) Floor stocks tax imposed on post-1989 ODCs on January 1, 1990. The floor stocks tax imposed on post-1989 ODCs (as defined in § 52.4681-1(c)(9)) on January 1, 1990, is equal to the tentative tax amount. See paragraph (d)(2) of this section for rules relating to the floor stocks tax imposed on ODCs used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation. See paragraph (d)(3) of this section for rules relating to the floor stocks tax imposed on Halons.

(iii) Floor stocks tax imposed on post-1990 ODCs on January 1, 1991. The floor stocks tax imposed on post-1990 ODCs (as defined in § 52.4681-1(c)(9)) on January 1, 1991, is equal to the tentative tax amount.

(iv) Other floor stocks taxes—(A) In general. The following rules apply for floor stocks taxes imposed on post-1989 ODCs after January 1, 1990, and on post-1990 ODCs after January 1, 1991:

(1) The tentative tax amount is determined, except as provided in paragraph (d)(2), (3), or (4) of this section, by reference to the rate of tax prescribed in section 4681(b)(1)(B) and the ozone-depletion factors prescribed in section 4682(b).

(2) The amount of the floor stocks tax on an ODC is equal to the amount by which the tentative tax amount exceeds the amount of taxes previously imposed on the ODC.

(B) Example. The application of this paragraph (d)(1)(iv) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.The floor stocks tax imposed on one pound of CFC-12 held for sale on January 1, 1992, is $0.30 (the amount by which $1.67, the tentative tax, exceeds $1.37, the tax previously imposed on CFC-12).

(2) ODCs used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation; 1990, 1991, 1992, and 1993—(i) In general. In the case of an ODC that was sold in a qualifying sale for purposes of § 52.4682-1(d) (relating to use in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation) the tentative tax amount is determined under section 4682(g) for purposes of computing the floor stocks tax imposed on the ODC on January 1, 1990, 1991, 1992 or 1993. For purposes of computing the floor stocks tax imposed on the ODC on January 1, 1990, the tentative tax amount is zero. The floor stocks tax is not imposed on ODCs for use in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation in 1992 and 1993.

(ii) Post-1989 ODCs sold before January 1, 1990; post-1990 ODCs sold before January 1, 1991. A post-1989 ODC that was sold by its manufacturer or importer before January 1, 1990, or a post-1990 ODC that was sold by its manufacturer or importer before January 1, 1991, shall be treated, for purposes of paragraphs (d)(2) and (e) of this section, as an ODC that was sold in a qualifying sale for purposes of § 52.4682-1(d) if the ODC wi11 be used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation (within the meaning of §§ 52.4682-1(d) (3) and (4)).

(3) Halons; 1990, 1991, 1992, and 1993. In the case of Halon-1211, Halon-1301, or Halon-2402 (Halons), the tentative tax amount is determined under section 4682(g) for purposes of computing the floor stocks tax imposed on Halons on January 1, 1990, 1991, 1992, or 1993. For purposes of computing the floor stocks tax imposed on Halons on January 1, 1990, the tentative tax amount is zero. The floor stocks tax is not imposed on Halons in 1992 and 1993.

(4) Methyl chloroform; 1993. In the case of methyl chloroform, the tentative tax amount is determined under section 4682(g)(5) for purposes of computing the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1993.

(e) De minimis exception—(1) 1990 and 1992. In the case of the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1990 or 1992, a person is liable for the tax only if, on the date the tax is imposed, the person holds at least 400 pounds of post-1989 ODCs that are not described in paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax.

(2) 1991. In the case of the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1991, a person is liable for the tax only if, on such date, the person holds at least 400 pounds of ODCs subject to the 1991 floor stocks tax. For this purpose, ODCs subject to the 1991 floor stocks tax are—

(i) Post-1990 ODCs that are subject to tax; and

(ii) Post-1989 ODCs that are described in paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax.

(3) 1993. In the case of the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1993, a person is liable for the tax only if, on such date, the person holds at least 400 pounds of ODCs that are not described in paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax.

(4) 1994. In the case of the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1994, a person is liable for the tax only if, on such date, the person holds—

(i) At least 400 pounds of ODCs that are not described in paragraph (d)(2) or (d)(3) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax;

(ii) At least 200 pounds of ODCs that are described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax; or

(iii) At least 20 pounds of ODCs that are described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax.

(5) Calendar years after 1994. In the case of the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1 of 1995 and each following calendar year, a person is liable for the tax only if, on such date, the person holds—

(i) At least 400 pounds of ODCs that are not described in paragraph (d)(3) or (d)(4) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax;

(ii) At least 50 pounds of ODCs that are described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax; or

(iii) At least 1000 pounds of ODCs that are described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section and are otherwise subject to tax.

(6) Examples. The rules of this paragraph (e) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On January 1, 1990, A holds for sale 300 pounds of CFC-12 (a post-1989 ODC not described in paragraph (d)(2) or (d)(3) of this section)) and 500 pounds of R-500 (a mixture). A does not hold at least 400 pounds of ODCs that are taken into account under paragraph (e)(1) of this section and, under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, mixtures are not subject to the floor stocks tax. Thus, A is not liable for the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1990.

Example 2.On January 1, 1990, B holds for sale 250 pounds of CFC-12 and 250 pounds of CFC-113 (post-1989 ODCs not described in paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this section). B holds 500 pounds of ODCs that are taken into account under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. Thus, B is liable for the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1990, because B holds at least 400 pounds of ODCs for sale.

Example 3.On January 1, 1990, C holds 200 pounds of post-1990 ODCs and 500 pounds of post-1989 ODCs for use in further manufacture. C will use 300 pounds of the post-1989 ODCs in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation (as defined in § 52.4682-1(d) (3) and (4)). The remainder of the ODCs are not described in paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this section. Under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, post-1990 ODCs and ODCs that will be used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation are disregarded in determining whether the de minimis exception is applicable in 1990. Thus, C holds only 200 pounds of ODCs that are taken into account under paragraph (e)(1) of this section and is not liable for the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1990.

Example 4. (a) The facts are the same as in Example 3, except that the ODCs are held on January 1, 1991. Under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the 200 pounds of post-1990 ODCs and the 300 pounds of post-1989 ODCs that will be used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation are taken into account in determining whether the de minimis exception is applicable in 1991. Under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the remaining 200 pounds of post-1989 ODCs are not taken into account because the base tax amount applicable to post-1989 ODCs does not increase in 1991. Thus, C holds 500 pounds of ODCs that are taken into account under paragraph (e)(2) of this section and is liable for the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1991.

(b) The amount of the floor stocks tax imposed on the 200 pounds of post-1990 ODCs and the 300 pounds of post-1989 ODCs that will be used in the manufacture of rigid foam insulation is equal to the tentative tax amount because those ODCs were not previously subject to tax.

Example 5. (a) On January 1, 1994, D holds for sale 300 pounds of CFC-113 (an ODC not described in paragraph (d)(2) or (d)(3) of this section) and 25 pounds of Halon-1301 (an ODC described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section). D is liable for the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1994, because 25 pounds of Halon-1301 exceeds the de minimis amount specified in paragraph (e)(4)(iii) of this section. The 300 pounds of CFC-113 is less than the amount specified in paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section. Nevertheless, tax is imposed on both the 25 pounds of Halon-1301 and the 300 pounds of CFC-113.

(b) The amount of the floor stocks tax is determined separately for the 300 pounds of CFC-113 and the 25 pounds of Halon-1301 and is equal to the difference between the tentative tax amount and the amount of tax previously imposed on those ODCs. For Halon-1301, for example, the tax is determined as follows. The tentative tax amount is $1,087.50 ($4.35 (the base tax amount in 1994) × 10 (the ozone-depletion factor for Halon-1301) × 25 (the number of pounds held)). The tax previously imposed on the Halon-1301 is $6.28 ($3.35 (the base tax amount in 1993) × 10 (the ozone-depletion factor for Halon-1301) × 0.75 percent (the applicable percentage determined under section 4682(g)(2)(A)) × 25 (the number of pounds held)). Thus, the floor stocks tax imposed on the 25 pounds of Halon-1301 in 1994 is $1,081.22, the difference between $1,087.50 (the tentative tax amount) and $6.28 (the tax previously imposed).

(f) Inventory—(1) In general. If, on the date on which the floor stocks tax is imposed, a person holds ODCs for sale or for use in further manufacture and the ODCs were not manufactured or imported by such person, the following rules apply:

(i) The person shall prepare an inventory of all such ODCs that the person holds on the date on which the tax is imposed.

(ii) The inventory shall be taken as of the first moment of the date on which the tax is imposed, but work-back or work-forward inventories will be acceptable if supported by adequate commercial records of receipt, use, and disposition of ODCs held for sale or for use in further manufacture.

(iii) The person must maintain records of the inventory and make such records available for inspection and copying by internal revenue agents and officers. Records of the inventory are not to be filed with the Internal Revenue Service.

(2) Circumstances in which an inventory is not required. The inventory requirement of paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to any person holding, on a date on which floor stocks tax is imposed, only ODCs that are not subject to tax by reason of a statutory exemption (e.g., use as a feedstock) or regulatory exclusion other than the de minimis exception provided by paragraph (e) of this section (e.g., mixtures). In addition, any person that holds ODCs subject to the floor stocks tax and also holds ODCs that are nontaxable under the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, is not required to inventory the nontaxable ODCs. However, any person that holds any ODCs that either are subject to the floor stocks tax or would be subject to the floor stocks tax but for the de minimis exception must inventory those ODCs.

(3) Examples. The rules of this paragraph (f) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On January 1, 1990, A holds for sale 300 pounds of CFC-12 (a post-1989 ODC not described in paragraph (d)(2) or (d)(3) of this section) and 500 pounds of R-500 (a mixture). As required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section, A must prepare an inventory of the CFC-12 A holds for sale on that date even though, under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the 300 pounds of CFC-12 is not taken into account because it is de minimis. However, as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, A is not required to inventory the R-500 because, under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, mixtures are not subject to the floor stocks tax.

Example 2.On January 1, 1991, B holds for sale 1,000 pounds of CFC-12 (a post-1989 ODC not described in paragraph (d)(2) or (d)(3) of this section). As provided under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, B is not required to prepare an inventory because CFC-12 is not subject to the floor stocks tax in 1991.

(g) Time for paying tax. The floor stocks tax imposed under section 4682(h) shall be paid without assessment or notice. In the case of the floor stocks tax imposed on January 1, 1990, the tax shall be paid by April 1, 1990. In the case of floor stocks taxes imposed after January 1, 1990, the tax shall be paid by June 30 of the year in which the tax is imposed.

[T.D. 8370, 56 FR 56317, Nov. 4, 1991, as amended by T.D. 8622, 60 FR 52852, Oct. 11, 1995]

§ 52.4682-5 Exports.

(a) Overview. This section provides rules relating to the tax imposed under section 4681 on ozone-depleting chemicals (ODCs) that are exported. In general, tax is not imposed on ODCs that a manufacturer or importer sells for export, or for resale by the purchaser to a second purchaser for export, if the procedural requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section are met. The tax benefit of this exemption is limited, however, to the manufacturer's or importer's exemption amount. Thus, if the tax that would otherwise be imposed under section 4681 on ODCs that a manufacturer or importer sells for export exceeds this exemption amount, a tax equal to the excess is imposed on the ODCs. The exemption amount, which is determined separately for post-1989 ODCs and post-1990 ODCs, is calculated for each calendar year in accordance with the rules of paragraph (c) of this section. This section also provides rules under which a tax imposed under section 4681 on exported ODCs may be credited or refunded, subject to the same limit on tax benefits, if the procedural requirements set forth in paragraph (f) of this section are met. See § 52.4681-1(c) for definitions relating to the tax on ODCs.

(b) Exemption or partial exemption from tax—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, no tax is imposed on an ODC if the manufacturer or importer of the ODC sells the ODC in a qualifying sale for export (within the meaning of paragraph (d)(1) of this section).

(2) Tax imposed if exemption amount exceeded—(i) Post-1989 ODCs. The tax imposed on post-1989 ODCs that a manufacturer or importer sells in qualifying sales for export during a calendar year is equal to the excess (if any) of—

(A) The tax that would be imposed on the ODCs but for section 4682(d)(3) and this section; over

(B) The post-1989 ODC exemption amount for the calendar year determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(ii) Post-1990 ODCs. The tax imposed on post-1990 ODCs that a manufacturer or importer sells in qualifying sales for export during a calendar year is equal to the excess (if any) of—

(A) The tax that would be imposed on the ODCs but for section 4682(d)(3) and this section; over

(B) The post-1990 ODC exemption amount for the calendar year determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(iii) Allocation of tax—(A) Post-1989 ODCs. The tax (if any) determined under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section may be allocated among the post-1989 ODCs on which it is imposed in any manner, provided that the amount allocated to any post-1989 ODC does not exceed the tax that would be imposed on such ODC but for section 4682(d)(3) and this section.

(B) Post-1990 ODCs. The tax (if any) determined under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section may be allocated among the post-1990 ODCs on which it is imposed in any manner, provided that the amount allocated to any post-1990 ODC does not exceed the tax that would be imposed on such ODC but for section 4682(d)(3) and this section.

(c) Exemption amount—(1) Post-1989 ODC exemption amount. A manufacturer's or importer's post-1989 ODC exemption amount for a calendar year is the sum of the following amounts:

(i) The 1986 export percentage of the aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and this section) be imposed under section 4681 on the maximum quantity, determined without regard to additional production allowances, of post-1989 ODCs that the person is permitted to manufacture during the calendar year under rules prescribed by the Environmental Protection Agency (40 CFR part 82).

(ii) The aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and this section) be imposed under section 4681 on post-1989 ODCs that the person manufactures during the calendar year under any additional production allowance granted by the Environmental Protection Agency.

(iii) The aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and this section) be imposed under section 4681 on post-1989 ODCs imported by the person during the calendar year.

(2) Post-1990 ODC exemption amount. A manufacturer's or importer's post-1990 ODC exemption amount for a calendar year is the sum of the following amounts:

(i) The 1989 export percentage of the aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and this section) be imposed under section 4681 on the maximum quantity, determined without regard to additional production allowances, of post-1990 ODCs the person is permitted to manufacture during the calendar year under rules prescribed by the Environmental Protection Agency.

(ii) The aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and this section) be imposed under section 4681 on post-1990 ODCs that the person manufactures during the calendar year under any additional production allowance granted by the Environmental Protection Agency.

(iii) The aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and this section) be imposed under section 4681 on post-1990 ODCs imported by the person during the calendar year.

(3) Definitions—(i) 1986 export percentage. See section 4682(d)(3)(B)(ii) for the meaning of the term 1986 export percentage.

(ii) 1989 export percentage. See section 4682(d)(3)(C) for the meaning of the term 1989 export percentage.

(d) Procedural requirements relating to tax-free sales for export—(1) Qualifying sales—(i) In general. A sale of ODCs is a qualifying sale for export if—

(A) The seller is the manufacturer or importer of the ODCs and the purchaser is a purchaser for export or for resale to a second purchaser for export;

(B) At the time of the sale, the seller and the purchaser are registered with the Internal Revenue Service; and

(C) At the time of the sale, the seller—

(1) Has an unexpired certificate in substantially the form set forth in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section from the purchaser; and

(2) Relies on the certificate in good faith.

(ii) Qualifying resale. A sale of ODCs is a qualifying resale for export if—

(A) The seller acquired the ODCs in a qualifying sale for export and the purchaser is a second purchaser for export;

(B) At the time of the sale, the seller and the purchaser are registered with the Internal Revenue Service; and

(C) At the time of the sale, the seller—

(1) Has an unexpired certificate in substantially the form set forth in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(A) of this section from the purchaser of the ODCs; and

(2) Relies on the certificate in good faith.

(iii) Special rule relating to sales made before July 1, 1993. If a sale for export made before July 1, 1993, satisfies all the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section other than those relating to registration, the sale will be treated as a qualifying sale (or resale) for export. Thus, a sale made before July 1, 1993, may be a qualifying sale (or resale) even if the parties to the sale are not registered and the required certificate does not contain statements regarding registration.

(iv) Registration. Application for registration is made on Form 637 (or any other form designated for the same use by the Commissioner) according to the instructions applicable to the form. A person is registered only if the district director has issued that person a letter of registration and it has not been revoked or suspended. The effective date of the registration must be no earlier than the date on which the district director signs the letter of registration. Each business unit that has, or is required to have, a separate employer identification number is treated as a separate person.

(2) Good faith reliance. The requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section are not satisfied with respect to a sale of ODCs and the sale is not a qualifying sale (or resale) if, at the time of the sale—

(i) The seller has reason to believe that the ODCs are not purchased for export; or

(ii) The Internal Revenue Service has notified the seller that the purchaser's registration has been revoked or suspended.

(3) Certificate—(i) In general. The certificate required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section consists of a statement executed and signed under penalties of perjury by a person with authority to bind the purchaser, in substantially the same form as model certificates provided in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, and containing all information necessary to complete such model certificate. A new certificate must be given if any information in the current certificate changes. The certificate may be included as part of any business records normally used to document a sale. The certificate expires on the earliest of the following dates—

(A) The date one year after the effective date of the certificate;

(B) The date the purchaser provides a new certificate to the seller; or

(C) The date the seller is notified by the Internal Revenue Service or the purchaser that the purchaser's registration has been revoked or suspended.

(ii) Model certificates—(A) ODCs sold for export by the purchaser. If the purchaser will export the ODCs, the certificate must be in substantially the following form:

CERTIFICATE OF PURCHASER OF CHEMICALS FOR EXPORT BY THE PURCHASER (To support tax-free sales under section 4682(d)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Effective Date Expiration Date (not more than one year after effective date)

The undersigned purchaser (Purchaser) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

Purchaser is registered with the Internal Revenue Service as a purchaser of ozone-depleting chemicals for export under registration number __________. Purchaser's registration has not been suspended or revoked by the Internal Revenue Service.

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from:

(Name of seller) (Address of seller) (Taxpayer identifying number of seller) are purchased for export by Purchaser.

Product | Percentage

CFC-11 | __________

CFC-12 | __________

CFC-113 | __________

CFC-114 | __________

CFC-115 | __________

Halon-1211 | __________

Halon-1301 | __________

Halon-2402 | __________

Carbon tetrachloride | __________

Methyl chloroform | __________

Other (specify)

______________ | __________

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

______ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ______ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser understands that Purchaser will be liable for tax imposed under section 4681 if Purchaser does not export the ODCs to which this certificate applies.

Purchaser understands that any use of the ODCs to which this certificate applies other than for export may result in the revocation of Purchaser's registration.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the export of the ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its registration has been revoked or suspended.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Name of Purchaser Address of Purchaser Taxpayer Identifying Number of Purchaser Title of person signing Printed or typed name of person signing Signature

(B) ODCs sold by the purchaser for resale for export by the second purchaser. If the purchaser will resell the ODCs to a second purchaser for export by the second purchaser, the certificate must be in substantially the following form:

CERTIFICATE OF PURCHASER OF CHEMICALS FOR RESALE FOR EXPORT BY THE SECOND PURCHASER (To support tax-free sales under section 4682(d)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.) Effective Date Expiration Date (not more than one year after effective date)

The undersigned purchaser (Purchaser) certifies the following under penalties of perjury:

Purchaser is registered with the Internal Revenue Service as a purchaser of ozone-depleting chemicals for export under registration number __________. Purchaser's registration has not been suspended or revoked by the Internal Revenue Service.

The following percentage of ozone-depleting chemicals purchased from:

(Name of seller) (Address of seller) (Taxpayer identifying number of seller) will be resold by Purchaser to persons (Second Purchasers) that certify to Purchaser that they are (1) registered with the Internal Revenue Service as purchasers of ozone-depleting chemicals for export and (2) purchasing the ozone-depleting chemicals for export.

Product | Percentage

CFC-11 | __________

CFC-12 | __________

CFC-113 | __________

CFC-114 | __________

CFC-115 | __________

Halon-1211 | __________

Halon-1301 | __________

Halon-2402 | __________

Carbon tetrachloride | __________

Methyl chloroform | __________

Other (specify)

______________ | __________

This certificate applies to (check and complete as applicable):

______ All shipments to Purchaser at the following location(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following Purchaser account number(s): ______ All shipments to Purchaser under the following purchase order(s): ______ One or more shipments to Purchaser identified as follows:

Purchaser understands that Purchaser will be liable for tax imposed under section 4681 if Purchaser does not resell the ODCs to which this certificate applies to a Second Purchaser for export or export those ODCs.

Purchaser understands that any use of the ODCs to which this certificate applies other than for resale to Second Purchasers for export may result in the revocation of Purchaser's registration.

Purchaser will retain the business records needed to document the sales to Second Purchasers for export covered by this certificate and will make such records available for inspection by Government officers. Purchaser also will retain and make available for inspection by Government officers the certificates of its Second Purchasers.

Purchaser has not been notified by the Internal Revenue Service that its registration has been revoked or suspended. In addition, the Internal Revenue Service has not notified Purchaser of the revocation or suspension of the registration of any Second Purchaser who will purchase ozone-depleting chemicals to which this certificate applies.

Purchaser understands that the fraudulent use of this certificate may subject Purchaser and all parties making such fraudulent use of this certificate to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

Name of Purchaser Address of Purchaser Taxpayer Identifying Number of Purchaser Title of person signing Printed or typed name of person signing Signature

(4) Documentation of export—(i) After December 31, 1992. After December 31, 1992, to document the exportation of any ODCs, a person must have the evidence required by the Environmental Protection Agency as proof that the ODCs were exported.

(ii) Before January 1, 1993. Before January 1, 1993, to document the exportation of any ODCs, a person must have evidence substantially similar to that required by the Environmental Protection Agency as proof that the ODCs were exported.

(e) Purchaser liable for tax—(1) Purchaser in qualifying sale. The purchaser of ODCs in a qualifying sale for export is treated as the manufacturer of the ODC and is liable for any tax imposed under section 4681 (determined without regard to exemptions for qualifying sales under this section or § 52.4682-1) when it sells or uses the ODCs if that purchaser does not-

(i) Export the ODCs and document the exportation of the ODCs in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section; or

(ii) Sell the ODCs in a qualifying resale for export.

(2) Purchaser in qualifying resale. The purchaser of ODCs in a qualifying resale for export is treated as the manufacturer of the ODC and is liable for any tax imposed under section 4681 (determined without regard to exemptions for qualifying sales under this section or § 52.4682-1) when it sells or uses the ODCs if that purchaser does not export the ODCs and document the exportation of the ODCs in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section.

(f) Credit or refund—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, a manufacturer or importer that meets the conditions of paragraph (f)(3) of this section is allowed a credit or refund (without interest) of the tax it paid to the government under section 4681 on ODCs that are exported. Persons other than manufacturers and importers of ODCs cannot file claims for credit or refund of tax imposed under section 4681 on ODCs that are exported.

(2) Limitation. The amount of credits or refunds of tax under this paragraph (f) is limited—

(i) In the case of tax paid on post-1989 ODCs sold during a calendar year, to the amount (if any) by which the post-1989 exemption amount for the year exceeds the tax benefit provided to such post-1989 ODCs under paragraph (b) of this section; and

(ii) In the case of tax paid on post-1990 ODCs sold during a calendar year, to the amount (if any) by which the post-1990 exemption amount for the year exceeds the tax benefit provided to such post-1990 ODCs under paragraph (b) of this section.

(3) Conditions to allowance of credit or refund. The conditions of this paragraph (f)(3) are met if the manufacturer or importer—

(i) Documents the exportation of the ODCs in accordance with paragraph (d)(4) of this section; and

(ii) Establishes that it has—

(A) Repaid or agreed to repay the amount of the tax to the person that exported the ODC; or

(B) Obtained the written consent of the exporter to the allowance of the credit or the making of the refund.

(4) Procedural rules. See section 6402 and the regulations under that section for procedural rules relating to filing a claim for credit or refund of tax.

(g) Examples. The following examples illustrate the provisions of this section. In each example, the sales are qualifying sales for export (within the meaning of paragraph (d)(1) of this section), all registration, certification, and documentation requirements of this section are met, and the ODCs sold for export are exported:

Example 1. (i) Facts. D, a corporation, manufactures CFC-11, a post-1989 ODC, and does not manufacture or import any other ODCs. In 1993, D manufactures 100,000 pounds of CFC-11, the maximum quantity D is allowed to manufacture in 1993 under EPA regulations. D has no additional production allowance from EPA for 1993. In 1993, the tax on CFC-11 is $3.35 per pound. D's 1986 export percentage for post-1989 ODCs is 50%. In 1993, D sells 80,000 pounds of CFC-11 in qualifying sales for export. The remainder of D's production is not exported.

(ii) Components of limit on tax benefit. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, D's exemption amount for 1993 is equal to the sum of—

(A) D's 1986 export percentage multiplied by the aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and § 52.4682-5) be imposed under section 4681 on the maximum quantity of post-1989 ODCs D is permitted to manufacture during 1993;

(B) The aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and § 52.4682-5) be imposed under section 4681 on post-1989 ODCs that D manufactures during 1993 under an additional production allowance; and

(C) The aggregate tax that would (but for section 4682(d), section 4682(g), and § 52.4682-5) be imposed under section 4681 on post-1989 ODCs imported by D during 1993.

(iii) Limit on tax benefit. The amounts described in paragraphs (ii)(B) and (C) of this Example 1 are equal to zero. Thus, D's 1993 exemption amount is $167,500 (50% of $335,000 (the tax that would otherwise be imposed on 100,000 pounds of CFC-11 in 1993)).

(iv) Application of limit on tax benefit. Under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the tax imposed on the CFC-11 D sells for export is equal to the excess of the tax that would have been imposed on those ODCs but for section 4682(d) and § 52.4682-5, over D's 1993 exemption amount. But for § 52.4682-5, $268,000 ($3.35 × 80,000) of tax would have been imposed on the CFC-11 sold for export. Thus, $100,500 ($268,000 − $167,500) of tax is imposed on the CFC-11 sold for export.

Example 2. (i) Facts. E, a corporation, manufactures CFC-11, a post-1989 ODC, and does not manufacture or import any other ODCs. In 1993, E manufactures 100,000 pounds of CFC-11, the maximum quantity E is allowed to manufacture in 1993 under EPA regulations. E has no additional production allowance from EPA for 1993. In 1993, the tax on CFC-11 is $3.35 per pound. E's 1986 export percentage for post-1989 ODCs is 50%. In 1993, E sells 45,000 pounds of CFC-11 tax free in qualifying sales for export and pays tax under section 4681 on an additional 35,000 pounds of exported CFC-11. The remainder of E's production is not exported.

(ii) Limit on tax benefit. E's 1993 exemption amount is $167,500, (50% of $335,000 (the tax that would otherwise be imposed on 100,000 pounds of CFC-11 in 1993)). The credit or refund allowed to E under paragraph (f) of this section is limited under paragraph (f)(2) of this section to the amount by which E's 1993 exemption amount exceeds E's 1993 tax benefit under paragraph (b) of this section.

(iii) Application of limit on tax benefit. Because E sold 45,000 pounds of CFC-11 tax free in qualifying sales for export in 1993, E's 1993 tax benefit under paragraph (b) of this section is $150,750 ($3.35 × 45,000). Thus, the credit or refund allowed to E under paragraph (f) of this section is limited to $16,750 ($167,500−$150,750).

Example 3. (i) Facts. F, a corporation, manufactures CFC-11, a post-1989 ODC, and does not manufacture any other ODCs. F also imports CFC-11. In 1993, F manufactures 60,000 pounds of CFC-11 (100,000 pounds is the maximum quantity F is allowed to manufacture in 1993 under EPA regulations) and imports 40,000 pounds. F has no additional production allowance from EPA for 1993. In 1993, the tax on CFC-11 is $3.35 per pound. F's 1986 export percentage for post-1989 ODCs is 50%. In 1993, F sells 45,000 pounds of CFC-11 tax free in qualifying sales for export and pays tax under section 4681 on an additional 35,000 pounds of exported CFC-11. The remainder of F's production is not exported.

(ii) Limit on tax benefit. F's 1993 exemption amount is $301,500, ($167,500 (50% of $335,000 (the tax that would otherwise be imposed on 100,000 pounds of CFC-11 in 1993) plus $134,000 (the tax that would otherwise be imposed on the 40,000 pounds imported)). The credit or refund allowed to F under paragraph (f) of this section is limited under paragraph (f)(2) of this section to the amount by which F's 1993 exemption amount exceeds F's 1993 tax benefit under paragraph (b) of this section.

(iii) Application of limit on tax benefit. Because F sold 45,000 pounds of CFC-11 tax free in qualifying sales for export in 1993, F's 1993 tax benefit under paragraph (b) of this section is $150,750 ($3.35 × 45,000). Thus, the credit or refund allowed to F under paragraph (f) of this section is limited to $150,750 ($301,500−$150,750). The limitation does not affect F's credit or refund because the tax F paid on exported ODCs is only $117,250 ($3.35 × 35,000).

(h) Effective date. This section is effective January 1, 1993.

[T.D. 8622, 60 FR 52853, Oct. 11, 1995]

PART 53 FOUNDATION AND SIMILAR EXCISE TAXES

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805; 4960, unless otherwise noted. Section 53.6011-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6011; Section 53.6060-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6060(a); Section 53.6081-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6081(a); Section 53.6109-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a); Section 53.6109-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a); Section 53.6695-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6695(b).

Subpart A Taxes on Investment Income
§ 53.4940-1 Excise tax on net investment income.

(a) In general. For taxable years beginning after September 30, 1977, section 4940 imposes an excise tax of 2 percent of the net investment income (as defined in section 4940(c) and paragraph (c) of this section) of a tax-exempt private foundation (as defined in section 509). For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1969, and before October 1, 1977, the tax imposed by section 4940 is 4 percent of the net investment income. This tax will be reported on the form the foundation is required to file under section 6033 for the taxable year and will be paid annually at the time prescribed for filing such annual return (determined without regard to any extension of time for filing). In addition, an excise tax is imposed in the manner prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section on certain non-exempt private foundations (including certain non-exempt charitable trusts). Except as provided in the succeeding sentence, this tax is to be reported by means of a schedule attached to the organization's income tax return. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1975, the tax imposed by section 4940(b) and paragraph (b) of this section on a trust described in section 4947(a)(1) which is a private foundation shall be reported on Form 5227. The tax imposed by section 4940(b) and this section is to be paid annually at the time the organization is required to pay its income taxes imposed under subtitle A. Except as otherwise provided herein, no exclusions or deductions from gross investment income or credits against tax are allowable under this section.

(b) Taxable foundations. (1) The excise tax imposed under section 4940 on private foundations which are not exempt from taxation under section 501(a) is equal to:

(i) The amount (if any) by which the sum of

(A) The tax on net investment income imposed under section 4940(a), computed as if such private foundation were exempt from taxation under section 501(a) and described in section 501(c)(3) for the taxable year, plus

(B) The amount of the tax which would have been imposed under section 511 for such taxable year if such private foundation had been exempt from taxation under section 501(a), exceeds.

(ii) The tax imposed under subtitle A on such private foundation for the taxable year.

(2) The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.Assume that the tax liability under subtitle A for private foundation X, which is not exempt from taxation under section 501(a) for 1970, is $10,000. Had X been exempt under section 501(a) for 1970, the tax imposed under section 4940(a) would have been $4,000 and the tax imposed under section 511 would have been $7,000. The excess of the sum of the taxes which would have been imposed under sections 4940(a) and 511 ($11,000) over the tax that was imposed under subtitle A ($10,000) is $1,000, the amount of the tax imposed on such organization under section 4940(b).

Example 2.Assume the facts stated in Example (1), except that the tax liability under subtitle A is $15,000 rather than $10,000. Because the sum of the taxes which would have been imposed under sections 4940(a) and 511 ($11,000) does not exceed the tax that was imposed under subtitle A ($15,000), there is no tax imposed under section 4940(b) with respect to such foundation.

(c) Net investment income defined—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4940(a), net investment income of a private foundation is the amount by which:

(i) The sum of the gross investment income (as defined in section 4940(c)(2) and paragraph (d) of this section) and the capital gain net income (net capital gain for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1977) (within the meaning of section 4940(c)(4) and paragraph (f) of this section) exceeds

(ii) The deductions allowed by section 4940(c)(3) and paragraph (e) of this section.

Except to the extent inconsistent with the provisions of this section, net investment income shall be determined under the principles of Subtitle A.

(2) Tax-exempt income. For purposes of computing net investment income under section 4940, the provisions of section 103 (relating to interest on certain governmental obligations) and section 265 (relating to expenses and interest relating to tax-exempt income) and the regulations thereunder shall apply.

(d) Gross investment income—(1) In general. For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, “gross investment income” means the gross amounts of income from interest, dividends, rents, and royalties (including overriding royalties) received by a private foundation from all sources, but does not include such income to the extent included in computing the tax imposed by section 511. Under this definition, interest, dividends, rents, and royalties derived from assets devoted to charitable activities are includible in gross investment income. Therefore, for example, interest received on a student loan would be includible in the gross investment income of a private foundation making such loan. For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, gross investment income also includes the items of investment income described in § 1.512(b)-1(a).

(2) Certain estate and trust disbursements. In the case of a distribution from an estate or a trust described in section 4947(a) (1) or (2), such distribution shall not retain its character in the hands of the distributee for purposes of computing the tax under section 4940; except that, in the case of a distribution from a trust described in section 4947(a)(2), the income of such trust attributable to transfers in trust after May 26, 1969, shall retain its character in the hands of a distributee private foundation for purposes of section 4940 (unless such income is taken into account because of the application of section 671).

(3) Treatment of certain distributions in redemption of stock. For purposes of applying section 302(b)(1), any distribution made to a private foundation by a disqualified person (as defined in section 4946(a)), in redemption of stock held by such private foundation in a business enterprise shall be treated as not essentially equivalent to a dividend if all of the following conditions are satisfied: (i) Such redemption is of stock which was owned by a private foundation on May 26, 1969 (or which is acquired by a private foundation under the terms of a trust which was irrevocable on May 26, 1969, or under the terms of a will executed on or before such date, which is in effect on such date and at all times thereafter, or would have passed under such a will but before that time actually passes under a trust which would have met the test of this subdivision but for the fact that the trust was revocable (but was not in fact revoked)); (ii) such foundation is required to dispose of such property in order not to be liable for tax under section 4943 (relating to taxes on excess business holdings); and (iii) such foundation receives in return an amount which equals or exceeds the fair market value of such property at the time of such disposition or at the time a contract for such disposition was previously executed in a transaction which would not constitute a prohibited transaction (within the meaning of section 503(b) or the corresponding provisions of prior law). In the case of a disposition before January 1, 1975, section 4943 shall be applied without taking section 4943(c) (4) into account. A distribution which otherwise qualifies under section 302 as a distribution in part or full payment in exchange for stock shall not be treated as essentially equivalent to a dividend because it does not meet the requirements of this subparagraph.

(e) Deductions—(1) In general. (i) For purposes of computing net investment income, there shall be allowed as a deduction from gross investment income all the ordinary and necessary expenses paid or incurred for the production or collection of gross investment income or for the management, conservation, or maintenance of property held for the production of such income, determined with the modifications set forth in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph. Such expenses include that portion of a private foundation's operating expenses which is paid or incurred for the production or collection of gross investment income. Taxes paid or incurred under this section are not paid or incurred for the production or collection of gross investment income. A private foundation's operating expenses include compensation of officers, other salaries and wages of employees, outside professional fees, interest, and rent and taxes upon property used in the foundation's operations. Where a private foundation's officers or employees engage in activities on behalf of the foundation for both investment purposes and for exempt purposes, compensation and salaries paid to such officers or employees must be allocated between the investment activities and the exempt activities. To the extent a private foundation's expenses are taken into account in computing the tax imposed by section 511, they shall not be deductible for purposes of computing the tax imposed by section 4940.

(ii) Where only a portion of property produces, or is held for the production of, income subject to the section 4940 excise tax, and the remainder of the property is used for exempt purposes, the deductions allowed by section 4940(c)(3) shall be apportioned between the exempt and non-exempt uses.

(iii) No amount is allowable as a deduction under this section to the extent it is paid or incurred for purposes other than those described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph. Thus, for example, the deductions prescribed by the following sections are not allowable: (1) The charitable deduction prescribed under section 170 and 642(c); (2) the net operating loss deduction prescribed under section 172; and (3) the special deductions prescribed under Part VIII, Subchapter B, Chapter 1.

(2) Deduction modifications. The following modifications shall be made in determining deductions otherwise allowable under this paragraph:

(i) The depreciation deduction shall be allowed, but only on the basis of the straight line method provided in section 167(b)(1).

(ii) The depletion deduction shall be allowed, but such deduction shall be determined without regard to section 613, relating to percentage depletion.

(iii) The basis to be used for purposes of the deduction allowed for depreciation or depletion shall be the basis determined under the rules of Part II of Subchapter O of Chapter 1, subject to the provisions of section 4940(c)(3)(B), and without regard to section 4940(c)(4)(B), relating to the basis for determining gain, or section 362(c). Thus, a private foundation must reduce the cost or other substituted or transferred basis by an amount equal to the straight line depreciation or cost depletion, without regard to whether the foundation deducted such depreciation or depletion during the period prior to its first taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969. However, where a private foundation has previously taken depreciation or depletion deductions in excess of the amount which would have been taken had the straight line or cost method been employed, such excess depreciation or depletion also shall be taken into account to reduce basis. If the facts necessary to determine the basis of property in the hands of the donor or the last preceding owner by whom it was not acquired by gift are unknown to a donee private foundation, then the original basis to such foundation of such property shall be determined under the rules of § 1.1015-1(a)(3).

(iv) The deduction for expenses paid or incurred in any taxable year for the production of gross investment income earned as an incident to a charitable function shall be no greater than the income earned from such function which is includible as gross investment income for such year. For example, where rental income is incidentally realized in 1971 from historic buildings held open to the public, deductions for amounts paid or incurred in 1971 for the production of such income shall be limited to the amount of rental income includible as gross investment income for 1971.

(f) Capital gain and losses—(1) General rule. In determining capital gain net income (net capital gain for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1977) for purposes of the tax imposed by section 4940, there shall be taken into account only capital gains and losses from the sale or other disposition of property held by a private foundation for investment purposes (other than program-related investments, as defined in section 4944(c)), and property used for the production of income included in computing the tax imposed by section 511 except to the extent gain or loss from the sale or other disposition of such property is taken into account for purposes of such tax. For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1972, property shall be treated as held for investment purposes even though such property is disposed of by the foundation immediately upon its receipt, if it is property of a type which generally produces interest, dividends, rents, royalties, or capital gains through appreciation (for example, rental real estate, stock, bonds, mineral interests, mortgages, and securities). Under this subparagraph, gains and losses from the sale or other disposition of property used for the exempt purposes of the private foundation are excluded. For example, gain or loss on the sale of the buildings used for the exempt activities of a private foundation would not be subject to the section 4940 tax. Where the foundation uses property for its exempt purposes, but also incidentally derives income from such property which is subject to the tax imposed by section 4940(a), any gain or loss resulting from the sale or other disposition of such property is not subject to the tax imposed by section 4940(a). For example, if a tax-exempt private foundation maintains buildings of a historical nature and keeps them open for public inspection, but requires a number of its employees to live in these buildings and charges the employees rent, the rent would be subject to the tax imposed by section 4940(a), but any gain or loss resulting from the sale of such property would not be subject to such tax. However, where the foundation uses property for both exempt purposes and (other than incidentally) for investment purposes (for example, a building in which the foundation's charitable and investment activities are carried on), that portion of any gain or loss from the sale or other disposition of such property which is allocable to the investment use of such property must be taken into account in computing capital gain net income (net capital gain for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1977) for such taxable year. For purposes of this paragraph, a distribution of property for purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B) which is a qualifying distribution under section 4942 shall not be treated as a sale or other disposition of property.

(2) Basis. (i) The basis for purposes of determining gain from the sale or other disposition of property shall be the greater of:

(A) Fair market value on December 31, 1969, plus or minus all adjustments after December 31, 1969, and before the date of disposition under the rules of Part II of Subchapter O of Chapter 1, provided that the property was held by the private foundation on December 31, 1969, and continuously thereafter to the date of disposition, or

(B) Basis as determined under the rules of Part II of Subchapter O of Chapter 1,

subject to the provisions of section 4940(c)(3)(B) (and without regard to section 362(c)).

(ii) For purposes of determining loss from the sale or other disposition of property, basis as determined in subdivision (i)(B) of this subparagraph shall apply.

(3) Losses. Where the sale or other disposition of property referred to in section 4940(c)(4)(A) results in a capital loss, such loss may be subtracted from capital gains from the sale or other disposition of other such property during the same taxable year, but only to the extent of such gains. Should losses from the sale or other disposition of such property exceed gains from the sale or other disposition of such property during the same taxable year, such excess may not be deducted from gross investment income under section 4940(c)(3) in any taxable year, nor may such excess by used to reduce gains in either prior or future taxable years, regardless of whether the foundation is a corporation or a trust.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A private foundation holds certain depreciable real property on December 31, 1969, having a basis of $102,000. The fair market value of such property on that date was $100,000. For its taxable year 1970 the foundation was allowed depreciation for such property of $5,100 on the straight line method, the allowable amount computed on the $102,000 basis. The property was sold on January 1, 1971, for $100,000. Because fair market value on December 31, 1969, less straight line depreciation of $5,100 ($94,900) is less than basis as determined by Part II of Subchapter O of Chapter 1, $96,900 ($102,000 less $5,100), a gain of $3,100 is recognized (i.e., sales price of $100,000 less the greater of the two possible bases).

Example 2.Assume the same facts in example 1, except that the sale price was $95,000. Because the sale price was $1,900 less than the basis for loss ($96,900 as determined by the application of subparagraph (2)(ii) of this paragraph), there is a capital loss of $1,900 which may be deducted against capital gains for 1971 (if any) in determining net capital gain (capital gain net income for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1976).

Example 3.A private foundation holds certain depreciable real property on December 31, 1969, having a basis of $102,000. The fair market value of such property on that date was $110,000. For its taxable year 1970 the foundation was allowed depreciation for such property of $5,100 on the straight line method, the allowable amount computed on the $102,000 basis. The property was sold on January 1, 1971, for $100,000. Fair market value on December 31, 1969, less straight line depreciation of $5,100 ($104,900) exceeds basis as determined by Part II of Subchapter O of Chapter 1, $96,900 ($102,000 less $5,100), and will be used for purposes of determining gain. Because basis for purposes of determining gain exceeds sale price, there is no gain. There is no loss because basis for purposes of determining loss ($96,900) is less than sale price.

[T.D. 7250, 38 FR 868, Jan. 5, 1973; 38 FR 7549, Mar. 23, 1973, as amended by T.D. 7407, 41 FR 9321, Mar. 4, 1976; T.D. 7606, 44 FR 18971, Mar. 30, 1979; T.D. 7728, 45 FR 72651, Nov. 3, 1980; T.D. 8423, 57 FR 33444, July 29, 1992]

Subpart B Taxes on Self-Dealing

Source: T.D. 7270, 38 FR 9493, Apr. 17, 1973, unless otherwise noted.

§ 53.4941(a)-1 Imposition of initial taxes.

(a) Tax on self-dealer—(1) In general. Section 4941(a)(1) of the code imposes an excise tax on each act of self-dealing between a disqualified person (as defined in section 4946(a)) and a private foundation. Except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, this tax shall be imposed on a disqualified person even though he had no knowledge at the time of the act that such act constituted self-dealing. Notwithstanding the preceding two sentences, however, a transaction between a disqualified person and a private foundation will not constitute an act of self-dealing if:

(i) The transaction is a purchase or sale of securities by a private foundation through a stockbroker where normal trading procedures on a stock exchange or recognized over-the-counter market are followed;

(ii) Neither the buyer nor the seller of the securities nor the agent of either knows the identity of the other party involved; and

(iii) The sale is made in the ordinary course of business, and does not involve a block of securities larger than the average daily trading volume of that stock over the previous 4 weeks.

However, the preceding sentence shall not apply to a transaction involving a dealer who is a disqualified person acting as a principal or to a transaction which is an act of self-dealing pursuant to section 4941(d)(1)(B) and § 53.4941(d)-2 (c)(1). The tax imposed by section 4941(a)(1) is at the rate of 5 percent of the amount involved (as defined in section 4941(e)(2) and § 53.4941(e)-1(b)) with respect to the act of self-dealing for each year or partial year in the taxable period (as defined in section 4941(e)(1)) and shall be paid by any disqualified person (other than a foundation manager acting only in the capacity of a foundation manager) who participates in the act of self-dealing. However, if a foundation manager is also acting as a self-dealer, he may be liable for both the tax imposed by section 4941(a)(1) and the tax imposed by section 4941(a)(2).

(2) Government officials. In the case of a government official (as defined in sec. 4946(a)), the tax shall be imposed upon such government official who participates in an act of self-dealing, only if he knows that such act is an act of self-dealing. See paragraph (b)(3) of this section for a definition of knowing.

(3) Participation. For purposes of this paragraph, a disqualified person shall be treated as participating in an act of self-dealing in any case in which he engages or takes part in the transaction by himself or with others, or directs any person to do so.

(b) Tax on foundation manager—(1) In general. Section 4941(a)(2) of the code imposes an excise tax on the participation of any foundation manager in an act of self-dealing between a disqualified person and a private foundation. This tax is imposed only in cases in which the following circumstances are present:

(i) A tax is imposed by section 4941(a)(1),

(ii) Such participating foundation manager knows that the act is an act of self-dealing, and

(iii) The participation by the foundation manager is willful and is not due to reasonable cause.

The tax imposed by section 4941(a)(2) is at the rate of 2 1/2 percent of the amount involved with respect to the act of self-dealing for each year or partial year in the taxable period and shall be paid by any foundation manager described in subdivisions (ii) and (iii) of this subparagraph.

(2) Participation. The term “participation” shall include silence or inaction on the part of a foundation manager where he is under a duty to speak or act, as well as any affirmative action by such manager. However, a foundation manager will not be considered to have participated in an act of self-dealing where he has opposed such act in a manner consistent with the fulfillment of his responsibilities to the private foundation.

(3) Knowing. For purposes of section 4941, a person shall be considered to have participated in a transaction “knowing” that it is an act of self-dealing only if:

(i) He has actual knowledge of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon such facts, such transaction would be an act of self-dealing,

(ii) He is aware that such an act under these circumstances may violate the provisions of Federal tax law governing self-dealing, and

(iii) He negligently fails to make reasonable attempts to ascertain whether the transaction is an act of self-dealing, or he is in fact aware that it is such an act.

For purposes of this part and Chapter 42, the term “knowing” does not mean “having reason to know”. However, evidence tending to show that a person has reason to know of a particular fact or particular rule is relevant in determining whether he had actual knowledge of such fact or rule. Thus, for example, evidence tending to show that a person has reason to know of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon such facts, a transaction would be an act of self-dealing is relevant in determining whether he has actual knowledge of such facts.

(4) Willful. Participation by a foundation manager shall be deemed willful if it is voluntary, conscious, and intentional. No motive to avoid the restrictions of the law or the incurrence of any tax is necessary to make the participation willful. However, participation by a foundation manager is not willful if he does not know that the transaction in which he is participating is an act of self-dealing.

(5) Due to reasonable cause. A foundation manager's participation is due to reasonable cause if he has exercised his responsibility on behalf of the foundation with ordinary business care and prudence.

(6) Advice of counsel. If a person, after full disclosure of the factual situation to legal counsel (including house counsel), relies on the advice of such counsel expressed in a reasoned written legal opinion that an act is not an act of self-dealing under section 4941, although such act is subsequently held to be an act of self-dealing, the person's participation in such act will ordinarily not be considered “knowing” or “willful” and will ordinarily be considered “due to reasonable cause” within the meaning of section 4941(a)(2). For purposes of this subparagraph, a written legal opinion will be considered “reasoned” even if it reaches a conclusion which is subsequently determined to be incorrect so long as such opinion addresses itself to the facts and applicable law. However, a written legal opinion will not be considered “reasoned” if it does nothing more than recite the facts and express a conclusion. However, the absence of advice of counsel with respect to an act shall not, by itself, give rise to any inference that a person participated in such act knowingly, willfully, or without reasonable cause.

(c) Burden of proof. For provisions relating to the burden of proof in cases involving the issue whether a foundation manager or a government official has knowingly participated in an act of self-dealing, see section 7454(b).

[T.D. 7270, 38 FR 9493, Apr. 17, 1973, as amended by T.D. 7299, 38 FR 35304, Dec. 27, 1973]

§ 53.4941(b)-1 Imposition of additional taxes.

(a) Tax on self-dealer. Section 4941(b)(1) of the Code imposes an excise tax in any case in which an initial tax is imposed by section 4941(a)(1) on an act of self-dealing by a disqualified person with a private foundation and the act is not corrected within the taxable period (as defined in § 53.4941(e)-1(a)). The tax imposed by section 4941(b)(1) is at the rate of 200 percent of the amount involved and shall be paid by any disqualified person (other than a foundation manager action only in the capacity of a foundation manager) who participated in the act of self-dealing.

(b) Tax on foundation manager. Section 4941(b)(2) of the Code imposes an excise tax to be paid by a foundation manager in any case in which a tax is imposed by section 4941(b)(1) and the foundation manager refused to agree to part or all of the correction of the self-dealing act. The tax imposed by section 4941(b)(2) is at the rate of 50 percent of the amount involved and shall be paid by any foundation manager who refused to agree to part or all of the correction of the self-dealing act. For the limitations on liability of a foundation manager, see § 53.4941(c)-1(b).

[T.D. 7270, 38 FR 9493, Apr. 17, 1973, as amended by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16301, May 2, 1986]

§ 53.4941(c)-1 Special rules.

(a) Joint and several liability. (1) In any case where more than one person is liable for the tax imposed by any paragraph of section 4941 (a) or (b), all such persons shall be jointly and severally liable for the taxes imposed under such paragraph with respect to such act of self-dealing.

(2) The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.A and B, who are managers of private foundation X, lend one of the foundation's paintings to G, a disqualified person, for display in G's office, in a transaction which gives rise to liability for tax under section 4941(a)(2) (relating to tax on foundation managers). An initial tax is imposed on both A and B with respect to the act of lending the foundation's painting to G. A and B are jointly and severally liable for the tax.

(b) Limits on liability for management. (1) The maximum aggregate amount of tax collectible under section 4941(a)(2) from all foundation managers with respect to any one act of self-dealing shall be $10,000, and the maximum aggregate amount of tax collectible under section 4941(b)(2) from all foundation managers with respect to any one act of self-dealing shall be $10,000.

(2) The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.A, a disqualified person with respect to private foundation Y, sells certain real estate having a fair market value of $500,000 to Y for $500,000 in cash. B, C, and D, all the managers of foundation Y, authorized the purchase on Y's behalf knowing that such purchase was an act of self-dealing. The actions of B, C, and D in approving the purchase were willful and not due to reasonable cause. Initial taxes are imposed upon the foundation managers under subsections (a)(2) and (c)(2) of section 4941. The tax to be paid by the foundation managers is $10,000 (the lesser of $10,000 or 2 1/2 percent of the amount involved). The managers are jointly and severally liable for this $10,000, and this sum may be collected by the Internal Revenue Service from any one of them.

§ 53.4941(d)-1 Definition of self-dealing.

(a) In general. For purposes of section 4941, the term self-dealing means any direct or indirect transaction described in § 53.4941(d)-2. For purposes of this section, it is immaterial whether the transaction results in a benefit or a detriment to the private foundation. The term “self-dealing” does not, however, include a transaction between a private foundation and a disqualified person where the disqualified person status arises only as a result of such transaction. For example, the bargain sale of property to a private foundation is not a direct act of self-dealing if the seller becomes a disqualified person only by reason of his becoming a substantial contributor as a result of the bargain element of the sale. For the effect of sections 4942, 4943, 4944, and 4945 upon an act of self-dealing which also results in the imposition of tax under one or more of such sections, see the regulations under those sections.

(b) Indirect self-dealing—(1) Certain business transactions. The term “indirect self-dealing” shall not include any transaction described in § 53.4941(d)-2 between a disqualified person and an organization controlled by a private foundation (within the meaning of paragraph (6)(5) of this section) if:

(i) The transaction results from a business relationship which was established before such transaction constituted an act of self-dealing (without regard to this paragraph),

(ii) The transaction was at least as favorable to the organization controlled by the foundation as an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated person, and

(iii) Either:

(a) The organization controlled by the foundation could have engaged in the transaction with someone other than a disqualified person only at a severe economic hardship to such organization, or

(b) Because of the unique nature of the product or services provided by the organization controlled by the foundation, the disqualified person could not have engaged in the transaction with anyone else, or could have done so only by incurring severe economic hardship. See example (2) of subparagraph (8) of this paragraph.

(2) Grants to intermediaries. The term “indirect self-dealing” shall not include a transaction engaged in with a government official by an intermediary organization which is a recipient of a grant from a private foundation and which is not controlled by such foundation (within the meaning of paragraph (6) (5) of this section) if the private foundation does not earmark the use of the grant for any named government official and there does not exist an agreement, oral or written, whereby the grantor foundation may cause the selection of the government official by the intermediary organization. A grant by a private foundation is earmarked if such grant is made pursuant to an agreement, either oral or written, that the grant will be used by any named individual. Thus, a grant by a private foundation shall not constitute an indirect act of self-dealing even though such foundation had reason to believe that certain government officials would derive benefits from such grant so long as the intermediary organization exercises control, in fact, over the selection process and actually makes the selection completely independently of the private foundation. See example (3) of subparagraph (8) of this paragraph.

(3) Transactions during the administration of an estate or revocable trust. The term “indirect self-dealing” shall not include a transaction with respect to a private foundation's interest or expectancy in property (whether or not encumbered) held by an estate (or revocable trust, including a trust which has become irrevocable on a grantor's death), regardless of when title to the property vests under local law, if:

(i) The administrator or executor of an estate or trustee of a revocable trust either:

(a) Possesses a power of sale with respect to the property,

(b) Has the power to reallocate the property to another beneficiary, or

(c) Is required to sell the property under the terms of any option subject to which the property was acquired by the estate (or revocable trust);

(ii) Such transaction is approved by the probate court having jurisdiction over the estate (or by another court having jurisdiction over the estate (or trust) or over the private foundation);

(iii) Such transaction occurs before the estate is considered terminated for Federal income tax purposes pursuant to paragraph (a) of § 1.641(b)-3 of this chapter (or in the case of a revocable trust, before it is considered subject to sec. 4947);

(iv) The estate (or trust) receives an amount which equals or exceeds the fair market value of the foundation's interest or expectancy in such property at the time of the transaction, taking into account the terms of any option subject to which the property was acquired by the estate (or trust); and

(v) With respect to transactions occurring after April 16, 1973, the transaction either:

(a) Results in the foundation receiving an interest or expectancy at least as liquid as the one it gave up,

(b) Results in the foundation receiving an asset related to the active carrying out of its exempt purposes, or

(c) Is required under the terms of any option which is binding on the estate (or trust).

(4) Transactions with certain organizations. A transaction between a private foundation and an organization which is not controlled by the foundation (within the meaning of subparagraph (5) of this paragraph), and which is not described in section 4946(a)(1) (E), (F), or (G) because persons described in section 4946(a)(1) (A), (B), (C), or (D) own no more than 35 percent of the total combined voting power or profits or beneficial interest of such organization, shall not be treated as an indirect act of self-dealing between the foundation and such disqualified persons solely because of the ownership interest of such persons in such organization.

(5) Control. For purposes of this paragraph, an organization is controlled by a private foundation if the foundation or one or more of its foundation managers (acting only in such capacity) may, only by aggregating their votes or positions of authority, require the organization to engage in a transaction which if engaged in with the private foundation would constitute self-dealing. Similarly, for purposes of this paragraph, an organization is controlled by a private foundation in the case of such a transaction between the organization and a disqualified person, if such disqualified person, together with one or more persons who are disqualified persons by reason of such a person's relationship (within the meaning of section 4946(a)(1) (C) through (G)) to such disqualified person, may, only by aggregating their votes or positions of authority with that of the foundation, require the organization to engage in such a transaction. The “controlled” organization need not be a private foundation; for example, it may be any type of exempt or nonexempt organization including a school, hospital, operating foundation, or social welfare organization. For purposes of this paragraph, an organization will be considered to be controlled by a private foundation or by a private foundation and disqualified persons referred to in the second sentence of this subparagraph if such persons are able, in fact, to control the organization (even if their aggregate voting power is less than 50 percent of the total voting power of the organization's governing body) or if one or more of such persons has the right to exercise veto power over the actions of such organization relevant to any potential acts of self-dealing. A private foundation shall not be regarded as having control over an organization merely because it exercises expenditure responsibility (as defined in section 4945 (d)(4) and (h)) with respect to contributions to such organization. See example (6) of subparagraph (8) of this paragraph.

(6) Certain transactions involving limited amounts. The term “indirect self-dealing” shall not include any transaction between a disqualified person and an organization controlled by a private foundation (within the meaning of subparagraph (5) of this paragraph) or between two disqualified persons where the foundation's assets may be affected by the transaction if:

(i) The transaction arises in the normal and customary course of a retail business engaged in with the general public,

(ii) In the case of a transaction between a disqualified person and an organization controlled by a private foundation, the transaction is at least as favorable to the organization controlled by the foundation as an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated person, and

(iii) The total of the amounts involved in such transactions with respect to any one such disqualified person in any one taxable year does not exceed $5,000.

See example (7) of subparagraph (8) of this paragraph.

(7) Applicability of statutory exceptions to indirect self-dealing. The term “indirect self-dealing” shall not include a transaction involving one or more disqualified persons to which a private foundation is not a party, in any case in which the private foundation, by reason of section 4941(d)(2), could itself engage in such a transaction. Thus, for example, even if a private foundation has control (within the meaning of subparagraph (5) of this paragraph) of a corporation, the corporation may pay to a disqualified person, except a government official, reasonable compensation for personal services.

(8) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.Private foundation P owns the controlling interest of the voting stock of corporation X, and as a result of such interest, elects a majority of the board of directors of X. Two of the foundation managers, A and B, who are also directors of corporation X, form corporation Y for the purpose of building and managing a country club. A and B receive a total of 40 percent of Y's stock, making Y a disqualified person with respect to P under section 4946(a)(1)(E). In order to finance the construction and operation of the country club, Y requested and received a loan in the amount of $4 million from X. The making of the loan by X to Y shall constitute an indirect act of self-dealing between P and Y.

Example 2.Private foundation W owns the controlling interest of the voting stock of corporation X, a manufacturer of certain electronic computers. Corporation Y, a disqualified person with respect to W, owns the patent for, and manufactures, one of the essential component parts used in the computers. X has been making regular purchases of the patented component from Y since 1965, subject to the same terms as all other purchasers of such component parts. X could not buy similar components from another source. Consequently, X would suffer severe economic hardship if it could not continue to purchase these components from Y, since it would then be forced to develop a computer which could be constructed with other components. Under these circumstances, the continued purchase by X from Y of these components shall not be an indirect act of self-dealing between W and Y.

Example 3.Private foundation Y made a grant to M University, an organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii), for the purpose of conducting a seminar to study methods for improving the administration of the judicial system. M is not controlled by Y within the meaning of subparagraph (5) of this paragraph. In conducting the seminar, M made payments to certain government officials. By the nature of the grant, Y had reason to believe that government officials would be compensated for participation in the seminar. M, however, had completely independent control over the selection of such participants. Thus, such grant by Y shall not constitute an indirect act of self-dealing with respect to the government officials.

Example 4.A, a substantial contributor to P, a private foundation, bequeathed one-half of his estate to his spouse and one-half of his estate to P. Included in A's estate is a one-third interest in AB, a partnership. The other two-thirds interest in AB is owned by B, a disqualified person with respect to P. The one-third interest in AB was subject to an option agreement when it was acquired by the estate. The executor of A's estate sells the one-third interest in AB to B pursuant to such option agreement at the price fixed in such option agreement in a sale which meets the requirements of subparagraph (3) of this paragraph. Under these circumstances, the sale does not constitute an indirect act of self-dealing between B and P.

Example 5.A bequeathed $100,000 to his wife and a piece of unimproved real estate of equivalent value to private foundation Z, of which A was the creator and a foundation manager. Under the laws of State Y, to which the estate is subject, title to the real estate vests in the foundation upon A's death. However, the executor has the power under State law to reallocate the property to another beneficiary. During a reasonable period for administration of the estate, the executor exercises this power and distributes the $100,000 cash to the foundation and the real estate to A's wife. The probate court having jurisdiction over the estate approves the executor's action. Under these circumstances, the executor's action does not constitute an indirect act of self-dealing between the foundation and A's wife.

Example 6.Private foundation P owns 20 percent of the voting stock of corporation W. A, a substantial contributor with respect to P, owns 16 percent of the voting stock of corporation W. B, A's son, owns 15 percent of the voting stock of corporation W. The terms of the voting stock are such that P, A, and B could vote their stock in a block to elect a majority of the board of directors of W. W is treated as controlled by P (within the meaning of subparagraph (5) of this paragraph) for purposes of this example A and B also own 50 percent of the stock of corporation Y, making Y a disqualified person with respect to P under section 4946(a)(1)(E). W makes a loan to Y of $1 million. The making of this loan by W to Y shall constitute an indirect act of self-dealing between P and Y.

Example 7.A, a disqualified person with respect to private foundation P, enters into a contract with corporation M, which is also a disqualified person with respect to P. P owns 20 percent of M's stock, and controls M within the meaning of subparagraph (5) of this paragraph. M is in the retail department store business. Purchases by A of goods sold by M in the normal and customary course of business at retail or higher prices are not indirect acts of self-dealing so long as the total of the amounts involved in all of such purchases by A in any one year does not exceed $5,000.

[T.D. 7270, 38 FR 9493, Apr. 17, 1973, as amended at 38 FR 12604, May 14, 1973]

§ 53.4941(d)-2 Specific acts of self-dealing.

Except as provided in § 53.4941(d)-3 or § 53.4941(d)-4:

(a) Sale or exchange of property—(1) In general. The sale or exchange of property between a private foundation and a disqualified person shall constitute an act of self-dealing. For example, the sale of incidental supplies by a disqualified person to a private foundation shall be an act of self-dealing regardless of the amount paid to the disqualified person for the incidental supplies. Similarly, the sale of stock or other securities by a disqualified person to a private foundation in a “bargain sale” shall be an act of self-dealing regardless of the amount paid for such stock or other securities. An installment sale may be subject to the provisions of both section 4941(d)(1)(A) and section 4941(d)(1)(B).

(2) Mortgaged property. For purposes of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, the transfer of real or personal property by a disqualified person to a private foundation shall be treated as a sale or exchange if the foundation assumes a mortgage or similar lien which was placed on the property prior to the transfer, or takes subject to a mortgage or similar lien which a disqualified person placed on the property within the 10-year period ending on the date of transfer. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “similar lien” shall include, but is not limited to, deeds of trust and vendors' liens, but shall not include any other lien if such lien is insignificant in relation to the fair market value of the property transferred.

(b) Leases—(1) In general. Except as provided in subparagraphs (2) and (3) of this paragraph, the leasing of property between a disqualified person and a private foundation shall constitute an act of self-dealing.

(2) Certain leases without charge. The leasing of property by a disqualified person to a private foundation shall not be an act of self-dealing if the lease is without charge. For purposes of this subparagraph, a lease shall be considered to be without charge even though the private foundation pays for janitorial services, utilities, or other maintenance costs it incurs for the use of the property, so long as the payment is not made directly or indirectly to a disqualified person.

(3) Certain leases of office space. For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1979, the leasing of office space by a disqualified person to a private foundation shall not be an act of self-dealing if:

(i) The leased space is in a building in which there are other tenants who are not disqualified persons,

(ii) The lease is pursuant to a binding lease which was in effect on October 9, 1969, or pursuant to renewals of such a lease,

(iii) The execution of the lease was not a prohibited transaction (within the meaning of section 503(b) or the corresponding provisions of prior law) at the time of such execution, and

(iv) The terms of the lease (or any renewal) reflect an arm's length transaction.

A lease or renewal of such lease is described in this subparagraph (3) only if it satisfies the requirements of § 53.4941(d)-4(c) (1) and (2), applied without regard to the December 31, 1979 deadline described therein.

(c) Loans—(1) In general. Except as provided in subparagraphs (2), (3), and (4) of this paragraph, the lending of money or other extension of credit between a private foundation and a disqualified person shall constitute an act of self-dealing. Thus, for example, an act of self-dealing occurs where a third party purchases property and assumes a mortgage, the mortgagee of which is a private foundation, and subsequently the third party transfers the property to a disqualified person who either assumes liability under the mortgage or takes the property subject to the mortgage. Similarly, except in the case of the receipt and holding of a note pursuant to a transaction described in § 53.4941(d)-1(b)(3), an act of self-dealing occurs where a note, the obligor of which is a disqualified person, is transferred by a third party to a private foundation which becomes the creditor under the note.

(2) Loans without interest. Subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall not apply to the lending of money or other extension of credit by a disqualified person to a private foundation if the loan or other extension of credit is without interest or other charge.

(3) Certain evidences of future gifts. The making of a promise, pledge, or similar arrangement to a private foundation by a disqualified person, whether evidenced by an oral or written agreement, a promissory note, or other instrument of indebtedness, to the extent motivated by charitable intent and unsupported by consideration, is not an extension of credit (within the meaning of this paragraph) before the date of maturity.

(4) General banking functions. Under section 4941(d)(2)(E) the performance by a bank or trust company which is a disqualified person of trust functions and certain general banking services for a private foundation is not an act of self-dealing, where the banking services are reasonable and necessary to carrying out the exempt purposes of the private foundation, if the compensation paid to the bank or trust company, taking into account the fair interest rate for the use of the funds by the bank or trust company, for such services is not excessive. The general banking services allowed by this subparagraph are:

(i) Checking accounts, as long as the bank does not charge interest on any overwithdrawals,

(ii) Savings accounts, as long as the foundation may withdraw its funds on no more than 30-days notice without subjecting itself to a loss of interest on its money for the time during which the money was on deposit, and

(iii) Safekeeping activities.

See example (3) § 53.4941(d)-3(c)(2).

(d) Furnishing goods, services, or facilities—(1) In general. Except as provided in subparagraph (2) or (3) of this paragraph (or § 53.4941(d)-3(b)), the furnishing of goods, services, or facilities between a private foundation and a disqualified person shall constitute an act of self-dealing. This subparagraph shall apply, for example, to the furnishing of goods, services, or facilities such as office space, automobiles, auditoriums, secretarial help, meals, libraries, publications, laboratories, or parking lots. Thus, for example, if a foundation furnishes personal living quarters to a disqualified person (other than a foundation manager or employee) without charge, such furnishing shall be an act of self-dealing.

(2) Furnishing of goods, services, or facilities to foundation managers and employees. The furnishing of goods, services, or facilities such as those described in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph to a foundation manager in recognition of his services as a foundation manager, or to another employee (including an individual who would be an employee but for the fact that he receives no compensation for his services) in recognition of his services in such capacity, is not an act of self-dealing if the value of such furnishing (whether or not includible as compensation in his gross income) is reasonable and necessary to the performance of his tasks in carrying out the exempt purposes of the foundation and, taken in conjunction with any other payment of compensation or payment or reimbursement of expenses to him by the foundation, is not excessive. For example, if a foundation furnishes meals and lodging which are reasonable and necessary (but not excessive) to a foundation manager by reason of his being a foundation manager, then, without regard to whether such meals and lodging are excludable from gross income under section 119 as furnished for the convenience of the employer, such furnishing is not an act of self-dealing. For the effect of section 4945(d)(5) upon an expenditure for unreasonable administrative expenses, see § 53.4945-6(b)(2).

(3) Furnishing of goods, services, or facilities by a disqualified person without charge. The furnishing of goods, services, or facilities by a disqualified person to a private foundation shall not be an act of self-dealing if they are furnished without charge. Thus, for example, the furnishing of goods such as pencils, stationery, or other incidental supplies, or the furnishing of facilities such as a building, by a disqualified person to a foundation shall be allowed if such supplies or facilities are furnished without charge. Similarly, the furnishing of services (even though such services are not personal in nature) shall be permitted if such furnishing is without charge. For purposes of this subparagraph, a furnishing of goods shall be considered without charge even though the private foundation pays for transportation, insurance, or maintenance costs it incurs in obtaining or using the property, so long as the payment is not made directly or indirectly to the disqualified person.

(e) Payment of compensation. The payment of compensation (or payment or reimbursement of expenses) by a private foundation to a disqualified person shall constitute an act of self-dealing. See, however, § 53.4941(d)-3(c) for the exception for the payment of compensation by a foundation to a disqualified person for personal services which are reasonable and necessary to carry out the exempt purposes of the foundation.

(f) Transfer or use of the income or assets of a private foundation—(1) In general. The transfer to, or use by or for the benefit of, a disqualified person of the income or assets of a private foundation shall constitute an act of self-dealing. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the purchase or sale of stock or other securities by a private foundation shall be an act of self-dealing if such purchase or sale is made in an attempt to manipulate the price of the stock or other securities to the advantage of a disqualified person. Similarly, the indemnification (of a lender) or guarantee (of repayment) by a private foundation with respect to a loan to a disqualified person shall be treated as a use for the benefit of a disqualified person of the income or assets of the foundation (within the meaning of this subparagraph). In addition, if a private foundation makes a grant or other payment which satisfies the legal obligation of a disqualified person, such grant or payment shall ordinarily constitute an act of self-dealing to which this subparagraph applies. However, if a private foundation makes a grant or payment which satisfies a pledge, enforceable under local law, to an organization described in section 501(c)(3), which pledge is made on or before April 16, 1973, such grant or payment shall not constitute an act of self-dealing to which this subparagraph applies so long as the disqualified person obtains no substantial benefit, other than the satisfaction of his obligation, from such grant or payment.

(2) Certain incidental benefits. The fact that a disqualified person receives an incidental or tenuous benefit from the use by a foundation of its income or assets will not, by itself, make such use an act of self-dealing. Thus, the public recognition a person may receive, arising from the charitable activities of a private foundation to which such person is a substantial contributor, does not in itself result in an act of self-dealing since generally the benefit is incidental and tenuous. For example, a grant by a private foundation to a section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3) organization will not be an act of self-dealing merely because such organization is located in the same area as a corporation which is a substantial contributor to the foundation, or merely because one of the section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3) organization's officers, directors, or trustees is also a manager of or a substantial contributor to the foundation. Similarly, a scholarship or a fellowship grant to a person other than a disqualified person, which is paid or incurred by a private foundation in accordance with a program which is consistent with:

(i) The requirements of the foundation's exempt status under section 501(c)(3),

(ii) The requirements for the allowance of deductions under section 170 for contributions made to the foundation, and

(iii) The requirements of section 4945(g)(1),

will not be an act of self-dealing under section 4941(d)(1) merely because a disqualified person indirectly receives an incidental benefit from such grant. Thus, a scholarship or a fellowship grant made by a private foundation in accordance with a program to award scholarships or fellowship grants to the children of employees of a substantial contributor shall not constitute an act of self-dealing if the requirements of the preceding sentence are satisfied. For an example of the kind of scholarship program with an employment nexus that meets the above requirements, see § 53.4945-4(b)(5) (example 1).

(3) Non-compensatory indemnification of foundation managers against liability for defense in civil proceedings. (i) Except as provided in § 53.4941(d)-3(c), section 4941(d)(1) shall not apply to the indemnification by a private foundation of a foundation manager, with respect to the manager's defense in any civil judicial or civil administrative proceeding arising out of the manager's performance of services (or failure to perform services) on behalf of the foundation, against all expenses (other than taxes, including taxes imposed by chapter 42, penalties, or expenses of correction) including attorneys' fees, judgments and settlement expenditures if—

(A) Such expenses are reasonably incurred by the manager in connection with such proceeding; and

(B) The manager has not acted willfully and without reasonable cause with respect to the act or failure to act which led to such proceeding or to liability for tax under chapter 42.

(ii) Similarly, except as provided in § 53.4941(d)-3(c), section 4941(d)(1) shall not apply to premiums for insurance to make or to reimburse a foundation for an indemnification payment allowed pursuant to this paragraph (f)(3). Neither shall an indemnification or payment of insurance allowed pursuant to this paragraph (f)(3) be treated as part of the compensation paid to such manager for purposes of determining whether the compensation is reasonable under chapter 42.

(4) Compensatory indemnification of foundation managers against liability for defense in civil proceedings. (i) The indemnification by a private foundation of a foundation manager for compensatory expenses shall be an act of self-dealing under this paragraph unless when such payment is added to other compensation paid to such manager the total compensation is reasonable under chapter 42. A compensatory expense for purposes of this paragraph (f) is—

(A) Any penalty, tax (including a tax imposed by chapter 42), or expense of correction that is owed by the foundation manager;

(B) Any expense not reasonably incurred by the manager in connection with a civil judicial or civil administrative proceeding arising out of the manager's performance of services on behalf of the foundation; or

(C) Any expense resulting from an act or failure to act with respect to which the manager has acted willfully and without reasonable cause.

(ii) Similarly, the payment by a private foundation of the premiums for an insurance policy providing liability insurance to a foundation manager for expenses described in this paragraph (f)(4) shall be an act of self-dealing under this paragraph (f) unless when such premiums are added to other compensation paid to such manager the total compensation is reasonable under chapter 42.

(5) Insurance allocation. A private foundation shall not be engaged in an act of self-dealing if the foundation purchases a single insurance policy to provide its managers both the noncompensatory and the compensatory coverage discussed in this paragraph (f), provided that the total insurance premium is allocated and that each manager's portion of the premium attributable to the compensatory coverage is included in that manager's compensation for purposes of determining reasonable compensation under chapter 42.

(6) Indemnification. For purposes of this paragraph (f), the term indemnification shall include not only reimbursement by the foundation for expenses that the foundation manager has already incurred or anticipates incurring but also direct payment by the foundation of such expenses as the expenses arise.

(7) Taxable income. The determination of whether any amount of indemnification or insurance premium discussed in this paragraph (f) is included in the manager's gross income for individual income tax purposes is made on the basis of the provisions of chapter 1 and without regard to the treatment of such amount for purposes of determining whether the manager's compensation is reasonable under chapter 42.

(8) De minimis items. Any property or service that is excluded from income under section 132(a)(4) may be disregarded for purposes of determining whether the recipient's compensation is reasonable under chapter 42.

(9) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.M, a private foundation, makes a grant of $50,000 to the governing body of N City for the purpose of alleviating the slum conditions which exist in a particular neighborhood of N. Corporation P, a substantial contributor to M, is located in the same area in which the grant is to be used. Although the general improvement of the area may constitute an incidental and tenuous benefit to P, such benefit by itself will not constitute an act of self-dealing.

Example 2.Private foundation X established a program to award scholarship grants to the children of employees of corporation M, a substantial contributor to X. After disclosure of the method of carrying out such program, X received a determination letter from the Internal Revenue Service stating that X is exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3), that contributions to X are deductible under section 170, and that X's scholarship program qualifies under section 4945(g)(1). A scholarship grant to a person not a disqualified person with respect to X paid or incurred by X in accordance with such program shall not be an indirect act of self-dealing between X and M.

Example 3.Private foundation Y owns voting stock in corporation Z, the management of which includes certain disqualified persons with respect to Y. Prior to Z's annual stockholder meeting, the management solicits and receives the foundation's proxies. The transfer of such proxies in and of itself shall not be an act of self-dealing.

Example 4.A, a disqualified person with respect to private foundation S, contributes certain real estate to S for the purpose of building a neighborhood recreation center in a particular underprivileged area. As a condition of the gift, S agrees to name the recreation center after A. Since the benefit to A is only incidental and tenuous, the naming of the recreation center, by itself, will not be an act of self-dealing.

(g) Payment to a government official. Except as provided in section 4941(d)(2)(G) or § 53.4941(d)-3(e), the agreement by a private foundation to make any payment of money or other property to a government official, as defined in section 4946(c), shall constitute an act of self-dealing. For purposes of this paragraph, an individual who is otherwise described in section 4946(c) shall be treated as a government official while on leave of absence from the government without pay.

[T.D. 7270, 38 FR 9493, Apr. 17, 1973, as amended by T.D. 7938, 49 FR 3848, Jan. 31, 1984; T.D. 8639, 60 FR 65568, Dec. 20, 1995]

§ 53.4941(d)-3 Exceptions to self-dealing.

(a) General rule. In general, a transaction described in section 4941(d)(2) (B), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H) is not an act of self-dealing. Section 4941(d)(2) (B), (C), and (H) provide limited exceptions to certain specific transactions, as described in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), (c)(2), and (d)(3) of § 53.4941(d)-2. Section 4941(d)(2) (D), (E), (F), and (G) and paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section described certain transactions which are not acts of self-dealing.

(b) Furnishing of goods, services, or facilities to a disqualified person—(1) In general. Under section 4941(d)(2)(D), the furnishing of goods, services, or facilities by a private foundation to a disqualified person shall not be an act of self-dealing if such goods, services, or facilities are made available to the general public on at least as favorable a basis as they are made available to the disqualified person. This subparagraph shall not apply, however, in the case of goods, services, or facilities furnished later than May 16, 1973, unless such goods, services, or facilities are functionally related, within the meaning of section 4942(j)(5), to the exercise or performance by a private foundation of its charitable, educational, or other purpose or function constituting the basis for its exemption under section 501(c)(3).

(2) General public. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “general public” shall include those persons who, because of the particular nature of the activities of the private foundation, would be reasonably expected to utilize such goods, services, or facilities. This paragraph shall not apply, however, unless there is a substantial number of persons other than disqualified persons who are actually utilizing such goods, services, or facilities. Thus, a private foundation which furnishes recreational or park facilities to the general public may furnish such facilities to a disqualified person provided they are furnished to him on a basis which is not more favorable than that on which they are furnished to the general public. Similarly, the sale of a book or magazine by a private foundation to disqualified persons shall not be an act of self-dealing if the publication of such book or magazine is functionally related to a charitable or educational activity of the foundation and the book or magazine is made available to the disqualified persons and the general public at the same price. In addition, if the terms of the sale require, for example, payment within 60 days from the date of delivery of the book or magazine, such terms are consistent with normal commercial practices, and payment is made within the 60-day period, the transaction shall not be treated as a loan or other extension of credit under § 53.4941(d)-2(c)(1).

(c) Payment of compensation for certain personal services—(1) In general. Under section 4941(d)(2)(E), except in the case of a Government official (as defined in section 4946(c)), the payment of compensation (and the payment or reimbursement of expenses, including reasonable advances for expenses anticipated in the immediate future) by a private foundation to a disqualified person for the performance of personal services which are reasonable and necessary to carry out the exempt purpose of the private foundation shall not be an act of self-dealing if such compensation (or payment or reimbursement) is not excessive. For purposes of this subparagraph the term “personal services” includes the services of a broker serving as agent for the private foundation, but not the services of a dealer who buys from the private foundation as principal and resells to third parties. For the determination whether compensation is excessive, see § 1.162-7 of this chapter (Income Tax Regulations). This paragraph applies without regard to whether the person who receives the compensation (or payment or reimbursement) is an individual. The portion of any payment which represents payment for property shall not be treated as payment of compensation (or payment or reimbursement of expenses) for the performance of personal services for purposes of this paragraph. For rules with respect to the performance of general banking services, see § 53.4941(d)-2(c)(4). Further, the making of a cash advance to a foundation manager or employee for expenses on behalf of the foundation is not an act of self-dealing, so long as the amount of the advance is reasonable in relation to the duties and expense requirements of the foundation manager. Except where reasonably allowable pursuant to subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph, such advances shall not ordinarily exceed $500. For example, if a foundation makes an advance to a foundation manager to cover anticipated out-of-pocket current expenses for a reasonable period (such as a month) and the manager accounts to the foundation under a periodic reimbursement program for actual expenses incurred, the foundation will not be regarded as having engaged in an act of self-dealing:

(i) When it makes the advance,

(ii) When it replenishes the funds upon receipt of supporting vouchers from the foundation manager, or

(iii) If it temporarily adds to the advance to cover extraordinary expenses anticipated to be incurred in fulfillment of a special assignment (such as long distance travel).

(2) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.M, a partnership, is a firm of 10 lawyers engaged in the practice of law. A and B, partners in M, serve as trustees to private foundation W and, therefore, are disqualified persons. In addition, A and B own more than 35 percent of the profits interest in M, thereby making M a disqualified person. M performs various legal services for W from time to time as such services are requested. The payment of compensation by W to M shall not constitute an act of self-dealing if the services performed are reasonable and necessary for the carrying out of W's exempt purposes and the amount paid by W for such services is not excessive.

Example 2.C, a manager of private foundation X, owns an investment counseling business. Acting in his capacity as an investment counselor, C manages X's investment portfolio for which he receives an amount which is determined to be not excessive. The payment of such compensation to C shall not constitute an act of self-dealing.

Example 3.M, a commercial bank, serves as a trustee for private foundation Y. In addition to M's duties as trustee, M maintains Y's checking and savings accounts and rents a safety deposit box to Y. The use of the funds by M and the payment of compensation by Y to M for such general banking services shall be treated as the payment of compensation for the performance of personal services which are reasonable and necessary to carry out the exempt purposes of Y if such compensation is not excessive.

Example 4.D, a substantial contributor to private foundation Z, owns a factory which manufactures microscopes. D contracts with Z to manufacture 100 microscopes for Z. Any payment to D under the contract shall constitute an act of self-dealing, since such payment does not constitute the payment of compensation for the performance of personal services.

(d) Certain transactions between a foundation and a corporation—(1) In general. Under section 4941(d)(2)(F), any transaction between a private foundation and a corporation which is a disqualified person will not be an act of self-dealing if such transaction is engaged in pursuant to a liquidation, merger, redemption, recapitalization, or other corporate adjustment, organization, or reorganization, so long as all the securities of the same class as that held (prior to such transaction) by the foundation are subject to the same terms and such terms provide for receipt by the foundation of no less than fair market value. For purposes of this paragraph, all of the securities are not “subject to the same terms unless, pursuant to such transaction,” The corporation makes a bona fide offer on a uniform basis to the foundation and every other person who holds such securities. The fact that a private foundation receives property, such as debentures, while all other persons holding securities of the same class receive cash for their interests, will be evidence that such offer was not made on a uniform basis. This paragraph may apply even if no other person holds any securities of the class held by the foundation. In such event, however, the consideration received by holders of other classes of securities, or the interests retained by holders of such other classes, when considered in relation to the consideration received by the foundation, must indicate that the foundation received at least as favorable treatment in relation to its interests as the holders of any other class of securities. In addition, the foundation must receive no less than the fair market value of its interests.

(2) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.Private foundation X owns 50 percent of the class A preferred stock of corporation M, which is a disqualified person with respect to X. The terms of such securities provide that the stock may be called for redemption at any time by M at 105 percent of the face amount of the stock. M exercises this right and calls all the class A preferred stock by paying 105 percent of the face amount in cash. At the time of the redemption of the class A preferred stock, it is determined that the fair market value of the preferred stock is equal to its face amount. In such case, the redemption by M of the preferred stock of X is not an act of self-dealing.

Example 2.Private foundation Y, which is on a calendar year basis, acquires 60 percent of the class A preferred stock of corporation N by will on January 10, 1970. N, which is also on a calendar year basis, is a disqualified person with respect to Y. In 1971, N offers to redeem all of the class A preferred stock for a consideration equal to 100 percent of the face amount of such stock by the issuance of debentures. The offer expires January 2, 1972. Both Y and all other holders of the class A preferred stock accept the offer and enter into the transaction on January 2, 1972, at which time it is determined that the fair market value of the debentures is no less than the fair market value of the preferred stock. The transaction on January 2, 1972, shall not be treated as an act of self-dealing for 1972. However, because under § 53.4941 (e)-1 (e)(1)(i) an act of self dealing occurs on the first day of each taxable year or portion of a taxable year that an extension of credit from a foundation to a disqualified person goes uncorrected, if such debentures are held by Y after December 31, 1972, except as provided in § 53.4941(d)-4(c)(4), such extension of credit shall not be excepted from the definition of an act of self dealing by reason of the January 2, 1972, transaction. See § 53.4941(d)-4(c)(4) for rules indicating that under certain circumstances such debentures could be held by Y until December 31, 1979.

(e) Certain payments to government officials. Under section 4941(d)(2)(G), in the case of a government official, in addition to the exceptions provided in section 4941(d)(2) (B), (C), and (D), section 4941(d)(1) shall not apply to:

(1) A prize or award which is not includible in gross income under section 74(b), if the government official receiving such prize or award is selected from the general public;

(2) A scholarship or a fellowship grant which is excludable from gross income under section 117(a) and which is to be utilized for study at an educational institution described in section 151(e)(4);

(3) Any annuity or other payment (forming part of a stock-bonus, pension, or profit sharing plan) by a trust which constitutes a qualified trust under section 401;

(4) Any annuity or other payment under a plan which meets the requirements of section 404(a)(2);

(5) Any contribution or gift (other than a contribution or gift of money) to, or services or facilities made available to, any government official, if the aggregate value of such contributions, gifts, services, and facilities does not exceed $25 during any calendar year;

(6) Any payment made under 5 U.S.C. Chapter 41 (relating to government employees' training programs);

(7) Any payment or reimbursement of traveling expenses (including amounts expended for meals and lodging, regardless of whether the government official is away from home within the meaning of section 162(a)(2), and including reasonable advances for such expenses anticipated in the immediate future) for travel solely from one point in the United States to another in connection with one or more purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B), but only if such payment or reimbursement does not exceed the actual cost of the transportation involved plus an amount for all other traveling expenses not in excess of 125 percent of the maximum amount payable under 5 U.S.C. 5702(a) for like travel by employees of the United States;

(8) Any agreement to employ or make a grant to a government official for any period after the termination of his government service if such agreement is entered into within 90 days prior to such termination;

(9) If a government official attends or participates in a conference sponsored by a private foundation, the allocable portion of the cost of such conference and other nonmonetary benefits (for example, benefits of a professional, intellectual, or psychological nature, or benefits resulting from the publication or the distribution to participants of a record of the conference), as well as the payment or reimbursement of expenses (including reasonable advances for expenses anticipated in connection with such a conference in the near future), received by such government official as a result of such attendance or participation shall not be subject to section 4941(d)(1), so long as the conference is in furtherance of the exempt purposes of the foundation; or

(10) In the case of any government official who was on leave of absence without pay on December 31, 1969, pursuant to a commitment entered into on or before such date for the purpose of engaging in certain activities for which such individual was to be paid by one or more private foundations, any payment of compensation (or payment or reimbursement of expenses, including reasonable advances for expenses anticipated in the immediate future) by such private foundations to such individual for any continuous period after December 31, 1969, and prior to January 1, 1971, during which such individual remains on leave of absence to engage in such activities. A commitment is considered entered into on or before December 31, 1969, if on or before such date, the amount and nature of the payments to be made and the name of the individual receiving such payments were entered on the records of the payor, or were otherwise adequately evidenced, or the notice of the payment to be received was communicated to the payee orally or in writing.

[T.D. 7270, 38 FR 9493, Apr. 17, 1973, as amended by T.D. 7938, 49 FR 3848, Jan. 31, 1984]

§ 53.4941(d)-4 Transitional rules.

(a) Certain transactions involving securities acquired by a foundation before May 27, 1969—(1) In general. Under section 101(l)(2)(A) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969 (83 Stat. 533), any transaction between a private foundation and a corporation which is a disqualified person shall not be an act of self-dealing if such transaction is pursuant to the terms of securities of such corporation, if such terms were in existence at the time such securities were acquired by the foundation, and if such securities were acquired by the foundation before May 27, 1969.

(2) Example. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.Private foundation X purchased preferred stock of corporation M, a disqualified person with respect to X, on March 15, 1969. The terms of such securities on such date provided that the stock could be called by M at any time if M paid the outstanding shareholders cash equal to 105 percent of the face amount of the stock. If M exercises this right and calls the stock owned by X on February 15, 1970, such call shall not constitute an act of self-dealing even if such price is not equivalent to fair market value on such date and even if not all of the securities of that class are called.

(b) Disposition of certain business holdings—(1) In general. Under section 101(l)(2)(B) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969 (83 Stat. 533), the sale, exchange, or other disposition of property which is owned by a private foundation on May 26, 1969, to a disqualified person shall not be an act of self-dealing if the foundation is required to dispose of such property in order not to be liable for tax under section 4943 (determined without regard to section 4943(c)(2)(C) and as if every disposition by the foundation were made to disqualified persons) and if such disposition satisfies the requirements of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph. For purposes of applying this paragraph in the case of a disposition completed before January 1, 1975, or after October 4, 1976, and before January 1, 1977, the amount of excess business holdings is determined under section 4943(c) without taking subsection (c)(4) into account.

(2) Terms of the disposition. Subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall not apply unless:

(i) The private foundation receives an amount which equals or exceeds the fair market value of the business holdings at the time of disposition or at the time a contract for such disposition was previously executed; and

(ii) At the time with respect to which subdivision (i) of this subparagraph is applied, the transaction would not have constituted a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b) or the corresponding provisions of prior law if such provisions had been applied at such time.

(3) Property received under a trust or will. For purposes of this paragraph, property shall be considered as owned by a private foundation on May 26, 1969, if such property is acquired by such foundation under the terms of a will executed on or before such date, under the terms of a trust which was irrevocable on such date, or under the terms of a revocable trust executed on or before such date if the property would have passed under a will which would have met the requirements of this subparagraph but for the fact that a grantor dies without having revoked the trust. An amendment or republication of a will which was executed on or before May 26, 1969, does not prevent any interest in a business enterprise which was to pass under the terms of such will (which terms were in effect on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter) from being treated as owned by a private foundation on or before May 26, 1969, solely because:

(i) There is a reduction in the interest in the business enterprise which the foundation was to receive under the terms of the will (for example, if the foundation is to receive the residuary estate and one class of stock is disposed of by the decedent during his lifetime or by a subsequent codicil),

(ii) Such amendment or republication is necessary in order to comply with section 508(e) and the regulations thereunder,

(iii) There is a change in the executor of the will, or

(iv) There is any other change which does not otherwise change the rights of the foundation with respect to such interest in the business enterprise.

However, if under such amendment or republication there is an increase of the interest in the business enterprise which the foundation was to receive under the terms of the will in effect on May 26, 1969, such increase shall not be treated as owned by the private foundation on or before May 26, 1969, but under such circumstances the interest which would have been acquired before such increase shall be treated as owned by the private foundation on or before May 26, 1969.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On May 26, 1969, private foundation X owns 10 percent of corporation Y's voting stock, which is traded on the New York Stock Exchange. Disqualified persons with respect to X own an additional 40 percent of such voting stock. X is on a calendar year basis. Prior to January 1, 1975, X privately sold its entire 10 percent for cash to B, a disqualified person, at the price quoted on the stock exchange at the close of the day less commissions. Since the 10 percent owned by X would constitute excess business holdings without the application of section 4943(c) (2)(C) or (4), the disposition will not constitute an act of self-dealing.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that the only stock of corporation Y which X owns is 1.5 percent of Y's voting stock. Since the 1.5 percent owned by X would constitute excess business holdings without the application of section 4943(c) (2)(C) or (4), the disposition of the stock to B for cash will not constitute an act of self-dealing.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that B, instead of paying cash as consideration for the stock, issued a 10-year secured promissory note as consideration for the stock. The issuance of such promissory note will not be treated as an act of self-dealing until taxable years beginning after December 31, 1979, unless such issuance would have been a prohibited transaction under section 503(b), or unless the transaction does not remain throughout its life at least as favorable as an arm's-length contract negotiated currently. See paragraph (c) of this section.

(c) Existing leases and loans—(1) In general. Under section 101(1)(2)(C) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969 (83 Stat. 533), the leasing of property or the lending of money (or other extension of credit) between a disqualified person and a private foundation pursuant to a binding contract which was in effect on October 9, 1969 (or pursuant to a renewal or modification of such a contract, as described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph), shall not be an act of self-dealing until taxable years beginning after December 31, 1979, if:

(i) At the time the contract was executed, such contract was not a prohibited transaction (within the meaning of section 503(b) or the corresponding provisions of prior law), and

(ii) The leasing or lending of money (or other extension of credit) remains throughout the term of the lease or extension of credit at least as favorable as a current arm's-length transaction with an unrelated person.

(2) Renewal or modification of existing contracts. A renewal or a modification of an existing contract is referred to in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph only if any modifications of the terms of such contract are not substantial and the relative advantages of the modified contract compared with contracts entered into at arm's-length with an unrelated person at the time of the renewal or modification are at least as favorable to the private foundation as the relative advantages of the original contract compared with contracts entered into at arm's-length with an unrelated person at the time of execution of the original contract. Such renewal or modification need not be provided for in the original contract; it may take place before or after the expiration of the original contract and at any time before the first day of the first taxable year of the private foundation beginning after December 31, 1979. Where, in a normal commercial setting, an unrelated party in the position of a private foundation could be expected to insist upon a renegotiation or termination of a binding contract, the private foundation must so act. Thus, for example, if a disqualified person leases office space from a private foundation on a month-to-month basis, and a party in the position of the private foundation could be expected to renegotiate the rent required in such contract because of a rise in the fair market value of such office space, the private foundation must so act in order to avoid participation in an act of self-dealing. Where the private foundation has no right to insist upon renegotiation, an act of self-dealing shall occur if the terms of the contract become less favorable to the foundation than an arm's-length contract negotiated currently, unless:

(i) The variation from current fair market value is de minimis, or

(ii) The contract is renegotiated by the foundation and the disqualified person so that the foundation will receive no less than fair market value. For purposes of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph de minimis ordinarily shall be no more than one-half of 1 percent in the rate of return in the case of a loan, or 10 percent of the rent in the case of a lease.

(3) Example. The provisions of subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example.

Example.Under a binding contract entered into on January 1, 1964, X, a private foundation, leases a building for 10 years from Z, a disqualified person. At the time the contract was executed, the lease was not a “prohibited transaction” within the meaning of section 503(b), since the rent charged X was only 50 percent of the rent which would have been charged in an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated person. On January 1, 1974, X renewed the lease for 5 additional years. The terms of the renewal agreement provided for a 20 percent increase in the amount of rent charged X. However, at the time of such renewal, the rent which would have been charged in an arm's-length transaction had also increased by 20 percent from that of 1964. The renewal agreement shall not be treated as an act of self-dealing.

(4) Certain exchanges of stock or securities for bonds, debentures or other indebtedness. (i) In the case of a transaction described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section or paragraph (d) of § 53.4941(d)-3, where a bond, debenture, or other indebtedness of a disqualified person is acquired by a private foundation in exchange for stock or securities which it held on October 9, 1969, and at all times thereafter, such indebtedness shall be treated as an extension of credit pursuant to a binding contract in effect on October 9, 1969, to which this paragraph applies. Thus, so long as the extension of credit remains at least as favorable as an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated person and neither the acquisition of the securities which were exchanged for the indebtedness nor the exchange of such securities for the indebtedness was a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b) (or the corresponding provisions of prior law) at the time of such acquisition, such extension of credit shall not be an act of self-dealing until taxable years beginning after December 31, 1979.

(ii) The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.Assume the facts as stated in example (2) of § 53.4941 (d)-3 (d)(2), except that the preferred stock was held by Y on October 9, 1969, and at all times thereafter until the redemption occurred on January 2, 1972. In addition, assume that the acquisition of the preferred stock was not a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b) at the time of such acquisition and the exchange of the preferred stock for the debentures would not have been a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b). For 1973 through 1979, the extension of credit arising from the holding of the debentures is not an act of self-dealing so long as the extension of credit remains at least as favorable as an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated person. See, however, example (3) of § 53.4941 (e)-1 (e)(1)(ii).

Example 2.Assume the same facts as stated in example (1) of § 53.4941 (d)-4 (b)(4), except that private foundation X sold its entire 10 percent of corporation Y's voting stock in exchange for Y's secured notes which mature on December 31, 1985. For taxable years beginning before January 1, 1980, the extension of credit arising from the holding of such notes by X is not an act of self-dealing so long as the extension of credit remains at least as favorable as an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated person and neither the acquisition of the securities which were exchanged for the indebtedness nor the exchange of such securities for the indebtedness was a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b) (or the corresponding provisions of prior law). Under § 53.4941(e)-1, a new extension of credit occurs on the first day of each taxable year in which an indebtedness is outstanding; therefore, if the secured notes are held by X after December 31, 1979, a new extension of credit not excepted from the definition of an act of self-dealing will occur on the first day of the first taxable year beginning after December 31, 1979, and on the first day of each succeeding taxable year in which X holds such secured notes.

(d) Sharing of goods, services, or facilities before January 1, 1980. (1) Under section 101(1)(2)(D) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969 (83 Stat. 533), the use (other than leasing) of goods, services, or facilities which are shared by a private foundation and a disqualified person shall not be an act of self-dealing until taxable years beginning after December 31, 1979, if:

(i) The use is pursuant to an arrangement in effect before October 9, 1969, and at all times thereafter;

(ii) The arrangement was not a prohibited transaction (within the meaning of sec. 503(b) or the corresponding provisions of prior law) at the time it was made; and

(iii) The arrangement would not be a prohibited transaction if section 503(b) continued to apply.

For purposes of this paragraph, such arrangement need not be a binding contract.

(2) The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.In 1964 X, a private foundation, and B, a disqualified person, arranged for the sharing of computer time in B's son's company for a 10-year period commencing January 1, 1965. B's son has the unilateral right to terminate the arrangement at any time. X uses the computer facilities in connection with an analysis of its grant-making activities, while B's use is related to his business affairs. Both X and B make reasonable fixed payments to the computer company based on the number of hours of computer use and comparable to fees charged in arm's-length transactions with unrelated parties. The company imposes a maximum limit per month on the sum of the number of hours for which X and B use the computer facilities. Under these circumstances, the sharing of computer time is not an act of self-dealing.

(e) Use of certain property acquired before October 9, 1969. (1) Under section 101(1)(2)(E) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969 (83 Stat. 533), the use of property in which a private foundation and a disqualified person have a joint or common interest will not be an act of self-dealing if the interests of both in such property were acquired before October 9, 1969.

(2) The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.Prior to October 9, 1969, C, a disqualified person, gave beachfront property to private foundation X for use as a recreational facility for underprivileged, inner-city children during the summer months. However, C retained the right to use such property for his life. The use of such property by C or X is not an act of self-dealing.

(f) Disposition of leased property—(1) In general. Under section 101(l)(2)(F) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969, as amended by the Tax Reform Act of 1976 (90 Stat. 1713), the sale, exchange or other disposition (other than by lease) to a disqualified person of property being leased to the disqualified person by a private foundation is not an act of self-dealing if:

(i) The private foundation is leasing substantially all of the property to the disqualified person under a lease to which paragraph (c) of this section applies;

(ii) The disposition occurs after October 4, 1976, and before January 1, 1978; and

(iii) The disposition satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(2) of this section.

(2) Terms of disposition. Paragraph (f)(1) of this section applies only if:

(i) The private foundation receives an amount that equals or exceeds the fair market value of the property either at the time of the disposition or at the time (after June 30, 1976) the contract for such disposition was executed;

(ii) In computing the fair market value of the property, no diminution of that value results from the fact that the property is subject to any lease to disqualified persons; and

(iii) At the time with respect to which paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section is applied, the transaction would not have constituted a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b) or the corresponding provisions of prior law if those provisions had been applied at the time of the transaction.

[T.D. 7270, 38 FR 9493, Apr. 17, 1973, as amended by T.D. 7678, 45 FR 12416, Feb. 26, 1980]

§ 53.4941(e)-1 Definitions.

(a) Taxable period—(1) In general. For purposes of any act of self-dealing, the term “taxable period” means the period beginning with the date on which the act of self-dealing occurs and ending on the earliest of:

(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4941(a)(1),

(ii) The date on which correction of the act of self-dealing is completed, or

(iii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4941(a)(1) is assessed.

(2) Date of occurrence. An act of self-dealing occurs on the date on which all the terms and conditions of the transaction and the liabilities of the parties have been fixed. Thus, for example, if a private foundation gives a disqualified person a binding option on June 15, 1971, to purchase property owned by the foundation at any time before June 15, 1972, the act of self-dealing has occurred on June 15, 1971. Similarly, in the case of a conditional sales contract, the act of self-dealing shall be considered as occurring on the date the property is transferred subject only to the condition that the buyer make payment for receipt of such property.

(3) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph is not mailed because a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency has been accepted, or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the taxable period.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On July 16, 1970, F, a manager of private foundation X acting on behalf of the foundation, knowing his act to be one of self-dealing, willfully and without reasonable cause engaged in an act of self-dealing by selling certain real estate to A, a disqualified person. On March 25, 1973, the Internal Revenue Service mailed a notice of deficiency to A with respect to the tax imposed on the sale under section 4941(a)(1). The taxable period with respect to the act of self-dealing for both A and F is July 16, 1970, through March 25, 1973.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that the act of self-dealing is corrected by A on March 17, 1971. The taxable period with respect to the act of self-dealing for both A and F is July 16, 1970, through March 17, 1971.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that on August 20, 1972, A files a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of the tax imposed on the sale under section 4941(a)(1) which is accepted. The taxable period with respect to the act of self-dealing for both A and F is July 16, 1970, through August 20, 1972.

(b) Amount involved—(1) In general. Except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, for purposes of any act of self-dealing, the term “amount involved” means the greater of the amount of money and the fair market value of the other property given or the amount of money and the fair market value of the other property received.

(2) Exceptions. (i) In the case of the payment of compensation for personal services to persons other than Government officials, the amount involved shall be only the excess compensation paid by the private foundation.

(ii) Where the use of money or other property is involved, the amount involved shall be the greater of the amount paid for such use or the fair market value of such use for the period for which the money or other property is used. Thus, for example, in the case of a lease of a building by a private foundation to a disqualified person, the amount involved is the greater of the amount of rent received by the private foundation from the disqualified person or the fair rental value of the building for the period such building is used by the disqualified person.

(iii) In cases in which a transaction would not have been an act of self-dealing had the private foundation received fair market value, the amount involved is the excess of the fair market value of the property transferred by the private foundation over the amount which the private foundation receives, but only if the parties have made a good faith effort to determine fair market value. For purposes of this subdivision a good faith effort to determine fair market value shall ordinarily have been made where:

(a) The person making the valuation is not a disqualified person with respect to the foundation and is both competent to make the valuation and not in a position, whether by stock ownership or otherwise, to derive an economic benefit from the value utilized, and

(b) The method utilized in making the valuation is a generally accepted method for valuing comparable property, stock, or securities for purposes of arm's-length business transactions where valuation is a significant factor.

See section 4941(d)(2)(F) and §§ 53.4941(d)-1(b)(3), 53.4941(d)-3 (d)(1) and 53.4941(d)-4(b). Thus, for example, if a corporation which is a disqualified person with respect to a private foundation recapitalizes in a transaction which would be described in section 4941(d)(2)(F) but for the fact that the private foundation receives new stock worth only $95,000 in exchange for the stock which it previously held in the corporation and which has a fair market value of $100,000 at the time of the recapitalization, the amount involved would be $5,000 ($100,000—$95,000) if there had been a good faith attempt to value the stock. Similarly, if an estate enters into a transaction with a disqualified person with respect to a foundation and such transaction would be described in § 53.4941(d)-1(b)(3) but for the fact that the estate receives less than fair market value for the property exchanged, the amount involved is the excess of the fair market value of the property the estate transfers to the disqualified person over the money and the fair market value of the property received by the estate.

(3) Time for determining fair market value. The fair market value of the property or the use thereof, as the case may be, shall be determined as of the date on which the act of self-dealing occurred in the case of the initial taxes imposed by section 4941(a) and shall be the highest fair market value during the taxable period in the case of the additional taxes imposed by section 4941(b).

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A, a disqualified person with respect to private foundation M, uses an airplane owned by M on June 15 and June 16, 1970, for a 2-day trip to New York City on personal business and pays M $500 for the use of such airplane. The fair rental value for the use of the airplane for those 2 days is $3,000. For purposes of section 4941(a), the amount involved with respect to the act of self-dealing is $3,000.

Example 2.On April 10, 1970, B, a manager of private foundation P, borrows $100,000 from P at 6 percent interest per annum. Both principal and interest are to be paid 1 year from the date of the loan. The fair market value of the use of the money on April 10, 1970, is 10 percent per annum. Six months later, B and P terminate the loan, and B repays the $100,000 principal plus $3,000 ($100,000 × 6 percent for one-half year) interest. For purposes of section 4941(a), the amount involved with respect to the act of self-dealing is $5,000 ($100,000 × 10 percent for one-half year) for each year or partial year in the taxable period.

Example 3.C, a substantial contributor to private foundation S, leases office space in a building owned by S for $3,600 for 1 year beginning on January 1, 1971. The fair rental value of the building for a 1-year lease on January 1, 1971, is $5,600. On December 31, 1971, the lease is terminated. For purposes of section 4941(a), the amount involved with respect to the act of self-dealing is $5,600 for each year or partial year in the taxable period.

Example 4.D, a disqualified person with respect to private foundation T, purchases 100 shares of stock from T for $5,000 on June 15, 1982. The fair market value of the 100 shares of stock on that date is $4,800. D sells the 100 shares of stock on December 20, 1983, for $6,000. On December 27, 1983, a notice of deficiency with respect to the taxes imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of section 4941 is mailed to D and the taxable period ends. D fails to correct during the taxable period. Between June 15, 1982, and the end of the taxable period, the stock was quoted on the New York Stock Exchange at a high of $67 per share. The amount involved with respect to the tax imposed under subsection (a) is $5,000, and the amount involved with respect to the tax imposed under subsection (b) for failure to correct is $6,700 (100 shares at $67 per share), the highest fair market value during the taxable period.

Example 5.Corporation M, a disqualified person with respect to private foundation V, redeems all of its Class B common stock, some of which is held by V. The redemption of V's stock would be described in section 4941(d)(2)(F) but for the fact that V receives only $95,000 in exchange for stock which has a fair market value of $100,000 at the time of the transaction. The $95,000 value of V's stock, which is not publicly traded, was determined by investment bankers in accordance with accepted methods of valuation that would be utilized if the M stock held by V were to be offered for sale to the public. Therefore, the amount involved with respect to the transaction will ordinarily be limited to $5,000 ($100,000—$95,000).

(c) Correction—(1) In general. Correction shall be accomplished by undoing the transaction which constituted the act of self-dealing to the extent possible, but in no case shall the resulting financial position of the private foundation be worse than that which it would be if the disqualified person were dealing under the highest fiduciary standards. For example, where a disqualified person sells property to a private foundation for cash, correction may be accomplished by recasting the transaction in the form of a gift by returning the cash to the foundation. Subparagraphs (2) through (6) of this paragraph illustrate the minimum standards of correction in the case of certain specific acts of self-dealing. Principles similar to the principles contained in such subparagraphs shall be applied with respect to other acts of self-dealing. Any correction pursuant to this paragraph and section 4941 shall not be an act of self-dealing.

(2) Sales by foundation. (i) In the case of a sale of property by a private foundation to a disqualified person for cash, undoing the transaction includes, but is not limited to, requiring rescission of the sale where possible. However, in order to avoid placing the foundation in a position worse than that in which it would be if rescission were not required, the amount returned to the disqualified person pursuant to the rescission shall not exceed the lesser of the cash received by the private foundation or the fair market value of the property received by the disqualified person. For purposes of the preceding sentence, fair market value shall be the lesser of the fair market value at the time of the act of self-dealing or the fair market value at the time of rescission. In addition to rescission, the disqualified person is required to pay over to the private foundation any net profits he realized after the original sale with respect to the property he received from the sale. Thus, for example, the disqualified person must pay over to the foundation any income derived by him from the property he received from the original sale to the extent such income during the correction period exceeds the income derived by the foundation during the correction period from the cash which the disqualified person originally paid to the foundation.

(ii) If, prior to the end of the correction period, the disqualified person resells the property in an arm's-length transaction to a bona fide purchaser who is not the foundation or another disqualified person, no rescission is required. In such case, the disqualified person must pay over to the foundation the excess (if any) of the greater of the fair market value of such property on the date on which correction of the act of self-dealing occurs or the amount realized by the disqualified person from such arm's length resale over the amount which would have been returned to the disqualified person pursuant to subdivision (i) of this subparagraph if rescission had been required. In addition, the disqualified person is required to pay over to the foundation any net profits he realized, as described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph.

(iii) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On July 1, 1970, private foundation M sold a painting to A, a disqualified person, for $5,000, in a transaction not within any of the exceptions to self-dealing. The fair market value of the painting on such date was $6,000. On March 25, 1971, the painting is still owned by A and has a fair market value of $7,200. A did not derive any income as a result of purchasing the painting. In order to correct the act of self-dealing under this subparagraph on March 25, 1971, the sale must be rescinded by the return of the painting to M. However, pursuant to such rescission, M must not pay A more than $5,000, the original consideration received by M.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that A sold the painting on December 15, 1970, in an arm's-length transaction to C, a bona fide purchaser who is not a disqualified person, for $6,100. In addition, assume that the fair market value of the painting on March 25, 1971, is $7,600. In order to correct the act of self-dealing under this subparagraph on March 25, 1971, A must pay M $2,600 ($7,600, the fair market value at the time of correction, less $5,000, the amount which would have been returned to A if rescission had been required). Since the painting was sold to C in an arm's-length transaction prior to correction, no rescission is required.

(3) Sales to foundation. (i) In the case of a sale of property to a private foundation by a disqualified person for cash, undoing the transaction includes, but is not limited to, requiring rescission of the sale where possible. However, in order to avoid placing the foundation in a position worse than that in which it would be if rescission were not required, the amount received from the disqualified person pursuant to the rescission shall be the greatest of the cash paid to the disqualified person, the fair market value of the property at the time of the original sale, or the fair market value of the property at the time of rescission. In addition to rescission, the disqualified person is required to pay over to the private foundation any net profits he realized after the original sale with respect to the consideration he received from the sale. Thus, for example, the disqualified person must pay over to the foundation any income derived by him from the cash he received from the original sale to the extent such income during the correction period exceeds the income derived by the foundation during the correction period from the property which the disqualified person originally transferred to the foundation.

(ii) If, prior to the end of the correction period, the foundation resells the property in an arm's-length transaction to a bona fide purchaser who is not a disqualified person, no rescission is required. In such case, the disqualified person must pay over to the foundation the excess (if any) of the amount which would have been received from the disqualified person pursuant to subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, if rescission had been required over the amount realized by the foundation upon resale of the property. In addition, the disqualified person is required to pay over to the foundation any net profits he realized, as described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph.

(iii) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On February 10, 1972, D, a disqualified person with respect to private foundation P, sells 100 shares of X stock to P for $2,500 in a transaction which does not fall within any of the exceptions to selfdealing. The fair market value of the 100 shares of X stock on February 10, 1972, is $3,200. On June 1, 1973, the 100 shares of X stock have a fair market value of $2,900. From February 10, 1972, through June 1, 1973, P has received dividends of $90 from the stock, and D has received interest of $300 from the $2,500 which D received as consideration for the stock. In order to correct the act of self-dealing under this subparagraph on June 1, 1973, the sale must be rescinded by the return of the stock to D. However, pursuant to such rescission, D must pay P $3,200, the fair market value of the stock on the date of sale. In addition, D must pay P $210, the amount of income derived by D during the correction period from the $2,500 received from P ($300) minus the income derived by P during the correction period from the stock sold to P ($90).

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that on September 1, 1972, P sells the 100 shares of X stock to E, a bona fide purchaser who is not a disqualified person, in an arm's-length transaction for $2,750. Assume further that P has not received any dividends from the stock prior to the sale to E, but that P receives interest of $260 from the $2,750 received as consideration for the stock for the period from September 1, 1972, to June 1, 1973. In order to correct the act of self-dealing under this subparagraph on June 1, 1973, D must pay P $450 ($3,200, the amount which would have been received from D if rescission had been required, less $2,750, the amount realized by P from the sale to E). In addition, D must pay P $40, the amount of income derived by D during the correction period from the $2,500 received from P ($300) minus the income derived by P during the correction period from the stock sold to P ($260 from the $2,750 received as consideration for the stock). Since the stock was sold to E in an arm's-length transaction prior to correction, no rescission is required.

(4) Use of property by a disqualified person. (i) In the case of the use by a disqualified person of property owned by a private foundation, undoing the transaction includes, but is not limited to, terminating the use of such property. In addition to termination, the disqualified person must pay the foundation:

(a) The excess (if any) of the fair market value of the use of the property over the amount paid by the disqualified person for such use until such termination, and

(b) The excess (if any) of the amount which would have been paid by the disqualified person for the use of the property on or after the date of such termination, for the period such disqualified person would have used the property (without regard to any further extensions or renewals of such period) if such termination had not occurred, over the fair market value of such use for such period.

In applying (a) of this subdivision the fair market value of the use of property shall be the higher of the rate (that is, fair rental value per period in the case of use of property other than money or fair interest rate in the case of use of money) at the time of the act of self-dealing (within the meaning of paragraph (e)(1) of this section) or such rate at the time of correction of such act of self-dealing. In applying (b) of this subdivision the fair market value of the use of property shall be the rate at the time of correction.

(ii) The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On January 1, 1972, private foundation S rented the third story of its office building to A, a disqualified person, for 1 year at an annual rent of $10,000, in a transaction not within any of the exceptions to self-dealing. Both S and A are on the calendar year basis. The fair rental value of such office space for a 1-year period on January 1, 1972, is $12,000. On June 30, 1972, the fair rental value of such office space for a 1-year period is $13,000. In order to correct the act of self-dealing under this subparagraph on June 30, 1972, A must terminate his use of the property. In addition, A must pay S $1,500, the excess of $6,500 (the fair rental value for 6 months as of June 30, 1972) over $5,000 (the amount paid to S from Jan. 1, 1972, to June 30, 1972).

Example 2.On January 1, 1972, private foundation R rented the fourth story of its office building to B, a disqualified person, for 1 year at an annual rent of $10,000, in a transaction not included in any of the exceptions to self-dealing. Both R and B are on the calendar year basis. On January 1, 1973, B continues to rent the office space as a periodic tenant paying his rent monthly at an annual rate of $10,000. The fair rental value of such office space for a 1-year period on January 1, 1972, is $12,000, and as of January 1, 1973, is $1,250 per month. As of December 31, 1973, the fair rental value of such office space is $14,000 for a 1-year period and $1,200 on a monthly basis. In order to correct his acts of self-dealing (within the meaning of paragraph (e)(1) of this section) under this subparagraph on December 31, 1973, B must terminate his use of the property. In addition, B must pay R $9,000, $4,000 for his use of the property for 1972 (the excess of $14,000, the fair rental value for 1 year as of Dec. 31, 1973, over $10,000, the amount B paid R for his use of the property for 1972) and $5,000 for his use of the property for 1973 (the excess of $15,000, the fair rental value for 12 months as of Jan. 1, 1973, over $10,000, the amount B paid R for his use of the property for 1973).

Example 3.B, a substantial contributor to private foundation T, leases office space in a building owned by T for $5,000 for 1 year beginning on November 10, 1972, in a transaction not included in any of the exceptions to self-dealing. The fair rental value of the building for a 1-year period on November 10, 1972, is $4,000. On May 10, 1973, the fair rental value of the building for the remaining period of the lease is $2,200. In order to correct the acts of self-dealing under this subparagraph on May 10, 1973, B and T must terminate the lease. In addition, B must pay T $300 (the excess of $2,500, the amount which would have been paid by B for the remaining period of the lease if it had not been terminated, over $2,200, the fair rental value at the time of correction for the remaining period of the lease).

(5) Use of property by a private foundation. (i) In the case of the use by a private foundation of property owned by a disqualified person, undoing the transaction includes, but is not limited to, terminating the use of such property. In addition to termination, the disqualified person must pay the foundation:

(a) The excess (if any) of the amount paid to the disqualified person for such use until such termination over the fair market value of the use of the property, and

(b) The excess (if any) of the fair market value of the use of the property, for the period the foundation would have used the property (without regard to any further extensions or renewals of such period) if such termination had not occurred, over the amount which would have been paid to the disqualified person on or after the date of such termination for such use for such period.

In applying (a) of this subdivision the fair market value of the use of property shall be the lesser of the rate (that is, fair rental value per period in the case of use of property other than money or fair interest rate in the case of use of money) at the time of the act of self-dealing (within the meaning of paragraph (e)(1) of this section) or such rate at the time of correction of such act of self-dealing. In applying (b) of this subdivision the fair market value of the use of property shall be the rate at the time of correction.

(ii) The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On July 1, 1972, private foundation X leases office space in a building owned by C, a disqualified person, for 1 year at an annual rent of $6,000. Both X and C are on the calendar year basis. The fair rental value of such office space for a 1-year period as of July 1, 1972, is $4,200. As of January 1, 1973, the fair rental value of such office space for a 1-year period is $5,400, and as of June 30, 1973, the fair rental value of such office space for a 1-year period is $4,800. In order to correct his acts of self-dealing (within the meaning of paragraph (e)(1) of this section) under this subparagraph on June 30, 1973, C must terminate X's use of the property. In addition, C must pay X $1,500, $900 (the excess of $3,000, the amount paid to C from July 1, 1972, through December 31, 1972, over $2,100, the fair rental value for 6 months as of July 1, 1972) plus $600 (the excess of $3,000, the amount paid to C from January 1, 1973, through June 30, 1973, over $2,400, the fair rental value for 6 months as of June 30, 1973).

Example 2.On April 1, 1973, D, a disqualified person with respect to private foundation Y, loans $100,000 to Y at 6 percent interest per annum. Both principal and interest are to be paid on April 1, 1978. The fair market value of the use of the money on April 1, 1973, is 9 percent per annum. On April 1, 1974, D and Y terminate the loan. On such date, the fair market value of the use of $100,000 is 10 percent per annum. In order to correct the act of self-dealing on April 1, 1974, in addition to the termination of the loan from D to Y, D must pay Y $16,000, the excess of $40,000 ($100,000 × 10 percent, the fair market value of the use determined at the time of correction, from April 1, 1974, to April 1, 1978) over $24,000 (the amount of interest Y would have paid to D from April 1, 1974, to April 1, 1978, if the loan from D to Y had not been terminated).

(6) Payment of compensation to a disqualified person. In the case of the payment of compensation by a private foundation to a disqualified person for the performance of personal services which are reasonable and necessary to carry out the exempt purpose of such foundation, undoing the transaction requires that the disqualified person pay to the foundation any amount which is excessive. However, termination of the employment or independent contractor relationship is not required.

(7) Special rule for correction of valuation errors. (i) In the case of a transaction described in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, a “correction” of the act of self-dealing shall ordinarily be deemed to occur if the foundation is paid an amount of money equal to the amount involved (as defined in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section) plus such additional amounts as are necessary to compensate it for the loss of the use of the money or other property during the period commencing on the date of the act of self-dealing and ending on the date the transaction is corrected pursuant to this subparagraph.

(ii) The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.Assume the same facts as in example (5) of paragraph (b)(4) of this section. Such transaction shall be considered as corrected by a payment of $5,000 by M to V, together with an additional payment to V of an amount equal to the interest which V could have obtained on $5,000 for the period commencing on the date of the redemption and ending on the date the act is corrected.

(d) Cross reference. For rules relating to taxable events that are corrected within the correction period, defined in section 4963 (e), see section 4961 (a), and the regulations thereunder.

(e) Act of self-dealing—(1) Number of acts; use of money or property—(i) In general. If a transaction between a private foundation and a disqualified person is determined to be self-dealing (as defined in section 4941(d)), for purposes of section 4941 there is generally one act of self-dealing. For the date on which such act is treated as occurring, see paragraph (a)(2) of this section. If, however, such transaction relates to the leasing of property, the lending of money or other extension of credit, other use of money or property, or payment of compensation, the transaction will generally be treated (for purposes of section 4941 but not section 507 or section 6684) as giving rise to an act of self-dealing on the day the transaction occurs plus an act of self-dealing on the first day of each taxable year or portion of a taxable year which is within the taxable period and which begins after the taxable year in which the transaction occurs.

(ii) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On August 31, 1970, X, a private foundation, sells a building to A, a disqualified person with respect to X. A is on the calendar year basis. Under these circumstances, the transaction between A and X is one act of self-dealing which is treated for purposes of section 4941 as occurring on August 31, 1970.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that, instead of selling the building to A, X leases the building to A for a term of 4 years beginning July 31, 1970, at an annual rental of $12,000. The fair rental value of the building is also $12,000 per annum as of July 31, 1970, and throughout the next 4 years. This transaction is corrected on September 30, 1973, in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section. Under these circumstances, the transaction between A and X constitutes four separate acts of self-dealing, which are treated for purposes of section 4941 as occurring on July 31, 1970, January 1, 1971, January 1, 1972, and January 1, 1973. Consequently, there are four taxable periods. The first taxable period is from July 31, 1970, to September 30, 1973; the second is from January 1, 1971, to September 30, 1973; the third is from January 1, 1972, to September 30, 1973; and the fourth is from January 1, 1973, to September 30, 1973. For purposes of the initial taxes in section 4941(a), the amount involved is $5,000 for the first taxable period, $12,000 for the second, $12,000 for the third, and $9,000 for the fourth. The initial taxes to be paid by A are thus $1,000 ($5,000 × 5% × 4 taxable years or partial taxable years in the taxable period) for the first act; $1,800 ($12,000 × 5% × 3) for the second act; $1,200 ($12,000 × 5% × 2) for the third act; and $450 ($9,000 × 5% × 1) for the fourth act.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in example (1) of § 53.4941(d)-4(c)(4)(ii). If the debentures are held by Y after December 31, 1979, the extension of credit will not be excepted from the definition of an act of self-dealing, because an act of self-dealing will be treated (for purposes of section 4941) as occurring on January 1, 1980.

(2) Number of acts; joint participation by disqualified persons—(i) In general. If joint participation in a transaction by two or more disqualified persons constitutes self-dealing (such as a joint sale of property to a private foundation or joint use of its money or property), such transaction shall generally be treated as a separate act of self-dealing with respect to each disqualified person for purposes of section 4941. For purposes of section 507 and, in the case of a foundation manager, section 6684, however, such transaction shall be treated as only one act of self-dealing. For purposes of this subparagraph, an individual and one or more members of his family (within the meaning of section 4946(d)) shall be treated as one person, regardless of whether a member of the family is a disqualified person not only by reason of section 4946(a)(1)(D) but also by reason of another subparagraph of section 4946(a)(1). However, the liability imposed on a disqualified person and one or more members of his family for joint participation in an act of self-dealing shall be joint and several in accordance with section 4941(c)(1) and § 53.4941(c)-1(a).

(ii) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.Private foundation X permits A, a substantial contributor to X, and her spouse, H, to use an automobile owned by X and normally used in its foundation activities to travel from State Z to State Y for a vacation on December 1, 1971. The automobile is then returned to X until December 21, 1971, when X again permits them to use the automobile to return to their home in State Z. Under these circumstances, there is one act of self-dealing on December 1, 1971, and a second act of self-dealing on December 21, 1971.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that B joined A and H on their vacation and traveled with them both to and from State Y. B is a disqualified person with respect to X, but he is not related by blood or marriage to A or H. Assume also that X is not paid for the use of its automobile, but that the fair rental value during the taxable period is $300 (or $100 per person) for a one-way trip between State Y and State Z. Under these circumstances, there are four acts of self-dealing, two with respect to A and H and two with respect to B. The amount involved with respect to A and H is $200 for each act, and the amount involved with respect to B is $100 for each act.

(f) Fair market value. For purposes of §§ 53.4941(a)-1 through 53.4941 (f)-1, fair market value shall be determined pursuant to the provisions of § 53.4942(a)-2 (c)(4).

[T.D. 7270, 38 FR 9493, Apr. 17, 1973, as amended by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16301, May 2, 1986]

§ 53.4941(f)-1 Effective dates.

(a) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, §§ 53.4941(a)-1 through 53.4941(e)-1 shall apply to all acts of self-dealing engaged in after December 31, 1969.

(b) Transitional rules—(1) Commitments made prior to January 1, 1970, between private foundations and government officials. Section 4941 shall not apply to a payment for one or more purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B) made on or after January 1, 1970, by a private foundation to a government official, if such payment is made pursuant to a commitment entered into prior to such date, but only if such commitment was made in accordance with the foundation's usual practices and is reasonable in amount in light of the purposes of the payment. For purposes of this subparagraph, a commitment will be considered entered into prior to January 1, 1970, if prior to such date, the amount and nature of the payments to be made and the name of the payee were entered on the records of the payor, or were otherwise adequately evidenced, or the notice of the payment to be received was communicated to the payee in writing.

(2) Special transitional rule. In the case of an act of self-dealing engaged in prior to July 5, 1971, section 4941(a) (1) shall not apply if:

(i) The participation (as defined in § 53.4941(a)-1(a)(3)) by the disqualified person in such act is not willful and is due to reasonable cause (as defined in § 53.4941(a)-1(b) (4) and (5)),

(ii) The transaction would not be a prohibited transaction if section 503(b) applied, and

(iii) The act is corrected (within the meaning of § 53.4941(e)-1(c)) within a period ending [insert 90 days after date on which final regulations under section 4941 are filed by the Federal Register], extended (prior to the expiration of the original period) by any period which the Commissioner determines is reasonable and necessary (within the meaning of § 53.4941(e)-1(d)) to bring about correction of the act of self-dealing.

Subpart C Taxes on Failure To Distribute Income

Source: T.D. 7249, 38 FR 768, Jan. 4, 1973, unless otherwise noted.

§ 53.4942(a)-1 Taxes for failure to distribute income.

(a) Imposition of tax—(1) Initial tax. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, section 4942(a) imposes an excise tax of 15 percent on the undistributed income (as defined in paragraph (a) of § 53.4942(a)-2) of a private foundation for any taxable year which has not been distributed before the first day of the second (or any succeeding) taxable year following such taxable year (if such first day falls within the taxable period as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section). For purposes of section 4942 and this section, the term distributed means distributed as qualifying distributions under section 4942(g). See paragraph (d)(2) of § 53.4942(a)-3 with respect to correction of deficient distributions for prior taxable years.

(2) Additional tax. In any case in which an initial excise tax is imposed by section 4942(a) on the undistributed income of a private foundation for any taxable year, section 4942(b) imposes an additional excise tax on any portion of such income remaining undistributed at the close of the correction period (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section). The tax imposed by section 4942(b) is equal to 100 percent of the amount remaining undistributed at the close of the taxable period.

(3) Payment of tax. Payment of the excise taxes imposed by section 4942 (a) or (b) is in addition to, and not in lieu of, making the distribution of such undistributed income as required by section 4942. See section 507(a)(2) and the regulations thereunder.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1 M,a private foundation which uses the calendar year as its taxable year, has at the end of 1981, $50,000 of undistributed income (as defined in paragraph (a) of § 53.4942 (a)-2) for 1981. As of January 1, 1983, $40,000 is still undistributed. On August 15, 1983, a notice of deficiency with respect to the excise taxes imposed by section 4942 (a) and (b) is mailed to M under section 6212 (a) and the taxable period ends. Thus, under these facts, an initial excise tax of $6,000 (15 percent of $40,000) is imposed upon M. An additional excise tax of $40,000 (100 percent of $40,000) is imposed by section 4942(b). Under section 4961(a), however, if the undistributed income is reduced to zero during the correction period, this latter tax will not be assessed, and if assessed, it will be abated, and if collected, it will be credited or refunded as an overpayment.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that the notice of deficiency is mailed to M on September 7, 1984, and as of January 1, 1984, only $10,000 of the $50,000 of undistributed income with respect to 1981 is undistributed. Therefore, initial excise taxes of $6,000 (15 percent of $40,000, M's undistributed income from 1981, as of January 1, 1983) and $1,500 (15 percent of $10,000, M's undistributed income from 1981 as of January 1, 1984) are imposed by section 4942(a). If the $10,000 remains undistributed as of September 7, 1984, the end of the taxable period, an additional excise tax of $10,000 (100 percent of $10,000, M's undistributed income from 1981, as of September 7, 1984) is imposed by section 4942(b).

(b) Exceptions—(1) In general. The initial excise tax imposed by section 4942(a) shall not apply to the undistributed income of a private foundation:

(i) For any taxable year for which it is an operating foundation (as defined in section 4942(j)(3) and the regulations thereunder), or

(ii) To the extent that the foundation failed to distribute any amount solely because of incorrect valuation of assets under paragraph (c)(4) of § 53.4942(a)-2, if:

(a) The failure to value the assets properly was not willful and was due to reasonable cause,

(b) Such amount is distributed as qualifying distributions (within the meaning of paragraph (a) of § 53.4942 (a)-3) by the foundation during the allowable distribution period (as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section),

(c) The foundation notifies the Commissioner that such amount has been distributed (within the meaning of subdivision (ii)(b) of this subparagraph) to correct such failure, and

(d) Such distribution is treated under paragraph (d)(2) of § 53.4942(a)-3 as made out of the undistributed income for the taxable year for which a tax would (except for this subdivision) have been imposed by section 4942(a).

(2) Improper valuation. For purposes of subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph, failure to value an asset properly shall be regarded as “not willful” and “due to reasonable cause” whenever, under all the facts and circumstances, the foundation can show that it has made all reasonable efforts in good faith to value such an asset in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c)(4) of § 53.4942(a)-2. If a foundation, after full disclosure of the factual situation, obtains a bona fide appraisal of the fair market value of an asset by a person qualified to make such an appraisal (whether or not such a person is a disqualified person with respect to the foundation), and such foundation relies upon such appraisal, then failure to value the asset properly shall ordinarily be regarded as “not willful” and “due to reasonable cause”. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, the failure to obtain such a bona fide appraisal shall not, by itself, give rise to any inference that a foundation's failure to value an asset properly was willful or not due to reasonable cause.

(3) Example. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.In 1976 M, a private foundation which was established in 1975 and which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, incorrectly values its assets under paragraph (c)(4) of § 53.4942(a)-2 in a manner which is not willful and is due to reasonable cause. As a result of the incorrect valuation of assets, $20,000 which should be distributed with respect to 1976 is not distributed, and as of January 1, 1978, such amount is still undistributed. On March 29, 1978, a notice of deficiency with respect to the excise taxes imposed by section 4942 (a) and (b) is mailed to M under section 6212(a). On May 5, 1978 (within the allowable distribution period), M makes a qualifying distribution of $20,000 which is treated under paragraph (d)(2) of § 53.4942(a)-3 as made out of M's undistributed income for 1976. M notifies the Commissioner of its action. Under the stated facts, an initial excise tax of $3,000 (15 percent of $20,000) would (except for the exception contained in subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph) have been imposed by section 4942(a), but since all of the requirements of such subparagraph are satisfied no tax is imposed by section 4942(a).

(c) Certain periods. For purposes of this section—

(1) Taxable period. (i) The term “taxable period” means, with respect to the undistributed income of a private foundation for any taxable year, the period beginning with the first day of the taxable year and ending on the earlier of:

(A) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212(a) with respect to the initial excise tax imposed under section 4942(a), or

(B) The date on which the initial excise tax imposed under section 4942(a) is assessed.

For example, assume M, a private foundation which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, has $15,000 of undistributed income for 1981. A notice of deficiency is mailed to M under section 6212(a) on June 1, 1983. With respect to the undistributed income of M for 1981, the taxable period began on January 1, 1981, and ended on June 1, 1983.

(ii) Where a notice of deficiency referred to in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph is not mailed because there is a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency, or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the taxable period.

(2) Allowable distribution period. (i) The term “allowable distribution period” means the period beginning with the first day of the first taxable year following the taxable year in which the incorrect valuation of foundation assets (described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section) occurred and ending 90 days after the date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212(a) with respect to the initial excise tax imposed by section 4942(a). This period shall be extended by any period in which a deficiency cannot be assessed under section 6213(a), and any other period which the Commissioner determines is reasonable and necessary to permit a distribution of undistributed income under section 4942.

(ii) Where a notice of deficiency referred to in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph is not mailed because there is a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency, or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the allowable distribution period.

(3) Cross reference. For rules relating to taxable events that are corrected within the correction period, defined in section 4963(e), see section 4961 (a) and the regulations thereunder.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.In 1975 M, a private foundation which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, made an error in valuing its assets which was not willful and was due to reasonable cause. The error caused M not to distribute $25,000 that should have been distributed with respect to 1975. On March 1, 1978, a notice of deficiency with respect to the excise taxes imposed by section 4942 (a) and (b) was mailed to M under section 6212(a). With respect to the undistributed income for 1975, the taxable period is the period from January 1, 1975, through March 1, 1978, and the allowable distribution period is the period from January 1, 1976, through May 30, 1978 (90 days after the mailing of the notice of deficiency).

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that the Commissioner determines that it is reasonable and necessary to extend the period for distribution through June 15, 1978. Thus, the allowable distribution period is from January 1, 1976, through June 15, 1978.

(d) Effective date. Except as otherwise specifically provided, section 4942 and the regulations thereunder shall only apply with respect to taxable years beginning after December 31, 1969.

[T.D. 7256, 38 FR 3317, Feb. 7, 1973, as amended by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16302, May 2, 1986]

§ 53.4942(a)-2 Computation of undistributed income.

(a) Undistributed income. For purposes of section 4942, the term “undistributed income” means, with respect to any private foundation for any taxable year as of any time, the amount by which:

(1) The distributable amount (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) for such taxable year, exceeds

(2) The qualifying distributions (as defined in § 53.4942(a)-3) made before such time out of such distributable amount.

(b) Distributable amount—(1) In general. For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the term “distributable amount” means:

(i) For taxable years beginning before January 1, 1982, an amount equal to the greater of the minimum investment return (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) or the adjusted net income (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section); and

(ii) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1981, an amount equal to the minimum investment return (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section), reduced by the sum of the taxes imposed on such private foundation for such taxable year under subtitle A of the Code and section 4940, and increased by the amounts received from trusts described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph.

(2) Certain trust amounts—(i) In general. The distributable amount shall be increased by the income portion (as defined in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph) of distributions from trusts described in section 4947(a)(2) with respect to amounts placed in trust after May 26, 1969. If such distributions are made with respect to amounts placed in trust both on or before and after May 26, 1969, such distributions shall be allocated between such amounts to determine the extent to which such distributions shall be included in the foundation's distributable amount. For rules relating to the segregation of amounts placed in trust on or before May 26, 1969, from amounts placed in trust after such date and to the allocation of income derived from such amounts, see paragraph (c) (5) of § 53.4947-1.

(ii) Income portion of distributions to private foundations. For purposes of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the income portion of a distribution from a section 4947(a)(2) trust to a private foundation in a particular taxable year of such foundation shall be the greater of:

(a) The amount of such distribution which is treated as income (within the meaning of section 643(b)) of the trust, or

(b) The guaranteed annuity, or fixed percentage of the fair market value of the trust property (determined annually), which the private foundation is entitled to receive for such year, regardless of whether such amount is actually received in such year or in any prior or subsequent year.

(iii) Limitation. Notwithstanding subdivisions (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph, a private foundation shall not be required to distribute a greater amount for any taxable year than would have been required (without regard to this subparagraph) for such year had the corpus of the section 4947(a) (2) trust to which the distribution described in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph is attributable been taken into account by such foundation as an asset described in paragraph (c) (1) (i) of this section.

(c) Minimum investment return—(1) In general. For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, the “minimum investment return” for any private foundation for any taxable year is the amount determined by multiplying:

(i) The excess of the aggregate fair market value of all assets of the foundation, other than those described in subparagraph (2) or (3) of this paragraph, over the amount of the acquisition indebtedness with respect to such assets (determined under section 514(c)(1), but without regard to the taxable year in which the indebtedness was incurred), by

(ii) The applicable percentage (as defined in subparagraph (5) of this paragraph) for such year.

For purposes of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the aggregate fair market value of all assets of the foundation shall include the average of the fair market values on a monthly basis of securities for which market quotations are readily available (within the meaning of subparagraph (4)(i)(a) of this paragraph), the average of the foundation's cash balances on a monthly basis (less the cash balances excluded from the computation of the minimum investment return by operation of subparagraph (3)(iv) of this paragraph), and the fair market value of all other assets (except those assets described in subparagraph (2) or (3) of this paragraph) for the period of time during the taxable year for which such assets are held by the foundation. Any determination of the fair market value of an asset required pursuant to the provisions of this subparagraph shall be made in accordance with the rules of subparagraph (4) of this paragraph.

(2) Certain assets excluded. For purposes of this paragraph, the assets taken into account in determining minimum investment return shall not include the following:

(i) Any future interest (such as a vested or contingent remainder, whether legal or equitable) of a foundation in the income or corpus of any real or personal property, other than a future interest created by the private foundation after December 31, 1969, until all intervening interests in, and rights to the actual possession or enjoyment of, such property have expired, or, although not actually reduced to the foundation's possession, until such future interest has been constructively received by the foundation, as where it has been credited to the foundation's account, set apart for the foundation, or otherwise made available so that the foundation may acquire it at any time or could have acquired it if notice of intention to acquire had been given;

(ii) The assets of an estate until such time as such assets are distributed to the foundation or, due to a prolonged period of administration, such estate is considered terminated for Federal income tax purposes by operation of paragraph (a) of § 1.641(b)-3 of this chapter (Income Tax Regulations);

(iii) Any present interest of a foundation in any trust created and funded by another person (see, however, paragraph (b) (2) of this section with respect to amounts received from certain trusts described in section 4947(a) (2));

(iv) Any pledge to the foundation of money or property (whether or not the pledge may be legally enforced); and

(v) Any assets used (or held for use) directly in carrying out the foundation's exempt purpose.

(3) Assets used (or held for use) in carrying out the exempt purpose—(i) In general. For purposes of subparagraph (2)(v) of this paragraph, an asset is “used (or held for use) directly in carrying out the foundation's exempt purpose” only if the asset is actually used by the foundation in the carrying out of the charitable, educational, or other similar purpose which gives rise to the exempt status of the foundation, or if the foundation owns the asset and establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that its immediate use for such exempt purpose is not practical (based on the facts and circumstances of the particular case) and that definite plans exist to commence such use within a reasonable period of time. Consequently, assets which are held for the production of income or for investment (for example, stocks, bonds, interest-bearing notes, endowment funds, or, generally, leased real estate) are not being used (or held for use) directly in carrying out the foundation's exempt purpose, even though the income from such assets is used to carry out such exempt purpose. Whether an asset is held for the production of income or for investment rather than used (or held for use) directly by the foundation to carry out its exempt purpose is a question of fact. For example, an office building used for the purpose of providing offices for employees engaged in the management of endowment funds of the foundation is not being used (or held for use) directly by the foundation to carry out its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose. However, where property is used both for charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purposes and for other purposes, if such exempt use represents 95 percent or more of the total use, such property shall be considered to be used exclusively for a charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose. If such exempt use of such property represents less than 95 percent of the total use, reasonable allocation between such exempt and nonexempt use must be made for purposes of this paragraph. Property acquired by the foundation to be used in carrying out its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose may be considered as used (or held for use) directly to carry out such exempt purpose even though the property, in whole or in part, is leased for a limited period of time during which arrangements are made for its conversion to the use for which it was acquired, provided such income-producing use of the property does not exceed a reasonable period of time. Generally, 1 year shall be deemed to be a reasonable period of time for purposes of the immediately preceding sentence. For treatment of the income derived from such income-producing use, see paragraph (d)(2)(viii) of this section. Where the income-producing use continues beyond a reasonable period of time, the property shall not be deemed to be used by the foundation to carry out its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose, but, instead, as of the time the income-producing use becomes unreasonable, such property shall be treated as disposed of within the meaning of paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(b) of this section to the extent that the acquisition of the property was taken into account as a qualifying distribution (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2) of § 53.4942(a-3) for any taxable year. If, subsequently, the property is used by the foundation directly in carrying out its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose, a qualifying distribution in the amount of its then fair market value, determined in accordance with the rules contained in subparagraph (4) of this paragraph, shall be deemed to have been made as of the time such exempt use begins.

(ii) Illustrations. Examples of assets which are “used (or held for use) directly in carrying out the foundation's exempt purpose” include, but are not limited to, the following:

(a) Administrative assets, such as office equipment and supplies which are used by employees or consultants of the foundation, to the extent such assets are devoted to and used directly in the administration of the foundation's charitable, educational or other similar exempt activities;

(b) Real estate or the portion of a building used by the foundation directly in its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt activities;

(c) Physical facilities used in such activities, such as paintings or other works of art owned by the foundation which are on public display, fixtures and equipment in classrooms, research facilities and related equipment which under the facts and circumstances serve a useful purpose in the conduct of such activities;

(d) Any interest in a functionally related business (as defined in subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph) or in a program-related investment (as defined in section 4944(c));

(e) The reasonable cash balances (as described in subdivision (iv) of this subparagraph) necessary to cover current administrative expenses and other normal and current disbursements directly connected with the foundation's charitable, educational, or other similar exempt activities; and

(f) Any property leased by a foundation in carrying out its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose at no cost (or at a nominal rent) to the lessee or for a program-related purpose (within the meaning of section 4944(c)), such as the leasing of renovated apartments to low-income tenants at a low rental as part of the lessor foundation's program for rehabilitating a blighted portion of a community. For treatment of the income derived from such use, see paragraph (d) (2) (viii) of this section.

(iii) Functionally related business—(a) In general. The term “functionally related business” means:

(1) A trade or business which is not an unrelated trade or business (as defined in section 513), or

(2) An activity which is carried on within a larger aggregate of similar activities or within a larger complex of other endeavors which is related (aside from the need of the organization for income or funds or the use it makes of the profits derived) to the charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose of the organization.

(b) Examples. The provisions of this subdivision may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.X, a private foundation, maintains a community of historic value which is open to the general public. For the convenience of the public, X, through a wholly owned, separately incorporated, taxable entity, maintains a restaurant and hotel in such community. Such facilities are within the larger aggregate of activities which makes available for public enjoyment the various buildings of historic interest and which is related to X's exempt purpose. Thus, the operation of the restaurant and hotel under such circumstances constitutes a functionally related business.

Example 2.Y, a private foundation, as part of its medical research program under section 501(c) (3), publishes a medical journal in carrying out its exempt purpose. Space in the journal is sold for commercial advertising. Notwithstanding the fact that the advertising activity may be subject to the tax imposed by section 511, such activity is within a larger complex of endeavors which makes available to the scientific community and the general public developments with respect to medical research and is therefore a functionally related business.

(iv) Cash held for charitable, etc. activities. For purposes of subdivision (ii)(e) of this subparagraph, the reasonable cash balances which a private foundation needs to have on hand to cover expenses and disbursements described in such subdivision will generally be deemed to be an amount, computed on an annual basis, equal to one and one-half percent of the fair market value of all assets described in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph, without regard to subdivision (ii)(e) of this subparagraph. However, if the Commissioner is satisfied that under the facts and circumstances an amount in addition to such one and one-half percent is necessary for payment of such expenses and disbursements, then such additional amount may also be excluded from the amount of assets described in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph. All remaining cash balances, including amounts necessary to pay any tax imposed by section 511 or any section of chapter 42 of the Code except section 4940, are to be included in the assets described in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph.

(4) Valuation of assets—(i) Certain securities. (a) For purposes of subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph, a private foundation may use any reasonable method to determine the fair market value on a monthly basis of securities for which market quotations are readily available, as long as such method is consistently used. For purposes of this subparagraph, market quotations are readily available if a security is:

(1) Listed on the New York Stock Exchange, the American Stock Exchange, or any city or regional exchange in which quotations appear on a daily basis, including foreign securities listed on a recognized foreign national or regional exchange;

(2) Regularly traded in the national or regional over-the-counter market, for which published quotations are available; or

(3) Locally traded, for which quotations can readily be obtained from established brokerage firms.

(b) For purposes of this subdivision, commonly accepted methods of valuation must be used in making an appraisal. Valuations made in accordance with the principles stated in the regulations under section 2031 constitute acceptable methods of valuation. This paragraph (c)(4)(i)(b) applies only for taxable years beginning before January 1, 1976. See section 4942(e)(2)(B) and paragraph (c)(4)(i)(c) of this section for special valuation rules that apply for subsequent taxable years.

(c) For purposes of this subdivision (i) and with respect to taxable years beginning after December 31, 1975, if the private foundation can show that the value of securities determined on the basis of market quotations as provided by subdivision (i)(a) does not reflect the fair market value thereof because:

(1) The securities constitute a block of securities so large in relation to the volume of actual sales on the existing market that it could not be liquidated in a reasonable time without depressing the market.

(2) The securities are securities in a closely held corporation and sales are few or of a sporadic nature, and, or

(3) The sale of the securities would result in a forced or distress sale because the securities could not be offered to the public for sale without first being registered under the Securities Act of 1933 or because of other factors,

then the price at which the securities could be sold as such outside the usual market, as through an underwriter, may be a more accurate indication of value than market quotations. On the other hand, if the securities to be valued represents a controlling interest, either actual or effective, in a going business, the price at which other lots change hands may have little relation to the true value of the securities. No decrease in the fair market value of any given class of securities determined on the basis of market quotations as provided by subdivision (i)(a) shall be allowed except as authorized by this subdivision, and no such decrease shall in the aggregate exceed 10 percent of the fair market value of such class of securities so determined on the basis of market quotations and without regard to this subdivision.

(d) In the case of securities described in subdivision (i)(a) of this subparagraph, which are held in trust for, or on behalf of, a foundation by a bank or other financial institution which values such securities periodically by use of a computer, a foundation may determine the correct value of such securities by use of such computer pricing system, provided the Commissioner has accepted such computer pricing system as a valid method for valuing securities for Federal estate tax purposes.

(e) This subdivision may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.U, a private foundation, owns 1,000 shares of the stock of M Corporation. M stock is regularly traded on the New York Stock Exchange. U consistently follows a practice of valuing its 1,000 shares of M stock on the last trading day of each month based upon the quoted closing price for M stock. U's method of valuing its M Corporation stock is permissible under the rules contained in subdivision (i)(a) of this subparagraph.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that U consistently follows a practice of valuing its 1,000 shares of M stock by taking the mean of the closing prices for M stock on the first and last trading days of each month and the trading day nearest the 15th day of each month. U's method of valuing its M stock is permissible under the rules contained in subdivision (i)(a) of this subparagraph.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that U consistently follows a practice of valuing its M stock by taking the mean of the highest and lowest quoted prices for the stock on the last trading day of each month. U's method of valuing its M stock is permissible under the rules contained in subdivision (1)(a) of this subparagraph.

Example 4.V, a private foundation, owns 1,000 shares of the stock of N Corporation. N stock is regularly traded in the national over-the-counter market and published quotations of the bid and asked prices for the stock are available. V consistently follows a practice of valuing its 1,000 shares of N stock on the first trading day of each month by taking the mean of the bid and asked prices on that day. V's method of valuing its N Corporation stock is permissible under the rules contained in subdivision (i)(a) of this subparagraph.

Example 5.W, a private foundation, owns 1,000 shares of the stock of O Corporation. O stock is locally traded and quotations can readily be obtained from established brokerage firms. W consistently follows a practice of valuing its O stock on the 15th day of each month by obtaining a bona fide quotation of bid and asked prices for the stock from an established brokerage firm and taking the mean of such prices on that day. If a quotation is unavailable on the regular valuation date, W values its O stock based upon a bona fide quotation on the first day thereafter on which such a quotation is available. W's method of valuing its O Corporation stock is permissible under the rules contained in subdivision (i)(a) of this subparagraph.

(ii) Cash. In order to determine the amount of a foundation's cash balances, the foundation shall value its cash on a monthly basis by averaging the amount of cash on hand as of the first day of each month and as of the last day of each month.

(iii) Common trust funds. If a private foundation owns a participating interest in a common trust fund (as defined in section 584) established and administered under a plan providing for the periodic valuation of participating interests during the fund's taxable year and the reporting of such valuations to participants, the value of the foundation's interest in the common trust fund based upon the average of the valuations reported to the foundation during its taxable year will ordinarily constitute an acceptable method of valuation.

(iv) Other assets. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (iv)(b) of this subparagraph, the fair market value of assets other than those described in subdivisions (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph shall be determined annually. Thus, the fair market value of securities other than those described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph shall be determined in accordance with this subdivision (a). If, however, a private foundation owns voting stock of an issuer of unlisted securities and has, or together with disqualified persons or another private foundation has, effective control of the issuer (within the meaning of § 53.4943-3(b)(3)(ii), then to the extent that the issuer's assets consist of shares of listed securities issues, such assets shall be valued monthly on the basis of market quotations or in accordance with section 4942(e)(2)(B), if applicable. Thus, for example, if a private foundation and a disqualified person together own all of the unlisted voting stock of a holding company which in turn holds a portfolio of securities of issues which are listed on the New York Stock Exchange, in determining the net worth of the holding company, the underlying portfolio securities are to be valued monthly by reference to market quotations for their issues unless a decrease in such value is authorized in accordance with section 4942(e)(2)(b). Such determination may be made by employees of the private foundation or by any other person, without regard to whether such person is a disqualified person with respect to the foundation. A valuation made pursuant to the provisions of this subdivision, if accepted by the Commissioner, shall be valid only for the taxable year for which it is made. A new valuation made in accordance with these provisions is required for the succeeding taxable year.

(b) If the requirements of this subdivision are met, the fair market value of any interest in real property, including any improvements thereon, may be determined on a 5-year basis. Such value must be determined by means of a certified, independent appraisal made in writing by a qualified person who is neither a disqualified person with respect to, nor an employee of, the private foundation. The appraisal is certified only if it contains a statement at the end thereof to the effect that, in the opinion of the appraiser, the values placed on the assets appraised were determined in accordance with valuation principles regularly employed in making appraisals of such property using all reasonable valuation methods. The foundation shall retain a copy of the independent appraisal for its records. If a valuation made pursuant to the provisions of this subdivision in fact falls within the range of reasonable values for the appraised property, such valuation may be used by the foundation for the taxable year for which the valuation is made and for each of the succeeding 4 taxable years. Any valuation made pursuant to the provisions of this subdivision may be replaced during the 5-year period by a subsequent 5-year valuation made in accordance with the rules set forth in this subdivision, or with an annual valuation made in accordance with subdivision (iv)(a) of this subparagraph, and the most recent such valuation of such assets shall be used in computing the foundation's minimum investment return. In the case of a foundation organized before May 27, 1969, a valuation made in accordance with this subdivision applicable to the foundation's first taxable year beginning after December 31, 1972, and the 4 succeeding taxable years must be made no later than the last day of such first taxable year. In the case of a foundation organized after May 26, 1969, a valuation made in accordance with this subdivision applicable to the foundation's first taxable year beginning after February 5, 1973 and the succeeding 4 taxable years must be made no later than the last day of such first taxable year. Any subsequent valuation made in accordance with this subdivision must be made no later than the last day of the first taxable year for which such new valuation is applicable. A valuation, if properly made in accordance with the rules set forth in this subdivision, will not be disturbed by the Commissioner during the 5-year period for which it applies even if the actual fair market value of such property changes during such period.

(c) For purposes of this subdivision, commonly accepted methods of valuation must be used in making an appraisal. Valuations made in accordance with the principles stated in the regulations under section 2031 constitute acceptable methods of valuation. The term appraisal, as used in this subdivision, means a determination of fair market value and is not to be construed in a technical sense peculiar to particular property or interests therein, such as, for example, mineral interests in real property.

(v) Definition of “securities”. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “securities” includes, but is not limited to, common and preferred stocks, bonds, and mutual fund shares.

(vi) Valuation date. (a) In the case of an asset which is required to be valued on an annual basis as provided in subdivision (iv)(a) of this subparagraph, such asset may be valued as of any day in the private foundation's taxable year to which such valuation applies, provided the foundation follows a consistent practice of valuing such asset as of such date in all taxable years.

(b) A valuation described in subdivision (iv)(b) of this subparagraph may be made as of any day in the first taxable year of the private foundation to which such valuation is to be applied.

(vii) Assets held for less than a taxable year. For purposes of this paragraph, any asset described in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph which is held by a foundation for only part of a taxable year shall be taken into account for purposes of determining the foundation's minimum investment return for such taxable year by multiplying the fair market value of such asset (as determined pursuant to this subparagraph) by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days in such taxable year that the foundation held such asset and the denominator of which is the number of days in such taxable year.

(5) Applicable percentage—(i) In general. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(ii) or (iii) of this section, the applicable percentage is:

(a) Six percent for a taxable year beginning in 1970 or 1971;

(b) Five and a half percent for a taxable year beginning in 1972;

(c) Five and one-quarter percent for a taxable year beginning in 1973;

(d) Six percent for a taxable year beginning in 1974 or 1975; and

(e) Five percent for taxable years beginning after Dec. 31, 1975.

(ii) Transitional rule. In the case of organizations organized before May 27, 1969 (including organizations deemed to be so organized by virtue of the provisions of paragraph (e)(2) of this section), section 4942 shall, for all purposes other than the determination of the minimum investment return under section 4942(j)(3)(B)(ii), for taxable years:

(a) Beginning before January 1, 1972, apply without regard to section 4942(e).

(b) Beginning in 1972, apply with an applicable percentage of 4 1/8 percent,

(c) Beginning in 1973, apply with an applicable percentage of 4 3/8 percent and

(d) Beginning in 1974, apply with an applicable percentage of 5 1/2 percent.

(iii) Short taxable periods. In any case in which a taxable year referred to in this subparagraph is a period less than 12 months, the applicable percentage to be applied to the amount determined under the provisions of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall be equal to the applicable percentage for the calendar year in which the short taxable period began multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days in such short taxable period and the denominator of which is 365.

(d) Adjusted net income—(1) Definition. For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, the term “adjusted net income” means the excess (if any) of:

(i) The gross income for the taxable year (including gross income from any unrelated trade or business) determined with the income modifications provided by subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, over

(ii) The sum of the deductions (including deductions directly connected with the carrying on of any unrelated trade or business), determined with the deduction modifications provided by subparagraph (4) of this paragraph, which would be allowed to a corporation subject to the tax imposed by section 11 for the taxable year.

In computing the income includible under this paragraph as gross income and the deductions allowable under this paragraph from such income, the principles of subtitle A of the Code shall apply except to the extent such principles conflict with section 4942 and the regulations thereunder (without regard to this sentence). Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, no exclusions or deductions from gross income or credits against tax are allowable under this paragraph. For purposes of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the term “gross income” does not include gifts, grants, or contributions received by the private foundation but does include income from a functionally related business (as defined in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section).

(2) Income modifications. The income modifications referred to in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph are as follows:

(i) Section 103 (relating to interest on certain governmental obligations) shall not apply. Hence, interest which would have been excluded from gross income by section 103 shall be included in gross income.

(ii) Capital gains and losses from the sale or other disposition of property shall be taken into account only in an amount equal to any net short-term capital gain (as defined in section 1222(5)) for the taxable year. Long-term capital gain or loss is not included in the computation of adjusted net income. Similarly, net section 1231 gains shall be excluded from the computation of adjusted net income. However, net section 1231 losses shall be included in the computation of adjusted net income, if such losses are otherwise described in subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph. Any net short-term capital loss for a given taxable year shall not be taken into account in computing adjusted net income for such year or in computing net short-term capital gain for purposes of determining adjusted net income for prior or future taxable years regardless of whether the foundation is a corporation or a trust.

(iii) The following amounts shall be included in gross income for the taxable year:

(a) Amounts received or accrued as repayments of amounts which were taken into account as a qualifying distribution within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of § 53.4942(a)-3 for any taxable year;

(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, gross amounts received or accrued from the sale or other disposition of property to the extent that the acquisition of such property was taken into account as a qualifying distribution (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of § 53.4942(a)-3) for any taxable year; and

(c) Any amount set aside under paragraph (b) of § 53.4942(a)-3 to the extent it is determined that such amount is not necessary for the purposes for which it was set aside.

(iv) Any distribution received by a private foundation from a disqualified person in redemption of stock held by such private foundation in a business enterprise shall be treated as not essentially equivalent to a dividend under section 302(b)(1) if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(a) Such redemption is of stock which was owned by a private foundation on May 26, 1969 (or which is acquired by a private foundation under the terms of a trust which was irrevocable on May 26, 1969, or under the terms of a will executed on or before such date which are in effect on such date and at all times thereafter);

(b) Such foundation is required to dispose of such property in order not to be liable for tax under section 4943 (relating to taxes on excess business holdings) applied, in the case of a disposition before January 1, 1975, without taking section 4943(c)(4) into account; and

(c) Such foundation receives in return an amount which equals or exceeds the fair market value of such property at the time of such disposition or at the time a contract for such disposition was previously executed in a transaction which would not constitute a prohibited transaction (within the meaning of section 503(b) or the corresponding provisions of prior law).

(v) If, as of the date of distribution of property for purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B), the fair market value of such property exceeds its adjusted basis, such excess shall not be deemed an amount includible in gross income.

(vi) The income received by a private foundation from an estate during the period of administration of such estate shall not be included in such foundation's gross income, unless, due to a prolonged period of administration, such estate is considered terminated for Federal income tax purposes by operation of paragraph (a) of § 1.641(b)-3 of this chapter (Income Tax Regulations).

(vii) Distributions received by a private foundation from a trust created and funded by another person shall not be included in the foundation's gross income. However, with respect to distributions from certain trusts described in section 4947(a)(2), see paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(viii) Gross income shall include all amounts derived from, or in connection with, property held by the foundation, even though the fair market value of such property may not be included in such foundation's assets for purposes of determining minimum investment return by operation of paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

(ix) Gross income shall include amounts treated in a preceding taxable year as a “qualifying distribution” by operation of paragraph (c) of § 53.4942(a)-3 where such amounts are not redistributed by the close of the donee organization's succeeding taxable year in accordance with the rules prescribed in such paragraph (c). In such cases, such amounts shall be included in the donor foundation's gross income for such foundation's first taxable year beginning after the close of the donee organization's first taxable year following the donee organization's taxable year of receipt.

(x) For taxable years ending after October 4, 1976, section 4942(f)(2)(D) states that section 483 (relating to imputed interest on deferred payments) does not apply to payments made pursuant to a binding contract entered into in a taxable year beginning before January 1, 1970. Amounts that are not treated as imputed interest because of section 4942(f)(2)(D) and this subdivision will represent gain or loss from the sale of property. If the gain or loss is long term capital gain or loss, section 4942(f)(2)(B) excludes the gain or loss from the computation of the foundation's gross income. If, in a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969, there is a substantial change in the terms of a contract entered into in a taxable year beginning before January 1, 1970, then any payment made pursuant to the changed contract is not considered a payment made pursuant to a contract entered into in a taxable year beginning before January 1, 1970. Whether or not a change in the terms of a contract (for example, a change relating to time of payment, sales price, or obligations under the contract) is a substantial change is determined by applying the rules under section 483 and § 1.483-1(b)(4). As used in this subdivision, a binding contract includes an irrevocable written option.

(3) Adjusted basis—(i) In general. For purposes of subparagraph (2)(ii) of this paragraph, the adjusted basis for purposes of determining gain from the sale or other disposition of property shall be determined in accordance with the rules set forth in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph and the adjusted basis for purposes of determining loss from such disposition shall be determined in accordance with the rules set forth in subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph. Further, the provisions of this subparagraph do not apply for any purpose other than for purposes of subparagraph (2)(ii) of this paragraph. For example, the determination of gain pursuant to the provisions of section 341 is determined without regard to this subparagraph.

(ii) Gain from sale or other disposition. The adjusted basis for purposes of determining gain from the sale or other disposition of property shall be the greater of:

(a) The fair market value of such property on December 31, 1969, plus or minus all adjustments after December 31, 1969, and before the date of sale or other disposition under the rules of Part II, Subchapter O, Chapter 1 of the Code, provided that the property was held by the private foundation on December 31, 1969, and continuously thereafter to such date of sale or other disposition; or

(b) The adjusted basis as determined under the rules of Part II, Subchapter O, Chapter 1 of the Code, subject to the provisions of section 4940(c)(3)(B) and the regulations thereunder (and without regard to section 362(c)). With respect to assets acquired prior to December 31, 1969, which were subject to depreciation or depletion, for purposes of determining the adjustments to be made to basis between the date of acquisition and December 31, 1969, and amount equal to straight-line depreciation or cost depletion shall be taken into account. In addition, in determining such adjustments to basis, if any other adjustments would have been made during such period (such as a change in useful life based upon additional data or a change in facts), such adjustments shall also be taken into account.

(iii) Loss from sale or other disposition. For purposes of determining loss from the sale or other disposition of property, adjusted basis as determined in subdivision (ii)(b) of this subparagraph shall apply.

(iv) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A private foundation, which uses the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting, purchased certain depreciable real property on December 1, 1969. On December 31, 1969, the fair market value of such property was $100,000 and its adjusted basis (determined under the provisions of this subparagraph) was $102,000. The property was sold on January 2, 1970, for $105,000. Because fair market value on December 31, 1969, $100,000, is less than the adjusted basis as determined by Part II, Subchapter O, Chapter 1 of the Code, $102,000, a short-term gain of $3,000 is recognized (i.e., sale price of $105,000 less the greater of the two possible bases) for purposes of subparagraph (2)(ii) of this paragraph.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that the sale price was $95,000. Because the sale price was $7,000 less than the adjusted basis for loss ($102,000 as determined by the application of subdivision (iii) of this subparagraph), there is a capital loss of $7,000 which may be deducted against short-term capital gains for 1970 (if any) in determining net short-term capital gain.

Example 3.A private foundation, which uses the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting, purchased unimproved land on December 1, 1969. On December 31, 1969, the fair market value of such property was $110,000 and its adjusted basis (determined under the provisions of this subparagraph) was $102,000. The property was sold on January 2, 1970, for $105,000. Since the fair market value on December 31, 1969, $110,000, exceeds the adjusted basis as determined by Part II, Subchapter O, Chapter 1 of the Code, $102,000, such fair market value will be used for purposes of determining gain. However, because the adjusted basis for purposes of determining gain exceeds the sale price, there is no gain. Furthermore, because the adjusted basis for purposes of determining loss, $102,000, is less than sale price, there is no loss.

(4) Deduction modifications—(i) In general. For purposes of computing adjusted net income under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, no deduction shall be allowed other than all the ordinary and necessary expenses paid or incurred for the production or collection of gross income or for the management, conservation, or maintenance of property held for the production of such income, except as provided in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph. Such expenses include that portion of a private foundation's operating expenses which is paid or incurred for the production or collection of gross income. Operating expenses include compensation of officers, other salaries and wages of employees, interest, rent, and taxes. Where only a portion of the property produces (or is held for the production of) income subject to the provisions of section 4942, and the remainder of the property is used for charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purposes, the deductions allowed by this subparagraph shall be apportioned between the exempt and nonexempt uses. Similarly, where the deductions with respect to property used for a charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose exceed the income derived from such property, such excess shall not be allowed as a deduction, but may be treated as a qualifying distribution described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of § 53.4942(a)-3. Furthermore, this subdivision does not allow deductions which are not paid or incurred for the purposes herein prescribed. Thus, for example, the deductions prescribed by the following sections are not allowable: (a) The charitable contributions deduction prescribed under sections 170 and 642(c); (b) the net operating loss deduction prescribed under section 172; and (c) the special deductions prescribed under Part VIII, Subchapter B, Chapter 1 of the Code.

(ii) Special rules. For purposes of computing adjusted net income under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph: (a) The allowances for depreciation and depletion as determined under section 4940(c)(3)(B) and the regulations thereunder shall be taken into account, and (b) section 265 (relating to expenses and interest relating to tax-exempt interest) shall not apply.

(e) Certain transitional rules—(1) In general. In the case of organizations organized before May 27, 1969, section 4942 shall:

(i) Not apply to an organization to the extent its income is required to be accumulated pursuant to the mandatory terms (as in effect on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter) of an instrument executed before May 27, 1969, with respect to the transfer of income producing property to such organization, except that section 4942 shall apply to such organization if the organization would have been denied exemption had section 504(a) not been repealed, or would have had its deductions under section 642(c) limited had section 681(c) not been repealed. In applying the preceding sentence, in addition to the limitations contained in section 504(a) or 681(c) before its repeal, section 504(a)(1) or 681(c)(1) shall be treated as not applying to an organization to the extent its income is required to be accumulated pursuant to the mandatory terms (as in effect on January 1, 1951, and at all times thereafter) of an instrument executed before January 1, 1951, with respect to the transfer of income producing property to such organization before such date, if such transfer was irrevocable on such date; and

(ii) Not apply to an organization which is prohibited by its governing instrument or other instrument from distributing capital or corpus to the extent the requirements of section 4942 are inconsistent with such prohibitions.

(2) Certain existing organizations. For purposes of this section, an organization will be deemed to be organized prior to May 26, 1969, if it is either a testamentary trust created under the will of an individual who died prior to such date or an inter visos trust which was in existence and irrevocable prior to such date, even though it is not funded until after May 26, 1969. Similarly, a split-interest trust, as described in section 4947(a)(2) (without regard to section 4947(a)(2)(C)), which became irrevocable prior to May 27, 1969, and which is treated as a private foundation under section 4947(a)(1) subsequent to such date, likewise shall be treated as an organization organized prior to such date. See section 507(b)(2) and the regulations thereunder with respect to the applicability of transitional rules where there has been a merger of two or more private foundations or a reorganization of a private foundation.

(3) Limitation. With respect to taxable years beginning after December 31, 1971, subparagraph (1) (i) and (ii) of this paragraph shall apply only for taxable years during which there is pending any judicial proceeding by the private foundation which is necessary to reform, or to excuse such foundation from compliance with, its governing instrument or any other instrument (as in effect on May 26, 1969) in order to comply with the provisions of section 4942, and in the case of subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph for all taxable years following the taxable year in which such judicial proceeding is terminated during which the governing instrument or any other instrument does not permit compliance with such provisions. Thus, the exception described in subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph applies after 1971 only for taxable years during which such judicial proceeding is pending. Accordingly, beginning with the first taxable year following the taxable year in which such judicial proceeding is terminated, such foundation will be required to meet the requirements of section 4942 and the regulations thereunder (and be subject to the taxes provided upon failure to do so) except to the extent such foundation is required to accumulate income as described in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph, even if the governing instrument continues to prohibit invasion of capital or corpus. In any case where a foundation's governing instrument or any other instrument requires accumulation of income as described in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph beginning with the first taxable year following the taxable year in which such judicial proceeding is terminated, the distributable amount (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) for such foundation shall be reduced by the amount of the income required to be accumulated. Therefore, if the foundation's adjusted net income for any taxable year equals or exceeds its minimum investment return for such year, the accumulation provisions will be given full effect. However, if the minimum investment return exceeds the adjusted net income for any taxable year, the foundation will be required to distribute such excess for such year. For purposes of this paragraph, a judicial proceeding will be treated as pending only if the foundation is diligently pursuing its judicial remedies and there is no unreasonable delay in such proceeding for which the private foundation is responsible.

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.X, a private foundation organized in 1930, is required by the mandatory terms of its governing instrument to accumulated 25 percent of its adjusted net income and to add such accumulations to corpus. The instrument also prohibits distribution of corpus for any purpose. On July 13, 1971, X instituted an action in the appropriate State court to reform the instrument by deleting the accumulation and corpus provisions described above. If the court's final order reforms the accumulation provisions to allow distributions of income sufficient to avoid the imposition of a tax under section 4942, then section 4942 applies to X, regardless of the court's action with respect to the corpus provisions. However, if the court rules that the accumulation provision may not be reformed, section 4942 applies to X only to the extent provided for in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph, regardless of the court's action with respect to the corpus provision.

Example 2.Private foundation Y was created by the will of A who died in 1940. Y's governing instrument requires that 40 percent of Y's adjusted net income be added to corpus each year. In an action commenced prior to December 31, 1971, a court of competent jurisdiction rules that this accumulation provisions must be complied with. In Y's succeeding taxable year its adjusted net income is $120,000, and its minimum investment return is $140,000. Thus, Y is required to accumulated $48,000 (40 percent of $120,000) and shall be allowed to do so. Therefore, Y's distributable amount for such taxable year shall be the greater of its adjusted net income ($120,000) or its minimum investment return ($140,000), reduced by the amount of the income required to be accumulated ($48,000) and the taxes imposed by Subtitle A of the Code and section 4940 and increased by any trust distributions described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Accordingly, Y's distributable amount for such taxable year is $92,000 ($140,000 reduced by $48,000), before other adjustments. If Y's minimum investment return had been $120,000 instead of $140,000, its distributable amount for such taxable year would have been $72,000 ($120,000 reduced by $48,000), before other adjustments. Similarly, if Y's minimum investment return had been $100,000 instead of $140,000, its distributable amount for such taxable year would also have been $72,000, before other adjustments.

[T.D. 7256, 38 FR 3317, Feb. 5, 1973; 38 FR 4577, Feb. 16, 1973, as amended by T.D. 7486, 42 FR 24265, May 13, 1977; T.D. 7594, 44 FR 7138, Feb. 6, 1979; T.D. 7610, 44 FR 21644, Apr. 11, 1979; T.D. 7715, 45 FR 56803, Aug. 26, 1980; T.D. 7849, 47 FR 50857, Nov. 10, 1982; T.D. 7878, 48 FR 11943, Mar. 22, 1983]

§ 53.4942(a)-3 Qualifying distributions defined.

(a) In general—(1) Distributions generally. For purposes of section 4942 and the regulations thereunder, the amount of a qualifying distribution of property (as defined in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph) is the fair market value of such property as of the date such qualifying distribution is made. The amount of an organization's qualifying distributions will be determined solely on the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting described in section 446(c)(1).

(2) Definition. The term “qualifying distribution” means:

(i) Any amount (including program related investments, as defined in section 4944(c), and reasonable and necessary administrative expenses) paid to accomplish one or more purposes described in section 170(c)(1) or (2)(B), other than any contribution to:

(a) A private foundation which is not an operating foundation (as defined in section 4942(j)(3)), except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section;

(b) An organization controlled (directly or indirectly) by the contributing private foundation or one or more disqualified persons with respect to such foundation, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section; or

(c) An organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii), if paid by a private foundation that is not an operating foundation;

(ii) Any amount paid to acquire an asset used (or held for use) directly in carrying out one or more purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B). See paragraph (c)(3) of § 53.4942(a)-2 for the definition of used (or held for use); or

(iii) Any amount set aside within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section.

(3) Control. For purposes of subparagraph (2)(i)(b) of this paragraph, an organization is “controlled” by a foundation or one or more disqualified persons with respect to the foundation if any of such persons may, by aggregating their votes or positions of authority, require the donee organization to make an expenditure, or prevent the donee organization from making an expenditure, regardless of the method by which the control is exercised or exercisable. “Control” of a donee organization is determined without regard to any conditions imposed upon the donee as part of the distribution or any other restrictions accompanying the distribution as to the manner in which the distribution is to be used, unless such conditions or restrictions are described in paragraph (a)(8) of § 1.507-2 of this chapter (Income Tax Regulations). In general, it is the donee, not the distribution, which must be “controlled” by the distributing private foundation for the provisions of subparagraph (2)(i)(b) of this paragraph to apply. Thus, the furnishing of support to an organization and the consequent imposition of budgetary procedures upon that organization with respect to such support shall not in itself be treated as subjecting that organization to the distributing foundation's control within the meaning of this subparagraph. Such “budgetary procedures” include expenditure responsibility requirements under section 4945(d)(4). The “controlled” organization need not be a private foundation; it may be any type of exempt or nonexempt organization including a school, hospital, operating foundation, or social welfare organization.

(4) Borrowed funds—(i) In general. For purposes of this paragraph, if a private foundation borrows money in a particular taxable year to make expenditures for a specific charitable educational, or other similar purpose, a qualifying distribution out of such borrowed funds will, except as otherwise provided in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, be deemed to have been made only at the time that such borrowed funds are actually distributed for such exempt purpose.

(ii) Funds borrowed before 1970. (a) If a private foundation has borrowed money in a taxable year beginning before January 1, 1970, or subsequently borrows money pursuant to a written commitment which was binding as of the last day of such taxable year, to make expenditures for a specific charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose, if such borrowed funds are in fact expended for such purpose in any taxable year, and if such loan is thereafter repaid, in whole or in part, in a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969, then, at the election of the foundation as provided in subdivision (ii)(b) of this subparagraph, a qualifying distribution will be deemed to have been made at such time or times that such loan principal is so repaid rather than at the earlier time that the borrowed funds were actually distributed for such exempt purpose.

(b) The election described in subdivision (ii)(a) of this subparagraph is to be made by attaching a statement to the form the private foundation is required to file under section 6033 for the first taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969, in which a repayment of loan principal is made. Such statement shall be made a part of such form and shall be attached to such form in each succeeding taxable year in which any repayment of loan principal is made. The statement shall set forth the name and address of the lender, the amount borrowed, the specific use made of such borrowed funds, and the private foundation's election to treat repayments of loan principal as qualifying distributions.

(iii) Interest. Any payment of interest with respect to a loan described in subdivision (i) or (ii) of this subparagraph shall be treated as a deduction under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of § 53.4942(a)-2 in the taxable year in which it is made.

(5) Changes in use of an asset. If an asset not used (or held for use) directly in carrying out one or more purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B) is subsequently converted to such a use, the foundation may treat such conversion as a qualifying distribution. The amount of such qualifying distribution shall be the fair market value of the converted asset as of the date of its conversion. For purposes of the preceding sentence, fair market value shall be determined by making a valuation of the converted asset as of the date of its conversion in accordance with the rules set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of § 53.4942(a)-2.

(6) Certain foreign organizations—(i) In general. A distribution for purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) to a foreign organization, which has not received a ruling or determination letter that it is an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) or in section 4942 (j)(3), will be treated as a distribution made to an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4942(j)(3) if the distributing foundation has made a good faith determination that the donee organization is an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4942(j)(3). A determination ordinarily will be considered a good faith determination if the determination is based on current written advice received from a qualified tax practitioner concluding that the donee is an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4942(j)(3), and if the foundation reasonably relied in good faith on the written advice in accordance with the requirements of § 1.6664-4(c)(1) of this chapter. The written advice must set forth sufficient facts concerning the operations and support of the donee organization for the Internal Revenue Service to determine that the donee organization would be likely to qualify as an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4942(j)(3) as of the date of the written advice. For purposes of this section, except as provided in the next sentence, written advice will be considered current if, as of the date of distribution, the relevant law on which the advice is based has not changed since the date of the written advice and the factual information on which the advice is based is from the donee's current or prior taxable year (or annual accounting period if the donee does not have a taxable year for United States federal tax purposes). Written advice that a donee met the public support test under section 170(b)(1)(A)(vi) or section 509(a)(2) for a test period of five years will be treated as current for purposes of distributions to the donee during the two taxable years (or, as applicable, annual accounting periods) of the donee immediately following the end of the five-year test period.

(ii) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(6)—

(a) The term “foreign organization” means any organization that is not described in section 170(c)(2)(A).

(b) The term “qualified tax practitioner” means an attorney, a certified public accountant, or an enrolled agent, within the meaning of 31 CFR 10.2 and 10.3, who is subject to the requirements in 31 CFR part 10.

(7) Payment of tax. The payment of any tax imposed under chapter 42 of the Code shall not be treated as a qualifying distribution.

(8) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.M, a private foundation which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, makes the following payments in 1970: (i) a payment of $44,000 to five employees for conducting a foundation program of educational grants for research and study; (ii) $20,000 for various items of overhead, 10 percent of which is attributable to the activities of the employees mentioned in payment (i) of this example and the other 90 percent of which is attributable to administrative expenses which were not paid to accomplish any section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B) purpose; and (iii) a $100,000 general purpose grant paid to an educational institution described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii) which is not controlled by M or any disqualified persons with respect to M. Payments (i) and (ii) of this example are qualifying distributions to the extent of $46,000 ($44,000 of salaries and 10 percent of the overhead, both of which are reasonable administrative expenses paid to accomplish section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B) purposes). Payment (iii) of this example is also a qualifying distribution, since it is a contribution for section 170(c)(2)(B) purposes to an organization which is not described in subparagraph (2)(i) (a) or (b) of this paragraph. The other 90 percent of payment (ii) of this example may constitute items of deduction under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of § 53.4942(a)-2 if such items otherwise qualify under such paragraph.

Example 2.On February 21, 1972, N, a private foundation which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, pays $500,000 for real property on which it plans to build hospital facilities to be used for medical care and education. The real property produces no income and the hospital facilities will not be constructed until 1974 according to the setaside plan submitted to and approved by the Commissioner pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. The purchase of the land is a qualifying distribution under subparagraph (2)(ii) of this paragraph. If, however, the property used were to produce rental income for more than a reasonable period of time before construction of the hospital is begun, then as of the time such rental use becomes unreasonable (i) such purchase would no longer constitute a qualifying distribution under subparagraph (2)(ii) of this paragraph, and (ii) the amount of the qualifying distribution would be included in N's gross income. See paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (d)(2)(iii)(b) of § 53.4942(a)-2.

Example 3.In 1971, X, a private foundation engaged in holding paintings and exhibiting them to the public, purchases an additional building to be used to exhibit the paintings. Such expenditure is a qualifying distribution under subparagraph (2)(ii) of this paragraph. In 1975, X sells the building. Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(b) of § 53.4942(a)-2, all of the proceeds of the sale (less direct costs of the sale) are included in X's adjusted net income for 1975.

Example 4.In January 1969, M, a private foundation which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, borrows $10 million to give to N, a private college, for the construction of a science center. M borrowed the money from X, a commercial bank. M is to repay X at the rate of $1.1 million per year ($1 million principal and $0.1 million interest) for 10 years, beginning in January, 1973. M distributed $5 million of the borrowed funds to N in February 1969 and the other $5 million in March 1970. M files a statement with the form it is required to file under section 6033 for 1973 which contains the information required by subparagraph (4)(ii)(b) of this paragraph. Pursuant to M's election, each repayment of loan principal constitutes a qualifying distribution in the year of repayment. Accordingly, the distribution of $5 million to N in March 1970 will not be treated as a qualifying distribution. Each payment of interest ($0.1 million annually) with respect to M's loan from X is treated as a deduction under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of § 53.4942(a)-2 in the taxable year in which it is made.

Example 5.Private foundation Y engages in providing care for the aged. Y makes a distribution of cash to H, a hospital described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(iii) which is not controlled by Y or any disqualified person with respect to Y. The distribution is made subject to the conditions that H will invest the money as a separate fund which will bear a name commemorating the creator of Y and will use the income from such fund only for H's exempt hospital purposes which relate to care for the aged. Under these circumstances, the distribution from Y to H is a qualifying distribution pursuant to subparagraph (2)(i) of this paragraph.

(b) Certain set-asides—(1) In general. An amount set aside for a specific project that is for one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B) may be treated as a qualifying distribution in the year in which set aside (but not in the year in which actually paid), if the requirements of section 4942(g)(2) and this paragraph (b) are satisfied. The requirements of this paragraph (b) are satisfied if the private foundation establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the amount set aside will be paid for the specific project within 60 months after it is set aside, and

(i) The set-aside satisfies the suitability test described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, or

(ii) With respect to a set-aside made in a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1974, the private foundation satisfies the cash distribution test described in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph.

If the suitability test or cash distribution test is otherwise satisfied, the 60 month period for paying the amount set aside may, for good cause shown, be extended by the Commissioner.

(2) Suitability test. The suitability test is satisfied if the private foundation establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the specific project for which the amount is set aside is one that can be better accomplished by the set-aside than by the immediate payment of funds. Specific projects that can be better accomplished by the use of a set-aside include, but are not limited to, projects in which relatively long-term grants or expenditures must be made in order to assure the continuity of particular charitable projects or program-related investments (as defined in section 4944(c)) or where grants are made as part of a matching-grant program. Such projects include, for example, a plan to erect a building to house the direct charitable, educational, or other similar exempt activity of the private foundation (such as a museum building in which paintings are to be hung), even though the exact location and architectural plans have not been finalized; a plan to purchase an additional group of paintings offered for sale only as a unit that requires an expenditure of more than one year's income; or a plan to fund a specific research program that is of such magnitude as to require an accumulation of funds before beginning the research, even though not all of the details of the program have been finalized.

(3) Cash distribution test; in general. The cash distribution test is satisfied if:

(i) The specific project for which the amount is set aside will not be completed before the end of the taxable year in which the set-aside is made,

(ii) The private foundation actually distributes, in cash or its equivalent and for one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B), the “start-up period minimum amount” described in subparagraph (4) of this paragraph during the private foundation's start-up period, and

(iii) The private foundation actually distributes, in cash or its equivalent and for one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B), the “full-payment period minimum amount” described in subparagraph (5) of this paragraph in each taxable year of the private foundation's full-payment period.

For purposes of the cash distribution test, an amount set aside will be treated as distributed in the year in which actually paid and not in the year in which set aside.

(4) Minimum distribution required during start-up period—(i) Start-up period. For private foundations created before January 1, 1972, the start-up period is the four taxable years immediately preceding the taxable year beginning in calendar year 1976. For private foundations created after December 31, 1971 (or for organizations that first become private foundations after that date), the start-up period is the four taxable years following the taxable year in which the private foundation was created (or otherwise became a private foundation). For purposes of this subparagraph (4), a private foundation will be considered “created” in the taxable year in which the private foundation's distributable amount (as determined under section 4942(d)) first exceeds $500.

(ii) Start-up period minimum amount. The amount that a private foundation must actually distribute in cash or its equivalent during the private foundation's start-up period is not less than the sum of:

(a) Twenty percent of the private foundation's distributable amount (as determined under section 4942(d)) for the first taxable year of the start-up period,

(b) Forty percent of the private foundation's distributable amount for the second taxable year of the start-up period,

(c) Sixty percent of the private foundation's distributable amount for the third taxable year of the start-up period, and

(d) Eighty percent of the private foundation's distributable amount for the fourth taxable year of the start-up period.

(iii) Timing of distributions. The requirement that a private foundation distribute the start-up period minimum amount during the start-up period is a requirement that such amount be distributed before the end of the start-up period, and is not a requirement that any portion of such amount be distributed in any one taxable year of the start-up period.

(iv) Distribution actually made during start-up period. In general, only a distribution actually made during the start-up period is taken into account in determining whether a private foundation has distributed the start-up period minimum amount. However, in the case of a private foundation created after December 31, 1971 (or an organization that first became a private foundation after that date), a distribution actually made during the taxable year in which the foundation was created (the year immediately preceding the first taxable year of the private foundation's start-up period) may be treated as a distribution actually made during the start-up period. In addition, a distribution actually made by a private foundation within 5 1/2 months after the end of the start-up period will be treated as a distribution actually made during the start-up period if:

(a) The private foundation was unable to determine the distributable amount for the fourth taxable year of the start-up period until after the end of such period, and

(b) The private foundation actually made distributions prior to the end of the start-up period based upon a reasonable estimate of the private foundation's distributable amount for the fourth taxable year of the start-up period.

(v) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph (4) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.F, a private foundation created on January 1, 1975, uses the calendar year as its taxable year. The start-up period for F is January 1, 1976 through December 31, 1979. F has distributable amounts under section 4942(d) for taxable years 1976 through 1979 in the following amounts: 1976, $100,000; 1977, $120,000; 1978, $150,000; 1979, $200,000. F's start-up period minimum amount is the sum of the following amounts: 20% of $100,000 ($20,000); 40% of $120,000 ($48,000); 60% of $150,000 ($90,000); and 80% of $200,000 ($160,000); which equals $318,000. Thus F is required to actually distribute at least $318,000 in cash or its equivalent during the start-up period.

Example 2.F, a private foundation created in 1969, uses the calendar year as its taxable year. F's start-up period is the calendar years 1972 through 1975. F makes two cash distributions in 1972. The first distribution is made on account of a set-aside made in 1969. Under section 4942(g), that distribution is treated as a qualifying distribution made in 1969. The second distribution is treated under section 4942(h) has made out of F's undistributed income for 1971. In addition, F makes a cash distribution in 1976 that is treated under section 4942(h) as made out of F's undistributed income for 1975. In determining whether F has distributed its start-up period minimum amount within the start-up period, the 1972 distributions are both taken into account because they were actually made during F's start-up period. The 1976 distribution is not taken into account, however, because that distribution was not actually made during F's start-up period.

(5) Minimum distribution required during full-payment period—(i) Full-payment period. A private foundation's full-payment period includes each taxable year that begins after the end of the private foundation's start-up period.

(ii) Full-payment period minimum amount. The amount that a private foundation must actually distribute in cash or its equivalent in a taxable year of the private foundation's full-payment period is not less than 100 percent of the private foundation's distributable amount determined under section 4942(d) (without regard to section 4942(i)) with respect to the taxable year.

(iii) Carryover of distributions in excess of full-payment period minimum amount. If, in a taxable year beginning after December 31, 1975, a private foundation distributes an amount in excess of the full-payment period minimum amount for the taxable year, the excess shall be used to reduce the full-payment period minimum amount in the taxable years in the adjustment period. The amount of the excess distribution used to reduce the full-payment period minimum amount in each successive taxable year of the adjustment period shall be equal to the amount of such excess less the sum of the full-payment period minimum amounts for all prior taxable years in the adjustment period to which the excess was previously applied. The taxable years in the adjustment period are the five taxable years immediately following the taxable year in which the excess distribution is made. Any distribution in excess of the full-payment period minimum amount made during a taxable year of the adjustment period shall not be taken into account under this subparagraph (iii) until any earlier excess has been completely applied against full-payment period minimum amounts during its adjustment period.

(iv) Distributions actually made during a taxable year. Except as described in subdivision (ii) of subparagraph (6), only a distribution actually made during a taxable year of the full-payment period is taken into account in determining whether a private foundation has distributed the full-payment period minimum amount for such year.

(v) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph (5) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.F, a private foundation created on January 1, 1973, uses the calendar year as its taxable year. F has a start-up period of January 1, 1974, through December 31, 1977, and a full-payment period that includes every taxable year beginning after December 31, 1977. F's distributable amount (as determined under section 4942(d)) for 1978 is $500,000. Thus, F's full-payment period minimum amount for 1978 is $500,000. During 1978 F distributes $100,000 in cash to Charity X and $400,000 in cash to Charity Y on account of a set-aside made in 1973. F has distributed its full-payment period minimum amount for 1978 because it has made actual cash distributions during that year which total $500,000. However, F has made qualifying distributions (as determined under section 4942(g)) with respect to 1978 of only $100,000. In order to avoid liability for the tax on undistributed income under section 4942(a), F must distribute or set aside an additional $400,000 before January 1, 1980.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1) except that in 1978 F makes cash distributions totaling $600,000. Since the total cash distributions made in 1978 ($600,000) exceed the full-payment period minimum amount for 1978 ($500,000), there exists a $100,000 excess which must be used by F to reduce its full-payment period minimum amounts for the years 1979-1983 (the taxable years in the adjustment period with respect to the 1978 excess). Therefore, if F's distributable amount (as determined under section 4942(d)) for 1979 is $500,000, F's full-payment period minimum amount for 1979 is $400,000 ($500,000-$100,000).

(6) Failure to distribute minimum amounts—(i) In general. If a private foundation fails to actually distribute the start-up period minimum amount during the start-up period or, except as described in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph (6), if a private foundation fails to actually distribute the full-payment period minimum amount during a taxable year of the full-payment period, then any set-aside made by the private foundation during the start-up period (if the failure relates to the start-up period) or during the taxable year (if the failure relates to the full-payment period) that was not approved by the Commissioner under the suitability test described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph will not be treated as a qualifying distribution. Further, any set-aside made after the year of such a failure to so distribute a minimum amount will be treated as a qualifying distribution only if the Commissioner approves the set-aside under the suitability test. In any case in which a set-aside ceases to be treated as a qualifying distribution as a result of a failure to distribute the full-payment period minimum amount, a private foundation may be assessed a deficiency under section 4942(a) within the period described in section 6501(n)(3).

(ii) Correction of certain failures to distribute. If a private foundation's failure to distribute the full-payment period minimum amount during a taxable year of the full-payment period was not willful and was due to reasonable cause, the private foundation may correct the failure to so distribute. Correction will be achieved if the private foundation distributes within the correction period cash or its equivalent in an amount not less than the difference between the full-payment period minimum amount for the taxable year and the amount actually distributed during the taxable year. The correction period is the correction period as defined in section 4962(e), determined with respect to the earliest occurring taxable event (as defined in section 4962(e)(2)(A)) that would result if the failure to distribute a full-payment period minimum amount were not corrected. The additional distribution will be treated for purposes of subparagraph (5) of this paragraph as made during the taxable year with respect to which the failure occurred. If a private foundation fails to distribute the full-payment period minimum amount during a taxable year of the full-payment period because such amount can be determined only after the end of the taxable year, no “willful failure to distribute” the full-payment period minimum amount will occur if the private foundation makes an additional distribution within 5 1/2 months after the end of the taxable year.

(7) Approval and information requirements—(i) Suitability test. If an amount is set aside under the suitability test of section 4942(g)(2)(B)(i) and subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, the private foundation must apply for the Commissioner's approval of the set-aside before the end of the taxable year in which the amount is set aside. The Commissioner will either approve or disapprove the set-aside in writing. An otherwise proper set-aside will not be treated as a qualifying distribution under this paragraph (b) with respect to a taxable year if the Commissioner's approval is not sought before the end of the taxable year in which the amount is actually set aside. To obtain approval by the Commissioner for a set-aside under the suitability test, the private foundation must write to Commissioner of Internal Revenue, Attention: OP:E:EO:T, 1111 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20224, and include:

(a) A statement describing the nature and purposes of the specific project and the amount of the set-aside for which approval is requested;

(b) A statement describing the amounts and approximate dates of any planned additions to the set-aside after its initial establishment;

(c) A statement of the reasons why the project can be better accomplished by a set-aside than by the immediate payment of funds;

(d) A detailed description of the project, including estimated costs, sources of any future funds expected to be used for completion of the project, and the location or locations (general or specific) of any physical facilities to be acquired or constructed as part of the project; and

(e) A statement by an appropriate foundation manager (as defined in section 4946(b)) that the amounts to be set aside will actually be paid for the specific project within a specified period of time that ends not more than 60 months after the date of the first set-aside, or a statement showing good cause why the period for paying the amount set aside should be extended (including a showing that the proposed project could not be divided into two or more projects covering periods of no more than 60 months each) and setting forth the extension of time required.

(ii) Cash distribution test. If an amount is set aside under the cash distribution test of section 4942(g)(2)(B)(ii) and subparagraphs (3), (4), and (5) of this paragraph, then for taxable years ending after April 2, 1984, the private foundation must submit an attachment with the return required by section 6033 for the taxable year in which the amount is set aside and for certain subsequent taxable years. For the taxable year in which the amount is set aside the attachment must include:

(a) A statement describing the nature and purposes of the specific project for which amounts are to be set aside;

(b) A statement that the amounts set aside for the specific project will actually be paid for the specific project within a specified period of time that ends not more than 60 months after the date of the set-aside;

(c) A statement that the project will not be completed before the end of the taxable year of the private foundation in which the set-aside is made;

(d) A statement showing the distributable amounts determined under section 4942(d) for any past taxable years in the private foundation's start-up and full-payment periods; and

(e) A statement showing the aggregate amount of actual payments made in cash or its equivalent, for purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B), during each taxable year in the private foundation's start-up and full-payment periods. This statement should include a detailed description of any payments that are to be treated, pursuant to the rules of subparagraphs (4)(iv) and (6)(ii) of this paragraph (b), as distributed during a taxable year prior to the taxable year in which such payments were actually made and, in addition, should explain the circumstances that justify the application of those rules.

For the five taxable years following the taxable year in which the amount is set aside (or, if longer, for each taxable year in the extended period for paying the amount set aside), the attachment must include the statements required by (d) and (e) of this subdivision (ii). The submission of the statement required by (b) of this subdivision (ii) will satisfy the requirement of section 4942(g)(2)(B) and subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (b) that the private foundation establish to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the amount set aside will be paid for the specific project within 60 months after it is set aside.

(8) Evidence of set-aside. A set-aside that is approved by the Commissioner or which satisfies the cash distribution test shall be evidenced by the entry of a dollar amount on the books and records of a private foundation as a pledge or obligation to be paid at a future date or dates. Any amount which is set aside shall be taken into account for purposes of determining the private foundation's minimum investment return under § 53.4942(a)-2 (c)(1), and any income attributable to such set-aside shall be taken into account in computing adjusted net income under § 53.4942(a)-2(d).

(9) Contingent set-aside. In the event a private foundation is involved in litigation and may not distribute assets or income because of a court order, the private foundation may (except as provided in § 53.4942(a)-2 (e)(1)(i) or (ii)) seek and obtain a set-aside for a purpose described in § 53.4942(a)-3 (a)(2). The amount to be set aside shall be equal to that portion of the private foundation's distributable amount which is attributable to the assets or income that are held pursuant to court order and which, but for the court order precluding the distribution of such assets or income, would have been distributed. In the event that the litigation encompasses more than one taxable year, the private foundation may seek additional contingent set-asides. Such amounts must actually be distributed by the last day of the taxable year following the taxable year in which the litigation is terminated. Amounts not distributed by the close of the appropriate taxable year shall be treated as described in § 53.4942(a)-2 (d)(2)(iii)(c) for the succeeding taxable year.

(c) Certain contributions to section 501(c)(3) organizations—(1) In general. For purposes of this section, the term “qualifying distribution” includes (in the year in which it is paid) a contribution to an exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) and described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) (a) or (b) of this section if:

(i) Not later than the close of the first taxable year after the donee organization's taxable year in which such contribution is received, such donee organization makes a distribution equal to the full amount of such contribution and such distribution is a qualifying distribution (within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section, without regard to this paragraph) which is treated under paragraph (d) of this section as a distribution out of corpus (or would be so treated if such section 501(c)(3) organization were a private foundation which is not an operating foundation); and

(ii) The private foundation making the contribution obtains adequate records or other sufficient evidence from such donee organization (such as a statement by an appropriate officer, director, or trustee of such donee organization) showing (except as otherwise provided in this subparagraph) (a) that the qualifying distribution described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph has been made by such organization, (b) the names and addresses of the recipients of such distribution and the amount received by each, and (c) that the distribution is treated as a distribution out of corpus under paragraph (d) of this section (or would be so treated if the donee organization were a private foundation which is not an operating foundation). Where a distribution is for an administrative expense which is part of a section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B) expenditure or is part of another section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B) expenditure that cannot reasonably be separately accounted for, the provisions of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph may be satisfied by the submission by the donee organization of a statement setting forth the general purpose for which such expenditure was made and that the amount was distributed as a qualifying distribution described in subdivision (ii)(c) of this subparagraph.

(2) Distribution requirements. (i) In order for a donee organization to meet the distribution requirements of subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph, it must, not later than the close of the first taxable year after its taxable year in which any contributions are received, distribute (within the meaning of this subparagraph) an amount equal in value to the contributions received in such prior taxable year and have no remaining undistributed income for such prior taxable year. In the event that a donee organization redistributes less than an amount equal to the total contributions from donor organizations which are required to be redistributed by such donee organization by the close of the first taxable year following the taxable year in which such contributions were received, amounts treated as redistributions of such contributions shall be deemed to have been made pro rata out of all such contributions regardless of any earmarking or identification made by such donee organization with respect to the source of such distributions. See paragraph (d)(2)(ix) of § 53.4942(a)-2 for the treatment of amounts deemed not to have been so redistributed. For purposes of this paragraph, the term contributions means all contributions, whether of cash or property, and the fair market value of contributed property determined as of the date of the contribution must be used in determining whether an amount equal in value to the contributions received has been redistributed.

(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, the characterization of qualifying distributions made during the taxable year (i.e., whether out of the prior year's undistributed income, the current year's undistributed income, or corpus) is to be made as of the close of the taxable year in question, except to the extent that a different characterization is effected by means of the election provided for by paragraph (d)(2) of this section or by subdivision (iv) of this subparagraph. Once it is determined that a qualifying distribution is attributable to corpus, such distribution will first be charged to distributions which are required to be redistributed under this paragraph.

(iii) All amounts contributed to a specific exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) and in paragraph (a)(2)(i) (a) or (b) of this section within any one taxable year of such organization shall be treated (with respect to the contributing private foundation) as one “contribution”. If subparagraph (1) (i) or (ii) of this paragraph is not completely satisfied with respect to such contribution within the meaning of such subparagraph, only that portion of such contribution which was redistributed (within the meaning of subparagraph (1) (i) and (ii) of this paragraph) shall be treated as a qualifying distribution.

(iv) In order to satisfy distribution requirements under section 170(b) (1)(E)(ii) or this paragraph, a donee organization may elect to treat as a current distribution out of corpus any amount distributed in a prior taxable year which was treated as a distribution out of corpus under paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section provided that (a) such amount has not been availed of for any other purpose, such as a carryover under paragraph (e) of this section or a redistribution under this paragraph for a prior year, (b) such corpus distribution occurred within the preceding 5 years, and (c) such amount is not later availed of for any other purpose. Such election must be made by attaching a statement to the return the foundation is required to file under section 6033 with respect to the taxable year for which such election is to apply. Such statement must contain a declaration by an appropriate foundation manager (within the meaning of section 4946(b)(1)) that the foundation is making an election under this paragraph and it must specify that the distribution was treated under paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section as a distribution out of corpus in a designated prior taxable year (or years).

(3) Examples. The provisions of subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples. It is assumed in these examples that all private foundations described use the calendar as the taxable year.

Example 1.In 1972 M, a private foundation, makes a contribution out of 1971 income to X, another private foundation which is not an operating foundation. The contribution is the only one received by X in 1972. In 1973 X makes a qualifying distribution to an art museum maintained by an operating foundation in an amount equal to the amount of the contribution received from M. X also distributes all of its undistributed income for 1972 and 1973 for other purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B). Under the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section, such distribution to the museum is treated as a distribution out of corpus. Thus, M's contribution to X is a qualifying distribution out of M's 1971 income provided M obtains adequate records or other sufficient evidence from X showing the nature and amount of the distribution made by X, the identity of the recipient, and the fact that the distribution is treated as made out of corpus. If X's qualifying distributions during 1973 had been equal only to M's contribution to X and X's undistributed income for 1972, X could have made an election under paragraph (d)(2) of this section to treat the amount distributed in excess of its 1972 undistributed income as a distribution out of corpus and in that manner satisfied the requirements of this paragraph.

Example 2.Assume the facts stated in example (1), except that X is a private college described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii) which is controlled by disqualified persons with respect to M and that the records which X furnishes to M show that the distribution would have been treated as made out of corpus if X were a private nonoperating foundation. Under these circumstances, result is the same as in example (1).

Example 3.Assume the facts stated in example (1), except that X makes a distribution to the museum equal only to one-half of the contribution from M, that the remainder of such contribution is added to X's funds and used to pay charitable administrative expenses, and that the records obtained by M from X are not sufficient to show the amounts distributed or the identities of the recipients of the distributions. The contribution by M to X will be a qualifying distribution only to the extent that M can obtain (i) other sufficient evidence (such as statements from officers or employees of X or from the museum) showing the facts required by subparagraph (1)(ii) (a), (b), and (c) of this paragraph and (ii) a statement from X setting forth that the remainder of the contribution was used for charitable administrative expenses which constituted qualifying distributions described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.

Example 4.X and Y are private nonoperating foundations. A is an exempt organization which is not described in section 501(c)(3) but which supervises and conducts a program described in section 170(c)(2)(B). Y, but not X, controls A within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3) of this section. In 1972, X and Y each makes a grant to A of $100, specifically designated for use in the operation of A's section 170(c)(2)(B) program. X has made a qualifying distribution to A because the distribution is one described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. However, because A is controlled by Y, Y's grant of $100 to A does not constitute a qualifying distribution within the meaning of such paragraph (a)(2)(i). Furthermore, because A is not an exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3), Y's grant to A does not constitute a qualifying distribution by operation of the provisions of this paragraph.

Example 5.N, a private nonoperating foundation, had distributable amounts of $100 in 1970 and $125 in 1971. In 1970 N received total contributions of $540: $150 from Y, a public charity; $70 from Z, a private foundation; $140 from Q, a private foundation, subject to the requirement that N earmark the amount and distribute it before distributing Z's contribution; and, $180 from R, also a private foundation. However, R specifically instructed N that such contribution did not have to be redistributed because R already had made enough qualifying distributions to avoid all section 4942 taxes. N is not controlled by Y, Z, Q, or R, and N made no qualifying distributions in 1970. By the close of 1971, N had made qualifying distributions of $420, earmarking $140 as having been a distribution of Q's contribution, but had made no election under paragraph (d)(2) of this section to have any amount distributed which was in excess of N's 1970 undistributed income treated as distributed out of corpus. Therefore, the first $225 of qualifying distributions made in 1971 (the sum of $100 and $125, N's distributable amounts for 1970 and 1971, respectively) are treated as amounts described in paragraph (d)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section. Since Y's contribution is a contribution from a public charity and does not have to be “redistributed” and since R specifically instructed N that its contribution need not be “redistributed”, the remaining $195 of qualifying distributions will be treated as distributed pro rata from Z's and Q's contributions, regardless of N's earmarking. Accordingly, of Z's original qualifying distribution of $70 only $65 ($195 multiplied by $70, Z's contribution, over $210, the total ($70 plus $140) of Z's and Q's contributions) will be treated as redistributed by N. Similarly, of Q's original qualifying distribution of $140 only $130 ($195 multiplied by $140 over $210) will be treated as redistributed by N. Thus, Z's gross income for 1972 will be increased by $5 ($70 less the $65 actually redistributed), and Q's gross income for 1972 will be increased by $10 ($140 less the $130 actually redistributed).

(4) Limitation. A contribution by a private foundation to a donee organization which the donee uses to make payments to another organization (the secondary donee) shall not be regarded as a contribution by the private foundation to the secondary donee if the distributing foundation does not earmark the use of the contribution for any named secondary donee and does not retain power to cause the selection of the secondary donee by the organization to which such foundation has made the contribution. For purposes of this subparagraph, a contribution described herein shall not be regarded as a contribution by the foundation to the secondary donee even though such foundation has reason to believe that certain organizations would derive benefits from such contribution so long as the original donee organization exercises control, in fact, over the selection process and actually makes the selection completely independently of such foundation.

(5) Transitional rule. (i) For purposes of this paragraph, a contribution to a private foundation which is not an operating foundation and which is not controlled (directly or indirectly) by the distributing foundation or one or more disqualified persons with respect to the distributing foundation will be treated as a contribution to an operating foundation if:

(a) Such contribution is made pursuant to a written commitment which was binding on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter.

(b) Such contribution is made for one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c) (1) or (2)(B), and

(c) Such contribution is to be paid out to the donee private foundation on or before December 31, 1974.

(ii) For purposes of this subparagraph, a written commitment will be considered to have been binding prior to May 27, 1969, only if the amount and nature of the contribution and the name of the donee foundation were entered in the records of the distributing foundation, or were otherwise adequately evidenced, prior to May 27, 1969, or notice of the contribution was communicated in writing to such donee prior to May 27, 1969.

(d) Treatment of qualifying distributions—(1) In general. Except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, any qualifying distribution made during a taxable year shall be treated as made:

(i) First out of the undistributed income (as defined in paragraph (a) of § 53.4942(a)-2) of the immediately preceding taxable year (if the private foundation was subject to the initial excise tax imposed by section 4942(a) for such preceding taxable year) to the extent thereof;

(ii) Second out of the undistributed income for the taxable year to the extent thereof; and

(iii) Then out of corpus.

(2) Election. In the case of any qualifying distribution which (under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph) is not treated as made out of the undistributed income of the immediately preceding taxable year, the foundation may elect to treat any portion of such distribution as made out of the undistributed income of a designated prior taxable year or out of corpus. Such election must be made by filing a statement with the Commissioner during the taxable year in which such qualifying distribution is made or by attaching a statement to the return the foundation is required to file under section 6033 with respect to the taxable year in which such qualifying distribution was made. Such statement must contain a declaration by an appropriate foundation manager (within the meaning of section 4946(b)(1)) that the foundation is making an election under this subparagraph, and it must specify whether the distribution is made out of the undistributed income of a designated prior taxable year (or years) or is made out of corpus. In any case where the election described in this subparagraph is made during the taxable year in which the qualifying distribution is made, such election may be revoked in whole or in part by filing a statement with the Commissioner during such taxable year revoking such election in whole or in part or by attaching a statement to the return the foundation is required to file under section 6033 with respect to the taxable year in which the qualifying distribution was made revoking such election in whole or in part. Such statement must contain a declaration by an appropriate foundation manager (within the meaning of section 4946(b)(1)) that the foundation is revoking an election under this subparagraph in whole or in part, and it must specify the election or part thereof being revoked.

(3) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. M, a private foundation which was created in 1968 and which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, has distributable amounts and qualifying distributions for 1970 through 1976 as follows:

1970 | 1971 | 1972 | 1973

Distributable amount | $100 | $100 | $100 | $100

Qualifying distribution | 0 | 100 | 250 | 100

1974 | 1975 | 1976

Distributable amount | $100 | $100 | $100

Qualifying distribution | 100 | 100 | 100

In 1971 the qualifying distribution of $100 is treated under subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph as made out of the $100 of undistributed income for 1970. The qualifying distribution of $250 in 1972 is treated as made: (i) $100 out of the undistributed income for 1971 under subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph; (ii) $100 out of the undistributed income for 1972 under subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph; and (iii) $50 out of corpus in 1972 under subparagraph (1)(iii) of this paragraph. The qualifying distribution of $100 in each of the years 1973 through 1976 is treated as made out of the undistributed income for each of those respective years under subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph. See paragraph (e) of this section for rules relating to the carryover of qualifying distributions out of corpus.

Example 2 M,a private foundation which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, has undistributed income of $300 for 1981, $200 for 1982, and $400 for 1983. On January 14, 1983, M makes its first qualifying distribution in 1983 when it sets aside (within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section) $700 for construction of a hospital. On February 24, 1983 a notice of deficiency with respect to the excise taxes imposed by section 4942 (a) and (b) in regard to M's undistributed income for 1981 is mailed to M under section 6212(a). M notifies the Commissioner in writing on March 24, 1983, that it is making an election under subparagraph (2) of this paragraph to have its distribution of January 14th applied first against its undistributed income for 1982, next against its undistributed income for 1981, and last against its undistributed income for 1983. Thus, $200 of the $700 qualifying distribution is treated as made out of the undistributed income for 1982; $300, out of undistributed income for 1981; and $200 ($700 less the sum of $200 and $300), out of the undistributed income for 1983. Thus, an initial excise tax of $45 (15 percent of $300) is imposed under section 4942(a). Since M made the election described above, the $300 (treated as distributed out of undistributed income for 1981) corrects (within the meaning of section 4963(d)(2)) the taxable act because the undistributed income for 1981 is reduced to zero. Furthermore, correction is effected within the correction period (as defined in section 4963(e)(1) and § 53.4963-1(e)). Therefore, under the provisions of section 4961(a), the additional tax imposed by section 4942(b) will not be assessed.

(e) Carryover of excess qualifying distributions—(1) In general. If in any taxable year for which an organization is subject to the initial excise tax imposed by section 4942(a) there is created an excess of qualifying distributions (as determined under subparagraph (2) of this paragraph), such excess may be used to reduce distributable amounts in any taxable year of the adjustment period (as defined subparagraph (3) of this paragraph). For purposes of section 4942, including paragraph (d) of this section, the distributable amount for a taxable year in the adjustment period shall be reduced to the extent of the lesser of (i) the excess of qualifying distributions made in prior taxable years to which such adjustment period applies or (ii) the remaining undistributed income at the close of such taxable year after applying any qualifying distributions made in such taxable year to the distributable amount for such taxable year (determined without regard to this paragraph). If during any taxable year of the adjustment period there is created another excess of qualifying distributions, such excess shall not be taken into account until any earlier excess of qualifying distributions has been completely applied against distributable amounts during its adjustment period.

(2) Excess qualifying distributions. An excess of qualifying distributions is created for any taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969, if:

(i) The total qualifying distributions treated (under paragraph (d) of this section) as made out of the undistributed income for such taxable year or as made out of corpus with respect to such taxable year (other than amounts distributed by an organization in satisfaction of section 170(b)(1)(E)(ii) or paragraph (c) of this section, or applied to a prior taxable year by operation of the elections contained in paragraphs (c)(2)(iv) and (d)(2) of this section), exceeds

(ii) The distributable amount for such taxable year (determined without regard to this paragraph).

(3) Adjustment period. For purposes of this paragraph, the taxable years in the adjustment period are the 5 taxable years immediately following the taxable year in which the excess of qualifying distributions is created. Thus, an excess (within the meaning of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph) for any 1 taxable year cannot be carried over beyond the succeeding 5 taxable years. However, if during any taxable year in the adjustment period an organization ceases to be subject to the initial excise tax imposed by section 4942(a), any portion of the excess of qualifying distributions, which prior to such taxable year has not been applied against distributable amounts, may not be carried over to such taxable year or subsequent taxable years in the adjustment period, even if during any of such taxable years the organization again becomes subject to the initial excise tax imposed by section 4942(a).

(4) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. (i) F, a private foundation which was created in 1967 and which uses the calendar year as the taxable year, has distributable amounts and qualifying distributions for 1970 through 1976 as follows:

Year | 1970 | 1971 | 1972 | 1973

Distributable amount | $100 | $100 | $100 | $100

Qualifying distribution | 0 | $250 | $70 | $140

Year | 1974 | 1975 | 1976

Distributable amount | $100 | $100 | $100

Qualifying distribution | $60 | $75 | $105

(ii) The qualifying distributions made in 1971 will be treated under paragraph (d) of this section as $100 made out of the undistributed income for 1970, then as $100 made out of the undistributed income for 1971, and finally as $50 out of corpus in 1971. Since the total qualifying distributions for 1971 ($150) exceed the distributable amount for 1971 ($100), there exists a $50 excess of qualifying distributions which F may use to reduce its distributable amounts for the years 1972 through 1976 (the taxable years in the adjustment period with respect to the 1971 excess). Therefore, the $100 distributable amount for 1972 is reduced by $30 (the lesser of the 1971 excess ($50) and the remaining undistributed income at the close of 1972 ($30), after the qualifying distributions of $70 for 1972 were applied to the original distributable amount for 1972 of $100). Since the distributable amount for 1972 was reduced to $70, there is no remaining undistributed income for 1972. Accordingly, the qualifying distributions made in 1973 will be treated as $100 made out of the undistributed income for 1973 and as $40 out of corpus in 1973. Since this amount ($140) exceeds the distributable amount for 1973 ($100), there exists a $40 excess which F may use to reduce its distributable amounts for the years 1974 through 1978 (the taxable years in the adjustment period with respect to the 1973 excess). However, in accordance with subparagraph (1) of this paragraph such excess may not be used to reduce F's distributable amounts for the years 1974 through 1976 until the excess created in 1971 has been completely applied against distributable amounts during such years. The distributable amount for 1974 is reduced by $40 (the lesser of the unused portion of the 1971 excess ($20) plus the 1973 excess ($40) and the remaining undistributed income at the close of 1974 ($40), after the qualifying distributions of $60 for 1974 were applied to the original distributable amount for 1974 of $100). The distributable amount for 1975 is reduced by $20 (the lesser of the unused portion of the 1973 excess of qualifying distributions ($20) and the remaining undistributed income at the close of 1975 ($25), after the qualifying distributions of $75 for 1975 were applied to the original distributable amount for 1975 of $100). Consequently, qualifying distributions made in 1976 will be treated as made first out of the $5 of remaining undistributed income for 1975 and then as $100 made out of the undistributed income for 1976.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that in 1974 F receives a contribution of $300 from G, a private foundation which controls F (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3) of this section), and F distributes such contribution in 1975 in satisfaction of paragraph (c) of this section. Under these circumstances, there would be no excess of qualifying distributions for 1975 with respect to such distribution, since such distribution is excluded from the computation of an excess of qualifying distributions by operation of subparagraph (2)(i) of this paragraph.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in example (1), except that in 1972 F is treated as an operating foundation (as such term is defined in section 4942(j)(3)). In accordance with subparagraph (3) of this paragraph since F is not subject to the initial excise tax imposed by section 4942(a) for 1972, the 1971 excess cannot be carried forward to 1972 or any subsequent year in the adjustment period with respect to the 1971 excess, even if F is subsequently treated as a private nonoperating foundation for any year during the period 1973 through 1976.

(f) Effective/applicability date and transition relief. Paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (a)(6) of this section are effective on and apply with respect to distributions made after September 25, 2015. However, foundations may continue to rely on the provisions of paragraph (a)(6) of this section as contained in 26 CFR part 53, revised April 1, 2015, with respect to distributions made on or before December 24, 2015 pursuant to a good faith determination made in accordance with such provisions. Also, foundations may continue to rely on the provisions of paragraph (a)(6) of this section as contained in 26 CFR part 53, revised April 1, 2015, with respect to distributions pursuant to a written commitment made on or before September 25, 2015 and pursuant to a good faith determination made on or before such date in accordance with such provisions if the committed amount is distributed within five years of such date.

[T.D. 7256, 38 FR 3323, Feb. 5, 1973, as amended by T.D. 7486, 42 FR 24265, May 13, 1977; T.D. 7849, 47 FR 50857, Nov. 10, 1982; T.D. 7938, 49 FR 3848, Jan. 31, 1984; T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16302, May 2, 1986; T.D. 9740, 80 FR 57715, Sept. 25, 2015]

§ 53.4942(b)-1 Operating foundations.

(a) Operating foundation defined—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4942 and the regulations thereunder, the term “operating foundation” means any private foundation which, in addition to satisfying the assets test, the endowment test or the support test set forth in § 53.4942(b)-2 (a), (b) and (c), makes qualifying distributions (within the meaning of § 53.4942(a)-3(a)(2)) directly for the active conduct of activities constituting its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose equal in value to:

(i) For taxable years beginning before January 1, 1982, substantially all of the foundation's adjusted net income (as defined in § 53.4942(a)-2(d)); and

(ii) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1981, substantially all of the lesser of the foundation's adjusted net income (as defined in § 53.4942(a)-2(d)) or minimum investment return (as defined in § 53.4942(a)-2(c)). If the foundation's qualifying distributions exceed its minimum investment return (but are less than the foundation's adjusted net income) substantially all of such qualifying distributions must be made directly for the active conduct of activities constituting its charitable, educational or other similar exempt purpose. However, if the foundation's minimum investment return is less than its adjusted net income and the foundation's qualifying distributions equal or exceed such adjusted net income, only that portion of the qualifying distributions equal to substantially all of the foundation's adjusted net income must be made directly for the active conduct of activities constituting its charitable, educational or other similar exempt purpose.

(2) Certain elderly care facilities described in section 4942(j)(6)—(i) In general. For purposes of the distribution requirements of section 4942 (but no other provision of the Internal Revenue Code) and for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1969, the term “operating foundation” includes a private foundation which:

(A) On or before May 26, 1969, and continuously thereafter to the close of the taxable year, operates and maintains, as its principal functional purpose, residential facilities for the long-term care, comfort, maintenance, or education of permanently and totally disabled persons, elderly persons, needy widows, or children, and

(B) Satisfies the endowment test set forth in § 53.4942(b)-2 (b).

(ii) Principal functional purpose. For purposes of section 4942(j)(6) and this subparagraph (2), an organization's “principal functional purpose” is operating and maintaining residential facilities for the long-term care, comfort, maintenance, or education of permanently and totally disabled persons, elderly persons, needy widows, or children, if it is organized for the principal purpose of operating and maintaining such residential facilities and is primarily engaged directly in the operation and maintenance of those facilities. An organization will be treated as being primarily engaged directly in the operation and maintenance of the described residential facilities if at least 50% of the qualifying distributions (as defined in § 53.4942(a)-3(a)(2)) normally made by the organization are expended for the operation and maintenance of the facilities.

(b) Active conduct of activities constituting the exempt purpose—(1) In general. For purposes of this section, except as provided in subparagraph (2) or (3) of this paragraph, qualifying distributions are not made by a foundation “directly for the active conduct of activities constituting its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose” unless such qualifying distributions are used by the foundation itself, rather than by or through one or more grantee organizations which receive such qualifying distributions directly or indirectly from such foundation. Thus, grants made to other organizations to assist them in conducting activities which help to accomplish their charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose are considered an indirect, rather than direct, means of carrying out activities constituting the charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose of the grantor foundation, regardless of the fact that the exempt activities of the grantee organization may assist the grantor foundation in carrying out its own exempt activities. However, amounts paid to acquire or maintain assets which are used directly in the conduct of the foundation's exempt activities, such as the operating assets of a museum, public park, or historic site, are considered direct expenditures for the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities. Likewise, administrative expenses (such as staff salaries and traveling expenses) and other operating costs necessary to conduct the foundation's exempt activities (regardless of whether they are “directly for the active conduct” of such exempt activities) shall be treated as qualifying distributions expended directly for the active conduct of such exempt activities if such expenses and costs are reasonable in amount. Conversely, administrative expenses and operating costs which are not attributable to exempt activities, such as expenses in connection with the production of investment income, are not treated as such qualifying distributions. Expenses attributable to both exempt and nonexempt activities shall be allocated to each such activity on a reasonable and consistently applied basis. Any amount set aside by a foundation for a specific project, such as the acquisition and restoration, or construction, of additional buildings or facilities which are to be used by the foundation directly for the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities, shall be deemed to be qualifying distributions expended directly for the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities if the initial setting aside of the funds constitutes a set-aside within the meaning of paragraph (b) of § 53.4942(a)-3.

(2) Payments to individual beneficiaries—(i) In general. If a foundation makes or awards grants, scholarships, or other payments to individual beneficiaries (including program related investments within the meaning of section 4944(c) made to individuals or corporate enterprises) to support active programs conducted to carry out the foundation's charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose, such grants, scholarships, or other payments will be treated as qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of exempt activities for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section only if the foundation, apart from the making or awarding of the grants, scholarships, or other payments, otherwise maintains some significant involvement (as defined in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph) in the active programs in support of which such grants, scholarships, or other payments were made or awarded. Whether the making or awarding of grants, scholarships, or other payments constitutes qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities is to be determined on the basis of the facts and circumstances of each particular case. The test applied is a qualitative, rather than a strictly quantitative, one. Therefore, if the foundation maintains a significant involvement (as defined in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph) it will not fail to meet the general rule of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph solely because more of its funds are devoted to the making or awarding of grants, scholarships, or other payments than to the active programs which such grants, scholarships, or other payments support. However, if a foundation does no more than select, screen, and investigate applicants for grants or scholarships, pursuant to which the recipients perform their work or studies alone or exclusively under the direction of some other organization, such grants or scholarships will not be treated as qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities. The administrative expenses of such screening and investigation (as opposed to the grants or scholarships themselves) may be treated as qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities.

(ii) Definition. For purposes of this subparagraph, a foundation will be considered as maintaining a “significant involvement” in a charitable, educational, or other similar exempt activity in connection with which grants, scholarships, or other payments are made or awarded if:

(A) An exempt purpose of the foundation is the relief of poverty or human distress, and its exempt activities are designed to ameliorate conditions among a poor or distressed class of persons or in an area subject to poverty or national disaster (such as providing food or clothing to indigents or residents of a disaster area), the making or awarding of the grants or other payments to accomplish such exempt purpose is direct and without the assistance of an intervening organization or agency, and the foundation maintains a salaried or voluntary staff of administrators, researchers, or other personnel who supervise and direct the activities described in this subdivision (A) on a continuing basis; or

(B) The foundation has developed some specialized skills, expertise, or involvement in a particular discipline or substantive area (such as scientific or medical research, social work, education, or the social sciences), it maintains a salaried staff of administrators, researchers, or other personnel who supervise or conduct programs or activities which support and advance the foundation's work in its particular area of interest, and, as a part of such programs or activities, the foundation makes or awards grants, scholarships, or other payments to individuals to encourage and further their involvement in the foundation's particular area of interest and in some segment of the programs or activities carried on by the foundation (such as grants under which the recipients, in addition to independent study, attend classes, seminars, or conferences sponsored or conducted by the foundation, or grants to engage in social work or scientific research projects which are under the general direction and supervision of the foundation).

(3) Payment of section 4940 tax. For purposes of section 4942(j)(3) (A) and (B)(ii), payment of the tax imposed upon a foundation under section 4940 shall be considered a qualifying distribution which is made directly for the active conduct of activities constituting the foundation's charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose.

(c) Substantially all. For purposes of this section, the term “substantially all” shall mean 85 percent or more. Thus, if a foundation makes qualifying distributions directly for the active conduct of activities constituting its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose in an amount equal to at least 85 percent of its adjusted net income, it will be considered as satisfying the income test described in this section even if it makes grants to organizations or engages in other activities with the remainder of its adjusted net income and with other funds. In determining whether the amount of qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of such exempt activities equals at least 85 percent of a foundation's adjusted net income, a foundation is not required to trace the source of such expenditures to determine whether they were derived from income or from contributions.

(d) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples. It is assumed that none of the organizations described in these examples is described in section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3).

Example 1.N, an exempt museum described in section 501(c)(3), was founded by the gift of an endowment from a single contributor. N uses 90 percent of its adjusted net income to operate the museum. If N satisfies one of the tests set forth in § 53.4942(b)-2 it may be classified as an operating foundation since substantially all of the qualifying distributions made by N are used directly for the active conduct of N's exempt activities within the meaning of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

Example 2.M, an exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3), was created to improve conditions in a particular urban ghetto. M receives its funds primarily from a limited number of wealthy contributors interested in helping carry out its exempt purpose. M's program consists of making a survey of the problems of the ghetto to determine the areas in which its funds may be applied most effectively. Approximately 10 percent of M's adjusted net income is used to conduct this survey. The balance of its income is used to make grants to other nonprofit organizations doing work in the ghetto in those areas determined to have the greatest likelihood of resulting in improved conditions. Under these circumstances, since only 10 percent of M's adjusted net income may be considered as constituting qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of M's exempt activities, M cannot qualify as an operating foundation.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in example (2), except that M uses the remaining 90 percent of its adjusted net income for the following purposes: (1) M maintains a salaried staff of social workers and researchers who analyze its surveys and make recommendations as to methods for improving ghetto conditions; (2) M makes grants to independent social scientists who assist in these analyses and recommendations; (3) M publishes periodic reports indicating the results of its surveys and recommendations; (4) M makes grants to social workers and others who act as advisers to nonprofit organizations, as well as small business enterprises, functioning in the community (these advisers acting under the general direction of M attempt to implement M's recommendations through their advice and assistance to the nonprofit organizations and small business enterprises); and (5) M makes grants to other social scientists who study and report on the success of the various enterprises which attempt to implement M's recommendations. Under these circumstances, M satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) (2) of this section, and the various grants it makes constitute qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of its exempt activities. Thus, if M satisfies one of the tests set forth in § 53.4942(b)-2 it may be classified as an operating foundation.

Example 4.P, an exempt educational organization described in section 501(c)(3), was created for the purpose of training teachers for institutions of higher education. Each year P awards a substantial number of fellowships to students for graduate study leading toward their M.A. or Ph. D. degrees. The applicants for these fellowships are carefully screened by P's staff, and only those applicants who indicate a strong interest in teaching in colleges or universities are chosen. P publishes and circulates various pamphlets encouraging a development of interest in college teaching and describing its fellowships. P also conducts annual summer seminars which are attended by its fellowship recipients, its staff, consultants, and other interested parties. The purpose of these seminars is to foster and encourage the development of college teaching. P publishes a report of the seminar proceedings along with related studies written by those who attended. Despite the fact that a substantial portion of P's adjusted net income is devoted to granting fellowships, its commitment to encouraging individuals to become teachers at institutions of higher learning, its maintenance of a staff and programs designed to further this purpose, and the granting of fellowships to encourage involvement both in its own seminars and in its exempt purpose indicate a significant involvement by P beyond the mere granting of fellowships. Thus, the fellowship grants made by P constitute qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of P's exempt activities within the meaning of paragraph (b) (2) of this section.

Example 5.Q, an exempt organization described in section 501(c) (3), is composed of professional organizations interested in different branches of one academic discipline. Q trains its own professional staff, conducts its own program of research, selects research topics, screens and investigates grant recipients, makes grants to those selected, and sets up and conducts conferences and seminars for the grantees. Q has particular knowledge and skill in the given discipline, carries on activities to advance its study of that discipline, and makes grants to individuals to enable them to participate in activities which it conducts in carrying out its exempt purpose. Under these circumstances, Q's grants constitute qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of Q's exempt activities within the meaning of paragraph (b) (2) of this section.

Example 6.R, an exempt medical research organization described in section 501 (c) (3), was created to study and perform research concerning heart disease. R has its own research center in which it carries on a broad number of research projects in the field of heart disease with its own professional staff. Physicians and scientists who are interested in special projects in this area present the plans for their projects to R. The directors of R study these plans and decide if the project is feasible and will further the work being done by R. If it is, R makes a grant to the individual to enable him to carry out his project, either at R's facilities or elsewhere. Reports of the progress of the project are made periodically to R, and R exercises a certain amount of supervision over the project. The resulting findings of these projects are usually published by R. Under these circumstances, the grants made by R constitute qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of R's exempt activities within the meaning of paragraph (b) (2) of this section.

Example 7.S, an exempt organization described in section 501(c) (3), maintains a large library of manuscripts and other historical reference material relating to the history and development of the region in which the collection is located. S makes a limited number of annual grants to enable post-doctoral scholars and doctoral candidates to use its library. Sometimes S obtains the right to publish the scholar's work, although this is not a prerequisite to the receipt of a grant. The primary criterion for selection of grant recipients is the usefulness of the library's resources to the applicant's field of study. Under these circumstances, the grants made by S constitute qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of S's exempt activities within the meaning of paragraph (b) (2) of this section.

Example 8.T, an exempt charitable organization described in section 501(c)(3), was created by the members of one family for the purpose of relieving poverty and human suffering. T has a large salaried staff of employees who operate offices in various areas throughout the country. Its employees make gifts of food and clothing to poor persons in the area serviced by each office. On occasion, T also provides temporary relief in the form of food and clothing to persons in areas stricken by natural disasters. If conditions improve in one poverty area, T transfers the resources of the office in that area to another poverty area. Under these circumstances, the gifts of food and clothing made by T constitute qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of T's exempt activities within the meaning of paragraph (b) (2) of this section.

Example 9.U, an exempt scientific organization described in section 501(c) (3), was created for the principal purpose of studying the effects of early childhood brain damage. U conducts an active and continuous research program in this area through a salaried staff of scientists and physicians. As part of its research program, U awards scholarships to young people suffering mild brain damage to enable them to attend special schools equipped to handle such problems. The recipients are periodically tested to determine the effect of such schooling upon them. Under these circumstances, the scholarships awarded by U constitute qualifying distributions made directly for the active conduct of U's exempt activities within the meaning of paragraph (b) (2) of this section.

Example 10.O, an exempt charitable organization described in section 501(c) (3), was created for the purpose of giving scholarships to children of the employees of X Corporation who meet the standards set by O. O not only screens and investigates each applicant to make sure that he complies with the academic and financial requirements set for scholarship recipients, but also administers an examination which each applicant must take—90 percent of O's adjusted net income is used in awarding these scholarships to the chosen applicants. O does not conduct any activities of an educational nature on its own. Under these circumstances, O is not using substantially all of its adjusted net income directly for the active conduct of its exempt activities within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section. Thus, O is not an operating foundation because it fails to satisfy the income test set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.

[T.D. 7249, 38 FR 768, Jan. 4, 1973, as amended by T.D. 7718, 45 FR 58520, Sept. 4, 1980; 46 FR 11254, Feb. 6, 1981; T.D. 7878, 48 FR 11943, Mar. 22, 1983]

§ 53.4942(b)-2 Alternative tests.

(a) Assets test—(1) In general. A private foundation will satisfy the assets test under the provisions of this paragraph if substantially more than half of the foundation's assets:

(i) Are devoted directly (A) to the active conduct of activities constituting the foundation's charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose, (B) to functionally related businesses (as defined in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of § 53.4942(a)-2), or (C) to any combination thereof;

(ii) Are stock of a corporation which is controlled by the foundation (within the meaning of section 368(c)) and substantially all the assets of which (within the meaning of paragraph (c) of § 53.4942(b)-1) are so devoted; or

(iii) Are in part assets which are described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph and in part stock which is described in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph.

(2) Qualifying assets—(i) In general. For purposes of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, an asset is “devoted directly to the active conduct of activities constituting the foundation's charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose” only if the asset is actually used by the foundation directly for the active conduct of activities constituting its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose. Thus, such assets as real estate, physical facilities or objects (such as museum assets, classroom fixtures and equipment, and research facilities), and intangible assets (such as patents, copyrights, and trademarks) will be considered qualifying assets for purposes of this paragraph to the extent they are used directly for the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities. However, assets which are held for the production of income, for investment, or for some other similar use (for example, stocks, bonds, interest-bearing notes, endowment funds, or, generally, leased real estate) are not devoted directly to the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities, even though the income derived from such assets is used to carry out such exempt activities. Whether an asset is held for the production of income, for investment, or for some other similar use rather than being used for the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities is a question of fact. For example, an office building used for the purpose of providing offices for employees engaged in the management of endowment funds of the foundation is not devoted to the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities. However, where property is used both for exempt purposes and for other purposes, if such exempt use represents 95 percent or more of the total use, such property shall be considered to be used exclusively for an exempt purpose. Property acquired by a foundation to be used in carrying out the foundation's exempt purpose may be considered as devoted directly to the active conduct of such purpose even though the property, in whole or in part, is leased for a limited period of time during which arrangements are made for its conversion to the use for which it was acquired, provided such income-producing use of the property does not exceed a reasonable period of time. Generally, 1 year shall be deemed to be a reasonable period of time for purposes of the immediately preceding sentence. Similarly, where property is leased by a foundation in carrying out its exempt purpose and where the rental income derived from such property by the foundation is less than the amount which would be required to be charged in order to recover the cost of purchase and maintenance of such property (taking into account the deductions permitted by paragraph (d)(4) of § 53.4942(a)-2), such property shall be considered devoted directly to the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities.

(ii) Limitations. (A) Assets which are held for the purpose of extending credit or making funds available to members of a charitable class (including any interest in a program related-investment, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of § 53.4942(b)-1) are not considered assets devoted directly to the active conduct of activities constituting the foundation's charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose. For example, assets which are set aside in special reserve accounts to guarantee student loans made by lending institutions will not be considered assets devoted directly to the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities.

(B) Any amount set aside by a foundation within the meaning of paragraph (b) (1) of § 53.4942(b)-1 shall not be treated as an asset devoted directly to the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities.

(3) Assets held for less than a taxable year. For purposes of this paragraph, any asset which is held by a foundation for part of a taxable year shall be taken into account for such taxable year by multiplying the fair market value of such asset (as determined pursuant to subparagraph (4) of this paragraph) by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days in such taxable year that the foundation held such asset and the denominator of which is the number of days in such taxable year.

(4) Valuation. For purposes of this paragraph, all assets shall be valued at their fair market value. Fair market value shall be determined in accordance with the rules set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of § 53.4942(a)-2, except in the case of assets which are devoted directly to the active conduct of the foundation's exempt activities and for which neither a ready market nor standard valuation methods exist (such as historical objects or buildings, certain works of art, and botanical gardens). In such cases, the historical cost (unadjusted for depreciation) shall be considered equal to fair market value unless the foundation demonstrates that fair market value is other than cost. In any case in which the foundation so demonstrates that the fair market value of an asset is other than historical cost, such substituted valuation may be used for the taxable year for which such new valuation is demonstrated and for each of the succeeding 4 taxable years if the valuation methods and procedures prescribed by paragraph (c)(4)(iv)(B) of § 53.4942 (a)-2 are followed.

(5) Substantially more than half. For purposes of this paragraph, the term substantially more than half shall mean 65 percent or more.

(6) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples. It is assumed that none of the organizations described in these examples is described in section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3).

Example 1.W, an exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3), is devoted to the maintenance and operation of a historic area for the benefit of the general public. W has acquired and erected facilities for lodging and other visitor accommodations in such area, which W operates through a wholly owned, separately incorporated, taxable entity. These facilities comprise substantially all of the subsidiary's assets. The operation of such accommodations constitutes a functionally related business within the meaning of paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of § 53.4942(a)-2. Under these circumstances, the stock of the subsidiary will be considered as part of W's assets which may be taken into account by W in determining whether it satisfies the assets test described in this paragraph.

Example 2.M, an exempt conservation organization described in section 501(c)(3), is devoted to acquiring, preserving, and otherwise making available for public use geographically diversified areas of natural beauty. M has acquired and erected facilities for lodging and other visitor accommodations in national park areas. The operation of such accommodations constitutes a functionally related business within the meaning of paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of § 53.4942(a)-2. Therefore, M's assets which are directly devoted to such visitor accommodations may be taken into account by M in determining whether it satisfies the assets test described in this paragraph.

Example 3.P, an exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3), is devoted to acquiring and restoring historic houses. To insure that the restored houses will be kept in the restored condition, and to make the houses more readily available for public display, P rents the houses rather than sells them once they have been restored. The rental income derived by P is substantially less than the amount which would be required to be charged in order to recover the cost of purchase, restoration, and maintenance of such houses. Therefore, such houses may be taken into account by P in determining whether it satisfies the assets test described in this paragraph.

Example 4.Z, an exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3), is devoted to improving the public's understanding of Renaissance art. Z's principal assets are a number of paintings of this period which it circulates on an active and continuing basis to museums and schools for public display. These paintings constitute 80 percent of Z's assets. Under these circumstances, although Z does not have a building in which it displays these paintings, such paintings are devoted directly to the active conduct of activities constituting Z's exempt purpose. Therefore, Z has satisfied the assets test described in this paragraph.

(b) Endowment test—(1) In general. A foundation will satisfy the endowment test under the provisions of this paragraph if it normally makes qualifying distributions (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2) of § 53.4942(a)-3) directly for the active conduct of activities constituting its charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose in an amount not less than two-thirds of its minimum investment return (as defined in paragraph (c) of § 53.4942(a)-2). In determining whether the amount of such qualifying distributions is not less than an amount equal to two-thirds of the foundation's minimum investment return, the foundation is not required to trace the source of such expenditures to determine whether they were derived from investment income or from contributions.

(2) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph, the phrase directly for the active conduct of activities constituting the foundation's charitable, educational, or other similar exempt purpose shall have the same meaning as in paragraph (b) of § 53.4942(b)-1.

(3) Example. This paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example X,an exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) and not described in section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3), was created on July 15, 1970. X uses the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting. For 1971, the fair market value of X's assets not described in paragraph (c) (2) or (3) of § 53.4942(a)-2 is $400,000. X makes qualifying distributions for 1971 directly for the active conduct of its exempt activities of $17,000. For 1971 two-thirds of X's minimum investment return is $16,000 (6 percent × $400,000 = $24,000; 2/3 × $24,000 = $16,000). Under these circumstances, X has satisfied the endowment test described in this paragraph for 1971. However, if X's qualifying distributions for 1971 directly for the active conduct of its exempt activities were only $15,000, X would not satisfy the endowment test for 1971, unless the fair market value of its assets not described in paragraph (c) (2) or (3) of § 53.4942(a)-2 were no greater than $375,000 (6 percent × $375,000 = $22,500; 2/3 × $22,500 = $15,000).

(c) Support test—(1) In general. A foundation will satisfy the support test under the provisions of this paragraph if:

(i) Substantially all of its support (other than gross investment income as defined in section 509(e)) is normally received from the general public and from five or more exempt organizations which are not described in section 4946(a)(1)(H) with respect to each other or the recipient foundation;

(ii) Not more than 25 percent of its support (other than gross investment income) is normally received from any one such exempt organization; and

(iii) Not more than half of its support is normally received from gross investment income.

(2) Definitions and special rules. For purposes of this paragraph:

(i) Support. The term support shall have the same meaning as in section 509(d).

(ii) Substantially all. The term substantially all shall have the same meaning as in paragraph (c) of § 53.4942(b)-1.

(iii) Support from exempt organizations. The support received from any one exempt organization may be counted towards satisfaction of the support test described in this paragraph only if the foundation receives support from no fewer than five exempt organizations. For example, a foundation which normally receives 20 percent of its support (other than gross investment income) from each of five exempt organizations may qualify under this paragraph even though it receives no support from the general public. However, if a foundation normally received 10 percent of its support from each of three exempt organizations and the balance of its support from sources other than exempt organizations, such support could not be taken into account in determining whether the foundation had satisfied the support test set forth in this paragraph.

(iv) Support from the general public. “Support” received from an individual, or from a trust or corporation (other than an exempt organization), shall be taken into account as support from the general public only to the extent that the total amount of the support received from any such individual, trust, or corporation during the period for determining the normal sources of the foundation's support (as set forth in § 53.4942 (b)-3) does not exceed 1 percent of the foundation's total support (other than gross investment income) for such period. In applying this 1-percent limitation, all support received by the foundation from any person and from any other person or persons standing in a relationship to such person which is described in section 4946(a)(1) (C) through (G) and the regulations thereunder shall be treated as received from one person. For purposes of this paragraph, support received from a governmental unit described in section 170(c)(1) shall be treated as support received from the general public, but shall not be subject to the 1-percent limitation.

§ 53.4942(b)-3 Determination of compliance with operating foundation tests.

(a) In general. A foundation may satisfy the income test and either the assets, endowment, or support test by satisfying such tests for any 3 taxable years during a 4-year period consisting of the taxable year in question and the three immediately preceding taxable years or on the basis of an aggregation of all pertinent amounts of income or assets held, received, or distributed during such 4-year period. A foundation may not use one method for satisfying the income test described in paragraph (a) of § 53.4942(b)-1 and another for satisfying either the assets, endowment, or support test described in § 53.4942(b)-2. Thus, if a foundation satisfies the income test on the 3-out-of-4-year basis for a particular taxable year, it may not use the aggregation method for satisfying either the assets, endowment, or support test for such particular taxable year. However, the fact that a foundation has chosen one method for satisfying the tests under §§ 53.4942(b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2 for 1 taxable year will not preclude it from satisfying such tests for a subsequent taxable year by the alternate method. If a foundation fails to satisfy the income test and either the assets, endowment, or support test for a particular taxable year under either the 3-out-of-4-year method or the aggregation method, it shall be treated as a nonoperating foundation for such taxable year and for all subsequent taxable years until it satisfies the tests set forth in §§ 53.4942(b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2 for a taxable year occurring after the taxable year in which it was treated as a nonoperating foundation.

(b) New organizations—(1) In general. Except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, an organization organized after December 31, 1969, will be treated as an operating foundation only if it has satisfied the tests set forth in §§ 53.4942(b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2 for its first taxable year of existence. If an organization satisfies such tests for its 1st taxable year, it will be treated as an operating foundation from the beginning of such taxable year. If such is the case, the organization will be treated as an operating foundation for its 2d and 3d taxable years of existence only if it satisfies the tests set forth in §§ 53.4942(b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2 by the aggregation method for all such taxable years that it has been in existence.

(2) Special rule. An organization organized after December 31, 1969, will be treated as an operating foundation prior to the end of its 1st taxable year if such organization has made a good faith determination that it is likely to satisfy the income test set forth in paragraph (a) of § 53.4942(b)-1 and one of the tests set forth in § 53.4942(b)-2 for such 1st taxable year pursuant to subparagraph (1) of this paragraph. Such a “good faith determination” ordinarily will be considered as made where the determination is based on an affidavit or opinion of counsel of such organization that such requirements will be satisfied. Such an affidavit or opinion must set forth sufficient facts concerning the operations and support of such organization for the Commissioner to be able to determine that such organization is likely to satisfy such requirements. An organization which, pursuant to this subparagraph, has been treated as an operating foundation for its 1st taxable year, but actually fails to qualify as an operating foundation under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph for such taxable year, will be treated as a private foundation which is not an operating foundation as of the 1st day of its 2d taxable year for purposes of making any determination under the internal revenue laws with respect to such organization. The preceding sentence shall not apply if such organization establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that it is likely to qualify as an operating foundation on the basis of its 2d, 3d, and 4th taxable years. Thus, if such an organization fails to qualify as an operating foundation in its 2d, 3d, or 4th taxable year after having failed in its 1st taxable year, it will be treated as a private foundation which is not an operating foundation as of the 1st day of such 2d, 3d, or 4th taxable year in which it fails to qualify as an operating foundation, except as otherwise provided by paragraph (d) of this section. Such status as a private foundation which is not an operating foundation will continue until such time as the organization is able to satisfy the tests set forth in §§ 53.4942(b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2 by either the 3-out-of-4-year method or the aggregation method. For the status of grants or contributions made to such an organization with respect to sections 170 and 4942, see paragraph (d) of this section.

(c) Transitional rule for existing organizations. An organization organized before December 31, 1969 (including organizations deemed to be so organized by virtue of the principles of paragraph (e)(2) of § 53.4942(a)-2), but which is unable to satisfy the tests under §§ 53.4942(b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2 for its first taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969 on the basis of its operations for taxable years prior to such taxable year by either the 3-out-of-4-year method or the aggregation method, will be treated as a new organization for purposes of paragraph (b) of this section only if:

(1) The organization changes its methods of operation prior to its first taxable year beginning after December 31, 1972 to conform to the requirements of §§ 53.4942(b)-1 and 53.4942 (b)-2;

(2) The organization has made a good faith determination (within the meaning of paragraph (b) (2) of the section) that it is likely to satisfy the tests set forth in §§ 53.4942(b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2 prior to its first taxable year beginning after December 31, 1972 on the basis of its income or assets held, received, or distributed during its taxable years beginning in 1970 through 1972; and

(3) Such good faith determination is attached to the return the organization is required to file under section 6033 for its taxable year beginning in 1972.

(d) Treatment of contributions—(1) In general. The status of grants or contributions made to an operating foundation with respect to sections 170 and 4942 will not be affected until notice of change of status of such organization is made to the public (such as by publication in the Internal Revenue Bulletin), unless the grant or contribution was made after:

(i) The act or failure to act that resulted in the organization's inability to satisfy the requirements of §§ 53.4942 (b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2, and the grantor or contributor was responsible for, or was aware of, such act or failure to act, or

(ii) The grantor or contributor acquired knowledge that the Commissioner has given notice to such organization that it would be deleted from classification as an operating foundation.

(2) Exception. For purposes of subparagraph (1) (i) of this paragraph, a grantor or contributor will not be considered to be responsible for, or aware of, the act or failure to act that resulted in the grantee organization's inability to satisfy the requirements of §§ 53.4942 (b)-1 and 53.4942(b)-2 if such grantor or contributor has made his grant or contribution in reliance upon a written statement by the grantee organization that such grant or contribution would not result in the inability of such grantee organization to qualify as an operating foundation. Such a statement must be signed by a foundation manager (as defined in section 4946(b)) of the grantee organization and must set forth sufficient facts concerning the operations and support of such grantee organization to assure a reasonably prudent man that his grant or contribution will not result in the grantee organization's inability to qualify as an operating foundation.

Subpart D Taxes on Excess Business Holdings

Authority: Secs. 4943 and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954, 68A Stat. 917, 83 Stat. 507; 26 U.S.C. 4943, 7805.

Source: T.D. 7496, 42 FR 46285, Sept. 15, 1977, unless otherwise noted.

§ 53.4943-1 General rule; purpose.

Generally, under section 4943, the combined holdings of a private foundation and all disqualified persons (as defined in section 4946(a)) in any corporation conducting a business which is not substantially related (aside from the need of the foundation for income or funds or the use it makes of the profits derived) to the exempt purposes of the foundation are limited to 20 percent of the voting stock in such corporation. In addition, the combined holdings of a private foundation and all disqualified persons in any unincorporated business (other than a sole proprietorship) which is not substantially related (aside from the need of the foundation for income or funds or the use it makes of the profits derived) to the exempt purposes of such foundation are limited to 20 percent of the beneficial or profits interest in such business. In the case of a sole proprietorship which is not substantially related (within the meaning of the preceding sentence), section 4943 provides that a private foundation shall have no permitted holdings. These general provisions are subject to a number of exceptions and special provisions which will be described in following sections.

§ 53.4943-2 Imposition of tax on excess business holdings of private foundations.

(a) Imposition of initial tax—(1) In general—(i) Initial tax. Section 4943(a)(1) imposes an initial excise tax (the “initial tax”) on the excess business holdings of a private foundation for each taxable year of the foundation which ends during the taxable period defined in section 4943(d)(2). The amount of such tax is equal to 5 percent of the total value of all the private foundation's excess business holdings in each of its business enterprises. In determining the value of the excess business holdings of the foundation subject to tax under section 4943, the rules set forth in §§ 20.2031-1 through 20.2031-3 of this chapter (Estate Tax Regulations) shall apply.

(ii) Disposition of certain excess business holdings within ninety days. In any case in which a private foundation acquires excess business holdings, other than as a result of a purchase by the foundation, the foundation shall not be subject to the taxes imposed by section 4943, but only if it disposes of an amount of its holdings so that it no longer has such excess business holdings within 90 days from the date on which it knows, or has reason to know, of the event which caused it to have such excess business holdings. Similarly, a private foundation shall not be subject to the taxes imposed by section 4943 because of its purchase of holdings where it did not know, or have reason to know of prior acquisitions by disqualified persons, but only if the foundation disposes of its excess holdings within the 90-day period described previously, and its purchase would not have created excess business holding but for such prior acquisitions by disqualified persons. In determining whether for purposes of this (ii) the foundation has disposed of such excess business holdings during such 90-day period, any disposition of holdings, by a disqualified person during such period shall be disregarded.

(iii) Extension of ninety day period. The period described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, during which no tax shall be imposed under section 4943, shall be extended to include the period during which a foundation is prevented by federal or state securities laws from disposing of such excess business holdings.

(iv) Effect of disposition subject to material restrictions. If a private foundation disposes of an interest in a business enterprise but imposes any material restrictions or conditions that prevent the transferee from freely and effectively using or disposing of the transferred interest, then the transferor foundation will be treated as owning such interest until all such restrictions or conditions are eliminated (regardless of whether the transferee is treated for other purposes of the Code as owning such interest from the date of the transfer). However, a restriction or condition imposed in compliance with federal or state securities laws, or in accordance with the terms or conditions of the gift or bequest through which such interest was acquired by the foundation, shall not be considered a material restriction or condition imposed by a private foundation.

(v) Foundation knowledge of acquisitions made by disqualified persons. (A) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, whether a private foundation will be treated as knowing, or having reason to know, of the acquisition of holdings by a disqualified person will depend on the facts and circumstances of each case. Factors which will be considered relevant to a determination that a private foundation did not know or had no reason to know of an acquisition are: the fact that it did not discover acquisitions made by disqualified persons through the use of procedures reasonably calculated to discover such holdings; the diversity of foundation holdings; and the existence of large numbers of disqualified persons who have little or no contact with the foundation or its managers.

(B) The provisions of paragraph (a)(1)(v)(A) of this section may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.By the fifteenth day of the fifth month after the close of each taxable year, the F Foundation sends to each foundation manager, substantial contributor, person holding more than a 20% interest (as described in section 4946(a)(1)(C) in a substantial contributor, and foundation described in section 4946(a)(1)(H), a questionnaire asking such persons to list all holdings, actual or constructive, in each business enterprise in which F had holdings during the taxable year in excess of those permitted by the 2 percent de minimis rule of section 4943(c)(2)(C). In preparing the list of such enterprises, F takes into account its constructive holdings only if, during the taxable year, F (along with all related foundations described in section 4946(a)(1)(H)) owned over 2% of the voting stock, profits interest or beneficial interest in the entity actually owning the holdings constructively held by F. The questionnaire asks each such person to list the holdings in such enterprises of any persons who, because of their relationship to such disqualified person, were themselves disqualified persons (i.e., members of the family (as defined in section 4946(d)), and any corporations, partnerships, trusts and estates described in section 4946(a)(1) (E) through (G) in which such person, or members of his family, had an interest). The questionnaire asks that constructive holdings be listed only if, during the taxable year, the disqualified person owned over 2% of the voting stock, profits interest or beneficial interest in the entity actually owning the holdings constructively held by such person. (Thus a disqualified person owning less than 2% of a mutual fund is not required to list his attributed share of all the securities in the portfolio of the fund.) If no response to the questionnaire is received, the foundation seeks the information requested by the questionnaire by mailing a second (but not a third) questionnaire. If a questionnaire which is returned to the foundation indicates that certain information was unavailable to the person completing the questionnaire, the foundation seeks that information directly. For example, if a disqualified person indicates that he could not find out whether a corporation described in section 4946(a)(1)(E) had holdings in the enterprise listed in the questionnaire, the foundation seeks to obtain this information directly from the corporation by mailing it a questionnaire. In such a case F may be found not to have reason to know of the acquisition of holdings by a disqualified person.

(vi) Holdings acquired other than by purchases. See section 4943(c)(6) and § 53.4943-6 for rules relating to the acquisition of certain holdings other than by purchase by the foundation or a disqualified person.

(2) Special rules. In applying subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, the tax imposed by section 4943(a)(1):

(i) Shall be imposed on the last day of the private foundation's taxable year, but

(ii) The amount of such tax and the value of the excess business holdings subject to such tax shall be determined with respect to the foundation's holdings (based upon voting power, profits or beneficial interest, or value, whichever is applicable) in any business enterprise as of that day during the foundation's taxable year when the foundation's excess holdings in such enterprise were the greatest.

In applying subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, if a foundation's excess business holdings in a business enterprise which constitute such foundation's greatest excess holdings in such enterprise for any taxable year are maintained for 2 or more days during such taxable year, the value of such excess holdings which is subject to tax under section 4943(a)(1) shall be the greatest value of such excess holdings in such enterprise as of any day on which such greatest excess holdings are maintained during such taxable year.

(3) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.Y is a private foundation reporting on a calendar year basis. On January 1, 1973, Y has 20 shares of common stock in corporation N, of which five shares constitute excess business holdings. On June 1, 1973, Y disposes of such five shares; however, because of additional acquisitions of N common stock on such date by disqualified persons with respect to Y, the remaining 15 shares of N common stock held by Y now constitute excess business holdings. There are no further acquisitions or dispositions of N common stock during 1973 by Y or its disqualified persons. Although Y's greatest holdings in N during 1973 are held between January 1, 1973, and May 31, 1973, Y's greatest excess holdings in N during 1973 are held between June 1, 1973, and December 31, 1973. Therefore, the tax specified in section 4943(a)(1) shall be computed on the basis of the greatest value of such greatest excess holdings as of any day between June 1 and December 31, 1973.

Example 2. X is a private foundation reporting on a calendar year basis. On January 1, 1972, X has 100 shares of common stock in M corporation which are excess business holdings. On such date each share of M common stock has a fair market value of $100. On February 28, 1972, in an effort to dispose of such excess business holdings, X sells 70 shares of M common stock for $120 per share (the fair market value of each share on such date) to A, an individual who is not a disqualified person within the meaning of section 4946(a). The value of $120 per share is the highest fair market value between January 1 and February 28, 1972. X disposes of no more stock in M for the reminder of calendar year 1972. On December 31, 1972, the fair market value of each share of M common stock is $80. X calculates its tax on its excess business holdings in M for 1972 as follows:

100 shares of M common stock times $120 fair market value per share as of Feb. 28, 1972 | $12,000

$12,000 multiplied by rate of tax (percent) | 5

Amount of tax on X foundation's excess business holdings for 1972 | $600

Example 3. Assume the same facts as in Example (2) except that the sale of X to A occurs on January 7, 1973, when the fair market value of each share of M corporation common stock equals $70. A value of $100 per share is the highest fair market value of the M common stock between January 1 and January 7, 1973. On May 9, 1973, X for the first time has excess business holdings in N corporation in the form of 200 shares of N common stock. The value per share of N common stock on May 9, 1973, equals $200. X makes no disposition of the N common stock during 1973, and the value of each share of N common stock as of December 31, 1973 equals $250 (the highest value of N common stock during 1973). X calculates its tax on its excess business holdings in both M and N for 1973 as follows:

100 shares of M common stock times $100 fair market value per share | $10,000

$250 fair market value per share | $50,000

Total | $60,000

Total | $60,000

$60,000 multiplied by rate of tax (percent) | 5

Amount of tax on X foundation's excess business holdings for 1973 | $3,000

(b) Additional tax. In any case in which the initial tax is imposed under section 4943(a) with respect to the holdings of a private foundation in any business enterprise, if, at the close of the taxable period (as defined in section 4943(d)(2) and § 53.4943-9) with respect to such holdings the foundation still has excess business holdings in such enterprise, there is imposed a tax under section 4943(b) equal to 200 percent of the value of such excess holdings as of the last day of the taxable period.

[T.D. 7496, 42 FR 46285, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16302, May 2, 1986]

§ 53.4943-3 Determination of excess business holdings.

(a) Excess business holdings—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4943, the term “excess business holdings” means, with respect to the holdings of any private foundation in any business enterprise (as described in section 4943(d)(4)), the amount of stock or other interest in the enterprise which, except as provided in § 53.4943-2(a)(1), the foundation, or a disqualified person, would have to dispose of, or cause the disposition of, to a person other than a disqualified person (as defined in section 4946(a)) in order for the remaining holdings of the foundation in such enterprise to be permitted holdings (as defined in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section). If a private foundation is required by section 4943 and the regulations thereunder to dispose of certain shares of a class of stock in a particular period of time and other shares of the same class of stock in a shorter period of time, any stock disposed of shall be charged first against those dispositions which must be made in such shorter period.

(2) Example. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.Corporation X has outstanding 100 shares of voting stock, with each share entitling the holder thereof to one vote. F, a private foundation, possesses 20 shares of X voting stock representing 20 percent of the voting power in X. Assume that the permitted holdings of F in X under paragraph (b)(1) of this section are 11 percent of the voting stock in X. F, therefore, possesses voting stock in X representing a percentage of voting stock in excess of the percentage permitted by such paragraph. Such excess percentage is 9 percent of the voting stock in X, determined by subtracting the percentage of voting stock representing the permitted holdings of F in X (i.e., 11 percent) from the percentage of voting stock held by F in X (I.E., 20 percent). (20% − 11% = 9%). The excess business holdings of F in X are an amount of voting stock representing such excess percentage, or 9 shares of X voting stock (9 percent of 100).

(b) Permitted holdings in an incorporated business enterprise—(1) In general—(i) Permitted holdings defined. Except as otherwise provided in section 4943(c) (2) and (4), the permitted holdings of any private foundation in an incorporated business enterprise (including a real estate investment trust, as defined in section 856) are:

(A) 20 percent of the voting stock in such enterprise reduced (but not below zero) by

(B) The percentage of voting stock in such enterprise actually or constructively owned by all disqualified persons.

(ii) Voting stock. For purposes of this section, the percentage of voting stock held by any person in a corporation is normally determined by reference to the power of stock to vote for the election of directors, with treasury stock and stock which is authorized but unissued being disregarded. Thus, for example, if a private foundation holds 20 percent of the shares of one class of stock in a corporation, which class is entitled to elect three directors, and such foundation holds no stock in the other class of stock, which is entitled to elect five directors, such foundation shall be treated as holding 7.5 percent of the voting stock because the class of stock it holds has 37.5 percent of such voting power, by reason of being able to elect three of the eight directors, and the foundation holds one-fifth of the shares of such class (20 percent of 37.5 percent is 7.5 percent). The fact that extraordinary corporate action (e.g., charter or by-law amendments) by a corporation may require the favorable vote of more than a majority of the directors, or of the outstanding voting stock, of such corporation shall not alter the determination of voting power of stock in such corporation in accordance with the two preceding sentences.

(2) Nonvoting stock as permitted holdings—(i) In general. In addition to those holdings permitted by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the permitted holdings of a private foundation in an incorporated business enterprise shall include any share of nonvoting stock in such enterprise held by the foundation in any case in which all disqualified persons hold, actually or constructively, no more than 20 percent (35 percent where third persons have effective control as defined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section) of the voting stock in such enterprise. All equity interests which do not have voting power attributable to them shall, for purposes of section 4943, the classified as nonvoting stock. For this purpose, evidences of indebtedness (including convertible indebtedness), and warrants and other options or rights to acquire stock shall not be considered equity interests.

(ii) Stock with contingent voting rights and convertible nonvoting stock. Stock carrying voting rights which will vest only when conditions, the occurrence of which are indeterminate, have been met, such as preferred stock which gains such voting rights only if no dividends are paid thereon, will be treated as nonvoting stock until the conditions have occurred which cause the voting rights to vest. When such rights vest, the stock will be treated as voting stock that was acquired other than by purchase, but only if the private foundation or disqualified persons had no control over whether the conditions would occur. Similarly, nonvoting stock which may be converted into voting stock will not be treated as voting stock until such conversion occurs. For special rules where stock is acquired other than by purchase, see section 4943(c)(6) and the regulations thereunder.

(iii) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (2) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.Assume that F, a private foundation, holds 10 percent of the single class of voting stock of corporation X, and owns 20 shares of nonvoting stock in X. Assume further that A and B, the only disqualified persons with respect to F, hold 10 percent of the voting stock of X. Under the provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section the 10 percent of X voting stock held by F will be classified as permitted holdings of F in X since 20 percent less the percentage of voting stock held by A and B in X is 10 percent. In addition, under the provisions of this (2), the 20 shares of X nonvoting stock will qualify as permitted holdings of F in X since the percentage of voting stock held by A and B in X is no greater than 20 percent.

(3) Thirty-five-percent rule where third person has effective control of enterprise—(i) In general. Except as provided in section 4943(c)(4), paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be applied by substituting 35 percent for 20 percent if:

(A) The private foundation and all disqualified persons together do not hold, actually or constructively, more than 35 percent of the voting stock in the business enterprise, and

(B) The foundation establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that effective control (as defined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section) of the business enterprise is in one or more persons (other than the foundation itself) who are not disqualified persons.

(ii) “Effective control” defined. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “effective control” means the possession, directly or indirectly, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a business enterprise, whether through the ownership of voting stock, the use of voting trusts, or contractual arrangements, or otherwise. It is the reality of control which is decisive and not its form or the means by which it is exercisable. Thus, where a minority interest held by individuals who are not disqualified persons has historically elected the majority of a corporation's directors, effective control is in the hands of those individuals.

(4) Two percent de minimis rule—(i) In general. Under section 4943(c)(2)(C), a private foundation is not treated as having excess business holdings in any incorporated business enterprise in which it (together with all other private foundations (including trusts described in section 4947(a)(2)) which are described in section 4946(a)(1)(H)) actually or constructively owns not more than 2 percent of the voting stock and not more than 2 percent in value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock. If, however, the private foundation, together with all other private foundations which are described in section 4946(a)(1)(H), actually or constructively owns more than 2 percent of either the voting stock or the value of the outstanding shares of all classes of stock in any incorporated business enterprise, all the stock in such business enterprise classified as excess business holding under section 4943 is treated as excess business holdings. For purposes of this paragraph, any stock owned by a private foundation which is treated as held by a disqualified person under section 4943(c)(4)(B), (5), or (6) shall be treated as actually owned by the private foundation. See paragraph (b)(1) of § 53.4941(d)-4 for the determination of excess business holdings without regard to section 4943(c)(2)(C) for purposes of applying section 101(C)(2)(B) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969 (83 Stat. 533).

(ii) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.F, a private foundation, owns 1 percent of the single class of voting stock and 1 percent in value of all the outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X corporation. No other private foundation described in section 4946(a)(1)(H) owns any stock in X. All of the stock owned by F in X would be excess business holdings under section 4943 (c)(1) if section 4943(c)(2)(C) were inapplicable. F owns no no other shares of stock in X. Since F owns more than 2 percent of the voting stock and no more than 2 percent in value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X, under section 4943(c)(2)(C) none of the stock in X owned by F is treated as excess business holdings.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that F and T, a controlled private foundation under section 4946 (a)(1)(H), together own 1 percent of all the voting stock and 1 percent in value of all the outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. All of the stock in X owned by F and T would be excess business holdings under section 4943(c)(1) if section 4943(c)(2)(C) were inapplicable. Since F and T together owned no more than 2 percent of the voting stock and no more than 2 percent in value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X, under section 4943(c)(2)(C) none of the stock in X owned by either F or T is treated as excess business holdings.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that F owns 3 percent of the voting stock in X, 2 percent of which is treated as held by P, a disqualified person of F, under section 4943(c)(4)(B). Under subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, the 2 percent of the stock in X owned by F which is treated as held by P under section 4943(c)(4)(B) is treated as actually owned by F for purposes of section 4943(c)(2)(C). Consequently, all of the X stock owned by F is treated as excess business holdings under section 4943(c)(2)(C). However, only 1 percent of the stock in X is subject to tax under section 4943(a), since the other 2 percent is treated as owned by a disqualified person under section 4943(c)(4)(B) for purposes of determining the tax upon F under section 4943(a).

(c) Permitted holdings in an unincorporated business enterprise—(1) In general. The permitted holdings of a private foundation in any business enterprise which is not incorporated shall, subject to the provisions of subparagraphs (2), (3), and (4) of this paragraph, be determined under the principles of paragraph (b) of this section.

(2) Partnership or joint venture. In the case of a partnership (including a limited partnership) or joint venture. the terms “profits interest” and “capital interest” shall be substituted for “voting stock” and “nonvoting stock,” respectively, wherever those terms appear in paragraph (b) of this section. The interest in profits of such foundation (or such disqualified person) shall be determined in the same manner as its distributive share of partnership taxable income. See section 704(b) (relating to the determination of the distributive share by the income or loss ratio) and the regulations thereunder. In the absence of a provision in the partnership agreement, the capital interest of such foundation (or such disqualified person) in a partnership shall be determined on the basis of its interest in the assets of the partnership which would be distributable to such foundation (or such disqualified person) upon its withdrawal from the partnership, or upon liquidation of the partnership, whichever is the greater.

(3) Sole proprietorship. For purposes of section 4943, a private foundation shall have no permitted holdings in a sole proprietorship. In the case of a transfer by a private foundation of a portion of a sole proprietorship, see paragraph (c)(2) of this section (relating to permitted holdings in partnerships). For the treatment of a private foundation's ownership of a sole proprietorship prior to May 26, 1969, see § 53.4943-4.

(4) Trusts and other unincorporated business enterprises—(i) In general. In the case of any unincorporated business enterprise which is not described in paragraph (c) (2) or (3) of this section, the term “beneficial interest” shall be substituted for “voting stock” wherever the term appears in paragraph (b) of this section. Any and all references to nonvoting stock in paragraph (b) of this section shall be inapplicable with respect to any unincorporated business enterprise described in this subparagraph.

(ii) Trusts. For purposes of section 4943, the beneficial interest of a private foundation or any disqualified person in a trust shall be the beneficial remainder interest of such foundation or person determined as provided in paragraph (b) of § 53.4943-8.

(iii) Other unincorporated business enterprises. For purposes of section 4943, the beneficial interest of a private foundation or any disqualified person in an unincorporated business enterprise (other than a trust or an enterprise described in paragraph (c) (2) or (3) of this section) includes any right to receive a portion of distributions of profits of such enterprise, and, if the portion of distributions is not fixed by an agreement among the participants, any right to receive a portion of the assets (if any) upon liquidation of the enterprise, except as a creditor or employee. For purposes of this subparagraph, a right to receive distributions of profits includes a right to receive any amount from such profits (other than as a creditor or employee), whether as a sum certain or as a portion of profits realized by the enterprise. Where there is no agreement fixing the rights of the participants in such enterprise, the interest of such foundation (or such disqualified person) in such enterprise shall be determined by dividing the amount of all equity investments or contributions to the capital of the enterprise made or obligated to be made by such foundation (or such disqualified person) by the amount of all equity investments or contributions to capital made or obligated to be made by all participants in the enterprise.

(d) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. Corporation X has outstanding 100 shares of voting stock, with each share entitling the holder thereof to one vote. Assume that F, a private foundation, possesses 30 shares of X voting stock, and that A and B, the only disqualified persons with respect to F, together own 10 shares of X voting stock. The excess business holdings of F in X are 20 shares of X voting stock, determined as follows:

(i) Determination of voting stock percentages

(a) Total number of outstanding votes in X | 100

(b) Total number of votes in X held by F | 30

(c) Total number of votes in X held by A and B | 10

(d) Percentage of voting stock in X held by F (item (b) divided by item (a)) (percent) | 30

(e) Percentage of voting stock in X held by A and B (item (c) divided by item (a)) (percent) | 10

(ii) Determination of permitted holdings of voting stock

(a) Percentage of voting stock in X held by A and B (percent) | 10

(b) Permitted holdings of voting stock by F in X (20 pct less item (a)) (percent) | 10

(iii) Determination of excess business holdings

(a) Percentage of voting stock in X held by F (percent) | 30

(b) Permitted holdings of voting stock by F in X (percent) | 10

(c) Item (a) less item (b) (percent) | 20

(d) Excess business holdings of F in X (i.e., an amount of X voting stock representing a percentage of voting stock equivalent to that in item (c)) (shares) | 20

Example 2. F, a private foundation, is a partner in P partnership. In addition, A and B, the only disqualified persons with respect to F, are partners in P. The partnership agreement of P contains no provisions regarding the sharing of profits by, and the respective capital interests of, the partners.

(i) assume that, under section 704(b), F's distributive share of P taxable income is determined to be 20 percent. In addition, assume that under such section, A and B are determined to have a 4-percent distributive share each of P taxable income. Accordingly, F holds a 20-percent profits interest in P, and A and B hold an 8-percent profits interest in P. Assuming that the provisions of section 4943(c)(2)(B) do not apply, the permitted holdings of F in P are 12 percent of the profits interest in P, determined by subtracting the percentage of the profits interest held by A and B in P (i.e., 8 percent) from 20 percent. (20 percent−8 percent = 12 percent.) F, therefore, holds a percentage of the profits interest in P in excess of the percentage permitted by § 53.4943-3(b)(1). The excess business holdings of F in P are a percentage of the profits interest in P equivalent to such excess percentage, or 8 percent of the profits interest in P, determined by subtracting the permitted holdings of F in P (i.e., 12 percent) from the percentage of the profit interest held by F in P (i.e., 20 percent) (20 percent−12 percent = 8 percent.)

(ii) Assume that, under the partnership agreement, F would be entitled to a distribution of 20 percent of P's assets upon F's withdrawal from P and to a distribution of 30 percent of P's assets upon the liquidation profits interest held by F in P (i.e., 20 percent) (20 percent − 12 percent = 8 percent), of P. F, therefore, holds a 30-percent capital percentage of the assets of P distributable to F upon F's withdrawal from P, or the percentage of such assets distributable to F upon the liquidation of P. Since the percentage of the profits interest held by A and B in P is less than 20 percent, such 30-percent capital interest will be included in the permitted holdings of F in P.

§ 53.4943-4 Present holdings.

(a) Introduction—(1) Section 4943 (c)(4) in general. (i) Paragraph (4) of section 4943(c) prescribes transition rules for a private foundation which, but for such paragraph, would have excess business holdings on May 26, 1969. Section 4943(c)(4) provides such a foundation with protection from the initial tax on excess business holdings in two ways. First, the entire interest of such a foundation in any business enterprise in which such a foundation, but for section 4943(c)(4), would have had excess business holdings on May 26, 1969, is treated under section 4943(c)(4)(B) as held by disqualified persons for a certain period of time (the “first phase”). The effect of such treatment is to prevent a private foundation from being subject to the initial tax with respect to its May 26, 1969, interest during the first phase holding period and also to prevent the foundation from purchasing any additional business holdings in such business enterprise during such period (unless the combined holdings of the foundation and all disqualified persons fall below the 20 percent (or 35 percent, if applicable) figure prescribed by section 4943(c)(2)). Second, section 4943(c)(4)(A)(i) initially increases the percentage of permitted holdings of such a foundation to a percentage equal to the difference between:

(A) The percentage of combined holdings of the foundation and all disqualified persons in such business enterprise on May 26, 1969 (subject to a 50 percent maximum), and

(B) The percentage of holdings of all disqualified persons.

The percentage referred to in paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A) of this section is referred to in this section as the “substituted level”. This “substituted level” is then reduced by the “downward ratchet rule” prescribed by section 4943(c)(4)(A)(ii) and paragraph (d)(3) of this section for certain dispositions by such foundation or by disqualified persons. The primary purpose of the substituted level is to indicate what the permitted holdings in such business enterprise will be immediately after the expiration of the first phase holding period. Thereafter, the permitted holdings of a private foundation itself are further limited to a maximum 25 percent interest in such business enterprise by section 4943(c)(4)(D) as soon as the combined holdings of all disqualified persons in such business enterprise exceed 2 percent (of the voting stock). If the combined holdings of all disqualified persons at no time exceed 2 percent (of the voting stock) during the 15 years following the first phase (the “second phase”), then the substituted level is reduced to a 35 percent maximum after the second phase.

(ii) Paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.On May 26, 1969, private foundation P held a 5 percent interest in corporation X (voting stock and value). On such date disqualified persons held a 16 percent interest in X (voting stock and value). Assume that except for section 4943(c)(4), P would have had a 1 percent interest in X which would have constituted excess business holdings. Therefore, section 4943(c)(4)(B) applies and P's 5 percent interest in X is treated as held by a disqualified person during the 10-year period beginning May 26, 1969. Since the entire 21 percent held by P and disqualified persons is now treated as held by disqualified persons, P's substituted level is 21 percent and its permitted holdings are zero (21%−21%). However, P has no excess business holdings in X, because during the 10-year period P is not treated as holding such interest. The only change in the interest in X occurs on January 2, 1972, when P disposes of 2 percent of its interest in X to A, an unrelated person. Since the interest held by P and all disqualified persons (21% − 2% = 19%) has decreased below 20 percent, P's substituted level is reduced to 20 percent and its permitted holdings are 1 percent (20%−19%) on such date. Therefore, if the other interests in X do not change, P will not have excess business holdings if P purchases no more than an additional 1 percent interest in X.

(2) Interaction of provisions of section 4943(c) (4), (5), and (6). During the first phase, a private foundation may acquire additional interests in a business enterprise, other than by purchase, which are entitled to be treated as held by disqualified persons for varying holding periods under section 4943(c) (5) or (6) (relating respectively to certain holdings acquired pursuant to the terms of a trust or will in effect on May 26, 1969, and to the 5-year period to dispose of certain gifts, bequests, etc.). In any case holdings which the private foundation disposes of shall be charged first against those holdings which it must dispose of in the shortest period in order to avoid the initial tax thereon. Further, acquisitions of a private foundation under a pre-May 27, 1969, will or trust described in section 4943(3)(5) are treated in a manner similar to the treatment of interests actually held by a private foundation on May 26, 1969. See §§ 53.4943-5 and 53.4943-6.

(b) Present holdings in general. (1) Section 4943(c)(4)(B) provides that any interest in a business enterprise held by a private foundation on May 26, 1969, if the foundation on such date has excess business holdings (determined without regard to section 4943(c)(4)), shall (while held by the foundation) be treated as held by a disqualified person during a first phase. Therefore, no interest of a private foundation shall be treated as held by a disqualified person under section 4943(c)(4)(B) and this section unless:

(i) The private foundation was an entity (not including a revocable trust) in existence on May 26, 1969, even though it was not then treated as a private foundation under section 509 or section 4947;

(ii) Such interest was actually or constructively owned by such entity on such date; and

(iii) Without regard to section 4943(c)(4) such entity had on such date an interest (considered in connection with the interests actually or constructively owned by all disqualified persons with respect to such entity on that date in the same business enterprise, determined as if the entity were then a private foundation) which exceeded the permitted holdings prescribed by section 4943(c) (2) or (3).

(See, however, section 4943(c)(5) and § 53.4943-5 for similar treatment for certain interests acquired by a private foundation under the terms of a trust or a will which were in effect on May 26, 1969.) If a private foundation owns an interest described by section 4943(c)(4)(B), then the length of the first phase for such an interest is prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section and shall not be affected by any interest acquired by the private foundation or any disqualified person in such business enterprise after May 26, 1969. In addition, the amount of permitted holdings in such business enterprise is prescribed by paragraph (d) of this section. An interest constructively held by a private foundation (or a disqualified person) on May 26, 1969, shall not cease to be an interest to which section 4943(c)(4) applies merely because it is later distributed to such foundation (or to such disqualified person). Nor shall an interest directly held by a private foundation (or to such disqualified person) on May 26, 1969, cease to be treated as an interest to which section 4943(c)(4) applies to the extent it remains actually or constructively held by such foundation (or such disqualified person) upon transfer of such interest, such as upon the incorporation of a sole proprietorship.

(2) The provision of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.A, a nonprofit research organization described in section 501(c)(3), was organized in 1966. On May 26, 1969, A held 50 percent of the stock of corporation B. For its taxable years 1970, 1971, and 1972, A is classified as an organization described in section 509(a)(2). However, for 1973 and subsequent years, A fails to satisfy the gross investment income limitation of section 509(a)(2)(B), and is thus classified as a private foundation. In such a case, section 4943(c)(4) applies, and a disqualified person shall be treated as holding A's stock in B during a first phase that begins on May 26, 1969.

(c) First Phase holding periods—(1) In general. If, on May 26, 1969, a private foundation has excess business holdings in any business enterprise (determined with regard to the 20 or 35 percent permitted holdings of section 4943(c)(2)), then all interest which such foundation holds, actually or constructively, in such enterprise on May 26, 1969, shall (while held by such foundation) be deemed held by a disqualified person during the following periods:

(i) The 20-year period beginning on May 26, 1969, if the private foundation holds, actually or constructively, more than 95 percent of the voting stock (or more than a 95 percent profits or beneficial interest in the case of an unincorporated enterprise) in such enterprise on such date;

(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, the 15-year period beginning on May 26, 1969, if the private foundation and all disqualified persons hold, actually or constructively on such date more than 75 percent of the voting stock (or more than a 75 percent profits or beneficial interest in the case of any unincorporated enterprise) or 75 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in such enterprise (or more than a 75 percent profits and capital interest in the case of a partnership or joint venture); or

(iii) The 10-year period beginning on May 26, 1969, in any case not described in paragraph (c)(1) (i) or (ii) of this section.

The 20-year, 15-year, or 10-year period described in this subdivision (whichever applies) shall, for purposes of section 4943 and this section, be known as the “first phase.”

(2) Sole proprietorships. The 20-year period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall apply with respect to any interest which a private foundation holds in a sole proprietorship on May 26, 1969. See paragraph (b) of this section for the effect of converting such an enterprise to a corporate, partnership, or other form.

(3) Suspension of first-phase periods. The 20-year, 15-year, or 10-year period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be suspended during the dependency of any judicial proceeding which is brought and diligently litigated by the private foundation and which is necessary to reform, or to excuse the foundation from compliance with, its governing instrument or any other instrument (as in effect on May 26, 1969) in order to allow disposition of any excess business holdings held by the foundation on May 26, 1969.

(4) Election to shorten the period during which certain holdings of private foundations are treated as held by disqualified persons. If, on May 26, 1969, the combined holdings of a private foundation and all disqualified persons in any one business enterprise are such as to make applicable the 15-year period referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, and if, on such date, the foundation's holdings do not exceed 95 percent of the voting stock in such enterprise, then such 15-year period is shortened to the 10-year period referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(iii), if at any time before January 1, 1971, one or more individuals:

(i) Who are substantial contributors (as described in section 507(d)(2)), or members of the family within the meaning of section 4946(d) of one or more substantial contributors, to such private foundation, and

(ii) Who on May 26, 1969, held in the aggregate more than 15 percent of the voting stock in the enterprise, made an election in the manner described in 26 CFR 143.6 (rev. as of Apr. 1, 1974).

(5) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (c) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.Assume that F, a private foundation, owns, on May 26, 1969, 50 shares of voting stock in corporation X representing 50 percent of the voting power in X and 25 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. Assume further that A and B, the only disqualified persons with respect to F, own five shares each of voting stock in X on such date. The 10 shares of voting stock in X owned by A and B together represent 10 percent of the voting power in X and 5 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. Under the provisions of § 53.4943-3, the excess business holdings of F, in X (determined without regard to section 4943(c)(4)) as of such date are, therefore, 40 percent of X voting stock. Accordingly, since the combined holdings of F, A, and B in X are, on such date, less than 75 percent of the voting stock in X and less than 75 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X, under the provisions of section 4943(c)(4)(B)(iii), all holdings of F in X (i.e., 50 percent of X voting stock) will be treated as held by a disqualified person through May 25, 1979.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that F, on December 15, 1969, purchases an additional 10 shares of voting stock in X representing 10 percent of X voting power. Assume, further, that there were no other transactions in the stock in X during 1969. While the 50 percent of X voting stock held by F on May 26, 1969, will be deemed held by a disqualified person through May 25, 1979, the additional 10 shares of X voting stock acquired by purchase by F on December 15, 1969, will no be deemed to be so held. Accordingly, since, under the provisions of § 53.4943-3, such 10 shares represent excess business holding of F in X, such 10 shares will be subject to the imposition of tax under the provisions of section 4943(a).

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that F, on December 15, 1971 acquires an additional 10 shares of voting stock in X (representing 10 percent of X voting power) under the terms of a will which was executed before May 26, 1969, to which section 4943(c)(5) applies. While the 50 percent of X voting stock held by F on May 26, 1969, will be deemed held by a disqualified person through May 25, 1979, the additional 10 percent of X voting stock acquired by F on December 15, 1971, will, under the provisions of section 4943(c)(5), be deemed held by a disqualified person through December 14, 1981. See § 53.4943-5.

Example 4.Assume that F, a private foundation, owns on May 26, 1969, 50 shares of voting stock in corporation Y representing 50 percent of the voting power in Y. Assume further that C and D, the only disqualified persons with respect to F, own on such date 15 shares each of Y voting stock and that the 30 shares of Y voting stock owned by C and D together represent 30 percent of the voting power in Y. Under the provisions of § 53.4943-3 the excess business holdings of F in Y (determined without regard to section 4943(c)(4)) as of such date are, therefore, 50 percent of Y voting stock. Accordingly, since the combined holdings of F, C, and D in Y represent, on such date, more than 75 percent of the voting stock in Y, under the provisions of section 4943(c)(4)(B)(ii), all holdings of F in Y (i.e., 50 percent of Y voting stock will be treated as held by a disqualified person through May 25, 1984.

Example 5.M, a private foundation, owns on May 26, 1969, sole proprietorship S. Since, under the provisions of § 53.5954-3, M's ownership of S constitutes excess business holdings (determined without regard to section 4943(c)(4) as of May 26, 1969, and since M's interest in S is greater than 95 percent on such date, under the provisions of this paragraph a disqualified person will be treated as the owner of S for the 20-year period beginning on such date. If S is later incorporated, that percentage of the interest in S retained by M, even though less than a 95-percent interest, shall continue to be treated as held by a disqualified person through May 25, 1989.

Example 6.A and B, individuals, together own on May 26, 1969, 40 shares of voting stock in corporation X representing 40 percent of the voting power in X and 20 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. A and B are both disqualified persons with respect to F, a private foundation, which owns no stock in X on May 26, 1969. On January 1, 1973, A and B donate the 40 shares of X voting stock held by them to F. Since F had no excess business holdings on May 26, 1969, section 4943(c)(4) does not apply. See however, section 4943(c)(6) and § 53.4943-6.

Example 7.Assume the facts as stated in Example (6), except that F, on May 26, 1969, owns 50 shares of voting stock in X, representing 50 percent of the voting power in X and 25 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. Under the provisions of this paragraph, the 50 shares of X voting stock held by F on May 26, 1969 shall be treated in accordance with the provisions of section 4943(c)(4), while the 40 shares of X voting stock acquired by F on January 1, 1973 shall be treated in accordance with the provisions of section 4943(c)(6). See § 53.4943-6.

(d) Permitted holdings under section 4943(c)(4)—(1) In general. The permitted holdings of a private foundation to which section 4943 (c)(4) applies in a business enterprise shall be as follows:

(i) The excess of the substituted combined voting level over the disqualified person voting level, and separately,

(ii) The excess of the substituted combined value level over the disqualified person value level.

(2) Definitions. For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section:

(i) The term disqualified person voting level on any given date means the percentage of voting stock held by all disqualified persons together on such date (including stock deemed held by such a person by reason of section 4943(c)(4), (5), or (6)).

(ii) The term disqualified person value level on any given date means the percentage of the total value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in a business enterprise held by all disqualified persons together on such date (including stock deemed held by such a person by reason of section 4943(c)(4), (5), or (6)).

(iii) The term foundation voting level prior to the second phase is equal to zero. After the first phase, such term on any given date means the lowest percentage of voting stock held by a private foundation (without regard to section 4943(c)(4)(B)) in a business enterprise on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter up to such date. See section 4943(c)(5) and § 53.4943-5 for the effect of the interests acquired pursuant to the terms of certain wills or trusts in effect on May 26, 1969.

(iv) The term foundation value level prior to the second phase is equal to zero. After the first phase, such term on any given date means the lowest percentage of the total value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock held by a private foundation (without regard to section 4943(c)(4)(B)) in a business enterprise on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter up to such date. See section 4943(c)(5) and § 53.4943-5 for the effect of interests acquired pursuant to the terms of certain wills or trusts in effect on May 26, 1969.

(v) The term substituted combined voting level means the lowest percentage to which the sum of the foundation voting level plus the disqualified person voting level has been reduced since May 26, 1969, by paragraph (d)(4) of this section to the following modifications (the “downward ratchet rule”), subject;

(A) In no event shall such substituted level exceed 50 percent; and

(B) Such substituted level shall be increased (but not above 50 percent) in accordance with section 4943(c)(5) and § 53.4943-5 for certain interests acquired by such foundation pursuant to the terms of a will or trust in effect on May 26, 1969.

(vi) The term substituted combined value level means the lowest percentage to which the sum of the foundation value level plus the disqualified person value level has been reduced since May 26, 1969, by paragraph (d)(4) of this section (the “downward ratchet rule”), subject to the following modifications:

(A) In no event shall such substituted level exceed 50 percent; and

(B) Such substituted level shall be increased (but not above 50 percent) in accordance with section 4943(c)(5) and § 53.4943-5 for certain interests acquired by such foundation pursuant to the terms of a will or trust in effect on May 26, 1969.

(vii) In the case of an interest in a partnership or joint venture, definitions (i) through (iv) of this subparagraph shall be applied by substituting “profit interests” for “voting stock” and “all partnership interests” for “all outstanding shares of all classes of stock.”

(viii) In the case of an interest in a business enterprise other than a corporation, partnership or joint venture, definitions (i) through (iv) of this subparagraph shall be applied by substituting “beneficial remainder interests” for “voting stock” and “all beneficial remainder interests” and “all outstanding shares of all classes of stock.”

(ix) Each level defined in paragraph (d)(2)(iii), (iv) and (v) and (vi) as of any date shall be carried over to the subsequent date subject to any adjustments prescribed for such level.

(3) Permitted holdings—First phase. Since during the first phase the substituted combined voting level generally does not exceed the disqualified person voting level, and the substituted combined value level generally does not exceed the disqualified person value level, the permitted holdings during the first phase are generally equal to zero. The permitted holdings during the first phase exceed zero only where the 20 percent (or 35 percent) limitation on the downward ratchet rule contained in paragraph (d)(4)(ii)(B) of this section applies.

(4) Downward ratchet rule—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section and section 4943(c)(5):

(A) Scope of rule. In general, when the percentage of the holdings in a business enterprise held by a private foundation and all disqualified persons together to which section 4943(c)(4) applies decreases, or when the percentage of the holdings of the private foundation alone in such business enterprise decreases, such holdings may not be increased (except as provided under section 4943(c) (5) or (6)). This so-called “downward ratchet rule” is designed to prevent the private foundation from purchasing additional holdings in the business enterprise until the substituted combined voting level reduced to the 20-percent (or 35 percent) figure prescribed by section 4943(c)(2).

(B) Levels affected. Under the downward ratchet rule any decrease after May 26, 1969, in the percentage of holdings comprising either the substituted combined voting level, the substituted combined value level, the foundation voting level or the foundation value level shall cause the respective level to be decreased to such decreased percentage for purposes of determining the foundation's permitted holdings.

(C) Implementation of reductions. Thus, if at any time the sum of the foundation voting level and the disqualified person voting level is less than the immediately preceding substituted combined voting level, the substituted level shall be decreased so that it equals such sum. For example, if on May 26, 1969, a foundation and all disqualified persons together have holdings in a business enterprise equal to 50 percent, on such date the substituted combined voting level and the disqualified person voting level equal 50 percent (since such holdings of the foundation are treated as held by a disqualified person). If the private foundation or a disqualified person on May 27, 1969, sold 2 percent of such holdings to a nondisqualified person, the disqualified person voting level would be decreased to 48 percent (50%−2%), causing the substituted combined voting level to be decreased to 48 percent. As a further example, assume that on May 26, 1969, a foundation and all disqualified persons together have holdings in a business enterprise equal to 50 percent, and when the first phase expires on May 26, 1979, the substituted combined voting level is still 50 percent, the foundation voting level is 10 percent, and the disqualified person voting level is 40 percent. If a disqualified person there- after sells 2 percent to a nondisqualified person so that the sum of the disqualified person voting level (40% − 2% = 38%) and the foundation voting level (10%) equals 48 percent (38% + 10%), then the substituted combined voting level is decreased to 48 percent. Similarly, if at any time the sum of the foundation value level and the disqualified person value level is less than the immediately preceding substituted combined value level, the substituted combined value level shall be decreased so that it equals such sum.

(D) Restrictions on increases in levels. In addition, none of the four levels referred to in paragraph (d)(4)(i)(B) of this section may be adjusted upward to reflect any increase in the holdings comprising such level, except as provided in section 4943(c)(5) and § 53.4943-5. As a result, any transfer of May 26, 1969, holdings from a disqualified person to a private foundation shall not increase the foundation voting level or the foundation value level (unless the transfer qualifies under section 4943(c)(5)), and thus may reduce the substituted combined value level (and where appropriate, the substituted combined voting level). Thus, in the last preceding example, if the disqualified person, instead of selling the 2 percent interest to a nondisqualified person, had sold such interest to the foundation, the substituted combined voting level would still be reduced to 48 percent, since the disqualified person voting level would be reduced by 2 percent (to 38%) but the foundation voting level would not be increased by 2 percent (remaining at 10%). However, any transfer of May 26, 1969, holdings from a private foundation to a disqualified person under section 101(1)(2)(B) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969, shall reduce the foundation value level (and, where appropriate, the foundation voting level), but will not reduce the substituted combined value level or the substituted combined voting level. The disqualified person voting level and disqualified person value level are correspondingly increased, not being limited to interest held since May 26, 1969. In addition, a transfer of May 26, 1969, holdings from one disqualified person to another, for example, by bequest, shall not reduce the substituted combined voting level nor the substituted combined value level.

(ii) Exceptions—(A) One percent de minimis rule. If after May 26, 1969, there are one or more decreases in the holdings comprising any of the four levels referred to in paragraph (d)(4)(i)(B) of this section during any taxable year of a private foundation, and if such decreases are attributable to issuances of stock (or such issuances coupled with redemptions), then, unless the aggregate of such decreases equals or exceeds 1 percent, the determination of whether there is a decrease in such level for purposes of this paragraph (d)(4) shall be made only at the close of such taxable year. If, however, the aggregate of such decreases equals or exceeds 1 percent, such level shall be decreased at that time as if the previous sentence has never applied.

(B) Twenty percent (or 35 percent) floor. In no event shall the downward rachet rule contained in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section decrease the substituted combined voting level or the substituted combined value level below 20 percent, or, for purposes of section 4943(c)(2)(B), below 35 percent.

(iii) Special rules—(A) Change of foundation managers. In the case of a foundation manager (as defined in section 4946(b)) who on May 26, 1969, owns holdings in a business enterprise and who is replaced by another foundation manager, the decrease in the substituted combined voting or value levels shall be limited to the excess, if any, of the departing foundation manager's holdings over his successor's holdings.

(B) Termination of private foundation status under section 507. If an organization gives the notification described in section 507(b)(1)(B)(ii) of the commencement of a 60-month termination period and fails to meet the requirements of section 509(a)(1), (2) or (3) for the entire period, then such organization will be treated as a private foundation during the entire 60-month period for purposes of this paragraph (d)(4) and section 4946(a)(1)(H). For example, X, a private foundation gives notification of the commencement of a 60-month termination commencing on January 1, 1972. X and Y, another private foundation, are effectively controlled by the same persons within the meaning of section 4946(a)(1)(H). X and Y hold 25 percent each of the voting stock of Z corporation on May 26, 1969, so that the substituted combined voting level for X or Y is 50 percent on such date. If X meets the requirements of section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3) for the entire 60-month period, section 4946(a)(1)(H) is inapplicable to X, and, under the downward ratchet rule, the substituted combined voting level for Y is decreased by 25 percent. On the other hand, if X meets the requirements of section 509(a)(2) for its taxable years 1972 and 1973, but fails to meet the requirements of section 509(a)(1), (2), or (3) in 1974, 1975, and 1976, then solely for purposes of section 4943(c)(4)(A)(ii) and this paragraph (d)(4), X will be treated as a disqualified person with respect to Y, and Y will be treated as a disqualified person with respect to X, for taxable years 1972 through 1976 pursuant to section 4946(a)(1)(H). Thus, for purposes of section 4943(c)(4)(A)(ii) the substituted combined voting level for X or Y will not be decreased by reason of the fact that X was attempting to terminate under section 507(b)(1)(B), and assuming no other transportations, such level; will remain at 50 percent.

(iv) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (d)(4) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. F, a private foundation, owns on May 26, 1969, 50 shares of voting stock in corporation X representing to 50 percent of the voting stock in X and 25 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. A and B, the only disqualified persons with respect to F, together own, on such date, 2 shares of voting stock in X representing 2 percent of the voting shock in X and 1 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. In addition, on such date, F owns 30 shares of nonvoting stock in X, representing 30 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X, and A and B together own 15 shares of nonvoting stock in X representing 15 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of classes of stock in X. The provisions of section 4943(c)(4)(B)(iii) apply and during the 10-year period beginning on May 26, 1969, a disqualified person is deemed to hold all interests of F in X. Assume that on February 1, 1972, F sells to C, unrelated in individual, 12 shares of voting stock in X representing 12 percent of the voting stock in X and 6 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X.

(i) Beginning on May 26, 1969, the disqualified person voting level is 52 percent, the foundation voting level is zero, and the substituted combined voting level is 50 percent; the disqualified person value level is 71 percent, the foundation value level is zero, and the substituted combined value level is 50 percent.

(ii) Beginning on February 1, 1972, the disqualified person voting level is 40 percent (52%−12%), the foundation voting level is zero, and the substituted combined voting level is 40 percent; the disqualified person value level is 65 percent (71%−6%), the foundation value level is zero and the substituted combined value level is 50 percent.

Example 2.F, a private foundation on the calendar year basis, holds, on May 26, 1969, 30 percent of the voting stock in corporation Y. C and D, the only disqualified persons with respect to F, together hold, on such date, 10 percent of the voting stock in Y. The provisions of section 4943(c)(4)(B)(iii) apply with respect to F, and disqualified persons are deemed to hold all interests of F in Y for the 10-year period beginning on May 26, 1969, so that the substituted combined voting level as of such date is 40 percent. On February 1, 1973, a stock issuance by Y causes the combined holdings of voting power by F, C, and D in Y to decrease by 0.3 percent. on June 1, 1973, another such issuance causes such combined holdings to decrease by 0.5 percent. In September 1, 1973, an unrelated stock redemption by Y causes such combined holdings to increase by 0.4 percent. Under this paragraph the determination whether there is a decrease in the substituted combined voting level for purposes of the downward ratchet rule shall not be made before January 1, 1974, since the aggregate of the decreases occurring on February 1 and June 1 of 1973 is less than 1 percent (0.3% + 0.5%). Therefore, the substituted combined voting level as of January 1, 1974, is 39.6 percent (40%−[(0.3% + 0.5%)−0.4%].)

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in Example (2), except that, on October 1, 1973, a stock issuance by Y causes the combined holdings of voting power by F, C, and D in Y to decrease by 0.3 percent. Since the aggregate of the decreases occurring on February 1, June 1, and October 1 of 1973 exceeds 1 percent, the determination whether there is a decrease in the substituted combined voting level shall be made as of October 1, 1973. At that time the substituted combined voting level shall be reduced to 39.2 percent (40%−0.3%−0.5%), the lowest actual combined holdings during the period that the de minimis rule was in effect.

(5) Permitted holdings—Second phase—(i) In general. For purposes of section 4943 and this section, the term “second phase” means the 15-year period immediately following the first phase. Upon the expiration of the first phase with respect to an interest to which section 4943(c)(4) applies, such interest shall no longer be treated as held by a disqualified person under section 4943(c)(4)(B). During the second phase, the manner of determining the permitted holdings of a private foundation to which section 4943(c)(4) applies shall be the same as applicable to the first phase, except that a 25 percent maximum shall apply under certain conditions specified in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section. For these purposes the substituted combined voting level and the substituted combined value level in effect for the foundation at the end of the first phase shall be carried over to the second phase. The substituted levels are carried over because although there is a decrease in the disqualified person levels (since holdings are no longer treated as held by disqualified persons under section 4943(c)(4)(B)), a corresponding increase in the foundation levels occurs. For example, if a private foundation on May 26, 1969, held 10 percent of the voting stock in a corporation and disqualified persons held 40 percent of the voting stock, both the disqualified person voting level and the substituted combined voting level equal 50 percent (10% + 40%). Assuming no transactions during the first phase, on May 26, 1979, the disqualified person voting level would be decreased to 40 percent (50%−10%), but the foundation voting level would be increased to 10 percent so that the substituted combined voting level would remain at 50 percent. In addition, the downward ratchet rule of paragraph (d)(4) of this section shall continue to apply, to prevent the foundation and disqualified persons from purchasing any additional interest in the same enterprise until the substituted combined voting level decreases below 20 percent.

(ii) 25 percent maximum on foundation holdings. If, or as soon as, the disqualified person voting level exceeds 2 percent after the expiration of the first phase, the permitted holdings shall not thereafter exceed 25 percent of the voting stock or 25 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock, even though the holdings of the foundation and all disqualified persons combined do not exceed the substituted level. Solely for purposes of determining whether the 25 percent limitation of this subdivision (ii) applies, the disqualified person voting level shall not be treated as exceeding 2 percent solely as a result of the holdings of a private foundation which are treated as held by a disqualified person by reason of section 4943(c) (5) or (6). For example, where under the constructive ownership rules for trusts in § 53.4943-8(b), a private foundation is deemed to own more than 2 percent of the voting stock of a business enterprise but such stock is treated as held by a disqualified person under section 4943(c)(5), the determination of the substituted percentage for permitted holdings in the second phase will be as if the foundation owned the stock held by the trust. Similarly, where a private foundation is the only remainder beneficiary of a trust that is a disqualified person under section 4946(a)(1)(H), the disqualified person voting level shall not be treated as exceeding 2 percent solely as a result of the holdings of such a trust.

(6) Permitted holdings—Third phase. For purposes of section 4943 and this section, the term “third phase” means the entire period following the second phase. During the third phase the manner of determining the permitted holdings of a private foundation to which section 4943(c)(4) applies shall be the same as applicable to the second phase under paragraph (d)(5) of this section (including the carryover of levels from the earlier phase). However, if the 25 percent limit of paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section never applied during the second phase, the substituted combined voting level and the substituted combined value level each shall not exceed 35 percent during the third phase.

(7) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.F, a private foundation, owns on May 26, 1969, 30 shares of voting stock in corporation Z representing 30 percent of the voting power in Z and 15 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Z, and owns, on such date, 10 shares of nonvoting stock in Z representing 10 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Z. E and G, the only disqualified persons with respect to F, own, on such date, 5 shares each of nonvoting stock in Z. The 10 shares of nonvoting stock in Z owned by E and G together represent 10 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Z. Assume further that F cannot meet the requirements for the 35 percent test of section 4943(c)(2)(B). For purposes of applying section 4943(c)(4)(B) and this paragraph, F has excess business holdings in Z (determined without regard to section 4943(c)(4)), because under section 4943(c)(2)(A) F's permitted holdings are 20 percent (20%−0%) of the voting stock since disqualified persons have no holdings of voting stock. Therefore, section 4943(c)(4)(B) and this paragraph apply, and a disqualified person is treated as holding F's shares of both voting and nonvoting stock in Z for the 10-year period through May 25, 1979. Thus, since all holdings by F in Z are treated as held by a disqualified person during the first phase, F cannot be subject to tax under section 4943(a) on its May 26, 1969, holdings prior to the termination of the first phase, regardless of whether or not disqualified persons purchase additional shares of Z during the first phase.

Example 2.Assume the same facts as in Example (1), and further assume that there were no transactions in the stock of Z during the first phase (May 26, 1969 through May 25, 1979). During the first phase the permitted holdings by F in Z for both the voting stock and the value is zero. The disqualified person voting level and the substituted combined voting level are each 30 percent, and the disqualified person value level and the substituted combined value level are each 35 percent (15% + 10% + 10%). The substituted levels are carried over into the second phase. The disqualified person voting level on May 26, 1979, the beginning of the second phase, is zero, because the voting shares held by F are no longer treated as held by a disqualified person. Therefore, F's permitted holdings on such date are 30 percent of the voting stock, because such percentage is equal to the excess of the substituted combined voting level (30%) over the disqualified person voting level (0%). The disqualified person value level on May 26, 1979, is 10 percent, because the voting and nonvoting shares held by F are no longer treated as held by a disqualified person. Therefore, F's permitted holdings on such date are 25 percent of the value of Z stock, because such percentage is equal to the excess of the substituted combined value level (35%) over the disqualified person value level (10%) as of such date.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in Example (2), except that E and G acquire, on February 1, 1970, 10 shares of Z voting stock representing 10 percent of the voting power in Z and 5 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Z. During the first phase such permitted holdings remain zero, and prior to May 25, 1979, the substituted combined voting level and substituted combined value level remain 30 and 35 percent, respectively, because such levels may not be increased by acquisitions by disqualified persons. However, the disqualified person voting level and the disqualified person value level are each increased to 40 percent (30% + 10%) and 40 percent (35% + 5%) respectively. During the first phase the excess of the disqualified person voting level over the substituted combined voting level (40%−30%) and the excess of the disqualified person value level over the substituted combined value level (40%−35%) indicate how much stock F must dispose of during the first phase to avoid the initial tax when it expires. On May 25, 1979, the last day of the first phase, F disposes of 12 shares of Z voting stock, representing 12 percent of the voting power in Z and 6 percent of the value of all such outstanding shares. The disposition by F reduces the interest F owns to 18 percent (30%−12%) of the voting power, and 19 percent (25%−6%) of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock, in Z. Since the disqualified person voting level decreases to 28 percent (40%−12%), the substituted combined voting level as of May 25, 1979, accordingly is decreased to 28 percent under the downward ratchet rule. Similarly, the substituted combined value level is decreased to 34 percent, as the disqualified person value level as of such date is 34 percent (40%−6%). On May 26, 1979, the disqualified person voting level is 10 percent (28%−18%), and the disqualified person value level is 15 percent (34%−19%), since the shares owned by F are no longer treated as held by a disqualified person as of such date. Accordingly, on May 26, 1979, the permitted holdings by F and Z are 18 percent of the voting power in Z, because such percentage is equal to the excess of the substituted combined voting level (28%) over the disqualified person voting level (10%) as of such date. Similarly, the permitted holdings of F in Z by value are 19 percent (34%−15%). If F had not disposed of the 12 shares, then on May 26, 1979, F's permitted holdings in voting power and value would be 20 percent (30%−10%) and 20 percent (35%−15%), respectively.

Example 4.F, a private foundation, owns on May 26, 1969, 35 shares of voting stock in corporation Y representing 35 percent of the voting stock in Y and 17.5 percent of the value of all classes of stock in Y, and owns on such date 45 shares of nonvoting stock representing 22.5 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Y. No disqualified person with respect to F owns, on such date, any stock in Y. Assume further that Y cannot meet the requirements of the 35 percent test of section 4943(c)(2)(B). For purposes of applying section 4943(c)(4)(B) and this paragraph, F has excess business holdings in Y (determined without regard to section 4943(c)(4)), because under section 4943(c)(2)(A) F's permitted holdings are 20 percent (20%−0%) of the voting stock since disqualified persons have no holdings of voting stock. Therefore, section 4943(c)(4)(B) and this paragraph apply, and a disqualified person is treated as holding F's shares of both voting and nonvoting stock in Y for the 10-year period through May 25, 1979. During the first phase the permitted holdings by F in Y of both the voting stock and of value are zero. The disqualified person voting level and the substituted combined voting level are each 35 percent, and the disqualified person value level and the substituted combined value level are each 40 percent (17.5% + 22.5%). The substituted levels are carried over into the second phase. The disqualified person voting level and value level on May 26, 1979, are both zero, because the shares held by F are no longer treated as held by a disqualified person. Therefore, F's permitted holdings on such date are 35 percent of the voting power (35%−0%) and 40 percent of the value (40%−0%). Assume that on February 1, 1981, A, a disqualified person, acquires 6 percent of the voting stock in Y representing 3 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Y. The permitted holdings by F in Z on February 1, 1981, are thus reduced to 25 percent of the voting stock (the lesser of the separate 25% second phase limitation or 29% (35% substituted combined voting level minus 6% disqualified person voting level)) and 25 percent of the value (the lesser of the separate 25% second phase limitation or 37% (40% substituted combined value level minus 3% disqualified person value level)). But see paragraph (d)(8) of this section for limitations on restrictions with respect to nonvoting stock.

Example 5.Assume the same facts as in Example (4) except that A does not acquire the 6 shares of voting stock until February 1, 1996 (in the third phase), rather than on February 1, 1981. Thus, F's permitted holdings in Y would remain at 35 percent of the voting stock and 40 percent of the value during the second phase, which expired on May 25, 1994. Assume that on May 25, 1994, the last day of the second phase, F disposes of 10 shares of nonvoting stock representing 5 percent of the value of all outstanding shares in Y to meet the 35 percent third phase limit. In accordance with the downward ratchet rule, the substituted combined value level and F's permitted holdings in Y would be reduced to 35 percent of value. On February 1, 1996, F's permitted holdings in Y would be reduced to 25 percent of the voting stock (the lesser of the separate 25% third phase limitation or 29% (35% substituted combined voting level minus 6% disqualified person level)) and 25 percent of the value (the lesser of the separate 25% third phase limitation or 32% (35% substituted combined value level minus 3% disqualified person value level)). But see paragraph (d)(8) of this section for limitations on restrictions with respect to nonvoting stock.

(8) Special rule where all holdings are permitted under section 4943(c)(2). (i) Since section 4943(c)(4) and this paragraph provide transitional rules for foundations which would otherwise have had excess business holdings on May 26, 1969, no holdings shall cease to be permitted holdings under this paragraph where such holdings would be permitted holdings under section 4943(c)(2) and § 53.4943-3. Thus, for example, where the substituted combined voting level had been reduced to 20 percent, the provisions of § 53.4943-3(b)(2) concerning nonvoting stock as permitted holdings generally apply.

(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (d)(8) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example. (A) F, a private foundation, owns, on May 26, 1969, 40 shares of voting stock in corporation X representing 40 percent of the voting stock in X and 20 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X, and owns, on such date, 60 shares of nonvoting stock in X, representing 30 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. A, the only disqualified person with respect to F, owns, on such date, 10 shares of voting stock in X, representing 10 percent of the voting stock in X and 5 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. Under section 4943(c)(4)(B)(iii), a disqualified person is deemed the owner of all holdings by F in X for the 10-year period beginning on May 26, 1969.

(B) Assume that the only transaction in X stock during the first phase is the disposition of 30 shares of voting stock by F on May 1, 1975. The voting stock held by F is permitted holdings under § 53.4943-3 and under such section since all disqualified persons together do not own more than 20 percent of the voting stock in X, all nonvoting stock held by F shall also be treated as permitted holdings. Therefore, all the stock held by F is permitted holdings.

(C) Assume that on May 1, 1975, F had disposed of only 15 shares of voting stock and also had disposed of 35 shares of nonvoting stock. On May 26, 1979, at the beginning of the second phase, this paragraph (d)(8) would not apply since F would have excess business holdings under § 53.4943-3. Under the provisions of this section, the permitted holdings by F in X on such date are 25 percent of the voting stock (35% substituted combined voting level minus 10% disqualified person voting level) and 25 percent of the value (30% substituted combined value level minus 5% disqualified person value level).

(9) Special rule for certain private foundations. In the case of a private foundation:

(i) Which was incorporated before January 1, 1951.

(ii) Substantially all of the assets of which on May 26, 1969, consisted of more than 90 percent of the stock of an incorporated business enterprise which is licensed and regulated, the sales or contracts of which are regulated, and the professional representatives of which are licensed, by State regulatory agencies in at least 10 States;

(iii) Which acquired such stock solely by gift, devise, or bequest;

(iv) Which does not purchase any stock or other interest in such enterprise after May 26, 1969, and does not acquire any stock or other interest in any other business enterprise which constitutes excess business holdings under § 53.4943-3; and

(v) Which, in the last 5 taxable years ending on or before December 31, 1970, expended substantially all of its adjusted net income (as defined in section 4942(f)) for the purpose or function for which it is organized and operated;

paragraph (d) (1) through (5) of this section (permitted holdings during the first and second phase) shall be applied with respect to the holdings of such foundation in such incorporated business enterprise by substituting “51 percent” for “50 percent,” and section 4943(c)(4)(D) (third phase) shall not apply with respect to such holdings. For purposes of the preceding sentence, stock of such enterprise in a trust created before May 27, 1969, of which the foundation is the remainder beneficiary shall be deemed to be held by such foundation on May 26, 1969, if such foundation held (without regard to such trust) more than 20 percent of the stock of such enterprise on May 26, 1969.

(10) Special rule for changes in the relative values of stock of different classes. (i) In the case of a corporation that has more than one class of stock outstanding, if the percentage of value held by the private foundation, its disqualified persons, or both, increases over a period of time solely as a result of changes in the relative values of the stock of different classes, then the foundation value level, the disqualified person value level, and the substituted combined value level, as defined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, shall be adjusted to reflect such increase. An increase in the percentage of value held shall not be considered to have occurred solely as a result of changes in the relative values of the stock of different classes if:

(A) There has been any increase during the period in the percentage of any class of stock held by the private foundation, its disqualified persons, or both, or

(B) There has been any issuance, redemption, or purchase by the issuing corporation of any stock during the period.

See § 53.4943-6(d) for rules relating to increases caused by readjustments.

(ii) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (b)(10) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example. (i) At all times since May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, has held 25% (500,000 shares) of the outstanding class of voting stock of X corporation. No disqualified person with respect to F holds any voting stock of X. In addition X has had outstanding since May 26, 1969, a class of non-voting preferred stock, none of which is held by F or a disqualified person. X is an active business corporation and third parties do not have effective control of X. On May 26, 1969, the voting stock (2 million shares outstanding) was trading for $5 a share on the New York Stock Exchange. The non-voting preferred stock, not publicly traded, was valued at $1 million. The total value of all outstanding stock was $11 million ($10 million voting stock plus $1 million non-voting preferred). On May 26, 1969, F held 22.73% of the value of X's outstanding stock ($2.5 million/$11 million).

(ii) On October 31, 1982, X's voting stock is trading for $20 a share and the nonvoting stock is valued at $3 million. At all times during the period May 26, 1969, through October 31, 1982, F has held 25 percent of the voting stock and none of the nonvoting stock of X. No stock of X is owned by disqualified persons. No stock of X has been issued, redeemed or purchased by X during this period. On October 13, 1982, the total value of X's outstanding stock (is $43 million ($40 million voting stock and $3 million nonvoting stock) and F holds 23.26 percent of the value of X's outstanding stock ($10 million/$43 million). F's foundation value level and the substituted combined value level are increased from 22.73 percent to 23.26 percent to reflect this change.

(iii) On November 1, 1982, X corporation distributes the stock of Y corporation, a wholly-owned subsidiary, to X's shareholders. Y is a business enterprise. Under this paragraph (d)(10), all of F's stock in X is permitted holdings under section 4943 (c)(4) even though the percentage of value held by F has increased from 22.73 percent on May 26, 1969, to 23.26 percent on November 1, 1982. F's permitted holdings in Y will be determined by reference to F's permitted holdings in X under § 53.4943-7. Therefore, assuming no prohibited transaction occurs, F's permitted holdings in Y stock equal 25 percent of Y's voting stock and, separately, 23.26 percent of the value of all of Y's outstanding stock.

[T.D. 7496, 42 FR 46285, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by T.D. 7944, 49 FR 6478, Feb. 22, 1984]

§ 53.4943-5 Present holdings acquired by trust or a will.

(a) Interests to which section 4943(c)(5) applies—(1) In general. Section 4943(c)(5) provides that section 4943(c)(4) (other than the 20-year first phase holding period) applies to an interest in a business enterprise acquired after May 26, 1969 by a private foundation under the terms of a trust which was irrevocable on May 26, 1969, or under the terms of a will executed on or before May 26, 1969, which were in effect on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter, as if such interest were held on May 26, 1969. However the first phase holding period prescribed by § 53.4943-4(c)(1) (ii) or (iii) shall commence for such an interest on the date of distribution to the foundation. Unlike section 4943(c)(4) and § 53.4943-4, section 4943(c)(5) and this section treat only the interest so acquired (and not the entire interest held by the foundation in such enterprise on the date of distribution) as held by a disqualified person during a first phase holding period. (See, however, section 4943(c)(6) and paragraph (b)(2) of § 53.4943-6 for the treatment of other holdings of the foundation in the same enterprise if an interest to which section 4943(c)(5) applies is acquired from a person who was not a disqualified person prior to the acquisition.) In addition, section 4943(c)(5) and this section shall not apply if after the acquisition of such an interest the foundation would not have excess business holdings (determined without regard to section 4943(c) (4), (5), or (6)).

(2) After-acquired interests. Section 4943(c)(5) and this section shall not apply to any interest acquired after May 26, 1969, by an estate or trust, other than by reason of the death of the decedent. For example, where a foundation is a residuary beneficiary under the terms of a will executed before May 26, 1969, and the residue of the estate consists of cash, then stock subsequently purchased with cash for distribution to the foundation will not be treated as an interest acquired under the terms of a will executed on or before May 26, 1969.

(3) Certain revocable trusts. If an interest in a business enterprise actually passes to a private foundation under a trust which would have met the tests referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section but for the fact that the trust was revocable (even though it was not in fact revoked) and such interest would have passed to such foundation under a will that meets those tests but for the fact that the grantor died without having revoked the trust, then for purposes of section 4943(c)(5) and this section, such an interest shall be treated as having been acquired by the foundation under the will.

(4) Modification of will—(i) In general. For purposes of section 4943(c)(5) and this section, an amendment or republication of a will which was executed on or before May 26, 1969, does not prevent any interest in a business enterprise which was to pass under the terms (which were in effect on May 26, 1969, and at all times there- after) of such will from being treated as a present holding under section 4943(c) (4) or (5):

(A) Solely because there is a reduction in the interest in the business enterprise which the foundation was to receive under the terms of the will (for example, if the foundation is to receive the residuary estate, and if one class of stock is disposed of by the decedent during his lifetime or by a subsequent codicil);

(B) Solely because such amendment or republication is necessary in order to comply with section 508(e) and the regulations thereunder;

(C) Solely because there is a change in the executor of the will; or

(D) Solely because of any other change which does not otherwise change the rights of the foundation with respect to such interest in the business enterprise.

However, if under such amendment or republication there is an increase in the interest in the business enterprise which the foundation was to receive under the terms of the will in effect on May 26, 1969, such increase shall not be treated as present holdings under section 4943(c) (4) or (5). Under such circumstances the interest which would have been acquired before such increase shall remain present holdings. See section 4943(c)(6) and § 53.4943-6 with respect to the treatment of such increase in holdings of a private foundation.

(ii) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (a)(4) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On May 9, 1985, A modifies by codicil his will which was in effect on May 26, 1969, and was unchanged until such modification. The purpose of the codicil was, in the event of A's death, to increase the number of shares in X Corporation that would pass to the W foundation from 70 percent of all the voting power and value to 80 percent. Under these facts, if A dies without further modifying the terms of the will which apply to W's interest in X, section 4943(c)(5) will apply to 70 percent of the X voting power and value and section 4943(c)(6) will apply to 10 percent of the X voting power and value, since 10 percent of the X voting power and value would not pass under a provision of the will which was in effect on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter. Accordingly, if the stock is distributed to W on July 6, 1988, then, assuming that on May 26, 1969, W and all disqualified persons owned less than 75% of the voting stock in X, an amount of such stock representing 70 percent of X voting power and value shall be treated as held by a disqualified person through July 5, 1998, and an amount of such stock representing 10 percent of X voting power and value shall be treated as held by a disqualified person through July 5, 1993.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that the sole purpose of the codicil was to change the executor of the will. Under paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, such codicil will not prevent the X voting stock which was bequeathed to W from being treated as held by a disqualified person through July 5, 1998.

(b) Holding periods—(1) In general. An interest to which section 4943(c)(5) applies shall be entitled to a 15-year holding period starting on the date of distribution only if the interests actually or constructively owned by a private foundation and all disqualified persons on May 26, 1969, in a business enterprise exceed 75 percent of the voting stock (or of the profits or beneficial interest) or 75 percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock (or of the profits and capital interest) in such enterprise. For purposes of the preceding sentence, interests held by the foundation on May 26, 1969, shall be deemed to include an interest to which section 4943(c)(5) applies and which has been acquired (on or before the date of distribution for the interest in question) from a person who was not a disqualified person on May 26, 1969. Therefore, if under the terms of a will in effect on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter, a private foundation is created on July 1, 1975, and receives 76 percent of the voting stock of a business enterprise on that date, such stock shall be treated as held by a disqualified person until June 30, 1990. Any interest to which section 4943(c)(5) applies but which is not entitled to a 15-year holding period shall be entitled to a 10-year holding period starting on the date of distribution. For purposes of this paragraph the date of distribution shall be deemed to occur no later than the date on which the trust or estate is considered to be terminated under § 1.641(b)-(3) of this chapter (Income Tax Regulations).

(2) Constructive ownership prior to date of distribution. To the extent that an interest to which section 4943(c)(5) applies is constructively held by a private foundation under section 4943(d)(1) and § 53.4943-8 prior to the date of distribution, it shall be treated as held by a disqualified person prior to such date by reason of section 4943(c)(5). In addition, in the case of a foundation's interest in a trust which was irrevocable on May 26, 1969, and to which both sections 4943 (c)(4) and (c)(5) apply, the first phase holding period for such interest shall end with whichever such period under section 4943(c) (4) or (5) ends later. For example, if under the terms of such a trust, 96 percent of the voting stock in a business enterprise was constructively held by a private foundation on May 26, 1969, and was distributed to such foundation on June 30, 1970, such interest is entitled to a 20-year holding period beginning on May 26, 1969.

(c) Permitted holdings—(1) In general. The permitted holdings of a private foundation which has an interest in a business enterprise to which section 4943(c)(5) applies shall be determined in accordance with the rules of paragraph (d) of § 53.4943-4. The levels referred to in such paragraph shall be adjusted to take into account the acquisition of such an interest as if it were treated as held by a disqualified person from May 26, 1969, until the date of acquisition. See also § 53.4943-6(b)(2) for the special rule for interests held by a private foundation at the time it acquires a section 4943(c)(5) interest from a nondisqualified person. Thus, for example, if on June 30, 1975, the disqualified person voting level and the substituted combined voting level in corporation X with respect to foundation F are 45 percent, and a nondisqualified person's 10 percent voting interest in X is acquired by F on July 1, 1975, in a transaction to which section 4943(c)(5) applies, the above-mentioned levels shall be increased to 55 and 50 percent respectively, on July 1, 1975. However, if such interest had been acquired from a person who was a disqualified person on May 26, 1969, rather than from a nondisqualified person, no adjustments in such levels would have taken place on July 1, 1975. In such a case, though, at the beginning of the second phase on July 1, 1985, the foundation voting level would be increased by 10 percent, and the disqualified person voting level decreased by 10 percent (assuming that none of the acquired stock had been disposed of prior to such date).

(2) Separate phases. The phases for each interest to which section 4943(c)(5) applies start independently from those for any other interest of the foundation in the same enterprise to which section 4943(c) (4) or (5) applies. Therefore, until an interest enters its own second phase, the 25 percent limit described in paragraph (d)(5) of § 53.4943-4 shall not apply to such interest since such interest (and any subsequently acquired section 4943(c)(5) interest in the first phase) is still treated as held by a disqualified person for purposes of that 25 percent limit. In addition, if such an interest enters its second phase and at such time all disqualified persons together do not have holdings in excess of 2 percent of the voting stock in the same business enterprise, then the 25 percent limit of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i) shall not then apply to such interest, even though such limit may have been applicable to an interest with an earlier second phase. Moreover, the 35 percent limit of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(ii) shall cause only interests which have entered the third phase to become excess business holdings, taking into account, however, interests in prior phases in determining the holdings subject to such limit.

(3) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples: (After each example is a chart setting forth the chronological changes in the various levels referred to in paragraph (d) of § 53.4943-4.)

Example 1. On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, owns no stock in M Corporation, and A, a disqualified person owns 40 percent of the voting stock (voting power and value) in M. A dies on May 1, 1971, leaving 30 percent of the voting stock in M to F and leaving the other 10 percent to a disqualified person. Distribution is made on June 1, 1972, and assume that section 4943(c)(5) applies. No transactions in the stock of M, other than those described in this example, occur. On May 26, 1969, the substituted combined voting level is 40 percent, the disqualified person voting level is deemed to be 40 percent, and the permitted holdings by F in M is deemed to be 0 percent (40%−40%). On May 1, 1971 (the date that F acquired the M stock by reason of its constructive ownership of A's estate), the various levels remain unchanged. On May 1, 1971, the 30 percent interest is treated as held by a disqualified person for a period extending through May 31, 1982. On June 1, 1981, F disposes of 6 percent of the voting stock to a nondisqualified person. The substituted combined voting level and the disqualified person voting level thereby are reduced to 34 percent (40%−6%) each. On June 1, 1982, at the beginning of the second phase, the foundation voting level increases to 24 percent (30%−6%) and the disqualified person voting level is reduced to 10 percent (34%−10%). The substituted combined voting level as of June 1, 1982, remains at 34 percent. The permitted holdings as of such date are 24 percent (34%−10%). If F had not disposed of any holdings prior to June 1, 1982, F's permitted holdings would have been 25 percent, the lesser of 25 percent (the limitation of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i)), or 30 percent (40%−10%). Since on such date the 30 percent interest would no longer have been treated as held by a disqualified person, F would have had excess business holdings of 5 percent (30%−25%).

Date | F owns (percent) | Interest treated as held by disqualified person (percent) | Disqualified persons own (percent) | Foundation voting level (percent) | Substituted combined voting level (percent) | Disqualified person voting level (percent) | Permitted holdings (percent) | Comments

May 26, 1969 | 0 | 0 | 40 | 0 | 40 | 40 | 0

May 1, 1971 | + 30 | + 30 | −30 | A dies.

Do | 30 | 30 | 10 | 0 | 40 | 40 | 0

June 1, 1972 | 30 | 30 | 10 | 0 | 40 | 40 | 0 | Distribution.

June 1, 1981 | −6 | −6 | −6 | −6 | F sells 6 pct.

Do | 24 | 24 | 10 | 0 | 34 | 34 | 0

June 1, 1982 | −24 | + 24 | −24 | + 24 | 2d phase begins.

Do | 24 | 0 | 10 | 24 | 34 | 10 | 24

Example 2. (i) On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, owns 30 percent of the voting stock of N Corporation (voting power and value) and disqualified persons own 20 percent of the voting stock of N Corporation. On May 1, 1971, B, a disqualified person, dies leaving 15 percent of the voting stock to F. Assume the distribution was made on June 1, 1972, and that section 4943(c)(5) applies. On May 26, 1969, the substituted combined voting level and the disqualified person voting levels are each 50 percent and the permitted holdings are 0 percent (50%−50%). On May 1, 1971, and June 1, 1972, these levels remain unchanged. On May 1, 1971, the 15 percent interest is treated as held by a disqualified person for a period extending through May 31, 1982.

(ii) On July 1, 1978, F sells 6 percent of the F stock to a nondisqualified person, thereby reducing the disqualified person voting level and the substituted combined voting level to 44 percent (50%−6%). On May 26, 1979, at the beginning of the second phase for F's 1969 holdings, the foundation voting level is 24 percent (30%−6%), the substituted combined voting level is still 44 percent, and the disqualified person voting level is 20 percent (44%−24%). The permitted holdings are 24 percent (44%−20%). In addition F's 24 percent holdings do not exceed the 25 percent limitation of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i) and paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of § 53.4943-4.

(iii) On August 1, 1981, F sells 16 percent of the N stock to a nondisqualified person, thereby reducing the foundation voting level to 8 percent (24%−16%), and reducing the substituted combined voting level to 28 percent (44%−16%). The disqualified person voting level remains at 20 percent. On June 1, 1982, at the beginning of the second phase for F's holdings acquired by will, the substituted combined voting level is still 28 percent, the foundation voting level is 23 percent (8% + 15%), the disqualified person voting level is 5 percent (20%−15%), and the permitted holdings are 23 percent (28%−5%).

(iv) If F had not disposed of the 6 percent on July 1, 1978, then on May 26, 1979, at the beginning of the second phase for F's 1969 holdings, F's permitted holdings would have been 25 percent, the lesser of 25 percent (the limitation of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i), or 30 percent (50%−20%). Since F's 30 percent interest would no longer have been treated as held by a disqualified person on May 26, 1979, F would have had excess business holdings of 5 percent (30%−25%). Similarly, if F had not disposed of the 16 percent interest on August 1, 1981 (but had disposed of the 6 percent interest), on July 1, 1982, at the beginning of the second phase for F's holdings acquired by will, F's permitted holdings would have been 25 percent, the lesser of 25 percent (under section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i)), or 39 percent (44%−5%). Since as of such date F's entire holdings of 39 percent would no longer have been treated as held by a disqualified person, F would have had excess business holdings of 14 percent (39%−25%).

Date | F owns (percent) | F's interest 1969 (percent) | F's interest 1971 (percent) | Interest treated as held by disqualified person (percent) | Disqualified persons own (percent) | Foundation voting level (percent) | Substituted combined voting level (percent) | Disqualified person voting level (percent) | Permitted holdings (percent) | Comments

May 26, 1969 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 20 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

May 1, 1971 | + 15 | + 15 | + 15 | −15 | B dies.

Do | 45 | 30 | 15 | 45 | 5 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

June 1, 1972 | 45 | 30 | 15 | 45 | 5 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0 | Distribution.

July 1, 1978 | −6 | −6 | −6 | −6 | −6 | F sells 6 pct.

Do | 39 | 24 | 15 | 39 | 5 | 0 | 44 | 44 | 0

May 16, 1979 | −24 | + 24 | −24 | + 24 | 2d phase for 24 pct.

Do | 39 | 24 | 15 | 15 | 5 | 24 | 44 | 20 | 24

Aug. 1, 1981 | −16 | −16 | −16 | −16 | −16 | F sells 16 pct.

D0 | 23 | 8 | 15 | 15 | 5 | 8 | 28 | 20 | 8

July 1, 1982 | −15 | + 15 | −15 | + 15 | All in 2d phase.

Do | 23 | 8 | 15 | 0 | 5 | 23 | 28 | 5 | 23

Example. (3). (i) On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation owns 5 percent of the voting stock of O Corporation (voting power and value), and disqualified persons own 45 percent of the voting stock. C, a disqualified person, dies on May 1, 1971, and leaves 41 percent of the voting stock of O to F. Assume that distribution is made on June 1, 1972, and that section 4943(c)(5) applies. On May 26, 1969, the substituted combined voting level and the disqualified person voting level are 50 percent and the permitted holdings are 0 percent (50%−50%). On May 1, 1971, and June 1, 1972, the various levels remain unchanged. On May 1, 1971, the 41 percent interest is treated as held by a disqualified person for a period extending through May 31, 1982. On May 26, 1979, at the beginning of the second phase for F's 1969 holdings of 5 percent, the 5 percent is no longer treated as held by a disqualified person, the foundation voting level is 5 percent, the disqualified person voting level is reduced to 45 percent (50%−5%), and the substituted combined voting level remains at 50 percent. On such date F's permitted holdings are 5 percent (50%−45%). Since the 41 percent interest is treated as held by a disqualified person, the interest treated as held by F (5%) does not exceed the 25 percent limitation of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i).

(ii) On August 1, 1981, F sells 22 percent of the O stock to a nondisqualified person, thereby reducing the foundation voting level to 0 percent. Since the reductions are first applied to the 1969 holdings of 5 percent, 17 percent (22%−5%) applies to the 41 percent interest, reducing such interest to 24 percent (41%−17%), and reducing the disqualified person voting level to 28 percent (45%−17%). The substituted combined voting level is reduced to 28 percent (0% + 28%). On June 1, 1982, at the beginning of the second phase for F's holdings acquired by will, the substituted combined voting level remains at 28 percent, the foundation voting level is 24 percent, the disqualified person voting level is reduced to 4 percent (28%−4%).

(iii) If F had not disposed of the 22 percent interest prior to June 1, 1982, F's permitted holdings would have been 25 percent, the lesser of 25 percent, (under section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i)), or 46 percent (50%−4%). Since as of such date, F's entire holdings of 46 percent would no longer have been treated as held by a disqualified person, F would have had excess business holdings of 21 percent (46%−25%).

Date | F owns (percent) | F's interest 1969 (percent) | F's interest 1971 (percent) | Interest treated as held by disqualified person (percent) | Disqualified persons own (percent) | Foundation voting level (percent) | Substituted combined voting level (percent) | Disqualified person voting level (percent) | Permitted holdings (percent) | Comments

May 26, 1969 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 45 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

May 1, 1971 | + 41 | + 41 | + 41 | −41 | C dies.

Do | 46 | 5 | 41 | 46 | 4 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

June 1, 1972 | 46 | 5 | 41 | 46 | 4 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0 | Distribution.

May 26, 1979 | −5 | + 5 | −5 | + 5 | 2d phase for 5 pct.

Do | 46 | 5 | 41 | 41 | 4 | 5 | 50 | 45 | 5

Aug. 1, 1981 | −22 | −5 | −17 | −17 | −5 | −22 | −17 | −5 | F sells 22 pct.

Do | 24 | 0 | 24 | 24 | 4 | 0 | 28 | 28 | 0

June 1, 1982 | −24 | + 24 | −24 | + 24 | 2d phase for 24 pct.

Do | 24 | 0 | 24 | 0 | 4 | 24 | 28 | 4 | 24

Example 4. (i) On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, owns 30 percent of the voting stock in P Corporation (voting power and value), and disqualified persons own 20 percent. On May 1, 1971, D, a disqualified person, dies leaving 18 percent of the voting stock to F. Assume that distribution was made on June 1, 1972, and that section 4943 (c)(5) applies. On May 26, 1969, the substituted combined voting level and the disqualified person voting level are each 50 percent and the permitted holdings are 0 percent (50%−50%). On May 1, 1971, and June 1, 1972, these levels remain unchanged. On May 1, 1971, the 18 percent interest is treated as held by a disqualified person for a period extending through May 31, 1982. On May 26, 1979, the foundation voting level increases to 30 percent, the disqualified person voting level decreases to 20 percent (50%−30%), and the permitted holdings are 30 percent (50%−20%). On June 1, 1982, the foundation voting level increases to 48 percent, the disqualified person voting level decreases to 2 percent and the permitted holdings are 48 percent (50%−2%). Since at no time during the second phase for F's 1969 holdings did all disqualified persons together have holdings in excess of 2 percent of the voting stock of P, the 25 percent limitation of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i) did not apply to F's 1969 holdings.

(ii) On July 1, 1993, F disposes of 16 percent of the stock in P, thereby reducing the substituted combined voting level to 34 percent (50%−16%), and reducing the permitted holdings to 32 percent (34%−2%). If F had not disposed of the 16 percent of the stock of P prior to May 26, 1994, on such date, under section 4943(c)(4)(D)(ii), F's substituted combined voting level for its 1969 holdings would have been 35 percent, and the permitted holdings would have been 33 percent (35%−2%). Since none of F's holdings of 48 percent would have been treated as held by a disqualified person on such date (the beginning of the third phase for F's 1969 holdings), F would have had excess business holdings of 15 percent, the lesser of 30 percent (F's 1969 holdings in the third phase), of 15 percent (the excess of F's 48 percent holdings over the permitted holdings of 33 percent).

Date | F owns (percent) | F's interest 1969 (percent) | F's interest 1971 (percent) | Interest treated as held by disqualified person (percent) | Disqualified persons own (percent) | Foundation voting level (percent) | Substituted combined voting level (percent) | Disqualified person voting level (percent) | Permitted holdings (percent) | Comments

May 26, 1969 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 20 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

May 1, 1971 | + 18 | + 18 | + 18 | −18 | D dies.

Do | 48 | 30 | 18 | 48 | 2 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

June 1, 1972 | 48 | 30 | 18 | 48 | 2 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0 | Distribution.

May 26, 1979 | −30 | + 30 | −30 | + 30 | 2d phase for 30 pct.

Do | 48 | 30 | 18 | 18 | 2 | 30 | 50 | 20 | 30

June 1, 1982 | −18 | + 18 | −18 | + 18 | 2d phase for 18 pct.

Do | 48 | 30 | 18 | 0 | 2 | 48 | 50 | 2 | 48

July 1, 1993 | −16 | −16 | −16 | −16 | −16 | F disposes of 16 pct.

Do | 32 | 14 | 18 | 0 | 2 | 32 | 34 | 2 | 32

May 26, 1994 | 32 | 14 | 18 | 0 | 2 | 32 | 34 | 2 | 32 | 3d phase for 14 pct.

June 1, 1997 | 32 | 14 | 18 | 0 | 2 | 32 | 34 | 2 | 32 | 3d phase for 18 pct.

Example 5. (i) On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, owns 5 percent of the voting stock in Q Corporation (voting power and value), and disqualified persons own 45 percent. On May 1, 1971, E, a disqualified person, dies leaving 43 percent of the voting stock to F. Assume that distribution was made on June 2, 1972, and that section 4943(c)(5) applies. On May 26, 1969, the substituted combined voting level and the disqualified person voting level are each 50 percent and the permitted holdings are 0 percent (50%−50%). On May 1, 1971, and June 1, 1972, these levels remain unchanged. On May 1, 1971, the 43 percent interest is treated as held by a disqualified person for a period extending through May 31, 1982. On May 26, 1979, the foundation voting level increases to 5 percent, the disqualified person voting level decreases to 45 percent, and the permitted holdings are 5 percent (50%−45%). On June 1, 1982, the foundation voting level increases to 48 percent, the disqualified person voting level decreases to 2 percent, and the permitted holdings are 48 percent (50%−2%). At no time during the second phase for F's 1969 holdings did all disqualified persons together have holdings in excess of 2 percent of the voting stock of Q. Therefore, the 25 percent limitation of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i) did not apply.

(ii) On July 1, 1993, F sells 6 percent of the stock in Q to a nondisqualified person. This reduces the substituted combined voting level to 44 percent and reduces the permitted holdings to 42 percent (44%−2%). If F had not disposed of the 6 percent of the stock in 1993, on May 26, 1994, at the beginning of the third phase for F's 1969 holdings, F would have had 5 percent excess business holdings. The excess business holdings are 5 percent because although the excess business holdings computed for the third phase are 15 percent (the excess of F's actual holdings (48%) over the permitted holdings of 33 percent (35%−2%)), only 5 percent of the holdings are in this phase and subject to the 35 percent combined holdings limitation.

(iii) On July 1, 1995, F sells 10 percent of the stock in Q, thereby reducing the substituted combined voting level to 34 percent and reducing the permitted holdings to 32 percent (34%−2%). If F had not disposed of the 10 percent of the stock, on June 1, 1997, at the beginning of the third phase for F's acquired holdings, F would have had 9 percent excess business holdings (the excess of F's total holdings in the third phase (42%) over the permitted holdings of 33 percent (35%−2%)).

Date | F's owns (percent) | F's interest 1969 (percent) | F's interest 1971 (percent) | Interest treated as held by disqualified person (percent) | Disqualified persons own (percent) | Foundation voting level (percent) | Substituted combined voting level (percent) | Disqualified person voting level (percent) | Permitted holdings (percent) | Comments

May 26, 1969 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 45 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

May 1, 1971 | + 43 | + 43 | + 43 | −43 | E dies.

Do | 48 | 5 | 43 | 48 | 2 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

June 1, 1972 | 48 | 5 | 43 | 48 | 2 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0 | Distribution.

May 26, 1979 | −5 | + 5 | −5 | + 5 | 2d phase for 5 pct

Do | 48 | 5 | 43 | 43 | 2 | 5 | 50 | 45 | 5

June 1, 1982 | −43 | + 43 | −43 | + 43 | 2d phase for 43 pct.

Do | 48 | 5 | 43 | 0 | 2 | 48 | 50 | 2 | 43

July 1, 1993 | −6 | −5 | −1 | −6 | −6 | −6 | F sells 6 pct.

Do | 42 | 0 | 42 | 0 | 2 | 42 | 44 | 2 | 42

July 1, 1995 | −10 | −10 | −10 | −10 | −10 | F sells 10 pct.

Do | 32 | 0 | 32 | 0 | 2 | 32 | 34 | 2 | 32

June 1, 1997 | 32 | 0 | 32 | 0 | 2 | 32 | 34 | 2 | 32 | 3d phase for 32 pct.

Example 6. (i) On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, owns 30 percent of the voting stock in R Corporation (voting power and value), and disqualified persons own 20 percent. On August 1, 1978, F disposes of 6 percent of the stock to a nondisqualified person. On May 1, 1981, G, a disqualified person, dies leaving 15 percent of the voting stock to F. Assume that distribution was made on June 1, 1982, and that section 4943(c)(5) applies. On May 26, 1969, the substituted combined voting level and the disqualified person voting level are each 50 percent, and the permitted holdings are 0 percent (50%−50%). On August 1, 1978, these levels decrease to 44 percent (50%−6%). On May 26, 1979, the foundation voting level increases to 24 percent (30%−6%), the disqualified person voting level decreases to 20 percent (44%−24%), and the permitted holdings are 24 percent (44%−20%). If F had not disposed of the 6 percent of the stock prior to May 26, 1979, on May 26, 1979, the beginning of the second phase for F's 1969 holdings, F's permitted holdings would have been 25 percent, the lesser of 25 percent (under section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i)) or 30 percent (50%−20%). Since the 30 percent interest would no longer have been treated as held by a disqualified person on such date, F would have had excess business holdings of 5 percent (30%−25%).

(ii) On May 1, 1981, and June 1, 1982 (assuming F had disposed of the 6 percent holdings), the foundation voting level, the disqualified person voting level, the substituted combined voting level and permitted holdings remain respectively 24 percent, 20 percent, 44 percent and 24 percent. On May 1, 1981, the 15 percent interest is treated as held by a disqualified person for a period extending through May 31, 1992. On July 1, 1991, F sells 16 percent of the voting stock in R to a nondisqualified person, thereby reducing the substituted combined voting level to 28 percent (44%−16%), and reducing the foundation voting level to 8 percent (24%−16%). The disqualified person voting level remains at 20 percent. On June 1, 1992, at the beginning of the second phase for F's holdings acquired by will, the substituted combined voting level remains at 28 percent, the foundation voting level increases to 23 percent (8% + 15%) and the disqualified person voting level decreases to 5 percent (20%−15%). The permitted holdings on such date are 23 percent (28%−5%). If F had not disposed of the 16 percent interest prior to June 1, 1992, F's permitted holdings would have been 25 percent, the lesser of 25 percent (under section 4943 (c)(4)(D)(i)) or 39 percent (44%−5%). Since as of such date, F's entire holdings of 39 percent would no longer have been treated as held by a disqualified person, F would have had excess business holdings of 14 percent (39%−25%).

Date | F's owns (percent) | F's interest 1969 (percent) | F's interest 1981 (percent) | Interest treated as held by disqualified person (percent) | Disqualified persons own (percent) | Foundation voting level (percent) | Substituted combined voting level (percent) | Disqualified person voting level (percent) | Permitted holdings (percent) | Comments

May 26, 1969 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 20 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

Aug. 1, 1978 | −6 | −6 | −6 | −6 | −6 | F disposes of 6 pct.

Do | 24 | 24 | 24 | 20 | 0 | 44 | 44 | 0

May 26, 1979 | −24 | + 24 | −24 | + 24 | 2d phase for 24 pct.

Do | 24 | 24 | 0 | 20 | 24 | 44 | 20 | 24

May 1, 1981 | + 15 | + 15 | + 15 | −15 | G dies.

Do | 39 | 24 | 15 | 15 | 5 | 24 | 44 | 20 | 24

June 1, 1982 | 39 | 24 | 15 | 15 | 5 | 24 | 44 | 20 | 24 | Distribution.

July 1, 1991 | −16 | −16 | −16 | −16 | −16 | F disposes of 16 pct.

Do | 23 | 8 | 15 | 15 | 5 | 8 | 28 | 20 | 8

June 1, 1992 | −15 | + 15 | −15 | + 15 | 2d phase for 15 pct.

Do | 23 | 8 | 15 | 0 | 5 | 23 | 28 | 5 | 23

Example 7. (i) On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, owns 5 percent of the voting stock in S Corporation (voting power and value), and disqualified persons own 45 percent. On May 1, 1980, H, a disqualified person, dies leaving 41 percent of the voting stock to F. Assume that distribution is made on June 1, 1981, and that section 4943(c)(5) applies. On May 26, 1969, the substituted combined voting level and disqualified person voting levels are each 50 percent. On May 26, 1979, the disqualified person voting level decreases to 45 percent, the foundation voting level increases to 5 percent, and the permitted holdings are 5 percent (50%−45%). On May 1, 1980, and June 1, 1981, the levels remain the same. Since the 41 percent holdings are treated as held by a disqualified person for the period beginning on May 1, 1980, and extending through May 31, 1991, F's remaining holdings of 5 percent do not exceed the 25 percent limitation of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i).

(ii) On August 1, 1990, F sells 22 percent of the voting stock of S to a nondisqualified person, reducing the 5 percent foundation voting level to zero, leaving 17 percent (22%−5%) to reduce the disqualified person voting level to 28 percent (45%−17%) so that the substituted combined voting level equals 28 percent (50%−22%). On June 1, 1991, the beginning of the second phase for the remaining 24 percent (41%−17%) of F's holdings acquired by will, the foundation voting level increases from zero to 24 percent, the disqualified person voting level decreases to 4 percent (28%−24%), the substituted combined voting level remains at 28 percent, and the permitted holdings equal 24 percent (28%−4%).

(iii) If F had not disposed of the 22 percent holdings prior to June 1, 1991, F's permitted holdings would have been 25 percent, the lesser of 25 percent (under section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i)) or 46 percent (50%−4%). Since as of such date, F's entire holdings of 46 percent would no longer have been treated as held by a disqualified person, F would have had excess business holdings of 21 percent (46%−25%).

Date | F owns (percent) | F's interest 1969 (percent) | F's interest 1980 (percent) | Interest treated as held by disqualified person (percent) | Disqualified persons own (percent) | Foundation voting level (percent) | Substituted combined voting level (percent) | Disqualified person voting level (percent) | Permitted holdings (percent | Comments

May 26, 1969 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 45 | 0 | 50 | 50 | 0

Do | −5 | + 5 | −5 | + 5 | 2d phase for 5 pct.

May 26, 1969 | 5 | 5 | 0 | 45 | 5 | 50 | 45 | 5

May 1, 1980 | + 41 | + 41 | + 41 | −41 | H dies.

Do | 46 | 5 | 41 | 41 | 4 | 5 | 50 | 45 | 5

June 1, 1981 | 46 | 5 | 41 | 41 | 4 | 5 | 50 | 45 | 5 | Distribution.

Aug. 1, 1990 | −22 | −5 | −17 | −17 | −5 | −22 | −17 | −5 | F disposes of 22 pct.

Do | 24 | 0 | 24 | 24 | 4 | 0 | 28 | 28 | 0

June 1, 1991 | −24 | + 24 | −24 | + 24 | 2d phase for 24 pct.

Do | 24 | 0 | 24 | 0 | 4 | 24 | 28 | 4 | 24

§ 53.4943-6 Five-year period to dispose of gifts, bequests, etc.

(a) In general—(1) Application. (i) Paragraph (6) of section 4943(c) prescribes transition rules for a private foundation, which, but for such paragraph, would have excess business holdings as a result of a change in the holdings in a business enterprise after May 26, 1969 (other than by purchase by such private foundation or by a disqualified person) to the extent that section 4943(c)(5) (relating to certain holdings acquired under a pre-May 27, 1969, will on trust) does not apply.

(ii) Subparagraph (A) of section 4943(c)(6) applies where, immediately prior to a change in holdings described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the foundation has no excess business holdings in such enterprise (determined without regard to section 4943(c) (4), (5), or (6)). In such a case, the entire interest of the foundation in such enterprise (immediately after such change) shall (while held by the foundation) be treated as held by a disqualified person (rather than by the foundation) during the five-year period beginning on the date of such change.

(iii) Subparagraph (B) of section 4943(c)(6) applies where the foundation has excess business holdings in such enterprise (determined without regard to section 4943(c) (4), (5), or (6)) immediately prior to a change in holdings described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. In such a case, the interest of the foundation in such enterprise (immediately after such change) shall (while held by the foundation) be treated as held by a disqualified person (rather than the foundation) during the five-year period beginning on the date of such change, except that if and as soon as any holdings in such enterprise become excess business holdings during such period (determined without regard to such change (and the resulting application of section 4943(c)(6) to the foundation's interest in such enterprise)), such holdings shall no longer be treated as held by a disqualified person under this section, but shall constitute excess business holdings subject to the initial tax. In applying the preceding sentence, if holdings of the foundation which (but for such change in holdings (and the resulting application of section 4943(c)(6) to the foundation's interest in such enterprise)) would be subject to the 25 percent limit prescribed by section 4943(c)(4)(D) after the expiration of the first phase, such holdings shall be treated as subject to such percentage limitation for purposes of determining excess business holdings. For example, if a private foundation in 1978 has present holdings of 28 percent in a business enterprise to which section 4943(c)(4) applies, and such holdings would exceed the 25 percent limit of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i) on May 26, 1979, a gift of 5 percent to the foundation in 1978 of an interest in such enterprise shall not prevent the 3 percent (28%−25%) excess over the 25 percent limit from constituting excess business holdings on May 26, 1979, if on such date disqualified persons hold more than a 2 percent interest in such enterprise (and no other transaction has taken place).

(2) Acquisitions that are not purchases. Section 4943(c)(6) does not apply if a change in holdings in a business enterprise is the result of a purchase by the private foundation or a disqualified person. For purposes of subparagraph (a) of this paragraph, the term “purchase” shall not include any acquisition by gift, devise, bequest, legacy, or interstate succession. Paragraph (d) of this section provides rules for the treatment of increases in holdings received in a readjustment (as defined in § 53.4943-7(d)(1)).

(3) Examples. The provisions of paragraph (a) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On January 4, 1985, A, an individual, makes a contribution to F, a private foundation, of 200 shares of X Corporation common stock. Assume that F had no X stock before January 4, 1985, and under section 4943(c)(1) the receipt of the X stock by F would cause some or all of the 200 shares of the X stock to be classified as excess business holdings. Under the provisions of section 4943(c)(6)(A) and this paragraph (a), since the contribution of the X stock to F is a gift and not a purchase, the X stock in F's hands is treated as held by disqualified persons and not by F through January 3, 1990.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1) except that F receives the X stock as a bequest pursuant to the terms of A's will executed on April 1, 1980. A dies on June 3, 1984, and the stock is distributed to F on February 16, 1985. As in Example (1), the bequest of X to F is not a purchase under this paragraph (a). Consequently, the X stock in F's hands is treated as held by disqualified persons and not by F through February 15, 1990.

Example 3.On February 1, 1980, F, a private foundation, owns 15 percent of the voting stock of X Corporation, and disqualified persons own 4 percent of the voting stock of X Corporation. On February 2, 1980, B, a nondisqualified person, contributes 8 percent of the voting stock of X to F in a transaction to which section 4943(c)(5) does not apply. Assuming that the 35 percent limit of section 4943(c)(2)(B) does not apply, under the provisions of section 4943(c)(6)(A) and paragraph (a) of this section the 23 percent voting stock owned by F on such date is treated as held by a disqualified person through February 1, 1985, since F would have had excess business holdings of 7 percent as a result of the contribution (23% actual holdings less 16% (20%−4%) permitted holdings). On March 1, 1984, C, another nondisqualified person, contributes 6 percent of the voting stock of X Corporation to F. But for this second contribution and the resulting application of section 4943(c)(6) to F's interest in X, F would have excess business holdings of 7 percent (23%−16%) within the five-year period beginning on the date of such contribution. Accordingly, under section 4943(c)(6)(B) and paragraph (a) of this section, all 29 percent (6% + 23%) of the stock held by F on March 1, 1984, will be treated as held by a disqualified person until March 1, 1989, except that 7 percent will cease to be so treated on February 2, 1985. If prior to February 2, 1985, no further transactions occurred in the stock of X, F would have excess business holdings of 7 percent subject to the initial tax, since the amount still treated as held by disqualified persons (29%−7%) plus the amount actually held by disqualified persons (4%) already exceed 20 percent.

(b) Special rules for acquisitions by will or trust—(1) In general. In the case of an acquisition of holdings in a business enterprise by a private foundation pursuant to the terms of a will or trust, the five-year period described in section 4943(c)(6) and in this section shall not commence until the date on which the distribution of such holdings from the estate or trust to the foundation occurs. See § 53.4943-5(b)(1) for rules relating to the determination of the date of distribution under the terms of a will or trust. For purposes of this subparagraph, holdings in a business enterprise will not be treated as acquired by a private foundation pursuant to the terms of a will where the holdings in the business enterprise were not held by the decedent. Thus, in the case of after-acquired property, this subparagraph shall not apply, the five-year period described in section 4943(c)(6) and this section shall commence on the date of acquisition of such holdings by the estate, and such five-year period may expire prior to the date of distribution of such holdings from the estate. To the extent that an interest to which section 4943(c)(6) and this paragraph (b)(1) apply is constructively held by a private foundation under section 4943(d)(1) and § 53.4943-8 prior to the date of distribution, it shall be treated as held by a disqualified person prior to such date by reason of section 4943(c)(6). See § 53.4943-8 for rules relating to constructive holdings held in an estate or trust for the benefit of the foundation.

(2) Special rule for section 4943(c)(5) interests acquired from a nondisqualified person. (i) In the case of holdings of a private foundation in a business enterprise to which section 4943(c)(5) (relating to certain holdings acquired under a pre-May 27, 1969, will or trust) applies which are acquired from a nondisqualified person, the interest of the foundation in such enterprise (immediately after such acquisition) shall (while held by the foundation) be treated as held by a disqualified person (rather than the foundation) under section 4943(c)(6)(B) and paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section from the date of acquisition until the end of the fifth year following the date of distribution of such holdings. Thereafter, only the holdings to which section 4943(c)(5) and § 53.4943-5(a)(1) apply shall continue to be treated as held by a disqualified person until the end of the first phase with respect thereto.

(ii) The provisions of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, owns 5 percent of the voting stock of Corporation X and no disqualified persons own any stock in X. On June 30, 1977, a nondisqualified person bequeaths to F 33 percent of the voting stock in X to which section 4943(c)(5) applies. This 33 percent interest is distributed to F on August 17, 1978. Under section 4943(c)(6)(A) the entire 38 percent (5% + 33%) of the X voting stock shall be treated as held by a disqualified person from June 30, 1977 (the date the 33 percent interest is constructively acquired by F) until August 17, 1983 (five years after the date of distribution of the 33 percent interest to F). However, assuming that the 35 percent limit of section 4943(c)(2)(B) does not apply, the substituted combined voting level on June 30, 1977 is only 33 percent because there was no interest to which section 4943(c) (4) or (5) applied immediately before that date and thus there was no substituted combined voting level at that time. In that case, since the 3-phase holding period is only available for the interest acquired by will (33%) under section 4943(c)(5), the substituted combined voting level on June 30, 1977 is only 33 percent, not 38 percent. Assuming that the substituted combined voting level remains 33 percent at all relevant times, and prior to August 17, 1983, no further transactions occur in the stock of X, F on that date would have excess business holdings of 5 percent subject to the initial tax. The amount treated as held by disqualified persons at that time (33%) would equal the substituted combined voting level at that time (33%), and thus permitted holdings would be zero. Under section 4943(c)(5) the 33 percent interest will continue to be treated as held by a disqualified person until August 17, 1988 (10 years after the date of distribution).

Example 2.On May 26, 1969, F, a private foundation, owns 29 percent of the stock (voting power and value) of Corporation X, and on June 30, 1977, a nondisqualified person bequeaths to F 23 percent of the stock (voting power and value) in X to which section 4943(c)(5) does apply. This 23 percent interest is distributed to F on August 17, 1978. Disqualified persons hold no stock of X. Although the substituted combined voting and value levels cannot exceed 50 percent on May 26, 1979 (at the start of the second phase with respect to the 29 percent interest), under section 4943(c)(6)(B) the entire 52 percent (29% + 23%) of the X voting stock shall be treated as held by a disqualified person from June 30, 1977 (the date the 23% interest is constructively acquired by F) until August 17, 1983 (five years after the date of distribution of the 23% interest to F). On June 1, 1980, during such second phase, D, a disqualified person, purchases 3 percent of the X stock (voting power and value). On such date, but for the acquisition by F of the 23 percent interest, F would have had excess business holdings of 4 percent. The purchase by D of more than 2 percent of the voting stock of X causes the 25 percent limit of section 4943(c)(4)(D)(i) to apply to the 29 percent interest (29% − 25% = 4%). Thus, on June 1, 1980, 4 percent of the X voting stock held by F since May 27, 1969, shall cease to be treated as held by a disqualified person under section 4943(c)(6)(B) and become excess business holdings subject to the initial tax. See § 53.4943-2(a)(1)(ii) for the 90-day period in which to dispose of these excess business holdings resulting from the purchase by the disqualified person.

(c) Exceptions. (1) Section 4943(c)(6) and this section shall not apply to any transfer of holdings in a business enterprise by one private foundation to another private foundation which is related to the first foundation within the meaning of section 4946(a)(1)(H).

(2) Section 4943(c)(6) and this section shall not apply to an increase in the holdings of a private foundation in a business enterprise that is part of a plan whereby disqualified persons will purchase additional holdings in the same enterprise during the five-year period beginning on the date of such change, e.g., to maintain control of such enterprise, since such increase shall be treated as caused in part by the purchase of such additional holdings.

(3) The purchase of holdings by an entity whose holdings are treated as constructively owned by a foundation, its disqualified persons, or both, under section 4943(d)(1) shall be treated as a purchase by a disqualified person if the foundation, its disqualified persons or both have effective control of the entity or otherwise can control the purchase. For example, if a foundation is the beneficiary of a specific bequest of $20,000 and its consent is required for the estate to make a purchase using such cash, then a purchase by the estate using such cash would be treated as a purchase by a disqualified person. Similarly, if an executor of an estate is a disqualified person with respect to a private foundation, any purchase by the estate would be treated as a purchase by a disqualified person.

(4) If a private foundation, its disqualified persons, or both, hold an interest in specific property under the terms of a will or trust, and if the private foundation, its disqualified persons, or both, consent or otherwise agree to the substitution of holdings in a business enterprise for such specific property, such holdings shall be treated as acquired by purchase by a disqualified person. For example, if a private foundation is the beneficiary of a specific bequest of $20,000 and the private foundation agrees to accept certain of the estate's holdings in a business enterprise in satisfaction of such specific bequest, such holdings will be treated as acquired by purchase by a disqualified person even if such holdings were held by the decedent.

(d) Readjustments and distributions—(1) General rule. Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, any increase in holdings in a business enterprise that is the result of a readjustment (as defined in § 53.4943-7(d)(1)) shall be treated as acquired other than by purchase. However, holdings that are attributable to holdings owned by the private foundation that would have been excess business holdings except for the fact that such holdings were treated as held by a disqualified person prior to the readjustment shall in no event be treated as held by a disqualified person after the date on which the holdings to which the change is attributable would have ceased to be treated as held by a disqualified person.

(2) Exceptions. Any increase in holdings in a business enterprise that is the result of a readjustment (as defined in § 53.4943-7(d)(1)), including any change resulting from application of the rule in § 53.4943-8(c)(3), shall be treated as occurring by purchase by a disqualified person:

(i) To the extent the increase is attributable to holdings that were excess business holdings prior to the readjustment, and separately

(ii) To the full extent of the increase if the readjustment includes a prohibited transaction, unless the foundation establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that effective control of all parties to the transaction was, at the time of the transaction, in one or more persons (other than the foundation) who are not disqualified persons with respect to the foundation. See § 53.4943-7(d)(2) for the definition of prohibited transaction.

(3) Section 4943(c)(6) holdings. If, immediately prior to a readjustment (as defined in § 53.4943-7(d)(1)), a private foundation has holdings in a business enterprise that are treated under section 4943(c)(6) as held by a disqualified person, then any holdings in a business enterprise that are received in the readjustment in exchange for such section 4943(c)(6) holdings shall be treated as the holdings surrendered in the exchange to the same extent as provided in § 53.4943-7 with respect to exchanges involving holdings to which section 4943(c) (4) or (5) applies. Rules similar to those in § 53.4943-7(a)(2) shall be applied to determine when holdings are treated as surrendered or received in a readjustment for purposes of this paragraph.

(4) Redemption by a corporation that is a disqualified person. If a foundation holds an interest in a corporation that is a disqualified person, an increase in the holdings of the private foundation, its disqualified person, or both, as a result of a redemption or a purchase of stock of the disqualified person corporation by such corporation shall not be treated as acquired by purchase by a disqualified person based solely on the status of the corporation as a disqualified person.

(5) One percent rule for redemptions. If the holdings of a foundation, its disqualified persons, or both, in a business enterprise are increased as a result of one or more redemptions during any taxable year then, unless the aggregate of such increases equals or exceeds one percent of the outstanding voting stock or one percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock, the determination of whether such increases cause the foundation to have excess business holdings shall be made only at the close of the private foundation's taxable year. The five-year period described in section 4943(c)(6) or the 90-day period described in § 53.4943-2(a)(1)(ii), whichever is applicable, shall begin on the last day of such taxable year. If, however, the aggregate of such increases equals or exceeds one percent of the outstanding voting stock or one percent of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock, the determination of whether such increases cause the foundation to have excess business holdings shall be made, and the applicable five-year or 90-day period shall begin, as of the date the increases, in the aggregate, equal or exceed one percent.

(6) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph are illustrated in § 53.4943-7(f) and by the following examples:

Example 1. (i) F, a private foundation, holds 20% of the voting stock of X corporation, an active business enterprise. No disqualified person with respect to F holds any X stock. In 1980, X redeems 10% of its outstanding shares, increasing F's holdings to 22% of the X stock. Assume the redemption by X is not a prohibited transaction.

(ii) All of F's holdings before the redemption are permitted holdings under section 4943(c)(2). There is no effective control of X by third parties so the 35% permitted holdings rule is inapplicable. F's holdings after the redemption exceed the permitted holdings under section 4943 (c)(2) (20%). Because the increase is attributable to stock that was permitted holdings prior to the readjustment, and the readjustment does not involve a prohibited transaction, the 2% increase in F's holdings of X stock is treated as acquired other than by purchase. Therefore, under section 4943(c)(6) and this section, F will have 5 years from the date of the redemption to dispose of the 2% excess.

Example 2. (i) Assume the same facts as in Example (1) except that the 20% of X stock held by F was donated by X corporation, was worth more than $5,000 and represented 20% of the contributions received by the foundation through the end of the taxable year in which the gift of stock was made.

(ii) X corporation is a disqualified person with respect to F under section 4946(a)(1)(A). Under subparagraph (4), the redemption of X stock is not treated as a purchase by a disqualified person merely because X is a disqualified person with respect to F. Therefore the rules of this paragraph apply as if the redemption were made by a corporation which is not a disqualified person. The analysis and result are the same as in Example (1).

Example 3. (i) On May 1, 1990, F, a private foundation, received a donation of 40% of the stock of X corporation, a business enterprise. Neither F nor any disqualified person with respect to F holds any other interest in X. On June 1, 1992, the X corporation redeemed F's 40% interest in exchange for 100% of the stock of Y corporation, a wholly-owned subsidiary of X. Assume the redemption by X is not a prohibited transaction.

(ii) Under section 4943(c)(6), the X stock acquired by gift is treated as held by disqualified persons through April 30, 1995. Under subparagraph (3) of this paragraph (d), 40% of the 100% interest in Y received in exchange for F's 40% interest in X is treated as F's 40% interest in X and is therefore treated as held by disqualified persons through April 30, 1995. In addition, under subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (d), the 60% interest in Y that represents an increase in holdings above the 40% held before the readjustment will be treated as acquired other than by purchase. However, F's 20% interest in X in excess of 20% permitted holdings under 4943(c)(2) would have been excess business holdings if such interest had not been treated as held by as disqualified person on June 1, 1992. Therefore, to the extent of a 30% interest in Y, (i.e. , the portion of the increased holdings in Y attributable to F's 20% holdings in X) the increased holdings will be treated as held by disqualified person only through April 30, 1995, since this is the latest date on which F's original 40% interest in X would have been treated as held by disqualified persons. The remaining 30% interest in Y will be treated as held by disqualified persons for five years from the date of the exchange (through May 31, 1997).

(e) Constructive holdings. Any change in holdings in a business enterprise that occurs because a corporation ceases to be actively engaged in a trade or business, thus causing its holdings to be constructively owned by its shareholders, shall be treated as acquired other than by purchase.

(f) Certain transactions treated as purchases; cross references. For the application of section 4943(c)(6) to holdings that were not an interest in a business enterprise when acquired but that subsequently become holdings in a business enterprise, see § 53.4943-10(d)(2).

[T.D. 7496, 42 FR 46285, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by T.D. 7944, 49 FR 6479, Feb. 22, 1984]

§ 53.4943-7 Special rules for readjustments involving grandfathered holdings.

(a) General rules—(1) Readjustments. Except to the extent provided in paragraph (b) of this section, if a private foundation, its disqualified persons, or both together have holdings in a corporation to which section 4943(c) (4) or (5) applies, stock of a corporation received by the foundation, its disqualified persons, or both together in a readjustment (as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section) in exchange for such holdings to which section 4943 (c) (4) or (5) applies shall be treated, for purposes of section 4943 (c) (4) or (5), as the stock surrendered in the exchange.

(2) No exchange necessary. Paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall apply to all readjustments even if no exchange occurs. For purposes of this section, all stock held (directly or indirectly) before a readjustment in any corporation involved in the readjustment shall be treated as stock surrendered in the readjustment and all stock held (directly or indirectly) after the readjustment in any corporation involved in the readjustment shall be treated as stock received in the readjustment in exchange for the stock treated as surrendered.

(b) Exceptions and limitations—(1) Limitation on increases in percentage of voting stock. (i) If the percentage of voting stock in a business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by a private foundation by reason of its ownership of stock received in an exchange described in paragraph (a) of this section exceeds the greatest percentage of voting stock in any business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by the private foundation prior to such exchange by reason of its ownership of the stock surrendered by it in the exchange, then:

(A) That portion of the stock received by the private foundation in the exchange which represents such excess is to be treated as an increase in the holdings of the private foundation in accordance with § 53.4943-6 (d), and

(B) Only the remaining portion of the stock received by the private foundation in the exchange shall be treated as the stock surrendered by the private foundation in the exchange.

(ii) If the sum of the percentage of voting stock in a business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by disqualified persons by reason of their ownership of stock received in an exchange described in paragraph (a) of this section plus the percentage of voting stock in the business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by the private foundation by reason of its ownership of stock received in the exchange and treated as the stock surrendered under paragraph (b) (1) (i) of this section exceeds the greatest percentage of voting stock in any business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by the private foundation and its disqualified person in combination by reason of their ownership of the stock surrendered by them in the exchange, then:

(A) That portion of the stock received by the disqualified persons in the exchange which represents such excess is to be treated as an increase in the holdings of the disqualified persons in accordance with § 53.4943-6(d), and

(B) Only the remaining portion of the stock received by the disqualified persons in the exchange is to be treated as the stock surrendered by the disqualified persons in the exchange.

(2) Limitation on increase in percentage of value. (i) If the percentage of value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in a business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by a private foundation by reason of its ownership of stock received in an exchange described in paragraph (a) of this section exceeds the greatest percentage of such value in any business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by the private foundation prior to such exchange by reason of its ownership of the stock surrendered by it in the exchange, then:

(A) That portion of the stock received by the private foundation in the exchange which represents such excess is to be treated as an increase in the holdings of the private foundation in accordance with § 53.4943-6(d), and

(B) Only the remaining portion of the stock received by the private foundation in the exchange shall be treated as the stock surrendered by the private foundation in the exchange.

(ii) If the sum of the percentage of value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in a business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by disqualified persons by reason of their ownership of stock received in an exchange described in paragraph (a) of this section plus the percentage of such value in the business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by the private foundation by reason of its ownership of stock received in the exchange and treated as the stock surrendered under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section exceeds the greatest percentage of such value in any business enterprise owned (directly or indirectly) by the private foundation and its disqualified persons in combination prior to the exchange by reason of their ownership of the stock surrendered by them in the exchange, then:

(A) That portion of the stock received by the disqualified persons in the exchange which represents such excess is to be treated as an increase in the holdings of the disqualified persons in accordance with § 53.4943-6(d), and

(B) Only the remaining portion of the stock received by the disqualified persons in the exchange is to be treated as the stock surrendered by the disqualified persons in the exchange.

(3) Increases in percentage of both voting stock and value. (i) If, as the result of an exchange described in paragraph (a) of this section, a private foundation has excesses determined under both paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(2)(i) of this section, then:

(A) That portion of the stock received by the private foundation in the exchange that represents the larger excess is to be treated as an increase in the holdings of the private foundation in accordance with § 53.4943-6(d), and

(B) Only the remaining portion of the stock received by the private foundation in the exchange is to be treated as the stock surrendered by the private foundation in the exchange.

(ii) If as the result of an exchange described in paragraph (a) of this section, disqualified persons have excesses determined under both paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section, then:

(A) That portion of the stock received by the disqualified persons in the exchange that represents the larger excess is to be treated as an increase in the holdings of the disqualified persons in accordance with § 53.4943-6(d), and

(B) Only the remaining portion of the stock received by disqualified persons in the exchange is to be treated as the stock surrendered by disqualified persons in the exchange.

(4) Exception for prohibited transactions. If a readjustment includes a prohibited transaction, as defined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, then this paragraph shall be applied substituting, for purposes of paragraph (b)(1) and (b)(2), the lowest percentage of voting power or value owned prior to the exchange in any business enterprise involved in the readjustment to which the exchange relates for the greatest percentage of voting power or value in any business enterprise owned by reason of ownership of the stock surrendered in the exchange.

(5) Voting and value levels. After an exchange described in paragraph (a) of this section, the private foundation voting and value levels, and the substituted combined voting and value levels (as defined in § 53.4943-4(d)(2)) shall be the lesser of each respective level immediately prior to the exchange with respect to the stock surrendered in the exchange and each such respective level determined immediately after the exchange by taking into account only the stock received in the exchange that is treated under this paragraph as the stock surrendered in the exchange. If the stock of more than one corporation is surrendered in exchange for stock of one corporation, the highest of each voting or value level determined immediately prior to the exchange with respect to the stock of the corporations surrendered in the exchange shall be treated as such level immediately prior to the exchange.

(6) Determination of phases—(i) In general. Stock received in an exchange described in paragraph (a) of this section that is treated as stock surrendered in the exchange under this paragraph shall be treated as subject to the same first, second, and third phases that were applicable to the stock surrendered for it. For purposes of determining the applicable phases, stock received in an exchange shall be treated as received in exchange for particular holdings of stock surrendered based on the terms of the exchange. Where only a portion of the stock received is treated as the stock surrendered, such portion of the stock received shall be treated as exchanged for particular holdings of stock surrendered in the same proportions as the total stock received was exchanged for particular holdings of stock surrendered. For example, if 20 shares of X stock owned by a private foundation, subject to a first phase beginning on January 1, 1978 and ending on December 31, 1987, are exchanged for 20 shares of Y stock, and 40 shares of X stock owned by the private foundation, subject to a first phase beginning on June 1, 1980 and ending on May 31, 1990, are exchanged for 40 shares of Y stock, then 1/3 of the Y stock received by the private foundation is treated as received in exchanged for X stock having the January 1, 1978-December 31, 1987 first phase and 2/3 of the Y stock received by the private foundation is treated as received in exchange for the X stock having the June 1, 1980-May 31, 1990 first phase. If only 30 shares of the Y stock received by the private foundation are treated as the stock surrendered, then 1/3 (10 Y shares) will be subject to the January 1, 1978-December 31, 1987 first phase and 2/3 (20 Y shares) will be subject to the June 1, 1980-May 31, 1990 first phase.

(ii) Transitional rule. In any case in which holdings subject to section 4943(c)(4) or 4943(c)(5) have been consolidated prior to May 22, 1984, then the longest first phase applicable to any of the holdings surrendered in the consolidation shall be applied to the holdings received by the foundation in the consolidation that are treated as the holdings surrendered in the consolidation. For purposes of this clause, a consolidation is any readjustment that results in a reduction in the number of entities in which the foundation has direct holdings.

(c) Plan to dispose of excess business holdings. (1) Notwithstanding § 53.4943-4(d)(i)(4)(D) (relating to restrictions on increases in levels) and paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, if a readjustment occurs under an approved plan to dispose of stock to which section 4943(c) (4) or (5) applies, in order to meet the requirements of section 4943(c)(4) (i.e., to meet the reduced limits that will be applicable after the first phase holding period described in § 53.4943-4(c)) or to meet the requirements of section 4943(c)(2), all of the stock received in the readjustment shall be treated as held by disqualified persons through the end of the longest first phase holding period applicable to stock surrendered in the readjustment. The foundation and substituted combined voting and value levels shall not be increased on account of the readjustment.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph, a plan is an approved plan only if it is approved by the Commissioner and may be subject to such conditions as the Commissioner determines. A plan must be approved prior to any exchange or distribution pursuant to the plan except for a showing of good cause such as a business emergency.

(d) Definitions—(1) Readjustments. For purposes of this section, the term “readjustment” includes, but is not limited to:

(i) A merger or consolidation;

(ii) A recapitalization;

(iii) An acquisition of stock or assets;

(iv) A transfer of assets;

(v) A change in identity, form, or place of organization, however effected;

(vi) A redemption;

(vii) A distribution of assets or of stock, including a distribution to which section 301, 302, 331, or 355 applies or a distribution of stock of the distributing corporation.

(2) Prohibited transaction. A prohibited transaction is any transaction involving a private foundation that has holdings in a business enterprise which:

(i) Acquires stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity) or assets of a business enterprise or redeems its own stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity) using cash or other property transferred to the acquiring business enterprise (e.g., as a contribution to capital) by the private foundation, its disqualified persons, or both;

(ii) Acquires stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity) or assets of a business enterprise or redeems its own stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity) using the proceeds of a loan made to, or guaranteed by, the private foundation, its disqualified persons, or both;

(iii) Acquires 40 percent or more of the voting stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity), 40 percent or more of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity), or 40 percent or more of the assets of a business enterprise if the acquiring business enterprise's net assets used in its trade or business prior to such acquisition are insubstantial when compared to the net assets acquired or when compared to the net assets of the business enterprise, the stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity) of which was acquired. For this purpose, an insubstantial ratio means a ratio that is 15% or less; or

(iv) Is used as a device to acquire or expand excess business holdings. The determination of whether a business enterprise is used as a device to acquire or expand excess business holdings shall be determined based on all the facts and circumstances. A business enterprise shall be presumed to have been used as a device to acquire or expand excess business holdings if it acquires 40 percent or more of the voting stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity), 40 percent or more of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity), or 40 percent or more of the assets of a business enterprise if the consideration for the acquisition consists primarily of nonvoting stock (or similar interest in the case of an unincorporated entity) of the acquiring business enterprise.

(3) Corporation involved in a readjustment. A corporation shall be treated as involved in a readjustment if, as part of the readjustment, any stock of the corporation is issued or redeemed, or any stock or assets of the corporation are distributed, exchanged, purchased, sold, acquired, or otherwise transferred.

(e) Application to unincorporated business enterprise. The rules of this section shall apply equally to partnerships and other unincorporated business enterprises, applying the rules and substitutions provided in § 53.4943-3(c)(2), (3), and (4).

(f) Examples. The provisions of this section and § 53.4943-6(d) are illustrated by the following examples, which assume no prohibited transactions are involved unless otherwise stated:

Example 1. (i) F, a private foundation, has owned 80% of the one outstanding class of stock of X corporation since 1965. The X is subject to section 4943(c)(4) with a first phase ending on May 25, 1984. On January 1, 1982, X merges with Y corporation to form Z corporation. X, Y, and Z are active business corporations. F owns no Y stock. No disqualified person with respect to F owns any stock in Y.Y, or Z. After the merger, F owns 25% of the one outstanding class of Z stock. Third parties do not control Z so that the 35% permitted holdings rule under section 4943(c)(2) is inapplicable

(ii) F's percentage of voting power and value in Z after the merger (25%) are less than F's percentages of voting power and value in X before the merger (80%). Therefore, under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, all of F's holdings in Z are treated as the X stock surrendered. Therefore, the Z stock is treated as subject to section 4943(c)(4) with a first phase ending on May 25, 1984. Under downward ratchet of paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the foundation voting and value levels and the substituted combined voting and value levels are reduced to 25%.

Example 2. (i) F, a private foundation, owns 100% of the one outstanding class of stock in X corporation and 30% of the one outstanding class of stock in Y corporation. F has held this stock continuously since 1960, and no disqualified person has even owned any stock in X or Y. Under section 4943(c)(4), F's holdings in X are treated as held by disqualified persons through the end of the first phase on May 25, 1989, and F's holdings in Y are permitted holdings during the second phase, which began on May 25, 1989, and F's holdings in Y are permitted holdings during the second phase, which began on May 26, 1979. On January 1, 1985, X and Y consolidate, forming a new corporation Z. In the consolidation, F acquires 50% of the one class of outstanding stock of Z, 40% in exchange for F's 100% interest in X and 10% in exchange for F's 30% interest in Y. Unrelated parties hold the remaining 50% of Z.

(ii) F's percentage of voting power and value in Z after the merger (50%) are less than F's percentages of voting power and value in X before the merger (100%). Thus, under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the 50% interest in Z held by F is treated as the stock surrendered in the exchange for purposes of section 4943(c)(4). Under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the 10% interest in Z received for the Y stock is subject to the same second phase period as the surrendered Y stock. The 40% interest first phase period as the surrendered X stock.

Example 3. (i) F, a private foundation, owns 50% of the one class of outstanding stock in X corporation which F has held continuously since 1935. No disqualified person with respect to F owns any stock in X. Neither F nor any disqualified person with respect to F owns any stock in Y corporation. On July 1, 1982, X and Y enter into an agreement to consolidate their businesses in a reorganization to which section 368(a)(1)(A) will apply. As a result of the contemplated consolidation, F will own 60% of the voting stock in Z, the resulting corporation. In addition, parties unrelated to F will own the remaining 40% of the Z voting stock and 100% of a new issue of nonvoting preferred stock in Z. Assume for purposes of this example, that the 60% of the voting stock to be held by F in Z will represent 50% of the fair market value of the outstanding Z stock.

(ii) Under the provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, that portion of the Z stock held by F which represents a percentage of voting power equivalent to that held by F in X immediately prior to the consolidation (i.e., 50%) will be treated as the X stock held by F on May 26, 1969, for purposes of section 4943(c)(4). Therefore, 50% of the Y stock will be treated as subject to a second phase ending on May 25, 1994. The remaining portion of the Z voting stock held by F (10%) is subject to the provisions of § 53.4943-6(d)(1). F will have five years from the date of the merger in which to dispose of 10% of the Z stock without incurring the tax on excess business holdings.

Example 4. (i) F, a private foundation, owns 80% of the one class of outstanding stock in X corporation, an active business corporation. F has held this stock continuously since 1960 and no disqualified person with respect to F owns any stock in X. X has two operating divisions, one which manufacturers shoes and the other which manufactures refrigerators. On January 1, 1978, in a section 351(a) exchange, X transferred all of the assets of its shoe manufacturing division to Y, a corporation which X has formed for this purpose, and receives 100% of the stock of Y so that Y is a wholly-owned subsidiary of X. X then transfers all of the Y stock to F in exchange for all of F's holdings of X stock in a distribution to which section 355 applies.

(ii) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, 80% of the Y stock is treated as the X stock surrendered in the exchange for purposes of section 4943(c)(4). The 80% is treated under § 53.4943-4(c) as held by disqualified persons through May 25, 1984, which constitutes the 15-year first phase holding period applicable to the 80% holding in X. The 80% of the Y stock must be reduced to the permitted holdings allowed during the second and third phase as provided by section 4943(c)(4)(D) in the same manner as F's holdings of X stock would have had to have been reduced.

(iii) Under § 53.4943-6(d)(1), the remaining 20% of Y stock is treated as held by a disqualified person for five years from the date of the exchange. F will have five years from the date of the exchange in which to dispose of 20% of the Y stock without incurring the tax on excess business holdings.

Example 5. (i) X corporation, an active business corporation, has outstanding 1,000 shares of one class of stock, of which 600 shares have been held by F1, a private foundation; 100 shares have been held by F2, another private foundation; and 100 shares have been held by D, a disqualified person with respect to both F1 and F2. Unrelated parties hold the remaining 200 shares. F1 and F2 are disqualified persons with respect to each other under section 4946(a)(1)(H). Thus, F1 holds 60% of the X stock (600/1000); F2 and D each hold 10% (100/1000); and the foundation group (F1, F2 and D) holds 80% of X (800/1000). The holdings of F1 and F2 were acquired on January 1, 1980 pursuant to a pre-1969 will and are subject to section 4943(c)(5). There have been no changes in holdings since January 1, 1980.

(ii) On January 1, 1985, pursuant to a plan to dispose of excess business holdings approved by the Commissioner under paragraph (c) of this section, X redeems for cash the 600 shares held by F1. After the redemption, D and F2 each hold 25% of X (100/400). F1 no longer holds any X stocks. The foundation group's holdings (F1, F2 and D) have decreased from 80% to 50% while holdings of unrelated parties have increased from 20% to 50%. At the same time F2's and D's holdings each have increased from 10% to 25%.

(iii) Notwithstanding the increase in F2's and D's holdings, under paragraph (c) of this section, all of the X stock held by F2 will be treated as held by a disqualified person through the end of the first phase (December 31, 1994). However, the foundation voting and value levels do not increase. Therefore, after the end of the first phase, F2's holdings in X may not exceed 10 percent (if the combined holdings of F1, F2 and D exceed the permitted holdings under section 4943(c)(2)).

Example 6. (i) X corporation, an active business corporation, has outstanding 1,000 shares of its one class of stock. Since 1960, 100 shares (10%) have been held by F, a private foundation and 350 shares (35%) have been held by D, a disqualified person with respect to F. All of the stock held by F is permitted holdings under section 4943(c)(4) and the substituted combined voting and value levels are 45% (10% + 35%). Because of disagreements concerning management of X between D and A, an unrelated party who holds 300 shares (30%) of the X stock, X redeems all of A's shares on December 1, 1981.

(ii) After the redemption, F holds 14.3% (100/700) of the X stock and D holds 50% (350/700), for combined holdings of 64.3%. Because the combined holdings exceed the substituted combined voting level (45%) by more than F's entire holdings, all of the F stock is excess business holdings. However, all of F's stock will be treated as acquired other than by purchase under § 53.4943-6(d)(1) and therefore will be treated under section 4943(c)(6) and this section, as held by a disqualified person for five years from the date of the redemption (through November 30, 1986). If the combined holdings of F and its disqualified person are reduced to 45 percent by the end of the five year period, F may retain a portion of its holdings in X (limited to no more than the foundation voting and value level of 10 percent).

Example 7.Assume the same facts as in Example (6), except that D loaned the money to X that was used to redeem A's shares. Under these facts, the increased holdings result from a prohibited transaction described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Therefore, all of F's stock will be treated as acquired by purchase by a disqualified person under § 53.4943-6(d)(2). F will have 90 days after the redemption in which to dispose of its holdings or to reduce its holdings and the combined holdings to the levels held prior to the redemption as discussed in Example (6).

Example 8. (i) F, a private foundation, has held 100% of the outstanding stock of X corporation since 1960. F also holds 15% of the voting stock of Y corporation. Both X and Y are active business corporations. X has $1 million in net assets used in its trade or business and Y has $6.7 million used in its trade or business. On June 1, 1985, Y is merged into X. After the merger F holds 25% of the voting stock of X. No person other than F controls X after the merger.

(ii) Because more than 40% of Y was acquired and the net assets of X, the acquiring corporation, used in its trade or business prior to the merger represent less than 15% of the net assets of Y used in its trade or business, the merger is a prohibited transaction described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii). Therefore, only 15% of the stock X is treated, pursuant to paragraph (b), as the stock held by F prior to the redemption. F's holding of 5% (the excess of F's 25% holdings over the 20% permitted holdings in X (determined under section 4943(c)(2)) are treated as purchased by a disqualified person pursuant to § 53.4943-6(d)(2). F will have 90 days after June 1, 1985, in which to dispose of the 5% excess holdings.

[T.D. 7944, 49 FR 6480, Feb. 22, 1984]

§ 53.4943-8 Business holdings; constructive ownership.

(a) Constructive ownership—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4943, in computing the holdings in a business enterprise of a private foundation, or a disqualified person (as defined in section 4946), any stock or other interest owned, directly or indirectly, by or for a corporation, partnership, estate or trust shall be considered as being owned proportionately by or for its shareholders, partners, or beneficiaries except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this section. Any interest in a business enterprise actually or constructively owned by a shareholder of a corporation, a partner of a partnership, or beneficiary of an estate or trust shall not be considered as constructively held by the corporation, partnership, trust or estate. Further, if any corporation, partnership, estate or trust has a warrant or other option to acquire an interest in a business enterprise, such interest is not deemed to be constructively owned by such entity until the option is exercised. (See paragraph (b)(2) of § 53.4943-3 for rules that options are not stock for purposes of determining excess business holdings.)

(2) Powers of appointment. Any interest in business enterprise over which a foundation or a disqualified person has a power of appointment exercisable in favor of the foundation or a disqualified person shall be considered owned by the foundation or disqualified person holding such power of appointment.

(3) Determination of extent of constructive ownership. If an interest in a business enterprise owned by a corporation is constructively owned by a shareholder, each shareholder's proportion of ownership is generally computed on the basis of the voting stock each shareholder has in the corporation. In determining holdings permitted under section 4943(c) (4) and (5), each shareholder's proportion of ownership in the business enterprise shall also be computed on the basis of value, taking into account both voting and nonvoting stock held by the shareholder.

(4) Nonvoting stock. If a private foundation, its disqualified persons, or both, own (directly or constructively) nonvoting stock of a parent corporation, the holdings of which are treated as constructively owned by its shareholders by reason of section 4943(d)(1) and this section, such nonvoting stock shall be treated as nonvoting stock of any corporation in which the parent corporation holds an interest for purposes of the limitation on the holding of nonvoting stock under section 4943(c)(2)(A) and § 53.4943-3(b)(2).

(5) Interests held by certain disqualified persons. In the case of an entity that is a disqualified person (other than an entity described in section 4946(a)(1)(H)), the holdings of which are treated as constructively owned by its shareholders, partners, or beneficiaries, for purposes of determining the total holdings of disqualified persons the holdings of the entity shall be considered held by a disqualified person only to the extent such holdings are treated as constructively owned by disqualified persons who are shareholders, partners, or beneficiaries of the entity. In the case of an entity described in section 4946(a)(1)(H) or an entity, the holdings of which are not treated as constructively owned by its shareholders, partners, or beneficiaries, all holdings of such entity shall be treated as held by a disqualified person if and only if the entity itself is a disqualified person.

(b) Estates and trusts—(1) In general. Any interest actually or constructively owned by an estate or trust is deemed constructively owned, in the case of an estate, by its beneficiaries or, in the case of a trust, by its remainder beneficiaries except as provided in paragraphs (b) (2), (3) and (4) of this section (relating to certain split-interest trusts described in section 4947(a)(2), to trusts of qualified pension, profit-sharing, and stock bonus plans described in section 401(a) and to revocable trusts). Thus, if a trust owns 100 percent of the stock of a corporation A, and if, on an actuarial basis, W's life interest in the trust is 15 percent, Y's life interest is 25 percent, and Z's remainder interest is 60 percent, under this paragraph (b), Z will be considered to be the owner of 100 percent of the stock of corporation A. See § 53.4943-4, § 53.4943-5 and § 53.4943-6 for rules relating to certain actual or constructive holdings of a foundation being treated as held by a disqualified person. For the treatment of certain property acquired by an estate or trust after May 26, 1969, see paragraph (a)(2) of § 53.4943-5.

(2) Split-interest trusts—(i) Amounts transferred in trust after May 26, 1969. In the case of an interest in a business enterprise which was transferred to a trust described in section 4947(a)(2) after May 26, 1969, for the benefit of a private foundation, no portion of such interest shall be considered as owned by the private foundation:

(A) If the foundation holds only an income interest in the trust, or

(B) If the foundation holds only a remainder interest in the trust (unless the foundation can exercise primary investment discretion with respect to such interest)

until such trust ceases to be so described. See section 4947(a)(2) and (b)(3) and the regulations thereunder for rules relating to such trusts. See also sections 4946(a)(1) (G) and (H) and the regulations thereunder for rules relating to when a trust described in this paragraph (b)(2) is itself a disqualified person.

(ii) Amounts transferred in trust on or before May 26, 1969. In the case of an interest in a business enterprise which was transferred to a trust described in section 4947(a)(2) (without regard to section 4947(a)(2)(C)) on or before May 26, 1969, for the benefit of a private foundation, no portion of such interest shall be considered as owned by the foundation until it is actually distributed to the foundation or until the trust ceases to be so described. See section 4943(c)(5) and § 53.4943-5 for rules relating to certain trusts which were irrevocable on May 26, 1969.

(3) Employee benefit trusts. An interest in a business enterprise owned by a trust described in section 401(a) (pension and profit-sharing plans) shall not be considered as owned by its beneficiaries, unless disqualified persons (within the meaning of section 4946) control the investment of the trust assets.

(4) Revocable trusts. An interest in a business enterprise owned by a revocable trust shall be treated as owned by the grantor of such trust.

(5) Estates. For purposes of applying section 4943(d)(1) to estates, the term “beneficiary” includes any person (including a private foundation) entitled to receive property of a decedent pursuant to a will or pursuant to laws of descent and distribution. However, a person shall no longer be considered a beneficiary of an estate when all the property to which he is entitled has been received by him, when he no longer has a claim against the estate and when there is only a remote possibility that it will be necessary for the estate to seek the return of property or to seek payment from him by contribution or otherwise to satisfy claims against the estate or expenses of administration. When pursuant to the preceding sentence, a person (including a private foundation) ceases to be a beneficiary, stock or another interest in a business enterprise owned by the estate shall not thereafter be considered owned by such person. If any person is the constructive owner of an interest in a business enterprise actually held by an estate, the date of death of the testator or decedent intestate shall be the first day on which such person shall be considered a constructive owner of such interest. See § 53.4943-5 for rules relating to wills executed on or before May 26, 1969.

(c) Corporation actively engaged in a trade or business—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, any interest (whether or not in a separate entity) owned by a corporation which is actively engaged in a trade or business shall not be deemed to be constructively owned by such corporation's shareholders.

(2) Actively engaged in a trade or business. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section:

(i) A corporation shall not be considered to be actively engaged in a trade or business if the corporation is not a business enterprise by reason of section 4943(d)(3) (A) or (B) and § 53.4943-10 (b) or (c);

(ii) In the case of a corporation which owns passive holdings and is actively engaged in a trade or business, such corporation shall not be considered to be actively engaged in a trade or business if the net assets used in such trade or business are insubstantial when compared to passive holdings.

(3) Exceptions. If a corporation has been involved in a prohibited transaction, any interest in a business enterprise owned by such corporation shall be treated as constructively owned by its shareholders, whether or not such corporation is actively engaged in a trade or business. For a definition of prohibited transaction, see § 53.4943-7 (d)(2).

(4) Affiliated group. In applying this paragraph to the common parent in an affiliated group (as defined in § 53.4943-10 (c)(3)(ii)), the assets and activities of the affiliated group shall be treated as the assets and activities of the common parent.

(d) Partnerships. Any interest in a business enterprise which is owned by a partnership shall be deemed to be constructively owned by the partners in such partnerships.

(e) Examples. The provisions of this section are illustrated by the following examples.

Example 1.F, a private foundation, directly owns voting stock of X, a holding company described in section 4943(d)(3)(B). That stock represents 40% of the voting power in X and 20% of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. F also owns nonvoting stock in X that represents 10% of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in X. D, a disqualified person, owns voting stock of X that represents 40% of the voting power in X and 20% of the value. D does not own any nonvoting stock in X. X corporation's only holding is stock of Y corporation. The Y voting stock held by X represents 50% of the voting power in Y and 25% of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Y. X also owns nonvoting stock in Y that represents 25% of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Y. Under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, F and D each constructively owns 20% of the voting power in Y through their voting interest in X (40% of X's 50% of Y). F also constructively owns 15% of the value of all outstanding shares of all classes of stock in Y through F's interest in X (F's 30% of the value of X multiplied by X's 50% of the value of Y), while D constructively owns 10% of the value of Y (D's 20% of the value of X multiplied by X's 50% of the value of Y).

Example 2. (i) F, a private foundation, owns 50% of the one class of nonvoting stock of X corporation, a corporation described in section 4943(d)(3)(B) and paragraph (c)(2)(i) above. D, a disqualified person with respect to F as described in section 4946(a)(1)(A), owns 40% of the one class of voting stock of X. X corporation is a disqualified person with respect to F because D owns more than 35% of the voting of X. (See section 4946(a)(1)(E)). On January 1, 1980, X purchases for cash 40% of the only class of stock of Y corporation, a retail clothing store, from unrelated third parties.

(ii) Under paragraph (a)(4) of this section, F is treated as owning nonvoting stock of Y. Although X is a disqualified person, its holdings are not treated as held by disqualified persons except as constructive holdings. Therefore, the “deemed” nonvoting stock in Y is a permitted holding because D, a disqualified person with respect to F, constructively owns only 16% of the voting stock of Y (less than 20% permitted under section 4943(c)(2)).

Example 3.(i) The facts are the same as in Example (2), except that X purchases 100% of this stock of Y corporation. Under paragraph (a)(4) of this section, F is treated as owning nonvoting stock of Y. The “deemed” nonvoting stock in Y is not a permitted holdings because D, a disqualified person with respect to F, constructively owns 40% of the voting stock of Y.

Example 4.(i) D, a disqualified person with respect to F, owns 40% of the one class of stock in X corporation, an active business. X is a disqualified person with respect to F. X acquires 40% of the voting stock in Y corporation. Under paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the holdings of X in Y are treated as held by a disqualified person. F cannot hold any Y stock, voting or nonvoting.

[T.D. 7496, 42 FR 46285, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by T.D. 7944, 49 FR 6484, Feb. 22, 1984]

§ 53.4943-9 Business holdings; certain periods.

(a) Taxable period—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4943, the term “taxable period” means, with respect to any excess business holdings of a private foundation in a business enterprise, the period beginning with the first day on which there are such excess business holdings and ending on the earliest of:

(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed on the holdings by the section 4943(a);

(ii) The date on which the excess is eliminated; or

(iii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4943(a) is assessed.

For example, M, a private foundation, first has excess business holdings in X, a corporation, on February 5, 1972. A notice of deficiency is mailed under section 6212 to M on June 1, 1974. With respect to M's excess business holdings in X, the taxable period begins on February 5, 1972, and ends on June 1, 1974.

(2) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph is not mailed because there is a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency, or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the taxable period.

(3) Suspension of taxable period for 90 days. In any case in which a private foundation has excess business holdings solely because of the acquisition of an interest in a business enterprise to which paragraph (a)(1) (ii) or (iii) of § 53.4943-2 applies, the taxable period described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be suspended for the 90-day period (as extended) starting with the date on which the foundation knows or has reason to know of the acquisition, provided that at the end of such period the foundation has disposed of such excess holdings.

(b) Cross reference. For rules relating to taxable events that are corrected within the correction period, defined in section 4863(e), see section 4861(a) and the regulations thereunder.

(c) Correction. For purposes of section 4943, correction shall be considered as made when no interest in the enterprise held by the foundation is classified as an excess business holdings under section 4943(c)(1). In any case where the private foundation has excess business holdings which are constructively held for it under section 4943(c)(1), correction shall be considered made when either a corporation, partnership, estate, or trust in which holdings in such enterprise are constructively held for the foundation or a disqualified person; the foundation itself; or a disqualified person disposes of a sufficient interest in the enterprise so that no interest in the enterprise held by the foundation is classified as excess business holdings under section 4943(c)(1).

[T.D. 7496, 42 FR 46285, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16302, May 2, 1986]

§ 53.4943-10 Business enterprise; definition.

(a) In general. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section under section 4943(d)(4) the term “business enterprise” includes the active conduct of a trade or business, including any activity which is regularly carried on for the production of income from the sale of goods or the performance of services and which constitutes an unrelated trade or business under section 513. For purposes of the preceding sentence, where an activity carried on for profit constitutes an unrelated trade or business, no part of such trade or business shall be excluded from the classification of a business enterprise merely because it does not result in a profit.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a bond or other evidence of indebtedness does not constitute a holding in a business enterprise unless such bond or evidence of indebtedness is otherwise determined to be an equitable interest in such enterprise. Similarly, a lease-hold interest in real property does not constitute an interest in a business enterprise, even though rent payable under such lease is dependent, in whole or in part, upon the income or profits derived by another from such property, unless such leasehold interest constitutes an interest in the income or profits of an unrelated trade or business under section 513.

(b) Certain program-related activities. For purposes of section 4943(d)(4) the term “business enterprise” does not include a functionally related business as defined in section 4942(j)(5). See § 53.4942(a)-2(c)(3)(iii). In addition, business holdings do not include program-related investments (such as investments in small businesses in central cities or in corporations to assist in neighborhood renovation) as defined in section 4944(c) and the regulations thereunder.

(c) Income derived from passive sources—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4943(d)(4), the term “business enterprise” does not include a trade or business at least 95 percent of the gross income of which is derived from passive sources; except that if in the taxable year in question less than 95 percent of the income of a trade or business is from passive sources, the foundation may, in applying this 95 percent test, substitute for the passive source gross income in such taxable year the average gross income from passive sources for the 10 taxable years immediately preceding the taxable year in question (or for such shorter period as the entity has been in existence). Thus, stock in a passive holding company is not to be considered a holding in a business enterprise even if the company is controlled by the foundation. Instead, the foundation is treated as owning its proportionate share of any interests in a business enterprise held by such company under section 4943(d)(1).

(2) Gross income from passive sources. Gross income from passive sources, for purposes of this paragraph, includes the items excluded by section 512(b)(1) (relating to dividends, interest, and annuities), 512(b)(2) (relating to royalties), 512(b)(3) (relating to rent) and 512(b)(5) (relating to gains or losses from the disposition of certain property). Any income classified as passive under this paragraph does not lose its character merely because section 512(b)(4) or 514 (relating to unrelated debt-financed income) applies to such income. In addition, income from passive sources includes income from the sale of goods (including charges or costs passed on at cost to purchasers of such goods or income received in settlement of a dispute concerning or in lieu of the exercise of the right to sell such goods) if the seller does not manufacture, produce, physically receive or deliver, negotiate sales of, or maintain inventories in such goods. Thus, for example, where a corporation purchases a product under a contract with the manufacturer, resells it under contract at a uniform markup in price, and does not physically handle the product, the income derived from that markup meets the definition of passive income for purposes of this paragraph. On the other hand, income from individually negotiated sales, such as those made by a broker, would not meet such definition even if the broker did not physically handle the goods.

(3) Affiliated group. (i) For a common parent corporation in an affiliated group, substitute “consolidated gross income” in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph.

(ii) For purposes of this section, the term affiliated group shall have the same meaning as in section 1504(a), without regard to section 1504 (b) through (e).

(iii) Section 53.4943-11(d) provides a transitional rule for certain parent corporations.

(d) Application of section 4943(c)(6)—(1) Program related activities. If a private foundation holds an interest which is not an interest in a business enterprise because of paragraph (b) of this section (relating to program related activities), and such interest later becomes an interest in a business enterprise solely by reason of failing to meet the requirements of such paragraph (b), such interest will then be subject to section (regardless of when it was originally acquired) and will be treated as having been acquired other than by purchase for purposes of section 4943(c)(6).

(2) Passive holdings, etc. (i) Except as provided in subdivision (ii), if a private foundation holds an interest that is not an interest in a business enterprise, and the interest later becomes an interest in a business enterprise (other than by reason of a readjustment as defined in § 53.4943-7(d)(1)), the interest will be treated as having been acquired by purchase by a disqualified person at the time the interest becomes an interest in a business enterprise. The treatment of an interest that becomes an interest in a business enterprise by reason of a readjustment shall be determined under § 53.4943-6 and § 53.4943-7.

(ii) If a private foundation establishes that the events which caused an interest not originally a business enterprise to become a business enterprise were not effectively controlled by the private foundation, then such interest shall be treated as acquired other than by purchase from the time of the change for purposes of section 4943(c)(6).

(iii) See § 53.4943-3(b)(3)(ii) for the definition of effective control.

(e) Sole proprietorship. For purposes of section 4943 and the regulations thereunder, the term “sole proprietorship” means any business enterprise (as defined in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section:

(1) Which is actually and directly owned by a private foundation,

(2) In which the foundation has a 100 percent equity interest, and

(3) Which is not held by a corporation, trust, or other business entity for such foundation.

A foundation may be considered to own a sole proprietorship even though the foundation is itself a corporation or a trust. However, a sole proprietorship which is owned by a foundation shall cease to be treated as a sole proprietorship when the foundation no longer has a 100-percent interest in the equity of the business enterprise. Thus, if and when a foundation sells a 10-percent interest in a sole proprietorship, such business enterprise shall be treated as a partnership under section 4943 and the regulations thereunder.

[T.D. 7496, 42 FR 46285, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by T.D. 7944, 49 FR 6484, Feb. 22, 1984]

§ 53.4943-11 Effective/applicability date.

(a) In general. Section 4943 and §§ 53.4943-1 through 53.4943-11 shall take effect for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1969, except as otherwise provided by such sections.

(b) Special transitional rule. In the case of any acquisition of excess holdings prior to February 2, 1973, section 4943(a)(1) shall not apply if correction occurs (within the meaning of paragraph (c) of § 53.4943-9) within a period ending 90 days after July 5, 1977 extended (prior to the expiration of the original period) by any period which the Commissioner determines is reasonable and necessary (within the meaning of paragraph (b) of § 53.4943-9) to bring about such correction.

(c) Special transitional rule for acquisition by will, etc. (1) The rule in § 53.4943-6(b)(1) whereby holdings not held by a decedent are not treated as acquired under a will shall not apply to acquisitions of after-acquired property of a decedent's estate occurring on or before May 22, 1984.

(2) The rule in § 53.4943-6(b)(1) treating a purchase by an estate as a purchase by a disqualified person where the executor is a disqualified person shall not apply to purchases occurring on or before May 22, 1984.

(d) Special transitional rule for affiliated groups. If on or before May 22, 1984 a foundation holds an interest in a common parent corporation in an affiliated group, as defined in § 53.4943-10(c)(3)(ii), the foundation may elect to have both § 53.4943-8(c)(4) and § 53.4943-10(c)(3) not apply to such common parent corporation. No election may be made to have only one section not apply. Such election shall be made by the governing body of the private foundation at any time prior to February 22, 1985.

(e) Special transitional rule for changes to a business enterprise. Any interest that is not an interest in a business enterprise which becomes an interest in a business enterprise under § 53.4943-10(d)(2) prior to May 22, 1984 will be treated as having been acquired other than by purchase for purposes of section 4943(c)(6).

(f) Special transitional rule for private foundations that qualified as Type III supporting organizations before August 17, 2006. The present holdings of a private foundation that qualified as a Type III supporting organization under section 509(a)(3) immediately before August 17, 2006, and that was reclassified as a private foundation under section 509(a) on or after August 17, 2006, solely as a result of the rules enacted by section 1241 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, Public Law 109-280 (120 Stat. 780), will be determined using the same rules that apply to Type III supporting organizations under section 4943(f)(7).

(g) Special transitional rule for Type III supporting organizations created as trusts before November 20, 1970. A trust that qualifies as a Type III supporting organization under section 509(a)(3) and meets the requirements of § 1.509(a)-4(i)(9) of this chapter will be treated as a “functionally integrated Type III supporting organization” for purposes of section 4943(f)(3)(A).

[T.D. 7496, 42 FR 46285, Sept. 15, 1977, as amended by T.D. 7944, 49 FR 6485, Feb. 22, 1984; T.D. 9605, 77 FR 76400, Dec. 28, 2012]

Subpart E Taxes on Investments Which Jeopardize Charitable Purpose

Source: T.D. 7240, 37 FR 28747, Dec. 27, 1972, unless otherwise noted.

§ 53.4944-1 Initial taxes.

(a) On the private foundation—(1) In general. If a private foundation (as defined in section 509) invests any amount in such a manner as to jeopardize the carrying out of any of its exempt purposes, section 4944(a) (1) of the Code imposes an excise tax on the making of such investment. This tax is to be paid by the private foundation and is at the rate of 5 percent of the amount so invested for each taxable year (or part thereof) in the taxable period (as defined in section 4944(e) (1)). The tax imposed by section 4944(a)(1) and this paragraph shall apply to investments of either income or principal.

(2) Jeopardizing investments. (i) Except as provided in section 4944(c), § 53.4944-3, § 53.4944-6(a), and subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, an investment shall be considered to jeopardize the carrying out of the exempt purposes of a private foundation if it is determined that the foundation managers, in making such investment, have failed to exercise ordinary business care and prudence, under the facts and circumstances prevailing at the time of making the investment, in providing for the long- and short-term financial needs of the foundation to carry out its exempt purposes. In the exercise of the requisite standard of care and prudence the foundation managers may take into account the expected return (including both income and appreciation of capital), the risks of rising and falling price levels, and the need for diversification within the investment portfolio (for example, with respect to type of security, type of industry, maturity of company, degree of risk and potential for return). The determination whether the investment of a particular amount jeopardizes the carrying out of the exempt purposes of a foundation shall be made on an investment by investment basis, in each case taking into account the foundation's portfolio as a whole. No category of investments shall be treated as a per se violation of section 4944. However, the following are examples of types or methods of investment which will be closely scrutinized to determine whether the foundation managers have met the requisite standard of care and prudence: Trading in securities on margin, trading in commodity futures, investments in working interests in oil and gas wells, the purchase of “puts,” “calls,” and “straddles,” the purchase of warrants, and selling short. The determination whether the investment of any amount jeopardizes the carrying out of a foundation's exempt purposes is to be made as of the time that the foundation makes the investment and not subsequently on the basis of hindsight. Therefore, once it has been ascertained that an investment does not jeopardize the carrying out of a foundation's exempt purposes, the investment shall never be considered to jeopardize the carrying out of such purposes, even though, as a result of such investment, the foundation subsequently realizes a loss. The provisions of section 4944 and the regulations thereunder shall not exempt or relieve any person from compliance with any Federal or State law imposing any obligation, duty, responsibility, or other standard of conduct with respect to the operation or administration of an organization or trust to which section 4944 applies. Nor shall any State law exempt or relieve any person from any obligation, duty, responsibility, or other standard of conduct provided in section 4944 and the regulations thereunder.

(ii)(a) Section 4944 shall not apply to an investment made by any person which is later gratuitously transferred to a private foundation. If such foundation furnishes any consideration to such person upon the transfer, the foundation will be treated as having made an investment (within the meaning of section 4944(a)(1)) in the amount of such consideration.

(b) Section 4944 shall not apply to an investment which is acquired by a private foundation solely as a result of a corporate reorganization within the meaning of section 368(a).

(iii) For purposes of section 4944, a private foundation which, after December 31, 1969, changes the form or terms of an investment (regardless of whether subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph applies to such investment), will be considered to have entered into a new investment on the date of such change, except as provided in subdivision (ii)(b) of this subparagraph. Accordingly, a determination, under subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, whether such change in the investment jeopardizes the carrying out of the foundation's exempt purposes shall be made at such time.

(iv) It is not intended that the taxes imposed under Chapter 42 be exclusive. For example, if a foundation purchases a sole proprietorship in a business enterprise within the meaning of section 4943(d)(4), in addition to tax under section 4943, the foundation may be liable for tax under section 4944 if the investment jeopardizes the carrying out of any of its exempt purposes.

(b) On the management—(1) In general. In any case in which a tax is imposed by section 4944(a)(1) and paragraph (a) of this section, section 4944 (a)(2) of the Code imposes on the participation of any foundation manager in the making of the investment, knowing that it is jeopardizing the carrying out of any of the foundation's exempt purposes, a tax equal to 5 percent of the amount so invested for each taxable year of the foundation (or part thereof) in the taxable period (as defined in section 4944(e)(1)), subject to the provisions of section 4944(d) and § 53.4944-4, unless such participation is not willful and is due to reasonable cause. The tax imposed under section 4944(a)(2) shall be paid by the foundation manager.

(2) Definitions and special rules—(i) Knowing. For purposes of section 4944, a foundation manager shall be considered to have participated in the making of an investment “knowing” that it is jeopardizing the carrying out of any of the foundation's exempt purposes only if:

(a) He has actual knowledge of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon such facts, such investment would be a jeopardizing investment under paragraph (a)(2) of this section,

(b) He is aware that such an investment under these circumstances may violate the provisions of federal tax law governing jeopardizing investments, and

(c) He negligently fails to make reasonable attempts to ascertain whether the investment is a jeopardizing investment, or he is in fact aware that it is such an investment.

For purposes of this part and Chapter 42, the term knowing does not mean “having reason to know”. However, evidence tending to show that a foundation manager has reason to know of a particular fact or particular rule is relevant in determining whether he had actual knowledge of such fact or rule. Thus, for example, evidence tending to show that a foundation manager has reason to know of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon such facts, an investment would be a jeopardizing investment is relevant in determining whether he has actual knowledge of such facts.

(ii) Willful. A foundation manager's participation in a jeopardizing investment is willful if it is voluntary, conscious, and intentional. No motive to avoid the restrictions of the law or the incurrence of any tax is necessary to make such participation willfull. However, a foundation manager's participation in a jeopardizing investment is not willful if he does not know that it is a jeopardizing investment under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(iii) Due to reasonable cause. A foundation manager's actions are due to reasonable cause if he has exercised his responsibility on behalf of the foundation with ordinary business care and prudence.

(iv) Participation. The participation of any foundation manager in the making of an investment shall consist of any manifestation of approval of the investment.

(v) Advice of counsel. If a foundation manager, after full disclosure of the factual situation to legal counsel (including house counsel), relies on the advice of such counsel expressed in a reasoned written legal opinion that a particular investment would not jeopardize the carrying out of any of the foundation's exempt purposes (because, as a matter of law, the investment is excepted from such classification, for example, as a program-related investment under section 4944(c)), then although such investment is subsequently held to be a jeopardizing investment under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the foundation manager's participation in such investment will ordinarily not be considered “knowing” or “willfull” and will ordinarily be considered “due to reasonable cause” within the meaning of section 4944(a) (2). In addition, if a foundation manager, after full disclosure of the factual situation to qualified investment counsel, relies on the advice of such counsel, such advice being derived in a manner consistent with generally accepted practices of persons who are such a qualified investment counsel and being expressed in writing that a particular investment will provide for the long and short term financial needs of the foundation under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, then although such investment is subsequently held not to provide for such long and short term financial needs, the foundation manager's participation in failing to provide for such long and short term financial needs will ordinarily not be considered “knowing” or “willful” and will ordinarily be considered “due to reasonable cause” within the meaning of section 4944(a)(2). For purposes of this subdivision, a written legal opinion will be considered “reasoned” even if it reaches a conclusion which is subsequently determined to be incorrect so long as such opinion addresses itself to the facts and applicable law. However, a written legal opinion will not be considered “reasoned” if it does nothing more than recite the facts and express a conclusion. However, the absence of advice of legal counsel or qualified investment counsel with respect to the investment shall not, by itself, give rise to any inference that a foundation manager participated in such investment knowingly, willfully, or without reasonable cause.

(vi) Cross reference. For provisions relating to the burden of proof in cases involving the issue whether a foundation manager has knowingly participated in the making of a jeopardizing investment, see section 7454(b).

(c) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A is a foundation manager of B, a private foundation with assets of $100,000. A approves the following three investments by B after taking into account with respect to each of them B's portfolio as a whole: (1) An investment of $5,000 in the common stock of corporation X; (2) an investment of $10,000 in the common stock of corporation Y; and (3) an investment of $8,000 in the common stock of corporation Z. Corporation X has been in business a considerable time, its record of earnings is good and there is no reason to anticipate a diminution of its earnings. Corporation Y has a promising product, has had earnings in some years and substantial losses in others, has never paid a dividend, and is widely reported in investment advisory services as seriously undercapitalized. Corporation Z has been in business a short period of time and manufactures a product that is new, is not sold by others, and must compete with a well-established alternative product that serves the same purpose. Z's stock is classified as a high-risk investment by most investment advisory services with the possibility of substantial long-term appreciation but with little prospect of a current return. A has studied the records of the three corporations and knows the foregoing facts. In each case the price per share of common stock purchased by B is favorable to B. Under the standards of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the investment of $10,000 in the common stock of Y and the investment of $8,000 in the common stock of Z may be classified as jeopardizing investments, while the investment of $5,000 in the common stock of X will not be so classified. B would then be liable for an initial tax of $500 (i.e., 5 percent of $10,000) for each year (or part thereof) in the taxable period for the investment in Y, and an initial tax of $400 (i.e., 5 percent of $8,000) for each year (or part thereof) in the taxable period for the investment in Z. Further, since A had actual knowledge that the investments in the common stock of Y and Z were jeopardizing investments, A would then be liable for the same amount of initial taxes as B.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that: (1) In the case of corporation Y, B's investment will be made for new stock to be issued by Y and there is reason to anticipate that B's investment, together with investments required by B to be made concurrently with its own, will satisfy the capital needs of corporation Y and will thereby overcome the difficulties that have resulted in Y's uneven earnings record; and (2) in the case of corporation Z, the management has a demonstrated capacity for getting new businesses started successfully and Z has received substantial orders for its new product. Under the standards of paragraph (a) (2) (i) of this section, neither the investment in Y nor the investment in Z will be classified as a jeopardizing investment and neither A nor B will be liable for an initial tax on either of such investments.

Example 3.D is a foundation manager of E, a private foundation with assets of $200,000. D was hired by E to manage E's investments after a careful review of D's training, experience and record in the field of investment management and advice indicated to E that D was well qualified to provide professional investment advice in the management of E's investment assets. D, after careful research into how best to diversify E's investments, provide for E's long-term financial needs, and protect against the effects of long-term inflation, decides to allocate a portion of E's investment assets to unimproved real estate in selected areas of the country where population patterns and economic factors strongly indicate continuing growth at a rapid rate. D determines that the short-term financial needs of E can be met through E's other investments. Under the standards of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the investment of a portion of E's investment assets in unimproved real estate will not be classified as a jeopardizing investment and neither D nor E will be liable for an initial tax on such investment.

[T.D. 7240, 37 FR 28747, Dec. 29, 1972, as amended by T.D. 7299, 38 FR 35304, Dec. 27, 1973]

§ 53.4944-2 Additional taxes.

(a) On the private foundation. Section 4944(b)(1) of the Code imposes an excise tax in any case in which an initial tax is imposed by section 4944(a)(1) and § 53.4944-1(a) on the making of a jeopardizing investment by a private foundation and such investment is not removed from jeopardy within the taxable period (as defined in section 4944(e)(1)). The tax imposed under section 4944(b)(1) is to be paid by the private foundation and is at the rate of 25 percent of the amount of the investment. This tax shall be imposed upon the portion of the investment which has not been removed from jeopardy within the taxable period.

(b) On the management. Section 4944(b)(2) of the Code imposes an excise tax in any case in which an additional tax is imposed by section 4944 (b)(1) and paragraph (a) of this section and a foundation manager has refused to agree to part or all of the removal of the investment from jeopardy. The tax imposed under section 4944(b)(2) is at the rate of 5 percent of the amount of the investment, subject to the provisions of section 4944(d) and § 53.4944-4. This tax is to be paid by any foundation manager who has refused to agree to the removal of part or all of the investment from jeopardy, and shall be imposed upon the portion of the investment which has not been removed from jeopardy within the taxable period.

(c) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.X is a foundation manager of Y, a private foundation. On the advice of X, Y invests $5,000 in the common stock of corporation M. Assume that both X and Y are liable for the taxes imposed by section 4944(a) on the making of the investment. Assume further that no part of the investment is removed from jeopardy within the taxable period and that X refused to agree to such removal. Y will be liable for an additional tax of $1,250 (i.e., $5,000 × 25%). X will be liable for an additional tax of $250 (i.e., $5,000 × 5%).

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that X is not liable for the tax imposed by section 4944(a)(2) for his participation in the making of the investment, because such participation was not willful and was due to reasonable cause. X will nonetheless be liable for the tax of $250 imposed by section 4944(b)(2) since an additional tax has been imposed upon Y and since X refused to agree to the removal of the investment from jeopardy.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that Y removes $2,000 of the investment from jeopardy within the taxable period, with X refusing to agree to the removal from jeopardy of the remaining $3,000 of such investment. Y will be liable for an additional tax of $750, imposed upon the portion of the investment which has not been removed from jeopardy within the taxable period (i.e., $3,000 × 25%). Further X will be liable for an additional tax of $150, also imposed upon the same portion of the investment (i.e., $3,000 × 5%).

[T.D. 7240, 37 FR 28747, Dec. 27, 1972, as amended by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16302, May 2, 1986]

§ 53.4944-3 Exception for program-related investments.

(a) In general. (1) For purposes of section 4944 and §§ 53.4944-1 through 53.4944-6, a “program-related investment” shall not be classified as an investment which jeopardizes the carrying out of the exempt purposes of a private foundation. A program-related investment is an investment which possesses the following characteristics:

(i) The primary purpose of the investment is to accomplish one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B);

(ii) No significant purpose of the investment is the production of income or the appreciation of property; and

(iii) No purpose of the investment is to accomplish one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(D).

(2)(i) An investment shall be considered as made primarily to accomplish one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) if it significantly furthers the accomplishment of the private foundation's exempt activities and if the investment would not have been made but for such relationship between the investment and the accomplishment of the foundation's exempt activities. For purposes of section 4944 and §§ 53.4944-1 through 53.4944-6, the term purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) shall be treated as including purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) whether or not carried out by organizations described in section 170(c).

(ii) An investment in an activity described in section 4942(j)(4)(B) and the regulations thereunder shall be considered, for purposes of this paragraph, as made primarily to accomplish one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B).

(iii) In determining whether a significant purpose of an investment is the production of income or the appreciation of property, it shall be relevant whether investors solely engaged in the investment for profit would be likely to make the investment on the same terms as the private foundation. However, the fact that an investment produces significant income or capital appreciation shall not, in the absence of other factors, be conclusive evidence of a significant purpose involving the production of income or the appreciation of property.

(iv) An investment shall not be considered as made to accomplish one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(D) if the recipient of the investment appears before, or communicates to, any legislative body with respect to legislation or proposed legislation of direct interest to such recipient, provided that the expense of engaging in such activities would qualify as a deduction under section 162.

(3)(i) Once it has been determined that an investment is “program-related” it shall not cease to qualify as a “program-related investment” provided that changes, if any, in the form or terms of the investment are made primarily for exempt purposes and not for any significant purpose involving the production of income or the appreciation of property. A change made in the form or terms of a program-related investment for the prudent protection of the foundation's investment shall not ordinarily cause the investment to cease to qualify as program-related. Under certain conditions, a program-related investment may cease to be program-related because of a critical change in circumstances, as, for example, where it is serving an illegal purpose or the private purpose of the foundation or its managers. For purposes of the preceding sentence, an investment which ceases to be program-related because of a critical change in circumstances shall in no event subject the foundation making the investment to the tax imposed by section 4944(a)(1) before the 30th day after the date on which such foundation (or any of its managers) has actual knowledge of such critical change in circumstances.

(ii) If a private foundation changes the form or terms of an investment, and if, as a result of the application of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, such investment no longer qualifies as program-related, the determination whether the investment jeopardizes the carrying out of exempt purposes shall be made pursuant to the provisions of § 53.4944-1(a)(2).

(b) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.X is a small business enterprise located in a deteriorated urban area and owned by members of an economically disadvantaged minority group. Conventional sources of funds are unwilling or unable to provide funds to X on terms it considers economically feasible. Y, a private foundation, makes a loan to X bearing interest below the market rate for commercial loans of comparable risk. Y's primary purpose for making the loan is to encourage the economic development of such minority groups. The loan has no significant purpose involving the production of income or the appreciation of property. The loan significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loan and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loan is a program-related investment even though Y may earn income from the investment in an amount comparable to or higher than earnings from conventional portfolio investments.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that after the date of execution of the loan Y extends the due date of the loan. The extension is granted in order to permit X to achieve greater financial stability before it is required to repay the loan. Since the change in the terms of the loan is made primarily for exempt purposes and not for any significant purpose involving the production of income or the appreciation of property, the loan shall continue to qualify as a program-related investment.

Example 3.X is a small business enterprise located in a deteriorated urban area and owned by members of an economically disadvantaged minority group. Conventional sources of funds are unwilling to provide funds to X at reasonable interest rates unless it increases the amount of its equity capital. Consequently, Y, a private foundation, purchases shares of X's common stock. Y's primary purpose in purchasing the stock is to encourage the economic development of such minority group, and no significant purpose involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The investment significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the investment and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the purchase of the common stock is a program-related investment, even though Y may realize a profit if X is successful and the common stock appreciates in value.

Example 4.X is a business enterprise which is not owned by low-income persons or minority group members, but the continued operation of X is important to the economic well-being of a deteriorated urban area because X employs a substantial number of low-income persons from such area. Conventional sources of funds are unwilling or unable to provide funds to X at reasonable interest rates. Y, a private foundation, makes a loan to X at an interest rate below the market rate for commercial loans of comparable risk. The loan is made pursuant to a program run by Y to assist low-income persons by providing increased economic opportunities and to prevent community deterioration. No significant purpose of the loan involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The investment significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loan and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loan is a program-related investment.

Example 5.X is a business enterprise which is financially secure and the stock of which is listed and traded on a national exchange. Y, a private foundation, makes a loan to X at an interest rate below the market rate in order to induce X to establish a new plant in a deteriorated urban area which, because of the high risks involved, X would be unwilling to establish absent such inducement. The loan is made pursuant to a program run by Y to enhance the economic development of the area by, for example, providing employment opportunities for low-income persons at the new plant, and no significant purpose involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The loan significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loan and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, even though X is large and established, the investment is program-related.

Example 6.X is a business enterprise which is owned by a nonprofit community development corporation. When fully operational, X will market agricultural products, thereby providing a marketing outlet for low-income farmers in a depressed rural area. Y, a private foundation, makes a loan to X bearing interest at a rate less than the rate charged by financial institutions which have agreed to lend funds to X if Y makes the loan. The loan is made pursuant to a program run by Y to encourage economic redevelopment of depressed areas, and no significant purpose involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The loan significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loan and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loan is a program-related investment.

Example 7.X, a private foundation, invests $100,000 in the common stock of corporation M. The dividends received from such investment are later applied by X in furtherance of its exempt purposes. Although there is a relationship between the return on the investment and the accomplishment of X's exempt activities, there is no relationship between the investment per se and such accomplishment. Therefore, the investment cannot be considered as made primarily to accomplish one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) and cannot qualify as program-related.

Example 8. S, a private foundation, makes an investment in T, a business corporation, which qualifies as a program-related investment under section 4944(c) at the time that it is made. All of T's voting stock is owned by S. T experiences financial and management problems which, in the judgment of the foundation, require changes in management, in financial structure or in the form of the investment. The following three methods of resolving the problems appear feasible to S, but each of the three methods would result in reduction of the exempt purposes for which the program-related investment was initially made:

(a) Sale of stock or assets. The foundation sells its stock to an unrelated person. Payment is made in part at the time of sale; the balance is payable over an extended term of years with interest on the amount outstanding. The foundation receives a purchase-money mortgage.

(b) Lease. The corporation leases its assets for a term of years to an unrelated person, with an option in the lessee to buy the assets. If the option is exercised, the terms of payment are to be similar to those described in (a) of this example.

(c) Management contract. The corporation enters into a management contract which gives broad operating authority to one or more unrelated persons for a term of years. The foundation and the unrelated persons are obligated to contribute toward working capital requirements. The unrelated persons will be compensated by a fixed fee or a share of profits, and they will receive an option to buy the stock held by S or the assets of the corporation. If the option is exercised, the terms of payment are to be similar to those described in (a) of this example.

Each of the three methods involves a change in the form or terms of a program-related investment for the prudent protection of the foundation's investment. Thus, under § 53.4944-3(a)(3)(i), none of the three transactions (nor any debt instruments or other obligations held by S as a result of engaging in one of these transactions) would cause the investment to cease to qualify as program-related.

Example 9.X is a socially and economically disadvantaged individual. Y, a private foundation, makes an interest-free loan to X for the primary purpose of enabling X to attend college. The loan has no significant purpose involving the production of income or the appreciation of property. The loan significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loan and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loan is a program-related investment.

Example 10.Y, a private foundation, makes a high-risk investment in low-income housing, the indebtedness with respect to which is insured by the Federal Housing Administration. Y's primary purpose in making the investment is to finance the purchase, rehabilitation, and construction of housing for low-income persons. The investment has no significant purpose involving the production of income or the appreciation of property. The investment significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the investment and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the investment is program-related.

Example 11.X is a business enterprise that researches and develops new drugs. X's research demonstrates that a vaccine can be developed within ten years to prevent a disease that predominantly affects poor individuals in developing countries. However, neither X nor other commercial enterprises like X will devote their resources to develop the vaccine because the potential return on investment is significantly less than required by X or other commercial enterprises to undertake a project to develop new drugs. Y, a private foundation, enters into an investment agreement with X in order to induce X to develop the vaccine. Pursuant to the investment agreement, Y purchases shares of the common stock of S, a subsidiary corporation that X establishes to research and develop the vaccine. The agreement requires S to distribute the vaccine to poor individuals in developing countries at a price that is affordable to the affected population, although, the agreement does not preclude S from selling the vaccine to other individuals at a market rate. The agreement also requires S to publish the research results, disclosing substantially all information about the results that would be useful to the interested public. S agrees that the publication of its research results will be made as promptly after the completion of the research as is reasonably possible without jeopardizing S's right to secure patents necessary to protect its ownership or control of the results of the research. The expected rate of return on Y's investment in S is less than the expected market rate of return for an investment of similar risk. Y's primary purpose in making the investment is to fund scientific research in the public interest. No significant purpose of the investment involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The investment significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the investment and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, Y's purchase of the common stock of S is a program-related investment.

Example 12.Q, a developing country, produces a substantial amount of recyclable solid waste materials that are currently disposed of in landfills and by incineration, contributing significantly to environmental deterioration in Q. X is a new business enterprise located in Q. X's only activity will be collecting recyclable solid waste materials in Q and delivering those materials to recycling centers that are inaccessible to a majority of the population. If successful, the recycling collection business would prevent pollution in Q caused by the usual disposition of solid waste materials. X has obtained funding from only a few commercial investors who are concerned about the environmental impact of solid waste disposal. Although X made substantial efforts to procure additional funding, X has not been able to obtain sufficient funding because the expected rate of return is significantly less than the acceptable rate of return on an investment of this type. Because X has been unable to attract additional investors on the same terms as the initial investors, Y, a private foundation, enters into an investment agreement with X to purchase shares of X's common stock on the same terms as X's initial investors. Although there is a high risk associated with the investment in X, there is also the potential for a high rate of return if X is successful in the recycling business in Q. Y's primary purpose in making the investment is to combat environmental deterioration. No significant purpose of the investment involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The investment significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the investment and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, Y's purchase of the X common stock is a program-related investment.

Example 13.Assume the facts as stated in Example 12, except that X offers Y shares of X's common stock in order to induce Y to make a below-market rate loan to X. X previously made the same offer to a number of commercial investors. These investors were unwilling to provide loans to X on such terms because the expected return on the combined package of stock and debt was below the expected market return for such a package based on the level of risk involved, and they were also unwilling to provide loans on other terms X considers economically feasible. Y accepts the stock and makes the loan on the same terms that X offered to the commercial investors. Y's primary purpose in making the investment is to combat environmental deterioration. No significant purpose of the investment involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The investment significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the investment and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loan accompanied by the acceptance of common stock is a program-related investment.

Example 14.X is a business enterprise located in V, a rural area in State Z. X employs a large number of poor individuals in V. A natural disaster occurs in V, causing significant damage to the area. The business operations of X are harmed because of damage to X's equipment and buildings. X has insufficient funds to continue its business operations and conventional sources of funds are unwilling or unable to provide loans to X on terms it considers economically feasible. In order to enable X to continue its business operations, Y, a private foundation, makes a loan to X bearing interest below the market rate for commercial loans of comparable risk. Y's primary purpose in making the loan is to provide relief to the poor and distressed. No significant purpose of the loan involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The loan significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loan and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loan is a program-related investment.

Example 15.Y, a private foundation, makes loans bearing interest below the market rate for commercial loans of comparable risk to poor individuals who live in W, a developing country, to enable them to start small businesses such as a roadside fruit stand. Conventional sources of funds were unwilling or unable to provide such loans on terms they consider economically feasible. Y's primary purpose in making the loans is to provide relief to the poor and distressed. No significant purpose of the loans involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The loans significantly further the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loans and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loans to the poor individuals who live in W are program-related investments.

Example 16.X is a limited liability company treated as a partnership for federal income tax purposes. X purchases coffee from poor farmers residing in a developing country, either directly or through farmer-owned cooperatives. To fund the provision of efficient water management, crop cultivation, pest management, and farm management training to the poor farmers by X, Y, a private foundation, makes a loan to X bearing interest below the market rate for commercial loans of comparable risk. The loan agreement requires X to use the proceeds from the loan to provide the training to the poor farmers. X would not provide such training to the poor farmers absent the loan. Y's primary purpose in making the loan is to educate poor farmers about advanced agricultural methods. No significant purpose of the loan involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The loan significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loan and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loan is a program-related investment.

Example 17.X is a social welfare organization that is recognized as an organization described in section 501(c)(4). X was formed to develop and encourage interest in painting, sculpture, and other art forms by, among other things, conducting weekly community art exhibits. X needs to purchase a large exhibition space to accommodate the demand for exhibition space within the community. Conventional sources of funds are unwilling or unable to provide funds to X on terms it considers economically feasible. Y, a private foundation, makes a loan to X at an interest rate below the market rate for commercial loans of comparable risk to fund the purchase of the new space. Y's primary purpose in making the loan is to promote the arts. No significant purpose of the loan involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The loan significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the loan and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the loan is a program-related investment.

Example 18.X is a non-profit corporation that provides child care services in a low-income neighborhood, enabling many residents of the neighborhood to be gainfully employed. X meets the requirements of section 501(k) and is recognized as an organization described in section 501(c)(3). X's current child care facility has reached capacity and has a long waiting list. X has determined that the demand for its services warrants the construction of a new child care facility in the same neighborhood. X is unable to obtain a loan from conventional sources of funds including B, a commercial bank because of X's credit record. Pursuant to a deposit agreement, Y, a private foundation, deposits $h in B, and B lends an identical amount to X to construct the new child care facility. The deposit agreement requires Y to keep $h on deposit with B during the term of X's loan and provides that if X defaults on the loan, B may deduct the amount of the default from the deposit. To facilitate B's access to the funds in the event of default, the agreement requires that the funds be invested in instruments that allow B to access them readily. The deposit agreement also provides that Y will earn interest at a rate of t% on the deposit. The t% rate is substantially less than Y could otherwise earn on this sum of money, if Y invested it elsewhere. The loan agreement between B and X requires X to use the proceeds from the loan to construct the new child care facility. Y's primary purpose in making the deposit is to further its educational purposes by enabling X to provide child care services within the meaning of section 501(k). No significant purpose of the deposit involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The deposit significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the deposit and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the deposit is a program-related investment.

Example 19.Assume the same facts as stated in Example 18, except that instead of making a deposit of $h into B, Y enters into a guarantee agreement with B. The guarantee agreement provides that if X defaults on the loan, Y will repay the balance due on the loan to B. B was unwilling to make the loan to X in the absence of Y's guarantee. X must use the proceeds from the loan to construct the new child care facility. At the same time, X and Y enter into a reimbursement agreement whereby X agrees to reimburse Y for any and all amounts paid to B under the guarantee agreement. The signed guarantee and reimbursement agreements together constitute a “guarantee and reimbursement arrangement.” Y's primary purpose in entering into the guarantee and reimbursement arrangement is to further Y's educational purposes. No significant purpose of the guarantee and reimbursement arrangement involves the production of income or the appreciation of property. The guarantee and reimbursement arrangement significantly furthers the accomplishment of Y's exempt activities and would not have been made but for such relationship between the guarantee and reimbursement arrangement and Y's exempt activities. Accordingly, the guarantee and reimbursement arrangement is a program-related investment.

(c) Effective/applicability date. Paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (b), Examples 11 through 19 of this section, apply on or after April 25, 2016.

[T.D. 7240, 37 FR 28747, Dec. 27, 1972, as amended by T.D. 9762, 81 FR 24017, Apr. 25, 2016]

§ 53.4944-4 Special rules.

(a) Joint and several liability. In any case where more than one foundation manager is liable for the tax imposed under section 4944 (a)(2) or (b)(2) with respect to any one jeopardizing investment, all such foundation managers shall be jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed under each such paragraph with respect to such investment.

(b) Limits on liability for management. With respect to anyone jeopardizing investment, the maximum aggregate amount of tax collectible under section 4944(a)(2) from all foundation managers shall not exceed $5,000, and the maximum aggregate amount of tax collectible under section 4944(b)(2) from all foundation managers shall not exceed $10,000.

(c) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A, B, and C are foundation managers of X, a private foundation. Assume that A, B, and C are liable for both initial and additional taxes under sections 4944(a)(2) and 4944(b)(2), respectively, for the following investments by X: an investment of $5,000 in the common stock of corporation M, and an investment of $10,000 in the common stock of corporation N. A, B, and C will be jointly and severally liable for the following initial taxes under section 4944(a)(2): a tax of $250 (i.e., 5 percent of $5,000) for each year (or part thereof) in the taxable period (as defined in section 4944(e)(1)) for the investment in M, and a tax of $500 (i.e., 5 percent of $10,000) for each year (or part thereof) in the taxable period for the investment in N. Further, A, B, and C will be jointly and severally liable for the following additional taxes under section 4944(b)(2): a tax of $250 (i.e., 5 percent of $5,000) for the investment in M, and a tax of $500 (i.e., 5 percent of $10,000) for the investment in N.

Example 2.Assume the facts as stated in Example (1), except that X has invested $500,000 in the common stock of M, and $1 million in the common stock of N. A, B, and C will be jointly and severally liable for the following initial taxes under section 4944(a)(2): a tax of $5,000 for the investment in M, and a tax of $5,000 for the investment in N. Further, A, B, and C will be jointly and severally liable for the following additional taxes under section 4944(b) (2): a tax of $10,000 for the investment in M, and a tax of $10,000 for the investment in N.

§ 53.4944-5 Definitions.

(a) Taxable period—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4944, the term “taxable period” means, with respect to any investment which jeopardizes the carrying out of a private foundation's exempt purposes, the period beginning with the date on which the amount is invested and ending on the earliest of:

(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed on the making of the investment by section 4944(a)(1);

(ii) The date on which the amount invested is removed from jeopardy; or

(iii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4944(a)(1) is assessed.

(2) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in subparagraph (1) (i) of this paragraph is not mailed because there is a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency, or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the taxable period.

(b) Removal from jeopardy. An investment which jeopardizes the carrying out of a private foundation's exempt purposes shall be considered to be removed from jeopardy when:

(1) The foundation sells or otherwise disposes of the investment, and

(2) The proceeds of such sale or other disposition are not themselves investments which jeopardize the carrying out of such foundation's exempt purposes.

A change by a private foundation in the form or terms of a jeopardizing investment shall result in the removal of the investment from jeopardy if, after such change, the investment no longer jeopardizes the carrying out of such foundation's exempt purposes. For purposes of section 4944, the making by a private foundation of one jeopardizing investment and a subsequent exchange by the foundation of such investment for another jeopardizing investment will be treated as only one jeopardizing investment, except as provided in § 53.4944-6 (b) and (c). For the treatment of a jeopardizing investment which is removed from jeopardy or otherwise transferred by a private foundation by the making of a grant or by bargain-sale, see sections 4941 and 4945 and the regulations thereunder. A jeopardizing investment cannot be removed from jeopardy by a transfer from a private foundation to another private foundation which is related to the transferor foundation within the meaning of section 4946(a) (1)(H) (i) or (ii), unless the investment is a program-related investment in the hands of the transferee foundation.

(c) Examples. The provisions of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.X, a private foundation on the calendar year basis, makes a $1,000 jeopardizing investment on January 1, 1970. X thereafter sells the investment for $1,000 on January 3, 1971. The taxable period is from January 1, 1970, to January 3, 1971. X will be liable for an initial tax of $100, that is, a tax of 5 percent of the amount of the investment for each year (or part thereof) in the taxable period.

Example 2.Assume that both C and D are investments which jeopardize exempt purposes. X, a private foundation, purchases C in 1971 and later exchanges C for D. Such exchange does not constitute a removal of C from jeopardy. In addition, no new taxable period will arise with respect to D, since, for purposes of section 4944, only one jeopardizing investment has been made.

Example 3.Assume the facts as stated in Example (2), except that X sells C for cash and later reinvests such cash in D. Two separate investments jeopardizing exempt purposes have resulted. Since the cash received in the interim is not of a jeopardizing nature, the amount invested in C has been removed from jeopardy and, thus, the taxable period with respect to C has been terminated. The subsequent reinvestment of such cash in D gives rise to a new taxable period with respect to D.

(d) Cross reference. For rules relating to taxable events that are corrected within the correction period, defined in section 4963(e), see section 4961(a) and the regulations thereunder.

[T.D. 7240, 37 FR 28747, Dec. 27, 1972, as amended by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16303, May 2, 1986]

§ 53.4944-6 Special rules for investments made prior to January 1, 1970.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, an investment made by a private foundation prior to January 1, 1970, shall not be subject to the provisions of section 4944.

(b) If the form or terms of an investment made by a private foundation prior to January 1, 1970, are changed (other than as described in paragraph (c) of this section) on or after such date, the provisions of § 53.4944-1(a)(2)(iii) shall apply with respect to such investment.

(c) In the case of an investment made by a private foundation prior to January 1, 1970, which is exchanged on or after such date for another investment, for purposes of section 4944 the foundation will be considered to have made a new investment on the date of such exchange, unless the post-1969 investment is described in § 53.4944-1(a)(2)(ii)(b). Accordingly, a determination, under § 53.4944-1(a) (2)(i), whether the investment jeopardizes the carrying out of the foundation's exempt purposes shall be made at such time.

Subpart F Taxes on Taxable Expenditures

Source: T.D. 7215, 37 FR 23161, Oct. 31, 1972, unless otherwise noted.

§ 53.4945-1 Taxes on taxable expenditures.

(a) Imposition of initial taxes—(1) Tax on private foundation. Section 4945(a)(1) of the Code imposes an excise tax on each taxable expenditure (as defined in section 4945(d)) of a private foundation. This tax is to be paid by the private foundation and is at the rate of 10 percent of the amount of each taxable expenditure.

(2) Tax on foundation manager—(i) In general. Section 4945(a)(2) of the Code imposes, under certain circumstances, an excise tax on the agreement of any foundation manager to the making of a taxable expenditure by a private foundation. This tax is imposed only in cases in which the following circumstances are present:

(a) A tax is imposed by section 4945(a)(1);

(b) Such foundation manager knows that the expenditure to which he agrees is a taxable expenditure, and

(c) Such agreement is willfull and is not due to reasonable cause.

However, the tax with respect to any particular expenditure applies only to the agreement of those foundation managers who are authorized to approve, or to exercise discretion in recommending approval of, the making of the expenditure by the foundation and to those foundation managers who are members of a group (such as the foundation's board of directors or trustees) which is so authorized. For the definition of the term foundation manager, see section 4946(b) and the regulations thereunder.

(ii) Agreement. The agreement of any foundation manager to the making of a taxable expenditure shall consist of any manifestation of approval of the expenditure which is sufficient to constitute an exercise of the foundation manager's authority to approve, or to exercise discretion in recommending approval of, the making of the expenditure by the foundation, whether or not such manifestation of approval is the final or decisive approval on behalf of the foundation.

(iii) Knowing. For purposes of section 4945, a foundation manager shall be considered to have agreed to an expenditure “knowing” that it is a taxable expenditure only if:

(a) He has actual knowledge of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon such facts, such expenditure would be a taxable expenditure,

(b) He is aware that such an expenditure under these circumstances may violate the provisions of federal tax law governing taxable expenditures, and

(c) He negligently fails to make reasonable attempts to ascertain whether the expenditure is a taxable expenditure, or he is in fact aware that it is such an expenditure.

For purposes of this part and Chapter 42, the term knowing does not mean “having reason to know”. However, evidence tending to show that a foundation manager has reason to know of a particular fact or particular rule is relevant in determining whether he had actual knowledge of such fact or rule. Thus, for example, evidence tending to show that a foundation manager has reason to know of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon such facts, an expenditure would be a taxable expenditure is relevant in determining whether he has actual knowledge of such facts.

(iv) Willful. A foundation manager's agreement to a taxable expenditure is willful if it is voluntary, conscious, and intentional. No motive to avoid the restrictions of the law or the incurrence of any tax is necessary to make an agreement willful. However, a foundation manager's agreement to a taxable expenditure is not willful if he does not know that it is a taxable expenditure.

(v) Due to reasonable cause. A foundation manager's actions are due to reasonable cause if he has exercised his responsibility on behalf of the foundation with ordinary business care and prudence.

(vi) Advice of counsel. If a foundation manager, after full disclosure of the factual situation to legal counsel (including house counsel), relies on the advice of such counsel expressed in a reasoned written legal opinion that an expenditure is not a taxable expenditure under section 4945 (or that expenditures conforming to certain guidelines are not taxable expenditures), although such expenditure is subsequently held to be a taxable expenditure (or that certain proposed reporting procedures with respect to an expenditure will satisfy the tests of section 4945(h), although such procedures are subsequently held not to satisfy such section), the foundation manager's agreement to such expenditure (or to grants made with provision for such reporting procedures which are taxable solely because of such inadequate reporting procedures) will ordinarily not be considered “knowing” or “willful” and will ordinarily be considered “due to reasonable cause” within the meaning of section 4945(a)(2). For purposes of the subdivision, a written legal opinion will be considered “reasoned” even if it reaches a conclusion which is subsequently determined to be incorrect so long as such opinion addresses itself to the facts and applicable law. However, a written legal opinion will not be considered “reasoned” if it does nothing more than recite the facts and express a conclusion. However, the absence of advice of counsel with respect to an expenditure shall not, by itself, give rise to any inference that a foundation manager agreed to the making of the expenditure knowingly, willfully, or without reasonable cause.

(vii) Rate and incidence of tax. The tax imposed under section 4945(a)(2) is at the rate of 2 1/2 percent of the amount of each taxable expenditure to which the foundation manager has agreed. This tax shall be paid by the foundation manager.

(viii) Cross reference. For provisions relating to the burden of proof in cases involving the issue whether a foundation manager has knowingly agreed to the making of a taxable expenditure, see section 7454(b).

(b) Imposition of additional taxes—(1) Tax on private foundation. Section 4945(b)(1) of the Code imposes an excise tax in any case in which an initial tax is imposed under section 4945(a)(1) on a taxable expenditure of a private foundation and the expenditure is not corrected within the taxable period (as defined in section 4945(i)(2)). The tax imposed under section 4945(b)(1) is to be paid by the private foundation and is at the rate of 100 percent of the amount of each taxable expenditure.

(2) Tax on foundation manager. Section 4945(b)(2) of the Code imposes an excise tax in any case in which a tax is imposed under section 4945(b)(1) and a foundation manager has refused to agree to part or all of the correction of the taxable expenditure. The tax imposed under section 4945(b)(2) is at the rate of 50 percent of the amount of the taxable expenditure. This tax is to be paid by any foundation manager who has refused to agree to part or all of the correction of the taxable expenditure.

(c) Special rules—(1) Joint and several liability. In any case where more than one foundation manager is liable for tax imposed under section 4945 (a) (2) or (b)(2) with respect to the making of a taxable expenditure, all such foundation managers shall be jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed under such paragraph with respect to such taxable expenditure.

(2) Limits on liability for management. The maximum aggregate amount of tax collectible under section 4945(a)(2) from all foundation managers with respect to any one taxable expenditure shall be $5,000, and the maximum aggregate amount of tax collectible under section 4945(b) (2) from all foundation managers with respect to any one taxable expenditure shall be $10,000.

(3) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A, B, and C comprise the board of directors of Foundation M. They vote unanimously in favor of a grant of $100,000 to D, a business associate of each of the directors. The grant is to be used by D for travel and educational purposes and is not made in accordance with the requirements of section 4945(g). Each director knows that D was selected as the recipient of the grant solely because of his friendship with the directors and is aware that some grants made for travel, study, or other similar purposes may be taxable expenditures. Also, none of the directors makes any attempt to consult counsel, or to otherwise determine, whether this grant is a taxable expenditure. Initial taxes are imposed under paragraphs (1) and (2) of section 4945(a). The tax to be paid by the foundation is $10,000 (10 percent of $100,000). The tax to be paid by the board of directors is $2,500 (2 1/2 percent of $100,000). A, B, and C are jointly and severally liable for this $2,500 and this sum may be collected by the Service from any one of them.

Example 2.Assume the same facts as in example (1). Further assume that within the taxable period A makes a motion to correct the taxable expenditure at a meeting of the board of directors. The motion is defeated by a two-to-one vote, A voting for the motion and B and C voting against it. In these circumstances an additional tax is imposed on the private foundation in the amount of $100,000 (100 percent of $100,000). The additional tax imposed on B and C is $10,000 (50 percent of $100,000 subject to a maximum of $10,000). B and C are jointly and severally liable for the $10,000, and this sum may be collected by the Service from either of them.

(d) Correction—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (d) (2) or (3) of this paragraph, correction of a taxable expenditure shall be accomplished by recovering part or all of the expenditure to the extent recovery is possible, and, where full recovery cannot be accomplished, by any additional corrective action which the Commissioner may prescribe. Such additional corrective action is to be determined by the circumstances of each particular case and may include the following:

(i) Requiring that any unpaid funds due the grantee be withheld;

(ii) Requiring that no further grants be made to the particular grantee;

(iii) In addition to other reports that are required, requiring periodic (e.g., quarterly) reports from the foundation with respect to all expenditures of the foundation (such reports shall be equivalent in detail to the reports required by section 4945(h)(3) and § 53.4945-5(d));

(iv) Requiring improved methods of exercising expenditure responsibility;

(v) Requiring improved methods of selecting recipients of individual grants; and

(vi) Requiring such other measures as the Commissioner may prescribe in a particular case.

The foundation making the expenditure shall not be under any obligation to attempt to recover the expenditure by legal action if such action would in all probability not result in the satisfaction of execution on a judgment.

(2) Correction for inadequate reporting. If the expenditure is taxable only because of a failure to obtain a full and complete report as required by section 4945(h)(2) or because of a failure to make a full and detailed report as required by section 4945(h)(3), correction may be accomplished by obtaining or making the report in question. In addition, if the expenditure is taxable only because of a failure to obtain a full and complete report as required by section 4945(h)(2) and an investigation indicates that no grant funds have been diverted to any use not in furtherance of a purpose specified in the grant, correction may be accomplished by exerting all reasonable efforts to obtain the report in question and reporting the failure to the Internal Revenue Service, even though the report is not finally obtained.

(3) Correction for failure to obtain advance approval. Where an expenditure is taxable under section 4945(d)(3) only because of a failure to obtain advance approval of procedures with respect to grants as required by section 4945(g), correction may be accomplished by obtaining approval of the grant making procedures and establishing to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that:

(i) No grant funds have been diverted to any use not in furtherance of a purpose specified in the grant;

(ii) The grant making procedures instituted would have been approved if advance approval of such procedures had been properly requested; and

(iii) Where advance approval of grant making procedures is subsequently required, such approval will be properly requested.

(e) Certain periods—(1) Taxable period. For purposes of section 4945, the term “taxable period” means, with respect to any taxable expenditure, the period beginning with the date on which the taxable expenditure occurs and ending on the earlier of:

(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed on taxable expenditures by section 4945(a)(1); or

(ii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4945(a)(1) is assessed.

(2) Cross reference. For rules relating to taxable events that are corrected within the correction period, defined in section 4963(e), see section 4961(a) and the regulations thereunder.

[T.D. 7215, 37 FR 23161, Oct. 31, 1972, as amended by T.D. 7299, 38 FR 35305, Dec. 27, 1973; T.D. 7527, 42 FR 64625, Dec. 27, 1977; T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16303, May 2, 1986]

§ 53.4945-2 Propaganda influencing legislation.

(a) Propaganda influencing legislation, etc.—(1) In general. Under section 4945(d)(1) the term “taxable expenditure” includes any amount paid or incurred by a private foundation to carry on propaganda, or otherwise to attempt, to influence legislation. An expenditure is an attempt to influence legislation if it is for a direct or grass roots lobbying communication, as defined in § 56.4911-2 (without reference to §§ 56.4911-2(b)(3) and 56.4911-2(c)) and § 56.4911-3. See, however, paragraph (d) of this section for exceptions to the general rule of this paragraph (a)(1).

(2) Expenditures for membership communications. Section 56.4911-5, which provides special rules for electing public charities' communications with their members, does not apply to private foundations. Thus, whether a private foundation's communications with its members (assuming it has any) are lobbying communications is determined solely under § 56.4911-2 and without reference to § 56.4911-5. However, where a private foundation makes a grant to an electing public charity, § 56.4911-5 applies to the electing public charity's communications with its own members. Therefore, in the limited context of determining whether a private foundation's grant to an electing public charity is a taxable expenditure under section 4945, the § 56.4911-5 membership rules apply. For example, if the grant is specifically earmarked for a communication from the electing public charity to its members and the communication is, because of § 56.4911-5, a nonlobbying communication, the grant is not a taxable expenditure under section 4945.

(3) Jointly funded projects. A private foundation will not be treated as having paid or incurred any amount to attempt to influence legislation merely because it makes a grant to another organization upon the condition that the recipient obtain a matching support appropriation from a governmental body. In addition, a private foundation will not be treated as having made taxable expenditures of amounts paid or incurred in carrying on discussions with officials of governmental bodies provided that:

(i) The subject of such discussions is a program which is jointly funded by the foundation and the Government or is a new program which may be jointly funded by the foundation and the Government,

(ii) The discussions are undertaken for the purpose of exchanging data and information on the subject matter of the programs, and

(iii) Such discussions are not undertaken by foundation managers in order to make any direct attempt to persuade governmental officials or employees to take particular positions on specific legislative issues other than such program.

(4) Certain expenditures by recipients of program-related investments. Any amount paid or incurred by a recipient of a program-related investment (as defined in § 53.4944-3) in connection with an appearance before, or communication with, any legislative body with respect to legislation or proposed legislation of direct interest to such recipient shall not be attributed to the investing foundation, if:

(i) The foundation does not earmark its funds to be used for any activities described in section 4945(d) (1) and

(ii) A deduction under section 162 is allowable to the recipient for such amount.

(5) Grants to public organizations—(i) In general. A grant by a private foundation to an organization described in section 509(a) (1), (2) or (3) does not constitute a taxable expenditure by the foundation under section 4945(d), other than under section 4945(d)(1), if the grant by the private foundation is not earmarked to be used for any activity described in section 4945(d) (2) or (5), is not earmarked to be used in a manner which would violate section 4945(d) (3) or (4), and there does not exist an agreement, oral or written, whereby the grantor foundation may cause the grantee to engage in any such prohibited activity or to select the recipient to which the grant is to be devoted. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(5)(i), a grant by a private foundation is earmarked if the grant is given pursuant to an agreement, oral or written, that the grant will be used for specific purposes. For the expenditure responsibility requirements with respect to organizations other than those described in section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3), see § 53.4945-5. For rules for determining whether grants to public charities are taxable expenditures under section 4945(d)(1), see paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(6) and (a)(7) of this section.

(ii) Certain “public” organizations. For purposes of this section, an organization shall be considered a section 509(a)(1) organization if it is treated as such under subparagraph (4) of § 53.4945-5(a).

(6) Grants to public organizations that attempt to influence legislation—(i) General support grant. A general support grant by a private foundation to the organization described in section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3) (a “public charity” for purposes of paragraphs (a) (6) and (7) of this section) does not constitute a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1) to the extent that the grant is not earmarked, within the meaning of § 53.4945-2(a)(5)(i), to be used in an attempt to influence legislation. The preceding sentence applies without regard to whether the public charity has made the election under section 501(h).

(ii) Specific project grant. A grant, by a private foundation to fund a specific project of a public charity is not a taxable expenditure by the foundation under section 4945(d)(1) to the extent that—

(A) The grant is not earmarked, within the meaning of § 53.4945-2(a)(5)(i), to be used in an attempt to influence legislation, and

(B) The amount of the grant, together with other grants by the same private foundation for the same project for the same year, does not exceed the amount budgeted, for the year of the grant, by the grantee organization for activities of the project that are not attempts to influence legislation. If the grant is for more than one year, the preceding sentence applies to each year of the grant with the amount of the grant measured by the amount actually disbursed by the private foundation in each year or divided equally between years, at the option of the private foundation. The same method of measuring the annual amount must be used in all years of a grant. This paragraph (a)(6)(ii) applies without regard to whether the public charity has made the election under section 501(h).

(iii) Reliance upon grantee's budget. For purposes of determining the amount budgeted by a prospective grantee for specific project activities that are not attempts to influence legislation under paragraph (a)(6)(ii) of this section, a private foundation may rely on budget documents or other sufficient evidence supplied by the grantee organization (such as a signed statement by an authorized officer, director or trustee of such grantee organization) showing the proposed budget of the specific project, unless the private foundation doubts or, in light of all the facts and circumstances, reasonably should doubt the accuracy or reliability of the documents.

(7) Grants to organizations that cease to be described in 501(c)(3)—(i) Not taxable expenditure; conditions. A grant to a public charity (as defined in paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section) that thereafter ceases to be an organization described in section 501(c)(3) by reason of its attempts to influence legislation is not a taxable expenditure if—

(A) The grant meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(6) of this section,

(B) The recipient organization had received a ruling or determination letter, or an advance ruling or determination letter, that it is described in sections 501(c)(3) and 509(a),

(C) Notice of a change in the recipient organization's status has not been made to the public (such as by publication in the Internal Revenue Bulletin), and the private foundation has not acquired knowledge that the Internal Revenue Service has given notice to the recipient organization that it will be deleted from such status; and

(D) The recipient organization is not controlled directly or indirectly by the private foundation. A recipient organization is controlled by a private foundation for this purpose if the private foundation and disqualified persons (defined in section 4946(a)(1) (A) through (H) with reference to the private foundation, by aggregating their votes or positions of authority, can cause or prevent action on legislative issues by the recipient.

(ii) Examples. The provisions of paragraphs (a)(6) and (a)(7) of this section are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.W, a private foundation, makes a general support grant to Z, a public charity described in section 509(a)(1). Z informs W that, as an insubstantial portion of its activities, Z attempts to influence the State legislature with regard to changes in the mental health laws. The use of the grant is not earmarked by W to be used in a manner that would violate section 4945(d)(1). Even if the grant is subsequently devoted by Z to its legislative activities, the grant by W is not a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d).

Example 2.X, a private foundation, makes a specific project grant to Y University for the purpose of conducting research on the potential environmental effects of certain pesticides. X does not earmark the grant for any purpose that would violate section 4945(d)(1) and there is no oral or written agreement or understanding whereby X may cause Y to engage in any activity described in section 4945(d) (1), (2), or (5), or to select any recipient to which the grant may be devoted. Further, X determines, based on budget information supplied by Y, that Y's budget for the project does not contain any amount for attempts to influence legislation. X has no reason to doubt the accuracy or reliability of the budget information. Y uses most of the funds for the research project; however, Y expends a portion of the grant funds to send a representative to testify at Congressional hearings on a specific bill proposing certain pesticide control measures. The portion of the grant funds expended with respect to the Congressional hearings is not treated as a taxable expenditure by X under section 4945(d)(1).

Example 3.M, a private foundation, makes a specific project grant of $150,000 to P, a public charity described in section 509(a)(1). In requesting the grant from M, P stated that the total budgeted cost of the project is $200,000, and that of this amount $20,000 is allocated to attempts to influence legislation related to the project. M relies on the budget figures provided by P in determining the amount P will spend on influencing legislation and M has no reason to doubt the accuracy or reliability of P's budget figures. In making the grant, M did not earmark any of the funds from the grant to be used for attempts to influence legislation. M's grant of $150,000 to P will not constitute a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1) because M did not earmark any of the funds for attempts to influence legislation and because the amount of its grant ($150,000) does not exceed the amount allocated to specific project activities that are not attempts to influence legislation ($200,000 − $20,000 = $180,000).

Example 4.Assume the same facts as in example (3), except that M's grant letter to P provides that M has the right to renegotiate the terms of the grant if there is a substantial deviation from those terms. This additional fact does not make M's grant a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1).

Example 5.Assume the same facts as in example (3), except that M made a specific project grant of $200,000 to P. Part of M's grant of $200,000 will constitute a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1). The amount of the grant ($200,000) exceeds by $20,000 the amount P allocated to specific project activities that are not attempts to influence legislation ($180,000). M has made a taxable expenditure of $20,000.

Example 6.Assume the same facts as example (3), except that M made a specific project grant of $180,000, and received from P an enforceable commitment that grant funds would not be used in connection with attempts to influence legislation. M's grant is not a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1).

Example 7.Assume the same facts as in example (3) except that M directed P to hire A, an individual, to expend $20,000 from the grant to engage in direct lobbying (within the meaning of § 56.4911-2(b)) and grass roots lobbying (within the meaning of § 56.4911-2(c)). P does not expend any other grant funds for lobbying activities. The $20,000 that is earmarked for direct lobbying and grass roots lobbying is a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1).

Example 8.R, a public charity described in section 509(a)(1), requested N, a private foundation, to make a general purpose grant to it to aid R in carrying out its exempt purpose. In making this request, R notified N that it had elected the expenditure test under section 501(h) and that it expected to attempt to influence legislation in areas related to its exempt purpose. Since its formation, R generally has had exempt purpose expenditures (as defined in § 56.4911-4) in excess of $7,000,000 in each of its taxable years, and has budgeted in excess of $7,000,000 of exempt purpose expenditures for the year of the grant. N made a grant of $200,000 to R. N did not earmark the funds for R's attempt to influence legislation. The general purpose grant by N does not constitute a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1).

Example 9.Assume the same facts as in example (8), except that N learns that R has had excess lobbying expenditures (within the meaning of § 56.4911-1(b)) in some prior years. N also learns that in no year has R's lobbying or grass roots expenditures (within the meaning of § 56.4911-2 (a) and (c)) exceeded the corresponding ceiling amount (within the meaning of § 1.501(h)-3(c) (3) and (6)). N then makes the grant to R. After receiving the grant, R spends a large portion of its funds on influencing legislation and, as a consequence, is denied exemption from tax, as an organization described in section 501(c)(3), under section 501(h) and § 1.501(h)-3. No disqualified person with respect to N controlled, in whole or in part, R's attempts to influence legislation. The general purpose grant will not constitute a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1).

Example 10.X, a private foundation, makes a specific project grant to Y, a public charity described in section 509(a). In requesting the grant, Y stated that it planned to use the funds to purchase a computer for purpose of computerizing its research files and that the grant will not be used to influence legislation. Two years after X makes the grant, X discovers that Y has also used the computer for purposes of maintaining and updating the mailing list for Y's lobbying newsletter. Because X did not earmark any of the grant funds to be used for attempts to influence legislation and because X had no reason to doubt the accuracy or reliability of Y's documents representing that the grant would not be used to influence legislation, X's grant is not treated as a taxable expenditure.

Example 11.G, a private foundation, makes a specific project grant of $300,000 to L, a public charity described in section 509(a)(1) for a three-year specific project studying child care problems. L provides budget material indicating that the specific project will expend $200,000 in each of three years. L's budget materials indicate that attempts to influence legislation will amount to $10,000 in the first year, $20,000 in the second year and $100,000 in the third year. G intends to pay its $300,000 grant over three years as follows: $200,000 in the first year, $50,000 in the second year and $50,000 in the third year. The amount of the grant actually disbursed by G in the first year of the grant exceeds the nonlobbying expenditures of L in that year. However, because the amount of the grant in each of the three years, when divided equally among the three years ($100,000 for each year), is not more than the nonlobbying expenditures of L on the specific project for any of the three years, none of the grant is treated as a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1).

Example 12.P, a private foundation, makes a $120,000 specific project grant to C, a public charity described in section 509(a) for a three-year project. P intends to pay its grant to C in three equal annual installments of $40,000. C provides budget material indicating that the specific project will expend $100,000 in each of three years. C's budget materials, which P reasonably does not doubt, indicate that the project's attempts to influence legislation will amount to $50,000 in each of the three years. After P pays the first annual installment to C, but before P pays the second installment to C, reliable information comes to P's attention that C has spent $90,000 of the project's $100,000 first-year budget on attempts to influence legislation. This information causes P to doubt the accuracy and reliability of C's budget materials. Because of the information, P does not pay the second-year installment to C. P's payment of the first installment of $40,000 is not a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1) because the grant in the first year is not more than the nonlobbying expenditures C projected in its budget materials that P reasonably did not doubt.

Example 13.Assume the same facts as in Example (12), except that P pays the second-year installment of $40,000 to C. In the project's second year, C once again spends $90,000 of the project's $100,000 annual budget in attempts to influence legislation. Because P doubts or reasonably should doubt the accuracy or reliability of C's budget materials when P makes the second-year grant payment, P may not rely upon C's budget documents at that time. Accordingly, although none of the $40,000 paid in the first installment is a taxable expenditure, only $10,000 ($100,000 minus $90,000) of the second-year grant payment is not a taxable expenditure. The remaining $30,000 of the second installment is a taxable expenditure within the meaning of section 4945(d)(1).

Example 14.B, a private foundation, makes a specific project grant to C, a public charity described in section 509(a), of $40,000 for the purpose of conducting a study on the effectiveness of seat belts in preventing traffic deaths. B did not earmark any of the grant for attempts to influence legislation. In requesting the grant from B, C submitted a budget of $100,000 for the project. The budget contained expenses for postage and mailing, computer time, advertising, consulting services, salaries, printing, advertising, and similar categories of expenses. C also submitted to B a statement, signed by an officer of C, that 30% of the budgeted funds would be devoted to attempts to influence legislation within the meaning of section 4945. B has no reason to doubt the accuracy of the budget figures or the statement. B may rely on the budget figures and signed statement provided by C in determining the amount C will spend on influencing legislation. B's grant to C will not constitute a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1), because the amount of the grant does not exceed the amount allocated to specific project activities that are not attempts to influence legislation.

(b)-(c) [Reserved]

(d) Exceptions—(1) Nonpartisan analysis, study, or research—(i) In general. A communication is not a lobbying communication, for purposes of § 53.4945-2(a)(1), if the communication constitutes engaging in nonpartisan analysis, study or research and making available to the general public or a segment or members thereof or to governmental bodies, officials, or employees the results of such work. Accordingly, an expenditure for such a communication does not constitute a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(1) and § 53.4945-2(a)(1).

(ii) Nonpartisan analysis, study, or research. For purposes of section 4945(e), “nonpartisan analysis, study, or research” means an independent and objective exposition of a particular subject matter, including any activity that is “educational” within the meaning of § 1.501(c)(3)-1(d)(3). Thus, “nonpartisan analysis, study, or research” may advocate a particular position or viewpoint so long as there is a sufficiently full and fair exposition of the pertinent facts to enable the public or an individual to form an independent opinion or conclusion. On the other hand, the mere presentation of unsupported opinion does not qualify as “nonpartisan analysis, study, or research”.

(iii) Presentation as part of a series. Normally, whether a publication or broadcast qualifies as “nonpartisan analysis, study, or research” will be determined on a presentation-by-presentation basis. However, if a publication or broadcast is one of a series prepared or supported by a private foundation and the series as a whole meets the standards of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, then any individual publication or broadcast within the series will not result in a taxable expenditure even though such individual broadcast or publication does not, by itself, meet the standards of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph. Whether a broadcast or publication is considered part of a series will ordinarily depend on all the facts and circumstances of each particular situation. However, with respect to broadcast activities, all broadcasts within any period of 6 consecutive months will ordinarily be eligible to be considered as part of a series. If a private foundation times or channels a part of a series which is described in this subdivision in a manner designed to influence the general public or the action of a legislative body with respect to a specific legislative proposal in violation of section 4945(d)(1), the expenses of preparing and distributing such part of the analysis, study, or research will be a taxable expenditure under this section.

(iv) Making available results of analysis, study, or research. A private foundation may choose any suitable means, including oral or written presentations, to distribute the results of its nonpartisan analysis, study, or research, with or without charge. Such means include distribution of reprints of speeches, articles, and reports (including the report required under section 6056); presentation of information through conferences, meetings, and discussions; and dissemination to the news media, including radio, television, and newspapers, and to other public forums. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(1)(iv), such communications may not be limited to, or be directed toward, persons who are interested solely in one side of a particular issue.

(v) Subsequent lobbying use of certain analysis, study, or research—(A) In general. Even though certain analysis, study or research is initially within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research, subsequent use of that analysis, study or research for grass roots lobbying may cause that analysis, study or research to be treated as a grass roots lobbying communication that is not within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research. This paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section does not cause any analysis, study, or research to be considered a direct lobbying communication. For rules regarding when analysis, study, or research is treated as a grass roots lobbying communication that is not within the scope of the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research, see § 56.4911-2(b)(2)(v).

(B) Special rule for grants to public charities. This paragraph (d)(1)(v)(B) of this section applies where a public charity uses a private foundation grant to finance, in whole or in part, a nonlobbying communication that is subsequently used in lobbying, causing the public charity's expenditures for the communication to be treated as lobbying expenditures under the subsequent use. In such a case, the private foundation's grant will ordinarily not be characterized as a lobbying expenditure by virtue of the subsequent use rule. The only situations where the private foundation's grant will be treated as a lobbying expenditure under the subsequent use rule are where the private foundation's primary purpose in making the grant to the public charity was for lobbying or where, at the time of making the grant, the private foundation knows (or in light of all the facts and circumstances reasonably should know) that the public charity's primary purpose in preparing the communication to be funded by the grant is for use in lobbying.

(vi) Directly encouraging action by recipients of a communication. A communication that reflects a view on specific legislation is not within the nonpartisan analysis, study, or research exception of this § 53.4945-2(d)(1) if the communication directly encourages the recipient to take action with respect to such legislation. For purposes of this section, a communication directly encourages the recipient to take action with respect to legislation if the communication is described in one or more of § 56.4911-2(b)(2)(iii)(A) through (C). As described in § 56.4911-2(b)(2)(iv), a communication would encourage the recipient to take action with respect to legislation, but not directly encourage such action, if the communication does no more than specifically identify one or more legislators who will vote on the legislation as: opposing the communication's view with respect to the legislation; being undecided with respect to the legislation; being the recipient's representative in the legislature; or being a member of the legislative committee or subcommittee that will consider the legislation.

(vii) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.M, a private foundation, establishes a research project to collect information for the purpose of showing the dangers of the use of pesticides in raising crops. The information collected includes data with respect to proposed legislation, pending before several State legislatures, which would ban the use of pesticides. The project takes favorable positions on such legislation without producing a sufficiently full and fair exposition of the pertinent facts to enable the public or an individual to form an independent opinion or conclusion on the pros and cons of the use of pesticides. This project is not within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research because it is designed to present information merely on one side of the legislative controversy.

Example 2.N, a private foundation, establishes a research project to collect information concerning the dangers of the use of pesticides in raising crops for the ostensible purpose of examining and reporting information as to the pros and cons of the use of pesticides in raising crops. The information is collected and distributed in the form of a published report which analyzes the effects and costs of the use and nonuse of various pesticides under various conditions on humans, animals, and crops. The report also presents the advantages, disadvantages, and economic cost of allowing the continued use of pesticides unabated, of controlling the use of pesticides, and of developing alternatives to pesticides. Even if the report sets forth conclusions that the disadvantages as a result of using pesticides are greater than the advantages of using pesticides and that prompt legislative regulation of the use of pesticides is needed, the project is within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study or research since it is designed to present information on both sides of the legislative controversy and presents a sufficiently full and fair exposition of the pertinent facts to enable the public or an individual to form an independent opinion or conclusion.

Example 3.O, a private foundation, establishes a research project to collect information on the presence or absence of disease in humans from eating food grown with pesticides and the presence or absence of disease in humans from eating food not grown with pesticides. As part of the research project, O hires a consultant who prepares a “fact sheet” which calls for the curtailment of the use of pesticides and which addresses itself to the merits of several specific legislative proposals to curtail the use of pesticides in raising crops which are currently pending before State legislatures. The “fact sheet” presents reports of experimental evidence tending to support its conclusions but omits any reference to reports of experimental evidence tending to dispute its conclusions. O distributes 10,000 copies to citizens' groups. Expenditures by O in connection with this work of the consultant are not within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research.

Example 4.P publishes a bi-monthly newsletter to collect and report all published materials, ongoing research, and new developments with regard to the use of pesticides in raising crops. The newsletter also includes notices of proposed pesticide legislation with impartial summaries of the provisions and debates on such legislation. The newsletter does not encourage recipients to take action with respect to such legislation, but is designed to present information on both sides of the legislative controversy and does present information fully and fairly. It is within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research.

Example 5.X is satisfied that A, a member of the faculty of Y University, is exceptionally well qualified to undertake a project involving a comprehensive study of the effects of pesticides on crop yields. Consequently, X makes a grant to A to underwrite the cost of the study and of the preparation of a book on the effect of pesticides on crop yields. X does not take any position on the issues or control the content of A's output. A produces a book which concludes that the use of pesticides often has a favorable effect on crop yields, and on that basis argues against pending bills which would ban the use of pesticides. A's book contains a sufficiently full and fair exposition of the pertinent facts, including known or potential disadvantages of the use of pesticides, to enable the public or an individual to form an independent opinion or conclusion as to whether pesticides should be banned as provided in the pending bills. The book does not directly encourage readers to take action with respect to the pending bills. Consequently, the book is within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research.

Example 6.Assume the same facts as Example (2), except that, instead of issuing a report, X presents within a period of 6 consecutive months a two-program television series relating to the pesticide issue. The first program contains information, arguments, and conclusions favoring legislation to restrict the use of pesticides. The second program contains information, arguments, and conclusions opposing legislation to restrict the use of pesticides. The programs are broadcast within 6 months of each other during commensurate periods of prime time. X's programs are within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research. Although neither program individually could be regarded as nonpartisan, the series of two programs constitutes a balanced presentation.

Example 7.Assume the same facts as Example (6), except that X arranged for televising the program favoring legislation to restrict the use of pesticides at 8 p.m. on a Thursday evening and for televising the program opposing such legislation at 7 a.m. on a Sunday morning. X's presentation is not within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study, or research, since X disseminated its information in a manner prejudicial to one side of the legislative controversy.

Example 8.Organization Z researches, writes, prints and distributes a study on the use and effects of pesticide X. A bill is pending in the U.S. Senate to ban the use of pesticide X. Z's study leads to the conclusion that pesticide X is extremely harmful and that the bill pending in the U.S. Senate is an appropriate and much needed remedy to solve the problems caused by pesticide X. The study contains a sufficiently full and fair exposition of the pertinent facts, including known or potential advantages of the use of pesticide X, to enable the public or an individual to form an independent opinion or conclusion as to whether pesticides should be banned as provided in the pending bills. In its analysis of the pending bill, the study names certain undecided Senators on the Senate committee considering the bill. Although the study meets the three part test for determining whether a communication is a grass roots lobbying communication, the study is within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study or research, because it does not directly encourage recipients of the communication to urge a legislator to oppose the bill.

Example 9.Assume the same facts as in Example (8), except that, after stating support for the pending bill, the study concludes: “You should write to the undecided committee members to support this crucial bill.” The study is not within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study or research because it directly encourages the recipients to urge a legislator to support a specific piece of legislation.

Example 10. Organization X plans to conduct a lobbying campaign with respect to illegal drug use in the United States. It incurs $5,000 in expenses to conduct research and prepare an extensive report primarily for use in the lobbying campaign. Although the detailed report discusses specific pending legislation and reaches the conclusion that the legislation would reduce illegal drug use, the report contains a sufficiently full and fair exposition of the pertinent facts to enable the public or an individual to form an independent conclusion regarding the effect of the legislation. The report does not encourage readers to contact legislators regarding the legislation. Accordingly, the report does not, in and of itself, constitute a lobbying communication.

Copies of the report are available to the public at X's office, but X does not actively distribute the report or otherwise seek to make the contents of the report available to the general public. Whether or not X's distribution is sufficient to meet the requirement in § 53.4945-2(d)(1)(iv) that a nonpartisan communication be made available, X's distribution is not substantial (for purposes of §§ 53.4945-2(D)(1)(v) and 56.4911-2(b)(2)(v)) in light of all of the facts and circumstances, including the normal distribution pattern of similar nonpartisan reports. X then mails copies of the report, along with a letter, to 10,000 individuals on X's mailing list. In the letter, X requests that individuals contact legislators urging passage of the legislation discussed in the report. Because X's research and report were primarily undertaken by X for lobbying purposes and X did not make a substantial distribution of the report (without an accompanying lobbying message) prior to or contemporaneously with the use of the report in lobbying, the report is a grass roots lobbying communication that is not within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study or research. Thus, the expenditures for preparing and mailing both the report and the letter are taxable expenditures under section 4945.

Example 11.Assume the same facts as in Example (10), except that before using the report in the lobbying campaign, X sends the research and report (without an accompanying lobbying message) to universities and newspapers. At the same time, X also advertises the availability of the report in its newsletter. This distribution is similar in scope to the normal distribution pattern of similar nonpartisan reports. In light of all of the facts and circumstances, X's distribution of the report is substantial. Because of X's substantial distribution of the report, X's primary purpose will be considered to be other than for use in lobbying and the report will not be considered a grass roots lobbying communication. Accordingly, only the expenditures for copying and mailing the report to the 10,000 individuals on X's mailing list, as well as for preparing and mailing the letter, are expenditures for grass roots lobbying communications, and are thus taxable expenditures under section 4945.

Example 12.Organization M pays for a bumper sticker that reads: “STOP ABORTION: Vote NO on Prop. X!” M also pays for a 30-second television advertisement and a billboard that similarly advocate opposition to Prop. X. In light of the limited scope of the communications, none of the communications is within the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study or research. First, none of the communications rises to the level of analysis, study or research. Second, none of the communications is nonpartisan because none contains a sufficiently full and fair exposition of the pertinent facts to enable the public or an individual to form an independent opinion or conclusion. Thus, each communication is a lobbying communication.

(2) Technical advice or assistance—(i) In general. Amounts paid or incurred in connection with providing technical advice or assistance to a governmental body, a governmental committee, or a subdivision of either of the foregoing, in response to a written request by such body, committee, or subdivision do not constitute taxable expenditures for purposes of this section. Under this exception, the request for assistance or advice must be made in the name of the requesting governmental body, committee or subdivision rather than an individual member thereof. Similarly, the response to such request must be available to every member of the requesting body, committee or subdivision. For example, in the case of a written response to a request for technical advice or assistance from a congressional committee, the response will be considered available to every member of the requesting committee if the response is submitted to the person making such request in the name of the committee and it is made clear that the response is for the use of all the members of the committee.

(ii) Nature of technical advice or assistance. “Technical advice or assistance” may be given as a result of knowledge or skill in a given area. Because such assistance or advice may be given only at the express request of a governmental body, committee or subdivision, the oral or written presentation of such assistance or advice need not qualify as nonpartisan analysis, study or research. The offering of opinions or recommendations will ordinarily qualify under this exception only if such opinions or recommendations are specifically requested by the governmental body, committee or subdivision or are directly related to the materials so requested.

(iii) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A congressional committee is studying the feasibility of legislation to provide funds for scholarships to U.S. students attending schools abroad. X, a private foundation which has engaged in a private scholarship program of this type, is asked, in writing, by the committee to describe the manner in which it selects candidates for its program. X's response disclosing its methods of selection constitutes technical advice or assistance.

Example 2.Assume the same facts as Example (1), except that X's response not only includes a description of its own grant-making procedures, but also its views regarding the wisdom of adopting such a program. Since such views are directly related to the subject matter of the request for technical advice or assistance, expenditures paid or incurred with respect to the presentation of such views would not constitute taxable expenditures. However, expenditures paid or incurred with respect to a response which is not directly related to the subject matter of the request for technical advice or assistance would constitute taxable expenditures unless the presentation can qualify as the making available of nonpartisan analysis, study or research.

Example 3.Assume the same facts as Example (1), except that X is requested, in addition, to give any views it considers relevant. A response to this request giving opinions which are relevant to the committee's consideration of the scholarship program but which are not necessarily directly related to X's scholarship program, such as discussions of alternative scholarships programs and their relative merits, would qualify as “technical advice or assistance”, and expenditures paid or incurred with respect to such response would not constitute taxable expenditures.

Example 4.A, an official of the State Department, makes a written request in his official capacity for information from foundation Y relating to the economic development of country M and for the opinions of Y as to the proper position of the United States in pending negotiations with M concerning a proposed treaty involving a program of economic and technical aid to M. Y's furnishing of such information and opinions constitutes technical advice or assistance.

Example 5.In response to a telephone inquiry from Senator X's staff, organization B sends Senator X a report concluding that the Senate should not advise and consent to the nomination of Z to serve as a Supreme Court Justice. Because the request was not in writing, and also because the request was not from the Senate itself or from a committee or subcommittee, B's report is not within the scope of the exception for responses to requests for technical advice. Accordingly, B's report is a lobbying communication unless the report is within the scope of the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study or research.

Example 6.Assume the same facts as in Example (5), except that B's report is sent in response to a written request that Senator X sends to B. The request from Senator X is a request from the Senator as an individual member of the Senate rather than from the Senate itself or from a committee or subcommittee. Accordingly, B's report is not within the scope of the exception for responses to requests for technical advice and is a lobbying conmmunication unless the report is within the scope of the exception for nonpartisan analysis, study or research.

Example 7.Assume the same facts as in Example (6), except that B's report is sent in response to a written request from the Senate committee that is considering the nomination for an evaluation of the nominee's legal writings and a recommendation as to whether the candidate is or is not qualified to serve on the Supreme Court. The report is within the scope of the exception for responses to requests for technical advice and is not a lobbying communication.

(3) Decisions affecting the powers, duties, etc., of a private foundation—(i) In general. Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to any amount paid or incurred in connection with an appearance before, or communication with, any legislative body with respect to a possible decision of such body which might affect the existence of the private foundation, its powers and duties, its tax-exempt status, or the deductibility of contributions to such foundation. Under this exception, a foundation may communicate with the entire legislative body, committees or subcommittees of such legislative body, individual congressmen or legislators, members of their staffs, or representatives of the executive branch, who are involved in the legislative process, if such communication is limited to the prescribed subjects. Similarly, the foundation may make expenditures in order to initiate legislation if such legislation concerns only matters which might affect the existence of the private foundation, its powers and duties, its tax-exempt status, or the deductibility of contributions to such foundation.

(ii) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A bill is being considered by Congress which would, if enacted, restrict the power of a private foundation to engage in transactions with certain related persons. Under the proposed bill a private foundation would lose its exemption from taxation if it engages in such transactions. W, a private foundation, writes to the congressional committee considering the bill, arguing that the enactment of such a bill would not be advisable, and subsequently appears before such committee to make its arguments. In addition, W requests that the congressional committee consider modification of the 2 percent de minimis rule of section 4943(c) (2) (C). Expenditures paid or incurred with respect to such submissions do not constitute taxable expenditures since they are made with respect to a possible decision of Congress which might affect the existence of the private foundation, its powers and duties, its tax-exempt status, or the deduction of contributions to such foundation.

Example 2.A bill being considered in a State legislature is designed to implement the requirements of section 508(e) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. Under such section, a private foundation is required to make certain amendments to its governing instrument. X, a private foundation, makes a submission to the legislature which proposes alternative measures which might be taken in lieu of the proposed bill. X also arranges to have its president contact certain State legislators with regard to this bill. Expenditures paid or incurred in making such submission and in contacting the State legislators do not constitute taxable expenditures since they are made with respect to a possible decision of such State legislature which might affect the existence of the private foundation, its powers and duties, its tax-exempt status, or the deduction of contributions to such foundation.

Example 3.A bill is being considered by a State legislature under which the State would assume certain responsibilities for nursing care of the aged. Y, a private foundation which hitherto has engaged in such activities, appears before the State legislature and contends that such activities can be better performed by privately supported organizations. Expenditures paid or incurred with respect to such appearance are not made with respect to possible decisions of the State legislature which might affect the existence of the private foundation, its powers and duties, its tax-exempt status, or the deduction of contributions to such foundation, but rather merely affect the scope of the private foundation's future activities.

Example 4.A State legislature is considering the annual appropriations bill. Z, a private foundation which had hitherto performed contract research for the State, appears before the appropriations committee in order to attempt to persuade the committee of the advisability of continuing the program. Expenditures paid or incurred with respect to such appearance are not made with respect to possible decisions of the State legislature which might affect the existence of the private foundation, its powers and duties, its tax-exempt status, or the deduction of contributions to such foundation, but rather merely affect the scope of the private foundation's future activities.

(4) Examination and discussions of broad social, economic, and similar problems. Examinations and discussions of broad social, economic, and similar problems are neither direct lobbying communications under § 56.4911-2(b)(1) nor grass roots lobbying communications under § 56.4911-2(b)(2) even if the problems are of the type with which government would be expected to deal ultimately. Thus, under §§ 56.4911-2(b) (1) and (2), lobbying communications do not include public discussion, or communications with members of legislative bodies or governmental employees, the general subject of which is also the subject of legislation before a legislative body, so long as such discussion does not address itself to the merits of a specific legislative proposal and so long as such discussion does not directly encourage recipients to take action with respect to legislation. For example, this paragraph (d)(4) excludes from grass roots lobbying under § 56.4911(b)(2) an organization's discussions of problems such as environmental pollution or population growth that are being considered by Congress and various State legislatures, but only where the discussions are not directly addressed to specific legislation being considered, and only where the discussions do not directly encourage recipients of the communication to contact a legislator, an employee of a legislative body, or a government official or employee who may participate in the formulation of legislation.

[T.D. 7215, 37 FR 23161, Oct. 31, 1972; 37 FR 23918, Nov. 11, 1972, as amended by T.D. 8308, 55 FR 35594, Aug. 31, 1990]

§ 53.4945-3 Influencing elections and carrying on voter registration drives.

(a) Expenditures to influence elections or carry on voter registration drives—(1) In general. Under section 4945(d) (2), the term “taxable expenditure” includes any amount paid or incurred by a private foundation to influence the outcome of any specific public election or to carry on, directly or indirectly, any voter registration drive, unless such amount is paid or incurred by an organization described in section 4945(f). However, for treatment of nonearmarked grants to public organizations, see § 53.4945-2(a) (5) and for treatment of certain earmarked grants to organizations described in section 4945(f), see paragraph (b) (2) of this section.

(2) Influencing the outcome of a specific public election. For purposes of this section, an organization shall be considered to be influencing the outcome of any specific public election if it participates or intervenes, directly or indirectly, in any political campaign on behalf of or in opposition to any candidate for public office. The term candidate for public office means an individual who offers himself, or is proposed by others, as a contestant for an elective public office, whether such office be national, State or local. Activities which constitute participation or intervention in a political campaign on behalf of or in opposition to a candidate include, but are not limited to:

(i) Publishing or distributing written or printed statements or making oral statements on behalf of or in opposition to such a candidate;

(ii) Paying salaries or expenses of campaign workers; and

(iii) Conducting or paying the expenses of conducting a voter-registration drive limited to the geographic area covered by the campaign.

(b) Nonpartisan activities carried on by certain organizations—(1) In general. If an organization meets the requirements described in section 4945(f), an amount paid or incurred by such organization shall not be considered a taxable expenditure even though the use of such amount is otherwise described in section 4945(d) (2). Such requirements are:

(i) The organization is described in section 501(c) (3) and exempt from taxation under section 501(a);

(ii) The activities of the organization are nonpartisan, are not confined to one specific election period, and are carried on in five or more States;

(iii) The organization expends at least 85 percent of its income directly for the active conduct (within the meaning of section 4942(j) (3) and the regulations thereunder) of the activities constituting the purpose or function for which it is organized and operated;

(iv) The organization receives at least 85 percent of its support (other than gross investment income as defined in section 509(e)) from exempt organizations, the general public, governmental units described in section 170(c) (1), or any combination of the foregoing; the organization does not receive more than 25 percent of its support (other than gross investment income) from any one exempt organization (for this purpose treating private foundations which are described in section 4946(a) (1) (H) with respect to each other as one exempt organization); and not more than half of the support of the organization is received from gross investment income; and

(v) Contributions to the organization for voter registration drives are not subject to conditions that they may be used only in specified States, possessions of the United States, or political subdivisions or other areas of any of the foregoing, or the District of Columbia, or that they may be used in only one specific election period.

(2) Grants to section 4945(f) organizations. If a private foundation makes a grant to an organization described in section 4945(f) (whether or not such grantee is a private foundation as defined in section 509(a)), such grant will not be treated as a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d) (2) or (4). Even if a grant to such an organization is earmarked for voter registration purposes generally, such a grant will not be treated as a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d) (2) or (4) as long as such earmarking does not violate section 4945(f) (5).

(3) Period for determining support—(i) In general. The determination whether an organization meets the support test in section 4945(f) (4) for any taxable year is to be made by aggregating all amounts of support received by the organization during the taxable year and the immediately preceding four taxable years. However, the support received in any taxable year which begins before January 1, 1970, shall be excluded.

(ii) New organizations and organizations with no preceding taxable years beginning after December 31, 1969. Except as provided in subparagraph (4) of this paragraph, in the case of a new organization or an organization with no taxable years that begin after December 31, 1969, and immediately precede the taxable year in question, the requirements of the support test in section 4945(f)(4) will be considered as met for the taxable year if such requirements are met by the end of the taxable year.

(iii) Organization with three or fewer preceding taxable years. In the case of an organization which has been in existence for at least 1 but fewer than 4 preceding taxable years beginning after December 31, 1969, the determination whether such organization meets the requirements of the support test in section 4945(f)(4) for the taxable year is to be made by taking into account all the support received by such organization during the taxable year and during each preceding taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969.

(4) Advance rulings. An organization will be given an advance ruling that it is an organization described in section 4945(f) for its first taxable year of operation beginning after October 30, 1972, or for its first taxable year of operation beginning after December 31, 1969, if it submits evidence establishing that it can reasonably be expected to meet the tests under section 4945(f) for such taxable year. An organization which, pursuant to this subparagraph, has been treated as an organization described in section 4945(f) for a taxable year (without withdrawal of such treatment by notification from the Internal Revenue Service during such year), but which actually fails to meet the requirements of section 4945(f) for such taxable year, will not be treated as an organization described in section 4945(f) as of the first day of its next taxable year (for purposes of making any determination under the internal revenue laws with respect to such organization) and until such time as the organization does meet the requirements of section 4945(f). For purposes of section 4945, the status of grants or contributions with respect to grantors or contributors to such organization will not be affected until notice of change of status of such organization is made to the public (such as by publication in the Internal Revenue Bulletin). The preceding sentence shall not apply, however, if the grantor or contributor was responsible for, or was aware of, the fact that the organization did not satisfy section 4945(f) at the end of the taxable year with respect to which the organization had obtained an advance ruling or a determination letter that it was a section 4945(f) organization, or acquired knowledge that the Internal Revenue Service had given notice to such organization that it would be deleted from classification as a section 4945(f) organization.

[T.D. 7215, 37 FR 23161, Oct. 31, 1972; 37 FR 23918, Nov. 11, 1972]

§ 53.4945-4 Grants to individuals.

(a) Grants to individuals—(1) In general. Under section 4945(d) (3) the term “taxable expenditure” includes any amount paid or incurred by a private foundation as a grant to an individual for travel, study, or other similar purposes by such individual unless the grant satisfies the requirements of section 4945(g). Grants to individuals which are not taxable expenditures because made in accordance with the requirements of section 4945(g) may result in the imposition of excise taxes under other provisions of chapter 42.

(2) “Grants” defined. For purposes of section 4945, the term “grants” shall include, but is not limited to, such expenditures as scholarships, fellowships, internships, prizes, and awards. Grants shall also include loans for purposes described in section 170(c) (2) (B) and “program related investments” (such as investments in small businesses in central cities or in businesses which assist in neighborhood renovation). Similarly, “grants” include such expenditures as payments to exempt organizations to be used in furtherance of such recipient organizations' exempt purposes whether or not such payments are solicited by such recipient organizations. Conversely, “grants” do not ordinarily include salaries or other compensation to employees. For example, “grants” do not ordinarily include educational payments to employees which are includible in the employees' incomes pursuant to section 61. In addition, “grants” do not ordinarily include payments (including salaries, consultants' fees and reimbursement for travel expenses such as transportation, board, and lodging) to persons (regardless of whether such persons are individuals) for personal services in assisting a foundation in planning, evaluating or developing projects or areas of program activity by consulting, advising, or participating in conferences organized by the foundation.

(3) Requirements for individual grants—(i) Grants for other than section 4945(d)(3) purposes. A grant to an individual for purposes other than those described in section 4945(d) (3) is not a taxable expenditure within the meaning of section 4945(d) (3). For example, if a foundation makes grants to indigent individuals to enable them to purchase furniture, such grants are not taxable expenditures within the meaning of section 4945(d) (3) even if the requirements of section 4945(g) are not met.

(ii) Grants for section 4945(d) (3) purposes. Under section 4945(g), a grant to an individual for travel, study, or other similar purposes is not a “taxable expenditure” only if:

(a) The grant is awarded on an objective and nondiscriminatory basis (within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section);

(b) The grant is made pursuant to a procedure approved in advance by the Commissioner; and

(c) It is demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that:

(1) The grant constitutes a scholarship or fellowship grant which is excluded from gross income under section 117(a) and is to be utilized for study at an educational institution described in section 151(e) (4);

(2) The grant constitutes a prize or award which is excluded from gross income under section 74(b), and the recipient of such prize or award is selected from the general public (within the meaning of section 4941(d) (2) (G) (i) and the regulations thereunder); or

(3) The purpose of the grant is to achieve a specific objective, produce a report or other similar product, or improve or enhance a literary, artistic, musical, scientific, teaching, or other similar capacity, skill, or talent of the grantee.

If a grant is made to an individual for a purpose described in section 4945(g) (3) and such grant otherwise meets the requirements of section 4945(g), such grant shall not be treated as a taxable expenditure even if it is a scholarship or a fellowship grant which is not excludable from income under section 117 or if it is a prize or award which is includible in income under section 74.

(iii) Renewals. A renewal of a grant which satisfied the requirements of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph shall not be treated as a grant to an individual which is subject to the requirements of this section, if:

(a) The grantor has no information indicating that the original grant is being used for any purpose other than that for which it was made,

(b) Any reports due at the time of the renewal decision pursuant to the terms of the original grant have been furnished, and

(c) Any additional criteria and procedures for renewal are objective and nondiscriminatory.

For purposes of this section, an extension of the period over which a grant is to be paid shall not itself be regarded as a grant or a renewal of a grant.

(4) Certain designated grants—(i) In general. A grant by a private foundation to another organization, which the grantee organization uses to make payments to an individual for purposes described in section 4945(d)(3), shall not be regarded as a grant by the private foundation to the individual grantee if the foundation does not earmark the use of the grant for any named individual and there does not exist an agreement, oral or written, whereby such grantor foundation may cause the selection of the individual grantee by the grantee organization. For purposes of this subparagraph, a grant described herein shall not be regarded as a grant by the foundation to an individual grantee even though such foundation has reason to believe that certain individuals would derive benefits from such grant so long as the grantee organization exercises control, in fact, over the selection process and actually makes the selection completely independently of the private foundation.

(ii) Certain grants to “public charities”. A grant by a private foundation to an organization described in section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3), which the grantee organization uses to make payments to an individual for purposes described in section 4945(d)(3), shall not be regarded as a grant by the private foundation to the individual grantee (regardless of the application of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph) if the grant is made for a project which is to be undertaken under the supervision of the section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3) organization and such grantee organization controls the selection of the individual grantee. This subdivision shall apply regardless of whether the name of the individual grantee was first proposed by the private foundation, but only if there is an objective manifestation of the section 509(a), (1), (2), or (3) organization's control over the selection process, although the selection need not be made completely independently of the private foundation. For purposes of this subdivision, an organization shall be considered a section 509(a)(1) organization if it is treated as such under subparagraph (4) of § 53.4945-5(a).

(iii) Grants to governmental agencies. If a private foundation makes a grant to an organization described in section 170(c)(1) (regardless of whether it is described in section 501(c)(3)) and such grant is earmarked for use by an individual for purposes described in section 4945(d)(3), such grant is not subject to the requirements of section 4945(d)(3) and (g) and this section (regardless of the application of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph) if the section 170(c)(1) organization satisfies the Commissioner in advance that its grant-making program:

(a) Is in furtherance of a purpose described in section 170(c)(2)(B),

(b) Requires that the individual grantee submit reports to it which would satisfy paragraph (c)(3) of this section, and

(c) Requires that the organization investigate jeopardized grants in a manner substantially similar to that described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.

(iv) Examples. The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.M, a university described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii), requests that P, a private foundation, grant it $100,000 to enable M to obtain the services of a particular scientist for a research project in a special field of biochemistry in which he has exceptional qualifications and competence. P, after determining that the project deserves support, makes the grant to M to enable it to obtain the services of this scientist. M is authorized to keep the funds even if it is unsuccessful in attempting to employ the scientist. Under these circumstances P will not be treated as having made a grant to the individual scientist for purposes of section 4945(d)(3) and (g), since the requirements of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph have been satisfied. Even if M were not authorized to keep the funds if it is unsuccessful in attempting to employ the scientist, P would not be treated as having made a grant to the individual scientist for purposes of section 4945(d)(3) and (g), since it is clear from the facts and circumstances that the selection of the particular scientist was made by M and thus the requirements of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph would have been satisfied.

Example 2.Assume the same facts as Example (1), except that there are a number of scientists who are qualified to administer the research project, P suggests the name of the particular scientist to be employed by M, and M is not authorized to keep the funds if it is unsuccessful in attempting to employ the particular scientist. For purposes of section 4945(d)(3) and (g), P will be treated as having made a grant to the individual scientist whose name it suggested, since it is clear from the facts and circumstances that selection of the particular scientist was made by P.

Example 3.X, a private foundation, is aware of the exceptional research facilities at Y University, an organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii). Officials of X approach officials of Y with an offer to give Y a grant of $100,000 if Y will engage an adequately qualified physicist to conduct a specific research project. Y's officials accept this proposal, and it is agreed that Y will administer the funds. After examining the qualifications of several research physicists, the officials of Y agree that A, whose name was first suggested by officials of X and who first suggested the specific research project to X, is uniquely qualified to conduct the project. X's grant letter provides that X has the right to renegotiate the terms of the grant if there is a substantial deviation from such terms, such as breakdown of Y's research facilities or termination of the conduct of the project by an adequately qualified physicist. Under these circumstances, X will not be treated as having made a grant to A for purposes of section 4945(d)(3) and (g), since the requirements of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph have been satisfied.

Example 4.Professor A, a scholar employed by University Y, an organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii), approaches Foundation X to determine the availability of grant funds for a particular research project supervised or conducted by Professor A relevant to the program interests of Foundation X. After learning that Foundation X would be willing to consider the project if University Y were to submit the project to X, Professor A submits his proposal to the appropriate administrator of University Y. After making a determination that it should assume responsibility for the project, that Professor A is qualified to conduct the project, and that his participation would be consistent with his other faculty duties, University Y formally adopts the grant proposal and submits it to Foundation X. The grant is made to University Y which, under the terms of the grant, is responsible for the expenditure of the grant funds and the grant project. In such a case, and even if Foundation X retains the right to renegotiate the terms of the grant if the project ceases to be conducted by Professor A, the grant shall not be regarded as a grant by Foundation X to Professor A since University Y has retained control over the selection process within the meaning of subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph.

(5) Earmarked grants to individuals. A grant by a private foundation to an individual, which meets the requirements of section 4945(d)(3) and (g), is a taxable expenditure by such foundation under section 4945(d) only if:

(i) The grant is earmarked to be used for any activity described in section 4945(d) (1), (2), or (5), or is earmarked to be used in a manner which would violate section 4945(d) (3) or (4),

(ii) There is an agreement, oral or written, whereby such grantor foundation may cause the grantee to engage in any such prohibited activity and such grant is in fact used in a manner which violates section 4945(d), or

(iii) The grant is made for a purpose other than a purpose described in section 170(c)(2)(B).

For purposes of this subparagraph, a grant by a private foundation is earmarked if such grant is given pursuant to an agreement, oral or written, that the grant will be used for specific purposes.

(b) Selection of grantees on “an objective and nondiscriminatory basis”—(1) In general. For purposes of this section, in order for a foundation to establish that its grants to individuals are made on an objective and nondiscriminatory basis, the grants must be awarded in accordance with a program which, if it were a substantial part of the foundation's activities, would be consistent with:

(i) The existence of the foundation's exempt status under section 501(c)(3);

(ii) The allowance of deductions to individuals under section 170 for contributions to the granting foundation; and

(iii) The requirements of subparagraphs (2), (3), and (4) of this paragraph.

(2) Candidates for grants. Ordinarily, selection of grantees on an objective and nondiscriminatory basis requires that the group from which grantees are selected be chosen on the basis of criteria reasonably related to the purposes of the grant. Furthermore, the group must be sufficiently broad so that the giving of grants to members of such group would be considered to fulfill a purpose described in section 170(c)(2)(B). Thus, ordinarily the group must be sufficiently large to constitute a charitable class. However, selection from a group is not necessary where taking into account the purposes of the grant, one or several persons are selected because they are exceptionally qualified to carry out these purposes or it is otherwise evident that the selection is particularly calculated to effectuate the charitable purpose of the grant rather than to benefit particular persons or a particular class of persons. Therefore, consistent with the requirements of this subparagraph, the foundation may impose reasonable restrictions on the group of potential grantees. For example, selection of a qualified research scientist to work on a particular project does not violate the requirements of section 4945(d)(3) merely because the foundation selects him from a group of three scientists who are experts in that field.

(3) Selection from within group of potential grantees. The criteria used in selecting grant recipients from the potential grantees should be related to the purpose of the grant. Thus, for example, proper criteria for selecting scholarship recipients might include (but are not limited to) the following: Prior academic performance; performance on tests designed to measure ability and aptitude for college work; recommendations from instructors; financial need; and the conclusions which the selection committee might draw from a personal interview as to the individual's motivation, character, ability, and potential.

(4) Persons making selections. The person or group of persons who select recipients of grants should not be in a position to derive a private benefit, directly or indirectly, if certain potential grantees are selected over others.

(5) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.X company employs 100,000 people of whom 1,000 are classified by the company as executives. The company has organized the X company foundation which, as its sole activity, provides 100 4-year college scholarships per year for children of the company's employees. Children of all employees (other than disqualified persons with respect to the foundation) who have worked for the X company for at least 2 years are eligible to apply for these scholarships. In previous years, the number of children eligible to apply for such scholarships has averaged 2,000 per year. Selection of scholarship recipients from among the applicants is made by three prominent educators, who have no connection (other than as members of the selection committee) with the company, the foundation or any of the employees of the company. The selections are made on the basis of the applicants' prior academic performance, performance on certain tests designed to measure ability and aptitude for college work, and financial need. No disproportionate number of scholarships has been granted to relatives of executives of X company. Under these circumstances, the operation of the scholarship program by the X company foundation: (1) Is consistent with the existence of the foundation's exempt status under section 501(c) (3) and with the allowance of deductions under section 170 for contributions to the foundation; (2) utilizes objective and nondiscriminatory criteria in selecting scholarship recipients from among the applicants; and (3) utilizes a selection committee which appears likely to make objective and nondiscriminatory selections of grant recipients.

Example 2.Assume the same facts as Example (1), except that the foundation establishes a program to provide 20 college scholarships per year for members of a certain ethnic minority. All members of this minority group (other than disqualified persons with respect to the foundation) living in State Z are eligible to apply for these scholarships. It is estimated that at least 400 persons will be eligible to apply for these scholarships each year. Under these circumstances, the operation of this scholarship program by the foundation: (1) Is consistent with the existence of the foundation's exempt status under section 501(c)(3) and with the allowance of deductions under section 170 for contributions to the foundation; (2) utilizes objective and nondiscriminatory criteria in selecting scholarship recipients from among the applicants; and (3) utilizes a selection committee which appears likely to make objective and nondiscriminatory selections of grant recipients.

(c) Requirements of a proper procedure—(1) In general. Section 4945(g) requires that grants to individuals must be made pursuant to a procedure approved in advance. To secure such approval, a private foundation must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that:

(i) Its grant procedure includes an objective and nondiscriminatory selection process (as described in paragraph (b) of this section);

(ii) Such procedure is reasonably calculated to result in performance by grantees of the activities that the grants are intended to finance; and

(iii) The foundation plans to obtain reports to determine whether the grantees have performed the activities that the grants are intended to finance.

No single procedure or set of procedures is required. Procedures may vary depending upon such factors as the size of the foundation, the amount and purpose of the grants and whether one or more recipients are involved.

(2) Supervision of scholarship and fellowship grants. Except as provided in subparagraph (5) of this paragraph, with respect to any scholarship or fellowship grants, a private foundation must make arrangements to receive a report of the grantee's courses taken (if any) and grades received (if any) in each academic period. Such a report must be verified by the educational institution attended by the grantee and must be obtained at least once a year. In cases of grantees whose study at an educational institution does not involve the taking of courses but only the preparation of research papers or projects, such as the writing of a doctoral thesis, the foundation must receive a brief report on the progress of the paper or project at least once a year. Such a report must be approved by the faculty member supervising the grantee or by another appropriate university official. Upon completion of a grantee's study at an educational institution, a final report must also be obtained.

(3) Grants described in section 4945(g)(3). With respect to a grant made under section 4945(g)(3), the private foundation shall require reports on the use of the funds and the progress made by the grantee toward achieving the purposes for which the grant was made. Such reports must be made at least once a year. Upon completion of the undertaking for which the grant was made, a final report must be made describing the grantee's accomplishments with respect to the grant and accounting for the funds received under such grant.

(4) Investigation of jeopardized grants. (i) Where the reports submitted under this paragraph or other information (including the failure to submit such reports) indicates that all or any part of a grant is not being used in furtherance of the purposes of such grant, the foundation is under a duty to investigate. While conducting its investigation, the foundation must withhold further payments to the extent possible until any delinquent reports required by this paragraph have been submitted and where required by subdivision (ii) or (iii) of this subparagraph.

(ii) In cases in which the grantor foundation determines that any part of a grant has been used for improper purposes and the grantee has not previously diverted grant funds to any use not in furtherance of a purpose specified in the grant, the foundation will not be treated as having made a taxable expenditure solely because of the diversion so long as the foundation:

(a) Is taking all reasonable and appropriate steps either to recover the grant funds or to insure the restoration of the diverted funds and the dedication (consistent with the requirements of (b) (1) and (2) of this subdivision) of other grant funds held by the grantee to the purposes being financed by the grant, and

(b) Withholds any further payments to the grantee after the grantor becomes aware that a diversion may have taken place (hereinafter referred to as “further payments”) until it has:

(1) Received the grantee's assurances that future diversions will not occur, and

(2) Required the grantee to take extraordinary precaution to prevent future diversions from occurring.

If a foundation is treated as having made a taxable expenditure under this subparagraph in a case to which this subdivision applies, then unless the foundation meets the requirements of (a) of this subdivision the amount of the taxable expenditure shall be the amount of the diversion plus the amount of any further payments to the same grantee. However, if the foundation complies with the requirements of (a) of this subdivision but not the requirements of (b) of this subdivision, the amount of the taxable expenditure shall be the amount of such further payments.

(iii) In cases where a grantee has previously diverted funds received from a grantor foundation, and the grantor foundation determines that any part of a grant has again been used for improper purposes, the foundation will not be treated as having made a taxable expenditure solely by reason of such diversion so long as the foundation:

(a) Is taking all reasonable and appropriate steps to recover the grant funds or to insure the restoration of the funds and the dedication (consistent with the requirements of (b) (2) and (3) of this subdivision) of other grant funds held by the grantee to the purposes being financed by the grant, and

(b) Withholds further payments until:

(1) Such funds are in fact so recovered or restored,

(2) It has received the grantee's assurances that future diversions will not occur, and

(3) It requires the grantee to take extraordinary precautions to prevent future diversions from occurring.

If a foundation is treated as having made a taxable expenditure under this subparagraph in a case to which this subdivision applies, then unless the foundation meets the requirements of (a) of this subdivision, the amount of the taxable expenditure shall be the amount of the diversion plus the amount of any further payments to the same grantee. However, if the foundation complies with the requirements of (a) of this subdivision, but fails to withhold further payments until the requirements of (b) of this subdivision are met, the amount of the taxable expenditure shall be the amount of such further payments.

(iv) The phrase “all reasonable and appropriate steps” in subdivisions (ii) and (iii) of this subparagraph includes legal action where appropriate but need not include legal action if such action would in all probability not result in the satisfaction of execution on a judgment.

(5) Supervision of certain scholarship and fellowship grants. Subparagraphs (2) and (4) of this paragraph shall be considered satisfied with respect to scholarship or fellowship grants under the following circumstances:

(i) The scholarship or fellowship grants are described in section 4945(g) (1);

(ii) The grantor foundation pays the scholarship or fellowship grants to an educational institution described in section 151(e) (4); and

(iii) Such educational institution agrees to use the grant funds to defray the recipient's expenses or to pay the funds (or a portion thereof) to the recipient only if the recipient is enrolled at such educational institution and his standing at such educational institution is consistent with the purposes and conditions of the grant.

(6) Retention of records. A private foundation shall retain records pertaining to all grants to individuals for purposes described in section 4945(d) (3). Such records shall include:

(i) All information the foundation secures to evaluate the qualification of potential grantees;

(ii) Identification of grantees (including any relationship of any grantee to the foundation sufficient to make such grantee a disqualified person of the private foundation within the meaning of section 4946(a) (1));

(iii) Specification of the amount and purpose of each grant; and

(iv) The follow-up information which the foundation obtains in complying with subparagraphs (2), (3), and (4) of this paragraph.

(7) Example. The provisions of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.The X foundation grants 10 scholarships each year to graduates of high schools in its area to permit the recipients to attend college. It makes the availability of its scholarships known by oral or written communications each year to the principals of three major high schools in the area. The foundation obtains information from each high school on the academic qualifications, background, and financial need of applicants. It requires that each applicant be recommended by two of his teachers or by the principal of his high school. All application forms are reviewed by the foundation officer responsible for making the awards and scholarships are granted on the basis of the academic qualifications and financial need of the grantees. The foundation obtains annual reports on the academic performance of the scholarship recipient from the college or university which he attends. It maintains a file on each scholarship awarded, including the original application, recommendations, a record of the action taken on the application, and the reports on the recipient from the institution which he attends. The described procedures of the X foundation for the making of grants to individuals qualify for Internal Revenue Service approval under section 4945(g). Furthermore, if the X foundation's scholarship program meets the requirements of subparagraph (5) of this paragraph, X foundation will not have to obtain reports on the academic performance of the scholarship recipients.

(d) Submission of grant procedure—(1) Contents of request for approval of grant procedures. A request for advance approval of a foundation's grant procedures must fully describe the foundation's procedures for awarding grants and for ascertaining that such grants are used for the proper purposes. The approval procedure does not contemplate specific approval of particular grant programs but instead one-time approval of a system of standards, procedures, and follow-up designed to result in grants which meet the requirements of section 4945(g). Thus, such approval shall apply to a subsequent grant program as long as the procedures under which it is conducted do not differ materially from those described in the request to the Commissioner. The request must contain the following items:

(i) A statement describing the selection process. Such statement shall be sufficiently detailed for the Commissioner to determine whether the grants are made on an objective and nondiscriminatory basis under paragraph (b) of this section.

(ii) A description of the terms and conditions under which the foundation ordinarily makes such grants, which is sufficient to enable the Commissioner to determine whether the grants awarded under such procedures would meet the requirements of paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of section 4945(g).

(iii) A detailed description of the private foundation's procedure for exercising supervision over grants, as described in paragraph (c) (2) and (3) of this section.

(iv) A description of the foundation's procedures for review of grantee reports, for investigation where diversion of grant funds from their proper purposes is indicated, and for recovery of diverted grant funds, as described in paragraph (c) (4) of this section.

(2) Place of submission. Request for approval of grant procedures shall be submitted to the District Director.

(3) Internal Revenue Service action on request for approval of grant procedures. The 45th day after a request for approval of grant procedures has been properly submitted to the Internal Revenue Service, the organization has not been notified that such procedures are not acceptable, such procedures shall be considered as approved from the date of submission until receipt of actual notice from the Internal Revenue Service that such procedures do not meet the requirements of this section. If a grant to an individual for a purpose described in section 4945(d) (3) is made after notification to the organization by the Internal Revenue Service that the procedures under which the grant is made are not acceptable, such grant is a taxable expenditure under this section.

(e) Effective dates—(1) In general. This section shall apply to all grants to individuals for travel, study, or other similar purposes which are made by private foundations more than 90 days after October 30, 1972.

(2) Transitional rules—(i) Grants committed prior to January 1, 1970. Section 4945(d) (3) and (g) and this section shall not apply to a grant for section 170(c) (2) (B) purposes made on or after January 1, 1970, if the grant was made pursuant to a commitment entered into prior to such date, but only if such commitment was made in accordance with the foundation's usual practices and is reasonable in amount in light of the purposes of the grant. For purposes of this subdivision, a commitment will be considered entered into prior to January 1, 1970, if prior to such date, the amount and nature of the payments to be made and the name of the payee were entered on the records of the payor, or were otherwise adequately evidenced, or the notice of the payment to be received was communicated to the payee in writing.

(ii) Grants awarded on or after January 1, 1970. In the case of a grant awarded on or after January 1, 1970, but prior to the expiration of 90 days after October 30, 1972, and paid within 48 months after the award of such grant, the requirements of section 4945(g) that an individual grant be awarded on an objective and nondiscriminatory basis pursuant to a procedure approved in advance by the Commissioner will be deemed satisfied if the grantor utilizes any procedure in good faith in awarding a grant to an individual which, in fact, is reasonably calculated to provide objectivity and nondiscrimination in the awarding of such grant and to result in a grant which complies with the conditions of section 4945(g) (1), (2), or (3).

§ 53.4945-5 Grants to organizations.

(a) Grants to nonpublic organizations—(1) In general. Under section 4945(d)(4) the term “taxable expenditure” includes any amount paid or incurred by a private foundation as a grant to an organization (other than an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4940(d)(2)), unless the private foundation exercises expenditure responsibility with respect to such grant in accordance with section 4945(h). However, the granting foundation does not have to exercise expenditure responsibility with respect to amounts granted to organizations described in section 4945(f).

(2) “Grants” described. For a description of the term “grants”, see § 53.4945-4(a)(2).

(3) Section 509(a) (1), (2), and (3) organizations. See section 508(b) and the regulations thereunder for rules relating to when a grantor may rely on a potential grantee's characterization of its status as set forth in the notice described in section 508(b).

(4) Certain “public” organizations. For purposes of this section, an organization will be treated as a section 509(a)(1) organization if:

(i) It qualifies as such under paragraph (a) of § 1.509(a)-2 of this chapter;

(ii) It is an organization described in section 170(c)(1) or 511(a)(2)(B), even if it is not described in section 501(c)(3); or

(iii) It is a foreign government, or any agency or instrumentality thereof, or an international organization designated as such by Executive order under 22 U.S.C. 288, even if it is not described in section 501(c)(3).

However, any grant to an organization referred to in this subparagraph must be made exclusively for charitable purposes as described in section 170(c)(2)(B).

(5) Certain foreign organizations—(i) In general. If a private foundation makes a grant to a foreign organization, which does not have a ruling or determination letter that it is an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) or in section 4940(d)(2), the grant will nonetheless be treated as a grant made to an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4940(d)(2) if the grantor private foundation has made a good faith determination that the grantee organization is an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4940(d)(2). A determination ordinarily will be considered a good faith determination if the determination is based on current written advice received from a qualified tax practitioner concluding that the grantee is an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4940(d)(2), and if the foundation reasonably relied in good faith on the written advice in accordance with the requirements of § 1.6664-4(c)(1) of this chapter. The written advice must set forth sufficient facts concerning the operations and support of the grantee organization for the Internal Revenue Service to determine that the grantee organization would be likely to qualify as an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4940(d)(2) as of the date of the written advice. For purposes of these rules, except as provided in the next sentence, written advice will be considered current if, as of the date of the grant payment, the relevant law on which the advice is based has not changed since the date of the written advice and the factual information on which the advice is based is from the grantee's current or prior taxable year (or annual accounting period if the grantee does not have a taxable year for United States federal tax purposes). Written advice that a grantee met the public support test under section 170(b)(1)(A)(vi) or section 509(a)(2) for a test period of five years will be treated as current for purposes of grant payments to the grantee during the two taxable years (or, as applicable, annual accounting periods) of the grantee immediately following the end of the five-year test period. See paragraphs (b)(5) and (6) of this section for additional rules relating to foreign organizations.

(ii) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(5)—

(a) The term “foreign organization” means any organization that is not described in section 170(c)(2)(A).

(b) The term “qualified tax practitioner” means an attorney, a certified public accountant, or an enrolled agent, within the meaning of 31 CFR 10.2 and 10.3, who is subject to the requirements in 31 CFR part 10.

(6) Certain earmarked grants—(i) In general. A grant by a private foundation to a grantee organization which the grantee organization uses to make payments to another organization (the secondary grantee) shall not be regarded as a grant by the private foundation to the secondary grantee if the foundation does not earmark the use of the grant for any named secondary grantee and there does not exist an agreement, oral or written, whereby such grantor foundation may cause the selection of the secondary grantee by the organization to which it has given the grant. For purposes of this subdivision, a grant described herein shall not be regarded as a grant by the foundation to the secondary grantee even though such foundation has reason to believe that certain organizations would derive benefits from such grant so long as the original grantee organization exercises control, in fact, over the selection process and actually makes the selection completely independently of the private foundation.

(ii) To governmental agencies. If a private foundation makes a grant to an organization described in section 170(c)(1) and such grant is earmarked for use by another organization, the granting foundation need not exercise expenditure responsibility with respect to such grant if the section 170(c)(1) organization satisfies the Commissioner in advance that:

(a) Its grantmaking program is in furtherance of a purpose described in section 170(c)(2)(B), and

(b) The section 170(c)(1) organization exercises “expenditure responsibility” in a manner that would satisfy this section if it applied to such section 170(c)(1) organization. However, with respect to such grant, the granting foundation must make the reports required by section 4945(h)(3) and paragraph (d) of this section, unless such grant is earmarked for use by an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)), or in section 4940(d)(2).

(b) Expenditure responsibility—(1) In general. A private foundation is not an insurer of the activity of the organization to which it makes a grant. Thus, satisfaction of the requirements of sections 4945(d)(4) and (h) and of subparagraph (3) or (4) of this paragraph, will ordinarily mean that the grantor foundation will not have violated section 4945(d) (1) or (2). A private foundation will be considered to be exercising “expenditure responsibility” under section 4945(h) as long as it exerts all reasonable efforts and establishes adequate procedures:

(i) To see that the grant is spent solely for the purpose for which made,

(ii) To obtain full and complete reports from the grantee on how the funds are spent, and

(iii) To make full and detailed reports with respect to such expenditures to the Commissioner.

In cases in which pursuant to paragraph (a)(6) of this section a grant is considered made to a secondary grantee rather than the primary grantee, the grantor foundation's obligation to obtain reports from the grantee pursuant to section 4945(h)(2) and this section will be satisfied if appropriate reports are obtained from the secondary grantee. For rules relating to expenditure responsibility with respect to transfers of assets described in section 507(b)(2), see section 507(b)(2) and the regulations thereunder.

(2) Pre-grant inquiry—(i) Before making a grant to an organization with respect to which expenditure responsibility must be exercised under this section, a private foundation should conduct a limited inquiry concerning the potential grantee. Such inquiry should be complete enough to give a reasonable man assurance that the grantee will use the grant for the proper purposes. The inquiry should concern itself with matters such as: (a) The identity, prior history and experience (if any) of the grantee organization and its managers; and (b) any knowledge which the private foundation has (based on prior experience or otherwise) of, or other information which is readily available concerning, the management, activities, and practices of the grantee organization. The scope of the inquiry might be expected to vary from case to case depending upon the size and purpose of the grant, the period over which it is to be paid, and the prior experience which the grantor has had with respect to the capacity of the grantee to use the grant for the proper purposes. For example, if the grantee has made proper use of all prior grants to it by the grantor and filed the required reports substantiating such use, no further pregrant inquiry will ordinarily be necessary. Similarly, in the case of an organization, such as a trust described in section 4947(a)(2), which is required by the terms of its governing instrument to make payments to a specified organization exempt from taxation under section 501(a), a less extensive pregrant inquiry is required than in the case of a private foundation possessing discretion with respect to the distribution of funds.

(ii) The provisions of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. Officials of M, a newly established organization which is described in section 501(c)(4), request a grant from X foundation to be used for a proposed program to combat drug abuse by establishing neighborhood clinics in certain ghetto areas of a city. Before making a grant to M, X makes an inquiry concerning the identity, prior history and experience of the officials of M. X obtains information pertaining to the officials of M from references supplied by these officials. Since one of the references indicated that A, an official of M, has an arrest record, police records are also checked and A's probation officer is interviewed.

The inquiry also shows M has no previous history of administering grants and that the officials of M have had no experience in administering programs of this nature. However, in the opinion of X's managers, M's officials (including A who appears to be fully rehabilitated after having been convicted of a narcotics violation several years ago) are well qualified to conduct this program since they are members of the communities in which the clinics are to be established and are more likely to be trusted by drug users in these communities than are outsiders. Under these circumstances X has complied with the requirements of this subparagraph and a grant to M for its proposed program will not be treated as a taxable expenditure solely because of the operation of this subparagraph.

Example 2.Foundation Y wishes to make a grant to foundation R for use in R's scholarship program. Y has made similar grants to R annually for the last several years and knows that R's managers have observed the terms of the previous grants and have made all requested reports with respect to such grants. No changes in R's management have occurred during the past several years. Under these circumstances, Y has enough information to have such assurance as a reasonable man would require that the grant to R will be used for proper purposes. Consequently, Y is under no obligation to make any further pregrant inquiry pursuant to this subparagraph.

Example 3.S foundation requests a grant from Z foundation for use in S's program of providing medical research fellowships. S has been engaged in this program for several years and has received large numbers of grants from other foundations. Z's managers know that the reputations of S and of S's officials are good. Z's managers also have been advised by managers of W foundation that W had recently made a grant to S and that W's managers were satisfied that such grant has been used for the purposes for which it was made. Under these circumstances Z has enough information to have such assurance as a reasonable man would require that the grant to S will be used for proper purposes. Consequently, Z is under no obligation to make any further pregrant inquiry pursuant to this subparagraph.

(3) Terms of grants. Except as provided in subparagraph (4) of this paragraph, in order to meet the expenditure responsibility requirements of section 4945(h), a private foundation must require that each grant to an organization, with respect to which expenditure responsibility must be exercised under this section, be made subject to a written commitment signed by an appropriate officer, director, or trustee of the grantee organization. Such commitment must include an agreement by the grantee:

(i) To repay any portion of the amount granted which is not used for the purposes of the grant,

(ii) To submit full and complete annual reports on the manner in which the funds are spent and the progress made in accomplishing the purposes of the grant, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section,

(iii) To maintain records of receipts and expenditures and to make its books and records available to the grantor at reasonable times, and

(iv) Not to use any of the funds:

(a) To carry on propaganda, or otherwise to attempt, to influence legislation (within the meaning of section 4945(d)(1)),

(b) To influence the outcome of any specific public election, or to carry on, directly or indirectly, any voter registration drive (within the meaning of section 4945(d)(2)),

(c) To make any grant which does not comply with the requirements of section 4945(d) (3) or (4), or

(d) To undertake any activity for any purpose other than one specified in section 170(c)(2)(B).

The agreement must also clearly specify the purposes of the grant. Such purposes may include contributing for capital endowment, for the purchase of capital equipment, or for general support provided that neither the grants nor the income therefrom may be used for purposes other than those described in section 170(c)(2)(B).

(4) Terms of program-related investments. In order to meet the expenditure responsibility requirements of section 4945(h), with regard to the making of a program-related investment (as defined in section 4944 and the regulations thereunder), a private foundation must require that each such investment with respect to which expenditure responsibility must be exercised under section 4945(d)(4) and (h) and this section be made subject to a written commitment signed by an appropriate officer, director, or trustee of the recipient organization. Such commitment must specify the purpose of the investment and must include an agreement by the organization:

(i) To use all the funds received from the private foundation (as determined under paragraph (c)(3) of this section) only for the purposes of the investment and to repay any portion not used for such purposes, provided that, with respect to equity investments, such repayment shall be made only to the extent permitted by applicable law concerning distributions to holders of equity interests,

(ii) At least once a year during the existence of the program-related investment, to submit full and complete financial reports of the type ordinarily required by commercial investors under similar circumstances and a statement that it has complied with the terms of the investment,

(iii) To maintain books and records adequate to provide information ordinarily required by commercial investors under similar circumstances and to make such books and records available to the private foundation at reasonable times, and

(iv) Not to use any of the funds:

(a) To carry on propaganda, or otherwise to attempt, to influence legislation (within the meaning of section 4945(d)(1)),

(b) To influence the outcome of any specific public election, or to carry on directly or indirectly, and voter registration drive (within the meaning of section 4945(d)(2)), or

(c) With respect to any recipient which is a private foundation (as defined in section 509(a)), to make any grant which does not comply with the requirements of section 4945 (d) (3) or (4).

(5) Certain grants to foreign organizations. With respect to a grant to a foreign organization (other than an organization described in section 509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) (other than an organization described in section 4942(g)(4)(A)(i) or (ii)) or in section 4940(d)(2) or treated as so described pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) or (5) of this section), paragraph (b)(3)(iv) or (b)(4)(iv) of this section shall be deemed satisfied if the agreement referred to in paragraph (b)(3) or (4) of this section imposes restrictions on the use of the grant substantially equivalent to the limitations imposed on a domestic private foundation under section 4945(d). Such restrictions may be phrased in appropriate terms under foreign law or custom and ordinarily will be considered sufficient if an affidavit or opinion of counsel (of the grantor or grantee) or written advice of a qualified tax practitioner is obtained stating that, under foreign law or custom, the agreement imposes restrictions on the use of the grant substantially equivalent to the restrictions imposed on a domestic private foundation under paragraph (b)(3) or (4) of this section.

(6) Special rules for grants by foreign private foundations. With respect to activities in jurisdictions other than those described in section 170(c)(2)(A), the failure of a foreign private foundation which is described in section 4948(b) to comply with subparagraph (3) or (4) of this paragraph with respect to a grant to an organization shall not constitute an act or failure to act which is a prohibited transaction (within the meaning of section 4948(c)(2)).

(7) Expenditure responsibility with respect to certain transfers of assets described in section 507—(i) Transfers of assets described in section 507(b)(2). For rules relating to the extent to which the expenditure responsibility rules contained in section 4945 (d)(4) and (h) and this section apply to transfers of assets described in section 507(b)(2), see §§ 1.507-3(a)(7), 1.507-3 (a)(8)(ii)(f), and 1.507-3(a)(9) of this chapter.

(ii) Certain other transfers of assets. For rules relating to the extent to which the expenditure responsibility rules contained in section 4945 (d)(4) and (h) and this section apply to certain other transfers of assets described in § 1.507-3(b) of this chapter, see § 1.507-3(b) of this chapter.

(8) Restrictions on grants (other than program-related investments) to organizations not described in section 501(c)(3). For other restrictions on certain grants (other than program-related investments) to organizations which are not described in section 501(c)(3), see § 53.4945-6(c).

(c) Reports from grantees—(1) In general. In the case of grants described in section 4945(d)(4), except as provided in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, the granting private foundation shall require reports on the use of the funds, compliance with the terms of the grant, and the progress made by the grantee toward achieving the purposes for which the grant was made. The grantee shall make such reports as of the end of its annual accounting period within which the grant or any portion thereof is received and all such subsequent periods until the grant funds are expended in full or the period of the grantee for which such reports shall be furnished to the grantor within a reasonable period of time after the close of the annual accounting period of the grantee for which such reports are made. Within a reasonable period of time after the close of its annual accounting period during which the use of the grant funds is completed, the grantee must make a final report with respect to all expenditures made from such funds (including salaries, travel, and supplies), and indicating the progress made toward the goals of the grant. The grantor need not conduct any independent verification of such reports unless it has reason to doubt their accuracy or reliability.

(2) Capital endowment grants to exempt private foundations. If a private foundation makes a grant described in section 4945(d)(4) to a private foundation which is exempt from taxation under section 501(a) for endowment, for the purchase of capital equipment, or for other capital purposes, the grantor foundation shall require reports from the grantee on the use of the principal and the income (if any) from the grant funds. The grantee shall make such reports annually for its taxable year in which the grant was made and the immediately succeeding 2 taxable years. Only if it is reasonably apparent to the grantor that, before the end of such second succeeding taxable year, neither the principal, the income from the grant funds, nor the equipment purchased with the grant funds has been used for any purpose which would result in liability for tax under section 4945(d), the grantor may then allow such reports to be discontinued.

(3) Grantees' accounting and recordkeeping procedures. (i) A private foundation grantee exempt from taxation under section 501(a) (or the recipient of a program-related investment) need not segregate grant funds physically nor separately account for such funds on its books unless the grantor requires such treatment of the grant funds. If such a grantee neither physically segregates grant funds nor establishes separate accounts on its books, grants received within a given taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969, shall be deemed, for purposes of section 4945, to be expended before grants received in a succeeding taxable year. In such case expenditures of grants received within any such taxable year shall be prorated among all such grants.

In accounting for grant expenditures, private foundations may make the necessary computations on a cumulative annual basis (or, where appropriate, as of the date for which the computations are made). The rules set forth in the preceding three sentences shall apply to the extent they are consistent with the available records of the grantee and with the grantee's treatment of qualifying distributions under section 4942(h) and the regulations thereunder. The records of expenditures, as well as copies of the reports submitted to the grantor, must be kept for at least 4 years after completion of the use of the grant funds.

(ii) For rules relating to accounting and recordkeeping requirements for grantees other than those described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, see §§ 53.4945-5(b)(8) and 53.4945-6(c).

(4) Reliance on information supplied by grantee. A private foundation exercising expenditure responsibility with respect to its grants may rely on adequate records or other sufficient evidence supplied by the grantee organization (such as a statement by an appropriate officer, director or trustee of such grantee organization) showing, to the extent applicable, the information which the grantor must report to the Internal Revenue Service in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(d) Reporting to Internal Revenue Service by grantor—(1) In general. To satisfy the reportmaking requirements of section 4945(h)(3), a granting foundation must provide the required information on its annual information return, required to be filed by section 6033, for each taxable year with respect to each grant made during the taxable year which is subject to the expenditure responsibility requirements of section 4945(h). Such information must also be provided on such return with respect to each grant subject to such requirements upon which any amount or any report is outstanding at any time during the taxable year. However, with respect to any grant made for endowment or other capital purposes, the grantor must provide the required information only for any taxable year for which the grantor must require a report from the grantee under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The requirements of this subparagraph with respect to any grant may be satisfied by submission with the foundation's information return of a report received from the grantee, if the information required by subparagraph (2) of this paragraph is contained in such report.

(2) Contents of report. The report required by this paragraph shall include the following information:

(i) The name and address of the grantee.

(ii) The date and amount of the grant.

(iii) The purpose of the grant.

(iv) The amounts expended by the grantee (based upon the most recent report received from the grantee).

(v) Whether the grantee has diverted any portion of the funds (or the income therefrom in the case of an endowment grant) from the purpose of the grant (to the knowledge of the grantor).

(vi) The dates of any reports received from the grantee.

(vii) The date and results of any verification of the grantee's reports undertaken pursuant to and to the extent required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section by the grantor or by others at the direction of the grantor.

(3) Recordkeeping requirements. In addition to the information included on the information return, a granting foundation shall make available to the Internal Revenue Service at the foundation's principal office each of the following items:

(i) A copy of the agreement covering each “expenditure responsibility” grant made during the taxable year.

(ii) A copy of each report received during the taxable year from each grantee on any “expenditure responsibility” grant, and

(iii) A copy of each report made by the grantor's personnel or independent auditors of any audits or other investigations made during the taxable year with respect to any “expenditure responsibility” grant.

(4) Reports received after the close of grantor's accounting year. Data contained in reports required by this paragraph, which reports are received by a private foundation after the close of its accounting year but before the due date of its information return for that year, need not be reported on such return, but may be reported on the grantor's information return for the year in which such reports are received from the grantee.

(e) Violations of expenditure responsibility requirements—(1) Diversions by grantee. (i) Any diversion of grant funds (including the income therefrom in the case of an endowment grant) by the grantee to any use not in furtherance of a purpose specified in the grant may result in the diverted portion of such grant being treated as a taxable expenditure of the grantor under section 4945(d)(4). However, for purposes of this section, the fact that a grantee does not use any portion of the grant funds as indicated in the original budget projection shall not be treated as a diversion if the use to which the funds are committed is consistent with the purpose of the grant as stated in the grant agreement and does not result in a violation of the terms of such agreement required to be included by paragraph (b)(3) or (b)(4) of this section.

(ii) In any event, a grantor will not be treated as having made a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(4) solely by reason of a diversion by the grantee, if the grantor has complied with subdivision (iii) (a) and (b) or (iv) (a) and (b) of this subparagraph, whichever is applicable.

(iii) In cases in which the grantor foundation determines that any part of a grant has been used for improper purposes and the grantee has not previously diverted grant funds, the foundation will not be treated as having made a taxable expenditure solely by reason of the diversion so long as the foundation:

(a) Is taking all reasonable and appropriate steps either to recover the grant funds or to insure the restoration of the diverted funds and the dedication (consistent with the requirements of (b) (1) and (2) of this subdivision) of the other grant funds held by the grantee to the purposes being financed by the grant, and

(b) Withholds any further payments to the grantee after the grantor becomes aware that a diversion may have taken place (hereinafter referred to as “further payments”) until it has:

(1) Received the grantee's assurances that future diversions will not occur, and

(2) Required the grantee to take extraordinary precautions to prevent future diversions from occurring.

If a foundation is treated as having made a taxable expenditure under this subparagraph in a case to which this subdivision applies, then unless the foundation meets the requirements of (a) of this subdivision the amount of the taxable expenditure shall be the amount of the diversion (for example, the income diverted in the case of an endowment grant, or the rental value of capital equipment for the period of time for which diverted) plus the amount of any further payments to the same grantee. However, if the foundation complies with the requirements of (a) of this subdivision but not the requirements of (b) of this subdivision, the amount of the taxable expenditure shall be the amount of such further payments.

(iv) In cases where a grantee has previously diverted funds received from a grantor foundation, and the grantor foundation determines that any part of a grant has again been used for improper purposes, the foundation will not be treated as having made a taxable expenditure solely by reason of such diversion so long as the foundation:

(a) Is taking all reasonable and appropriate steps to recover the grant funds or to insure the restoration of the diverted funds and the dedication (consistent with the requirements of (b) (2) and (3) of this subdivision) of other grant funds held by the grantee to the purposes being financed by the grant, except that if, in fact, some or all of the diverted funds are not so restored or recovered, then the foundation must take all reasonable and appropriate steps to recover all of the grant funds, and

(b) Withholds further payments until:

(1) Such funds are in fact so recovered or restored,

(2) It has received the grantee's assurances that future diversions will not occur, and

(3) It requires the grantee to take extraordinary precautions to prevent future diversions from occurring.

If a foundation is treated as having made a taxable expenditure under this subparagraph in a case to which this subdivision applies, then unless the foundation meets the requirements of (a) of this subdivision, the amount of the taxable expenditure shall be the amount of the diversion plus the amount of any further payments to the same grantee. However, if the foundation complies with the requirements of (a) of this subdivision, but fails to withhold further payments until the requirements of (b) of this subdivision are met, the amount of the taxable expenditure shall be the amount of such further payments.

(v) The phrase “all reasonable and appropriate steps” (as used in subdivisions (iii) and (iv) of this subparagraph) includes legal action where appropriate but need not include legal action if such action would in all probability not result in the satisfaction of execution on a judgment.

(2) Grantee's failure to make reports. A failure by the grantee to make the reports required by paragraph (c) of this section (or the making of inadequate reports) shall result in the grant's being treated as a taxable expenditure by the grantor unless the grantor:

(i) Has made the grant in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section,

(ii) Has complied with the reporting requirements contained in paragraph (d) of this section,

(iii) Makes a reasonable effort to obtain the required report, and

(iv) Withholds all future payments on this grant and on any other grant to the same grantee until such report is furnished.

(3) Violations by the grantor. In addition to the situations described in subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this paragraph, a grant which is subject to the expenditure responsibility requirements of section 4945(h) will be considered a taxable expenditure of the granting foundation if the grantor:

(i) Fails to make a pregrant inquiry as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section,

(ii) Fails to make the grant in accordance with a procedure consistent with the requirements of paragraph (b) (3) or (4) of this section, or

(iii) Fails to report to the Internal Revenue Service as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.

(f) Effective dates—(1) In general. This section shall apply to all grants which are subject to the expenditure responsibility requirements of section 4945(d)(4) and (h) and which are made by private foundations more than 90 days after October 30, 1972.

(2) Transitional rules—(i) Certain grants awarded prior to May 27, 1969. Section 4945(d)(4) and (h) and this section shall not apply to a grant to a private foundation which is not controlled, directly or indirectly, by the grantor foundation or one or more disqualified persons (as defined in section 4946) with respect to the grantor foundation, provided that such grant:

(a) Is made pursuant to a written commitment which was binding on May 26, 1969, and at all times thereafter,

(b) Is made for one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B), and

(c) Is to be paid out to such grantee foundation on or before December 31, 1974.

(ii) Grants or expenditures committed prior to January 1, 1970. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of § 53.4945-4, section 4945 shall not apply to a grant or an expenditure for section 170(c)(2)(B) purposes made on or after January 1, 1970, if the grant or expenditure was made pursuant to a commitment entered into prior to such date, but only if (in the case of a grant or an expenditure other than an unlimited general-purpose grant to an organization) such commitment is reasonable in amount in light of the purposes of the grant. For purposes of this subdivision, a commitment will be considered entered into prior to January 1, 1970, if prior to such date, the amount and nature of the payments to be made and the name of the payee were entered on the records of the payor, or were otherwise adequately evidenced, or the notice of the payment to be received was communicated to the payee in writing.

(iii) Grants awarded on or after January 1, 1970. Paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section shall not apply to grants awarded on or after January 1, 1970, but prior to the expiration of 90 days after October 30, 1972, if the grantor has made reasonable efforts, and has established adequate procedures such as a prudent man would adopt in managing his own property, to see that the grant is spent solely for the purpose for which made, to obtain full and complete reports from the grantee on how the funds are spent, and to make full and detailed reports with respect to such grant to the Commissioner. With respect to any return filed with the Internal Revenue Service before the expiration of 90 days after October 30, 1972, the grantor may treat reports which satisfy the requirements of the statement to be attached to Form 4720 for the year 1970 under “Specific Instructions—Question B” (items (1) through (5)) as satisfying the grantor reporting requirements with respect to “expenditure responsibility” grants. In the case of a private foundation required to file an annual return for a taxable year ending after January 1, 1970, and before December 31, 1970, the reporting requirements imposed by section 4945(h)(3) for such period shall be regarded as satisfied if such reports are made on the annual return for its first taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969.

(3) Effective/applicability date of paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(5), (a)(6)(ii), and (b)(5) and transition relief. Paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(5), (a)(6)(ii), and (b)(5) of this section are effective on and apply with respect to grants paid after September 25, 2015. However, foundations may continue to rely on paragraph (a)(5) as contained in 26 CFR part 53, revised April 1, 2015, with respect to grants paid on or before December 24, 2015 pursuant to a good faith determination made in accordance with such provisions. Also, foundations may continue to rely on paragraph (a)(5) as contained in 26 CFR part 53, revised April 1, 2015, with respect to grants paid pursuant to a written commitment made on or before September 25, 2015 and pursuant to a good faith determination made on or before such date in accordance with such provisions if the committed amount is paid out within five years of such date.

[T.D. 7215, 37 FR 23161, Oct. 31, 1972; 37 FR 23918, Nov. 10, 1972, as amended by T.D. 7233, 37 FR 28162, Dec. 21, 1972; T.D. 7290, 38 FR 31834, Nov. 19, 1973; T.D. 9740, 80 FR 57716, Sept. 25, 2015]

§ 53.4945-6 Expenditures for noncharitable purposes.

(a) In general. Under section 4945(d)(5) the term “taxable expenditure” includes any amount paid or incurred by a private foundation for any purpose other than one specified in section 170(c)(2)(B). Thus, ordinarily only an expenditure for an activity which, if it were a substantial part of the organization's total activities, would cause loss of tax exemption is a taxable expenditure under section 4945(d)(5). For purposes of this section and §§ 53.4945-1 through 53.4945-5, the term “purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B)” shall be treated as including purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) whether or not carried out by an organization described in section 170(c).

(b) Particular expenditures. (1) The following types of expenditures ordinarily will not be treated as taxable expenditures under section 4945(d)(5):

(i) Expenditures to acquire investments entered into for the purpose of obtaining income or funds to be used in furtherance of purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B),

(ii) Reasonable expenses with respect to investments described in subdivision (i) of this subparagraph,

(iii) Payment of taxes,

(iv) Any expenses which qualify as deductions in the computation of unrelated business income tax under section 511,

(v) Any payment which constitutes a qualifying distribution under section 4942(g) or an allowable deduction under section 4940,

(vi) Reasonable expenditures to evaluate, acquire, modify, and dispose of program-related investments, or

(vii) Business expenditures by the recipient of a program-related investment.

(2) Conversely, any expenditures for unreasonable administrative expenses, including compensation, consultant fees, and other fees for services rendered, will ordinarily be taxable expenditures under section 4945(d)(5) unless the foundation can demonstrate that such expenses were paid or incurred in the good faith belief that they were reasonable and that the payment or incurrence of such expenses in such amounts was consistent with ordinary business care and prudence. The determination whether an expenditure is unreasonable shall depend upon the facts and circumstances of the particular case.

(c) Grants to “noncharitable” organizations—(1) In general. Since a private foundation cannot make an expenditure for a purpose other than a purpose described in section 170(c)(2)(B), a private foundation may not make a grant to an organization other than an organization described in section 501(c)(3) unless

(i) The making of the grant itself constitutes a direct charitable act or the making of a program-related investment, or

(ii) Through compliance with the requirements of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph, the grantor is reasonably assured that the grant will be used exclusively for purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B).

For purposes of this paragraph, an organization treated as a section 509(a)(1) organization under § 53.4945-5(a)(4) shall be treated as an organization described in section 501(c)(3).

(2) Grants other than transfers of assets described in § 1.507-3(c)(1). (i) If a private foundation makes a grant which is not a transfer of assets pursuant to any liquidation, merger, redemption, recapitalization, or other adjustment, organization or reorganization to any organization (other than an organization described in section 501(c)(3) except an organization described in section 509(a)(4)), the grantor is reasonably assured (within the meaning of subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph) that the grant will be used exclusively for purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) only if the grantee organization agrees to maintain and, during the period in which any portion of such grant funds remain unexpended, does continuously maintain the grant funds (or other assets transferred) in a separate fund dedicated to one or more purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B). The grantor of a grant described in this paragraph must also comply with the expenditure responsibility provisions contained in sections 4945(d) and (h) and § 53.4945-5.

(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, a foreign organization which does not have a ruling or determination letter that it is an organization described in section 501(c)(3) (other than section 509(a)(4)) will be treated as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) (other than section 509(a)(4)) if in the reasonable judgment of a foundation manager of the transferor private foundation, the grantee organization is an organization described in section 501(c)(3) (other than section 509(a)(4)). The term “reasonable judgment” shall be given its generally accepted legal sense within the outlines developed by judicial decisions in the law of trusts.

(3) Transfers of assets described in § 1.507-3(c)(1). If a private foundation makes a transfer of assets (other than a transfer described in subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph) pursuant to any liquidation, merger, redemption, recapitalization, or other adjustment, organization, or reorganization to any person, the transferred assets will not be considered used exclusively for purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) unless the assets are transferred to a fund or organization described in section 501(c)(3) (other than an organization described in section 509(a)(4)) or treated as so described under section 4947(a)(1).

[T.D. 7215, 37 FR 23161, Oct. 31, 1972, as amended by T.D. 7233, 37 FR 28162, Dec. 21, 1972]

Subpart G Definitions and Special Rules
§ 53.4946-1 Definitions and special rules.

(a) Disqualified person. (1) For purposes of Chapter 42 and the regulations thereunder, the following are disqualified persons with respect to a private foundation:

(i) All substantial contributors to the foundation, as defined in section 507 (d)(2) and the regulations thereunder.

(ii) All foundation managers of the foundation as defined in section 4946 (b)(1) and paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section,

(iii) An owner of more than 20 percent of:

(a) The total combined voting power of a corporation,

(b) The profits interest of a partnership,

(c) The beneficial interest of a trust or unincorporated enterprise.

which is (during such ownership) a substantial contributor to the foundation, as defined in section 507(d)(2) and the regulations thereunder,

(iv) A member of the family, as defined in section 4946(d) and paragraph (h) of this section, of any of the individuals described in subdivision (i), (ii), or (iii) of this subparagraph,

(v) A corporation of which more than 35 percent of the total combined voting power is owned by persons described in subdivision (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this subparagraph,

(vi) A partnership of which more than 35 percent of the profits interest is owned by persons described in subdivision (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this subparagraph, and

(vii) A trust, estate, or unincorporated enterprise of which more than 35 percent of the beneficial interest is owned by persons described in subdivision (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this subparagraph.

(2) For purposes of subparagraphs (1)(iii) (b) and (vi) of this paragraph, the profits interest of a partner shall be equal to his distributive share of income of the partnership, as determined under section 707(b)(3) and the regulations thereunder as modified by section 4946(a)(4).

(3) For purposes of subparagraph (1) (iii)(c) and (vii) of this paragraph, the beneficial interest in an unincorporated enterprise (other than a trust or estate) includes any right to receive a portion of distributions from profits of such enterprise, and, if the portion of distributions is not fixed by an agreement among the participants, any right to receive a portion of the assets (if any) upon liquidation of the enterprise, except as a creditor or employee. For purposes of this subparagraph, a right to receive distributions of profits includes a right to receive any amount from such profits other than as a creditor or employee, whether as a sum certain or as a portion of profits realized by the enterprise. Where there is no agreement fixing the rights of the participants in such enterprise, the fraction of the respective interests of each participant in such enterprise shall be determined by dividing the amount of all investments or contributions to the capital of the enterprise made or obligated to be made by such participant by the amount of all investments or contributions to capital made or obligated to be made by all of them.

(4) For purposes of subparagraph (1) (iii) (c) and (vii) of this paragraph, a person's beneficial interest in a trust shall be determined in proportion to the actuarial interest of such person in the trust.

(5) For purposes of subparagraph (1) (iii) (a) and (v) of this paragraph, the term “combined voting power” includes voting power represented by holdings of voting stock, actual or constructive (under section 4946(a)(3)), but does not include voting rights held only as a director or trustee.

(6) For purposes of subparagraph (1) (iii) (a) and (v) of this paragraph, the term “voting power” includes outstanding voting power and does not include voting power obtainable but not obtained, such as, for example, voting power obtainable by converting securities or nonvoting stock into voting stock or by exercising warrants or options to obtain voting stock, and voting power which will vest in preferred stockholders only if and when the corporation has failed to pay preferred dividends for a specified period of time or has otherwise failed to meet specified requirements. Similarly, for purposes of subparagraph (1)(iii) (b) and (c), (vi), and (vii) of this paragraph, the terms “profits interest” and “beneficial interest” include any such interest that is outstanding, but do not include any such interest that is obtainable but has not been obtained.

(7) For purposes of sections 170(b) (1)(E)(iii), 507(d)(1), 508(d), 509(a) (1) and (3), and Chapter 42, the term “disqualified person” shall not include an organization which is described in section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3), or any other organization which is wholly owned by such section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3) organization.

(8) For purposes of section 4941 only, the term “disqualified person” shall not include any organization which is described in section 501(c)(3) (other than an organization described in section 509(a)(4)).

(b) Section 4943. (1) For purposes of section 4943 only, the term “disqualified person” includes a private foundation:

(i) Which is effectively controlled (within the meaning of § 1.482-1(a)(3) of this chapter), directly or indirectly, by the same person or persons (other than a bank, trust company, or similar organization acting only as a foundation manager) who control the private foundation in question, or

(ii) Substantially all the contributions to which were made, directly or indirectly, by persons described in subdivision (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of paragraph (a)(1) of this section who made, directly or indirectly, substantially all of the contributions to the private foundation in question.

(2) For purposes of subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph, one or more persons will be considered to have made substantially all of the contributions to a private foundation, if such persons have contributed or bequeathed at least 85 percent (and each such person has contributed or bequeathed at least 2 percent) of the total contributions and bequests (within the meaning of section 507(d)(2) and the regulations thereunder) which have been received by such private foundation during its entire existence.

(3) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.A, a private foundation, has a board of directors made up of X, Y, Z, M, N, and O. Foundation B's board of directors is made up of Y, M, N, and O. The board of directors in each case has plenary power to determine the manner in which the foundation is operated. For purposes of section 4943, foundation A is a disqualified person with respect to foundation B, and foundation B, is a disqualified person with respect to foundation A.

Example 2.Private foundation A has received contributions of $100,000 throughout its existence: $35,000 from X, $51,000 from Y (who is X's father), and $14,000 from Z (an unrelated person). Private foundation B has received $100,000 in contributions during its existence: $50,000 from X and $50,000 from W, X's wife. For purposes of section 4943, private foundation A is a disqualified person with respect to private foundation B, and private foundation B is a disqualified person with respect to private foundation A.

(c) Section 4941. For purposes of section 4941, a government official, as defined in section 4946(c) and paragraph (g) of this section, is a disqualified person.

(d) Attribution of stockholdings. (1) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) (a) and (v) of this section, indirect stockholdings shall be taken into account under section 267(c) and the regulations thereunder. However, for purposes of this paragraph:

(i) Section 267(c)(4) shall be treated as though it provided that the members of the family of an individual are the members within the meaning of section 4946(d) and paragraph (h) of this section; and

(ii) Any stockholdings which have been counted once (whether by reason of actual or constructive ownership) in applying section 4946(a)(1)(E) shall not be counted a second time.

For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(v) or this section, section 267(c) shall be applied without regard to section 267(c)(3), and stock constructively owned by an individual by reason of the application of section 267(c)(2) shall not be treated as owned by him if he is described in section 4946(a)(1)(D) but not also in section 4946(a)(1) (A), (B), or (C).

(2) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.D is a substantial contributor to private foundation Y. D owns 20 percent of the outstanding stock of corporation P. E, D's wife, owns none of the outstanding stock of P. F, E's father, owns 10 percent of the outstanding stock of P. E is treated under section 507(d)(2) as a substantial contributor to Y. E is also treated under section 267(c)(2) as owning both D's 20 percent and F's 10 percent of P, but E is treated as owning nothing for purposes of section 4946(a)(1)(E) because D's 20 percent and F's 10 percent have already been taken into account once (because of their actual ownership of the stock of P) for such purposes. Hence, corporation P is not a disqualified person under section 4946(a)(1)(E) with respect to private foundation Y because persons described in section 4946(a)(1) (A), (B), (C), and (D) own only 30 percent of the stock of P.

Example 2.I, a substantial contributor to private foundation X, is the son of J. I owns 100 percent of the stock of corporation R, which in turn owns 18 percent of the stock of corporation S. J owns 18 percent of the stock of S. I constructively owns 36 percent of the stock of S (J's 18 percent plus R's 18 percent). Both J's actual holdings and R's actual holdings are counted in determining I's constructive holdings because this does not result in counting either of the holdings more than once for purposes of section 4946 (a)(1)(E). Therefore, S is a disqualified person with respect to private foundation X, since I, a substantial contributor, constructively owns more than 35 percent of S's stock.

(e) Attribution of profits or beneficial interests. (1) For purposes of paragraph (a) (1) (iii) (b), (iii) (c) (vi), and (vii) of this section, ownership of profits or beneficial interests shall be taken into account as though such ownership related to stockholdings, if such stockholdings would be taken into account under section 267(c) and the regulations thereunder, except that section 267(c)(3) shall not apply to attribute the ownership of one partner to another solely by reason of such partner relationship. However, for purposes of this paragraph:

(i) Section 267(c)(4) shall be treated as though it provided that the members of the family of an individual are the members within the meaning of section 4946(d) and paragraph (h) of this section; and

(ii) Any profits interest or beneficial interest which has been counted once (whether by reason of actual or constructive ownership) in applying section 4946(a)(1) (F) or (G) shall not be counted a second time.

For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) (vi) and (vii) of this section, profits or beneficial interests constructively owned by an individual by reason of the application of section 267(c)(2) shall not be treated as owned by him if he is described in section 4946(a)(1)(D) but not in section 4946(a)(1)(A), (B) or (C).

(2) Example. The provisions of this paragraph may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.Partnership S is a substantial contributor to private foundation X. Trust T, of which G is sole beneficiary, owns 12 percent of the profits interest of S. G's husband, H, owns 10 percent of the profits interest of S. H is a disqualified person with respect to X (under section 4946(a)(1)(C)) because he is considered to own 22 percent of the profits interest of S (10 percent actual ownership, plus G's 12 percent constructively under section 267(c)(2)). G is a disqualified person with respect to X (under section 4946(a)(1)(C) because she is considered to own 22 percent of the profits interest of S (12 percent constructively by reason of her beneficial interest in trust T, plus 10 percent constructively under section 267(c)(2) by reason of being a member of the family of H).

(f) Foundation manager. (1) For purposes of Chapter 42 and the regulations thereunder, the term “foundation manager” means:

(i) An officer, director, or trustee of a foundation (or a person having powers or responsibilities similar to those of officers, directors, or trustees of the foundation), and

(ii) With respect to any act or failure to act, any employee of the foundation having final authority or responsibility (either officially or effectively) with respect to such act or failure to act.

(2) For purposes of subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph, a person shall be considered an officer of a foundation if:

(i) He is specifically so designated under the certificate of incorporation, bylaws, or other constitutive documents of the foundation; or

(ii) He regularly exercises general authority to make administrative or policy decisions on behalf of the foundation.

With respect to any act or failure to act, any person described in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph who has authority merely to recommend particular administrative or policy decisions, but not to implement them without approval of a superior, is not an officer. Moreover, such independent contractors as attorneys, accountants, and investment managers and advisers, acting in their capacities as such, are not officers within the meaning of subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph.

(3) For purposes of subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph, an individual rendering services to a private foundation shall be considered an employee of the foundation only if he is an employee within the meaning of section 3121(d)(2).

(4) Since the definition of the term “disqualified person” contained in section 4946(a)(1)(B) incorporates only so much of the definition of the term “foundation manager” as is found in section 4946(b)(1) and subparagraph (1)(i) of this paragraph, any references, in section 4946 and this section, to “disqualified persons” do not constitute references to persons who are “foundation managers” solely by reason of the definition of that term contained in section 4946(b)(2) and subparagraph (1)(ii) of this paragraph.

(g) Government official—(1) In general. Except as provided in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph, for purposes of section 4941 and paragraph (c) of this section, the term “government official” means, with respect to an act of selfdealing described in section 4941, an individual who, at the time of such act, is described in subdivision (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this subparagraph (other than a “special Government employee” as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202(a)):

(i)(a) An individual who holds an elective public office in the executive or legislative branch of the Government of the United States.

(b) An individual who holds an office in the executive or judicial branch of the Government of the United States, appointment to which was made by the President.

(ii) An individual who holds a position in the executive, legislative or judicial branch of the Government of the United States:

(a) Which is listed in schedule C of rule VI of the Civil Service Rules, or

(b) The compensation for which is equal to or greater than the lowest rate prescribed for GS-16 of the General Schedule under 5 U.S.C. 5332.

(iii) An individual who holds a position under the House of Representatives or the Senate of the United States, as an employee of either of such bodies, who receives gross compensation therefrom at an annual rate of $15,000 or more.

(iv) The holder of an elective or appointive public office in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the government of a State, possession of the United States, or political subdivision or other area of any of the foregoing, or of the District of Columbia, for which the gross compensation is at an annual rate of $15,000 or more, who is described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph.

(v) The holder of a position as personal or executive assistant or secretary to any individual described in subdivision (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this subparagraph.

(2) Public office—(i) Definition. In defining the term “public office” for purposes of section 4946(c)(5) and subparagraph (1)(iv) of this paragraph, such term must be distinguished from mere public employment. Although holding a public office is one form of public employment, not every position in the employ of a State or other governmental subdivision (as described in section 4946 (c)(5)) constitutes a “public office”. Although a determination whether a public employee holds a public office depends on the facts and circumstances of the case, the essential element is whether a significant part of the activities of a public employee is the independent performance of policymaking functions. In applying this subparagraph, several factors may be considered as indications that a position in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the government of a State, possession of the United States, or political subdivision or other area of any of the foregoing, or of the District of Columbia, constitutes a “public office”. Among such factors to be considered in addition to that set forth above, are that the office is created by the Congress, a State constitution, or the State legislature, or by a municipality or other governmental body pursuant to authority conferred by the Congress, State constitution, or State legislature, and the powers conferred on the office and the duties to be discharged by such office are defined either directly or indirectly by the Congress, State constitution, or State legislature, or through legislative authority.

(ii) Illustrations. The following are illustrations of positions of public employment which do not involve policymaking functions within the meaning of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph and which are thus not a “public office” for purposes of section 4946(c)(5) and subparagraph (1)(iv) of this paragraph:

(a) The chancellor, president, provost, dean, and other officers of a State university who are appointed, elected, or otherwise hired by a State Board of Regents or equivalent public body and who are subject to the direction and supervision of such body;

(b) Professors, instructors, and other members of the faculty of a State educational institution who are appointed, elected, or otherwise hired by the officers of the institution or by the State Board of Regents or equivalent public body;

(c) The superintendent of public schools and other public school officials who are appointed, elected, or otherwise hired by a Board of Education or equivalent public body and who are subject to the direction and supervision of such body;

(d) Public school teachers who are appointed, elected, or otherwise hired by the superintendent of public schools or by a Board of Education or equivalent public body;

(e) Physicians, nurses, and other professional persons associated with public hospitals and State boards of health who are appointed, elected, or otherwise hired by the governing board or officers of such hospitals or agencies; and

(f) Members of police and fire departments, except for those department heads who, under the facts and circumstances of the case, independently perform policymaking functions as a significant part of their activities.

(3) Certain government officials on leave of absence. For purposes of this paragraph, an individual who is otherwise described in section 4946(c) and this paragraph who was on leave of absence without pay on December 31, 1969, from his position or office pursuant to a commitment entered into on or before such date to engage in certain activities for which he is paid by one or more private foundations, is not to be treated as holding such position or office for any continuous period after December 31, 1969, and prior to January 1, 1971, during which such individual remains on leave of absence to engage in the same activities for which he is paid by such foundations. For purposes of this subparagraph, a commitment is considered entered into on or before December 31, 1969, if on or before such date, the amount and nature of the payments to be made and the name of the individual receiving such payments were entered on the records of the payor, or were otherwise adequately evidenced, or the notice of the payment to be received was communicated to the payee orally or in writing.

(h) Members of the family. For purposes of this section, the members of the family of an individual include only:

(1) His spouse,

(2) His ancestors,

(3) His lineal descendants, and

(4) Spouses of his lineal descendants.

For example, a brother or sister of an individual is not a member of his family for purposes of this section. However, for example, the wife of a grandchild of an individual is a member of his family for such purposes. For purposes of this paragraph, a legally adopted child of an individual shall be treated as a child of such individual by blood.

[T.D. 7241, 37 FR 28744, Dec. 29, 1972]

Subpart H Application to Certain Nonexempt Trusts
§ 53.4947-1 Application of tax.

(a) In general. Section 4947 subjects trusts which are not exempt from taxation under section 501(a), all or part of the unexpired interests in which are devoted to one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B), and which have amounts in trust for which a deduction was allowed under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522 to the same requirements and restrictions as are imposed on private foundations. The basic purpose of section 4947 is to prevent these trusts from being used to avoid the requirements and restrictions applicable to private foundations. For purposes of this section, a trust shall be presumed (in the absence of proof to the contrary) to have amounts under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522 if a deduction would have been allowable under one of these sections. Also for purposes of this section and § 53.4947-2, the term “purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B)” shall be treated as including purposes described in section 170(c)(1).

(b) Charitable trusts—(1) General rule. (i) For purposes of this section and § 53.4947-2, a charitable trust, within the meaning of section 4947(a)(1), is a trust which is not exempt from taxation under section 501(a), all of the unexpired interests in which are devoted to one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B), and for which a deduction was allowed under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522 (or the corresponding provisions of prior law). A trust is one for which a deduction was allowed under section 642(c), within the meaning of section 4947(a)(1), once a deduction is allowed under section 642(c) to the trust for any amount paid or permanently set aside. (See sections 642(c) and § 1.642-4 for the limitation on such deduction in certain cases.) A charitable trust (as defined in this paragraph) shall be treated as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) and, if it is determined under section 509 that the trust is a private foundation, then Part II of Subchapter F of chapter 1 of the Code (other than section 508 (a), (b) and (c) and Chapter 42 shall apply to the trust. However, the charitable trust is not treated as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) for purposes of exemption from taxation under section 501(a). Thus, the trust is subject to the excise tax on its investment income under section 4940(b) rather than the tax imposed by section 4940(a). For purposes of satisfying the organizational test described in § 1.501 (c)(3)-1(b) when a charitable trust seeks an exemption from taxation under section 501(a), a charitable trust (as defined in this paragraph) shall be considered organized on the day it first becomes subject to section 4947(a)(1). However, for purposes of the special and transistional rules in section 4940(c)(4)(B), 4942(f)(4), 4943(c)(4)(A)(i) and (B) and section 101(1)(2)(A), (B), (C), and (D), and (1)(3) of the Tax Reform Act of 1969, a charitable trust (as defined in this paragraph) shall be considered organized on the first day it has amounts in trust for which a deduction was allowed (within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section) under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522. Thus, under this rule, a trust may be treated as a private foundation in existence on a date governing one of the applicable special and transistional rules even though the trust did not otherwise become subject to the provisions of Chapter 42 until a later date.

(ii) The provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.On January 30, 1970, X creates an inter vivos trust under which M receives 50 percent and N receives 50 percent of the trust's income for 10 years, and upon the termination of which, at the end of the 10-year period, the corpus is to be distributed to O. M, N and O are all organizations described in section 501(c)(3) and X is allowed a deduction under section 170 for the value of all interests placed in trust. The trustees of the trust do not give notice to the Internal Revenue Service under the provisions of section 508(a), and the trust will therefore not be exempt from taxation under section 501(a). The trust is a charitable trust within the meaning of section 4947(a)(1) from the date of its creation.

Example 2.On March 1, 1971, Y creates a charitable remainder annuity trust described in section 664(d)(1) under which Z, Y's son, receives $10,000 per year for life, remainder to be held in trust for P, an organization described in section 501(c)(3). Y is allowed a deduction under section 170 for the present value of the remainder interest to P. During Z's lifetime, the trust is a split-interest trust described in section 4947(a)(2) and paragraph (c) of this section. Upon the death of Z, all unexpected interests (consisting of P's remainder interest) will be devoted to section 170(c)(2)(B) purposes. Except as provided in § 53.4947-1(b)(2)(iv) (relating to a reasonable period of settlement) the trust will be treated as a charitable trust within the meaning of section 4947(a)(1) from the date of the death of Z unless the trustees of the trust apply for recognition of section 501(c)(3) status under the provisions of section 508(a).

(2) Scope of application of section 4947(a)(1)—(i) In general. Subject to paragraph (b)(2) (ii) through (vii) of this section, section 4947(a)(1) applies to nonexempt trusts in which all unexpired interests are charitable. For purposes of this section, the term charitable when used to describe an interest or beneficiary refers to the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B). An estate from which the executor or administrator is required to distribute all of the net assets in trust to such beneficiaries will not be considered a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1) during the period of estate administration or settlement, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section. A charitable trust created by will shall be considered a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1) as of the date of death of the decedent-grantor, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section (relating to trusts which wind up. For the circumstances under which segregated amounts are treated as charitable trusts, see § 53.4947-1(c)(3)(iii).

(ii) Estates. (A) When an estate from which the executor or administrator is required to distribute all of the net assets in trust for charitable beneficiaries, or free of trust to such beneficiaries, is considered terminated for Federal income tax purposes under § 1.641(b)-3(a), then the estate will be treated as a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1) between the date on which the estate is considered terminated under § 1.641(b)-3(a) and the date final distribution of all of the net assets is made to or for the benefit of the charitable beneficiaries. This (ii) does not affect the determination of the tax liability under Subtitle A of the beneficiaries of the estates.

(B) The provisions of this (ii) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.X bequeaths his entire estate, including 100 percent of the stock of a wholly-owned corporation, to M, an organization described in section 501(c)(3), under a will which gives his executor authority to hold the stock and manage the corporation for a period of up to 10 years for the benefit of M prior to its ultimate disposition. A deduction for the charitable bequest was allowed to X's estate under section 2055. The executor is vested with a full range of powers, including the power of sale. Upon the death of X, his executor distributes X's assets to M except for the stock of the corporation, which he holds for 5 years prior to its disposition. The continued holding of the stock of the corporation by the executor after the expiration of a reasonable time for performance of all the ordinary duties of administration causes the estate to be considered terminated for Federal income tax purposes pursuant to § 1.641(b)-3(a) and thereby subjects it to the provisions of section 4947(a)(1) from the date of such termination to the date of final disposition of the stock of the corporation.

(iii) Certain split-interest trusts which wind up. A split-interest trust (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) in which all of the unexpired interests are charitable remainder interests and in which the charitable beneficiaries have become entitled to distributions of corpus in trust or free of trust shall continue to be treated as as split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) until the date on which final distribution of all the net assets is made. However, if after the expiration of any intervening interests the trust is considered terminated for Federal income tax purposes under § 1.641(b)-3(b), then the trust will be treated as a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1), rather than a split interest trust under section 4947(a)(2), between the date on which the trust is considered terminated under § 1.641(b)-3(b) and the date on which such final distribution of all of the net assets is made to or for the benefit of the charitable remainder beneficiaries. This (iii) does not affect the determination of the tax liability under subtitle A of the beneficiaries of the trusts.

(iv) Split-interest trusts which become charitable trusts. (A) A split-interest trust (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) in which all of the unexpired interests are charitable remainder interests and in which some or all of the charitable beneficiaries are not entitled to distributions of corpus within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section shall continue to be treated as a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) rather than a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1) for a reasonable period of settlement after the expiration of the noncharitable interest. Thus, a split-interest trust which under its terms is to continue to hold assets for charitable beneficiaries after the expiration of the noncharitable interest rather than distributing them as in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section is given a reasonable period of settlement before being treated as a charitable trust. For purposes of this paragraph, the term reasonable period of settlement means that period reasonably required (or if shorter, actually required) by the trustee to perform the ordinary duties of administration necessary for the settlement of the trust. These duties include, for example, the collection of assets, the payment of debts, taxes, and distributions, and the determination of the rights of the subsequent beneficiaries.

(B) This (iv) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.On January 15, 1971, A creates a charitable remainder annuity trust described in section 661(d)(1) under which the trustees are required to distribute $10,000 a year to B, A's wife, for life, remainder to be held in trust for the use of M, an organization described in section 501(c)(3). A is allowed a deduction under section 170 for the amount of the charitable interest, and the trust is, therefore, treated as a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) from the date of its creation. B dies on February 10, 1975. On April 15, 1975, the trustees complete performance of the ordinary duties of administration necessary for the settlement of the trust brought about by the death of B. These duties include, for example, an accounting for and payment to the estate of B of amounts accrued by B while alive during 1975. However, the trustees do not distribute the corpus to M by April 15, 1975. The trust shall continue to be treated as a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) until April 15, 1975. After April 15, 1975, the trust shall be treated as a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1).

(v) Certain revocable and testamentary trusts which wind up. A revocable trust that becomes irrevocable upon the death of the decedent-grantor, or a trust created by will, from which the trustee is required to distribute all of the net assets in trust for or free of trust to charitable beneficiaries is not considered a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1) for a reasonable period of settlement (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section) after becoming irrevocable. After that period the trust is considered a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1).

(vi) Revocable trusts which become charitable trusts. A revocable trust that becomes irrevocable upon the death of the decedent-grantor in which all of the unexpired interests are charitable and under the terms of the governing instrument of which the trustee is required to hold some or all of the net assets in trust after becoming irrevocable solely for charitable beneficiaries is not considered a trust under section 4947(a)(1) for a reasonable period of settlement (within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section) after becoming irrevocable except that section 4941 may apply if the requirements of § 53.4941(d)-1 (b)(3) are not met. After that period, the trust is considered a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1).

(vii) Trust devoted to 170(c) purposes. (A) A trust all of the unexpired interests in which are devoted to section 170 (c) (3) or (5) purposes together with section 170(c)(2)(B) purposes shall be considered a charitable trust except that payments under the terms of the governing instrument to an organization described in section 170(c) (3) or (5) shall not be considered a violation of section 4945(d)(5) or any other provisions of Chapter 42 and shall be considered qualifying distributions under section 4942.

(B) Example. The application of paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.On January 30, 1970, H creates an inter vivos trust under the terms of the governing instruments of which M, an organization described in section 170(c)(3), and N, an organization described in section 501(c)(3), are each to receive 50 percent of the income for a period of 10 years. At the end of the 10 year period, the corpus is to be distributed to O, an organization also described in section 501(c)(3). H is allowed a deduction under section 170 for the value of all interests placed in trust. The payments to M do not constitute a violation of section 4945(d)(5) or any other provision of Chapter 42 and constitute qualifying distributions under section 4942. However, except as provided in the previous sentence, the trust shall be considered a charitable trust.

(3) Charitable trusts described in section 509(a)(3). For purposes of section 509(a)(3)(A), a charitable trust shall be treated as if organized on the day on which it first becomes subject to section 4947(a)(1). However, for purposes of applying § 1.509(a)-4(d)(2)(iv)(A) and (i)(1)(ii) of this chapter the previous relationship between the charitable trust and the section 509(a) (1) or (2) organizations it benefits or supports may be considered. If the charitable trust otherwise meets the requirements of section 509(a)(3), it may obtain recognition of its status as a section 509(a)(3) organization by requesting a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service. For the special rules pertaining to the application of the organizational test to organizations terminating their private foundation status under the 12-month or 60-month termination period provided under section 507(b)(1)(B) by becoming “public” under section 509(a)(3), see the regulations in this part under section 507(b)(1).

(c) Split-interest trusts—(1) General rule—(i) Definition. For purposes of this section and § 53.4947-2, a split-interest trust, within the meaning of section 4947(a)(2), is a trust which is not exempt from taxation under section 501(a), not all of the unexpired interests in which are devoted to one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B), and which has amounts in trust for which a deduction was allowed (within the meaning of paragraph (a) of this section) under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522. A trust is one which has amounts in trust for which a deduction was allowed under section 642(c) within the meaning of section 4947(a)(2) once a deduction is allowed under section 642(c) to the trust for any amount permanently set aside. This (i) also includes any trust which is not treated as a charitable trust by operation of paragraph (b)(2) (iii) or (iv) of this section (relating to split-interest trusts in the process of winding up or during a reasonable period of settlement). Section 4947(a)(1) shall apply to a trust described in this (i) (without regard to section 4947(a)(2)(A), (B), or (C)) from the first date upon which the provisions of paragraph (b)(2) (iii) or (iv) of this section are satisfied. For the circumstances under which a trust all of the unexpired interests in which are devoted to section 170(c) (3) or (5) purposes together with section 170(c)(2)(B) purposes is considered a charitable trust, see § 53.4947-1(b)(2)(vii).

(ii) Applicability of statutory rules. A split-interest trust is subject to the provisions of section 507 (except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section), 508(e) (to the extent applicable to a split-interest trust), 4941, 4943 (except as provided in section 4947(b)(3)), 4944 (except as provided in section 4947(b)(3)), and 4945 in the same manner as if such trust were a private foundation.

(iii) Special rules. A newly created trust shall, for purposes of section 4947(a)(2), be treated as having amounts in trust for which a deduction was allowed under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522 from the date of its creation, even if a deduction was allowed for such amounts only at a later date. For purposes of this (iii), the date of creation of a charitable remainder trust shall be determined by applying the rules in § 1.664-1(a)(4).

(2) Exception for amounts payable to income beneficiaries. (i) Under section 4947(a)(2)(A), paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section does not apply to any amounts payable under the terms of a split-interest trust to income beneficiaries unless a deduction was allowed under section 170(f)(2)(B), 2055(e)(2) (B), or 2522(c)(2)(B) with respect to the income interest of any such beneficiary. See § 1.170A-6(c), § 20.2055(e)(2), and § 25.2522(c)-3(c)(2) for rules regarding the allowance of these deductions. However, section 4947(a)(2)(A) does not apply when the value of all interests in property transferred in trust are deductible under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522.

(ii) The application of this subparagraph may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.H creates a charitable remainder unitrust (described in section 664(d)(2)) which is required annually to pay W, H's wife, 5 percent of the net fair market value of the trust assets, valued annually, for her life; and to pay the remainder to Y, a section 501(c)(3) organization. A deduction under section 170(f)(2)(A) was allowed with respect to the remainder interest of Y. Under section 4947(a)(2)(A), each annual amount which becomes payable to W during her life is not subject to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section on or after the date upon which it becomes so payable and the payment of each amount to W is not an act of self-dealing under section 4941(d)(1) and does not violate any other provision of chapter 42. However, except as provided in the preceding sentence, the trust is subject to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section in the same manner as any other split-interest trust.

Example 2.H bequeaths the residue of his estate in trust for the benefit of S, his son, and Y, an organization described in section 501(c)(3). A guaranteed annuity interest of $10,000 is to be paid to S for 20 years. A guaranteed annuity interest of $5,000 which meets the requirements contained in § 20.2055-2(e)(2)(v)(a) is also to be paid to Y for 20 years. Upon termination of the 20-year term, the corpus is to be distributed to Z, another organization described in section 501(c)(3). The trust is a charitable remainder annuity trust as described in section 664(d)(1) and the regulations thereunder, and a deduction under section 2055(e)(2)(A) was allowed with respect to the remainder interest of Z. A deduction was also allowed under section 2055(e)(2)(B) with respect to the guaranteed annuity interest of Y. The assets in the trust are not segregated under section 4947(a)(2)(B) and paragraph (c)(3) of this section. Under section 4947(a)(2)(A), each payment of $10,000 to S is not subject to section 4947(a)(2) and paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The payment of each amount to S is not an act of self-dealing under section 4941(d)(1) and does not violate any other provision of chapter 42. However, except as provided in the preceding sentence, the trust is subject to section 4947(a)(2) and paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section in the same manner as any other split-interest trust.

Example 3.H creates a trust under which the trustees are required to pay over an annuity interest of $20,000 to W. H's wife, for her life. A guaranteed annuity interest of $10,000 which meets the requirements contained in § 25.2522(c)-3(c)(2)(v) is also to be paid X, an organization described in section 501(c)(3), for the life of W. Upon the death of W, the corpus of the trust, which consists of office buildings M and N, is to be distributed to S. H's son. H received a deduction under section 2522(c)(2)(B) for the value of X's income interest in the trust. The assets in the trust are not segregated under section 4947(a)(2)(B) and paragraph (c)(3) of this section. Under section 4947(a)(2)(A), each payment of $20,000 to W is not subject to section 4947(a)(2) and paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The payment of each amount to W is not an act of self-dealing under section 4941(d)(1) and does not violate any other provision of chapter 42. However, except as provided in the preceding sentence, the trust is subject to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section in the same manner as any other split-interest trust. See example (1) of paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section for the application of section 4947(a)(2)(B) to a similar trust where the trustees segregate the assets of the trust.

(3) Exception for certain segregated amount—(i) In general. Under section 4947(a)(2)(B) paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section does not apply to assets held in trust (together with the income and capital gains derived from the assets), which are segregated from other assets held in trust for which a deduction was allowed for an income or remainder interest under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522.

(ii) Segregation of amounts. Amounts will generally be considered segregated (within the meaning of section 4947(a)(2)(B) if:

(A) Assets with respect to which no deduction was allowed (for an income or remainder interest) under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522, are separately accounted for under section 4947(a)(3) and paragraph (c)(4) of this section from assets for which such a deduction was allowed for any income or remainder interest and,

(B) By reason of the separate accounting the trust can be treated as two separate trusts, one of which is devoted exclusively to noncharitable income and remainder interests and the other of which is a charitable trust described in section 4947(a)(1) or a split-interest trust described in section 4947(a)(2).

Under these circumstances, only the “trust” which is devoted exclusively to noncharitable income and remainder interests will be considered a segregated amount which under section 4947(a)(2)(B), is not subject to section 4947(a)(2) and paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.

(iii) Exclusively charitable amounts. If, under section 4947(a)(2)(B),

(A) An amount held in trust which is devoted exclusively to noncharitable income and remainder interests is segregated from

(B) An amount held in trust which is devoted exclusively to charitable income and remainder interests,

Then for purposes of this section the amount described in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B) of this section will be treated as a charitable trust which is subject to the provisions of section 4947(a)(1).

(iv) Charitable and noncharitable amounts. If, under section 4947(a) (2)(B),

(A) An amount held in trust which is devoted exclusively to noncharitable income and remainder interests is segregated from

(B) An amount held in trust which is devoted to both charitable income or remainder interests and noncharitable income or remainder interests,

Then for purposes of this section the amount described in paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(B) of this section will be treated as a split-interest trust which is subject to the provisions of section 4947(a)(2).

(v) Examples. The application of paragraph (c)(3) of this section may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.H creates a trust under which the trustees are required to pay over annually 5 percent of the net fair market value of M building, valued annually, to W, H's wife, for life, remainder to S, H's son. The other asset in the trust is N building, with respect to which the trustees are required to pay over annually 5 percent of the net fair market value of the building, valued annually, to X, a section 501(c)(3) organization, for a period of 15 years, remainder to S. Each asset is separately accounted for under section 4947(a)(3) and paragraph (c)(4) of this section. He received a deduction under section 2522 for the value of X's income interest in N building. Under these circumstances, M building is considered segregated (within the meaning of section 4947(a)(2)(B)) from N building and is not subject to section 4947 (a)(2). The remainder interest of S in N building is not considered segregated from the income interest of X in N building, since both are interests in the same asset. N building is considered held in a split-interest trust which is subject to section 4947 (a)(2) and paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.

Example 2.H transfers $50,000 in trust to pay $2,500 per year to Z, a section 501(c)(3) organization, for a term of 20 years, remainder to S. H's son. H is allowed a deduction under section 2522 for the present value of Z's income interest. The income interest of Z in the trust asset cannot be segregated (within the meaning of section 4947(a)(2)(B)) from the remainder interest of S since both are interests in the same asset. Therefore, the entire trust is subject to section 4947(a)(2) and paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.

(4) Accounting for segregated amounts—(i) General rule. Under section 4947(a)(2)(B), a trust with respect to which amounts are segregated within the meaning of paragraph (c)(3) of this section must separately account for the various income, deduction, and other items properly attributable to each segregated amount in the books of account and separately account to each of the beneficiaries of the trust.

(ii) Method. Separate accounting shall be made:

(A) According to the method regularly employed by the trust, if the method is reasonable, and

(B) In all other cases in a manner which, in the opinion of the Commissioner, is reasonable.

A method of separate accounting will be considered “regularly employed” by a trust when the method has been consistently followed in prior taxable years or when a trust which has never before maintained segregated amounts initiates a reasonable method of separate accounting for its segregated amounts and consistently follows such method thereafter. The trust shall keep permanent records and other data relating to the segregated amounts as are necessary to enable the district director to determine the correctness of the application of the rules prescribed in paragraph (c) (3) and (4) of this section.

(5) Amounts transferred in trust before May 27, 1969—(i) General rule. Under section 4947(a)(2)(C), paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section does not apply to any amounts transferred in trust before May 27, 1969. For purposes of this (5), an amount shall be considered to be transferred in trust only when the transfer is one which meets the requirements for the allowance of a deduction under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522 (or the corresponding provisions of prior law). Income and capital gains which are derived at any time from amounts transferred in trust before May 27, 1969, shall also be excluded from the application of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. If an asset which was transferred in trust before May 27, 1969, is sold or exchanged after May 26, 1969, any asset received by the trust upon the sale or exchange shall be treated as an asset which was transferred in trust before May 27, 1969.

(ii) Requirement for separate accounting for amounts transferred in trust before May 27, 1969. If:

(A) Amounts are transferred in trust after May 26, 1969, and the trust to which the amounts are transferred also contains

(B) Amounts transferred in trust before May 27, 1969,

the general rule of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section applicable to the amounts described in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(B) of this section will apply only if the amounts described in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(A) of this section (together with all income and capital gains derived therefrom) are separately accounted for (within the meaning of paragraph (c)(4) of this section) from the amounts described in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(B) of this section, together with all income and capital gains derived therefrom. For the application of section 508(e) to a trust with respect to which amounts were transferred both before and after May 27, 1969, see section 508(e) and the regulations thereunder.

(iii) Exception for certain testamentary trusts. (A) Amounts transferred in trust before May 27, 1969 include amounts transferred in trust after May 26, 1969 when the transfer is made under the terms of a testamentary trust created by the will of a decedent who died before May 27, 1969, (regardless of whether the executors or the testamentary trustees are required to execute testamentary trusts by court order under applicable local law). Amounts transferred in trust before May 27, 1969, also include amounts transferred to a testamentary trust created by the will of a decedent who died after May 26, 1969 if the will was executed before May 27, 1969 and no dispositive provision of the will was amended (within the meaning of § 20.2055-2(e)(4) and (5)) by the decedent by codicil or otherwise, after May 26, 1969, and the decedent was on May 27, 1969, and at all times thereafter under a mental disability (as defined in § 1.642(c)-2(b)(3)(ii)) to amend the will by codicil or otherwise.

(B) The provisions of this (iii) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.X executed a will in 1960 which provided for the creation of a testamentary trust which meets the description of a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2). X died on April 15, 1969. Under the provisions of his will, the probate court permitted certain property in X's estate to be transferred to the testamentary trust at fixed intervals over a period of two years during the administration of the estate. Section 4947(a)(2) does not apply to any amount described in this example, including the amounts transferred after May 26, 1969, because, for purposes of section 4947(a)(2)(C), each such transfer will be treated as an amount transferred in trust before May 27, 1969, within the meaning of section 4947(a)(2)(C).

(6) Scope of application of section 4947(a)(2)—(i) In general. Subject to paragraph (c)(6) (ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section, section 4947(a)(2) applies to trusts in which some but not all unexpired interests are charitable. An estate from which the executor or administrator is required to distribute all of the net assets in trust or free of trust to both charitable and noncharitable beneficiaries will not be considered to be a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) during the period of estate administration or settlement, except as provided in paragraph (c)(6)(ii) of this section. A split-interest trust created by will shall be considered a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) as of the date of death of the decedent-grantor, except as provided in paragraph (c)(6)(iv) of this section.

(ii) Estates. (A) When an estate from which the executor or administrator is required to distribute all of the net assets in trust or free of trust to both charitable and noncharitable beneficiaries is considered terminated for Federal income tax purposes under § 1.641(b)-3(a), then the estate will be treated as a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) (or a charitable trust under section 4957(a)(1), if applicable) between the date on which the estate is considered terminated under § 1.641(b)-3(a) and the date on which final distribution of the net assets to the last remaining charitable beneficiary is made. This (ii) does not affect the determination of the tax liability under subtitle A of either charitable or noncharitable beneficiaries of the estates.

(B) The provisions of this (ii) may be illustrated by the following example:

Example.X dies on January 15, 1973 and bequeaths $10,000 to M, an organization described in section 501(c)(3), and the residue of his estate to W, his wife. A deduction for the charitable bequest was allowed to X's estate under section 2055. Substantially all of X's estate consists of 100 percent of the stock of a wholly owned corporation, certain liquid assets such as marketable stocks and securities and bank accounts, and X's home, automobile, and other personal property. X's will gives his executor a full range of powers, including the power to sell the stock of the wholly owned corporation. After the death of X, his executor continues to manage the wholly owned corporation while attempting to sell the stock of the corporation. During this period, the executor makes no distributions to M. On May 24, 1978, the Internal Revenue Service determines under § 1.641(b)-3(a) that the administration of the estate has been unduly prolonged and the estate is considered terminated as of that date for Federal income tax purposes. X's estate will be treated as a split-interest trust described in section 4947(a)(2) between May 24, 1978 and the date on which the $10,000 bequest to M is satisfied. X's estate will therefore be subject to the applicable private foundation provisions during that period and, for example, a sale of the house by the estate to any disqualified person (as defined in section 4946) will be an act of self-dealing under section 4941.

(iii) Revocable trusts which become split-interest trusts. A revocable trust that becomes irrevocable upon the death of the decedent-grantor under the terms of the governing instrument of which the trustee is required to hold some or all of its net assets in trust after becoming irrevocable for both charitable and noncharitable beneficiaries is not considered a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) for a reasonable period of settlement after becoming irrevocable except that section 4941 may apply if the requirements of § 53.4941(d)-1(b)(3) are not met.

After that period, the trust is considered a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2). For purposes of this (iii), the term reasonable period of settlement means that period reasonably required (or if shorter, actually required) by the trustee to perform the ordinary duties of administration necessary for the settlement of the trust. These duties include, for example, the collection of assets, the payment of debts, taxes, and distributions, and the determination of rights of the subsequent beneficiaries.

(iv) Certain revocable and testamentary trusts which wind up. A revocable trust that becomes irrevocable upon the death of the decedent-grantor, or a trust created by will, from which the trustee is required to distribute all of the net assets in trust or free of trust to both charitable and noncharitable beneficiaries is not considered a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) for a reasonable period of settlement (within the meaning of paragraph (c)(6)(iii) of this section) after becoming irrevocable. After that period, the trust is considered a split-interest trust under section 4947(a)(2) (or a charitable trust under section 4947(a)(1), if applicable).

(d) Cross references; Governing instrument requirements and charitable deduction limitations. For the application of section 642(c)(6) (relating to section 170 limitations on charitable deductions of non-exempt private foundation trusts) to a trust described in section 4947(a)(1), see § 1.642(c)-4. For the denial of a deduction under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522 for a gift, a bequest, or an amount paid to (and the denial of a deduction under section 642(c) for an amount set aside in) a trust described in section 4947(a)(1) or (2) that fails to meet the applicable governing instrument requirements of section 508(e) by the end of the taxable year of the trust, see section 508(d)(2) and § 1.508-2(b). Since a charitable remainder trust (as defined in section 664) is not exempt under section 501(a), it is subject to section 4947(a)(2), and thus to the governing instrument requirements of section 508(e) to the extent they are applicable.

(e) Application of section 507(a)—(1) General rule. The provisions of section 507(a) shall not apply to a trust described in section 4947(a) (1) or (2) by reason of any payment to a beneficiary that is directed by the terms of the governing instrument of the trust and is not discretionary with the trustee or, in the case of a discretionary payment, by reason of, or following, the expiration of the last remaining charitable interest in the trust.

(2) Examples. The provisions of this (e) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.H creates a section 4947(a)(1) trust under which the income is to be paid for 15 years to R, a section 501(c)(3) organization. Upon the expiration of 15 years, the trust is to terminate and distribute all of its assets to S, another section 501(c)(3) organization. Distribution of the corpus of the trust to S will not be considered a termination of the trust's private foundation status within the meaning of section 507(a).

Example 2. H creates a trust under which X, a section 501(c)(3) organization, receives $20,000 per year for a period of 20 years, remainder to S, H's son. H is allowed a deduction under section 2522 for the present value of X's interest.

When the final payment to X has been made at the end of the 20-year period in accordance with the terms of the trust, the provisions of section 4947(a)(2) will cease to apply to the trust because the trust no longer retains any amounts for which the deduction under section 2522 was allowed. However, the final payment to X will not be considered a termination of the trust's private foundation status within the meaning of section 507(a).

Example 3.J creates a charitable remainder annuity trust described in section 664(d)(1) under which S, J's son, receives $10,000 per year for life, remainder to be distributed outright to P, an organization described in section 501(c)(3). J is allowed a deduction under section 170 for the value of the remainder interest placed in trust for the benefit of P, and the provisions of section 4947(a)(2) apply to the trust. At the death of S, the trust will terminate and all assets will be distributed to P. However, such final distribution to P will not be considered a termination of the trust's private foundation status within the meaning of section 507(a).

[T.D. 7431, 41 FR 35515, Aug. 23, 1976, as amended by T.D. 9981, 88 FR 71301, Oct. 16, 2023]

§ 53.4947-2 Special rules.

(a) Limit to segregated amounts. If any amounts held in trust are segregated within the meaning of § 53.4947-1(c)(3), the value of the net assets for purposes of section 507(c)(2) and (g) shall be limited to the segregated amounts with respect to which a deduction under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522 was allowed. See the regulations under section 507(c)(2) and (g).

(b) Applicability of section 4943 and 4944 to split-interests trusts—(1) General rule. Under section 4947(b)(3), section 4943 and 4944 do not apply to a split-interest trust described in section 4947(a)(2) if:

(i) All the income interest (and none of the remainder interest) of the trust is devoted solely to one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B) and all amounts in the trust for which a deduction was allowed under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522 have an aggregate value (at the time for which the deduction was allowed) of not more than 60 percent of the aggregate fair market value of all amounts in the trust (after the payment of estate taxes and all other liabilities), or

(ii) A deduction was allowed under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2) or 2522 for amounts payable under the terms of the trust to every remainder beneficiary, but not to any income beneficiary.

This (1) shall apply to a trust described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section only if all amounts payable under the terms of the trust to every remainder beneficiary are to be devoted solely to one or more of the purposes described in section 170(c)(2)(B). After the expiration of all income interests in a trust described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the trust shall become subject to section 4947(a)(1) under § 53.4947-1(b)(2), and section 4947(b)(3) shall no longer apply to the trust. A pooled income fund described in section 642(c)(5) will generally meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, as will a charitable remainder trust described in section 664(d)(1), if in either case it does not make payments to any income beneficiary described in section 170(c).

(2) Definitions. (i) For purposes of section 4947(b)(3)(A), the term “income interest” shall include an interest in property transferred in trust which is in the form of a guaranteed annuity interest or unitrust interest as described in § 1.170A-6(c), § 20.2055-2(e)(2) or § 25.2522(c)-3(c)(2) and the term “remainder interest” shall include an interest which succeeds an “income interest” within the meaning of this (i).

(ii) For purposes of section 4947(b)(3)(B), the term “income beneficiary” shall include a recipient of payments described in section 642(c)(5)(F) from a pooled income fund, payments described in section 664(d)(1)(A) from a charitable remainder annuity trust, or payments described in section 664(d)(2)(A) or (3) from a charitable remainder unitrust. The term “remainder beneficiary” shall include a beneficiary of a remainder interest described in section 642(c)(5) or 664(d)(1)(C) or (2)(C).

(c) Effective date. Except as otherwise provided in §§ 53.4947-1 and 53.4947-2 and the regulations under sections 508 (d) and (e), §§ 53.4947-1 and 53.4947-2 shall take effect on January 1, 1970.

(Secs. 4947 and 7805, Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (68A Stat. 917: 26 U.S.C. 7805))

[T.D. 7431, 41 FR 35515, Aug. 23, 1976]

Subpart I Tax on Investment Income of and Denial of Exemption to Certain Foreign Organizations
§ 53.4948-1 Application of taxes and denial of exemption with respect to certain foreign organizations.

(a) Tax on income of certain foreign organizations. (1) In lieu of the tax imposed by section 4940 and the regulations thereunder, there is hereby imposed for each taxable year beginning after December 31, 1969, on the gross investment income (within the meaning of section 4940(c)(2) and the regulations thereunder) derived from sources within the United States (within the meaning of section 861 and the regulations thereunder) by every foreign organization which is a private foundation (within the meaning of section 509 and the regulations thereunder) and exempt from taxation under section 501(a) for the taxable year a tax equal to 4 percent of such income, except as provided in subparagraph (3) of this paragraph. The tax (if any) will be reported on the form the foundation is required to file under section 6033 and will be paid annually for the taxable year, at the time prescribed for filing such annual return (determined without regard to any extension of time for filing). For purposes of this section, the term foreign organization means any organization which is not described in section 170(o)(2)(A).

(2) With respect to the deduction and withholding of tax imposed by section 4948(a), see section 1443(b) and the regulations thereunder.

(3) Whenever there exists a tax treaty between the United States and a foreign country, and a foreign private foundation subject to section 4948(a) is a resident of such country or is otherwise entitled to the benefits of such treaty (whether or not such benefits are available to all residents), if the treaty provides that any item or items (or all items with respect to an organization exempt from income taxation) of gross investment income (within the meaning of section 4940(c)(2)) shall be exempt from income tax, such item or items shall not be taken into account by such foundation in computing the tax to be imposed under section 4948(a) for any taxable year for which the treaty is effective.

(b) Certain sections inapplicable. Section 507 (relating to termination of private foundation status), section 508 (relating to special rules with respect to section 501(c)(3) organizations), and Chapter 42 (other than section 4948) of the Code shall not apply to any foreign organization which from the date of its creation has received at least 85 percent of its support (as defined in section 509(d), other than section 509(d)(4)) from sources outside the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, gifts, grants, contributions, or membership fees directly or indirectly from a United States person (as defined in section 7701(a)(30)) are from sources within the United States.

(c) Denial of exemption to foreign organizations engaged in prohibited transactions—(1) In general. A foreign private foundation described in section 4948(b) and paragraph (b) of this section shall not be exempt from taxation under section 501(a) if it has engaged in a prohibited transaction (within the meaning of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph) after December 31, 1969.

(2) Prohibited transactions. (i) For purposes of this section, the term “prohibited transaction” means any act or failure to act (other than with respect to section 4942(e), relating to minimum investment return) which would subject a foreign private foundation described in paragraph (b) of this section, or a disqualified person (as defined in section 4946) with respect thereto, to liability for a penalty under section 6684 (relating to assessable penalties with respect to liability for tax under Chapter 42) or a tax under section 507 (relating to termination of private foundation status) if such foreign private foundation were a domestic private foundation.

(ii) For purposes of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph:

(a) Approval by an appropriate foreign government of grants by the foreign private foundation to individuals is sufficient to satisfy the requirements of section 4945(g) and the regulations thereunder.

(b) In determining whether a grantee of the foreign organization is a private foundation which is not an operating foundation for purposes of section 4942(g)(1)(A)(ii) or is an organization which is not described in section 509(a) (1), (2), or (3) for purposes of section 4945 (d)(4) and (h), a determination made by such foreign organization will be accepted if such determination is made in good faith after a reasonable effort to identify the status of its grantee.

(iii) For purposes of subdivision (i) of this subparagraph, in order for an act or failure to act (without regard to section 4942(e)) to be treated as a prohibited transaction under section 4948(c)(2) by reason of the application of section 6684(1), there must have been a prior act or failure to act (without regard to section 4942(e)), which:

(a) Would have resulted in liability for tax under Chapter 42 (other than section 4940 or 4948(a)) if the foreign private foundation had been a domestic private foundation, and

(b) Had been the subject of a warning from the Commissioner that a second act or failure to act (without regard to section 4942(e)) would result in a prohibited transaction.

The second act or failure to act (with respect to which a warning described in subparagraph (3)(i) of this paragraph is given) need not be related to the prior act or failure to act with respect to which a warning from the Commissioner was given under (b) of this subdivision.

(3) Taxable years affected. (i) Except as provided in subdivision (ii) of this subparagraph, a foreign private foundation described in paragraph (b) of this section shall be denied exemption from taxation under section 501(a) by reason of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph for all taxable years beginning with the taxable year during which it is notified by the Commissioner that it has engaged in a prohibited transaction. The Commissioner shall publish such notice in the Federal Register on the day on which he so notifies such foreign private foundation. In the case of an act or failure to act (without regard to section 4942(e)) which would result in a penalty under section 6684(1) if the foreign private foundation were a domestic private foundation, before giving notice under this subdivision the Commissioner shall warn such foreign private foundation that such act or failure to act may be treated as a prohibited transaction. However, such act or failure to act will not be treated as a prohibited transaction if it is corrected (within the meaning of Chapter 42 and the regulations thereunder) within 90 days after the making of such warning.

(ii)(a) Any foreign private foundation described in paragraph (b) of this section which is denied exemption from taxation under section 501(a) by reason of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph may, with respect to the second taxable year following the taxable year in which notice is given under subdivision (i) of this subparagraph (or any taxable year subsequent to such second taxable year), file a request for exemption from taxation under section 501(a) on Form 1023. In addition to the information generally required of an organization requesting exemption as an organization described in section 501(a), a request under this subdivision must contain or have attached to it a written declaration, made under the penalties of perjury, by a principal officer of such organization authorized to make such declaration, that the organization will not knowingly again engage in a prohibited transaction.

(b) If the Commissioner is satisfied that such organization will not knowingly again engage in a prohibited transaction and that the organization has satisfied all other requirements under section 501, the organization will be so notified in writing. In such case the organization shall not, with respect to taxable years beginning with the taxable year with respect to which a request under this subdivision is filed, be denied exemption from taxation under section 501(a) by reason of any prohibited transaction which was engaged in before the date on which notice was given under subdivision (i) of this subparagraph. Section 4948(c) provides that an organization denied exemption under such section will not be exempt from taxation under section 501(a) for the taxable year in which notice of loss of exemption is given and at least one immediately subsequent taxable year.

(d) Disallowance of certain charitable deductions. No gift, bequest, legacy, devise, or transfer shall be allowed as a deduction under section 170, 545(b)(2), 556(b)(2), 642(c), 2055, 2106(a)(2), or 2522, if made:

(1) To a foreign private foundation described in paragraph (b) of this section after the date on which the Commissioner publishes notice under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section that he has notified such organization that it has engaged in a prohibited transaction, and

(2) In a taxable year of such organization for which it is not exempt from taxation under section 501(a) by reason of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

For purposes of this paragraph, a bequest, legacy, devise, or transfer under section 2055 or 2106(a)(2) shall be treated as made on the date of death of the decedent. For example, assume that an individual gives money to a foreign private foundation described in section 4948(b) in January 1970, January 1971, and January 1972. The organization has a taxable year from June 1 through May 31. In February 1970, notice is duly published that the foreign organization has engaged in a prohibited transaction. In December 1970, the organization duly submits a request for exemption under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(a) of this section which is granted for the taxable year ending May 31, 1972. The January 1970 gift is allowable as a deduction under section 2522 since it was made before the notice (February 1970). The January 1971 gift is not allowable as a deduction because the taxable year ending May 31, 1971, is a nonexempt year (the first taxable year subsequent to the taxable year of the notice) for the foreign organization. The January 1972 gift is allowable as a deduction under section 2522 because the taxable year ending May 31, 1972, is an exempt year for the organization.

[T.D. 7218, 37 FR 23918, Nov. 10, 1972; 37 FR 24748, Nov. 21, 1972; 38 FR 4324, Feb. 13, 1973]

Subpart J Black Lung Benefit Trust Excise Taxes

Source: T.D. 7644, 44 FR 52198, Sept. 7, 1979, unless otherwise noted.

§ 53.4951-1 Black lung trusts—taxes on self-dealing.

(a) In general. Section 4951 contains provisions that correspond to provisions of section 4941 (relating to taxes on foundation self-dealing) and section 4946 (relating to definitions and special rules). Regulations and rulings under these corresponding provisions apply to section 4951 where appropriate.

(b) Transfer of property to trust. A transfer of personal property without consideration to a trust for which a deduction is allowable under section 192 does not constitute a sale or exchange for purposes of section 4951 unless the property is subject to a mortgage or similar lien within section 4951(d)(2)(A). The transfer to a trust of a note or other evidence of indebtedness constitutes an extension of credit to the obligor for purposes of section 4951(d)(1)(B).

(c) Deposits. A time or demand deposit made with a bank or credit union that is a trustee or other disqualified person with respect to a trust constitutes a lending of money for purposes of section 4951(d)(1)(B) even though the deposit is of a kind generally authorized for investments by the trust.

(d) Trustee. The term “trustee” as used in section 4951(e)(5)(B) includes any person having powers or responsibilities with respect to a trust similar to those of trustees.

(e) Misallocation of insurance premium. Under section 501(c)(21)(A)(ii) and § 1.501(c)(21)-1(d), a trust may pay a portion of a premium for insurance which covers both black lung liabilities and other liabilities, so long as the requirements of section 501(c)(21)(A)(i) concerning allocation of the total premium are met. However, if an insurance company misallocates the total premium in a manner which benefits a disqualified person, the amount of misallocation constitutes a use of trust assets for the benefit of the disqualified person within section 4951(d)(1)(D). For these purposes, it is irrelevant whether the combination of insurance is sold under one policy or more than one policy.

(f) Effective date. Section 4951 applies with respect to acts that occur after December 31, 1977, in and for trust taxable years beginning after December 31, 1977.

§ 53.4952-1 Black lung trusts—taxes on taxable expenditures.

(a) In general. Section 4952 contains provisions that generally correspond to provisions of section 4945 (relating to taxes on taxable expenditures by private foundations) and section 4946 (relating to definitions and special rules). Regulations and rulings under these corresponding provisions apply to section 4952 where appropriate. See section 4952(e)(1) for the definition of correction.

(b) Unauthorized investments. The term “taxable expenditure” in section 4952(d) includes an investment that is not authorized under section 501(c)(21)(B)(ii).

(c) Effective date. Section 4952 applies with respect to expenditures made after December 31, 1977, in and for trust taxable years beginning after December 31, 1977.

Subpart K Second Tier Excise Taxes

Source: T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16303, May 2, 1986, unless otherwise noted.

§ 53.4955-1 Tax on political expenditures.

(a) Relationship between section 4955 excise taxes and substantive standards for exemption under section 501(c)(3). The excise taxes imposed by section 4955 do not affect the substantive standards for tax exemption under section 501(c)(3), under which an organization is described in section 501(c)(3) only if it does not participate or intervene in any political campaign on behalf of any candidate for public office.

(b) Imposition of initial taxes on organization managers—(1) In general. The excise tax under section 4955(a)(2) on the agreement of any organization manager to the making of a political expenditure by a section 501(c)(3) organization is imposed only in cases where—

(i) A tax is imposed by section 4955(a)(1);

(ii) The organization manager knows that the expenditure to which the manager agrees is a political expenditure; and

(iii) The agreement is willful and is not due to reasonable cause.

(2) Type of organization managers covered—(i) In general. The tax under section 4955(a)(2) is imposed only on those organization managers who are authorized to approve, or to exercise discretion in recommending approval of, the making of the expenditure by the organization and on those organization managers who are members of a group (such as the organization's board of directors or trustees) which is so authorized.

(ii) Officer. For purposes of section 4955(f)(2)(A), a person is an officer of an organization if—

(A) That person is specifically so designated under the certificate of incorporation, bylaws, or other constitutive documents of the foundation; or

(B) That person regularly exercises general authority to make administrative or policy decisions on behalf of the organization. Independent contractors, acting in a capacity as attorneys, accountants, and investment managers and advisors, are not officers. With respect to any expenditure, any person described in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) who has authority merely to recommend particular administrative or policy decisions, but not to implement them without approval of a superior, is not an officer.

(iii) Employee. For purposes of section 4955(f)(2)(B), an individual rendering services to an organization is an employee of the organization only if that individual is an employee within the meaning of section 3121(d)(2). With respect to any expenditure, an employee (other than an officer, director, or trustee of the organization) is described in section 4955(f)(2)(B) only if he or she has final authority or responsibility (either officially or effectively) with respect to such expenditure.

(3) Type of agreement required. An organization manager agrees to the making of a political expenditure if the manager manifests approval of the expenditure which is sufficient to constitute an exercise of the organization manager's authority to approve, or to exercise discretion in recommending approval of, the making of the expenditure by the organization. The manifestation of approval need not be the final or decisive approval on behalf of the organization.

(4) Knowing—(i) General rule. For purposes of section 4955, an organization manager is considered to have agreed to an expenditure knowing that it is a political expenditure only if—

(A) The manager has actual knowledge of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon these facts, the expenditure would be a political expenditure;

(B) The manager is aware that such an expenditure under these circumstances may violate the provisions of federal tax law governing political expenditures; and

(C) The manager negligently fails to make reasonable attempts to ascertain whether the expenditure is a political expenditure, or the manager is aware that it is a political expenditure.

(ii) Amplification of general rule. For purposes of section 4955, knowing does not mean having reason to know. However, evidence tending to show that an organization manager has reason to know of a particular fact or particular rule is relevant in determining whether the manager had actual knowledge of the fact or rule. Thus, for example, evidence tending to show that an organization manager has reason to know of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon those facts, an expenditure would be a political expenditure is relevant in determining whether the manager has actual knowledge of the facts.

(5) Willful. An organization manager's agreement to a political expenditure is willful if it is voluntary, conscious, and intentional. No motive to avoid the restrictions of the law or the incurrence of any tax is necessary to make an agreement willful. However, an organization manager's agreement to a political expenditure is not willful if the manager does not know that it is a political expenditure.

(6) Due to reasonable cause. An organization manager's actions are due to reasonable cause if the manager has exercised his or her responsibility on behalf of the organization with ordinary business care and prudence.

(7) Advice of counsel. An organization manager's agreement to an expenditure is ordinarily not considered knowing or willful and is ordinarily considered due to reasonable cause if the manager, after full disclosure of the factual situation to legal counsel (including house counsel), relies on the advice of counsel expressed in a reasoned written legal opinion that an expenditure is not a political expenditure under section 4955 (or that expenditures conforming to certain guidelines are not political expenditures). For this purpose, a written legal opinion is considered reasoned even if it reaches a conclusion which is subsequently determined to be incorrect, so long as the opinion addresses itself to the facts and applicable law. A written legal opinion is not considered reasoned if it does nothing more than recite the facts and express a conclusion. However, the absence of advice of counsel with respect to an expenditure does not, by itself, give rise to any inference that an organization manager agreed to the making of the expenditure knowingly, willfully, or without reasonable cause.

(8) Cross reference. For provisions relating to the burden of proof in cases involving the issue of whether an organization manager has knowingly agreed to the making of a political expenditure, see section 7454(b).

(c) Amplification of political expenditure definition—(1) General rule. Any expenditure that would cause an organization that makes the expenditure to be classified as an action organization by reason of § 1.501(c)(3)-1(c)(3)(iii) of this chapter is a political expenditure within the meaning of section 4955(d)(1).

(2) Other political expenditures—(i) For purposes of section 4955(d)(2), an organization is effectively controlled by a candidate or prospective candidate only if the individual has a continuing, substantial involvement in the day-to-day operations or management of the organization. An organization is not effectively controlled by a candidate or a prospective candidate merely because it is affiliated with the candidate, or merely because the candidate knows the directors, officers, or employees of the organization. The effectively controlled test is not met merely because the organization carries on its research, study, or other educational activities with respect to subject matter or issues in which the individual is interested or with which the individual is associated.

(ii) For purposes of section 4955(d)(2), a determination of whether the primary purpose of an organization is promoting the candidacy or prospective candidacy of an individual for public office is made on the basis of all the facts and circumstances. The factors to be considered include whether the surveys, studies, materials, etc. prepared by the organization are made available only to the candidate or are made available to the general public; and whether the organization pays for speeches and travel expenses for only one individual, or for speeches or travel expenses of several persons. The fact that a candidate or prospective candidate utilizes studies, papers, materials, etc., prepared by the organization (such as in a speech by the candidate) is not to be considered as a factor indicating that the organization has a purpose of promoting the candidacy or prospective candidacy of that individual where such studies, papers, materials, etc. are not made available only to that individual.

(iii) Expenditures for voter registration, voter turnout, or voter education constitute other expenses, treated as political expenditures by reason of section 4955(d)(2)(E), only if the expenditures violate the prohibition on political activity provided in section 501(c)(3).

(d) Abatement, refund, or no assessment of initial tax. No initial (first-tier) tax will be imposed under section 4955(a), or the initial tax will be abated or refunded, if the organization or an organization manager establishes to the satisfaction of the IRS that—

(1) The political expenditure was not willful and flagrant; and

(2) The political expenditure was corrected.

(e) Correction—(1) Recovery of expenditure. For purposes of section 4955(f)(3) and this section, correction of a political expenditure is accomplished by recovering part or all of the expenditure to the extent recovery is possible, and, where full recovery cannot be accomplished, by any additional corrective action which the Commissioner may prescribe. The organization making the political expenditure is not under any obligation to attempt to recover the expenditure by legal action if the action would in all probability not result in the satisfaction of execution on a judgment.

(2) Establishing safeguards. Correction of a political expenditure must also involve the establishment of sufficient safeguards to prevent future political expenditures by the organization. The determination of whether safeguards are sufficient to prevent future political expenditures by the organization is made by the District Director.

(f) Effective date. This section is effective December 5, 1995.

[T.D. 8628, 60 FR 62210, Dec. 5, 1995]

§ 53.4958-0 Table of contents.

This section lists the major captions contained in §§ 53.4958-1 through 53.4958-8.

§ 53.4958-1 Taxes on excess benefit transactions

(a) In general.

(b) Excess benefit defined.

(c) Taxes paid by disqualified person.

(1) Initial tax.

(2) Additional tax on disqualified person.

(i) In general.

(ii) Taxable period.

(iii) Abatement if correction during the correction period.

(d) Tax paid by organization managers.

(1) In general.

(2) Organization manager defined.

(i) In general.

(ii) Special rule for certain committee members.

(3) Participation.

(4) Knowing.

(i) In general.

(ii) Amplification of general rule.

(iii) Reliance on professional advice.

(iv) Satisfaction of rebuttable presumption of reasonableness.

(5) Willful.

(6) Due to reasonable cause.

(7) Limits on liability for management.

(8) Joint and several liability.

(9) Burden of proof.

(e) Date of occurrence.

(1) In general.

(2) Special rules.

(3) Statute of limitations rules.

(f) Effective date for imposition of taxes.

(1) In general.

(2) Existing binding contracts.

§ 53.4958-2 Definition of applicable tax-exempt organization

(a) Organizations described in section 501(c)(3) or (4) and exempt from tax under section 501(a).

(1) In general.

(2) Exceptions from definition of applicable tax-exempt organization.

(i) Private foundation.

(ii) Governmental unit or affiliate.

(3) Organizations described in section 501(c)(3).

(4) Organizations described in section 501(c)(4).

(5) Effect of non-recognition or revocation of exempt status.

(b) Special rules.

(1) Transition rule for lookback period.

(2) Certain foreign organizations.

§ 53.4958-3 Definition of disqualified person

(a) In general.

(1) Scope of definition.

(2) Transition rule for lookback period.

(b) Statutory categories of disqualified persons.

(1) Family members.

(2) Thirty-five percent controlled entities.

(i) In general.

(ii) Combined voting power.

(iii) Constructive ownership rules.

(A) Stockholdings.

(B) Profits or beneficial interest.

(c) Persons having substantial influence.

(1) Voting members of the governing body.

(2) Presidents, chief executive officers, or chief operating officers.

(3) Treasurers and chief financial officers.

(4) Persons with a material financial interest in a provider-sponsored organization.

(d) Persons deemed not to have substantial influence.

(1) Tax-exempt organizations described in section 501(c)(3).

(2) Certain section 501(c)(4) organizations.

(3) Employees receiving economic benefits of less than a specified amount in a taxable year.

(e) Facts and circumstances govern in all other cases.

(1) In general.

(2) Facts and circumstances tending to show substantial influence.

(3) Facts and circumstances tending to show no substantial influence.

(f) Affiliated organizations.

(g) Examples.

§ 53.4958-4 Excess benefit transaction

(a) Definition of excess benefit transaction.

(1) In general.

(2) Economic benefit provided indirectly.

(i) In general.

(ii) Through a controlled entity.

(A) In general.

(B) Definition of control.

(1) In general.

(2) Constructive ownership.

(iii) Through an intermediary.

(iv) Examples.

(3) Exception for fixed payments made pursuant to an initial contract.

(i) In general.

(ii) Fixed payment.

(A) In general.

(B) Special rules.

(iii) Initial contract.

(iv) Substantial performance required.

(v) Treatment as a new contract.

(vi) Evaluation of non-fixed payments.

(vii) Examples.

(4) Certain economic benefits disregarded for purposes of section 4958.

(i) Nontaxable fringe benefits.

(ii) Expense reimbursement payments pursuant to accountable plans.

(iii) Certain economic benefits provided to a volunteer for the organization.

(iv) Certain economic benefits provided to a member of, or donor to, the organization.

(v) Economic benefits provided to a charitable beneficiary.

(vi) Certain economic benefits provided to a governmental unit.

(5) Exception for certain payments made pursuant to an exemption granted by the Department of Labor under ERISA.

(b) Valuation standards.

(1) In general.

(i) Fair market value of property.

(ii) Reasonable compensation.

(A) In general.

(B) Items included in determining the value of compensation for purposes of determining reasonableness under section 4958.

(C) Inclusion in compensation for reasonableness determination does not govern income tax treatment.

(2) Timing of reasonableness determination.

(i) In general.

(ii) Treatment as a new contract.

(iii) Examples.

(c) Establishing intent to treat economic benefit as consideration for the performance of services.

(1) In general.

(2) Nontaxable benefits.

(3) Contemporaneous substantiation.

(i) Reporting of benefit.

(A) In general.

(B) Failure to report due to reasonable cause.

(ii) Other written contemporaneous evidence.

(4) Examples.

§ 53.4958-5 Transaction in which the amount of the economic benefit is determined in whole or in part by the revenues of one or more activities of the organization. [Reserved] § 53.4958-6 Rebuttable presumption that a transaction is not an excess benefit transaction.

(a) In general.

(b) Rebutting the presumption.

(c) Requirements for invoking rebuttable presumption.

(1) Approval by an authorized body.

(i) In general.

(ii) Individuals not included on authorized body.

(iii) Absence of conflict of interest.

(2) Appropriate data as to comparability.

(i) In general.

(ii) Special rule for compensation paid by small organizations.

(iii) Application of special rule for small organizations.

(iv) Examples.

(3) Documentation.

(d) No presumption with respect to non-fixed payments until amounts are determined.

(1) In general.

(2) Special rule for certain non-fixed payments subject to a cap.

(e) No inference from absence of presumption.

(f) Period of reliance on rebuttable presumption.

§ 53.4958-7 Correction.

(a) In general.

(b) Form of correction.

(1) Cash or cash equivalents.

(2) Anti-abuse rule.

(3) Special rule relating to nonqualified deferred compensation.

(4) Return of specific property.

(i) In general.

(ii) Payment not equal to correction amount.

(iii) Disqualified person may not participate in decision.

(c) Correction amount.

(d) Correction where contract has been partially performed.

(e) Correction in the case of an applicable tax-exempt organization that has ceased to exist, or is no longer tax-exempt.

(1) In general.

(2) Section 501(c)(3) organizations.

(3) Section 501(c)(4) organizations.

(f) Examples.

§ 53.4958-8 Special rules.

(a) Substantive requirements for exemption still apply.

(b) Interaction between section 4958 and section 7611 rules for church tax inquiries and examinations.

(c) Other substantiation requirements.

[T.D. 8978, 67 FR 3083, Jan. 23, 2002]

§ 53.4958-1 Taxes on excess benefit transactions.

(a) In general. Section 4958 imposes excise taxes on each excess benefit transaction (as defined in section 4958(c) and § 53.4958-4) between an applicable tax-exempt organization (as defined in section 4958(e) and § 53.4958-2) and a disqualified person (as defined in section 4958(f)(1) and § 53.4958-3). A disqualified person who receives an excess benefit from an excess benefit transaction is liable for payment of a section 4958(a)(1) excise tax equal to 25 percent of the excess benefit. If an initial tax is imposed by section 4958(a)(1) on an excess benefit transaction and the transaction is not corrected (as defined in section 4958(f)(6) and § 53.4958-7) within the taxable period (as defined in section 4958(f)(5) and paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section), then any disqualified person who received an excess benefit from the excess benefit transaction on which the initial tax was imposed is liable for an additional tax of 200 percent of the excess benefit. An organization manager (as defined in section 4958(f)(2) and paragraph (d) of this section) who participates in an excess benefit transaction, knowing that it was such a transaction, is liable for payment of a section 4958(a)(2) excise tax equal to 10 percent of the excess benefit, unless the participation was not willful and was due to reasonable cause. If an organization manager also receives an excess benefit from an excess benefit transaction, the manager may be liable for both taxes imposed by section 4958(a).

(b) Excess benefit defined. An excess benefit is the amount by which the value of the economic benefit provided by an applicable tax-exempt organization directly or indirectly to or for the use of any disqualified person exceeds the value of the consideration (including the performance of services) received for providing such benefit.

(c) Taxes paid by disqualified person—(1) Initial tax. Section 4958(a)(1) imposes a tax equal to 25 percent of the excess benefit on each excess benefit transaction. The section 4958(a)(1) tax shall be paid by any disqualified person who received an excess benefit from that excess benefit transaction. With respect to any excess benefit transaction, if more than one disqualified person is liable for the tax imposed by section 4958(a)(1), all such persons are jointly and severally liable for that tax.

(2) Additional tax on disqualified person—(i) In general. Section 4958(b) imposes a tax equal to 200 percent of the excess benefit in any case in which section 4958(a)(1) imposes a 25-percent tax on an excess benefit transaction and the transaction is not corrected (as defined in section 4958(f)(6) and § 53.4958-7) within the taxable period (as defined in section 4958(f)(5) and paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section). If a disqualified person makes a payment of less than the full correction amount under the rules of § 53.4958-7, the 200-percent tax is imposed only on the unpaid portion of the correction amount (as described in § 53.4958-7(c)). The tax imposed by section 4958(b) is payable by any disqualified person who received an excess benefit from the excess benefit transaction on which the initial tax was imposed by section 4958(a)(1). With respect to any excess benefit transaction, if more than one disqualified person is liable for the tax imposed by section 4958(b), all such persons are jointly and severally liable for that tax.

(ii) Taxable period. Taxable period means, with respect to any excess benefit transaction, the period beginning with the date on which the transaction occurs and ending on the earlier of—

(A) The date of mailing a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the section 4958(a)(1) tax; or

(B) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4958(a)(1) is assessed.

(iii) Abatement if correction during the correction period. For rules relating to abatement of taxes on excess benefit transactions that are corrected within the correction period, as defined in section 4963(e), see sections 4961(a), 4962(a), and the regulations thereunder. The abatement rules of section 4961 specifically provide for a 90-day correction period after the date of mailing a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the section 4958(b) 200-percent tax. If the excess benefit is corrected during that correction period, the 200-percent tax imposed shall not be assessed, and if assessed the assessment shall be abated, and if collected shall be credited or refunded as an overpayment. For special rules relating to abatement of the 25-percent tax, see section 4962.

(d) Tax paid by organization managers—(1) In general. In any case in which section 4958(a)(1) imposes a tax, section 4958(a)(2) imposes a tax equal to 10 percent of the excess benefit on the participation of any organization manager who knowingly participated in the excess benefit transaction, unless such participation was not willful and was due to reasonable cause. Any organization manager who so participated in the excess benefit transaction must pay the tax.

(2) Organization manager defined—(i) In general. An organization manager is, with respect to any applicable tax-exempt organization, any officer, director, or trustee of such organization, or any individual having powers or responsibilities similar to those of officers, directors, or trustees of the organization, regardless of title. A person is an officer of an organization if that person—

(A) Is specifically so designated under the certificate of incorporation, by-laws, or other constitutive documents of the organization; or

(B) Regularly exercises general authority to make administrative or policy decisions on behalf of the organization. A contractor who acts solely in a capacity as an attorney, accountant, or investment manager or advisor, is not an officer. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(2)(i)(B), any person who has authority merely to recommend particular administrative or policy decisions, but not to implement them without approval of a superior, is not an officer.

(ii) Special rule for certain committee members. An individual who is not an officer, director, or trustee, yet serves on a committee of the governing body of an applicable tax-exempt organization (or as a designee of the governing body described in § 53.4958-6(c)(1)) that is attempting to invoke the rebuttable presumption of reasonableness described in § 53.4958-6 based on the committee's (or designee's) actions, is an organization manager for purposes of the tax imposed by section 4958(a)(2).

(3) Participation. For purposes of section 4958(a)(2) and this paragraph (d), participation includes silence or inaction on the part of an organization manager where the manager is under a duty to speak or act, as well as any affirmative action by such manager. An organization manager is not considered to have participated in an excess benefit transaction, however, where the manager has opposed the transaction in a manner consistent with the fulfillment of the manager's responsibilities to the applicable tax-exempt organization.

(4) Knowing—(i) In general. For purposes of section 4958(a)(2) and this paragraph (d), a manager participates in a transaction knowingly only if the person—

(A) Has actual knowledge of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon those facts, such transaction would be an excess benefit transaction;

(B) Is aware that such a transaction under these circumstances may violate the provisions of Federal tax law governing excess benefit transactions; and

(C) Negligently fails to make reasonable attempts to ascertain whether the transaction is an excess benefit transaction, or the manager is in fact aware that it is such a transaction.

(ii) Amplification of general rule. Knowing does not mean having reason to know. However, evidence tending to show that a manager has reason to know of a particular fact or particular rule is relevant in determining whether the manager had actual knowledge of such a fact or rule. Thus, for example, evidence tending to show that a manager has reason to know of sufficient facts so that, based solely upon such facts, a transaction would be an excess benefit transaction is relevant in determining whether the manager has actual knowledge of such facts.

(iii) Reliance on professional advice. An organization manager's participation in a transaction is ordinarily not considered knowing within the meaning of section 4958(a)(2), even though the transaction is subsequently held to be an excess benefit transaction, to the extent that, after full disclosure of the factual situation to an appropriate professional, the organization manager relies on a reasoned written opinion of that professional with respect to elements of the transaction within the professional's expertise. For purposes of section 4958(a)(2) and this paragraph (d), a written opinion is reasoned even though it reaches a conclusion that is subsequently determined to be incorrect so long as the opinion addresses itself to the facts and the applicable standards. However, a written opinion is not reasoned if it does nothing more than recite the facts and express a conclusion. The absence of a written opinion of an appropriate professional with respect to a transaction shall not, by itself, however, give rise to any inference that an organization manager participated in the transaction knowingly. For purposes of this paragraph, appropriate professionals on whose written opinion an organization manager may rely, are limited to—

(A) Legal counsel, including in-house counsel;

(B) Certified public accountants or accounting firms with expertise regarding the relevant tax law matters; and

(C) Independent valuation experts who—

(1) Hold themselves out to the public as appraisers or compensation consultants;

(2) Perform the relevant valuations on a regular basis;

(3) Are qualified to make valuations of the type of property or services involved; and

(4) Include in the written opinion a certification that the requirements of paragraphs (d)(4)(iii)(C)(1) through (3) of this section are met.

(iv) Satisfaction of rebuttable presumption of reasonableness. An organization manager's participation in a transaction is ordinarily not considered knowing within the meaning of section 4958(a)(2), even though the transaction is subsequently held to be an excess benefit transaction, if the appropriate authorized body has met the requirements of § 53.4958-6(a) with respect to the transaction.

(5) Willful. For purposes of section 4958(a)(2) and this paragraph (d), participation by an organization manager is willful if it is voluntary, conscious, and intentional. No motive to avoid the restrictions of the law or the incurrence of any tax is necessary to make the participation willful. However, participation by an organization manager is not willful if the manager does not know that the transaction in which the manager is participating is an excess benefit transaction.

(6) Due to reasonable cause. An organization manager's participation is due to reasonable cause if the manager has exercised responsibility on behalf of the organization with ordinary business care and prudence.

(7) Limits on liability for management. The maximum aggregate amount of tax collectible under section 4958(a)(2) and this paragraph (d) from organization managers with respect to any one excess benefit transaction is $10,000.

(8) Joint and several liability. In any case where more than one person is liable for a tax imposed by section 4958(a)(2), all such persons shall be jointly and severally liable for the taxes imposed under section 4958(a)(2) with respect to that excess benefit transaction.

(9) Burden of proof. For provisions relating to the burden of proof in cases involving the issue of whether an organization manager has knowingly participated in an excess benefit transaction, see section 7454(b) and § 301.7454-2 of this chapter. In these cases, the Commissioner bears the burden of proof.

(e) Date of occurrence—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided, an excess benefit transaction occurs on the date on which the disqualified person receives the economic benefit for Federal income tax purposes. When a single contractual arrangement provides for a series of compensation or other payments to (or for the use of) a disqualified person over the course of the disqualified person's taxable year (or part of a taxable year), any excess benefit transaction with respect to these aggregate payments is deemed to occur on the last day of the taxable year (or if the payments continue for part of the year, the date of the last payment in the series).

(2) Special rules. In the case of benefits provided pursuant to a qualified pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan, the transaction occurs on the date the benefit is vested. In the case of a transfer of property that is subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture or in the case of rights to future compensation or property (including benefits under a nonqualified deferred compensation plan), the transaction occurs on the date the property, or the rights to future compensation or property, is not subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture. However, where the disqualified person elects to include an amount in gross income in the taxable year of transfer pursuant to section 83(b), the general rule of paragraph (e)(1) of this section applies to the property with respect to which the section 83(b) election is made. Any excess benefit transaction with respect to benefits under a deferred compensation plan which vest during any taxable year of the disqualified person is deemed to occur on the last day of such taxable year. For the rules governing the timing of the reasonableness determination for deferred, contingent, and certain other noncash compensation, see § 53.4958-4(b)(2).

(3) Statute of limitations rules. See sections 6501(e)(3) and (l) and the regulations thereunder for statute of limitations rules as they apply to section 4958 excise taxes.

(f) Effective date for imposition of taxes—(1) In general. The section 4958 taxes imposed on excess benefit transactions or on participation in excess benefit transactions apply to transactions occurring on or after September 14, 1995.

(2) Existing binding contracts. The section 4958 taxes do not apply to any transaction occurring pursuant to a written contract that was binding on September 13, 1995, and at all times thereafter before the transaction occurs. A written binding contract that is terminable or subject to cancellation by the applicable tax-exempt organization without the disqualified person's consent (including as the result of a breach of contract by the disqualified person) and without substantial penalty to the organization, is no longer treated as a binding contract as of the earliest date that any such termination or cancellation, if made, would be effective. If a binding written contract is materially changed, it is treated as a new contract entered into as of the date the material change is effective. A material change includes an extension or renewal of the contract (other than an extension or renewal that results from the person contracting with the applicable tax-exempt organization unilaterally exercising an option expressly granted by the contract), or a more than incidental change to any payment under the contract.

[T.D. 8978, 67 FR 3083, Jan. 23, 2002]

§ 53.4958-2 Definition of applicable tax-exempt organization.

(a) Organizations described in section 501(c)(3) or (4) and exempt from tax under section 501(a)—(1) In general. An applicable tax-exempt organization is any organization that, without regard to any excess benefit, would be described in section 501(c)(3) or (4) and exempt from tax under section 501(a). An applicable tax-exempt organization also includes any organization that was described in section 501(c)(3) or (4) and was exempt from tax under section 501(a) at any time during a five-year period ending on the date of an excess benefit transaction (the lookback period).

(2) Exceptions from definition of applicable tax-exempt organization—(i) Private foundation. A private foundation as defined in section 509(a) is not an applicable tax-exempt organization for section 4958 purposes.

(ii) Governmental unit or affiliate. A governmental unit or an affiliate of a governmental unit is not an applicable tax-exempt organization for section 4958 purposes if it is—

(A) Exempt from (or not subject to) taxation without regard to section 501(a); or

(B) Relieved from filing an annual return pursuant to the authority of § 1.6033-2(g)(6).

(3) Organizations described in section 501(c)(3). An organization is described in section 501(c)(3) for purposes of section 4958 only if the organization—

(i) Provides the notice described in section 508; or

(ii) Is described in section 501(c)(3) and specifically is excluded from the requirements of section 508 by that section.

(4) Organizations described in section 501(c)(4). An organization is described in section 501(c)(4) for purposes of section 4958 only if the organization—

(i) Has applied for and received recognition from the Internal Revenue Service as an organization described in section 501(c)(4); or

(ii) Has filed an application for recognition under section 501(c)(4) with the Internal Revenue Service, has filed an annual information return as a section 501(c)(4) organization under the Internal Revenue Code or regulations promulgated thereunder, or has otherwise held itself out as being described in section 501(c)(4) and exempt from tax under section 501(a).

(5) Effect of non-recognition or revocation of exempt status. An organization is not described in paragraph (a)(3) or (4) of this section during any period covered by a final determination or adjudication that the organization is not exempt from tax under section 501(a) as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) or (4), so long as that determination or adjudication is not based upon participation in inurement or one or more excess benefit transactions. However, the organization may be an applicable tax-exempt organization for that period as a result of the five-year lookback period described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(6) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of this section, which defines an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958:

Example 1.O is a nonprofit corporation formed under state law. O filed its application for recognition of exemption under section 501(c)(3) within the time prescribed under section 508(a). In its application, O described its plans for purchasing property from some of its directors at prices that would exceed fair market value. After reviewing the application, the IRS determined that because of the proposed property purchase transactions, O failed to establish that it met the requirements for an organization described in section 501(c)(3). Accordingly, the IRS denied O's application. While O's application was pending, O engaged in the purchase transactions described in its application at prices that exceeded the fair market values of the properties. Although these transactions would constitute excess benefit transactions under section 4958, because the IRS never recognized O as an organization described in section 501(c)(3), O was never an applicable tax-exempt organization under section 4958. Therefore, these transactions are not subject to the excise taxes provided in section 4958.

Example 2.O is a nonprofit corporation formed under state law. O files its application for recognition of exemption under section 501(c)(3) within the time prescribed under section 508(a). The IRS issues a favorable determination letter in Year 1 that recognizes O as an organization described in section 501(c)(3). Subsequently, in Year 5 of O's operations, O engages in certain transactions that constitute excess benefit transactions under section 4958 and violate the proscription against inurement under section 501(c)(3) and § 1.501(c)(3)-1(c)(2). The IRS examines the Form 990, “Return of Organization Exempt From Income Tax”, that O filed for Year 5. After considering all the relevant facts and circumstances in accordance with § 1.501(c)(3)-1(f), the IRS concludes that O is no longer described in section 501(c)(3) effective in Year 5. The IRS does not examine the Forms 990 that O filed for its first four years of operations and, accordingly, does not revoke O's exempt status for those years. Although O's tax-exempt status is revoked effective in Year 5, under the lookback rules in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and § 53.4958-3(a)(1) of this chapter, during the five-year period prior to the excess benefit transactions that occurred in Year 5, O was an applicable tax-exempt organization and O's directors were disqualified persons as to O. Therefore, the transactions between O and its directors during Year 5 are subject to the applicable excise taxes provided in section 4958.

(b) Special rules—(1) Transition rule for lookback period. In the case of any excess benefit transaction occurring before September 14, 2000, the lookback period described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section begins on September 14, 1995, and ends on the date of the transaction.

(2) Certain foreign organizations. A foreign organization, recognized by the Internal Revenue Service or by treaty, that receives substantially all of its support (other than gross investment income) from sources outside of the United States is not an organization described in section 501(c)(3) or (4) for purposes of section 4958.

[T.D. 8978, 67 FR 3083, Jan. 23, 2002, as amended by T.D. 9390, 73 FR 16524, Mar. 28, 2008]

§ 53.4958-3 Definition of disqualified person.

(a) In general—(1) Scope of definition. Section 4958(f)(1) defines disqualified person, with respect to any transaction, as any person who was in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of an applicable tax-exempt organization at any time during the five-year period ending on the date of the transaction (the lookback period). Paragraph (b) of this section describes persons who are defined to be disqualified persons under the statute, including certain family members of an individual in a position to exercise substantial influence, and certain 35-percent controlled entities. Paragraph (c) of this section describes persons in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of an applicable tax-exempt organization by virtue of their powers and responsibilities or certain interests they hold. Paragraph (d) of this section describes persons deemed not to be in a position to exercise substantial influence. Whether any person who is not described in paragraph (b), (c) or (d) of this section is a disqualified person with respect to a transaction for purposes of section 4958 is based on all relevant facts and circumstances, as described in paragraph (e) of this section. Paragraph (f) of this section describes special rules for affiliated organizations. Examples in paragraph (g) of this section illustrate these categories of persons.

(2) Transition rule for lookback period. In the case of any excess benefit transaction occurring before September 14, 2000, the lookback period described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section begins on September 14, 1995, and ends on the date of the transaction.

(b) Statutory categories of disqualified persons—(1) Family members. A person is a disqualified person with respect to any transaction with an applicable tax-exempt organization if the person is a member of the family of a person who is a disqualified person described in paragraph (a) of this section (other than as a result of this paragraph) with respect to any transaction with the same organization. For purposes of the following sentence, a legally adopted child of an individual is treated as a child of such individual by blood. A person's family is limited to—

(i) Spouse;

(ii) Brothers or sisters (by whole or half blood);

(iii) Spouses of brothers or sisters (by whole or half blood);

(iv) Ancestors;

(v) Children;

(vi) Grandchildren;

(vii) Great grandchildren; and

(viii) Spouses of children, grandchildren, and great grandchildren.

(2) Thirty-five percent controlled entities—(i) In general. A person is a disqualified person with respect to any transaction with an applicable tax-exempt organization if the person is a 35-percent controlled entity. A 35-percent controlled entity is—

(A) A corporation in which persons described in this section (except in paragraphs (b)(2) and (d) of this section) own more than 35 percent of the combined voting power;

(B) A partnership in which persons described in this section (except in paragraphs (b)(2) and (d) of this section) own more than 35 percent of the profits interest; or

(C) A trust or estate in which persons described in this section (except in paragraphs (b)(2) and (d) of this section) own more than 35 percent of the beneficial interest.

(ii) Combined voting power. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), combined voting power includes voting power represented by holdings of voting stock, direct or indirect, but does not include voting rights held only as a director, trustee, or other fiduciary.

(iii) Constructive ownership rules—(A) Stockholdings. For purposes of section 4958(f)(3) and this paragraph (b)(2), indirect stockholdings are taken into account as under section 267(c), except that in applying section 267(c)(4), the family of an individual shall include the members of the family specified in section 4958(f)(4) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(B) Profits or beneficial interest. For purposes of section 4958(f)(3) and this paragraph (b)(2), the ownership of profits or beneficial interests shall be determined in accordance with the rules for constructive ownership of stock provided in section 267(c) (other than section 267(c)(3)), except that in applying section 267(c)(4), the family of an individual shall include the members of the family specified in section 4958(f)(4) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section.

(c) Persons having substantial influence. A person who holds any of the following powers, responsibilities, or interests is in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of an applicable tax-exempt organization:

(1) Voting members of the governing body. This category includes any individual serving on the governing body of the organization who is entitled to vote on any matter over which the governing body has authority.

(2) Presidents, chief executive officers, or chief operating officers. This category includes any person who, regardless of title, has ultimate responsibility for implementing the decisions of the governing body or for supervising the management, administration, or operation of the organization. A person who serves as president, chief executive officer, or chief operating officer has this ultimate responsibility unless the person demonstrates otherwise. If this ultimate responsibility resides with two or more individuals (e.g., co-presidents), who may exercise such responsibility in concert or individually, then each individual is in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of the organization.

(3) Treasurers and chief financial officers. This category includes any person who, regardless of title, has ultimate responsibility for managing the finances of the organization. A person who serves as treasurer or chief financial officer has this ultimate responsibility unless the person demonstrates otherwise. If this ultimate responsibility resides with two or more individuals who may exercise the responsibility in concert or individually, then each individual is in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of the organization.

(4) Persons with a material financial interest in a provider-sponsored organization. For purposes of section 4958, if a hospital that participates in a provider-sponsored organization (as defined in section 1855(e) of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395w-25) is an applicable tax-exempt organization, then any person with a material financial interest (within the meaning of section 501(o)) in the provider-sponsored organization has substantial influence with respect to the hospital.

(d) Persons deemed not to have substantial influence. A person is deemed not to be in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of an applicable tax-exempt organization if that person is described in one of the following categories:

(1) Tax-exempt organizations described in section 501(c)(3). This category includes any organization described in section 501(c)(3) and exempt from tax under section 501(a).

(2) Certain section 501(c)(4) organizations. Only with respect to an applicable tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(4) and § 53.4958-2(a)(4), this category includes any other organization so described.

(3) Employees receiving economic benefits of less than a specified amount in a taxable year. This category includes, for the taxable year in which benefits are provided, any full- or part-time employee of the applicable tax-exempt organization who—

(i) Receives economic benefits, directly or indirectly from the organization, of less than the amount referenced for a highly compensated employee in section 414(q)(1)(B)(i);

(ii) Is not described in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section with respect to the organization; and

(iii) Is not a substantial contributor to the organization within the meaning of section 507(d)(2)(A), taking into account only contributions received by the organization during its current taxable year and the four preceding taxable years.

(e) Facts and circumstances govern in all other cases—(1) In general. Whether a person who is not described in paragraph (b), (c) or (d) of this section is a disqualified person depends upon all relevant facts and circumstances.

(2) Facts and circumstances tending to show substantial influence. Facts and circumstances tending to show that a person has substantial influence over the affairs of an organization include, but are not limited to, the following—

(i) The person founded the organization;

(ii) The person is a substantial contributor to the organization (within the meaning of section 507(d)(2)(A)), taking into account only contributions received by the organization during its current taxable year and the four preceding taxable years;

(iii) The person's compensation is primarily based on revenues derived from activities of the organization, or of a particular department or function of the organization, that the person controls;

(iv) The person has or shares authority to control or determine a substantial portion of the organization's capital expenditures, operating budget, or compensation for employees;

(v) The person manages a discrete segment or activity of the organization that represents a substantial portion of the activities, assets, income, or expenses of the organization, as compared to the organization as a whole;

(vi) The person owns a controlling interest (measured by either vote or value) in a corporation, partnership, or trust that is a disqualified person; or

(vii) The person is a non-stock organization controlled, directly or indirectly, by one or more disqualified persons.

(3) Facts and circumstances tending to show no substantial influence. Facts and circumstances tending to show that a person does not have substantial influence over the affairs of an organization include, but are not limited to, the following—

(i) The person has taken a bona fide vow of poverty as an employee, agent, or on behalf, of a religious organization;

(ii) The person is a contractor (such as an attorney, accountant, or investment manager or advisor) whose sole relationship to the organization is providing professional advice (without having decision-making authority) with respect to transactions from which the contractor will not economically benefit either directly or indirectly (aside from customary fees received for the professional advice rendered);

(iii) The direct supervisor of the individual is not a disqualified person;

(iv) The person does not participate in any management decisions affecting the organization as a whole or a discrete segment or activity of the organization that represents a substantial portion of the activities, assets, income, or expenses of the organization, as compared to the organization as a whole; or

(v) Any preferential treatment a person receives based on the size of that person's contribution is also offered to all other donors making a comparable contribution as part of a solicitation intended to attract a substantial number of contributions.

(f) Affiliated organizations. In the case of multiple organizations affiliated by common control or governing documents, the determination of whether a person does or does not have substantial influence shall be made separately for each applicable tax-exempt organization. A person may be a disqualified person with respect to transactions with more than one applicable tax-exempt organization.

(g) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of this section. A finding that a person is a disqualified person in the following examples does not indicate that an excess benefit transaction has occurred. If a person is a disqualified person, the rules of section 4958(c) and § 53.4958-4 apply to determine whether an excess benefit transaction has occurred. The examples are as follows:

Example 1.N, an artist by profession, works part-time at R, a local museum. In the first taxable year in which R employs N, R pays N a salary and provides no additional benefits to N except for free admission to the museum, a benefit R provides to all of its employees and volunteers. The total economic benefits N receives from R during the taxable year are less than the amount referenced for a highly compensated employee in section 414(q)(1)(B)(i). The part-time job constitutes N's only relationship with R. N is not related to any other disqualified person with respect to R. N is deemed not to be in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of R. Therefore, N is not a disqualified person with respect to R in that year.

Example 2.The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that in addition to the salary that R pays N for N's services during the taxable year, R also purchases one of N's paintings for $x. The total of N's salary plus $x exceeds the amount referenced for highly compensated employees in section 414(q)(1)(B)(i). Consequently, whether N is in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of R for that taxable year depends upon all of the relevant facts and circumstances.

Example 3.Q is a member of K, a section 501(c)(3) organization with a broad-based public membership. Members of K are entitled to vote only with respect to the annual election of directors and the approval of major organizational transactions such as a merger or dissolution. Q is not related to any other disqualified person of K. Q has no other relationship to K besides being a member of K and occasionally making modest donations to K. Whether Q is a disqualified person is determined by all relevant facts and circumstances. Q's voting rights, which are the same as granted to all members of K, do not place Q in a position to exercise substantial influence over K. Under these facts and circumstances, Q is not a disqualified person with respect to K.

Example 4.E is the headmaster of Z, a school that is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. E reports to Z's board of trustees and has ultimate responsibility for supervising Z's day-to-day operations. For example, E can hire faculty members and staff, make changes to the school's curriculum and discipline students without specific board approval. Because E has ultimate responsibility for supervising the operation of Z, E is in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of Z. Therefore, E is a disqualified person with respect to Z.

Example 5.Y is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958 that decides to use bingo games as a method of generating revenue. Y enters into a contract with B, a company that operates bingo games. Under the contract, B manages the promotion and operation of the bingo activity, provides all necessary staff, equipment, and services, and pays Y q percent of the revenue from this activity. B retains the balance of the proceeds. Y provides no goods or services in connection with the bingo operation other than the use of its hall for the bingo games. The annual gross revenue earned from the bingo games represents more than half of Y's total annual revenue. B's compensation is primarily based on revenues from an activity B controls. B also manages a discrete activity of Y that represents a substantial portion of Y's income compared to the organization as a whole. Under these facts and circumstances, B is in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of Y. Therefore, B is a disqualified person with respect to Y.

Example 6.The facts are the same as in Example 5, with the additional fact that P owns a majority of the stock of B and is actively involved in managing B. Because P owns a controlling interest (measured by either vote or value) in and actively manages B, P is also in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of Y. Therefore, under these facts and circumstances, P is a disqualified person with respect to Y.

Example 7.A, an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958, owns and operates one acute care hospital. B, a for-profit corporation, owns and operates a number of hospitals. A and B form C, a limited liability company. In exchange for proportional ownership interests, A contributes its hospital, and B contributes other assets, to C. All of A's assets then consist of its membership interest in C. A continues to be operated for exempt purposes based almost exclusively on the activities it conducts through C. C enters into a management agreement with a management company, M, to provide day to day management services to C. Subject to supervision by C's board, M is given broad discretion to manage C's day to day operation and has ultimate responsibility for supervising the management of the hospital. Because M has ultimate responsibility for supervising the management of the hospital operated by C, A's ownership interest in C is its primary asset, and C's activities form the basis for A's continued exemption as an organization described in section 501(c)(3), M is in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of A. Therefore, M is a disqualified person with respect to A.

Example 8.T is a large university and an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. L is the dean of the College of Law of T, a substantial source of revenue for T, including contributions from alumni and foundations. L is not related to any other disqualified person of T. L does not serve on T's governing body or have ultimate responsibility for managing the university as whole. However, as dean of the College of Law, L plays a key role in faculty hiring and determines a substantial portion of the capital expenditures and operating budget of the College of Law. L's compensation is greater than the amount referenced for a highly compensated employee in section 414(q)(1)(B)(i) in the year benefits are provided. L's management of a discrete segment of T that represents a substantial portion of the income of T (as compared to T as a whole) places L in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of T. Under these facts and circumstances L is a disqualified person with respect to T.

Example 9.S chairs a small academic department in the College of Arts and Sciences of the same university T described in Example 8. S is not related to any other disqualified person of T. S does not serve on T's governing body or as an officer of T. As department chair, S supervises faculty in the department, approves the course curriculum, and oversees the operating budget for the department. S's compensation is greater than the amount referenced for a highly compensated employee in section 414(q)(1)(B)(i) in the year benefits are provided. Even though S manages the department, that department does not represent a substantial portion of T's activities, assets, income, expenses, or operating budget. Therefore, S does not participate in any management decisions affecting either T as a whole, or a discrete segment or activity of T that represents a substantial portion of its activities, assets, income, or expenses. Under these facts and circumstances, S does not have substantial influence over the affairs of T, and therefore S is not a disqualified person with respect to T.

Example 10.U is a large acute-care hospital that is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. U employs X as a radiologist. X gives instructions to staff with respect to the radiology work X conducts, but X does not supervise other U employees or manage any substantial part of U's operations. X's compensation is primarily in the form of a fixed salary. In addition, X is eligible to receive an incentive award based on revenues of the radiology department. X's compensation is greater than the amount referenced for a highly compensated employee in section 414(q)(1)(B)(i) in the year benefits are provided. X is not related to any other disqualified person of U. X does not serve on U's governing body or as an officer of U. Although U participates in a provider-sponsored organization (as defined in section 1855(e) of the Social Security Act), X does not have a material financial interest in that organization. X does not receive compensation primarily based on revenues derived from activities of U that X controls. X does not participate in any management decisions affecting either U as a whole or a discrete segment of U that represents a substantial portion of its activities, assets, income, or expenses. Under these facts and circumstances, X does not have substantial influence over the affairs of U, and therefore X is not a disqualified person with respect to U.

Example 11.W is a cardiologist and head of the cardiology department of the same hospital U described in Example 10. The cardiology department is a major source of patients admitted to U and consequently represents a substantial portion of U's income, as compared to U as a whole. W does not serve on U's governing board or as an officer of U. W does not have a material financial interest in the provider-sponsored organization (as defined in section 1855(e) of the Social Security Act) in which U participates. W receives a salary and retirement and welfare benefits fixed by a three-year renewable employment contract with U. W's compensation is greater than the amount referenced for a highly compensated employee in section 414(q)(1)(B)(i) in the year benefits are provided. As department head, W manages the cardiology department and has authority to allocate the budget for that department, which includes authority to distribute incentive bonuses among cardiologists according to criteria that W has authority to set. W's management of a discrete segment of U that represents a substantial portion of its income and activities (as compared to U as a whole) places W in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of U. Under these facts and circumstances, W is a disqualified person with respect to U.

Example 12.M is a museum that is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. D provides accounting services and tax advice to M as a contractor in return for a fee. D has no other relationship with M and is not related to any disqualified person of M. D does not provide professional advice with respect to any transaction from which D might economically benefit either directly or indirectly (aside from fees received for the professional advice rendered). Because D's sole relationship to M is providing professional advice (without having decision-making authority) with respect to transactions from which D will not economically benefit either directly or indirectly (aside from customary fees received for the professional advice rendered), under these facts and circumstances, D is not a disqualified person with respect to M.

Example 13.F is a repertory theater company that is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. F holds a fund-raising campaign to pay for the construction of a new theater. J is a regular subscriber to F's productions who has made modest gifts to F in the past. J has no relationship to F other than as a subscriber and contributor. F solicits contributions as part of a broad public campaign intended to attract a large number of donors, including a substantial number of donors making large gifts. In its solicitations for contributions, F promises to invite all contributors giving $z or more to a special opening production and party held at the new theater. These contributors are also given a special number to call in F's office to reserve tickets for performances, make ticket exchanges, and make other special arrangements for their convenience. J makes a contribution of $z to F, which makes J a substantial contributor within the meaning of section 507(d)(2)(A), taking into account only contributions received by F during its current and the four preceding taxable years. J receives the benefits described in F's solicitation. Because F offers the same benefit to all donors of $z or more, the preferential treatment that J receives does not indicate that J is in a position to exercise substantial influence over the affairs of the organization. Therefore, under these facts and circumstances, J is not a disqualified person with respect to F.

[T.D. 8978, 67 FR 3083, Jan. 23, 2002]

§ 53.4958-4 Excess benefit transaction.

(a) Definition of excess benefit transaction—(1) In general. An excess benefit transaction means any transaction in which an economic benefit is provided by an applicable tax-exempt organization directly or indirectly to or for the use of any disqualified person, and the value of the economic benefit provided exceeds the value of the consideration (including the performance of services) received for providing the benefit. Subject to the limitations of paragraph (c) of this section (relating to the treatment of economic benefits as compensation for the performance of services), to determine whether an excess benefit transaction has occurred, all consideration and benefits (except disregarded benefits described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section) exchanged between a disqualified person and the applicable tax-exempt organization and all entities the organization controls (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section) are taken into account. For example, in determining the reasonableness of compensation that is paid (or vests, or is no longer subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture) in one year, services performed in prior years may be taken into account. The rules of this section apply to all transactions with disqualified persons, regardless of whether the amount of the benefit provided is determined, in whole or in part, by the revenues of one or more activities of the organization. For rules regarding valuation standards, see paragraph (b) of this section. For the requirement that an applicable tax-exempt organization clearly indicate its intent to treat a benefit as compensation for services when paid, see paragraph (c) of this section.

(2) Economic benefit provided indirectly—(i) In general. A transaction that would be an excess benefit transaction if the applicable tax-exempt organization engaged in it directly with a disqualified person is likewise an excess benefit transaction when it is accomplished indirectly. An applicable tax-exempt organization may provide an excess benefit indirectly to a disqualified person through a controlled entity or through an intermediary, as described in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section, respectively.

(ii) Through a controlled entity—(A) In general. An applicable tax-exempt organization may provide an excess benefit indirectly through the use of one or more entities it controls. For purposes of section 4958, economic benefits provided by a controlled entity will be treated as provided by the applicable tax-exempt organization.

(B) Definition of control—(1) In general. For purposes of this paragraph, control by an applicable tax-exempt organization means—

(i) In the case of a stock corporation, ownership (by vote or value) of more than 50 percent of the stock in such corporation;

(ii) In the case of a partnership, ownership of more than 50 percent of the profits interests or capital interests in the partnership;

(iii) In the case of a nonstock organization (i.e., an entity in which no person holds a proprietary interest), that at least 50 percent of the directors or trustees of the organization are either representatives (including trustees, directors, agents, or employees) of, or directly or indirectly controlled by, an applicable tax-exempt organization; or

(iv) In the case of any other entity, ownership of more than 50 percent of the beneficial interest in the entity.

(2) Constructive ownership. Section 318 (relating to constructive ownership of stock) shall apply for purposes of determining ownership of stock in a corporation. Similar principles shall apply for purposes of determining ownership of interests in any other entity.

(iii) Through an intermediary. An applicable tax-exempt organization may provide an excess benefit indirectly through an intermediary. An intermediary is any person (including an individual or a taxable or tax-exempt entity) who participates in a transaction with one or more disqualified persons of an applicable tax-exempt organization. For purposes of section 4958, economic benefits provided by an intermediary will be treated as provided by the applicable tax-exempt organization when—

(A) An applicable tax-exempt organization provides an economic benefit to an intermediary; and

(B) In connection with the receipt of the benefit by the intermediary—

(1) There is evidence of an oral or written agreement or understanding that the intermediary will provide economic benefits to or for the use of a disqualified person; or

(2) The intermediary provides economic benefits to or for the use of a disqualified person without a significant business purpose or exempt purpose of its own.

(iv) Examples. The following examples illustrate when economic benefits are provided indirectly under the rules of this paragraph (a)(2):

Example 1.K is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. L is a wholly-owned taxable subsidiary of K. J is employed by K, and is a disqualified person with respect to K. K pays J an annual salary of $12m, and reports that amount as compensation during calendar year 2001. Although J only performed services for K for nine months of 2001, J performed equivalent services for L during the remaining three months of 2001. Taking into account all of the economic benefits K provided to J, and all of the services J performed for K and L, $12m does not exceed the fair market value of the services J performed for K and L during 2001. Therefore, under these facts, K does not provide an excess benefit to J directly or indirectly.

Example 2.F is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. D is an entity controlled by F within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section. T is the chief executive officer (CEO) of F. As CEO, T is responsible for overseeing the activities of F. T's duties as CEO make him a disqualified person with respect to F. T's compensation package with F represents the maximum reasonable compensation for T's services as CEO. Thus, any additional economic benefits that F provides to T without T providing additional consideration constitute an excess benefit. D contracts with T to provide enumerated consulting services to D. However, the contract does not require T to perform any additional services for D that T is not already obligated to perform as F's chief executive officer. Therefore, any payment to T pursuant to the consulting contract with D represents an indirect excess benefit that F provides through a controlled entity, even if F, D, or T treats the additional payment to T as compensation.

Example 3.P is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. S is a taxable entity controlled by P within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section. V is the chief executive officer of S, for which S pays V $w in salary and benefits. V also serves as a voting member of P's governing body. Consequently, V is a disqualified person with respect to P. P provides V with $x representing compensation for the services V provides P as a member of its governing body. Although $x represents reasonable compensation for the services V provides directly to P as a member of its governing body, the total compensation of $w + $x exceeds reasonable compensation for the services V provides to P and S collectively. Therefore, the portion of total compensation that exceeds reasonable compensation is an excess benefit provided to V.

Example 4.G is an applicable tax-exempt organization for section 4958 purposes. F is a disqualified person who was last employed by G in a position of substantial influence three years ago. H is an entity engaged in scientific research and is unrelated to either F or G. G makes a grant to H to fund a research position. H subsequently advertises for qualified candidates for the research position. F is among several highly qualified candidates who apply for the research position. H hires F. There was no evidence of an oral or written agreement or understanding with G that H will use G's grant to provide economic benefits to or for the use of F. Although G provided economic benefits to H, and in connection with the receipt of such benefits, H will provide economic benefits to or for the use of F, H acted with a significant business purpose or exempt purpose of its own. Under these facts, G did not provide an economic benefit to F indirectly through the use of an intermediary.

(3) Exception for fixed payments made pursuant to an initial contract—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section, section 4958 does not apply to any fixed payment made to a person pursuant to an initial contract.

(ii) Fixed payment—(A) In general. For purposes of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, fixed payment means an amount of cash or other property specified in the contract, or determined by a fixed formula specified in the contract, which is to be paid or transferred in exchange for the provision of specified services or property. A fixed formula may incorporate an amount that depends upon future specified events or contingencies, provided that no person exercises discretion when calculating the amount of a payment or deciding whether to make a payment (such as a bonus). A specified event or contingency may include the amount of revenues generated by (or other objective measure of) one or more activities of the applicable tax-exempt organization. A fixed payment does not include any amount paid to a person under a reimbursement (or similar) arrangement where discretion is exercised by any person with respect to the amount of expenses incurred or reimbursed.

(B) Special rules. Amounts payable pursuant to a qualified pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan under section 401(a), or pursuant to an employee benefit program that is subject to and satisfies coverage and nondiscrimination rules under the Internal Revenue Code (e.g., sections 127 and 137), other than nondiscrimination rules under section 9802, are treated as fixed payments for purposes of this section, regardless of the applicable tax-exempt organization's discretion with respect to the plan or program. The fact that a person contracting with an applicable tax-exempt organization is expressly granted the choice whether to accept or reject any economic benefit is disregarded in determining whether the benefit constitutes a fixed payment for purposes of this paragraph.

(iii) Initial contract. For purposes of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, initial contract means a binding written contract between an applicable tax-exempt organization and a person who was not a disqualified person within the meaning of section 4958(f)(1) and § 53.4958-3 immediately prior to entering into the contract.

(iv) Substantial performance required. Paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to any fixed payment made pursuant to the initial contract during any taxable year of the person contracting with the applicable tax-exempt organization if the person fails to perform substantially the person's obligations under the initial contract during that year.

(v) Treatment as a new contract. A written binding contract that provides that the contract is terminable or subject to cancellation by the applicable tax-exempt organization (other than as a result of a lack of substantial performance by the disqualified person, as described in paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section) without the other party's consent and without substantial penalty to the organization is treated as a new contract as of the earliest date that any such termination or cancellation, if made, would be effective. Additionally, if the parties make a material change to a contract, it is treated as a new contract as of the date the material change is effective. A material change includes an extension or renewal of the contract (other than an extension or renewal that results from the person contracting with the applicable tax-exempt organization unilaterally exercising an option expressly granted by the contract), or a more than incidental change to any amount payable under the contract. The new contract is tested under paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section to determine whether it is an initial contract for purposes of this section.

(vi) Evaluation of non-fixed payments. Any payment that is not a fixed payment (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section) is evaluated to determine whether it constitutes an excess benefit transaction under section 4958. In making this determination, all payments and consideration exchanged between the parties are taken into account, including any fixed payments made pursuant to an initial contract with respect to which section 4958 does not apply.

(vii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules governing fixed payments made pursuant to an initial contract. Unless otherwise stated, assume that the person contracting with the applicable tax-exempt organization has performed substantially the person's obligations under the contract with respect to the payment. The examples are as follows:

Example 1.T is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. On January 1, 2002, T hires S as its chief financial officer by entering into a five-year written employment contract with S. S was not a disqualified person within the meaning of section 4958(f)(1) and § 53.4958-3 immediately prior to entering into the January 1, 2002, contract (initial contract). S's duties and responsibilities under the contract make S a disqualified person with respect to T (see § 53.4958-3(c)(3)). Under the initial contract, T agrees to pay S an annual salary of $200,000, payable in monthly installments. The contract provides that, beginning in 2003, S's annual salary will be adjusted by the increase in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the prior year. Section 4958 does not apply because S's compensation under the contract is a fixed payment pursuant to an initial contract within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3) of this section. Thus, for section 4958 purposes, it is unnecessary to evaluate whether any portion of the compensation paid to S pursuant to the initial contract is an excess benefit transaction.

Example 2.The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that the initial contract provides that, in addition to a base salary of $200,000, T may pay S an annual performance-based bonus. The contract provides that T's governing body will determine the amount of the annual bonus as of the end of each year during the term of the contract, based on the board's evaluation of S's performance, but the bonus cannot exceed $100,000 per year. Unlike the base salary portion of S's compensation, the bonus portion of S's compensation is not a fixed payment pursuant to an initial contract, because the governing body has discretion over the amount, if any, of the bonus payment. Section 4958 does not apply to payment of the $200,000 base salary (as adjusted for inflation), because it is a fixed payment pursuant to an initial contract within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3) of this section. By contrast, the annual bonuses that may be paid to S under the initial contract are not protected by the initial contract exception. Therefore, each bonus payment will be evaluated under section 4958, taking into account all payments and consideration exchanged between the parties.

Example 3.The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that in 2003, T changes its payroll system, such that T makes biweekly, rather than monthly, salary payments to its employees. Beginning in 2003, T also grants its employees an additional two days of paid vacation each year. Neither change is a material change to S's initial contract within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(v) of this section. Therefore, section 4958 does not apply to the base salary payments to S due to the initial contract exception.

Example 4.The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that on January 1, 2003, S becomes the chief executive officer of T and a new chief financial officer is hired. At the same time, T's board of directors approves an increase in S's annual base salary from $200,000 to $240,000, effective on that day. These changes in S's employment relationship constitute material changes of the initial contract within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(v) of this section. As a result, S is treated as entering into a new contract with T on January 1, 2003, at which time S is a disqualified person within the meaning of section 4958(f)(1) and § 53.4958-3. T's payments to S made pursuant to the new contract will be evaluated under section 4958, taking into account all payments and consideration exchanged between the parties.

Example 5.J is a performing arts organization and an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. J hires W to become the chief executive officer of J. W was not a disqualified person within the meaning of section 4958(f)(1) and § 53.4958-3 immediately prior to entering into the employment contract with J. As a result of this employment contract, W's duties and responsibilities make W a disqualified person with respect to J (see § 53.4958-3(c)(2)). Under the contract, J will pay W $x (a specified amount) plus a bonus equal to 2 percent of the total season subscription sales that exceed $100z. The $x base salary is a fixed payment pursuant to an initial contract within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3) of this section. The bonus payment is also a fixed payment pursuant to an initial contract within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, because no person exercises discretion when calculating the amount of the bonus payment or deciding whether the bonus will be paid. Therefore, section 4958 does not apply to any of J's payments to W pursuant to the employment contract due to the initial contract exception.

Example 6.Hospital B is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. Hospital B hires E as its chief operating officer. E was not a disqualified person within the meaning of section 4958(f)(1) and § 53.4958-3 immediately prior to entering into the employment contract with Hospital B. As a result of this employment contract, E's duties and responsibilities make E a disqualified person with respect to Hospital B (see § 53.4958-3(c)(2)). E's initial employment contract provides that E will have authority to enter into hospital management arrangements on behalf of Hospital B. In E's personal capacity, E owns more than 35 percent of the combined voting power of Company X. Consequently, at the time E becomes a disqualified person with respect to B, Company X also becomes a disqualified person with respect to B (see § 53.4958-3(b)(2)(i)(A)). E, acting on behalf of Hospital B as chief operating officer, enters into a contract with Company X under which Company X will provide billing and collection services to Hospital B. The initial contract exception of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to the billing and collection services contract, because at the time that this contractual arrangement was entered into, Company X was a disqualified person with respect to Hospital B. Although E's employment contract (which is an initial contract) authorizes E to enter into hospital management arrangements on behalf of Hospital B, the payments made to Company X are not made pursuant to E's employment contract, but rather are made by Hospital B pursuant to a separate contractual arrangement with Company X. Therefore, even if payments made to Company X under the billing and collection services contract are fixed payments (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section), section 4958 nonetheless applies to payments made by Hospital B to Company X because the billing and collection services contract itself does not constitute an initial contract under paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section. Accordingly, all payments made to Company X under the billing and collection services contract will be evaluated under section 4958.

Example 7.Hospital C, an applicable tax-exempt organization, enters into a contract with Company Y, under which Company Y will provide a wide range of hospital management services to Hospital C. Upon entering into this contractual arrangement, Company Y becomes a disqualified person with respect to Hospital C. The contract provides that Hospital C will pay Company Y a management fee of x percent of adjusted gross revenue (i.e., gross revenue increased by the cost of charity care provided to indigents) annually for a five-year period. The management services contract specifies the cost accounting system and the standards for indigents to be used in calculating the cost of charity care. The cost accounting system objectively defines the direct and indirect costs of all health care goods and services provided as charity care. Because Company Y was not a disqualified person with respect to Hospital C immediately before entering into the management services contract, that contract is an initial contract within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section. The annual management fee paid to Company Y is determined by a fixed formula specified in the contract, and is therefore a fixed payment within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section. Accordingly, section 4958 does not apply to the annual management fee due to the initial contract exception.

Example 8.The facts are the same as in Example 7, except that the management services contract also provides that Hospital C will reimburse Company Y on a monthly basis for certain expenses incurred by Company Y that are attributable to management services provided to Hospital C (e.g., legal fees and travel expenses). Although the management fee itself is a fixed payment not subject to section 4958, the reimbursement payments that Hospital C makes to Company Y for the various expenses covered by the contract are not fixed payments within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, because Company Y exercises discretion with respect to the amount of expenses incurred. Therefore, any reimbursement payments that Hospital C pays pursuant to the contract will be evaluated under section 4958.

Example 9.X, an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958, hires C to conduct scientific research. On January 1, 2003, C enters into a three-year written employment contract with X (initial contract). Under the terms of the contract, C is required to work full-time at X's laboratory for a fixed annual salary of $90,000. Immediately prior to entering into the employment contract, C was not a disqualified person within the meaning of section 4958(f)(1) and § 53.4958-3, nor did C become a disqualified person pursuant to the initial contract. However, two years after joining X, C marries D, who is the child of X's president. As D's spouse, C is a disqualified person within the meaning of section 4958(f)(1) and § 53.4958-3 with respect to X. Nonetheless, section 4958 does not apply to X's salary payments to C due to the initial contract exception.

Example 10.The facts are the same as in Example 9, except that the initial contract included a below-market loan provision under which C has the unilateral right to borrow up to a specified dollar amount from X at a specified interest rate for a specified term. After C's marriage to D, C borrows money from X to purchase a home under the terms of the initial contract. Section 4958 does not apply to X's loan to C due to the initial contract exception.

Example 11.The facts are the same as in Example 9, except that after C's marriage to D, C works only sporadically at the laboratory, and performs no other services for X. Notwithstanding that C fails to perform substantially C's obligations under the initial contract, X does not exercise its right to terminate the initial contract for nonperformance and continues to pay full salary to C. Pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(iv) of this section, the initial contract exception does not apply to any payments made pursuant to the initial contract during any taxable year of C in which C fails to perform substantially C's obligations under the initial contract.

(4) Certain economic benefits disregarded for purposes of section 4958. The following economic benefits are disregarded for purposes of section 4958—

(i) Nontaxable fringe benefits. An economic benefit that is excluded from income under section 132, except any liability insurance premium, payment, or reimbursement that must be taken into account under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B)(2) of this section;

(ii) Expense reimbursement payments pursuant to accountable plans. Amounts paid under reimbursement arrangements that meet the requirements of § 1.62-2(c) of this chapter;

(iii) Certain economic benefits provided to a volunteer for the organization. An economic benefit provided to a volunteer for the organization if the benefit is provided to the general public in exchange for a membership fee or contribution of $75 or less per year;

(iv) Certain economic benefits provided to a member of, or donor to, the organization. An economic benefit provided to a member of an organization solely on account of the payment of a membership fee, or to a donor solely on account of a contribution for which a deduction is allowable under section 170 (charitable contribution), regardless of whether the donor is eligible to claim the deduction, if—

(A) Any non-disqualified person paying a membership fee or making a charitable contribution above a specified amount to the organization is given the option of receiving substantially the same economic benefit; and

(B) The disqualified person and a significant number of non-disqualified persons make a payment or charitable contribution of at least the specified amount;

(v) Economic benefits provided to a charitable beneficiary. An economic benefit provided to a person solely because the person is a member of a charitable class that the applicable tax-exempt organization intends to benefit as part of the accomplishment of the organization's exempt purpose; and

(vi) Certain economic benefits provided to a governmental unit. Any transfer of an economic benefit to or for the use of a governmental unit defined in section 170(c)(1), if the transfer is for exclusively public purposes.

(5) Exception for certain payments made pursuant to an exemption granted by the Department of Labor under ERISA. Section 4958 does not apply to any payment made pursuant to, and in accordance with, a final individual prohibited transaction exemption issued by the Department of Labor under section 408(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 854) (ERISA) with respect to a transaction involving a plan (as defined in section 3(3) of ERISA) that is an applicable tax exempt organization.

(b) Valuation standards—(1) In general. This section provides rules for determining the value of economic benefits for purposes of section 4958.

(i) Fair market value of property. The value of property, including the right to use property, for purposes of section 4958 is the fair market value (i.e., the price at which property or the right to use property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy, sell or transfer property or the right to use property, and both having reasonable knowledge of relevant facts).

(ii) Reasonable compensation—(A) In general. The value of services is the amount that would ordinarily be paid for like services by like enterprises (whether taxable or tax-exempt) under like circumstances (i.e., reasonable compensation). Section 162 standards apply in determining reasonableness of compensation, taking into account the aggregate benefits (other than any benefits specifically disregarded under paragraph (a)(4) of this section) provided to a person and the rate at which any deferred compensation accrues. The fact that a compensation arrangement is subject to a cap is a relevant factor in determining the reasonableness of compensation. The fact that a State or local legislative or agency body or court has authorized or approved a particular compensation package paid to a disqualified person is not determinative of the reasonableness of compensation for purposes of section 4958.

(B) Items included in determining the value of compensation for purposes of determining reasonableness under section 4958. Except for economic benefits that are disregarded for purposes of section 4958 under paragraph (a)(4) of this section, compensation for purposes of determining reasonableness under section 4958 includes all economic benefits provided by an applicable tax-exempt organization in exchange for the performance of services. These benefits include, but are not limited to—

(1) All forms of cash and noncash compensation, including salary, fees, bonuses, severance payments, and deferred and noncash compensation described in § 53.4958-1(e)(2);

(2) Unless excludable from income as a de minimis fringe benefit pursuant to section 132(a)(4), the payment of liability insurance premiums for, or the payment or reimbursement by the organization of—

(i) Any penalty, tax, or expense of correction owed under section 4958;

(ii) Any expense not reasonably incurred by the person in connection with a civil judicial or civil administrative proceeding arising out of the person's performance of services on behalf of the applicable tax-exempt organization; or

(iii) Any expense resulting from an act or failure to act with respect to which the person has acted willfully and without reasonable cause; and

(3) All other compensatory benefits, whether or not included in gross income for income tax purposes, including payments to welfare benefit plans, such as plans providing medical, dental, life insurance, severance pay, and disability benefits, and both taxable and nontaxable fringe benefits (other than fringe benefits described in section 132), including expense allowances or reimbursements (other than expense reimbursements pursuant to an accountable plan that meets the requirements of § 1.62-2(c)), and the economic benefit of a below-market loan (within the meaning of section 7872(e)(1)). (For this purpose, the economic benefit of a below-market loan is the amount deemed transferred to the disqualified person under section 7872(a) or (b), regardless of whether section 7872 otherwise applies to the loan).

(C) Inclusion in compensation for reasonableness determination does not govern income tax treatment. The determination of whether any item listed in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section is included in the disqualified person's gross income for income tax purposes is made on the basis of the provisions of chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code, without regard to whether the item is taken into account for purposes of determining reasonableness of compensation under section 4958.

(2) Timing of reasonableness determination—(i) In general. The facts and circumstances to be taken into consideration in determining reasonableness of a fixed payment (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section) are those existing on the date the parties enter into the contract pursuant to which the payment is made. However, in the event of substantial non-performance, reasonableness is determined based on all facts and circumstances, up to and including circumstances as of the date of payment. In the case of any payment that is not a fixed payment under a contract, reasonableness is determined based on all facts and circumstances, up to and including circumstances as of the date of payment. In no event shall circumstances existing at the date when the payment is questioned be considered in making a determination of the reasonableness of the payment. These general timing rules also apply to property subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture. Therefore, if the property subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture satisfies the definition of fixed payment (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section), reasonableness is determined at the time the parties enter into the contract providing for the transfer of the property. If the property is not a fixed payment, then reasonableness is determined based on all facts and circumstances up to and including circumstances as of the date of payment.

(ii) Treatment as a new contract. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, a written binding contract that provides that the contract is terminable or subject to cancellation by the applicable tax-exempt organization without the other party's consent and without substantial penalty to the organization is treated as a new contract as of the earliest date that any such termination or cancellation, if made, would be effective. Additionally, if the parties make a material change to a contract (within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(v) of this section), it is treated as a new contract as of the date the material change is effective.

(iii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the timing of the reasonableness determination under the rules of this paragraph (b)(2):

Example 1.G is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. H is an employee of G and a disqualified person with respect to G. H's new multi-year employment contract provides for payment of a salary and provision of specific benefits pursuant to a qualified pension plan under section 401(a) and an accident and health plan that meets the requirements of section 105(h)(2). The contract provides that H's salary will be adjusted by the increase in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the prior year. The contributions G makes to the qualified pension plan are equal to the maximum amount G is permitted to contribute under the rules applicable to qualified plans. Under these facts, all items comprising H's total compensation are treated as fixed payments within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section. Therefore, the reasonableness of H's compensation is determined based on the circumstances existing at the time G and H enter into the employment contract.

Example 2.The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that the multi-year employment contract provides, in addition, that G will transfer title to a car to H under the condition that if H fails to complete x years of service with G, title to the car will be forfeited back to G. All relevant information about the type of car to be provided (including the make, model, and year) is included in the contract. Although ultimate vesting of title to the car is contingent on H continuing to work for G for x years, the amount of property to be vested (i.e., the type of car) is specified in the contract, and no person exercises discretion regarding the type of property or whether H will retain title to the property at the time of vesting. Under these facts, the car is a fixed payment within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section. Therefore, the reasonableness of H's compensation, including the value of the car, is determined based on the circumstances existing at the time G and H enter into the employment contract.

Example 3.N is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. On January 2, N's governing body enters into a new one-year employment contract with K, its executive director, who is a disqualified person with respect to N. The contract provides that K will receive a specified amount of salary, contributions to a qualified pension plan under section 401(a), and other benefits pursuant to a section 125 cafeteria plan. In addition, the contract provides that N's governing body may, in its discretion, declare a bonus to be paid to K at any time during the year covered by the contract. K's salary and other specified benefits constitute fixed payments within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section. Therefore, the reasonableness of those economic benefits is determined on the date when the contract was made. However, because the bonus payment is not a fixed payment within the meaning of paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, the determination of whether any bonus awarded to N is reasonable must be made based on all facts and circumstances (including all payments and consideration exchanged between the parties), up to and including circumstances as of the date of payment of the bonus.

(c) Establishing intent to treat economic benefit as consideration for the performance of services—(1) In general. An economic benefit is not treated as consideration for the performance of services unless the organization providing the benefit clearly indicates its intent to treat the benefit as compensation when the benefit is paid. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, an applicable tax-exempt organization (or entity controlled by an applicable tax-exempt organization, within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section) is treated as clearly indicating its intent to provide an economic benefit as compensation for services only if the organization provides written substantiation that is contemporaneous with the transfer of the economic benefit at issue. If an organization fails to provide this contemporaneous substantiation, any services provided by the disqualified person will not be treated as provided in consideration for the economic benefit for purposes of determining the reasonableness of the transaction. In no event shall an economic benefit that a disqualified person obtains by theft or fraud be treated as consideration for the performance of services.

(2) Nontaxable benefits. For purposes of section 4958(c)(1)(A) and this section, an applicable tax-exempt organization is not required to indicate its intent to provide an economic benefit as compensation for services if the economic benefit is excluded from the disqualified person's gross income for income tax purposes on the basis of the provisions of chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code. Examples of these benefits include, but are not limited to, employer-provided health benefits and contributions to a qualified pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan under section 401(a), and benefits described in sections 127 and 137. However, except for economic benefits that are disregarded for purposes of section 4958 under paragraph (a)(4) of this section, all compensatory benefits (regardless of the Federal income tax treatment) provided by an organization in exchange for the performance of services are taken into account in determining the reasonableness of a person's compensation for purposes of section 4958.

(3) Contemporaneous substantiation—(i) Reporting of benefit—(A) In general. An applicable tax-exempt organization provides contemporaneous written substantiation of its intent to provide an economic benefit as compensation if—

(1) The organization reports the economic benefit as compensation on an original Federal tax information return with respect to the payment (e.g., Form W-2, “Wage and Tax Statement”, or Form 1099, “Miscellaneous Income”) or with respect to the organization (e.g., Form 990, “Return of Organization Exempt From Income Tax”), or on an amended Federal tax information return filed prior to the commencement of an Internal Revenue Service examination of the applicable tax-exempt organization or the disqualified person for the taxable year in which the transaction occurred (as determined under § 53.4958-1(e)); or

(2) The recipient disqualified person reports the benefit as income on the person's original Federal tax return (e.g., Form 1040, “U.S. Individual Income Tax Return”), or on the person's amended Federal tax return filed prior to the earlier of the following dates—

(i) Commencement of an Internal Revenue Service examination described in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A)(1) of this section; or

(ii) The first documentation in writing by the Internal Revenue Service of a potential excess benefit transaction involving either the applicable tax-exempt organization or the disqualified person.

(B) Failure to report due to reasonable cause. If an applicable tax-exempt organization's failure to report an economic benefit as required under the Internal Revenue Code is due to reasonable cause (within the meaning of § 301.6724-1 of this chapter), then the organization will be treated as having clearly indicated its intent to provide an economic benefit as compensation for services. To show that its failure to report an economic benefit that should have been reported on an information return was due to reasonable cause, an applicable tax-exempt organization must establish that there were significant mitigating factors with respect to its failure to report (as described in § 301.6724-1(b) of this chapter), or the failure arose from events beyond the organization's control (as described in § 301.6724-1(c) of this chapter), and that the organization acted in a responsible manner both before and after the failure occurred (as described in § 301.6724-1(d) of this chapter).

(ii) Other written contemporaneous evidence. In addition, other written contemporaneous evidence may be used to demonstrate that the appropriate decision-making body or an officer authorized to approve compensation approved a transfer as compensation for services in accordance with established procedures, including but not limited to—

(A) An approved written employment contract executed on or before the date of the transfer;

(B) Documentation satisfying the requirements of § 53.4958-6(a)(3) indicating that an authorized body approved the transfer as compensation for services on or before the date of the transfer; or

(C) Written evidence that was in existence on or before the due date of the applicable Federal tax return described in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(A)(1) or (2) of this section (including extensions but not amendments), of a reasonable belief by the applicable tax-exempt organization that a benefit was a nontaxable benefit as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the requirement that an organization contemporaneously substantiate its intent to provide an economic benefit as compensation for services, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section:

Example 1.G is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. G hires an individual contractor, P, who is also the child of a disqualified person of G, to design a computer program for it. G executes a contract with P for that purpose in accordance with G's established procedures, and pays P $1,000 during the year pursuant to the contract. Before January 31 of the next year, G reports the full amount paid to P under the contract on a Form 1099 filed with the Internal Revenue Service. G will be treated as providing contemporaneous written substantiation of its intent to provide the $1,000 paid to P as compensation for the services P performed under the contract by virtue of either the Form 1099 filed with the Internal Revenue Service reporting the amount, or by virtue of the written contract executed between G and P.

Example 2.G is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. D is the chief operating officer of G, and a disqualified person with respect to G. D receives a bonus at the end of the year. G's accounting department determines that the bonus is to be reported on D's Form W-2. Due to events beyond G's control, the bonus is not reflected on D's Form W-2. As a result, D fails to report the bonus on D's individual income tax return. G acts to amend Forms W-2 affected as soon as G is made aware of the error during an Internal Revenue Service examination. G's failure to report the bonus on an information return issued to D arose from events beyond G's control, and G acted in a responsible manner both before and after the failure occurred. Thus, because G had reasonable cause (within the meaning § 301.6724-1 of this chapter) for failing to report D's bonus, G will be treated as providing contemporaneous written substantiation of its intent to provide the bonus as compensation for services when paid.

Example 3.H is an applicable tax-exempt organization and J is a disqualified person with respect to H. J's written employment agreement provides for a fixed salary of $y. J's duties include soliciting funds for various programs of H. H raises a large portion of its funds in a major metropolitan area. Accordingly, H maintains an apartment there in order to provide a place to entertain potential donors. H makes the apartment available exclusively to J to assist in the fundraising. J's written employment contract does not mention the use of the apartment. H obtains the written opinion of a benefits compensation expert that the rental value of the apartment is not includable in J's income by reason of section 119, based on the expectation that the apartment will be used for fundraising activities. Consequently, H does not report the rental value of the apartment on J's Form W-2, which otherwise correctly reports J's taxable compensation. J does not report the rental value of the apartment on J's individual Form 1040. Later, the Internal Revenue Service correctly determines that the requirements of section 119 were not satisfied. Because of the written expert opinion, H has written evidence of its reasonable belief that use of the apartment was a nontaxable benefit as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. That evidence was in existence on or before the due date of the applicable Federal tax return. Therefore, H has demonstrated its intent to treat the use of the apartment as compensation for services performed by J.

[T.D. 8978, 67 FR 3083, Jan. 23, 2002; 67 FR 12472, Mar. 19, 2002]

§ 53.4958-5 Transaction in which the amount of the economic benefit is determined in whole or in part by the revenues of one or more activities of the organization. [Reserved]
§ 53.4958-6 Rebuttable presumption that a transaction is not an excess benefit transaction.

(a) In general. Payments under a compensation arrangement are presumed to be reasonable, and a transfer of property, or the right to use property, is presumed to be at fair market value, if the following conditions are satisfied—

(1) The compensation arrangement or the terms of the property transfer are approved in advance by an authorized body of the applicable tax-exempt organization (or an entity controlled by the organization within the meaning of § 53.4958-4(a)(2)(ii)(B)) composed entirely of individuals who do not have a conflict of interest (within the meaning of paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section) with respect to the compensation arrangement or property transfer, as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section;

(2) The authorized body obtained and relied upon appropriate data as to comparability prior to making its determination, as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and

(3) The authorized body adequately documented the basis for its determination concurrently with making that determination, as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

(b) Rebutting the presumption. If the three requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied, then the Internal Revenue Service may rebut the presumption that arises under paragraph (a) of this section only if it develops sufficient contrary evidence to rebut the probative value of the comparability data relied upon by the authorized body. With respect to any fixed payment (within the meaning of § 53.4958-4(a)(3)(ii)), rebuttal evidence is limited to evidence relating to facts and circumstances existing on the date the parties enter into the contract pursuant to which the payment is made (except in the event of substantial nonperformance). With respect to all other payments (including non-fixed payments subject to a cap, as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section), rebuttal evidence may include facts and circumstances up to and including the date of payment. See § 53.4958-4(b)(2)(i).

(c) Requirements for invoking rebuttable presumption—(1) Approval by an authorized body—(i) In general. An authorized body means—

(A) The governing body (i.e., the board of directors, board of trustees, or equivalent controlling body) of the organization;

(B) A committee of the governing body, which may be composed of any individuals permitted under State law to serve on such a committee, to the extent that the committee is permitted by State law to act on behalf of the governing body; or

(C) To the extent permitted under State law, other parties authorized by the governing body of the organization to act on its behalf by following procedures specified by the governing body in approving compensation arrangements or property transfers.

(ii) Individuals not included on authorized body. For purposes of determining whether the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section have been met with respect to a specific compensation arrangement or property transfer, an individual is not included on the authorized body when it is reviewing a transaction if that individual meets with other members only to answer questions, and otherwise recuses himself or herself from the meeting and is not present during debate and voting on the compensation arrangement or property transfer.

(iii) Absence of conflict of interest. A member of the authorized body does not have a conflict of interest with respect to a compensation arrangement or property transfer only if the member—

(A) Is not a disqualified person participating in or economically benefitting from the compensation arrangement or property transfer, and is not a member of the family of any such disqualified person, as described in section 4958(f)(4) or § 53.4958-3(b)(1);

(B) Is not in an employment relationship subject to the direction or control of any disqualified person participating in or economically benefitting from the compensation arrangement or property transfer;

(C) Does not receive compensation or other payments subject to approval by any disqualified person participating in or economically benefitting from the compensation arrangement or property transfer;

(D) Has no material financial interest affected by the compensation arrangement or property transfer; and

(E) Does not approve a transaction providing economic benefits to any disqualified person participating in the compensation arrangement or property transfer, who in turn has approved or will approve a transaction providing economic benefits to the member.

(2) Appropriate data as to comparability—(i) In general. An authorized body has appropriate data as to comparability if, given the knowledge and expertise of its members, it has information sufficient to determine whether, under the standards set forth in § 53.4958-4(b), the compensation arrangement in its entirety is reasonable or the property transfer is at fair market value. In the case of compensation, relevant information includes, but is not limited to, compensation levels paid by similarly situated organizations, both taxable and tax-exempt, for functionally comparable positions; the availability of similar services in the geographic area of the applicable tax-exempt organization; current compensation surveys compiled by independent firms; and actual written offers from similar institutions competing for the services of the disqualified person. In the case of property, relevant information includes, but is not limited to, current independent appraisals of the value of all property to be transferred; and offers received as part of an open and competitive bidding process.

(ii) Special rule for compensation paid by small organizations. For organizations with annual gross receipts (including contributions) of less than $1 million reviewing compensation arrangements, the authorized body will be considered to have appropriate data as to comparability if it has data on compensation paid by three comparable organizations in the same or similar communities for similar services. No inference is intended with respect to whether circumstances falling outside this safe harbor will meet the requirement with respect to the collection of appropriate data.

(iii) Application of special rule for small organizations. For purposes of determining whether the special rule for small organizations described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section applies, an organization may calculate its annual gross receipts based on an average of its gross receipts during the three prior taxable years. If any applicable tax-exempt organization is controlled by or controls another entity (as defined in § 53.4958-4(a)(2)(ii)(B)), the annual gross receipts of such organizations must be aggregated to determine applicability of the special rule stated in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.

(iv) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules for appropriate data as to comparability for purposes of invoking the rebuttable presumption of reasonableness described in this section. In all examples, compensation refers to the aggregate value of all benefits provided in exchange for services. The examples are as follows:

Example 1.Z is a university that is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. Z is negotiating a new contract with Q, its president, because the old contract will expire at the end of the year. In setting Q's compensation for its president at $600x per annum, the executive committee of the Board of Trustees relies solely on a national survey of compensation for university presidents that indicates university presidents receive annual compensation in the range of $100x to $700x; this survey does not divide its data by any criteria, such as the number of students served by the institution, annual revenues, academic ranking, or geographic location. Although many members of the executive committee have significant business experience, none of the members has any particular expertise in higher education compensation matters. Given the failure of the survey to provide information specific to universities comparable to Z, and because no other information was presented, the executive committee's decision with respect to Q's compensation was not based upon appropriate data as to comparability.

Example 2.The facts are the same as Example 1, except that the national compensation survey divides the data regarding compensation for university presidents into categories based on various university-specific factors, including the size of the institution (in terms of the number of students it serves and the amount of its revenues) and geographic area. The survey data shows that university presidents at institutions comparable to and in the same geographic area as Z receive annual compensation in the range of $200x to $300x. The executive committee of the Board of Trustees of Z relies on the survey data and its evaluation of Q's many years of service as a tenured professor and high-ranking university official at Z in setting Q's compensation at $275x annually. The data relied upon by the executive committee constitutes appropriate data as to comparability.

Example 3.X is a tax-exempt hospital that is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. Before renewing the contracts of X's chief executive officer and chief financial officer, X's governing board commissioned a customized compensation survey from an independent firm that specializes in consulting on issues related to executive placement and compensation. The survey covered executives with comparable responsibilities at a significant number of taxable and tax-exempt hospitals. The survey data are sorted by a number of different variables, including the size of the hospitals and the nature of the services they provide, the level of experience and specific responsibilities of the executives, and the composition of the annual compensation packages. The board members were provided with the survey results, a detailed written analysis comparing the hospital's executives to those covered by the survey, and an opportunity to ask questions of a member of the firm that prepared the survey. The survey, as prepared and presented to X's board, constitutes appropriate data as to comparability.

Example 4.The facts are the same as Example 3, except that one year later, X is negotiating a new contract with its chief executive officer. The governing board of X obtains information indicating that the relevant market conditions have not changed materially, and possesses no other information indicating that the results of the prior year's survey are no longer valid. Therefore, X may continue to rely on the independent compensation survey prepared for the prior year in setting annual compensation under the new contract.

Example 5.W is a local repertory theater and an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. W has had annual gross receipts ranging from $400,000 to $800,000 over its past three taxable years. In determining the next year's compensation for W's artistic director, the board of directors of W relies on data compiled from a telephone survey of three other unrelated performing arts organizations of similar size in similar communities. A member of the board drafts a brief written summary of the annual compensation information obtained from this informal survey. The annual compensation information obtained in the telephone survey is appropriate data as to comparability.

(3) Documentation—(i) For a decision to be documented adequately, the written or electronic records of the authorized body must note—

(A) The terms of the transaction that was approved and the date it was approved;

(B) The members of the authorized body who were present during debate on the transaction that was approved and those who voted on it;

(C) The comparability data obtained and relied upon by the authorized body and how the data was obtained; and

(D) Any actions taken with respect to consideration of the transaction by anyone who is otherwise a member of the authorized body but who had a conflict of interest with respect to the transaction.

(ii) If the authorized body determines that reasonable compensation for a specific arrangement or fair market value in a specific property transfer is higher or lower than the range of comparability data obtained, the authorized body must record the basis for its determination. For a decision to be documented concurrently, records must be prepared before the later of the next meeting of the authorized body or 60 days after the final action or actions of the authorized body are taken. Records must be reviewed and approved by the authorized body as reasonable, accurate and complete within a reasonable time period thereafter.

(d) No presumption with respect to non-fixed payments until amounts are determined—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, in the case of a payment that is not a fixed payment (within the meaning of § 53.4958-4(a)(3)(ii)), the rebuttable presumption of this section arises only after the exact amount of the payment is determined, or a fixed formula for calculating the payment is specified, and the three requirements for the presumption under paragraph (a) of this section subsequently are satisfied. See § 53.4958-4(b)(2)(i).

(2) Special rule for certain non-fixed payments subject to a cap. If the authorized body approves an employment contract with a disqualified person that includes a non-fixed payment (such as a discretionary bonus) subject to a specified cap, the authorized body may establish a rebuttable presumption with respect to the non-fixed payment at the time the employment contract is entered into if—

(i) Prior to approving the contract, the authorized body obtains appropriate comparability data indicating that a fixed payment of up to a certain amount to the particular disqualified person would represent reasonable compensation;

(ii) The maximum amount payable under the contract (taking into account both fixed and non-fixed payments) does not exceed the amount referred to in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section; and

(iii) The other requirements for the rebuttable presumption of reasonableness under paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied.

(e) No inference from absence of presumption. The fact that a transaction between an applicable tax-exempt organization and a disqualified person is not subject to the presumption described in this section neither creates any inference that the transaction is an excess benefit transaction, nor exempts or relieves any person from compliance with any Federal or state law imposing any obligation, duty, responsibility, or other standard of conduct with respect to the operation or administration of any applicable tax-exempt organization.

(f) Period of reliance on rebuttable presumption. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section with respect to non-fixed payments, the rebuttable presumption applies to all payments made or transactions completed in accordance with a contract, provided that the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section were met at the time the parties entered into the contract.

[T.D. 8978, 67 FR 3083, Jan. 23, 2002]

§ 53.4958-7 Correction.

(a) In general. An excess benefit transaction is corrected by undoing the excess benefit to the extent possible, and taking any additional measures necessary to place the applicable tax-exempt organization involved in the excess benefit transaction in a financial position not worse than that in which it would be if the disqualified person were dealing under the highest fiduciary standards. Paragraph (b) of this section describes the acceptable forms of correction. Paragraph (c) of this section defines the correction amount. Paragraph (d) of this section describes correction where a contract has been partially performed. Paragraph (e) of this section describes correction where the applicable tax-exempt organization involved in the transaction has ceased to exist or is no longer tax-exempt. Paragraph (f) of this section provides examples illustrating correction.

(b) Form of correction—(1) Cash or cash equivalents. Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, a disqualified person corrects an excess benefit only by making a payment in cash or cash equivalents, excluding payment by a promissory note, to the applicable tax-exempt organization equal to the correction amount, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section.

(2) Anti-abuse rule. A disqualified person will not satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the Commissioner determines that the disqualified person engaged in one or more transactions with the applicable tax-exempt organization to circumvent the requirements of this correction section, and as a result, the disqualified person effectively transferred property other than cash or cash equivalents.

(3) Special rule relating to nonqualified deferred compensation. If an excess benefit transaction results, in whole or in part, from the vesting (as described in § 53.4958-1(e)(2)) of benefits provided under a nonqualified deferred compensation plan, then, to the extent that such benefits have not yet been distributed to the disqualified person, the disqualified person may correct the portion of the excess benefit resulting from the undistributed deferred compensation by relinquishing any right to receive the excess portion of the undistributed deferred compensation (including any earnings thereon).

(4) Return of specific property—(i) In general. A disqualified person may, with the agreement of the applicable tax-exempt organization, make a payment by returning specific property previously transferred in the excess benefit transaction. In this case, the disqualified person is treated as making a payment equal to the lesser of—

(A) The fair market value of the property determined on the date the property is returned to the organization; or

(B) The fair market value of the property on the date the excess benefit transaction occurred.

(ii) Payment not equal to correction amount. If the payment described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section is less than the correction amount (as described in paragraph (c) of this section), the disqualified person must make an additional cash payment to the organization equal to the difference. Conversely, if the payment described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section exceeds the correction amount (as described in paragraph (c) of this section), the organization may make a cash payment to the disqualified person equal to the difference.

(iii) Disqualified person may not participate in decision. Any disqualified person who received an excess benefit from the excess benefit transaction may not participate in the applicable tax-exempt organization's decision whether to accept the return of specific property under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section.

(c) Correction amount. The correction amount with respect to an excess benefit transaction equals the sum of the excess benefit (as defined in § 53.4958-1(b)) and interest on the excess benefit. The amount of the interest charge for purposes of this section is determined by multiplying the excess benefit by an interest rate, compounded annually, for the period from the date the excess benefit transaction occurred (as defined in § 53.4958-1(e)) to the date of correction. The interest rate used for this purpose must be a rate that equals or exceeds the applicable Federal rate (AFR), compounded annually, for the month in which the transaction occurred. The period from the date the excess benefit transaction occurred to the date of correction is used to determine whether the appropriate AFR is the Federal short-term rate, the Federal mid-term rate, or the Federal long-term rate. See section 1274(d)(1)(A).

(d) Correction where contract has been partially performed. If the excess benefit transaction arises under a contract that has been partially performed, termination of the contractual relationship between the organization and the disqualified person is not required in order to correct. However, the parties may need to modify the terms of any ongoing contract to avoid future excess benefit transactions.

(e) Correction in the case of an applicable tax-exempt organization that has ceased to exist, or is no longer tax-exempt—(1) In general. A disqualified person must correct an excess benefit transaction in accordance with this paragraph where the applicable tax-exempt organization that engaged in the transaction no longer exists or is no longer described in section 501(c)(3) or (4) and exempt from tax under section 501(a).

(2) Section 501(c)(3) organizations. In the case of an excess benefit transaction with a section 501(c)(3) applicable tax-exempt organization, the disqualified person must pay the correction amount, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section, to another organization described in section 501(c)(3) and exempt from tax under section 501(a) in accordance with the dissolution clause contained in the constitutive documents of the applicable tax-exempt organization involved in the excess benefit transaction, provided that—

(i) The organization receiving the correction amount is described in section 170(b)(1)(A) (other than in section 170(b)(1)(A)(vii) and (viii)) and has been in existence and so described for a continuous period of at least 60 calendar months ending on the correction date;

(ii) The disqualified person is not also a disqualified person (as defined in § 53.4958-3) with respect to the organization receiving the correction amount; and

(iii) The organization receiving the correction amount does not allow the disqualified person (or persons described in § 53.4958-3(b) with respect to that person) to make or recommend any grants or distributions by the organization.

(3) Section 501(c)(4) organizations. In the case of an excess benefit transaction with a section 501(c)(4) applicable tax-exempt organization, the disqualified person must pay the correction amount, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section, to a successor section 501(c)(4) organization or, if no tax-exempt successor, to any organization described in section 501(c)(3) or (4) and exempt from tax under section 501(a), provided that the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section are satisfied (except that the requirement that the organization receiving the correction amount is described in section 170(b)(1)(A) (other than in section 170(b)(1)(A)(vii) and (viii)) shall not apply if the organization is described in section 501(c)(4)).

(f) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of this section describing the requirements of correction:

Example 1.W is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. D is a disqualified person with respect to W. W employed D in 1999 and made payments totaling $12t to D as compensation throughout the taxable year. The fair market value of D's services in 1999 was $7t. Thus, D received excess compensation in the amount of $5t, the excess benefit for purposes of section 4958. In accordance with § 53.4958-1(e)(1), the excess benefit transaction with respect to the series of compensatory payments during 1999 is deemed to occur on December 31, 1999, the last day of D's taxable year. In order to correct the excess benefit transaction on June 30, 2002, D must pay W, in cash or cash equivalents, excluding payment with a promissory note, $5t (the excess benefit) plus interest on $5t for the period from the date the excess benefit transaction occurred to the date of correction (i.e., December 31, 1999, to June 30, 2002). Because this period is not more than three years, the interest rate D must use to determine the interest on the excess benefit must equal or exceed the short-term AFR, compounded annually, for December, 1999 (5.74%, compounded annually).

Example 2.X is an applicable tax-exempt organization for purposes of section 4958. B is a disqualified person with respect to X. On January 1, 2000, B paid X $6v for Property F. Property F had a fair market value of $10v on January 1, 2000. Thus, the sales transaction on that date provided an excess benefit to B in the amount of $4v. In order to correct the excess benefit on July 5, 2005, B pays X, in cash or cash equivalents, excluding payment with a promissory note, $4v (the excess benefit) plus interest on $4v for the period from the date the excess benefit transaction occurred to the date of correction (i.e., January 1, 2000, to July 5, 2005). Because this period is over three but not over nine years, the interest rate B must use to determine the interest on the excess benefit must equal or exceed the mid-term AFR, compounded annually, for January, 2000 (6.21%, compounded annually).

Example 3.The facts are the same as in Example 2, except that B offers to return Property F. X agrees to accept the return of Property F, a decision in which B does not participate. Property F has declined in value since the date of the excess benefit transaction. On July 5, 2005, the property has a fair market value of $9v. For purposes of correction, B's return of Property F to X is treated as a payment of $9v, the fair market value of the property determined on the date the property is returned to the organization. If $9v is greater than the correction amount ($4v plus interest on $4v at a rate that equals or exceeds 6.21%, compounded annually, for the period from January 1, 2000, to July 5, 2005), then X may make a cash payment to B equal to the difference.

Example 4.The facts are the same as in Example 3, except that Property F has increased in value since January 1, 2000, the date the excess benefit transaction occurred, and on July 5, 2005, has a fair market value of $13v. For purposes of correction, B's return of Property F to X is treated as a payment of $10v, the fair market value of the property on the date the excess benefit transaction occurred. If $10v is greater than the correction amount ($4v plus interest on $4v at a rate that equals or exceeds 6.21%, compounded annually, for the period from January 1, 2000, to July 5, 2005), then X may make a cash payment to B equal to the difference.

Example 5.The facts are the same as in Example 2. Assume that the correction amount B paid X in cash on July 5, 2005, was $5.58v. On July 4, 2005, X loaned $5.58v to B, in exchange for a promissory note signed by B in the amount of $5.58v, payable with interest at a future date. These facts indicate that B engaged in the loan transaction to circumvent the requirement of this section that (except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) or (4) of this section), the correction amount must be paid only in cash or cash equivalents. As a result, the Commissioner may determine that B effectively transferred property other than cash or cash equivalents, and therefore did not satisfy the correction requirements of this section.

[T.D. 8978, 67 FR 3083, Jan. 23, 2002]

§ 53.4958-8 Special rules.

(a) Substantive requirements for exemption still apply. Section 4958 does not affect the substantive standards for tax exemption under section 501(c)(3) or (4), including the requirements that the organization be organized and operated exclusively for exempt purposes, and that no part of its net earnings inure to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual. Thus, regardless of whether a particular transaction is subject to excise taxes under section 4958, existing principles and rules may be implicated, such as the limitation on private benefit. For example, transactions that are not subject to section 4958 because of the initial contract exception described in § 53.4958-4(a)(3) may, under certain circumstances, jeopardize the organization's tax-exempt status.

(b) Interaction between section 4958 and section 7611 rules for church tax inquiries and examinations. The procedures of section 7611 will be used in initiating and conducting any inquiry or examination into whether an excess benefit transaction has occurred between a church and a disqualified person. For purposes of this rule, the reasonable belief required to initiate a church tax inquiry is satisfied if there is a reasonable belief that a section 4958 tax is due from a disqualified person with respect to a transaction involving a church. See § 301.7611-1 Q&A 19 of this chapter.

(c) Other substantiation requirements. These regulations, in § 53.4958-4(c)(3), set forth specific substantiation rules. Compliance with the specific substantiation rules of that section does not relieve applicable tax-exempt organizations of other rules and requirements of the Internal Revenue Code, regulations, Revenue Rulings, and other guidance issued by the Internal Revenue Service (including the substantiation rules of sections 162 and 274, or § 1.6001-1(a) and (c) of this chapter).

[T.D. 8978, 67 FR 3083, Jan. 23, 2002]

§ 53.4959-1 Taxes on failures by hospital organizations to meet section 501(r)(3).

(a) Excise tax for failure to meet the section 501(r)(3) requirements—(1) In general. If a hospital organization (as defined in § 1.501(r)-1(b)(18)) fails to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) separately with respect to a hospital facility it operates in any taxable year, there is imposed on the hospital organization a tax equal to $50,000. If a hospital organization operates multiple hospital facilities and fails to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) with respect to more than one facility it operates, the $50,000 tax is imposed on the hospital organization separately for each hospital facility's failure. The tax is imposed for each taxable year that a hospital facility fails to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3).

(2) Examples. The following examples illustrate this paragraph (a):

Example 1. (i) U is a hospital organization that operates only one hospital facility, V. In Year 1, V conducts a community health needs assessment (CHNA) and adopts an implementation strategy to meet the health needs identified through the CHNA. In Years 2 and 3, V does not conduct a CHNA. V fails to conduct a CHNA by the last day of Year 4. Accordingly, U has failed to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) with respect to V in Year 4 because V has failed to conduct a CHNA in Years 2, 3, and 4. U is subject to a tax equal to $50,000 for Year 4.

(ii) V also fails to conduct a CHNA by the last day of Year 5. Accordingly, U has failed to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) with respect to V in Year 5 because V has failed to conduct a CHNA in Years 3, 4, and 5. U is subject to a tax equal to $50,000 for Year 5.

Example 2.P is a hospital organization that operates only one hospital facility, Q. In Year 1, Q conducts a CHNA and adopts an implementation strategy to meet the health needs identified through the CHNA. In Years 2 and 3, Q does not conduct a CHNA. In Year 4, Q conducts a CHNA but does not adopt an implementation strategy to meet the health needs identified through that CHNA by the 15th day of the fifth month of Year 5. Accordingly, P has failed to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) with respect to Q in Year 4 because Q has failed to adopt an implementation strategy by the 15th day of the fifth month after the end of the taxable year in which Q conducted its CHNA. P is subject to a tax equal to $50,000 for Year 4.

Example 3.R is a hospital organization that operates two hospital facilities, S and T. In Year 1, S and T each conduct a CHNA and adopt an implementation strategy to meet the health needs identified through the CHNA. In Years 2 and 3, S and T do not conduct a CHNA. S and T each fail to conduct a CHNA by the last day of Year 4. Accordingly, R has failed to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) with respect to both S and T in Year 4. R is subject to a tax equal to $100,000 ($50,000 for S's failure plus $50,000 for T's failure) for Year 4.

(b) Interaction with other provisions—(1) Correction. Unless a hospital organization's failure to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) involves an omission or error that is described in and corrected in accordance with § 1.501(r)-2(b) (and is thus not considered a failure), a failure to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) will result in a tax being imposed on the organization under this section, notwithstanding the organization's correction and disclosure of the failure in accordance with the guidance described in § 1.501(r)-2(c).

(2) Interaction with other taxes. The tax imposed by this section is in addition to any tax imposed by § 1.501(r)-2(d) or as a result of revocation of a hospital organization's section 501(c)(3) status.

(c) Effective/applicability date. Paragraph (a) of this section applies on and after December 29, 2014.

[T.D. 9708, 79 FR 79015, Dec. 31, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 12765, Mar. 11, 2015]

§ 53.4960-0 Table of contents.

§ 53.4960-1 Scope and definitions.

(a) Scope.

(b) Applicable tax-exempt organization.

(1) In general.

(i) Section 501(a) organization.

(ii) Section 521 farmers' cooperative.

(iii) Section 115(1) organization.

(iv) Section 527 political organization.

(2) Certain foreign organizations.

(3) [Reserved]

(c) Applicable year.

(1) In general.

(2) Examples.

(3) Short applicable years.

(i) In general.

(ii) Initial year of ATEO status.

(iii) Year of termination of ATEO status.

(A) Termination on or before the close of the calendar year ending with or within the taxable year of termination.

(B) Termination after the close of the calendar year ending in the taxable year of termination.

(4) Examples.

(d) Covered employee.

(1) In general.

(2) Five highest-compensated employees.

(i) In general.

(ii) Limited hours exception.

(A) In general.

(1) Remuneration requirement.

(2) Hours of service requirement.

(B) Certain payments disregarded.

(C) Safe harbor.

(iii) Nonexempt funds exception.

(A) In general.

(1) Remuneration requirement.

(2) Hours of service requirement.

(3) Related organizations requirement.

(B) Certain payments disregarded.

(iv) Limited services exception.

(A) Remuneration requirement.

(B) Related ATEO requirement.

(1) Ten percent remuneration condition.

(2) Less remuneration condition.

(3) Examples.

(e) Employee.

(1) In general.

(2) Directors.

(3) Trustees.

(f) Employer.

(1) In general.

(2) Disregarded entities.

(g) Medical services.

(1) Medical and veterinary services.

(i) In general.

(ii) Examples.

(2) Definition of licensed medical professional.

(h) Predecessor.

(1) Asset acquisitions.

(2) Corporate reorganizations.

(3) Predecessor change of form or of place of organization.

(4) ATEO that becomes a non-ATEO.

(i) General rule.

(ii) Intervening changes or entities.

(5) Predecessor of a predecessor.

(6) Elections under sections 336(e) and 338.

(7) Date of transaction.

(i) Related organization.

(1) In general.

(i) Controls or controlled by test.

(ii) Controlled by same persons test.

(iii) Supported organization test.

(iv) Supporting organization test.

(v) VEBA test.

(2) Control.

(i) In general.

(ii) Stock corporation.

(iii) Partnership.

(iv) Trust.

(v) Nonstock organization.

(A) In general.

(B) Control of a trustee or director of a nonstock organization.

(C) Representatives.

(vi) Brother-sister related organizations.

(vii) Section 318 principles.

(A) In general.

(B) Nonstock organizations.

(1) Attribution of ownership interest from a nonstock organization to a controlling person.

(2) Attribution of ownership interest from a controlling person to a nonstock organization.

(3) Indirect control of a nonstock organization through another nonstock organization.

(4) Attribution of control of nonstock organization to family member.

(3) Examples.

§ 53.4960-2 Determination of remuneration paid for a taxable year.

(a) Remuneration.

(1) In general.

(2) Exclusion of remuneration for medical services.

(i) In general.

(ii) Allocation of remuneration for medical services and non-medical services.

(iii) Examples.

(b) Source of payment.

(1) Remuneration paid by third parties for employment by an employer.

(2) Remuneration paid by a related organization for employment by the related organization.

(c) Applicable year in which remuneration is treated as paid.

(1) In general.

(2) Vested remuneration.

(3) Change in related status during the year.

(d) Amount of remuneration treated as paid.

(1) In general.

(2) Earnings and losses on previously paid remuneration.

(i) In general.

(ii) Previously paid remuneration.

(A) New covered employee.

(B) Existing covered employee.

(iii) Earnings.

(iv) Losses.

(v) Net earnings.

(vi) Net losses.

(3) Remuneration paid for a taxable year before the employee becomes a covered employee.

(i) In general.

(ii) Examples.

(e) Calculation of present value.

(1) In general.

(2) Treatment of future payment amount as present value for certain amounts.

(f) Examples.

§ 53.4960-3 Determination of whether there is a parachute payment.

(a) Parachute payment.

(1) In general.

(2) Exclusions.

(i) Certain qualified plans.

(ii) Certain annuity contracts.

(iii) Compensation for medical services.

(iv) Payments to non-HCEs.

(3) Determination of HCEs for purposes of the exclusion from parachute payments.

(b) Payment in the nature of compensation.

(1) In general.

(2) Consideration paid by covered employee.

(c) When payment is considered to be made.

(1) In general.

(2) Transfers of section 83 property.

(3) Stock options.

(d) Payment contingent on an employee's separation from employment.

(1) In general.

(2) Employment agreements.

(i) In general.

(ii) Example.

(3) Noncompetition agreements.

(4) Payment of amounts previously included in income or excess remuneration.

(5) Window programs.

(6) Anti-abuse provision.

(e) Involuntary separation from employment.

(1) In general.

(2) Separation from employment for good reason.

(i) In general.

(ii) Material negative change required.

(iii) Deemed material negative change.

(A) Material diminution of compensation.

(B) Material diminution of responsibility.

(C) Material diminution of authority of a supervisor.

(D) Material diminution of a location.

(E) Material change of location.

(F) Other material breach.

(3) Separation from employment.

(f) Accelerated payment or accelerated vesting resulting from an involuntary separation from employment.

(1) In general.

(2) Nonvested payments subject to a non-service vesting condition.

(3) Vested payments.

(4) Nonvested payments subject to a service vesting condition.

(i) In general.

(A) Vesting trigger.

(B) Vesting condition.

(C) Services condition.

(ii) Value of the lapse of the obligation to continue to perform services.

(iii) Accelerated vesting of equity compensation.

(5) Application to benefits under a nonqualified deferred compensation plan.

(6) Present value.

(7) Examples.

(g) Three-times-base-amount test for parachute payments.

(1) In general.

(2) Examples.

(h) Calculating present value.

(1) In general.

(2) Deferred payments.

(3) Health care.

(i) Discount rate.

(j) Present value of a payment to be made in the future that is contingent on an uncertain future event or condition.

(1) Treatment based on the estimated probability of payment.

(2) Correction of incorrect estimates.

(3) Initial option value estimate.

(4) Examples.

(k) Base amount.

(1) In general.

(2) Short or incomplete taxable years.

(3) Excludable fringe benefits.

(4) Section 83(b) income.

(l) Base period.

(1) In general.

(2) Determination of base amount if employee separates from employment in the year hired.

(3) Examples.

§ 53.4960-4 Liability for tax on excess remuneration and excess parachute payments.

(a) Liability, reporting, and payment of excise taxes.

(1) Liability.

(2) Reporting and payment.

(3) Arrangements between an ATEO and a related organization.

(4) Certain foreign related organizations.

(5) [Reserved]

(b) Amounts subject to tax.

(1) Excess remuneration.

(i) In general.

(ii) Exclusion for excess parachute payments.

(2) Excess parachute payment.

(c) Calculation of liability for tax on excess remuneration.

(1) In general.

(2) Calculation if liability is allocated from more than one ATEO with respect to an individual.

(3) Calculation if liability is allocated from an ATEO with a short applicable year.

(4) Examples.

(d) Calculation of liability for excess parachute payments.

(1) In general.

(2) Computation of excess parachute payments.

(3) Reallocation when the payment is disproportionate to base amount.

(4) Election to prepay tax.

(5) Liability after a redetermination of total parachute payments.

(6) Examples.

§ 53.4960-5 [Reserved] § 53.4960-6 Applicability date.

(a) General applicability date.

(b) [Reserved]

[T.D. 9938, 86 FR 6219, Jan. 19, 2021; 86 FR 23865, May 5, 2021]

§ 53.4960-1 Scope and definitions.

(a) Scope. This section provides definitions for purposes of section 4960, this section, and §§ 53.4960-2 through 53.4960-6. Section 53.4960-2 provides definitions and rules for determining the amount of remuneration paid for a taxable year. Section 53.4960-3 provides definitions and rules for determining whether a parachute payment is paid. Section 53.4960-4 provides definitions and rules for calculating the amount of excess remuneration paid for a taxable year, excess parachute payments paid in a taxable year, and liability for the excise tax. Section 53.4960-5 is reserved for rules on the coordination of sections 4960 and 162(m). Section 53.4960-6 provides rules regarding the applicability date for the regulations in §§ 53.4960-1 through 53.4960-5. The rules and definitions provided in this section through § 53.4960-6 apply solely for purposes of section 4960 unless specified otherwise.

(b) Applicable tax-exempt organization—(1) In general. Applicable tax-exempt organization or ATEO means any organization that is one of the following types of organizations:

(i) Section 501(a) organization. The organization is exempt from taxation under section 501(a) (except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section);

(ii) Section 521 farmers' cooperative. The organization is a farmers' cooperative organization described in section 521(b)(1);

(iii) Section 115(1) organization. The organization has income excluded from taxation under section 115(1); or

(iv) Section 527 political organization. The organization is a political organization described in section 527(e)(1).

(2) Certain foreign organizations. Any foreign organization described in section 4948(b) that either is exempt from tax under section 501(a) or is a taxable private foundation (section 4948(b) organization) is not an ATEO. A foreign organization is an organization not created or organized in the United States or in any possession thereof, or under the law of the United States, any State, the District of Columbia, or any possession of the United States. See section 4948(b) and § 53.4948-1. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2) and the application of section 4960 to a taxable year, an organization's status as a section 4948(b) organization is determined at the end of its taxable year.

(c) Applicable year—(1) In general. Applicable year means the calendar year ending with or within the ATEO's taxable year. See § 53.4960-4 regarding how an ATEO's applicable year affects the liability of related organizations.

(2) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(i) Example 1 (Calendar year taxpayer)—(A) Facts. ATEO 1 uses the calendar year as its taxable year and became an ATEO before 2022.

(B) Conclusion. ATEO 1's applicable year for its 2022 taxable year is the period from January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022 (that is, the 2022 calendar year).

(ii) Example 2 (Fiscal year taxpayer)—(A) Facts. ATEO 2 uses a taxable year that starts July 1 and ends June 30 and became an ATEO before 2022.

(B) Conclusion. ATEO 2's applicable year for the taxable year beginning July 1, 2022, and ending June 30, 2023, is the 2022 calendar year.

(3) Short applicable years—(i) In general. An ATEO may have an applicable year that does not span the entire calendar year for the initial taxable year that the organization is an ATEO or for the taxable year in which the taxpayer ceases to be an ATEO. The beginning and end dates of the applicable year in the case of an ATEO's change in status depend on when the change in status occurs.

(ii) Initial year of ATEO status. For the taxable year in which an ATEO first becomes an ATEO, applicable year means the period beginning on the date the ATEO first becomes an ATEO and ending on the last day of the calendar year ending with or within such taxable year (or, if earlier, the date of termination of ATEO status, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section). If the taxable year in which an ATEO first becomes an ATEO ends before the end of the calendar year in which the ATEO first becomes an ATEO, then there is no applicable year for the ATEO's first taxable year; however, for the ATEO's next taxable year, applicable year means the period beginning on the date the ATEO first becomes an ATEO and ending on December 31 of the calendar year (or, if earlier, the date of termination of ATEO status, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section).

(iii) Year of termination of ATEO status—(A) Termination on or before the close of the calendar year ending with or within the taxable year of termination. If an ATEO has a termination of ATEO status during the taxable year and the termination of ATEO status occurs on or before the close of the calendar year ending with or within such taxable year, then, for the taxable year of termination of ATEO status, applicable year means the period starting January 1 of the calendar year of the termination of ATEO status and ending on the date of the termination of ATEO status.

(B) Termination after the close of the calendar year ending in the taxable year of termination. If an ATEO has a termination of ATEO status during the taxable year and the termination of ATEO status occurs after the close of the calendar year ending within such taxable year, then, for the taxable year of the termination of ATEO status, applicable year means both the calendar year ending within such taxable year and the period beginning January 1 of the calendar year of the termination of ATEO status and ending on the date of the termination of ATEO status. Both such applicable years are treated as separate applicable years. See § 53.4960-4(b)(2)(ii) for rules regarding calculation of the tax in the event there are multiple applicable years associated with a taxable year.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of paragraph (c)(3) of this section. For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO and any entity referred to as “CORP” is not an ATEO.

(i) Example 1 (Taxable year of formation ending after December 31)—(A) Facts. ATEO 1, ATEO 2, and CORP 1 are related organizations that all use a taxable year that starts July 1 and ends June 30. ATEO 1 is recognized as a section 501(c)(3) organization by the IRS on May 8, 2023, effective as of October 1, 2022. ATEO 2 became an ATEO in 2017.

(B) Conclusion (ATEO 1). ATEO 1's applicable year for the taxable year beginning October 1, 2022, and ending June 30, 2023, is the period beginning October 1, 2022, and ending December 31, 2022. For purposes of determining the amount of remuneration paid by ATEO 1 and all related organizations for ATEO 1's taxable year beginning October 1, 2022, and ending June 30, 2023, (including for purposes of determining ATEO 1's covered employees), only remuneration paid between October 1, 2022, and December 31, 2022, is taken into account. Thus, any remuneration paid by ATEO 1, ATEO 2, and CORP 1 before October 1, 2022, is disregarded for purposes of ATEO 1's applicable year associated with its initial taxable year.

(C) Conclusion (ATEO 2). ATEO 2's applicable year for its taxable year beginning July 1, 2022, and ending June 30, 2023, is the 2022 calendar year. Thus, any remuneration paid by ATEO 1, ATEO 2, and CORP 1 during the 2022 calendar year is taken into account for purposes of determining ATEO 2's covered employees and remuneration paid for ATEO 2's taxable year ending June 30, 2023.

(ii) Example 2 (Taxable year of formation ending before December 31)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section (Example 1), except that ATEO 1 is recognized as a section 501(c)(3) organization effective as of March 15, 2023.

(B) Conclusion. ATEO 1 has no applicable year for the taxable year starting March 15, 2023, and ending June 30, 2023, because no calendar year ends (or termination of ATEO status occurs) with or within the taxable year. ATEO 1's applicable year for the taxable year ending June 30, 2024, is the period beginning March 15, 2023, and ending December 31, 2023. For purposes of determining the amount of remuneration paid by ATEO 1 and all related organizations for ATEO 1's taxable year ending June 30, 2024 (including for purposes of determining ATEO 1's covered employees), only remuneration paid between March 15, 2023, and December 31, 2023, is taken into account. The conclusion for ATEO 2 is the same as in paragraph (c)(4)(i)(C) of this section (Example 1).

(iii) Example 3 (Termination before the close of the calendar year ending in the taxable year of termination)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section (Example 1). In addition, ATEO 1 has a termination of ATEO status on September 30, 2024.

(B) Conclusion. For ATEO 1's taxable year beginning July 1, 2024, and ending September 30, 2024, ATEO 1's applicable year is the period beginning January 1, 2024, and ending September 30, 2024.

(iv) Example 4 (Termination after the close of the calendar year ending in the taxable year of termination)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (c)(4)(i)(A) of this section (Example 1). In addition, ATEO 1 has a termination of ATEO status on March 31, 2025.

(B) Conclusion. For ATEO 1's taxable year beginning July 1, 2024, and ending March 31, 2025, ATEO 1 has two applicable years: the 2024 calendar year, and the period beginning on January 1, 2025, and ending on March 31, 2025.

(d) Covered employee—(1) In general. For each taxable year, covered employee means any individual who is one of the five highest-compensated employees of the ATEO for the taxable year or was a covered employee of the ATEO (or any predecessor) for any preceding taxable year beginning after December 31, 2016.

(2) Five highest-compensated employees—(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d)(2), an individual is one of an ATEO's five highest- compensated employees for the taxable year if the individual is among the five employees of the ATEO with the highest amount of remuneration paid during the applicable year, as determined under § 53.4960-2. However, remuneration for which the deduction is disallowed by reason of section 162(m) is taken into account for purposes of determining an ATEO's five highest-compensated employees. The five highest-compensated employees of an ATEO for the taxable year are identified on the basis of the total remuneration paid during the applicable year to the employee for services performed as an employee of the ATEO or any related organization. An ATEO may have fewer than five highest-compensated employees for a taxable year if it has fewer than five employees other than employees who are disregarded under paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(2), a grant of a legally binding right (within the meaning of § 1.409A-1(b)) to vested remuneration is considered to be remuneration paid as of the date of grant, as described in § 53.4960-2(c)(2), and a person or governmental entity is considered to grant a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration if the person or governmental entity grants a legally binding right to remuneration that is not vested within the meaning of § 53.4960-2(c)(2). An employee is disregarded for purposes of determining an ATEO's five highest-compensated employees for a taxable year if, during the applicable year, neither the ATEO nor any related organization paid remuneration or granted a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration to the individual for services the individual performed as an employee of the ATEO or any related organization.

(ii) Limited hours exception—(A) In general. An individual is disregarded for purposes of determining an ATEO's five highest-compensated employees for a taxable year if all of the following requirements are met:

(1) Remuneration requirement. Neither the ATEO nor any related ATEO paid remuneration or granted a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration to the individual for services the individual performed as an employee of the ATEO during the applicable year; and

(2) Hours of service requirement. The individual performed services as an employee of the ATEO and all related ATEOs for no more than 10 percent of the total hours the individual worked as an employee of the ATEO and any related organizations during the applicable year. An ATEO may instead make this determination based on the total days the individual worked as an employee of the ATEO and all related ATEOs as a percentage of the total days worked as an employee of the ATEO and all related organizations, provided that for purposes of the calculation, any day that the individual worked at least one hour as an employee of the ATEO or a related ATEO is treated as a day worked as an employee of the ATEO and not for any other organization.

(B) Certain payments disregarded. For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A)(1) of this section, a payment of remuneration made to the individual by a related organization that is an employer of the individual and for which the related organization is neither entitled to reimbursement by the ATEO nor entitled to any other consideration from the ATEO is not considered remuneration paid by the ATEO under § 53.4960-2(b)(1), and a payment of remuneration made to the individual by a related organization is not treated as remuneration paid by the ATEO under § 53.4960-2(b)(2).

(C) Safe harbor. For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(A)(2) of this section, an individual is treated as having performed services as an employee of the ATEO and all related ATEOs for no more than 10 percent of the total hours the individual worked as an employee of the ATEO and all related organizations during the applicable year if the employee performed no more than 100 hours of service as an employee of the ATEO and all related ATEOs during the applicable year.

(iii) Nonexempt funds exception—(A) In general. An individual is disregarded for purposes of determining an ATEO's five highest-compensated employees for a taxable year if all the following requirements are met:

(1) Remuneration requirement. Neither the ATEO, nor any related ATEO, nor any taxable related organization controlled by the ATEO, or by one or more related ATEOs, either alone or together with the ATEO, paid remuneration or granted a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration to the individual for services the individual performed as an employee of an ATEO during the applicable year and the preceding applicable year. For this purpose, whether a taxable related organization is controlled by the ATEO (or one or more related ATEOs) is determined without regard to paragraph (i)(2)(vii)(B)(2) of this section and without regard to section 318(a)(3) for purposes of applying paragraph (i)(2)(vii)(A) of this section, so that an interest in a corporation or nonstock entity is not attributed downward in determining control of the corporation or nonstock entity;

(2) Hours of service requirement. The individual performed services as an employee of the ATEO and any related ATEOs for not more than 50 percent of the total hours worked as an employee of the ATEO and any related organizations during the applicable year and the preceding applicable year. An ATEO may instead make this determination based on the total days the individual worked as an employee of the ATEO and all related ATEOs as a percentage of the total days worked as an employee of the ATEO and all related organizations, provided that for purposes of the calculation, any day that the individual worked at least one hour as an employee of the ATEO or a related ATEO is treated as a day worked as an employee of the ATEO and not for any other organization; and

(3) Related organizations requirement. No related organization that paid remuneration or granted a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration to the individual during the applicable year and the preceding applicable year provided services for a fee to the ATEO, to any related ATEO, or to any taxable related organization controlled by the ATEO or by one or more related ATEOs, either alone or together with the ATEO, during the applicable year and the preceding applicable year. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(A)(3), whether a taxable related organization is controlled by the ATEO (or one or more related ATEOs) is determined without regard to paragraph (i)(2)(vii)(B)(2) of this section and without regard to section 318(a)(3) for purposes of applying paragraph (i)(2)(vii)(A) of this section, so that an interest in a corporation or nonstock entity is not attributed downward in determining control of the corporation or nonstock entity.

(B) Certain payments disregarded. For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(A)(1) of this section, a payment of remuneration made to an individual by a related organization that is an employer of the individual and for which the related organization is neither entitled to reimbursement by the ATEO nor entitled to any other consideration from the ATEO is not considered remuneration paid by the ATEO under § 53.4960-2(b)(1) and a payment of remuneration made to the individual by a related organization is not treated as paid by the ATEO under § 53.4960-2(b)(2).

(iv) Limited services exception. An individual is disregarded for purposes of determining an ATEO's five highest-compensated employees for a taxable year even though the ATEO paid remuneration to the individual if, disregarding § 53.4960-2(b)(2), all of the following requirements are met:

(A) Remuneration requirement. The ATEO did not pay 10 percent or more of the individual's total remuneration for services performed as an employee of the ATEO and all related organizations during the applicable year; and

(B) Related ATEO requirement. The ATEO had at least one related ATEO during the applicable year and one of the following conditions applies:

(1) Ten percent remuneration condition. A related ATEO paid at least 10 percent of the remuneration paid by the ATEO and any related organizations during the applicable year; or

(2) Less remuneration condition. No related ATEO paid at least 10 percent of the total remuneration paid by the ATEO and any related organizations and the ATEO paid less remuneration to the individual than at least one related ATEO during the applicable year.

(3) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (d). For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO, any entity referred to as “CORP” is not an ATEO and is not a publicly held company within the meaning of section 162(m)(2) unless otherwise stated, and each taxpayer uses the calendar year as its taxable year.

(i) Example 1 (Employee of two related ATEOs)—(A) Facts. ATEO 1 and ATEO 2 are related organizations and have no other related organizations. Both employ Employee A during calendar year 2022 and pay remuneration to Employee A for Employee A's services. During 2022, Employee A performed services for 1,000 hours as an employee of ATEO 1 and 1,000 hours as an employee of ATEO 2.

(B) Conclusion. Employee A may be a covered employee of both ATEO 1 and ATEO 2 as one of the five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022 under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section because the exceptions in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section do not apply. Because they are related organizations, ATEO 1 and ATEO 2 must each include the remuneration paid to Employee A by the other during each of their applicable years in determining their respective five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022.

(ii) Example 2 (Employee of an ATEO and a related non-ATEO)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section (Example 1), except that ATEO 1 is instead CORP 1.

(B) Conclusion (CORP 1). For taxable year 2022, CORP 1 is not an ATEO and therefore does not need to identify covered employees.

(C) Conclusion (ATEO 2). Employee A may be a covered employee of ATEO 2 as one of its five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022 under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section because no exception in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section applies. ATEO 2 must include the remuneration paid to Employee A by CORP 1 during its applicable year in determining ATEO 2's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022.

(iii) Example 3 (Amounts for which a deduction is disallowed under section 162(m) are taken into account for purposes of determining the five highest-compensated employees)—(A) Facts. CORP 2 is a publicly held corporation within the meaning of section 162(m)(2) and is a related organization of ATEO 3. ATEO 3 is a corporation that is part of CORP 2's affiliated group (as defined in section 1504, without regard to section 1504(b)) and has no other related organizations. Employee B is a covered employee (as defined in section 162(m)(3)) of CORP 2 and an employee of ATEO 3. In 2022, CORP 2 paid Employee B $8 million of remuneration for services provided as an employee of CORP 2 and ATEO 3 paid Employee B $500,000 of remuneration for services provided as an employee of ATEO 3. $7.5 million of the remuneration is compensation for which a deduction is disallowed pursuant to section 162(m)(1).

(B) Conclusion. The $7.5 million of remuneration for which a deduction is disallowed under section 162(m)(1) is taken into account for purposes of determining ATEO 3's five highest-compensated employees. Thus, ATEO 3 is treated as paying Employee B $8.5 million of remuneration for purposes of determining its five highest-compensated employees.

(iv) Example 4 (Employee disregarded due to receiving no remuneration)—(A) Facts. Employee C is an officer of ATEO 4 who performs more than minor services for ATEO 4. In 2022, neither ATEO 4 nor any related organization paid remuneration or granted a legally binding right to any nonvested remuneration to Employee C. ATEO 4 paid premiums for insurance for liability arising from Employee C's service with ATEO 4, which is properly treated as a working condition fringe benefit excluded from gross income under § 1.132-5.

(B) Conclusion. Even though Employee C is an employee of ATEO 4, Employee C is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 4's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022 under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section because neither ATEO 4 nor any related organization paid Employee C any remuneration (nor did they grant a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration) in applicable year 2022. The working condition fringe benefit is not wages within the meaning of section 3401(a), as provided in section 3401(a)(19), and thus is not remuneration within the meaning of § 53.4960-2(a).

(v) Example 5 (Limited hours exception)—(A) Facts. ATEO 5 and CORP 3 are related organizations. ATEO 5 has no other related organizations. Employee D is an employee of CORP 3. As part of Employee D's duties at CORP 3, Employee D serves as an officer of ATEO 5. Only CORP 3 paid remuneration (or granted a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration) to Employee D and ATEO 5 did not reimburse CORP 3 for any portion of Employee D's remuneration in any manner. During 2022, Employee D provided services as an employee for 2,000 hours to CORP 3 and 200 hours to ATEO 5.

(B) Conclusion. Even though Employee D is an employee of ATEO 5 because Employee D provided more than minor services as an officer, Employee D is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 5's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022. Employee D is disregarded under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section because only CORP 3 paid Employee D any remuneration or granted a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration in applicable year 2022 and Employee D provided services as an employee of ATEO 5 for 200 hours, which is not more than ten percent of the 2,200 total hours (2,000 + 200 = 2,200) worked as an employee of ATEO 5 and all related organizations.

(vi) Example 6 (Limited hours exception)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (d)(3)(v) of this section (Example 5), except that ATEO 5 also provides a reasonable allowance for expenses incurred by Employee D in executing Employee D's duties as an officer of ATEO 5, which is properly excluded from gross income under an accountable plan described in § 1.62-2.

(B) Conclusion. The conclusion is the same as in paragraph (d)(3)(v)(B) of this section (Example 5). Specifically, even though Employee D is an employee of ATEO 5 because Employee D provided more than minor services for ATEO 5, Employee D is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 5's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022 under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section because the expense allowance under the accountable plan is excluded from wages within the meaning of section 3401(a), as provided in § 31.3401(a)-4, and thus is not remuneration within the meaning of § 53.4960-2(a).

(vii) Example 7 (No exception applies due to source of payment)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (d)(3)(v) of this section (Example 5), except that ATEO 5 has a contractual arrangement with CORP 3 to reimburse CORP 3 for the hours of service Employee D provides to ATEO 5 during applicable year 2022 by paying an amount equal to the total remuneration received by Employee D from both ATEO 5 and CORP 3, multiplied by a fraction equal to the hours of service Employee D provided ATEO 5 over Employee D's total hours of service to both ATEO 5 and CORP 3.

(B) Conclusion. Employee D may be one of ATEO 5's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022 under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section because the exceptions in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section do not apply. Pursuant to the contractual arrangement between CORP 3 and ATEO 5, ATEO 5 reimburses CORP 3 for a portion of Employee D's remuneration during applicable year 2022; thus, the exceptions under paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section do not apply. Further, while ATEO 5 paid Employee D less than 10 percent of the total remuneration from ATEO 5 and all related organizations (200 hours of service to ATEO 5/2,200 hours of service to ATEO 5 and all related organizations = 9 percent), it had no related ATEO; thus, the limited services exception under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section does not apply.

(viii) Example 8 (Nonexempt funds exception for part-time services)—(A) Facts. ATEO 6 and CORP 4 are related organizations. ATEO 6 has no other related organizations and does not control CORP 4. During applicable year 2022, Employee E provided 2,000 hours of services as an employee of CORP 4 and 0 hours of services as an employee of ATEO 6; during applicable year 2023, Employee E provided 1,100 hours of services as an employee of CORP 4 and 900 hours of services as an employee of ATEO 6; during applicable year 2024, Employee E provided 1,100 hours of services as an employee of CORP 4 and 900 hours of services as an employee of ATEO 6. ATEO 6 neither paid any remuneration to Employee E nor paid a fee for services to CORP 4 during any applicable year. No exception under paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (ii), or (iv) applies to Employee E.

(B) Conclusion (2023). Employee E is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 6's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2023 under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section because for applicable years 2022 and 2023, Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 for not more than 50 percent of the total hours Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 and CORP 4 (900 hours/4,000 hours), and ATEO 6 neither paid any remuneration to Employee E nor paid a fee for services to CORP 4 during applicable years 2022 and 2023.

(C) Conclusion (2024). Employee E is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 6's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2024 under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section because for applicable years 2023 and 2024, Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 for not more than 50 percent of the total hours Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 and CORP 4 (1,800 hours/4,000 hours), and ATEO 6 neither paid any remuneration to Employee E nor paid a fee for services to CORP 4 during applicable years 2023 and 2024.

(ix) Example 9 (Nonexempt funds for full-time services in one applicable year)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (d)(3)(viii) of this section (Example 8), except that during applicable year 2022, Employee E provided services as an employee for 2,000 hours to CORP 4 and for 0 hours to ATEO 6; during applicable year 2023, Employee E provided services as an employee for 0 hours to CORP 4 and 2,000 hours to ATEO 6; and during applicable year 2024, Employee E resumes employment with CORP 4 so that Employee E provided services as an employee for 2,000 hours to CORP 4 and 0 hours to ATEO 6.

(B) Conclusion (2023). Employee E is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 6's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2023 under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section because for applicable years 2022 and 2023, Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 for not more than 50 percent of the total hours Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 and CORP 4 (2,000 hours/4,000 hours), and ATEO 6 neither paid any remuneration to Employee E nor paid a fee for services to CORP 4 during applicable years 2022 and 2023.

(C) Conclusion (2024). Employee E is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 6's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2024 under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section because for applicable years 2023 and 2024, Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 for not more than 50 percent of the total hours Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 and CORP 4 (2,000 hours/4,000 hours for ATEO 6 and CORP 4), and ATEO 6 neither paid any remuneration to Employee E nor paid a fee for services to CORP 4 during applicable years 2023 and 2024.

(x) Example 10 (Nonexempt funds exception for full-time services across two applicable years)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (d)(3)(viii)(A) of this section (Example 8), except that during applicable year 2022, Employee E provided services as an employee for 2,000 hours to CORP 4 and for 0 hours to ATEO 6; during applicable year 2023, Employee E provided services as an employee for 600 hours to CORP 4 and for 1,400 hours to ATEO 6; and during applicable year 2024, Employee E provided services as an employee for 1,400 hours to CORP 4 and for 600 hours to ATEO 6.

(B) Conclusion (2023). Employee E is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 6's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2023 under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section because for applicable years 2022 and 2023, Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 for not more than 50 percent of the total hours Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 and CORP 4 (1,400 hours/4,000 hours), and ATEO 6 neither paid any remuneration to Employee E, nor paid a fee for services to CORP 4 during applicable years 2022 and 2023.

(C) Conclusion (2024). Employee E is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 6's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2024 under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section because for applicable years 2023 and 2024, Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 for not more than 50 percent of the total hours Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 and CORP 4 (2,000 hours/4,000 hours), and ATEO 6 neither paid any remuneration to Employee E, nor paid a fee for services to CORP 4 during applicable years 2023 and 2024.

(xi) Example 11 (Failure under the nonexempt funds exception)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (d)(3)(viii)(A) of this section (Example 8), except that during applicable year 2022, Employee E provided services as an employee for 2,000 hours to CORP 4 and for 0 hours to ATEO 6; during applicable year 2023, Employee E provided services as an employee for 600 hours to CORP 4 and for 1,400 hours to ATEO 6; and during applicable year 2024, Employee E provided services as an employee for 1,300 hours to CORP 4 and for 700 hours to ATEO 6.

(B) Conclusion (2023). Employee E is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 6's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2023 under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section because for applicable years 2022 and 2023, Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 for less than 50 percent of the total hours Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 and CORP 4 (1,400 hours/4,000 hours), and ATEO 6 neither paid any remuneration to Employee E, nor paid a fee for services to CORP 4 during applicable years 2022 and 2023.

(C) Conclusion (2024). Employee E may be a covered employee of ATEO 6 as one of its five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2024 because the requirements under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) are not met and no other exception applies. For applicable years 2023 and 2024, Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 for more than 50 percent of the total hours Employee E provided services as an employee of ATEO 6 and CORP 4 (2,100 hours/4,000 hours).

(xii) Example 12 (Limited services exception)—(A) Facts. ATEO 7, ATEO 8, ATEO 9, and ATEO 10 are a group of related organizations, none of which have any other related organizations. During 2022, Employee F is an employee of ATEO 7, ATEO 8, ATEO 9, and ATEO 10. During applicable year 2022, ATEO 7 paid 5 percent of Employee F's remuneration, ATEO 8 paid 10 percent of Employee F's remuneration, ATEO 9 paid 25 percent of Employee F's remuneration, and ATEO 10 paid 60 percent of Employee F's remuneration. No exception under paragraph (d)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii) applies to Employee F for any of ATEO 7, ATEO 8, ATEO 9, or ATEO 10.

(B) Conclusion (ATEO 7). Employee F is disregarded for purposes of determining ATEO 7's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022 under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section because ATEO 7 paid less than 10 percent of Employee F's total remuneration from ATEO 7 and all related organizations during applicable year 2022, and another related ATEO paid at least 10 percent of that total remuneration.

(C) Conclusion (ATEO 8, ATEO 9, and ATEO 10). Employee F may be a covered employee of ATEO 8, ATEO 9, and ATEO 10 as one of their respective five highest-compensated employees for their taxable years 2022 because each of those ATEOs paid 10 percent or more of Employee F's remuneration during the 2022 applicable year. Thus, the limited services exception under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section does not apply.

(xiii) Example 13 (Limited services exception if no ATEO paid at least 10 percent of remuneration)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (d)(3)(xii) of this section (Example 12), except that for applicable year 2022, ATEO 7 paid 6 percent of F's remuneration, ATEO 8, ATEO 9, and ATEO 10 each paid 5 percent of Employee F's remuneration, and Employee F also works as an employee of CORP 5, a related organization of ATEO 7, ATEO 8, ATEO 9, and ATEO 10 that paid 79 percent of Employee F's remuneration for applicable year 2022.

(B) Conclusion (ATEO 7). Employee F may be one of ATEO 7's five highest-compensated employees for taxable year 2022. Although ATEO 7 did not pay Employee F 10 percent or more of the total remuneration paid by ATEO 7 and all of its related organizations, no related ATEO paid more than 10 percent of Employee F's remuneration, and ATEO 7 did not pay less remuneration to Employee F than at least one related ATEO. Thus, the limited services exception under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section does not apply, and Employee F may be one of ATEO 7's five highest-compensated employees because ATEO 7 paid Employee F more remuneration than any other related ATEO.

(C) Conclusion (ATEO 8, ATEO 9, and ATEO 10). Employee F is disregarded for purposes of determining the five highest-compensated employees of ATEO 8, ATEO 9, and ATEO 10 for taxable year 2022 under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section because none paid 10 percent or more of Employee F's total remuneration, each had no related ATEO that paid at least 10 percent of Employee F's total remuneration, and each paid less remuneration than at least one related ATEO (ATEO 7).

(e) Employee—(1) In general. Employee means an employee as defined in section 3401(c) and § 31.3401(c)-1. Section 31.3401(c)-1 generally defines an employee as any individual performing services if the relationship between the individual and the person for whom the individual performs services is the legal relationship of employer and employee. As set forth in § 31.3401(c)-1, this includes common law employees, as well as officers and employees of government entities, whether or not elected. An employee generally also includes an officer of a corporation, but an officer of a corporation who as such does not perform any services or performs only minor services and who neither receives, nor is entitled to receive, any remuneration is not considered to be an employee of the corporation solely due to the individual's status as an officer of the corporation. Whether an individual is an employee depends on the facts and circumstances.

(2) Directors. A director of a corporation (or an individual holding a substantially similar position in a corporation or other entity) in the individual's capacity as such is not an employee of the corporation. See § 31.3401(c)-1(f).

(3) Trustees. The principles of paragraph (e)(2) of this section apply by analogy to a trustee of any arrangement classified as a trust for Federal tax purposes in § 301.7701-4(a).

(f) Employer—(1) In general. Employer means an employer within the meaning of section 3401(d), without regard to section 3401(d)(1) or (2), meaning generally the person or governmental entity for whom the services were performed as an employee. Whether a person or governmental entity is the employer depends on the facts and circumstances, but a person does not cease to be the employer through use of a payroll agent under section 3504, a common paymaster under section 3121(s), a person described in section 3401(d)(1) or (2), a certified professional employer organization under section 7705, or any similar arrangement.

(2) Disregarded entities. In the case of a disregarded entity described in § 301.7701-3, § 301.7701-2(c)(2)(iv) does not apply; thus, the sole owner of the disregarded entity is treated as the employer of any individual performing services as an employee of the disregarded entity.

(g) Medical services—(1) Medical and veterinary services—(i) In general. Medical services means services directly performed by a licensed medical professional (as defined in paragraph (g)(2) of this section) for the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or animals; services provided for the purpose of affecting any structure or function of the human or animal body; and other services integral to providing such medical services. For purposes of section 4960, teaching and research services are not medical services except to the extent that they involve the services performed to directly diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease or affect a structure or function of the body. Administrative services may be integral to directly providing medical services. For example, documenting the care and condition of a patient is integral to providing medical services, as is accompanying another licensed professional as a supervisor while that medical professional provides medical services. However, managing an organization's operations, including scheduling, staffing, appraising employee performance, and other similar functions that may relate to a particular medical professional or professionals who perform medical services, is not integral to providing medical services. See § 53.4960-2(a)(2)(ii) for rules regarding allocating remuneration paid to a medical professional who performs both medical services and other services.

(ii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (g):

(A) Example 1 (Administrative tasks that are integral to providing medical services)—(1) Facts. Employee A is a doctor who is licensed to practice medicine in the state in which Employee A's place of employment is located. In the course of Employee A's practice, Employee A treats patients and performs some closely-related administrative tasks, such as examining and updating patient records.

(2) Conclusion. Employee A's administrative tasks are integral to providing medical services and thus are medical services.

(B) Example 2 (Administrative tasks that are not integral to providing medical services)—(1) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (g)(1)(ii)(A)(1) of this section (Example 1), except that Employee A also performs additional administrative tasks such as analyzing the budget, authorizing capital expenditures, and managing human resources for the organization by which Employee A is employed.

(2) Conclusion. Employee A's additional administrative tasks are not integral to providing medical services and thus are not medical services.

(C) Example 3 (Teaching duties that are and are not medical services)—(1) Facts. Employee B is a medical doctor who is licensed to practice medicine in the state in which her place of employment, a university hospital, is located. Employee B's duties include overseeing and teaching a group of resident physicians who have restricted licenses to practice medicine. Those duties include supervising and instructing the resident physicians while they treat patients and instruction in a classroom setting.

(2) Conclusion. Employee B's supervision and instruction of resident physicians during the course of patient treatment are necessary for the treatment, and thus are medical services. Employee B's classroom instruction is not necessary for patient treatment, and thus is not medical services.

(D) Example 4 (Research services that are and are not medical services)—(1) Facts. Employee C is a licensed medical doctor who is employed to work on a research trial. Employee C provides an experimental treatment to patients afflicted by a disease and performs certain closely-related administrative tasks that ordinarily are performed by a medical professional in a course of patient treatment. As part of the research trial, Employee C also compiles and analyzes patient results and prepares reports and articles that would not ordinarily be prepared by a medical professional in the course of patient treatment.

(2) Conclusion. Employee C's services that are ordinarily performed by a medical professional in a course of treatment, including closely-related administrative tasks, are medical services. Because the compilation and analysis of patient results and the formulation of reports and articles are neither services ordinarily performed by a medical professional in a course of treatment nor necessary for such treatment, these services are not medical services.

(2) Definition of licensed medical professional. Licensed medical professional means an individual who is licensed under applicable state or local law to perform medical services, including as a doctor, nurse, nurse practitioner, dentist, veterinarian, or other licensed medical professional.

(h) Predecessor—(1) Asset acquisitions. If an ATEO (acquiror) acquires at least 80 percent of the operating assets or total assets (determined by fair market value on the date of acquisition) of another ATEO (target), then the target is a predecessor of the acquiror. For an acquisition of assets that occurs over time, only assets acquired within a 12-month period are taken into account to determine whether at least 80 percent of the target's operating assets or total assets were acquired. However, this 12-month period is extended to include any continuous period that ends or begins on any day during which the acquiror has an arrangement to acquire directly or indirectly, assets of the target. Additions to the assets of target made as part of a plan or arrangement to avoid the application of this subsection to acquiror's purchase of target's assets are disregarded in applying this paragraph. This paragraph (h)(1) applies for purposes of determining whether an employee is a covered employee under paragraph (d)(1) of this section only with respect to a covered employee of the target who commences the performance of services for the acquiror (or a related organization with respect to the acquiror) within the period beginning 12 months before and ending 12 months after the date of the transaction as defined in paragraph (h)(7) of this section.

(2) Corporate reorganizations. A predecessor of an ATEO includes another separate ATEO the stock or assets of which are acquired in a corporate reorganization as defined in section 368(a)(1)(A), (C), (D), (E), (F), or (G) (including by reason of section 368(a)(2)).

(3) Predecessor change of form or of place of organization. An ATEO that restructured by changing its organizational form or place of organization (or both) is a predecessor of the restructured ATEO.

(4) ATEO that becomes a non-ATEO—(i) General rule. An organization is a predecessor of an ATEO if it ceases to be an ATEO and then again becomes an ATEO effective on or before the predecessor end date. The predecessor end date is the date that is 36 months following the date that the organization's Federal information return under section 6033 (or, for an ATEO described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) or (iii) of this section, its Federal income tax return under section 6011(a)) is due (or would be due if the organization were required to file), excluding any extension, for the last taxable year for which the organization previously was an ATEO. If the organization becomes an ATEO again effective after the predecessor end date, then the former ATEO is treated as a separate organization that is not a predecessor of the current ATEO.

(ii) Intervening changes or entities. If an ATEO that ceases to be an ATEO (former ATEO) would be treated as a predecessor to an organization that becomes an ATEO before the predecessor end date (successor ATEO), and if the former ATEO would be treated as a predecessor to each intervening entity (if such intervening entities had been ATEOs) under the rules of this paragraph (h), then the former ATEO is a predecessor of the successor ATEO. For example, if ATEO 1 loses its tax-exempt status and then merges into Corporation X, Corporation X then merges into Corporation Y, and Corporation Y becomes an ATEO before the predecessor end date, then ATEO 1 is a predecessor of Corporation Y.

(5) Predecessor of a predecessor. A reference to a predecessor includes any predecessor or predecessors of such predecessor, as determined under these rules.

(6) Elections under sections 336(e) and 338. For purposes of this paragraph (h), when an ATEO organized as a corporation makes an election to treat as an asset purchase either the sale, exchange, or distribution of stock pursuant to regulations under section 336(e) or the purchase of stock pursuant to regulations under section 338, the corporation that issued the stock is treated as the same corporation both before and after such transaction.

(7) Date of transaction. For purposes of this paragraph (h), the date that a transaction is treated as having occurred is the date on which all events necessary to complete the transaction described in the relevant provision have occurred.

(i) Related organization—(1) In general. Related organization means any person or governmental entity, domestic or foreign, that meets any of the following tests:

(i) Controls or controlled by test. The person or governmental entity controls, or is controlled by, the ATEO;

(ii) Controlled by same persons test. The person or governmental entity is controlled by one or more persons that control the ATEO;

(iii) Supported organization test. The person or governmental entity is a supported organization (as defined in section 509(f)(3)) with respect to the ATEO;

(iv) Supporting organization test. The person or governmental entity is a supporting organization described in section 509(a)(3) with respect to the ATEO; or

(v) VEBA test. With regard to an ATEO that is a voluntary employees' beneficiary association (VEBA) described in section 501(c)(9), the person or governmental entity establishes, maintains, or makes contributions to such VEBA.

(2) Control—(i) In general. Control may be direct or indirect. For rules concerning application of the principles of section 318 in applying this paragraph (i)(2), see paragraph (i)(2)(vii) of this section.

(ii) Stock corporation. A person or governmental entity controls a stock corporation if it owns (by vote or value) more than 50 percent of the stock in the stock corporation.

(iii) Partnership. A person or governmental entity controls a partnership if it owns more than 50 percent of the profits interests or capital interests in the partnership, determined in accordance with the rules and principles of § 1.706-1(b)(4)(ii) for a partner's interest in the profits of a partnership and § 1.706-1(b)(4)(iii) for a partner's interest in the capital of a partnership.

(iv) Trust. A person or governmental entity controls a trust if it owns more than 50 percent of the beneficial interests in the trust, determined by actuarial value.

(v) Nonstock organization—(A) In general. A person or governmental entity controls a nonstock organization if more than 50 percent of the trustees or directors of the nonstock organization are either representatives of, or directly or indirectly controlled by, the person or governmental entity. A nonstock organization is a nonprofit organization or other organization without owners and includes a governmental entity.

(B) Control of a trustee or director of a nonstock organization. A person or governmental entity controls a trustee or director of the nonstock organization if the person or governmental entity has the power (either at will or at regular intervals) to remove such trustee or director and designate a new one.

(C) Representatives. Trustees, directors, officers, employees, or agents of a person or governmental entity are deemed representatives of the person or governmental entity. However, an employee of a person or governmental entity (other than a trustee, director, or officer, or an employee who possesses at least the authority commonly exercised by an officer) who is a director or trustee of a nonstock organization (or acting in that capacity) will not be treated as a representative of the person or governmental entity if the employee does not act as a representative of the person or governmental entity and that fact is reported in the form and manner prescribed by the Commissioner in forms and instructions.

(vi) Brother-sister related organizations. Under paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section, an organization is a related organization with respect to an ATEO if one or more persons control both the ATEO and the other organization. In the case of control by multiple persons, the control tests described in this paragraph (i)(2) of this section apply to the persons as a group. For example, if 1,000 individuals who are members of both ATEO 1 and ATEO 2 elect a majority of the board members of each organization, then ATEO 1 and ATEO 2 are related to each other because the same group of 1,000 persons controls both ATEO 1 and ATEO 2.

(vii) Section 318 principles—(A) In general. Section 318 (relating to constructive ownership of stock) applies in determining ownership of stock in a corporation. The principles of section 318 also apply for purposes of determining ownership of interests in a partnership or in a trust with beneficial interests. For example, applying the principles of section 318(a)(1)(A), an individual is considered to own the partnership interest or trust interest owned, directly or indirectly, by or for the family members specified in such section.

(B) Nonstock organizations—(1) Attribution of ownership interest from a nonstock organization to a controlling person. If a person or governmental entity controls a nonstock organization, the person or governmental entity is treated as owning a percentage of the stock (or partnership interest or beneficial interest in a trust) owned by the nonstock organization in accordance with the percentage of trustees or directors of the nonstock organization that are representatives of, or directly or indirectly controlled by, the person or governmental entity.

(2) Attribution of ownership interest from a controlling person to a nonstock organization. If a person or governmental entity controls a nonstock organization, the nonstock organization is treated as owning a percentage of the stock (or partnership interest or beneficial interest in a trust) owned by the person or governmental entity in accordance with the percentage of trustees or directors of the nonstock organization that are representatives of, or directly or indirectly controlled by, the person or governmental entity.

(3) Indirect control of a nonstock organization through another nonstock organization. If a person or governmental entity controls one nonstock organization that controls a second nonstock organization, the person or governmental entity is treated as controlling the second nonstock organization if the product of the percentage of trustees or directors of the first nonstock organization that are representatives of, or directly or indirectly controlled by, the person or governmental entity, multiplied by the percentage of trustees or directors of the second nonstock organization that are representatives of, or directly or indirectly controlled by, the person or governmental entity or first nonstock organization, exceeds 50 percent. Similar principles apply to successive tiers of nonstock organizations.

(4) Attribution of control of nonstock organization to family member. An individual's control of a nonstock organization or of a trustee or director of a nonstock organization is attributed to the members of the individual's family (as set forth in section 318(a)(1) and the regulations thereunder), subject to the limitation of section 318(a)(5)(B) and the regulations thereunder.

(3) Examples. The following examples illustrate the principles of this paragraph (i). For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO and any entity referred to as “CORP” is not an ATEO.

(i) Example 1 (Related through a chain of control)—(A) Facts. ATEO 1, ATEO 2, and ATEO 3 are nonstock organizations. ATEO 3 owns 80 percent of the stock (by value) of corporation CORP 1. Eighty percent of ATEO 2's directors are representatives of ATEO 1. In addition, 80 percent of ATEO 3's directors are representatives of ATEO 1.

(B) Conclusion. ATEO 1 is a related organization with respect to ATEO 2 (and vice versa) because more than 50 percent of ATEO 2's directors are representatives of ATEO 1; thus, ATEO 1 controls ATEO 2. Based on the same analysis, ATEO 1 is also a related organization with respect to ATEO 3 (and vice versa). CORP 1 is a related organization with respect to ATEO 3 because, as the owner of more than 50 percent of CORP 1's stock, ATEO 3 controls CORP 1. Applying the principles of section 318, ATEO 1 is deemed to own 64 percent of the stock of CORP 1 (80 percent of ATEO 3's stock in CORP 1). Thus, CORP 1 is a related organization with respect to ATEO 1 because ATEO 1 controls CORP 1. ATEO 2 is a related organization with respect to ATEO 3, ATEO 3 is a related organization with respect to ATEO 2, and CORP 1 is a related organization with respect to ATEO 2 because ATEO 2, ATEO 3, and CORP 1 are all controlled by the same person (ATEO 1).

(ii) Example 2 (Not related through a chain of control)—(A) Facts. ATEO 4, ATEO 5, and ATEO 6 are nonstock organizations. Sixty percent of ATEO 5's directors are representatives of ATEO 4. In addition, 60 percent of ATEO 6's directors are representatives of ATEO 5, but none are representatives of ATEO 4.

(B) Conclusion. ATEO 4 is a related organization with respect to ATEO 5 (and vice versa) because more than 50 percent of ATEO 5's directors are representatives of ATEO 4; thus, ATEO 4 controls ATEO 5. Based on the same analysis, ATEO 6 is a related organization with respect to ATEO 5 (and vice versa). Applying the principles of section 318, ATEO 4 is deemed to control 36 percent of ATEO 6's directors (60 percent of ATEO 5's 60 percent control over ATEO 6). Because less than 50 percent of ATEO 6's directors are representatives of ATEO 4, and absent any facts suggesting that ATEO 4 directly or indirectly controls ATEO 6, ATEO 4 and ATEO 6 are not related organizations with respect to each other.

[T.D. 9938, 86 FR 6219, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 53.4960-2 Determination of remuneration paid for a taxable year.

(a) Remuneration—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4960, remuneration means any amount that is wages as defined in section 3401(a), excluding any designated Roth contribution (as defined in section 402A(c)) and including any amount required to be included in gross income under section 457(f). Remuneration includes amounts includible in gross income as compensation for services as an employee pursuant to a below-market loan described in section 7872(c)(1)(B)(i) (compensation-related loans) but does not include amounts excepted by section 7872(c)(3) ($10,000 de minimis exception). For example, see § 1.7872-15(e)(1)(i). Director's fees paid by a corporation to a director of the corporation are not remuneration, provided that if the director is also an employee of the corporation, the director's fees are excluded from remuneration only to the extent that they do not exceed fees paid to a director who is not an employee of the corporation or any related organization or, if there is no such director, they do not exceed reasonable director's fees. Remuneration does not include any amount that vested or was paid by a taxpayer before the start of the taxpayer's first taxable year that began on or after January 1, 2018.

(2) Exclusion of remuneration for medical services—(i) In general. Remuneration does not include the portion of any remuneration paid to a licensed medical professional that is for the performance of medical services by such professional.

(ii) Allocation of remuneration for medical services and non-medical services. If, during an applicable year, an employer pays a covered employee remuneration for providing both medical services and non-medical services, the employer must make a reasonable, good faith allocation between the remuneration for medical services and the remuneration for non-medical services. For example, if a medical doctor receives current remuneration (or vests in remuneration under a deferred compensation plan) for providing medical services and administrative or management services, the employer must make a reasonable, good faith allocation between the remuneration for the medical services and the remuneration for the administrative or management services. For this purpose, if an employment agreement or similar written arrangement sets forth the remuneration to be paid for particular services, that allocation of remuneration applies unless the facts and circumstances demonstrate that the amount allocated to medical services is unreasonable for those services or that the allocation was established for purposes of avoiding application of the excise tax under section 4960. If some or all of the remuneration is not reasonably allocated in an employment agreement or similar arrangement, an employer may use any reasonable allocation method. For example, an employer may use a representative sample of records, such as patient, insurance, and Medicare/Medicaid billing records or internal time reporting mechanisms to determine the time spent providing medical services, and then allocate remuneration to medical services in the proportion such time bears to the total hours the employee worked for the employer (and any related employer) for purposes of making a reasonable allocation of remuneration. Similarly, if some or all of the remuneration is not reasonably allocated in an employment agreement or other similar arrangement, an employer may use salaries or other remuneration paid by the employer or similarly situated employers for duties comparable to those the employee performs (for example, hospital administrator and physician) for purposes of making a reasonable allocation between remuneration for providing medical services and for providing non-medical services.

(iii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (a)(2). For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO.

(A) Example 1 (Allocation based on employment agreement)—(1) Facts. Employee A is a covered employee of ATEO 1. Employee A is a licensed medical professional who provides patient care services for ATEO 1 and also provides management and administrative services to ATEO 1 as the manager of a medical practice group within ATEO 1. The employment agreement between ATEO 1 and Employee A specifies that of Employee A's salary, 30 percent is allocable to Employee A's services as manager of the medical practice group and 70 percent is allocable to Employee A's services as a medical professional providing patient care services. The facts regarding Employee A's employment indicate the employment agreement provides a reasonable allocation and that the allocation was not established for purposes of avoiding application of the excise tax.

(2) Conclusion. Consistent with Employee A's employment agreement, ATEO 1 must allocate 30 percent of Employee A's salary to the provision of non-medical services and 70 percent of Employee A's salary to the provision of medical services. Accordingly, only the 30 percent portion of Employee A's salary allocated to the other, non-medical services is remuneration for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section.

(B) Example 2 (Allocation based on billing records)—(1) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section (Example 1), except that the employment agreement does not allocate Employee A's salary between medical and non-medical services performed by Employee A. Based on a representative sample of insurance and Medicare billing records, as well as time reports that Employee A submits to ATEO 1, ATEO 1 determines that Employee A spends 50 percent of her work hours providing patient care and 50 percent of her work hours performing administrative and management services. ATEO 1 allocates 50 percent of Employee A's remuneration to medical services.

(2) Conclusion. ATEO 1's allocation of Employee A's salary is a reasonable, good faith allocation. Accordingly, only the 50 percent portion of Employee A's remuneration allocated to the non-medical services is remuneration for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section.

(b) Source of payment. For purposes of this section, the determination of the source of a payment of remuneration may involve the application of one or both of two separate rules described in this paragraph (b). Paragraph (b)(1) of this section addresses payments by a third party for services performed as an employee of a separate employer entity, while paragraph (b)(2) of this section addresses the application of section 4960(c)(4)(A) to treat certain remuneration paid by a related organization (after application of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if applicable) as paid by the ATEO.

(1) Remuneration paid by a third party for employment by an employer. Remuneration paid (or a grant of a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration) by a third-party payor (whether a related organization, payroll agent, agent designated under section 3504, certified professional employer organization under section 7705, or other entity) during an applicable year for services performed as an employee of an employer is remuneration paid (or payable) by the employer, except as otherwise provided in § 53.4960-1(d)(2)(ii) and (iii).

(2) Remuneration paid by a related organization for employment by the related organization. Pursuant to section 4960(c)(4)(A), remuneration paid (or a grant of a legally binding right to nonvested remuneration) by a related organization to an ATEO's employee during an applicable year for services performed as an employee of the related organization is treated as remuneration paid (or payable) by the ATEO, except as otherwise provided in § 53.4960-1(d)(2)(ii) and (iii).

(c) Applicable year in which remuneration is treated as paid—(1) In general. Remuneration that is a regular wage within the meaning of § 31.3402(g)-1(a)(1)(ii) is treated as paid on the date it is actually or constructively paid and all other remuneration is treated as paid on the first date on which the remuneration is vested.

(2) Vested remuneration. Remuneration is vested if it is not subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture within the meaning of section 457(f)(3)(B) (regardless of whether the arrangement under which the remuneration is to be paid is deferred compensation described in section 457(f) or 409A). In general, an amount is subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture if entitlement to the amount is conditioned on the future performance of substantial services or upon the occurrence of a condition that is related to a purpose of the remuneration if the possibility of forfeiture is substantial. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, remuneration that is never subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture is considered paid on the first date the service provider has a legally binding right to the payment. For purposes of this section, a plan means a plan within the meaning of § 1.409A-1(c), an account balance plan means an account balance plan within the meaning of § 1.409A-1(c)(2)(i)(A), and a nonaccount balance plan means a nonaccount balance plan within the meaning of § 1.409A-1(c)(2)(i)(C). Net earnings on previously paid remuneration (described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section) that are not subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture are vested (and, thus, treated as paid) at the earlier of the date actually or constructively paid to the employee or the close of the applicable year in which they accrue. For example, the present value of a principal amount accrued to an employee's account under an account balance plan (under which the earnings and losses attributed to the account are based solely on a predetermined actual investment as determined under § 31.3121(v)(2)-1(d)(2)(i)(B) or a reasonable market interest rate) is treated as paid on the date vested, but the present value of any net earnings subsequently accrued on that amount (the increase in value due to the predetermined actual investment or a reasonable market interest rate) is treated as paid at the close of the applicable year in which they accrue. Similarly, while the present value of an amount accrued under a nonaccount balance (including earnings that accrued while the amount was nonvested) is treated as paid on the date it is first vested, the present value of the net earnings on that amount (the increase in the present value) is treated as paid at the close of the applicable year in which they accrue.

(3) Change in related status during the year. If a taxpayer becomes or ceases to be a related organization with respect to an ATEO during an applicable year, then only the remuneration paid by the taxpayer to an employee with respect to services performed as an employee of the related organization during the portion of the applicable year during which the employer is a related organization is treated as paid by the ATEO. If an amount is treated as paid due to vesting in the year the taxpayer becomes or ceases to be a related organization with respect to the ATEO, then the amount is treated as paid by the ATEO only if the amount becomes vested during the portion of the applicable year that the taxpayer is a related organization with respect to the ATEO.

(d) Amount of remuneration treated as paid—(1) In general. For each applicable year, the amount of remuneration treated as paid by the employer to a covered employee is the sum of regular wages within the meaning of § 31.3402(g)-1(a)(1)(ii) actually or constructively paid during the applicable year and the present value (as determined under paragraph (e) of this section) of all other remuneration that vested during the applicable year. The amount of remuneration that vests during an applicable year is determined on an employer-by-employer basis with respect to each covered employee.

(2) Earnings and losses on previously paid remuneration—(i) In general. The amount of net earnings or losses on previously paid remuneration paid by an employer is determined on an employee-by-employee basis, such that amounts accrued with regard to one employee do not affect amounts accrued with regard to a different employee. Similarly, losses accrued on previously paid remuneration from one employer do not offset earnings accrued on previously paid remuneration from another employer. The amount of net earnings or losses on previously paid remuneration paid by the employer is determined on a net aggregate basis for all plans maintained by the employer in which the employee participates for each applicable year. For example, losses under an account balance plan may offset earnings under a nonaccount balance plan for the same applicable year maintained by the same employer for the same employee.

(ii) Previously paid remuneration—(A) New covered employee. For an individual who was not a covered employee for any prior applicable year, previously paid remuneration means, for the applicable year for which the individual becomes a covered employee, the present value of vested remuneration that was not actually or constructively paid or otherwise includible in the employee's gross income before the start of the applicable year plus any remuneration that vested during the applicable year but that is not actually or constructively paid or otherwise includible in the employee's gross income before the close of the applicable year.

(B) Existing covered employee. For an individual who was a covered employee for any prior applicable year, previously paid remuneration means, for each applicable year, the amount of remuneration that the employer treated as paid in the applicable year or for a prior applicable year but that is not actually or constructively paid or otherwise includible in the employee's gross income before the close of the applicable year. Actual or constructive payment or another event causing an amount of previously paid remuneration to be includible in the employee's gross income thus reduces the amount of previously paid remuneration.

(iii) Earnings. Earnings means any increase in the vested present value of previously paid remuneration as of the close of the applicable year, regardless of whether the plan denominates the increase as earnings. For example, an increase in the vested account balance of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan based solely on the investment return of a predetermined actual investment (and disregarding any additional contributions) constitutes earnings. Similarly, an increase in the vested present value of a benefit under a nonqualified nonaccount balance plan due solely to the passage of time (and disregarding any additional benefit accruals) constitutes earnings. However, an increase in an account balance of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan due to a salary reduction contribution or an employer contribution does not constitute earnings (and therefore may not be offset with losses). Likewise, an increase in the benefit under a nonaccount balance plan due to an additional year of service or an increase in compensation that is reflected in a benefit formula does not constitute earnings.

(iv) Losses. Losses means any decrease in the vested present value of previously paid remuneration as of the close of the applicable year, regardless of whether the plan denominates that decrease as losses.

(v) Net earnings. Net earnings means, for each applicable year, the amount (if any) by which the earnings accrued for the applicable year on previously paid remuneration exceeds the sum of the losses accrued on previously paid remuneration for the applicable year and any net losses carried forward from a previous taxable year.

(vi) Net losses. Net losses means, for each applicable year, the amount (if any) by which the sum of the losses accrued on previously paid remuneration for the applicable year and any net losses carried forward from a previous taxable year exceed the earnings accrued for the applicable year on previously paid remuneration. Losses may only be used to offset earnings and thus do not reduce the remuneration treated as paid for an applicable year except to the extent of the earnings accrued for that applicable year. However, with regard to a covered employee, an employer may carry net losses forward to the next applicable year and offset vested earnings for purposes of determining net earnings or losses for that subsequent applicable year. For example, if a covered employee who participates in a nonaccount balance plan and an account balance plan vests in an amount of earnings under the nonaccount balance plan and has losses under the account balance plan that exceed the vested earnings treated as remuneration under the nonaccount balance plan, those excess losses are carried forward to the next applicable year and offset vested earnings for purposes of determining net earnings or losses for that applicable year. If, for the next applicable year, there are not sufficient earnings to offset the entire amount of losses carried forward from the previous year (and any additional losses), the offset process repeats for each subsequent applicable year until there are sufficient earnings for the applicable year to offset any remaining losses carried forward.

(3) Remuneration paid for a taxable year before the employee becomes a covered employee—(i) In general. In accordance with the payment timing rules of paragraph (c) of this section, any remuneration that is vested but is not actually or constructively paid or otherwise includible in an employee's gross income as of the close of the applicable year for the taxable year immediately preceding the taxable year in which the employee first becomes a covered employee of an ATEO is treated as previously paid remuneration for the taxable year in which the employee first becomes a covered employee. Net losses on this previously paid remuneration from any preceding applicable year do not carry forward to subsequent applicable years. However, net earnings and losses that vest on such previously paid remuneration in subsequent applicable years are treated as remuneration paid for a taxable year for which the employee is a covered employee.

(ii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (d)(3). For purposes of these examples, assume any organization described as “ATEO” is an ATEO.

(A) Example 1 (Earnings on pre-covered employee remuneration)—(1) Facts. ATEO 1 uses a taxable year beginning July 1 and ending June 30. Employee A becomes a covered employee of ATEO 1 for the taxable year beginning July 1, 2023, and ending June 30, 2024. During the 2022 applicable year, Employee A vests in $1 million of nonqualified deferred compensation. As of December 31, 2022, the present value of the amount deferred under the plan is $1.1 million. During the 2023 applicable year, ATEO 1 pays Employee A $1 million in regular wages. The present value as of December 31, 2023, of Employee A's nonqualified deferred compensation is $1.3 million.

(2) Conclusion (Taxable year beginning July 1, 2022, and ending June 30, 2023). ATEO 1 pays Employee A $1.1 million of remuneration in the 2022 applicable year. This is comprised of $1 million of vested nonqualified deferred compensation, and $100,000 of earnings, all of which is treated as paid for the taxable year beginning July 1, 2022, and ending June 30, 2023.

(3) Conclusion (Taxable year beginning July 1, 2023, and ending June 30, 2024). ATEO 1 pays Employee A $1.2 million of remuneration in the 2023 applicable year. This is comprised of $1 million regular wages and $200,000 of earnings ($1.3 million present value as of December 31, 2023, minus $1.1 million previously paid remuneration as of December 31, 2022).

(B) Example 2 (Losses on pre-covered employee remuneration)—(1) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(A) of this section (Example 1), except that the present value of the nonqualified deferred compensation as of December 31, 2022, is $900,000.

(2) Conclusion (Taxable year beginning July 1, 2022, and ending June 30, 2023). ATEO 1 pays Employee A $1 million of remuneration in the 2022 applicable year. This is comprised of $1 million of vested nonqualified deferred compensation. The present value of all vested deferred compensation as of December 31 of the 2022 applicable year ($900,000) is treated as previously paid remuneration for the next applicable year (as Employee A is a covered employee for the next taxable year). The $100,000 of losses accrued while Employee A was not a covered employee do not carry forward to the next applicable year.

(3) Conclusion (Taxable year beginning July 1, 2023, and ending June 30, 2024). ATEO 1 pays Employee A $1.4 million of remuneration in the 2023 applicable year. This is comprised of $1 million cash and $400,000 of earnings ($1.3 million present value as of December 31, 2023, minus $900,000 previously paid remuneration).

(e) Calculation of present value—(1) In general. The employer must determine present value using reasonable actuarial assumptions regarding the amount, time, and probability that a payment will be made. For this purpose, a discount for the probability that an employee will die before commencement of benefit payments is permitted, but only to the extent that benefits will be forfeited upon death. The present value may not be discounted for the probability that payments will not be made (or will be reduced) because of the unfunded status of the plan; the risk associated with any deemed or actual investment of amounts deferred under the plan; the risk that the employer, the trustee, or another party will be unwilling or unable to pay; the possibility of future plan amendments; the possibility of a future change in the law; or similar risks or contingencies. The present value of the right to future payments as of the vesting date includes any earnings that have accrued as of the vesting date that are not previously paid remuneration.

(2) Treatment of future payment amount as present value for certain amounts. For purposes of determining the present value of remuneration that is scheduled to be actually or constructively paid within 90 days of vesting, the employer may treat the future amount that is to be paid as the present value at vesting.

(f) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this section. For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO, any entity referred to as “CORP” is not an ATEO, and all taxpayers use the calendar year as their taxable year.

(1) Example 1 (Account balance plan)—(i) Facts. Employee A is a covered employee of ATEO 1. Employee A participates in a nonqualified deferred compensation plan (the NQDC plan) in which the account balance is adjusted based on the investment returns on predetermined actual investments. On January 1, 2022, ATEO 1 credits $100,000 to Employee A's account under the plan, subject to the requirement that Employee A remain employed through June 30, 2024. On June 30, 2024, the vested account balance is $110,000. Due to earnings or losses on the account balance, the closing account balance on each of the following dates is: $115,000 on December 31, 2024, $120,000 on December 31, 2025, $100,000 on December 31, 2026, and $110,000 on December 31, 2027. During 2028, Employee A defers an additional $10,000 under the plan, all of which is vested at the time of deferral. On December 31, 2028, the closing account balance is $125,000. In 2029, ATEO 1 pays $10,000 to Employee A under the plan. On December 31, 2029, the closing account balance is $135,000 due to earnings on the account balance.

(ii) Conclusion (2022 and 2023 applicable years—nonvested amounts). For 2022 and 2023, ATEO 1 is not treated as paying Employee A any remuneration attributable to Employee A's participation in the NQDC plan because the amount deferred under the plan remains subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture within the meaning of section 457(f)(3)(B).

(iii) Conclusion (2024 applicable year—amounts in year of vesting). For 2024, ATEO 1 is treated as paying Employee A $115,000 of remuneration attributable to Employee A's participation in the NQDC plan, including $110,000 of remuneration on June 30, 2024, when the amount becomes vested, and an additional $5,000 of remuneration on December 31, 2024, which is earnings on the previously paid remuneration ($110,000).

(iv) Conclusion (2025 applicable year—earnings). For 2025, ATEO 1 is treated as paying Employee A $5,000 of remuneration attributable to Employee A's participation in the NQDC plan, which is the additional earnings on the previously paid remuneration ($115,000) as of December 31, 2025.

(v) Conclusion (2026 applicable year—losses). For 2026, ATEO 1 is not treated as paying Employee A any remuneration attributable to Employee A's participation in the NQDC plan because the present value of the previously paid remuneration ($120,000) decreased to $100,000 as of December 31, 2026. The $20,000 loss for 2026 does not reduce any amount previously treated as remuneration but is available for carryover to subsequent taxable years to offset earnings.

(vi) Conclusion (2027 applicable year—recovery of losses). For 2027, ATEO 1 is not treated as paying Employee A any remuneration attributable to Employee A's participation in the NQDC plan because the present value of the previously paid remuneration ($120,000) was $110,000 as of December 31, 2027. Due to increases on the account balance, ATEO 1 recovers $10,000 of the $20,000 of losses carried over from 2026. The net losses as of December 31, 2027, are $10,000, and none of the $10,000 in earnings during 2027 is treated as remuneration paid in 2027.

(vii) Conclusion (2028 applicable year—no recovery of losses against additional deferrals of compensation). For 2028, ATEO 1 is treated as paying Employee A $10,000 of remuneration attributable to Employee A's participation in the NQDC plan. The additional $10,000 deferral is vested and thus is treated as remuneration paid on the date credited to Employee A's account. This credit increases the amount of previously paid remuneration from $120,000 to $130,000. Additionally, due to earnings, ATEO 1 recovers $5,000 of the $10,000 loss carried over from 2027, none of which was remuneration paid for 2026, so that as of December 31, 2028, the net loss available for carryover to 2029 is $5,000.

(viii) Conclusion (2029 applicable year—distributions, recovery of remainder of losses through earnings and additional earnings). For 2029, ATEO 1 is treated as paying Employee A $15,000 of remuneration attributable to Employee A's participation in the NQDC plan. The $10,000 payment reduces the amount of previously paid remuneration (from $130,000 to $120,000) and the account balance (from $125,000 to $115,000). The present value of the vested account balance increases by $20,000 (from $115,000 to $135,000) as of December 31, 2029. Therefore, due to earnings, ATEO 1 recovers the remaining $5,000 loss carried over from 2028 (the difference between the $120,000 previously paid remuneration before earnings and the $115,000 account balance before earnings) and is treated as paying Employee A an additional $15,000 of remuneration as earnings (the difference between the $135,000 account balance after earnings and the $120,000 previously paid remuneration after loss recovery).

(2) Example 2 (Nonaccount balance plan with earnings)—(i) Facts. ATEO 2 and CORP 2 are related organizations. Employee B is a covered employee of ATEO 2 and is also employed by CORP 2. On January 1, 2022, CORP 2 and Employee B enter into an agreement under which CORP 2 will pay Employee B $100,000 on December 31, 2025, if B remains employed by CORP 2 through January 1, 2024. Employee B remains employed by CORP 2 through January 1, 2024. On January 1, 2024, the present value based on reasonable actuarial assumptions of the $100,000 to be paid on December 31, 2025, is $75,000. On December 31, 2024, the present value of the $100,000 future payment increases to $85,000 due solely to the passage of time. On December 31, 2025, CORP 2 pays Employee B $100,000.

(ii) Conclusion (2022 and 2023 applicable years—nonvested amounts). For 2022 and 2023, CORP 2 is not treated as paying Employee B any remuneration attributable to the agreement because the amount deferred under the agreement remains subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture within the meaning of section 457(f)(3)(B).

(iii) Conclusion (2024 applicable year—amounts in year of vesting). For 2024, CORP 2 is treated as paying Employee B $75,000 of remuneration attributable to the agreement on January 1, 2024, which is the present value on that date of the $100,000 payable on December 31, 2025. In addition, CORP 2 is treated as paying Employee B $10,000 of remuneration attributable to the agreement on December 31, 2024, which is earnings based on the increase in the present value of the previously paid remuneration (from $75,000 to $85,000) as of December 31, 2024.

(iv) Conclusion (2025 applicable year—earnings and distribution of previously paid remuneration). For 2025, CORP 2 is treated as paying Employee B $15,000 in remuneration attributable to the agreement on December 31, 2025, which is earnings based on the increase in the present value of the previously paid remuneration (from $85,000 to $100,000) as of December 31, 2025. In addition, the $100,000 payment is treated as reducing the amount of previously paid remuneration ($100,000) to zero.

(3) Example 3 (Treatment of amount payable as present value at vesting)—(i) Facts. Employee C is a covered employee of ATEO 3. Under an agreement between ATEO 3 and Employee C, ATEO 3 agrees to pay Employee C $100,000 two months after the date Employee C meets a specified performance goal that is a substantial risk of forfeiture within the meaning of section 457(f)(3)(B). Employee C meets the performance goal on November 30, 2022, and ATEO 3 pays Employee C $100,000 on January 31, 2023. In accordance with § 53.4960-2(e)(2), because the payment is to be made within 90 days of vesting, ATEO 3 elects to treat the full payment amount as the amount of remuneration paid at vesting.

(ii) Conclusion (2022 applicable year—election to treat amount payable within 90 days as paid at vesting). For taxable year 2022, ATEO 3 is treated as paying Employee C $100,000 of remuneration attributable to the agreement. Employee C vests in the $100,000 payment in 2022 upon meeting the performance goal. Under the general rule, ATEO 3 would be treated as paying for the taxable year 2022 the present value as of November 30, 2022, of $100,000 payable on January 31, 2023 (two months after the date of vesting), with adjustments to the present value as of the end of the year. However, because ATEO 3 elected to treat the full $100,000 amount payable within 90 days of vesting as the remuneration paid, the $100,000 payable to Employee C in 2023 is treated as remuneration paid in 2022 (and no additional amount related to the $100,000 paid on January 31, 2023, is treated as remuneration paid in 2023).

(4) Example 4 (Aggregation of remuneration from related organizations)—(i) Facts. Employee D is a covered employee of ATEO 4 and also an employee of CORP 4 and CORP 5. ATEO 4, CORP 4, and CORP 5 are related organizations. ATEO 4, CORP 4, and CORP 5 each pay Employee D $200,000 of salary during 2022 and 2023. On January 1, 2022, ATEO 4 promises to pay Employee D $120,000 on December 31, 2023, under a nonaccount balance plan, the right to which is vested and the present value of which is $100,000 on January 1, 2022. On January 1, 2022, CORP 4 and CORP 5 each contribute $100,000 on Employee D's behalf to account balance plans of CORP 4 and CORP 5, respectively, under which all amounts deferred are vested. On December 31, 2022, the present value of the amounts deferred under the ATEO 4 plan is $110,000, the present value of the amounts deferred under the CORP 4 plan is $120,000, and the present value of the amounts deferred under the CORP 5 plan maintained is $90,000. On December 31, 2023, the present value of the amounts deferred under the ATEO 4 plan is $120,000, the present value of the amounts deferred under the CORP 4 plan is $130,000, and the present value of the amounts deferred under the CORP 5 plan is $110,000.

(ii) Conclusion (2022 applicable year). For 2022, before aggregation of remuneration paid by related organizations, ATEO 4 is treated as paying Employee D $310,000 of remuneration ($200,000 salary + $100,000 upon vesting of deferred amounts + $10,000 net earnings on vested deferred amounts). CORP 4 is treated as paying Employee D $320,000 of remuneration ($200,000 salary + $100,000 upon vesting of deferred amounts + $20,000 net earnings on vested deferred amounts). CORP 5 is treated as paying Employee D $300,000 of remuneration ($200,000 salary + $100,000 upon vesting of deferred amounts) and has $10,000 of net losses on vested deferred amounts, which are carried forward to 2023. Thus, ATEO 4 is treated as paying $930,000 of remuneration to Employee D for the applicable year.

(iii) Conclusion (2023 applicable year). For 2023, before aggregation of remuneration paid by related organizations, ATEO 4 is treated as paying Employee D $210,000 of remuneration ($200,000 salary + $10,000 earnings on previously paid remuneration). CORP 4 is treated as paying Employee D $210,000 of remuneration ($200,000 salary + $10,000 net earnings on previously paid remuneration). CORP 5 is treated as paying Employee D $210,000 of remuneration ($200,000 salary + $10,000 net earnings on previously paid remuneration after taking into account the loss carryforward). Thus, ATEO 4 is treated as paying $630,000 of remuneration to Employee D for the applicable year.

(5) Example 5 (Treatment of regular wages for a pay period spanning applicable years)—(i) Facts. ATEO 5 pays its employees' salaries in accordance with a two-week payroll period that begins Sunday of the first week and ends Saturday of the second week. Payment occurs the Friday following the end of the payroll period. The last payroll period of 2023 ends on December 31, 2023. For the last payroll period, Employee E earns $8,000 of salary. In addition, ATEO 5 awards Employee E a $10,000 bonus that vests on December 31, 2023. ATEO 5 pays Employee E $18,000 on Friday, January 5, 2024, reflecting Employee E's salary for the last payroll period of 2023 and the bonus, the right to which vested on December 31, 2023.

(ii) Conclusion (Regular wages). The $8,000 of salary is regular wages within the meaning of § 31.3402(g)-1(a)(1)(ii) because it is an amount paid at a periodic rate for the current payroll period. Thus, $8,000 is treated as remuneration paid on January 5, 2024 (when it is actually or constructively paid), and, therefore, is treated as remuneration paid in ATEO 5's 2024 applicable year.

(iii) Conclusion (Amounts other than regular wages). The $10,000 bonus is not regular wages within the meaning of § 31.3402(g)-1(a)(1)(ii) because it is not an amount paid at a periodic rate for the current payroll period. Thus, $10,000 is treated as remuneration paid on December 31, 2023 (when it is vested) and, therefore, is treated as remuneration paid in ATEO 5's 2023 applicable year.

[T.D. 9938, 86 FR 6219, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 53.4960-3 Determination of whether there is a parachute payment.

(a) Parachute payment—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section (relating to payments excluded from the definition of a parachute payment), parachute payment means any payment in the nature of compensation made by an ATEO (or a predecessor of the ATEO) or a related organization to (or for the benefit of) a covered employee if the payment is contingent on the employee's separation from employment with the employer, and the aggregate present value of the payments in the nature of compensation to (or for the benefit of) the individual that are contingent on the separation equals or exceeds an amount equal to 3-times the base amount.

(2) Exclusions. The following payments are not parachute payments:

(i) Certain qualified plans. A payment that is a contribution to or a distribution from a plan described in section 401(a) that includes a trust exempt from tax under section 501(a), an annuity plan described in section 403(a), a simplified employee pension (as defined in section 408(k)), or a simple retirement account described in section 408(p);

(ii) Certain annuity contracts. A payment made under or to an annuity contract described in section 403(b) or a plan described in section 457(b);

(iii) Compensation for medical services. A payment made to a licensed medical professional for the performance of medical services performed by such professional; and

(iv) Payments to non-HCEs. A payment made to an individual who is not a highly compensated employee (HCE) as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.

(3) Determination of HCEs for purposes of the exclusion from parachute payments. For purposes of this section, highly compensated employee or HCE means, with regard to an ATEO that maintains a qualified retirement plan or other employee benefit plan described in § 1.414(q)-1T, Q/A-1, any person who is a highly compensated employee within the meaning of section 414(q) and, with regard to an ATEO that does not maintain such a plan, any person who would be a highly compensated employee within the meaning of section 414(q) if the ATEO did maintain such a plan. For purposes of determining the group of highly compensated employees for a determination year, consistent with § 1.414(q)-1T, Q/A-14(a)(1), the determination year calculation is made on the basis of the applicable plan year under § 1.414(q)-1T, Q/A-14(a)(2) of the plan or other entity for which a determination is made, and the look-back year calculation is made on the basis of the 12-month period immediately preceding that year. For an ATEO that does not maintain a plan described in § 1.414(q)-1T, Q/A-1, the rules are applied by analogy, substituting the calendar year for the plan year. Thus, for example, in 2022, an ATEO that does not maintain such a plan must use its employees' 2021 annual compensation (as defined in § 1.414(q)-1T, Q/A-13, including any of the safe harbor definitions if applied consistently to all employees) to determine which employees are HCEs for 2022, if any, for purposes of section 4960. If an employee is an HCE at the time of separation from employment, then for purposes of section 4960 any parachute payment that is contingent on the separation from employment (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section) is treated as paid to an HCE so that the exception from the term parachute payment under paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section does not apply, even if the payment occurs during one or more later taxable years (that is, taxable years after the taxable year during which the employee separated from employment).

(b) Payment in the nature of compensation—(1) In general. Any payment—in whatever form—is a payment in the nature of compensation if the payment arises out of an employment relationship, including holding oneself out as available to perform services and refraining from performing services. Thus, for example, a payment made under a covenant not to compete or a similar arrangement is a payment in the nature of compensation. A payment in the nature of compensation includes (but is not limited to) wages and salary, bonuses, severance pay, fringe benefits, life insurance, pension benefits, and other deferred compensation (including any amount characterized by the parties as interest or earnings thereon). A payment in the nature of compensation also includes cash when paid, the value of the right to receive cash, the value of accelerated vesting, or a transfer of property. The vesting of an option, stock appreciation right, or similar form of compensation as a result of a covered employee's separation from employment is a payment in the nature of compensation. However, a payment in the nature of compensation does not include attorney's fees or court costs paid or incurred in connection with the payment of any parachute payment or a reasonable rate of interest accrued on any amount during the period the parties contest whether a parachute payment will be made.

(2) Consideration paid by covered employee. Any payment in the nature of compensation is reduced by the amount of any money or the fair market value of any property (owned by the covered employee without restriction) that is (or will be) transferred by the covered employee in exchange for the payment.

(c) When payment is considered to be made—(1) In general. A payment in the nature of compensation is considered made in the taxable year in which it is includible in the covered employee's gross income or, in the case of fringe benefits and other benefits that are excludable from income, in the taxable year the benefits are received. In the case of taxable non-cash fringe benefits provided in a calendar year, payment is considered made on the date or dates the employer chooses, but no later than December 31 of the calendar year in which the benefits are provided, except that when the fringe benefit is the transfer of personal property (either tangible or intangible) of a kind normally held for investment or the transfer of real property, payment is considered made on the actual date of transfer. If the fringe benefit is neither a transfer of personal property nor a transfer of real property, the employer may, in its discretion, treat the value of the benefit actually provided during the last two months of the calendar year as paid during the subsequent calendar year. However, an employer that treats the value of a benefit paid during the last two months of a calendar year as paid during the subsequent calendar year under this rule must treat the value of that fringe benefit as paid during the subsequent calendar year with respect to all employees who receive it.

(2) Transfers of section 83 property. A transfer of property in connection with the performance of services that is subject to section 83 is considered a payment made in the taxable year in which the property is transferred or would be includible in the gross income of the covered employee under section 83, disregarding any election made by the employee under section 83(b) or (i). Thus, in general, such a payment is considered made at the later of the date the property is transferred (as defined in § 1.83-3(a)) to the covered employee or the date the property becomes substantially vested (as defined in § 1.83-3(b) and (j)). The amount of the payment is the compensation as determined under section 83, disregarding any amount includible in income pursuant to an election made by an employee under section 83(b).

(3) Stock options. An option (including an option to which section 421 applies) is treated as property that is transferred when the option becomes vested (regardless of whether the option has a readily ascertainable fair market value as defined in § 1.83-7(b)). For purposes of determining the timing and amount of any payment related to the option, the principles of § 1.280G-1, Q/A-13 and any method prescribed by the Commissioner in published guidance of general applicability under § 601.601(d)(2) apply.

(d) Payment contingent on an employee's separation from employment—(1) In general. A payment is contingent on an employee's separation from employment if the facts and circumstances indicate that the employer would not make the payment in the absence of the employee's involuntary separation from employment. A payment generally would be made in the absence of the employee's involuntary separation from employment if it is substantially certain at the time of the involuntary separation from employment that the payment would be made whether or not the involuntary separation occurred. A payment the right to which is not subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture within the meaning of section 457(f)(3)(B) at the time of an involuntary separation from employment generally is a payment that would have been made in the absence of an involuntary separation from employment (and is therefore not contingent on a separation from employment), except that the increased value of an accelerated payment of a vested amount described in paragraph (f)(3) of this section resulting from an involuntary separation from employment is not treated as a payment that would have been made in the absence of an involuntary separation from employment. A payment the right to which is no longer subject to a substantial risk of forfeiture within the meaning of section 457(f)(3)(B) as a result of an involuntary separation from employment, including a payment the vesting of which is accelerated due to the separation from employment as described in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, is not treated as a payment that would have been made in the absence of an involuntary separation from employment (and thus is contingent on a separation from employment). A payment does not fail to be contingent on a separation from employment merely because the payment is conditioned upon the execution of a release of claims, noncompetition or nondisclosure provisions, or other similar requirements. See paragraph (d)(3) of this section for the treatment of a payment made pursuant to a covenant not to compete. If, after an involuntary separation from employment, the former employee continues to provide certain services as a nonemployee, payments for services rendered as a nonemployee are not payments that are contingent on a separation from employment to the extent those payments are reasonable and are not made on account of the involuntary separation from employment. Whether services are performed as an employee or nonemployee depends upon all the facts and circumstances. See § 53.4960-1(e). For rules on determining whether payments are reasonable compensation for services, the rules of § 1.280G-1, Q/A-40 through Q/A-42 (excluding Q/A-40(b) and Q/A-42(b)), and Q/A-44 are applied by analogy (substituting involuntary separation from employment for change in ownership or control).

(2) Employment agreements—(i) In general. If a covered employee involuntarily separates from employment before the end of a contract term and is paid damages for breach of contract pursuant to an employment agreement, the payment of damages is treated as a payment that is contingent on a separation from employment. An employment agreement is an agreement between an employee and employer that describes, among other things, the amount of compensation or remuneration payable to the employee for services performed during the term of the agreement.

(ii) Example. The following example illustrates the rules of this paragraph (d)(2). For purposes of this example, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO.

(A) Example—(1) Facts. Employee A, a covered employee, has a 3-year employment agreement with ATEO 1. Under the agreement, Employee A will receive a salary of $200,000 for the first year and, for each succeeding year, an annual salary that is $100,000 more than the previous year. The agreement provides that, in the event of A's involuntary separation from employment without cause, Employee A will receive the remaining salary due under the agreement. At the beginning of the second year of the agreement, ATEO 1 involuntarily terminates Employee A's employment without cause and pays Employee A $700,000 representing the remaining salary due under the employment agreement ($300,000 for the second year of the agreement plus $400,000 for the third year of the agreement).

(2) Conclusion. The $700,000 payment is treated as a payment that is contingent on a separation from employment.

(3) Noncompetition agreements. A payment under an agreement requiring a covered employee to refrain from performing services (for example, a covenant not to compete) is a payment that is contingent on a separation from employment if the payment would not have been made in the absence of an involuntary separation from employment. For example, a payment contingent on compliance in whole or in part with a covenant not to compete negotiated as part of a severance arrangement arising from an involuntary separation from employment is contingent on a separation from employment. Similarly, one or more payments contingent on compliance in whole or in part with a covenant not to compete not negotiated as part of a severance arrangement arising from an involuntary separation from employment but that provides for a payment specific to an involuntary separation from employment (and not voluntary separation from employment) is contingent on a separation from employment. Payments made under an agreement requiring a covered employee to refrain from performing services that are contingent on separation from employment are not treated as paid in exchange for the performance of services and are not excluded from parachute payments.

(4) Payment of amounts previously included in income or excess remuneration. Actual or constructive payment of an amount that was previously included in gross income of the employee is not a payment contingent on a separation from employment. For example, payment of an amount included in income under section 457(f)(1)(A) due to the lapsing of a substantial risk of forfeiture on a date before the separation from employment generally is not a payment that is contingent on a separation from employment, even if the amount is paid in cash or otherwise to the employee because of the separation from employment. In addition, actual or constructive receipt of an amount treated as excess remuneration under § 53.4960-4(b)(1) is not a payment that is contingent on a separation from employment (and thus is not a parachute payment), even if the amount is paid to the employee because of the separation from employment.

(5) Window programs. A payment under a window program is contingent on a separation from employment. A window program is a program established by an employer in connection with an impending separation from employment to provide separation pay if the program is made available by the employer for a limited period of time (no longer than 12 months) to employees who separate from employment during that period or to employees who separate from service during that period under specified circumstances. A payment made under a window program is treated as a payment that is contingent on an employee's separation from employment notwithstanding that the employee may not have had an involuntary separation from employment.

(6) Anti-abuse provision. Notwithstanding paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section, if the facts and circumstances demonstrate that either the vesting or the payment of an amount (whether before or after an employee's involuntary separation from employment) would not have occurred but for the involuntary nature of the separation from employment, the payment of the amount is contingent on a separation from employment. For example, an employer's exercise of discretion to accelerate vesting of an amount shortly before an involuntary separation from employment may indicate that the acceleration of vesting was due to the involuntary nature of the separation from employment and was therefore contingent on the employee's separation from employment. Similarly, payment of an amount in excess of an amount otherwise payable (for example, increased salary), shortly before or after an involuntary separation from employment, may indicate that the amount was paid because the separation was involuntary and was therefore contingent on the employee's separation from employment. If an ATEO becomes a predecessor as a result of a reorganization or other transaction described in § 53.4960-1(h), any payment to an employee by a successor organization that is contingent on the employee's separation from employment with the predecessor ATEO is treated as paid by the predecessor ATEO.

(e) Involuntary separation from employment—(1) In general. Involuntary separation from employment means a separation from employment due to the independent exercise of the employer's unilateral authority to terminate the employee's services, other than due to the employee's implicit or explicit request, if the employee was willing and able to continue performing services as an employee. An involuntary separation from employment may include an employer's failure to renew a contract at the time the contract expires, provided that the employee was willing and able to execute a new contract providing terms and conditions substantially similar to those in the expiring contract and to continue providing services. The determination of whether a separation from employment is involuntary is based on all the facts and circumstances.

(2) Separation from employment for good reason—(i) In general. Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(1) of this section, an employee's voluntary separation from employment is treated as an involuntary separation from employment if the separation occurs under certain bona fide conditions (referred to herein as a separation from employment for good reason).

(ii) Material negative change required. A separation from employment for good reason is treated as an involuntary separation from employment if the relevant facts and circumstances demonstrate that it was the result of unilateral employer action that caused a material negative change to the employee's relationship with the employer. Factors that may provide evidence of such a material negative change include a material reduction in the duties to be performed, a material negative change in the conditions under which the duties are to be performed, or a material reduction in the compensation to be received for performing such services.

(iii) Deemed material negative change. An involuntary separation from employment due to a material negative change is deemed to occur if the separation from employment occurs within 2 years following the initial existence of one or more of the following conditions arising without the consent of the employee:

(A) Material diminution of compensation. A material diminution in the employee's base compensation;

(B) Material diminution of responsibility. A material diminution in the employee's authority, duties, or responsibilities;

(C) Material diminution of authority of supervisor. A material diminution in the authority, duties, or responsibilities of the supervisor to whom the employee is required to report, including a requirement that an employee report to a corporate officer or employee instead of reporting directly to the board of directors (or similar governing body) of an organization;

(D) Material diminution of budget. A material diminution in the budget over which the employee retains authority;

(E) Material change of location. A material change in the geographic location at which the employee must perform services; or

(F) Other material breach. Any other action or inaction that constitutes a material breach by the employer of the agreement under which the employee provides services.

(3) Separation from employment. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, separation from employment has the same meaning as separation from service as defined in § 1.409A-1(h). Pursuant to § 1.409A-1(h), an employee generally separates from employment with the employer if the employee dies, retires, or otherwise has a termination of employment with the employer or experiences a sufficient reduction in the level of services provided to the employer. For purposes of applying the rules regarding reductions in the level of services set forth in the definition of termination of employment in § 1.409A-1(h)(1)(ii), the rules are modified for purposes of this paragraph such that an employer may not set the level of the anticipated reduction in future services that will give rise to a separation from employment, meaning that the default percentages set forth in § 1.409A-1(h)(1)(ii) apply in all circumstances. Thus, an anticipated reduction of the level of service of less than 50 percent is not treated as a separation from employment, an anticipated reduction of more than 80 percent is treated as a separation from employment, and the treatment of an anticipated reduction between those two levels is determined based on the facts and circumstances. The measurement of the anticipated reduction of the level of service is based on the average level of service for the prior 36 months (or shorter period for an employee employed for less than 36 months). In addition, an employee's separation from employment is determined without regard to § 1.409A-1(h)(2) and (5) (application to independent contractors), since, for purposes of this section, only an employee may have a separation from employment, and a change from bona fide employee status to bona fide independent contractor status is also a separation from employment. See § 53.4960-2(a)(1) regarding the treatment of an employee who also serves as a director of a corporation (or in a substantially similar position). The definition of separation from employment also incorporates the rules under § 1.409A-1(h)(1)(i) (addressing leaves of absence, including military leaves of absence), § 1.409A-1(h)(4) (addressing asset purchase transactions), and § 1.409A-1(h)(6) (addressing employees participating in collectively bargained plans covering multiple employers). The definition further incorporates the rules of § 1.409A-1(h)(3), under which an employee separates from employment only if the employee has a separation from employment with the employer and all employers that would be considered a single employer under section 414(b) and (c), except that the “at least 80 percent” rule under section 414(b) and (c) is used, rather than replacing it with “at least 50 percent.” However, for purposes of determining whether there has been a separation from employment, a purported ongoing employment relationship between a covered employee and an ATEO or a related organization is disregarded if the facts and circumstances demonstrate that the purported employment relationship is not bona fide, or the primary purpose of the establishment or continuation of the relationship is avoidance of the application of section 4960.

(f) Accelerated payment or accelerated vesting resulting from an involuntary separation from employment—(1) In general. If a payment or the lapse of a substantial risk of forfeiture is accelerated as a result of an involuntary separation from employment, generally only the value due to the acceleration of payment or vesting is treated as contingent on a separation from employment, as described in paragraphs (f)(3) and (4) of this section, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f). For purposes of this paragraph (f), the terms vested and substantial risk of forfeiture have the same meaning as provided in § 53.4960-2(c)(2).

(2) Nonvested payments subject to a non-service vesting condition. If (without regard to a separation from employment) vesting of a payment would depend on an event other than the performance of services, such as the attainment of a performance goal, and that vesting event does not occur prior to the employee's separation from employment and the payment vests due to the employee's involuntary separation from employment, the full amount of the payment is treated as contingent on the separation from employment.

(3) Vested payments. If an involuntary separation from employment accelerates actual or constructive payment of an amount that previously vested without regard to the separation, the portion of the payment, if any, that is contingent on the separation from employment is the amount by which the present value of the accelerated payment exceeds the present value of the payment absent the acceleration. The payment of an amount otherwise due upon a separation from employment (whether voluntary or involuntary) is not treated as an acceleration of the payment unless the payment timing was accelerated due to the involuntary nature of the separation from employment. If the value of the payment absent the acceleration is not reasonably ascertainable, and the acceleration of the payment does not significantly increase the present value of the payment absent the acceleration, the present value of the payment absent the acceleration is the amount of the accelerated payment (so the amount contingent on the separation from employment is zero). If the present value of the payment absent the acceleration is not reasonably ascertainable but the acceleration significantly increases the present value of the payment, the future value of the payment contingent on the separation from employment is treated as equal to the amount of the accelerated payment. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(3), the acceleration of a payment by 90 days or less is not treated as significantly increasing the present value of the payment. For rules on determining present value, see paragraph (f)(6) and paragraphs (h), (i) and (j) of this section.

(4) Nonvested payments subject to a service vesting condition—(i) In general. If an involuntary separation from employment accelerates vesting of a payment, the portion of the payment that is contingent on separation from employment is the amount described in paragraph (f)(3) of this section (if any) plus the value of the lapse of the obligation to continue to perform services described in paragraph (f)(4)(ii) of this section (but the amount cannot exceed the amount of the accelerated payment, or, if the payment is not accelerated, the present value of the payment), to the extent that all of the following conditions are satisfied with respect to the payment:

(A) Vesting trigger. The payment vests as a result of an involuntary separation from employment;

(B) Vesting condition. Disregarding the involuntary separation from employment, the vesting of the payment was contingent only on the continued performance of services for the employer for a specified period of time; and

(C) Services condition. The payment is attributable, at least in part, to the performance of services before the date the payment is made or becomes certain to be made.

(ii) Value of the lapse of the obligation to continue to perform services. The value of the lapse of the obligation to continue to perform services is one percent of the amount of the accelerated payment multiplied by the number of full months between the date that the employee's right to receive the payment is vested and the date that, absent the acceleration, the payment would have been vested. This paragraph (f)(4)(ii) applies to the accelerated vesting of a payment in the nature of compensation even if the time when the payment is made is not accelerated. In that case, the value of the lapse of the obligation to continue to perform services is one percent of the present value of the future payment multiplied by the number of full months between the date that the individual's right to receive the payment is vested and the date that, absent the acceleration, the payment would have been vested.

(iii) Accelerated vesting of equity compensation. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(4), the acceleration of the vesting of a stock option or stock appreciation right (or similar arrangement) or the lapse of a restriction on restricted stock or a restricted stock unit (or a similar arrangement) is considered to significantly increase the value of the payment.

(5) Application to benefits under a nonqualified deferred compensation plan. In the case of a payment of benefits under a nonqualified deferred compensation plan, paragraph (f)(3) of this section applies to the extent benefits under the plan are vested without regard to the involuntary separation from employment, but the payment of benefits is accelerated due to the involuntary separation from employment. Paragraph (f)(4) of this section applies to the extent benefits under the plan are subject to the conditions described in paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section. For any other payment of benefits under a nonqualified deferred compensation plan (such as a contribution made due to the employee's involuntary separation from employment), the full amount of the payment is contingent on the employee's separation from employment.

(6) Present value. For purposes of this paragraph (f), the present value of a payment is determined based on the payment date absent the acceleration and the date on which the accelerated payment is scheduled to be made. The amount that is treated as contingent on the separation from employment is the amount by which the present value of the accelerated payment exceeds the present value of the payment absent the acceleration.

(7) Examples. See § 1.280G Q/A-24(f) for examples that may be applied by analogy to illustrate the rules of this paragraph (f).

(g) Three-times-base-amount test for parachute payments—(1) In general. To determine whether payments in the nature of compensation made to a covered employee that are contingent on the covered employee separating from employment with the ATEO are parachute payments, the aggregate present value of the payments must be compared to the individual's base amount. To do this, the aggregate present value of all payments in the nature of compensation that are made or to be made to (or for the benefit of) the same covered employee by an ATEO (or any predecessor of the ATEO) or related organization and that are contingent on the separation from employment must be determined. If this aggregate present value equals or exceeds the amount equal to 3-times the individual's base amount, the payments are parachute payments. If this aggregate present value is less than the amount equal to 3-times the individual's base amount, the payments are not parachute payments. See paragraphs (f)(6), (h), (i), and (j) of this section for rules on determining present value.

(2) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (g). For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO.

(i) Example 1 (Parachute payment)—(A) Facts. Employee A is a covered employee and an HCE of ATEO 1. Employee A's base amount is $200,000. Payments in the nature of compensation that are contingent on a separation from employment with ATEO 1 totaling $800,000 are made to Employee A on the date of Employee A's separation from employment.

(B) Conclusion. The payments are parachute payments because they have an aggregate present value at the time of the separation from employment of $800,000, which is at least equal to 3-times Employee A's base amount of $200,000 (3 × $200,000 = $600,000).

(ii) Example 2 (No parachute payment)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section (Example 1), except that the payments contingent on Employee A's separation from employment total $580,000.

(B) Conclusion. Because the aggregate present value of the payments ($580,000) is not at least equal to 3-times Employee A's base amount ($600,000), the payments are not parachute payments.

(h) Calculating present value—(1) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h), for purposes of determining if a payment contingent on a separation from employment exceeds 3-times the base amount, the present value of a payment is determined as of the date of the separation from employment or, if the payment is made prior to that date, the date on which the payment is made.

(2) Deferred payments. For purposes of determining whether a payment is a parachute payment, if a payment in the nature of compensation is the right to receive payments in a year (or years) subsequent to the year of the separation from employment, the value of the payment is the present value of the payment (or payments) calculated on the basis of reasonable actuarial assumptions and using the applicable discount rate for the present value calculation that is determined in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.

(3) Health care. If the payment in the nature of compensation is an obligation to provide health care (including an obligation to purchase or provide health insurance), then, for purposes of this paragraph (h) and for applying the 3-times-base-amount test under paragraph (g) of this section, the present value of the obligation is calculated in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. For purposes of paragraph (g) of this section and this paragraph (h), the obligation to provide health care is permitted to be measured by projecting the cost of premiums for health care insurance, even if no health care insurance is actually purchased. If the obligation to provide health care is made in coordination with a health care plan that the employer makes available to a group, then the premiums used for purposes of this paragraph (h)(3) may be the allocable portion of group premiums.

(i) Discount rate. Present value generally is determined by using a discount rate equal to 120 percent of the applicable Federal rate (determined under section 1274(d) and the regulations in part 1 under section 1274(d)), compounded semiannually. The applicable Federal rate to be used is the Federal rate that is in effect on the date as of which the present value is determined, using the period until the payment is expected to be made as the term of the debt instrument under section 1274(d). See paragraph (h) of this section for rules with respect to the date as of which the present value is determined. However, for any payment, the employer and the covered employee may elect to use the applicable Federal rate that is in effect on the date on which the parties entered into the contract that provides for the payment if that election is set forth in writing in the contract.

(j) Present value of a payment to be made in the future that is contingent on an uncertain future event or condition—(1) Treatment based on the estimated probability of payment. In certain cases, it may be necessary to apply the 3-times-base-amount test to a payment that is contingent on separation from employment at a time when the aggregate present value of all the payments is uncertain because the time, amount, or right to receive one or more of the payments is also contingent on the occurrence of an uncertain future event or condition. In that case, the employer must reasonably estimate whether it will make the payment. If the employer reasonably estimates there is a 50-percent or greater probability that it will make the payment, the full amount of the payment is considered for purposes of the 3-times-base-amount test and the allocation of the base amount. If the employer reasonably estimates there is a less than 50-percent probability that the payment will be made, the payment is not considered for either purpose.

(2) Correction of incorrect estimates. If an ATEO later determines that an estimate it made under paragraph (j)(1) of this section was incorrect, it must reapply the 3-times-base-amount test to reflect the actual time and amount of the payment. In reapplying the 3-times-base-amount test (and, if necessary, reallocating the base amount), the ATEO must determine the aggregate present value of payments paid or to be paid as of the date described in paragraph (h) of this section using the discount rate described in paragraph (i) of this section. This redetermination may affect the amount of any excess parachute payment for a prior taxable year. However, if, based on the application of the 3-times-base-amount test without regard to the payment described in this paragraph (j), an ATEO has determined it will pay an employee an excess parachute payment or payments, then the 3-times-base-amount test does not have to be reapplied when a payment described in this paragraph (j) is made (or becomes certain to be made) if no base amount is allocated to that payment under § 53.4960-4(d)(5).

(3) Initial option value estimate. To the extent provided in published guidance of general applicability under § 601.601(d)(2), an initial estimate of the value of an option subject to paragraph (c) of this section is permitted to be made, with the valuation subsequently redetermined and the 3-times-base-amount test reapplied. Until guidance is published under section 4960, published guidance of general applicability described in § 601.601(d)(2) that is issued under section 280G applies by analogy.

(4) Examples. See § 1.280G-1, Q/A-33(d) for examples that may be applied by analogy to illustrate the rules of this paragraph (j).

(k) Base amount—(1) In general. A covered employee's base amount is the average annual compensation for services performed as an employee of the ATEO (including compensation for services performed for a predecessor of the ATEO), and/or, if applicable, a related organization, with respect to which there has been a separation from employment, if the compensation was includible in the gross income of the individual for taxable years in the base period (including amounts that were excluded under section 911) or that would have been includible in the individual's gross income if the individual had been a United States citizen or resident. See paragraph (l) of this section for the definition of base period and for examples of base amount computations.

(2) Short or incomplete taxable years. If the base period of a covered employee includes a short taxable year or less than all of a taxable year of the employee, compensation for the short or incomplete taxable year must be annualized before determining the average annual compensation for the base period. In annualizing compensation, the frequency with which payments are expected to be made over an annual period must be taken into account. Thus, any amount of compensation for a short or incomplete taxable year that represents a payment that will not be made more often than once per year is not annualized.

(3) Excludable fringe benefits. Because the base amount includes only compensation that is includible in gross income, the base amount does not include certain items that may constitute parachute payments. For example, payments in the form of excludable fringe benefits or excludable health care benefits are not included in the base amount but may be treated as parachute payments.

(4) Section 83(b) income. The base amount includes the amount of compensation included in income under section 83(b) during the base period.

(l) Base period—(1) In general. The base period of a covered employee is the covered employee's 5 most-recent taxable years ending before the date on which the separation from employment occurs. However, if the covered employee was not an employee of the ATEO for this entire 5-year period, the individual's base period is the portion of the 5-year period during which the covered employee performed services for the ATEO, a predecessor, or a related organization.

(2) Determination of base amount if employee separates from employment in the year hired. If a covered employee commences services as an employee and experiences a separation from employment in the same taxable year, the covered employee's base amount is the annualized compensation for services performed for the ATEO (or a predecessor or related organization) that was not contingent on the separation from employment and either was includible in the employee's gross income for that portion of the employee's taxable year prior to the employee's separation from employment (including amounts that were excluded under section 911) or would have been includible in the employee's gross income if the employee had been a United States citizen or resident.

(3) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of paragraph (k) of this section and this paragraph (l). For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO, any entity referred to as “CORP” is not an ATEO, and all employees are HCEs of their respective employers.

(i) Example 1 (Calculation with salary deferrals)—(A) Facts. Employee A, a covered employee of ATEO 1, receives an annual salary of $500,000 per year during the 5-year base period. Employee A defers $100,000 of salary each year under a nonqualified deferred compensation plan (none of which is includible in Employee A's income until paid in cash to Employee A).

(B) Conclusion. Employee A's base amount is $400,000 (($400,000 × 5)/5).

(ii) Example 2 (Calculation for less-than-5-year base period)—(A) Facts. Employee B, a covered employee of ATEO 1, was employed by ATEO 1 for 2 years and 4 months preceding the year in which Employee B separates from employment. Employee B's compensation includible in gross income was $100,000 for the 4-month period, $420,000 for the first full year, and $450,000 for the second full year.

(B) Conclusion. Employee B's base amount is $390,000 (((3 × $100,000) + $420,000 + $450,000)/3). Any compensation Employee B receives in the year of separation from employment is not included in the base amount calculation.

(iii) Example 3 (Calculation for less-than-5-year base period with signing bonus)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (l)(3)(ii)(A) of this section (Example 2), except that Employee B also received a $60,000 signing bonus when Employee B's employment with ATEO 1 commenced at the beginning of the 4-month period.

(B) Conclusion. Employee B's base amount is $410,000 ((($60,000 + (3 × $100,000)) + $420,000 + $450,000)/3). Pursuant to paragraph (k)(2) of this section, because the bonus is a payment that will not be paid more often than once per year, the bonus is not taken into account in annualizing Employee B's compensation for the 4-month period.

(iv) Example 4 (Effect of non-employee compensation)—(A) Facts. Employee C, a covered employee of ATEO 1, was not an employee of ATEO 1 for the full 5-year base period. In 2024 and 2025, Employee C is only a director of ATEO 1 and receives $30,000 per year for services as a director. On January 1, 2026, Employee C becomes an officer and covered employee of ATEO 1. Employee C's includible compensation for services as an officer of ATEO 1 is $250,000 for each of 2026 and 2027, and $300,000 for 2028. In 2028, Employee C separates from employment with ATEO 1.

(B) Conclusion. Employee C's base amount is $250,000 ((2 × $250,000)/2). The $30,000 of director's fees paid to Employee C in each of 2024 and 2025 is not included in Employee C's base amount calculation because it was not for services performed as an employee of ATEO 1.

[T.D. 9938, 86 FR 6219, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 53.4960-4 Liability for tax on excess remuneration and excess parachute payments.

(a) Liability, reporting, and payment of excise taxes—(1) Liability. For each taxable year, with respect to each covered employee, the taxpayer is liable for tax at the rate imposed under section 11 on the sum of the excess remuneration allocated to the taxpayer under paragraph (c) of this section and, if the taxpayer is an ATEO, any excess parachute payment paid by the taxpayer or a predecessor during the taxable year.

(2) Reporting and payment. The excise tax imposed by section 4960 is reported as provided in §§ 53.6011-1(b) and 53.6071-1(i) and paid in the form and manner prescribed by the Commissioner.

(3) Arrangements between an ATEO and a related organization. Calculation of, and liability for, the excise tax imposed by section 4960 is separate from, and unaffected by, any arrangement that an ATEO and any related organization may have for bearing the cost of any liability for the excise tax imposed by section 4960.

(4) Certain foreign related organizations. A related organization that is a foreign organization described in section 4948(b) that either is exempt from tax under section 501(a) or is a taxable private foundation (section 4948(b) related organization) is not liable for the excise tax imposed by section 4960. A foreign organization is an organization not created or organized in the United States or in any possession thereof, or under the law of the United States, any State, the District of Columbia, or any possession of the United States. See section 4948(b) and § 53.4948-1. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(4) and the application of section 4960 to a taxable year, an organization's status as a section 4948(b) related organization is determined at the end of its taxable year. However, remuneration that the section 4948(b) related organization pays to a covered employee of an ATEO must be taken into account by the ATEO and other related organizations for purposes of section 4960 generally, including for purposes of determining the five highest-compensated employees and the total remuneration paid to a covered employee. For example, if an ATEO and its related organization that is a section 4948(b) related organization each paid $600,000 remuneration to a covered employee during the applicable year, then the related organization would not be liable for the tax that would otherwise be allocable to it, and the ATEO would be liable for tax on $100,000 (50 percent of the $200,000 excess remuneration paid to the employee).

(5) [Reserved]

(b) Amounts subject to tax—(1) Excess remuneration—(i) In general. Excess remuneration means the amount of remuneration paid by an ATEO to any covered employee during an applicable year in excess of $1 million, as determined under § 53.4960-2.

(ii) Exclusion for excess parachute payments. Excess remuneration does not include any amount that is an excess parachute payment as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(2) Excess parachute payment. Excess parachute payment means an amount equal to the excess (if any) of the amount of any parachute payment paid by an ATEO, a predecessor of the ATEO, or a related organization, or on behalf of any such person, during the taxable year over the portion of the base amount allocated to such payment.

(c) Calculation of liability for tax on excess remuneration—(1) In general. For each taxable year, an employer is liable for the tax on excess remuneration paid in the applicable year ending with or within the employer's taxable year. If, for the taxable year, remuneration paid during an applicable year by an ATEO or one or more related organizations to a covered employee is taken into account in determining the tax imposed on excess remuneration for that taxable year, then each employer is liable for the tax in an amount that bears the same ratio to the total tax determined under section 4960(a) as the amount of remuneration paid by the employer to the covered employee (including remuneration paid by the employer as described in § 53.4960-2(b)(1), but disregarding remuneration treated as paid by the employer under § 53.4960-2(b)(2)), bears to the total amount of remuneration paid by the ATEO under § 53.4960-2 (including remuneration treated as paid by the ATEO under § 53.4960-2(b)(2)).

(2) Calculation if liability is allocated from more than one ATEO with regard to an individual. If liability for the tax on excess remuneration is allocated to an employer from more than one ATEO in a taxable year with regard to an individual that is a covered employee of each ATEO, then the employer is liable for the tax only in the capacity in which it is liable for the greatest amount of the tax with respect to that individual for the taxable year. For example, assume ATEO 1 is a related organization to both ATEO 2 and ATEO 3 and pays excess remuneration to Employee D, and Employee D is a covered employee of ATEO 1, ATEO 2, and ATEO 3. In this case, ATEO 1's liability for the tax on excess remuneration to Employee D is the highest of its liability as an ATEO, as a related organization to ATEO 2, or as a related organization to ATEO 3.

(3) Calculation if liability is allocated from an ATEO with a short applicable year. If liability for the tax on excess remuneration paid to an individual is allocated to an employer from an ATEO with a short applicable year under § 53.4960-1(c)(3), then the liability with respect to the excess remuneration paid to that individual is allocated in accordance with the principles of this paragraph (c) adjusted as necessary to avoid, to the extent possible, duplication of application of the excise tax. The Commissioner may provide additional guidance of general applicability, published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601(d)(2) of this chapter), on the application of this paragraph (c)(3) to particular circumstances, including circumstances involving an ATEO with a short applicable year that has one or more related organizations and the ATEO's short applicable year and the preceding applicable year both end with or within the related organization's taxable year, such that the ATEO and related organizations are liable for the tax for multiple applicable years ending with or within the employer's taxable year.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (c). For purposes of these examples, assume that the rate of excise tax under section 4960 is 21 percent, that any entity that is referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO, that any entity referred to as “CORP” is not an ATEO and is not a publicly held corporation within the meaning of section 162(m)(2) or a covered health insurance provider within the meaning of section 162(m)(6)(C), that no related organization is a section 4948(b) related organization, all taxpayers use the calendar year as their taxable year unless otherwise stated, and that no parachute payments are made in any of the years at issue.

(i) Example 1 (Remuneration from multiple employers)—(A) Facts. ATEO 1 and CORP 1 are related organizations. Employee A is a covered employee of ATEO 1 and an employee of CORP 1. In the 2022 applicable year, ATEO 1 pays Employee A $1.2 million of remuneration, and CORP 1 pays A $800,000 of remuneration. Remuneration paid by each employer is for services performed by Employee A solely as an employee of that employer.

(B) Conclusion. For the 2022 taxable year, ATEO 1 is treated as paying Employee A $2 million of remuneration, $1 million of which is excess remuneration. The total excise tax is $210,000 (21 percent × $1 million). ATEO 1 paid 3/5 of Employee A's total remuneration ($1.2 million/$2 million); thus, ATEO 1 is liable for 3/5 of the excise tax, which is $126,000. CORP 1 paid 2/5 of Employee A's total remuneration ($800,000/$2 million); thus, CORP 1 is liable for 2/5 of the excise tax, which is $84,000.

(ii) Example 2 (Application when taxpayers have different taxable years)—(A) Facts. Assume the same facts as in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section (Example 1), except that CORP 2 uses a taxable year beginning July 1 and ending June 30.

(B) Conclusion. The conclusion is the same as the conclusion in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section (Example 1), except that ATEO 1 is liable for the tax for its taxable year starting January 1, 2022, and ending December 31, 2022, and CORP 1 is liable for the tax for its taxable year beginning July 1, 2022, and ending June 30, 2023 (the taxable year with or within which ATEO 1's 2022 applicable year ends).

(iii) Example 3 (Multiple liabilities for same applicable year due to multiple ATEOs)—(A) Facts. The following facts are all with respect to the 2023 applicable year: ATEO 5 owns 60 percent of the stock of CORP 2. Sixty percent of ATEO 4's directors are representatives of ATEO 3. In addition, 60 percent of ATEO 5's directors are representatives of ATEO 4, but none are representatives of ATEO 3. Employee B is a covered employee of ATEO 3, ATEO 4, and ATEO 5 and is an employee of CORP 2. ATEO 3, ATEO 4, ATEO 5, and CORP 2 each pay Employee B $1.2 million of remuneration in the applicable year. ATEO 4's related organizations are ATEO 3 and ATEO 5. ATEO 3's only related organization is ATEO 4. ATEO 5's related organizations are ATEO 4 and CORP 2.

(B) Calculation (ATEO 3). Under ATEO 3's calculation as an ATEO for the 2023 applicable year, ATEO 3 is treated as paying Employee B a total of $2.4 million in remuneration ($1.2 million from ATEO 3 + $1.2 million from ATEO 4). The total excise tax is $294,000 (21 percent × $1.4 million). ATEO 3 and ATEO 4 each paid 1/2 of Employee B's total remuneration ($1.2 million/$2.4 million); thus, under ATEO 3's calculation, ATEO 3 and ATEO 4 each would be liable for 1/2 of the excise tax, which is $147,000.

(C) Calculation (ATEO 4). Under ATEO 4's calculation as an ATEO for the 2023 applicable year, ATEO 4 is treated as paying Employee B a total of $3.6 million in remuneration for the 2022 applicable year ($1.2 million from ATEO 3 + $1.2 million from ATEO 4 + $1.2 million from ATEO 5). The total excise tax is $546,000 (21 percent × $2.6 million). ATEO 3, ATEO 4, and ATEO 5 each paid 1/3 of the total remuneration to Employee B ($1.2 million/$3.6 million); thus, under ATEO 4's calculation, ATEO 3, ATEO 4, and ATEO 5 each would be liable for 1/3 of the excise tax, which is $182,000.

(D) Calculation (ATEO 5). Under ATEO 5's calculation as an ATEO for the 2023 applicable year, ATEO 5 is treated as paying Employee B a total of $3.6 million in remuneration ($1.2 million from ATEO 4 + $1.2 million from ATEO 5 + $1.2 million from CORP 2). The total excise tax is $546,000 (21 percent × $2.6 million). ATEO 4, ATEO 5, and CORP 2 each paid 1/3 of the total remuneration to Employee B ($1.2 million/$3.6 million); thus, under ATEO 5's calculation, ATEO 4, ATEO 5, and CORP 2 each would be liable for 1/3 of the excise tax, which is $182,000.

(E) Conclusion (Liability of ATEO 3). For the 2023 applicable year, ATEO 3 is liable for $182,000 of excise tax as a related organization under ATEO 4's calculation, which is greater than the $147,000 of excise tax under ATEO 3's own calculation. Thus, ATEO 3's excise tax liability with respect to Employee B is $182,000 for its 2023 taxable year.

(F) Conclusion (Liability of ATEO 4). For the 2023 applicable year, ATEO 4 is liable as a related organization for $147,000 of excise tax according to ATEO 3's calculation, for $182,000 according to ATEO 4's own calculation, and for $182,000 according to ATEO 5's calculation. Thus, ATEO 4's excise tax liability with respect to Employee B is $182,000 for its 2023 taxable year.

(G) Conclusion (Liability of ATEO 5). For the 2023 applicable year, ATEO 5 is liable as a related organization for $182,000 of excise tax under ATEO 4's calculation, and is liable for $182,000 of excise tax under ATEO 5's own calculation. Thus, ATEO 5's excise tax liability with respect to Employee B is $182,000 for its 2023 taxable year.

(H) Conclusion (Liability of CORP 2). For the 2023 applicable year, CORP 2 is liable as a related organization for $182,000 of excise tax according to ATEO 5's calculation only. Thus, CORP 2's excise tax liability with respect to Employee B is $182,000 for its 2023 taxable year.

(d) Calculation of liability for excess parachute payments—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, only excess parachute payments made by or on behalf of an ATEO are subject to tax under this section. However, parachute payments made by related organizations that are not made by or on behalf of an ATEO are taken into account for purposes of determining the total amount of excess parachute payments.

(2) Computation of excess parachute payments—(i) Calculation. The amount of an excess parachute payment is the excess of the amount of any parachute payment made by an ATEO, a predecessor of the ATEO, or a related organization, or on behalf of any such person, over the portion of the covered employee's base amount that is allocated to the payment. The portion of the base amount allocated to any parachute payment is the amount that bears the same ratio to the base amount as the present value of the parachute payment bears to the aggregate present value of all parachute payments made or to be made to (or for the benefit of) the same covered employee. Thus, the portion of the base amount allocated to any parachute payment is determined by multiplying the base amount by a fraction, the numerator of which is the present value of the parachute payment and the denominator of which is the aggregate present value of all parachute payments.

(ii) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (d)(2). For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO and all employees are HCEs of their respective employers.

(A) Example 1 (Compensation from related organizations)—(1) Facts. ATEO 1 and ATEO 2 are related organizations. Employee A is a covered employee of ATEO 1 and an employee of ATEO 2 who has an involuntary separation from employment with ATEO 1 and ATEO 2. Employee A's base amount is $200,000 with respect to ATEO 1 and $400,000 with respect to ATEO 2. A receives $1 million from ATEO 1 contingent upon Employee A's involuntary separation from employment from ATEO 1 and $1 million from ATEO 2 contingent upon Employee A's involuntary separation from employment from ATEO 2.

(2) Conclusion. Employee A has a base amount of $600,000 ($200,000 + $400,000). The two $1 million payments are parachute payments because their aggregate present value is at least 3-times Employee A's base amount (3 × $600,000 = $1.8 million). The portion of the base amount allocated to each parachute payment is $300,000 (($1 million/$2 million) × $600,000). Thus, the amount of each excess parachute payment is $700,000 ($1 million−$300,000).

(B) Example 2 (Multiple parachute payments)—(1) Facts. Employee B is a covered employee of ATEO 3 with a base amount of $200,000 who is entitled to receive two parachute payments: One of $200,000 and the other of $900,000. The $200,000 payment is made upon separation from employment, and the $900,000 payment is to be made on a date in a future taxable year. The present value of the $900,000 payment is $800,000 as of the date of the separation from employment.

(2) Conclusion. The portion of the base amount allocated to the first payment is $40,000 (($200,000 present value of the parachute payment/$1 million present value of all parachute payments) × $200,000 total base amount) and the portion of the base amount allocated to the second payment is $160,000 (($800,000 present value of the parachute payment/$1 million present value of all parachute payments) × $200,000 total base amount). Thus, the amount of the first excess parachute payment is $160,000 ($200,000−$40,000) and that the amount of the second excess parachute payment is $740,000 ($900,000−$160,000).

(3) Reallocation when the payment is disproportionate to base amount. In accordance with section 4960(d), the Commissioner may treat a parachute payment as paid by an ATEO if the facts and circumstances indicate that the ATEO and other payors of parachute payments structured the payments in a manner primarily to avoid liability under section 4960. For example, if an ATEO would otherwise be treated as paying a portion of an excess parachute payment in an amount that is materially lower in proportion to the total excess parachute payment than the proportion that the amount of average annual compensation paid by the ATEO (or any predecessor) during the base period bears to the total average annual compensation paid by the ATEO (or any predecessor) and any related organization (or organizations), and the lower amount is offset by payments from a non-ATEO or an unrelated ATEO, this may indicate that that the parachute payments were structured in a manner primarily to avoid liability under section 4960.

(4) Election to prepay tax. An ATEO may prepay the excise tax under paragraph (a)(1) of this section on any excess parachute payment for the taxable year of the separation from employment or any later taxable year before the taxable year in which the parachute payment is actually or constructively paid. However, an employer may not prepay the excise tax on a payment to be made in cash if the present value of the payment is not reasonably ascertainable under § 31.3121(v)(2)-1(e)(4) or on a payment related to health coverage. Any prepayment must be based on the present value of the excise tax that would be due for the taxable year in which the employer will pay the excess parachute payment, and be calculated using the discount rate equal to 120 percent of the applicable Federal rate (determined under section 1274(d) and the regulations in part 1 under section 1274) and the tax rate in effect under section 11 for the year in which the excise tax is paid. For purposes of projecting the future value of a payment that provides for interest to be credited at a variable interest rate, the employer may make a reasonable assumption regarding the variable rate. An employer is not required to adjust the excise tax paid merely because the actual future interest rates are not the same as the rate used for purposes of projecting the future value of the payment.

(5) Liability after a redetermination of total parachute payments. If an ATEO determines that an estimate made under § 53.4960-3(j)(1) was incorrect, it must reapply the 3-times-base-amount test to reflect the actual time and amount of the payment. In reapplying the 3-times-base-amount test (and, if necessary, reallocating the base amount), the ATEO must determine the correct base amount allocable to any parachute payment paid in the taxable year. See § 1.280G-1, Q/A-33(d) for examples that may be applied by analogy to illustrate the rules of this paragraph (d)(5).

(6) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this paragraph (d). For purposes of these examples, assume any entity referred to as “ATEO” is an ATEO, any entity referred to as “CORP” is not an ATEO, and all employees are HCEs of their respective employers.

(i) Example 1 (Excess parachute payment paid by a non-ATEO)—(A) Facts. ATEO 1 and CORP 1 are related organizations that are treated as the same employer for purposes of § 53.4960-3(e)(3) (defining separation from employment) and are both calendar year taxpayers. For 2022 through 2026, ATEO 1 and CORP 1 each pay Employee A $250,000 of compensation per year for services performed as an employee of each organization ($500,000 total per year). In 2027, ATEO 1 and CORP 1 each pay Employee A $1 million payment ($2 million total) that is contingent on Employee A's separation from employment with both ATEO 1 and CORP 1, all of which is remuneration, and no other compensation. Employee A is a covered employee of ATEO 1 in 2027.

(B) Conclusion. Employee A's base amount in 2027 is $500,000 (Employee A's average annual compensation from both ATEO 1 and CORP 1 for the previous 5 years). ATEO 1 makes a parachute payment of $2 million in 2027, the amount paid by both ATEO 1 and CORP 1 that is contingent on Employee A's separation from employment with ATEO 1 and all organizations that are treated as the same employer under § 53.4960-3(e)(3). Employee A's $2 million payment exceeds 3-times the base amount ($1.5 million). ATEO 1 makes a $1.5 million excess parachute payment (the amount by which $2 million exceeds the $500,000 base amount). However, ATEO 1 is liable for tax only on the excess parachute payment paid by ATEO 1 ($1 million parachute payment−$250,000 base amount = $750,000) that is subject to tax under § 53.4960-4(a). CORP 1 is not liable for tax under § 53.4960-4(a) in 2027.

(ii) Example 2 (Election to prepay tax on excess parachute payments and effect on excess remuneration)—(A) Facts. Employee B is a covered employee of ATEO 2 with a base amount of $200,000 who is entitled to receive two parachute payments from ATEO 2, one of $200,000 and the other of $900,000. The $200,000 payment is made upon separation from employment, and the $900,000 payment is to be made on a date in a future taxable year. The present value of the $900,000 payment is $800,000 as of the date of the separation from employment. ATEO 2 elects to prepay the excise tax on the $900,000 future parachute payment (of which $740,000 is an excess parachute payment). The tax rate under section 11 is 21 percent for the taxable year the excise tax is paid and, using a discount rate determined under § 53.4960-3(i), the present value of the $155,400 ($740,000 × 21 percent) excise tax on the $740,000 future excess parachute payment is $140,000.

(B) Conclusion. The excess parachute payment is thus $800,000 ($200,000 plus $800,000 present value of the $900,000 future payment, less $200,000 base amount), with $40,000 of the base amount allocable to the $200,000 payment and $160,000 of the base amount allocable to the $900,000 payment. To prepay the excise tax on the $740,000 future excess parachute payment, the employer must satisfy its $140,000 obligation under section 4960 with respect to the future payment, in addition to the $33,600 excise tax ($160,000 × 21 percent) on the $160,000 excess parachute payment made upon separation from employment. For purposes of determining the amount of excess remuneration (if any) under section 4960(a)(1), the amount of remuneration paid by the employer to the covered employee for the taxable year of the separation from employment is reduced by the $900,000 of total excess parachute payments ($160,000 + $740,000).

[T.D. 9938, 86 FR 6219, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 53.4960-5 [Reserved]
§ 53.4960-6 Applicability date.

(a) General applicability date. Sections 53.4960-0 through 53.4960-4 apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2021. Taxpayers may choose to apply §§ 53.4960-0 through 53.4960-4 to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, and on or before December 31, 2021, provided the taxpayer applies §§ 53.4960-0 through 53.4960-4 in their entirety and in a consistent manner.

(b) [Reserved]

[T.D. 9938, 86 FR 6219, Jan. 19, 2021]

§ 53.4961-1 Abatement of second tier taxes for correction within correction period.

If any taxable event is corrected during the correction period for the event, then any second tier tax imposed with respect to the event shall not be assessed. If the tax has been assessed, it shall be abated. If the tax has been collected, it shall be credited or refunded as an overpayment. For purposes of this section, the tax imposed includes interest, additions to the tax and additional amounts. For definitions of the terms second tier tax, taxable event, correct, and correction period, see § 53.4963-1.

§ 53.4961-2 Court proceedings to determine liability for second tier tax.

(a) Introduction. Under section 4961 (b) and (c), the period of limitations on collection may be suspended and assessment or collection of first or second tier tax may be prohibited during the pendency of administrative and judicial proceedings conducted to determine a taxpayer's liability for second tier tax. This section provides rules relating to the suspension of the limitations period and the prohibitions on assessment and collection. In addition, this section describes the administrative and judicial proceedings to which these rules apply.

(b) Initial proceeding—(1) Defined. For purposes of subpart K, an initial proceeding means a proceeding described in subparagraph (2) or (3).

(2) Tax Court proceeding before assessment. A proceeding is described in this subparagraph (2) if it is a proceeding with respect to the taxpayer's liability for second tier tax and is commenced in accordance with section 6213 (a).

(3) Refund proceeding commenced before correction period ends. A proceeding is described in this subparagraph (3) if it is a proceeding commenced under section 7422, in accordance with the provisions of § 53.4963-1(e) (4) and (5) (relating to prerequisites to extension of the correction period during certain refund proceedings), and with respect to the taxpayer's liability for second tier tax.

(c) Supplemental proceeding—(1) Jurisdiction. If a determination in an initial proceeding that a taxpayer is liable for a second tier tax has become final, the court in which the initial proceeding was commenced shall have jurisdiction to conduct any necessary supplemental proceeding to determine whether the taxable event was corrected during the correction period.

(2) Time for beginning proceeding. The time for beginning a supplemental proceeding begins on the day after a determination in an initial proceeding becomes final and ends on the 90th day after the last day of the correction period.

(d) Restriction on assessment during Tax Court proceeding. If a supplemental proceeding described in section 4961 (b) and § 53.4961-2(c) is commenced in the Tax Court, the provisions of the second and third sentences of section 6213(a) and the first and third sentences of § 301.6213-1(a)(2) apply with respect to a deficiency in second tier tax until the decision of the Tax Court in the supplemental proceeding is final.

(e) Suspension of period of collection for second tier tax—(1) Scope. Except as provided in subparagraph (6), this paragraph (e) applies to the second tier tax assessed with respect to a taxable event if a claim described in subparagraph (2) is filed.

(2) Claim for refund. A claim for refund is described in this subparagraph (2) if, no later than 90 days after the day on which the second tier tax is assessed with respect to a taxable event, the taxpayer—

(i) Pays the full amount of first tier tax for the taxable period, and

(ii) Files a claim for refund of the amount paid.

(3) Collection prohibited. No levy or proceeding in court for the collection of the second tier tax shall be made, begun, or prosecuted until the end of the collection prohibition period described in subparagraph (5). Notwithstanding section 7421(a), the collection by levy or proceeding may be enjoined during the collection prohibition period by a proceeding in the proper court.

(4) Suspension of running of period of limitations on collection. With respect to a second tier tax to which this paragraph (e) applies, the running of the period of limitations provided in section 6502 (relating to collection of tax by levy or by a proceeding in court) shall be suspended for the collection prohibition period described in subparagraph (5).

(5) Collection prohibition period. The collection prohibition period begins on the day the second tier tax is assessed and ends on the latest of:

(i) The day a decision in a refund proceeding commenced before the 91st day after denial of the claim described in subparagraph (2) of this paragraph (including any supplemental proceeding under § 53.4961-2(c)) becomes final;

(ii) The 90th day after the claim referred to in subparagraph (2) is denied; or

(iii) The 90th day after the second tier tax is assessed.

(6) Jeopardy collection. If the Secretary makes a finding that the collection of the second tier tax is in jeopardy, nothing in this paragraph (e) shall prevent the immediate collection of such tax.

(f) Finality—(1) Tax Court proceeding. For purposes of this subpart K, section 7481 applies in determining when a decision in a Tax Court proceeding becomes final.

(2) Refund proceeding. For purposes of this subpart K, § 301.7422-1 applies in determining when a decision in a refund proceeding becomes final.

§ 53.4963-1 Definitions.

(a) First tier tax. For purposes of this subpart K, the term first tier tax means any tax imposed by subsection (a) of section 4941, 4942, 4943, 4944, 4945, 4951, 4952, 4955, 4958, 4966, 4967, 4971, or 4975. A first tier tax may also be referred to as an “initial tax” in parts 53 and 54.

(b) Second tier tax. For purposes of this subpart K, the term second tier tax means any tax imposed by subsection (b) of section 4941, 4942, 4943, 4944, 4945, 4951, 4952, 4955, 4958, 4971, or 4975. A second tier tax may also be referred to as an “additional tax” in parts 53 and 54.

(c) Taxable event. For purposes of this subpart K, the term taxable event means any act, or failure to act, giving rise to liability for tax under section 4941, 4942, 4943, 4944, 4945, 4951, 4952, 4955, 4958, 4966, 4967, 4971, or 4975.

(d) Correct—(1) In general. Except as provided in subparagraph (2), the term correct has the same meaning for purposes of this subpart K as in the section which imposes the second tier tax or the regulations thereunder.

(2) Special rules. The term correct means—

(i) For a second tier tax imposed by section 4942(b), reducing the amount of the undistributed income to zero,

(ii) For a second tier tax imposed by section 4943(b), reducing the amount of the excess business holdings to zero, and

(iii) For a second tier tax imposed by section 4944(b), removing the investment from jeopardy.

(e) Correction period—(1) In general. The correction period with respect to any taxable event shall begin with the date on which the taxable event occurs and shall end 90 days after the date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the second tier tax imposed with respect to the taxable event.

(2) Extensions of correction period. The correction period referred to in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph shall be extended by any period in which a deficiency cannot be assessed under section 6213(a). In addition, the correction period referred to in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (e) shall be extended in accordance with subparagraph (3), (4), and (5) of this paragraph except that subparagraph (4), or (5) shall not operate to extend a correction period with respect to which a taxpayer has filed a petition with the United States Tax Court for redetermination of a deficiency within the time prescribed by section 6213(a).

(3) Extensions by Commissioner. The correction period referred to in subparagraph (1) of this paragraph may be extended by any period which the Commissioner determines is reasonable and necessary to bring about correction (including, for taxes imposed by section 4975, equitable relief sought by the Secretary of Labor) of the taxable event. The Commissioner ordinarily will not extend the correction period unless the following factors are present.

(i) The taxpayer on whom the second tier tax is imposed, the Secretary of Labor (for taxes imposed by section 4975), or an appropriate State officer (as defined in section 6104(c)(2)) is actively seeking in good faith to correct the taxable event;

(ii) Adequate corrective action cannot reasonably be expected to result during the unextended correction period;

(iii) For taxes imposed by section 4975, the Secretary of Labor requests the extension because subdivision (ii) applies; and

(iv) For taxes imposed by chapter 42 (other than taxes imposed by section 4940), the taxable event appears to have been an isolated occurrence so that it appears unlikely that similar taxable events will occur in the future.

(4) Extension for payment of first tier tax. If, within the unexpected correction period, the taxpayer pays the full amount of the first tier tax imposed with respect to the taxable event the Commissioner shall extend the correction period to the later of—

(i) Ninety days after the payment of the first tier tax, or

(ii) The last day of the correction period determined without regard to this paragraph.

(5) Extensions for filing claim for refund or refund suit. If prior to the expiration of the correction period (including extensions) a claim for refund is filed with respect to payment of the full amount of the first tier tax imposed with respect to the taxable event, the Commissioner shall extend the correction period during the pendency of the claim plus an additional 90 days. If within that time a suit or proceeding referred to in section 7422(g) with respect to the claim is filed, the Commissioner shall extend the correction period until the determination in the suit for refund (determined without regard to a supplemental proceeding under section 4861(b)) is final, determined under § 301.7422-2(a).

(6) End of correction period if waiver accepted. If the notice of deficiency referred to in paragraph (1) is not mailed because there is a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of the deficiency or because the deficiency is paid, the correction period will end with the end of the collection prohibition period described in § 53.4961-2(e)(5).

(7) Date on which taxable event occurs. For purposes of subparagraph (1), the taxable event shall be treated as occurring—

(i) Under section 4942, on the first day of the taxable year for which there is undistributed income,

(ii) Under section 4943, on the first day on which there are excess business holdings,

(iii) Under section 4971, on the last day of the plan year in which there is an accumulated funding deficiency, and

(iv) In all other cases, the date on which the event occurred.

(f) Effective date. The provisions of this subpart K are effective with respect to second tier taxes assessed after December 24, 1980. The preceding sentence shall not be construed to permit the assessment of a tax in a case to which, on December 24, 1980, the doctrine of res judicata applied.

[T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16303, May 2, 1986; 51 FR 17732, May 15, 1986, as amended by T.D. 8628, 60 FR 62212, Dec. 5, 1995; T.D. 8920, 66 FR 2171, Jan. 10, 2001; T.D. 9855, 84 FR 14009, Apr. 9, 2019]

§ 53.4965-1 Overview.

(a) Entity-level excise tax. Section 4965 imposes two excise taxes with respect to certain tax shelter transactions to which tax-exempt entities are parties. Section 4965(a)(1) imposes an entity-level excise tax on certain tax-exempt entities that are parties to “prohibited tax shelter transactions,” as defined in section 4965(e). See § 53.4965-2 for the discussion of covered tax-exempt entities. See § 53.4965-3 for the definition of prohibited tax shelter transactions. See § 53.4965-4 for the definition of tax-exempt party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction. The entity-level excise tax under section 4965(a)(1) is imposed on a specified percentage of the entity's net income or proceeds that are attributable to the transaction for the relevant tax year (or a period within that tax year). The rate of tax depends on whether the entity knew or had reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction at the time the entity became a party to the transaction. See § 53.4965-7(a) for the discussion of the entity-level excise tax under section 4965(a)(1). See § 53.4965-6 for the discussion of “knowing or having reason to know.” See § 53.4965-8 for the definition of net income and proceeds and the standard for allocating net income and proceeds that are attributable to a prohibited tax shelter transaction to various periods.

(b) Manager-level excise tax. Section 4965(a)(2) imposes a manager-level excise tax on “entity managers,” as defined in section 4965(d), of tax-exempt entities who approve the entity as a party (or otherwise cause the entity to be a party) to a prohibited tax shelter transaction and know or have reason to know, at the time the tax-exempt entity enters into the transaction, that the transaction is a prohibited tax shelter transaction. See § 53.4965-5 for the definition of entity manager and the meaning of “approving or otherwise causing,” and § 53.4965-6 for the discussion of “knowing or having reason to know.” See § 53.4965-7(b) for the discussion of the manager-level excise tax under section 4965(a)(2).

(c) Effective/applicability dates. See § 53.4965-9 for the discussion of the relevant effective and applicability dates.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010]

§ 53.4965-2 Covered tax-exempt entities.

(a) In general. Under section 4965(c), the term “tax-exempt entity” refers to entities that are described in sections 501(c), 501(d), or 170(c) (other than the United States), Indian tribal governments (within the meaning of section 7701(a)(40)), and tax-qualified pension plans, individual retirement arrangements and similar tax-favored savings arrangements that are described in sections 4979(e)(1), (2) or (3), 529, 457(b), or 4973(a). The tax-exempt entities referred to in section 4965(c) are divided into two broad categories, non-plan entities and plan entities.

(b) Non-plan entities. Non-plan entities are—

(1) Entities described in section 501(c);

(2) Religious or apostolic associations or corporations described in section 501(d);

(3) Entities described in section 170(c), including states, possessions of the United States, the District of Columbia, political subdivisions of states and political subdivisions of possessions of the United States (but not including the United States); and

(4) Indian tribal governments within the meaning of section 7701(a)(40).

(c) Plan entities. Plan entities are—

(1) Entities described in section 4979(e)(1) (qualified plans under section 401(a), including qualified cash or deferred arrangements under section 401(k) (including a section 401(k) plan that allows designated Roth contributions));

(2) Entities described in section 4979(e)(2) (annuity plans described in section 403(a));

(3) Entities described in section 4979(e)(3) (annuity contracts described in section 403(b), including a section 403(b) arrangement that allows Roth contributions);

(4) Qualified tuition programs described in section 529;

(5) Eligible deferred compensation plans under section 457(b) that are maintained by a governmental employer as defined in section 457(e)(1)(A);

(6) Arrangements described in section 4973(a) which include—

(i) Individual retirement plans defined in section 408(a) and (b), including—

(A) Simplified employee pensions (SEPs) under section 408(k);

(B) Simple individual retirement accounts (SIMPLEs) under section 408(p);

(C) Deemed individual retirement accounts or annuities (IRAs) qualified under a qualified plan (deemed IRAs) under section 408(q); and

(D) Roth IRAs under section 408A.

(ii) Arrangements described in section 220(d) (Archer Medical Savings Accounts (MSAs));

(iii) Arrangements described in section 403(b)(7) (custodial accounts treated as annuity contracts);

(iv) Arrangements described in section 530 (Coverdell education savings accounts); and

(v) Arrangements described in section 223(d) (health savings accounts (HSAs)).

(d) Effective/applicability dates. See § 53.4965-9 for the discussion of the relevant effective and applicability dates.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010; 75 FR 46844, Aug. 4, 2010]

§ 53.4965-3 Prohibited tax shelter transactions.

(a) In general. Under section 4965(e), the term prohibited tax shelter transaction means—

(1) Listed transactions within the meaning of section 6707A(c)(2), including subsequently listed transactions described in paragraph (b) of this section; and

(2) Prohibited reportable transactions, which consist of the following reportable transactions within the meaning of section 6707A(c)(1)—

(i) Confidential transactions, as described in § 1.6011-4(b)(3) of this chapter; or

(ii) Transactions with contractual protection, as described in § 1.6011-4(b)(4) of this chapter.

(b) Subsequently listed transactions. A subsequently listed transaction for purposes of section 4965 is a transaction that is identified by the Secretary as a listed transaction after the tax-exempt entity has entered into the transaction and that was not a prohibited reportable transaction (within the meaning of section 4965(e)(1)(C) and paragraph (a)(2) of this section) at the time the entity entered into the transaction.

(c) Cross-reference. The determination of whether a transaction is a listed transaction or a prohibited reportable transaction for section 4965 purposes shall be made under the law applicable to section 6707A(c)(1) and (c)(2).

(d) Effective/applicability dates. See § 53.4965-9 for the discussion of the relevant effective and applicability dates.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010]

§ 53.4965-4 Definition of tax-exempt party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(a) In general. For purposes of sections 4965 and 6033(a)(2), a tax-exempt entity is a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction if the entity—

(1) Facilitates a prohibited tax shelter transaction by reason of its tax-exempt, tax indifferent or tax-favored status; or

(2) Is identified in published guidance, by type, class or role, as a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(b) Published guidance may identify which tax-exempt entities, by type, class or role, will not be treated as a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(c) Example. The following example illustrates the principle of paragraph (a)(1) of this section:

Example.A tax-exempt entity enters into a transaction (Transaction A) with an S corporation. Transaction A is the same as or substantially similar to the transaction identified by the Secretary as a listed transaction in Notice 2004-30 (2004-1 CB 828). The tax-exempt entity's role in Transaction A is similar to the role of the tax-exempt party, as described in Notice 2004-30. Under the terms of the transaction, as described in Notice 2004-30, the tax-exempt entity receives the S corporation stock and purports to aid the S corporation and its shareholders in avoiding taxable income. The tax-exempt entity facilitates Transaction A by reason of its tax-exempt, tax indifferent or tax-favored status. Accordingly, the tax-exempt entity is a party to Transaction A for purposes of sections 4965 and 6033(a)(2). See § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter.

(d) Effective/applicability dates. See § 53.4965-9 for the discussion of the relevant effective and applicability dates.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010]

§ 53.4965-5 Entity managers and related definitions.

(a) Entity manager of a non-plan entity—(1) In general. Under section 4965(d)(1), an entity manager of a non-plan entity is—

(i) A person with the authority or responsibility similar to that exercised by an officer, director, or trustee of an organization (that is, the non-plan entity); and

(ii) With respect to any act, the person who has final authority or responsibility (either individually or as a member of a collective body) with respect to such act.

(2) Definition of officer. For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, a person is considered to be an officer of the non-plan entity (or to have similar authority or responsibility) if the person—

(i) Is specifically designated as such under the certificate of incorporation, by-laws, or other constitutive documents of the non-plan entity; or

(ii) Regularly exercises general authority to make administrative or policy decisions on behalf of the non-plan entity.

(3) Exception for acts requiring approval by a superior. With respect to any act, any person is not described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section if the person has authority merely to recommend particular administrative or policy decisions, but not to implement them without approval of a superior.

(4) Delegation of authority. A person is an entity manager of a non-plan entity within the meaning of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section if, with respect to any prohibited tax shelter transaction, such person has been delegated final authority or responsibility with respect to such transaction (including by transaction type or dollar amount) by a person described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section or the governing board of the entity. For example, an investment manager is an entity manager with respect to a prohibited tax shelter transaction if the non-plan entity's governing body delegated to the investment manager the final authority to make certain investment decisions and, in the exercise of that authority, the manager committed the entity to the transaction. To be considered an entity manager of a non-plan entity within the meaning of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, a person need not be an employee of the entity. A person is not described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section if the person is merely implementing a decision made by a superior.

(b) Entity manager of a plan entity—(1) In general. Under section 4965(d)(2), an entity manager of a plan entity is the person who approves or otherwise causes the entity to be a party to the prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(2) Special rule for plan participants and beneficiaries who have investment elections—(i) Fully self-directed plans or arrangements. In the case of a fully self-directed qualified plan, IRA, or other savings arrangement (including a case where a plan participant or beneficiary is given a list of prohibited investments, such as collectibles), if the plan participant or beneficiary selected a certain investment and, therefore, approved the plan entity to become a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction, the plan participant or the beneficiary is an entity manager.

(ii) Plans or arrangements with limited investment options. In the case of a qualified plan, IRA, or other savings arrangement where a plan participant or beneficiary is offered a limited number of investment options from which to choose, the person responsible for determining the pre-selected investment options is an entity manager and the plan participant or the beneficiary generally is not an entity manager.

(c) Meaning of “approves or otherwise causes”—(1) In general. A person is treated as approving or otherwise causing a tax-exempt entity to become a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction if the person has the authority to commit the entity to the transaction, either individually or as a member of a collective body, and the person exercises that authority.

(2) Collective bodies. If a person shares the authority described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section as a member of a collective body (for example, board of trustees or committee), the person will be considered to have exercised such authority if the person voted in favor of the entity becoming a party to the transaction. However, a member of the collective body will not be treated as having exercised the authority described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if he or she voted against a resolution that constituted approval or an act that caused the tax-exempt entity to be a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction, abstained from voting for such approval, or otherwise failed to vote in favor of such approval.

(3) Exceptions—(i) Successor in interest. If a tax-exempt entity that is a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction is dissolved, liquidated, or merged into a successor entity, an entity manager of the successor entity will not, solely by reason of the reorganization, be treated as approving or otherwise causing the successor entity to become a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction, provided that the reorganization of the tax-exempt entity does not result in a material change to the terms of the transaction. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(i), a material change includes an extension or renewal of the agreement (other than an extension or renewal that results from another party to the transaction unilaterally exercising an option granted by the agreement) or a more than incidental change to any payment under the agreement. A change for the sole purpose of substituting the successor entity for the original tax-exempt party is not a material change.

(ii) Exercise or nonexercise of options. Nonexercise of an option pursuant to a transaction involving the tax-exempt entity generally will not constitute an act of approving or causing the entity to be a party to the transaction. If, pursuant to a transaction involving the tax-exempt entity, the entity manager exercises an option (such as a repurchase option), the entity manager will not be subject to the entity manager-level tax if the exercise of the option does not result in the tax-exempt entity becoming a party to a second transaction that is a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(4) Example. The following example illustrates the principles of paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section:

Example.In a sale-in, lease-out (SILO) transaction described in Notice 2005-13 (2005-1 CB 630), X, which is a non-plan entity, has purported to sell property to Y, a taxable entity and lease it back for a term of years. At the end of the basic lease term, X has the option of “repurchasing” the property from Y for a predetermined purchase price, with funds that have been set aside at the inception of the transaction for that purpose. The entity manager, by deciding to exercise or not exercise the “repurchase” option is not approving or otherwise causing the non-plan entity to become a party to a second prohibited tax shelter transaction. See § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter.

(5) Coordination with the reason-to-know standard. The determination that an entity manager approved or caused a tax-exempt entity to be a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction, by itself, does not establish liability for the section 4965(a)(2) tax. For rules on determining whether an entity manager knew or had reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction, see § 53.4965-6(b).

(d) Effective/applicability dates. See § 53.4965-9 for the discussion of the relevant effective and applicability dates.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010; 75 FR 46844, Aug. 4, 2010]

§ 53.4965-6 Meaning of “knows or has reason to know”.

(a) Attribution to the entity. An entity will be treated as knowing or having reason to know for section 4965 purposes if one or more of its entity managers knew or had reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction at the time the entity manager(s) approved the entity as (or otherwise caused the entity to be) a party to the transaction. The entity shall be attributed the knowledge or reason to know of any entity manager described in § 53.4965-5(a)(1)(i) even if that entity manager does not approve the entity as (or otherwise cause the entity to be) a party to the transaction.

(b) Determining whether an entity manager knew or had reason to know—(1) In general. Whether an entity manager knew or had reason to know that a transaction is a prohibited tax shelter transaction is based on all facts and circumstances. In order for an entity manager to know or have reason to know that a transaction is a prohibited tax shelter transaction, the entity manager must have knowledge of sufficient facts that would lead a reasonable person to conclude that the transaction is a prohibited tax shelter transaction. An entity manager will be considered to have “reason to know” if a reasonable person in the entity manager's circumstances would conclude that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction based on all the facts reasonably available to the manager at the time of approving the entity as (or otherwise causing the entity to be) a party to the transaction. Factors that will be considered in determining whether a reasonable person in the entity manager's circumstances would conclude that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction include, but are not limited to—

(i) The presence of tax shelter indicia (see paragraph (b)(2) of this section);

(ii) Whether the entity manager received a disclosure statement prior to the consummation of the transaction indicating that the transaction may be a prohibited tax shelter transaction (see paragraph (b)(3) of this section); and

(iii) Whether the entity manager made appropriate inquiries into the transaction (see paragraph (b)(4) of this section).

(2) Tax-shelter indicia. The presence of indicia that a transaction is a tax shelter will be treated as an indication that the entity manager knew or had reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction. Tax shelter indicia include but are not limited to—

(i) The transaction is extraordinary for the entity considering prior investment activity;

(ii) The transaction promises an economic return for the organization that is exceptional considering the amount invested by, the participation of, or the absence of risk to the organization; or

(iii) The transaction is of significant size relative to the receipts of the entity.

(3) Effect of disclosure statements. Receipt by an entity manager of a statement, including a statement described in section 6011(g), in advance of a transaction that the transaction may be a prohibited tax shelter transaction (or a statement that a partnership, hedge fund or other investment conduit may engage in a prohibited tax shelter transaction in the future) is a factor relevant in the determination of whether the entity manager knew or had reason to know that the transaction is a prohibited transaction. However, an entity manager will not be treated as knowing or having reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction solely because the entity manager receives such a disclosure.

(4) Appropriate inquiries. What inquiries are appropriate will be determined from the facts and circumstances of each case. For example, if one or more tax shelter indicia are present or if an entity manager receives a disclosure statement described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, an entity manager has a responsibility to inquire further whether the transaction is a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(c) Reliance on professional advice—(1) In general. An entity manager is not required to obtain the advice of a professional tax advisor to establish that the entity manager made appropriate inquiries. Moreover, not seeking professional advice, by itself, shall not give rise to an inference that the entity manager had reason to know that a transaction is a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(2) Reliance on written opinion of professional tax advisor. An entity manager may establish that he or she did not have a reason to know that a transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction at the time the tax-exempt entity entered into the transaction if the entity manager reasonably, and in good faith, relied on the written opinion of a professional tax advisor. Reliance on the written opinion of a professional tax advisor establishes that the entity manager did not have reason to know if, taking into account all the facts and circumstances, the reliance was reasonable and the entity manager acted in good faith. For example, the entity manager's education, sophistication, and business experience will be relevant in determining whether the reliance was reasonable and made in good faith. In no event will an entity manager be considered to have reasonably relied in good faith on an opinion unless the requirements of this paragraph (c)(2) are satisfied. The fact that these requirements are satisfied, however, will not necessarily establish that the entity manager reasonably relied on the opinion in good faith. For example, reliance may not be reasonable or in good faith if the entity manager knew, or reasonably should have known, that the advisor lacked knowledge in the relevant aspects of Federal tax law.

(i) All facts and circumstances considered. The advice must be based upon all pertinent facts and circumstances and the law as it relates to those facts and circumstances. The requirements of this paragraph (c)(2) are not satisfied if the entity manager fails to disclose a fact that it knows, or reasonably should know, is relevant to determining whether the transaction is a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(ii) No unreasonable assumptions. The advice must not be based on unreasonable factual or legal assumptions (including assumptions as to future events) and must not unreasonably rely on the representations, statements, findings, or agreements of the entity manager or any other person (including another party to the transaction or a material advisor within the meaning of sections 6111 and 6112).

(iii) “More likely than not” opinion. The written opinion of the professional tax advisor must apply the appropriate law to the facts and, based on this analysis, must conclude that the transaction was not a prohibited tax shelter transaction at a “more likely than not” level of certainty at the time the entity manager approved the entity (or otherwise caused the entity) to be a party to the transaction.

(3) Special rule. An entity manager's reliance on a written opinion of a professional tax advisor will not be considered reasonable if the advisor is, or is related to a person who is, a material advisor with respect to the transaction within the meaning of sections 6111 and 6112.

(d) Subsequently listed transactions. An entity manager will not be treated as knowing or having reason to know that a transaction (other than a prohibited reportable transaction as defined in section 4965(e)(1)(C) and § 53.4965-3(a)(2)) is a prohibited tax shelter transaction if the entity enters into the transaction before the date on which the transaction is identified by the Secretary as a listed transaction.

(e) Effective/applicability dates. See § 53.4965-9 for the discussion of the relevant effective and applicability dates.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010]

§ 53.4965-7 Taxes on prohibited tax shelter transactions.

(a) Entity-level taxes—(1) In general. Entity-level excise taxes apply to non-plan entities (as defined in § 53.4965-2(b)) that are parties to prohibited tax shelter transactions.

(i) Prohibited tax shelter transactions other than subsequently listed transactions—(A) Amount of tax if the entity did not know and did not have reason to know. If the tax-exempt entity did not know and did not have reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction at the time the entity entered into the transaction, the tax is the highest rate of tax under section 11 multiplied by the greater of—

(1) The entity's net income with respect to the prohibited tax shelter transaction (after taking into account any tax imposed by Subtitle D, other than by this section, with respect to such transaction) for the taxable year; or

(2) 75 percent of the proceeds received by the entity for the taxable year that are attributable to such transaction.

(B) Amount of tax if the entity knew or had reason to know. If the tax-exempt entity knew or had reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction at the time the entity entered into the transaction, the tax is the greater of—

(1) 100 percent of the entity's net income with respect to the transaction (after taking into account any tax imposed by Subtitle D, other than by this section, with respect to such transaction) for the taxable year; or

(2) 75 percent of the proceeds received by the entity for the taxable year that are attributable to such transaction.

(ii) Subsequently listed transactions—(A) In general. In the case of a subsequently listed transaction (as defined in section 4965(e)(2) and § 53.4965-3(b)), the tax-exempt entity's income and proceeds attributable to the transaction are allocated between the period before the transaction became listed and the period beginning on the date the transaction became listed. See § 53.4965-8 for the standard for allocating net income or proceeds to various periods. The tax for each taxable year is the highest rate of tax under section 11 multiplied by the greater of—

(1) The entity's net income with respect to the subsequently listed transaction (after taking into account any tax imposed by Subtitle D, other than by this section, with respect to such transaction) for the taxable year that is allocable to the period beginning on the later of the date such transaction is identified by the Secretary as a listed transaction or the first day of the taxable year; or

(2) 75 percent of the proceeds received by the entity for the taxable year that are attributable to such transaction and allocable to the period beginning on the later of the date such transaction is identified by the Secretary as a listed transaction or the first day of the taxable year.

(B) No increase in tax. The 100 percent tax under section 4965(b)(1)(B) and § 53.4965-7(a)(1)(i)(B) does not apply to any subsequently listed transaction (as defined in section 4965(e)(2) and § 53.4965-3(b)) entered into by a tax-exempt entity before the date on which the transaction is identified by the Secretary as a listed transaction.

(2) Taxable year. The excise tax imposed under section 4965(a)(1) applies for the taxable year in which the entity becomes a party to the prohibited tax shelter transaction and any subsequent taxable year for which the entity has net income or proceeds attributable to the transaction. A taxable year for tax-exempt entities is the calendar year or fiscal year, as applicable, depending on the basis on which the tax-exempt entity keeps its books for Federal income tax purposes. If a tax-exempt entity has not established a taxable year for Federal income tax purposes, the entity's taxable year for the purpose of determining the amount and timing of net income and proceeds attributable to a prohibited tax shelter transaction will be deemed to be the annual period the entity uses in keeping its books and records.

(b) Manager-level taxes—(1) Amount of tax. If any entity manager approved or otherwise caused the tax-exempt entity to become a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction and knew or had reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction, such entity manager is liable for the $20,000 tax. See § 53.4965-5(d) for the meaning of approved or otherwise caused. See § 53.4965-6 for the meaning of knew or had reason to know.

(2) Timing of the entity manager tax. If a tax-exempt entity enters into a prohibited tax shelter transaction during a taxable year of an entity manager, then the entity manager that approved or otherwise caused the tax-exempt entity to become a party to the transaction is liable for the entity manager tax for that taxable year if the entity manager knew or had reason to know that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(3) Example. The application of paragraph (b)(2) of this section is illustrated by the following example:

Example.The entity manager's taxable year is the calendar year. On December 1, 2006, the entity manager approved or otherwise caused the tax-exempt entity to become a party to a transaction that the entity manager knew or had reason to know was a prohibited tax shelter transaction. The tax-exempt entity entered into the transaction on January 31, 2007. The entity manager is liable for the entity manager level tax for the entity manager's 2007 taxable year, during which the tax-exempt entity entered into the prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(4) Separate liability. If more than one entity manager approved or caused a tax-exempt entity to become a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction while knowing (or having reason to know) that the transaction was a prohibited tax shelter transaction, then each such entity manager is separately (that is, not jointly and severally) liable for the entity manager-level tax with respect to the transaction.

(c) Effective/applicability dates. See § 53.4965-9 for the discussion of the relevant effective and applicability dates.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010]

§ 53.4965-8 Definition of net income and proceeds and standard for allocating net income or proceeds to various periods.

(a) In general. For purposes of section 4965(a), the amount and the timing of the net income and proceeds attributable to the prohibited tax shelter transaction will be computed in a manner consistent with the substance of the transaction. In determining the substance of listed transactions, the IRS will look to, among other items, the listing guidance and any subsequent guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin relating to the transaction.

(b) Definition of net income and proceeds—(1) Net income. A tax-exempt entity's net income attributable to a prohibited tax shelter transaction is its gross income derived from the transaction reduced by those deductions that are attributable to the transaction and that would be allowed by chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code if the tax-exempt entity were treated as a taxable entity for this purpose, and further reduced by taxes imposed by Subtitle D, other than by this section, with respect to the transaction.

(2) Proceeds—(i) Tax-exempt entities that facilitate the transaction by reason of their tax-exempt, tax indifferent or tax-favored status. Solely for purposes of section 4965, in the case of a tax-exempt entity that is a party to the transaction by reason of § 53.4965-4(a)(1) of this chapter, the term proceeds means the gross amount of the tax-exempt entity's consideration for facilitating the transaction, not reduced for any costs or expenses attributable to the transaction. Published guidance with respect to a particular prohibited tax shelter transaction may designate additional amounts as proceeds from the transaction for section 4965 purposes.

(ii) Treatment of gifts and contributions. To the extent not otherwise included in the definition of proceeds in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, any amount that is a gift or a contribution to a tax-exempt entity and is attributable to a prohibited tax shelter transaction will be treated as proceeds for section 4965 purposes, unreduced by any associated expenses.

(c) Allocation of net income and proceeds—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4965(a), the net income and proceeds attributable to a prohibited tax shelter transaction must be allocated in a manner consistent with the tax-exempt entity's established method of accounting for Federal income tax purposes. If the tax-exempt entity has not established a method of accounting for Federal income tax purposes, solely for purposes of section 4965(a) the tax-exempt entity must use the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting (cash method) provided for in section 446 of the Internal Revenue Code to determine the amount and timing of net income and proceeds attributable to a prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(2) Special rule. If a tax-exempt entity has established a method of accounting other than the cash method, the tax-exempt entity may nevertheless use the cash method of accounting to determine the amount of the net income and proceeds—

(i) Attributable to a prohibited tax shelter transaction entered into prior to the effective date of section 4965(a) tax and allocable to pre- and post-effective date periods; or

(ii) Attributable to a subsequently listed transaction and allocable to pre- and post-listing periods.

(d) Transition year rules. In the case of the taxable year that includes August 16, 2006 (the transition year), the IRS will treat the period beginning on the first day of the transition year and ending on August 15, 2006, and the period beginning on August 16, 2006, and ending on the last day of the transition year as short taxable years. This treatment is solely for purposes of allocating net income or proceeds under section 4965. The tax-exempt entity continues to file tax returns for the full taxable year, does not file tax returns with respect to these deemed short taxable years and does not otherwise take the short taxable years into account for Federal tax purposes. Accordingly, the net income or proceeds that are properly allocated to the transition year in accordance with this section will be treated as allocable to the period—

(1) Ending on or before August 15, 2006 (and accordingly not subject to tax under section 4965(a)) to the extent such net income or proceeds would have been properly taken into account in accordance with this section by the tax-exempt entity in the deemed short year ending on August 15, 2006; and

(2) Beginning after August 15, 2006 (and accordingly subject to tax under section 4965(a)) to the extent such income or proceeds would have been properly taken into account in accordance with this section by the tax-exempt entity in the short year beginning August 16, 2006.

(e) Allocation to pre- and post-listing periods. If a transaction other than a prohibited reportable transaction (as defined in section 4965(e)(1)(C) and § 53.4965-3(a)(2)) to which the tax-exempt entity is a party is subsequently identified in published guidance as a listed transaction during a taxable year of the entity (the listing year) in which it has net income or proceeds attributable to the transaction, the net income or proceeds are allocated between the pre- and post-listing periods. The IRS will treat the period beginning on the first day of the listing year and ending on the day immediately preceding the date of the listing, and the period beginning on the date of the listing and ending on the last day of the listing year as short taxable years. This treatment is solely for purposes of allocating net income or proceeds under section 4965. The tax-exempt entity continues to file tax returns for the full taxable year, does not file tax returns with respect to these deemed short taxable years and does not otherwise take the short taxable years into account for Federal tax purposes. Accordingly, the net income or proceeds that are properly allocated to the listing year in accordance with this section will be treated as allocable to the period—

(1) Ending before the date of the listing (and accordingly not subject to tax under section 4965(a)) to the extent such net income or proceeds would have been properly taken into account in accordance with this section by the tax-exempt entity in the deemed short year ending on the day immediately preceding the date of the listing; and

(2) Beginning on the date of the listing (and accordingly subject to tax under section 4965(a)) to the extent such income or proceeds would have been properly taken into account in accordance with this section by the tax-exempt entity in the short year beginning on the date of the listing.

(f) Examples. The following examples illustrate the allocation rules of this section:

Example 1. (i) In 1999, X, a calendar year non-plan entity using the cash method of accounting, entered into a lease-in/lease-out transaction (LILO) substantially similar to the transaction described in Notice 2000-15 (2000-1 CB 826) (describing Rev. Rul. 99-14 (1999-1 CB 835), superseded by Rev. Rul. 2002-69 (2002-2 CB 760)). In 1999, X purported to lease property to Y pursuant to a “head lease,” and Y purported to lease the property back to X pursuant to a “sublease” of a shorter term. In form, X received $268M as an advance payment of head lease rent. Of this amount, $200M had been, in form, financed by a nonrecourse loan obtained by Y. X deposited the $200M with a “debt payment undertaker.” This served to defease both a portion of X's rent obligation under its sublease and Y's repayment obligation under the nonrecourse loan. Of the remainder of the $268M advance head lease rent payment, X deposited $54M with an “equity payment undertaker.” This served to defease the remainder of X's rent obligation under the sublease as well as the exercise price of X's end-of-sublease term purchase option. This amount inures to the benefit of Y and enables Y to recover its investment in the transaction and a return on that investment. In substance, the $54M is a loan from Y to X. X retained the remaining $14M of the advance head lease rent payment. In substance, this represents a fee for X's participation in the transaction. See § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter.

(ii) According to the substance of the transaction, the head lease, sublease and nonrecourse debt will be ignored for Federal income tax purposes. Therefore, any net income or proceeds resulting from these elements of the transaction will not be considered net income or proceeds attributable to the LILO transaction for purposes of section 4965(a). The $54M deemed loan from Y to X and the $14M fee are not ignored for Federal income tax purposes.

(iii) Under X's established cash basis method of accounting, any net income received in 1999 and attributable to the LILO transaction is allocated to X's December 31, 1999, tax year for purposes of section 4965. The $14M fee received in 1999, which constitutes proceeds of the transaction, is likewise allocated to that tax year. Because the 1999 tax year is before the effective date of the section 4965 tax, X will not be subject to any excise tax under section 4965 for the amounts received in 1999.

(iv) Any earnings on the amount deposited with the equity payment undertaker that constitute gross income to X will be reduced by X's original issue discount deductions with respect to the deemed loan from Y, in determining X's net income from the transaction.

Example 2.B, a non-plan entity using the cash method of accounting, has an annual accounting period that ends on December 31, 2006. B entered into a prohibited tax shelter transaction on March 15, 2006. On that date, B received a payment of $600,000 as a fee for its involvement in the transaction. B received no other proceeds or income attributable to this transaction in 2006. Under B's method of accounting, the payment received by B on March 15, 2006, is taken into account in the deemed short year ending on August 15, 2006. Accordingly, solely for purposes of section 4965, the payment is treated as allocable solely to the period ending on or before August 15, 2006, and is not subject to the excise tax imposed by section 4965(a).

Example 3.The facts are the same as in Example 2, except that B received an additional payment of $400,000 on September 30, 2006. Under B's method of accounting, the payment received by B on September 30, 2006, is taken into account in the deemed short year beginning on August 16, 2006. Accordingly, solely for purposes of section 4965, the $400,000 payment is treated as allocable to the period beginning after August 15, 2006, and is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 4965(a).

Example 4.C, a non-plan entity using the cash method of accounting, has an annual accounting period that ends on December 31. C entered into a prohibited tax shelter transaction on May 1, 2005. On March 15, 2007, C received a payment of $580,000 attributable to the transaction. On June 1, 2007, the transaction is identified by the IRS in published guidance as a listed transaction. On June 15, 2007, C received an additional payment of $400,000 attributable to the transaction. Under C's method of accounting, the payments received on March 15, 2007, and June 15, 2007, are taken into account in 2007. The IRS will treat the period beginning on January 1, 2007, and ending on May 31, 2007, and the period beginning on June 1, 2007, and ending on December 31, 2007, as short taxable years. The payment received by C on March 15, 2007, is taken into account in the deemed short year ending on May 31, 2007. Accordingly, solely for purposes of section 4965, the payment is treated as allocable solely to the pre-listing period, and is not subject to the excise tax imposed by section 4965(a). The payment received by C on June 15, 2007, is taken into account in the deemed short year beginning on June 1, 2007. Accordingly, solely for purposes of section 4965, the payment is treated as allocable to the post-listing period, and is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 4965(a).

(g) Effective/applicability dates. See § 53.4965-9 for the discussion of the relevant effective and applicability dates.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010; 75 FR 46844, Aug. 4, 2010]

§ 53.4965-9 Effective/applicability dates.

(a) In general. The taxes under section 4965(a) and § 53.4965-7 are effective for taxable years ending after May 17, 2006, with respect to transactions entered into before, on or after that date, except that no tax under section 4965(a) applies with respect to income or proceeds that are properly allocable to any period ending on or before August 15, 2006.

(b) Applicability of the regulations. As of July 6, 2010, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, §§ 53.4965-1 through 53.4965-8 of this chapter will apply to taxable years ending after July 6, 2007. A tax-exempt entity may rely on the provisions of §§ 53.4965-1 through 53.4965-8 for taxable years ending on or before July 6, 2007.

(c) Effective/applicability date with respect to certain knowing transactions—(1) Entity-level tax. The 100 percent tax under section 4965(b)(1)(B) and § 53.4965-7(a)(1)(i)(B) does not apply to prohibited tax shelter transactions entered into by a tax-exempt entity on or before May 17, 2006.

(2) Manager-level tax. The IRS will not assert that an entity manager who approved or caused a tax-exempt entity to become a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction is liable for the entity manager tax under section 4965(b)(2) and § 53.4965-7(b)(1) with respect to the transaction if the tax-exempt entity entered into such transaction prior to May 17, 2006.

[T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38702, July 6, 2010]

§ 53.4968-1 Excise tax based on investment income of certain private colleges and universities.

(a) Excise tax on the investment income of certain private colleges and universities. For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, section 4968 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) imposes a tax equal to 1.4 percent of the net investment income (as defined in section 4968(c) and § 53.4968-2) of an applicable educational institution (as defined in section 4968(b)(1) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section).

(b) Definitions. The definitions in this paragraph (b) apply for purposes of section 4968 and §§ 53.4968-1 through 53.4968-4.

(1) Applicable educational institution. The term applicable educational institution means any eligible educational institution (as defined in section 25A(f)(2) of the Code and § 1.25A-2(b) of this chapter)—

(i) That had at least 500 tuition-paying students during the preceding taxable year;

(ii) More than 50 percent of whose tuition-paying students are located in the United States;

(iii) That is not described in the first sentence of section 511(a)(2)(B) of the Code (relating to state colleges and universities); and

(iv) The aggregate fair market value of the assets of which at the end of such preceding taxable year (other than those assets that are used directly in carrying out the institution's exempt purpose) is at least $500,000 per student.

(2) Student. The term student means a person who is enrolled and attending a course for academic credit from the institution and who is being charged tuition at a rate that is commensurate with the tuition rate charged to students enrolled for a degree. The number of students of an educational institution (including for purposes of determining the number of students at a particular location) is based on the daily average number of full-time students (with part-time students taken into account on a full-time student equivalent basis). The standards for determining part-time students, full-time students, full-time equivalents, and daily average are determined by each educational institution. However, the standards may not be lower than the minimum applicable standards established by the Department of Education under the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1088), as amended.

(3) Tuition-paying—(i) In general. The term tuition-paying means the payment of any tuition or fees required for the enrollment or attendance of a student for a course of instruction at an educational institution. Tuition and fees do not include payment for supplies or equipment required during a specific course once a student is enrolled in and attending the course, or payment for room and board or other personal living expenses.

(ii) Treatment of a comprehensive or bundled fee. If a student is required to pay a fee (such as a comprehensive fee or a bundled fee) to an educational institution that combines charges for tuition with charges for personal expenses such as room and board, the student is a tuition-paying student.

(iii) Scholarships, grants, and work study programs. Whether a student is tuition-paying is determined after taking into account any scholarships and grants provided directly by the educational institution or by the Federal government or any state or local government, and after application of any work study programs operated directly by the institution. Scholarships and grants provided by non-governmental third parties, even if administered by the institution, are considered payments of tuition on behalf of the student. Accordingly, a student will be considered a tuition-paying student if payment of tuition or a fee is required for the enrollment or attendance of the student for courses of instruction after the application of any scholarships offered directly by the institution, any work study program operated directly by the institution, and any grants and scholarships provided by the Federal government or any state or local government.

(4) Located in the United States. A student is located in the United States if the student resided in the United States for at least a portion of the time the student attended the educational institution during the institution's preceding taxable year. Whether a student resided in the United States in any given year can be determined using any reasonable method, as long as that method is consistently applied.

(5) Assets used directly in carrying out an institution's exempt purpose—(i) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(iv) of this section, an asset is used directly in carrying out an educational institution's exempt purpose only if the asset is actually used directly by the institution in carrying out its exempt purpose. Whether an asset is used directly by the institution to carry out its exempt purpose is determined based on all the facts and circumstances. If property is used for an exempt purpose and for other purposes, and the exempt use represents 95 percent or more of the total use, the property is considered to be used exclusively for an exempt purpose. If the exempt use of such property represents less than 95 percent of the total use, the institution must make a reasonable allocation between such exempt and nonexempt uses.

(ii) Illustrations. Examples of assets that are used directly in carrying out an institution's exempt purpose include, but are not limited to, the following—

(A) Administrative assets, such as office equipment and supplies used by the institution directly in the administration of its exempt activities;

(B) Real estate or the portion of any building used by the institution directly in its exempt activities;

(C) Physical property such as paintings or other works of art owned by the institution that are on public display (or held for public display), fixtures and equipment in classrooms, research facilities and related equipment that under the facts and circumstances serve a useful purpose in the conduct of the institution's exempt activities;

(D) The reasonable cash balance, determined using any reasonable method, necessary to cover current operating and administrative expenses and other normal and current disbursements directly connected with the educational institution's exempt activities. For this purpose, a reasonable method would include calculating an amount equal to three months of operating expenses allocable to program services, calculated by dividing annual functional expenses allocable to program services by four. A larger amount may be a reasonable cash balance for this purpose if, under the facts and circumstances, a larger amount is established to be necessary to cover administrative expenses and other normal disbursements directly connected with the institution's exempt activity.

(E) Any property the educational institution leases to other persons at no cost (or at a nominal rent) to the lessee in furtherance of the institution's exempt purposes; and

(F) Patents, copyrights, and other intellectual property and intangible property to the extent that income from those assets is excluded from net investment income by § 53.4968-2(b)(2)(iii).

(iii) Assets not used directly. The following assets are examples of assets not used directly in carrying out an institution's exempt purpose—

(A) Assets that are held for the production of income or for investment (for example, stocks, bonds, interest-bearing notes, endowment funds, or leased real estate not described in paragraph (b)(5)(ii)(E) of this section), even if the income from such assets is used to carry out such exempt purpose; and

(B) Property (such as offices and equipment) used for the purpose of managing the institution's endowment funds.

(iv) Assets of related organizations. An asset of a related organization that is treated as an asset of an educational institution by section 4968(d) and § 53.4968-3(c) and that is used directly in carrying out an educational institution's exempt purpose, or that is used directly in carrying out the exempt purpose of a related organization that is described in section 501(c)(3), is considered used directly by the educational institution in carrying out its exempt purpose.

(v) Valuation of assets not used directly in carrying out an institution's exempt purpose—(A) In general. The values of assets not used directly in carrying out an educational institution's exempt purpose are determined under the rules of section 4942(e) and § 53.4942(a)-2(c)(4), as modified by paragraph (b)(5)(v)(B) of this section.

(B) Modifications. In applying the rules of § 53.4942(a)-2(c)(4), an educational institution must—

(1) Substitute “educational institution” for “private foundation” or “foundation” every place they appear; and

(2) Make such adjustments as are reasonable and necessary to obtain the fair market value of any and all assets as of the last day of the preceding taxable year, rather than as of any other times permitted or required by § 53.4942(a)-2(c)(4).

[T.D 9917, 85 FR 65557, Oct. 15, 2020]

§ 53.4968-2 Net investment income.

(a) Net investment income—(1) In general. For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, section 4968(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) imposes a 1.4 percent excise tax on the net investment income (as defined in section 4968(c) and this section) of an applicable educational institution and on certain amounts of net investment income of certain related organizations, as described in section 4968(d) and § 53.4968-3. For purposes of this section, net investment income is determined under rules similar to the rules of section 4940(c) of the Code. Thus, net investment income generally is the amount by which the sum of the gross investment income (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) and the capital gain net income (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section) exceeds the deductions allowed by paragraph (c) of this section. Except to the extent inconsistent with the provisions of this section, net investment income is determined under the principles of subtitle A of the Code.

(2) Tax-exempt income. For purposes of this section, net investment income is determined by applying section 103 of the Code (relating to State and local bonds) and section 265 of the Code (relating to expenses and interest relating to tax-exempt income).

(b) Gross investment income—(1) In general. For purposes of this section and except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the term gross investment income means the gross amounts of income from interest, dividends, rents, payments with respect to securities loans (as defined in section 512(a)(5) of the Code), and royalties, but not including any such income to the extent included in computing the tax imposed by section 511 of the Code. Such term also includes income from sources similar to those in the preceding sentence. In general, gross investment income includes the items of investment income described in § 1.512(b)-1(a) of this chapter.

(2) Exceptions. The following items of income are excluded from the definition of gross investment income:

(i) Interest income from a student loan that was made by the applicable educational institution or a related organization to a student of the applicable educational institution in connection with the student's attendance at the institution;

(ii) Rental income from the provision of housing by the applicable educational institution or a related organization to students of the applicable educational institution and from housing for faculty and staff if the housing is provided contingent on their roles as faculty or staff of the applicable educational institution; and

(iii) Royalty income that is derived from patents, copyrights, and other intellectual property and intangible property to the extent those assets resulted from the work of student(s) or faculty member(s) in their capacities as such with the applicable educational institution. However, neither royalty income from trademarks on the institution's logo or name nor royalty income from intellectual property donated or sold to the institution is excluded from gross investment income under this rule.

(c) Deductions—(1) In general. For purposes of computing net investment income—

(i) There is allowed as a deduction from gross investment income all the ordinary and necessary expenses paid or incurred for the production or collection of gross investment income or for the management, conservation, or maintenance of property held for the production of such income, determined with the modifications set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Taxes paid or incurred under section 4968 are not paid or incurred for the production or collection of gross investment income. Allowable expenses include that portion of an applicable educational institution's operating expenses that is paid or incurred for the production or collection of gross investment income. An applicable educational institution's operating expenses include compensation of officers, other salaries and wages of employees, outside professional fees, interest, and rent and taxes on property used in the applicable educational institution's operations. Where an applicable educational institution's officers or employees engage in activities on behalf of the institution for both activities that generate net investment income and for activities that do not generate net investment income, compensation and salaries paid to such officers or employees must be allocated between the activities that generate net investment income and for activities that do not generate net investment income.

(ii) Where only a portion of property produces, or is held for the production of, income subject to the section 4968 excise tax, and the remainder of the property is used for other purposes, the deductions allowed by this paragraph must be apportioned between the taxable and other uses.

(iii) No amount is allowable as a deduction under this section to the extent it is paid or incurred for purposes other than those described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. Thus, for example, the charitable deductions prescribed under sections 170 and 642(c) of the Code; the net operating loss deduction prescribed under section 172; and the special deductions prescribed under part VIII of subchapter B of chapter 1 of the Code are not allowable.

(2) Deduction modifications. The following modifications must be made in determining deductions otherwise allowable under this paragraph (c):

(i) The depreciation deduction is allowed, but only on the basis of the straight-line method provided in section 168(b)(3) and without regard to section 168(b)(1) and (2).

(ii) The depletion deduction is allowed, but such deduction is determined without regard to sections 613 and 613A of the Code, relating to percentage depletion.

(iii) The basis to be used for purposes of the deduction allowed for depreciation or depletion is the basis determined under the rules of part II of subchapter O of chapter 1 of the Code (part II of subchapter O), subject to the modifications found in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section (relating to depreciation and depletion), and without regard to § 53.4968-2(d)(2) (relating to the basis for determining gain for property held on December 31, 2017, and continuously thereafter to the date of disposition), or section 362(c) of the Code (relating to certain special basis rules regarding contributions of capital to corporations). Thus, an applicable educational institution must reduce the cost or other substituted or transferred basis by an amount equal to the straight-line depreciation or cost depletion, without regard to whether the applicable educational institution deducted such depreciation or depletion during the period prior to its first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2017. However, where an applicable educational institution has previously taken depreciation or depletion deductions in excess of the amount which would have been taken had the straight-line or cost method been employed, such excess depreciation or depletion also is taken into account to reduce basis. If the facts necessary to determine the basis of property in the hands of the donor or the last preceding owner by whom it was not acquired by gift are unknown to the applicable educational institution, then the original basis to the applicable educational institution of such property is determined under the rules of § 1.1015-1(a)(3) of this chapter.

(iv) The deduction for expenses paid or incurred in any taxable year for the production of gross investment income earned as an incident to a charitable function can be no greater than the income earned from such function which is includible as gross investment income for such year. For example, where rental income incidentally is realized in a year from historic buildings held open to the public, deductions for amounts paid or incurred in that year for the production of such income is limited to the amount of rental income includible as gross investment income for the year.

(d) Capital gains and losses—(1) In general. In determining capital gain net income for purposes of the tax imposed by section 4968—

(i) Interaction with section 511. No gain or loss from the sale or other disposition of property is taken into account to the extent that such gain or loss is taken into account for purposes of computing the tax imposed by section 511.

(ii) Sales or other dispositions of exempt use property. To the extent that property is used by the educational institution for its exempt purposes, capital gain from the sale or exchange of the portion of that property that is used by the educational institution for its exempt purposes is disregarded;

(iii) Sales of donated property—(A) In general. Any appreciation in the value of donated property that occurred prior to the date of its donation to the institution is disregarded.

(B) Date of donation. The date of donation is determined under the timing rules of § 1.170A-1(b) of this chapter.

(C) Value on the date of donation. The value of the donated property on the date of donation is determined under the valuation rules of § 1.170A-1(c) of this chapter; and

(iv) Capital losses. Net losses from sales or other dispositions of property by one related organization (or by the applicable educational institution) reduce (but not below zero) net gains from such sales or other dispositions by other related organizations (or by the applicable educational institution). Should overall net losses from sales or other dispositions of property exceed gains from sales or other dispositions of such property during the same taxable year, such excess may not be deducted from gross investment income in any taxable year, nor may such excess be used to reduce gains in prior taxable years. However, capital loss carryovers are allowed and may be deducted from capital gains in a future year.

(2) Basis—(i) For purposes of calculating gain from the sale or other disposition of property other than a partnership interest. Subject to the modifications of paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section (referring to the modifications relating to deductions against gross investment income) and without regard to section 362(c), the basis for purposes of determining gain from the sale or other disposition of property (other than a partnership interest) for purposes of determining capital gain net income for purposes of the tax imposed by section 4968 is the greater of—

(A) Fair market value on December 31, 2017, plus or minus all adjustments after December 31, 2017, and before the date of disposition under the rules of part II of subchapter O, provided that the property was held by the applicable educational institution on December 31, 2017, and continuously thereafter to the date of disposition, or

(B) Basis as determined under the rules of part II of subchapter O.

(ii) For purposes of determining a distributive share of gain from the sale or other disposition of a partnership asset. For purposes of determining an applicable educational institution's share of gain upon the sale or other disposition of a partnership asset, the applicable educational institution's basis in each such partnership asset generally is determined under the rules of subchapter K of chapter 1 of the Code (subchapter K). However, see paragraph (d)(3) of this section.

(iii) For purposes of determining gain on the sale or other disposition of a partnership interest. For purposes of determining an applicable educational institution's gain upon the sale or other disposition of all or a portion of a partnership interest, the applicable educational institution's basis in such partnership interest is generally determined under the rules of subchapter K, subject to the special rules in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.

(iv) For purposes of calculating loss. Subject to the modifications of paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section (referring to the modifications relating to deductions against gross investment income) and without regard to section 362(c), basis as determined in paragraph (d)(2)(i)(B) of this section applies for purposes of determining loss. For purposes of determining loss from the sale or other disposition of a partnership interest, basis is determined under the rules of subchapter K.

(3) Special rules regarding partnership interests and partnership assets—(i) Reduction of distributive share of capital gain net income from a partnership. For purposes of computing net investment income, an applicable educational institution reduces the amount of its distributive share of capital gain net income from a partnership by the least of—

(A) The applicable educational institution's share of applicable capital gain (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(A) of this section) from such partnership;

(B) One-third of the applicable educational institution's unadjusted step-up (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) of this section) for such partnership; or

(C) The applicable educational institution's adjusted step-up (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(C) of this section) for such partnership.

(ii) Reduction of capital gain net income from a sale or other disposition of all or a portion of a partnership interest. For purposes of computing net investment income, an applicable educational institution reduces the amount of its capital gain net income upon the sale or other disposition of all or a portion of a partnership interest by an amount that bears the same relation to the applicable educational institution's adjusted step-up (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(C) of this section) for such partnership as the fair market value of the transferred portion of the interest bears to the fair market value of the applicable educational institution's entire interest in such partnership before the sale or other disposition.

(iii) Definitions. For purposes of this section—

(A) Applicable capital gain. For an applicable educational institution's first taxable year beginning after December 31, 2017, the term applicable capital gain means an applicable educational institution's share of both short-term and long-term capital gains and losses subject to section 4968 from a partnership. For subsequent taxable years, applicable capital gain does not include an applicable educational institution's share of short-term capital gains and losses subject to section 4968 from a partnership. For purposes of this paragraph, applicable capital gain is not less than zero.

(B) Unadjusted step-up. An applicable educational institution computes an unadjusted step-up for each partnership interest it held on December 31, 2017. The unadjusted step-up for a partnership interest equals the excess, if any, of the fair market value of such partnership interest on December 31, 2017, over the adjusted basis of such partnership interest on December 31, 2017.

(C) Adjusted step-up. An applicable educational institution computes an adjusted step-up for each partnership interest it held on December 31, 2017. The adjusted step-up for a partnership interest equals the unadjusted step-up for such partnership, reduced by the amount of any capital gain net income reduction pursuant to paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section for such partnership.

(4) Examples. The following examples illustrate paragraph (d)(3) of this section. Unless stated otherwise in the examples, partners have no tax items other than those listed in the example. With respect to partnerships, all allocations are in accordance with section 704(b) and the regulations under section 704(b) in part 1 of this chapter (Income Tax Regulations).

(i) Example 1—(A) Facts. University (U), an applicable educational institution, is a partner in partnership PRS. On December 31, 2017, U's PRS interest had a fair market value of $130 and tax basis of $100. In 2018, U's share of capital gain net income from PRS is $5, which is comprised of $20 of gain from the sale of capital asset X and ($15) of loss from the sale of capital asset Y. Further, such $5 of capital gain net income is applicable capital gain (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(A) of this section).

(B) Analysis. U has an unadjusted step-up (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) of this section) for PRS of $30 ($130 fair market value − $100 tax basis on December 31, 2017). Pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, for purposes of computing its net investment income, U reduces the amount of its capital gain net income from PRS by $5, which is the least of: U's share of applicable capital gain from PRS ($5); or one-third of U's unadjusted step-up for PRS ($10); or U's adjusted step-up for PRS ($30). Thus, U reduces its $5 of capital gain net income allocated from PRS by $5, resulting in U having $0 of capital gain net income in 2018 for purposes of section 4968. As a result, U's adjusted step-up for PRS for subsequent taxable years is reduced to $25 ($30 − $5) pursuant to paragraph (d)(4)(iii)(C) of this section. Pursuant to section 705, the $5 of gain allocated to U increases U's tax basis in its PRS interest to $105.

(ii) Example 2—(A) Facts. The facts are the same as in paragraph (d)(4)(i)(A) of this section (Example 1). In 2019, U sells its entire interest in PRS for $130, which, immediately prior to the sale, had a tax basis of $105. As a result, U has $25 of capital gain from the sale of its PRS interest.

(B) Analysis. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section, for purposes of computing its net investment income, U reduces its capital gain net income resulting from the sale of its entire PRS interest by $25, which is the amount that bears the same relation to U's adjusted step-up for PRS ($25) as the fair market value of the transferred portion of PRS ($130) bears to the fair market value of the U's entire interest in PRS before the sale or other disposition ($130). Thus, U reduces its $25 of capital gain net income from the sale of its PRS interest by $25, resulting in U having $0 of capital gain net income in 2019 for purposes of section 4968.

(iii) Example 3—(A) Facts. The facts are the same as in paragraph (d)(4)(i)(A) of this section (Example 1). In 2019, U's share of capital gain net income from PRS is $15, which is comprised of $15 of gain from the sale of capital asset Z. Further, such $15 of capital gain net income is applicable capital gain (as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(A) of this section).

(B) Analysis. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, for purposes of computing its net investment income, U reduces the amount of its capital gain net income from PRS by $10, which is the least of: U's share of applicable capital gain from PRS ($15); or one-third of U's unadjusted step-up for PRS ($10); or U's adjusted step-up for PRS ($25, computed as $30 of unadjusted step-up, less $5 of capital gain net income reduced in 2018 pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section). Thus, U reduces its $15 of capital gain net income allocated from PRS by $10, resulting in U having $5 of capital gain net income in 2019 for purposes of section 4968. As a result, U's adjusted step-up for PRS is reduced for subsequent taxable years to $15 ($25 − $10) pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(C) of this section. Pursuant to section 705, the $15 of gain allocated to U increases U's tax basis in its PRS interest to $120.

[T.D 9917, 85 FR 65557, Oct. 15, 2020]

§ 53.4968-3 Related organizations.

(a) Definition of related organization—(1) In general. For purposes of section 4968(d) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) and §§ 53.4968-1 through 53.4968-4, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the term related organization means, with respect to an educational institution, any organization that—

(i) Controls such institution;

(ii) Is controlled by such institution;

(iii) Is controlled by one or more persons that also control such institution;

(iv) Is a supported organization (as defined in section 509(f)(3) of the Code) with respect to such institution during the taxable year; or

(v) Is a supporting organization (as described in section 509(a)(3)) with respect to such institution during the taxable year.

(2) Organizations not considered related organizations. For purposes of section 4968(d) and §§ 53.4968-1 through 53.4968-4, the term related organization does not include any organization that is—

(i) A taxable corporation;

(ii) A taxable trust, including a non-grantor charitable lead trust (except to the extent the trust is controlled by the educational institution as described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section);

(iii) A grantor charitable lead trust;

(iv) A charitable remainder trust;

(v) A partnership, S corporation (as defined in section 1361(a)(1) of the Code), or other pass-through entity that is generally not subject to Federal income tax, the income of which is taxable to its partners or other interest holders; or

(vi) A decedent's estate.

(3) Employee benefit plans or arrangements. A trust or similar funding vehicle of an employee benefit plan or arrangement, such as a section 501(a) trust funding a section 401(a) qualified retirement plan, or an annuity contract funding a section 403(b) plan, or a section 419(e) welfare benefit fund (including a voluntary employees' beneficiary association under section 501(c)(9)) funding a welfare benefit plan, will not be treated as a related organization and its assets will not be treated as the assets of the educational institution or of a related organization. A trust or other funding vehicle of an unfunded employee benefit plan of an educational institution or a related organization, such as a grantor trust described in section 671 et seq., used in connection with a section 457(b) plan or an arrangement subject to section 457(f), will be treated as a related organization for purposes of section 4968(d) and its assets will be treated as the assets of the educational institution or of a related organization, but the assets are not considered “used directly in carrying out the institution's exempt purpose” for purposes of section 4968(b)(1)(D). For purposes of determining whether the employee benefit plan of an educational institution is funded or unfunded, the educational institution and all of its related organizations are treated as a single sponsor and payor of the benefits.

(b) Control—(1) Controls such institution. For purposes of section 4968(d) and §§ 53.4968-1 through 53.4968-4, an organization controls an educational institution if—

(i) The organization owns (by vote or value) more than 50 percent of the voting and non-voting stock or membership interest of the educational institution; or

(ii) The organization (or one or more of its managers, directors, officers, trustees, or employees, acting only in those capacities) can—

(A) Appoint or elect (which must include the power to remove and replace) more than 50 percent of the members of the educational institution's governing body (such as directors, officers, or trustees), or otherwise has the ongoing power to appoint or elect more than 50 percent of such members with reasonable frequency;

(B) Require the educational institution to make an expenditure (or prevent the educational institution from making an expenditure); or

(C) Require the educational institution to perform any act that significantly affects its operations (or prevent it from performing such an act).

(2) Is controlled by such institution. For purposes of section 4968(d) and §§ 53.4968-1 through 53.4968-4, an organization is controlled by an educational institution:

(i) Tax-exempt corporation. In the case of a corporation recognized as exempt from income tax under section 501(a), if the educational institution owns (by vote or value) more than 50 percent of the voting and nonvoting stock or membership interest of the corporation.

(ii) Trust—(A) In general. In the case of a trust—

(1) If the educational institution is substantially the sole permissible trust beneficiary or appointee of both income and principal, whether or not the timing of the distribution is subject to the trustee's discretion;

(2) If the trust is a pooled income fund described in sections 642(c)(3) and 642(c)(5);

(3) If, but only to the extent that, the assets of the trust were contributed to the trust by the educational institution (or by a person controlled by the educational institution); or

(4) If, but only to the extent that, the educational institution (or person controlled by the educational institution) has the right to demand (or can otherwise cause) a distribution of principal from the trust to the educational institution (or a person controlled by the educational institution).

(B) Person controlled by the educational organization. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii), a person is controlled by an educational institution if the educational institution has the power to remove and replace such person or otherwise controls the person under one of the tests described in § 53.4968-3(b)(2)(i), (ii), or (iii), with similar principles applying for purposes of determining control of any other form of entity.

(iii) Nonstock organization. In the case of a nonstock organization, if the educational institution (or one or more of its managers, directors, officers, trustees, or employees, acting only in those capacities) can—

(A) Appoint or elect (which must include the power to remove and replace) more than 50 percent of the members of the organization's governing body (such as directors, officers, or trustees), or otherwise has an ongoing power to appoint or elect more than 50 percent of such members with reasonable frequency);

(B) Require the organization to make an expenditure (or prevent the organization from making an expenditure); or

(C) Require the organization to perform any act that significantly affects its operations (or prevent it from performing such an act).

(3) Is controlled by one or more persons that also control such institution. For purposes of section 4968(d) and this section, an organization (other than one described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section) is controlled by one or more persons that also control the educational institution if more than 50 percent of the members of the governing body of the other organization are directly or indirectly controlled by persons that comprise more than 50 percent of the members of the governing body of the educational institution.

(4) Constructive ownership. The principles of section 318(a)(2) (relating to ownership attribution from partnerships, estates, trusts, and corporations) apply for purposes of determining ownership of stock in a corporation, and similar principles apply for purposes of determining ownership of an interest in any other entity.

(5) Method of control. Control includes control by aggregating votes or positions of authority (including by veto power), but applies regardless of the method by which the control is exercised or exercisable.

(c) Organization described in section 509(a)(3) during the taxable year with respect to the educational institution. A section 509(a)(3) organization is a supporting organization with respect to an educational institution only if the supporting organization meets the organizational, operational, and relationship tests of section 509(a)(3)(B) and § 1.509(a)-4 of this chapter with respect to the educational institution.

(d) Assets and net investment income of related organizations—(1) In general. A related organization's assets and net investment income are taken into account both in determining whether an institution is an applicable educational institution and in computing the net investment income of an applicable educational institution. For purposes of determining the aggregate fair market value of the assets and net investment income of an educational institution, the assets and net investment income of all related organizations are treated as the assets and net investment income, respectively, of the institution, unless an exception provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section or the exception provided in § 53.4968-1(b)(5)(iv) (relating to assets used directly in carrying out an exempt purpose) applies. In cases in which an organization is a related organization with respect to an educational institution under more than one definition of this § 53.4968-3, then the rule that attributes the largest amount of assets and net investment income of the related organization to the educational institution must be applied.

(2) Exceptions. For purposes of section 4968 and this paragraph (d)(2)—

(i) No amount is taken into account with respect to more than one educational institution. In determining the aggregate fair market value of the assets and net investment income of an educational institution, assets and net investment income of a related organization are not taken into account with respect to more than one educational institution. Thus, in any case in which an organization is a related organization with respect to more than one educational institution, the assets and net investment income of the related organization must be allocated between or among the educational institutions as to which the organization is a related organization, subject to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section. The educational institution must make such allocation in a reasonable manner, taking into account all facts and circumstances, that is consistent across all related organizations.

(ii) Assets and net investment income that are not intended or available for the use or benefit of the educational institution—(A) In general. Unless a related organization is controlled by the educational institution or is a supporting organization described in section 509(a)(3) with respect to such institution for the taxable year, assets and net investment income of a related organization that are not intended or available for the use or benefit of the educational institution are not taken into account by that educational institution.

(B) Determining whether assets and net investment income of a related organization are intended or available for the use or benefit of an educational institution. If a related organization controls the educational institution, is controlled by one or more persons that also control such institution (but is not described in section 509(a)(3) with respect to the educational institution for the taxable year), or is a supported organization (as defined in section 509(f)(3)) during the taxable year with respect to the educational institution, then the related organization's assets and net investment income are taken into account as assets and net investment income of the educational institution only to the extent the assets and net investment income are intended or available for the use or benefit of that educational institution. Assets and net investment income of a related organization are intended or available for the use or benefit of an educational institution if such assets and net investment income are specifically earmarked or restricted for the benefit of, or otherwise are fairly attributable to, the educational institution. For example, assets are fairly attributable to the educational institution if they have been affirmatively designated or appropriated for the educational institution or made available for the educational institution to draw upon at will. Conversely, assets and net investment income of a related organization are not intended or available for the use or benefit of an educational institution if such assets and net investment income are specifically earmarked or restricted for another entity or for unrelated purposes or otherwise are not fairly attributable to the educational institution. The assets and net investment income of a related organization must be allocated between those intended or available for the use or benefit of an educational institution and those not intended or not available for the use or benefit of that same educational institution. The educational institution must make such allocation in a reasonable manner, taking into account all facts and circumstances, that is consistent across all related organizations.

(C) Related organizations that are controlled by the educational institution or that are supporting organizations (as described in section 509(a)(3)) with respect to the educational institution during the taxable year—(1) In general. If a related organization is controlled, as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by an educational institution, or is a supporting organization with respect to the educational institution during the taxable year, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section, the assets and net investment income of the related organization are taken into account as assets and net investment income of the educational institution regardless of whether those assets and net investment income are earmarked or restricted for the benefit of, or otherwise are fairly attributable to, the educational institution and even if they are specifically earmarked or restricted for another entity or for unrelated purposes or otherwise are not fairly attributable to the educational institution, subject to paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(C)(2) of this section. However, see §§ 53.4968-1(b)(2)(ii)(A)(3) and (4) regarding trusts that are controlled related organizations only to the extent assets of the trust were contributed to the trust by the educational institution (or by a person controlled by the educational institution), or only to the extent the educational institution (or person controlled by the educational institution) has the right to demand (or can otherwise cause) a distribution of principal from the trust to the educational institution (or a person controlled by the educational institution). See also § 53.4968-1(b)(5)(iv) for rules relating to when assets of a related organization are deemed to be used directly in carrying out the institution's exempt purpose.

(2) Special rule for Type III supporting organizations with respect to an educational institution as of December 31, 2017. An educational institution with a related organization that was a Type III supporting organization with respect to the educational institution on December 31, 2017, takes into account only the assets and net investment income of such Type III supporting organization that are intended or available for the use or benefit of, or otherwise are fairly attributable to, the educational institution, as described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii)(B) of this section. An educational institution may determine whether the assets and net investment income of such a Type III supporting organization are intended or available for the use or benefit of, or otherwise are fairly attributable to, the educational institution using any reasonable method. A method that attributes to an educational institution assets and net investment income of a supporting organization that specifically are earmarked for the educational institution, are restricted for the benefit of the educational institution, or otherwise are fairly attributable to the educational institution (such as those that have been affirmatively designated or appropriated for the educational institution or made available for the educational institution to draw upon at will) will be deemed to be reasonable.

(3) Determining assets of related organizations. To determine which assets of a related organization are included by an educational institution under section 4968(b)(1)(D) for a particular year, an educational institution determines which organizations are related organizations, as defined in section 4968(d)(2) and § 53.4968-3, as of the end of the educational institution's preceding taxable year, and values the relevant assets on that date.

(4) Determining net investment income of related organizations. To determine the amount of net investment income of a related organization that is included by the applicable educational institution in calculating the tax imposed by section 4968(a) for a particular taxable year, an applicable educational institution determines which organizations are related organizations, as defined in section 4968(d)(2) and § 53.4968-3, as of the end of that taxable year of the applicable educational institution and includes the net investment income from each related organization's taxable year that ends with or within that same taxable year of the applicable educational institution. If an organization became a related organization after the beginning of the applicable educational institution's taxable year, then the applicable educational institution includes the organization's net investment income for the portion of the year that the organization was a related organization, using any reasonable method.

[T.D 9917, 85 FR 65557, Oct. 15, 2020]

§ 53.4968-4 Applicability date.

The rules of §§ 53.4968-1 through 53.4968-3 apply to taxable years of an educational institution beginning after October 15, 2020.

[T.D 9917, 85 FR 65557, Oct. 15, 2020]

Subpart L Procedure and Administration

Source: T.D. 7368, 40 FR 29843, July 16, 1975, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16303, May 2, 1986.

§ 53.6001-1 Notice or regulations requiring records, statements, and special returns.

(a) In general. Any person subject to tax under Chapter 42, Subtitle D, of the Code shall keep such complete and detailed records as are sufficient to enable the district director to determine accurately the amount of liability under Chapter 42.

(b) Notice by district director requiring returns, statements, or the keeping of records. The district director may require any person, by notice served upon him, to make such returns, render such statements, or keep such specific records as will enable the district director to determine whether or not such person is liable for tax under Chapter 42.

(c) Retention of records. The records required by this section shall be kept at all times available for inspection by authorized internal revenue officers or employees, and shall be retained so long as the contents thereof may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law.

§ 53.6011-1 General requirement of return, statement or list.

(a) Every private foundation liable for tax under section 4940 or 4948(a) shall file an annual return with respect to such tax on the form prescribed by the Internal Revenue Service for such purpose and shall include therein the information required by such form and the instructions issued with respect thereto.

(b) Every person (including a governmental entity) liable for tax imposed by sections 4941(a), 4942(a), 4943(a), 4944(a), 4945(a), 4955(a), 4958(a), 4959, 4960(a), 4965(a), 4966(a), 4967(a), or 4968(a), and every private foundation and every trust described in section 4947(a)(2) which has engaged in an act of self-dealing (as defined in section 4941(d)) (other than an act giving rise to no tax under section 4941(a)) shall file an annual return on Form 4720,“Return of Certain Excise Taxes Under Chapters 41 and 42 of the Internal Revenue Code,” and shall include therein the information required by such form and the instructions issued with respect thereto. In the case of any tax imposed by sections 4941(a), 4942(a), 4943(a), and 4944(a), the annual return shall be filed with respect to each act (or failure to act) for each year (or part thereof) in the taxable period (as defined in sections 4941 (e)(1), 4942(j)(1), 4943(d)(2), and 4944(e)(1)). In the case of a tax imposed by section 4945(a), 4955(a), 4958(a), 4960(a), 4965(a), 4966(a), or 4967(a), the annual return shall be filed with respect to each act for the year in which such act giving rise to liability occurred. In the case of a tax imposed by section 4959 on a hospital organization (as defined in § 1.501(r)-1(b)(18)), the annual return must include the required information for each of the organization's hospital facilities that failed to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3) for the taxable year.

(c) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1975, every trust described in section 4947(a)(2) which is subject to any of the provisions of Chapter 42 as if it were a private foundation shall file an annual return on Form 5227. For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1980, every trust described in section 4947(a)(1) which is a private foundation shall file an annual return on Form 990-PF.

(d) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 1977, every person liable for tax under section 4951, 4952, or 4953 (relating to taxes on self-dealing, taxable expenditures, and excess contributions involving black lung benefit trusts) shall file an annual return with respect to the tax on the form prescribed by the Internal Revenue Service for that purpose. The person liable for the tax shall include the information required by the form and its related instructions.

(e) The rules of this section apply to any returns required to be filed under this section on or after January 11, 2021.

[T.D. 7368, 40 FR 29843, July 16, 1975, as amended by T.D. 7838, 47 FR 44249, Oct. 7, 1982; T.D. 8026, 50 FR 20757, May 20, 1985; T.D. 8628, 60 FR 62212, Dec. 5, 1995; T.D. 8705, 62 FR 26, Jan. 2, 1997; T.D. 9334, 72 FR 36872, July 6, 2007; T.D. 9629, 78 FR 49682, Aug. 15, 2013; T.D. 9708, 79 FR 79015, Dec. 31, 2014; T.D. 9855, 84 FR 14009, Apr. 9, 2019; T.D. 9972, 88 FR 11766, Feb. 23, 2023]

§ 53.6011-4 Requirement of statement disclosing participation in certain transactions by taxpayers.

(a) In general. If a transaction is identified as a listed transaction or a transaction of interest as defined in § 1.6011-4 of this chapter by the Commissioner in published guidance (see § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter), and the listed transaction or transaction of interest involves an excise tax under chapter 42 of subtitle D of the Internal Revenue Code (relating to private foundations and certain other tax-exempt organizations), the transaction must be disclosed in the manner stated in such published guidance.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section applies to listed transactions entered into on or after January 1, 2003. This section applies to transactions of interest entered into on or after November 2, 2006.

[T.D. 9350, 72 FR 43154, Aug. 3, 2007]

§ 53.6060-1 Reporting requirements for tax return preparers.

(a) In general. A person that employs one or more tax return preparers to prepare a return or claim for refund of tax under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than for the person, at any time during a return period, shall satisfy the record keeping and inspection requirements in the manner stated in § 1.6060-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.6061-1 Signing of returns and other documents.

Any return, statement, or other document required to be made with respect to a tax imposed by Chapter 42 or the regulations thereunder shall be signed by the person required to file such return, statement or document, or by such other persons required or duly authorized to sign in accordance with the regulations, forms or instructions prescribed with respect to such return, statement or other document. The person required or duly authorized to make the return may incur liability for penalties provided for erroneous, false or fraudulent returns. For criminal penalties see sections 7201, 7203, 7206, and 7207.

§ 53.6065-1 Verification of returns.

(a) Penalties of perjury. If a return, statement, or other document made under the provisions of Chapter 42 or Subtitle F of the Code or the regulations thereunder with respect to any tax imposed by Chapter 42 of the Code, or the form and instructions issued with respect to such return, statement, or other document, requires that it shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury, it must be so verified by the person or persons required to sign such return, statement, or other document. In addition, any other statement or document submitted under any provision of Chapter 42 or Subtitle F of the Code or regulations thereunder with respect to any tax imposed by Chapter 42 of the Code may be required to contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury.

(b) Oath. Any return, statement, or other document required to be submitted under Chapter 42 or Subtitle F of the Code or regulations prescribed thereunder with respect to any tax imposed by Chapter 42 of the Code may be required to be verified by an oath.

§ 53.6071-1 Time for filing returns.

(a) General rule. Except as otherwise provided in this section, a return required by § 53.6011-1 shall be filed at the time the private foundation or trust described in section 4947(a)(2) is required to file its annual information or tax return under section 6033 or 6012 (as may be applicable).

(b) Exception. The Form 4720 of a person whose taxable year ends on a date other than that on which the taxable year of the foundation or trust ends shall be filed on or before the 15th day of the fifth month following the close of such person's taxable year.

(c) Form 5227. A Form 5227 required to be filed by paragraph (d) of § 53.6011-1 for a trust described in section 4947(a) shall be filed on or before the 15th day of the fourth month following the close of the trust's taxable year.

(d) Taxes related to black lung benefit trusts. Forms 990-BL and 6069 shall be filed on or before the 15th day of the fifth month following the close of the filer's taxable year.

(e) Taxes related to political expenditures of organizations described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. A Form 4720 required to be filed by § 53.6011-1(b) for an organization liable for tax imposed by section 4955(a) must be filed by the unextended due date for filing its annual information return under section 6033 or, if the organization is exempt from filing, the date the organization would be required to file an annual information return if it was not exempt from filing. The Form 4720 of a person whose taxable year ends on a date other than that on which the taxable year of the organization described in section 501(c)(3) ends must be filed on or before the 15th day of the fifth month following the close of the person's taxable year.

(f) Taxes imposed on excess benefit transactions engaged in by organizations described in sections 501(c)(3) (except private foundations) and 501(c)(4)—(1) General rule. A Form 4720 required by § 53.6011-1(b) for a disqualified person or organization manager liable for tax imposed by section 4958(a) shall be filed by that person on or before the 15th day of the fifth month following the close of such person's taxable year.

(2) Special rule for taxable years ending after September 13, 1995, and on or before July 30, 1996. A Form 4720 required by § 53.6011-1(b) for a disqualified person or organization manager liable for tax imposed by section 4958(a) on an excess benefit transaction occurring in such person's taxable year ending after September 13, 1995, and on or before July 30, 1996, is due on or before December 15, 1996.

(g) Taxes imposed with respect to prohibited tax shelter transactions to which tax-exempt entities are parties—(1) Returns by certain tax-exempt entities. A Form 4720, “Return of Certain Excise Taxes Under Chapters 41 and 42 of the Internal Revenue Code,” required by § 53.6011-1(b) for a tax-exempt entity described in section 4965(c)(1), (c)(2) or (c)(3) that is a party to a prohibited tax shelter transaction and is liable for tax imposed by section 4965(a)(1) shall be filed on or before the due date (not including extensions) for filing the tax-exempt entity's annual information return under section 6033(a)(1). If the tax-exempt entity is not required to file an annual information return under section 6033(a)(1), the Form 4720 shall be filed on or before the 15th day of the fifth month after the end of the tax-exempt entity's taxable year or, if the entity has not established a taxable year for Federal income tax purposes, the entity's annual accounting period.

(2) Returns by entity managers of tax-exempt entities described in section 4965(c)(1), (c)(2) or (c)(3). A Form 4720, required by § 53.6011-1(b) for an entity manager of a tax-exempt entity described in section 4965(c)(1), (c)(2) or (c)(3) who is liable for tax imposed by section 4965(a)(2) shall be filed on or before the 15th day of the fifth month following the close of the entity manager's taxable year during which the entity entered into the prohibited tax shelter transaction.

(3) Transition rule. A Form 4720, for a section 4965 tax that was due on or before October 4, 2007, will be deemed to have been filed on the due date if it was filed by October 4, 2007, and if all section 4965 taxes required to be reported on that Form 4720 were paid by October 4, 2007.

(h) Taxes on failures by charitable hospital organizations to satisfy the community health needs assessment requirements of section 501(r)(3). A hospital organization (as defined in § 1.501(r)-1(b)(18)) liable for tax imposed by section 4959 must file a Form 4720 as required by § 53.6011-1(b), on or before the 15th day of the fifth month after the end of the hospital organization's taxable year for which it failed to meet the requirements of section 501(r)(3).

(i) Taxes under section 4960, 4966, 4967, or 4968. A person (including a governmental entity) required by § 53.6011-1(b) to file a return for a tax imposed by section 4960(a), 4966(a), 4967(a), or 4968(a) in a taxable year must file the Form 4720 on or before the 15th day of the fifth month after the end of the person's taxable year (or, if the person has not established a taxable year for Federal income tax purposes, the person's annual accounting period).

(j) Effective/applicability date—(1) Paragraph (g) of this section applies on and after July 6, 2007.

(2) Paragraph (h) of this section applies on and after August 15, 2013.

(3) Paragraph (i) of this section applies on and after April 9, 2019.

[T.D. 7368, 40 FR 29843, July 16, 1975, as amended by T.D. 7407, 41 FR 9322, Mar. 4, 1976; T.D. 7838, 47 FR 44249, Oct. 7, 1982; T.D. 8628, 60 FR 62212, Dec. 5, 1995; T.D. 8736, 62 FR 52257, Oct. 7, 1997; T.D. 9334, 72 FR 36872, July 6, 2007; T.D. 9492, 75 FR 38708, July 6, 2010; 75 FR 46845, Aug. 4, 2010; T.D. 9629, 78 FR 49682, Aug. 15, 2013; T.D. 9708, 79 FR 79015, Dec. 31, 2014; T.D. 9855, 84 FR 14009, Apr. 9, 2019]

§ 53.6081-1 Automatic extension of time for filing the return to report taxes due under section 4951 for self-dealing with a nuclear decommissioning fund.

(a) In general. A “disqualified person” for purposes of section 4951(e)(4) who engaged in self-dealing with a Nuclear Decommissioning Fund, and must report tax due under section 4951 on Form 1120-ND, “Return for Nuclear Decommissioning Funds and Certain Related Persons,” will be allowed an automatic 6-month extension of time to file the return after the date prescribed for filing the return if the disqualified person files an application under this section in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. For guidance on requesting an extension of time to file Form 1120-ND for purposes of reporting contributions received, income earned, administrative expenses of operating the fund, and the tax on modified gross income, see § 1.6081-3 of this chapter.

(b) Requirements. To satisfy this paragraph (b), a disqualified person must—

(1) Submit a complete application on Form 7004, “Application for Automatic Extension of Time to File Certain Business Income Tax, Information, and Other Returns,” or in any other manner prescribed by the Commissioner;

(2) File the application on or before the date prescribed for filing the return with the Internal Revenue Service office designated in the application's instructions; and

(3) Remit the amount of the properly estimated unpaid tax liability on or before the date prescribed for payment.

(c) No extension of time for the payment of tax. An automatic extension of time for filing a return granted under paragraph (a) of this section will not extend the time for payment of any tax due on such return.

(d) Termination of automatic extension. The Commissioner may terminate an automatic extension at any time by mailing to the disqualified person a notice of termination at least 10 days prior to the termination date designated in such notice. The Commissioner must mail the notice of termination to the address shown on the Form 7004 or to the disqualified person's last known address. For further guidance regarding the definition of last known address, see § 301.6212-2 of this chapter.

(e) Penalties. See section 6651 for failure to file or failure to pay the amount shown as tax on the return.

(f) Effective/applicability dates. This section is applicable for applications for an automatic extension of time to file a return to report taxes due under section 4951 for self-dealing with a Nuclear Decommissioning Fund filed after July 1, 2008.

[T.D. 9407, 73 FR 37369, July 1, 2008]

§ 53.6091-1 Place for filing chapter 42 tax returns.

Except as provided in § 53.6091-2 (relating to exceptional cases):

(a) Persons other than corporations. Chapter 42 tax returns of persons other than corporations shall be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office that serves the legal residence or principal place of business of the person required to make the return.

(b) Corporations. Chapter 42 tax returns of corporations shall be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office that serves the principal place of business or principal office or agency of the corporation.

(c) Returns filed with service centers. Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, unless a return is filed by hand carrying, whenever instructions applicable to Chapter 42 tax returns provide that the returns be filed with a service center, the returns must be so filed in accordance with the instructions. Returns which are filed by hand carrying shall be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive hand-carried returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office in accordance with paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, whichever is applicable.

(d) Returns of persons subject to a termination assessment. Notwithstanding paragraph (c) of this section, income tax returns of persons with respect to whom a chapter 42 tax assessment was made under section 6852(a) with respect to the taxable year must be filed with any person assigned the responsibility to receive returns in the local Internal Revenue Service office as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.

[T.D. 7368, 40 FR 29843, July 16, 1975, as amended by T.D. 7495, 42 FR 33727, July 1, 1977; T.D. 8628, 60 FR 62212, Dec. 5, 1995; T.D. 9156, 69 FR 55746, Sept. 16, 2004]

§ 53.6091-2 Exceptional cases.

Notwithstanding the provisions of § 53.6091-1, the Commissioner may permit the filing of any Chapter 42 tax return in any local Internal Revenue Service office.

[T.D. 7368, 40 FR 29843, July 16, 1975. Redesignated by T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16303, May 2, 1986, as amended by T.D. 9156, 69 FR 55746, Sept. 16, 2004]

§ 53.6107-1 Tax return preparer must furnish copy of return or claim for refund to taxpayer and must retain a copy or record.

(a) In general. A person who is a signing tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of tax under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code shall furnish a completed copy of the return or claim for refund to the taxpayer and retain a completed copy or record in the manner stated in § 1.6107-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.6109-1 Tax return preparers furnishing identifying numbers for returns or claims for refund filed.

(a) In general. Each tax return or claim for refund under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code prepared by one or more signing tax return preparers must include the identifying number of the preparer required by § 1.6695-1(b) of this chapter to sign the return or claim for refund in the manner stated in § 1.6109-2 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. Paragraph (a) of this section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.6151-1 Time and place for paying tax shown on returns.

The Chapter 42 tax shown on any return shall, without assessment or notice and demand, be paid to the internal revenue officer with whom the return is filed at the time and place for filing such return (determined without regard to any extension of time for filing the return). For provisions relating to the time and place for filing such return, see §§ 53.6071-1 and 53.6091-1. For provisions relating to the extension of time for paying the tax, see § 53.6161-1.

§ 53.6161-1 Extension of time for paying tax or deficiency.

(a) In general—(1) Tax shown or required to be shown on return. A reasonable extension of the time for payment of the amount of any tax imposed by Chapter 42 and shown or required to be shown on any return, may be granted by the district directors and directors of the service centers at the request of the taxpayer. The period of such extension shall not be in excess of 6 months from the date fixed for payment of such tax, except that if the taxpayer is abroad the period of the extension may be in excess of 6 months.

(2) Deficiency. The time for payment of any amount determined as a deficiency in respect of tax imposed by Chapter 42 may, at the request of the taxpayer, be extended by the internal revenue officer to whom the tax is required to be paid for a period not to exceed 18 months from the date fixed for payment of the deficiency, as shown on the notice and demand, and, in exceptional cases for a further period not in excess of 12 months. No extension of the time for payment of a deficiency shall be granted if the deficiency is due to negligence, to intentional disregard of rules and regulations, or to fraud with intent to evade tax.

(3) Extension of time for filing distinguished. The granting of an extension of time for filing a return does not operate to extend the time for the payment of the tax or any part thereof unless so specified in the extension.

(b) Undue hardship required for extension. An extension of the time for payment shall be granted only upon a satisfactory showing that payment on the due date of the amount with respect to which the extension is desired will result in an undue hardship. The extension will not be granted upon a general statement of hardship. The term “undue hardship” means more than an inconvenience to the taxpayer. It must appear that substantial financial loss, for example, loss due to the sale of property at a sacrifice price, will result to the taxpayer from making payment on the due date of the amount with respect to which the extension is desired. If a market exists, the sale of property at the current market price is not ordinarily considered as resulting in an undue hardship.

(c) Application for extension. An application for an extension of the time for payment of the tax shown or required to be shown on any return, or for the payment of any amount determined as a deficiency shall be made on Form 1127 and shall be accompanied by evidence showing the undue hardship that would result to the taxpayer if the extension were refused. Such application shall also be accompanied by a statement of the assets and liabilities of the taxpayer and an itemized statement showing all receipts and disbursements for each of the three months immediately preceding the due date of the amount to which the application relates. The application, with supporting documents, must be filed on or before the date prescribed for payment of the amount with respect to which the extension is desired with the internal revenue officer to whom the tax is to be paid. The application will be examined, and within 30 days, if possible, will be denied, granted, or tentatively granted subject to certain conditions of which the taxpayer will be notified. If an additional extension is desired, the request therefor must be made on or before the expiration of the period for which the prior extension is granted.

(d) Payment pursuant to extension. If an extension of time for payment is granted, the amount the time for payment of which is so extended shall be paid on or before the expiration of the period of the extension without the necessity of notice and demand. The granting of an extension of the time for payment of the tax or deficiency does not relieve the taxpayer from liability for the payment of interest thereon during the period of the extension. See section 6601 and § 301.6601-1 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration).

§ 53.6165-1 Bonds where time to pay tax or deficiency has been extended.

If an extension of time for payment of tax or deficiency is granted under section 6161, the district director or the director of the service center may, if he deems it necessary, require a bond for the payment of the amount in respect of which the extension is granted in accordance with the terms of the extension. However, such bond shall not exceed double the amount with respect to which the extension is granted. For provisions relating to form of bonds, see the regulations under section 7101 contained in part 301 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration).

§ 53.6601-1 Interest on underpayment, nonpayment, or extensions of time for payment, of tax.

For regulations concerning interest on underpayment, nonpayment, or extensions of time for payment of tax, see § 301.6601-1 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration).

§ 53.6651-1 Failure to file tax return or to pay tax.

(a) General rules. For general rules relating to the failure to file tax return or to pay tax, see the regulations under section 6651 contained in part 301 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration).

(b) Special rule where foundation files return. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, in the case of tax imposed by section 4941(a)(1) on any disqualified person, reasonable cause shall be presumed, for purposes of section 6651(a)(1), where the private foundation or trust described in section 4947(a)(2) files a return in good faith and such return indicates no tax liability with respect to such tax on the part of such disqualified person.

(2) Paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not apply where the disqualified person knew of facts which, if known by the foundation, would have precluded the foundation from making the return, as filed, in good faith.

§ 53.6694-1 Section 6694 penalties applicable to tax return preparer.

(a) In general. For general definitions regarding section 6694 penalties applicable to preparers of tax returns or claims for refund under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, see § 1.6694-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. Paragraph (a) of this section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.6694-2 Penalties for understatement due to an unreasonable position.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of tax under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) shall be subject to penalties under section 6694(a) of the Code in the manner stated in § 1.6694-2 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.6694-3 Penalty for understatement due to willful, reckless, or intentional conduct.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of tax under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) shall be subject to penalties under section 6694(b) of the Code in the manner stated in § 1.6694-3 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78457, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.6694-4 Extension of period of collection when tax return preparer pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and certain other procedural matters.

(a) In general. For rules relating to the extension of period of collection when a tax return preparer who prepared a return or claim for refund of tax under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and procedural matters relating to the investigation, assessment and collection of the penalties under section 6694(a) and (b), the rules under § 1.6694-4 of this chapter will apply.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78458, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.6695-1 Other assessable penalties with respect to the preparation of tax returns or claims for refund for other persons.

(a) In general. A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of tax under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) shall be subject to penalties for failure to furnish a copy to the taxpayer under section 6695(a) of the Code, failure to sign the return under section 6695(b) of the Code, failure to furnish an identification number under section 6695(c) of the Code, failure to retain a copy or list under section 6695(d) of the Code, failure to file a correct information return under section 6695(e) of the Code, and negotiation of a check under section 6695(f) of the Code, in the manner stated in § 1.6695-1 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78458, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.6696-1 Claims for credit or refund by tax return preparers.

(a) In general. For rules for claims for credit or refund by a tax return preparer who prepared a return or claim for refund for tax under Chapter 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, the rules under § 1.6696-1 of this chapter will apply.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78458, Dec. 22, 2008]

§ 53.7101-1 Form of bonds.

For provisions relating to form of bonds, see the regulations under section 7101 contained in part 301 of this chapter (Regulations on Procedure and Administration).

§ 53.7701-1 Tax return preparer.

(a) In general. For the definition of a tax return preparer, see § 301.7701-15 of this chapter.

(b) Effective/applicability date. This section is applicable to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, after December 31, 2008.

[T.D. 9436, 73 FR 78458, Dec. 22, 2008]

PART 54 PENSION EXCISE TAXES

Authority: 26 U.S.C. 7805, unless otherwise noted. Section 54.4974-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4974; Section 54.4981A-1T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4981A; Section 54.4980B-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-5 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-6 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-7 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-8 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-9 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980B-10 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980B; Section 54.4980F-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980F; Section 54.4980G-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980G; Section 54.4980G-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980G; Section 54.4980G-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980G; Section 54.4980G-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980G; Section 54.4980G-5 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980G; Section 54.4980G-6 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980G; Section 54.4980G-7 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980G; Section 54.4980H-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 4980H(c)(4)(B); Section 54.6011-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6011; Section 54.6060-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6060(a); Section 54.6081-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6081(a); Section 54.6109-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a); Section 54.6109-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109(a); Section 54.6695-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6695(b); Section 54.9801-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9801-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9801-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9801(c)(4), 9801(e)(3), and 9833; Section 54.9801-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9801(c)(1)(I) and 9833; Section 54.9801-5 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9801(c)(4), 9801(e)(3), and 9833; Section 54.9801-6 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9802-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9802-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9802-3T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9802-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9811-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9812-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-1251 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-1251T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2704 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2704T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2705 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2708 is also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2711 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2711T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2712 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2712T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2713 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2713T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2714 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2714T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2715 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Sections 54.9815-2715A1, 54.9815-2715A2, and 54.9815-2715A3 are also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2719 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2719A also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2719AT also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9815-2719T also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9816-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9816. Section 54.9816-6A also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9816. Section 54.9816-8 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9816; Section 54.9816-9 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9816. Section 54.9831-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833; Section 54.9833-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 9833.

§ 54.4971-1 General rules relating to excise tax on failure to meet minimum funding standards.

(a)-(b) [Reserved]

(c) Additional tax. Section 4971(b) imposes an excise tax in any case in which an initial tax is imposed under section 4971(a) on an accumulated funding deficiency and the accumulated funding deficiency is not corrected within the taxable period (as defined in section 4971(c)(3)). The additional tax is 100 percent of the accumulated funding deficiency to the extent not corrected.

(d) [Reserved]

(e) Definition of taxable period—(1) In general. For purposes of any accumulated funding deficiency, the term “taxable period” means the period beginning with the end of the plan year in which there is an accumulated funding deficiency and ending on the earlier of:

(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4971(a), or

(ii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4971(a) is assessed.

(2) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section is not mailed because a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency has been accepted or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the taxable period.

[T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16305, May 2, 1986]

§ 54.4971(c)-1 Taxes on failure to meet minimum funding standards; definitions.

(a) In general. This section sets forth definitions that apply for purposes of applying the rules of section 4971.

(b) Accumulated funding deficiency—(1) Multiemployer plans. With respect to a multiemployer plan defined in section 414(f), the term accumulated funding deficiency has the meaning given to that term by section 431. A plan's accumulated funding deficiency for a plan year takes into account all charges and credits to the funding standard account under section 412 for plan years before the first plan year for which section 431 applies to the plan.

(2) CSEC plans. With respect to a CSEC plan (that is, a plan that fits within the definition of a CSEC plan in section 414(y) for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2014 and for which the election under section 414(y)(3)(A) has not been made), the term accumulated funding deficiency means the CSEC accumulated funding deficiency determined under section 433. A plan's CSEC accumulated funding deficiency for a plan year takes into account all charges and credits to the funding standard account under section 412 for plan years before the first plan year for which section 433 applies to the plan.

(c) Unpaid minimum required contribution—(1) In general. The term unpaid minimum required contribution means, with respect to any plan year, the portion of the minimum required contribution under section 430 for the plan year for which contributions have not been made on or before the due date for the plan year under section 430(j)(1). The unpaid minimum required contribution is determined after taking into account the interest adjustment to contributions under § 1.430(j)-1(b)(4) and any offsets from use of the funding balances under § 1.430(f)-1(d).

(2) Accumulated funding deficiency for pre-effective plan year. For purposes of this section, a plan's accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 for the pre-effective plan year is treated as an unpaid minimum required contribution for that plan year until correction is made under the rules of paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(d) Correct—(1) Accumulated funding deficiency. With respect to an accumulated funding deficiency for a plan year that is described in paragraph (b) of this section, the term correct means to contribute, to or under the plan, the amount necessary to reduce the accumulated funding deficiency as of the end of that plan year to zero. To reduce the deficiency to zero, the contribution must include interest at the plan's valuation interest rate for the period between the end of that plan year and the date of the contribution (determined taking into account the rules of section 431(c)(8) or section 433(c)(9), as applicable).

(2) Unpaid minimum required contribution—(i) In general. With respect to an unpaid minimum required contribution for a plan year, the term correct means to contribute, to or under the plan, an amount that, when discounted to the valuation date for the plan year for which the unpaid minimum required contribution is due at the appropriate rate of interest, equals or exceeds the unpaid minimum required contribution. For this purpose, the appropriate rate of interest is the plan's effective interest rate for the plan year for which the unpaid minimum required contribution is due except to the extent that the payments are subject to additional interest as provided under section 430(j)(3) or (4).

(ii) Pre-PPA accumulated funding deficiency. With respect to the accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 for the pre-effective plan year that is described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the term correct means to contribute, to or under the plan, the amount of that accumulated funding deficiency increased with interest from the end of the pre-effective plan year to the date of the contribution at the plan's valuation interest rate for the pre-effective plan year.

(iii) Ordering rule. For purposes of section 4971 and this section, a contribution is attributable first to the earliest plan year of any unpaid minimum required contribution for which correction has not yet been made.

(3) Corrective action of certain retroactive plan amendments. Certain retroactive plan amendments that meet the requirements of section 412(d)(2) may reduce the minimum required contribution for a plan year, which would reduce the accumulated funding deficiency or the amount of the unpaid minimum required contribution for a plan year.

(e) Taxable period—(1) In general. The term taxable period means the period beginning with the end of the plan year in which there is an accumulated funding deficiency or unpaid minimum required contribution, whichever is applicable, and ending on the earlier of:

(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4971(a); or

(ii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4971(a) is assessed.

(2) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section is not mailed because a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency has been accepted or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, is treated as the end of the taxable period.

(f) Single-employer plan. The term single-employer plan means a plan to which the minimum funding requirements of section 412 apply that is not a multiemployer plan as described in section 414(f). The term single-employer plan includes a multiple employer plan to which section 413(c) applies, other than a CSEC plan as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(g) Examples. The following examples illustrate the rules of this section.

Example 1. (i) Plan A, a single-employer defined benefit plan, has a calendar year plan year and a January 1 valuation date. The sponsor of Plan A has a calendar taxable year. Plan A has no funding shortfall as of January 1, 2008, and Plan A has no unpaid minimum required contributions for 2008 or any earlier plan year. The minimum required contribution for the 2009 plan year is $250,000. The plan sponsor makes one contribution for 2009 on July 1, 2009 in the amount of $200,000, and the sponsor does not make an election to use the prefunding balance or funding standard carryover balance to offset the minimum required contribution for 2009. The effective interest rate for Plan A for the 2009 plan year is 5.90%.

(ii) The contribution paid July 1, 2009 is discounted for 6 months (to the valuation date) at the effective interest rate ($200,000 ÷ 1.0590(6/12) = $194,349). The unpaid minimum required contribution for the 2009 plan year is $250,000 minus $194,349, or $55,651. The excise tax due under section 4971(a) is 10% of the unpaid minimum required contribution, or $5,565.

Example 2. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 1. The plan sponsor makes an additional contribution of $175,000 on December 31, 2010.

(ii) Under the ordering rule in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, the contribution made on December 31, 2010 is applied first to correct the unpaid minimum required contribution for 2009. The portion of the contribution paid December 31, 2010 that is required to eliminate the unpaid minimum required contribution for 2009 (taking into account the 2009 effective interest rate for the 24 months between January 1, 2009 and the payment date of December 31, 2010), is $55,651 multiplied by 1.059(24/12) or $62,412. The remaining payment of $112,588 ($175,000 minus $62,412) is applied to the contribution required for the 2010 plan year.

Example 3. (i) Plan B, a single-employer defined benefit plan, has a calendar year plan year. The sponsor of Plan B has a calendar taxable year. Plan B has an accumulated funding deficiency of $100,000 as of December 31, 2007, including additional interest due to late required installments during 2007. The valuation interest rate for the 2007 plan year is 7.5%.

(ii) In accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 as of December 31, 2007 is considered an unpaid minimum required contribution until it is corrected. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the amount needed to correct that accumulated funding deficiency is $100,000 plus interest at the valuation interest rate of 7.5% for the period between December 31, 2007 and the date of payment of the contribution.

(iii) The funding shortfall as of January 1, 2008 is calculated as the difference between the funding target and the value of assets as of that date. The assets are not adjusted by the amount of the accumulated funding deficiency. The fact that the contribution was not made for the 2007 plan year means that the January 1, 2008 funding shortfall is larger than it would have been otherwise.

Example 4. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 3. The minimum required contribution for the 2008 plan year is $125,000, but the plan sponsor does not make any required contributions for 2008.

(ii) The total unpaid minimum required contribution as of December 31, 2008 is the sum of the $100,000 accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 from 2007 and the $125,000 unpaid minimum required contribution for 2008, or $225,000. The section 4971(a) excise tax applies to the aggregate unpaid minimum required contributions for all plan years that remain unpaid as of the end of 2008. In this case, there is an unpaid minimum required contribution of $100,000 for the 2007 plan year and an unpaid minimum required contribution of $125,000 for the 2008 plan year. The section 4971(a) excise tax is 10% of the aggregate of those unpaid amounts, $22,500.

Example 5. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 4, except that the plan sponsor makes a contribution of $150,000 on December 31, 2008. No additional contributions are paid through September 15, 2009. Required installments of $25,000 each are due April 15, 2008, July 15, 2008, October 15, 2008, and January 15, 2009. Plan B's effective interest rate for the 2008 plan year is 5.75%.

(ii) In accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 as of December 31, 2007 is treated as an unpaid minimum required contribution until it is corrected.

(iii) The December 31, 2008 contribution is first applied to the 2007 accumulated funding deficiency under section 412 that is treated as an unpaid minimum required contribution. Accordingly, the amount needed to correct the 2007 unpaid required minimum contribution ($100,000 multiplied by 1.075, or $107,500) is applied to eliminate this unpaid minimum required contribution for the 2007 plan year.

(iv) The remaining $42,500 December 31, 2008 contribution ($150,000 minus $107,500) is then applied to the 2008 minimum required contribution. This amount is first allocated to the required installment due April 15, 2008. In accordance with § 1.430(j)-1(b)(4)(ii) of this chapter, the adjustment for interest on late required installments is increased by 5 percentage points for the period of underpayment. Therefore, $25,000 of the remaining December 31, 2008 contribution is discounted using an interest rate of 10.75% for the 8 1/2-month period between the payment date of December 31, 2008 and the required installment due date of April 15, 2008, and at the 5.75% effective interest rate for the 3 1/2 months between April 15, 2008 and January 1, 2008. This portion of the December 31, 2008 contribution results in an adjusted amount of $22,880 (that is, $25,000 ÷ 1.1075(8.5/12) ÷ 1.0575(3.5/12)) as of January 1, 2008.

(v) The remaining December 31, 2008 contribution is then applied to the required installment due July 15, 2008. The $17,500 balance of the December 31, 2008 contribution ($150,000 minus $107,500 minus $25,000) is paid after the due date for the second required installment. Accordingly, the remaining $17,500 contribution is adjusted using an interest rate of 10.75% for the 5 1/2-month period between the payment date of December 31, 2008 and the required installment due date of July 15, 2008, and at the 5.75% effective interest rate for the 6 1/2 months between July 15, 2008 and January 1, 2008. This portion of the December 31, 2008 contribution results in an adjusted amount of $16,202 (that is, $17,500 ÷ 1.1075(5.5/12) ÷ 1.0575(6.5/12)) as of January 1, 2008.

(vi) The remaining unpaid minimum required contribution for 2008 is $125,000 minus the interest-adjusted amounts of $22,880 and $16,202 applied towards the 2008 minimum required contribution as determined in paragraphs (iv) and (v) of this Example 5. This results in an unpaid minimum required contribution of $85,918 for 2008. The section 4971(a) excise tax is 10% of the unpaid minimum required contribution, or $8,592.

Example 6. (i) Plan C, a single-employer defined benefit plan, has a calendar year plan year and a January 1 valuation date, and has no funding standard carryover balance or prefunding balance as of January 1, 2008. Plan C's sponsor has a calendar taxable year. The minimum required contributions for Plan C are $100,000 for the 2008 plan year, $110,000 for the 2009 plan year, $125,000 for the 2010 plan year, and $135,000 for the 2011 plan year. No contributions for these plan years are made until September 15, 2012, at which time the plan sponsor contributes $273,000 (which is exactly enough to correct the unpaid minimum required contributions for the 2008 and 2009 plan years).

(ii) The excise tax under section 4971(a) for the 2008 taxable year is 10% of the aggregate unpaid minimum required contributions for all plan years remaining unpaid as of the end of any plan year ending within the 2008 taxable year. Accordingly, the excise tax for the 2008 taxable year is $10,000 (that is, 10% of $100,000). The excise tax for the 2009 taxable year is $21,000 (that is, 10% of the sum of $100,000 and $110,000) and the excise tax for the 2010 taxable year is $33,500 (that is, 10% of the sum of $100,000, $110,000, and $125,000).

(iii) The contribution made on September 15, 2012 is applied to correct the unpaid minimum required contributions for the 2008 and 2009 plan years by the deadline for making contributions for the 2011 plan year. Therefore, the excise tax under section 4971(a) for the 2011 taxable year is based only on the remaining unpaid minimum required contributions for the 2010 and 2011 plan years, or $26,000 (that is, 10% of the sum of $125,000 and $135,000).

(iv) The plan sponsor may also be required to pay an excise tax of 100% under section 4971(b), if the unpaid minimum required contributions are not corrected by the end of the taxable period.

(h) Effective/applicability dates and transition rules—(1) Statutory effective date—(i) In general. In general, the amendments made to section 4971 by section 114 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, Public Law 109-280, 120 Stat. 780 (2006), as amended (PPA '06), apply to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2008, but only with respect to a plan year that—

(A) Begins on or after January 1, 2008; and

(B) Ends with or within any such taxable year.

(ii) Plans with delayed PPA '06 effective dates. In the case of a plan for which the effective date of section 430 for purposes of determining the minimum required contribution is delayed in accordance with sections 104 through 106 of PPA '06, the amendments made to section 4971 by section 114 of PPA '06 apply to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2008, but only with respect to a plan year—

(A) To which section 430 applies to determine the minimum required contribution of the plan; and

(B) That ends with or within any such taxable year.

(2) Effective date of regulations. This section is effective for taxable years beginning on or after the statutory effective date described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, but in no event does this section apply to taxable years ending before April 15, 2008.

(3) Pre-effective plan year. For purposes of this section, the pre-effective plan year for a plan is the plan year described in § 1.430(a)-1(h)(5) of this chapter. Thus, except for plans with a delayed effective date under paragraph (h)(1)(ii) of this section, the pre-effective plan year for a plan is the last plan year beginning before January 1, 2008.

[T.D. 9732, 80 FR 54400, Sept. 9, 2015]

§ 54.4974-1 Excise tax on accumulations in qualified retirement plans.

(a) Imposition of excise tax—(1) In general. If the amount distributed to a payee under any qualified retirement plan or any eligible deferred compensation plan (as defined in section 457(b)) for a calendar year is less than the required minimum distribution for that year, section 4974 imposes an excise tax on the payee for the taxable year beginning with or within the calendar year during which the amount is required to be distributed. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the tax is equal to 25 percent of the amount by which the required minimum distribution for a calendar year exceeds the actual amount distributed during the calendar year.

(2) Reduction of tax in certain cases—(i) In general. In the case of a taxpayer who satisfies this paragraph (a)(2), the tax described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is equal to 10 percent (in lieu of 25 percent) of the amount by which the required minimum distribution for a calendar year exceeds the actual amount distributed during the calendar year.

(ii) Eligible taxpayers. This paragraph (a)(2) is satisfied if, by the last day of the correction window described in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the taxpayer—

(A) Receives a corrective distribution from the applicable plan described in paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section of the amount by which the required minimum distribution for a calendar year exceeds the actual amount distributed during the calendar year from that plan; and

(B) Files a return reflecting the tax described in this paragraph (a).

(iii) Correction window. For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the correction window ends on the earliest of—

(A) The date a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4974(a) is mailed;

(B) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4974(a) is assessed; or

(C) The last day of the second taxable year that begins after the end of the taxable year in which the tax under section 4974(a) is imposed.

(iv) Applicable plan. If the minimum distribution was required to be paid from a particular qualified retirement plan or eligible deferred compensation plan, then the applicable plan is that particular qualified retirement plan or eligible deferred compensation plan. However, if the requirement to take a minimum distribution could have been satisfied by a payment from any one of a number of qualified retirement plans (such as an individual retirement account under section 408(a) or a section 403(b) plan), then the corrective distribution may be taken from any one of those qualified retirement plans.

(3) Definition of required minimum distribution. For purposes of section 4974, the term required minimum distribution means the minimum amount required to be distributed pursuant to section 401(a)(9), 403(b)(10), 408(a)(6), 408(b)(3), or 457(d)(2), as the case may be. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f) of this section (which provides a special rule for amounts required to be distributed by an employee's, or an individual's, required beginning date), the required minimum distribution for a calendar year is the required minimum distribution amount required to be distributed during the calendar year.

(b) Definition of qualified retirement plan. For purposes of section 4974, each of the following is a qualified retirement plan—

(1) A plan described in section 401(a) that includes a trust exempt from tax under section 501(a);

(2) An annuity plan described in section 403(a);

(3) An annuity contract, custodial account, or retirement income account described in section 403(b);

(4) An individual retirement account described in section 408(a) (including a Roth IRA described in section 408A);

(5) An individual retirement annuity described in section 408(b) (including a Roth IRA described in section 408A); or

(6) Any other plan, contract, account, or annuity that, at any time, has been treated as a plan, account, or annuity described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section but that no longer satisfies the applicable requirements for that treatment.

(c) Determination of required minimum distribution for individual accounts—(1) General rule. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), if a payee's interest under a qualified retirement plan or any eligible deferred compensation plan is in the form of an individual account (and distribution of that account is not being made under an annuity contract purchased in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-5(a)(5) and § 1.401(a)(9)-6(d)), the amount of the required minimum distribution for any calendar year for purposes of section 4974 is the amount required to be distributed to that payee for that calendar year determined in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-5 as provided in the following (whichever applies)—

(i) Section 401(a)(9), §§ 1.401(a)(9)-1 through 1.401(a)(9)-5, and 1.401(a)(9)-7 through 1.401(a)(9)-9, in the case of a plan described in section 401(a) that includes a trust exempt under section 501(a) or an annuity plan described in section 403(a);

(ii) Section 403(b)(10) and § 1.403(b)-6(e) in the case of an annuity contract, custodial account, or retirement income account described in section 403(b);

(iii) Section 408(a)(6) or (b)(3) and § 1.408-8 in the case of an individual retirement account or annuity described in section 408(a) or (b); or

(iv) Section 457(d) and § 1.457-6(d) in the case of an eligible deferred compensation plan.

(2) Distributions under 5-year rule or 10-year rule. If an employee dies before the required beginning date and either § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(2) or (3) applies to the employee's beneficiary, there is no required minimum distribution until the end of the calendar year described in whichever of those paragraphs applies to the beneficiary (that is, the calendar year that includes the fifth anniversary or the tenth anniversary of the date of the employee's death, as applicable). The required minimum distribution due in that fifth or tenth calendar year is the employee's entire interest in the plan.

(3) Default provisions. Unless otherwise provided under the qualified retirement plan or eligible deferred compensation plan (or, if applicable, the governing instrument of the plan), the default provisions in § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(5)(i) apply in determining whether paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section applies.

(4) Plans providing uniform required beginning date. For purposes of this section, if the plan provides a uniform required beginning date for purposes of section 401(a)(9) for all employees in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-2(b)(4), then the required minimum distribution for each calendar year for an employee who is not a 5-percent owner is the lesser of the amount determined based on a required beginning date of April 1 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which the employee attains the applicable age or the amount determined based on the required beginning date under the plan. Thus, for example, if an employee who was not a 5-percent owner participated in a defined contribution plan with a uniform required beginning date (as described in the preceding sentence) and the employee died after the applicable age (but before April 1 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which the employee retired) without a designated beneficiary, then required minimum distributions for calendar years after the calendar year that includes the date of the employee's death are equal to the lesser of—

(i) The required minimum distribution determined by treating the employee as dying before the required beginning date (that is, the 5-year rule of § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(2)); or

(ii) The required minimum distribution determined by treating the employee as dying on or after the required beginning date (annual distributions over the employee's remaining life expectancy, as set forth in § 1.401(a)(9)-5(d)).

(d) Determination of required minimum distribution under a defined benefit plan or annuity—(1) General rule. If a payee's interest in a qualified retirement plan or eligible deferred compensation plan is being distributed in the form of an annuity (either directly from the plan, in the case of a defined benefit plan, or under an annuity contract purchased from an insurance company), then the amount of the required minimum distribution for purposes of section 4974 depends on whether the annuity is a permissible annuity distribution option or an impermissible annuity distribution option. For this purpose—

(i) A permissible annuity distribution option is an annuity contract (or, in the case of annuity distributions from a defined benefit plan, a distribution option) that specifically provides for distributions that, if made as provided, would for every calendar year equal or exceed the minimum distribution amount required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable section enumerated in paragraph (b) of this section for that calendar year; and

(ii) An impermissible annuity distribution option is any other annuity distribution option.

(2) Permissible annuity distribution option. If the annuity contract (or, in the case of annuity distributions from a defined benefit plan, a distribution option) under which distributions to the payee are being made is a permissible annuity distribution option, then the required minimum distribution for a given calendar year for purposes of section 4974 equals the amount that the annuity contract (or distribution option) provides is to be distributed for that calendar year.

(3) Impermissible annuity distribution option—(i) General rule. If the annuity contract (or, in the case of annuity distributions from a defined benefit plan, the distribution option) under which distributions to the payee are being made is an impermissible annuity distribution option, then the required minimum distribution for each calendar year for purposes of section 4974 is the amount that would be distributed under the applicable permissible annuity distribution option described in this paragraph (d)(3) (or the amount determined by the Commissioner if there is no option of this type). The determination of which permissible annuity distribution applies depends on whether distributions commenced before the death of the employee, whether the plan is a defined benefit or defined contribution plan, whether there is a designated beneficiary for purposes of section 401(a)(9), and whether the designated beneficiary is an eligible designated beneficiary under section 401(a)(9)(E)(ii). For this purpose, the determination of whether there is a designated beneficiary and whether that designated beneficiary is an eligible designated beneficiary is made in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-4, and the determination of which designated beneficiary's life is to be used in the case of multiple designated beneficiaries in made in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-5(f).

(ii) Defined benefit plan—(A) Benefits commence before employee dies. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined benefit plan, benefits commence before the employee dies, and there is a designated beneficiary, then the applicable permissible annuity distribution option is the joint and survivor annuity option under the plan for the lives of the employee and the designated beneficiary that is a permissible annuity distribution option and that provides for the greatest level amount payable to the employee determined on an annual basis. If the plan does not provide an option described in the preceding sentence (or there is no designated beneficiary under the impermissible annuity distribution option), then the applicable permissible annuity distribution option is the life annuity option under the plan payable for the life of the employee in level amounts with no survivor benefit.

(B) Employee dies before benefits commence. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined benefit plan, the employee dies before benefits commence, there is a designated beneficiary, and the plan has a life annuity option payable for the life of the designated beneficiary in level amounts, then the applicable permissible annuity distribution option is that life annuity option. If there is no designated beneficiary, then the 5-year rule in section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) applies in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section.

(iii) Defined contribution plan—(A) In general. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined contribution plan and the impermissible annuity distribution option is an annuity contract purchased from an insurance company, then the applicable permissible annuity distribution option is the applicable annuity described in paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) or (C) of this section that could have been purchased with the portion of the employee's or individual's account that was used to purchase the annuity contract that is the impermissible annuity distribution option. The amount of the payments under that annuity contract are determined using the interest rate prescribed under section 7520 determined as of the date the contract was purchased, the ages of the annuitants on that date, and the mortality rates in § 1.401(a)(9)-9(e).

(B) Benefits commence before employee dies. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined contribution plan, the benefits commence before the employee dies, and there is a designated beneficiary who is an eligible designated beneficiary within the meaning of section 401(a)(9)(E)(ii), then the applicable annuity is the joint and survivor annuity option providing level annual payments for the lives of the employee and the designated beneficiary, under which the amount of the periodic payment that would have been payable to the survivor is the applicable percentage under the table in § 1.401(a)(9)-6(b)(2) (taking into account the rules of § 1.401(a)(9)-6(k)(2)) of the amount of the periodic payment that would have been payable to the employee or individual. If there is no designated beneficiary, or if the designated beneficiary is not an eligible designated beneficiary under the impermissible distribution option, then the annuity described in this paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) is a life annuity for the life of the employee with no survivor benefit that provides level annual payments.

(C) Employee dies before benefits commence. If the plan under which distributions are being made is a defined contribution plan, the employee dies before benefits commence, and there is an eligible designated beneficiary under the impermissible annuity distribution option, then the applicable annuity is a life annuity for the life of the designated beneficiary that provides level annual payments and that would have been a permissible annuity distribution option. If there is no designated beneficiary, then section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) applies in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section. If the designated beneficiary is not an eligible designated beneficiary, then section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) applies in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section.

(4) Application of section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii)—(i) Application of 5-year rule. If the 5-year rule in section 401(a)(9)(B)(ii) applies to the distribution to the payee under the contract (or distribution option), then no amount is required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable enumerated section in paragraph (b) of this section until the end of the calendar year that includes the fifth anniversary of the date of the employee's death. For the calendar year that includes the fifth anniversary of the date of the employee's death, the amount required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable enumerated section is the payee's entire remaining interest in the annuity contract (or under the plan in the case of distributions from a defined benefit plan). However, see § 1.401(a)(9)-6(j) for rules regarding payments that are not permitted under section 436.

(ii) Application of 10-year rule. If the employee dies before distribution of the employee's entire interest, section 401(a)(9)(H) applies, and the designated beneficiary of the remaining interest is not an eligible designated beneficiary, then no amount is required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable enumerated section in paragraph (b) of this section until the end of the calendar year that includes the tenth anniversary of the date of the employee's death. For the calendar year that includes the tenth anniversary of the date of the employee's death, the amount required to be distributed to satisfy the applicable enumerated section is the payee's entire remaining interest in the annuity contract.

(5) Plans providing uniform required beginning date. Rules similar to the rules of paragraph (c)(4) of this section (relating to plans that have adopted a uniform required beginning date) apply in the case of a defined benefit plan.

(e) Distribution of remaining benefit after deadline for required distribution. If there is any remaining benefit with respect to an employee (or IRA owner) after the calendar year in which the entire remaining benefit is required to be distributed, the required minimum distribution for each calendar year subsequent to that calendar year is the entire remaining benefit. Thus, for example, if the designated beneficiary of the employee is not an eligible designated beneficiary, then, pursuant to § 1.401(a)(9)-5(e)(2), the entire interest of the employee must be distributed no later than the end of the calendar year that includes the tenth anniversary of the date of the employee's death, and the required minimum distribution for that calendar year and each subsequent calendar year is the remaining portion of the employee's interest in the plan.

(f) Excise tax for first distribution calendar year. If the amount not paid is an amount required to be paid by April 1 of a calendar year that includes the employee's required beginning date, the missed distribution is a required minimum distribution for the previous calendar year (that is, for the employee's or the individual's first distribution calendar year as determined in accordance with § 1.401(a)(9)-5(a)(2)(ii)). However, the excise tax under section 4974 is calculated with respect to the calendar year that includes the last day by which the amount is required to be distributed (that is, the calendar year that includes the employee's or individual's required beginning date) even though the preceding calendar year is the calendar year for which the amount is required to be distributed. There is also a required minimum distribution for the calendar year that includes the employee's or individual's required beginning date, and that distribution is also required to be made during the calendar year that includes the employee's or individual's required beginning date.

(g) Waiver of excise tax—(1) General rule. The tax under paragraph (a) of this section may be waived if the payee establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that—

(i) The failure to distribute the required minimum distribution described in this section was due to reasonable error; and

(ii) Reasonable steps are being taken to remedy the failure.

(2) Automatic waiver after election to distribute within 10 years of employee's death. Unless the Commissioner determines otherwise, the tax under paragraph (a) of this section is waived automatically if—

(i) The employee's or individual's death is before the employee's or individual's required beginning date;

(ii) The payee is an individual—

(A) Who is an eligible designated beneficiary (as defined in § 1.401(a)(9)-4(e));

(B) Whose required minimum distribution amount for a calendar year is determined under the life expectancy rule described in § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(4); and

(C) Who did not make an affirmative election to have the life expectancy rule apply as described in § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(5)(iii);

(iii) The payee fails to satisfy the minimum distribution requirement; and

(iv) The payee elects the 10-year rule described in § 1.401(a)(9)-3(c)(3) by the end of the ninth calendar year following the calendar year of the employee's death.

(3) Automatic waiver for failure to take required minimum distribution for the year of death. Unless the Commissioner determines otherwise, the tax under paragraph (a) of this section is waived automatically if—

(i) A distribution is required to be made to an individual under § 1.401(a)(9)-3 or § 1.401(a)(9)-5 in a calendar year;

(ii) The individual who was required to take the distribution described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section died in that calendar year without satisfying that distribution requirement; and

(iii) The beneficiary of the individual described in paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section takes a corrective distribution in the amount needed to satisfy that distribution requirement no later than the tax filing deadline (including extensions thereof) for the taxable year of that beneficiary that begins with or within that calendar year (or, if later, the last day of the calendar year following that calendar year).

(h) Applicability date. This section applies for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025. For earlier taxable years, the rules of 26 CFR 54.4974-2 (as it appeared in the April 1, 2023, edition of 26 CFR part 54) apply.

[T.D. 7714, 45 FR 52799, Aug. 8, 1980, as amended by T.D. 10001, 89 FR 58951, July 19, 2024]

§ 54.4975-1 General rules relating to excise tax on prohibited transactions.

(a) Scope. This section provides general rules for the imposition of the excise taxes on prohibited transactions.

(b) Initial tax. Section 4975(a) imposes an initial tax on each prohibited transaction. The initial tax is 5 percent of the amount involved with respect to the prohibited transaction for each year (or part thereof) in the taxable period.

(c) Additional tax. Section 4975(b) imposes an excise tax in any case in which an initial tax is imposed under section 4975(a) on a prohibited transaction and the prohibited transaction is not corrected within the taxable period (as defined in paragraph (d) of this section). The additional tax is 100 percent of the amount involved with respect to the prohibited transaction.

(d) Taxable period—(1) In general. For purposes of any prohibited transaction, the term “taxable period” means the period beginning with the date on which the prohibited transaction occurs and ending on the earliest of:

(i) The date of mailing of a notice of deficiency under section 6212 with respect to the tax imposed by section 4975(a);

(ii) The date on which correction of the prohibited transaction is completed; or

(iii) The date on which the tax imposed by section 4975(a) is assessed.

(2) Special rule. Where a notice of deficiency referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section is not mailed because a waiver of the restrictions on assessment and collection of a deficiency has been accepted or because the deficiency is paid, the date of filing of the waiver or the date of such payment, respectively, shall be treated as the end of the taxable period.

[T.D. 8084, 51 FR 16305, May 2, 1986]

§ 54.4975-6 Statutory exemptions for office space or services and certain transactions involving financial institutions.

(a) Exemption for office space or services—(1) In general. Section 4975(d)(2) exempts from the excise taxes imposed by section 4975 payment by a plan to a disqualified person, including a fiduciary, for office space or any service (or a combination of services), if (i) such office space or service is necessary for the establishment or operation of the plan; (ii) such office space or service is furnished under a contract or arrangement which is reasonable; and (iii) no more than reasonable compensation is paid for such office space or service. However, section 4975(d)(2) does not contain an exemption for acts described in section 4975(c)(1)(E) (relating to fiduciaries dealing with the income or assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account) or acts described in section 4975(c)(1)(F) (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan). Such acts are separate transactions not described in section 4975(d)(2). See §§ 54.4975-6(a)(5) and 54.4975-6(a)(6) for guidance as to whether transactions relating to the furnishing of office space or services by fiduciaries to plans involve acts described in section 4975(c)(1)(E).

Section 4975(d)(2) does not contain an exemption from other provisions of the Code, such as section 401, or other provisions of law which may impose requirements or restrictions relating to the transactions which are exempt under section 4975(d)(2). See, for example, the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of section 404 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) (88 Stat. 877). The provisions of section 4975(d)(2) are further limited by the flush language at the end of section 4975(d) (relating to transactions with owner-employees and related persons).

(2) Necessary service. A service is necessary for the establishment or operation of a plan within the meaning of section 4975(d)(2) and § 54.4975-6(a)(1)(i) if the service is appropriate and helpful to the plan obtaining the service in carrying out the purposes for which the plan is established or maintained. A person providing such a service to a plan (or a person who is disqualified person solely by reason of a relationship to such a service provider described in section 4975(e)(2) (F), (G), (H), or (I)) may furnish goods which are necessary for the establishment or operation of the plan in the course of, and incidental to, the furnishing of such service to the plan.

(3) Reasonable contract or arrangement. No contract or arrangement is reasonable within the meaning of section 4975(d)(2) and § 54.4975-6(a)(1)(ii) if it does not permit termination by the plan without penalty to the plan on reasonably short notice under the circumstances to prevent the plan from becoming locked into an arrangement that has become disadvantageous. A long-term lease which may be terminated prior to its expiration (without penalty to the plan) on reasonably short notice under the circumstances is not generally an unreasonable arrangement merely because of its long term. A provision in a contract or other arrangement which reasonably compensates the service provider or lessor for loss upon early termination of the contract, arrangement or lease is not a penalty. For example, a minimal fee in a service contract which is charged to allow recoupment of reasonable start-up costs is not a penalty.

Similarly, a provision in a lease for a termination fee that covers reasonably foreseeable expenses related to the vacancy and reletting of the office space upon early termination of the lease is not a penalty. Such a provision does not reasonably compensate for loss if it provides for payments in excess of actual loss or if it fails to require mitigation of damages.

(4) Reasonable compensation. Section 4975(d)(2) and § 54.4975-6(a)(1)(iii) permit a plan to pay a disqualified person reasonable compensation for the provision of office space or services described in section 4975(d)(2). Paragraph (e) of this section contains regulations relating to what constitutes reasonable compensation for the provision of services.

(5) Transactions with fiduciaries—(i) In general. If the furnishing of office space or a service involves an act described in section 4975(c)(1) (E) or (F) (relating to acts involving conflicts of interest by fiduciaries), such an act constitutes a separate transaction which is not exempt under section 4975(d)(2). The prohibitions of sections 4975(c)(1) (E) and (F) supplement the other prohibitions of section 4975(c)(1) by imposing on disqualified persons who are fiduciaries a duty of undivided loyalty to the plans for which they act. These prohibitions are imposed upon fiduciaries to deter them from exercising the authority, control, or responsibility which makes such persons fiduciaries when they have interests which may conflict with the interests of the plans for which they act. In such cases, the fiduciaries have interests in the transactions which may affect the exercise of their best judgment as fiduciaries. Thus, a fiduciary may not use the authority, control, or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause a plan to pay an additional fee to such fiduciary (or to a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary) to provide a service. Nor may a fiduciary use such authority, control, or responsibility to cause a plan to enter into a transaction involving plan assets whereby such fiduciary (or a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary) will receive consideration from a third party in connection with such transaction.

A person in which a fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary includes, for example, a person who is a disqualified person by reason of a relationship to such fiduciary described in section 4975(e)(2) (E), (F), (G), (H), or (I).

(ii) Transactions not described in section 4975(c)(1)(E). A fiduciary does not engage in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E) if the fiduciary does not use any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause a plan to pay additional fees for a service furnished by such fiduciary or to pay a fee for a service furnished by a person in which such fiduciary has an interest which may affect the exercise of such fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary. This may occur, for example, when one fiduciary is retained on behalf of a plan by a second fiduciary to provide a service for an additional fee. However, because the authority, control or responsibility which makes a person a fiduciary may be exercised “in effect” as well as in form, mere approval of the transaction by a second fiduciary does not mean that the first fiduciary has not used any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes such person a fiduciary to cause the plan to pay the first fiduciary an additional fee for a service.

(iii) Services without compensation. If a fiduciary provides services to a plan without the receipt of compensation or other consideration (other than reimbursement of direct expenses properly and actually incurred in the performance of such services within the meaning of paragraph (e)(4) of this section), the provision of such services does not, in and of itself, constitute an act described in section 4975(c)(1) (E) or (F). The allowance of a deduction to an employer under section 162 or 212 for the expense incurred in furnishing office space or services to a plan established or maintained by such employer does not constitute compensation or other consideration.

(6) Examples. The provisions of § 54.4975-6(a)(5) may be illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.E, an employer whose employees are covered by plan P, is a fiduciary or P. I is a professional investment adviser in which E has no interest which may affect the exercise of E's best judgment as a fiduciary. E causes P to retain I to provide certain kinds of investment advisory services of a type which causes I to be a fiduciary of P under section 4975(e)(3)(B). Thereafter, I proposes to perform for additional fees portfolio evaluation services in addition to the services currently provided. The provision of such services is arranged by I and approved on behalf of the plan by E. I has not engaged in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E), because I did not use any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes I a fiduciary (the provision of investment advisory services) to cause the plan to pay I additional fees for the provision of the portfolio evaluation services. E has not engaged in an act which is described in section 4975(c)(1)(E). E, as the fiduciary who has the responsibility to be prudent in his selection and retention of I and the other investments advisers of the plan, has an interest in the purchase by the plan of portfolio evaluation services. However, such an interest is not an interest which may affect the exercise of E's best judgment as a fiduciary.

Example 2.D, a trustee of plan P with discretion over the management and disposition of plan assets, relies on the advice of C, a consultant to P, as to the investment of plan assets, thereby making C a fiduciary of the plan. On January 1, 1978, C recommends to D that the plan purchase an insurance policy from U, an insurance company which is not a disqualified person with respect to P. C thoroughly explains the reasons for the recommendation and makes a full disclosure concerning the fact that C will receive a commission from U upon the purchase of the policy by P. D considers the recommendation and approves the purchase of the policy by P. C receives a commission. Under such circumstances, C has engaged in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E) (as well as section 4975(c)(1)(F), because C is in fact exercising the authority, control or responsibility which makes C a fiduciary to cause the plan to purchase the policy. However, the transaction is exempt from the prohibited transaction provisions of section 4975(c)(1) if the requirements of Prohibited Transaction Exemption 77-9 are met.

Example 3.Assume the same facts as in Example (2) except that the nature of C's relationship with the plan is not such that C is a fiduciary of P. The purchase of the insurance policy does not involve an act described in section 4975(c)(1) (E) or (F), because such sections only apply to acts by fiduciaries.

Example 4.E, an employer whose employees are covered by plan P, is a fiduciary with respect to P. A, who is not a disqualified person with respect to P, persuades E that the plan needs the services of a professional investment adviser and that A should be hired to provide the investment advice. Accordingly, E causes P to hire A to provide investment advice of the type which makes A a fiduciary under § 54.4975-9(c)(1)(ii)(B). Prior to the expiration of A's first contract with P, A persuades E to cause P to renew A's contract with P to provide the same services for additional fees in view of the increased costs in providing such services. During the period of A's second contract, A provides additional investment advice services for which no additional charge is made. Prior to the expiration of A's second contract, A persuades E to cause P to renew his contract for additional fees in view of the additional services A is providing. A has not engaged in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E), because A has not used any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes A a fiduciary (the provision of investment advice) to cause the plan to pay additional fees for A's services.

Example 5.F, a trustee of plan P with discretion over the management and disposition of plan assets, retains C to provide administrative services to P of the type which makes C a fiduciary under section 4975(e)(3)(C). Thereafter, C retains F to provide, for additional fees, actuarial and various kinds of administrative services in addition to the services F is currently providing to P. Both F and C have engaged in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E). F, regardless of any intent which he may have had at the time he retained C, has engaged in such an act because F has, in effect, exercised the authority, control or responsibility which makes F a fiduciary to cause the plan to pay F additional fees for the services. C, whose continued employment by P depends on F, has also engaged in such an act, because C has an interest in the transaction which might affect the exercise of C's best judgment as a fiduciary. As a result, C has dealt with plan assets in his own interest under section 4975(c)(1)(E).

Example 6.F, a fiduciary of plan P with discretionary authority respecting the management of P, retains S, the son of F, to provide for a fee various kinds of administrative services necessary for the operation of the plan. F has engaged in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E), because S is a person in whom F has an interest which may affect the exercise of F's best judgment as a fiduciary. Such act is not exempt under section 4975(d)(2) irrespective of whether the provision of the services by S is exempt.

Example 7.T, one of the trustees of plan P, is president of bank B. The bank proposes to provide administrative services to P for a fee. T physically absents himself from all consideration of B's proposal and does not otherwise exercise any of the authority, control or responsibility which makes T a fiduciary to cause the plan to retain B. The other trustees decide to retain B. T has not engaged in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E). Further, the other trustees have not engaged in an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E) merely because T is on the board of trustees of P. This fact alone would not make them have an interest in the transaction which might affect the exercise of their best judgment as fiduciaries.

(b) Exemption for bank deposits—(1) In general. Section 4975(d)(4) exempts from the excise taxes imposed by section 4975 investment of all or a part of a plan's assets in deposits bearing a reasonable rate of interest in a bank or similar financial institution supervised by the United States or a State, even though such bank or similar financial institution is a fiduciary or other disqualified person with respect to the plan, if the conditions of either § 54.4975-6(b)(2) or § 54.4975-6(b)(3) are met. Section 4975(d)(4) provides an exemption from section 4975(c)(1)(E) relating to fiduciaries dealing with the income or assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account), as well as sections 4975(c)(1) (A) through (D), because section 4975(d)(4) contemplates a bank or similar financial institution causing a plan for which it acts as a fiduciary to invest plan assets in its own deposits if the requirements of section 4975(d)(4) are met. However, it does not provide an exemption from section 4975(c)(1)(F) (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan). The receipt of such consideration is a separate transaction not described in the exemption. Section 4975(d)(4) does not contain an exemption from other provisions of the Code, such as section 401, or other provisions of law which may impose requirements or restrictions relating to the transactions which are exempt under section 4975(d)(4). See, for example, the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of section 404 of the Act. The provisions of section 4975(d)(4) are further limited by the flush language at the end of section 4975(d) (relating to transactions with owner-employees and related persons).

(2) Plan covering own employees. Such investment may be made if the plan is one which covers only the employees of the bank or similar financial institution, the employees of any of its affiliates, or the employees of both.

(3) Other plans—(i) General rule. Such investment may be made if the investment is expressly authorized by a provision of the plan or trust instrument or if the investment is expressly authorized (or made) by a fiduciary of the plan (other than the bank or similar financial institution or any of its affiliates) who has authority to make such investments, or to instruct the trustee or other fiduciary with respect to investments, and who has no interest in the transaction which may affect the exercise of such authorizing fiduciary's best judgment as a fiduciary so as to cause such authorization to constitute an act described in section 4975(c)(1) (E) or (F). Any authorization to make investments contained in a plan or trust instrument will satisfy the requirement of express authorization for investments made prior to November 1, 1977.

Effective November 1, 1977, in the case of a bank or similar financial institution that invests plan assets in deposits in itself or its affiliates under an authorization contained in a plan or trust instrument, such authorization must name such bank or similar financial institution and must state that such bank or similar financial institution may make investments in deposits which bear a reasonable rate of interest in itself (or in an affiliate.)

(ii) Example. B, a bank, is the trustee of plan P's assets. The trust instruments give the trustee the right to invest plan assets in its discretion. B invests in the certificates of deposit of bank C, which is a fiduciary of the plan by virtue of performing certain custodial and administrative services. The authorization is sufficient for the plan to make such investment under section 4975(d)(4). Further, such authorization would suffice to allow B to make investments in deposits in itself prior to November 1, 1977. However, subsequent to October 31, 1977, B may not invest in deposits in itself, unless the plan or trust instrument specifically authorizes it to invest in deposits of B.

(4) Definitions. (i) The term “bank or similar financial institution” includes a bank (as defined in section 581), a domestic building and loan association (as defined in section 7701(a)(19)), and a credit union (as defined in section 101 (6) of the Federal Credit Union Act).

(ii) A person is an affiliate of a bank or similar financial institution if such person and such bank or similar financial institution would be treated as members of the same controlled group of corporations or as members of two or more trades or businesses under common control within the meaning of section 414 (b) or (c) and the regulations thereunder.

(iii) The term “deposits” includes any account, temporary or otherwise, upon which a reasonable rate of interest is paid, including a certificate of deposit issued by a bank or similar financial institution.

(c) Exemption for ancillary bank services—(1) In general. Section 4975(d)(6) exempts from the excise taxes imposed by section 4975 the provision of certain ancillary services by a bank or similar financial institution (as defined in § 54.4975-6(b)(4)(i)) supervised by the United States or a State to a plan for which it acts as a fiduciary if the conditions in § 54.4975-6(c)(2) are met. Such ancillary services include services which do not meet the requirements of section 4975(d)(2), because the provision of such services involves an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(E) (relating to fiduciaries dealing with the income or assets of plans in their own interest or for their own account) by the fiduciary bank or similar financial institution. Section 4975(d)(6) provides an exemption from section 4975(c)(1)(E), because section 4975 (d)(6) contemplates the provision of such ancillary services without the approval of a second fiduciary (as described in § 54.4975-6(a)(5)(ii)) if the conditions of § 54.4975-6(c)(2) are met. Thus, for example, plan assets held by a fiduciary bank which are reasonably expected to be needed to satisfy current plan expenses may be placed by the bank in a non-interest-bearing checking account in the bank if the conditions of § 54.4975-6(c)(2) are met, notwithstanding the provisions of section 4975(d)(4) (relating to investments in bank deposits). However, section 4975(d)(6) does not provide an exemption for an act described in section 4975(c)(1)(F) (relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan). The receipt of such consideration is a separate transaction not described in section 4975(d)(6).

Section 4975(d)(6) does not contain an exemption from other provisions of the Code, such as section 401, or other provisions of law which may impose requirements or restrictions relating to the transactions which are exempt under section 4975(d)(6). See, for example, the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of section 404 of the Act. The provisions of section 4975(d)(6) are further limited by the flush language at the end of section 4975(d) (relating to transactions with owner-employees and related persons).

(2) Conditions. Such service must be provided:

(i) At not more than reasonable compensation;

(ii) Under adequate internal safeguards which assure that the provision of such service is consistent with sound banking and financial practice, as determined by Federal or State supervisory authority; and

(iii) Only to the extent that such service is subject to specific guidelines issued by the bank or similar financial institution which meet the requirements of § 54.4975-6(c)(3).

(3) Specific guidelines. [Reserved]

(d) Exemption for services as a fiduciary. [Reserved]

(e) Compensation for services—(1) In general. Section 4975(d)(2) refers to the payment of reasonable compensation by a plan to a disqualified person for services rendered to the plan. Section 4975(d)(10) and §§ 54.4975-6(e)(2) through 54.4975-6(e)(5) clarify what constitutes reasonable compensation for such services.

(2) General rule. Generally, whether compensation is “reasonable” under sections 4975(d) (2) and (10) depends on the particular facts and circumstances of each case.

(3) Payments to certain fiduciaries. Under sections 4975(d) (2) and (10), the term “reasonable compensation” does not include any compensation to a fiduciary who is already receiving full-time pay from an employer or association of employers (any of whose employees are participants in the plan) or from an employee organization (any of whose members are participants in the plan), except for the reimbursement of direct expenses properly and actually incurred and not otherwise reimbursed. The restrictions of this paragraph (e)(3) do not apply to a disqualified person who is not a fiduciary.

(4) Certain expenses not direct expenses. An expense is not a direct expense to the extent it would have been sustained had the service not been provided or if it represents an allocable portion of overhead costs.

(5) Expense advances. Under sections 4975(d) (2) and (10), the term “reasonable compensation”, as applied to a fiduciary or an employee of a plan, includes an advance to such a fiduciary or employee by the plan to cover direct expenses to be properly and actually incurred by such person in the performance of such person's duties with the plan if:

(i) The amount of such advance is reasonable with respect to the amount of the direct expense which is likely to be properly and actually incurred in the immediate future (such as during the next month); and

(ii) The fiduciary or employee accounts to the plan at the end of the period covered by the advance for the expenses properly and actually incurred.

(6) Excessive compensation. Under sections 4975(d) (2) and (10), any compensation which would be considered excessive under § 1.162-7 (relating to compensation for personal services which constitutes an ordinary and necessary trade or business expense) will not be “reasonable compensation”. Depending upon the facts and circumstances of the particular situation, compensation which is not excessive under § 1.162-7 may, nevertheless, not be “reasonable compensation” within the meaning of sections 4975(d) (2) and (10).

[T.D. 7491, 42 FR 32385, June 24, 1977; 42 FR 37810, July 25, 1977; 43 FR 4604, Feb. 3, 1978]

§ 54.4975-7 Other statutory exemptions.

(a) [Reserved]

(b) Loans to employee stock ownership plans—(1) Definitions. When used in this paragraph (b) and § 54.4975-11, the terms listed below have the following meanings:

(i) ESOP. The term “ESOP” refers to an employee stock ownership plan that meets the requirements of section 4975(e)(7) and § 54.4975-11. It is not synonymous with “stock bonus plan.” A stock bonus plan must, however, be an ESOP to engage in an exempt loan. The qualification of an ESOP under section 401(a) and § 54.4975-11 will not be adversely affected merely because it engages in a non-exempt loan.

(ii) Loan. The term “loan” refers to a loan made to an ESOP by a disqualified person or a loan to an ESOP which is guaranteed by a disqualified person. It includes a direct loan of cash, a purchase-money transaction, and an assumption of the obligation of an ESOP, “Guarantee” includes an unsecured guarantee and the use of assets of a disqualified person as collateral for a loan, even though the use of assets may not be a guarantee under applicable state law. An amendment of a loan in order to qualify as an exempt loan is not a refinancing of the loan or the making of another loan.

(iii) Exempt loan. The term “exempt loan” refers to a loan that satisfies the provisions of this paragraph (b). A “nonexempt loan” is one that fails to satisfy such provisions.

(iv) Publicly traded. The term “publicly traded” refers to a security that is listed on a national securities exchange registered under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) or that is quoted on a system sponsored by a national securities association registered under section 15A(b) of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o).

(v) Qualifying employer security. The term “qualifying employer security” refers to a security described in § 54.4975-12.

(2) Statutory exemption—(i) Scope. Section 4975(d)(3) provides an exemption from the excise tax imposed under section 4975 (a) and (b) by reason of section 4975(c)(1) (A) through (E). Section 4975(d)(3) does not provide an exemption from the imposition of such tax by reason of section 4975(c)(1)(F), relating to fiduciaries receiving consideration for their own personal account from any party dealing with a plan in connection with a transaction involving the income or assets of the plan.

(ii) Special scrutiny of transaction. The exemption under section 4975(d)(3) includes within its scope certain transaction in which the potential for self-dealing by fiduciaries exists and in which the interests of fiduciaries may conflict with the interests of participants. To guard against those potential abuses, the Internal Revenue Service will subject these transactions to special scrutiny to ensure that they are primarily for the benefit of participants and their beneficiaries. Although the transactions need not be arranged and approved by an independent fiduciary, fiduciaries are cautioned to exercise scrupulously their discretion in approving them. For example, fiduciaries should be prepared to demonstrate compliance with the net effect test and the arm's-length standard under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section. Also, fiduciaries should determine that the transaction is truly arranged primarily in the interest of participants and their beneficiaries rather than, for example, in the interest of certain selling shareholders.

(3) Primary benefit requirement—(i) In general. An exempt loan must be primarily for the benefit of the ESOP participants and their beneficiaries. All the surrounding facts and circumstances, including those described in paragraph (b) (3) (ii) and (iii) of this section, will be considered in determining whether the loan satisfies this requirement. However, no loan will satisfy the requirement unless it satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) (4), (5), and (6) of this section.

(ii) Net effect on plan assets. At the time that a loan is made, the interest rate for the loan and the price of securities to be acquired with the loan proceeds should not be such that plan assets might be drained off.

(iii) Arm's-length standard. The terms of a loan, whether or not between independent parties, must, at the same time the loan is made, be at least as favorable to the ESOP as the terms of a comparable loan resulting from arm's-length negotiations between independent parties.

(4) Use of loan proceeds. The proceeds of an exempt loan must be used within a reasonable time after their receipt by the borrowing ESOP only for any or all of the following purposes:

(i) To acquire qualifying employer securities.

(ii) To repay such loan.

(iii) To repay a prior exempt loan. A new loan, the proceeds of which are so used, must satisfy the provisions of this paragraph (b).

Except as provided in paragraph (b) (9) and (10) of this section or as otherwise required by applicable law, no security acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan may be subject to a put, call, or other option, or buy-sell or similar arrangement while held by and when distributed from a plan, whether or not the plan is then an ESOP.

(5) Liability and collateral of ESOP for loan. An exempt loan must be without recourse against the ESOP. Furthermore, the only assets of the ESOP that may be given as collateral on an exempt loan are qualifying employer securities of two classes: those acquired with the proceeds of the loan and those that were used as collateral on a prior exempt loan repaid with the proceeds of the current exempt loan. No person entitled to payment under the exempt loan shall have any right to assets of the ESOP other than:

(i) Collateral given for the loan,

(ii) Contributions (other than contributions of employers securities) that are made under an ESOP to meet its obligations under the loan, and

(iii) Earnings attributable to such collateral and the investment of such contributions.

The payments made with respect to an exempt loan by the ESOP during a plan year must not exceed an amount equal to the sum of such contributions and earnings received during or prior to the year less such payments in prior years. Such contributions and earnings must be accounted for separately in the books of account of the ESOP until the loan is repaid.

(6) Default. In the event of default upon an exempt loan, the value of plan assets transferred in satisfaction of the loan must not exceed the amount of default. If the lender is a disqualified person, a loan must provide for a transfer of plan assets upon default only upon and to the extent of the failure of the plan to meet the payment schedule of the loan. For purposes of this subparagraph (6), the making of a guarantee does not make a person a lender.

(7) Reasonable rate of interest. The interest rate of a loan must not be in excess of a reasonable rate of interest. All relevant factors will be considered in determining a reasonable rate of interest, including the amount and duration of the loan, the security and guarantee (if any) involved, the credit standing of the ESOP and the guarantor (if any), and the interest rate prevailing for comparable loans. When these factors are considered, a variable interest rate may be reasonable.

(8) Release from encumbrance—(i) General rule. In general, an exempt loan must provide for the release from encumbrance under this subdivision (i) of plan assets used as collateral for the loan. For each plan year during the duration of the loan, the number of securities released must equal the number of encumbered securities held immediately before release for the current plan year multiplied by a fraction. The numerator of the fraction is the amount of principal and interest paid for the year. The denominator of the fraction is the sum of the numerator plus the principal and interest to be paid for all future years. See § 54.4975-7(b) (8) (iv). The number of future years under the loan must be definitely ascertainable and must be determined without taking into account any possible extensions or renewal periods. If the interest rate under the loan is variable, the interest to be paid in future years must be computed by using the interest rate applicable as of the end of the plan year. If collateral includes more than one class of securities, the number of securities of each class to be released for a plan year must be determined by applying the same fraction to each class.

(ii) Special rule. A loan will not fail to be exempt merely because the number of securities to be released from encumbrance is determined solely with reference to principal payments. However, if release is determined with reference to principal payments only, the following three additional rules apply. The first rule is that the loan must provide for annual payments of principal and interest at a cumulative rate that is not less rapid at any time than level annual payments of such amounts for 10 years. The second rule is that interest included in any payment is disregarded only to the extent that it would be determined to be interest under standard loan amoritization tables. The third rule is that this subdivision, (ii) is not applicable from the time that, by reason of a renewal, extension, or refinancing, the sum of the expired duration of the exempt loan, the renewal period, the extension period, and the duration of a new exempt loan exceeds 10 years.

(iii) Caution against plan disqualification. Under an exempt loan, the number of securities released from encumbrance may vary from year to year. The release of securities depends upon certain employer contributions and earnings under the ESOP. Under § 54.4975-11(d)(2) actual allocations to participants' accounts are based upon assets withdrawn from the suspense account. Nevertheless, for purposes of applying the limitations under section 415 to these allocations, under § 54.4975-11(a)(8)(ii) contributions used by the ESOP to pay the loan are treated as annual additions to participants' accounts. Therefore, particular caution must be exercised to avoid exceeding the maximum annual additions under section 415. At the same time, release from encumbrance in annual varying numbers may reflect a failure on the part of the employer to make substantial and recurring contributions to the ESOP which will lead to loss of qualification under section 401(a). The Internal Revenue Service will observe closely the operation of ESOP's that release encumbered securities in varying annual amounts, particularly those that provide for the deferral of loan payments or for balloon payments.

(iv) Illustration. The general rule under paragraph (b)(8)(i) of this section operates as illustrated in the following example:

Example.Corporation X establishes an ESOP that borrows $750,000 from a bank. X guarantees the loan, which is for 15 years at 5% interest and is payable in level annual amounts of $72,256.72. Total payments on the loan are $1,083,850.80. The ESOP uses the entire loan proceeds to acquire 15,000 shares of X stock which is used as collateral for the loan. The number of securities to be released for the first year is 1,000 shares, i.e., 15,000 shares × $72,256.72/$1,083,850.80 = 15,000 shares × 1/15. The number of securities to be released for the second year is 1,000 shares, i.e., 14,000 shares × $72,256.72/$1,011,594.08 = 14,000 shares × 1/14. If all loan payments are made as originally scheduled, the number of securities released in each succeeding year of the loan will also be 1,000.

(9) Right of first refusal. Qualifying employer securities acquired with proceeds of an exempt loan may, but need not, be subject to a right of first refusal. However, any such right must meet the requirements of this subparagraph (9). Securities subject to such right must be stock or an equity security, or a debt security convertible into stock or an equity security. Also, the securities must not be publicly traded at the time the right may be exercised. The right of first refusal must be in favor of the employer, the ESOP, or both in any order of priority. The selling price and other terms under the right must not be less favorable to the seller than the greater of the value of the security determined under § 54.4975-11(d)(5), or the purchase price and other terms offered by a buyer, other than the employer or the ESOP, making a good faith offer to purchase the security. The right of first refusal must lapse no later than 14 days after the security holder gives written notice to the holder of the right that an offer by a third party to purchase the security has been received.

(10) Put option. A qualifying employer security acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan by an ESOP after September 30, 1976, must be subject to a put option if it is not publicly traded when distributed or if it is subject to a trading limitation when distributed. For purposes of subparagraph (10), a “trading limitation” on a security is a restriction under any Federal or state securities law, any regulation thereunder, or an agreement, not prohibited by this paragraph (b), affecting the security which would make the security not as freely tradable as one not subject to such restriction. The put option must be exercisable only by a participant, by the participant's donees, or by a person (including an estate or its distributee) to whom the security passes by reason of a participant's death. (Under this subparagraph (10), participant means a participant and beneficiaries of the participant under the ESOP.) The put option must permit a participant to put the security to the employer. Under no circumstances may the put option bind the ESOP. However, it may grant the ESOP an option to assume the rights and obligations of the employer at the time that the put option is exercised. If it is known at the time a loan is made that Federal or state law will be violated by the employer's honoring such put option, the put option must permit the security to be put, in a manner consistent with such law, to a third party (e.g., an affiliate of the employer or a shareholder other than the ESOP) that has substantial net worth at the time the loan is made and whose net worth is reasonably expected to remain substantial.

(11) Duration of put option—(i) General rule. A put option must be exercisable at least during a 15-month period which begins on the date the security subject to the put option is distributed by the ESOP.

(ii) Special rule. In the case of a security that is publicly traded without restriction when distributed but ceases to be so traded within 15 months after distribution, the employer must notify each security holder in writing on or before the tenth day after the date the security ceases to be so traded that for the remainder of the 15-month period the security is subject to a put option. The number of days between such tenth day and the date on which notice is actually given, if later than the tenth day, must be added to the duration of the put option. The notice must inform distributees of the terms of the put options that they are to hold. Such terms must satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b) (10) through (12) of this section.

(12) Other put option provisions—(i) Manner of exercise. A put option is exercised by the holder notifying the employer in writing that the put option is being exercised.

(ii) Time excluded from duration of put option. The period during which a put option is exercisable does not include any time when a distributee is unable to exercise it because the party bound by the put option is prohibited from honoring it by applicable Federal or state law.

(iii) Price. The price at which a put option must be exercisable is the value of the security, determined under § 54.4975-11(d)(5).

(iv) Payment terms. The provisions for payment under a put option must be reasonable. The deferral of payment is reasonable if adequate security and a reasonable interest rate are provided for any credit extended and if the cumulative payments at any time are no less than the aggregate of reasonable periodic payments as of such time. Periodic payments are reasonable if annual installments, beginning with 30 days after the date the put option is exercised, are substantially equal. Generally, the payment period may not end more than 5 years after the date the put option is exercised. However, it may be extended to a date no later than the earlier of 10 years from the date the put option is exercised or the date the proceeds of the loan used by the ESOP to acquire the security subject to the put option are entirely repaid.

(v) Payment restrictions. Payment under a put option may be restricted by the terms of a loan, including one used to acquire a security subject to a put option made before November 1, 1977. Otherwise, payment under a put option must not be restricted by the provisions of a loan or any other arrangement, including the terms of the employer's articles of incorporation, unless so required by applicable state law.

(13) Other terms of loan. An exempt loan must be for a specific term. Such loan may not be payable at the demand of any person, except in the case of default.

(14) Status of plan as ESOP. To be exempt, a loan must be made to a plan that is an ESOP at the time of such loan. However, a loan to a plan formally designated as an ESOP at the time of the loan that fails to be an ESOP because it does not comply with section 401(a) of the Code or § 54.4975-11 will be exempt as of the time of such loan if the plan is amended retroactively under section 401(b) or § 54.4975-11(a)(4).

(15) Special rules for certain loans—(i) Loans made before January 1, 1976. A loan made before January 1, 1976, or made afterwards under a binding agreement in effect on January 1, 1976 (or under renewals permitted by the terms of the agreement on that date) is exempt for the entire period of the loan if it otherwise satisfies the provisions of this paragraph (b) for such period, even though it does not satisfy the following provisions of this section: the last sentence of paragraph (b) (4) and all of paragraph (b) (5), (6), (8) (i) and (ii), and (9) through (13), inclusive.

(ii) Loans made after December 31, 1975, but before November 1, 1977. A loan made after December 31, 1975, but before November 1, 1977 or made afterwards under a binding agreement in effect on November 1, 1977 (or under renewals permitted by the terms of the agreement on that date) is exempt for the entire period of the loan if it otherwise satisfies the provisions of this paragraph (b) for such period even though it does not satisfy the following provisions of this section: paragraph (b) (6) and (9) and the three additional rules listed in paragraph (b) (8) (ii).

(iii) Release rule. Notwithstanding paragraph (b) (15) (i) and (ii) of this section, if the proceeds of a loan are used to acquire securities after November 1, 1977, the loan must comply by such date with the provisions of paragraph (b) (8) of this section.

(iv) Default rule. Notwithstanding paragraph (b) (15) (i) and (ii) of this section, a loan by a disqualified person other than a guarantor must meet the requirements of paragraph (b) (6) of this section. A loan will meet these requirements if it is retroactively amended before November 1, 1977 to meet these requirements.

(v) Put option rule. With respect to a security distributed before November 1, 1977, the put option provisions of paragraph (b) (10), (11), and (12) of this section will be deemed satisfied as of the date the security is distributed if by December 31, 1977, the security is subject to a put option satisfying such provisions, the security is subject to a put option satisfying such provisions. For purposes of satisfying such provisions, the security will be deemed distributed on the date the put option is issued. However, the put option provisions need not be satisfied with respect to a security that is not owned on November 1, 1977, by a person in whose hands a put option must be exercisable.

(Sec. 4975 (e) (7), (88 Stat. 976; 26 U.S.C. 4975 (e) (7)))

[T.D. 7506, 42 FR 44391, Sept. 2, 1977]

§ 54.4975-9 Definition of “fiduciary”.

(a)-(b) [Reserved]

(c) Investment advice. (1) A person shall be deemed to be rendering “investment advice” to an employee benefit plan, within the meaning of section 4975(e)(3)(B) and this paragraph, only if:

(i) Such person renders advice to the plan as to the value of securities or other property, or makes recommendations as to the advisability of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities or other property; and

(ii) Such person either directly or indirectly (e.g., through or together with any affiliate):

(A) Has discretionary authority or control, whether or not pursuant to agreement, arrangement or understanding, with respect to purchasing or selling securities or other property for the plan; or

(B) Renders any advice described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section on a regular basis to the plan pursuant to a mutual agreement, arrangement or understanding, written or otherwise, between such person and the plan or a fiduciary with respect to the plan, that such services will serve as a primary basis for investment decisions with respect to plan assets, and that such person will render individualized investment advice to the plan based on the particular needs of the plan regarding such matters as, among other things, investment policies or strategy, overall portfolio composition, or diversification of plan investments.

(2) A person who is a fiduciary with respect to a plan by reason of rendering investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan, or having any authority or responsibility to do so, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary regarding any assets of the plan with respect to which such person does not have any discretionary authority, discretionary control or discretionary responsibility, does not exercise any authority or control, does not render investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, and does not have any authority or responsibility to render such investment advice, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed to:

(i) Exempt such person from the provisions of section 405(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 concerning liability for fiduciary breaches by other fiduciaries with respect to any assets of the plan; or

(ii) Exclude such person from the definition of the term disqualified person (as set forth in section 4975(e)(2)) with respect to any assets of the plan.

(d) Execution of securities transactions. (1) A person who is a broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, a reporting dealer who makes primary markets in securities of the United States Government or of an agency of the United States Government and reports daily to the Federal Reserve Bank of New York its positions with respect to such securities and borrowings thereon, or a bank supervised by the United States or a State, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary, within the meaning of section 4975(e)(3), with respect to an employee benefit plan solely because such person executes transactions for the purchase or sale of securities on behalf of such plan in the ordinary course of its business as a broker, dealer, or bank, pursuant to instructions of a fiduciary with respect to such plan, if:

(i) Neither the fiduciary nor any affiliate of such fiduciary is such broker, dealer, or bank; and

(ii) The instructions specify (A) the security to be purchased or sold, (B) a price range within which such security is to be purchased or sold, or, if such security is issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1, et seq.), a price which is determined in accordance with Rule 22c-1 under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (17 CFR 270.22c-1), (C) a time span during which such security may be purchased or sold (not to exceed five business days), and (D) the minimum or maximum quantity of such security which may be purchased or sold within such price range, or, in the case of security issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the minimum or maximum quantity of such security which may be purchased or sold, or the value of such security in dollar amount which may be purchased or sold, at the price referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.

(2) A person who is a broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank which is a fiduciary with respect to an employee benefit plan solely by reason of the possession or exercise of discretionary authority or discretionary control in the management of the plan or the management or disposition of plan assets in connection with the execution of a transaction or transactions for the purchase or sale of securities on behalf of such plan which fails to comply with the provisions of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, shall not be deemed to be a fiduciary regarding any assets of the plan with respect to which such broker-dealer, reporting dealer or bank does not have any discretionary authority, discretionary control or discretionary responsibility, does not exercise any authority or control, does not render investment advice (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for a fee or other compensation, and does not have any authority or responsibility to render such investment advice, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed to:

(i) Exempt such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank from the provisions of section 405(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 concerning liability for fiduciary breaches by other fiduciaries with respect to any assets of the plan; or

(ii) Exclude such broker-dealer, reporting dealer, or bank from the definition of the term disqualified person (as set forth in section 4975(e)(2)) with respect to any assets of the plan.

(e) Affiliate and control. (1) For purposes of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, an “affiliate” of a person shall include:

(i) Any person directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such person;

(ii) Any officer, director, partner, employee or relative (as defined in section 4975(e)(6)) of such person; and

(iii) Any corporation or partnership of which such person is an officer, director or partner.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph, the term control means the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other than an individual.

[T.D. 7386, 40 FR 50841, Oct. 31, 1975]

§ 54.4975-11 “ESOP” requirements.

(a) In general—(1) Type of plan. To be an “ESOP” (employee stock ownership plan), a plan described in section 4975(e)(7)(A) must meet the requirements of this section. See section 4975(e)(7)(B).

(2) Designation as ESOP. To be an ESOP, a plan must be formally designated as such in the plan document.

(3) Continuing loan provisions under plan—(i) Creation of protections and rights. The terms of an ESOP must formally provide participants with certain protections and rights with respect to plan assets acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan. These protections and rights are those referred to in the third sentence of § 54.4975-7(b)(4), relating to put, call, or other options and to buy-sell or similar arrangements, and in § 54.4975-7(b) (10), (11), and (12), relating to put options.

(ii) “Nonterminable” protections and rights. The terms of an ESOP must also formally provide that these protections and rights are nonterminable. Thus, if a plan holds or has distributed securities acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan and either the loan is repaid or the plan ceases to be an ESOP, these protections and rights must continue to exist under the terms of the plan. However, the protections and rights will not fail to be nonterminable merely because they are not exercisable under § 54.4975-7(b) (11) and (12)(ii). For example, if, after a plan ceases to be an ESOP, securities acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan cease to be publicly traded, the 15-month period prescribed by § 54.4975-7(b)(11) includes the time when the securities are publicly traded.

(iii) No incorporation by reference of protections and rights. The formal requirements of paragraph (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section must be set forth in the plan. Mere reference to the third sentence of § 54.4975-7(b)(4) and to the provisions of § 54.4975-7(b) (10), (11), and (12) is not sufficient.

(iv) Certain remedial amendments. Notwithstanding the limits under paragraph (a) (4) and (10) of this section on the retroactive effect of plan amendments, a remedial plan amendment adopted before December 31, 1979, to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section is retroactively effective as of the later of the date on which the plan was designated as an ESOP or November 1, 1977.

(4) Retroactive amendment. A plan meets the requirements of this section as of the date that it is designated as an ESOP if it is amended retroactively to meet, and in fact does meet, such requirements at any of the following times:

(i) 12 months after the date on which the plan is designated as an ESOP;

(ii) 90 days after a determination letter is issued with respect to the qualification of the plan as an ESOP under this section, but only if the determination is requested by the time in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section; or

(iii) A later date approved by the district director.

(5) Addition to other plan. An ESOP may form a portion of a plan the balance of which includes a qualified pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan which is not an ESOP. A reference to an ESOP includes an ESOP that forms a portion of another plan.

(6) Conversion of existing plan to an ESOP. If an existing pension, profit-sharing, or stock bonus plan is converted into an ESOP, the requirements of section 404 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) (88 Stat. 877), relating to fiduciary duties, and section 401(a) of the Code, relating to requirements for plans established for the exclusive benefit of employees, applying to such conversion. A conversion may constitute a termination of an existing plan. For definition of a termination, see the regulations under section 411(d)(3) of the Code and section 4041(f) of ERISA.

(7) Certain arrangements barred—(i) Buy-sell agreements. An arrangement involving an ESOP that creates a put option must not provide for the issuance of put options other than as provided under § 54.4975-7(b) (10), (11) and (12). Also, an ESOP must not otherwise obligate itself to acquire securities from a particular security holder at an indefinite time determined upon the happening of an event such as the death of the holder.

(ii) Integrated plans. A plan designated as an ESOP after November 1, 1977, must not be integrated directly or indirectly with contributions or benefits under title II of the Social Security Act or any other State or Federal law. ESOP's established and integrated before such date may remain integrated. However, such plans must not be amended to increase the integration level or the integration percentage. Such plans may in operation continue to increase the level of integration if under the plan such increase is limited by reference to a criterion existing apart from the plan.

(8) Effect of certain ESOP provisions on section 401(a) status—(i) Exempt loan requirements. An ESOP will not fail to meet the requirements of section 401(a)(2) merely because it gives plan assets as collateral for an exempt loan under § 54.4975-7(b)(5) or uses plan assets under § 54.4975-7(b)(6) to repay and exempt loan in the event of default.

(ii) Individual annual contribution limitation. An ESOP will not fail to meet the requirements of section 401(a)(16) merely because annual additions under section 415(c) are calculated with respect to employer contributions used to repay an exempt loan rather than with respect to securities allocated to participants.

(iii) Income pass-through. An ESOP will not fail to meet the requirements of section 401(a) merely because it provides for the current payment of income under paragraph (f)(3) of this section.

(9) Transitional rules for ESOP's established before November 1, 1977. A plan established before November 1, 1977 that otherwise satisfies the provisions of this section constitutes an ESOP if it is amended by December 31, 1977, to comply from November 1, 1977 with this section even though before November 1, 1977 the plan did not satisfy paragraphs (c) and (d) (2), (4), and (5) of this section.

(10) Additional transitional rules. Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(9) of this section, a plan established before November 1, 1977, that otherwise satisfies the provisions of this section constitutes an ESOP if by December 31, 1977, it is amended to comply from November 1, 1977, with this section even though before such date the plan did not satisfy the following provisions of this section:

(i) Paragraph (a) (3) and (8) (iii);

(ii) The last sentence of paragraph (d)(3); and

(iii) Paragraph (f)(3).

(b) Plan designed to invest primarily in qualifying employer securities. A plan constitutes an ESOP only if the plan specifically states that it is designed to invest primarily in qualifying employer securities. Thus, a stock bonus plan or a money purchase pension plan constituting an ESOP may invest part of its assets in other than qualifying employer securities. Such plan will be treated the same as other stock bonus plans or money purchase pension plans qualified under section 401a with respect to those investments.

(c) Suspense account. All assets acquired by an ESOP with the proceeds of an exempt loan under section 4975(d)(3) must be added to and maintained in a suspense account. They are to be withdrawn from the suspense account by applying § 54.4975-7(b) (8) and (15) as if all securities in the suspense account were encumbered. Such assets acquired before November 1, 1977, must be withdrawn by applying § 54.4975-7(b)(8) or the provision of the loan that controls release from encumbrance. Assets in such suspense accounts are assets of the ESOP. Thus, for example, such assets are subject to section 401(a)(2).

(d) Allocations to accounts of participants—(1) In general. Except as provided in this section, amounts contributed to an ESOP must be allocated as provided under § 1.401-1(b)(ii) and (iii) of this chapter, and securities acquired by an ESOP must be accounted for as provided under § 1.402(a)-1(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter.

(2) Assets withdrawn from suspense account. As of the end of each plan year, the ESOP must consistently allocate to the participants' accounts non-monetary units representing participants' interests in assets withdrawn from the suspense account.

(3) Income. Income with respect to securities acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan must be allocated as income of the plan except to the extent that the ESOP provides for the use of income from such securities to repay the loan. Certain income may be distributed currently under paragraph (f)(3) of this section.

(4) Forfeitures. If a portion of a participant's account is forfeited, qualifying employer securities allocated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section must be forfeited only after other assets. If interests in more than one class of qualifying employer securities have been allocated to the participant's account, the participant must be treated as forfeiting the same proportion of each such class.

(5) Valuation. For purposes of § 54.4975-7(b) (9) and (12) and this section, valuations must be made in good faith and based on all relevant factors for determining the fair market value of securities. In the case of a transaction between a plan and a disqualified person, value must be determined as of the date of the transaction. For all other purposes under this subparagraph (5), value must be determined as of the most recent valuation date under the plan. An independent appraisal will not in itself be a good faith determination of value in the case of a transaction between a plan and a disqualified person. However, in other cases, a determination of fair market value based on at least an annual appraisal independently arrived at by a person who customarily makes such appraisals and who is independent of any party to a transaction under § 54.4975-7(b) (9) and (12) will be deemed to be a good faith determination of value.

(e) Multiple plans—(1) General rule. An ESOP may not be considered together with another plan for purposes of applying section 401(a) (4) and (5) or section 410(b) unless:

(i) The ESOP and such other plan exist on November 1, 1977, or

(ii) Paragraph (e)(2) of this section is satisfied.

(2) Special rule for combined ESOP's. Two or more ESOP's, one or more of which does not exist on November 1, 1977, may be considered together for purposes of applying section 401(a) (4) and (5) or section 410(b) only if the proportion of qualifying employer securities to total plan assets is substantially the same for each ESOP and:

(i) The qualifying employer securities held by all ESOP's are all of the same class; or

(ii) The ratios of each class held to all such securities held is substantially the same for each plan.

(3) Amended coverage, contribution, or benefit structure. For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, if the coverage, contribution, or benefit structure of a plan that exists on November 1, 1977 is amended after that date, as of the effective date of the amendment, the plan is no longer considered to be a plan that exists on November 1, 1977.

(f) Distribution—(1) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (f) (2) and (3) of this section, with respect to distributions, a portion of an ESOP consisting of stock bonus plan or a money purchase pension plan is not to be distinguished from other such plans under section 401(a). Thus, for example, benefits distributable from the portion of an ESOP consisting of a stock bonus plan are distributable only in stock of the employer. Also, benefits distributable from the money-purchase portion of the ESOP may be, but are not required to be, distributable in qualifying employer securities.

(2) Exempt loan proceeds. If securities acquired with the proceeds of an exempt loan available for distribution consist of more than one class, a distributee must receive substantially the same proportion of each such class. However, as indicated in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, benefits distributable from the portion of an ESOP consisting of a stock bonus plan are distributable only in stock of the employer.

(3) Income. Income paid with respect to qualifying employer securities acquired by an ESOP in taxable years beginning after December 31, 1974, may be distributed at any time after receipt by the plan to participants on whose behalf such securities have been allocated. However, under an ESOP that is a stock bonus plan, income held by the plan for a 2-year period or longer must be distributed under the general rules described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. (See the last sentence of section 803(h), Tax Reform Act of 1976.)

(Sec. 4975(e)(7), (88 Stat. 976; 26 U.S.C. 4975(e)(7)))

[T.D. 7506, 42 FR 44393, Sept. 2, 1977, as amended by T.D. 7571, 44 FR 1978, Jan. 9, 1979]

§ 54.4975-12 Definition of the term “qualifying employer security”.

(a) In general. For purposes of section 4975(e)(8) and this section, the term “qualifying employer security” means an employer security which is:

(1) Stock or otherwise an equity security, or

(2) A bond, debenture, note, or certificate or other evidence of indebtedness which is described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of section 503(e).

(b) Special rule. In determining whether a bond, debenture, note, or certificate or other evidence of indebtedness is described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of section 503(e), any organization described in section 401(a) shall be treated as an organization subject to the provisions of section 503.

(Sec. 4975(e)(7) (88 Stat. 976; 26 U.S.C. 4975(e)(7)))

[T.D. 7506, 42 FR 44394, Sept. 2, 1977]

§ 54.4975-14 Election to pay an excise tax for certain pre-1975 prohibited transactions.

(a) In general. Section 2003(c)(1)(B) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 978) provides an election to pay an excise tax by certain persons involved prior to 1975 in prohibited transactions within the meaning of section 503 (b) or (g).

(b) Effect of election. If a valid election is made under this section with respect to a particular transaction, any loss of exemption under section 501(a) because of a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503 (b) or (g) shall not apply. Instead, the person who made the election referred to in this section shall be subject to the taxes which would have been imposed by section 4975 (a) or (b) as though section 4975 had imposed a tax in respect of the transaction. (However, section 4975(f)(1), relating to joint and several liability, shall not apply to any person who has not made an election under this section, and interest for late payment of tax shall not begin to accrue until after the date of the election.) Such an election is irrevocable. However, the making of the election does not affect the application of section 6501 for purposes of assessment and collection of tax and section 6511 for purposes of filing a claim for credit or refund with respect to taxpayers and to taxable years of taxpayers whose tax liability is or may be affected by reason of the nonapplication of a denial of exempt status.

(c) Method of election. A person shall make the election referred to in this section by filing the form issued for such purpose by the Internal Revenue Service, including therein the information required by such form and the instructions issued with respect thereto, and by paying the tax which the taxpayer indicates is due at the time the return is filed. To be valid the election must be made prior to the later of December 6, 1976, or 120 days after the date of notification referred to in § 1.503(a)-1(b) of this chapter (Income Tax Regulations), relating to loss of exemption for certain prohibited transactions. If there has been no notification of loss of exemption, the election may be made at any time. However, these limitations do not preclude an agreement between the disqualified person and the district director to extend the time within which the election is permitted.

(d) Computation of section 4975 excise tax. To the extent applicable, and solely for purposes associated with the payment of a section 4975 excise tax under the election referred to in this section, § 53.4941(e)-1 of this chapter (Foundation Excise Tax Regulations) is controlling.

(Sec. 2003(c)(1)(B) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (88 Stat. 978))

[T.D. 7489, 42 FR 27882, June 1, 1977]

§ 54.4975-15 Other transitional rules.

(a)-(c) [Reserved]

(d) Provision of certain services until June 30, 1977—(1) In general. Section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (the Act) (88 Stat. 979) provides that section 4975 shall not apply to the provision of services before June 30, 1977, between a plan and a disqualified person if the three requirements contained in section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act are met. The first requirement is that such services must be provided either (in) under a binding contract in effect on July 1, 1974 (or pursuant to a renewal or modification of such contract); or (ii) by a disqualified person who ordinarily and customarily furnished such services on June 30, 1974. The second requirement is that the services be provided on terms that remain at least as favorable to the plan as an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated party would be.

For this purpose, such services are provided on terms that remain at least as favorable to the plan as an arms-length transaction with an unrelated party would be if, at the time of execution (or renewal) of such binding contract, the contract (or renewal) is on terms at least as favorable to the plan as an arm's-length transaction with an unrelated party would be. However, if in a normal commercial setting an unrelated party in the position of the plan could be expected to insist upon a renegotiation or termination of a binding contract, the plan must so act. Thus, for example, if a disqualified person provides services to a plan on a month-to-month basis, and a party in the position of the plan could be expected to renegotiate the price paid under such contract because of a decline in the fair market value of such services, the plan must so act in order to avoid participation in a prohibited transaction. The third requirement is that the provision of services must not be, or have been, at the time of such provision a prohibited transaction within the meaning of section 503(b) or the corresponding provisions of prior law. If these three requirements are met, section 4975 will apply neither to services provided before June 30, 1977 (both to customers to whom such services were being provided on June 30, 1974, and to new customers) nor to the receipt of compensation therefor. Thus, if these three requirements are met, section 4975 will not apply until June 30, 1977, to the provision of services to a plan by a disqualified person (including a fiduciary) even if such services could not be furnished pursuant to the exemption provisions of sections 4975(d)(2) or (6) and § 54.4975-6. For example, if the three requirements of section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act are met, a person serving as fiduciary to a plan who already receives full-time pay from an employer or an association of employers, whose employees are participants in such plan, or from an employee organization whose members are participants in such plan, may continue to receive reasonable compensation from the plan for services rendered to the plan before June 30, 1977. Similarly, until June 30, 1977, a plan consultant who may be a fiduciary because of the nature of the consultative and administrative services being provided may, if these three requirements are met, continue to cause the sale of insurance to the plan and continue to receive commissions for such sales from the insurance company writing the policy. Further, if the three requirements of section 2003 (c)(2)(D) of the Act are met, a securities broker dealer who renders investment advice to a plan for a fee, thereby becoming a fiduciary may furnish other services to the plan, such as brokerage services, and receives compensation therefor. Also, if a registered representative of such a broker-dealer were a fiduciary, the registered representative may receive compensation, including commissions, for brokerage services performed before June 30, 1977.

(2) Persons deemed to be June 30, 1974, service providers. A disqualified person with respect to a plan which did not, on June 30, 1974, ordinarily and customarily furnish a particular service, will nevertheless be considered to have ordinarily and customarily furnished such service on June 30, 1974, for purposes of this section and section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act, if either of the following conditions are met:

(i) At least 50 percent of the outstanding beneficial interests of such disqualified person are owned directly or through one or more intermediaries by the same person or persons who owned, directly or through one or more intermediaries, at least 50 percent of the outstanding beneficial interests of a person who ordinarily and customarily furnished such service on June 30, 1974; or

(ii) Control, or the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of such disqualified person is possessed, directly or through one or more intermediaries, by the same person or persons who possessed directly or through one or more intermediaries control, or the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of a person who ordinarily and customarily furnished such service on June 30, 1974. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(2) a person shall be deemed to be an “intermediary” of another person if at least 50 percent of the outstanding beneficial interests of such person are owned by such other person, directly or indirectly, or if such other person controls or has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of such person.

(3) Examples. The principals of § 54.4975-15(d)(2) may be illustrated by the following examples.

Example 1.A owns 50 percent of the outstanding beneficial interests of ABC Partnership which ordinarily and customarily furnished certain services on June 30, 1974. On July 2, 1974, ABC Partnership was incorporated into ABC Corporation with one class of stock outstanding. A owns 50 percent of the shares of such stock. ABC Corporation furnishes the same services that were furnished by ABC Partnership on June 30, 1974. ABC Corporation will be deemed to have ordinarily and customarily furnished such services on June 30, 1974, for purposes of section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act.

Example 2.A and B together own 100 percent of the beneficial interests of AB Partnership, which ordinarily and customarily furnished certain services on June 30, 1974. On September 1, 1974, AB Partnership was incorporated into AB Corporation with one class of stock outstanding. A and B each own 20 percent of such outstanding class of stock and together have control over the management and policies of AB Corporation. AB Corporation furnishes the same services that were furnished by AB Partnership on June 30, 1974. AB Corporation will be deemed to have ordinarily and customarily furnished such services on June 30, 1974, for purposes of section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act.

Example 3.On June 30, 1974, M Corporation was ordinarily and customarily furnishing certain services. On that date, X, Y and Z together owned 50 percent of all classes of the outstanding shares of M Corporation. On January 28, 1975, all of the shareholders of M Corporation exchanged their shares in M Corporation for shares of a new N Corporation. As a result of that exchange, X, Y and Z together own 50 percent of the common stock of N Corporation, the only class of N Corporation stock outstanding after the exchange. N Corporation furnishes the services formerly furnished by M Corporation. N Corporation will be deemed to have ordinarily and customarily furnished such services on June 30, 1974, for purposes of section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act.

Example 4.I Corporation ordinarily and customarily furnished certain services on June 30, 1974. On November 3, 1975, I Corporation organizes a wholly owned subsidiary, S Corporation, which furnishes the same services ordinarily and customarily furnished by I Corporation on June 30, 1974. S Corporation will be deemed to have ordinarily and customarily furnished such services on June 30, 1974, for purposes of section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act.

Example 5.X Corporation, wholly-owned and controlled by A, ordinarily and customarily furnished certain services on June 30, 1974. Y Corporation did not perform such services on that date. On January 2, 1976, X Corporation is merged into Y Corporation and although A received less than 50 percent of the total outstanding shares of Y Corporation, after such merger A has control over the management and policies of Y Corporation. Y Corporation furnishes the same services that were formerly furnished by X Corporation. Y Corporation will be deemed to have ordinarily and customarily furnished such services on June 30, 1974, for purposes of section 2003(c)(2)(D) of the Act.

[T.D. 7491, 42 FR 32388, June 24, 1977]

§ 54.4976-1T Questions and answers relating to taxes with respect to welfare benefit funds (temporary).

Q-1: What does section 4976 provide?

A-1: Section 4976 imposes a tax on employers who provide disqualified benefits through a welfare benefit fund. The tax imposed is equal to 100 percent of the disqualified benefit.

Q-2: What constitutes a disqualified benefit?

A-2: A disqualified benefit is (a) any post-retirement medical or life insurance benefit provided with respect to a key employee (as defined in section 419A(d)(3)) through a welfare benefit fund if a separate account is required to be established for such employee under section 419A(d) and the cost for such coverage is not charged against or paid from such separate account; (b) any post-retirement medical or life insurance benefit provided through a welfare benefit fund with respect to an individual in whose favor discrimination is prohibited unless the plan of which the fund is a part meets the requirements of section 505(b) with respect to that benefit; and (c) any portion of the fund which reverts to the benefit of the employer. A post-retirement medical or life insurance benefit provided with respect to a key employee will not constitute a disqualified benefit even though such benefit is not provided through a separate account if the cost of such benefit is paid by the employer in the taxable year in which the benefit is provided and there is not (and there is not required to be) a separate account with an outstanding credit balance maintained for the key employee.

Q-3: What is the effective date of section 4976?

A-3: (a) Generally, section 4976 applies to disqualified benefits provided by a welfare benefit fund after December 31, 1985. However, a disqualified benefit, as defined in section 4976(b)(1) or (2), is not subject to section 4976(a) if it is provided from “existing reserves for post-retirement medical or life insurance benefits” that are within the transition rule set forth in section 512(a)(3)(E)(iii) and Q&A-4 of § 1.512(a)-5T (or would be if such transition rule applied to such welfare benefit fund). For example, if a welfare benefit fund in existence on July 18, 1984, provides an individual in whose favor discrimination is prohibited with a post-retirement life insurance benefit after December 31, 1985, that does not meet the requirements of section 505(b) and if the welfare benefit fund received no contributions after July 18, 1984, then the disqualified benefit provided by the fund is not subject to section 4976(a)

(b) A welfare benefit fund will be able to avoid the application of section 4976(b)(1) and (2) if the employer withdraws from such fund, before April 7, 1986, any amounts that are not attributable to “existing reserves for post-retirement medical or life insurance benefits” because they were neither actually set aside nor treated as actually set aside under Q&A-4 of § 1.512(a)-5T, on July 18, 1984. The employer making such a withdrawal must include the amount in income for the first taxable year ending after July 18, 1984, or, to the extent that the withdrawn amount is attributable to the following taxable year, for such following taxable year. Such a withdrawal will not be treated as an impermissible distribution or reversion under section 501(c)(9), and will not be treated as a disqualified benefit under section 4976(b)(3). Of course, to the extent that the welfare benefit fund contains amounts that are attributable to “existing reserves” but are not within the transition rule set forth in Q&A-4 of § 1.512(a)-5T (as applied to welfare benefit funds), for example, because such amounts exceed the amounts that could have been accumulated under the principles set forth in Revenue Rulings 69-382, 1969-2 C.B. 28; 69-478, 1969-2 C.B. 29; and 73-599, 1973-2 C.B. 40, the fund will not be able to avoid the application of section 4976(b)(1) and (2) under this paragraph.

(c) In the case of a plan which is maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements (1) between employee representatives and one or more employers and (2) which are in effect on July 1, 1985 (or ratified on or before that date), the provision does not apply to disqualified benefits provided in years beginning before the termination of the last of the collective bargaining agreements pursuant to which the plan is maintained (determined without regard to any extension of the contract agreed to after July 1, 1985). For purposes of the preceding sentence, any plan amendment made pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement relating to the plan which amends the plan solely to conform to any requirement added under section 511 of the Tax Reform Act 1984 (i.e., requirements under sections 419, 419A, 512(a)(3)(E), and 4976) shall not be treated as a termination of such collective bargaining agreement.

[T.D. 8073, 51 FR 4336, Feb. 4, 1986]

§ 54.4977-1T Questions and answers relating to the election concerning lines of business in existence on January 1, 1984 (temporary).

The following questions and answers relate to the election by employers under section 4977 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as added by section 531(e)(1) of the Tax Reform Act of 1984 (98 Stat. 886), to treat all employees of any line of business in existence on January 1, 1984, as employees of one of those lines of business for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2):

Q-1: What does section 4977 provide with respect to the exclusion from gross income of certain fringe benefits?

A-1: In general, section 4977 provides an elective grandfather rule that allows an employer under certain circumstances to treat employees of all lines of business which were in existence on January 1, 1984, as employees of one of those lines of business for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2), but not for purposes of section 132(g)(2).

Q-2: Under what circumstances does the elective grandfather rule of section 4977 apply?

A-2: If:

(a) An election under section 4977 is in effect with respect to an employer for any calendar year, and

(b) On and after January 1, 1984, at least 85 percent of the employees of the employer in all of its lines of business which existed on January 1, 1984, were entitled to employee discounts or services provided by the employer in one line of business,

then all employees of any line of business of the employer which was in existence on January 1, 1984, are treated, for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2) (but not for purposes of section 132(g)(2)) as employees of the one line of business referred to in (b) of this Q/A-2.

Q-3: How does an employer make the election provided for in section 4977?

A-3: An employer must file a statement with the director of the service center with which the employer's tax returns are filed. The statement must indicate that the employer is electing to apply the provisions of section 4977 to one or more of the employer's lines of business and must contain the following information:

(a) The employer's name, address, and taxpayer identification number;

(b) A description of all of the employer's lines of business in existence on January 1, 1984; and

(c) For each lines of business which is to have as an employee for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2) an individual but for the election under section 4977 would not be treated as an employee for purposes of section 132(a) (1) and (2):

(1) A description of the no-additional-cost service or qualified employee discount (including, with respect to discounts, the percentage discount) to be offered to employees pursuant to section 4977 in such line of business, and

(2) With respect to employees in all of the employer's lines of business in existence on January 1, 1984, the number of such employees and the number entitled to the described fringe benefit. Such numbers may be determined as of a date which does not precede the date the election is filed by more than 30 days.

Q-4: In order to make a timely section 4977 election, when must an employer file the election statement?

A-4: Except as otherwise provided in the second sentence of this answer, the employer must file the election statement before the end of the calendar year preceding the year for which the election is to apply. For calendar year 1985, however, the employer has until March 31, 1985, to file the election statement. However, the Commissioner may, in his discretion, extend the March 31, 1985 deadline to a later date.

Q-5: Does section 4977 apply to all calendar years following the calendar year in which the election is made?

A-5: Yes, unless the employer revokes the election.

Q-6: When is a revocation effective?

A-6: A revocation is effective with respect to the calendar year following the calendar year in which it is filed.

Q-7: If an employer does not make a timely section 4977 election with respect to 1985, will the employer be entitled to make an election with respect to any subsequent year?

A-7: No.

Q-8: If an employer revokes a section 4977 election, is the employer entitled to elect the application of section 4977 for subsequent years?

A-8: No.

[T.D. 8004, 50 FR 758, Jan. 7, 1985]

§ 54.4978-1T Questions and answers relating to the tax on certain dispositions by employee stock ownership plans and certain cooperatives (temporary).

Q-1: What does section 4978 provide?

A-1: Section 4978 imposes a tax (as determined under section 4978(b) and Q&A-2 of this section) on the amount realized on the disposition of any qualified securities, if:

(a) An employee stock ownership plan or eligible worker-owned cooperative acquires any qualified securities in a sale to which section 1042 applies;

(b) Such plan or cooperative disposes of any qualified securities during the 3-year period after the date on which any qualified securities were acquired in the sale to which section 1042 applies; and

(c) Either (1) the percentage of the total outstanding shares of the class of employer securities of which the disposed qualified securities are a part held by such plan or cooperative after such disposition is less than the percentage of the total outstanding shares of such class of employer securities held immediately after the sale to which section 1042 applies, or (2) the value of the employer securities held by such plan or cooperative immediately after such disposition is less than 30 percent of the total value of all employer securities outstanding at that time. For purposes of this section, the following terms have the same meanings given to such terms by the identified provisions: “employee stock ownership plan” (section 4975(e)(7)); “qualified securities” (section 1042(b)(1)); “eligible worker-owned cooperative” (section 1042(b)(2)); “employer securities” (section 409(l)). For purposes of determining what constitutes a disposition to which section 4978 applies, see Q&A-3 of this section.

Q-2: What is the amount of tax imposed under section 4978?

A-2: Section 4978 imposes a tax of 10 percent of the amount realized on the disposition of qualified securities. The amount realized that is subject to tax under section 4978 shall not exceed that portion of the amount realized that is allocable to qualified securities acquired within the 3-year period prior to the date of disposition and to which section 1042 applied (“restricted qualified securities”). In determining the amount realized (except as otherwise provided in Q&A-3 of this section), any disposition of employer securities with respect to which the condition contained in provision (c) of Q&A-1 is met shall be treated, first, as a disposition of restricted qualified securities (on a first in, first out basis) and, thereafter, as a disposition of any other employer securities. Thus, for example, if a plan disposes of more employer securities than the number of restricted qualified securities held by the plan at that time and immediately after such disposition the value of the employer securities held by the plan is less than 30 percent of the total value of all outstanding employer securities, the portion of the total amount realized that is allocable to restricted qualified securities subject to tax under section 4978 is determined by multiplying the total amount realized on the disposition by a fraction, the numerator of which is the total value of restricted qualified securities included in the disposition and the denominator of which is the total value of employer securities in the disposition.

Q-3: What constitutes a “disposition” under section 4978?

A-3: (a) Under section 4978, the term “disposition” includes any sale, exchange, or distribution. However, in the case of any exchange of qualified securities for stock of another corporation in any reorganization described in section 368(a)(1), such exchange shall not be treated as a disposition for purposes of section 4978.

(b) Section 4978 shall not apply to any disposition of qualified securities which is made by reason of:

(1) The death of the employee;

(2) The retirement of the employee after the employee has attained 59 1/2 years of age;

(3) The disability of the employee (within the meaning of section 72(m)(5)); or

(4) The separation of the employee from service for any period which results in a 1-year break in service (within the meaning of section 411(a)(6)(A)).

Any disposition of employer securities within this paragraph and any disposition of employer securities with respect to which the condition contained in provision (c) of Q&A-1 of this section is not met shall be treated, first, as a disposition of securities that are not restricted qualified securities and, thereafter, as a disposition of restricted qualified securities (on a first-in, first-out basis).

(c) If restricted qualified securities held by an employee stock ownership plan or eligible worker-owned cooperative no longer meet the definition of qualified securities (“old restricted qualified securities”) as a result of a transaction changing (1) the status of a corporation as an employer, or as a member of a controlled group of corporations including the employer, or (2) the existence of employer securities of the type described in section 409(l)(1), the disposition of such securities shall not be treated as a disposition of restricted qualified securities to which the tax under section 4978 is imposed if, within 90 days after such disposition, securities meeting the requirements of section 409(l) (“new restricted qualified securities”) that are of equal value to the old restricted qualfied securities (at the time of the disposition of the old restricted qualified securities) are substituted for such old restricted qualified securities. However, for purposes of determining the tax imposed under section 4978, old restricted qualified securities shall not be treated as if they retained their status as restricted qualified securities and new restricted qualified securities derived from the disposition of old restricted qualified securities pursuant to the preceding sentence shall be treated as restricted qualified securities for the remaining portion of the period during which the disposition of the old restricted qualified securities would have been subject to tax under section 4978.

Q-4: To whom does the tax under section 4978 apply?

A-4: The tax under section 4978 is imposed on the domestic corporation (or corporations) or the eligible worker-owned cooperative that made the written statement of consent as described in section 1042(a)(2)(B) and Q&A-2 of § 1.1042-1T with respect to the disposition of the restricted qualified securities.

Q-5: When does section 4978, as enacted by the Tax Reform Act of 1984, become effective?

A-5: Section 4978 applies to the disposition of qualified securities acquired in a sale to which section 1042 applies. See Q&A-6 of § 1.1042-1T for the effective date of section 1042.

[T.D. 8073, 51 FR 4336, Feb. 4, 1986]

§ 54.4979-0 Excise tax on certain excess contributions and excess aggregate contributions; table of contents.

This section contains the captions that appear in § 54.4979.

§ 54.4979-1 Excise tax on certain excess contributions and excess aggregate contributions.

(a) In general.

(1) General rule.

(2) Liability for tax.

(3) Due date and form for payment of tax.

(4) Special rule for simplified employee pensions.

(b) Definitions.

(1) Excess aggregate contributions.

(2) Excess contributions.

(3) Plan.

(c) No tax when excess distributed within 2 1/2 months of close of year or additional employer contributions made.

(1) General rule.

(2) Tax treatment of distributions.

(3) Income.

(4) Example.

(d) Effective date.

(1) General rule.

(2) Section 403(b) annuity contracts.

(3) Collectively bargained plans and plans of state or local governments.

(4) Plan years beginning before January 1, 1992.

[T.D. 8357, 56 FR 40550, Aug. 15, 1991; 57 FR 10290, Mar. 25, 1992, as amended by T.D. 8581, 59 FR 66181, Dec. 23, 1994]

§ 54.4979-1 Excise tax on certain excess contributions and excess aggregate contributions.

(a) In general—(1) General rule. In the case of any plan (as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section), there is imposed a tax for the employer's taxable year equal to 10 percent of the sum of:

(i) Any excess contributions under a plan for the plan year ending in the taxable year; and

(ii) Any excess aggregate contributions under the plan for the plan year ending in the taxable year.

(2) Liability for tax. The tax imposed by paragraph (a)(1) of this section is to be paid by the employer. In the case of a collectively bargained plan to which section 413(b) applies, all employers who are parties to the collective bargaining agreement and whose employees are participants in the plan are jointly and severally liable for the tax.

(3) Due date and form for payment of tax—(i) The tax described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is due on the last day of the 15th month after the close of the plan year to which the excess contributions or excess aggregate contributions relate.

(ii) An employer that owes the tax described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must file the form prescribed by the Commissioner for the payment of the tax.

(4) Special rule for simplified employee pensions—(i) An employer that maintains a simplified employee pension (SEP) as defined in section 408(k) that accepts elective contributions is exempted from the tax of section 4979 and paragraph (a)(1) of this section if it notifies its employees of the fact and tax consequences of excess contributions within 2 1/2 months following the plan year for which excess contributions are made. The notification must meet the standards of paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section.

(ii) The employer's notification to each affected employee of the excess SEP contributions must specifically state, in a manner calculated to be understood by the average plan participant: the amount of the excess contributions attributable to that employee's elective deferrals; the calendar year for which the excess contributions were made; that the excess contributions are includible in the affected employee's gross income for the specified calendar year; and that failure to withdraw the excess contributions and income attributable thereto by the due date (plus extensions) for filing the affected employee's tax return for the preceding calendar year may result in significant penalties.

(iii) If an employer does not notify its employees by the last day of the 12-month period following the year of excess SEP contributions, the SEP will no longer be considered to meet the requirements of section 408(k)(6).

(b) Definitions. The following is a list of terms and definitions to be used for purposes of section 4979 and this section:

(1) Excess aggregate contributions. The term “excess aggregate contribution” has the meaning set forth in § 1.401(m)-5 of this chapter. For purposes of determining excess aggregate contributions under an annuity contract described in section 403(b), the contract is treated as a plan described in section 401(a).

(2) Excess contributions. The term “excess contributions” has the meaning set forth in sections 401(k)(8)(B), 408(k)(6)(C)(ii), and 501(c)(18). See, e.g., § 1.401(k)-6 of this chapter.

(3) Plan. The term “plan” means:

(i) A plan described in section 401(a) that includes a trust exempt from tax under section 501(a);

(ii) Any annuity plan described in section 403(a);

(iii) Any annuity contract described in section 403(b);

(iv) A simplified employee pension of an employer that satisfies the requirements of section 408(k); and

(v) A plan described in section 501(c)(18).

The term includes any plan that at any time has been determined by the Secretary to be one of the types of plans described in this paragraph (b)(3).

(c) No tax when excess distributed within 2 1/2 months of close of year or additional employer contributions made—(1) General rule. No tax is imposed under this section on any excess contribution or excess aggregate contribution, as the case may be, to the extent the contribution (together with any income allocable thereto) is corrected before the close of the first 2 1/2 months of the following plan year (6 months in the case of a plan that includes an eligible automatic contribution arrangement within the meaning of section 414(w)). The extension to 6 months applies to a distribution of excess contributions or excess aggregate contributions for a plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2010, only where all the eligible NHCEs and eligible HCEs (both as defined in § 1.401(k)-6 of this Chapter) are covered employees under an eligible automatic contribution arrangement within the meaning of section 414(w) for the entire plan year (or the portion of the plan year that the eligible NHCEs and eligible HCEs are eligible employees under the plan)). Qualified nonelective contributions and qualified matching contributions taken into account under § 1.401(k)-2(a)(6) of this Chapter or qualified nonelective contributions or elective contributions taken into account under § 1.401(m)-2(a)(6) of this Chapter for a plan year may permit a plan to avoid excess contributions or excess aggregate contributions, respectively, even if made after the close of the 2 1/2 month (or 6 month) period for distributing excess contributions or excess aggregate contributions without the excise tax. See § 1.401(k)-2(b)(1)(i) and (5)(i) of this Chapter for methods to avoid excess contributions, and § 1.401(m)-2(b)(1)(i) of the Chapter for methods to avoid excess aggregate contributions.

(2) Tax treatment of distributions. See § 1.401(k)-2(b)(3)(ii) and (2)(vi) of this chapter for rules for determining the tax consequences to a participant of a distribution or recharacterization of excess contributions and income allocable thereto, including a special rule for de minimis distributions. See § 1.401(m)-2(b)(2)(vi) of this chapter for rules for determining the tax consequences to a participant of a distribution of excess aggregate contributions and income allocable thereto.

(3) Income. See § 1.401(k)-2(b)(2)(iv) of this chapter for rules for determining income allocable to excess contributions. See § 1.401(m)-2(b)(2)(iv) of this chapter for rules for determining income allocable to excess aggregate contributions.

(4) Example. The provisions of this paragraph (c) are illustrated by the following example.

Example. (i) Employer X maintains Plan Y, a calendar year profit-sharing plan that includes a qualified cash or deferred arrangement. Under the plan, failure to satisfy the actual deferral percentage test may only be corrected by distributing the excess contributions or making qualified nonelective contributions (QNECs).

(ii) On December 31, 1990, X determines that Y does not satisfy the actual deferral percentage test for the 1990 plan year, and that excess contributions for the year equal $5,000. On March 1, 1991, Y distributes $2,000 of these excess contributions. On May 30, 1991, X distributes another $2,000 of excess contributions. On December 17, 1991, X contributes QNECs for certain nonhighly compensated employees, thereby eliminating the remainder of the excess contributions for 1990.

(iii) X has incurred a tax liability under section 4979 for 1990 equal to 10 percent of the excess contributions that were in the plan as of December 31, 1990. However, this tax is not imposed on the $2,000 distributed on March 1, 1991, or the amount corrected by QNECs. X must pay an excise tax of $200, 10 percent of the $2,000 of excess contributions distributed after March 15, 1991. This tax must be paid by March 31, 1992.

(d) Effective date—(1) General rule. Except as provided in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4), this section is effective for plan years beginning after December 31, 1986.

(2) Section 403(b) annuity contracts. In the case of an annuity contract under section 403(b), this section applies to plan years beginning after December 31, 1988.

(3) Collectively bargained plans and plans of state or local governments. For plan years beginning before January 1, 1993, the provisions of this section do not apply to a collectively bargained plan that automatically satisfies the requirements of section 410(b). See §§ 1.401(a)(4)-1(c)(5) and 1.410(b)-2(b)(7) of this chapter. In the case of a plan (including a collectively bargained plan) maintained by a state or local government, the provisions of this section do not apply for plan years beginning before the later of January 1, 1996, or 90 days after the opening of the first legislative session beginning on or after January 1, 1996, of the governing body with authority to amend the plan, if that body does not meet continuously. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3), the term governing body with authority to amend the plan means the legislature, board, commission, council, or other governing body with authority to amend the plan.

(4) Plan years beginning before January 1, 1992. For plan years beginning before January 1, 1992, a reasonable interpretation of the rules set forth in section 4979, as in effect during those years, may be relied upon in determining whether the excise tax is due for those years.

[T.D. 8357, 56 FR 40550, Aug. 15, 1991, as amended by T.D. 8581, 59 FR 66181, Dec. 23, 1994; T.D. 9169, 69 FR 78153, Dec. 29, 2004; T.D. 9447, 74 FR 8214, Feb. 24, 2009]

§ 54.4980B-0 Table of contents.

This section contains first a list of the section headings and then a list of the questions in each section in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10.

List of Sections § 54.4980B-1 COBRA in general. § 54.4980B-2 Plans that must comply. § 54.4980B-3 Qualified beneficiaries. § 54.4980B-4 Qualifying events. § 54.4980B-5 COBRA continuation coverage. § 54.4980B-6 Electing COBRA continuation coverage. § 54.4980B-7 Duration of COBRA continuation coverage. § 54.4980B-8 Paying for COBRA continuation coverage. § 54.4980B-9 Business reorganizations and employer withdrawals from multiemployer plans. § 54.4980B-10 Interaction of FMLA and COBRA. List of Questions § 54.4980B-1 COBRA in general.

Q-1: What are the health care continuation coverage requirements contained in section 4980B of the Internal Revenue Code and in ERISA?

Q-2: What standard applies for topics not addressed in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10?

§ 54.4980B-2 Plans that must comply.

Q-1: For purposes of section 4980B, what is a group health plan?

Q-2: For purposes of section 4980B, what is the employer?

Q-3: What is a multiemployer plan?

Q-4: What group health plans are subject to COBRA?

Q-5: What is a small-employer plan?

Q-6: How is the number of group health plans that an employer or employee organization maintains determined?

Q-7: What is the plan year?

Q-8: How do the COBRA continuation coverage requirements apply to cafeteria plans and other flexible benefit arrangements?

Q-9: What is the effect of a group health plan's failure to comply with the requirements of section 4980B(f)?

Q-10: Who is liable for the excise tax if a group health plan fails to comply with the requirements of section 4980B(f)?

Q-11: If a person is liable for the excise tax under section 4980B, what form must the person file and what is the due date for the filing and payment of the excise tax?

§ 54.4980B-3 Qualified beneficiaries.

Q-1: Who is a qualified beneficiary?

Q-2: Who is an employee and who is a covered employee?

Q-3: Who are the similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries?

§ 54.4980B-4 Qualifying events.

Q-1: What is a qualifying event?

Q-2: Are the facts surrounding a termination of employment (such as whether it was voluntary or involuntary) relevant in determining whether the termination of employment is a qualifying event?

§ 54.4980B-5 COBRA continuation coverage.

Q-1: What is COBRA continuation coverage?

Q-2: What deductibles apply if COBRA continuation coverage is elected?

Q-3: How do a plan's limits apply to COBRA continuation coverage?

Q-4: Can a qualified beneficiary who elects COBRA continuation coverage ever change from the coverage received by that individual immediately before the qualifying event?

Q-5: Aside from open enrollment periods, can a qualified beneficiary who has elected COBRA continuation coverage choose to cover individuals (such as newborn children, adopted children, or new spouses) who join the qualified beneficiary's family on or after the date of the qualifying event?

§ 54.4980B-6 Electing COBRA continuation coverage.

Q-1: What is the election period and how long must it last?

Q-2: Is a covered employee or qualified beneficiary responsible for informing the plan administrator of the occurrence of a qualifying event?

Q-3: During the election period and before the qualified beneficiary has made an election, must coverage be provided?

Q-4: Is a waiver before the end of the election period effective to end a qualified beneficiary's election rights?

Q-5: Can an employer or employee organization withhold money or other benefits owed to a qualified beneficiary until the qualified beneficiary either waives COBRA continuation coverage, elects and pays for such coverage, or allows the election period to expire?

Q-6: Can each qualified beneficiary make an independent election under COBRA?

§ 54.4980B-7 Duration of COBRA continuation coverage.

Q-1: How long must COBRA continuation coverage be made available to a qualified beneficiary?

Q-2: When may a plan terminate a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage due to coverage under another group health plan?

Q-3: When may a plan terminate a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage due to the qualified beneficiary's entitlement to Medicare benefits?

Q-4: When does the maximum coverage period end?

Q-5: How does a qualified beneficiary become entitled to a disability extension?

Q-6: Under what circumstances can the maximum coverage period be expanded?

Q-7: If health coverage is provided to a qualified beneficiary after a qualifying event without regard to COBRA continuation coverage (for example, as a result of state or local law, the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 (38 U.S.C. 4315), industry practice, a collective bargaining agreement, severance agreement, or plan procedure), will such alternative coverage extend the maximum coverage period?

Q-8: Must a qualified beneficiary be given the right to enroll in a conversion health plan at the end of the maximum coverage period for COBRA continuation coverage?

§ 54.4980B-8 Paying for COBRA continuation coverage.

Q-1: Can a group health plan require payment for COBRA continuation coverage?

Q-2: When is the applicable premium determined and when can a group health plan increase the amount it requires to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage?

Q-3: Must a plan allow payment for COBRA continuation coverage to be made in monthly installments?

Q-4: Is a plan required to allow a qualified beneficiary to choose to have the first payment for COBRA continuation coverage applied prospectively only?

Q-5: What is timely payment for COBRA continuation coverage?

§ 54.4980B-9 Business reorganizations and employer withdrawals from multiemployer plans.

Q-1: For purposes of this section, what are a business reorganization, a stock sale, and an asset sale?

Q-2: In the case of a stock sale, what are the selling group, the acquired organization, and the buying group?

Q-3: In the case of an asset sale, what are the selling group and the buying group?

Q-4: Who is an M&A qualified beneficiary?

Q-5: In the case of a stock sale, is the sale a qualifying event with respect to a covered employee who is employed by the acquired organization before the sale and who continues to be employed by the acquired organization after the sale, or with respect to the spouse or dependent children of such a covered employee?

Q-6: In the case of an asset sale, is the sale a qualifying event with respect to a covered employee whose employment immediately before the sale was associated with the purchased assets, or with respect to the spouse or dependent children of such a covered employee who are covered under a group health plan of the selling group immediately before the sale?

Q-7: In a business reorganization, are the buying group and the selling group permitted to allocate by contract the responsibility to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries?

Q-8: Which group health plan has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries in a business reorganization?

Q-9: Can the cessation of contributions by an employer to a multiemployer group health plan be a qualifying event?

Q-10: If an employer stops contributing to a multiemployer group health plan, does the multiemployer plan have the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to a qualified beneficiary who was receiving coverage under the multiemployer plan on the day before the cessation of contributions and who is, or whose qualifying event occurred in connection with, a covered employee whose last employment prior to the qualifying event was with the employer that has stopped contributing to the multiemployer plan?

§ 54.4980B-10 Interaction of FMLA and COBRA.

Q-1: In what circumstances does a qualifying event occur if an employee does not return from leave taken under FMLA?

Q-2: If a qualifying event described in Q&A-1 of this section occurs, when does it occur, and how is the maximum coverage period measured?

Q-3: If an employee fails to pay the employee portion of premiums for coverage under a group health plan during FMLA leave or declines coverage under a group health plan during FMLA leave, does this affect the determination of whether or when the employee has experienced a qualifying event?

Q-4: Is the application of the rules in Q&A-1 through Q&A-3 of this section affected by a requirement of state or local law to provide a period of coverage longer than that required under FMLA?

Q-5: May COBRA continuation coverage be conditioned upon reimbursement of the premiums paid by the employer for coverage under a group health plan during FMLA leave?

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5173, Feb. 3, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1848, Jan. 10, 2001; T.D. 9457, 74 FR 45997, Sept. 8, 2009]

§ 54.4980B-1 COBRA in general.

The COBRA continuation coverage requirements are described in general in the following questions-and-answers:

Q-1: What are the health care continuation coverage requirements contained in section 4980B of the Internal Revenue Code and in ERISA?

A-1: (a) Section 4980B provides generally that a group health plan must offer each qualified beneficiary who would otherwise lose coverage under the plan as a result of a qualifying event an opportunity to elect, within the election period, continuation coverage under the plan. The continuation coverage requirements were added to section 162 by the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (COBRA), Public Law 99-272 (100 Stat. 222), and moved to section 4980B by the Technical and Miscellaneous Revenue Act of 1988, Public Law 100-647 (102 Stat. 3342). Continuation coverage required under section 4980B is referred to in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 as COBRA continuation coverage.

(b) COBRA also added parallel continuation coverage requirements to Part 6 of Subtitle B of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1161-1168), which is administered by the U.S. Department of Labor. If a plan does not comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements, the Internal Revenue Code imposes an excise tax on the employer maintaining the plan (or on the plan itself), whereas ERISA gives certain parties—including qualified beneficiaries who are participants or beneficiaries within the meaning of title I of ERISA, as well as the Department of Labor—the right to file a lawsuit to redress the noncompliance. The rules in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 apply for purposes of section 4980B and generally also for purposes of the COBRA continuation coverage requirements in title I of ERISA. However, certain provisions of the COBRA continuation coverage requirements (such as the definitions of group health plan, employee, and employer) are not identical in the Internal Revenue Code and title I of ERISA. In those cases in which the statutory language is not identical, the rules in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 nonetheless apply to the COBRA continuation coverage requirements of title I of ERISA, except to the extent those rules are inconsistent with the statutory language of title I of ERISA.

(c) A group health plan that is subject to section 4980B (or the parallel provisions under ERISA) is referred to as being subject to COBRA. (See Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-2). A qualified beneficiary can be required to pay for COBRA continuation coverage. The term qualified beneficiary is defined in Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-3. The term qualifying event is defined in Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-4. COBRA continuation coverage is described in § 54.4980B-5. The election procedures are described in § 54.4980B-6. Duration of COBRA continuation coverage is addressed in § 54.4980B-7, and payment for COBRA continuation coverage is addressed in § 54.4980B-8. Section 54.4980B-9 contains special rules for how COBRA applies in connection with business reorganizations and employer withdrawals from a multiemployer plan, and § 54.4980B-10 addresses how COBRA applies for individuals who take leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993. Unless the context indicates otherwise, any reference in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 to COBRA refers to section 4980B (as amended) and to the parallel provisions of ERISA.

Q-2: What standard applies for topics not addressed in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10?

A-2: For purposes of section 4980B, for topics relating to the COBRA continuation coverage requirements of section 4980B that are not addressed in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 (such as methods for calculating the applicable premium), plans and employers must operate in good faith compliance with a reasonable interpretation of the statutory requirements in section 4980B.

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5173, Feb. 3, 1999; 64 FR 14382, Mar. 25, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1849, Jan. 10, 2001]

§ 54.4980B-2 Plans that must comply.

The following questions-and-answers apply in determining which plans must comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements:

Q-1: For purposes of section 4980B, what is a group health plan?

A-1: (a) For purposes of section 4980B, a group health plan is a plan maintained by an employer or employee organization to provide health care to individuals who have an employment-related connection to the employer or employee organization or to their families. Individuals who have an employment-related connection to the employer or employee organization consist of employees, former employees, the employer, and others associated or formerly associated with the employer or employee organization in a business relationship (including members of a union who are not currently employees). Health care is provided under a plan whether provided directly or through insurance, reimbursement, or otherwise, and whether or not provided through an on-site facility (except as set forth in paragraph (d) of this Q&A-1), or through a cafeteria plan (as defined in section 125) or other flexible benefit arrangement. (See paragraphs (b) through (e) in Q&A-8 of this section for rules regarding the application of the COBRA continuation coverage requirements to certain health flexible spending arrangements.) For purposes of this Q&A-1, insurance includes not only group insurance policies but also one or more individual insurance policies in any arrangement that involves the provision of health care to two or more employees. A plan maintained by an employer or employee organization is any plan of, or contributed to (directly or indirectly) by, an employer or employee organization. Thus, a group health plan is maintained by an employer or employee organization even if the employer or employee organization does not contribute to it if coverage under the plan would not be available at the same cost to an individual but for the individual's employment-related connection to the employer or employee organization. These rules are further explained in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this Q&A-1. An exception for qualified long-term care services is set forth in paragraph (e) of this Q&A-1, and for medical savings accounts in paragraph (f) of this Q&A-1. See Q&A-6 of this section for rules to determine the number of group health plans that an employer or employee organization maintains.

(b) For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, health care has the same meaning as medical care under section 213(d). Thus, health care generally includes the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, and any other undertaking for the purpose of affecting any structure or function of the body. Health care also includes transportation primarily for and essential to health care as described in the preceding sentence. However, health care does not include anything that is merely beneficial to the general health of an individual, such as a vacation. Thus, if an employer or employee organization maintains a program that furthers general good health, but the program does not relate to the relief or alleviation of health or medical problems and is generally accessible to and used by employees without regard to their physical condition or state of health, that program is not considered a program that provides health care and so is not a group health plan. For example, if an employer maintains a spa, swimming pool, gymnasium, or other exercise/fitness program or facility that is normally accessible to and used by employees for reasons other than relief of health or medical problems, such a facility does not constitute a program that provides health care and thus is not a group health plan. In contrast, if an employer maintains a drug or alcohol treatment program or a health clinic, or any other facility or program that is intended to relieve or alleviate a physical condition or health problem, the facility or program is considered to be the provision of health care and so is considered a group health plan.

(c) Whether a benefit provided to employees constitutes health care is not affected by whether the benefit is excludable from income under section 132 (relating to certain fringe benefits). For example, if a department store provides its employees discounted prices on all merchandise, including health care items such as drugs or eyeglasses, the mere fact that the discounted prices also apply to health care items will not cause the program to be a plan providing health care, so long as the discount program would normally be accessible to and used by employees without regard to health needs or physical condition. If, however, the employer maintaining the discount program is a health clinic, so that the program is used exclusively by employees with health or medical needs, the program is considered to be a plan providing health care and so is considered to be a group health plan.

(d) The provision of health care at a facility that is located on the premises of an employer or employee organization does not constitute a group health plan if—

(1) The health care consists primarily of first aid that is provided during the employer's working hours for treatment of a health condition, illness, or injury that occurs during those working hours;

(2) The health care is available only to current employees; and

(3) Employees are not charged for the use of the facility.

(e) A plan does not constitute a group health plan subject to COBRA if substantially all of the coverage provided under the plan is for qualified long-term care services (as defined in section 7702B(c)). For this purpose, a plan is permitted to use any reasonable method in determining whether substantially all of the coverage provided under the plan is for qualified long-term care services.

(f) Under section 106(b)(5), amounts contributed by an employer to a medical savings account (as defined in section 220(d)) are not considered part of a group health plan subject to COBRA. Thus, a plan is not required to make COBRA continuation coverage available with respect to amounts contributed by an employer to a medical savings account. A high deductible health plan does not fail to be a group health plan subject to COBRA merely because it covers a medical savings account holder.

Q-2: For purposes of section 4980B, what is the employer?

A-2: (a) For purposes of section 4980B, employer refers to—

(1) A person for whom services are performed;

(2) Any other person that is a member of a group described in section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o) that includes a person described in paragraph (a)(1) of this Q&A-2; and

(3) Any successor of a person described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this Q&A-2.

(b) An employer is a successor employer if it results from a consolidation, merger, or similar restructuring of the employer or if it is a mere continuation of the employer. See paragraph (c) in Q&A-8 of § 54.4980B-9 for rules describing the circumstances in which a purchaser of substantial assets is a successor employer to the employer selling the assets.

Q-3: What is a multiemployer plan?

A-3: For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, a multiemployer plan is a plan to which more than one employer is required to contribute, that is maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements between one or more employee organizations and more than one employer, and that satisfies such other requirements as the Secretary of Labor may prescribe by regulation. Whenever reference is made in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 to a plan of or maintained by an employer or employee organization, the reference includes a multiemployer plan.

Q-4: What group health plans are subject to COBRA?

A-4: (a) All group health plans are subject to COBRA except group health plans described in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-4. Group health plans described in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-4 are referred to in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 as excepted from COBRA.

(b) The following group health plans are excepted from COBRA—

(1) Small-employer plans (see Q&A-5 of this section);

(2) Church plans (within the meaning of section 414(e)); and

(3) Governmental plans (within the meaning of section 414(d)).

(c) The COBRA continuation coverage requirements generally do not apply to group health plans that are excepted from COBRA. However, a small-employer plan otherwise excepted from COBRA is nonetheless subject to COBRA with respect to qualified beneficiaries who experience a qualifying event during a period when the plan is not a small-employer plan (see paragraph (g) of Q&A-5 of this section).

(d) Although governmental plans are not subject to the COBRA continuation coverage requirements, group health plans maintained by state or local governments are generally subject to parallel continuation coverage requirements that were added by section 10003 of COBRA to the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300bb-1 through 300bb-8), which is administered by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Federal employees and their family members covered under the Federal Employees Health Benefit Program are covered by generally similar, but not parallel, temporary continuation of coverage provisions enacted by the Federal Employees Health Benefits Amendments Act of 1988. See 5 U.S.C. 8905a.

Q-5: What is a small-employer plan?

A-5: (a) Except in the case of a multiemployer plan, a small-employer plan is a group health plan maintained by an employer (within the meaning of Q&A-2 of this section) that normally employed fewer than 20 employees (within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this Q&A-5) during the preceding calendar year. In the case of a multiemployer plan, a small-employer plan is a group health plan under which each of the employers contributing to the plan for a calendar year normally employed fewer than 20 employees during the preceding calendar year. See Q&A-6 of this section for rules to determine the number of plans that an employer or employee organization maintains. The rules of this paragraph (a) are illustrated in the following example:

Example. (i) Corporation S employs 12 employees, all of whom work and reside in the United States. S maintains a group health plan for its employees and their families. S is a wholly-owned subsidiary of P. In the previous calendar year, the controlled group of corporations including P and S employed more than 19 employees, although the only employees in the United States of the controlled group that includes P and S are the 12 employees of S.

(ii) Under § 1.414(b)-1 of this chapter, foreign corporations are not excluded from membership in a controlled group of corporations. Consequently, the group health plan maintained by S is not a small-employer plan during the current calendar year because the controlled group including S normally employed at least 20 employees in the preceding calendar year.

(b) An employer is considered to have normally employed fewer than 20 employees during a particular calendar year if, and only if, it had fewer than 20 employees on at least 50 percent of its typical business days during that year.

(c) All full-time and part-time common law employees of an employer are taken into account in determining whether an employer had fewer than 20 employees; however, an individual who is not a common law employee of the employer is not taken into account. Thus, the following individuals are not counted as employees for purposes of this Q&A-5 even though they are referred to as employees for all other purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10—

(1) Self-employed individuals (within the meaning of section 401(c)(1));

(2) Independent contractors (and their employees and independent contractors); and

(3) Directors (in the case of a corporation).

(d) In determining the number of the employees of an employer, each full-time employee is counted as one employee and each part-time employee is counted as a fraction of an employee, determined in accordance with paragraph (e) of this Q&A-5.

(e) An employer may determine the number of its employees on a daily basis or a pay period basis. The basis used by the employer must be used with respect to all employees of the employer and must be used for the entire year for which the number of employees is being determined. If an employer determines the number of its employees on a daily basis, it must determine the actual number of full-time employees on each typical business day and the actual number of part-time employees and the hours worked by each of those part-time employees on each typical business day. Each full-time employee counts as one employee on each typical business day and each part-time employee counts as a fraction, with the numerator of the fraction equal to the number of hours worked by that employee and the denominator equal to the number of hours that must be worked on a typical business day in order to be considered a full-time employee. If an employer determines the number of its employees on a pay period basis, it must determine the actual number of full-time employees employed during that pay period and the actual number of part-time employees employed and the hours worked by each of those part-time employees during the pay period. For each day of that pay period, each full-time employee counts as one employee and each part-time employee counts as a fraction, with the numerator of the fraction equal to the number of hours worked by that employee during that pay period and the denominator equal to the number of hours that must be worked during that pay period in order to be considered a full-time employee. The determination of the number of hours required to be considered a full-time employee is based upon the employer's employment practices, except that in no event may the hours required to be considered a full-time employee exceed eight hours for any day or 40 hours for any week.

(f) In the case of a multiemployer plan, the determination of whether the plan is a small-employer plan on any particular date depends on which employers are contributing to the plan on that date and on the workforce of those employers during the preceding calendar year. If a plan that is otherwise subject to COBRA ceases to be a small-employer plan because of the addition during a calendar year of an employer that did not normally employ fewer than 20 employees on a typical business day during the preceding calendar year, the plan ceases to be excepted from COBRA immediately upon the addition of the new employer. In contrast, if the plan ceases to be a small-employer plan by reason of an increase during a calendar year in the workforce of an employer contributing to the plan, the plan ceases to be excepted from COBRA on the January 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the employer's workforce increased.

(g) A small-employer plan is generally excepted from COBRA. If, however, a plan that has been subject to COBRA (that is, was not a small-employer plan) becomes a small-employer plan, the plan remains subject to COBRA for qualifying events that occurred during the period when the plan was subject to COBRA. The rules of this paragraph (g) are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1.An employer maintains a group health plan. The employer employed 20 employees on more than 50 percent of its working days during 2001, and consequently the plan is not excepted from COBRA during 2002. Employee E resigns and does not work for the employer after January 31, 2002. Under the terms of the plan, E is no longer eligible for coverage upon the effective date of the resignation, that is, February 1, 2002. The employer does not hire a replacement for E. E timely elects and pays for COBRA continuation coverage. The employer employs 19 employees for the remainder of 2002, and consequently the plan is not subject to COBRA in 2003. The plan must nevertheless continue to make COBRA continuation coverage available to E during 2003 until the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available ceases under the rules of § 54.4980B-7. The obligation could continue until August 1, 2003, the date that is 18 months after the date of E's qualifying event, or longer if E is eligible for a disability extension.

Example 2.The facts are the same as in Example 1. The employer continues to employ 19 employees throughout 2003 and 2004 and consequently the plan continues to be excepted from COBRA during 2004 and 2005. Spouse S is covered under the plan because S is married to one of the employer's employees. On April 1, 2002, S is divorced from that employee and ceases to be eligible for coverage under the plan. The plan is subject to COBRA during 2002 because X normally employed 20 employees during 2001. S timely notifies the plan administrator of the divorce and timely elects and pays for COBRA continuation coverage. Even though the plan is generally excepted from COBRA during 2003, 2004, and 2005, it must nevertheless continue to make COBRA continuation coverage available to S during those years until the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available ceases under the rules of § 54.4980B-7. The obligation could continue until April 1, 2005, the date that is 36 months after the date of S's qualifying event.

Example 3.The facts are the same as in Example 2. C is a dependent child of one of the employer's employees and is covered under the plan. A dependent child is no longer eligible for coverage under the plan upon the attainment of age 23. C attains age 23 on November 16, 2005. The plan is excepted from COBRA with respect to C during 2005 because the employer normally employed fewer than 20 employees during 2004. Consequently, the plan is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available to C (and would not be obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available to C even if the plan later became subject to COBRA again).

Q-6: How is the number of group health plans that an employer or employee organization maintains determined?

A-6: (a) The rules of this Q&A-6 apply in determining the number of group health plans that an employer or employee organization maintains. All references elsewhere in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 to a group health plan are references to a group health plan as determined under Q&A-1 of this section and this Q&A-6. Except as provided in paragraph (b) or (c) of this Q&A-6, all health care benefits, other than benefits for qualified long-term care services (as defined in section 7702B(c)), provided by a corporation, partnership, or other entity or trade or business, or by an employee organization, constitute one group health plan, unless—

(1) It is clear from the instruments governing an arrangement or arrangements to provide health care benefits that the benefits are being provided under separate plans; and

(2) The arrangement or arrangements are operated pursuant to such instruments as separate plans.

(b) A multiemployer plan and a nonmultiemployer plan are always separate plans.

(c) If a principal purpose of establishing separate plans is to evade any requirement of law, then the separate plans will be considered a single plan to the extent necessary to prevent the evasion.

(d) The significance of treating an arrangement as two or more separate group health plans is illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. (i) Employer X maintains a single group health plan, which provides major medical and prescription drug benefits. Employer Y maintains two group health plans; one provides major medical benefits and the other provides prescription drug benefits.

(ii) X's plan could comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements by giving a qualified beneficiary experiencing a qualifying event with respect to X's plan the choice of either electing both major medical and prescription drug benefits or not receiving any COBRA continuation coverage under X's plan. By contrast, for Y's plans to comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements, a qualified beneficiary experiencing a qualifying event with respect to each of Y's plans must be given the choice of electing COBRA continuation coverage under either the major medical plan or the prescription drug plan or both.

Example 2.If a joint board of trustees administers one multiemployer plan, that plan will fail to qualify for the small-employer plan exception if any one of the employers whose employees are covered under the plan normally employed 20 or more employees during the preceding calendar year. However, if the joint board of trustees maintains two or more multiemployer plans, then the exception would be available with respect to each of those plans in which each of the employers whose employees are covered under the plan normally employed fewer than 20 employees during the preceding calendar year.

Q-7: What is the plan year?

A-7: (a) The plan year is the year that is designated as the plan year in the plan documents.

(b) If the plan documents do not designate a plan year (or if there are no plan documents), then the plan year is determined in accordance with this paragraph (b).

(1) The plan year is the deductible/limit year used under the plan.

(2) If the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on an annual basis, then the plan year is the policy year.

(3) If the plan does not impose deductibles or limits on an annual basis, and either the plan is not insured or the insurance policy is not renewed on an annual basis, then the plan year is the employer's taxable year.

(4) In any other case, the plan year is the calendar year.

Q-8: How do the COBRA continuation coverage requirements apply to cafeteria plans and other flexible benefit arrangements?

A-8: (a)(1) The provision of health care benefits does not fail to be a group health plan merely because those benefits are offered under a cafeteria plan (as defined in section 125) or under any other arrangement under which an employee is offered a choice between health care benefits and other taxable or nontaxable benefits. However, the COBRA continuation coverage requirements apply only to the type and level of coverage under the cafeteria plan or other flexible benefit arrangement that a qualified beneficiary is actually receiving on the day before the qualifying event. See paragraphs (b) through (e) of this Q&A-8 for rules limiting the obligations of certain health flexible spending arrangements.

(2) The rules of this paragraph (a) are illustrated by the following example:

Example: (i) Under the terms of a cafeteria plan, employees can choose among life insurance coverage, membership in a health maintenance organization (HMO), coverage for medical expenses under an indemnity arrangement, and cash compensation. Of these available choices, the HMO and the indemnity arrangement are the arrangements providing health care. The instruments governing the HMO and indemnity arrangements indicate that they are separate group health plans. These group health plans are subject to COBRA. The employer does not provide any group health plan outside of the cafeteria plan. B and C are unmarried employees. B has chosen the life insurance coverage, and C has chosen the indemnity arrangement.

(ii) B does not have to be offered COBRA continuation coverage upon terminating employment, nor is a subsequent open enrollment period for active employees required to be made available to B. However, if C terminates employment and the termination constitutes a qualifying event, C must be offered an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage under the indemnity arrangement. If C makes such an election and an open enrollment period for active employees occurs while C is still receiving the COBRA continuation coverage, C must be offered the opportunity to switch from the indemnity arrangement to the HMO (but not to the life insurance coverage because that does not constitute coverage provided under a group health plan).

(b) If a health flexible spending arrangement (health FSA), within the meaning of section 106(c)(2), satisfies the two conditions in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 for a plan year, the obligation of the health FSA to make COBRA continuation coverage available to a qualified beneficiary who experiences a qualifying event in that plan year is limited in accordance with paragraphs (d) and (e) of this Q&A-8, as illustrated by an example in paragraph (f) of this Q&A-8. To the extent that a health FSA is obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available to a qualified beneficiary, the health FSA must comply with all the applicable rules of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, including the rules of Q&A-3 in § 54.4980B-5 (relating to limits).

(c) The conditions of this paragraph (c) are satisfied if—

(1) Benefits provided under the health FSA are excepted benefits within the meaning of sections 9831 and 9832; and

(2) The maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for a year of COBRA continuation coverage under Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-8 equals or exceeds the maximum benefit available under the health FSA for the year.

(d) If the conditions in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 are satisfied for a plan year, then the health FSA is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available for any subsequent plan year to any qualified beneficiary who experiences a qualifying event during that plan year.

(e) If the conditions in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 are satisfied for a plan year, the health FSA is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available for that plan year to any qualified beneficiary who experiences a qualifying event during that plan year unless, as of the date of the qualifying event, the qualified beneficiary can become entitled to receive during the remainder of the plan year a benefit that exceeds the maximum amount that the health FSA is permitted to require to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage for the remainder of the plan year. In determining the amount of the benefit that a qualified beneficiary can become entitled to receive during the remainder of the plan year, the health FSA may deduct from the maximum benefit available to that qualified beneficiary for the year (based on the election made under the health FSA for that qualified beneficiary before the date of the qualifying event) any reimbursable claims submitted to the health FSA for that plan year before the date of the qualifying event.

(f) The rules of paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this Q&A-8 are illustrated by the following example:

Example. (i) An employer maintains a group health plan providing major medical benefits and a group health plan that is a health FSA, and the plan year for each plan is the calendar year. Both the plan providing major medical benefits and the health FSA are subject to COBRA. Under the health FSA, during an open season before the beginning of each calendar year, employees can elect to reduce their compensation during the upcoming year by up to $1200 per year and have that same amount contributed to a health flexible spending account. The employer contributes an additional amount to the account equal to the employee's salary reduction election for the year. Thus, the maximum amount available to an employee under the health FSA for a year is two times the amount of the employee's salary reduction election for the year. This amount may be paid to the employee during the year as reimbursement for health expenses not covered by the employer's major medical plan (such as deductibles, copayments, prescription drugs, or eyeglasses). The employer determined, in accordance with section 4980B(f)(4), that a reasonable estimate of the cost of providing coverage for similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries for 2002 under this health FSA is equal to two times their salary reduction election for 2002 and, thus, that two times the salary reduction election is the applicable premium for 2002.

(ii) Because the employer provides major medical benefits under another group health plan, and because the maximum benefit that any employee can receive under the health FSA is not greater than two times the employee's salary reduction election for the plan year, benefits under this health FSA are excepted benefits within the meaning of sections 9831 and 9832. Thus, the first condition of paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 is satisfied for the year. The maximum amount that a plan can require to be paid for coverage (outside of coverage required to be made available due to a disability extension) under Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-8 is 102 percent of the applicable premium. Thus, the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for coverage for the 2002 plan year is 2.04 times the employee's salary reduction election for the plan year. Because the maximum benefit available under the health FSA is 2.0 times the employee's salary reduction election for the year, the maximum benefit available under the health FSA for the year is less than the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for coverage for the year. Thus, the second condition in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 is also satisfied for the 2002 plan year. Because both conditions in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 are satisfied for 2002, with respect to any qualifying event occurring in 2002, the health FSA is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available for any year after 2002.

(iii) Whether the health FSA is obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available in 2002 to a qualified beneficiary with respect to a qualifying event that occurs in 2002 depends upon the maximum benefit that would be available to the qualified beneficiary under COBRA continuation coverage for that plan year. Case 1: Employee B has elected to reduce B's salary by $1200 for 2002. Thus, the maximum benefit that B can become entitled to receive under the health FSA during the entire year is $2400. B experiences a qualifying event that is the termination of B's employment on May 31, 2002. As of that date, B had submitted $300 of reimbursable expenses under the health FSA. Thus, the maximum benefit that B could become entitled to receive for the remainder of 2002 is $2100. The maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage for the remainder of 2002 is 102 percent times 1/12 of the applicable premium for 2002 times the number of months remaining in 2002 after the date of the qualifying event. In B's case, the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage for 2002 is 2.04 times $1200, or $2448. One-twelfth of $2448 is $204. Because seven months remain in the plan year, the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for B's coverage for the remainder of the year is seven times $204, or $1428. Because $1428 is less than the maximum benefit that B could become entitled to receive for the remainder of the year ($2100), the health FSA is required to make COBRA continuation coverage available to B for the remainder of 2002 (but not for any subsequent year).

(iv) Case 2: The facts are the same as in Case 1 except that B had submitted $1000 of reimbursable expenses as of the date of the qualifying event. In that case, the maximum benefit available to B for the remainder of the year would be $1400 instead of $2100. Because the maximum amount that the health FSA can require to be paid for B's coverage is $1428, and because the $1400 maximum benefit for the remainder of the year does not exceed $1428, the health FSA is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available to B in 2002 (or any later year). (Of course, the administrator of the health FSA is permitted to make COBRA continuation coverage available to every qualified beneficiary in the year that the qualified beneficiary's qualifying event occurs in order to avoid having to determine the maximum benefit available for each qualified beneficiary for the remainder of the plan year.)

Q-9: What is the effect of a group health plan's failure to comply with the requirements of section 4980B(f)?

A-9: Under section 4980B(a), if a group health plan subject to COBRA fails to comply with section 4980B(f), an excise tax is imposed. Moreover, non-tax remedies may be available if the plan fails to comply with the parallel requirements in ERISA, which are administered by the Department of Labor.

Q-10: Who is liable for the excise tax if a group health plan fails to comply with the requirements of section 4980B(f)?

A-10: (a) In general, the excise tax is imposed on the employer maintaining the plan, except that in the case of a multiemployer plan (see Q&A-3 of this section for a definition of multiemployer plan) the excise tax is imposed on the plan.

(b) In certain circumstances, the excise tax is also imposed on a person involved with the provision of benefits under the plan (other than in the capacity of an employee), such as an insurer providing benefits under the plan or a third party administrator administering claims under the plan. In general, such a person will be liable for the excise tax if the person assumes, under a legally enforceable written agreement, the responsibility for performing the act to which the failure to comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements relates. Such a person will be liable for the excise tax notwithstanding the absence of a written agreement assuming responsibility for complying with COBRA if the person provides coverage under the plan to a similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiary (see Q&A-3 of § 54.4980B-3 for a definition of similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries) and the employer or plan administrator submits a written request to the person to provide to a qualified beneficiary the same coverage that the person provides to the similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiary. If the person providing coverage under the plan to a similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiary is the plan administrator and the qualifying event is a divorce or legal separation or a dependent child's ceasing to be covered under the generally applicable requirements of the plan, the plan administrator will also be liable for the excise tax if the qualified beneficiary submits a written request for coverage.

Q-11: If a person is liable for the excise tax under section 4980B, what form must the person file and what is the due date for the filing and payment of the excise tax?

A-11: (a) In general. See §§ 54.6011-2 and 54.6151-1.

(b) Due date for filing of return by employers or other persons responsible for benefits under a group health plan. See § 54.6071-1(a)(1).

(c) Due date for filing of return by multiemployer plans. See § 54.6071-1(a)(2).

(d) Effective/applicability date. In the case of an employer or other person mentioned in paragraph (b) of this Q & A-11, the rules in this Q & A-11 are effective for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2010. In the case of a plan mentioned in paragraph (c) of this Q & A-11, the rules in this Q & A-11 are effective for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2010.

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5174, Feb. 3, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1849, Jan. 10, 2001; T.D. 9457, 74 FR 45997, Sept. 8, 2009]

§ 54.4980B-3 Qualified beneficiaries.

The determination of who is a qualified beneficiary, an employee, or a covered employee, and of who are the similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries is addressed in the following questions-and-answers:

Q-1: Who is a qualified beneficiary?

A-1: (a)(1) Except as set forth in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this Q&A-1, a qualified beneficiary is—

(i) Any individual who, on the day before a qualifying event, is covered under a group health plan by virtue of being on that day either a covered employee, the spouse of a covered employee, or a dependent child of the covered employee; or

(ii) Any child who is born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage.

(2) In the case of a qualifying event that is the bankruptcy of the employer, a covered employee who had retired on or before the date of substantial elimination of group health plan coverage is also a qualified beneficiary, as is any spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child of such a covered employee if, on the day before the bankruptcy qualifying event, the spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child is a beneficiary under the plan.

(3) In general, an individual (other than a child who is born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage) who is not covered under a plan on the day before the qualifying event cannot be a qualified beneficiary with respect to that qualifying event, and the reason for the individual's lack of actual coverage (such as the individual's having declined participation in the plan or failed to satisfy the plan's conditions for participation) is not relevant for this purpose. However, if the individual is denied or not offered coverage under a plan under circumstances in which the denial or failure to offer constitutes a violation of applicable law (such as the Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 U.S.C. 12101-12213, the special enrollment rules of section 9801, or the requirements of section 9802 prohibiting discrimination in eligibility to enroll in a group health plan based on health status), then, for purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, the individual will be considered to have had the coverage that was wrongfully denied or not offered.

(4) Paragraph (b) of this Q&A-1 describes how certain family members are not qualified beneficiaries even if they become covered under the plan; paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this Q&A-1 place limits on the general rules of this paragraph (a) concerning who is a qualified beneficiary; paragraph (f) of this Q&A-1 provides when an individual who has been a qualified beneficiary ceases to be a qualified beneficiary; paragraph (g) of this Q&A-1 defines placed for adoption; and paragraph (h) of this Q&A-1 contains examples.

(b) In contrast to a child who is born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage, an individual who marries any qualified beneficiary on or after the date of the qualifying event and a newborn or adopted child (other than one born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee) are not qualified beneficiaries by virtue of the marriage, birth, or placement for adoption or by virtue of the individual's status as the spouse or the child's status as a dependent of the qualified beneficiary. These new family members do not themselves become qualified beneficiaries even if they become covered under the plan. (For situations in which a plan is required to make coverage available to new family members of a qualified beneficiary who is receiving COBRA continuation coverage, see Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-5, paragraph (c) in Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-5, and section 9801(f)(2).)

(c) An individual is not a qualified beneficiary if, on the day before the qualifying event referred to in paragraph (a) of this Q&A-1, the individual is covered under the group health plan by reason of another individual's election of COBRA continuation coverage and is not already a qualified beneficiary by reason of a prior qualifying event.

(d) A covered employee can be a qualified beneficiary only in connection with a qualifying event that is the termination, or reduction of hours, of the covered employee's employment, or that is the bankruptcy of the employer.

(e) An individual is not a qualified beneficiary if the individual's status as a covered employee is attributable to a period in which the individual was a nonresident alien who received from the individual's employer no earned income (within the meaning of section 911(d)(2)) that constituted income from sources within the United States (within the meaning of section 861(a)(3)). If, pursuant to the preceding sentence, an individual is not a qualified beneficiary, then a spouse or dependent child of the individual is not considered a qualified beneficiary by virtue of the relationship to the individual.

(f) A qualified beneficiary who does not elect COBRA continuation coverage in connection with a qualifying event ceases to be a qualified beneficiary at the end of the election period (see Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-6). Thus, for example, if such a former qualified beneficiary is later added to a covered employee's coverage (e.g., during an open enrollment period) and then another qualifying event occurs with respect to the covered employee, the former qualified beneficiary does not become a qualified beneficiary by reason of the second qualifying event. If a covered employee who is a qualified beneficiary does not elect COBRA continuation coverage during the election period, then any child born to or placed for adoption with the covered employee on or after the date of the qualifying event is not a qualified beneficiary. Once a plan's obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to an individual who has been a qualified beneficiary ceases under the rules of § 54.4980B-7, the individual ceases to be a qualified beneficiary.

(g) For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, placement for adoption or being placed for adoption means the assumption and retention by the covered employee of a legal obligation for total or partial support of a child in anticipation of the adoption of the child. The child's placement for adoption with the covered employee terminates upon the termination of the legal obligation for total or partial support. A child who is immediately adopted by the covered employee without a preceding placement for adoption is considered to be placed for adoption on the date of the adoption.

(h) The rules of this Q&A-1 are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. (i) B is a single employee who voluntarily terminates employment and elects COBRA continuation coverage under a group health plan. To comply with the requirements of section 9801(f), the plan permits a covered employee who marries to have her or his spouse covered under the plan. One month after electing COBRA continuation coverage, B marries and chooses to have B's spouse covered under the plan.

(ii) B's spouse is not a qualified beneficiary. Thus, if B dies during the period of COBRA continuation coverage, the plan does not have to offer B's surviving spouse an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage.

Example 2. (i) C is a married employee who terminates employment. C elects COBRA continuation coverage for C but not C's spouse, and C's spouse declines to elect such coverage. C's spouse thus ceases to be a qualified beneficiary. At the next open enrollment period, C adds the spouse as a beneficiary under the plan.

(ii) The addition of the spouse during the open enrollment period does not make the spouse a qualified beneficiary. The plan thus will not have to offer the spouse an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage upon a later divorce from or death of C.

Example 3. (i) Under the terms of a group health plan, a covered employee's child, upon attaining age 19, ceases to be a dependent eligible for coverage.

(ii) At that time, the child must be offered an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage. If the child elects COBRA continuation coverage, the child marries during the period of the COBRA continuation coverage, and the child's spouse becomes covered under the group health plan, the child's spouse is not a qualified beneficiary.

Example 4. (i) D is a single employee who, upon retirement, is given the opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage but declines it in favor of an alternative offer of 12 months of employer-paid retiree health benefits. At the end of the election period, D ceases to be a qualified beneficiary and will not have to be given another opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage (at the end of those 12 months or at any other time). D marries E during the period of retiree health coverage and, under the terms of that coverage, E becomes covered under the plan.

(ii) If a divorce from or death of D will result in E's losing coverage, E will be a qualified beneficiary because E's coverage under the plan on the day before the qualifying event (that is, the divorce or death) will have been by reason of D's acceptance of 12 months of employer-paid coverage after the prior qualifying event (D's retirement) rather than by reason of an election of COBRA continuation coverage.

Example 5. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 4, except that, under the terms of the plan, the divorce or death does not cause E to lose coverage so that E continues to be covered for the balance of the original 12-month period.

(ii) E does not have to be allowed to elect COBRA continuation coverage because the loss of coverage at the end of the 12-month period is not caused by the divorce or death, and thus the divorce or death does not constitute a qualifying event. See Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-4.

Q-2: Who is an employee and who is a covered employee?

A-2: (a)(1) For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 (except for purposes of Q&A-5 in § 54.4980B-2, relating to the exception from COBRA for plans maintained by an employer with fewer than 20 employees), an employee is any individual who is eligible to be covered under a group health plan by virtue of the performance of services for the employer maintaining the plan or by virtue of membership in the employee organization maintaining the plan. Thus, for purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 (except for purposes of Q&A-5 in § 54.4980B-2), the following individuals are employees if their relationship to the employer maintaining the plan makes them eligible to be covered under the plan—

(i) Self-employed individuals (within the meaning of section 401(c)(1));

(ii) Independent contractors (and their employees and independent contractors); and

(iii) Directors (in the case of a corporation).

(2) Similarly, whenever reference is made in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 (except in Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-2) to an employment relationship (such as by referring to the termination of employment of an employee or to an employee's being employed by an employer), the reference includes the relationship of those individuals who are employees within the meaning of this paragraph (a). See paragraph (c) in Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-2 for a narrower meaning of employee solely for purposes of Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-2.

(b) For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, a covered employee is any individual who is (or was) provided coverage under a group health plan (other than a plan that is excepted from COBRA on the date of the qualifying event; see Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-2) by virtue of being or having been an employee. For example, a retiree or former employee who is covered by a group health plan is a covered employee if the coverage results in whole or in part from her or his previous employment. An employee (or former employee) who is merely eligible for coverage under a group health plan is generally not a covered employee if the employee (or former employee) is not actually covered under the plan. In general, the reason for the employee's (or former employee's) lack of actual coverage (such as having declined participation in the plan or having failed to satisfy the plan's conditions for participation) is not relevant for this purpose. However, if the employee (or former employee) is denied or not offered coverage under circumstances in which the denial or failure to offer constitutes a violation of applicable law (such as the Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 U.S.C. 12101 through 12213, the special enrollment rules of section 9801, or the requirements of section 9802 prohibiting discrimination in eligibility to enroll in a group health plan based on health status), then, for purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, the employee (or former employee) will be considered to have had the coverage that was wrongfully denied or not offered.

Q-3: Who are the similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries?

A-3: For purposes of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10, similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries means the group of covered employees, spouses of covered employees, or dependent children of covered employees receiving coverage under a group health plan maintained by the employer or employee organization who are receiving that coverage for a reason other than the rights provided under the COBRA continuation coverage requirements and who, based on all of the facts and circumstances, are most similarly situated to the situation of the qualified beneficiary immediately before the qualifying event.

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5176, Feb. 3, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1852, Jan. 10, 2001]

§ 54.4980B-4 Qualifying events.

The determination of what constitutes a qualifying event is addressed in the following questions and answers:

Q-1: What is a qualifying event?

A-1: (a) A qualifying event is an event that satisfies paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this Q&A-1. Paragraph (e) of this Q&A-1 further explains a reduction of hours of employment, paragraph (f) of this Q&A-1 describes the treatment of children born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage, and paragraph (g) of this Q&A-1 contains examples. See Q&A-1 through Q&A-3 of § 54.4980B-10 for special rules in the case of leave taken under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. 2601-2619).

(b) An event satisfies this paragraph (b) if the event is any of the following—

(1) The death of a covered employee;

(2) The termination (other than by reason of the employee's gross misconduct), or reduction of hours, of a covered employee's employment;

(3) The divorce or legal separation of a covered employee from the employee's spouse;

(4) A covered employee's becoming entitled to Medicare benefits under title XVIII of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395-1395ggg);

(5) A dependent child's ceasing to be a dependent child of a covered employee under the generally applicable requirements of the plan; or

(6) A proceeding in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code with respect to an employer from whose employment a covered employee retired at any time.

(c) An event satisfies this paragraph (c) if, under the terms of the group health plan, the event causes the covered employee, or the spouse or a dependent child of the covered employee, to lose coverage under the plan. For this purpose, to lose coverage means to cease to be covered under the same terms and conditions as in effect immediately before the qualifying event. Any increase in the premium or contribution that must be paid by a covered employee (or the spouse or dependent child of a covered employee) for coverage under a group health plan that results from the occurrence of one of the events listed in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-1 is a loss of coverage. In the case of an event that is the bankruptcy of the employer, lose coverage also means any substantial elimination of coverage under the plan, occurring within 12 months before or after the date the bankruptcy proceeding commences, for a covered employee who had retired on or before the date of the substantial elimination of group health plan coverage or for any spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child of such a covered employee if, on the day before the bankruptcy qualifying event, the spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child is a beneficiary under the plan. For purposes of this paragraph (c), a loss of coverage need not occur immediately after the event, so long as the loss of coverage occurs before the end of the maximum coverage period (see Q&A-4 and Q&A-6 of § 54.4980B-7). However, if neither the covered employee nor the spouse or a dependent child of the covered employee loses coverage before the end of what would be the maximum coverage period, the event does not satisfy this paragraph (c). If coverage is reduced or eliminated in anticipation of an event (for example, an employer's eliminating an employee's coverage in anticipation of the termination of the employee's employment, or an employee's eliminating the coverage of the employee's spouse in anticipation of a divorce or legal separation), the reduction or elimination is disregarded in determining whether the event causes a loss of coverage.

(d) An event satisfies this paragraph (d) if it occurs while the plan is subject to COBRA. Thus, an event will not satisfy this paragraph (d) if it occurs while the plan is excepted from COBRA (see Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-2). Even if the plan later becomes subject to COBRA, it is not required to make COBRA continuation coverage available to anyone whose coverage ends as a result of an event during a year in which the plan is excepted from COBRA. For example, if a group health plan is excepted from COBRA as a small-employer plan during the year 2001 (see Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-2) and an employee terminates employment on December 31, 2001, the termination is not a qualifying event and the plan is not required to permit the employee to elect COBRA continuation coverage. This is the case even if the plan ceases to be a small-employer plan as of January 1, 2002. Also, the same result will follow even if the employee is given three months of coverage beyond December 31 (that is, through March of 2002), because there will be no qualifying event as of the termination of coverage in March. However, if the employee's spouse is initially provided with the three-month coverage through March 2002, but the spouse divorces the employee before the end of the three months and loses coverage as a result of the divorce, the divorce will constitute a qualifying event during 2002 and so entitle the spouse to elect COBRA continuation coverage. See Q&A-7 of § 54.4980B-7 regarding the maximum coverage period in such a case.

(e) A reduction of hours of a covered employee's employment occurs whenever there is a decrease in the hours that a covered employee is required to work or actually works, but only if the decrease is not accompanied by an immediate termination of employment. This is true regardless of whether the covered employee continues to perform services following the reduction of hours of employment. For example, an absence from work due to disability, a temporary layoff, or any other reason (other than due to leave that is FMLA leave; see § 54.4980B-10) is a reduction of hours of a covered employee's employment if there is not an immediate termination of employment. If a group health plan measures eligibility for the coverage of employees by the number of hours worked in a given time period, such as the preceding month or quarter, and an employee covered under the plan fails to work the minimum number of hours during that time period, the failure to work the minimum number of required hours is a reduction of hours of that covered employee's employment.

(f) The qualifying event of a qualified beneficiary who is a child born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage is the qualifying event giving rise to the period of COBRA continuation coverage during which the child is born or placed for adoption. If a second qualifying event has occurred before the child is born or placed for adoption (such as the death of the covered employee), then the second qualifying event also applies to the newborn or adopted child. See Q&A-6 of § 54.4980B-7.

(g) The rules of this Q&A-1 are illustrated by the following examples, in each of which the group health plan is subject to COBRA:

Example 1. (i) An employee who is covered by a group health plan terminates employment (other than by reason of the employee's gross misconduct) and, beginning with the day after the last day of employment, is given 3 months of employer-paid coverage under the same terms and conditions as before that date. At the end of the three months, the coverage terminates.

(ii) The loss of coverage at the end of the three months results from the termination of employment and, thus, the termination of employment is a qualifying event.

Example 2. (i) An employee who is covered by a group health plan retires (which is a termination of employment other than by reason of the employee's gross misconduct) and, upon retirement, is required to pay an increased amount for the same group health coverage that the employee had before retirement.

(ii) The increase in the premium or contribution required for coverage is a loss of coverage under paragraph (c) of this Q&A-1 and, thus, the retirement is a qualifying event.

Example 3. (i) An employee and the employee's spouse are covered under an employer's group health plan. The employee retires and is given identical coverage for life. However, the plan provides that the spousal coverage will not be continued beyond six months unless a higher premium for the spouse is paid to the plan.

(ii) The requirement for the spouse to pay a higher premium at the end of the six months is a loss of coverage under paragraph (c) of this Q&A-1. Thus, the retirement is a qualifying event and the spouse must be given an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage.

Example 4. (i) F is a covered employee who is married to G, and both are covered under a group health plan maintained by F's employer. F and G are divorced. Under the terms of the plan, the divorce causes G to lose coverage. The divorce is a qualifying event, and G elects COBRA continuation coverage, remarries during the period of COBRA continuation coverage, and G's new spouse becomes covered under the plan. (See Q&A-5 in § 54.4980B-5, paragraph (c) in Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-5, and section 9801(f)(2).) G dies. Under the terms of the plan, the death causes G's new spouse to lose coverage under the plan.

(ii) G's death is not a qualifying event because G is not a covered employee.

Example 5. (i) An employer maintains a group health plan for both active employees and retired employees (and their families). The coverage for active employees and retired employees is identical, and the employer does not require retirees to pay more for coverage than active employees. The plan does not make COBRA continuation coverage available when an employee retires (and is not required to because the retired employee has not lost coverage under the plan). The employer amends the plan to eliminate coverage for retired employees effective January 1, 2002. On that date, several retired employees (and their spouses and dependent children) have been covered under the plan since their retirement for less than the maximum coverage period that would apply to them in connection with their retirement.

(ii) The elimination of retiree coverage under these circumstances is a deferred loss of coverage for those retirees (and their spouses and dependent children) under paragraph (c) of this Q&A-1 and, thus, the retirement is a qualifying event. The plan must make COBRA continuation coverage available to them for the balance of the maximum coverage period that applies to them in connection with the retirement.

Q-2: Are the facts surrounding a termination of employment (such as whether it was voluntary or involuntary) relevant in determining whether the termination of employment is a qualifying event?

A-2: Apart from facts constituting gross misconduct, the facts surrounding the termination or reduction of hours are irrelevant in determining whether a qualifying event has occurred. Thus, it does not matter whether the employee voluntarily terminated or was discharged. For example, a strike or a lockout is a termination or reduction of hours that constitutes a qualifying event if the strike or lockout results in a loss of coverage as described in paragraph (c) of Q&A-1 of this section. Similarly, a layoff that results in such a loss of coverage is a qualifying event.

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5178, Feb. 3, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1852, Jan. 10, 2001]

§ 54.4980B-5 COBRA continuation coverage.

The following questions-and-answers address the requirements for coverage to constitute COBRA continuation coverage:

Q-1: What is COBRA continuation coverage?

A-1: (a) If a qualifying event occurs, each qualified beneficiary (other than a qualified beneficiary for whom the qualifying event will not result in any immediate or deferred loss of coverage) must be offered an opportunity to elect to receive the group health plan coverage that is provided to similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries (ordinarily, the same coverage that the qualified beneficiary had on the day before the qualifying event). See Q&A-3 of § 54.4980B-3 for the definition of similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries. This coverage is COBRA continuation coverage. If coverage is modified for similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries, then the coverage made available to qualified beneficiaries is modified in the same way. If the continuation coverage offered differs in any way from the coverage made available to similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries, the coverage offered does not constitute COBRA continuation coverage and the group health plan is not in compliance with COBRA unless other coverage that does constitute COBRA continuation coverage is also offered. Any elimination or reduction of coverage in anticipation of an event described in paragraph (b) of Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-4 is disregarded for purposes of this Q&A-1 and for purposes of any other reference in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 to coverage in effect immediately before (or on the day before) a qualifying event. COBRA continuation coverage must not be conditioned upon, or discriminate on the basis of lack of, evidence of insurability.

(b) In the case of a qualified beneficiary who is a child born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage, the child is generally entitled to elect immediately to have the same coverage that dependent children of active employees receive under the benefit packages under which the covered employee has coverage at the time of the birth or placement for adoption. Such a child would be entitled to elect coverage different from that elected by the covered employee during the next available open enrollment period under the plan. See Q&A-4 of this section.

Q-2: What deductibles apply if COBRA continuation coverage is elected?

A-2: (a) Qualified beneficiaries electing COBRA continuation coverage generally are subject to the same deductibles as similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries. If a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage begins before the end of a period prescribed for accumulating amounts toward deductibles, the qualified beneficiary must retain credit for expenses incurred toward those deductibles before the beginning of COBRA continuation coverage as though the qualifying event had not occurred. The specific application of this rule depends on the type of deductible, as set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this Q&A-2. Special rules are set forth in paragraph (e) of this Q&A-2, and examples appear in paragraph (f) of this Q&A-2.

(b) If a deductible is computed separately for each individual receiving coverage under the plan, each individual's remaining deductible amount (if any) on the date COBRA continuation coverage begins is equal to that individual's remaining deductible amount immediately before that date.

(c) If a deductible is computed on a family basis, the remaining deductible for the family on the date that COBRA continuation coverage begins depends on the members of the family electing COBRA continuation coverage. In computing the family deductible that remains on the date COBRA continuation coverage begins, only the expenses of those family members receiving COBRA continuation coverage need be taken into account. If the qualifying event results in there being more than one family unit (for example, because of a divorce), the family deductible may be computed separately for each resulting family unit based on the members in each unit. These rules apply regardless of whether the plan provides that the family deductible is an alternative to individual deductibles or an additional requirement.

(d) Deductibles that are not described in paragraph (b) or (c) of this Q&A-2 must be treated in a manner consistent with the principles set forth in those paragraphs.

(e) If a deductible is computed on the basis of a covered employee's compensation instead of being a fixed dollar amount and the employee remains employed during the period of COBRA continuation coverage, the plan is permitted to choose whether to apply the deductible by treating the employee's compensation as continuing without change for the duration of the COBRA continuation coverage at the level that was used to compute the deductible in effect immediately before the COBRA continuation coverage began, or to apply the deductible by taking the employee's actual compensation into account. In applying a deductible that is computed on the basis of the covered employee's compensation instead of being a fixed dollar amount, for periods of COBRA continuation coverage in which the employee is not employed by the employer, the plan is required to compute the deductible by treating the employee's compensation as continuing without change for the duration of the COBRA continuation coverage either at the level that was used to compute the deductible in effect immediately before the COBRA continuation coverage began or at the level that was used to compute the deductible in effect immediately before the employee's employment was terminated.

(f) The rules of this Q&A-2 are illustrated by the following examples; in each example, deductibles under the plan are determined on a calendar year basis:

Example 1. (i) A group health plan applies a separate $100 annual deductible to each individual it covers. The plan provides that the spouse and dependent children of a covered employee will lose coverage on the last day of the month after the month of the covered employee's death. A covered employee dies on June 11, 2001. The spouse and the two dependent children elect COBRA continuation coverage, which will begin on August 1, 2001. As of July 31, 2001, the spouse has incurred $80 of covered expenses, the older child has incurred no covered expenses, and the younger one has incurred $120 of covered expenses (and therefore has already satisfied the deductible).

(ii) At the beginning of COBRA continuation coverage on August 1, the spouse has a remaining deductible of $20, the older child still has the full $100 deductible, and the younger one has no further deductible.

Example 2. (i) A group health plan applies a separate $200 annual deductible to each individual it covers, except that each family member is treated as having satisfied the individual deductible once the family has incurred $500 of covered expenses during the year. The plan provides that upon the divorce of a covered employee, coverage will end immediately for the employee's spouse and any children who do not remain in the employee's custody. A covered employee with four dependent children is divorced, the spouse obtains custody of the two oldest children, and the spouse and those children all elect COBRA continuation coverage to begin immediately. The family had accumulated $420 of covered expenses before the divorce, as follows: $70 by each parent, $200 by the oldest child, $80 by the youngest child, and none by the other two children.

(ii) The resulting family consisting of the spouse and the two oldest children accumulated a total of $270 of covered expenses, and thus the remaining deductible for that family could be as high as $230 (because the plan would not have to count the incurred expenses of the covered employee and the youngest child). The remaining deductible for the resulting family consisting of the covered employee and the two youngest children is not subject to the rules of this Q&A-2 because their coverage is not COBRA continuation coverage.

Example 3.Each year a group health plan pays 70 percent of the cost of an individual's psychotherapy after that individual's first three visits during the year. A qualified beneficiary whose election of COBRA continuation coverage takes effect beginning August 1, 2001 and who has already made two visits as of that date need only pay for one more visit before the plan must begin to pay 70 percent of the cost of the remaining visits during 2001.

Example 4. (i) A group health plan has a $250 annual deductible per covered individual. The plan provides that if the deductible is not satisfied in a particular year, expenses incurred during October through December of that year are credited toward satisfaction of the deductible in the next year. A qualified beneficiary who has incurred covered expenses of $150 from January through September of 2001 and $40 during October elects COBRA continuation coverage beginning November 1, 2001.

(ii) The remaining deductible amount for this qualified beneficiary is $60 at the beginning of the COBRA continuation coverage. If this individual incurs covered expenses of $50 in November and December of 2001 combined (so that the $250 deductible for 2001 is not satisfied), the $90 incurred from October through December of 2001 are credited toward satisfaction of the deductible amount for 2002.

Q-3: How do a plan's limits apply to COBRA continuation coverage?

A-3: (a) Limits are treated in the same way as deductibles (see Q&A-2 of this section). This rule applies both to limits on plan benefits (such as a maximum number of hospital days or dollar amount of reimbursable expenses) and limits on out-of-pocket expenses (such as a limit on copayments, a limit on deductibles plus copayments, or a catastrophic limit). This rule applies equally to annual and lifetime limits and applies equally to limits on specific benefits and limits on benefits in the aggregate under the plan.

(b) The rule of this Q&A-3 is illustrated by the following examples; in each example limits are determined on a calendar year basis:

Example 1. (i) A group health plan pays for a maximum of 150 days of hospital confinement per individual per year. A covered employee who has had 20 days of hospital confinement as of May 1, 2001 terminates employment and elects COBRA continuation coverage as of that date.

(ii) During the remainder of the year 2001 the plan need only pay for a maximum of 130 days of hospital confinement for this individual.

Example 2. (i) A group health plan reimburses a maximum of $20,000 of covered expenses per family per year, and the same $20,000 limit applies to unmarried covered employees. A covered employee and spouse who have no children divorce on May 1, 2001, and the spouse elects COBRA continuation coverage as of that date. In 2001, the employee had incurred $5,000 of expenses and the spouse had incurred $8,000 before May 1.

(ii) The plan can limit its reimbursement of the amount of expenses incurred by the spouse on and after May 1 for the remainder of the year to $12,000 ($20,000−$8,000 = $12,000). The remaining limit for the employee is not subject to the rules of this Q&A-3 because the employee's coverage is not COBRA continuation coverage.

Example 3. (i) A group health plan pays for 80 percent of covered expenses after satisfaction of a $100-per-individual deductible, and the plan pays for 100 percent of covered expenses after a family has incurred out-of-pocket costs of $2,000. The plan provides that upon the divorce of a covered employee, coverage will end immediately for the employee's spouse and any children who do not remain in the employee's custody. An employee and spouse with three dependent children divorce on June 1, 2001, and one of the children remains with the employee. The spouse elects COBRA continuation coverage as of that date for the spouse and the other two children. During January through May of 2001, the spouse incurred $600 of covered expenses and each of the two children in the spouse's custody after the divorce incurred covered expenses of $1,100. This resulted in total out-of-pocket costs for these three individuals of $800 ($300 total for the three deductibles, plus $500 for 20 percent of the other $2,500 in incurred expenses [$600 + $1,100 + $1,100 = $2,800; $2,800−$300 = $2,500]).

(ii) For the remainder of 2001, the resulting family consisting of the spouse and two children has an out-of-pocket limit of $1,200 ($2,000−$800 = $1,200) . The remaining out-of-pocket limit for the resulting family consisting of the employee and one child is not subject to the rules of this Q&A-3 because their coverage is not COBRA continuation coverage.

Q-4: Can a qualified beneficiary who elects COBRA continuation coverage ever change from the coverage received by that individual immediately before the qualifying event?

A-4: (a) In general, a qualified beneficiary need only be given an opportunity to continue the coverage that she or he was receiving immediately before the qualifying event. This is true regardless of whether the coverage received by the qualified beneficiary before the qualifying event ceases to be of value to the qualified beneficiary, such as in the case of a qualified beneficiary covered under a region-specific health maintenance organization (HMO) who leaves the HMO's service region. The only situations in which a qualified beneficiary must be allowed to change from the coverage received immediately before the qualifying event are as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Q&A-4 and in Q&A-1 of this section (regarding changes to or elimination of the coverage provided to similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries).

(b) If a qualified beneficiary participates in a region-specific benefit package (such as an HMO or an on-site clinic) that will not service her or his health needs in the area to which she or he is relocating (regardless of the reason for the relocation), the qualified beneficiary must be given, within a reasonable period after requesting other coverage, an opportunity to elect alternative coverage that the employer or employee organization makes available to active employees. If the employer or employee organization makes group health plan coverage available to similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries that can be extended in the area to which the qualified beneficiary is relocating, then that coverage is the alternative coverage that must be made available to the relocating qualified beneficiary. If the employer or employee organization does not make group health plan coverage available to similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries that can be extended in the area to which the qualified beneficiary is relocating but makes coverage available to other employees that can be extended in that area, then the coverage made available to those other employees must be made available to the relocating qualified beneficiary. The effective date of the alternative coverage must be not later than the date of the qualified beneficiary's relocation, or, if later, the first day of the month following the month in which the qualified beneficiary requests the alternative coverage. However, the employer or employee organization is not required to make any other coverage available to the relocating qualified beneficiary if the only coverage the employer or employee organization makes available to active employees is not available in the area to which the qualified beneficiary relocates (because all such coverage is region-specific and does not service individuals in that area).

(c) If an employer or employee organization makes an open enrollment period available to similarly situated active employees with respect to whom a qualifying event has not occurred, the same open enrollment period rights must be made available to each qualified beneficiary receiving COBRA continuation coverage. An open enrollment period means a period during which an employee covered under a plan can choose to be covered under another group health plan or under another benefit package within the same plan, or to add or eliminate coverage of family members.

(d) The rules of this Q&A-4 are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. (i) E is an employee who works for an employer that maintains several group health plans. Under the terms of the plans, if an employee chooses to cover any family members under a plan, all family members must be covered by the same plan and that plan must be the same as the plan covering the employee. Immediately before E's termination of employment (for reasons other than gross misconduct), E is covered along with E's spouse and children by a plan. The coverage under that plan will end as a result of the termination of employment.

(ii) Upon E's termination of employment, each of the four family members is a qualified beneficiary. Even though the employer maintains various other plans and options, it is not necessary for the qualified beneficiaries to be allowed to switch to a new plan when E terminates employment.

(iii) COBRA continuation coverage is elected for each of the four family members. Three months after E's termination of employment there is an open enrollment period during which similarly situated active employees are offered an opportunity to choose to be covered under a new plan or to add or eliminate family coverage.

(iv) During the open enrollment period, each of the four qualified beneficiaries must be offered the opportunity to switch to another plan (as though each qualified beneficiary were an individual employee). For example, each member of E's family could choose coverage under a separate plan, even though the family members of employed individuals could not choose coverage under separate plans. Of course, if each family member chooses COBRA continuation coverage under a separate plan, the plan can require payment for each family member that is based on the applicable premium for individual coverage under that separate plan. See Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-8.

Example 2. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that E's family members are not covered under E's group health plan when E terminates employment.

(ii) Although the family members do not have to be given an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage, E must be allowed to add them to E's COBRA continuation coverage during the open enrollment period. This is true even though the family members are not, and cannot become, qualified beneficiaries (see Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-3).

Q-5: Aside from open enrollment periods, can a qualified beneficiary who has elected COBRA continuation coverage choose to cover individuals (such as newborn children, adopted children, or new spouses) who join the qualified beneficiary's family on or after the date of the qualifying event?

A-5: (a) Yes. Under section 9801, employees eligible to participate in a group health plan (whether or not participating), as well as former employees participating in a plan (referred to in those rules as participants), are entitled to special enrollment rights for certain family members upon the loss of other group health plan coverage or upon the acquisition by the employee or participant of a new spouse or of a new dependent through birth, adoption, or placement for adoption, if certain requirements are satisfied. Employees not participating in the plan also can obtain rights for self-enrollment under those rules. Once a qualified beneficiary is receiving COBRA continuation coverage (that is, has timely elected and made timely payment for COBRA continuation coverage), the qualified beneficiary has the same right to enroll family members under those special enrollment rules as if the qualified beneficiary were an employee or participant within the meaning of those rules. However, neither a qualified beneficiary who is not receiving COBRA continuation coverage nor a former qualified beneficiary has any special enrollment rights under those rules.

(b) In addition to the special enrollment rights described in paragraph (a) of this Q&A-5, if the plan covering the qualified beneficiary provides that new family members of active employees can become covered (either automatically or upon an appropriate election) before the next open enrollment period, then the same right must be extended to the new family members of a qualified beneficiary.

(c) If the addition of a new family member will result in a higher applicable premium (for example, if the qualified beneficiary was previously receiving COBRA continuation coverage as an individual, or if the applicable premium for family coverage depends on family size), the plan can require the payment of a correspondingly higher amount for the COBRA continuation coverage. See Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-8.

(d) The right to add new family members under this Q&A-5 is in addition to the rights that newborn and adopted children of covered employees may have as qualified beneficiaries; see Q&A-1 in § 54.4980B-3.

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5180, Feb. 3, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1852, Jan. 10, 2001]

§ 54.4980B-6 Electing COBRA continuation coverage.

The following questions-and-answers address the manner in which COBRA continuation coverage is elected:

Q-1: What is the election period and how long must it last?

A-1: (a) A group health plan can condition the availability of COBRA continuation coverage upon the timely election of such coverage. An election of COBRA continuation coverage is a timely election if it is made during the election period. The election period must begin not later than the date the qualified beneficiary would lose coverage on account of the qualifying event. (See paragraph (c) of Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-4 for the meaning of lose coverage.) The election period must not end before the date that is 60 days after the later of—

(1) The date the qualified beneficiary would lose coverage on account of the qualifying event; or

(2) The date notice is provided to the qualified beneficiary of her or his right to elect COBRA continuation coverage.

(b) An election is considered to be made on the date it is sent to the plan administrator.

(c) The rules of this Q&A-1 are illustrated by the following example:

Example. (i) An unmarried employee without children who is receiving employer-paid coverage under a group health plan voluntarily terminates employment on June 1, 2001. The employee is not disabled at the time of the termination of employment nor at any time thereafter, and the plan does not provide for the extension of the required periods (as is permitted under paragraph (b) of Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-7).

(ii) Case 1: If the plan provides that the employer-paid coverage ends immediately upon the termination of employment, the election period must begin not later than June 1, 2001, and must not end earlier than July 31, 2001. If notice of the right to elect COBRA continuation coverage is not provided to the employee until June 15, 2001, the election period must not end earlier than August 14, 2001.

(iii) Case 2: If the plan provides that the employer-paid coverage does not end until 6 months after the termination of employment, the employee does not lose coverage until December 1, 2001. The election period can therefore begin as late as December 1, 2001, and must not end before January 30, 2002.

(iv) Case 3: If employer-paid coverage for 6 months after the termination of employment is offered only to those qualified beneficiaries who waive COBRA continuation coverage, the employee loses coverage on June 1, 2001, so the election period is the same as in Case 1. The difference between Case 2 and Case 3 is that in Case 2 the employee can receive 6 months of employer-paid coverage and then elect to pay for up to an additional 12 months of COBRA continuation coverage, while in Case 3 the employee must choose between 6 months of employer-paid coverage and paying for up to 18 months of COBRA continuation coverage. In all three cases, COBRA continuation coverage need not be provided for more than 18 months after the termination of employment (see Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-7), and in certain circumstances might be provided for a shorter period (see Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-7).

Q-2: Is a covered employee or qualified beneficiary responsible for informing the plan administrator of the occurrence of a qualifying event?

A-2: (a) In general, the employer or plan administrator must determine when a qualifying event has occurred. However, each covered employee or qualified beneficiary is responsible for notifying the plan administrator of the occurrence of a qualifying event that is either a dependent child's ceasing to be a dependent child under the generally applicable requirements of the plan or a divorce or legal separation of a covered employee. The group health plan is not required to offer the qualified beneficiary an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage if the notice is not provided to the plan administrator within 60 days after the later of—

(1) The date of the qualifying event; or

(2) The date the qualified beneficiary would lose coverage on account of the qualifying event.

(b) For purposes of this Q&A-2, if more than one qualified beneficiary would lose coverage on account of a divorce or legal separation of a covered employee, a timely notice of the divorce or legal separation that is provided by the covered employee or any one of those qualified beneficiaries will be sufficient to preserve the election rights of all of the qualified beneficiaries.

Q-3: During the election period and before the qualified beneficiary has made an election, must coverage be provided?

A-3: (a) In general, each qualified beneficiary has until 60 days after the later of the date the qualifying event would cause her or him to lose coverage or the date notice is provided to the qualified beneficiary of her or his right to elect COBRA continuation coverage to decide whether to elect COBRA continuation coverage. If the election is made during that period, coverage must be provided from the date that coverage would otherwise have been lost (but see Q&A-4 of this section). This can be accomplished as described in paragraph (b) or (c) of this Q&A-3.

(b) In the case of an indemnity or reimbursement arrangement, the employer or employee organization can provide for plan coverage during the election period or, if the plan allows retroactive reinstatement, the employer or employee organization can terminate the coverage of the qualified beneficiary and reinstate her or him when the election (and, if applicable, payment for the coverage) is made. Claims incurred by a qualified beneficiary during the election period do not have to be paid before the election (and, if applicable, payment for the coverage) is made. If a provider of health care (such as a physician, hospital, or pharmacy) contacts the plan to confirm coverage of a qualified beneficiary during the election period, the plan must give a complete response to the health care provider about the qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage rights during the election period. For example, if the plan provides coverage during the election period but cancels coverage retroactively if COBRA continuation coverage is not elected, then the plan must inform a provider that a qualified beneficiary for whom coverage has not been elected is covered but that the coverage is subject to retroactive termination. Similarly, if the plan cancels coverage but then retroactively reinstates it once COBRA continuation coverage is elected, then the plan must inform the provider that the qualified beneficiary currently does not have coverage but will have coverage retroactively to the date coverage was lost if COBRA continuation coverage is elected. (See paragraph (c) of Q&A-5 in § 54.4980B-8 for similar rules that a plan must follow in confirming coverage during a period when the plan has not received payment but that is still within the grace period for a qualified beneficiary for whom COBRA continuation coverage has been elected.)

(c)(1) In the case of a group health plan that provides health services (such as a health maintenance organization or a walk-in clinic), the plan can require with respect to a qualified beneficiary who has not elected and paid for COBRA continuation coverage that the qualified beneficiary choose between—

(i) Electing and paying for the coverage; or

(ii) Paying the reasonable and customary charge for the plan's services, but only if a qualified beneficiary who chooses to pay for the services will be reimbursed for that payment within 30 days after the election of COBRA continuation coverage (and, if applicable, the payment of any balance due for the coverage).

(2) In the alternative, the plan can provide continued coverage and treat the qualified beneficiary's use of the facility as a constructive election. In such a case, the qualified beneficiary is obligated to pay any applicable charge for the coverage, but only if the qualified beneficiary is informed that use of the facility will be a constructive election before using the facility.

Q-4: Is a waiver before the end of the election period effective to end a qualified beneficiary's election rights?

A-4: If, during the election period, a qualified beneficiary waives COBRA continuation coverage, the waiver can be revoked at any time before the end of the election period. Revocation of the waiver is an election of COBRA continuation coverage. However, if a waiver of COBRA continuation coverage is later revoked, coverage need not be provided retroactively (that is, from the date of the loss of coverage until the waiver is revoked). Waivers and revocations of waivers are considered made on the date they are sent to the employer, employee organization, or plan administrator, as applicable.

Q-5: Can an employer or employee organization withhold money or other benefits owed to a qualified beneficiary until the qualified beneficiary either waives COBRA continuation coverage, elects and pays for such coverage, or allows the election period to expire?

A-5: No. An employer, and an employee organization, must not withhold anything to which a qualified beneficiary is otherwise entitled (by operation of law or other agreement) in order to compel payment for COBRA continuation coverage or to coerce the qualified beneficiary to give up rights to COBRA continuation coverage (including the right to use the full election period to decide whether to elect such coverage). Such a withholding constitutes a failure to comply with the COBRA continuation coverage requirements. Furthermore, any purported waiver obtained by means of such a withholding is invalid.

Q-6: Can each qualified beneficiary make an independent election under COBRA?

A-6: Yes. Each qualified beneficiary (including a child who is born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage) must be offered the opportunity to make an independent election to receive COBRA continuation coverage. If the plan allows similarly situated active employees with respect to whom a qualifying event has not occurred to choose among several options during an open enrollment period (for example, to switch to another group health plan or to another benefit package under the same group health plan), then each qualified beneficiary must also be offered an independent election to choose during an open enrollment period among the options made available to similarly situated active employees with respect to whom a qualifying event has not occurred. If a qualified beneficiary who is either a covered employee or the spouse of a covered employee elects COBRA continuation coverage and the election does not specify whether the election is for self-only coverage, the election is deemed to include an election of COBRA continuation coverage on behalf of all other qualified beneficiaries with respect to that qualifying event. An election on behalf of a minor child can be made by the child's parent or legal guardian. An election on behalf of a qualified beneficiary who is incapacitated or dies can be made by the legal representative of the qualified beneficiary or the qualified beneficiary's estate, as determined under applicable state law, or by the spouse of the qualified beneficiary. (See also Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-7 relating to the independent right of each qualified beneficiary with respect to the same qualifying event to receive COBRA continuation coverage during the disability extension.) The rules of this Q&A-6 are illustrated by the following examples; in each example each group health plan is subject to COBRA:

Example 1. (i) Employee H and H's spouse are covered under a group health plan immediately before H's termination of employment (for reasons other than gross misconduct). Coverage under the plan will end as a result of the termination of employment.

(ii) Upon H's termination of employment, both H and H's spouse are qualified beneficiaries and each must be allowed to elect COBRA continuation coverage. Thus, H might elect COBRA continuation coverage while the spouse declines to elect such coverage, or H might elect COBRA continuation coverage for both of them. In contrast, H cannot decline COBRA continuation coverage on behalf of H's spouse. Thus, if H does not elect COBRA continuation coverage on behalf of the spouse, the spouse must still be allowed to elect COBRA continuation coverage.

Example 2. (i) An employer maintains a group health plan under which all employees receive employer-paid coverage. Employees can arrange to cover their families by paying an additional amount. The employer also maintains a cafeteria plan, under which one of the options is to pay part or all of the employee share of the cost for family coverage under the group health plan. Thus, an employee might pay for family coverage under the group health plan partly with before-tax dollars and partly with after-tax dollars.

(ii) If an employee's family is receiving coverage under the group health plan when a qualifying event occurs, each of the qualified beneficiaries must be offered an opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage, regardless of how that qualified beneficiary's coverage was paid for before the qualifying event.

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5182, Feb. 3, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1853, Jan. 10, 2001]

§ 54.4980B-7 Duration of COBRA continuation coverage.

The following questions-and-answers address the duration of COBRA continuation coverage:

Q-1: How long must COBRA continuation coverage be made available to a qualified beneficiary?

A-1: (a) Except for an interruption of coverage in connection with a waiver, as described in Q&A-4 of § 54.4980B-6, COBRA continuation coverage that has been elected for a qualified beneficiary must extend for at least the period beginning on the date of the qualifying event and ending not before the earliest of the following dates—

(1) The last day of the maximum coverage period (see Q&A-4 of this section);

(2) The first day for which timely payment is not made to the plan with respect to the qualified beneficiary (see Q&A-5 in § 54.4980B-8);

(3) The date upon which the employer or employee organization ceases to provide any group health plan (including successor plans) to any employee;

(4) The date, after the date of the election, upon which the qualified beneficiary first becomes covered under any other group health plan, as described in Q&A-2 of this section;

(5) The date, after the date of the election, upon which the qualified beneficiary first becomes entitled to Medicare benefits, as described in Q&A-3 of this section; and

(6) In the case of a qualified beneficiary entitled to a disability extension (see Q&A-5 of this section), the later of—

(i) Either 29 months after the date of the qualifying event, or the first day of the month that is more than 30 days after the date of a final determination under title II or XVI of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 401-433 or 1381-1385) that the disabled qualified beneficiary whose disability resulted in the qualified beneficiary's being entitled to the disability extension is no longer disabled, whichever is earlier; or

(ii) The end of the maximum coverage period that applies to the qualified beneficiary without regard to the disability extension.

(b) However, a group health plan can terminate for cause the coverage of a qualified beneficiary receiving COBRA continuation coverage on the same basis that the plan terminates for cause the coverage of similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries. For example, if a group health plan terminates the coverage of active employees for the submission of a fraudulent claim, then the coverage of a qualified beneficiary can also be terminated for the submission of a fraudulent claim. Notwithstanding the preceding two sentences, the coverage of a qualified beneficiary can be terminated for failure to make timely payment to the plan only if payment is not timely under the rules of Q&A-5 in § 54.4980B-8.

(c) In the case of an individual who is not a qualified beneficiary and who is receiving coverage under a group health plan solely because of the individual's relationship to a qualified beneficiary, if the plan's obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to the qualified beneficiary ceases under this section, the plan is not obligated to make coverage available to the individual who is not a qualified beneficiary.

Q-2: When may a plan terminate a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage due to coverage under another group health plan?

A-2: (a) If a qualified beneficiary first becomes covered under another group health plan (including for this purpose any group health plan of a governmental employer or employee organization) after the date on which COBRA continuation coverage is elected for the qualified beneficiary and the other coverage satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this Q&A-2, then the plan may terminate the qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage upon the date on which the qualified beneficiary first becomes covered under the other group health plan (even if the other coverage is less valuable to the qualified beneficiary). By contrast, if a qualified beneficiary first becomes covered under another group health plan on or before the date on which COBRA continuation coverage is elected, then the other coverage cannot be a basis for terminating the qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage.

(b) The requirement of this paragraph (b) is satisfied if the qualified beneficiary is actually covered, rather than merely eligible to be covered, under the other group health plan.

(c) The requirement of this paragraph (c) is satisfied if the other group health plan is a plan that is not maintained by the employer or employee organization that maintains the plan under which COBRA continuation coverage must otherwise be made available.

(d) The requirement of this paragraph (d) is satisfied if the other group health plan does not contain any exclusion or limitation with respect to any preexisting condition of the qualified beneficiary (other than such an exclusion or limitation that does not apply to, or is satisfied by, the qualified beneficiary by reason of the provisions in section 9801 (relating to limitations on preexisting condition exclusion periods in group health plans)).

(e) The rules of this Q&A-2 are illustrated by the following examples:

Example 1. (i) Employer X maintains a group health plan subject to COBRA. C is an employee covered under the plan. C is also covered under a group health plan maintained by Employer Y, the employer of C's spouse. C terminates employment (for reasons other than gross misconduct), and the termination of employment causes C to lose coverage under X's plan (and, thus, is a qualifying event). C elects to receive COBRA continuation coverage under X's plan.

(ii) Under these facts, X's plan cannot terminate C's COBRA continuation coverage on the basis of C's coverage under Y's plan.

Example 2. (i) Employer W maintains a group health plan subject to COBRA. D is an employee covered under the plan. D terminates employment (for reasons other than gross misconduct), and the termination of employment causes D to lose coverage under W's plan (and, thus, is a qualifying event). D elects to receive COBRA continuation coverage under W's plan. Later D becomes employed by Employer V and is covered under V's group health plan. D's coverage under V's plan is not subject to any exclusion or limitation with respect to any preexisting condition of D.

(ii) Under these facts, W can terminate D's COBRA continuation coverage on the date D becomes covered under V's plan.

Example 3. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 2, except that D becomes employed by V and becomes covered under V's group health plan before D elects COBRA continuation coverage under W's plan.

(ii) Because the termination of employment is a qualifying event, D must be offered COBRA continuation coverage under W's plan, and W is not permitted to terminate D's COBRA continuation coverage on account of D's coverage under V's plan because D first became covered under V's plan before COBRA continuation coverage was elected for D.

Q-3: When may a plan terminate a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage due to the qualified beneficiary's entitlement to Medicare benefits?

A-3: (a) If a qualified beneficiary first becomes entitled to Medicare benefits under title XVIII of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395-1395ggg) after the date on which COBRA continuation coverage is elected for the qualified beneficiary, then the plan may terminate the qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage upon the date on which the qualified beneficiary becomes so entitled. By contrast, if a qualified beneficiary first becomes entitled to Medicare benefits on or before the date that COBRA continuation coverage is elected, then the qualified beneficiary's entitlement to Medicare benefits cannot be a basis for terminating the qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage.

(b) A qualified beneficiary becomes entitled to Medicare benefits upon the effective date of enrollment in either part A or B, whichever occurs earlier. Thus, merely being eligible to enroll in Medicare does not constitute being entitled to Medicare benefits.

Q-4: When does the maximum coverage period end?

A-4: (a) Except as otherwise provided in this Q&A-4, the maximum coverage period ends 36 months after the qualifying event. The maximum coverage period for a qualified beneficiary who is a child born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage is the maximum coverage period for the qualifying event giving rise to the period of COBRA continuation coverage during which the child was born or placed for adoption. Paragraph (b) of this Q&A-4 describes the starting point from which the end of the maximum coverage period is measured. The date that the maximum coverage period ends is described in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-4 in a case where the qualifying event is a termination of employment or reduction of hours of employment, in paragraph (d) of this Q&A-4 in a case where a covered employee becomes entitled to Medicare benefits under title XVIII of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395-1395ggg) before experiencing a qualifying event that is a termination of employment or reduction of hours of employment, and in paragraph (e) of this Q&A-4 in the case of a qualifying event that is the bankruptcy of the employer. See Q&A-8 of § 54.4980B-2 for limitations that apply to certain health flexible spending arrangements. See also Q&A-6 of this section in the case of multiple qualifying events. Nothing in §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 prohibits a group health plan from providing coverage that continues beyond the end of the maximum coverage period.

(b)(1) The end of the maximum coverage period is measured from the date of the qualifying event even if the qualifying event does not result in a loss of coverage under the plan until a later date. If, however, coverage under the plan is lost at a later date and the plan provides for the extension of the required periods, then the maximum coverage period is measured from the date when coverage is lost. A plan provides for the extension of the required periods if it provides both—

(i) That the 30-day notice period (during which the employer is required to notify the plan administrator of the occurrence of certain qualifying events such as the death of the covered employee or the termination of employment or reduction of hours of employment of the covered employee) begins on the date of the loss of coverage rather than on the date of the qualifying event; and

(ii) That the end of the maximum coverage period is measured from the date of the loss of coverage rather than from the date of the qualifying event.

(2) In the case of a plan that provides for the extension of the required periods, whenever the rules of §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10 refer to the measurement of a period from the date of the qualifying event, those rules apply in such a case by measuring the period instead from the date of the loss of coverage.

(c) In the case of a qualifying event that is a termination of employment or reduction of hours of employment, the maximum coverage period ends 18 months after the qualifying event if there is no disability extension, and 29 months after the qualifying event if there is a disability extension. See Q&A-5 of this section for rules to determine if there is a disability extension. If there is a disability extension and the disabled qualified beneficiary is later determined to no longer be disabled, then a plan may terminate the COBRA continuation coverage of an affected qualified beneficiary before the end of the disability extension; see paragraph (a)(6) in Q&A-1 of this section.

(d)(1) If a covered employee becomes entitled to Medicare benefits under title XVIII of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395-1395ggg) before experiencing a qualifying event that is a termination of employment or reduction of hours of employment, the maximum coverage period for qualified beneficiaries other than the covered employee ends on the later of—

(i) 36 months after the date the covered employee became entitled to Medicare benefits; or

(ii) 18 months (or 29 months, if there is a disability extension) after the date of the covered employee's termination of employment or reduction of hours of employment.

(2) See paragraph (b) of Q&A-3 of this section regarding the determination of when a covered employee becomes entitled to Medicare benefits.

(e) In the case of a qualifying event that is the bankruptcy of the employer, the maximum coverage period for a qualified beneficiary who is the retired covered employee ends on the date of the retired covered employee's death. The maximum coverage period for a qualified beneficiary who is the spouse, surviving spouse, or dependent child of the retired covered employee ends on the earlier of—

(1) The date of the qualified beneficiary's death; or

(2) The date that is 36 months after the death of the retired covered employee.

Q-5: How does a qualified beneficiary become entitled to a disability extension?

A-5: (a) A qualified beneficiary becomes entitled to a disability extension if the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this Q&A-5 are satisfied with respect to the qualified beneficiary. If the disability extension applies with respect to a qualifying event, it applies with respect to each qualified beneficiary entitled to COBRA continuation coverage because of that qualifying event. Thus, for example, the 29-month maximum coverage period applies to each qualified beneficiary who is not disabled as well as to the qualified beneficiary who is disabled, and it applies independently with respect to each of the qualified beneficiaries. See Q&A-1 in § 54.4980B-8, which permits a plan to require payment of an increased amount during the disability extension.

(b) The requirement of this paragraph (b) is satisfied if a qualifying event occurs that is a termination, or reduction of hours, of a covered employee's employment.

(c) The requirement of this paragraph (c) is satisfied if an individual (whether or not the covered employee) who is a qualified beneficiary in connection with the qualifying event described in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-5 is determined under title II or XVI of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 401-433 or 1381-1385) to have been disabled at any time during the first 60 days of COBRA continuation coverage. For this purpose, the period of the first 60 days of COBRA continuation coverage is measured from the date of the qualifying event described in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-5 (except that if a loss of coverage would occur at a later date in the absence of an election for COBRA continuation coverage and if the plan provides for the extension of the required periods (as described in paragraph (b) of Q&A-4 of this section) then the period of the first 60 days of COBRA continuation coverage is measured from the date on which the coverage would be lost). However, in the case of a qualified beneficiary who is a child born to or placed for adoption with a covered employee during a period of COBRA continuation coverage, the period of the first 60 days of COBRA continuation coverage is measured from the date of birth or placement for adoption. For purposes of this paragraph (c), an individual is determined to be disabled within the first 60 days of COBRA continuation coverage if the individual has been determined under title II or XVI of the Social Security Act to have been disabled before the first day of COBRA continuation coverage and has not been determined to be no longer disabled at any time between the date of that disability determination and the first day of COBRA continuation coverage.

(d) The requirement of this paragraph (d) is satisfied if any of the qualified beneficiaries affected by the qualifying event described in paragraph (b) of this Q&A-5 provides notice to the plan administrator of the disability determination on a date that is both within 60 days after the date the determination is issued and before the end of the original 18-month maximum coverage period that applies to the qualifying event.

Q-6: Under what circumstances can the maximum coverage period be expanded?

A-6: (a) The maximum coverage period can be expanded if the requirements of Q&A-5 of this section (relating to the disability extension) or paragraph (b) of this Q&A-6 are satisfied.

(b) The requirements of this paragraph (b) are satisfied if a qualifying event that gives rise to an 18-month maximum coverage period (or a 29-month maximum coverage period in the case of a disability extension) is followed, within that 18-month period (or within that 29-month period, in the case of a disability extension), by a second qualifying event (for example, a death or a divorce) that gives rise to a 36-month maximum coverage period. (Thus, a termination of employment following a qualifying event that is a reduction of hours of employment cannot be a second qualifying event that expands the maximum coverage period; the bankruptcy of an employer also cannot be a second qualifying event that expands the maximum coverage period.) In such a case, the original 18-month period (or 29-month period, in the case of a disability extension) is expanded to 36 months, but only for those individuals who were qualified beneficiaries under the group health plan in connection with the first qualifying event and who are still qualified beneficiaries at the time of the second qualifying event. No qualifying event (other than a qualifying event that is the bankruptcy of the employer) can give rise to a maximum coverage period that ends more than 36 months after the date of the first qualifying event (or more than 36 months after the date of the loss of coverage, in the case of a plan that provides for the extension of the required periods; see paragraph (b) in Q&A-4 of this section). For example, if an employee covered by a group health plan that is subject to COBRA terminates employment (for reasons other than gross misconduct) on December 31, 2000, the termination is a qualifying event giving rise to a maximum coverage period that extends for 18 months to June 30, 2002. If the employee dies after the employee and the employee's spouse and dependent children have elected COBRA continuation coverage and on or before June 30, 2002, the spouse and dependent children (except anyone among them whose COBRA continuation coverage had already ended for some other reason) will be able to receive COBRA continuation coverage through December 31, 2003. See Q&A-8(b) of § 54.4980B-2 for a special rule that applies to certain health flexible spending arrangements.

Q-7: If health coverage is provided to a qualified beneficiary after a qualifying event without regard to COBRA continuation coverage (for example, as a result of state or local law, the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 (38 U.S.C. 4315), industry practice, a collective bargaining agreement, severance agreement, or plan procedure), will such alternative coverage extend the maximum coverage period?

A-7: (a) No. The end of the maximum coverage period is measured solely as described in Q&A-4 and Q&A-6 of this section, which is generally from the date of the qualifying event.

(b) If the alternative coverage does not satisfy all the requirements for COBRA continuation coverage, or if the amount that the group health plan requires to be paid for the alternative coverage is greater than the amount required to be paid by similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries for the coverage that the qualified beneficiary can elect to receive as COBRA continuation coverage, the plan covering the qualified beneficiary immediately before the qualifying event must offer the qualified beneficiary receiving the alternative coverage the opportunity to elect COBRA continuation coverage. See Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-6.

(c) If an individual rejects COBRA continuation coverage in favor of alternative coverage, then, at the expiration of the alternative coverage period, the individual need not be offered a COBRA election. However, if the individual receiving alternative coverage is a covered employee and the spouse or a dependent child of the individual would lose that alternative coverage as a result of a qualifying event (such as the death of the covered employee), the spouse or dependent child must be given an opportunity to elect to continue that alternative coverage, with a maximum coverage period of 36 months measured from the date of that qualifying event.

Q-8: Must a qualified beneficiary be given the right to enroll in a conversion health plan at the end of the maximum coverage period for COBRA continuation coverage?

A-8: If a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage under a group health plan ends as a result of the expiration of the maximum coverage period, the group health plan must, during the 180-day period that ends on that expiration date, provide the qualified beneficiary the option of enrolling under a conversion health plan if such an option is otherwise generally available to similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries under the group health plan. If such a conversion option is not otherwise generally available, it need not be made available to qualified beneficiaries.

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5184, Feb. 3, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1853, Jan. 10, 2001]

§ 54.4980B-8 Paying for COBRA continuation coverage.

The following questions-and-answers address paying for COBRA continuation coverage:

Q-1: Can a group health plan require payment for COBRA continuation coverage?

A-1: (a) Yes. For any period of COBRA continuation coverage, a group health plan can require the payment of an amount that does not exceed 102 percent of the applicable premium for that period. (See paragraph (b) of this Q&A-1 for a rule permitting a plan to require payment of an increased amount due to the disability extension.) The applicable premium is defined in section 4980B(f)(4). A group health plan can terminate a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage as of the first day of any period for which timely payment is not made to the plan with respect to that qualified beneficiary (see Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-7). For the meaning of timely payment, see Q&A-5 of this section.

(b) A group health plan is permitted to require the payment of an amount that does not exceed 150 percent of the applicable premium for any period of COBRA continuation coverage covering a disabled qualified beneficiary (for example, whether single or family coverage) if the coverage would not be required to be made available in the absence of a disability extension. (See Q&A-5 of § 54.4980B-7 for rules to determine whether a qualified beneficiary is entitled to a disability extension.) A plan is not permitted to require the payment of an amount that exceeds 102 percent of the applicable premium for any period of COBRA continuation coverage to which a qualified beneficiary is entitled without regard to the disability extension. Thus, if a qualified beneficiary entitled to a disability extension experiences a second qualifying event within the original 18-month maximum coverage period, then the plan is not permitted to require the payment of an amount that exceeds 102 percent of the applicable premium for any period of COBRA continuation coverage. By contrast, if a qualified beneficiary entitled to a disability extension experiences a second qualifying event after the end of the original 18-month maximum coverage period, then the plan may require the payment of an amount that is up to 150 percent of the applicable premium for the remainder of the period of COBRA continuation coverage (that is, from the beginning of the 19th month through the end of the 36th month) as long as the disabled qualified beneficiary is included in that coverage. The rules of this paragraph (b) are illustrated by the following examples; in each example the group health plan is subject to COBRA:

Example 1. (i) An employer maintains a group health plan. The plan determines the cost of covering individuals under the plan by reference to two categories, individual coverage and family coverage, and the applicable premium is determined for those two categories. An employee and members of the employee's family are covered under the plan. The employee experiences a qualifying event that is the termination of the employee's employment. The employee's family qualifies for the disability extension because of the disability of the employee's spouse. (Timely notice of the disability is provided to the plan administrator.) Timely payment of the amount required by the plan for COBRA continuation coverage for the family (which does not exceed 102 percent of the cost of family coverage under the plan) was made to the plan with respect to the employee's family for the first 18 months of COBRA continuation coverage, and the disabled spouse and the rest of the family continue to receive COBRA continuation coverage through the 29th month.

(ii) Under these facts, the plan may require payment of up to 150 percent of the applicable premium for family coverage in order for the family to receive COBRA continuation coverage from the 19th month through the 29th month. If the plan determined the cost of coverage by reference to three categories (such as employee, employee-plus-one-dependent, employee-plus-two-or-more-dependents) or more than three categories, instead of two categories, the plan could still require, from the 19th month through the 29th month of COBRA continuation coverage, the payment of 150 percent of the cost of coverage for the category of coverage that included the disabled spouse.

Example 2. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that only the covered employee elects and pays for the first 18 months of COBRA continuation coverage.

(ii) Even though the employee's disabled spouse does not elect or pay for COBRA continuation coverage, the employee satisfies the requirements for the disability extension to apply with respect to the employee's qualifying event. Under these facts, the plan may not require the payment of more than 102 percent of the applicable premium for individual coverage for the entire period of the employee's COBRA continuation coverage, including the period from the 19th month through the 29th month. If COBRA continuation coverage had been elected and paid for with respect to other nondisabled members of the employee's family, then the plan could not require the payment of more than 102 percent of the applicable premium for family coverage (or for any other appropriate category of coverage that might apply to that group of qualified beneficiaries under the plan, such as employee-plus-one-dependent or employee-plus-two-or-more-dependents) for those family members to continue their coverage from the 19th month through the 29th month.

(c) A group health plan does not fail to comply with section 9802(b) (which generally prohibits an individual from being charged, on the basis of health status, a higher premium than that charged for similarly situated individuals enrolled in the plan) with respect to a qualified beneficiary entitled to the disability extension merely because the plan requires payment of an amount permitted under paragraph (b) of this Q&A-1.

Q-2: When is the applicable premium determined and when can a group health plan increase the amount it requires to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage?

A-2: (a) The applicable premium for each determination period must be computed and fixed by a group health plan before the determination period begins. A determination period is any 12-month period selected by the plan, but it must be applied consistently from year to year. The determination period is a single period for any benefit package. Thus, each qualified beneficiary does not have a separate determination period beginning on the date (or anniversaries of the date) that COBRA continuation coverage begins for that qualified beneficiary.

(b) During a determination period, a plan can increase the amount it requires to be paid for a qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage only in the following three cases:

(1) The plan has previously charged less than the maximum amount permitted under Q&A-1 of this section and the increased amount required to be paid does not exceed the maximum amount permitted under Q&A-1 of this section;

(2) The increase occurs during the disability extension and the increased amount required to be paid does not exceed the maximum amount permitted under paragraph (b) of Q&A-1 of this section; or

(3) A qualified beneficiary changes the coverage being received (see paragraph (c) of this Q&A-2 for rules on how the amount the plan requires to be paid may or must change when a qualified beneficiary changes the coverage being received).

(c) If a plan allows similarly situated active employees who have not experienced a qualifying event to change the coverage they are receiving, then the plan must also allow each qualified beneficiary to change the coverage being received on the same terms as the similarly situated active employees. (See Q&A-4 in § 54.4980B-5.) If a qualified beneficiary changes coverage from one benefit package (or a group of benefit packages) to another benefit package (or another group of benefit packages), or adds or eliminates coverage for family members, then the following rules apply. If the change in coverage is to a benefit package, group of benefit packages, or coverage unit (such as family coverage, self-plus-one-dependent, or self-plus-two-or-more-dependents) for which the applicable premium is higher, then the plan may increase the amount that it requires to be paid for COBRA continuation coverage to an amount that does not exceed the amount permitted under Q&A-1 of this section as applied to the new coverage. If the change in coverage is to a benefit package, group of benefit packages, or coverage unit (such as individual or self-plus-one-dependent) for which the applicable premium is lower, then the plan cannot require the payment of an amount that exceeds the amount permitted under Q&A-1 of this section as applied to the new coverage.

Q-3: Must a plan allow payment for COBRA continuation coverage to be made in monthly installments?

A-3: Yes. A group health plan must allow payment for COBRA continuation coverage to be made in monthly installments. A group health plan is permitted to also allow the alternative of payment for COBRA continuation coverage being made at other intervals (for example, weekly, quarterly, or semiannually).

Q-4: Is a plan required to allow a qualified beneficiary to choose to have the first payment for COBRA continuation coverage applied prospectively only?

A-4: No. A plan is permitted to apply the first payment for COBRA continuation coverage to the period of coverage beginning immediately after the date on which coverage under the plan would have been lost on account of the qualifying event. Of course, if the group health plan allows a qualified beneficiary to waive COBRA continuation coverage for any period before electing to receive COBRA continuation coverage, the first payment is not applied to the period of the waiver.

Q-5: What is timely payment for COBRA continuation coverage?

A-5: (a) Except as provided in this paragraph (a) or in paragraph (b) or (d) of this Q&A-5, timely payment for a period of COBRA continuation coverage under a group health plan means payment that is made to the plan by the date that is 30 days after the first day of that period. Payment that is made to the plan by a later date is also considered timely payment if either—

(1) Under the terms of the plan, covered employees or qualified beneficiaries are allowed until that later date to pay for their coverage for the period; or

(2) Under the terms of an arrangement between the employer or employee organization and an insurance company, health maintenance organization, or other entity that provides plan benefits on the employer's or employee organization's behalf, the employer or employee organization is allowed until that later date to pay for coverage of similarly situated nonCOBRA beneficiaries for the period.

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this Q&A-5, a plan cannot require payment for any period of COBRA continuation coverage for a qualified beneficiary earlier than 45 days after the date on which the election of COBRA continuation coverage is made for that qualified beneficiary.

(c) If, after COBRA continuation coverage has been elected for a qualified beneficiary, a provider of health care (such as a physician, hospital, or pharmacy) contacts the plan to confirm coverage of a qualified beneficiary for a period for which the plan has not yet received payment, the plan must give a complete response to the health care provider about the qualified beneficiary's COBRA continuation coverage rights, if any, described in paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of this Q&A-5. For example, if the plan provides coverage during the 30- and 45-day grace periods described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Q&A-5 but cancels coverage retroactively if payment is not made by the end of the applicable grace period, then the plan must inform a provider with respect to a qualified beneficiary for whom payment has not been received that the qualified beneficiary is covered but that the coverage is subject to retroactive termination if timely payment is not made. Similarly, if the plan cancels coverage if it has not received payment by the first day of a period of coverage but retroactively reinstates coverage if payment is made by the end of the grace period for that period of coverage, then the plan must inform the provider that the qualified beneficiary currently does not have coverage but will have coverage retroactively to the first date of the period if timely payment is made. (See paragraph (b) of Q&A-3 in § 54.4980B-6 for similar rules that the plan must follow in confirming coverage during the election period.)

(d) If timely payment is made to the plan in an amount that is not significantly less than the amount the plan requires to be paid for a period of coverage, then the amount paid is deemed to satisfy the plan's requirement for the amount that must be paid, unless the plan notifies the qualified beneficiary of the amount of the deficiency and grants a reasonable period of time for payment of the deficiency to be made. For this purpose, as a safe harbor, 30 days after the date the notice is provided is deemed to be a reasonable period of time. An amount is not significantly less than the amount the plan requires to be paid for a period of coverage if and only if the shortfall is no greater than the lesser of the following two amounts:

(1) Fifty dollars (or such other amount as the Commissioner may provide in a revenue ruling, notice, or other guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601(d)(2)(ii) of this chapter)); or

(2) 10 percent of the amount the plan requires to be paid.

(e) Payment is considered made on the date on which it is sent to the plan.

[T.D. 8812, 64 FR 5186, Feb. 3, 1999, as amended by T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1854, Jan. 10, 2001]

§ 54.4980B-9 Business reorganizations and employer withdrawals from multiemployer plans.

The following questions-and-answers address who has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to affected qualified beneficiaries in the context of business reorganizations and employer withdrawals from multiemployer plans:

Q-1: For purposes of this section, what are a business reorganization, a stock sale, and an asset sale?

A-1: For purposes of this section:

(a) A business reorganization is a stock sale or an asset sale.

(b) A stock sale is a transfer of stock in a corporation that causes the corporation to become a different employer or a member of a different employer. (See Q&A-2 of § 54.4980B-2, which defines employer to include all members of a controlled group of corporations.) Thus, for example, a sale or distribution of stock in a corporation that causes the corporation to cease to be a member of one controlled group of corporations, whether or not it becomes a member of another controlled group of corporations, is a stock sale.

(c) An asset sale is a transfer of substantial assets, such as a plant or division or substantially all the assets of a trade or business.

(d) The rules of § 1.414(b)-1 of this chapter apply in determining what constitutes a controlled group of corporations, and the rules of §§ 1.414(c)-1 through 1.414(c)-5 of this chapter apply in determining what constitutes a group of trades or businesses under common control.

Q-2: In the case of a stock sale, what are the selling group, the acquired organization, and the buying group?

A-2: In the case of a stock sale—

(a) The selling group is the controlled group of corporations, or the group of trades or businesses under common control, of which a corporation ceases to be a member as a result of the stock sale;

(b) The acquired organization is the corporation that ceases to be a member of the selling group as a result of the stock sale; and

(c) The buying group is the controlled group of corporations, or the group of trades or businesses under common control, of which the acquired organization becomes a member as a result of the stock sale. If the acquired organization does not become a member of such a group, the buying group is the acquired organization.

Q-3: In the case of an asset sale, what are the selling group and the buying group?

A-3: In the case of an asset sale—

(a) The selling group is the controlled group of corporations or the group of trades or businesses under common control that includes the corporation or other trade or business that is selling the assets; and

(b) The buying group is the controlled group of corporations or the group of trades or businesses under common control that includes the corporation or other trade or business that is buying the assets.

Q-4: Who is an M&A qualified beneficiary?

A-4: (a) Asset sales: In the case of an asset sale, an individual is an M&A qualified beneficiary if the individual is a qualified beneficiary whose qualifying event occurred prior to or in connection with the sale and who is, or whose qualifying event occurred in connection with, a covered employee whose last employment prior to the qualifying event was associated with the assets being sold.

(b) Stock sales: In the case of a stock sale, an individual is an M&A qualified beneficiary if the individual is a qualified beneficiary whose qualifying event occurred prior to or in connection with the sale and who is, or whose qualifying event occurred in connection with, a covered employee whose last employment prior to the qualifying event was with the acquired organization.

(c) In the case of a qualified beneficiary who has experienced more than one qualifying event with respect to her or his current right to COBRA continuation coverage, the qualifying event referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Q&A-4 is the first qualifying event.

Q-5: In the case of a stock sale, is the sale a qualifying event with respect to a covered employee who is employed by the acquired organization before the sale and who continues to be employed by the acquired organization after the sale, or with respect to the spouse or dependent children of such a covered employee?

A-5: No. A covered employee who continues to be employed by the acquired organization after the sale does not experience a termination of employment as a result of the sale. Accordingly, the sale is not a qualifying event with respect to the covered employee, or with respect to the covered employee's spouse or dependent children, regardless of whether they are provided with group health coverage after the sale, and neither the covered employee, nor the covered employee's spouse or dependent children, become qualified beneficiaries as a result of the sale.

Q-6: In the case of an asset sale, is the sale a qualifying event with respect to a covered employee whose employment immediately before the sale was associated with the purchased assets, or with respect to the spouse or dependent children of such a covered employee who are covered under a group health plan of the selling group immediately before the sale?

A-6: (a) Yes, unless—

(1) The buying group is a successor employer under paragraph (c) of Q&A-8 of this section or Q&A-2 of § 54.4980B-2, and the covered employee is employed by the buying group immediately after the sale; or

(2) The covered employee (or the spouse or any dependent child of the covered employee) does not lose coverage (within the meaning of paragraph (c) in Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-4) under a group health plan of the selling group after the sale.

(b) Unless the conditions in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this Q&A-6 are satisfied, such a covered employee experiences a termination of employment with the selling group as a result of the asset sale, regardless of whether the covered employee is employed by the buying group or whether the covered employee's employment is associated with the purchased assets after the sale. Accordingly, the covered employee, and the spouse and dependent children of the covered employee who lose coverage under a plan of the selling group in connection with the sale, are M&A qualified beneficiaries in connection with the sale.

Q-7: In a business reorganization, are the buying group and the selling group permitted to allocate by contract the responsibility to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries?

A-7: Yes. Nothing in this section prohibits a selling group and a buying group from allocating to one or the other of the parties in a purchase agreement the responsibility to provide the coverage required under §§ 54.4980B-1 through 54.4980B-10. However, if and to the extent that the party assigned this responsibility under the terms of the contract fails to perform, the party who has the obligation under Q&A-8 of this section to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries continues to have that obligation.

Q-8: Which group health plan has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries in a business reorganization?

A-8: (a) In the case of a business reorganization (whether a stock sale or an asset sale), so long as the selling group maintains a group health plan after the sale, a group health plan maintained by the selling group has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to that sale. This Q&A-8 prescribes rules for cases in which the selling group ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee in connection with the sale. Paragraph (b) of this Q&A-8 contains these rules for stock sales, and paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 contains these rules for asset sales. Neither a stock sale nor an asset sale has any effect on the COBRA continuation coverage requirements applicable to any group health plan for any period before the sale.

(b)(1) In the case of a stock sale, if the selling group ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee in connection with the sale, a group health plan maintained by the buying group has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to that stock sale. A group health plan of the buying group has this obligation beginning on the later of the following two dates and continuing as long as the buying group continues to maintain a group health plan (but subject to the rules in § 54.4980B-7, relating to the duration of COBRA continuation coverage)—

(i) The date the selling group ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee; or

(ii) The date of the stock sale.

(2) The determination of whether the selling group's cessation of providing any group health plan to any employee is in connection with the stock sale is based on all of the relevant facts and circumstances. A group health plan of the buying group does not, as a result of the stock sale, have an obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to those qualified beneficiaries of the selling group who are not M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to that sale.

(c)(1) In the case of an asset sale, if the selling group ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee in connection with the sale and if the buying group continues the business operations associated with the assets purchased from the selling group without interruption or substantial change, then the buying group is a successor employer to the selling group in connection with that asset sale. A buying group does not fail to be a successor employer in connection with an asset sale merely because the asset sale takes place in connection with a proceeding in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code. If the buying group is a successor employer, a group health plan maintained by the buying group has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to that asset sale. A group health plan of the buying group has this obligation beginning on the later of the following two dates and continuing as long as the buying group continues to maintain a group health plan (but subject to the rules in § 54.4980B-7, relating to the duration of COBRA continuation coverage)—

(i) The date the selling group ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee; or

(ii) The date of the asset sale.

(2) The determination of whether the selling group's cessation of providing any group health plan to any employee is in connection with the asset sale is based on all of the relevant facts and circumstances. A group health plan of the buying group does not, as a result of the asset sale, have an obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to those qualified beneficiaries of the selling group who are not M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to that sale.

(d) The rules of Q&A-1 through Q&A-7 of this section and this Q&A-8 are illustrated by the following examples; in each example, each group health plan is subject to COBRA:

Stock Sale Examples

Example 1. (i) Selling Group S consists of three corporations, A, B, and C. Buying Group P consists of two corporations, D and E. P enters into a contract to purchase all the stock of C from S effective July 1, 2002. Before the sale of C, S maintains a single group health plan for the employees of A, B, and C (and their families). P maintains a single group health plan for the employees of D and E (and their families). Effective July 1, 2002, the employees of C (and their families) become covered under P's plan. On June 30, 2002, there are 48 qualified beneficiaries receiving COBRA continuation coverage under S's plan, 15 of whom are M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the sale of C. (The other 33 qualified beneficiaries had qualifying events in connection with a covered employee whose last employment before the qualifying event was with either A or B.)

(ii) Under these facts, S's plan continues to have the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to the 15 M&A qualified beneficiaries under S's plan after the sale of C to P. The employees who continue in employment with C do not experience a qualifying event by virtue of P's acquisition of C. If they experience a qualifying event after the sale, then the group health plan of P has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to them.

Example 2. (i) Selling Group S consists of three corporations, A, B, and C. Each of A, B, and C maintains a group health plan for its employees (and their families). Buying Group P consists of two corporations, D and E. P enters into a contract to purchase all of the stock of C from S effective July 1, 2002. As of June 30, 2002, there are 14 qualified beneficiaries receiving COBRA continuation coverage under C's plan. C continues to employ all of its employees and continues to maintain its group health plan after being acquired by P on July 1, 2002.

(ii) Under these facts, C is an acquired organization and the 14 qualified beneficiaries under C's plan are M&A qualified beneficiaries. A group health plan of S (that is, either the plan maintained by A or the plan maintained by B) has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to the 14 M&A qualified beneficiaries. S and P could negotiate to have C's plan continue to make COBRA continuation coverage available to the 14 M&A qualified beneficiaries. In such a case, neither A's plan nor B's plan would make COBRA continuation coverage available to the 14 M&A qualified beneficiaries unless C's plan failed to fulfill its contractual responsibility to make COBRA continuation coverage available to the M&A qualified beneficiaries. C's employees (and their spouses and dependent children) do not experience a qualifying event in connection with P's acquisition of C, and consequently no plan maintained by either P or S has any obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to C's employees (or their spouses or dependent children) in connection with the transfer of stock in C from S to P.

Example 3. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 2, except that C ceases to employ two employees on June 30, 2002, and those two employees never become covered under P's plan.

(ii) Under these facts, the two employees experience a qualifying event on June 30, 2002 because their termination of employment causes a loss of group health coverage. A group health plan of S (that is, either the plan maintained by A or the plan maintained by B) has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to the two employees (and to any spouse or dependent child of the two employees who loses coverage under C's plan in connection with the termination of employment of the two employees) because they are M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the sale of C.

Example 4. (i) Selling Group S consists of three corporations, A, B, and C. Buying Group P consists of two corporations, D and E. P enters into a contract to purchase all of the stock of C from S effective July 1, 2002. Before the sale of C, S maintains a single group health plan for the employees of A, B, and C (and their families). P maintains a single group health plan for the employees of D and E (and their families). Effective July 1, 2002, the employees of C (and their families) become covered under P's plan. On June 30, 2002, there are 25 qualified beneficiaries receiving COBRA continuation coverage under S's plan, 20 of whom are M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the sale of C. (The other five qualified beneficiaries had qualifying events in connection with a covered employee whose last employment before the qualifying event was with either A or B.) S terminates its group health plan effective June 30, 2002 and begins to liquidate the assets of A and B and to lay off the employees of A and B.

(ii) Under these facts, S ceases to provide a group health plan to any employee in connection with the sale of C to P. Thus, beginning July 1, 2002 P's plan has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to the 20 M&A qualified beneficiaries, but P is not obligated to make COBRA continuation coverage available to the other 5 qualified beneficiaries with respect to S's plan as of June 30, 2002 or to any of the employees of A or B whose employment is terminated by S (or to any of those employees' spouses or dependent children).

Asset Sale Examples

Example 5. (i) Selling Group S provides group health plan coverage to employees at each of its operating divisions. S sells the assets of one of its divisions to Buying Group P. Under the terms of the group health plan covering the employees at the division being sold, their coverage will end on the date of the sale. P hires all but one of those employees, gives them the same positions that they had with S before the sale, and provides them with coverage under a group health plan. Immediately before the sale, there are two qualified beneficiaries receiving COBRA continuation coverage under a group health plan of S whose qualifying events occurred in connection with a covered employee whose last employment prior to the qualifying event was associated with the assets sold to P.

(ii) These two qualified beneficiaries are M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the asset sale to P. Under these facts, a group health plan of S retains the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to these two M&A qualified beneficiaries. In addition, the one employee P does not hire as well as all of the employees P hires (and the spouses and dependent children of these employees) who were covered under a group health plan of S on the day before the sale are M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the sale. A group health plan of S also has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to these M&A qualified beneficiaries.

Example 6. (i) Selling Group S provides group health plan coverage to employees at each of its operating divisions. S sells substantially all of the assets of all of its divisions to Buying Group P, and S ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee on the date of the sale. P hires all but one of S's employees on the date of the asset sale by S, gives those employees the same positions that they had with S before the sale, and continues the business operations of those divisions without substantial change or interruption. P provides these employees with coverage under a group health plan. Immediately before the sale, there are 10 qualified beneficiaries receiving COBRA continuation coverage under a group health plan of S whose qualifying events occurred in connection with a covered employee whose last employment prior to the qualifying event was associated with the assets sold to P.

(ii) These 10 qualified beneficiaries are M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the asset sale to P. Under these facts, P is a successor employer described in paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8. Thus, a group health plan of P has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to these 10 M&A qualified beneficiaries.

(iii) The one employee that P does not hire and the family members of that employee are also M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the sale. A group health plan of P also has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to these M&A qualified beneficiaries.

(iv) The employees who continue in employment in connection with the asset sale (and their family members) and who were covered under a group health plan of S on the day before the sale are not M&A qualified beneficiaries because P is a successor employer to S in connection with the asset sale. Thus, no group health plan of P has any obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to these continuing employees with respect to the qualifying event that resulted from their losing coverage under S's plan in connection with the asset sale.

Example 7. (i) Selling Group S provides group health plan coverage to employees at each of its two operating divisions. S sells the assets of one of its divisions to Buying Group P1. Under the terms of the group health plan covering the employees at the division being sold, their coverage will end on the date of the sale. P1 hires all but one of those employees, gives them the same positions that they had with S before the sale, and provides them with coverage under a group health plan.

(ii) Under these facts, a group health plan of S has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the sale to P1. (If an M&A qualified beneficiary first became covered under P1's plan after electing COBRA continuation coverage under S's plan, then S's plan could terminate the COBRA continuation coverage once the M&A qualified beneficiary became covered under P1's plan, provided that the remaining conditions of Q&A-2 of § 54.4980B-7 were satisfied.)

(iii) Several months after the sale to P1, S sells the assets of its remaining division to Buying Group P2, and S ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee on the date of that sale. Thus, under Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-7, S ceases to have an obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to any qualified beneficiary on the date of the sale to P2. P1 and P2 are unrelated organizations.

(iv) Even if it was foreseeable that S would sell its remaining division to an unrelated third party after the sale to P1, under these facts the cessation of S to provide any group health plan to any employee on the date of the sale to P2 is not in connection with the asset sale to P1. Thus, even after the date S ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee, no group health plan of P1 has any obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the asset sale to P1 by S. If P2 is a successor employer under the rules of paragraph (c) of this Q&A-8 and maintains one or more group health plans after the sale, then a group health plan of P2 would have an obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the asset sale to P2 by S (but in such a case employees of S before the sale who continued working for P2 after the sale would not be M&A qualified beneficiaries). However, even in such a case, no group health plan of P2 would have an obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the asset sale to P1 by S. Thus, under these facts, after S has ceased to provide any group health plan to any employee, no plan has an obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the asset sale to P1.

Example 8. (i) Selling Group S provides group health plan coverage to employees at each of its operating divisions. S sells substantially all of the assets of all of its divisions to Buying Group P. P hires most of S's employees on the date of the purchase of S's assets, retains those employees in the same positions that they had with S before the purchase, and continues the business operations of those divisions without substantial change or interruption. P provides these employees with coverage under a group health plan. S continues to employ a few employees for the principal purpose of winding up the affairs of S in preparation for liquidation. S continues to provide coverage under a group health plan to these few remaining employees for several weeks after the date of the sale and then ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee.

(ii) Under these facts, the cessation by S to provide any group health plan to any employee is in connection with the asset sale to P. Because of this, and because P continued the business operations associated with those assets without substantial change or interruption, P is a successor employer to S with respect to the asset sale. Thus, a group health plan of P has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to M&A qualified beneficiaries with respect to the sale beginning on the date that S ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee. (A group health plan of S retains this obligation for the several weeks after the date of the sale until S ceases to provide any group health plan to any employee.)

Q-9: Can the cessation of contributions by an employer to a multiemployer group health plan be a qualifying event?

A-9: The cessation of contributions by an employer to a multiemployer group health plan is not itself a qualifying event, even though the cessation of contributions may cause current employees (and their spouses and dependent children) to lose coverage under the multiemployer plan. An event coinciding with the employer's cessation of contributions (such as a reduction of hours of employment in the case of striking employees) will constitute a qualifying event if it otherwise satisfies the requirements of Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-4.

Q-10: If an employer stops contributing to a multiemployer group health plan, does the multiemployer plan have the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to a qualified beneficiary who was receiving coverage under the multiemployer plan on the day before the cessation of contributions and who is, or whose qualifying event occurred in connection with, a covered employee whose last employment prior to the qualifying event was with the employer that has stopped contributing to the multiemployer plan?

A-10: (a) In general, yes. (See Q&A-3 of § 54.4980B-2 for a definition of multiemployer plan.) If, however, the employer that stops contributing to the multiemployer plan makes group health plan coverage available to (or starts contributing to another multiemployer plan that is a group health plan with respect to) a class of the employer's employees formerly covered under the multiemployer plan, the plan maintained by the employer (or the other multiemployer plan), from that date forward, has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to any qualified beneficiary who was receiving coverage under the multiemployer plan on the day before the cessation of contributions and who is, or whose qualifying event occurred in connection with, a covered employee whose last employment prior to the qualifying event was with the employer.

(b) The rules of Q&A-9 of this section and this Q&A-10 are illustrated by the following examples; in each example, each group health plan is subject to COBRA:

Example 1. (i) Employer Z employs a class of employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement and participating in multiemployer group health plan M. As required by the collective bargaining agreement, Z has been making contributions to M. Z experiences financial difficulties and stops making contributions to M but continues to employ all of the employees covered by the collective bargaining agreement. Z's cessation of contributions to M causes those employees (and their spouses and dependent children) to lose coverage under M. Z does not make group health plan coverage available to any of the employees covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

(ii) After Z stops contributing to M, M continues to have the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to any qualified beneficiary who experienced a qualifying event that preceded or coincided with the cessation of contributions to M and whose coverage under M on the day before the qualifying event was due to an employment affiliation with Z. The loss of coverage under M for those employees of Z who continue in employment (and the loss of coverage for their spouses and dependent children) does not constitute a qualifying event.

Example 2. (i) The facts are the same as in Example 1 except that B, one of the employees covered under M before Z stops contributing to M, is transferred into management. Z maintains a group health plan for managers and B becomes eligible for coverage under the plan on the day of B's transfer.

(ii) Under these facts, Z does not make group health plan coverage available to a class of employees formerly covered under M after B becomes eligible under Z's group health plan for managers. Accordingly, M continues to have the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to any qualified beneficiary who experienced a qualifying event that preceded or coincided with the cessation of contributions to M and whose coverage under M on the day before the qualifying event was due to an employment affiliation with Z.

Example 3. (i) Employer Y employs two classes of employees—skilled and unskilled laborers—covered by a collective bargaining agreement and participating in multiemployer group health plan M. As required by the collective bargaining agreement, Y has been making contributions to M. Y stops making contributions to M but continues to employ all the employees covered by the collective bargaining agreement. Y's cessation of contributions to M causes those employees (and their spouses and dependent children) to lose coverage under M. Y makes group health plan coverage available to the skilled laborers immediately after their coverage ceases under M, but Y does not make group health plan coverage available to any of the unskilled laborers.

(ii) Under these facts, because Y makes group health plan coverage available to a class of employees previously covered under M immediately after both classes of employees lose coverage under M, Y alone has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to any qualified beneficiary who experienced a qualifying event that preceded or coincided with the cessation of contributions to M and whose coverage under M on the day before the qualifying event was due to an employment affiliation with Y, regardless of whether the employment affiliation was as a skilled or unskilled laborer. However, the loss of coverage under M for those employees of Y who continue in employment (and the loss of coverage for their spouses and dependent children) does not constitute a qualifying event.

Example 4. (i) Employer X employs a class of employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement and participating in multiemployer group health plan M. As required by the collective bargaining agreement, X has been making contributions to M. X experiences financial difficulties and is forced into bankruptcy by its creditors. X continues to employ all of the employees covered by the collective bargaining agreement. X also continues to make contributions to M until the current collective bargaining agreement expires, on June 30, 2001, and then X stops making contributions to M. X's employees (and their spouses and dependent children) lose coverage under M effective July 1, 2001. X does not enter into another collective bargaining agreement covering the class of employees covered by the expired collective bargaining agreement. Effective September 1, 2001, X establishes a group health plan covering the class of employees formerly covered by the collective bargaining agreement. The group health plan also covers their spouses and dependent children.

(ii) Under these facts, M has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available from July 1, 2001 until August 31, 2001, and the group health plan established by X has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available from September 1, 2001 until the obligation ends (see Q&A-1 of § 54.4980B-7) to any qualified beneficiary who experienced a qualifying event that preceded or coincided with the cessation of contributions to M and whose coverage under M on the day before the qualifying event was due to an employment affiliation with X. The loss of coverage under M for those employees of X who continue in employment (and the loss of coverage for their spouses and dependent children) does not constitute a qualifying event.

Example 5. (i) Employer W employs a class of employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement and participating in multiemployer group health plan M. As required by the collective bargaining agreement, W has been making contributions to M. The employees covered by the collective bargaining agreement vote to decertify their current employee representative effective January 1, 2002 and vote to certify a new employee representative effective the same date. As a consequence, on January 1, 2002 they cease to be covered under M and commence to be covered under multiemployer group health plan N.

(ii) Effective January 1, 2002, N has the obligation to make COBRA continuation coverage available to any qualified beneficiary who experienced a qualifying event that preceded or coincided with the cessation of contributions to M and whose coverage under M on the day before the qualifying event was due to an employment affiliation with W. The loss of coverage under M for those employees of W who continue in employment (and the loss of coverage for their spouses and dependent children) does not constitute a qualifying event.

[T.D. 8928, 66 FR 1855, Jan. 10, 2001]